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GENERAL
OH&S Legislation in Canada - Internal Responsibility System

Ontario's Ham Commission is credited with establishing: the internal responsibility system
What is IRS?
The internal responsibility system puts in place an employee-employer partnership in
ensuring a safe and disease free workplace. A health and safety committee is a joint forum for
employers and employees working together to improve workplace health and safety.
How IRS Work ?
The internal responsibility system is the underlying philosophy of the occupational health and
safety legislation in all Canadian jurisdictions. Its foundation is that everyone in the
workplace - both employees and employers - is responsible for his or her own safety and for
the safety of co-workers. Acts and regulations do not always impose or prescribe the specific
steps to take for compliance. Instead, it holds employers responsible for determining such
steps to ensure health and safety of all employees.
Internal responsibility system does the following:
 Establishes responsibility sharing systems

 Promotes safety culture
 Promotes best practice
 Helps develop self reliance
 Ensures compliance
The term "due diligence" is commonly used when describing the need to manage workplace
health and safety risks. You will learn about the legal significance of due diligence while also
exploring the four main factors that determine the level of action required to achieve it. More
importantly, you will learn about best practices that can be implemented to help you develop
a safety culture that supports the achievement of due diligence for the safety and the
protection of the people that work and visit your workplace.
What is Due diligence ?
Due diligence is the level of judgement, care, prudence, determination, and activity that a
person would reasonably be expected to do under particular circumstances.
Applied to occupational health and safety, due diligence means that employers shall take all
reasonable precautions, under the particular circumstances, to prevent injuries or accidents in
the workplace. This duty also applies to situations that are not addressed elsewhere in the
occupational health and safety legislation. Reasonable precautions are also referred to as
reasonable care. It refers to the care, caution, or action a reasonable person is expected to take
under similar circumstances.
Another term used is employers must do what is "reasonably practicable". Reasonably
practicable has been described by the Labour Program (Canada) as taking precautions that are
not only possible, but that are also suitable or rational, given the particular situation.
Determining what should be done is usually done on a case by case basis.
To exercise due diligence, an employer must implement a plan to identify possible workplace
hazards and carry out the appropriate corrective action to prevent accidents or injuries arising
from these hazards.
Special significance of Due diligence ?
"Due diligence" is important as a legal defense for a person charged under occupational
health and safety legislation. If charged, a defendant may be found not guilty if he or she can
prove that due diligence was exercised. In other words, the defendant must be able to prove
that all precautions, reasonable under the circumstances, were taken to protect the health and
safety of workers.
Due diligence is demonstrated by your actions before an event occurs, not after.
How to establish Due diligence ?
The conditions for establishing due diligence include several criteria:
 The employer must have in place written OH&S policies, practices, and procedures.
These policies, etc. would demonstrate and document that the employer carried out
workplace safety audits, identified hazardous practices and hazardous conditions and
made necessary changes to correct these conditions, and provided employees with
information to enable them to work safely.
 The employer must provide the appropriate training and education to the employees
so that they understand and carry out their work according to the established polices,
practices, and procedures.
 The employer must train the supervisors to ensure they are competent persons, as
defined in legislation. Ensure that managers and supervisors:
o Talk to new employees about safety during orientation training.
o Meet regularly with staff to discuss health and safety matters.
o Inspect areas of the workplace under their responsibility, and respond
promptly to unsafe conditions and activities.
o Pay attention to routine and non-routine activities, ensuring that employees
understand the hazards and the preventative measures to be followed.
 The employer must monitor the workplace and ensure that employees are following
the policies, practices and procedures. Written documentation of progressive
disciplining for breaches of safety rules is considered due diligence.
 There are obviously many requirements for the employer but workers also have
responsibilities. They have a duty to take reasonable care to ensure the safety of
themselves and their coworkers - this includes following safe work practices and
complying with regulations.
 The employer should have an accident/incident investigation and reporting system in
place. Employees should be encouraged to report "near misses" and these should be
investigated also. Incorporating information from these investigations into revised,
improved policies, practices and procedures will also establish the employer is
practicing due diligence.
 The employer should document, in writing, all of the above steps: this documentation
will give the employer a history of how the company's occupational health and safety
program has progressed over time. Second, it will provide up-to-date documentation
that can be used as a defense to charges in case an accident occurs despite an
employer's due diligence efforts.
 Employers must also ensure that all people who are at the workplace are included,
such as contractors, visitors, students/interns and volunteers.
All of the elements of a "due diligence program" must be in effect before any accident or
injury occurs. If employers have questions about due diligence, they should seek legal advice
for their jurisdiction to ensure that all appropriate due diligence requirements are in place.
Remember, due diligence is demonstrated by your actions before an event occurs, not after.
More information on how to establish these programs is available through OSH Answers,
including:
 Establishing an OSH Program

 Emergency Planning
 Hazard Control
 Guide to Writing an OHS Policy Statement
 Inspection Checklists
 Job Hazard Analysis
Document needed for Due Diligence ?

Written documentation is essential. Records, reports and documentation for the following
activities can include:
 Worker orientation, education, and training.

 Workplace inspections, including corrective actions taken.
 Accident / Incident reports, including corrective actions taken.
 Supervisor notes (e.g., supervisor inspections, meetings with workers or contractors
regarding safety, etc.).
 Health and safety committee meeting minutes.
 Equipment log books and maintenance records.
 Emergency response drills and exercises.
 Instructions or safe work procedures, including any changes.
 Forms and checklists used when following safe work procedures (e.g., confined space
entry permits).
 Sampling and monitoring records from exposure testing.
 Statistics about the frequency and severity of injuries, etc.
 Enforcement of health and safety rules and procedures.
Areas reviewing due diligence?

When reviewing your due diligence program, it may help to ask yourself the following
questions:
1. Can a reasonable person predict or foresee something going wrong?
2. How severe is the potential harm to workers?
3. Is there an opportunity to prevent the injury or incident?
4. Who is responsible for preventing the accident or incident?
A hazard control program consists of all steps necessary to protect workers from exposure
to a substance or system, the training and the procedures required to monitor worker exposure
and their health to hazards such as chemicals, materials or substance, or other types of
hazards such as noise and vibration. A written workplace hazard control program should
outline which methods are being used to control the exposure and how these controls will be
monitored for effectiveness.
The main ways to control a hazard include:
 Elimination (including substitution): remove the hazard from the workplace, or

substitute (replace) hazardous materials or machines with less hazardous ones.
 Engineering Controls: includes designs or modifications to plants, equipment,
ventilation systems, and processes that reduce the source of exposure.
 Administrative Controls: controls that alter the way the work is done, including
timing of work, policies and other rules, and work practices such as standards and
operating procedures (including training, housekeeping, and equipment maintenance,
and personal hygiene practices).
 Personal Protective Equipment: equipment worn by individuals to reduce exposure
such as contact with chemicals or exposure to noise.
These methods are also known as the "hierarchy of control" because they should be
considered in the order presented (it is always best to try to eliminate the hazard first, etc).
Substitution occurs when a new chemical or substance that is less hazardous is used instead
of another chemical. It is sometimes grouped with elimination because, in effect, you are
removing the first substance or hazard from the workplace. The goal, obviously, is to choose
a new chemical that is less hazardous than the original.
The table below provides some examples:
Instead Of: Consider:

