TAGORE ENGINEERING COLLEGE

DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ME8391 ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS

1. For a process from state 1 to state 2, heat transfer in a reversible process is given by
a) Q for reversible=(To)*(S1-S2)
b) Q for reversible=(To)*(S2-S1)
c) Q for reversible=(To)/(S1-S2)
d) Q for reversible=(To)/(S2-S1)

2. For a process from state 1 to state 2, heat transfer in an irreversible process is given by
a) Q for irreversible=(To)*(S1-S2)
b) Q for irreversible>(To)*(S1-S2)
c) Q for irreversible<(To)*(S1-S2)
d) none of the mentioned

3. Which of the following is true?

a) Q for reversible > Q for irreversible and work for reversible < work for irreversible
b) Q for reversible < Q for irreversible and work for reversible > work for irreversible
c) Q for reversible < Q for irreversible and work for reversible < work for irreversible
d) Q for reversible > Q for irreversible and work for reversible > work for irreversible

4. Work done in all reversible processes is equal.

a) true
b) false

5. In an open system, for maximum work, the process must be entirely

a) irreversible
b) reversible
c) adiabatic
d) none of the mentioned

6. Which of the following is true for a steady flow system?

a) mass entering = mass leaving
b) mass does not enter or leave the system
c) mass entering can be more or less than the mass leaving
d) none of the mentioned

7. Which of the following is true for a closed system?

a) mass entering = mass leaving
b) mass does not enter or leave the system
c) mass entering can be more or less than the mass leaving
d) none of the mentioned

8. Which of the following is mostly neglected while doing calculations for finding maximum work?
a) KE
b) PE
c) both of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

9. The work done by a closed system in a reversible process is always ___ that done in an irreversible
process.
a) less than or more than
b) equal to
c) less than
d) more than

10. The proof that work done in all reversible processes is same can be done by violating Kelvin-Planck
statement.
a) true
b) false

11. A piston cylinder contains air at 600 kPa, 290 K and a volume of 0.01m^3. A constant pressure process
gives 54 kJ of work out. Find the final volume of the air.
a) 0.05 m^3
b) 0.01 m^3
c) 0.10 m^3
d) 0.15 m^3

12. A piston-cylinder device initially contains air at 150 kPa and 27°C. At this state, the volume is 400 litre.
The mass of the piston is such that a 350 kPa pressure is required to move it. The air is now heated until its
volume has doubled. Determine the total heat transferred to the air.
a) 747 kJ
b) 757 kJ
c) 767 kJ
d) 777 kJ

13. A piston cylinder contains 0.5 kg of air at 500 kPa and 500 K. The air expands in a process so pressure is
linearly decreasing with volume to a final state of 100 kPa and 300 K. Find the work in the process.
a) 56.1 kJ
b) 66.1 kJ
c) 76.1 kJ
d) 86.1 Kj

14. All the commercial liquid fuels are derived from natural petroleum (or crude oil).

a) True

b) False

15. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known
as

a) Carnot cycle

b) Stirling cycle

c) Otto cycle

d) Diesel cycle

16. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are

a) low

b) very low
c) high

d) very high

17. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at
constant volume, is called

a) specific heat at constant volume

b) specific heat at constant pressure

c) kilo Joule

d)none of these

18. There is a loss of heat in an irreversible process.

a) True

b) False

19. An adiabatic process is one in which

a) no heat enters or leaves the gas

b) the temperature of the gas changes

c) the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work done

d) all of the above

20. Water gas is obtained by passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 650°C.

a) Correct

b) Incorrect

21. Which of the following represents Otto cycle on temperature – entropy (T – s) diagram?
22. When the gas is heated at constant volume, the heat supplied increases the internal energy of the gas.

a) True

b) False

23. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?

a) Gasoline

b) Kerosene

c) Fuel oil

24. The processes occuring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system, are
known as

a) flow processes

b) non-flow processes

c) adiabatic processes

d) none of these

25. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass?

a) Oxygen

b) Sulphur

c) Nitrogen

d) Carbon
26. Work done in a free expansion process is

a) zero

b) minimum

c) maximum

d) positive

27. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is __________ of the kinetic energy of all the molecules contained
in a unit volume of gas.

a) one-half

b) one-third

c) two-third

d) three-fourth

28. The compression ratio for petrol engines is

a) 3 to 6

b) 5 to 8

c) 15 to 20

d) 20 to 30

29. The most probable velocity of the gas molecules is given by

30. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when

a) cut-off is increased

b) cut-off is decreased

c) cut-off is zero

d) cut-off is constant

31.The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic process.

a) remains constant

b) decreases

c) increases

32. The atomic mass of oxygen is

a) 12

b) 14

c) 16

d) 32

33. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (Cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is

a) equal to one

b) less than one

c) greater than one

d) none of these

34. The formation of scale boiler leads to

a) decrease in efficiency of boiler

b) increase in efficiency of boiler

c) increase in heat transfer

d) decrease in maintenance of boiler

35. What is the pH value of water permissible for boiler?

a) 0
b) 7
c) slightly less than 7
d) slightly more than 7

36. When the rate of evaporation of water is zero, the relative humidity of the air is
a) 0%

b) 100%

c.)50%

d) unpredictable
37. When,
H1 = Total heat of air entering the coil (heating or cooling)
H2 = Total heat of air leaving the coil (heating or cooling)
H3 = Total heat of air at the end of the process (humidification or dehumidification)
38. Then, the sensible heat factor (H2 – H1) / (H3 – H1) represents the process of
a) cooling and humidification

b) cooling and dehumidification

c) heating and humidification

d) heating and dehumidification

39.The dew point temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature for
a) saturated air

b) unsaturated air

c) both saturated and unsaturated air

d) none of the above

40. At 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb temperature is

a) lower than the dew point temperature

b) higher than the dew point temperature

c) equal to the dew point temperature

d) none of the above

41. What is the perfect condition for dehumidification of air?

a) air is heated above its dew point temperature

b) air is cooled up to its dew point temperature

c) air is heated below its dew point temperature

d) air is cooled below its dew point temperature

42. The gas-refrigeration system is

a) more heavy and bulky than the vapour compression cycle

b) less heavy and bulky than the vapour compression cycle

c) same in construction with the vapour compression cycle

d) none of the above

43. How is the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle compared with the COP of vapour compression cycle, for the
same capacity?
a) the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle is lower than the COP of vapour compression cycle, for the same
capacity

