JAM 2019 BIOTECHNOLOGY - BT

Paper Specific Instructions

1. The examination is of 3 hours duration. There are a total of 60 questions carrying 100 marks. The entire
paper is divided into three sections, A, B and C. All sections are compulsory. Questions in each section are
of different types.

2. Section – A contains a total of 30 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). Each MCQ type question has four
choices out of which only one choice is the correct answer. Questions Q.1 – Q.30 belong to this section
and carry a total of 50 marks. Q.1 – Q.10 carry 1 mark each and Questions Q.11 – Q.30 carry 2 marks
each.

3. Section – B contains a total of 10 Multiple Select Questions (MSQ). Each MSQ type question is similar
to MCQ but with a difference that there may be one or more than one choice(s) that are correct out of the
four given choices. The candidate gets full credit if he/she selects all the correct answers only and no
wrong answers. Questions Q.31 – Q.40 belong to this section and carry 2 marks each with a total of 20
marks.

4. Section – C contains a total of 20 Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions. For these NAT type
questions, the answer is a real number which needs to be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.
No choices will be shown for these type of questions. Questions Q.41 – Q.60 belong to this section and
carry a total of 30 marks. Q.41 – Q.50 carry 1 mark each and Questions Q.51 – Q.60 carry 2 marks each.

5. In all sections, questions not attempted will result in zero mark. In Section – A (MCQ), wrong answer will
result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.
For all 2 marks questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. In Section – B (MSQ), there
is NO NEGATIVE and NO PARTIAL marking provisions. There is NO NEGATIVE marking in
Section – C (NAT) as well.

6. Only Virtual Scientific Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, tables, cellular phone or other
electronic gadgets are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

7. The Scribble Pad will be provided for rough work.

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JAM 2019 BIOTECHNOLOGY - BT

SECTION – A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)
Q. 1 – Q.10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The glycosidic linkages in cellulose and amylose are ________, respectively.

(A) α 1-4 and β 1-4

(B) β 1-4 and α 1-4
(C) β 1-4 and α 1-6
(D) α 1-4 and α 1-2

Q.2 A mutation in the operator locus of lac operon that confers constitutive expression of β-
galactosidase is ________.
(A) cis dominant (B) trans dominant (C) co-dominant (D) dominant negative

Q.3 Which one of the points , , , , , and , lies ABOVE the

parabola 2 and INSIDE the circle 4?

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Q.4 Let 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 . A subset is chosen uniformly at random from the non-empty subsets of .
What is the probability that does NOT have two consecutive elements?
(A) 9/31 (B) 10/31 (C) 11/31 (D) 12/31

Q.5 Which one of the following figures represents the correct sequence of phases in adult eukaryotic
cell cycle?

Q.6 At what pH does poly-Glu in an aqueous solution form α-helical structure?

(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 12

Q.7 The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are _______.

(A) ML-1T-1 (B) ML-1T-2 (C) ML-2T-2 (D) ML-2T-1

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Q.8 Match the entries in Group I with the entries in Group II

Group I Group II
(P) Nylon (i) Isoprene
(Q) Natural rubber (ii) Hexose
(R) Starch (iii) Amino acid
(S) Myoglobin (iv) Adipic acid

(A) P-iv, Q-i, R-ii, S-iii

(B) P-iv, Q-i, R-iii, S-ii
(C) P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-i
(D) P-ii, Q-iv, R-i, S-iii

Q.9 The technique that involves impacting samples with electrons is _______.
(A) NMR spectroscopy
(B) ESI mass spectrometry
(C) IR spectroscopy
(D) UV-vis spectroscopy

Q.10 The orbital angular momentum of hydrogen atom in the ground state is ________.
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)

Q. 11 – Q. 30 carry two marks each.

Q.11 √ √
Let and . Then, lim
→

(A) is 1 (B) is ½ (C) is 0 (D) does not exist

Q.12 In how many ways can one write the elements 1, 2, 3, 4 in a sequence , , , with ∀?
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 12

Q.13
Simplify + .

(A) 2 sec (B) 2 cosec (C) sec (D) cosec

Q.14 The evolution of eyes in octopus and in human is an example of ________.

(A) divergent evolution (B) convergent evolution
(C) adaptive radiation (D) genetic drift

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Q.15 Which one of the following modifications occurs both on DNA and protein?

(A) ADP-ribosylation (B) Methylation

(C) Sumoylation (D) Ubiquitination

Q.16 Solutions of the following peptides are prepared separately at a concentration of 1 mM. Among
these four, which one has the highest A280?

(A) Ser-Val-Trp-Asp-Phe-Gly-Tyr-Trp-Ala
(B) Gln-Leu-Glu-Phe-Thr-Leu-Asp-Gly-Tyr
(C) Met-Gly-Val-Ileu-Asp-Ser-Ala-Trp-His
(D) His-Pro-Gly-Asp-Val-Ileu-Phe-Met-Leu

Q.17 The free energy required to synthesize a mixed anhydride bond of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is
generated by the oxidation of ________.
(A) an aldehyde to acid
(B) an alcohol to acid
(C) an alcohol to aldehyde
(D) NADH to NAD+

Q.18 The following reaction is an example of ___________.