carbon tetrachloride (causes liver damage, cancer) 1,1,1-trichloroethane, dichloromethane
benzene (causes cancer) toluene, cyclohexane, ketones
pesticides (causes various effects on body) "natural" pesticides such as pyrethrins
organic solvents (causes various effects on body) water-detergent solutions
leaded glazes, paints, pigments (causes various versions that do not contain lead
effects on body)
sandstone grinding wheels (causes severe respiratory synthetic grinding wheels such as
illness due to silica) aluminium oxide
Remember, however, that you need to make sure the substitute chemical or substance is not
causing any harmful effects, and to control and monitor exposures to make sure that the
replacement chemical or substance is below occupational exposure limits.
Another type of substitution includes using the same chemical but to use it in a different
form. For example, a dry, dusty powder may be a significant inhalation hazard but if this
material can be purchased and used as pellets or crystals, there may be less dust in the air and
therefore less exposure.
Engineering controls are methods that are built into the design of a plant, equipment or
process to minimize the hazard. Engineering controls are a very reliable way to control
worker exposures as long as the controls are designed, used and maintained properly. The
basic types of engineering controls are:
 Process control.
 Enclosure and/or isolation of emission source.
 Ventilation.
Process Control
Process control involves changing the way a job activity or process is done to reduce the risk.
Monitoring should be done before and as well as after the change is implemented to make
sure the changes did result in lower exposures.
Examples of process changes include to:
 Use wet methods rather than dry when drilling or grinding. "Wet method" means that
water is sprayed over a dusty surface to keep dust levels down or material is mixed
with water to prevent dust from being created.
 Use an appropriate vacuum or "wet method" instead of dry sweeping (e.g. with a
broom) to control dust and reduce the inhalation hazard.
o Note: Never use a regular "household" vacuum cleaner, especially when
cleaning toxic material such as lead, or asbestos. Use a vacuum specifically
designed for industrial workplaces and be sure to use appropriate filters, etc.
 Use steam cleaning instead of solvent degreasing (but be sure to evaluate the potential
high temperature hazard being introduced such as heat stress).
 Use electric motors rather than diesel ones to eliminate diesel exhaust emissions.
 Float "balls" on open-surface tanks that contain solvents (e.g. degreasing operations)
to reduce solvent surface area and to lower solvent loss.
 Instead of conventional spray painting, try to dip, paint with a brush, or use
"airless"spray paint methods. These methods will reduce the amount of paint that is
released into the air.
 Decrease the temperature of a process so that less vapour is released.
 Use automation - the less workers have to handle or use the materials, the less
potential there is for exposure.
 Use mechanical transportation rather than manual methods.
Enclosure and Isolation
These methods aim to keep the chemical "in" and the worker "out" (or vice versa).
An enclosure keeps a selected hazard "physically" away from the worker. Enclosed
equipment, for example, is tightly sealed and it is typically only opened for cleaning or
maintenance. Other examples include "glove boxes" (where a chemical is in a ventilated and
enclosed space and the employee works with the material by using gloves that are built in),
abrasive blasting cabinets, or remote control devices. Care must be taken when the enclosure
is opened for maintenance as exposure could occur if adequate precautions are not taken. The
enclosure itself must be well maintained to prevent leaks.
Isolation places the hazardous process "geographically" away from the majority of the
workers. Common isolation techniques are to create a contaminant-free booth either around
the equipment or around the employee workstations.
Ventilation
Ventilation is a method of control that strategically "adds" and "removes" air in the work
environment. Ventilation can remove or dilute an air contaminant if designed properly. Local
exhaust ventilation is very adaptable to almost all chemicals and operations. It removes the
contaminant at the source so it cannot disperse into the work space and it generally uses
lower exhaust rates than general ventilation (general ventilation usually exchanges air in the
entire room).
Local exhaust ventilation is an effective means of controlling hazardous exposures but should
be used when other methods (such as elimination or substitution) are not possible.
A local exhaust ventilation system consists of these basic parts:
1. A hood that captures the contaminants generated in the air (at the source).
2. Ductwork (exhaust stack and/or recirculation duct) that carries the contaminated air to
the air cleaning device, if present or to the fan (away from the source).
3. A fan which draws the air from the hood into the ducts and removes the air from the
workspace. The fan must overcome all the losses due to friction, hood entry, and
fittings in the system while producing the intended flow rate.
4. Air cleaning devices may also be present that can remove contaminants such as dust
(particulates), gases and vapours from the air stream before it is discharged or
exhausted into the environment (outside air), depending on the material(s) being used
in the hood.
The design of a ventilation system is very important and must match the particular process
and chemical or contaminant in use. Expert guidance should be sought. It is a very effective
control measure but only if it is designed, tested, and maintained properly.
Because contaminants are exhausted to the outdoors, you should also check with your local
environment ministry or municipality for any environmental air regulations or bylaws that
may apply in your area.
What are examples of administrative controls?
Administrative controls limit workers' exposures by scheduling shorter work times in
contaminant areas or by implementing other "rules". These control measures have many
limitations because the hazard itself is not actually removed or reduced. Administrative
controls are not generally favoured because they can be difficult to implement, maintain and
are not a reliable way to reduce exposure. When necessary, methods of administrative control
include:
 Scheduling maintenance and other high exposure operations for times when few
workers are present (such as evenings, weekends).
 Using job-rotation schedules that limit the amount of time an individual worker is
exposed to a substance.
 Using a work-rest schedule that limits the length of time a worker is exposure to a
hazard.
Work Practices
Work practices are also a form of administrative controls. In most workplaces, even if there
are well designed and well maintained engineering controls present, safe work practices are
very important. Some elements of safe work practices include:
 Developing and implementing standard operating procedures.
 Training and education of employees about the operating procedures as well as other
necessary workplace training (including WHMIS).
 Establishing and maintaining good housekeeping programs.
 Keeping equipment well maintained.
 Preparing and training for emergency response for incidents such as spills, fire or
employee injury.
Education and Training
Employee education and training on how to conduct their work safely helps to minimize the
risk of exposure and is a critical element of any complete workplace health and safety
program. Training must cover not only how to do the job safely but it must also ensure that
workers understand the hazards and risks of their job. It must also provide them with
information on how to protect themselves and co-workers.
Good Housekeeping
Good housekeeping is essential to prevent the accumulation of hazardous or toxic materials
(e.g., build-up of dust or contaminant on ledges, or beams), or hazardous conditions (e.g.,
poor stockpiling).
For more information about workplace housekeeping, please see the OSH Answers
document Workplace Housekeeping - Basic Guide.
For more information about combustible dust, please see the OSH Answers
document Combustible Dusts.
Emergency Preparedness
Being prepare for emergencies means making sure that the necessary equipment and supplies
are readily available and that employees know what to do when something unplanned
happens such as a release, spill, fire or injury. These procedures should be written and
employees should have the opportunity to practice their emergency response skills regularly.
Please see the OSH Answers document on emergency planning for more information.
Personal Hygiene Practices and Facilities
Personal hygiene practices are another effective way to reduce the amount of a hazardous
material absorbed, ingested or inhaled by a worker. They are particularly effective if the
contaminant(s) can accumulate on the skin, clothing or hair.
Examples of personal hygiene practices include:
 Washing hands after handling material and before eating, drinking or smoking.
 Avoiding touching lips, nose and eyes with contaminated hands.
 No smoking, drinking, chewing gum or eating in the work areas - these activities
should be permitted only in a "clean" area.
 Not storing hazardous materials in the same refrigerator as food items.
What should I know about personal protective equipment (PPE) as a hazard control
method?
Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes items such as respirators, protective clothing
such as gloves, face shields, eye protection, and footwear that serve to provide a barrier
between the wearer and the chemical or material.
It is the final item on the list for a very good reason. Personal protective equipment should
never be the only method used to reduce exposure except under very specific circumstances
because PPE may "fail" (stop protecting the worker) with little or no warning. For example:
"breakthrough" can occur with gloves, clothing, and respirator cartridges.
No matter which type of PPE is used, it is essential to have a complete PPE program in place.
For more information about PPE programs, please see the following document Designing an
Effective PPE Program.
Why is it important to monitor and review your hazard control program and methods?
It is important to monitor both the hazard and the control method to make sure that the
control is working effectively and that exposure to the hazard is reduced or eliminated.
Some tools include physical inspection, testing, exposure assessment, observations, injury
and illness tracking, accident/incident investigations reports, employee feedback/input,
occupational health assessment and other methods.
Be sure to answer the following questions:
 Have the controls solved the problem?