b) the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle is higher than the COP of vapour compression cycle, for the same
capacity

c) the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle is same as the COP of vapour compression cycle

d) none of the above

44. What is the relation between brake efficiency, internal efficiency and mechanical efficiency?
a) ηInternal = ηMech * ηBrake

b) ηMech = ηInternal * ηBrake

c) ηBrake = ηInternal * ηMech

d. none of the above

45. What is the correct formula for brake efficiency of the turbine in vapour power cycle?
Where out flow is as following,Ideal output(Actual work given to turbine) ----> Internal losses ----> Internal
output (Actual work produced by turbine turbine) ----> External losses -----> Brake output (Actual work at
the shaft)
a) ηBrake = Brake output / Ideal output

b) ηBrake = Brake output / Internal output

c) ηBrake = Ideal output / Brake output

d) ηBrake = Internal output / Brake output

46. In binary vapour cycle, the cycle which is operated in high pressure ratio is called as
a) bottoming cycle

b) topping cycle

c) upper cycle

d) pressure cycle

47. The sum of partial volumes of all gases in a mixture is equal to

a) less than the total volume of the mixture

b) the total volume of the mixture

c) more than the total volume of the mixture

d) cannot predict
48. What is the partial volume of a gas in a mixture?
a) volume occupied by a single gas alone of a mixture at the same temperature and pressure of the mixture

b) total volume of the mixture at a certain pressure and temperature divided number of gases mixed in the
mixture

c) both a. and b.

d) none of the above

49. Dalton's law of partial pressure states that

a) the total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of individual gases
divided by number of gases mixed

b) the total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is equal to the partial pressure of any individual gas in the
mixture

c) the total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of individual
gases

d) none of the above

50. What is the degree of subcooling?

a) the difference between saturation temperature of liquid and actual temperature of liquid

b) the difference between saturation temperature of vapour and actual temperature of liquid

c) the difference between saturation temperature of liquid and actual temperature of vapour

d) the difference between saturation temperature of vapour and actual temperature of vapour
51. What is a liquid, whose temperature is less than the saturation temperature at the given pressure, called?
a) compressed liquid

b) subcooled liquid

c) both a. and b.

d) none of the above

52. The dryness (x) fraction of superheated steam is taken as

a) x= 0

b) x= 0.9

c) x= 0.999

d) x= 1

53. The ratio of minimum exergy which must be consumed to perform the task to the actual amount of
energy consumed in performing the same task is called as
a) first law efficiency

b) second law efficiency

c) exergy efficiency

d) none of the above

54. People use electric energy to heat and light homes. What does it indicate?
a) People are destroying energy

b) People are creating energy

c) People are converting energy from more exergy value to less exergy value
d) People are converting energy from less exergy value to more exergy value

55. What does the exergy principle state?

a) The exergy of an isolated system can never decreases, but always increases

b) The exergy of an isolated system can never increases, but always decreases

c) The exergy of an isolated system can either increases or decreases

d) cannot say

56.Exergy is not conserved but destroyed in the process. What is the reason behind this?
a) reversibility

b) irreversibility

c) both reversibility and irreversibility

d) none of the above

57. What is the equation for entropy of a system if two parts 1 and 2 having entropies S1 and S2 are
considered in equilibrium?

a) S = S1 – S2

b) S = S1 + S2

c) S = (S1 + S2) / 2

d) S = √S1 S2

58. PMM2 is the machine which violates ___________

a) Kelvin-Planck statement

b) Clausius statement
c) both a. and b.

d) none of the above

59. A cyclic heat engine operates between a source temperature of 927 oC and a sink temperature of 27 oC.
What will be the maximum efficiency of the heat engine?
a) 100 %

b) 80 %

c) 75 %

d) 70 %

60. Match the following irreversibilities

(1) Mechanical irreversibility ------ (A) Refrigeration cycle
(2) Thermal irreversibility --------- (B) Forming of water by combination of Hydrogen and Oxygen
(3) Chemical irreversibility -------- (C) Free expansion of gas in a system
(4) External irreversibility --------- (D) Melting of ice cube under the sunlight

a) (1)-(A), (2)-(B), (3)-(C), (4)-(D)

b) (1)-(A), (2)-(D), (3)-(B), (4)-(C)

c) (1)-(C), (2)-(D), (3)-(A), (4)-(B)

d) (1)-(C), (2)-(D), (3)-(B), (4)-(A)

61. A quasi-static process has main characteristics as it is

a) a stationary process

b) an infinitely slow process

c) a random process

d) a spontaneous process
62. Which among the following statements are correct?
(1) Energy is an extensive property
(2) Specific energy is an extensive property
(3) Energy is a point function
(4) Heat capacity is an extensive property
a) Statement (1), (2) and (3)

b) Statement (1), (3) and (4)

c) Statement (2), (3) and (4)

d) Statement (1), (2), (3) and (4)

63. The amount of heat transferred to convert unit mass of solid to vapour or vice versa is called as
a) latent heat of vaporization

b) latent heat of fusion

c) latent heat of sublimation

d) specific heat

64. The amount of heat required to raise a unit mass of substance through a unit rise in temperature is called
as
a) heat capacity of a substance

b) specific heat of a substance

c) latent heat of a substance

d) none of the above

65.The equation for calculating amount of heat transfer through a system boundary
when,
T is temperature, an intensive property
X is an extensive property which is result of heat transfer is
a) Q1-2 = 1∫2 T dX

b) Q1-2 = 1∫2 X dT

c) Q1-2 = 1∫2 (1/T) dX

d) none of the above

66. Heat transfer is

a) a point function

b) a path function

c) a transfer function

d) none of the above

67. The process in which no heat transfer takes place through boundaries is called as
a) isothermal process

b) adiabatic process

c) isochoric process

d) none of the above

68. Heat flow is a quantity of heat transfer

a) within definite time

b) within definite cross-sectional area

c) within definite volume of the system

d) none of the above

69. A platinum resistance thermometer has a resistance of 2 ohm at 0° C and 3 ohm at 100° C. What will be
the temperature when resistance indicates 5 ohm?
a) 300° C

