ENTRY TEST-GRE (SUBJECT) TYPE TEST FOR PH.

D STUDENTS/FRESH
APPLICANTS

1. Food security means

a. Adequacy of food
b. Ample access to food
c. Reliability of both supply and access
d. All of above

2. The green revolution is based on

a. Mechanization
b. Chemistry
c. Biology
d. None of above

3. Post harvest losses in Pakistan accounts for

a. 5-10%
b. 10-20%
c. 20-30%
d. 40-50%

4. In 1980s, Louis Pasteur discovered that the main cause of disease and decay are
a. Birds
b. Rodents
c. Insects
d. Micro-organisms

5. The father of canning is

a. Louis Pasteur
b. Newton
c. Nicolas Appert
d. None of above

6. Autolysis in food can be prevented or delayed by

a. Destruction of micro-organisms
b. Destruction of Enzymes
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

7. Spoilage in food because of microbial activity can be prevented/delayed by

a. Prohibiting the entry of micro-organisms in food
b. Physical removal of micro-organisms
c. Hindering the activity of micro-organisms
d. All of above
8. Quality defects in food are caused by
a. Rodents
b. Insects
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

9. Enzymes are sensitive to

a. Temperature
b. pH
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

10. The heat treatment around 100 oC for a few seconds is called
a. Pasteurization
b. Sterilization
c. Scalding
d. None of above

11. To separate cream from milk---------------------------technique is applied.

a. Filtration
b. Trimming
c. Centrifugation
d. None of above

12. The growth of aerobic food spoilage and pathogenic microorganisms can be
suppressed by
a. Humectants
b. Exhausting
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

13. Curative insect control program involves the use of

a. Chemical means
b. Physical means
c. Biological means
d. All of above

14. Rodents can be controlled by

a. Poison baits
b. Rat-traps
c. Biological method
d. All of above
15. Surface drying during frozen storage can be controlled by
a. Maintenance of temperature
b. Adequate packaging
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

16. ------------------------ is used when density or bouncy of the contaminants is different

from that of the raw material.
a. Winnowing
b. Screening
c. Flotation
d. None of above

17. ----------------------------is practiced to remove inedible constituents from dates.

a. Coring
b. Pitting
c. Trimming
d. Peeling

18. Size reduction or disintegration is practiced in food industry because

a. It is consumer’s requirement
b. To achieve homogeneous and easy mixing
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

19. Mixing of two immiscible liquids is called--------------------------

a. Solution
b. Emulsion
c. Mixture
d. None of above

20. Blanching is the heat treatment designed for food materials for a very short time
mainly to destroy
a. Microorganisms
b. Enzymes
c. Insects
d. Rodents

21. In syrups, sugar concentration can be measured by

a. Brix meter
b. Baume hydrometer
c. Refractometer
d. All of above
22. In canning of peas, -------------------------sugar concentration is used to improve the
taste.
a. 1-10%
b. 10-15%
c. 15-20%
d. 20-25%

23. In canning of vegetables, concentration of brine varies from

a. 1-3%
b. 3-6%
c. 6-9%
d. 9-12%

24. Objective of heating processing is

a. To improve the texture of food
b. To improve the flavor of food
c. To prolong the shelf life
d. All of above

25. Factor affecting heat processing is

a. Nature and number of microorganisms
b. Lethality of microorganisms
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

26. The target microorganism in canning is

a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Streptococcus thermophillus
c. PA 3679
d. Lactobacillus bulgaricus

27. The factors affecting heat penetration into food during canning
a. Nature and size of container
b. Time-Temperature relationship
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

28. In canning, the cans must be cooled to around…….oC to avoid over-cooking.

a. 40 oC
b. 50 oC
c. 60 oC
d. 70 oC
29. …………………….is the heart of vapor compression cycle refrigeration system.
a. Condenser
b. Compressor
c. Evaporator
d. Expansion valve

30. The life of food can doubled by merely lowering temperature of food by
a. 5 oC
b. 10 oC
c. 15 oC
d. 20 oC

31. Eggs are being dipped in ……………………before being brought inside the cold
stores.
a. Brine solution
b. Mineral oil
c. Molten wax
d. None of above

32. The refrigerator is general purpose equipment in which temperature is controlled and
maintained at
a. Below 0 oC
b. 0 - 10 oC
c. 10 -15 oC
d. None of above

33. Ripening of mangoes can be delayed by applying

a. Purafil
b. 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid
c. Malic hydride
d. Propham

34. In CA storage, the concentration of CO2 is

a. 0.03%
b. 1%
c. Above 10%
d. None of above

35. The boiling point of liquid N2 is

a. 79 oC
b. 46 oC
c. -196 oC
d. 68 oC
36. On freezing, water expands in volume
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%

37. Moisture from foods may be removed by

a. Evaporation and concentration
b. Dehydro-freezing
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

38. After sun-drying, moisture content in foods varies from

a. 0%
b. 10%
c. 10-15%
d. Above 20%

39. Tomato juice contains …………. % solids.

a. 0%
b. 5-10%
c. 10-15%
d. 15-20%

40. ……………………….is natural anti-oxidant commonly used to prevent oxidation in

fats and oils.
a. BHA
b. BHT
c. α -tocopherol
d. Propyl gallate

41. In alcoholic fermentation, the final product contains -------------% ethyl alcohol.
a. 3-5%
b. 5-10%
c. 505
d. 100%

42. In technologically advanced countries, the fermentation process is mainly used

a. To increase the shelf life
b. To add flavor and variety to the diet
c. To improve physical characteristics of the product
d. To produce alcohol
43. The normal concentration of alcohol in wines varies
a. 3-15%
b. 45-50%
c. 75-80%
d. 95-100%

45. By law, synthetic vinegar must contain al least ………….% acetic acid.
a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 4%
d. Above 10%

46. The most germicidal wavelength commercially used for irradiation of food is
a. 100-180nm
b. 200-280nm
c. 300-380nm
d. 400-480nm

47. A good packaging material should be

a. Low cost and non-toxic
b. Easily filled and disposed off
c. Provide barrier against light, temperature and moisture
d. All of above

48. In can manufacturing, the steel plate is coated with a thin protective layer of
a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Tin
d. Lead

49. Food label must contain

a. The name of the food
b. List of ingredients
c. Date of manufacture
d. All of above

50. …………………….radiations have much greater penetration power than other

radiation.
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. X-rays
51. After discovery of principle of food preservation, first time it was applied on
a. Milk
b. Wine
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

52. Which one is the most advanced food preservation technique?

a. Use of chemical additives
b. Canning
c. Use of radiations
d. Freezing

53. In irradiation method, food is preserved due to

a. Increase of temperature
b. Decrease of moisture content
c. Change in pH of food
d. Mutation in micro-organisms

54. Physical defects in food can be prevented by

a. Destroying enzymes
b. Optimal processing conditions
c. Prohibiting the entry of micro-organisms
d. None of above

55. Pickle is the example of

a. Alcoholic fermentation
b. Lactic acid fermentation
c. Acetic acid fermentation
d. None of above

156. Rancidity is mainly concerned with

a. Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Proteins
d. Vitamins

57. “Surface drying” is commonly observed physical defect in case of improper

a. Dehydration
b. Sun drying
c. Frozen storage
d. Irradiation

58. “Surface drying” can be minimized by

a. By lowering than average RH in storage rooms
b. No change in RH
c. By maintaining higher than average RH in storage rooms
 d. None of above

59. Enzymes are -----------------------in nature.

a. Fat
b. Protein
c. Carbohydrates
d. None of above

60. “Crystallization” is physical defect mainly observed in

a. Fat-based products
b. Sugar-based products
c. Protein-based products
d. Water-based products

61. During dry cleaning of grains, electronic metal detectors are used to remove.
a. Ferrous particles
b. Non-ferrous particles
c. Dust particles
d. Both a and b

62. Sorting is the separation of raw material into various categories based on
a. Color
b. Size
c. Shape
d. All of above

63. Mechanical peeler is mostly used for

a. Potatoes
b. Guava
c. Tomatoes
d. Peaches

64. In lye peeling, ---------------% hot NaOH solution is used for 30 seconds to few
minutes or longer depending upon the raw material.
a. 1-2%
b. 3-5%
c. 6-8%
d. >10%

65. The common example of filter aid is

a. Activated charcoal
b. Diatomaceous earth
c. Both a and b
d. None of above
66. Sulphiting agents like SO2 and salts releasing this gas are mainly employed to control
a. Enzymatic and non-enzymatic browning
b. Growth of micro-organisms
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

67. ----------------------------is best known alternative to sulphites.

a. K-metabisulphite
b. Citric acid
c. Sodium benzoate
d. Ascorbic acid

68. Direct heating over smokeless wood fire is called

a. Broasting
b. Barbecuing
c. Roasting
d. Grilling

69. Pasteurization is the heat treatment designed primarily to kill

a. Vegetable forms of microorganisms
b. All form of microorganisms
c. Spore
d. None of above

70. -----------------------treatment is also called as “flash pasteurization”.

a. LTLT
b. HTST
c. UHT
d. Pasteurization

71. In canning of fruits, concentration of sugar syrup varies

a. 10-20%
b. 20-40%
c. 50-60%
d. >75%

72. In canning, syrup or brine is filled in containers at a temperature of

a. Ambient temperature
b. 79-82oC
c. 100 oC
d. > oC
73. In canning of vegetables, brine concentration is tested with
a. Balling hydrometer
b. Refractometer
c. Salometer
d. Baume hyrometer

74. In spore forming bacteria maximum resistance occurs at pH

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

75. In canning, the objective of exhausting is

a. To expel the trapped air
b. To discourage the growth of bacterial spores
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

76. The success of canning depends on

a. Mechanism of heat processing
b. Degree of vacuum inside the containers
c. Quality of seal
d. All of above

77. The pH required for spore germination is

a. < 4.5
b. > 4.5
c. 7
d. None of above

78. The time required to kill microorganism at a given lethal temperature is known as
a. Z value
b. D value
c. C value
d. F value

79. Retort is used for

a. Blanching
b. Pasteurization
c. Sterilization
d. Exhaustion
80. The microorganisms multiply and die in
a. Geometric order
b. Logarithmic order
c. A-logarithmic order
d. None of above

81. ………………………is the food preservation method in which nutritional quality is

less harmed.
a. Canning
b. Freezing
c. Sun drying
d. Dehydration
e.

