CRIMINALISTICS

Scope: Scientific study of the detection of forgery, deception methods and techniques in the
classification of fingerprints, ballistics examination, the application of chemistry in the
identification of physical evidence-treatment and detection of poisons, the preparation of
photographic evidence in court and the application of Medical Sciences in crime investigation in the
field of Law and Administration of Justice. (20 %)

I POLICE PHOTOGRAPHY

1. It is the inability to focus light passing through the center of the lens and its edge at the
same place on the film.

a. Aberration c. Spherical aberration

b. Chromatic aberration d. All of the foregoing

2. Refers to a picture of the original object photographed.

a. Print c. Negative print

b. Positive print d. Contact print

3. Looking at the object closely with one eye while the other is finding that the object is not
seen from the same angle and has apparently a different position and shape.

a. Parallax c. Depth of field

b. Lock trough d. Focal distance

4. Characteristic of photographic paper usually utilized in police photography?

a. Single, glossy, white c. Double, glossy, white

b. Single, matte, cream d. Double, matte, cream

5. When a photograph was developed, the objects in open space cast a deep and uniform
shadow, what was the lighting condition when the shot was taken?

a. Bright c. Hazy

b. Dull d. Cloudy

6. Refers to the presence of all colors.

a. White light c. Rainbow

b. Gray light d. Black

7. Are devices which allow the photographer to watch the object he is photographing. It is
usually made up of small lens and mirrors.

a. Range finder c. Tripod

b. View finders d. Shutter

8. Refers to the response of film to different wave length of light source.

a. Spectral sensitivity c. Light sensitivity

b. Color sensitivity d. Film sensitivity

9. A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color only.

a. Blue sensitive c. Panchromatic

b. Orthochromatic d. Infra red

10. Lighting condition when objects in open space casts no shadow.

a. Bright c. Hazy

b. Dull d. Cloudy

11. Lens corrected for astigmatism.

a. Aprochomat lens c. Achromatic lens

b. Anastigmat lens d. Rapid rectilinear lens

12. A camera used for surveillance must have a lens with focal length that is:

a. Wide angle lens c. Telephoto lens

b. Normal lens d. Narrow angle lens

13. When a material does not allow light to pass its medium it is said to be:

a. Transparent c. Opaque

b. Translucent d. All of these

14. To separate colors, this homogenous medium absorbs and transmits light rays passing
through it.

a. Filter c. Developer

b. Stop bath d. Fixer

15. In crime scene photography what is the sufficient lens type for interior photographs?

a. Wide angle lens c. Telephoto lens

b. Normal lens d. Narrow angle lens

16. Refers to the most difficult lens defect.

a. Astigmatism c. Distortion

b. Coma d. Chromatic aberration

17. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined time interval.

a. View finder c. Light tight box

b. Shutter d. Holder of sensitized material

18. Its primary use in photography is focusing the light to the subject.

a. Light tight box c. Lens

b. Shutter d. View finder

19. It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is focused with a given particular
diaphragm opening.

a. Depth of field c. Focal distance

b. Hyper-focal distance d. Scale bed

20. It is the distance measured from the nearest to the farthest object.

a. Depth of field c. Scale bed

b. Hyper-focal distance d. Focal distance

21. Which among the following is not a primary color?

a. Red c. Yellow

b. Blue d. Green

22. It is a microscopically small photograph.

a. Microphotograph c. Photomacrograph

b. Photomicrograph d. Macrophotograph

23. The normal developing time of a paper or film.

a. 1 to 1 ½ minutes c. 20 to 30 minutes

b. 5 to 10 minutes d. 30 to 60 minutes

24.In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal paper for printing?

a. Chloride paper c. Contact paper

b. Bromide paper d. Chloro-bromide paper

25. This refers to the absence of all colors.

a. White c. Blue

b. Red d. Black

26. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space casts a transparent shadow.

a. Hazy c. Cloudy bright

b. Cloudy Dull d. Bright

27. To view watermarks in disputed documents, what particular method of photography is

utilized?

a. Bounce light c. Transmitted light

b. Side light d. Reflected light

28. Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of two chemical solutions in
chemical processing in photography.

a. Development c. Fixation

b. Stop-bath d. Bleaching

29.Which among the following comprises the essential parts of a camera?

a. Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized material, View finder

b. Light tight box, Shutter, holder of sensitized material, View finder, Lens aperture

c. Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of sensitized material, Shutter

d. Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens, holder of sensitized material

30. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative material.

a. Wide angle lens c. Long lens

b. Normal lens d. Telephoto lens

31. Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of convergence of light coming from a
subject as seen from two apertures.

a. Focusing scale c. View finder

b. Scale bed d. Range finder

32. It is a magnified picture of a small object produced by connecting the lens of a camera
with the ocular of a compound microscope.

a. Microphotograph c. Photomacrograph

b. Photomicrograph d. Macrophotograph

33. Attributed as the person who first discovered first true photography.

a. William Henry Fox Talbot c. Louis Jacques Daguirre

b. Thomas Wedgewood d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce

34. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at bright sunlight with normal subject.

a. 1/30 f-8 c. 1/60 f-4

b. 1/125 f-11 d. 1/250 f-8

35. In police photography, to obtain a general view of the scene we use a camera at what
particular level?

a. Elevated c. Bird’s eye view

b. Eye level d. Worm’s eye view

36.The wavelength of electromagnetic energy expressed in milli-microns in reference to

visible light is:

a. 001 to 100 c. 400 to 700

b. 300 to 400 d. 700 to 1000

37. Photography is defined as drawing with what particular element?

a. Light c. Film

b. Camera d. Developer

38. It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the thicker center and thinner sides.

a. Positive lens c. Convex lens

b. Negative lens d. Concave lens

39. It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to the various energies of the
electromagnetic spectrum.

a. Infra-red c. Orthochromatic

b. X-ray d. Panchromatic

40. The first use of photography in police work is in what particular field?

a. Crime prevention c. Surveillance work

b. Identification files d. Crime scene investigation

41. The chemical processing step wherein the latent image recorded on the paper or film
becomes visible.

a. Fixer c. Stop bath

b. Bleacher d. Developer
42. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of microscope.

a. Microphotography c. Macrophotography

b. Photomicrography d. Photomacrography

43. The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of image refers to:

a. Hyper-focal distance c. Focusing

b. Focal distance d. Focal length

44. Infrared radiation is also referred to as:

a. Laser light c. Black light

b. Coherent light d. Heat rays

45. The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in logarithmic values refers to:

a. ISO rating c. DIN rating

b. ASA rating d. BSI rating

46. Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing solution.

a. Hypo or silver halide c. Sodium Sulfate

b. Potassium Alum d. Acetic Acid

47. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.

a. Hydroquinone c. Sodium carbonate

b. Sodium sulfite d. Potassium bromide

48. Refers to the product of illumination and time.

a. Exposure c. Sensitized material

b. Development d. Photograph

49. Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging.

a. Potassium Bromide c. Sodium carbonate

b. Sodium Sulfite d. Boric Acid

50. A homogenous mixture which absorbs and transmits differentially light rays passing
through it.

a. Stop bath c. Filter

b. Fixer d. Dektol

51. An instrument which measures the intensity of light falling on the subject, which
indicates the proper F stop and shutter speed to use with a specific film. Also known as a
light meter.
a. Range finder c. Shutter

b. View finder d. Exposure meter

52. It refers to the taking photographs of arrested persons for identification purposes.

a. Rouge gallery c. Booking

b. Line-up d. Mugging

53. A light sensitive material placed inside the camera.

a. Filter c. Negative

b. Paper d. Film

54. It is a coating which consists of light sensitive silver salts in a gelatin medium used for
all photographic films and papers.

a. Solution c. Dektol

b. Halides d. Emulsion

55. A sheet of brass which has a chromium plated surface on one side used for producing a
highly glossy picture.

a. Platen c. Developer

b. Tripod d. Ferrotype plate

56. It includes the inability of the lens to image straight lines.

a. Aberration c. Chromatic aberration

b. Distortion d. Spherical aberration

57. The tonal difference between the darkest and lightest portion of a negative or print.

a. Degree c. Hue

b. Contrast d. Light

58. A photographic positive made while exposing the photographic paper being held tightly
against a negative.

a. Print c. Negative print

b. Contact print d. Positive print

59. Commonly known as “hypo” the purpose of this solution is to harder the gelatin emulsion
on the film and to dissolve all undeveloped and unexposed silver halides.

a. Developer c. Emulsion

b. Clearing or fixing bath d. Dektol

60. The inability of the lens to focus both horizontal and vertical plane at the same time.
a. Aberration c. Coma

b. Astigmatism d. Distortion

61. The simplest type of camera.

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type

b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

62. Using this camera, the entire coverage is seen behind the lens, the image is reflected to
the viewer and it enables the photographer to compose and focus the objects being
photographed.

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type

b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

63. This type of camera will eliminate parallax error and will work well with all lenses, but
difficult to focus under dim conditions.

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type

b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

64. In this type of camera the image being photographed can be seen in flat surface as
reflected by the mirror behind the viewing lens. The viewing screen will help the
photographer in the accurate composition of the object to photograph as he looks into the
camera at his waist level.

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type

b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

65. The biggest and most sophisticated type of camera.

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type

b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

66. This camera is useful in law enforcement photography especially in the reproduction of
document and photomicrography wherein minute object can be enlarged and composed
accurately in the large viewing screen of this type of camera.

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type

b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

67. Usually this camera is made up of a lens located at the peephole of the camera. More
often the focusing system of this camera is in the view finder itself.

