THIRD PERIODIC TEST IN PHYSICAL SCIENCE

NAME: DATE:

TRACK:

Directions. Read each of the following questions carefully and write the letter of the
correct answer on the space provided for each number.

______1. What type of nuclear reaction is involved when there is a conversion of a

proton in a nucleus into a neutron along with the release of a positron?
A. bombardment of alpha particle C. electron capture
B. gamma radiation D. positron emission

______2. Which of the following products complete the equation below?

4 He +4 He →___________
2 2

A. 84He C. 84Be
B. 164He D.164Be

______3. Which specific element was decayed after the production of radioactive nickel
from the fusion of silicon?
A. iron C. oxygen
B. beryllium D. carbon

______4. During the stellar formation and evolution, what element results when helium
is fused with beryllium?
A. iron C. oxygen
B. beryllium D. carbon

______5. Which process of nuclear reaction is involved when a nucleus splits into
smaller nuclei?
A. nuclear fusion C. nuclear power
B. nuclear fission D. nucleosynthesis
______6. What do you call the process of nuclear reaction where a nucleus combines
with another nucleus?
A. nuclear fusion C. nuclear power
B. nuclear fission D. nucleosynthesis

______7. Which of the following is considered as the building block of matter?

A. cell C. molecules
B. atom D. carbohydrates

______8. During stellar formation and evolution, helium combined with one another to
form beryllium. What do you call this process?
A. nucleosynthesis C. nuclear power
B. nuclear fission D. nuclear fusion

______9. Elements are believed to be formed during Big Bang, stellar formation and
evolution and stellar explosion. When was the time where beryllium was fused
to form iron?
A. Big Bang period
B. stellar formation and evolution
C. stellar explosion
D. stellar evolution
______10. Why does the production of elements stop when iron is formed during the
stellar explosion?
A. iron is the most stable nuclei and cannot undergo nuclear fusion
B. iron is the least stable nuclei
C. iron is the most stable nuclei and cannot undergo nuclear fission
D. it cannot undergo nuclear fission

______11. What were the composition of the universe after the big bang?
A. 75% hydrogen, 25% helium and trace of lithium
B. 75% lithium, 25% beryllium and trace of carbon
C. 75% helium, 25% lithium and trace of hydrogen
D. 75% carbon, 25 % oxygen and trace of hydrogen

______12. Which one of the following is the positively-charged electron?

A. electron C. proton
B. neutron D. positron

______13. What do you call the atoms of an element that have the same number of
protons but different number of neutrons?
A. atomic mass C. atomic number
B. isotopes D. radioactivity

______14. Which violent explosion resulted to the formation of elements heavier than
iron?
A. Big Bang theory C. stellar explosion
B. stellar evolution D. stellar formation and evolution

______15. What happens to atoms when combine with another atom/s?

A. expands C. stable
B. indivisible D. free

______16. Which type of bond occurs when there is equal sharing of electron pairs
between atoms?
A. polar covalent C. polar ionic
B. non-polar covalent D. non-polar ionic

______17. Solubility in water of a compound depends on the overall polarity of the

molecule. Which of the following is a general rule?
A. “must be balanced”
B. “universal solvent”
C. “all molecule are dissolved”
D. “like dissolves like”

______18. Polar covalent compound such as ICl can be dissolved in water. What non-
polar covalent compound can be dissolved in hexane?
A. hydrogen gas C. sugar
B. potassium nitrate D. acetic acid

______19. How do you describe dipole-dipole forces?

A. These are short ranged forces between molecules that are very near to
each other.
B. These are weak forces between molecules
C. Unlike molecules cancel out due to this force.
D. Forces that draw the atoms in opposite poles.

______20. Which type of IMFA is present in H and N bonding?

A. hydrophilic C. hydrogen bond
B. London forces D. Van der Waals
______21.Which of the following summarizes the concept about London dispersion
forces?
A. All the atoms in the molecules are bonded near the center.
B. Weakest type of bonds between very close atoms.
C. Strong bond between atoms of the same element.
D. none of the above

______22. Iodine ( 253.8 g/mol) has higher boiling point than bromine( 159.8g/mol).
Which of the following explains such occurrence?
A. iodine have higher molar mass C. iodine is diatomic
B. bromine is less stable D. iodine is polar

______23. Which of the following compound has the highest boiling point?
A. H2O C. C6H6
B. NaCl D. HCl

______24. Hydrogen bonding is a dipole-dipole interaction. Which of the following will

likely be attracted to hydrogen?
A. nitrogen C. boron
B. aluminum D. sodium

______25.Why is melting point considered in medical implants and prosthetic?

A. they are more available than metals with lower boiling point
B. they will melt inside the body
C. they will grow in the body part
D. they will not be damaged during sterilization

______26.Electronic devices require electrically conductive part, while other parts are
not. Which part of it has a covalently bound hydrocarbon called polymer?
A. speaker C. cover
B. LCD D. motherboard

______27. What is the polarity of the octagonal geometry of SF6 showing a symmetric
charge distribution in the central atom?
A. ionic polar C. polar
B. non-polar D. hydrogen bonded

______28. What will happen to the polarity of the two poles in the compound BeH 2?
A. increases C. copied
B. decreases D. cancelled out