 Is the risk posed by the original hazard contained?
 Have any new hazards been created?
 Are new hazards appropriately controlled?
 Are monitoring processes adequate?
 Have workers been adequately informed about the situation?
 Have orientation and training programs been modified to deal with the new situation?
 Are any other measures required?
 Has the effectiveness of hazard controls been documented in your committee
minutes?
 What else can be done?
Adapted from the Occupational Health and Safety Committee Manual prepared by the
Saskatchewan Government.
A review will identify areas that may need more improvement or refinement. It is important
to know if all workplace hazards are identified, assessed and appropriately controlled.
Communication about the hazards and how to control them must be done for all employees of
the organization.
Weight of evidence (WoE) is a phrase used to describe the type of consideration made in a
situation where there is uncertainty, and which is used to ascertain whether the evidence or
information supporting one side of a cause or argument is greater than that supporting the
other side. We all frequently make personal WoE decisions in our daily lives, but more-
formal WoE approaches are used in many different kinds of circumstance — for example, in
commercial, educational, health, legal and scientific contexts
The Canadian Human Rights Act is a statute passed by the Parliament of Canada in 1977
with the express goal of extending the law to ensure equal opportunity to individuals who
may be victims of discriminatory practices based on a set of prohibited grounds such as sex,
disability, or religion. It applies throughout Canada, but only to federally regulated activities;
each province and territory has its own anti-discrimination law that applies to activities that
are not federally regulated.
Applied Safety Fundamental (Domain 1)
1. General Definition:
2. ISMEC stands for:

a. Identification of work required to achieve....
b. Standards established for the work activity....
c. Measurement of performance by compliance with the standards....
d. Evaluating the work performance....
e. Correcting deficiencies (and commending success).
3. What Is Environmental Management?

Environmental management is a term that has, for some time, been
unnecessarily surrounded with an aura of mystery. Environmental management
does not mean management of the environment. It does mean management of
activities within environmentally tolerable constraints posed by the environment,
with full consideration of ecological factors.
4. What Is An Environmental Management System?

An environmental management system (EMS) is the part of the overall
management system that includes organizational structure, planning activities,
responsibilities, practices, procedures, processes, and resources for developing,
implementing, achieving, reviewing, and maintaining an organization’s
environmental policy. In the context of a management system, an EMS consists
of a number of interrelated elements that function together to achieve the
objective of effective environmental management.
5. Key Principles Of EMS

An effective EMS is built on the Total Quality Management (TQM) concept of
Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA), resulting in an EMS that has continual
improvement capabilities.
6. The PDCA approach leads to continual improvement that translates into an

overall improvement in environmental performance, over time, based upon:
a. • planning: including identifying environmental aspects and establishing
goals [plan]
b. • implementing: including training and operational controls [do]
c. • checking: including monitoring and corrective action [check]
d. • reviewing: including progress reviews and acting to make needed
changes to the EMS [act]
7. Key principles for a successful EMS include:
8. Top management commitment: applying TQM principles to environmental
management and providing adequate resources are the job of top management.
9. ISO Standards
a. Generic Management System Standards
b. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) has been
developing voluntary technical standards for almost all sectors of
business, industry, and technology since 1947. ISO recently developed a
series of generic management system standards
10. ‘ISO 14000’ is a family of standards that is referred to under this generic title for
convenience. The family consists of standards and guidelines relating to EMSs
and related supporting standards on terminology and specific tools.The standards
in this family contribute to the development of a systematic approach to
environmental management.
11. The ISO 14000 Family Of Standards

