https://www.freshersnow.

com/previous-year-question-papers/
Engtheeing SeNice (11 Exam,2019
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
T.B.C. : VBY-S-CVL Test Booklet Series
1111E11 11111111111
C3 1613113.2
Serial

TEST BOOKLET
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS
IMMEDIATELY AFaR THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer
Sheet liable for rejection.
You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet
This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is
more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose
ONLY ONE response for each item.
You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions
in the Answer Sheet.
All items carry equal marks.
Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand - over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.
Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.
There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
If a question is left blank i e no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

VBY-S-CVL ( 1 — A)
 https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

1. Which of the following statements are wholly 4. Which one of the following statements is not
correct regarding broken-brick aggregate correct with respect to the properties of
useable in concretes? cement?
Broken-brick aggregate is obtained
by crushing waste bricks; and it Highly reactive Pozzolanas enhance the
has a density varying between early age strength of the composite
1000 kg/m3 — 1200 kg/m3.
cement.
Such aggregate is usable in concrete for
foundation in light buildings, floorings Pozzolanic activity refines pore
and walkways.
structure which decreases electrolytic
Such aggregate may also be used in
light-weight reinforced concrete floors. resistance of concrete.
1 and 2 only
The expansion due to alkali-silica
2 and 3 only
reaction can be controlled by
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 replacement of as high as 60% of OPC
with high-calcium Pozzolana.
2. In handling air-entraining admixtures the
beneficial amount of entrained air depends Such high amounts of replacement
upon certain factors like cements result in higher accelerated
Type and quantity of air-entraining agent carbonation depths compared to pure
Water-cement ratio of the mix
use of OPC only.
Strength of aggregates
Extent of compaction of concrete
1, 2 and" only 5. Hydration of which compound is responsible
1, 2 and 4 only for increase in strength of cement in later
1, 3 and 4 only age?
1, 2, 3 and 4
Tr-calcium Aluminate (C3A)
3. Which one of the following statements is not
Tetra-calcium Alummoferrite (C4AF)
correct with respect to fly ash?
As part replaceinent of cement in the Tr-calcium Silicate (C35)
range of 15% — 30%, fly ash reduces the
strength in the initial period, but once Di-calcium Silicate (C25)
the Pozzolanic process sets in, higher
strength can be obtained.
Fly ash as a part replacement of sand 6. The creep strain of cement attains its
has a beneficial effect on strength even terminal value by
at early age.
Fly ash as a part replacement of sand is 1 year
economical.
2 years
A simultaneous replacement of cement
and fine aggregates enables the
5 years
strength at a specified age to be
equalled depending upon the water
6 months
content.

VBY-S-CVL ( 2 — A)
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

7. Which of the following methods will help in 10. Poisson's ratio of concrete Ii can be
reducing segregation in concrete? determined using the formula
1. Not using vibrator to spread the (1 — p)
concrete (a)
(2 nL (1— 2p) (ii- p.)
Reducing the continued vibration
V (1+ p)
Improving the cohesion of a lean dry
(2 iaL) — (1— 2p) (1 + p.)
mix through addition of a further small
quantity of water
1, 2 and 3 2 nL (1 — 21..0 (1 +
1 and 2 only
`472 j_ (1- µ2 )
1 and 3 only
2 nL (1 — 2p.) (1 +
2 and 3 only
where
8. On an average, in a 125 mm slump, the V is pulse velocity, in mm/s,
concrete may lose about (in first one hour) n is resonant frequency of longitudinal
15 mm of slump vibration, in Hz,
L is distance between transducers, in mm.
25 mm of slump
40 mm of slump
11. Whick one of the following
50 mm of slump methods/techniques will be used for placing of
concrete 'in dewatered 'Caissons or Coffer'
9. Permeability in concrete is studied towards dams?
providing for, or guarding against, which of Tremie method
the following features?
Placing in bags
The penetration by materials in solution
may adversely affect the durability of Prepacked concrete
concrete; moreover, aggressive liquids
In-the-dry practice
'attack' the concrete.
In case of reinforced concrete, ingress of
12. The minimum cement content (kg/m3) for a
moisture and air will result in corrosion
of steel leading to an increase in volume pre-specified strength of concrete (using
of steel, resulting in cracking and standard notations) premised on 'free
swilling of the concrete cover. water-cement ratio' will be as

The moisture penetration depends on

(a) 1 ,
permeability and if the concrete can 1000 So 1000
become saturated with water it is less
vulnerable to frost action. Water Content
(b)
Water Cement ratio
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(h) 1 and 2 only Water Content x Water Cement ratio
1 and 3 only 100 F
2 and 3 only C+F

VBY-S-CVL ( 3—A)
 https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

13. A bar specimen of 36 mm diameter is 16. The normal stresses on two mutually
subjected to a pull of 90 kN during a tension perpendicular planes are 140 N/mm2 (Tensile)
test. The extension on a gauge length of
and 70 N/mm2 (Tensile). If the maximum
200 rum is measured to be 0-089 mm and the
change in diameter to be 0-0046 mm. The shear stress is 45 N/mm2, the shear stress on
Poisson's ratio will be these planes will be nearly