82. In domestic refrigerator -------------gas is used

a. CO2
b. Freon
c. N2
d. NH3

83. ------------------------is the example of biological preservative.

a. NIacin
b. Nisin
c. Sodium benzoate
d. Ascorbic acid

84. Animal tissues undergo anaerobic respiration, converting stored glycogen into
a. Fructose
b. Glucose
c. Galactose
d. Maltose

85. In CA storage the composition of gases inside the store is controlled by

a. Sensors
b. Scrubbers
c. Ventilators
d. None of above

86. …………………is the cheapest and oldest freezing method

a. Slush freezing
b. Blast freezing
c. Immersion freezing
d. Cryogenic freezing
87. --------------------------is the quickest freezing method
a. Slush freezing
b. Blast freezing
c. Cryogenic freezing
d. Immersion freezing

88. During frozen storage, as a result of fluctuations in electricity, the crystal size
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Become double
d. Remains as such

89. In sugar molecule water exists in

a. Free form
b. Colloidal form
c. Adsorbed water
d. Chemically bound form

90. The pH scale ranges from.

a. 1-10
b. 0-14
c. 1-14
d. 1-19

91. ------------------the main component of vinegar.

a. Acetic acid
b. Lactic acid
c. Citric acid
d. Malic acid

92. Acetobacor aceti converts ------------------into acetic acids

a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Glucose
c. Methyl alcohol
d. Starch

93. Two types of fermentations are carried out for the production of
a. Pickle
b. Yoghurt
c. Vinegar
d. Sausages
94. The SI unit of wave length is
a. Hz
b. Rad
c. Angstron
d. Gray

95. The wave length of visible light spectra is

a. 100-180nm
b. 200-280nm
c. 300-380nm
d. 400-700nm

96. ----------------rays have the least penetration power.

a. Alpha rays
b. Beta rays
c. Gamma rays
d. X-rays

97. Commercial radiations used for food preservation are produced from
a. Radium
b. Cesium
c. Plutonium
d. Uranium

98. Acidophilic milk is produced by

a. Lactic acid fermentation
b. Citric acid fermentation
c. Alcoholic fermentation
d. None of above

99. In bread manufacturing, alcoholic fermentation is carried out by

a. Streptococcus thermophillus
b. Saccharomyces cerevisae
c. S. carlsbergensis
d. Lactobacillus bulgaricus

100. Benzoic acid is preferred preservative for

a. Low acid foods
b. Medium acid foods
c. High acid foods
d. All of above

101. Any operation or operations that alter the food value is

a. Food Technology
b. Food Science
c. Food Preservation
d. Food Processing
102. A body of coherent and systematic knowledge that deal with understanding food
material nature and composition and their behavior under various condition to
which they may be subjected is
a. Food Technology
b. Food Science
c. Food Preservation
d. Food Processing

103. The processes to extend the shelf life of food is

a. Food Technology
b. Food Science
c. Food Preservation
d. Food Processing

104. In Pakistan in term of labor engaged food industry rank

a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

105. Pakistan largest food industry in term of number is

a. Sugar Industry
b. Wheat milling
c. Dairy industry
d. Confectionary

106. The industry concentrated in Karachi and costal area of Balochistan and Sindh is
a. Sugar Industry
b. Meat Industry
c. Dairy industry
d. Fish Industry

107. Melting point of water at 1 atmosphere is

a. 0 oC
b. 1 oC
c. 1.5 oC
d. 2 oC

108. Water available for chemical and biochemical reactions is

a. Physically bound water
b. Chemically bound water
c. Free water
d. Non of these
109. Butter and margarine are examples of --------------- solutions
a. Colloidal
b. Emulsion
c. Gel
d. Non of these

110. Compound that chemically contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, the later two in
2:1 are
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Lipids
d. Enzymes

111. Sugar that does not exit in nature in the free form is
a. Glucose
b. Lactose
c. Fructose
d. Galactose

112. The sweetness level of fructose while assigning sweetness of 100 units to sucrose is
a. 16
b. 30
c. 74
d. 173

113. Raffinose is example of --------------- carbohydrates

a. Polysaccharides
b. Disaccharides
c. Trisaccharides
d. Monosaccharide

114. The principle structural carbohydrates in plants is

a. Pectin
b. Agar
c. Cellulose
d. Hemi-cellulose

115. The stored reserved carbohydrates in animal body is

a. Pectin
b. Agar
c. Glycogen
d. Starch
116. The esters of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids with glycerol are called
a. Waxes
b. Lipid
c. Caroteniods
d. Steroids

117. The temperature at which fat ignite is called

a. Boiling point
b. Smoke point
c. Flash point
d. Non of these

118. Oxidative rancidity is catalyzed by

a. Oxidase
b. Lipase
c. Inorganic element catalyst
d. Ligase

119. Complex nitrogenous compound of high molecular weight are

a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Lipids
d. Enzymes

120. In Ice cream and whipped topping food foam is produced with
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Lipids
d. Enzymes

121. Kwashiorkor is deficiency disease of

a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Iron
d. Vitamin D

122. Chemically diversified compounds that exist in food as organic compounds are
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Enzymes
d. Vitamins
123. The vitamin which help the eye to adjust vision in dim light is
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K

124. Osteomalacia is the deficiency disease of

a. Vitamin B
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K

125. The vitamin associated with blood clotting is

a. Vitamin B
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K

126. Vitamin made up of thiazol and pyridine moiety is

a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin B12
d. Biotin

127. Beri beri is the deficiency disease of

a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin D
d. Niacin

128. Riboflavin exit in the form of ----------------- coenzyme

a. NAD
b. NADP
c. FAD
d. Non of these

129. Deficiency of ---------------- vitamin leads to glossits

a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B12
d. Niacin

130. Pellagra is the disease caused by the deficiency of

a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin E
d. Niacin
131. The Vitamin which work as a part of enzyme that take part in transamination
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B6
d. Niacin

132. Vitamin associated with the synthesis of nucleic acid and formation of RBC
a. Biotin
b. Folic acid
c. Thiamin
d. Niacin

133. Vitamin that take part as coenzyme for carboxylation and transcarboxylation
reactions
a. Biotin
b. Folic acid
c. Thiamin
d. Niacin

134. Vitamin ----------------combines with avidin and become unavailable to the body
a. Biotin
b. Folic acid
c. Thiamin
d. Niacin

135. Pernicious anemia is caused due the deficiency of

a. Biotin
b. Protein
c. Cyanocobalamine
d. Iron

136. Ascorbic acid deficiency result in

a. Beri beri
b. Dermatitis
c. Scurvy
d. Glossitis

137. Potassium deficiency in the body leads to

a. Osteomalacia
b. Dermatitis
c. Ricket
d. Muscular paralysis
138. Mineral associated with the production of insulin in the body is
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Magnesium

139. Hemoglobin is soluble in

a. Alcohol
b. Water
c. Benzene
d. Alkali

140. Isoamyl acetate, a well-known compound for its banana like flavor belong -----------
group of flavoring compound
a. Alcohol
b. Fatty acid
c. Esters
d. Ketones

141. Anti-nutrient present in cereal grain in higher amount is

a. Phenolics
b. Oxalate
c. Nitrate
d. Phytate

142. Thiaminase destroys vitamin thiamine in -------------------

a. Legumes
b. Raw Egg
c. Raw Fish
d. Poultry meat

143. Oxalate is present in higher concentration in

a. Legumes
b. Spinach
c. Cabbage
d. Pea

144. The moisture contents of stable foods vary between

a. 20-25%
b. 30-40%
c. 0%
d. >15%
145. Normal shelf life of semi perishable foods is
a. 20 days
b. 40 days
c. 2 months
d. 4 months

146. Acid foods have pH in the range of

a. 1.5-2.0
b. 2.5-3.0
c. 3.7-4.5
d. 5.0-6.0

147. Clostridium botulinum mainly result in spoilage of -------------- foods

a. High acid Food
b. Acidic Food
c. Medium acid Food
d. Low acid Food

148. pH of freshly laid egg white is

a. 4.0
b. 6.5
c. 8.0
d. 10.0

149. Any change that renders food unfit for human consumption is called
a. Processing
b. Spoilage
c. Deterioration
d. Preservation

150. Hemoglobin is the oxidized product of oxymyoglobin and results in ------------

pigment to meat
a. Pink
b. Brown
c. Bright red
d. Black

151. Enzyme responsible for enzymatic browning

a. Lipase
b. Phenolase
c. Oxidase
d. Amylase
152. Majority of enzymes are destroyed at a temperature
a. 35-45oC
b. 55-60 oC
c. 70-80 oC
d. 90-100 oC

153. Substance that provide energy when ingested is called

a. Food
b. Drug
c. Drink
d. Diet

154. Major food crop of Pakistan is

a. Rice
b. Maize
c. Wheat
d. barley

155. Main product of sugarcane in Pakistan is

a. Gur
b. Shakkar
c. Sugar
d. Non of these

156. Poultry meat market is occupied by

a. Ducks
b. Layers
c. Broilers
d. Pigeons

157. Main component of Pakistani diet for energy and protein requirement is
a. Pulses
b. Cereals
c. Sugar
d. Meat

158. By-product separated from wheat during milling is

a. Atta
b. Maida
c. Bran
d. Suji
159. Main industry using corn as a raw material is
a. Vita Bread
b. Nestle Milkpak
c. CPC Rafhan
d. Mitchell’s

160. Snack foods include

a. Maida and atta
b. Fermented foods
c. Roasted and fried food
d. All of these

161. Which of the following is not included in our indigenous product

a. Laddoo
b. Ras gulla
c. Ras malai
d. Chocolate

162. Which of he following is our indigenous dairy product

a. Kefir
b. Cheese
c. Yoghurt
d. Kulfa

163. During the peak season of the crop, food prices

a. Rise sharply
b. Fall sharply
c. No effect
d. Non of these

164. The first food technologist who wrote book on food preservation
a. Alexander Flemming
b. Nicolas Appert
c. Abdul Salam
d. Louis Pasture

165. Which of the following contain higher amount of water

a. Meat
b. Potato
c. Tomato
d. Butter
166. Compound that is insoluble in water is
a. Alcohols
b. Ketones
c. Aldehydes
d. Organic acid

167. Compound that is not used as a gelling agent is

a. Pectin
b. Gums
c. Lecithin
d. CMC

168. Main source of carbohydrates is

a. Animals
b. Fish
c. Plants
d. Birds

169. Sucrose is the product of

a. Glucose + Glucose
b. Glucose + Maltose
c. Glucose + Fructose
d. Glucose + Galactose

170. Which of the following sugar is not a monosaccharide

a. Glucose
b. Maltose
c. Fructose
d. Galactose

171. Sugars when heated intensely turn brown due to

a. Oxidation
b. Maillard,s reaction
c. Caramalization
d. All of these

172. Fats and oils can be made to mix with water in the presence of
a. Gelling agent
b. Emulsifying agent
c. Thickening agent
d. All of these
173. Number of naturally occurring amino acids are
a. 24
b. 20
c. 18
d. 22

174. In human body protein provide energy

a. 9 Kcal
b. 6 Kcal
c. 4 Kcal
d. 7 Kcal

175. Amino acid essential for children is

a. Alanine
b. Arginine
c. Histidine
d. Cystein

176. On the body weight basis the protein requirement is higher for
a. Women
b. Men
c. Children
d. Adults

177. Precursor of vitamin A is

a. Lycopene
b. β-carotene
c. Anthocynin
d. Chlorophyll

178. Main source of β-carotene is

a. Watermelon
b. Tomato
c. Carrot
d. All of these

179. Cholecalciferol (D-3) main source is

a. Plants
b. Animals
c. Both of above
d. Non of above
180. Rich source of vitamin E is
a. Rice bran
b. Wheat germ
c. Rice flour
d. Wheat bran

181. Vitamin B-6 is also known as

a. Niacin
b. Biotin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Folic acid

182. Rich source of vitamin C is

a. Cereals
b. Pulses
c. Citrus fruits
d. Oilseeds

183. Osmotic pressure of the body fluids is maintained by

a. Calcium
b. Sodium
c. Chlorine
d. Magnesium

184. Magnesium is the part of

a. Lycopene
b. β-carotene
c. Anthocynin
d. Chlorophyll

185. Which of the following is not sulfur containing amino acid

a. Cystein
b. Cystein
c. Methionine
d. Arginine

186. Goiter is the deficiency disease of

a. Magnesium
b. Ion
c. Iodine
d. Zinc
187. Selenium is associated with vitamin
a. A
b. B
c. E
d. K

188. Fluorine is needed for the formation and maintenance of

a. Body tissue
b. Hairs
c. Bone and teeth
d. Non of these

189. Colors provide vitamin--------

a. A
b. B
c. E
d. K

190. Colors provide mineral--------

a. Magnesium
b. Ion
c. Iodine
d. Zinc

191. Lakes are soluble in

a. Alcohol
b. Lipid
c. Water
d. Alkali

192. Which fatty acid is present in rancid butter

a. Capric acid
b. Acetic acid
c. Butyric acid
d. Palmitic acid

193. Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is used as

a. Color
b. Flavor
c. Flavor enhancer
d. All of these
194. Malic is an organic acid present in
a. Mango
b. Grapes
c. Apple
d. Citus
195. Cereal and legumes are the examples of
a. Stable Foods
b. Perishable foods
c. Semi- Perishable foods
d. All of these

196. The temperature resistance of microorganism in high acid food is

a. High
b. Medium
c. Low
d. No effect

197. Food intoxication is the ingestion of

a. Toxin produced by microorganism
b. Toxin producing microorganism
c. Non of both
d. Both of these

198. Autolysis is caused by

a. Microorganisms
b. Rodents
c. Enzymes
d. All of these

199. Chance of enzymatic rancidity is higher in

a. Saturated fatty acids
b. Unsaturated fatty acids
c. Equal
d. Non of these

200. In putrefaction, unpleasant ammonia like smell is produced by the action of enzymes
on
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Nitrogenous compounds
d. Non of these

201. Exhausting is carried out in the canning process to remove:

a. Dust
b. Air
c. Toxin
d. Hydrogen
202. Blanching is done in the processing of:
a. Meat
b. Fruits
c. Poultry
d. Fish

203. Maltose on the hydrolysis provides:

a. Glucose
b. Glucose & fructose
c. Glucose & galactose
d Fructose

204. Oil content is more in:

a. Maize
b. Wheat
c. Rice
d. Barley

205. Fats are made of fatty acids and:

a. Glycogen
b. Glycerol
c. Glycerin
d. Glucose

206. In anaerobic fermentation sugar is converted into ethanol and:

a. CO2
b. H2O
c. CO
d. O2

207. Rancidity is the spoilage of:

a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Glucose
d. Carbohydrates

208. Scalding is done in the processing of:

a. Fish
b. Poultry
c. Fruits
d. Meat
209. Water soluble vitamin is:
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. E

210. Roller drier is used for dehydration of:

a. Meat
b. Milk
c. Maize
d. Fruit

211. The principle behind freeze drying is:

a. Homogenization
b. Sublimation
c. Evaporation
d. Dehydration

212. Rennet enzyme is used in the preparation of:

a. Cheese
b. Pickle
c. Margarine
d. Butter

213. In fish fishy flavor is due to:

a. Adenosine triphosphate
b. Glycogen
c. Trimethylamine oxide
d. Methionine
214. In the processing of poultry defeathering is carried out by:
a. Smoking
b. Curing
c. Mechanically
d. Brining

215. Refractometer is used for determination of:

a. Protein
b. Vitamins
c. Sugar
d. Fats
216. Food with pH 3.7-4.5 is:
a. Acidic
b. high acid
c. medium acid.
d. Alkaline
217. A semisolid product made by boiling fruit pulp with sugar is:
a. Jam
b. Jelly
c. Marmalade
d. Squash

218. Albumin is the protein of:

a. Milk
b. Meat
c. Egg
d. Wheat

219. Filled milk product in which butter fat has been replaced with: ----------
a. Starch
b. Vegetable oil
c. Glucose
d. Protein

220. Rancidity of fats can be prevented with vitamin:

a. E
b. A
c. D
d. C

221. Candling method is used for grading of:

a. Apple
b. Cucumber
c. Egg
d. Potato

222. Egg yolk is rich of:

a. Lysine
b. Lecithin
c. Lactose
d. Thiamine

223. To prevent egg white coagulation during Pasteurization lower temperature of 52-53
o
C for 1.5 min is used combined with:
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Sulphur dioxide
d. Hydrogen
224. Lye solution is used for fruits:
a. Pitting
b. Peeling
c. Coring
d. Trimming

225. Caramelization results from heating action on:

a. Sugar
b. Lipids
c. Protein
d. Oils

226. Kwashiorkor and Marasmus are the deficiency diseases of:

a. Protein
b. Carbohydrate
c. Fats
d. Sugar

227. Ascorbic acid deficiency disease is:

a. Scurvy
b. Night blindness
c. Dementia
d. Headache

228. Conversion of sugar in to starch during ripening is desirable in: -------

a. Fruits
b. Vegetables
c. Not Desired
d. Maize

229. Cider is a product obtained on fermentation the juice of:

a. Mango
b. Apple
c. Barley
d. Strawberry

230. Thick wax coating usually reduces:

a. Respiration rate
b. Water loss
c. Shine of the product.
d. Protein

231. The predominant acid present in the grape juice is:

 a. Malic acid
b. Tartaric acid
c. Citric acid
d. Lactic acid

232. Safe moisture content of wheat is:

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%.
d. 40%

233. The volume of the dough increases with:

a. CO2
b. H2S
c. Nitrogen
d. Hydrogen

234. Amount of unsaturated fatty acids in oils is determined with:

a. Iodine test
b. Sponification value
c. Peroxide value
d. Purification

235. Phytic acid (anti-nutrient) inhibits the release of:

a. Minerals
b. Vitamins
c. Fatty acids
d. Citric acid

236. Disorganization of egg white is done for controlling of:

a. Browning
b. Rancidity
c. Spoilage
d. Poisoning

237. Homogenization is done to breakdown the size of:

a. Protein
b. Fats
c. Fructose
d. Sucrose

238. Casein is a protein of :

a. Milk
b. Wheat
c. Meat
d. Fish
239. Galactose is obtained from:
a. Maltose
b. Sucrose
c. Lactose
d. Fructose

240. Commonly used chemical preservative in bakery is:

a. Benzoate
b. Propionate
c. Ascorbate
d. Acetic acid

241. The common protein of wheat is:

a. Gluten
b. Casein
c. Globulin
d. Glycine

242. Clostridium Botulinum is

a. Bacteria
b. Mold
c. Yeast
d. Virus

243. Enzymes are

a. Bio- catalyst
b. Chemo- catalyst
c. Physio- Catalyst
d. Inhibitor

244. Thermophiles grows at

a. 8 to 45C
b. 25 to 30C
c. 0 to 20C
d. 50-600 C

245. Type of yeast used for alcoholic fermentation is

a. Saccharomyces Cerevisiae
b. Streptococcus thermophillus
c. Acetobacter acceti
d. Clostridium botulinum

246. Effectiveness of blanching is determined by

 a. Catalase/peroxidase test
b. Catalase/oxidase test
c. Iodine value test
d. Saponification

247. Cans after sterilization should be cooled up to

a. 30 -33C
b. 40-43C
c. 50-53C
d. 60-65o C
e.
248. Water activity of pure water is
a. 0
b. 0.1
c. 1
d. 1.5

249. In egg white biotin (vitamin) tied up by a protein called

a. Avidin
b. Cholesterol
c. Zein
d. Insulin

250. Sucrose is:

a. Monosaccharide
b. Disaccharide
c. Polysaccharide
d. None

251. The removal of undesired part from fruits & vegetables is called:
a. Trimming
b. Coring
c. Sorting
d. Pitting

252. The reaction between protein & sugar is known:

a. Maillard browning
b. Mutton reaction
c. Caramilization
d. Neutralization

253. Pectin is:

a. Monosaccharide
b. Disaccharide
c. Polysaccharide
d. None
254. Carotenoid occurring in:
a. Meat
b. Fish
c. Fruits
d. Honey

255. During cutting of potatoes we use ascorbic acid as a:

a. Preservative
b. Antioxidant
c. Sweetener
d. Flavor

256. Fatty content of “Lard” is present in:

a. Coconut
b. Sheep
c. Pork
d. Goat

257. Fats are solid due to the presence of more:

a. Glycogen
b. Hydrogen
c. Hydrocarbons
d. Glucose

258. Gas used as a refrigerant is:

a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Chlorine
d. Hydrogen

259. Micro-Kjeldhal method is used for nutrient analysis of:

a. Protein
b. Amino acid
c. Fatty acid
d. Vitamins

260. Carotene is the precursor for vitamin:

a. A
b. D
c. E
d. K

261. Hops plants juice extract is used for flavor improvement of:
 a. Vinegar
b. Beer
c. Coffee
d. Tea

262. Beer is prepared from:

a. Grass
b. Grape
c. Grains
d. Orange

263. Spectrophotometer is working on the principle of:

a. Beers law
b. Boyls law
c. Newton law
d. Charles law

264. Vitamin essential for the function of coenzymes is:

a. Riboflavin
b. Thiamin
c. Niacin
d. Lysine

265. Peptide bond is present in:

a. Protein
b. Pectin
c. Penicillin
d. Prolamine

266. The boiling point of liquid nitrogen at atmospheric pressure is: --------
a. -169oC
b. -196 oC
c. -96 o C
d. –296o C

267. Electrophoresis technique is used for the qualitative test of:

a. Peptides
b. Proteins
c. Propionates
d. Pectin
268. In artificial tenderization meat is treated with:
a. Enzymes
b. Antibiotics
c. Tannin
d. Bacteria

269. We need water soluble vitamins daily dose in:

 a. Grams
b. Milligrams
c. Micrograms
d. Nanograms

270. Radiation Pasteurization treatment of food is called:

a. Radappertization
b. Radurization
c. Radicidation
d. Appetization

271. Based on consumption pattern, the foods are divided into how many groups:
a. 7
b. 6
c. 5
d. 4

272. Out of about 300 known nutrients the number of essential nutrients is:
55
45
35
25

273. Balanced diet is one that contains:

a. Fried snacks
b. Egg and milk proteins
c. All nutrients in the proportions required by an individual
d. All essential amino acids in required proportion

274. What percentage of the pregnant/lactating mothers are anaemic in Pakistan:

a. 75%
b. 45%
c. 30%
d. 25%

275. Which of the following is not a function of water in the human body:
a. Regulation of body temperature
b. Regulation of body mass
c. Medium for chemical and biochemical reactions
d. Participation in chemical reactions

276. How much water is supplied to the body through metabolic activity:
20-25%
15-20%
10-15%
05-10%
277. How much water is lost through faeces
100 – 200 mL
200 – 300 mL
300 – 400 mL
400 – 500 mL

278. What is the harmful effects of excess drinking of water

Results in kidney stone
Results in diarrhea
Increases blood pressure
None of the above

279. Which group of bacteria should not be present in drinking water

Lactobacilli
Streptococci
Coliforms
None of the above

280. What is the minimum requirement of water per day in a temperate climate for a
sedentary person:
1000 mL
2000 mL
3000 mL
4000 mL

281. Which group of food has highest water content:

Legumes
Fruits
Vegetables
Tubers

282. How much energy is supplied by a gram of sugar:

a. 36 kJ
b. 26 kJ
c. 16 kJ
d. 3.75 kJ

283. If the sweetness of sucrose is hundred units, what is the sweetness of glucose:
a. 74 units
b. 16 units
c. 32 units
d. 174 units

284. Sugar that does not exist free in nature is:

 a. Maltose
b. Lactose
c. Galactose
d. Fructose

285. Beneficial roles of oligosacharides are:

a. Provide structural sugars
b. Provide energy in the body
c. Consumed by beneficial intestinal bacteria
d. Prevent constipation

286. How many glucose units make up a molecule of starch:

a. 2000 – 4000
b. 4000 – 15000
c. 7000 – 19000
d. Above 20000

287. Water soluble fractions of dietary fibre do not include:

a. Pectins
b. Gums
c. Mucilages
d. Lignins

288. Energy needs of an individual depend upon:

a. Body weight
b. Age
c. Climate
d. All of the above

289. Which foods are best source of energy in the body:

a. Cereals and cereal products
b. Legumes and pulses
c. Roots and tubers
d. Fats and edible oils

290. One example of a saturated fatty acid is:

a. Butyric acid
b. Arachidonic acid
c. Linoleic acid
d. Glutamic acid
291. An example of unsaturated fatty acid is:
a. Linoleic acid
b. Tartaric acid
c. Stearic acid
d. Capric acid

292. An essential fatty acid is:

 a. Linoleic acid
b. Malic acid
c. Stearic acid
d. None of the above

293. Lecithin falls in the group of:

a. Essential amino acids
b. Phospholipids
c. Glycolipids
d. Sterols

294. How much cholesterol is synthesized in the body of an average adult in a day:
a. 500 mg
b. 1000
c. 1500 mg
d. 2000 mg

295 How much total energy should be obtained from fats and oils in a normal diet:
a. 50 – 60 %
b. 40 – 50%
c. 30 – 40 %
d. 20 – 30%

296. A carbohydrate based fat substitute is:

a. Simplasse
b. Polydextrose
c. Olestra
d. Esterified propoxylated glycerol (EPG)

297. How many distinct groups are present in an amino acid:

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

298. One of the following is an essential amino acid:

a. Phenylalanine
b. Alanine
c. Glycine
d. Serine

299. One of the following is a non-essential amino acid:

 a. Lysine
b. Glutamic acid
c. Methionine
d. None of the above

300. A dipeptide is formed when:

a. Two amino acids link together
b. Two monosaccharides link together
c. When fatty acid and glycerol form a bond
d. In all the above situations

301. The two essential amino acids required in largest quantity by men are:
a. Isoleucine and lysine
b. Lysine and threonine
c. Leucine and methionine
d. Valine and lysine

302. The synthesis of protein is directed by:

a. RNA
b. DNA
c. Availability of essential amino acids
d. All of the above

303. One gram of protein supplies energy approximately:

a. 3.75 kcal
b. 4.0 kcal
c. 7.35 kcal
d. 9.0 kcal

304. What is the protein RDA of a female student weighing 58 kg:

a. 16 g per day
b. 26 g per day
c. 36 g per day
d. 46 g per day

305. What is the recommended dietary allowance of a male student weighting 67 kg

a. 45 grams
b. 54 grams
c. 69 grams
d. 83 grams
306. The possible toxic effect of excess protein consumption over a long period is:
a. Obesity
b. Diabetes
c. Kidney stone
d. All of the above

307. Vitamin B-1 is also called

a. Riboflavin
b. Thiamine
c. Pantothenic acid
d. Niacin
308. Vitamin B-1 occurs in animal tissues as
a. ADP
b. TPP thiamine pyro phosphate
c. ATP
d. CoA

309. The disease caused by the deficiency of vitamin B-1 is:

a. Scurvy
b. Glossitis
c. Beriberi
d. Anemia

310. Vit B-2 occurs in the form of a co-enzyme

a. ATP
b. ADP
c. TPP
d. CoA
311. Vit B-2 is particularly sensitive to:
a. High temperature
b. Low temperature
c. Drying
d. Sunlight

312. A good source of niacin is

a. Whole grain cereals
b. Banana
c. Pasta
d. All of the above

313. Deficiency of vitamin B-6 results in:

a. Insomnia
b. Night blindness
c. Rashes on the body
d. Kwashiorkor
314. Deficiency of folic acid results in:
a. Pernicious anaemia
b. Megaloblastic anaemia
c. Anaemia
d. None of the above

315. Pantothenic acid is required for the formation of:

a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Nerve tissues
d. Coenzyme A

316. In which pH range pantothenic acid is more stable:

a. 3 – 3.5
b. 3.5 – 4.5
c. 4.5 – 5
d. 5.0 – 8.0

317. The disease caused by the deficiency of vitamin B-12 is:

a. Pernicious anaemia
b. Megaloblastic anaemia
c. Glossitis
d. Scurvy

318. Best source of vitamin C is:

a. Cereals group
b. Vegetable group
c. Meat and meat products
d. Roots and tubers group

319. Excessive consumption of vitamin C may lead to:

a. Enlargement of liver
b. Stone formation in the gall bladder
c. Stone formation in the kidney
d. Stone formation in the gut

320. Deficiency of vitamin C results in:

a. Scurvy
b. Glossitis
c. Beriberi
d. Anaemia

321. Vitamin C is lost due to:

a. Oxidation
b. High temperature
c. Storage for long periods
d. All of the above
322. Vitamin A participates in the formation of:
a. Red blood cells
b. Visual purple
c. Bones
d. Tissues

323. Vit. A is stored in the body in:

a. Liver
b. Brain
c. Kidney
d. All of the above

324. Deficiency of Vitamin A occurs in people:

a. Suffering from insomnia
b. Having kidney stones
c. Obstruction of the bile duct
d. Suffering from chronic diarrhoea

325. Consumption of vit. A in doses more than 25,000 IU adversely affects:

a. Accumulation of fat
b. Enlargement of liver
c. Dysfunction of kidneys
d. None of the above

326. Vit. D is closely related to:

a. Cholesterol
b. Tocopherol
c. Menadione
d. None of the above

327. Vit D-2 can be obtained from vegetables by:

a. Irradiation
b. Exposure to high temperature
c. Subjecting to thermal shock
d. Dehydration

328. In adults deficiency of Vt. D results in:

a. Kwashirokor
b. Rickets
c. Osteoporosis
d. Bleeding of gums

329. How much Vit. D is lost during cooking:

a. Almost nil
b. 10 – 20%
c. 20 – 30 %
d. 30 – 40 %
330. Vit E is called
a. Tocopherol
b. Tocotrienol
c. Carotenoid
d. Cholecalciferol

331. A natural sources of Vit. E is:

a. Kidney beans
b. Mutton
c. Wheat germ
d. All of the above

332. An important role of vit E in human body is:

a. Clotting of blood
b. Acts as antioxidant
c. Prevents beriberi
d. Prevents bleeding of gums

333. Where is Vit-E stored in the body

a. Adipose tissue
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Brain

334. Vit. K activity is found in a fat-soluble compound called:

a. Phospholipids
b. Tocopherol
c. Naphthaquinoe derivatives
d. Menadione

335. A good source of Vit. K is:

a. Spinach
b. Turnips
c. Guava
d. Beans

336. An important function of Vit. K is:

a. Production of red blood cells
b. Muscle development
c. Bone development
d. Clotting of blood

337. Deficiency of vit. K in the body results in:

a. Liver damage
b. Kidney failure
c. Stroke
d. None of the above
338. An important major function of inorganic materials is:
a. Regulatory
b. Blood formation
c. Detoxification
d. All of the above

339. How much calcium is stored in the skeleton

a. 99 %
b. 95%
c. 90 %
d. 85 %

340. Anti-nutritional factor that hinders the absorption of calcium is:

a. Tea
b. Gossypol
c. Citric acid
d. Phytic acid

341. Which of the following food is rich in calcium

a. Wheat endosperm
b. Tomatoes
c. Ghee
d. Leafy vegetables

342. Major role of chlorine in the body is:

a. Production of HCl
b. Disinfection of the gut
c. Clotting of blood
d. Transport of oxygen to the tissues

343. How much iodine is contained in the body of an adult?

a. 05 – 10 mg
b. 10 – 20 mg
c. 20 – 50 mg
d. 50 – 100 mg

344. In terms of labour employed, food industry in Pakistan ranks next to:
a. Tobacco industry
b. Beverage industry
c. Textile industry
d. Electronics industry

345. The end products of a food processing industry must be:

a. Nutritious
b. Wholesome
c. Safe
d. All of the above
346. Fixed investment in a food industry is required for:
a. Purchase of land and equipment
b. Purchase of raw materials
c. Payment of utility bills
d. None of the above

347. Working capital in a food industry is needed for the:

a. Construction of pavements
b. Installation charges for the equipment
c. Construction of buildings
d. Purchase of raw materials and chemicals

348. Food processing industry should not be located near:

a. Cement manufacturing industry
b. Poultry farms
c. Waste disposal system
d. All of the above

349. Site for a food processing plant must have:

a. Abundant supplies of water
b. Abundant supplies of potable water
c. Adequate supplies of fresh chemicals
d. None of the above

350. Which type of labour in a food industry is migratory:

a. Unskilled
b. Semi-skilled
c. Skilled
d. Consultants

351. No food industry can be established in a locality that lacks:

a. Good roads
b. Telephone connection
c. Uninterrupted electricity supply
d. All the above

352. A good design of a food processing plant must ensure:

a. Hygienic operations from the arrival of raw materials to the dispatch of
finished products
b. Good roads in the premises
c. Availability of a standby generator
d. All of the above
353. Second most common source of accidents in food industries is:
a. Roof failure
b. Floor failure
c. Faulty electrical wiring
d. Machinery

354. How many shocks the floor has to withstand in a food processing industry
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3

355. When does the thermal shock occur on food processing floor:
a. When floor is cleaned with detergent solution
b. When floor is washed with warm water
c. When a hot water hose is laid on the floor
d. When nitric acid-based cleaning solutions are used

356. Use of tiled floors in dairy industry is:

a. Hygienic
b. Long lasting
c. Cost effective
d. All of the above

357. Slope in drains in food processing areas should be:

a. One inch per foot
b. Three quarters of an inch per foot
c. Half an inch per foot
d. Quarter of an inch per foot

358. Auxiliary facilities in a food processing industry include:

a. Washrooms
b. Easy access to the tools
c. Availability of chemicals
d. Working outfit

359. Suitable equipment for a food processing plant is one that has:
a. Serrations
b. Flanges
c. Can be cleaned easily
d. Cannot be cleaned easily
360. Unsuitable material for the construction of food processing equipment is:
a. Stainless steel
b. Recycled plastics
c. Glass
d. Tinned wares

361. Which is not an objective of good plant layout:

a. Simplify production process
b. Provide worker convenience
c. Maximize materials handling
d. Avoid unnecessary capital investment

362. Most plant layouts are simulated by one of the following development:
a. Frequent accidents
b. Low profits
c. Better working environment
d. None of the above

363. How many types of soils are encountered in food processing plants:
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2

364. Food processing spills give rise to:

a. Organic deposits
b. Alkaline deposits
c. Acidic deposits
d. Inorganic deposits

365. A good detergent should not posses one of the following properties:
a. Good solubility
b. Good corrosive activity
c. Good emulsification properties
d. Easily rinseable

366. One of the following is not a detergent:

a. Organic acids
b. Sodium hydroxide
c. EDTA
d. Soap

367. Acid detergents are useful for removing:

a. Organic deposits
b. Inorganic deposits
c. Algae
d. Bacteria
368. Mark the one which is not an alkaline detergent:
a. Sodium metasilicate
b. Trisodium phosphate
c. Soda ash
d. Phosphoric acid

369. Mark the one which is not a surface active agent:

a. Calcium hydroxide
b. Soaps
c. Alkylaryl sulphonates
d. Quats

370. EDTA stands for:

a. Ethanol diamine tetra acetic acid
b. Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid
c. Ethylene diamino tetra acetate
d. Ethanol diamino tetra acetic acid

371. A good water conditioning agent is:

a. Soap
b. EDTA
c. Sodium metasilicate
d. Dilute hydrochloric acid

372. Which is not a chemical sanitizer:

a. Sodium hypochlorite
b. Quarternary ammonium compounds
c. EDTA
d. Iodophres

373. Pressures employed to blast off soils from surfaces of equipment range
between:
a. 300 – 500 psi
b. 500 – 700 psi
c. 700 – 1000 psi
d. 1000 – 1300 psi

374. At what temperature is hot water used in CIP system for sterilisation:
a. 70ºC
b. 80ºC
c. 90ºC
d. 100ºC

375. What is the usual concentration of sodium hydroxide used for CI”P in a still
beverage plant:
 a. 0.5 – 1.0%
b. 1.0 – 1.5%
c. 1.5 – 2.0%
d. 2.0 – 2.5%
376. Milk is a food which provides:
a. Antibiotics
b. Building material
c. Energy source
d. All above

377. Milk leaves the udder at a temperature of about:

a. 25°C
b. 31°C
c. 37°C
d. 43°C

378. Fresh milk from a healthy cow is practically free from:

a. Whey
b. Lactose
c. Bacteria
d. None of the above

379. Contamination of milk is caused to a great extent by:

a. Equipment
b. Contact surface
c. All of above
d. None of above

380. Fat globules in sheep’s milk range in size:

a. 0.5 to 25 microns
b. 20-40 microns
c. 45-65 microns
d. None of above

381. Milk is:

a. Emulsion of water in fat
b. Emulsion of fat in water
c. Colloidal of water in fat
d. Colloidal of fat in water

382. Butter is an:

a. Colloidal solution
b. Emulsion of fat in water
c. Emulsion of water in fat
d. All of above
383. When milk and cream turn to butter there is a phase inversion from an:
a. oil-in-water emulsion to a water-in-oil emulsion
b. water-in-oil emulsion to a oil-in-water emulsion
c. Both of above
d. None of above

384. Example of colloidal solution is:

a. Sugar in water
b. Chalk in water
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

385. The typical characteristics of a colloid are:

a. Small particle size
b. Electrical charge
c. Affinity of the particles for water molecules
d. All above

386. In milk the whey proteins are in:

a. Colloidal solution
b. Colloidal suspension
c. Emulsion
d. None of above

387. Milk fifteen days after calving is actually free from :

a. Essential Amino acids
b. Clostrum
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

388. Milk fat consists of:

a. Triglycerides
b. Diglycerides
c. Monoglycerides
d. All above

389. The yellow color of cow milk fat is due to:

a. Fatty acids
b. Sterols
c. Carotenoids
d. Vitamins
390. Milk contains vitamins:
a. Vitamin A and D
b. E and K
c. Both a and b
d. More percent of Vit.E.

391. Iodine value is the percentage of iodine:

a. Which fat can release
b. Fat can replace
c. Fat can bind
d. All above

392. Iodine value is measured by:

a. Oliec acid
b. Unsaturated fatty acids
c. Refractive index
d. All above

393. Buffalo milk fat percentage ranges in between:

a. 5-6.5
b. 3-4.5
c. 4-8.5
d. 4-5.5

394. Milk proteins may be classified in various ways according to:

a. Chemical or physical properties
b. Biological functions
c. Both “a” and “b”
d. None of above

395. The term milk serum is applied for:

a. Casien
b. Lactose
c. Salts
d. Whey

396. The whey proteins include:

a. Alpha-lactalbumin
b. Beta-lactoglobulin
c. Both “a” and “b”
d. None of the above
397. Buffer solution is one which:
a. Cannot maintain pH
b. Can maintain pH
c. Contain both acids and basis
d. more alkaline

398. The enzymes in milk may come from:

a. Milking man
b. Container
c. Bacteria
d. Yeast

399. Enzymes in nature are :

a. Bacteria
b. Fats
c. Milk proteins
d. Proteins

400. The enzymes are named with the addition of:

a. Acea
b. Ase
c. Phillic
d. phobic

401. Enzymes in milk are inactivated when:

a. Separated
b. Boiled
c. Denatured
d. All above

402. Storch’s peroxidase test is:

a. Estimation of peroxidase to observe efficiency of pasteurization .
b. Estimation of peroxidase to observe efficiency of pasteurization .
c. Estimation of peroxidase to observe efficiency of pasteurization .
d. Estimation of peroxidase to observe efficiency of pasteurization .

403. Fat soluble vitamins in milk are:

a. A and C
b. A and D
c. C and D
d. A and C
404. Lipolysis is breakdown of:
a. Protein
b. Carbohydrate
c. Vitamin
d. Fat

405. Colostrum is:

a. The first milk that a cow produces after calving
b. Differs greatly from normal milk in composition
c. Differs greatly from normal milk in properties
d. All above

406. Bacteria are normally reproduced by:

a. Budding
b. Spore formation
c. Binary fission
d. All above

407. Shape of bacteria may be:

a. Cocci
b. Baccili
c. Both a and b
d. None of above

408. Which part of bacteria may involve in sexual reproduction:

a. Cell wall
b. Capsule
c. Cytoplasma
d. Pili

409. The spore formation in bacteria is:

a. For reproduction
b. For protection
c. For movement
d. None of above

410. Lactic acid bacteria include

a. Lactococcus lactis
b. Lactococcus cremoris
c. Bifidobacterium
d. All above
411. The HTST process for milk involves heating at:
a. 50-60°C
b. 72–75°C
c. 140-142°C
d. None of above

412. Sterilization is done at:

a. 100°C
b. 80-90°C
c. 121°C
d. 72-95°C

413. Milk is purchased for processing on the basis of:

a. Protein percentage
b. Price available in the market
c. Fat percentage
d. Moisture level

414. Milk after reception in the industry is stored in;

a. Balance tanks
b. Silos
c. Reception pipe line
d. Mixing tanks

415. Steam production in dairy industry is essential for:

a. Pasteurization
b. Sterilization
c. CIP
d. All of the above

416. Pasteurization temperature of milk is dependant on:

a. Time
b. Quantity of milk
c. Distance of fluid flow
d. Milk composition

417. Heating of milk is carried out by:

a. Drum driers
b. Vacuum driers
c. Plate heat exchangers
d. Tunnel driers
418. Factors that influence heat transfer are:
a. External process
b. Design of heat exchanger
c. Physical properties of milk
d. All of the above

419. Milk quantity at reception is measured by:

a. Weighing balance
b. Measuring tanks
c. Flow meter
d. Already measured tankers.
MCQs
Q 1. Chilling injuries arising from the exposure of the products to a temperature
a. above the normal physiological range
b. below the normal physiological range
c.under poor ventilation condition
d. in CA storage
Q 2. The volatile toxic substances accumulate in the tissue when fruit are stored in an
environment of
a. above the normal physiological range
b. below the normal physiological range
c .under poor ventilation condition
d. in CA storage

Q 3. What is the form of membrane lipids in fruits and vegetables that are resistant to
chilling .
a. semifluid
b. fluid
c. rigid
d. solid
Q 4. Fresh fruits, and vegetables as apples, oranges and carrots, keep best at temperature
a. below freezing
b. above freezing
c. at freezing
d. 20С
Q 5. “Surface pitting” is a characteristic chilling injury in
a.apple
b.pineapple
c. citrus
d.banana
Q 6. “Internal discoloration” is a common symptom of chilling injury in
a. apple
b. pineapple
c. citrus
d. banana
Q 7. The pH of fruit tissues is generally
a. ≤ 5
b. ≥ 5
c. ≥ 7
d. neutral
Q 8. Which organic acid present in apple
a. malic acid
b. citric acid
c. tartaric acid
d. benzoic acid
Q 9. For storing different kinds of fruit together it is essential that their temperature
requirement
a. should be same
b. should not same
c. may be different
d. none of above
Q 10. Pre-cooling of fruit and vegetables is done at a temperature
a. 5-10°С
b. 10-12°С
c. 15-17°С
d. 15-20°С
Q 11. Which antioxidant is abundant in citrus fruit
a. Carotenoid
b. Ascorbic acid
c. Tocopherol
d. Fiavonoid
Q 12. Lycopene present in
a.Citrus
b. Tomato
c. Mango
d. Cucumber
Q 13. In most fruit juices the major portion of total soluble solids is consists of
a. Salt
b. Sugar
c. Vitamin
c. Mineral
Q 14. The enzyme which is responsible for browning of fruit and vegetables is
a. Lipo-oxidase
b. Polyphenol-oxidase
c. Amylase
d. Protease
Q 15. The enzyme which produce bad smelling aldehydes in vegetables
a. Lipo-oxidase
b. Polyphenol-oxidase
c. Amylase
d. Protease
Q 16. The microbiological and nutritional shelf life of minimally processed food should
be preferably up to
a. 30 days
b. 21 days
c. 7 days
d. 10 days
Q 17. The quality problem for sliced apple and potato is
a. Enzymatic browning
b. Lypolytic rancidity
c. Hydrolytic rancidity
d. Putrefaction
Q 18. . Enzymatic browning in fruits and vegetables require
a. Oxygen
b. Enzyme
c. Copper and substrate
d. All of above
Q 19. The purpose of edible coating in minimally processed fruit and vegetables are
a. Lower respiration
b. retard ethylene production
c. Sealing volatile flavor
d. All of above
Q 20. In high oxygen modified atmosphere packaging the temperature should be in the
range of
a. 0-3°С
b. 5-10°С
c. 10-15°С
d. < 20°С
Q 21. HP processing of fruit and vegetables mean
a. High performance
b. High pressure
c. High pasteurization
d. None of above
Q 22. Apples develop “brown heart” a disorder due to accumulation of toxic substances
a. Oxygen supply is increased during storage
b. Oxygen supply is reduced during storage
c. Carbon dioxide is increased during storage
d. Carbon dioxide is reduced during storage
Q 23. Fruits like banana , figs, grapes are more susceptible to development of “black
mould rots” due to (black rot = aspergillus)
a. Rizopus
b. Penecillium
c. Aspergillus niger
d. Gloeosporium
Q 24. Criteria for harvesting of tomatoes are
a. color
b. % sugar and % acid
c. oil
d. a and b
Q 25. The post harvest losses are
a. Qualitative
b. Quantitative
c. Physiological
 d. All of above