a. Designation Date Title
b. ISO 14001 1996 Environmental management systems - Specification with
guidance for use
c. ISO 14004 1996 Environmental management systems - General
guidelines on principles, systems and supporting techniques
d. 14010 1996 Guidelines for environmental auditing - General principles
e. ISO 14011 1996 Guidelines for environmental auditing - Audit
procedures - Auditing of environmental management systems
f. ISO 14012 1996 Guidelines for environmental auditing - Qualification
criteria for environmental auditors
g. ISO 14015 2001 Environmental management - Environmental assessment
of sites and organizations (EASO)
12. Acts and regulations: acts or statutes are passed by parliament or a provincial
legislature. Acts are usually general in nature with respect to requirements,
having a broader policy perspective. Regulations are made pursuant to authority
provided in an act, and are typically a means of control through application of
defined rules or principles, specified in operational details on the general powers
under the act.
13. Transportation Of Dangerous Goods Act
a. The Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act (TDGA), administered by
Transport Canada, promotes public safetyin the transportation of
dangerous goods that pose a hazard to health, life, property, or the
environment. It appliesto all handling, offering for transport, and
transporting of dangerous goods including hazardous wastes, by
anymeans of transport, whether or not the goods originate from or are
destined for any place or places in Canada.
14. What Are Dangerous Goods?
a. Dangerous goods are anything explosive, flammable, toxic, radioactive,
corrosive, or harmful in some other way to humans, or the environment.
In this context the environment is broadly defined to include other goods
in transport, the transport vehicle, buildings, soil, roads, air, waterways,
and nature in general. The empty containers and packages of dangerous
goods can present the same hazards as the chemical substance or product
they contained, and should also be regarded as dangerous goods.
15. United Nations Classification Recommendation On Transport Of Dangerous
Goods
a. 1. EXPLOSIVES
b. 1.1 Substances and articles that have a mass explosion hazard
c. 1.2 Substances and articles that have a projection hazard but not a mass
explosion hazard
d. 1.3 Substances and articles that have a fire hazard and either a minor blast
hazard or a minor projection hazard but not a mass explosion hazard
e. 1.4 Substances and articles that present no significant hazard
f. 1.5 Very insensitive substances that have a mass explosion hazard
g. 1.6 Extremely insensitive articles that do not have a mass explosion
hazard
16. 2. GASES
a. 2.1 Flammable gases
b. 2.2 Non-flammable, non-toxic gases
c. 2.3 Toxic gases
17. 3. FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS
18. 4. FLAMMABLE SOLIDS
a. 4.1 Flammable solids
b. 4.2 Substances liable to spontaneous combustion
c. 4.3 Substances that in contact with water emit flammable gases
19. 5. OXIDIZING SUBSTANCES; ORGANIC PEROXIDES
a. 5.1 Oxidizing substances
b. 5.2 Organic peroxides
20. 6. POISONOUS (=TOXIC) SUBSTANCES
a. 6.1 Toxic substances
b. 6.2 Infectious substances
21. 7. RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL
22. 8. CORROSIVE SUBSTANCES
23. 9. MISCELLANEOUS DANGEROUS SUBSTANCES
24. Hazard Analysis: A detailed assessment of the workplace should be conducted to
ensure that hazards inherent in the system are identified. A hazard analysis will
locate hazards that are the most probable and/or have the severest consequences.
25. Risk Analysis: Risk is a combination of the probability of injury following an
incident and the degree of the injury. A hazard analysis will combine the
identification of probable hazards and the analysis of risks inherent to each
job/facility.
26. Job Task Analysis/ also known as a Job Safety Analysis: Each task to be
analysed will be broken down into its component parts. What effort, movement,
force etc. is the operator required to perform?
27. The fault tree is a process developed from the decision tree theory that reasons
backwards from a series of conditions that results in some undesired event.
Analysis forms part of every hazard assessment; examining a system or
equipment for probable hazards, with the most severe consequences, and
developing controls to reduce the likelihood of the occurrence. Analytical tree
analysis can be used after the fact when frequency or severity of accidents
indicate or, in a preventative manner before new or modified equipment is placed
in service. Different methods are available; objective/positive and fault trees have
been used extensively
28. Personal protective equipment, though necessary, is the least desirable method
of providing protection for a worker. It is considered a method of last resort and
in some cases may be the only method available. For example, hard hats provide
some protection from overhead hazards of injury to the head; however there is no
guarantee that a falling object will not cause injury in spite of the hat. The hazard
is still present in the environment. Good engineering technology and
administrative controls are the desirable practices to protect workers on the job.
29. Hand and Portable Power Tools: Hand and portable power tools allow workers
to complete the tasks more efficiently but frequently receive abuse from
dropping, improper use and storage
30. Woodworking Machinery: No worker should be permitted to operate powered
woodworking machinery without prior documented training
31. Welding and Cutting: Welding presents two separate issues; physical hazards
resulting from fire, explosion, radiation, electric shock etc. and occupational
illness resulting from inhalation of toxic fumes, vapours and gases
32. Engineering design for mechanical ventilation systems, local exhaust being the
preferred method, is required in most welding operations. Cutting and welding
that is taking place outdoors would keep the contaminants within acceptable
levels as long as the precautions are taken to keep the welding plume away from
the welder’s breathing zone
33. Metalworking Machinery: Metalworking machinery can be classified into five
major groups; turning, boring, milling, planing and grinding.
34. Other classifications include; electro discharge, electrochemical, laser and
machining tools. The hazards in metalworking environments include entrapment,
cuts (often critical from metal swarf), eye, skin (dermatitis) and electrical, fire
and explosion hazards in electro discharging operations.
35. Process safety management is one way to address production and safety in a
proactive way. By analysing hazards before they result in incidents and by
managing risk, the hazards will not result in injuries and loss of life
36. Confined Space: A confined space is generally considered to be one that due to
its size, construction, location, contents or work activity within, the accumulation
of hazardous gas, vapour, dust or fume or the creation of an oxygen deficient
atmosphere may occur. It is generally accepted that there must be easy egress
from all parts of the space to which a worker has access. confined’ include,
underground vaults, sewers, tanks [including septic], storage bins, vessels, silos,
steam tunnels, boilers etc
37. Fall Protection: A guardrail should guard all openings in floors or roofs to which
a person has access. Openings can be temporarily covered over on a construction
site with a material strong enough to support any load to which it maybe exposed.
Stairs must be provided with handrails. Where workers must be protected from
falls from areas that cannot be provided with a physical barrier, personal fall
arrest systems must be worn. Additional protection may be required in
specialized situations and may include safety nets, warning lines or static lines
attached to a structural member
38. various types of ladders; various scaffold applications; fall arrest systems : see
also google search
39. Pressure Hazards and Protection: fired and unfired pressure vessels and give
examples: autoclaves, steam-jacketed vessels, gas cylinders, storage vessel, fire
extinguishers etc.
40. Identify Design Deficiencies based on Past Performance: near misses’ can often
spot deficiencies based on the past performance at a workstation
41. Record Keeping Systems: Without good and appropriate records, the health and
safety program may be ineffective.
42. Workplace Inspections: fact finding mission, to identify and locate potentially
hazardous conditions. Analyzing inspection reports, particularly noting repeat
items; to determine conditions that need to be corrected or improved; Types of
inspections vary widely. Government inspectors, regulatory bodies, joint health
and safety committees or safety professionals (including occupational hygienists)
may conduct periodic inspections. These inspections are formal, thorough and
systematic and the intervals may be periodic, intermittent or planned. Continuous
inspections should be part of a supervisor’s and worker’s daily and weekly
routine.
43. Inspection:
44. Workplace inspections form an integral part of a successful health and safety
program and are essential for hazard assessment and control in the workplace.
Supervisors, health and safety committee members or external parties may
perform inspections. Inspections may be regulatory, continuous, intermittent or
used as a follow-up for corrective action.
45. What is the purpose of a workplace inspection? To locate and report on
existing and potential hazards
46. Planned inspection steps usually include: Prepare, Inspect, Develop
Remedial Action Plans, Take Follow-upActions, Prepare Inspection Report
47. The primary objective of a workplace safety inspection is to: identify and
correct unsafe acts and unsafe conditions
48. adopt a systems approach to identifying, monitoring and controlling hazards in
the workplace through regular inspections
49. Five questions that should be answered when planning inspections discuss the
route, the checklist, the prior incident/accident reports, and the previous
inspection reports for that area; Finally, the follow-up on corrective action is
possibly the most important part of the inspection report
50. The purpose of a workplace inspection is To locate and report on existing
and potential hazards but not To provide a snapshot in time of workplace
conditions or To provide management with a formal process to look for hazards
or To identify hazards that you are trying to discover. The safety professional
needs to be aware of potential hazards in the workplace
51. Electricity:
52. The Canadian Electrical Code utilizes a Class, Zone, and Division
identification system for hazardous locations. Class II hazardous locations
involve Combustible dusts
53. portable electrical equipment and discuss double insulated tools. basic
understanding of electrical grounding in hazardous environments. E.g.
laboratories, flammable storage rooms
54. An electrical system is considered to be de-energized: After the power has
been shut off and tested
55. The Canadian Electrical Code utilizes a Class, Zone, and Division
identification system for hazardous locations. Class I hazardous locations
involve Flammable gases or vapours Class II hazardous locations involve:
Combustible dusts& Class III hazardous locations involve Easily ignited
fibres.
56. An ampere, the standard unit for measuring the strength of an electrical
current flowing in a circuit, is based on the: Current sent by 1 volt through a
resistance of 1 ohm.
57. An area is classified as a hazardous location under Section 18 of the
Canadian Electrical Code (CEC) as either Class I, Class II, or Class Ill,
depending on the properties of the substances that might be present. Class I
contains flammable gases or vapours Class II contains: combustible dusts&
Class III contains easily ignited fibres or flyings
58. The hazardous location Classes under Section 18 of the Canadian Electrical
Code are subdivided into Division 1 and Division 2 depending on the degree
of likelihood that an ignitable atmosphere might be present. Division 1
locations are defined as those locations where:hazardous concentrations are
probable (normal operating conditions). Division 2 locations where:
hazardous concentrations are possible, but only in the event of a rupture,
failure, etc. (abnormal conditions)
59. In a household electric circuit, cables deliver electricity from the service
panel to devices on the circuit. These cables contain three different
conductors Black, White and Green (or bare). The black wire is the: hot
wire
60. The power must be shut off and tested to ensure it is de-energized or locked
out for repair (Ref: BCRSP Guide, STT Section, page 24)
61. A piece of electrical equipment has been monogrammed "GSA" and "C-
UL". What does the "C" signify in "C-UL"? It indicates compliance with
both Canadian and U.S. requirements
62. The quantity of electricity that is consumed is referred to as:Watt
63. GFI detects ground flow and opens the circuit. GFCI (G Fault Circuit
Inter../breaker) monitors for an imbalance in current levels between the hot
and neutral and trips the circuit @ 3-5 milliamps in 2 to 3 hundredth of a
second. But will not detect line-to-line faults
64. ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCI) in wet environments : see google
search
65. If your job task is to turn off the main electrical disconnect on an enclosed
electrical panel, you need to wear: Leather work gloves, long sleeved shirt and
pants of natural fibres
66. It is okay to plug a three-prong portable electrical tool into a two-prong polarized
receptacle. False
67. The general limit of approach to energized high voltage equipment and
conductors that is 750 volts is: 3 metres / 10 feet NOT
1. Misc:
2. The operators of industrial trucks require specialized training
3. advantages to a computerized database, improved communication and quality of
the data; disadvantages may include the old phrase ‘garbage in garbage out’
(Google search)
4. The role of the CRSP is one of educator, leader and expert advisor
5. Construction present the highest probability for incidents . Like excavation,
ladders, scaffolds and scaffolding, hoists, and fall protection [as opposed to fall
arrest systems]
6. Guards often refer exclusively to barriers designed to safeguard the operator at
the point of- operation. Safeguarding is any means of preventing a worker from
coming in contact with the moving parts of machinery or equipment that would
potentially cause harm.
7. The material the comes from a metal lathe that can become long and pose an
entanglement hazard is called Swarf
8. During the past three months, your company experienced 3 back strains (15 days
lost), 1 hernia (50 days lost), and 3 fingertip amputations (175 days lost). The
hours worked during that period were 537,493. Your company uses a numerical
base of 200,000 in calculations. What is the severity rate? What is the frequency
rate?
Formula (SR) : # of Lost-Time Injuries x 200,000