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type

b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

68. This type of camera can provide an excellent focusing system especially at dim light
condition.

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type

b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

69. Which among the following camera is utilized by means of a tripod?

a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type

b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type

70. This accessory is attached to the shutter to prevent accidental movement of the camera
during the exposure period.

a. Tripod c. Cable release

b. Flash unit d. Light meter

71. A devise used in determining the intensity of light that strikes the object and affects the
film.

a. Tripod c. Cable release

b. Flash unit d. Light meter

72. A device used in photographing minute objects attached to the lens board of a camera.

a. Extension tube c. Cable release

b. Flash unit d. Light meter

73. A transparent medium which transmit and absorb different wave lengths of lights,
usually made of glass or gelatin material placed in front or behind the camera lens.

a. Filters c. Light meter

b. Coma d. Flash unit

74. This filter is used in excessively bright light and would protect the camera lens from
accidental scratches and abrasions.

a. Contrast filter c. Neutral density filter

b. Correction filter d. Polarizing filter

75. The most dependable device that will measure the brightness of light.

a. Extinction meter c. Photo-electric meter

b. Light meter d. Flash unit

76. It refers to a lens which forms a real image on the opposite side of the lens.

a. Positive lens c. Convex lens

b. Negative lens d. Concave lens

77. It is thinner on the middle than the edge and this lens forms a virtual image on the
same side of lens. Also known as a diverging lens because of its power to swerve rays of light
that passes through it.

a. Positive lens c. Convex lens

b. Negative lens d. Concave lens

78. The failure of the lens to produce a point image of an object point.

a. Astigmatism c. Coma

b. Curvature of field d. Distortion

79. A combination of two achromatic lens with almost the same focal length.

a. Simple meniscus lens c. Anastigmatic lens

b. Rapid rectilinear lens d. Process lens

80. Court recommended size of photograph submitted as evidence.

a. 5 x 7 c. 8 x 9

b. 5 x 6 d. 8 x 10

II. PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION

1. Fingerprint patterns are ___________, as all fingerprint experts agree.

a. Always inherited c. Inherited as mendelian characteristics

b. Sometimes inherited d. Never inherited

2. In the process of developing the impressions, the fingerprint powder should be applied as
soon as the ridges become visible;

a. Across the ridge c. In the direction of the ridge trend

b. In the interspaces d. In the center of the ridge

3. Refers to as fingerprint pattern wherein the ridge flow from one side to the other without
recurving, and ridges rising in the center.

a. Plain arch c. Plain whorl

b. Tented arch d. Plain loop

4. A pattern in which the ridges flow from one circle to another without recurving, usually
forming a slight upward curve in the center having resemblance of an arch.

a. Plain arch c. Plain whorl

b. Tented arch d. Plain loop

5. It is a fingerprint pattern in which the ridge or downward slant from the little finger
toward the radius bone or the thumb.

a. Loop c. Radial loop

b. Ulnar loop d. Tented arch

6. The system of fingerprinting is referred to as:

a. Poroscopy c. Dactyloscopy

b. Podoscopy d. Palmistry

7. In taking the fingerprint, it is a must to instruct the subject to:

a. Stiffen the fingers

b. Relax the fingers

c. Wash both hands before taking the prints

d. Exert pressure on the inking process

8. It is a ridge in the center of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a rod, loop, or a
spiral in the interior of the pattern.

a. Core c. Delta

b. Loop d. Bifurcation

9. A German criminologist who discovered that fingerprinting for identification purpose were
already used in the Far East during the Tang dynasty from 618 to 906 A.D.

a. Henry Faulds c. Robert Heindle

b. Dr. Nehemiah Greu d. Alphonse Bertillon

10. Regarded as the “Father of Fingerprints”.

a. Sir Edward Richard Henry c. Alphonse Bertillon

b. Sir Francis Galton d. Gilbert Thompson

11. Basis of fingerprint identification.

a. Pores c. Friction ridges

b. Ridges d. Latent print

12. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable method of identification due to following

reason; except:

a. Fingerprints are not changeable

b. There are no two identical fingerprints

c. Wounded or burned out patterns will re-appear

d. It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy

13. Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are formed and developed?

a. 3rd month of fetal life c. At birth

b. 6th month of infancy d. 3 months after birth

14. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a loop, spiral or rod.

a. Delta c. Ridge

b. Core d. Whorl

15. Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify the identity between two points.

a. Nine c. Fifteen

b. Twelve d. Eighteen

16. A British scientist who devoted his work to the study of fingerprint and established his
system of fingerprint classification in England.

a. Sir Francis Galton c. Samuel Clemens

b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson

17. An American who first utilized fingerprint classification to prevent forgery in New Mexico.

a. Sir Francis Galton c. Samuel Clemens

b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson

18. First chief of the Identification Bureau in Paris who was known for his anthropometric
measurement.

a. Alphonse Bertillon c. Samuel Clemens

b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson

19. First Filipino expert on fingerprinting.

a. Atty. Agustin Patricio c. Atty. Lorenzo Sunico

b. Gen. Rafael Crame d. Col. Jose Lukban

20. First judicial decision within Philippine jurisprudence relying on the science of
fingerprinting.

a. People of the Philippines Vs. Medina, 59, Phil. 330

b. People of the Philippines vs. Ponferada, 54 Phil.68

c. People of the Philippines vs. Arseni, 34 Phil.750

d. People of the Philippines vs. Pacana, 47 Phil.48

21. Papillary or friction ridges may be located at:

a. Fingers c. Soles of the feet

b. Palms d. All of the above

22. The fingerprint classification which is used in the United States.

a. Henry System c. Bertillion System

b. Batley System d. Galton System

23. Which among the following is considered as a basic type of ridge characteristics?

a. Ridge endings c. Dots

b. Bifurcation d. All of the foregoing

24. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of papillary ridges as means of
identification.

a. Edgeoscopy c. Podoscopy

b. Poroscopy d. Chiroscopy

25. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the subject’s hand is:

a. Necessary c. Optional

b. Unnecessary d. Excessive

26. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is;

a. Temporary c. Lasting

b. Permanent d. Stable

27. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller.

a. Porelon c. Inkless pad

b. Special pad d. None of these

28. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the impression is held to be:

a. Plain whorl meeting c. Arches

b. Loops d. Dependent on ridge tracings

29. Referred to as cutter terminus:

a. Delta c. Bifurcation

b. Dots d. None of these

30. Failure to clean the slab after using it produces:

a. Impression of false markings c. Pattern reversals

b. Accentuation of patterns d. Difficulty in photographing

31. In taking fingerprints _________ are rolled away from the body of the subject.

a. All fingers c. Both thumbs

b. All fingers except the thumbs d. Both little fingers

32. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the fingerprint card are referred to as:

a. Rolled impressions c. Fragmentary impressions

b. Plain impressions d. Visible impressions

33. Known for his rule which states that” No two individuals in the world are exactly the
same size and that human skeleton does not change after 20 years.

a. Darwin c. Galton

b. Mendel d. Bertillon

34. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint is to view the area:

a. Obliquely c. Directly

b. About half an inch distance d. About one inch distance

35. Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of pattern are represented.

a. Accidental loop c. Double loop

b. Central pocket loop d. Whorl

36. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops, with its respective shoulder and
deltas.

a. Double loop c. Central pocket loop

b. Accidental loop d. Whorl

37. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but has two deltas.

a. Accidental loop c. Whorl

b. Double loop d. Central pocket loop

38. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the thumb toward the little finger?

a. Tented Arch c. Ulnar loop

b. Radial loop d. Loop

39. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of the impression by a
recurve, and terminate on the same side where the ridge has entered.

a. Tented arch c. Ulnar loop

b. Radial loop d. Loop

40. It is triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation of a ridge at the outer portion of the
pattern.

a. Latent prints c. Core

b. Ridge d. Delta
41. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are:

a. Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts

b. Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges and spurs

c. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations

d. Type lines, converging ridges and recurving ridges

42. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a single ridge is called:

a. Enclosure ridge c. Short ridges

b. Dot ridges d. Resembling a loop

43. Which part of the human body has no papillary ridges.

a. Soles of the foot c. Finger

b. Palm d. Both A and B

44. Points often missed in rolling impression.

a. Bifurcation c. Delta

b. Core d. Ridge

45. Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an impression or imprint.

a. Latent print c. Loop

b. Pattern d. Arch

46. Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?

a. Loop c. Whorl

b. Arch d. Accidental

47. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around core axes.

a. Whorl c. Double loop

b. Central pocket loop d. Accidental

48. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on papillary ridges as a means of
identification.

a. Poroscopy c. Podoscopy

b. Edeoscopy d. Dactyloscopy

49. A ridge which forks out into two ridges.

a. Delta c. Core

b. Bifurcation d. Pores
50. Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or ridges from the little finger toward
the thumb.

a. Ulnar loop c. Arch

b. Radial loop d. Whorl

51. To help identify a subject who is an alien, the most vital information to be obtained at the
Bureau of Immigration and Deportation is…

a. Educational attainment of the alien c. Occupation of the alien

b. Residence of the alien d. Port of entry of the alien

52. In tracing a suspected person at large in a criminal case, the least vital among the
following would be…

a. His appearance and how he dresses

b. Known associates and companions

c. His occupation or means of livelihood

d. Where the suspect hang’s out

53. What does the first two digit of a person’s Social Security Number indicates?

a. The occupation of the member at the time of registration

b. The month of registration

c. The income bracket or group where the member belongs

d. The region where the member originally registered

54. In determining the identity of an unknown dead body found in a river, wherein no
identifying papers are to be found, and the body is badly mutilated and swollen, which
among the following means of identification is least dependable?

a. Fingerprints c. Scars on the body

b. Tatoo markings on the body d. Measurement of the body

55. In reporting a missing person, which among the following is the most vital information
necessary to locate the said person?

a. Clinical or medical history of the person

b. Personal traits and habits

c. Mental attitude and condition at the time of the disappearance

d. Physical description

56. Given to a complete set of ten fingers as they appear on a fingerprint card generally
based on pattern type, ridge tracing or ridge count.

a. Henry System c. Fingerprint Classification

b. Battley System d. Classification Formula

57. It constitutes approximately 65% of all fingerprints.

a. Loops c. Whorls

b. Arches d. Accidentals

58. That part of the fingerprint wherein we find the core and delta.

a. Bifurcation c. Type lines

b. Pattern area d. None of these

59. Refers to innermost ridges that run parallel, diverge and surround or tend to surround
the pattern area.

a. Delta c. Core

b. Divergence d. Type lines

60. A smooth spreading apart of two ridges which have been running parallel or nearly
parallel.

a. Island c. Divergence

b. Dot d. Convergence

61. A small ridge attached to another ridge.

a. Island c. Bifurcation

b. Dot d. Appendage

62. In ridge counting of loops, which among the following is not counted?

a. Delta c. Intervening ridges

b. Core d. Both A and B

63. When the trace is whorls is on the outside or core outside of right delta three or more
ridges, the trace is determined to be;

a. (I) Inner c. (M) Meet

b. (O) Outer d. None of these

64. Represents the total numerical value of the even numbered fingers plus one over the total
number numerical value of the odd numbered fingers plus one.