0-287 20-9 N/mm2

0-265
24-6 N/mm2
0-253
0-241 28-3 N/mm2

32-0 N/mm2
14. A steel rod 15 m long is at a temperature of
15°C. The values of a = 12 x 10-6m and
17. The normal stresses on the two mutually
E = 200 GN/m2 are adopted. When the
perpendicular planes at a point are 120 MPa
temperature is raised to 65°C, what is the free
(Tensile) and 60 MPa (Tensile). If the shear
expansion of the length; and if this expansion
stress across these planes is 30 MPa, the
of the rod is fully prevented, what is the
principal stresses will be nearly
temperature stress produced?
124 MPa (Tensile) and 24 MPa
5 mm and 120 MN/m2
(Compressive)
9 mm and 120 MN/m2
132 MPa (Tensile) and 24 MPa
5 mm and 150 MN/m2 (Compressive)
9 mm and 150 MN/m2 124 MPa (Tensile) and 48 MPa (Tensile)

15. A bar of uniform rectangular section of area A 132 MPa (Tensile) and 48 MPa (Tensile)
is subjected to an axial tensile load P; its
Young's modulus is E and its Poisson's ratio is 18. At a point in a material, the stresses acting on
Its volumetric strain e is two planes at right angles to each other are :
az = 120 MPa and ay = -200 MPa and
Ali; (1 + —
3 = - 80 MPa. The maximum shear stress on
the element will be nearly
AE
P (1 + fl1)
142 MPa

AP (1 - —
m
2) 155 MPa

167 MPa
AE
P - e)
179 MPa

VBY-S-CVL (4-A)
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

19. The principal stresses in the wall of a 22. Which one of the following statements is
container are 40 MN/mm2 and 80 MN/mm2 correct for the rotating shafts transmitting
0
The normal makes an angle of 30 with a power?
direction of maximum principal stress. The
(a) Lower the frequency of shaft lower will
resultant stresses (in magnitude) in the plane
will be nearly be the torque

40 MN/mm2 Higher the frequency of shaft lower will

be the torque

Frequency of the shaft does not

influence the torque

Higher the frequency of shaft higher

will be the torque

40 MN/mm2

84 MN/mm2
23. The maximum shear stress induced in a solid
72 MN/mm2 circular shaft of diameter 15 cm, when the

64 MN/mm2 shaft transmits 150 kW ower at 180 rpm,

will be
58 MN/mm2
16 N/mm2
20. The change in shearing force between two
points on the beam is equal to the area of 14 N/mm2
Loading diagram between the two
12 N/mm2
points
Shear force diagram between the two 10 N/mm2
points
Bending moment diagram between the
two points
M/EI diagram between the two points 24. A closely coiled helical spring made of 10 mm
diameter steel wire has 15 coils of 100 mm
21. Which one of the following statements
mean diameter. The spring is subjected to an
specifies shear flow?
axial load of 100 N. For a modulus of rigidity
Flow of shear force along the beam
of 816 x 104 N/mm2, the stiffness of the
It is the product of the shear stress at
any level and the corresponding width b spring will be nearly
(of the section) 5-9 N/mm
Unbalanced force on any side of given
6-8 N/mm
section divided by area of section
7-7 N/mm
The deformation at any level due to
8-8 N/mm
sudden variation in shear stress

VBY-S-CVL ( 5—A) .
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

25. The shear-force diagram of a beam is shown 28. A 1.5 m long column has a circular
in the figure.
cross-section of 50 mm diameter.
Consider Rankine's formula with values of
800 N 1000 N 1
fc = 560 N/mm2, a - for pinned ends and
800 N 1600
1200 N
factor of safety of 3. If one end of the column
is fixed and the other end is free, the safe load
ft=
will be
The total of the vertically downward loads on
the beam is 9948 N

2600 N 9906 N

3000 N 9864 N
9822 N
3400 N

3800N • 29. A continuous beam with uniform flexural

rigidity is shown in the figure.
26. A beam of triangular cross-section is subjected •
40 kN
to a shear force of 50 kN. The base width of
the section is 250 mm and the height is
At Ba AC
200 mm The beam is placed with its base 14 2 mo14 2 2
4 6m
horizontal. The shear stress at neutral axis
will be nearly The moment at B is
18 kNm
2-2 N/mm2
16 kNm
2.7 N/mm2
14 kNm
3.2 N/mm2
12 kNm
3•7 N/mm2
30. The maximum shear stress across a circular
section is
27. A timber beam, 100 ram wide and 150 mm
deep, supports a UDL over a span of 2 m. If (a) (±-
1 Average shear stress
the safe stresses are not to exceed 28 MPa in 3

bending and 2 MPa in shear, the maximum

Average shear stress
load that the beam can support is (b) (2

16 kN/m -
5 ) Average shear stress
20 kN/m (c) (4
4?.
24 kN/m Average shear stress
(d) 5
(1
28 kN/m