Total Hours Worked
3137 7 200000
 2.605
537493
Formula (FR): # of Work Days Lost x 200,000
Total Hours Worked
240 200000
 89.303
15  50  175  240 537493
9. A hazard is defined as: A condition or practice that can result in a mishap or
A condition or practice with the potential for accidental loss
10. The method to manage hazards is best described as Recognition, Evaluation,
Control
11. stepwise identifying hazards and developing measures to counteract those
hazards is called: Job safety analysis
12. The most correct statement about inspections is that they:Are a monitoring
function done to locate and report on existing and potential hazards in the
workplace
13. Task analysis includes a requirement to write job procedures and safe work
practices. A safe work practice is defined as: Guidelines to perform a certain
type of work safely
14. the most effective robotic safeguard is to: Lock out the robot
15. The extent that a robot hand, or working tool, can reach in all directions is called
its: Work envelope
16. robots may perform instead of workers include welding irregular seams,
spray painting, or disposing of bombs
17. The risk from robots in the workplace is greatest for: Robot teachers
18. Straddle lift trucks are designed to carry: Long material
19. A bar that prevents an operator's hands from entering the work area of a hydraulic
press, after the machine has been activated is known as a: Point of operation
safeguard
20. A point of operation is defined as: The area on a machine where material is
positioned for processing and where work is actually being performed on the
material
21. As a general guideline, a point of operation guard opening should not be over:3/8
inch (9mm)
22. Which device should be installed on machines that have excessive coasting time?
Electronic motor break
23. The advantages of ‘just in time’ delivery can enhance the safety of the operation
both during construction, operation and maintenance.
24. Guarding for machines and equipment is defined as any means of preventing a
worker from coming in contact with the moving parts that may cause potential
injury. If any part of a worker or his/her clothing has access to the moving part,
the machine is not adequately guarded.
25. Points of operation guards are positioned where work is actually performed at
the workstation. They may include but are not restricted to pressure sensing pads,
two hand controls, restraints and pull backs, interlocked barrier guards, etc. Other
enclosures may be fixed barriers surrounding the machine or interlocked by
mechanical, electrical, pneumatic or a combination of types
26. Differentiate between point of operation guards and various enclosures: see
google search
27. If the controls are implemented and a failure occurs, personal protective
equipment may be the only alternative for maintenance crews to make
repairs.
28. Where two (or more) events must occur simultaneously, one uses an “and”
symbol. If either of two (or more) events could occur independently, one uses an
“or” symbol. This style is commonly used in “fault tree” analysis
29. The first step in Task Analysis is to Inventory the Occupations (web search)
30. Task analysis is the analysis of how a task is accomplished, including a detailed
description of both manual and mental activities, task and element durations, task
frequency, task allocation, task complexity, environmental conditions, necessary
clothing and equipment, and any other unique factors involved in or required for
one or more people to perform a given task. Task analysis emerged from research
in applied behavior analysis and still has considerable research in that area.
31. Information from a task analysis can then be used for many purposes, such
as personnel selection and training, tool or equipment design,[2] procedure design
(e.g., design of checklists or decisionsupport systems) and automation.
32. One of the functions of management 'organizing' involves which one of the
following? Arranging tasks
33. A Job Task Analysis is the study of a task in order to find a safe and efficient way
to accomplish the task
34. A task is defined as: A component of a job that when completed yields a useful
result
35. Most material handling injuries occur to the: Fingers and hands
36. The most important characteristic of a guard or safety device on a machine is
that: Access to the danger zone must be prevented while the machine is
operating
37. Hoist limit switches or devices on a crane prevent: Unintended travel of the
load block
38. Petersen's Motivation Reward Satisfaction theory is a psychological theory
that was based on Kerr's Goal Freedom Alertness theory. The theory suggests
that a worker's performance is affected by motivation and ability (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, AT Section, page 52)
39. When implementing a program for the use of personal protective equipment, the
program's success depends most on: Selection of the proper type of PPE
40. The most important consideration in the selection of PPE is: Matching the PPE
to the hazard
41. A personal fall-arrest system stops a fall, but also: Distributes energy evenly to
prevent injury
42. The angle between a sling leg and horizontal should be kept as large as possible
because: The larger the angle, the less the load on each individual leg
43. The working load limits for slings is increased as the angle between the sling leg
and the vertical decreases
44. The simplest form of a direct load contact sling hitch, in which the sling has an
eye at each end and one eye is passed through the other is called: Choker hitch
45. Doubled choker hitch Provides more contact area to secure a load
46. The maximum bend or twist from the plane of an unbent crane hook that is
allowable before taking corrective action is: 10 degrees
47. The most important factor of Material storage is: The types and quantities of
materials to be stored
48. Guarding by fixed physical barriers that are mounted on or around a machine to
prevent access to the moving parts is known as: Enclosure
49. A process hazard analysis method that uses logic and event symbols to illustrate
combinations of failures that will cause a specific hazardous situation is called:
Fault tree analysis. It is a backward / deductive analysis.using the Top Event as a
starting point. Most important Gates are AND & OR Gate
50. When forward vision is obscured, a fork lift driver should: Drive in reverse.
51. A common term to describe a situation where all energy sources are neutralized is
a -- - - Zero energy state
52. The best way to detect wear and stretching of chains and chain slings is: Visual,
link-by-link inspection
Crushing
Bird Caging Kinking

Broken Strands
53. Metal fume fever is caused by the fumes of: Magnesium.