b) 200° C

c) 350° C

d) 400° C

70. Absolute pressure is measured as

a) Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure

b) Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure

c) Gauge pressure / Atmospheric pressure

d) none of the above

71. The two-property rule statement consists that ____.

a) to fix state of pure substance of a given mass, the system should be in equilibrium

b) to fix state of pure substance of a given mass, any two independent intensive properties of the substance
should be specified

c) both a. and b. conditions should be satisfied

d) none of the above

72. The substance which is homogeneous and invariable in chemical composition throughout its mass is
called as ____.
a) ideal substance
b) pure substance

c) solid substance

d) none of the above

73. Which device used to separate condensate from the steam without letting steam escape?
a) condenser

b) steam valve

c) steam trap

d) none of the above

74. Humidification is the process of addition moisture in air at

a) constant wet bulb temperature

b) constant dry bulb temperature

c) constant latent heat

d) none of the above

75. Air at dry bulb temperature Td1 is passed through the heating coil and some amount of air is by passed
unaffected and leaves with dry bulb temperature Tb2 and the temperature of heated air is Td3 (where Td2 <
Td3), what is the correct formula for by pass factor (The amount of air by passed unaffected)?
a) Bypass Factor = (Td3 – Td2) / (Td3 – Td1)

b) Bypass Factor = (Td3 – Td1) / (Td3 – Td2)

c) Bypass Factor = (Td2 – Td1) / (Td2 – Td3)

d) Bypass Factor = (Td2 – Td3) / (Td2 – Td1)

76. The horizontal line in psychrometric chart joining the change of state of air represents
a) humidification

b) sensible cooling or heating

c) sensible cooling or heating with humidification

d) sensible cooling or heating with dehumidification

77. The ideal gas-refrigeration cycle is similar to

a) Brayton cycle

b) Reversed Brayton cycle

c) Rankine cycle

d) Reversed Rankine cycle

78. How much is the temperature drop of real gas by throttling?

a) vary big temperature drop

b) very small temperature drop

c) no temperature drop

d) cannot say

79. In gas cycle refrigeration system, the throttle valve of a vapour compression refrigerant system is
replaced by
a) capillary tube

b) expander

c) reverse throttle valve

d) none of the above

80.In year-round air conditioning, by reversing refrigerating cycle

a) condenser acts like evaporator

b) evaporator acts like condenser

c) both a. and b.

d) none of the above

81. Which of the following is NOT a type of heat pump?

a) vapour compression type

b) vapour absorption type

c) both a. and b.

d) none of the above

82. Heat pump is used

a) to transform low grade rejected heat into high temperature heat source

b) to transform high grade rejected heat into low temperature heat sink

c) both a. and b.

d) none of the above

83. What is the effect of increasing bypass ratio of a turbofan engine on its thrust?
a) thrust increases with increase in bypass ratio of turbofan engine

b) thrust decreases with increase in bypass ratio of turbofan engine

c) thrust of the turbofan engine only depends upon the fuel rate, so no change of thrust with increase in
bypass ratio
d) cannot say

84. In turbofan engine, the bypass ratio is the ratio of

a) total mass flow rate of exhaust stream to the mass flow rate of stream from turbine exhaust

b) total mass flow rate of exhaust stream to the mass flow rate of stream from fan exhaust

c) the mass flow rate of stream from turbine exhaust to the mass flow rate of stream from fan exhaust

d) the mass flow rate of stream from fan exhaust to the mass flow rate of stream from turbine exhaust

85. In turbofan engine, fan is used

a) to compress the inlet air more efficiently

b) to increase the total thrust of the engine

c) both a. and b.

d) none of the above

86. The propulsive efficiency is the ratio of

a) the propulsive power to the energy input rate

b) the exit velocity rate of exhaust gases to the energy input rate

c) the work done by the turbine to the energy input rate

d) velocity of aircraft to the energy input rate

87. The propulsive power developed by the thrust of engine is given by

a) mair (Vexit – Vinlet)

b) mair (Vexit – Vinlet) × Vaircraft

c) (Vexit – Vinlet) × Vaircraft

d) none of the above

88. Why do the airplanes fly at higher altitude during the long flights?
a) to avoid collisions as they are at very high speed and controlling will be difficult if something (like towers,
hills) comes in the way

b) it is easy to communicate with satellites at high altitudes

c) to save the fuel as air at higher altitude exerts smaller drag force on aircraft

d) none of the above

89. In working condition of turbojet engine, velocity of air entering the engine is
a) higher than the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine

b) lower than the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine

c) equal to the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine

d) cannot say

90. When two vapor cycles are coupled in series and heat rejected by one is absorbed by another, the cycle is
called as
a) Dual vapour cycle

b) Binary vapour cycle

c) Coupled vapour cycle

d) none of the above

91. What is the importance of the freezing point of the working fluid in the vapour power cycle?
a) freezing point of working fluid should be below the room temperature

b) freezing point of working fluid should be above the room temperature

c) freezing point of working fluid should be equal to the room temperature

d) does not have any importance

92. The specific heat of the ideal working fluid used in vapor power cycle
a) should be constant

b) should be large

c) should be small

d) none of the above

93. What should be the critical temperature of working fluid for maximum efficiency of vapour power cycle?
a) the working fluid should have critical temperature as low as possible

b) the working fluid should have critical temperature as high as possible

c) the critical temperature does not affect the efficiency of the vapour power cycle

d) none of the above

94. As the heat rejection temperature decreases in the vapour power cycle below atmospheric pressure,
a) the vacuum in the condenser also decreases

b) the vacuum in the condenser increases

c) it does not produce any vacuum in condenser

d) none of the above

95. What is the drawback of the steam as a working substance in a power cycle?
a) in a vapour power cycle, maximum temperature which can be obtained with best available material is
more than the critical temperature of water and requires large superheating

b) it allows only small amount of heat addition at the highest temperature

c) it requires reheat and reheater tubes are costly

d) all of the above

96. A closed feedwater heater system

a) has high heat transfer capacity

b) requires pump at each heater to handle the large feedwater stream

c) requires only single pump regardless of the number of heaters

d) does not require any pump as the extracted steam and feedwater are not allowed to mix