VBY-S-CVL — A)
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

31. Which of the following statements are correct 34. Two wheel loads 80 kN and 200 kN
in respect of temperature effect on a respectively spaced 2 m apart, move - on a
load-carrying three-hinged arch? girder of span 16 m. Any wheel load can lead
No stresses are produced in a three-hinged the other. The maximum negative shear force
arch due to temperature change alone. at a section 4 m from the left end will be
There is a decrease in horizontal thrust —50 kN
due to rise in temperature.
There is an increase in horizontal thrust —60 kN
due to rise in temperature. —70 kN
1 and 2 only —80 kN
1 and 3 only
2 only 35. The maximum possible span for a cable
3 only
supported at the ends at the same level
32. Consider the frame as shown in the figure. (assuming it to be in a parabolic profile)
1
HE 200N allowing a central dip of — of the span with
10
2 permissible stress of 150 N/mm2 (where the
steel weighs 78,000 N/m3) will be nearly
1270 m
D
14-4 m-1.14— 4m-41 1330 m
The magnitude of the horizontal support 1388 m
reaction at E is
1450 m
400 kN
300 kN 36. A three-hinged arch has a span of 30 m and a
250 kN rise of 10 m. The arch carries UDL of
200 kN 60 kN/m on the left half of its span. It also
carries two concentrated loads of 160 kN and
33. The load system in the figure moves from left 100 kN at 5 m and 10 m from the right end.
to right on a girder of span 10 m.
The horizontal thrust will be nearly
150 kN
446 kN
120 kN
7O kN 436 kN
60 kN
428 kN
418 kN
A4
37. An unstable vibratory motion due to combined
m
bending and torsion which occurs in flexible
The maximum bending moment for the girder plate like structures is called
is nearly
Galloping
820 kNm
Ovalling
847 kNm
874 kNm Mutter
890 kNm Oscillation

VBY-S-CVL ( 7—A)
 https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

A propped cantilever beam of span / and 41. A beam column for a non-sway column in a
constant plastic moment capacity M. carries a building frame is subjected to a factored axial
concentrated load at mid-span. The load at load of 500 kN, factored moment at bottom of
collapse will be
column of 45 kNm. For ISHB 200, the values
2 MP are A = 4750 mm2, yy = 451, h = 200 mm,
b = 200 mm, bf = 9 mm and the effective length
4M is 0.8 L. Its buckling load will be
910 kN
930 kN
6 MP 950 kN
1
980 kN
8M
(d) P
42. Which of the following assumptions are
correct for ideal beam behaviour?
The compression flange of the beam is
A steel plate is subjected to tension. The.
restrained from moving laterally.
tensile force is applied over a width 'a'
The tension flange of the beam is
whereas the gross width of the plate is 'b'. The restrained from moving laterally.
dispersion of the force from the point of Any form of local buckling is prevented.
application is at about 30° with the axis and 2 and 3 only
extends to a maximum width of 12 times the 1 and 3 only
thickness t of the plate. The effective width 1 only
which comes into action will be 3 only
2a + 12t
43. In which one of the following industrial
a + 12t roofing contexts, is the loading carried by the
combination of pure flexure and flexure due to
a + 24t shear induced by the relative deformation
2a + 24t between the ends of the top and bottom chord
members?
Vierendeel girders
A wind brace is to be provided between two Scissors girders
columns spaced at 5 m, at an inclination of Lenticular girders
30° with the horizontal, to resist a tension of Mansard girders
320 kN developed by a wind force. The
effective area required will be nearly 44. Bearing stiffeners are provided 0
(considering 150 N/m2 as a relevant factor) At the ends of plate girders
At the ends of plate girder and on both
1670 mm2 faces of the web
1640 mm2 At the ends of plate girder and only on
one face of the web
1600 mm2 At the points of concentrated loads, to
protect the web from the direct
1570 mm2 compressive loads

VBY-S-CVL ( 8 —A)
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

45. If the cost of purlins/unit area is p and the 48. Consider a triangular section with base b and
cost of roof covering/unit area is r, then cost of height h as shown in the figure.
trusses/unit area / for an economical spacing A
of the roof trusses will be
p+r
2p + r
p + 2r
2p + 2r
b

46. A welded plate girder of span 25 m is laterally The• shape factor will be nearly
restrained throughout its length. It has to 2.3
carry- a load of 80 kN/m over the whole 3.2
span besides its weight. If K = 200 and 41
f = 250 MPa, the thickness of web will be 5.0
nearly 49. Fatigue in RCC beams will not be a problem if
10 mm the number of cycles is less than
20,000
14 mm
25,000 •
16 mm (c). 30,000
20 ram (d) 35,000

50. The desired characteristic strength of a mix is

47. A propped cantilever ABCD is loaded as 20 N/mm2. The standard deviation is
shown in figure. If it is of uniform 4 N/mm2 for 150 mm size of concrete cubes;
cross-section, the collapse load of the beam and K = 1-645. The average strength of the
will be nearly cubes will be nearly
W 38.2 N/mm2
32-4 N/mm2
A
r I8
B Mp eT mp D 26.6 N/mm2
L L L 22.8 N/mm2
—SI—
51. A circular column is subjected to an
un-factored load of 1600 kN. The effective
Mp length of the column is 3-5 m, the concrete is
65
M25, and the value of pg = AS —2% for
Ag
Mp
5.6 Fe 415 steel. The design diameter of the
column will be nearly
Mp
4-7 446 mm
432 mm
(c)' 424 mm
3 8 MP
L- (d) 410 mm