(A) enolization (B) racemization (C) isomerization (D) epimerization

Q.19 Which one of the following parameters changes upon doubling the enzyme concentration?
(A) KM (B) Vmax (C) kcat (D) Keq

Q.20 Which one of the following statements is a correct description of modes of action of taxol and
colchicine?
(A) Taxol causes DNA damage and colchicine prevents microtubule formation
(B) Taxol stabilizes microtubules and colchicine inhibits protein synthesis
(C) Taxol destabilizes microtubules and colchicine promotes microtubule formation
(D) Taxol stabilizes microtubules and colchicine prevents microtubule formation

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Q.21 In a simple microscope, _______.

(A) a lens with negative power is used
(B) the focal length of the lens is less than the least distance for clear vision
(C) the focal length of the lens is greater than the least distance for clear vision
(D) magnification depends only on the focal length of the lens

Q.22 Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to bacterial conjugation?
(A) It facilitates transfer of genetic material
(B) It requires flagellum
(C) It can spread antibiotic resistance
(D) It can transfer virulence factors

Q.23 A particle starting from rest is subjected to a constant force. The plot of distance traveled along the
direction of the force as a function of time is a/an ______.

(A) straight line (B) circle (C) parabola (D) ellipse

Q.24 Indole acetic acid (IAA) is involved in ______.

(A) gravitropism (B) flowering (C) ripening (D) senescence

Q.25 Which one of the following remains unchanged when light waves enter water from air?
(A) Wavelength (B) Wavenumber (C) Frequency (D) Intensity

Q.26 According to the kinetic theory of gases, the average energy of a diatomic molecule in an ideal gas
depends on _______.
(A) mass of each atom and the temperature
(B) mass of each atom and the bond length
(C) mass of each atom, bond length, and temperature
(D) temperature only

Q.27 Match the entries in Group I with entries in Group II

Group I Group II
(P) Bacteria (i) Malaria
(Q) Virus (ii) Tuberculosis
(R) Protozoa (iii) Influenza
(S) Autoantibodies (iv) Myasthenia gravis
(A) P-ii, Q-i, R-iii, S-iv (B) P-ii, Q-iii, R-i, S-iv
(C) P-iv, Q-iii, R-i, S-ii (D) P-i, Q-iv, R-ii, S-iii

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Q.28 pKa increases in the order _______.

(A) HN3 > NH3OH+ > N2H5+ > NH3
(B) NH3OH+ > N2H5+ > HN3 > NH3
(C) NH3 > NH3OH+ > N2H5+ > HN3
(D) HN3 > N2H5+ > NH3 > NH3OH+

Q.29 H2 reacts with trans-(Ph3P)2Ir(CO)Cl to primarily produce _______.

Q.30 Among the following species, the metal center that has the highest number of unpaired electrons is
_______.

(A) VCl4 (B) Ni(CO)4 (C) [AuCl4] (D) [CdBr4]2

SECTION - B
MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ)
Q. 31 – Q. 40 carry two marks each.

Q.31 Pick the correct statement(s) with respect to the inter-conversion of the topoisomers of a circularly
closed double stranded DNA.
(A) Only one strand needs to be cut
(B) Both strands have to be cut
(C) No strand needs to be cut
(D) ATP is required for inter-conversion

Q.32 Let 1, 2, … , 15 . Let ⊆ consist of all prime numbers, ⊆ consist of all even numbers
and ⊆ consist of all multiples of 3. Let . Then, which of the following is/are
CORRECT?
(A) | | 5 and | ∪ | 9 (B) | | 6 and | ∪ | 9
(C) | | 5 and | ∩ | 1 (D) | | 6 and | ∩ | 1

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Q.33 Let 1 2 3 4 and let , and .

Which of the following is/are CORRECT?
(A) and have the same sign (B) and have the same sign
(C) and have the same sign (D) and have the same sign

Q.34 The characteristic oxygen binding profile of hemoglobin shown below arises due to the ________.

1.0

Fraction saturation

0.5

10 20 30 40 50

O2 pressure (in torrs)

(A) quaternary structure

(B) subunit dissociation
(C) cooperativity
(D) conformational change

Q.35 The advantage(s) of storing chemical energy in the form of starch and not as free glucose is/are that
it________.
(A) minimizes diffusion
(B) enables compact storage
(C) reduces osmotic pressure
(D) protects against chemical reactivity of aldehyde groups

Q.36 Which of the following cell types can develop from myeloid lineage?

(A) Macrophages (B) T lymphocytes (C) B lymphocytes (D) Erythrocytes

Q.37 Electromagnetic waves _______.