a. Primary c. Key

b. Secondary d. Final

65. In the classification, this is always shown in capital letters with the right hand over the
help.

a. Primary c. Key

b. Secondary d. Final

66. It tells us the classification of the thumbprints on the fingerprint card and appears
showing the right hand over the left hand.
a. Major division c. Key

b. Primary d. Final

67. If all fingers are amputated or missing at birth, the classification will be;

a. M 32 W MMM c. M 30 W MMM

M 32 W MMM M 30 W MMM

b. M 31 W MMM d. None of these

M 31 W MMM

68. If one finger is amputated, it is given a classification with that of;

a. The opposite finger c. The first finger

b. The next finger d. The last finger

69. It consists of recordings of all friction ridges present on the palmar surfaces of the hands
and the inner surfaces of the fingers. They are commonly utilized to make accurate and
conclusive comparisons with all latent prints obtained during the investigation of a major
case.

a. Major case print c. Special case print

b. Fingerprint chart d. None of these

70. In trying to obtain prints on fingers of a dead person which is stiff or when rigor mortis
has set in, injection of a tissue builder by a hypodermic needle at the joint of the finger up to
the tip of the finger is undertaken. Which among the following is the most commonly utilized
tissue builder?

a. Glycerine c. Saline Solution

b. Water d. Both A and B

III FORENSIC CHEMISTRY AND TOXICOLOGY

1. The most reliable and delicate test for the determination of the presence of blood by means
of an optical instrument.

a. Precipitin test c. Microscopic test

b. Spectroscopic test d. Florence test

2. It is used to characterize and locate seminal fluid.

a. Florence test c. Barberio’s test

b. Microscopic examination d. Acid Phosphate test

3. A test used if the powder particles of nitrates and nitrites are deeply embedded in the
clothing, the visible result of which is the fact that nitrates are converted to a dye.

a. Walker’s test c. Microscopic test

b. Diphenylamine test d. Spectroscopic test

4. An examination which is used to determine the general group to which the fiber belongs.

a. Chemical test c. Fluorescence test

b. Florence test d. Burning or ignition test

5. A reliable test which is used to identify and compare ballpoint pen ink.

a. Spot test c. Paper chromatography

b. Chemical test d. Dissolution test

6. A rapid and convenient method of determining the density of small glass fragments.

a. Density gradient test c. Immersion method

b. Flotation method d. Polish mark examination

7. A test which shows the constituent elements of a glass which is key to establish the origin
of the glass samples examined.

a. X-ray diffraction test c. Spectographic analysis

b. Ultra violet light examination d. Physical property examination

8. Simon’s reagent and shabu combined will yield what visible result?

a. Yellow c. Green

b. Blue d. Red

9. Used to determine human semen under microscopic examination.

a. Spermine nitrate c. Spermatozoa

b. Hemochromagen crystals d. Choline periodic crystals

10. Positive result of Marijuana if combined with HCL.

a. Yellow fluorescence c. Blue specks

b. Effervescence d. No reaction

11. A person who fired a gun would be positively identified when DPA solution is used with
the visible result of:

a. Blue specks c. Orange brown specks

b. Bluish fluorescence d. Green specks

12. Fundamental unit of heredity.

a. Sperm cell c. Gene

b. Egg cell d. DNA

13. Which among the foregoing is not usually used specimen in DNA typing?

a. Hair c. Blood

b. Bones d. Semen

14. A very large molecule made by linking together a series of repeating units.

a. Gene c. Nucleotide

b. Polymer d. Double helix

15. The production of amino acid is controlled by a sequence of how many bases on the DNA
molecule?

a. Two c. Four

b. Three d. Five

16. The circulating tissue of the body.

a. Semen c. Cells

b. Blood d. Muscles

17. A man of average built would normally have how many quarts of blood?

a. 6 quarts c. 8 quarts

b. 7 quarts d. 9 quarts

18. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about 65% of the blood.

a. Platelets c. Leucocytes

b. Fibrin d. Plasma

19. It is the oxygen carrier of the blood.

a. Plasma c. Erythrocytes

b. Hemoglobin d. Fibrin

20. Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is decomposed and stained with
contamination.

a. Benzidine test c. Phenolphthalein test

b. Van Deen’s Test d. Precipitin test.

21. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof that subject is definitely blood.

a. Preliminary test c. Precipitin test

b. Confirmatory test d. Blood typing and grouping

22. Test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.

a. Preliminary test c. Precipitin test

b. Confirmatory test d. Blood typing and grouping

23. Positive result in the preliminary examination for semen in Barberio’s test.

a. Picric acid c. Napthol diazonium

b. Spermine picrate d. Anthraquinous chloride

24. Coffee when given to drunken persons is what kind of antidote?

a. Cathartic c. Physiological

b. Chemical d. Demulcent

25. Animal fiber may be best described by:

a. It is composed of protein

b. Gives yellow fluorescence under u.v. light

c. It burns fast

d. It has acid like odor when burned

26. Restriction enzymes are used to cut out sequences of DNA having different________.

a. Length c. Weight

b. Width d. Height

27. How may different bases are associated with the make-up of DNA?

a. Two c. Four

b. Three d. Five

28. DNA requires the pairing of A (adenine) to ________.

a. C (cytosine) c. T (thymine)

b. G (guanine) d. A (adenine)

29. G (guanine) is to be paired with ______ in a double helix configuration.

a. C (cytosine) c. T (thymine)

b. G (guanine) d. A (adenine)

30. The base sequence of T-G-C-A can be paired with the base sequence of ________ to
complete a double helix configuration.

a. A-C-G-T c. G-T-A-C
b. C-A-G-T d. A-T-G-C

31. When gunpowder explodes, this would determine the approximate time of firing the gun?

a. Soot c. Gases

b. Nitrates and nitrites d. Metallic fragments

32. In determining whether the hair is of human or animal origin what should the chemist
examine under the microscope?

a. Parts of the shaft c. Parts of the hair

b. Parts of the tip d. Parts of the root

33. A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns blue litmus to red, it is:

a. Cotton c. Fiber glass

b. Silk d. Steel wool

34. It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a race determinant?

a. Cortex c. Medulla

b. Cuticle d. Shaft

35. A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of human or animal origin.

a. Ignition test or burning c. Chemical analysis

b. Fluorescence analysis d. Microscopic analysis

36. Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches is ineffective.

a. Carbon c. Nigrosine

b. Logwood d. Gallotanic

37. Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its effects.

a. Emetics c. Alkaloids

b. Antidotes d. Tetanics

38. Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence when exposed to u.v. light?

a. Blood c. Saliva

b. Semen d. Urine

39. Oldest known explosive.

a. Black powder c. Dynamite

b. Smoke powder d. TNT

40. Deals with the study and identification of body fluids.

a. Immunology c. Posology

b. Serology d. Pharmacology

41. Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical and chemical properties,
physiological action, treatment and method of detection.

a. Forensic Chemistry c. Posology

b. Toxicology d. Forensic Medicine

42. A substance which when introduced into the body is absorbed in the blood stream and
acting chemically is capable of producing noxious effect.

a. Drugs c. Poison

b. Dangerous drugs d. Antidotes

43. Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of the mucous membrane and
characterized by vomiting, pain in the abdomen and purging.

a. Corrosives c. Narcotics

b. Irritants d. Tetanics

44. When a substance acts directly upon the spinal cord producing immobility or stiffness to
the parts to which they are attached, it is classified as:

a. Corrosives c. Narcotics

b. Irritants d. Tetanics

45. In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an important application in:

a. Counterfeit coins c. Bombs and Explosives

b. Theft and Robbery d. Restoration of tampered serial numbers

46. Agents which depress or retard the physiological action of an organ.

a. Corrosives c. Tetanics

b. Sedatives d. Narcotics

47. According to the methods of isolation, what poison is isolated by means of distillation?

a. Volatile poisons c. Metallic poisons

b. Non volatile poisons d. Tetanic poisons

48. When the effect of a poison is marked by disturbance of function or death within a short
time, the poisoning is classified as:

a. Acute poisoning c. Chronic poisoning

b. Sub-acute poisoning d. Suicidal poisoning

49. When the action of the poison is marked by disturbance produced in distant part from
the site of application, it is classified as:

a. Local c. Combined

b. Remote d. Acute

50. Refers to that branch of science which treats of the form and quantity of medicine to be
administered within a certain period.

a. Pharmacy c. Toxicology

b. Posology d. Pharmacology

51. The application of chemical principles in the examination of evidence.

a. Forensics c. Instrumentation

b. Criminalistics d. Forensic Chemistry

52. To positively determine the presence of blood in stained material, what test is used?

a. Takayama Test c. Barberio’s test

b. Phenolphtalien test d. Florence test

53. According to the method of isolation, volatile poisons may be isolated by means of what
process?

a. Extraction c. Distillation

b. Dilution d. Dialysis

54. Which of the following is not an accurate test for the presence of alcohol in the human
body?

a. Saliva test c. Fecal test

b. Harger breath test d. Drug test

55. A disturbance produced by poison on that part with which the poison came into contact.

a. Acute c. Remote

b. Local d. Combined

56. A material which is used to which is used to improve the quality of the paper.

a. Sizing material c. Gelatin

b. Rosin d. Starch

57. By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color would be formed if it is present.

a. Rosin c. Casein

b. Starch d. Gelatin
58. Oldest ink material known to man.

a. Logwood c. Carbon

b. Nigrosine d. Gallotanic

59. Only type of ink wherein age may be determined.

a. Logwood c. Carbon

b. Nigrosine d. Gallotanic

60. It refers to the obscuring of writing by superimposing ink, pencil or other marking
material.

a. Erasure c. Indented writing

b. Obliterated writing d. Contact writing

61. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds.

a. Casting c. Moulage

b. Cementing d. Pickling

62. Major component of a glass.

a. Lime c. Soda

b. Silica d. Lime

63. Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of tissues and causes nausea.

a. Corrosives c. Tetanics

b. Irritants d. Asthenics

64. Poisons which produces stupor and less feeling.

a. Neurotics c. Depressants

b. Irritants d. Narcotics

65. A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.

a. Lime c. Glass

b. Soda d. Gel

66. An organic bacterial poison.

a. Strychnine c. Brucine

b. Ptomaine d. Chloroform

67. This test is used to detect the presence of semen particularly in stained clothing.

a. Microscopic test c. Florence test

b. Barberio’s test d. Ultraviolet test

68. The best method in comparative soil analysis.

a. Chemical examination c. UV light examination

b. Density gradient test d. Microscopic test

69. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is utilized?

a. Accelerated aging test c. Opacity examination

b. Bursting strength test d. Microscopic examination

70. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying body.

a. Chloride c. Carbon dioxide

b. Ammonia d. Hydrogen sulfide

71. A condition whereby males have no spermatozoa in their seminal fluid.

a. Aspermia c. Sterility

b. Oligospremia d. Rigidity

72. It is the scientific study of serums which describes the analysis of antigen-antibody
reactions.

a. Serology c. Biology

b. Posology d. Serumnology

73. An incendiary device made of glass bottle filled with gasoline or any inflammable mixture
with a piece of absorbent cotton for a fuse or wick.

a. Tear gas c. Molotov bomb

b. Molotov Cocktail d. RDX

74. Cheapest form of solid oxidizer in an explosive mixture.

a. C-4 c. Ammonium nitrate

b. RDX d. TNT

75. Most utilized and important military explosive.

a. C-4 c. Ammonium nitrate

b. RDX d. TNT

76. Earliest substance used for writing.

a. Leaves c. Linen

b. Paper d. Egyptian papyrus

77. Agents which produce intestinal evacuation.

a. Emetic c. Antidotes

b. Cathartics d. Demulcents

78. A product of decomposition found nearly in all soils.

a. Sedentary soil c. Primary minerals

b. Clay minerals d. Organic constituents

79. For radial cracks it states that stress lines on radial crack will be at right angle to the
rear side.

a. RFC rule c. Flotation

b. 3 R’s rule d. Immersion

80. Normally responsible for retraction of the blood cloth.

a. Whiter blood cells (leucocytes) c. Blood platelets(thrombocytes)

b. Red blood cells (erythrocytes) d. Fibribogen

IV. FORENSIC MEDICINE

1. Builder of the first pyramid, he was considered as the first or earliest recorded medico-
legal expert.

a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias

b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista

2. First chief medico legal officer of the Philippine Commonwealth.

a. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin

b. Dr. Pedro Solis d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos

3. Regarded as the Father of Forensic Medicine.

a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias

b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista

4. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police surgeon, who performed the autopsy of
Julius Caesar, reporting that out of the 23 stab wounds, only one penetrated the chest cavity
between the first and second rib which was Caesar’s proximate cause of death.

a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias

b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista

5. First chief of the Medico Legal Division of the Bureau of Investigation.

a. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin

b. Dr. Pedro Solis d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos

6. This states that the greater number of points of similarities and variations between two
persons, the greater the probability of the conclusion to be accurate.

a. Prima Facie evidence rule

b. Conclusive evidence rule

c. Law of multiplicity of evidence in identification

d. Chain of custody of evidence

7. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere.

a. Red c. Reddish-brown

b. Clay d. Black

8. It has for its characteristics as, bright scarlet in color, with high oxygen content and leaves
the blood vessel with pressure.

a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood

b. Venous blood d. Human blood

9. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usually does not spill far from the wound.

a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood

b. Venous blood d. Human blood

10. This blood contains a high number of deodorleins bacillus, it does not clot and has acidic
reactions.

a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood

b. Venous blood d. Human blood

11. A condition in which foreign matters are introduced in the blood stream blocking the
blood circulation in the finer capillaries and arterioles.

a. Infection c. Hemorrhage

b. Embolism d. Hematoma

12. It is the disorder of the fluid balance due to peripheral deficiency, characterized by the
decreased blood volume, its flow, hemo-concentration and renal deficiency.

a. Infection c. Hemorrhage

b. Shock d. Hematoma
13. Extravasations or loss of blood from the circulation due to inflicted wounds in the cardio-
vascular system.

a. Infection c. Hemorrhage

b. Shock d. Hematoma

14. The growth and development of micro-organism in the location of the injury or wound.

a. Infection c. Hemorrhage

b. Shock d. Hematoma

15. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin due to the rupture of blood vessels
as a result of the application of a blunt force.

a. Contusion c. Hemorrhage

b. Shock d. Hematoma

16. Wound produced to man’s instinctive reaction of self-preservation to repel attacks or an

aggressor.

a. Defense wound c. Patterned wound

b. Self-inflicted wound d. Mutilated wound

17. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which caused it.

a. Defense wound c. Patterned wound

b. Self-inflicted wound d. Mutilated wound

18. Pulverization of the body into ashes with the use of intense heat.

a. Exhumation c. Charring

b. Cremation d. Pounding

19. Prescribed depth of a grave under P.D. 856, Section 19 of the Code of Sanitation.

a. At least ½ meters deep c. At least 1 and ½ meters deep

b. At least 1 meters deep d. At least 2 meters deep

20. A person who died of a communicable disease must be buried within….

a. 6 hours after death, unless the local health officer permits otherwise

b. 12 hours after death, unless the health officer permits extension

c. 24 hours after death, unless the heath officer allows extension

d. 48 hours after death

21. A significant difference between the male and female skull is that in males, the
supercialiary ridges are ______ than compared with females.

a. Less sharp c. More pointed

b. Sharper d. Smoother

22. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with male pelvis.

a. Greater c. Lesser

b. Equal d. Less significant

23. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation in respiration, circulation and brain
function is sufficient to declare a person clinically dead?

a. 10- 15 minutes c. 30-45 minutes

b. 15- 30 minutes d. 45 – 60 minutes

24. A simple test used to determine cessation of respiration by placing water or mercury in a
container on top of the chest of a person and no visible movement is noticed.

a. Winslov test c. Barberio’s test

b. Florence test d. Castle Meyer test

25. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and in which it no
longer responds to mechanical or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution of proteins.

a. Stage of primary flaccidity c. Rigor mortis

b. Stage of secondary flaccidity d. Livor mortis

26. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a dead body in how many days?

a. 7 c. 21

b. 14 d. 28

27. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how many days
from death?

a. 1 c. 3

b. 2 d. 4

28. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone, loss of alignment of the affected
bones and separation of fragment bones.

a. Simple fracture c. Communicated fracture

b. Compound fracture d. None of these

29. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body.

a. Internal hemorrhage c. Contusion

b. Hematoma d. Internal wound

30. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.

a. Imprint abrasion c. Friction abrasion

b. Pressure abrasion d. Graze

31. Reduction of oxygen in the blood.

a. Hypoxia c. Hypercapnea

b. Asphyxia d. None of the foregoing

32. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and with accompanying movement over
the skin.

a. Pressure abrasion c. Impact abrasion

b. Imprint abrasion d. Graze

33. A nervous disease marked by seizures with convulsion and loss of consciousness.

a. Epilepsy c. Catalepsy

b. Apoplexy d. Uremia

34. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily eliminated in the urine; specifically a
toxic condition seen in urinary suppression, marked by nausea, vertigo, vomiting, coma and
convulsion.

a. Epilepsy c. Catalepsy

b. Apoplexy d. Uremia

35. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours when the blood has
already clotted or diffused to different parts of the body wherein the discoloration is
permanent and darker in color?

a. 12 hours c. 36 hours

b. 24 hours d. 48 hours

36. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination with either group A or B what would
be the particular blood group of the sample?

a. Group A c. Group AB

b. Group B d. Group O

37. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.

a. 10 years c. 30 years

b. 20 years d. 40 years

38. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white greasy substance in the soft fatty
tissue after death.

a. Saponification c. Mummification

b. Rigor mortis d. Maceration

39. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the blood vessels
of the most dependent portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is
completed by 12 hours.

a. Rigor mortis c. Maceration

b. Primary flaccidity d. Livor mortis

40. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after meals.

a. 2 to 3 hours c. 4 to 5 hours

b. 3 to 4 hours d. 5 to 6 hours

41. Rate of growth of human hair.

a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day c. 0.6 to 0.7mm./day

b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day

42. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body temperature is about:

a. 10 to 15  F c. 20 to 25 F

b. 15 to 20 F d. 25 to 30 F

43. Sudden inflammation of the pancreas caused by infections carried in the blood stream. It
may follow obstruction of the pancreatic duct and subsequent congestion of the gland.

a. Perforated peptic ulcer c. Acute intestinal obstruction

b. Generalized peritonitis d. Acute pancreatitis

44. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.

a. Wound c. Bruise

b. Trauma d. Scratch

45. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will endanger one’s life.

a. Non-mortal wound c. Trauma

b. Mortal wound d. Coup injury

46. A collection of blood underneath the skin.

a. Contusion c. Petechiae

b. Bruise d. Hematoma

47. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles causing skin discoloration and
extreme pain.

a. Sprain c. Fracture

b. Contusion d. Dislocation
48. It is a fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is evident.

a. Simple c. Comminuted

b. Compound d. Dislocation

49. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external wounds.

a. Sprain c. Hematoma

b. Fracture d. Dislocation

50. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of the skin,
it may be ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to
the gun is approximately:

a. 6 inches c. 18 inches

b. 12 inches d. 24 inches

51. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the opposite site of the application of
force.

a. Extensive injury c. Contre coup injury

b. Coup injury d. Coup and contre coup injury

52. A physical injury found at the site of the application of force.

a. Extensive injury c. Contre coup injury

b. Coup injury d. Coup and contre coup injury

53. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log and stone.

a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound

b. Hack wound d. Incised wound

54. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what wound would be exhibited?

a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound

b. Hack wound d. Incised wound

55. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.

a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound

b. Hack wound d. Incised wound

56. The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows ACGT, A stands for what?

a. Adenine c. Adenum

b. Adenide d. Adenoid
57. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what sample should be obtained for DNA
testing?