VBY-S-CVL ( 9—A)
 https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

52. A strut is made of a circular bar, 5 m long and 56. Which of the following statements are correct
pin-jointed at both ends. When freely with reference to ensuring minimum
supported the bar gives a mid-span deflection shrinkage of prestressed concrete?
of 10 mm under a load of 80 N at the centre. The water-cement ratio and proportion
The critical load will be of cement paste should be kept
minimum to reduce shrinkage.
8485 N
Aggregates of larger size, well graded
8340 N for minimum void, need a smaller
amount of cement paste, and attendant
8225 N
shrinkage will be smaller.
8110 N Harder and denser aggregates of low
water absorptions and high modulus of
53. The recommended imposed load on staircase elasticity will exhibit small shrinkage.
1 and 2 only
in residential buildings as per IS 875 is
1 and 3 only
5.0 kN/m2 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
3-0 kN/m2
57. During earthquakes, the corner and edge
. F5 kN/m2 columns may be subjected to
Uniaxial bending
F3 kN/step Biaxial bending
Combined biaxial bending and torsion
54. A 230 mm brick masonry wall is •to be Combined biaxial bending and tension
provided with a reinforced concrete footing on 58. The minimum number of bars required in a
site having soil with safe bearing capacity of rectangular column for an earthquake
125 kN/m2 , unit weight of 17.5 kN/m3 and resistant design, is
angle of shearing resistance of 30°. The depth 4
6
of footing will be nearly
8
0.8 m 10
0.7 in 59. The permissible or allowable compressive
stress fa, of brick masonry does not depend on
0.6 m
Type and strength of bricks
0.5 m Efflorescence of bricks
Strength of mortar
55. A rectangular beam 200 mm wide has an Slenderness ratio
effective depth of 350 mm. It is subjected to a 60. A masonry dam 8 m high, 1.5 m wide at the
bending moment of 24,000 Nm. The top and 5 m wide at the base retains water to
permissible stresses are c = 5 N/mm2, a depth of 7.5 m, the water face of the dam
being vertical. If the weight of water is
t = 140 N/inm2; and m is 18. The required
9.81 kN/ma, weight of masonry is 22 kN/m3,
area of tensile reinforcement will be
the maximum intensity of stress developed at
688 mm2 the base will be nearly

778 mm2 196 kN/m2

182 kN/m2
864 mm2
160 kN/m2
954 mm2
148 kN/m2

VBY-S-CVL ( 10 — A)
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

61. A front-end loader on a given job moves a load 64. Consider the following assembly with
of 1:5 m3 of loose soil in one cycle consisting of different operations :
loading-lifting-travelling-unloading-return
trip-and-ready for next loading. If each cycle
time is 1.2 minutes, the actual output will be

75 m3/hour

70 m3/hour

65 m3/hour Standard time,

Operation
minutes
60 m3/hour A 60
B 65
C 29
D 37
62. Which of the following techniques belong to E 28
'Project Time Plan'? F 63
G 36
Critical path method
H 126
Precedence network analysis K 64
Line of balance technique There are 250 working days in a year to
produce 4000 units in a year. The minimum
Linear programme chart
number of work stations required will be
13
1, 2 and 3 only 12
11
1,2 and 4 only
10
3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 65. Flattening and smoothing the road surface by
scrapping is called
Compaction
Consolidation
63. A construction equipment has an initial cost
Grading
of 2,00,000 and salvage value of? 50,000 at
Ditch digging
the end of an economic life of 5 years. The rate
of straight-line depreciation and total 66. The amount of time by which the start of the
activity may be delayed without interfering
depreciation will be
with the start of any succeeding activity is
0.1 and? 1,50,000 called
Activity float
0-2 and? 1,50,000
Free float
0.1 and? 1,00,000
Total float
0.2 and 1,00,000 Interfering float

VBY-S-CVL ( 11 — A.)
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

67. A crew consisting of two carpenters and one 70. A systematic measurement and evaluation of
helper can fix 10 m2 of a slab form work in the way in which an organization manages its
hours and the hourly labour rate of a health and safety programme against a series
carpenter is 85 and for a helper is 69-50. of specific and attainable standards is called
An average hourly rate per worker of the crew
will be nearly Safety inspection
90
Safety audit
80
Safety plan
70
t 60 Safety committee

68. A project with the production cost of 71. On a construction project, the contractor, on
100 crores, has 20,000 man-months as
an average, employed 100 workers with
direct labour, of which 60% is non-productive
time The labour cost as estimated while 50 hours working per week. The project lasted
tendering is 20% of project cost. If 15% of the for 35 weeks and, during this period,
wastage resulting from non-productive time is 14 disabling injuries occurred. The
eliminated by using improved methods, the
injury-frequency rate will be (based on one
resulting saving in labour cost will be
lakh of man hours worked)
14.5%
18-5% (a) 5
22-5%
(b) 6
26-5%
(c) 7

69. Consider the following data: (d) 8

Work is carried out by a contractor employing
labour with 25% overtime per day 72. The graphical representations wherein long
Working for 5 days a week duration jobs are broken down to key
Contractor peak manpower is 40 per day segmental elements, wherein events are
Build-up period is 20% shown in chronological order without
Rundown period is 10% attention to logical sequencing, and wherein
Total effort in standard man days is 1200 interdependencies between the events is not
highlighted, is referred to as
The duration of work by Trapezoidal
manpower distribution pattern will be CPM