Q 26. Most commonly processed juice is

a. Apple juice
b. Orange juice
c. Pineapple juice
d. Strawberry juice
Q 27. The causes of post harvest losses are
a. Physiological deterioration
b. Mechanical damage
c. Diseases, insect and pest
d. a, b, and c
Q 28. Stages of post harvest losses are
a. Harvesting
b. Packaging
c. Transportation / storage
d. All of above
Q 29. True teas come from which portion of plant
a. Leaves
b. Beans
c. Stem
d. Tuber
Q 30. In drying of fruit which chemical is used to minimize browning
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Sulpher dioxide
c. Benzene
d. Chlorophyll

Q 31. The alkalinity of water that used for beverage must be low
a. For neutralization of acid
b. For prevention of neutralization of acid
c. To prevent corrosion
d. None of above
Q 32. Total solids for water to be used in preparing fruit juice beverage should not exceed
a. 500 ppm
b. 400 ppm
c. 300 ppm
d. 200 ppm
Q 33. How much produced is wasted due to improper post harvest handling
a. about 40%
b. 10%
c. 5%
d. 2%
Q 34. Best timing of harvesting of fruit during the day is
a. Evening
b. Morning
c. Early morning
d. After noon
Q 35. The fruit which are harvested by hand
a. Apple
b. Citrus
c. Tomato
d. All of above
Q 36. The main types of mechanical damages are
a. Cuts
b. Compression / rubbing
c. Impacts
d. All of above
Q 37. Beverages are consumed for-
a. Food value
b. Thirst quenching
c. Stimulating effect
d. All of these .
Q 38. Beverage are classified as
a. Carbonated
b. Non-Carbonated mildly alcohol
c. Non-Carbonated stimulating beverages
d. All of these
Q 39. Which of the following is stimulating beverage
a. Coffee
b. Soft drink
c. Pure juice
d. Milk
Q 40. The major ingredients of carbonated soft drink in addition to water is
a. CO2
b. Sugar
c. Flavoring
d. Acid
e. All of these
Q 41. The most common sugar used in soft drink
a. High fructose corn syrup
b. Sucrose
c. Maltose
d. Lactose
Q. 42. The sugar contributes to beverage
a. Sweetness
b. Calories
c. Body and mouth feel
d. All of these
Q. 43. No calories soft drinks are sweetened with non-nutritive sweeteners such as
a. Saccharin
b.Cyclamate
c. Above two
d. Sucrose
Q. 44. The percentage of water in carbonated soft drink is
a. 92%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 50%
Q 45. For preparing of fruit juice beverage the maximum alkalinity level for water is
a. 50 ppm
b. 60 ppm
c. 40 ppm
d. 30 ppm
Q 46.Total soluble solids for ready to drink beverage should be
a. 20%
b. 65%
c. 14%
d. 48%
Q 47. The maximum concentration of alcohol in beer is
a. 3-6%
b. 8-7%
c. 10-15%
d. 15-12%
Q 48. Which of following include in fermented beverage
a. Squash
b. Lassi
c. Syrup
d. Milk
Q 49. Antinutritional factor in tea is
a. Caffein
b. Tannin
c. Phytates
d. Oxalates
Q 50. Recommended brix for syrup preparation is
a. 65-70
b. 70-80
c. 50-55
d. 40-50
Q 51. Recommended brix for squash preparation is
a. 60-70
b. 45-50
c. 20-30
d. 30-40
Q 52 …………. enzyme is present in malted beverages
a. Lipase
b. Protease
c. Amylase
d.Phenolase
Q 53. Most common ingredient for beer is
a. Barley
b. Rice
c. Sorghum
d. Oat
Q 54. Most common germicidal for water treatment is
a. Nitrogen
b. Chlorine
c. Benzene
d. Nitrous oxide
Q 55. Fruit punches are made by mixing
a. 25% of total fruit juice and 65% of sugar
b. 25% of total fruit juice and 45% of sugar
c. 45% of total fruit juice and 25% of sugar
d. None of above
Q 56. Advantages of carbonation are
a. Pungent taste
b. Anaerobic condition
c. a and b
d. None of these
Q 57. The concentration of carbon dioxide in carbonated beverages varying from
a. 1-8 g/L
b. 8-16g/L
c. 16-32g/L
d. 32-40g/L
Q 58. There should be atleast ……… % of pulp in fruit drink
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
Q 59. In soft drink flavours are stable to which temperature
a. 20°C
b. 38°C
c. 45°C
d. 54°C
Q 60. For black tea processing, fermentation of rolled leaves is done
a. 0.5-1 h
b. 2-5 h
c. 8-10 h
d. 12-15 h
Q 61. Principle method to dehydrate coffee beans extract
a. Tunnel drying
b. Drum drying
c. Spray drying
d. None of above
Q 62. Ripening of fruit requires
a. Hormone
b. Enzymes
c. CO2
d. Oxygen
Q 63. CA storage stands for
a. Controlled atmosphere
b. Centrally air conditioned
c. Completely air conditioned
d. None of the above
Q 64. Main objective of vegetable blanching is
a. Inactivation of bacteria
b. Inactivation of enzymes
c. Fixation of color
d. Removal of tissue gas
Q 65. Causative spoilage organisms of dried fruits and vegetables are
a. Mould
b. Yeast
c. Bacteria
d. All of them
Q 66. Bacterial growth is generally impossible when water activity reduces below
a. 0.80
b.0.70
c. 0.60
d. 0.90
Q 67. Fermentation involved in mango pickle production is
a. Butyric acid
b. Lactic acid
c. Acetic acid
d. Alcoholic
Q 68. Potassium Sorbate in fruits and vegetable preservation is most effective against
a. Yeast
b. Mould
c. Yeast & mould
d. Bacteria
Q. 69. Organic acid as preservative are particularly effective against
a. Putrefaction
b. Rancidity
c. Autolysis
d. Lipolysis
Q. 70. Storage life of fruits and vegetables is extended by keeping them in an atmosphere
a. High in CO2 & low in oxygen
b. High in oxygen & low in CO2
c. At low temperature
d. At high relative humidity
Q 71. The enzyme used in fruit juice industry
a. Pectin
b. Gelatin
c. Fixin
d. Bromalin
Q 72. Most suitable method of fruit juice concentration
a. Freeze concentration
b. Low temperature vacuum evaporation
c. High speed high evaporation
d. Reverse osmosis
Q 73. Fruit flavor is complex of
a. Taste and color
b. Taste and appearance
c. Taste and aroma
c. All of above
Q 74. Plant hormone that play a key role in the ripening and senescence of fruits and
vegetables is
a. Papain
b. Auxins
c. Ethylene
d. None of the above
Q 75. Which crops have the natural dormancy period
a. Bulb crops
b. Root crops
c. Tuber crops
d. All of the above
Q 76. Most suitable material for canning of vegetables is
a. Glass
b. Tin plate
c. Plastic
d. Aluminum
Q 77. Most suitable method for vegetable blanching is by
a. Hot water
b. Steam
c. Hot air
d. Microwave
Q 78. Temperature, concentration of CO2 & oxygen are the main environmental factors
which influence the
a. Rate of growth of fruits & vegetables
b. Rate of respiration
c. Yield
d. All of the above
Q 79. The fruit which is injured by exposure to temperature less than 11◦C is
a. Apple
b. Pear
c. Orange
d. Banana
Q 80. The main environmental factor in determining the rate of transpiration is
a. Temperature
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Relative humidity
Q.81. Toxins produced during aerobic respiration of plant tissues that kills the cells if not
removed are
a. Ethyl alcohol & acetaldehyde
b. Formaldehyde
c. Phytate
d. None of the above
Q. 82. “Bitter pit” (calcium) a storage disorder of apple is caused by any one of the
following deficiency of the tissue
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Nitrogen
d. Potassium
Q. 83. Soft rot of citrus fruits is due to
a. Pencillium
b. Rhizopus
c. Mucor
d. Aspergillus
Q 84. Criteria for harvesting of citrus fruits is based on
a. Color
b. Iodine
c. Percentage of oil
d. Sugar and acid ratio
Q 85. Relative humidity generally recommended for the storage of fruits is
a. 70-80%
b. 90-100%
c. 85-95%
d. less than 70%
IMP Q 86. In CA storage oxygen concentration is reduced from 21 % to
a. 15 %
b. 10%
c. 3%
d. 7 %
Q. 87. Eutectic temperature is the temperature at which product
a. Starts to freeze
b. About to freeze
c. No more freezable water is left
d. None of the above
Q.88. Chocolate liquor is a
a. Beverage
b. Semi plastic food
c. Plant extract
d. None of above
Q.89. The word “tea” is of
a. Greek origin
b. Egypt origin
c. Chinese origin
d. Srilankan origin
Q.90. Sparkling water consist of carbonated distilled water and salts in which CO2 gas is
added at the rate of
a. 0.1-0.2 volume
b.0.2-0.3 volume
c. 4-5 volume
d. 0.7-0.8 volume
Q.91. Proper flavour and aroma of coffee is associated with
a. Drying coffee beans
b. Curing coffee beans
c. Roasting
d. All of above
Q.92. Stimulating effect of coffee is due to
a. Caffeol
b. Caffeone
c. Caffeine
d. Tanin
Q.93. Caffeine in coffee is present in the range of
a. 5-6%
b. 1-1.8%
c. 10-12%
d. 12-15%
Q.94. Ion-exchang resins are not preferred for water purification because of
a. High cost
b. Less Senstitivy
c. Inefficiency
d. All of the above
KEY
Q 1. b. Q 44. a. Q 87 c
Q 2. c. Q 45. a. Q.88 b
Q 3. a. Q 46. c. Q.89. c
Q4 b. Q 47. a. Q.90 c
Q 5. c. Q 48. b. Q.91. c
Q 6. b. Q 49. b. Q.92. c
Q 7. a. Q 50. a. Q.93. b
Q 8. a. Q 51. b. Q.94. a
Q 9. a. Q 52. c.
Q 10. c. Q 53. a.
Q 11. b. Q 54. b.
Q 12. b. Q 55. a.
Q 13. b. Q 56. c.
Q 14. b Q 57. a.
Q 15. a. Q 58. a.
Q 16. B Q 59. b.
Q 17. a. Q 60. b.
Q 18. . d Q 61. c.
Q 19. d. Q 62. b.
Q 20. a. Q 63. a.
Q 21. b. Q 64. b.
Q 22. b. Q 65. a.
Q 23. c. Q 66. d.
Q 24. d. Q 67. b.
Q 25. d. Q 68. c.
Q 26. b. Q 69. a.
Q 27. d. Q 70. a.
Q 28. d. Q 71. a.
Q 29. a. Q 72. a.
Q 30. b. Q 73. c.
Q 31. b. Q 74. c.
Q 32. a. Q 75. d.
Q 33. a. Q 76. d.
Q 34. c. Q 77. c.
Q 35. d. Q 78. b.
Q 36. d. Q 79. d.
Q37. d. Q 80. d.
Q 38. d. Q 81. a.
Q 39. a. Q 82. b.
Q 40. e. Q 83. b.
Q 41. a. Q 84. d.
Q 42 d. Q 85. C
Q 43. c. Q 86. C
1. What is the principal carbohydrate in the milks of all mammals?
a. Lactose
b. Glucose
c. Sucrose
d. Fructose
2. Percentage of water in buffalo milk is:-
a. 65-67 %
b. 70-75 %
c. 80-85 %
d. 87-90 %
3. Soft fats in milk fat are:-
a. Lauric & Stearic
b. Capric & Lauric
c. Oleic & Butyric
d. Oleic & Lauric
4. Principal protein in milk is:-
a. Albumin
b. Lactalbumin
c. Casein
d. Lactoglobulin
5. Percentage of mineral matter in milk is about :-
a. 1 %
b. 0.7 %
c. 1.5 %
d. 0.05 %
6. Whey is the by-product in the manufacture of:-
a. Skimmed milk
b. Butter
c. Cheese
d. Yogurt
7. Example of soft cheese is:- cottage cheese is soft cheese
a. Cheddar
b. Swiss
c. Brick
d. Cottage
8. Which one of the following is not fermented beverages?
a. Kefir
b. Leban
c. Buttermilk
d. Kaumiss
9. How many indigenous enzymes have been reported in bovine milk?
a. 30
b. 60
c. 50
d. 40
 Lactoperoxidase serve as an index to check HTST pasteurization efficiency
10. Destruction of which enzyme is used as an index of super-HTST pasteurization?
a. Catalase
b. Lipase
c. Lactoperoxidase
d. All of the above
11. Rennet belongs to:-
a. Lipases
b. Catalase
c. Proteinases
d. Phosphatases
12. Temperature used in UHT treatment is:-
a. 90-100 °C
b. 100-120 °C
c. 120-125 °C
d. 130-140 °C
13. Lactose is disaccharide containing:-
a. Glucose & Fructose
b. Glucose & Galactose
c. Glucose & Glucose
d. Glucose & Maltose
14. CaCl2 is added at the rate of:-
a. 0.5 %
b. 0.8 %
c. 0.02 %
d. 0.08 %
15. Which one is used as an emulsifying agent in process cheese blend?
a. Paprika
b. Pectin
c. Glycerides
d. Whay Powder
16. Milk is an emulsion :-
a. Oil-in-Water
b. Water-in-Oil
c. Oil-in-Oil
d. Oil-in-Starch
17. Normal bovine milk contains protein about
a. 7.5%
b. 5.5%
c. 3.5%
d. 9.5%
18. The aim of pasteurization milk is to:-
a. Improve flavor
b. Kill disease producing organisms
c. Improve color
d. None of the above
19. People with high blood pressure or edema are advised to take:-
a. Multivitamin Mineral Milk
b. Low Sodium Milk
c. Sterile Milk
d. Low Lactose Milk
20. Evaporated milk is concentrated to approximately what times the solid of normal
whole milk ?
a. 2.25 times
b. 6.25 times
c. 7 times
d. 8.5 times
21. 10-15 % more milk is produced with which growth hormones, if injected to
lactating cows?
a. Auxin
b. Bovine Growth Hormone
c. Ethylene
d. None of the above