97. What is the entropy of the system at equilibrium state?

a) zero

b) minimum

c) maximum

d) constant but not maximum

98. What is the entropy change when the system is at stable equilibrium state?
a) the entropy change will be positive

b) the entropy change will be negative

c) the entropy change will be zero

d) cannot say

99.A mixture of ideal gases of volume V at temperature T, contains n1 moles of gas A, n2 moles of gas B
and n3 moles of gas C. What is a correct formula for partial pressure (pB) of gas B?
a) (pB) = ((1/3)(n1+n2+n3) RT) / V

b) (pB) = ((n1 + n3) RT) / V

c) (pB) = (n2 RT) / V

d) (pB) = (n2(n1 + n3) RT) / V

100. In a mixture of ideal gases of volume V and temperature T, what is the pressure exerted by each
individual gas if it occupies the total volume V alone at temperature T called?
a) individual pressure

b) divided pressure

c) partial pressure

d) total pressure

101. What is the line which starts from critical point having constant dryness fraction throughout the line as
shown in figure (Line1) called?

a) constant vapour line

b) constant liquid line

c) constant quality line

d) none of the above

102. What is the dryness fraction (x) on saturated vapour line?

a) x = 0

b) x = 1

c)x = 0.9

d) x = 0.5

103. What is the value of exergy in general?

a) only negative

b) only positive

c) sometimes positive sometimes negative

d) cannot say

104. Which will be a suitable condition of exergy loss and entropy generation for thermodynamically
efficient process?
a) maximum exergy loss with minimum rate of entropy generation

b) minimum exergy loss with maximum rate of entropy generation

c) maximum exergy loss with maximum rate of entropy generation

d) minimum exergy loss with minimum rate of entropy generation

105. What is the difference between work done by a system through an ideal reversible process and actual
work done by the system called?
a) irreversibility

b) degradation
c) dissipation

d) all of the above

106. What is the entropy chosen at the triple point of water?

a) zero

b) less than zero

c) more than zero

d) none of the above

107. What is the reason behind the fact that the absolute zero entropy value is not attainable?
a) because absolute zero temperature is not attainable in finite number of operations

b) because theoretically absolute zero temperature has negative value of entropy and it is not possible

c) both a. and b.

d) none of the above

108. At the state of perfect order (W = 1) of pure crystalline substance, how is the zero entropy defined?
a) entropy at 0 °C temperature

b) entropy at absolute zero temperature

c) entropy at the freezing point of the substance

d) none of the above

109. If the two parts A and B in a system are considered to be in equilibrium and having thermodynamic
probabilities WA and WB, what will be the thermodynamic probability of the system?
a. W = WA . WB

b. W = WA + WB

c. W = (WA + WB) / 2

d. W = √(WA – WB)

110. At the most probable state of a system the entropy of the system is

a. minimum

b. maximum

c. constant

d. none of the above

111. What is the relation between thermodynamic probability (W) and entropy?

a. thermodynamic probability increases with entropy

b. thermodynamic probability decreases with entropy

c. thermodynamic probability does not change with change in with entropy

d. none of the above

112. The degree of disorder of a mixture of two gases

a. is always less than the degrees of disorder of individual gases

b. is always greater than the degrees of disorder of individual gases

c. is always equals the degrees of disorder of individual gases

d. none of the above

113. When a process becomes irreversible due to heat interaction between system and surrounding at the
boundary due to finite temperature gradient, then the irreversibility is______

a. internal irreversibility

b. external irreversibility

c. mechanical irreversibility

d. chemical irreversibility

114. The irreversibility in the system caused by friction is an example of

a. internal irreversibility

b. external irreversibility

c. frictional irreversibility

d. chemical irreversibility

115. Assume that a reversible heat engine is operating between a source at T1 and a sink at T2. If T2
decreases, the efficiency of the heat engine ______

a. decreases

b. increases

c. remains constant

d. none of the above

116. Any attainable value of absolute temperature is ________

a. always less than zero

b. always equals to zero

c. always greater than zero

d. none of the above

117. The temperature at which a system undergoes a reversible isothermal process without transfer of heat is
called as _________

a. critical temperature

b. Kelvin temperature

c. absolute zero temperature

d. reversible temperature

118. To achieve a definite zero point on the Kelvin scale, we have to violate

a. first law of thermodynamics

b. second law of thermodynamics

c. both first law and second law of thermodynamics

d. no law has to be violated

119. Total amount of energy in the universe is

a. increasing

b. decreasing

c. constant

d. none of the above

120. Heat is transferred across a boundary by virtue of a temperature difference. The heat is transferred, that
means

a. force transfer takes place

b. energy transfer takes place

c. temperature transfer takes place

d. all of the above

121. The thermocouple circuit which is used to measure temperature works on ____.

a. Seebeck effect

b. Peltier effect

c. Thomson effect

d. none of the above

122. Quasi-static process

a. is infinitely slow process

b. experiences thermodynamic equilibrium at every small point on its path

c. reversible process

d. all of the above

123. What is the disadvantage of natural draught?

a. it has less life

b. it has more maintenance cost of cleaning and more capital cost to build the chimney

c. the available draught decreases with increasing outside air temperature

d. all of the above

124. The natural draught in the steam generator depends upon

a. the air condition outside the chimney

b. the temperature of exhaust gases

c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

125. The moisture content lines in psychrometric chart are also called as
a. relative humidity lines

b. specific humidity lines

c. both a. and b.