5-5 weeks Milestone chart

6.5 weeks
GANTT chart
7-5 weeks
PERT
8-5 weeks

VBY-S-CVL (2—A
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

73. A ship weighs 127 MN. On filling the ship's 76. Which of the following assumptions is/are
boats on one side with water weighing 600 kN made in the analysis of hydraulic jump?
with the mean distance of the boats from the It is assumed that before and after jump
centre line of the ship being 10 m, the angle of formation the flow is essentially
displacement of the plumb line is 2°16'. The two-dimensional and that the pressure
metacentric height will be nearly distribution is hydrostatic.
(Take sin 2°16 = 0.04, cos 2°16' =09992 and The length of the jump is small so that
tan 2°16' =004) the losses due to friction on the channel
floor are small and hence neglected.
F73 m
The channel floor is horizontal or the
F42 m slope is so gentle that the weight
component of the water mass
1.1.8 m
comprising the jump is very high.
0.87 m I only
2 only
74. For frictionless adiabatic flow of compressive
3 only
fluid, the Bernoulli's equation with usual
1, 2 and 3
notations is
2
k P1 V1 77. Water is to be pumped out of a deep well
-
k — 1 wi 2g 1+z
— under a total head of 95 m. A number of
2 identical pumps of design speed 1000 rpm and
k P2 , 2 specific speed 900 rpm with a rated capacity
+ Z2 + hL
k — 1 w2 2g of 150 Us are available. The number of pumps
2 required will be
k pi V1
+ + -
k — 1 wi 2g Z1 — 1

k P2 + V22 + z 3
k — 1 w2 2g 2 5
2 2
PI VI P2 + V 2 + z 7
(C) - + - + Z +11 — 2
w1
W1 2g 1 w2 2g
78. Consider the following data from a test on
k P , V,2 Pelton wheel:
(d) Zi + H=
k — 1 wi 2g m Head at the base of the nozzle = 32 m
2
Discharge of the nozzle = 018 m3/s
- +z +
P2 +172
W2 2g Area of the jet = 7500 mm2
Power available at the shaft = 44 kW
75. The phenomenon of generation of lift by Mechanical efficiency = 94%
rotating an object placed in a free stream is
The power lost in the nozzle will be nearly
known as
3.9 kW
Coanda effect
Magnus effect 4-7 kW

Scale effect 3.5 kW

Buoyancy effect 2.3 kW

VSY-S-CVL ( 13 — A )
 https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

79. A certain hydropower plant utilizes the flow 82. A plate 0.025 mm distant from a fixed plate
as it occurs, without any provision for storage. moves at 60 cm/s and requires a force of
It is premised that a defined minimum dry 0.2 kg&m2 to maintain this speed. The
weather flow is available. Such a plant is dynamic viscosity of the fluid between the
classified as
plates will be nearly
Diverted-flow plant
9-2 x 10-10 kgft/cm2
Pooled storage plant
8-3 x 10-1° kgfs/cm2
Base-load plant
7.4 x 10-10 kgfs/cm2
Run-of-river plant
6-5 x 10-10 kgfs/cm2

80. Two turbo-generators, each of capacity

25,000 kW, have been installed at a hydel 83. Which of the following are component parts
for an oil pressure governor in modern
power station. The load on the hydel plant
turbines?
varies from 15,000 kW to 40,000 kW. The
Servomotor, known as relay cylinder
total installed plant capacity and the load
factor are nearly Oil sump

40,000 kW and 68-8% Oil pump which is driven by belt

connected to turbine main shaft
50,000 kW and 68-8%
4. Draft tube
40,000 kW and 62.3%
50,000 kW and 62-3% 1, 2 and 3 only
1,2 and 4 only

81. An airfoil is a streamlined body as shown in 1, 3 and 4 only

the figure below. Because of the streamlining 2, 3 and 4.only
of the body, the separation occurs only at the
extreme rear of the body, resulting in
84. A double-acting reciprocating pump having
piston area 01 m2 has a stroke 0-30 m long.
The pump is discharging 2-4 m3 of water per
minute at 45 rpm through a height of 10 m.
The slip of the pump and power required to
A very high pressure drag
drive the pump will be nearly
A small wake and consequently small 0-005 m3/s and 4-8 kW
pressure drag
0-003 m3/s and 4-8 kW
A moderate pressure drag
0-005 m3/s and 4-4 kW

No pressure drag 0-003 m3/s and 4-4 kW

VBY-S-CVL ( 14 - A)
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

85. In intensity-duration analysis by Sherman, 88. The coefficient of transmissibility T for a

the intensity of rainfall i is represented as confined aquifer can be determined by a
pumping-out test together with other relevant
bn
(a) observations. The applicable formula is
(t + a)
(where Q = Discharge, and As = Difference in
an drawdowns in two wells)
(b)

2-72 AS

172 /T
ES
-F
Q es
2-72
where t is time and a, b, n are constants for
the area.
Q /TS .
2-72
86. Which one of the following points should be
kept in mind while selecting the site for a rain
gauge station? 89. The volume of water below the minimum pool
The site where a rain gauge is set up level in a reservoir is known as
should be close to a meteorological Useful storage
observatory.
The rain gauge should be on the top of a Surcharge storage
hill. Dead storage
A fence, if erected to protect the rain
gauge from cattle etc. should be located Bank storage
within twice the height of the fence.
The distance between the rain gauge
and the nearest object should be at least 90. Depending upon the source from which the
twice the height of the object. water is drawn, flow irrigation can be
'sub-divided into
87. Which of the following statements relates to a
River canal irrigation
retarding reservoir?
There are no gates at the outlets and Reservoir or tank irrigation
hence the possibility of human error in
reservoir operation is eliminated. Combined storage and lift irrigation
The high cost of gate installation and
Combined storage and diversion
also its operation is saved.
irrigation
An automatic regulation may cause•
coincidence of flood crest farther Which of the above designations are relevant?
downstream where two or more
channels taking off from retarding 1, 2 and 3 only
reservoirs join together.
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only