______29. Why do carbohydrates are soluble in many body fluids especially in blood?
A. Blood is composed mainly of water and it is also polar.
B. Carbohydrates have weak bonds and electrons flow freely.
C. Blood is non polar.
D. all of the above

______30. Lipids are insoluble in water. What do you call this “water –fearing” property?
A. hydrollitic C. waterless
B. hydrophillic D. hydrophobic

______31. Which type of chemical reaction is shown by the general equation below?
A + B AB
A. combination C. single replacement
B. decomposition D. double replacement
______32. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the rate of reaction?
A. More collisions among particles of the reactants, the slower the reaction
is.
B. When reaction temperature increases, the reaction rate increases too.
C. The bigger the size of the solid particles, the greater the area in which
the reaction would take place.
D. Decreasing the pressure of a gas, increases the chances of particles
collision.

______33. What is the molar mass of H2O?

A. 17 g/mol C. 19 g/mol
B. 18 g/mol D. 20 g/mol

______34. Which chemical reaction is shown by the chemical reaction below?

CaCO3 + Mg MgCO3 + Ca
A. combination C. single replacement
B. decomposition D. double replacement

______35. Which of the following chemical reactions is a balanced equation?

A. AgCl + 2O2 2Ag2O + 2Cl2
B. 4AgCl + O2 2Ag2O + 2Cl2
C. 2 AgCl + O2 Ag2O + Cl2
D. AgCl + O2 Ag2O + Cl2

For numbers 36-40, refer to the chemical reaction below:

ZnO + K K2O + Zn

______36. What coefficient should be added to balance the chemical equation?

A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

______37. What is the total mass of the reactants?

A. 157 g C. 159 g
B. 158 g D. 160 g

______38. How much mole is present in the 5.0 g sample of ZnO?

A. 16.2 mol C. 0.62 mol
B. 1.62 mol D. 0.062 mol

______39. How many particles of the given in the previous number is present in the
sample?
A. 3.73 x 1020 particles C. 3.73 x 1022 particles
B. 3.73 x 1021 particles D. 3.73 x 1023 particles

______40. How much mole is present in the 3.5 g sample of potassium oxide?
A. 0.037 mol C. 1.37 mol
B. 0.37 mol D. 11.37 mol

______41. Which type of reactant dictates the amount of product formed?

A. limiting reactant C. both A and B
B. excess reactant D. none of these

______42. The experimental yield of HCl is 93.56 g while its theoretical yield is 95.68 g.
What is its percentage yield?
 A. 99.78% C. 97.78%
B. 98.78% D. 96.78%
______43.Which of the following statements explained theoretical yield?
A. The maximum amount of product that can be produced from the given
amount of reactant.
B. The minimum amount of product that can be produced from the given
amount of reactant.
C. The measured amount of a product obtained from a reaction.
D. The obtained amount of a product obtained from a reaction.

______44. Which of the following is NOT a natural source of energy?

A. fossil fuel C. battery
B. biomass D. geothermal

______45. Which type of personal care product helps prevent and remove unpleasant
body smells and are available in the market as liquids, powders or sprays?
A. deodorant C. moisturizers
B. perfumes D. skin whitener

______46. Which products are designed for bathroom surfaces, such as tubs, tiles and
toilet bowls, which normally develop stains like mildew?
A. stain removers C. disinfectants
B. bathroom cleaners D. scouring cleaners

______47. Which of the following is used to kill pathogens on surfaces?

A. disinfectant C. dye
B. scouring paste D. surfactant

______48. Which of the following is an active ingredient of general purpose cleaners?

A. dye C. fragrance
B. preservative D. surfactant

______49. Paul accidentally splash a household chemical in his eyes. Which of the
following steps must be followed FIRST?
A. Call for medical help.
B. Move to a ventilated area.
C. Place a cold compress over closed eyes.
D. Rinse eyes for 15 to 20 minutes with clean running water.

______50. Perfumes impart fragrant odors. Which of the following is NOT a component
of perfume?
A. fragrant oils C. alcohol
B. mineral oils D. water
 THIRD PERIODIC TEST IN PHYSICAL SCIENCE

TABLE OF SPECIFICATION
Learning Content Knowledge Comprehension Application Number
of Items

How the elements

found in the universe
were formed

How the idea of the 1-3 4-7 8-14 14

atom, along with the
idea of the elements
evolved

How the properties of

matter relate to their
chemical structure 15-16 17-22 23-30 16

How chemical
changes take place
31-32 33-34 35-44 14

How chemistry
contributes to the
understanding of
household and
personal care 45-46 47-50 6
products

TOTAL 10 15 25 50
 ANSWER KEY IN THIRD QUARTER EXAMINATION IN PHYSICAL SCIENCE

1. D 11. A 21. B 31. A 41. A

2. C 12. D 22. A 32. B 42. C

3. A 13. B 23. B 33. B 43. A

4. D 14. C 24. A 34. C 44. C

5. B 15. C 25. D 35. B 45. A

6. A 16. B 26. C 36. B 46. B

7. B 17. D 27. B 37. C 47. A

8. D 18. A 28. D 38. D 48. D

9. B 19. A 29. A 39. C 49. D

10. A 20. C 30. D 40. A 50. C