54. The percent of the strength of a wire rope that a mechanical splice retains is up to
95%
55. The fibre rope that gives the best uniform strength and service is: Manila or
nylon
56. On a boom angle mobile crane, the boom angle indicator: Provides the angle at
which the boom is currently operating
57. One of the safety devices for a pressure vessel is a: Rupture disk
58. Bonding and grounding are similar, in that they both: Refer to the intentional
provision of a safe pathway for electrical potential. Flammable liquids can
build up electrostatic charges when agitated or during transfer; so it is
imperative to ensure that proper bonding and grounding procedures have
been followed before any attempt is made to transfer a flammable
liquid.Bonding ..
59. The term Process Safety Management generally refers to? Safety management
initiatives in chemical manufacturing and processing
PSM = Process Safety Management

SEMS = Safety and Environmental Management
Systems
60. Which of the following are most likely to be involved in a process flow analysis?
The size, shape, location, construction and layout of buildings and facilities
61. In terms of ease of integration, a new safety device is best introduced: During
the design or preplanning stage
62. What are the three measures of central tendency? arithmetic mean, median,
mode
63. Pinch point is defined as: any place where a body part can be caught between
two or more moving parts
64. A confined space is best defined as: any enclosed or partially enclosed space not
designed for continuous human occupancy that has limited means of entry and
exit and that may contain a hazardous atmosphere or other potential hazards for a
worker entering it.
65. Definition / Criteria as per OSHA:
a. Has limited opening(s) for entry and exit
b. Space not designed for continuous worker occupancy
c. Has an actual or potential to contain hazardous atmosphere
d. Contains any other recognized serious safety or health hazard
e. Entry is determined as soon as plane of opening is broken
66. The acceptable entry concentration of flammable vapor in a confined space is less
than10% of LEL.
67. the median value of following numbers:23.5, 31.6, 46.7, 35.0, 51.9 is 35
68. The definition of MORT is: Management Oversight and Risk Tree
69. What percentage of a large set of values is expected to fall within three standard
deviations of the mean? 99.74%
70. A push stick is used in woodworking safety to: keep the operator's fingers
away from a table saw blade
71. The CSA standard for industrial protective headwear recommends which class of
head protection for electrical trade workers? Class E
72. The CSA never considers a bump cap protective headwear
73. The CSA Standard Z94.3-02, "Industrial Eye and Face Protectors" defines
several classes of eye and face protection. Which of the following is not a defined
class under the standard? Welding Goggles
74. Fall protection is defined as a means of preventing workers from experiencing
disastrous falls from elevation. Fall protection can be either: passive or active
75. Gantry Cranes travel on rails: at ground level
76. Machine guards should: be adjusted or modified to comply with the appropriate
regulatory requirements
77. Guarding for machines and equipment is defined as: any means of preventing a
worker from coming in contact with the moving parts that may cause
potential injury
78. An important step in the reduction of hazards is workplace inspections.
The most important step in performing workplace inspections is: Ensuring that
the corrective actions are implemented
79. SCAT is a problem-solving tool based on the DNV Management Systems loss
causation model. The acronym SCAT represents: Systematic Cause Analysis
Technique
80. If the upper control limit of a set of injury frequency data is 4.1 Lost Time
Claims/100 workers (LTC/100) and the lower control limit of the set of injury
frequency data is 2.0 LTC/100, an injury frequency of 2.4 LTC/100 is
considered: statistically insignificant
81. the "normal distribution" also referred to as: the bell curve
Normal Distribution / Bell curve
Left / Negative skew-ness

