ICAO-IATA-FAA and ATC Related MCQs

MCQ. International organization ICAO is abbreviation of

A. International Court of Atomic Operation

B. International Civil Aviation Organization
C. Intergovernmental Court of Atomic Operation
D. International Court of Aviation OperationsAnswer B

MCQ. International Civil Aviation Organization is headquartered in

A. Canada
B. Vienna
C. Australia
D. SwitzerlandAnswer A

MCQ. International Civil Aviation Organization is a specialized agency of

A. United Nations Development Group

B. International Monetary Fund
C. United Nations
D. European UnionAnswer C

MCQ. International Civil Aviation Organization was established in

A. 4 October, 1947
B. 4 April, 1947
C. 4 July, 1948
D. 4 October, 1949Answer B

MCQ. International organization which defines protocols of investigation of air accidents

is

A. Intergovernmental Court of Atomic Operation

B. International Court of Aviation Operations
C. International Court of Atomic Operation
D. International Civil Aviation Organization
1.ICAO= International Civil Aviation Organization

The International Civil Aviation Organization is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
It codifies the principles and techniques of international air navigation and fosters the
planning and development of international air transport to ensure safe and orderly growth

Headquarter= Montreal Quebec, Canada

Head=Secretary .General Fang Liu

Founded= April4, 1947

Type= UN Specialized Agency

Founder: Chicago Convention 1944 on International Civil Aviation

2. IATA : International Air Transport Association

IATA stands for the International Air Transport Association and is the official trade
organization for the world’s airlines (more than 85 participating nations).For air carriers,
IATA provides a polled resource for scheduling, traffic and routes, standardizing
services and the creation of a worldwide public service for the air industry.

For consumers, IATA sets the international standard for services and business practices
amongst member airlines. As an example, the three-digit airport codes used
internationally are an IATA convention. Additionally, IATA aims to achieve the following
mandate:

 To promote safe, regular and economic air transport

 To foster air commerce
 To study problems connected with airline industry
 To provide a means of collaborating between air transport companies and
agencies
 To co-operate with other international air transportation organizations Essentially,
IATA is airlines working together to standardize and improve service
internationally Due to the vital role played by IATA in air transportation issues, it
is recommended that you ensure that your carrier/forwarder is an IATA agent.
Headquarter= Montreal, Quebec Canada

CEO=Alexandre de Juniac

Founded= Apr 19,1945 at Havana, Cuba

Type= Trade Association

Memberships= 290 Airlines in 120 Countries

Successor of International Air Traffic Association, formed in 1919 at

Hague,Netherland

3. FAA= Federal Aviation Administration

The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) is the agency of the United States
Department of Transportation responsible for the regulation and oversight of civil aviation
within the U.S., as well as operation and development of the National Airspace System. Its
primary mission is to ensure safety of civil aviation.

Headquarter = Washington D.C, United States

Agency Executives= Daniel K. Elwell (Administrator), Carl Burleson, Deputy Administrator

Founded= Aug 23, 1958

Founder= US Congress

MCQs from sanfoundry.net

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Air Traffic Control”.

1. What are the two principal processes of air traffic management?

a) Air traffic control and traffic flow management
b) Air traffic control and Aircraft system maintenance
c) Traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance
d) Aircraft system maintenance and Radio communication
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of air traffic management is safe, efficient, and expeditious
movement of the aircraft in the airspace. Its two major principles are air traffic control and
traffic flow management.

2. Who provides assurance between the collision of aircraft with another aircraft or terrain?
a) ATM
b) Pilot
c) FMS
d) Autopilot
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The primary service provided by ATM is separation assurance for the prevention
of collisions between aircraft and to prevent aircraft collisions with terrain and obstructions.

3. ATM also aids in search and rescue.

a) True
b) False
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A principle service of ATM is search and rescue, that is, notification of the
appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue assistance and
support of these organizations during the ensuing operations.