a. Fingernails c. Skeleton

b. Hair d. Teeth

58. It is inherited from the mother found in the mitochondria which is in the cell body.

a. Nuclear DNA c. Mitochondrial DNA

b. Helix d. DNA nucleus

59. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.

a. 10 years c. 30 years

b. 20 years d. 40 years

60. A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and almost all
brain function of an organism.

a. Somatic death c. Molecular death

b. Cellular death d. Apparent death

61. Manner of walking of a person which may be natural or secondary.

a. Mannerism c. Gait

b. Tic d. Body language

62. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to 30 minutes and is characterized by
the relaxation of the muscles and loss of their natural tone.

a. Stage of primary flaccidity c. Cadaveric spasm

b. Post mortem rigidity d. Secondary flaccidity

63. Approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA testing.

a. Minimum of 2 weeks c. Minimum of six weeks

b. Minimum of 4 weeks d. Minimum of eight weeks

64. Period of time wherein there body would be completely skeletonized, under normal
conditions in tropical countries.

a. 1 month c. 6 months

b. 3 months d. 12 months

65. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable muscular change?

a. Cold stiffening c. Instantaneous rigor

b. Heat stiffening d. Putrefaction

66. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels or has diffused to
different parts of the body.

a. Diffusion lividity c. Rigor mortis

b. Clotting of the blood d. Hypostatic lividity

67. Approximate average amount of semen per ejaculation under normal conditions.

a. 2 to 2.5 cubic centimeters c. 5 to 10 cubic centimeters

b. 2.5 to 5 cubic centimeters d. 10 to 15 cubic centimeters

68. DNA, is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of life.
What does it stands for?

a. Deonatural acid c. Deoxyribunucleic acid

b. Dynamic natural anti-body d. Deoxyribunucliec acid

69. A powerful tool in identification which points to the source of biological evidence by
matching it with samples from the victims, suspects and their relatives.

a. DNA profiling c. Instrumentation

b. Serology d. Forensics

70. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good sources of cells.

a. Saliva and tears c. Urine and semen

b. Semen and saliva d. Semen and blood

71. Human being’s tissue attached to the body which may undergo DNA testing.

a. Hair c. Skin

b. Bone d. Fingernails

72. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive action of its bacteria and enzyme.

a. Primary flaccidity c. Cadaveric spasm

b. Post mortem rigidity d. Putrefaction

73. Conclusive evidence that the subject person is a female.

a. Possession of vagina c. Possession of estrogen

b. Possession of ovaries d. Possession of progesterone

74. A person with big face and prominent cheek bones.

a. Hippocratic facie c. Myxedema facie

b. Mongolian facie d. Facies lionine

75. Conclusive evidence that a person is a male.

a. Presence of testis c. Possession of penis

b. Presence of androsterone d.Possession of testosterone

76. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to mucous secretion of the respiratory
track after death.

a. “Cutis anserina” c. Champignon d’ ocume

b. Washerwoman d. Cadaveric spasm

77. It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body.

a. Natural death c. Somatic death

b. Molecular death d. Apparent death

78. A type of burn produced as a result of the body coming into contact with a moving object.

a. Thermal burn c. Radiation burn

b. Friction burn d. Electrical burn

79. A condition of a woman who has had one ore more sexual experience but not had
conceived a child.

a. Moral virginity c. Physical virginity

b. Demi-virginity d. Virgo-intacts

80. Refers to the action of bacteria to a dead body.

a. Flaccidity c. Lividity

b. Rigidity d. Putrefaction

81. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body which produces
mechanical disruption of cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body
temperature.

a. Gangrene c. Trench foot

b. Frostbite d. Immersion foot

82. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the breakdown of sweating mechanism.

a. Heat cramp c. Heat stroke

b. Heat exhaustion d. Burning

83. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, which part is not used?

a. Skull c. Sternum

b. Pelvis d. Tibia

84. A serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones, considered as the most severe
burn causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and massive infection.

a. Sunburn c. 2nd degree burn

b. 1st degree burn d. 3rd degree burn

85. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 minutes would die, the cause of death
would be:

a. Stupor c. Asphyxia

b. Stroke d. Exhaustion

86. Most effective method in determining sex of an individual.

a. Gonodal test c. Genital test

b. Social test d. Chromosomal test

87. Its medico-legal importance is to approximate the time of death.

a. Cadaveric spasm c. Mascular contraction

b. Putrefaction d. Rigor mortis

88. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:

a. Masturbation c. Sodomy

b. Fingering d. Sexual intercourse

89. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell occurs in:

a. 20 to 30 minutes. c. 12 to 24 hours

b. 3 to 6 hours d. 24-36 hours

90. Most noticeable sign of death.

a. Cessation of respiration

b. Progressive fall of body temperature

c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to move

d. Cessation of heart action and circulation

91. It applies to disease or trauma kills, wherein there is no chance for complication or
sequelae to develop.

a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death

b. Immediate or primary cause of death

c. Cardio-respiratory arrest

d. Nocturnal death

92. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged interval which allowed the
development of serious sequelae which becomes the cause of death. It is usually common to
cases involving stab wounds.

a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death

b. Immediate or primary cause of death

c. Cardio-respiratory arrest

d. Nocturnal death

93. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death has occurred more than 24
hours hence are useful to proximate the time of death.

a. Flies c. Bees

b. Earthworms d. Butterflies

94. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a trained physician.

a. Autopsy c. Medical examination

b. Embalming d. Post-mortem examination

95. Average time of decomposition for tropical countries such as the Philippines.

a. 12 to 24 hours c. 36 to 48 hours

b. 24 to 48 hours d. 48 to 72 hours

96. After death, the metabolic process inside the body ceases, heat is no longer produced and
the body slowly loses its temperature.

a. Algor mortis c. Cadaveric spasm

b. Rigor mortis d. Suspended animation

97. Transient loss of consciousness with temporary cessation of the vital functions of the
body.

a. Death c. Suspended animation

b. Coma d. Rigor mortis

98. Hair on the body surface is usually:

a. Thick c. Fine

b. Tapering gradually to fine points d. All of the above

99. Characterized by no breathing and heart action, chill in the body and non-existent
reflexes.

a. Death c. Suspended animation

b. Coma d. Rigor mortis

100. The larger the area of contact between the forces applied on the body, the lesser is the
damage inflicted to the body.

a. Kinetic energy c. Time

b. Vital reaction d. Area of transfer

V. POLYGRAPHY

1. An examination wherein an informal interview of the subject is undertaken between 20 to

30 minutes.

a. Post test interrogation c. Actual interrogation

b. Pre test interview d. Lie detection test

2. Which among the following is not a required qualification for a polygraph examiner?

a. Criminology graduate c. Technical know how

b. Honesty d. Integrity and morals

3. Which among the foregoing is not part in the conduct of a polygraph examination?

a. Pre-test interview c. Post-test interview

b. Instrumental test d. Psychological test

4. Which among the following is not included in recording the psycho-physiological response
of the subject?

a. Use of water therapy c. WAT/Word Association Test

b. PSE/ Psychological Stress Evaluator d. Polygraph machine

5. A person who is capable of detecting deception with the use of instrumentation or

mechanical device.

a. Interrogator c. Medico-legal officer

b. Detective d. Polygraph examiner

6. Which among the following statement is not among the limitations of the Polygraph?

a. It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent

b. It is admissible as evidence

c. It is an aid and not a substitute for investigation

d. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument which records responses

7. An invaluable aid in investigation, it refers to the instrumentation in the detection of crime

ort a scientific police method.

a. Photography c. Lie detection

b. Chemistry d. Medicine
8. Questions in connection to the matter under investigation.

a. Relevant c. Control

b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant

9. Refers to query having no bearing or weight to the case under investigation.

a. Relevant c. Control

b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant

10. A test usually administered as part of the standard test to draw a better conclusion.

a. Relevant c. Control

b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant

11. This measures, detects and graphically displays voice modulation.

a. Word association test c. Truth serum

b. Psychological stress evaluator d. Water therapy

12. In this examination stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject who in
turn is instructed to answer as quickly as possible.

a. Word association test c. Truth serum

b. Psychological stress evaluator d. Water therapy

13. A test conducted wherein the subject is instructed not to produce verbal response.

a. Peak of tension c. Narrative

b. Silent answer d. Guilt complex

14. Using the psychological stress evaluator, a lying subject or when a person is under
stress, the frequencies…

a. Tends to disappear c. Increases

b. Rises d. Stops

15. This test is not concerned with the answer whether it is yes or no, what is relevant is the
time of response in relation to delay the answer.

a. Word association test c. Truth serum

b. Psychological stress evaluator d. Water therapy

16. A test undertaken when the subject is not aware of the details of the offense for which he
is under scrutiny.

a. Guilt complex c. Peak of tension

b. Silent answer d. Narrative

17. When response and control questions are consistently similar this is administered.

a. Guilt complex c. Peak of tension

b. Silent answer d. Narrative

18. This test uses hyoscine hydrobromide drug administered hypedermically which produces
a state of delirium.

a. Hypnotism c. Narco-synthesis

b. Narco-analysis d. Administration of truth serum

19. It is based on the maxim “in vino veritas”, meaning in wine there is truth.

a. Hypnotism

b. Narco-analysis

c. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage

d. Administration of truth serum

20. In this examination, psychiatric sodium pentothal is administered.

a. Hypnotism

b. Narco-analysis

c. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage

d. Administration of truth serum

21. Most common and scientific method of detecting deception.

a. Polygraphy c. Truth serum

b. Polygraph d. Interrogation

22. Devised an instrument capable of continuously recording pulse rate, respiration and
blood pressure.

a. William Marston c. John Larson

b. Angelo Mosso d. Sticker

23. Psychological response to any demand.

a. Reaction c. Pressure

b. Stress d. All of the above

24. For male subjects, what is the amount of air pressure is to be utilized in the system on
cardio or vent.

a. 30 mm c. 90 mm.

b. 60 mm d. 120 mm
25. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep considered fit for polygraph
examination.

a. 5 c. 7

b. 6 d. 8

26. Type of question related to the facts of the case and is answerable by NO.

a. Relevant question c. General question

b. Irrelevant question d. Immaterial question

27. A question known to the subject and is answerable by YES.

a. Relevant question c. General question

b. Irrelevant question d. Immaterial question

28. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that something is hidden or obscure.

a. Fear c. Detection

b. Deception d. Reaction

29. An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector organ or organism as a result of

stimulation.

a. Response c. Detection

b. Deception d. Reaction

30. Refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to go beyond a

person’s defensive power.

a. Response c. Stimuli

b. Reaction d. Fear

31. This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the
rate of 6 to 12 inches per minute.

a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph

b. Keymograph d. Pneumograph

32. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of the subject.

a. Finger electrode plate c. Rubber convoluted tube

b. Diacritic notch d. Keymograph

33. This component record changes of the subject’s blood pressure and pulse rate.

a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph

b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph
34. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small amount of electricity.

a. Cardisphygmograph c. Galvanograph

b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph

35. This component records the changes in the breathing of the subject.

a. Cardisphygmograph c. Galvanograph

c. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph

36. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to deceive others.

a. Black lie c. Red lie

b. White lie d. Yellow lie

37. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.

a. Reaction c. Specific response

b. Normal response d. Positive response

38. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions were answered.

a. Reaction c. Specific response

b. Normal response d. Positive response

39. Normal time interval for pre-test interview.

a. 20 to 30 minutes c. 60 to 90 minutes

b. 30 to 60 minutes d. 90 to 120 minutes

40. The primary objective of post test interview.

a. To thank the subject c. To make the subject calm

b. To obtain confession d. To explain polygraph test procedures

41. The purpose of pretest interview.

a. To prepare subject for polygraph test

b. To obtain confession

c. To make the subject calm

d. To explain polygraph test procedures

42. Test undertaken when both relevant and control questions are similar in degree and
consistency.

a. Guilt complex test c. Peak of tension

b. Silent answer d. None of the above

43. Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal pattern of response.

a. Relevant questions c. Supplementary questions

b. Irrelevant questions d. Control questions

44. The number of basic tracings in a modern polygraph.

a. 3 c. 5

b. 4 d. 6

45. Did you hide Senator Lacson in your beach resort? Is an example of interrogation in lie
detection which is:

a. Control question c. Relevant question

b. Irrelevant question d. Leading question

46. Developed the systolic blood pressure method for detecting deception.

a. William Marston c. John Larson

b. Harold Burtt d. Leonard Keeler

47. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure changes were signs of deception.

a. William Marston c. Leonard Keeler

b. Harold Burtt d. John Larson

48. Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph procedure for persons charged with the
commission of a crime.

a. Angelo Mosso c. Lombroso

b. Veraguth d. Vittorio Benussi

49. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin reflex.

a. Angelo Mosso c. Lombroso

b. Veraguth d. Vittorio Benussi

50. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with measurement, respiration component and
blood pressure.

a. Harold Burtt c. Leonarde Keeler

b. Hans Gross d. John Larson

51. A primitive practice of detecting deception whereby controversies are settled by means of
duel, the victor will be spared from the consequences and the loser will be pronounced guilty.

a. Ordeal c. Combat

b. Trial by Combat d. None of these

52. Practiced even by the Roman Catholic Church in 1150 AD this Indian practice of ordeal
based on the premise that a person conscious of their crime and fearful of punishment from
God would feel a suffocating sensation on their throat thus preventing them from swallowing
the object of the ordeal.

a. Bread chewing ordeal c. Rice chewing ordeal

b. Cheese chewing ordeal d. All of these

53. A form of trial undertaken when the accused is asked to fast for twelve hours and then
asked to swallow a small amount of rice and drink a dark colored water, if this acts as an
emetic the accused rejects all the rice, he is then pronounced innocent.

a. Red hot iron ordeal c. Red water ordeal

b. Rice Chewing ordeal d. Balance ordeal

54. Practiced in the early 600 B.C. this is undertaken by determining the veracity of the
statement of the accused by placing him on a scale of balance and in the other scale a
counter balance. He is then asked to go down while exhortation on the scale is given, when
the accused is placed on the scale and found to be lighter than before he is acquitted.

a. Boiling water ordeal c. Donkey’s Tail ordeal

b. Balance ordeal d. Red hot iron ordeal.

55. Prevalently practiced in Africa, this test of deception is undertaken by asking those
persons suspected of committing a crime to place their right arm into a boiling pot of water,
the person who lost some skin or showed blisters would be determined as the one guilty of
the crime.

a. Boiling water ordeal c. Donkey’s Tail ordeal

b. Balance ordeal d. Red hot iron ordeal.

56.The polygraph examination enjoys general acceptance among varied authorities, except
the court because it possess a high degree of reliability. The results are estimated to be more
than ____ % accurate.

a. 70 c. 80

b. 75 d. 90

57. The best indication of deception in polygraph examinations is the simultaneous specific
responses in the ___ tracings.

a. 2 c. 4

b. 3 d. None of these

58. If a Yes answer is given by the subject, the examiner marks this on the chart.

a. X c. +

b. XX d. –

59. Conducted immediately after the completion of the first test while blood pressure cuff is
still deflated. This is used to stimulate lying subjects into specific responses to the
subsequent relevant questions and to afford the lying subject an opportunity to try to distort
the Polygraph examination tracings which would eventually result in exposing his deception.

a. Silent Answer Test c. Mixed Questions Test

b. Card Test d. Guilt Complex Test

60. As part of customary test procedures, the polygraph examiner should prepare a list of
not more than ____ questions to be asked in a planned sequence.

a. 10 c. 15

b. 12 d. 20

VI. FORENSIC BALLISTICS

1. Rifling in the bore of small arms is primarily designed for:

a. Increase the speed of the bullet

b. Decrease the amount of recoil

c. Increase impact damage

d. Prevent the bullet from turning end over in the air.

2. Scientific examinations of bullets and firearms presumably used in the commission of a

crime.

a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics

b. Exterior ballistics d. Forensic ballistics

3. A result of wear and tear, corrosion, erosion which affects the normal operation of a
firearm.

a. Factory defect c. Individual intentional characteristics

b. Precipitate d. Individual accidental characteristics

4. Cannelure is used in firearms identification to determine.

a. Manufacturer of the firearm c. Type of gun

b. Manufacturer of the bullet d. Weapon that fired the shot.

5. A barrel of any firearm is legally classified as:

a. Part of the firearm c. Accessory

b. Nomenclature d. Complete firearm

6. Rate of twist in the rifling of a rifle or pistol barrel.

a. Land c. Leed

b. Grooves d. Ogive

7. A test used to determine the distance from the bullet hole at which the gun was fired.
a. Triangulation c. Alphanothylamine test

b. Photo-micrographic test d. Diphenylamine test

8. After repeated firing of a revolver, this is deposited frequently on the index finger of the
hand which the shooter used to fire the gun.

a. Powder burn c. Precipitin

b. Residue d. Dirt

9. To link a shell with a shotgun that fired it, in the laboratory examination it should be
given:

a. Wadding c. Pellets

b Cap d. Wads

10. In firearms identification, it is essential to supplement the serial number with…

a. Caliber c. Make and model number

b. Frame number d. All of these

11. It is a result when the firearm is shot at around 2 to 8 inches to the target.

a. Smudging c. Contact burn

b. Tatooing d. Contact wound

12. It is produced when the muzzle is held against the target or body when fired.

a. Smudging c. Contact burn

b. Tatooing d. Contact wound

13. In the effort to identify the shell with the revolver which fired it, which among the
following is essential?

a. Marks of the breechblock c. None of these

b. Marks of the firing pin hole d. Both A and B

14. In shots fired from an automatic pistol, the shell in most cases….

a. Will be found on the scene of the crime

b. Will remain in the chamber

c. Will be rarely found in the scene of the crime

d. Will be usually disposed by the perpetrator

15. When booking a fired bullet, the mark used to identify it is placed on.

a. Its base c. Its side and base

b. Its side d. Its nose

16. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are usually classified as:

a. Flare guns c. Matchlock

b. Zip guns d. Freakish device

17. The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when fired cartridges are concerned.

a. Extractor marks c. Chamber marks

b. Ejector marks d. Breechface marks

18. It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s failure to explode on time.

a. Misfire c. Ricochet

b. Hang fire d. Key hole shot

19. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its lands have been worn
down would produce what kind of markings?

a. Slippage marks c. Rifling marks

b. Skid marks d. Shearing marks

20. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of projectiles.

a. Caliper c. Test bullet

b. Chronograph d. Bullet recovery box

21. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet.

a. Projectile c. Shell

b. Ball d. Missile

22. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at the same time it leaves the muzzle
of the firearm to the time it hits the target.

a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics

b. Exterior ballistics d. Posterior ballistics

23. The science which deals with the effect of the impact of the projectile on the target.

a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics

b. Exterior ballistics d. Posterior ballistics

24. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.

a. Trigger c. Sear

b. Hammer d. Main spring

25. Applied to a shot gun which indicates bore diameter is equal to the diameter of the lead
ball whose weight in pound is equal to reciprocal gauge index.
a. Caliber c. Shot

b. Gauge d. Charge

26. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a single round lead ball.

a. Shotgun c. Musket

b. Rifle d. Pistol

27. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of lead pellets in one charge.

a. Shotgun c. Musket

b. Rifle d. Pistol

28. Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore against the force of the charge.

a. Breechblock c. Ejector

b. Breechface d. Extractor

29. Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be withdrawn from the chamber.

a. Breechblock c. Ejector

b. Breechface d. Extractor

30. Refers to the channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.

a. Rifling c. Groove

b. Land d. Cannelure

31. Rearward movement of a firearm from firing.

a. Recoil c. Back fire

b. Force d. Shot force

32. Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due to sliding friction when the bullet
passes through it.

a. Erosion c. Corrosion

b. Rusting d. Decomposition

33. Distance that the rifling advances to make one complete turn.

a. Pitch of rifling c. Trajectory

b. Choke d. Recoil

34. Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a complete unfired unit

a. Bullet c. Gunpowder

b. Primer d. All of these

35. Most common individual characteristic that are visible on the base portion of then fired
cartridge.

a. Firing pin impression c. Extractor marks

b. Ejector marks d. Chamber marks

36. Failure of a cartridge to discharge.

a. Misfire c. Ricochet

b. Hang fire d. Key hole shot

37. Invented the gunpowder.

a. Chinese c. Van Amberg

b. James Forsythe d. Berthold Schwartz

38. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition placed into gun chamber.

a. Cartridge c. Bullet

b. Primer d. Shell

39. The measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.

a. Gauge c. Caliber

b. Mean diameter d. Riflings

40. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the firing of the cartridge.

a. Hammer c. Trigger

b. Ejector d. Firing pin

41. Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet.

a. Breech c. Rim

b. Ogive d. Pitch

42. A smooth bore military firearm which has no rifling:

a. Shotgun c. Pistol

b. Rifle d. Revolver

43. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to prevent leading.

a. Jacketed bullet c. Metal point bullet

b. Metal cased bullet d. Plated bullet

44. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting the target sideways.
a. Key hole shot c. Hang fire

b. Ricochet d. Misfire

45. A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification.

a. Interior c. Terminal

b. Exterior d. Forensic

46. Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in forensic ballistics.

a. 3 test bullets/shells c. 5 test bullets/shells

b. 4 test bullets/shells d. 6 test bullets/shells

47. It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen in side by side position.

a. Drag marks c. Juxtaposition

b. Positively matched d. Pseudomatch

48. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.

a. Range c. Velocity

b. Trajectory d. Yaw

49. Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set on fire when it is projected.

a. Incendiary bullets c. Tracer bullet

b. Ball bullet d. Explosive bullet

50. Refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after striking a resistant
surface.

a. Mushroom c. Ricochet

b. Key hole shot d. Misfire

51. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from what particular part?

a. From land to land c. From groove to groove

b. From land to groove d. From groove to land

52. Revolver is distinguished form pistol by:

a. Frame c. Slide assembly

b. Barrel d. Rotating cylinder

53. The term double action in a firearm means.

a. Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously

b. Manually cocks the hammer

c. Auto-loads before firing

d. Double pressing of trigger

54. The capacity of the bullet to expand on or after impact.

a. Mushroom c. Ricochet

b. Keyhole shot d. Schorching

55. Regarded as the father of ballistics.

a. Albert Osborne c. Hans Gross

b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard d. Charles Waite

56. Raised portion between the grooves found inside the barrel.

a. Land c. Gauge

b. Caliber d. Rifling

57. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.

a. Yaw c. Velocity

b. Trajectory d. Gyroscopic action

58. A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular firearm?

a. Rifle c. Pistol

b. Revolver d. Sub-machinegun

59. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.

a. Rifling c. Ogive

b. Breaching d. Swaging

60. A primer with two vents or flash holes

a. Bordan primer c. Boxer primer

b. Berdan primer d. Battery primer

61. Ballistics was derived from the Greek word ____ which means to throw.

a. Ballo c. Ballien

b. Ballista d. Any of these

62. This event was instrumental in the acceptance of ballistics in court proceedings in the
United States.

a. St. Valentine’s Day Massacre c. Gunfight at the OK coral

b. Chicago Shootout in 1929 d. 9/11

63. Placed in the barrels of the firearm to impart a spin on the bullet that pass through it.

a. Lands c. Rifling

b. Grooves d. All of these

64. The modern method of rifling which uses a hardened steel rod with several cutting rings
spaced down the rod.

a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling

b. Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling

65. The most common method of rifling used today, wherein the grooves are formed in the
barrel under very high pressure forming the rifling in the barrel which hardens and polishes
the inside of the barrel.

a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling

b. Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling

66. This produces a type of rifling called polygonal rifling, common in Glock, Steyr, IMI and a
few other manufacturers.

a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling

b. Broach rifling d. Hammer forged rifling

67. Part of exterior ballistics which refers to the sound created at the muzzle end of the
barrel.

a. Muzzle energy c. Muzzle noise

b. Muzzle blast d. Range

68. A type of rimmed cartridge wherein the diameter of the rim is greater than the diameter
of the body of the cartridge case.

a. Rimmed type c. Belted type

b. Semi-rimmed type d. Rebated type

69. A type of firearm which the pressure upon the trigger both cocks and release the
hammer.

a. Automatic c. Double action

b. Single action d. Slide action type

70. A metallic cup charged with a priming composition, usually made up of potassium
chlorate, antimony sulfide and fulminate of mercury.

a. Primer c. Cartridge

b. Gunpowder d. Primer cup

VII. QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS

1. It is committed by giving any payable instrument to bearer such as treasury or bank notes
the appearance of a genuine document.

a. Estafa c. Forgery

b. Falsification of document d. All of these

2. It applies to documents whether public, official or commercial wherein handwriting or

signature contained therein is imitated.

a. Estafa c. Forgery

b. Falsification of document d. All of these

3. The act of making it appears that persons have participated in any proceeding or act when
in fact they have not participated in any document.

a. Estafa c. Forgery

b. Falsification of document d. All of the foregoing

4. A person who alters by any means, the letters, figures, words or signs contained in any
bank or Treasury note is liable for:

a. Estafa c. Forgery

b. Falsification of document d. All of the foregoing

5. It refers to the assessment or altered, forged or suspected papers to determine if they are
genuine or otherwise.

a. Estafa c. Forgery

b. Falsification of document d. Questioned document examination

6. Iodine fumes is useful in questioned document examination because:

a. It can be used to develop secret writings

b. It can be used to determine whether erasures have been made

c. It can determine the kind of ink used in writing

d. Both A and B

7. Which among the foregoing may be utilized as a means to carry out mechanical erasures?

a. Rubber eraser c. Blade

b. Sharp knife d. All of these

8. An erasure with the use of ink eradicators.

a. Mechanical erasure c. Electronic erasure

b. Chemical erasure d. All of the foregoing

9. Instruments whose origin are known and proven; which are used in comparison with a
questioned document.

a. Simulated documents c. Standard documents

b. Falsified documents d. Forged documents

10. A document executed without the intervention of a notary public or any competent public
official by which some agreement or disposition is proved.

a. Public document c. Private documents

b. Official document d. Commercial document

11. To obtain conviction for the charge of possession of false bank or treasury notes this is
an essential requisite.

a. Intention to use it c. Intention to surrender it to authorities

b. Intention to keep it d. Intention to display it.

12. A city mayor executed a document in his legal capacity as a local executive, that
document is classified as:

a. Public document c. Private document

b. Official document d. Commercial document

13. A document notarized by a notary public or any competent authority is legally classified
as:

a. Public document c. Private document

b. Official document d. Commercial document

14. A man who is unable to write may use this to legally signify a signature.

a. Crude x c. Thumb mark

b. Cross mark d. Both A and B

15. Refers to the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system.

a. Copy book form c. Line quality

b. System of writing d. Writing movement

16. It refers to any abnormality or maladjustment in the typewriter which is reflected in its
product.

a. Defect c. Misalignment

b. Mal alignment d. Alteration

17. Enlarged photographic court exhibit usually referred to as bromide enlargements of a

document.

a. Standard document c. Collected documents

b. Questioned documents d. Display exhibits

18. The appearance of paper when viewed by transmitted light, which discloses the formation
and texture of the sheet.

a. Lock-through of paper c. Cross marks

b. Watermarks d. Sidelight marks

19. It consists of chemical solutions.

a. Non aqueous ink c. ink eradicators

b. Aqueous ink d. All of these

20. Any characteristic of handwriting which is sufficiently well fixed and unique to serve as a
fundamental point in the identification of the writer.

a. Copy book form c. System of writing

b. Line quality d. Significant writing habits

21. Refers to any specimen of writing executed normally without any attempt to change or
control its identifying habits and its usual quality of execution.

a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing

b. Disguised writing d. System of writing

22. Jose Pidal in trying to alter his own signature to hide his identity is using:

a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing

b. Disguised writing d. System of writing

23. Writing in which are for most part joined together.

a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing

b. Disguised writing d. System of writing

24. Usual deviations found between repeated specimen of any individual handwriting or in
the product of any typewriter.

a. Normal variation c. Tremor

b. Natural variation d. Wrong hand writing

25. A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied and assisted produces a:

a. Guided signature c. Scribble

b. Normal signature d. Handwriting signature

26. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital letters.

a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot

b. Beard d. Diacritic
27. A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal strokes.

a. Hook c. Loop

b. Spur d. Staff

28. An oblong curve found in small letters f, g, h and l.

a. Hook c. Loop

b. Spur d. Staff

29. The introductory backward stroke added to the start of many capital letters and which
can also be seen occasionally in introductory strokes of small letters.

a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot

b. Beard d. Hitch

30. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter.

a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot

b. Beard d. Diacritic

31. Visible record in the writing stroke of the basis movement and manner of holding the
writing instrument.

a. Line quality c. Baseline

b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure

32. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes.

a. Embellishment c. Diacritic

b. Hump d. Knot

33. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious recurrence of stress of impulse.

a. Line quality c. Baseline

b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure

34. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or intermittently forcing the pen against the
paper surface with increase pressure.

a. Writing pressure c. Pen emphasis

b. Shading d. Natural variation

35. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.

a. Line quality c. Foot

b. Baseline d. Hitch
36. A signature written by the forger in his own style of handwriting without attempting to
copy to form of the genuine signature.

a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery

b. Disguised forgery d. Simple forgery

37. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful type of forgery.

a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery

b. Disguised forgery d. Simple forgery

38. Which among the following is an indication of genuineness of handwriting?

a. Continuity c. Skillful writing

b. Smoothness d. Tremor

39. Combination of the basic design of letters and writing movement as taught in school.

a. Letter form c. Copy book form

b. Line quality d. System of writing

40. Document which is completely written and signed by one person.

a. Genuine document c. Holographic document

b. Disputed document d. Authentic document

41. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or deletion.

a. Altered documents c. Obliterated document

b. Disputed document d. Inserted document

42. Signatures used to acknowledge delivery, purchase of goods and mail.

a. Complete c. Cursory

b. Formal d. Careless scribble

43. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the original undecipherable.

a. Decipherment c. Obliteration

b. Restoration d. Interlineation

44. A class of signature for routine document or day to day correspondence.

a. Formal c. Cursory

b. Complete d. Careless scribble

45. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important documents.

a. Complete c. Informal
b. Cursory d. Careless scribble

46. A process by which a canal like outline is produced on a fraudulent document

underneath the genuine and tracing it with the use of a pointed instrument.

a. Carbon process c. Projection process

b. Indention process d. Transmitted light process

47. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier than the rest of its outline.

a. Off its feet c. Clogged type face

b. Twisted letter d. Rebound

48. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is almost unconscious expression of fixed
muscular habits reacting from fixed mental impressions.

a. Handwriting c. Typewriting

b. Writing d. Writing movement

49. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation and pen-lifts difficult.

a. Ball point pen c. Iron nutgall ink

b. Fountain pen d. Markers

50. Disconnection between letters or letter combination due to lack of movement control.

a. Pen lift c. Patching

b. Retouching d. Retracing

51. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the paper during manufacture.

a. Water marks c. Paper design

b. Fiber marks d. Wire marks

52. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what particular condition is manifested?

a. Grainy image c. Overlapping image

b. Two image d. Three dimensional image

53. An element which is added to complete another letter.

a. Spur c. Diacritics

b. Slant d. Arc

54. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place, purpose and normal writing
conditions.

a. Complete signature c. Evidential signature

b. Standard signature d. Model signature

55. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink stroke.

a. Shading c. Pen lift

b. Pen emphasis d. Pen pressure

56. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of paper money.

a. Quality or sharpness of the engraving

b. Color of the seal

c. Wet strength of the paper

d. Watermarks

57. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made inferior or superior intrinsic value
to that of the genuine coin.

a. Priceless coin c. False coin

b. Mutilated coin d. All of these

58. It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal strokes made by the momentum of
the hand.

a. Tremor c. Genuine tremor

b. Tremors of fraud d. Deterioration

59. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.

a. Staff c. Diacritics

b. Slant d. Humps

60. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the horizontal inch.

a. Pica c. Proportional spacing machine

b. Elite d. Adding machine

61. Developed the system of handwriting classification utilized by most police departments.

a. Lee and Abbey c. Levine

b. Rolando Wilson d. Landsteiner

62. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but
notarized by competent officials.

a. Official document c. Commercial document

b. Public document d. Private document

63. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine coin.

a. False coin c. Priceless coin

b. Counterfeit coin d. Mutilation of coins

64. It refers to the printing surface of a type block.

a. Character c. Pitch

b. Design d. Type face

65. Widening of the ink stroke due to added pressure on a flexible pen point.

a. Shading c. Shading

b. Pen pressure d. All of these

66. It represents the backbone or main stroke of letters.

a. Slant c. Staff

b. Diacritics d. Foot

67. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.

a. Decipherment c. Obliteration

b. Collation d. Comparison

68. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their identifying characteristics.

a. Comparison c. Conclusion

b. Collation d. Examination

69. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with the source of illumination behind
it and the light passing through the paper.

a. Transmitted light examination c. Infrared examination

b. Oblique photography examination d. Ultraviolet examination

70. The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a person from his handwriting.

a. Questioned Document Examination c. Graphology

b. Polygraphy d. Psychology

71. An identifying typewriter characteristic which can be eliminated by cleaning the machine
or replacing the ribbon.

a. Transitory defect c. Permanent defect

b. Alignment defect d. Defect

72. A defect in typewriters due to the wear and tear of the type block in which some letters
lean to the left or right of their correct slant.

a. Off its feet c. Twisted letter

b. Clogged type face d. Rebound

73. And angle or inclination of the axis of the letter relative to the baseline.

a. Foot c. Staff

b. Slant d. Hitch

74. A distinct and peculiar character used to identify handwriting to any identifying factor
related to the writing movement itself.

a. Quality c. Skill

b. Line quality d. System of writing

75. Going back over a defective portion of a writing stroke, it is a common defect in forgeries
and is also known as retouching.

a. Patching c. Erasure

b. Smeared over writing d. Interlineations

76. Refers to written documents in the ordinary course of business or in the regular course
of man’s activity. Also known as procured standards.

a. Requested standards c. Standard documents

b. Collected standards d. Holographic documents

77. Also known as “post litel motam” or dictated standards is a document which are
executed and prepared at one time upon request.

a. Requested standards c. Standard documents

b. Collected standards d. Holographic documents

78. Also known as formal signature it is executed in signing contracts, certifications, checks
and other important documents.

a. Complete c. Careless scribble

b. Cursory d. None of these

79. A signature usually executed in the conduct of a person’s daily affairs.

a. Formal c. Informal

b. Cursory d. Both B and C

80. For signing mail, receipts and other insignificant documents such as signatures executed
by celebrities to their fans.

a. Complete c. Careless scribble

b. Cursory d. Informal
III. CRIMINALISTICS

Police Photography

1. C 14. A 27. C 40. B 53. D 66.D 79.B

2. B 15. A 28. B 41. D 54. D 67.A 80.A

3. C 16. D 29. A 42. B 55. D 68.A

4. A 17. B 30. A 43. A 56. B 69 D

5. A 18. C 31. D 44. D 57. B 70.C

6. A 19. B 32. B 45. C 58. B 71.D

7. B 20. A 33. D 46. B 59. B 72.A

8. A 21. D 34. B 47. C 60. B 73.A

9. B 22. A 35. B 48. A 61. A 74.C

10. B 23. B 36. C 49. A 62. B 75.C

11. B 24. B 37. A 50. C 63. B 76.A

12. C 25. D 38. C 51. D 64. C 77.B

13. C 26. A 39. A 52. D 65. D 78.A

Personal Identification (Dactyloscopy):

1. D 11. C 21. D 31. B 41. C 51. D 61. D

2. C 12. B 22. A 32. B 42. A 52. D 62. D

3. B 13. B 23. D 33. B 43. D 53. D 63. A

4. D 14. C 24. A 34. A 44. C 54. D 64. A

5. C 15. C 25. A 35. A 45. A 55. D 65. B

6. C 16. A 26. A 36. A 46. D 56. D 66. A

7. B 17. D 27. A 37. D 47. A 57. A 67. A

8. A 18. A 28. A 38. C 48. A 58. B 68. A

9. C 19. A 29. A 39. C 49. B 59. D 69. A

10. A 20. A 30. A 40. D 50. B 60. C 70. D

Forensic Chemistry:

1. B 21. B 41. B 61. C

2. D 22. C 42. C 62. B

3. A 23. B 43. B 63. A

4. C 24. C 44. D 64. D

5. C 25. A 45. D 65. C

6. B 26. A 46. B 66. B

7. C 27. C 47. A 67. C

8. B 28. C 48. A 68. B

9.9 C 29. A 49. A 69. B

10. B 30. A 50. B 70. D

11. A 31. B 51. D 71. A

12. C 32. A 52. A 72. A

13. B 33. A 53. C 73. B

14. C 34. A 54. D 74. C

15. B 35. A 55. B 75. B

16. B 36. A 56. A 76. D

17. A 37. B 57. A 77. B

18. D 38. B 58. C 78. B

19. B 39. A 59. D 79. B

20. A 40. B 60. B 80. C

Forensic Medicine:

1. B 21. A 41. B 61. C 81. B

2. C 22. A 42. D 62. A 82. B

3. C 23. A 43. D 63. C 83. D

4. A 24. A 44. A 64. C 84. C

5. D 25. B 45. B 65. C 85. C

6. C 26. A 46. D 66. B 86. A

7. C 27. C 47. A 67. B 87. D

8. A 28. C 48. B 68. C 88. D

9. B 29. A 49. D 69. A 89. A

10. C 30. A 50. B 70. D 90. D

11. B 31. A 51. D 71. A 91. B

12. B 32. A 52. B 72. D 92. A

13. C 33. A 53. C 73. B 93. A

14. A 34. D 54. A 74. D 94. A

15. A 35. A 55. B 75. A 95. B

16. A 36. D 56. A 76. A 96. A

17. C 37. B 57. C 77. A 97. C

18. B 38. D 58. C 78. B 98. C

19. C 39. B 59. A 79. D 99. B

20. B 40. A 60. A 80. D 100. D

Polygraphy:

1. B 11. B 21. A 31. B 41. A 51. B

2. A 12. A 22. C 32. A 42. A 52. C

3. D 13. B 23. B 33. A 43. B 53. C

4. A 14. A 24. B 34. C 44. B 54. B

5. D 15. A 25. A 35. D 45. C 55. A

6. B 16. C 26. A 36. A 46. A 56. D

7. C 17. A 27. C 37. C 47. B 57. B

8. A 18. D 28. C 38. B 48. C 58. C

9. D 19. C 29. A 39. A 49. B 59. B

10. B 20. B 30. D 40. B 50. C 60. B

Forensic Ballistics:

1. D 11. A 21. A 31. A 41. B 51. A 61.A

2. D 12. D 22. B 32. A 42. A 52. D 62.A

3. D 13. D 23. C 33. A 43. A 53. A 63.C

4. B 14. A 24. B 34. D 44. D 54. A 64.B

5. D 15. A 25. B 35. A 45. A 55. B 65.A

6. C 16. B 26. C 36. A 46. A 56. A 66.D

7. C 17. D 27. A 37. D 47. C 57. A 67.B

8. B 18. B 28. A 38. A 48. B 58. A 68.A

9. A 19. A 29. D 39. C 49. C 59. B 69.C

10. C 20. B 30. C 40. D 50. C 60. C 70.A

Questioned Documents:

1. C 14. D 27. A 40. C 53. C 66. C 79. D

2. B 15. A 28. C 41. A 54. C 67. A 80. C

3. B 16. A 29. D 42. D 55. B 68. A

4. C 17. D 30. C 43. D 56. A 69. A

5. D 18. A 31. A 44. C 57. C 70. C

6. D 19. C 32. A 45. A 58. C 71. A

7. D 20. D 33. B 46. B 59. D 72. C

8. B 21. A 34. A 47. A 60. A 73. B

9. C 22. B 35. B 48. A 61. A 74. A

10. C 23. C 36. D 49. B 62. B 75. A

11. A 24. B 37. C 50. A 63. D 76. B

12. B 25. A 38. A 51. A 64. D 77. A

13. A 26. B 39. D 52. D 65. B 78. A