Right / Positive skew-ness
82. Aerial baskets should Always be equipped with safety harness and lanyards and a
means of attaching the lanyard to the equipment (anchor to the boom is best or to
the basket).
83. The most significant health hazard in the welding process is the generation of
toxic metal fumes (particulates), and gases. Exposure to these contaminants can
commonly cause Inflammation of the lungs, Emphysema, Chronic bronchitis
84. When describing the properties of wire rope, the term "lay" describes these
characteristics of the wire rope: the way the rope will spin when under load
(left or right)
85. Establishing a hardhat area within a metal fabrication shop with overhead hazards
is considered: administrative and management control and personal
protective control
86. The following is not likely to be a consideration during a process flow analysis:
Location and space for emergency equipment
87. A good example of applying 'safety in design' principles would be. Try out a
new tool in a controlled pilot project before system wide implementation.
88. The Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System (WHMIS) is
Canada's national hazard communication standard. The key elements of the
system are hazard classification, cautionary labelling of containers, the
provision of material safety data sheets (MSDSs) and worker education and
training programs.
89. The basis for hazard classification and communication in WHMIS is
changing. With the incorporation of the Globally Harmonized System of
Classification and Labelling for chemicals (GHS) in WHMIS, the hazard
classification and communication requirements of WHMIS have been
aligned with those used in the United States and other Canadian trading
partners. WHMIS is in a period of transition between two hazard
communication regimes - WHMIS 1988 and WHMIS 2015 (which
incorporates the GHS).
90. The three fundamental obligations of WHMIS legislation are MSDS, Worker
education and proper labelling
91. In addition to obligations for Employers and Workers, WHMIS legislation
defines duties for, Manufacturers and suppliers of hazardous products
92. A hidden yet frequent source of hand tool use injury is :The assumption that
everyone knows how to use common hand tools
93. A ball peen hammer is made for: Striking chisels and punches.
94. In relation to a confined space, an entry permit must be completed: Each time
work is to be performed in a confined space.
95. Formal hazard analytical methods can be divided into two broad categories:
inductive and deductive. Choose one of the following that is an example of a
deductive method. Fault tree analysis
96. After the job has been selected, the first basic step in making a JSA is breaking
the job down into steps for observation. The second basic step is:Identify the
hazards and potential injuries
97. A checklist methodology works as long as the process is: Stable
98. A CRSP studies material flow when the process undergoes modifications or
additions, when they are new to a particular environment and at which design
stage? Preoperational
99. Safety through design can be best defined as: The integration of hazard
analysis and risk assessment methods early in the design stage
100. What type of methodology is used to analyze specific events, or sequence of
events, to pinpoint those that could result in hazards and to calculate the
likelihood of an event occurring. Event tree analysis
101. What type of methodology is used to analyze specific events, or sequence of
events, to pinpoint those that could result in hazards and to calculate the
likelihood of an event occurring. Event tree analysis
102. An effective tool used for laying out facilities that involve dangerous, harmful
or complicated processes involves models made to scale and set up on a scaled
floor plan. This tool is referred to as a(n): three-dimensional model
103. Although some legal jurisdictions could have other standards, as a good
standard, a registered professional engineer should design excavations that are
……. feet deep or deeper? Twenty
104. When backfilling and removing the trench supports, in which order should this
process commence? Together and from the bottom up
105. All wood fabricated shoring must comply with construction grade lumber
specifications, undressed and of nominal Thickness
106. Which of the following equipment is required when utilizing aluminum tube
scaffolds? Diagonal braces on the base unit with horizontal braces
107. Which is the preferred material to use when erecting heavy loads of steel?
Wire rope
108. In the design phase there is one very important factor to consider in regards to
products, processes, and the staffing of the facility. This important factor is: User
population
109. Any means of preventing personnel from coming in contact with moving
parts of machinery or equipment that would cause harm is known as:
Safeguarding
110. A hazardous area created by the cutting movement of a mechanical part
past a stationary point on a machine is referred to as: Shear points
111. A crew of four is about to commence work on an energized system. Their
supervisor is also present. How many people in this situation are required to
lock out the energy isolating device with their assigned individual locks? The
four crew members and their supervisor
112. As per ANSI standard Z89.1 - 1986, which class of protective helmet is for
general service, and offers limited voltage protection? Class A
113. There are three factors that should be considered when selecting impact
resistant eyewear. They are: Level of protection, comfort in which they can
be worn, ease of repair
114. The proper selection of respiratory protection equipment involves three
steps. The first and second steps are: Identify the hazard and evaluate the
hazard. What is the last step? Based on the first two considerations you're
then going to select the appropriate/approved respiratory equipment
115. This type of fall arrest system will protect the individual 100% of the
time. It's referred to as: Passive fall arrest system
116. Safety belts with lanyards are not acceptable fall arrest systems as serious
injuries or death can occur if a worker falls (Ref: BCRSP Guide, STT
Section, page 31)
117. Body belts in fall protection can be used only: As a positioning device.
Body belts should never be considered as a fall arrest system component
(Ref: BCRSP Guide, STT Section, page 31)
118. There is a large individual variability in risk of injury and lifting
performance capabilities, therefore ruling out the practicality of establishing
weight limits. MPL and AL are used as two lifting limit guidelines. What do
those acronym's stand for? Maximum Permissible Limit and Action Limit
119. The storage of hazardous products may be improved through knowledge
of the potential risks associated with the product. When do handling
hazardous products become the greatest hazard? While in transit
120. To avoid traffic accidents, operators of powered industrial trucks use
these same safe practices that apply to: Highway traffic
121. What factors should be considered when determining if tools should be
changed in a workplace? . Setup of workstations and injury trends for
particular jobs
122. This type of ventilation system is the preferred method for keeping the
welding plume away from the welder's breathing zone. Local exhaust
123. Injuries from planers and shapers generally result from contact with
projections on the work piece or projecting bolts or brackets. Choose one of
following precautions that best describes how to prevent this from
occurring. The cutting edge should be guarded and operators should
securethe tool or work piece
124. A qualified person should perform this test when unpacking abrasive
disks and wheels that inspects them for damage from shipment. This test is
called: The ring test
125. Hazard identification can be achieved using established methods. This
method is used for a formal procedure which identifies hazards in a
chemical process facility. This method is referred to as Hazards and
operability (HAZOP) study
126. What is the outside attendant's obligation to a confined space entrant?
Being the entrants link to emergency assistance if needed
127. As per Alberta's OH&S Code, at what height must an employer ensure a
worker uses a fall protection system? 3 metres or more
128. From the list of personal protection, which is not considered an
acceptable fall arrest system? Safety belts with lanyards
129. Which is an example of a fired closed vessel? Boilers
130. Prior to applying lockout devices to control harmful energy on
machines or equipment the procedure should include: Shut down of
equipment using normal stopping procedures
131. A "workplace label" is applied in each of the following situations, except
when: When an MSDS is not available for a controlled product
132. An effective way to manage tool use, inspection, repair and replacement is
through: A tool room attendant or tool control program
133. The term "process safety management" originated in and is often
associated with: Petrochemical manufacturing and handling
134. A HAZOP study refers to: An analysis that uses specific guide words
(such as "no", "increase", "reverse") systematically applied to parameters
(e.g. temperature, pressure, flow).
135. Which of the following is not a consideration in defining a confined
space? The containment of a significant amount of acoustic pressure(noise)
136. The following is true of laboratory safety programs: A significant reliance
on Administrative Controls
137. The most common practices associated with chemical safety in
laboratories are: Housekeeping, labeling and proper storage
138. In biological safety, "primary containment" refers to: Protection of the
workers and immediate laboratory environment
139. Where there is a risk of violence from the public, the following safety
measures would be the most appropriate: Additional barriers, partitions or
protective devices
140. Unwanted energy flow is: A high-energy component involved in an energy
release
141. ISMEC is the acronym for: Identification of work, Standards established,
Measuring performance, Evaluating performance, Correcting deficiencies
(and commending success).
142. The term ‘protective factor’ in respiratory protection is used to describe: The
overall effectiveness of a respirator and the nature of contaminants
143. Portable conveyors are equipped with skirtboards or sideboards because:
They keep material from falling over the sides
144. What are some of the vocational factors to be assessed in determining if a
job is suitable for an employee returning to work after medical disability?
Degree of job satisfaction, the occurrence of recent changes at work and the
employee's interest and aptitudes.
145. What factors are assessed when trying to determine if an injured
employee’s condition is likely to become chronic? Physical, personal and
vocational factors
146. A strategy that gives structure and organization to the activity of returning
injured workers to the workplace as soon as possible following a work related
accident is a definition of a: Disability Management Program
147. Gerontophobics miss out on the key benefits of hiring older workers. What are
the key advantages of hiring older people compared to younger people? Older
people are described as loyal, experienced and having a strong work ethic
148. Who is credited with the development of the Howard Raiffa decision tree
theory? Howard Raiffa. The fault tree is a process developed from the
decision tree theory (Raiffa, 1968) that reasons backwards from a series of
conditions that results in some undesired event.
149. The primary reason for fault tree analysis is: Deductive method of finding
components of failure
150. A system safety technique that selects an undesired event and deduces failures
to the system is known as: Fault tree analysis
151. Deductive methods of analysis include: Predicted events. Deductive
analysis, including fault trees, postulates failure of the entire system (Ref:
BCRSP Guide, STT Section, page 18)
152. The difference between a positive tree and a fault tree is: A positive tree
states the requirements for success. Positive tree analysis provides the
requirements for success with a list of should do's (Ref: BCRSP Guide, STT