d. none of the above

126. At any point on the saturation curve in psychometric chart, the dry bulb temperature is always
a. less than the corresponding wet bulb temperature

b. more than the corresponding wet bulb temperature

c. equal to the corresponding wet bulb temperature

d. cannot predict

127. On psychrometric chart, wet bulb temperature lines are

a. horizontal with uniformly spaced

b. horizontal with non-uniformly spaced

c. inclined with uniformly spaced

d. inclined with non-uniformly spaced

128. For the same capacity of plant, the COP of the vapour absorption refrigeration system is
a. lower than the COP of the vapour compression refrigeration system

b. higher than the COP of the vapour compression refrigeration system

c. same as the COP of the vapour compression refrigeration system

d. cannot say

129. The vapour absorption refrigeration system is

a. more noisy than the vapour compression refrigeration system

b. more silent than the vapour compression refrigeration system

c. equally noisy as the vapour compression refrigeration system

d. it depends upon plant capacity

130. Which type of energy is required to expend in vapour absorption refrigeration system?
a. high-grade energy

b. low-grade energy

c. medium-grade energy

d. none of the above

131. For a same pressure the saturation temperature of ammonia is

a. higher than the saturation temperature of water

b. lower than the saturation temperature of water

c. same as the saturation temperature of water

d. none of the above

132. What is an advantage using analyser-rectifier in aqua-ammonia absorption system?

a. it makes ammonia-water solution strong

b. it prevents expansion valve from blocking due to ice formation

c. both a. and b.

d. none of the above

133. What is the purpose of analyser-rectifire in aqua-ammonia absorption system?

a. to absorb ammonia into the water

b. to remove water vapour out from ammonia after generator

c. to exchange heat between weak solution and strong solution

d. none of the above

134. Which among the following engines is NOT the type of aircraft gas turbine which works on jet
propulsion cycle?
a. turbojet

b. turbofan

c. turboprop

d. none of the above

135. A difference of temperature of 250 C is equivalent to a difference of

(A) 720 F (B) 450 F (C) 320 F (D) 250 F

136. What is the value of absolute temperature on the Celsius Scale ?

(A) -273.150 C (B) 1000 C (C) -320 C (D) 00 C
137. The temperature of a substance increases by 270C What is the value of this increase of Kelvin scale?
(A) 300K (B) 2-46K (C) 7 K (D) 27 K
138.At Which temperature the density of water is maximum?
(A) 40 F (B) 420 F (C) 320 F (D) 39.20 F

139.The temperature on celsius scale is 250 C What is the corresponding temperature on the Fahrenheit
Scale?
(A) 400 F (B) 450 F (C) 500 F (D) 770 F

140. The temperature of a body on Kelvin Scale is found to be x.K.when it is measured by Fahrenhit
thesmometes. it is found to be x0F, then the value of x is .
(A) 313 (B) 301.24 (C) 574-25 (D) 40
141. A Centigrade and a Fahrenhit thesmometes are dipped in boiling wates-The wates temperature is
lowered until the Farenhit thesmometes registered 1400 what is the fall in thrmometers
(A) 800 (B) 600 (C) 400 (D) 300

142. A uniform metal rod is used as a bas pendulum. If the room temperature rises by 100C and the

efficient of line as expansion of the metal of the rod is, 2 10 6 0 1 what

C will have percentage increase
in the period of the pendulum ?
(A) -2 10-3 (B) 1 10-3 (C) -1 10-3 (D) 2 10-3

143. A gas expands from 1 litre to 3 litre at atmospheric pressure. The work done by the gas is about (A)
200 J (B) 2 J (C) 300 J (D) 2 105 J
144.The change in internal energy, when a gas is cooled from 9270C ³ to 270C
(A) 200% (B) 100% (C) 300% (D) 400%
145.For hydrogen gas Cp - Cv = a and for oxygen gas Cp - Cv = b, The relation between a and b is given
by
(A) a = 4b (B) a = b (C) a = 16b (D) a = 8b
146.In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that the gas
release 20J of heat and 8J of work has done on the gas- If the inifial internal energy of the gas was 30j, then
the final internal energy will be
(A) 58 J (B) 2 J (C) 42 J (D) 18 J

147. If for a gas = 1.67, this gas is made up to molecules which are
cv
diatomic (B) Polytomic
(C) monoatomic (D) mixnese of diatomic and polytomic molecules
148. . When the humidity ratio of air increases the the air is said to be

a. dehumidified
b. humidified
c. heated
d. cooled

149.If du represents the increase in internal energy of a thesmodynamic system and dw the work done by
the system, which of the following statement is true ?
du = dw in isothermal process (C) du = - dw in an aidabadic process
du = dw in aidabadic process (D) da = - dw in an isothermal process
150.One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is mixed with one mole of a diatomic ideal gas The molas
specific heat of the micture at constant volume is ..........
4R (B) 3 R (C) R (D) 2R
151.One mole of a monoatomic gas is heate at a constant pressure of 1 atmosphere from 0k to 100 k. If the
gas constant R = 8.32 J/mol k the change in internal energy of the gas is approximate ?
(A) 23 J (B) 1.25 103 J (C) 8.67 103 J (D) 46 J

152.A gas mixture consists of 2 mde of oxygen and 4 mole of argon at tempressure T.Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is

11 RT (B) 9 RT (C) 15 RT (D) 4 RT

153.A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T1 is enclosed in a cylindes fitted with a frictionless
piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a temperature T2 byreleasing the piston suddenly
In a given process on an ideal gas dw = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for the gas
 the volume will increase (B) the pressure will semain constant
(C) the temperature will decrease (D) the temperature will increase
154.Wafer of volume 2 filter in a containes is heated with a coil of 1kw at 270C. The lid of the containes
J
is open and energy dissipates at the late of 160 . In how much time tempreture will rise from

A C to 770C. Specific heat of wafers is 4.2

Kg
(A) 7 min (B) 6 min 2s (C) 14 min (D) 8 min 20 S

155.70 calorie of heat are required to raise the temperature of 2 mole of an ideal gas at constant pressure
from 300C to 350C
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the same gas through the same range at
constant volume is ..................... calorie.
(A) 50 (B) 30 (C) 70 (D) 90
156.When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the Section of the heat energy supplied
which increases the infernal energy of the gas is..
(A)3/ 7 (B)3/5 (C)2/5 (D) 5/7
157. Two cylinders Aand B fitted with piston contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas at 300 k. The
piston of Ais free to move, While that of B is held fixed. The same amount of heat is given to the gas in
each cylindes. If the rise in temperature of the gas in A is 30K, then the rise in temperature of the gas in B
is.
(A) 30 K (B) 42 K (C) 18 K (D) 50 K
158.A Small spherical body of radius r is falling under gravity in a viscous medium. Due to friction the
medium gets heated. How does the late of heating depend on radius of body when it attains terminal
velocity!
(A) r2 (B) r3 (C) r4 (D) r5