VBY-S-CVL ( 15 — A)
 https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

9.1.1, &insider the following data 94. Consider the following data while designing
Root ione depth = 2 m an expansion transition for a canal by Mitra's
method:
Existing water content = 5%
Length of flume = 16 m
Dry density of soil = 15 kN/m3
Width of throat = 9 m
Water applied to the soil = 500 ra3
Width of canal = 15 m
Water loss due to evaporation and deep If Bx is the width at any distance x from the
percolation = 10%
filmed section, the values of Bx at x = 8 m
Area of plot = 1000 m2
and at x = 16 m are nearly
The field capacity of the soil will be nearly
10.8 m and 15 m
16.8%
11-3m and 15 m
17-7%
10.8 m and 13 m
18-8%
11.3 m and 13 m
19.7%

95. Consider the following data for a drain:

92. Consider the following data for irrigation
water: L =50 m, a = 10 m, b = 10-3m, and
Milli-equivalents k = 1 x 10-5 m/s
Concentration
per litre
If the drains carry 1% of average annual
1 Na+ 24 rainfall in 24 hrs, the average annual rainfall
3-6 for which this system has been designed will
Ca'
be
3' me+ 2 78 cm
The Sodium-Absorption Ratio WAR) is nearly 84 cm
(a) 13.1 90 cm
14.3 96 cm
15.5
16-7 96. The purpose of constructing a 'Groyne' is to
Expand a river channel to improve its
99. Consider the following statements with depth
respect to weir under discussion: Encourage meandering
1. Its design corresponds to soft sandy Train the flow along a certain course
foundation.
Reduce the silting in the river bed
The difference in weir crest and
downstream river bed may not exceed
97. Which one of the following compounds of
3. When water passes over it, the nitrogen, when in excessive amounts in water,
longitudinal location of the formation of contributes to the illness known as infant
a hydraulic jump is variable. methemoglobinemia ?
Ammoniacal nitrogen
This weir is of the type
Vertical drop weir Albuminoid nitrogen
Masonry or concrete sloping weir Nitrite
Dry stone slope weir. Nitrate
Parabolic weir.

VBY-S-CVL ( 16 —'A),
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

98. Consider the following data regarding a 102. Critical dissolved oxygen (D.0.) deficit occurs
theoretical profile of a dam: in which one of the following zones of
Permissible value of compressible pollution of 'oxygen sag curve' in case of
stress a = 350 tonnes/m2 self-purification of natural streams?
Specific gravity of concrete s = 2.4 Zone of recovery
Uplift coefficient c = 0.6 m Zone of active decomposition
The value of y = 1 Zone of degradation
The height and base width will be nearly Zone of clear water
125 m and 63 m
175 m and 63 m 103. The MLSS concentration in an aeration tank is
125 m and 93 m 2000 mg// and the sludge volume after
175 m and 93 m 30 minutes of settling in a 1000 ml graduated
cylinder is 176 m/. The value of sludge density
99. Chlorine usage in the treatment of index (SDI) will be nearly
25,000 m3/day of water has been 9 kg/day. 3-34 g/m/
The residual chlorine after 10 minutes contact
2.22 glml
is 0.2 mg//. The chlorine demand of water
would be nearly 1.14 g/m/
0.28 mg// 0.26 g/m/
0.22 mg//
016 me 104. Which one of the following gases is the
012 me principal by-product of anaerobic
decomposition of the organic content in waste
100. The demand of water is 150 litres/head/day in water?
a city of one lakh population. The factor of
Carbon monoxide
safety is taken as 1.5, detention time as
4 h and overflow rate as 20,000 litres/day/m2. Ammonia
The area of 3 m deep plain sedimentation Hydrogen sulphide
tank as per surface loading consideration will Methane
be
1025 m2 105. Consider the following statements with
1075 m2 reference to the mixing of industrial waste
water with domestic waste water:
1125 m2
The industrial waste water can be
1175m2
mixed with domestic water when it has
101. The rain intensity over 54 hectares of land is higher BOD.
50 mm/h, 30% of area consists of roof surfaces The industrial waste water can be
with runoff rate as 0.9, 30% is open field with mixed with domestic water when the pH
runoff rate of 0.2 and remaining 40% is road value of industrial waste water is highly
network with runoff rate of 0.4. The storm alkaline.
water flow will be nearly Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2.6 m3/s 1 only
3.7 m3/s 2 only
4.8 m3/s Both 1 and 2
5.9 m3/s Neither 1 nor 2

VBY-S-CVL ( 17 — A )
 https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

106. The waste water from a factory having a pH of 110. The plastic limit and liquid limit of a soil are
10, contains KOH only For waste water 30% and 42% respectively. The percentage
-Volume change from liquid limit to dry state is
discharge is 80 m3/day. The total quantity of
35% of the dry volume. Similarly the
KOH per day will be nearly
percentage volume change from plastic limit
4-5 kg/day to dry state is 22% of the dry volume. The
shrinkage ratio will be nearly
5.4 kg/day
4-2
61 kg/day
3.1,
(ft) 72 kg/day 2-2
1.1
107. Fanning type of plume behaviour takes place
111. The ratio of a given volume change in a soil,
when
expressed as percentage of the dry volume, to
Super-adiabatic lapse rate prevails with the corresponding change in water content is
light to moderate wind speed called