Increase in volume caused by whipping air is called over run

22. The process to increase in volume caused by whipping air into the ice cream mix
during freezing is called?
a. Homogenization
b. Aging
c. Overrun
d. Hardening
23. Semisolid ice cream is placed in a hardening room at a temperature of about?
a. -15 °C
b. -20 °C
c. -34 °C
d. -44 °C
24. The “eyes” in swiss cheese are formed by the growth of:-
a. Leuconostoc
b. Propionibacterium
c. Streptococcus
d. Lactobacillus
25. Yogurt contains mixed lactic acid culture containing:-
a. Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Streptococcus thermophilus
b. Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Propionibacterium
c. Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Leuconostoc
d. None of the above
26. The melting point of milk fat varies normally between :-
a. 32-36 °C
b. 40-45 °C
c. 20-25 °C
d. 26-30 °C
27. The specific gravity of milk fat at 21°C is?
a. 0.70
b. 0.82
c. 0.93
d. 0.98
28. The iodine number measures the amount of:-
a. Free Fatty Acids
b. Saturated Fatty Acids
c. Chain Length of Fatty Acids
d. Unsaturated Glycerides
29. Milk fat differs from other common fats in having a larger percentage of:-
a. Free Fatty Acids
b. Saturated Fatty Acids
c. Volatile Fatty Acids
d. None of the above
30. Sponification number of butter fat is:-
a. 190
b. 195
c. 210
d. 231
31. Energy value of milk having 3.5% fat according to Sharp’s Formula will be?
a. 60
b. 60.5
c. 62.5
d. 65.5
32. Lactose reduces copper salt to?
a. Cupric Oxide
b. Cuprous Oxide
c. Copper Oxide
d. None of the above
33. Yellow color of milk fat is due to presence of?
a. Vitamin D
b. Carotenoids
c. Calcium
d. Folic Acid
34. Tests for proper pasteurization are based on the activity of which enzyme?
Lactoperoxidases
a. Lactase
b. Diastase
c. Phosphatase
d. Catalase
35. Starch is split by which enzyme? Starch is split by diastase
a. Lactase
b. Diastase
c. Phosphatase
d. Catalse
 Specific gravity of milk at 16oC (0.93) and 21oC (1.032)
36. What is freezing point of milk?
a. 0 °C
b. -0.55 °C
c. -1 °C
d. -1.55 °C
37. What is the average boiling point of milk?
a. 100-101 °C
b. 105-110 °C
c. 115-117 °C
d. 102-105 °C
38. What is the average specific gravity of normal whole milk at 16 °C?
a. 0.903
b. 1.032
c. 1.582
d. 2.032
39. Which is the pre-dominating organism in dirty utensils of milk?
a. Lactobacillus bulgaricus
b. Propionibacterium
c. Streptococcus lactis
d. All of the above
40. Energy value of a food is measured in terms of?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Proteins
d. Calories
41. Legal butter must contain at least what percentage of fat?
a. 70 %
b. 80 %
c. 90 %
d. 95 %
42. The high nutritive value of cheese is due to:-
a. High mineral contents
b. High protein contents
c. Taste & flavor
d. All of the above
43. Food value of ice cream depends to a large extent on its?
a. Flavor
b. Volume
c. Composition
d. None of the above
44. Chlorine compounds have widespread acceptance in the dairy industry due to?
a. Non-toxicity
b. High sanitizing efficiency
c. High corrosiveness
d. All of the above
45. At what concentration chlorine sanitizing solutions are usually used in the dairy
industry?
a. 50-100 ppm
b. 100-200 ppm
c. 200-500 ppm
d. 500-800 ppm
46. The process of raising or lowering the percent of fat in milk or cream to a desired
standard is called?
a. Enrichment
b. Fortification
c. Standardization
d. None of the above
47. A product consisting of a mixture of milk and cream which contains not less than
10.5% milk fat is called?
a. Concentrated Milk
b. Low Fat Milk
c. Half-and –Half
d. Eggnog
48. Butter milk is a fluid product resulting from the manufacture of?
a. Cheese
b. Yogurt
c. Ice cream
d. Butter
49. What is the application of any effective method or substance to a clean surface for
destruction of pathogen is called?
a. Pasteurization
b. High Temperature Treatment
c. Sanitization
d. Cleaning
50. In what from Formaldehyde- preservatives used in milk exists?
a. Gas
b. Liquid
c. Solid
d. All of the above
51. Mammary gland’s complete unit of milk synthesis of is called
a. lumen
b. micelles
c. alveolus
d. secretary cells
52. Fatty acids synthesized in mammary gland are
a. Higher chain fatty acids
b. Unsaturated fatty acids
c. Lower chain fatty acids
d. Medium and lower chain fatty acids
53 Most variable constituent of milk is
a. proteins
b. fat
c. lactose
d. minerals
54. Which of the following has largest particle size in milk?
a. lactose
b. casein micelles
c. fat globule
55. Lactose has water solubility of
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 18%
d. 25%
56. Which enzyme is tested for cream pasteurization?
a. Plasmin
b. Phosphatas
c. Catalase
d. peroxidase