4. Which of the following ensures standardization of ATM services worldwide?

a) FAA
b) ICAO
c) IAO
d) CAA
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Standardization of the air traffic management practices internationally is the
responsibility of the International Civil Aviation Organization or IACO, which is affiliated with
the United Nations and located in Montreal, Quebec, Canada.

5. Who are not required to contact the ATM for navigation?

a) VFR operator
b) Co-pilot
c) Pilot
d) IFR operator
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Visual Flight Rules operator are responsible for avoiding collisions with obstacles,
terrain and other aircraft by visually observing these hazards and maintaining visual
separations. VFR operators are not required to contact ATM authorities and are not subject to
their directions.

6. The aircraft whose attitude reference is solely based on the natural horizon follow ______
a) VFR
b) IFR
c) Pilot
d) FAA commands
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: VFR flights usually involve small aircraft operated for personal or business
purposes. Navigation may be by visual reference to the ground and aircraft attitude control
may be based solely on the natural horizon visible through the windscreen of the aircraft.

7. Who is responsible for the separation of an aircraft from other aircraft in a controlled
airspace?
a) ATM operator
b) Pilot
c) Co-pilot
d) Navigator
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In controlled airspace, the crew must operate in accordance with instructions
received from ATM authorities, and these authorities are responsible for separating the aircraft
from all other IFR aircraft.

8. What is the minimum visibility when flying below 10,000ft and following VFR?
a) One nautical mile
b) One kilometer
c) One statute mile
d) One mile
Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: VFR operators below 10,000ft MSL must have a minimum visibility of one statute
mile. VFR operators are not required to contact ATM in the controlled or uncontrolled airspace.

9. What altitude does FL540 correspond to?

a) 54,000ft
b) 5.4 ft
c) 54 ft
d) 5400 ft
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure altitudes are expressed as flight levels on hundreds of feet using three
digits. Hence, FL540 represents a pressure altitude of 54,000 ft.

10. The lateral displacement error of the aircraft form the intended track given the course
deviation signal is called as?
a) Navigation error
b) Pilot error
c) Flight technical error
d) Instrumental error
Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Flight technical error is the lateral displacement error of the aircraft from the
intended track given the course deviation error signal generated by the navigation system.
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “ILS/MLS Coupled
Landing System and Automatic Landing – 1”.

1. What is ILS?
a) Instrument landing system
b) Indian Levitation System
c) Indian Landing system
d) International Levitation system
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ILS or instrument landing system is a radio based approach guidance system
installed at major airports and airfields where the runway length exceeds 1800 m which
provides guidance in poor visibility conditions during the approach to the runway.

2. Which one of the following can provide a reliable and accurate approach path guidance in
category II visibility conditions?
a) ILS
b) MLS
c) SBAS
d) VHF
Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: SBAS or Satellite Based Augmentation Systems exploiting differential GPS
techniques will be able to provide reliable and accurate approach path guidance in category II
visibility conditions. This will be increasingly used in the future.

3. What are the two main components of an ILS on the ground?

a) Horizontal alignment transmitter and vertical alignment transmitter
b) Localizer transmitter and glide slope transmitter
c) Center line transmitter and glide slope transmitter
d) Center line transmitter and approach slope transmitter
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: ILS system basically comprises a localiser transmitter and a glide slope transmitter
located by the airport runway together with two or three radio marker beacons located at set
distances along the approach to the runway. The airborne equipment in the aircraft comprises
receivers and antennas for the localiser, glide slope and marker transmissions.

4. What is the frequency used by the localizer transmitter?

a) VHF
b) UHF
c) MF
d) LF
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The localizer transmitter used VHF range from 108-122 MHz frequency and
provides information to the aircraft as to whether it is flying to the left or right of the center
line of the runway it is approaching. The localizer receiver output is proportional to the angular
deviation γL, of the aircraft from the localizer beam center line which in turn corresponds to the
center line of the runway.

