SAADHYAM LAW PROFESSIONL ACADEMY

JUNIOR CIVIL JUDGE PRELIMS MODEL TEST Dated 05-05-2019

2 HOURS (11 am to 1 pm)

1. Period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term of two years, as per section 468 of Cr.PC
is
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

2. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be

a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three months
d. Six months
3. An immovable property, held by ‘Y’ is situated at Hyderabad and the wrongdoer personally
works for gain At Nalgonda . According to Section 16(e) of CPC a suit may be instituted-
a) May be at Hyderabad b) May be At Nalgonda

c) Either at Hyderabad or at Nalgonda d) only in Hyderabad

4. In execution of a decree , other than a decree for maintenance, passed against A, what shall be
the attachable portion, if his salary is Rs 7000 per month?

a) Rs 3000 b) Rs.2000 c) Rs 1000 d) Rs 3500

5. an order passed under Section 151 CPC is ?

a) Appealable b) Revisable c) Not liable to be interfered with d) Not reviewable

6. where the appellant has withdrawn the appeal preferred against a decree passed ex parte, the
application under Order 9 Rule 13,Shall be-

a) rejected b) returned c) maintainable

d) Referred for opinion to the appellant court
7. Set-off explained under?
a) Order 8 rule 6(A) b) Order 8 Rule 6(a) C) Order 8 Rule 6 d) Order 8 Rule 6(B)
8. Of the following, which is a deemed decree
a. An order of dismissal for default
b. An adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order
c. Determination of any question relating to resolution
d. None of these
9. The examination of a witness by the adverse party shall be called
a. Examination-in-chief
b. Cross-examination
c. Re-examination
d. None of the above
10. Grant of a mandatory injunction is dealt under:
 a. Sec-37 of SR Act
b. Sec-38 of SR Act
c. Sec-39 of SR Act
d. Sec-40 of SR Act
11. An easement right cannot be granted by
a. Prescription
b. Law
c. Necessity
d. Grant
12. A District Magistrate may prevent environment pollution under this provision of Cr.P.C?
a) S.151 b) S.133 c) S.107 d) s.145
13. In relation to the expressions defined in Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, which of the
following statement is not correct?
a) “fact” includes not only physical facts but also psychological facts
b) “Court” includes arbitrators
c) An inscription on a stone is a document
d) A facts is said to be “not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved
14. In which of the following cases, can secondary evidence of the Contents of a document not be
given?
a) When the Original is a public document
b) When the original has been destroyed
c) When the Original has been found to be inadmissible
d) When the Original is not easily movable
15. ‘X’ Sues “Y” for money due on a bond. The execution of the bond is admitted but “Y” says that it
was obtained by the fraud which “X” denies. The burden of proof is?
a) On Y b) On X c) On the State d) On “X” and “y”
16. A introduces water into an ice-house belonging to Z, and thus causes the ice melt, intending
wrongful loss to Z. A has committed an offence of :
a. Cheating
b. Criminal trespass
c. Mischief
d. None of these
17. Principle of re-judicata applies
a. To suits only
b. To execution proceedings
c. To arbitration proceedings
d. To suits as well as execution proceedings
18. Can a session’s court cancel the bail in non-bailable offence granted by the magistrate?
a. Yes, it can cancel the bail by exercising its power under Sec 439 (2) of the code
b. Yes, it can cancel the bail by exercising its power under Sec 439 (1) of the code
c. Yes, it can cancel the bail by exercising its power under Sec 439 (3) of the code
d. No, it cannot cancel the bail
19. Can the magistrate order continuation of the investigation beyond the period of six months from
date of arrest of accused in summons case?
a. If he records special reasons
b. If in the interest of justice the continuation of investigation is necessary
c. A and B
d. He cannot order continuation of investigation
20. Of the following which property cannot be attached in execution of a decree
a. Government securities
b. Bank notes
c. Shares in corporation
d. Any right of personal service
21. Which of the following Statements is not Correct?
a. Leading questions may be asked in Cross-examination
b. Witnesses to Character may be Cross-examined
c. A person Summoned to produce a document does not become a witness
d. A party may with the permission of the court, Cross-examine his own witness
22. Stamp means ?
a. Means any mark on document
b. Seal or endorsement on document
c. Adhesive or impressed Stamp document
d. All of the above
23. In Indian Stamp Act Examination and impounding of Instruments explained under provision?
a. Section 32 b. Section 34 c. Section 35 d. Section 33
24. Imports, exports, transport any intoxicant in Excise act punishment according to Section 34?
a. Shall not less than one year but may extend to three years and fine 10,000.
b. Shall not less than six months but may extend to three years and fine 10,000.
c. Shall not less than six months but may extend to three years and fine 5000.
d. Shall not less than three years but may extend to Five years and fine 10,000.
25. When a document purporting to have been executed by all or any of the parties out of India is not
presented for registration till after the expiration of the time hereinbefore prescribed in that
behalf, the registering officer, if Satisfied-
a. That the instrument was so executed
b. That it has been presented for registration within four months after its arrival in India
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
26. Effect of non-registration of Documents explained under?
a. Section 47 b. Section 48 c. Section 49 d. Section 51
27. If the person employed a Juvenile or Child for begging then punishment is?
a. Two years and fine
b. Three years and fine
c. Four years and fine
d. Five years and fine
28. The Magistrate In DVC act Shall fix the first date of hearing, which shall not be beyond?
a. Six days b. Four days c.Three days d. Ten days
29. Which court can take cognizance in DVC Act according to Section 27?
a. The court of Judicial Magistrate of First class
b. The court of Judicial Magistrate of First class or Metropolitan Magistrate
c. Magistrate of First class or Metropolitan Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. Are any Magistrate having Jurisdiction
30. Penalty for gaming or setting birds or animals to fight in a public street or place?
a. Shall be punishable with Imprisonment for a term which may extend to Six months
b. Shall be punishable with Imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year
c. Shall be punishable with Imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years
d. Shall be punishable with Imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month
31. X and Y are playing a game of Skill in A’s house and A’s is collecting rent or fees for each play it is
an offence.
a. Above statement is true
b. Above statement is false
c. Offence in this manner not defined in the Act.
d. Its neither true neither false its depend on the Game
32. Where any property is sold out in execution of a decree, an application may be made to set the sale
on deposit of the money
a. Under Order-XXI R1-89
b. Under Order-XXI R1-90
c. Under Order-XXI R1-91
d. Under Order-XXI R1-92
33. Under which section of evidence act, an accomplice is a competent witness
a. Sec-131 Cr. PC
b. Sec-132 Cr. PC
c. Sec-133 Cr. PC
d. Sec-134 Cr. PC
34. Refreshing memory is provided under:
a. Sec-159 Evidence Act
b. Sec-160 Evidence Act
c. Sec-161 Evidence Act
d. Sec-162 Evidence Act
35. Under which section of Cr. P.C a court has the power to alter or add to any charge:
a. Sec-216
b. Sec-717
c. Sec-218
d. Sec-219
36. The court of a magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not
exceeding 3 years or fine not exceeding 10,000/- A or both it is so laid in CR.P.C in
a. Section 27
b. Section 28
c. Section 29
d. Section 30
37. Which section of IPC authorizes the appropriate government to commute the sentence of
imprisonment for life to a description for a term not exceeding 14 years
a. Sec-53
b. Sec-54
c. Sec-55
d. Sec-55-A
38. Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant – if by themselves or in connection with other facts they
make the existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable is relevant
under:
a. Section 10 of the Evidence Act
b. Section 11 of the Evidence Act
c. Section 12 of the Evidence Act
d. Section 13 of the Evidence Act
39. Of the following, which is not a presumption under Sec.118 of NI Act
a. Presumption as to time of acceptance
b. Presumption as to time of transfer
c. Presumption as to order of endorsements
d. Presumption that instrument delivered on time
40. Which of the following transfer is valid?
a. An unregistered usufructuary mortgage for Rs 99
b. An unregistered gift of immovable property of the value of Rs 99
c. An oral lease of immovable property from year to year
d. An oral assignment of debts
41. A mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called-
a. Anomalous mortgage
b. English mortgage
c. Eqitable mortgage
d. Usufructuary mortgage
42. A contract by a minor is absolutely void laid down in-
a. Lalman Vs Gauri Dutt
b. Kanhayalal Vs Giridharilal
c. Mohammed said Vs Vishambhar Nath
d. None of the above
43. Which of the following is not a quasi-contract?
a. Obligation pf person enjoying benefit on non-gratuitious act
b. Responsibility of finder of goods
c. Parties excess paid to the person under section 72
d. None of the above
44. If in any case in which the defendant sets up Counter-claim, the suit of the plaintiff is stayed,
Discontinued or dismissed, the counter-claim
a. Shall be stayed
b. May be continued with the leave of the court
c. Nevertheless be proceeded with
d. No specific provision
45. According to which section if the accused default to pay 50/- shall be punished for two months.
a. Section 64
b. Section 67
c. Section 69
d. Section 65
46. What punishment is provided for Dowry death?
a. Not less than three years.
b. Not less than five years.
c. Not less than Seven years.
d. Not less than ten years.
47. Order XLI, RL-27 of CPC relates to:
a. Stay of execution by the appellate court
b. Remand of case by appellate court
c. Adducting additional evidence
d. Modification of decree
48. Sateesh and Radha were married in 2000. They lived as husband and wife upon January 2006,
when their marriage was dissolved by a decree of divorce passed by a competent court. In 2004,
Sateesh told Radha that he had committed theft of ornaments of Satyanarayan in 2001. In June
2006, the trial commences against Sateesh, for theft of the ornaments. Radha wants to appear
before the court as a witness against Sateesh and state before the court that Sateesh had intimated
to her in 2004 that he committed theft of ornaments of Satyanarayan . Statements of Radha is not
admissible under:
a. Sec.123 of the Evidence Act
b. Sec.124 of the Evidence Act
c. Sec.125 of the Evidence Act
d. None of the above
49. For which of the following transaction ‘attestation’ is compulsory:
a. Sale and lease
b. Sale and mortgage
c. Mortgage and lease
d. Mortgage and gift
50. Mr. Karthik finds a purse with money, not knowing to who it belongs. He, afterwards discovers the
purse belongs to Mr.Ramesh , and returned the purse, karthik uses the money to find the Ramesh
with out Ramesh Consent. Karthik is guilty the offence of:
a. Criminal Breach of Trust
b. Cheating
c. Criminal Misappropriation
d. No offence
51. Swathi and Anitha owe Rs.50,000/- to soundarya. In another transaction, soundarya owes
Rs.15,000/- to Anitha. In a suit by soundarya , Anitha
a. Can plead legal set-off of Rs.15,000/-
b. Can plead equitable set-off of Rs.15,000/-
c. Cannot plead any set-off
d. Can plead counter claim
52. According to section 60 of TP Act a clog on redemption is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Subject to certain conditions, is valid
d. Voidable at the option of the mortgage
53. Raj Sinha enters into a contract sujeeth for sale of 100 acres of land, subsequently it turns out that
98 acres of land belong to Pradeep. The 2 acres are not necessary for the use and enjoyment of 98
acres. Now this contract can be specifically enforced in a suit by:
a. Raj Sinha only
b. Sujeeth only
c. Neither by Raj sinha nor by sujeeth
d. Either by Raj Sinha or by sujeeth
54. In a contract of guarantee
a. There are two parties and one contract
b. There are two parties and two contracts
c. There are three parties and three contracts
d. There are three parties and two contracts
55. Period of limitation for execution of a decree is
a. 10 years from the date of decree
b. 11 years from the date of decree
c. 12 years from the date of decree
 d. 13 years from the date of decree
56. Subba Rao sues Shasthri upon a Bill of Exchange for the payment of money. Shasthri denies the
execution of the note. Shasthri is estppoed under-------- section of evidence act under:
a. Section 115
b. Section 116
c. Section 117
d. Section 119
57. What is a police report?
a. Charge sheet
b. Final report
c. Neither of clauses (a) and (b)
d. Report forwarded under sub-section (2) of section173
58. Salary of a judgement debtor will be totally exempted from attachment in execution of a decree if
it is under attachment for a total period of:
a. 48 months
b. 50 months
c. 60 months
d. None of the above
59. Dominant tenement is in relation to:
a. Leases
b. Easement
c. Mortgages
d. None of the above
60. What is the period within which notice of dishonor has to be given to the drawer by the payee or
the holder in due course of a dishonored Cheque, for filing a complaint under section 138 of the
negotiable instruments act from the date of receipt of information by him from the bank about its
dishonor?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. None of the above
61. Condone the delay if the complaint filed after expiration of date provided under _____ section of
NI Act?
a. Section 142(a)
b. Section 142(b)
c. Section 142(c)
d. Section 142 (d)
62. If the amount stated in a negotiable instrument in figures is different from the amount stated in
words:
a. The instrument is unenforceable
b. The amount mentioned in figures prevails
c. The amount mentioned in words prevails
d. None of the above
63. Witnesses summons shall ordinary be signed by Chief Ministerial Officer of a court according to
______of CR.R.P?
a. Rule 7 b.Rule 8 c.Rule 9 d. None of the above
64. According to Rule 30 Of CR.R.P if bail is given to accused during investigation, he shall be bound
over to appear after the Charge Sheet is filed, it is not necessary to bind him to appear on an earlier
date:-
a. The above statement is false
b. The above statement is true
c. The above statement is partly true
d. Note at all true
65. A mortgagor who binds himself to repay the mortgage money on a certain date, and transfers the
property absolutely to the mortgagor subject to a condition that he will transfer it to the mortgagor
upon payment of the mortgage money as agreed. The said transaction is called:
a. Anomalous mortgage
b. Mortgage by conditional sale
c. English mortgage
d. None of the above
66. When an offence under section 138 of the negotiable instruments act, 1881 is committed by a
company registered under the companies act 1956, the following shall be deemed to be guilty of
offence:
a. Chief financial officer of the company
b. Signatory of the Cheque
c. Every person in-charge and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company
d. Managing director of the company
67. Right of private defence of the body means
a. Every person has a right to defend his body
b. Every person has a right to defend body of any other person against any offence
c. Every person has a right to defend his body and body of any other person against any offence
d. Every person has a right to kill an offender
68. Rejection of plaint can be justified
a. Where it does not disclose cause of action
b. Where court fee is not paid in cash
c. Plaint is typed on computer
d. None of the above
69. A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of
promisor or by the conduct of any other person is called:
a. Contract of guarantee
b. Quasi contract
c. Contract of presentee
d. Contract of indemnity
70. When lease of immovable property is made by registered instrument, who should execute the
document
a. Lessor
b. Lessee
c. Lessor and lessee
d. None of the above
71. Which provision of law requires that evidence be taken in the presence of the accused?
a. Section 154 of Evidence Act
b. Section 273 of Cr.P.C
c. Section 277 of Cr.P.C
d. None of the above
72. If the Magistrate not empowered by law to do such thing issues process under Section 187 of
Cr.P.C. for apprehension of a person, it is an irregularity:
a. Which vitiates the proceedings
b. Which does not vitiate proceedings
c. Renders the proceedings nullity
d. None of the above
73. Offence under section 31(1) of protection of women from domestic violence act is:
a. Non-cognizable and bailable
b. Cognizable and non-bailable
c. Punishable with imprisonment for seven years
d. Cognizable or non-bailable
74. Property is attached before judgement. The suit is dismissed for default. On an application to set
aside the default order, the suit is restored. The attachment before judgement made earlier
a. Revives
b. Does not revive
c. Depends on the discretion of the court
d. None of the above
75. Can the plaintiff seek attachment before judgement of the agriculture produce in possession of an
agriculturist?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Depends on the discretion of the court
d. None of the above
76. Limitation of filing a suit for compensation for liable is—
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
 c. 3 years
d. None of the above
77. Leave to appear and defend a suit under summary produce i.e., Order 37 CPC should be filed within
from the date of service of summons
a. Thirty days
b. Forty five days
c. Ten days
d. None of the above
78. A time-barred debt can be claimed as a
a. Counter claim
b. Fresh suit
c. (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