159. The first law of thermodynamics is concerned with the conservation of

momentum (B) energy (C) mass (D) temperature
160.If heat given to a system is 6 k cal and work done is 6kj. The change in internal energy is KJ.
(A) 12.4 (B) 25 (C) 19.1 (D) 0
161.The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed 2 Kcal of heat and done 500J of work is (A)
7900 J (B) 4400 J (C) 6400 J (D ) 8900 J
162.Which of the following is not a thermodynamical function.
Enthalpy (B) Work done
(C) Gibb's energy (D) Internal energy
163.Which of the following is not a thermodynamic co-ordinate.
R (B) P (C) T (D) V
164.When a System is taken from State i to State f along the path iaf, it is found that Q = 70 cal and w
 = 30 cal, along the path ibf. Q=52cal. W atoug the path ibf is

6 cal (B) 12 cal (C) 24 cal (D) 8 cal

165. What is sensible cooling of air?

a. the cooling in which sensible heat of air is removed in order

to reduce temperature
b. the cooling in which temperature of air is reduced without
changing in its moisture content
c. both a. and b.
 (A) 2.5 105 J (B) 3.5 105 J (C) 4.5 105 J (D) 1.5 105 J

166.200g of water is heated from 250 C0 450C Ignoring the slight expansion of the water the change in its
cal
internal energy is (Specific heat of wafer 1 )

(A) 33.4 KJ (B) 11.33 KJ (C) 5.57 KJ (D) 16.7 KJ

167.One mole of oxygen is heated at constant pressure stasting at 00 C. How much heat energy in cal

must be added to the gas to double its volume ? Take R = 2

molk
(A) 1938 (B) 1920 (C) 1911 (D) 1957
168.Heat capacity of a body depends on the .......... as well as on ..........
material of the body, its mass (C) mass of the body, itd temperature
material of the body, its temperature (D) Volume of the body, its mass
169.In thesmodynamics, the work done by the system is considered .................... and the work done on the
system is Considered ...........
Positive, zero (B) nagative, Positive
(C) zero, negative (D) Positive, negative
170.A thesmodynamic system goes from States
P,V to 2P, V (ii) P,V to P, 2V. Then what is work done in the two Cases.
(A) Zero, PV (B) Zero, Zero (C) PV, Zero (D) PV,PV
171.For free expansion of the gas which of the following is true ?
Q = 0, W > 0 and Eint = -W (B) W = 0, Q >0 and Eint = Q
(C) W > 0, Q < 0 and Eint = 0 (D) Q = W = 0 and Eint = 0

172.An ideal gas is taken through cyclic process as shown in the figure. The net work done by the gas is

PV (B) 2 PV (C) 3 PV (D) zero

173.A Cyclic Process ABCD is Shown in the P V diagam. which of the following curves represent the
same Process ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

174.An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A B C A as shown in the figure. If the net heat supplied to
the gas in the cycle is 5J, the work done by the gas in the process C A is

(A) - 5 J (B) -10 J (C) -15 J (D) - 20 J

175.An adiabatic Bulk modulus of an ideal gas at Pressure P is
p P
P (B) (C) P (D)
γ 2
176.What is an adiabatic Bulk mudulus of hydrogen gas at NTP? r = 1.4
N N
(A) 1.4 105 105
M2 (B) 1.4
M (C) 1 10-8 M (D) 1
M2
2 2

177.If a quantity of heat 1163.4 J is supplied to one mole of nitrogen gas, at room temprature at constant

pressure, then the rise intemperature is R = 8.31

m.l.k
 (A) 28 K (B) 65 K (C) 54 K (D) 40 K

178.One mole of O2 gas having a Volume equal to 22.4 liter at O c

and 1 atmosiheric Pressure is
 Compressed isothermally so that its volume reduces to 11.2 lites. The work done in this Process is
(A) 1672.4 J (B) -1728J (C) 1728J (D) -1572.4J

179.The Specific heat of a gas in an isothermal Process is

zero (B) Negative (C) Infinite (D) Remairs

180.A Containes that suits the occurrence of an isothermal process should be made of

Wood (B) Coppes (C) glass (D) Cloth

181.Athermodynamic Process in which temprature T of the system remains constant through out Variable
P and V may Change is called
Isothermal Process (B) Isochoric Process
Isobasic Process (D) None of this

182.When 1g of wates O c and 10 m 2 Pressure is Converted into ice of Volume 1.091 cm3 the external
work done be ..............J.
(A) 0.0182 (B) -0.0091 (C) -0.0182 (D) 0.0091
J
183.The letent heat of Vaporisation of water is 2240 If the work done in the Process of expansion
g
of 1g is 168J. then increase in internal energy is ............ J
(A) 2072 (B) 2408 (C) 2240 (D) 1904
184.The Volume of an ideal gas is 1 liter column and its Pressure is equal to 72 cm of Hg. The Volume of
gas is made 900 cm3 by compressing it isothermally. The stress of the gas will be ....................................Hg
column.
4 cm (B) 6 cm (C) 7 cm (D) 8 cm
185.In adiabatic expansion
u=0 (B) u = Positive (C) Ju = Nagative (D) w=0

186.1 mm3 Of a gas is compressed at 1 atmospheric pressure and temperature 27 C to 627 C What is
the final pressure under adiabatic condition. r = 1.5

m2 m2 m2 m2

187.A monoatomic gas for it = is suddenly Compressed to of its original volume adiabatically
3 8
then the final Pressure of gas is ............... times its intial Pressure.