5. What is the frequency used by the glide slope transmitter?

a) VHF
b) UHF
c) MF
d) LF
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The glide slope or glide path transmission is at UHF frequencies from 329.3 to 335
MHz frequency and provides information to the aircraft as to whether it is flying above or
below the defined descent path of nominally 2.5◦, for the airport concerned. The glide slope
receiver output is proportional to the angular deviation γV, of the aircraft from the center of
the glide slope beam which in turn corresponds with the preferred descent path.

6. The use of autopilot for landing using ILS does not depend on _______
a) Visibility category
b) ILS ground installation standard
c) Runway lighting installation
d) Weight of the aircraft
Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The height limits and visibility conditions in which the autopilot can be used to
carry out a glide slope coupled approach to the runway depends on the visibility category to
which the autopilot system is certified for operation, the ILS ground installation standard, the
runway lighting installation and the airport’s runway traffic control capability.

7. Under what category does zero visibility conditions come?

a) Category I
b) Category II
c) Category III
d) Category IV
Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Visibility conditions are divided into three categories, namely Category I, Category
II and Category III, depending on the vertical visibility ceiling and the runway visual range (RVR).
Category III includes zero visibility conditions.

8. What is DH?
a) Distance Height
b) Direct Height
c) Decision Height
d) Direction height
Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: This minimum permitted ceiling for vertical visibility for the landing to proceed is
known as the decision height or DH. A very high integrity autopilot system is required for fully
automatic landing below a DH of 100 ft – Cat. III conditions.

9. What is the frequency of marker beacon transmission?

a) 100 MHz
b) 75 MHz
c) 1 GHz
d) 1000 MHz
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The marker beacon transmissions are at 75 MHz. The middle marker beacon is
located at a distance of between 1,000 and 2,000 m from the runway threshold and the outer
marker beacon is situated at a distance of between 4,500 and 7,500 m from the middle marker.

10. MLS has a wide selection of channels to avoid interference with nearby airports
a) True
b) False
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since microwaves are of higher frequency they can have a wide channel from 300
MHz to 300 GHz. This is particularly useful when two airports nearby are aligned equally. The
MLS system an all weather guidance system with wide vertical and horizontal beam widths.

11. At what height is the auto flare initiated?

a) 100 ft
b) 50 ft
c) 25 ft
d) 10 ft
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The auto flare is initiated around 50 ft where the aircraft is over or very near the
runway threshold so that the radio altimeter is measuring the height of the aircraft above the
runway. Low range radio altimeters are used to ensure accuracy.

12. What type of controller is used in an auto flare control?

a) Proportional plus derivative
b) Proportional plus integral
c) Proportional plus integral plus derivative
d) Proportional only
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The auto-flare loop is a high-order system; apart from the lags present in the
filtered rad.alt. signals there are also the lags present in the response of the pitch attitude
command loop. This loop controls and its response is significantly slower at the low speeds
during the approach. A proportional plus integral control term is used in the auto-flare
controller to ensure accuracy and some phase advance is generally provided to compensate for
the lags in the loop and hence improve the loop stability and damping.
13. What is the velocity at the start of flare maneuver if the approach speed is 130 knots?
a) 2.91 m/s
b) 3 m/s
c) 3.56 m/s
d) 10 m/s
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical velocity at the start of flare = approach speed x glide slope angle. Thus
Vv= 66.87* x sin(2.5°) = 2.91 m/s . *[converting knots to m/s].

14. What is the position accuracy that can be achieved by satellite guidance systems?
a) 10 m
b) 5 m
c) 0.5 m
d) 1 m
Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The navigation position accuracy of 1 m which can be achieved with the
differential GPS technique is being exploited in the US for landing guidance with a system called
the Ground Based Augmentation System, GBAS. The Ground Based Augmentation System,
when installed at an airport, will be able to provide the high integrity and accurate guidance
necessary for landing in Cat. III visibility conditions.

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers focuses on “ILS/MLS Coupled Landing

System and Automatic Landing – 2”.

1. What is the beam error in localizer for aircraft CG displacement of 5m at a range of

1,500m?
a) 0.0033 RAD
b) 3.3 RAD
c) 0 RAD
d) 5 RAD
Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam error γ = d/R, where d is the displacement of the aircraft’s CG from the
beam center line and R is the slant range of the aircraft. γ = 5/1,500 = 0.0033 RAD.

2. The guidance sensitivity decreases as the range decreases

a) True
b) False
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The beam error of a localizer or glide path transmitter is given by γ =d/R, Where R
is the slant range of the aircraft. It is evident that the beam error is inversely proportional to the
slant range. As range increases, beam error decreases and hence the guidance sensitivity is
more.

3. When does an ILS localizer coupling loop become unstable?

a) Aircraft range is infinity
b) Aircraft range is close to zero
c) When too many aircraft are present
d) When no aircraft is present
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In the localizer coupling loop gain increases as range between aircraft and runway
decreases. The gain reaches a point where it becomes too large and the loop becomes
unstable. Thus gain scheduling with range is required.

4. What is missing in the localizer coupling loop?

a) Flight computer
b) ILS Localizer receiver
c) ILS glide path receiver
d) ILS Localizer transmitter
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Localizer coupling loop is integrated with the heading command loop to
manage the heading of the aircraft. It is a closed loop system which continuously corrects with
respect to the ILS Localizer. The error in flight path is corrected with respect to the localizer
beam by means of a localizer receiver in the aircraft.
5. Which one of the following is not a basic parameter used to define visibility category?
a) Decision height
b) Minimum vertical visibility
c) Runway length
d) Runway visual range
Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The two basic parameters used to define the visibility category are the decision
height, that is the minimum vertical visibility for the landing to proceed and the runway visual
range. The length of a runway is not used to define visibility category.

6. Which of the following is not one of the operational limits and autopilot requirement for a
category IIIc visibility condition?
a) Runway guidance required to taxi point
b) Fully automatic landing system with flare
c) Probability of catastrophic failure of less than 10−7 per hour required
d) Decision height of 5m
Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The autopilot requirements and operational limits for a category III visibility
conditions are a probability of catastrophic failure of less than 10−7 per hour, fully automatic
landing system with flare, runway guidance required to taxi point. The decision height for a
category IIIc condition is 0m. No system is yet certified for category IIIc operation.

7. How is altitude measured when the aircraft is about to land?

a) Pitot static port
b) Pitot stagnation port
c) Radio altimeters
d) Inertial navigation systems
Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: When an aircraft is about to land, accurate altitude measurements are needed.
Pitot static measurements suffer from errors due to weather and generally have lag. The
aircraft height above the ground is measured by very accurate radio altimeters during the
landing phase.
8. Why is flare maneuver executed during landing phase?
a) To align with the runway
b) To reduce airspeed and rate of descent
c) To stabilize the aircraft during crosswinds
d) To conserve fuel
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The flare maneuver is the increase in pitch of the aircraft seconds before touching
the ground. This is done to reduce the airspeed and the rate of descent. If the flare is not
executed correctly it may result in a runway overrun, landing gear collapse or a tail strike.

9. Why is the kick off drift maneuver executed?

a) To align with the runway
b) To reduce airspeed and rate of descent
c) To stabilize the aircraft during crosswinds
d) To conserve fuel
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Just prior to touchdown a ‘kick off drift’ maneuver is initiated through the rudder
control so that the aircraft is rotated about the yaw axis to align it with the runway. This
ensures the undercarriage wheels are parallel to the runway center line so that no sideways
velocity is experienced by the wheels when they make contact with the runway.

10. What is HREF in the control law used for auto flare?
a) Height when flare is initiated
b) Height where flare should be initiated
c) Maximum height where flare can be initiated
d) Small negative height
Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In the control law for auto flare, HREF is a small negative height, or bias, which
ensures there is still a small downwards velocity at touchdown. This avoids the long exponential
‘tail’ to reach zero velocity and enables a reasonably precise touchdown to be achieved.

11. The final approach path in a satellite landing guidance can be curved
a) True
b) False
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since GPS does not use radio beams to align the aircraft to the runway center line
the final approach path need not be limited to straight line approaches, but can be curved or
stepped, horizontally or vertically. The life cycle costs of a GBAS is also only a fraction of ILS or
MLS.

12. What controls the efficient functioning of an engine?

a) Autopilot
b) FMS
c) FBW
d) FADEC
Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The FADEC or Full Authority Digital Engine Control is a system that controls all
aspects of the engine performance. Since there are a lot of variables involved in the control of
different engines, the workload of the pilot is increased. The FADEC system is used to reduce
the workload at the same time giving full control of the engine to the pilot. It also ensures
maximum engine performance at different flight conditions.

13. The response of a jet engine thrust to the throttle angle is instantaneous.
a) True
b) False
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The response of the jet engine thrust to throttle angle movement is not
instantaneous and approximates to that of a simple first-order filter with a time constant which
is typically in the range 0.3 to 1.5 seconds, depending on the thrust setting and flight condition.
Clearly, the lag in the throttle servo actuator response should be small compared with the jet
engine response.

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Flight Management

Systems – 1”.
1. Which one of the following is not a function of the FMS?
a) Flight guidance and control of flight path
b) Monitor and regulate speed of the aircraft
c) Automatically switch between different types of communication
d) Automatic control of engine thrust
Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The tasks of the FMS include Flight guidance and lateral and vertical control of the
aircraft flight path, Monitoring the aircraft flight envelope and computing the optimum speed
for each phase of the flight and ensuring safe margins are maintained with respect to the
minimum and maximum speeds over the flight envelope, Automatic control of the engine
thrust to control the aircraft speed. However, the communication systems are taken care
manually by the pilot.

2. What does the following figure represent?

a) Flight Management System

b) Flight Data System
c) Total autopilot system
d) Flight Management Computer
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The above figure represents flight management system. The throttle, Flight
Management Computer, Data storage, Navigation and display systems, and the autopilot
together is called the FMS.

3. The number of independent FMS in a typical commercial aircraft is?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 7
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are two independent FMS in a typical commercial aircraft’s cockpit. FMS-1
is on the Captain’s side and FMS-2 on the First Officer’s side to carry ou the flight management
functions. The reason why both are independent is that when one fails the other can take over.

4. Which of the following is not a way cockpit-flight crew interfaces in the FMS?
a) Primary Flight Display
b) Multi Function Display
c) Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit
d) Target Detection and Locking System
Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The cockpit interfaces to the flight crew provided by each FMS comprise a
Navigation Display (ND), a Primary Flight Display (PFD), a Multi-Function Display(MFD), a
Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit (KCCU) and an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
Control Panel (EFIS CP).

5. What type of cockpit flight crew interface is used to enter or modify the data on the MFD?
a) Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit
b) Control stick
c) Control Switches
d) Control levers
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The flight crew can navigate through the pages of FMS and can consult, enter or
modify the data via the Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit (KCCU). The Keyboard and Cursor
Control Unit (KCCU) enables the flight crew to navigate through the FMS pages on the MFD and
enter and modify data on the MFD and can also perform some flight plan revisions on the
lateral Navigation Display (ND).

6. What control does the EFIS Control Panel provide?

a) Control over graphical and textual FMS data
b) Control over flight plan
c) Control over flight performance
d) Navigation through FMS pages
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The EFIS Control Panel (EFIS CP) provides the means for the flight crew to control
the graphical and textual FMS data that appear on the ND and PFD. Control over flight plan and
performance is given by MFD. Navigation through the pages is by KCCU.

7. What is the number of Flight Management Computers used in a typical commercial

aircraft?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There are a total of three Flight Management Computers FMC -A, FMC -B, FMC -C.
They are necessary to carry out the necessary functional computations. They can be
reconfigured to maintain the system operation in the event of failures.

8. What operating mode of the FMS does the figure show?

a) Double mode
b) Independent mode
c) Single mode
d) Redundancy mode
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In the Independent Mode, FMS-1 and FMS-2 are both operative, but there is no
data exchange between them because they disagree on one or more items such as aircraft
position, gross weight, etc.

Multiple Questions and Answers focuses on “Flight Management Systems – 2”.

1. Both FMS 1 & 2 get information from only one FMC in the case of ______
a) Independent mode
b) Loss of one FMC
c) Single mode
d) Double mode
Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In Single mode operating mode of the FMS two of the FMC is not in operation and
this might cause one of the two FMS to fail. Hence both the FMS get information from one
FMC.

2. The standby FMC performs calculations even when both the FMC are fully functional.
a) True
b) False
Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The standby computer does not perform any calculations, but is regularly updated
by the master FMC. In the case of a single FMC failure, the standby FMC provides data to FMS
connected with the failed FMC.

3. What filter is used by the FMS to estimate the position of the aircraft from various sensors?
a) Kalman filter
b) Position error filter
c) GPS filter
d) Gyro and accelerometer filter
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The FMS combines the data from the navigational sources, comprising the inertial
systems, GPS and the radio navigation systems, in a Kalman filter to derive the best estimate of
the aircraft position. Each navigation system has its own advantages and limits, a Kalman filter
combines the resource from all the systems to provide a more accurate position of the aircraft.

4. What is the output for the following system?

a) Aircraft position
b) All the fight data
c) Gyro and accelerometer values
d) Warning signals for wrong navigation
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The final output of a Kalman filter is the best estimated aircraft position derived
from various radio and inertial/GPS sensors. The direct information from the sensors ( raw
data) cannot be used directly for accurate position location as their error increases with time.

5. Which one of the following is not a navigation mode used by FMS for computing position of
the aircraft?
a) Inertial (IRS) – GPS
b) Inertial (IRS) – DME/DME
c) Inertial (IRS) – VOR/DME
d) GPS only
Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Each FMS computes the aircraft position and the position accuracy. The FMS
computed position is an optimum combination of the inertial position and the GPS or radio
position, depending on which equipment provides the most accurate data. This results in four
navigation modes: Inertial (IRS) – GPS, Inertial (IRS) – DME/DME, Inertial (IRS) – VOR/DME,
Inertial (IRS) only. The only GPS is not used as the position information is within a radius where
the aircraft is flying.
6. Navigational functions are no longer available if the INS shuts down in an FMS.
a) True
b) False
Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The FMS aircraft position always uses the inertial position. This computation is not
possible if the inertial position is not valid, and in this case, all the FMS navigation and flight
planning functions are no longer available. FBW system also fails in the case of an INS shut
down since it uses INS for feedback.

7. What is the interval for updating data in the navigation database?

a) 1 hour
b) 1 month
c) 24 hours
d) 28 days
Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The navigation database is updated every 28 days, according to the ICAO AiRAC
cycle, and is held in non-volatile memory. It is clearly essential to maintain the recency and
quality of the database and the operator is responsible for the detail contents of the database
which is to ARINC 424 format.

8. Which one of the following is not a factor for calculating speed breaches by the FMS?
a) Aircraft weight
b) CG position
c) Wind and temperature models
d) Position of the aircraft
Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The FMS continually monitors the aircraft envelope and ensures that the speed
envelope restrictions are not breached. It also computes the optimum speeds for the various
phases of the flight profile. This is carried out taking into account factors such as: Aircraft
weight – computed from a knowledge of the take-off weight and the fuel consumed (measured
by the engine flow meters), CG position – computed from known aircraft loading and fuel
consumed, Flight level and flight plan constraints, Wind and temperature models, Company
route cost index.