79. Mandatory injunction will not be granted in the following cases:

a. Where compensation in term of money would be an adequate relief to the plaintiff
b. Where the balance of convenience is in favour of the plaintiff
c. Where the plaintiff is guilty of allowing the obstruction to be completed before coming to the
court
d. All the above
80. Specific performance of a contract can be granted in respect of:
a. Immovable property
b. Movable property
c. Immovable property and movable property
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
81. As per order VII Rule 3 of CPC where subject matter of suit is immovable property, the plaint shall
contain:
a. Value of property
b. Description of the property
c. Description of the property with numbers and boundaries
d. None of the above
82. A proposes, by letter sent by post to sell his house to B. The proposal of A is accepted by B by letter
sent by post. When can A revoke his proposal?
a. A may revoke proposal after B sent letter of acceptance by post.
b. A can revoke proposal at any time before B sent letter of acceptance
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. None of the above
83. Under section 133 of Code of Criminal procedure, 1973 which category of Magistrate can order for
Removal of Nuisance in the Public Place?
a. Sessions judge or assistant sessions judge or judicial magistrate of first class
b. Sessions judge or assistant sessions judge
c. District magistrate or sub divisional magistrate or executive magistrate empowered by the
government
d. None of the above
84. When can a magistrate stop further investigation into offence if the case is triable as summons
case?
a. When investigating officer is biased
b. When investigation is not concluded within a period of six months without special reasons
c. When investigation is not concluded within a period of one year without special reasons
d. When investigation is not completed as directed by the magistrate
85. When court grants an ex-parte injunction without notice to the opposite party, that application has
to be disposed of on merits within 30 days
a. From the date on which the defendant appears
b. From the date on which summons are served on the defendant
c. From the date of the order of injunction
d. None of the above
86. What is cognizance ?
a. Where police can arrest without warrant
b. Which the court can take cognizance
c. Where police has right to investigate
 d. None of the above three
87. Delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall when
the purpose is accomplished be returned or otherwise disposed of according to directions of
persons delivering them is:
a. Pledge
b. Agency
c. Bailment
d. Performance guarantee
88. Plaintiff can be given summons for servicing on the defendants by virtue of:
a. Order V, Rule 9 of CPC
b. Order VI, Rule 9A of CPC
c. Order V, Rule 7 and section 27 of CPC
d. Order V, Rule 6 of CPC

89. An agreement to do an act impossible itself is void provided under ____ section of I.C.Act:
a. Section 56
b. Section 29
c. Section 65
d. Section 30
90. Article 22(2) of the Constitution of Indian mandates that a person who is arrested shall be produced
before a magistrate within a period of 24 hours of such arrest. Which provisions of Cr.P.C. contains
the similar principles?
a. Section 56
b. Section 167(1)
c. Section 57
d. Section 59
91. Which section of Indian Evidence Act contains appropriate rule of evidence, when an accused is
charged with Criminal Conspiracy under Sec.34 of IPC
a. Section 16
b. Section 14
c. Section 10
d. Section 12
92. A separate suit challenging the validity of a decree passed in a former suit between same parties or
by the parties litigating under the same title as to the place of suing is not maintainable provided
under _____ section of CPC
a. Section 21
b. Section 21A
c. Section 22A
d. None of the above
93. Period of detention in civil prison in execution of decree for payment of sum not exceeding
Rs.5,000/- is
a. Not exceeding one month
b. Not exceeding four months
c. Not exceeding three months
d. None of the above
94. Suits on Lost of Negotaible Instrument Provided under?
a. Section 138 of NI act
b. Order VII Rule 15
c. Order VI Rule 16
d. Order VII Rule 16
95. Saroja was granted government land. She was dispossessed. She instituted suit against the Govt
under Sec.6 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 for recovering possession of the property. The Court
rejected the plaint under Order VII rule 11 (d) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Whether
rejection is proper?
a. Yes, because suit under Section 6 against the Government would not lie
b. Rejection of plaint is improper
c. Plaintiff must be given opportunity to rectify the mistake
d. None of the above
96. Plaint filed under Section 26 read and Order VII Rule 1 and written statement filed under order VIII
Rule 1 of CPC are “pleadings”
a. The above statement is correct
b. The above statement is not correct
c. (a) and (b) are correct
d. None of the above
97. As per section 4(2) of Cr.P.C. offences under other laws are to be investigated:
a. Under special law providing for offences
b. Under Cr.P.C. subject to special enactment
c. Under Evidence Act
d. As per the order of the District Court
98. In the suit for specific performance of agreement to sell immovable property, the plaintiff must
aver and prove the following:
a. That plaintiff paid entire sale consideration
b. That plaintiff obtained clearance from all authorities
c. The plaintiff obtained encumbrance certificate
d. That plaintiff is ready and willing to perform his part of the contract
99. Parliament of India amended Transfer of Property Act substituting new Section 106 for old Section
106 by amendment:
a. Act No.2 of 2003
b. Act No.3 of 2003
c. Act No.3 of 2002
d. Act No.1 of 2002
100. The punishment for an offence of rape shall be not less than 7 years. But, what is the
minimum punishment if a police officer commits rape under the circumstances described in Section
376 (2) of the IPC
a. Life imprisonment
b. Death sentence
c. 10 years
d. None of the above