(A) 8 (B) 32 (C)

5
188.The Pressure and density of a diatomic gas =7
5 Change adiabatically from (P,d) to (P1,d1) If
d'
 =32 then p'
d Should be
p 1
(A) 128 (B) (C) 32 (D) None of this
189.An ideal gas at 27 128 adiabatically, to 8
C is Compressed of its original Volume. If v = 5 , then the

rise in temperaure is 27 3
(A) 225 k (B) 450 K (C) 375 K (D) 405 K

190.A diatomic gas intially at 18 C is Compressed adiabatically to one eight of its original volume. The
temperature after Compression will be
(D) 144 C
(B) 668 K (C) 887
C

191.Work done by 0.1 mole of a gas at 27 C to double its volume at constant Pressure is
Cal
Cal. R = 2 o
mol K

(A) 600 (B) 546 (C) 60 (D) 54

192. When dry bulb temperature (DBT) and wet bulb temperature (WBT) are measured, greater the
difference between DBT and WBT,

a. greater the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

b. smaller the amount of water vapour held in the mixture
c. same the amount of water vapour held in the mixture
d. none of the above
194.If the temperature of 1 mole of ideal gas is changed from O C to 100 C at constant pressure, then

work done in the process is ............ J. R = 8-3

molk
(A) 8-3 10-3 (B) 8-3 102 (C) 8-3 10-2 (D) 8-3 103

195.In P V diagram given below, the isochoric, isothermal and isobaric path respectively are

(A) BA,AD,DC (B) DC,CB,BA (C) AB,BC,CD (D) CA,DA,AB

196.In the following indicatos diagram, the net amount of work done will be
(A) Negative (B) zero (C) Positive (D) Infinity

197.Two identical samples of a gas are allowed to expand (i) isothermally (ii) adiabatically work done is
(A) more inanisothermal process (B) more is an adiabatic process
(C) equal in both process. (D) neithes of them
Cp
198.For adiabatic Process which relation is true mentioned below ? γ =
Cv

(A)p V = Const (B) T V = Const (C) TV =Const (D) TV –1 = Const

199.For adiabatic Process which one is wrong statement?
(A) dQ = 0 (B) entropy is not constant
(C) du = - dw (D) Q = constant

200.Air is filled in a motor tube at 27 C and at a Pressure of a atmosphere. The tube suddenly bursts.
Then what is the temperature of air. given r of air = 1.5

(A) 150 K (B) 150 C (C) 75 K (D) 27.5 C

201.A Car not engine operating between temperature T1 and T2 has efficiency 0.4, when T2 lowered by
50K, its efficiency uncreases to 0.5. Then T1 and T2 are respectively.
(A) 300 K and 100 K (B) 400 K and 200 K
(C) 600 K and 400 K (D) 400 K and 300 K
202.A monoatomic gas is used in a car not engine as the working substance, If during the adiabatic
expansion part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from V to 8V1 the efficiency of the engine is ..
(A) 60% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 25%
203.A car not's engine whose sink is at a temperature of 300K has an efficiency of 40% By space should
the temperature of the source be increase the efficiency to 60%
(A) 275 K (B) 325 K (C) 300 K (D) 250 K

204.An ideal gas heat engine is operating between 227 C and 127 C . It absorks 104 J Of heat at the
higher temperature. The amount of heat Converted into. work is ........................... J.
(A) 2000 (B) 4000 (C) 5600 (D) 8000
205.Efficiency of a car not engine is 50%, when temperature of outlet is 500K. in order to increase
efficiency up to 60% keeping temperature of intake the same what is temperature of out let.
(A) 200 K (B) 400 K (C) 600 K (D) 800 K
206.For which combination of working temperatures the efficiency of Car not's engine is highest.
(A) 80 K, 60 K (B) 100 K, 80 K (C) 60 K, 40 K (D) 40 K, 20 K
207.An ideal heat engine working between temperature T1 and T2 has an efficiency n. The new efficiency
if both the source and sink temperature are doubled, will be

(A) n (B) 2n (C) 3n (D)

2
208.A car not engine Convertsm one sixth of the heat input into work. When the temperature of the sink
is reduces by 62 C the efficiency of the engine is doubled. The temperature of the source and sink
are
(A) 800 C, 370 C (B) 950 C, 280 C (C) 900 C, 370 C (D) 990 C, 370 C

209.What is the value of sink temperature when efficiency of engine is 100%

(A) 300 K (B) 273 K (C) 0 K (D) 400 K
210.A car not engine having a efficiency of n = as heat engine is used as a refrigerators. if the work
10
done on the system is 10J. What is the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lowes
temperature !
(A) 1 J (B) 90 J (C) 99 J (D) 100 J

211.The temperature of sink of car not engine is 27 C . Efficiency of engine is 25% Then find the
temperature of source.
(A) 2270 C (B) 3270 C (C) 270 C (D) 1270 C

212.The efficiency of car not's engine operating between reservoirs, maintained at temperature 27 C
and 123 C is ............

(A) 0.5 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.25

213.If a heat engine absorbs 50KJ heat from a heat source and has efficiency of 40%, then the heat released
by it in heat sink is ...........
(A) 40 KJ (B) 30 KJ (C) 20 J (D) 20 KJ
214.The efficiency of heat engine is 30% If it gives 30KJ heat to the heat sink, than it should have absorbed
KJ heat from heat source.
(A) 42.8 (B) 39 (C) 29 (D) 9
215.If a heat engine absorbs 2KJ heat from a heat source and release 1.5KJ heat into cold reservoir, then its
efficiency is ...........
(A) 0.5% (B) 75% (C) 25% (D) 50%
216.If the doors of a refrigerators is kept open, then which of the following is true?
Room is cooled (B) Room is eithers cooled or heated
(C) Room is neither cooled nor heated (D) Room is heated
217.The melting point of ice decreases with increase of Pressure Reason : Ice
contracts on melting.
C (B) B (C) A (D) D
218.Fahrenhit is the smallest unit measuring temperature.
Reason : Fahrenhit was the first temperature scale used for measuring temperature.
A (B) C (C) B (D) D

219.Abeakes is completely, filled with water at 4 C . It will overlow, both when heated or cooled.
Reason : These is expansion of water below 40 C
A (B) B (C) C (D) D

220.The total translation kinetic energy of all the molecules of a given mass of an ideal gas is 1-5 times the
product of its Pressure and its volume.
Reason : The molecules of a gas collide with each other and velocities of the molecules change due
to the collision
D (B) C (C) A (D) B
221.The car not is useful in understanding the perfomance of heat engine
Reason : The car not cycle provides a way of determining the maximum possible efficiency
achivable with reservoirs of given temperatures.
A (B) B (C) C (D) D
222.Heat given to process is positive, match the following column I with the corresponding option of
column I1

Colum-i Colum-ii
JK (p) W >0
KL (q) Q <0
LM (r) W <0
 MJ (s) Q >0
A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s (C) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q
A-q, B-p, C-s, D-r (D) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p

223.In Column I different Process is given match corresponding option of column I1

Column - I Column - II
adiabatic process (p) p=0
Isobaric process (a) u=0
Isochroic process (r) Q=0
Isothermal process (s) W=0
A-p, B-s, C-r, D-q (C) A-r, B-p, C-s, D-q
A-s, B-q, C-p, D-r (D) A-q, B-r, C-q, D-p

224.What is the final temperature the System ?

(C) 100 (D) 94 C
C
225.At the final temperature, mass of the toal water present in the system is
(A) 493.6g (B) 483.3g (C) 472.6 g (D) 500 g
226.Amount of the Sm left in the system, is equal to
(A) 16-7 g (B) 8-4 g (C) 12 g (D) 0 g

227. What does the term absolute humidity mean?

a) Moisture content of a gas by mass
b) Moisture content of a gas by moles
c) Ratio of humidity to humidity at saturation
d) Temperature at which moisture begins to condense when it is cooled

228. What does wet bulb temperature mean?

a) Temperature of mixture
b) Steady state temperature attained by a wet bulb thermometer
c) Temperature attained when a gas is saturated with moisture in an adiabatic process
d) The temperature of air having no moisture

229. What does dry bulb temperature mean?

a) Temperature of mixture
b) Steady state temperature attained by a wet bulb thermometer
c) Temperature attained when a gas is saturated with moisture in an adiabatic process
d) The temperature of air having no moisture

230. What does the term adiabatic saturation temperature refer to?
a) Specific heat of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
b) Volume of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
c) Enthalpy of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
d) Temperature attained when a gas is saturated with moisture in an adiabatic process

231. What does the term total enthalpy refer to?

a) Specific heat of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
b) Volume of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
c) Enthalpy of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
d) Temperature attained when a gas is saturated with moisture in an adiabatic process

232. What does the term humid heat refer to?

a) Specific heat of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
b) Volume of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
c) Enthalpy of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
d) Temperature attained when a gas is saturated with moisture in an adiabatic process

233. What does the term humid volume refer to?

a) Specific heat of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
b) Volume of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
c) Enthalpy of moisture gas mixture per unit mass of moisture free gas
d) Temperature attained when a gas is saturated with moisture in an adiabatic process

234. What does the term dew-point temperature mean?

a) Moisture content of a gas by mass
b) Moisture content of a gas by moles
c) Ratio of humidity to humidity at saturation
d) Temperature at which moisture begins to condense when it is cooled

235. What does the term percent saturation mean?

a) Moisture content of a gas by mass
b) Moisture content of a gas by moles
c) Ratio of humidity to humidity at saturation
d) Temperature at which moisture begins to condense when it is cooled

236. What does the term molal humidity mean?

a) Moisture content of a gas by mass
b) Moisture content of a gas by moles
c) Ratio of humidity to humidity at saturation
d) Temperature at which moisture begins to condense when it is cooled

237. Dry air does NOT contain

a. krypton
b. argon
c. neon
d. none of the above

238. The ratio of partial pressure of water vapour in a mixture to the saturation pressure of water at the same
temperature of the mixture is called as
a. humidity
b. partial humidity
c. specific humidity
d. relative humidity

239. What is the specific humidity?

a. the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
b. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
c. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in a mixture of air and water vapour
d. the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of dry air in a mixture of air and water vapour

240. What is the relative humidity for a saturated air?

a. 0%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. cannot say

241. What is the degree of saturation?

a. the ratio of the actual relative humidity to the saturated specific humidity at the same temperature
b. the ratio of the actual specific humidity to the saturated specific humidity at the same temperature
c. the ratio of the saturated specific humidity to the actual specific humidity at the same temperature
d. none of the above

242. The degree of saturation varies between

a. 1 to infinity
b. 0 to infinity
c. 0 to 1
d. none of the above

243. In gas cycle refrigeration system, the throttle valve of a vapour compression refrigerant system is
replaced by

a. capillary tube
b. expander
c. reverse throttle valve
d. none of the above

244. How much is the temperature drop of real gas by throttling?

a. vary big temperature drop

b. very small temperature drop
c. no temperature drop
d. cannot say

245. The ideal gas-refrigeration cycle is similar to

a. Brayton cycle
b. Reversed Brayton cycle
c. Rankine cycle
d. Reversed Rankine cycle

246. How is the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle compared with the COP of vapour compression cycle, for the
same capacity?

a. the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle is lower than the COP of vapour compression cycle, for the same
capacity
b. the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle is higher than the COP of vapour compression cycle, for the same
capacity
c. the COP of gas-refrigeration cycle is same as the COP of vapour compression cycle
d. none of the above

247. The gas-refrigeration system is

a. more heavy and bulky than the vapour compression cycle

b. less heavy and bulky than the vapour compression cycle
c. same in construction with the vapour compression cycle
d. none of the above

248. What is the temperature at which the water vapour in the mixture of water vapour in air, starts
condensing called?

a. condensation temperature
b. dew point temperature
c. vaporization temperature
d. all of the above

249. The temperature of air recorded by thermometer when the bulb is covered by a cotton wick saturated by
water is called as

a. dry bulb temperature

b. wet bulb temperature
c. stream temperature
d. psychrometric temperature

250. Which temperature can be measured by an instrument called psychrometer?

a. dry bulb temperature

b. wet bulb temperature
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above