Extreme inversion conditions exist in (a) Specific gravity of soil solids

the presence of light wind (h) Mass-specific gravity of soils
There exists a strong super-adiabatic Shrinkage ratio of soils
lapse rate above a surface of inversion Density ratio of soils
Plume is caught between two inversion
layers 112. A masonry dam is founded on pervious sand.
A factor of safety of 4 is required against
boiling. For the sand, n = 45% and Gs = 2-65.
108. A thermal power plant burns coal at the rate The maximum permissible upward hydraulic
of. 8 t/h. The coal has sulphur content of 4-5%. gradient will be nearly
The rate of emission of SO2 will be 0-18
180 g/s 0-23
0.28
200 g's
0.33
220 g's
240 gis 113. The representative liquid limit and plastic
limit values of a saturated consolidated clay
deposit are 60% and 30%, respectively. The
109. The property, of clays by virtue of which they saturated unit weight of the soil is 19 kN/m3.
regain, if left alone for a time, a part of the The water table is at 8 m below ground level.
strength lost due to remoulding at unaltered At a depth of 10 m from the ground surface,
the undrabaed shear strength of the soil will
moisture content, is known as
be nearly
Thixotropy 37.7 kN/m2
Sensitivity 33-5 kN/m2
Consistency 29-3 kN/m2
Activity 25-1 kN/m2

VBY-S-CVL (18—A).
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

114. A 6 in high retaining wall with a vertical back 117. The settlement due to secondary compression
is predominant in
has a backfill of silty sand with a slope of 100
for the backfill. With values of Granular soils
Kll = 760 kg/m2/m and Kv = 100 kg/m2/m, the Inorganic clays
total active earth pressure will approximately Organic clays
be
Very fine sand and silts
128 kN/m
134 kN/m 118. A raft foundation 10 m wide and 12 m long is
138 kN/m to be constructed in a clayey soil having shear
142 kN/m strength of 12 kN/m2. Unit weight of soil is
16 kN/m3. The ground surface carries a
115. The vertical stress at any point at a radial
surcharge of 20 kN/m2; the factor of safety is
distance r and at depth z as determined by
1-2 and the value of Ns = 5-7. The safe depth
using Boussinesq's influence factor KB and
of foundation will be nearly
Westergaard's influence factor Kw would be
almost same for (
— r ratios equal to or greater 8-2 m
z
than 7-3m
2-0 6-4m
1-8 5-5 m
1-5
1-2 119. The skin frictional resistance of a pile driven
in sand does not depend on
116. A strip footing 2 m in width, with its base at a Lateral earth pressure coefficient
depth of 1-5 m below ground surface, rests on Angle of friction between pile and soil
a saturated clay soil with ysat = 20 kN/m3; Pile material
Cu = 40 kN/m2; = 0; c' = 10 kN/m2; and Total stress analysis
= 20°. The natural water table is at 1 m
depth below ground level. As per 120. An excavation is made with a vertical
IS: 6403 — 1981, the ultimate bearing capacity face in a clay soil which has Cu = 50 kN/m2,
of this footing will be yt = 18 kN/m3 and sn = 0-261. The maximum
(taking the relevant Ns as 5-14) depth of a stable excavation will be nearly

10-6 m
327 kN/m2
12-4th
285 kN/m2
14-2 m
253 kN/m2
16-0 m
231 kN/m2

VBY-S-CVL ( 19 — A )
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

Reconnaissance survey for determining 125. In triangulation, in order to control the

feasibility and estimation of scheme falls
under the classification based on the accumulation of errors of length and azimuth
subsidiary bases are selected. At certain
Nature of the field of survey
stations, the astronomical observations for
Object of surveying
azimuth and longitude are also made. These
Instruments used
stations are called
Method employed
Transportation stations

A survey line BAC crosses a river, A and C Bowditch stations

being on the near and distant bonkg
Universe stations
respectively. Standing at D, a point 50 m
measured perpendicularly to AB from A, the Laplace stations
bearings of C and B are 320° and 230°
respectively, AB being 25 m. The width of the
river will be 126. A vertical photograph is taken at an altitude
80 m of 1200 m 'above mean sea level' (a.m.s./.) of a

90 m terrain lying at an elevation of 80 m a.m.s./.

The focal length of camera is 15 cm. The scale
100 m
of the photograph will be nearly
110 m
1 : 8376
123. In plane surveying where a graduated staff is 1 : 7467
observed either with horizontal line of sight or
inclined line of sight, the effect of refraction is 1 : 6558
to 1 : 5649
Increase the staff reading
Decrease the staff reading
127. Aerial photographs are required to be taken to
Neither increase nor decrease the staff cover an area of 150 km2. The longitudinal
reading
and side overlaps are to be 60% and 30%
Duplicate the staff reading
respectively. The scale of photograph is
1 cm = 100 m; and the size of each photograph
124. A sidereal day is the average lime taken by
is 20 cm x 20 cm. The minimum required
The Earth to move around the Sun once
number of photographs will be
The Moon to move around the Earth
once 170

158
The first point of Aries to cross the same
meridian successively 146
The Earth to move around its own axis 134
once

VBY-S-CVL ( 20—A)
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

128. Which one of the following conditions( is het 131. In an old map, a line AB was drawn to a
correct with respect to the transition curve?
magnetic bearing of 5°30', the magnetic
It should be tangential to the straight declination at the time being 1° East. If the
approaches at the two ends. present magnetic declination is 8°30' East,
It should meet the circular curve the line should be set to a magnetic bearing of
tangentially.
358°
Its curvature will necessarily be
2°
non-zero at the point of take-off from
the straight approaches. 6°30'
The rate of increase of curvature along
357°
the transition reach should match with
the increase of cant.
132. An maconformity is

A surface of erosion or non-deposition as

129. A circular curve has a long chord of 80 m and
detected in a sequence of rocks
a versed sine of 4 m. The height and ordinate
at a distance of 30 m from the mid-ordinate A layer of boulders and pebbles in a
will be nearly sequence of rocks
306m A layer of clay or shale in an igneous
2-72m mass
224m
A type ofjoint especially associated with
1.76 m
folded and faulted rocks

130. Two parallel railway lines are to be connected 133. Consider two cars approaching from the
by a reverse curve, each section having the
opposite directions at 90 km/h and 60 km/h. If
same radius. If the lines are 12 m apart and
the reaction time is 2.5 s, coefficient of friction
the maximum distance between tangent is 0.7 and brake efficiency is 50% in both the
points measured parallel to the straights is cases, the minimum sight distance required to
48 m, then the maximum allowable radius avoid a head-on collision will be nearly
will be
154 m
511m
523m 188 m

535m 212 m
54-7 m 236 m

VBY-S-CVL 21 — A )
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

134. What is the extra widening required (as 137. Which one of the following is not a part of
'speed and delay' studies?
nearest magnitude) for a pavement of 7 m
width on a horizontal curve of radius 200 m, if Floating car method
the longest wheel of vehicle expected on Vehicle number method
the road is 6.5 m and the design speed is
Interview technique
65 km/h ?
License number method
0-3 m

05m , 138. Consider the following data with respect to

the design of flexible pavement:
07 m
Design wheel load = 4200 kg
0.9 m
Tyre pressure = 6.0 kg/cm2

Elastic modulus = 150 kg/cm2

135. A vehicle moving at 40 km/h speed was
Permissible deflection = 0-25 cm
stopped by applying brake and the length of
the skid mark was 12.2 m. If the average skid (take TC 112 = 1-77, 7C112 = 0-564, = 0-318,
rc
resistance of the pavement is 0.70, the brake and ic2 = 9.87)
efficiency of the test vehicle will be nearly
The total thickness of flexible pavement for a
80% single layer elastic theory will be nearly

74% 42 cm

68% 47 cm

62% 51 cm

56 cm

136. The main drawback of automatic

counters-cum-classifiers, used for traffic 139. The minimum possible grade that can be
volume studies, is that it is not yet possible to provided in a tunnel and its approaches with
classify and record providing adequately for proper drainage is

Vehicle type 0.1%

Axle spacing C/2%

Axle load 0.3%

0.4%
Speed

VBY-S-CVL ( 22 — A)
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

140. The section of the tunnel adopted perfectly in 143. Consider the following data for designing a
lieu of ease of construction and maintenance
taxiway for operating Boeing 707 — 320
in hard rock tunnels, where the risk of roof
aeroplane :
failure or collapse caused by external pressure
from water, or from loose or unstable soil Wheel base = 17-70 m
conditions on tunnel lining is practically
non-existent, is Tread of main loading gear = 6-62 m

Circular section Turning speed = 40 km/h

Segmental roof section Coefficient of friction between tyres

Horse-shoe section and pavement surface = 013
Egg-shaped section The turning radius of the taxiway will be

98-5 m
141. Which one of the following methods is adopted
for tunneling in soft soils? 945m

Pilot tunnel method

89-5 m
Drift method

Needle beam method 86-5 m

Heading and benching method

142. Which one of the following features does not 144. Which one of the following instances of
pertain to Littoral drift? performance of aircraft is not considered for
determining basic runway length?
It depends on length of wave

It is the process of erosion of deposition (a) Normal landing case

by waves
Normal take-off case
Waves caused by prevailing wind,
stir up and move sand particles
Engine failure case
Wind tends to carry drifting sand in a
zigzag way Emergency landing case

VBY-S-CVL ( 23 — A:)
https://www.freshersnow.com/previous-year-question-papers/

Directions : Each of the next six (06) items consists 147% Statement (I).:
of two statements, one labeled as 'Statement (I)' and If degree of fixity at supports is lessened, the
the other as 'Statement (HY. You are to examine the maximum hogging moment at the ends will
two statements carefully and select the answers to decrease.
these six items using the codes given below:
Statement (II) :
Codes:
If degree of fixity at supports is lessened, the
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are maximum sagging moment at mid-span
decreases.
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I). Statement U):

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are Torsion reinforcement is provided at (and
near) corners in a two-way slab which is
individually true, but Statement (II) is not
simply supported on both edges meeting at
the correct explanation of Statement (I).
the corner.
Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is Statement (II) :
false.
The area of rtinforcement in each of the layers

Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is shall be three-quarters of the area required
for maximum mid-span moment in the slab.
true.

Statement (I) :
The inclination of the resultant stress with
145. Statement (1):
normal can exceed the angle of repose
Expansive cement is used in repair work for (adopting old terminology).
opened up joints.
Statement (II) :
Statement (II) :
The ratio of the difference between greatest
Expansive cement expands while hardening.
and least intensifies of pressure to their sum
cannot exceed the sine of the angle of repose
(adopting old terminology).

146. Statement (I) : Statement (I) :

Plastic hinges are developed when stress at Alum works in slightly alkaline range.
every point is equal to yield stress. Statement (II) :
Statement (II) :
At higher temperatures, viscosity of water
Plastic hinges are formed at sections subjected (resistance to settling) decreases and flocs
to the greatest curvature. settle better.

VBY-S-CVL ( 24 — A)