(A) carry energy
(B) carry momentum
(C) are transverse in nature while travelling in vacuum
(D) do not need a material medium to travel

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Q.38 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(A) In intrinsic semiconductors, the number of electrons is equal to the number of holes at any
temperature
(B) An intrinsic semiconductor changes to an n-type semiconductor upon addition of a trivalent
element
(C) The shape of the I-V characteristics of a p-n diode is a straight line
(D) In the reverse bias condition, the current in a p-n diode is due to the minority carriers

Q.39 BF3 reacts readily with ________.

(A) C5H5N (B) SnCl2
(C) SO3 (D) (C5H5N)SnCl2

Q.40 The reaction of (R)-2-bromobutane with CN proceeds by ________.

(A) retention of configuration
(B) inversion of configuration
(C) formation of CH2=CH(CH2CH3)
(D) formation of (S)-2-methylbutanenitrile

SECTION – C
NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE (NAT)
Q. 41 – Q. 50 carry one mark each.
Q.41 C3 plants utilize 18 molecules of ATP to synthesize one molecule of glucose from CO2. How many
molecules of ATP equivalents are used by C4 plants to synthesize one molecule of glucose from
CO2?

Q.42 A 0.1% (w/v) solution of a protein absorbs 20% of the incident light. What fraction of light is
transmitted if the concentration is increased to 0.4%? [Correct to two decimal places]

Q.43 Let XYZ be an equilateral triangle and let P, Q, R be the mid points of YZ, XZ, and XY,
respectively.

∆
Let .
∆

The value of r is _______.

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Q.44 Let be the set of natural numbers and : ↦ be defined by

/2,
3 1,

Let denote the -fold composition of . What is the smallest integer such that
13 1 ?

Q.45 Heterozygous female fruit flies with gray body and purple eyes were mated with homozygous
males with black body and red eyes. The number of offspring obtained and their phenotypes are
shown below:

Number of offspring Phenotype

300 Gray body–purple eyes
347 Black body–red eyes
61 Gray body–red eyes
55 Black body–purple eyes

Calculate the recombination frequency.

Q.46 Proinsulin is an 84 residue polypeptide with six cysteines. How many different disulfide
combinations are possible?

Q.47 The refractive index of a liquid relative to air is 1.5. Calculate the ratio of the real depth to the
apparent depth when the liquid is taken in a beaker.

Q.48 A metallic wire of electrical resistance 40 Ω is bent in the form of a square loop. The resistance
between any two diagonally opposite corners is ________ Ω.

Q.49 The total number of lone pairs of electrons in NO2F is _______.

Q.50 The total number of multiplet peaks in the 1H NMR spectrum of 1,3,5-tri-isopropylbenzene in
CDCl3 is ________.

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Q. 51 – Q. 60 carry two marks each.

Q.51 A schematic representation of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis of a
sample population is shown below. The number of people exhibiting a given pattern is indicated
above the lanes.

8 40 20 7 13 12
kb

6.5

5.0

4.0

3.0

Calculate the frequency of 6.5 kb allele. [Correct to two decimal places]

π
Q.52
The value of 2
0
x sin x dx is ______.

Q.53 Phosphoglucoisomerase catalyzes the following reaction:

If 0.05% of the original concentration of Glu-6-P remains at equilibrium, then the equilibrium
constant of this reaction is________.

Q.54 In a bacterium, a mutation resulted in an increase of KS (substrate-specific constant) for ammonium

from 50 µM to 5000 µM without affecting µmax. The specific growth rate (µ) of the mutant growing
on 0.5 mM ammonium in the medium decreases by a factor of ________.

Q.55 The total number of DNA molecules present after 5 cycles of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
starting with 3 molecules of template DNA is ________.

Q.56 Two identical, infinite conducting plates are kept parallel to each other and are separated by a
distance d. The uniform charge densities on the plates are +σ and -σ. The electric field at a point
between the two plates is , where n is _______. 
(0 is the permittivity of free space)

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Q.57 The concentration of NaCl (in mM) formed at the stoichiometric equivalence point when 10 mL of
0.1 M HCl solution is titrated with 0.2 M NaOH solution is ________. (as an integer)

Q.58 The standard emf of a cell (in V) involving the reaction, 2 Ag+ (aq.)  Ag (s) + Ag2+ (aq.) at 298 K
is _________. [Correct to two decimal places]

[Given: Ag+ (aq.) + e  Ag (s); Eo = 0.62 V and Ag2+ (aq.) + e  Ag+ (aq.); Eo = 0.12 V]

Q.59 Let 4 ̂ 2 ̂ 6 and 7̂ ̂ 12 . If ̂ ̂ , then the value of

equals_______.

Q.60 An infinitely long solenoid of radius r and number of turns per unit length n carries a steady current
I. The ratio of the magnetic fields at a point on the axis of the solenoid to a point r/2 from the axis is
_______.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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