Section, page 18)
153. J. Stacy Adams' Equity Theory: a Process Theory of Motivation, predicts that
people will respond in several ways to perceived inequity. Which of the
following is one of those ways? They try to rationalize the inequity.To
respond to perceived inequities, people will try to rationalize the inequity,
will change their work outputs, will try to change the rewards received, will
compare themselves to others and will leave the situation (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, OES Section, page 56)
154. What type of model is Adam's people-oriented accident sequence? Domino.
Adam's people-oriented accident sequence is a revised version of his first
domino accident model (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, pages 39-40)
155. What is a disadvantage of hiring a professional or external auditor to complete
an OHS management system audit? Will not have a good understanding of the
historical development of the OHS management system. A disadvantage of
hiring a professional or external auditor to complete an OHS management
system audit is the external auditor will not have a good understanding of
the historical development of the OHS management system and may have a
more difficult time understanding how the system functions (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, HSE Auditing, page 4-6)
156. Federal government regulates several waste management activities except
for: Establishing methods of analyzing waste composition in landfills.
Generally, current waste diversion and composition is managed at the
municipal and provincial levels. All the other examples can be found in the
guide. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, EP Section, page 34-36)
157. Please choose the appropriate answer to fill in the blank. In addition to the
major risk factors, ___________are also considered ergonomic risk factors. Size
and shape of material used, working reaches and environmental conditions,
Foreign born workers, culture, gender and previous injuries
158. Good air flow in the workplace such as the wind reduces heat stress by
evaporative or sweat cooling as long as the air is dry enough for evaporation
of produced sweat such as when TWB <<< TDB (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OH
Section, page 57-59)
159. A bar that prevents an operator's hands from entering the work area of a
hydraulic press after the machine has been activated is known as a: Point of
operation safety guard. Safeguarding is any means of preventing a worker
from coming into contact with moving parts that could cause harm (Ref:
160. What is the final step in developing a functioning fire safety program?
Evaluate effectiveness. The five steps in developing a fire safety program are
in order: assess needs and capabilities; analyze facilities; analyze fire
hazards; implement controls; and evaluate effectiveness. (Ref: The Fire
Safety Management Handbook, by Daniel E. Della-Giustina, Chapter 3,
pages 22-23)
161. The three main elements of WHMIS are Labelling (workplace and
supplier), training (generic and site specific) and MSDSs (Ref: Occupational
Health and Safety Law, Study Guide Unit 9 page 17)
162. Which to have overhead protection is not a factor in ensuring that workers can
be raised and lowered safely by a fork mounted platform on a lift truck? Fork
mounted platforms need to have overhead protection. Lift trucks can be
used to lift and lower workers if they are designed by a professional
engineer, the maximum load is established, the guardrails and toe-boards
are in place and the platform is secured to the forks and mast (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, STT Section, page 27)
163. What type of a strategy would be used as a 'last resort' approach according to
the adaptive model? Reactor. The reactor strategy is the 'follow-as-last-resort'
approach. This approach is not long term and primarily responds to
competitive pressures to survive (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 34
164. Which body would be involved in the review of projects where the federal
government was providing financial assistance to build new infrastructure?
Canadian Environmental Assessment Agency. The CEAA is the agency in
charge of administering the environmental assessment process of projects in
the private or public sector; where the federal government is a proponent,
they are providing money, providing land or issuing some sort of federal
regulatory approval. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, EP Section, page 28)
165. If the “Stars” are high market share and high growth rate and the “Cash Cows”
are high market share low growth rate what are the “Dogs”? Low market share
and low growth rate. These terms all come from the portfolio strategy
approaches to strategic planning. The “Dogs” are low market share and low
growth rate. In others words they are in a poor competitive position in a low
growth rate environment. Consideration should be given to retrenchment,
sell, or liquidate this sector to eliminate the resource drain on the company
(Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 33)
166. The term “contaminated site” has many very broad definitions. How is it best
defined? In relation to the anticipated use of the site (residential, recreational
or industrial). Answer 2: The term “contaminated site” is defined in relation
to the anticipated use of the site (residential, recreational or industrial) (Ref:
BCRSP Guide, Environmental Practices, pages 35-36)
167. Discipline is used with employees to ensure that employees think about and
improve their behaviours. Which of the following approaches to discipline is key
in addressing an unsafe behaviour being performed by several individuals in
different levels of an organization? A reprimand should be consistently
applied. A reprimand should be consistently applied to all individuals: a hot
stove burns anyone who touches it, and it does so every time (Ref: BCRSP
168. Which of the following is a final step in using a Job Safety Analysis (JSA) to
provide a solution? Change or re-affirm the work procedures for a certain
job.The final step in job safety analysis is to make a recommendation based
on the hazards identified; this may include changes to job procedures (Ref:
169. What type of strategic plan would be used to gain efficiencies through
reducing operations? Retrenchment strategies involving liquidation.
Liquidation is closing down of operations through sale of assets or
declaration of bankruptcy (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 31)
170. Which of the following is not a method of hazard analysis? Cost
effectiveness. Cost effectiveness is not a method of hazard analysis (Ref:
171. Federal government regulates several waste management activities except for:
Establishing methods of analyzing waste composition in landfills. Generally,
current waste diversion and composition is managed at the municipal and
provincial levels. All the other examples can be found in the guide. (Ref:
BCRSP Guide, EP Section, page 34-36)
172. With respect to communication effectiveness what is the halo effect? One
positive attribute is used to develop an overall opinion. The halo effect
occurs when one positive attribute is used to develop an overall impression
of a person. This leads to an obscuring of the true individual in the
perception of the manager (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 61)
173. The halo effect occurs when one positive attribute is used to develop an
overall impression of a person. This leads to an obscuring of the true individual in
the perception of the manager
174. It is recommended that contractors who specialize in excavations always:
Undergo prequalification to ensure they meet the standards.
Prequalification of a contractor who specializes in excavations is highly
recommended because it represents a high hazard activity (Ref: BCRSP
175. Which is a true statement regarding fault trees? They are the reverse image
of positive trees. Fault trees find the failures of entire systems through
deduction and are the reverse image of positive trees (Ref: BCRSP Guide,
STT Section, page 18)
176. Why are positive trees less commonly used than fault trees? Positive trees
can be seen as a moralizing list of "should". Positive trees are less commonly
used than fault trees because they can easily become a list of "should" and
sound moralizing.
177. The process to make a job safe by stepwise identifying hazards and developing
measures to counteract hazards is called: Job safety analysis. Job safety
analysis breaks down critical tasks into steps (Ref: BCRSP Guide, STT
Section, page 16)
178. Which of the following is not a factor to consider when determining priorities
for using a Job Safety Analysis (JSA)? Advice from government regulators.
Job safety analysis breaks jobs down into steps to look for hazards and make
recommendations (Ref: BCRSP Guide, STT Section, page 16)
179. A family-friendly workplace has been linked to a stronger bottom line. What
can an employer do to make a workplace more family friendly? Provide flexible
work arrangements, job sharing and childcare or elder care. An employer
can make a workplace more family friendly by providing flexible work
arrangements, job sharing and childcare or elder care (Ref: Disability
Management: Theory, Strategy and Industry Practice, D.E.G. Dyck, page
364)
180. Which improvement objectives are essential part of the Management by
Objectives (MBO) process? Improvement, Personal, Maintenance. The
essential performance objectives for MBO are improvement objective
181. The assertion of “deontological theory" is that the nature of the action is
more important than the outcome, hence confidentiality must be maintained
in all circumstances (Ref: Disability Management: Theory, Strategy and
Industry Practice, D.E.G. Dyck, page 415)
182. The two factors identified are satisfier and hygiene factors. Herzberg
suggested these directly affect performance in the work place (Ref: BCRSP
183. A satisfier factor in a job would be responsibility (Ref: BCRSP Guide,
OES Section, page 47)
184. What is characteristic of the “resistance phase” of the stress reaction?
Characterized by the continuation of the stress reaction. The body is
depleted of energy and starts to experience health problems. The “resistance
phase” of the stress reaction is characterized by the continuation of the
stress reaction. The body is depleted of energy and starts to experience
health problems (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Health Promotion, page 13-15)
185. “Systems safety” models: Example - Development of space shuttles and
nuclear power plants, where “first time safe” is critical, as opposed to a
“continuous improvement” philosophy. The Management Oversight Risk
Tree (MORT) is an example of a very complex systems safety approach
186. A “theory” is a set of ideas or principles that work together to explain
something about reality. We create a “model” for a theory when we try to
describe the theory in a useful way. we often have to use metaphors like
“dominos”.
187. Exercise increases the cognitive function (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Health
Promotion, page 15-17)
188. Max Weber was a German intellectual who argued that business
inefficiency existed because people were put into roles because of their
privileged status and not job-related abilities. He developed the concept of
bureaucracy as an ideal, intentionally rational, and very efficient form of
organization based on logic, order, and legitimate authority (Ref: BCRSP
189. Beaurocracy involves clear divisions of labour, a hierarchy, formal rules,
impersonality and careers based on merit. Performance based pay was not
part of his theory (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 17)
190. Who stated the following: "There may be no single thing more important on
our efforts to achieve meaningful work and fulfilling relationships than to learn
and practice the art of communication." Max Dupree. Max Dupree stated this
to emphasize leading through communication (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES
Section, page 58)
191. The phrase meaningful and productive work is often used when
discussing modified duties. