Solution of DPP # 5

TARGET : JEE (ADVANCED) 2015

COURSE : VIJAY & VIJETA (ADR & ADP)

DPP No. # 05
1. Point P is at instantaneous rest,
2
1  v
1 = |v P – v A| = B   
2  2 
2
1  v
2 = |v P – v B| = B   
2  2 
|v A – v B| = 1 – 2
|vA – vB| = Bv

XL
2. = 3  XL = R 3
R
100
i= = 5A
(10 3 ) 2  (10)2

10 3 3
L= = H
100 10

2
Q 
  1 2
3. 2 = Li
2C 2 0

Q
 l0 =
2 LC

4. impedance z = (8  2 )2  ( 8 ) 2 = 10 
current lags voltage by 37º, then
10
i= sin (50t – 37º)
10
VAB = i × R = 8 sin (50t – 37º)

5.

14
1 = = 1.4
10
2 = 3 = 0
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6.

From graph, When frequency is increased more then resonating frequency (XC ~ XL) will increase hence
impedence of the circuit will increase

7. Only for resonating fraquency circuit is able to drive appreciable current. So we can use these type of
cicuit in tuining of radio and TV for selecting perticular frequency sent by a perticular sorce.

8. VL = 8V, VR = 6V, V = VL2  VR2 = 10 V

VR 6
power factor = cos  = = = 0.6
V 10

9. (A)

2
i= = 0.2 A
91

(B)

i=0

D
10. Fringe width = n
d
From given situation
d
F.W. =
2

n
D d d2
 =  =
d 2 2nD

Hence (C) is possible.

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 y

dy
11.
y

O x

 
   B.dA

   cy3 t 2 a dy

a
  ct 2 a. y 3 dy
0

a4
  ct 2 a.
4

ct 2 a5

4

d
e 
dt
Now induced e.m.f.

2cta5 2cta5 cta5

e  = =
4 4 2

12. For 100th maximum

d sin  = 100 

100  5000  10 9 5  10 4 1
sin  = = = 0.5 =
1  10 3 10 3 2
 y = D tan 
= 1 × tan 30
1 3 1. 732
= = = = 0.577
3 3 3


13. The area vector of loop A = ± l b k̂

& B = 20t î + 10 t 2 ĵ + 50 k̂
 
 Magnetic flux is  = B . A = ± 50 lb
d
 emf = =0
dt

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14.

the equator can be seen as a conducting ring of radius Re revolving with angular velocity  in a perpendicular
magnetic field B.
BR 2e
Potential difference. across its center and periphery =
2
Potential at pole = potential of the axis of earth i.e. potential at point O
2
B R e
 Vequator – Vpole = .
2

dq
15. =i=0 Q max
dt

Q2
EC =  max
2c

Li 2
EL =  zero
2

16. Let at time t the angle between magnetic field and area vector(semicircle) be  , then   wt
  a 2 B
  BS  cos t.
2
d Ba2 
  sin t
dt 2
Ba 2
0  peak emf
2 LC
Since the circuit is in resoanance,
Ba 2
z R  i0  peak current
2R LC
i0 Ba 2
i rms   i rms 
2 2R 2LC
1
UC  CV02  max. energy , V0  peak voltage
2
i0 i LC
V0  i 0 X c   0
C C
1 2B 2a4 2B2 a4
UC  C 
2 4R2 C2 8R2C
Ba 2 Ba 2 2 B2 a 4
PExt. = PDissipated = 0 i0   , PExt. 
2 LC 2R LC 4LCR

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17. VR, VL, VC are r.m.s voltage across the R, L & C respectively

3VR
VR 2 VR

VR

4
2VR VR



4

1
P.F. = 100 =
2

2 VR  220

220
VR  = 156 V
2

18. Let N be the number of fringes within the length x, then we have,
D xd
N = x  N=x  N=
d D
At any time t
x
N= (d + vt)
D
dN xv
= .
dt D

19. Changing magnetic field (at switching off B0 to zero)

induce electric field in such a way to restore the upward flux,
hence anticlockwise (E) as seen from above.
  d 2 dB
 E.dl   dt  a dt   Edl b

There is force on small element dQ of ring, tangentially d d QE

Now this force produces torque about axis of ring to rotate in anticlockwise sense, so,
2 dB
   dQE  b   d E b   b  E d  b a
dt
so Impulse of torque
o
2
  dt  ba  dB    dt  ba2B o
Bo

2
Lf – Li = L    dt  ba B o = (in magnitude)
It is independent of time taken
f – i = ba2B0
Where  is moment of inertia
ba2Bo
So , f 
mR2

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20. Because both inductors are in parallel
 L11 = L22
U1 ½ L1 1 1 1 L 2
 = 
U2 ½ L 2  2  2  2 L1

21. The parth difference

x  ( A  1)t A  (B  1)tB
 x   A t A  t A  B tB  t B
 x  t B  t A
if tB = tA  x  0
 no shift
if tB  t A or tB  t A
x  0
 central maxima may shift towards A or B.

22. For S1S2 = 2.5, max path different = 2.5

min path different = 0
Between 2.5 and 0 lie 2 and  two circular bright fringes
n1 = 2
For S1S2 = 5.7, max. path different = 5.7
min path different = 0
Between 5.7 and 0 lie 5, 4, 3, 2,  Five circular bright fringes.
 n2 = 5
 n2 – n1 = 5 – 2 = 3

 (  1 )
23. =–  2
t t
1   2
=
t

=
BA  0
=

0.5   110 2 2
= ×10-4 V
t 0.5
24. Just after the switch is closed, there is no current through the coil and capacitor offers no resistance.
9 18
Net Resistance = = 4.5   i0 = = 4 A.
2 4.5
25. For R1 – L branch
3
XL = L = 100 × = 10 3 , R1 = 10
10
XL
 tan  = R = 3 or  = 60º
1
Hence current I 1 lags voltage by 60º.
For R2 – C branch

1 1 20
XC = = = 
C 3 3
100   10 3
2

XC 1
 tan  = R = or  = 30º
2 3

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 Hence current I2 leads voltage by 30º.
 The phase difference between I1 and I 2 is 90º.
The maximum current through R1 – L branch is
V0 200 2
= = = 10 2 amp.
R12  2L2 10 2  (10 3 )2

Hence when current through R1 – L branch is 10 2 amp., the current through R2 – C branch will be
zero.

2
26. PV
R
20
20V peak ac is equivalent to
2 dc
i.e. 14.14V dc power
dc power
ac power

 20 2 
 R 

2 20 2
=  20  / R  = 2 =2
   20 
 2    
 2

27.

V 200
R = = = 2A
R 100
V 200
‘ = X  X = = 2A
L C 100

=  R 2  2 = 2 2 Amp.

 D1  D 2
29.  = 3 × 10–5
d d

5  10 2
 = 3 × 10–5   = 0.6 × 10–6 = 6000 Å.
10 3

tD
30. Shift of fringe pattern = ( – 1)
d

30 D ( 4800  10 10 ) D
 = (0.6) t
d d
30 × 4800 × 10 = 0.6–10

30  4800  10 10 1.44  10 5

t= = = 24 × 10–6
0. 6 0. 6

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31 to 33
Considering length of line is


E  V  Eh
0

 Q Q
V h .h  c 
0 0b  v

 0b
C
h

C 0b

 h

 0K  0K 0l
B= + = 0K = (K = current per unit width)
2 2 b
 I
B  0 kˆ
b
 
y

h o x

Consider a rectangular surface as shown in the figure.

Now = Bh
0I
 .h   LI
b
 0h 
L
b
L  0h
 But
 b
1
c
 0 0

1
c2 
 0 0

1
0 
0 c 2

L h

 0 c 2b

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34 to 36
1000
The fan is operating at 200 V, consuming 1000 W, then  = = 5A
200
But as coil resistance is 1 then power dissipated by internal resistance heat is P 1 = 2R = 25W
If V is net emf across coil then

V2
= 25 W V = 5 volt
R
Net emf = source emf – back emf
V = Vs – e  e = 195 V
The work done P2 = 1000 – 25 = 975 W.

37. Explanation :

dB
For r < R  E dl  A .
dt
r
E 2r = (r2)  R
r
E= or E  r
2
So, E - r graph is a straight line passing through origin. r

R
R
At r=R E=
2

For r>R E 2r = (R2) 

Hence, choice (a) is correct and choices (b), (c) and (d) are wrong.
38. Explanation :
Perpendicular distance between BC and centre O is 10 cm. Component of induced electric field
along
d dB
the rod =
2 dt
Where d = Perpendicular distance from centre to the rod.
Hence, potential difference between the ends of rod
d dB
v = E = I.
2 dt

10
=× 10-2 × 20 × 10-2 × 2 = 20 mV
2
Hence, choice (b) is correct and choices (a), (c) and (d) are wrong.

39. Explanation :
Perpendicular distance between CD and O is 20 cm.
Therefore, induced emf in CD
d dB 20
= I  × 10-2 × 20 × 10-2 × 2
2 dt 2
= 40 mV

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40. Path difference,
 t 
(n1SS1  n2S1P)  (n3  n2 )dx 
x = n1 SS2 + n2S2P –   
 0 
t

= n1 (SS2 – SS1) + n2(S2P – S1P) –  n3 dx  n2t

0
In order to get central maxima at centre of screen –

2  (1 10 3 )2 3t
O= + 0 – 2t +
2 1 2
0.5 t = 1 m.
t = 2 m.

41. From previous equation :

3yd
0 = 1 m + – 0.5 t
2D
3 yd
= –0.5 m
2 D
 10 6   1m  3
     = 10 1
y=  3  3 = mm, below centre.
   1 10  3 3

D 3000  10 10  1 2
42. = n d = = 2 × 10–4 m = 0.2 mm.
2 3  1 10 3

44. Explanation :
Time varying magnetic field produced electric field known as induced electric field.
So (P)  (4)
For r < R
AdB
 E.DI  
dt
dB
E 2r = - r2
dt
R
r dB
E=- r
2 dt
So (Q)  (2)
For r > R .

dB R 2 dB
E 2pr = - R2 ss, E = -
dt 2r dt
So (R)  (3)
If rod is placed along the diameter of magnetic field, then electric field is perpendicular to length of
rod.

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45. power = i2R graph of ‘i’ vs f is :

f
From data, the possibilities are

or

f2 f1 f0 f3 f3 f0 f1 f2

f 0 is resonant frequency  means same as circuit being resistive.

The circuit is capacitative when f < f0 and inductive when f > f0
Power at f 1 and f3 same i same  z same
1 1
 2f 1L – 2f C = 2f C – 2f 3L
1 3

1 1 1
 2L (f 1 + f 3) = 2C  f  f 
 1 3

1 1 0
 f 1f 3 =  f1f3 = =
42LC 2 LC 2
f1  f3
AM > GM   f0
2
f1  f3
 Inductive at frequency = .
2

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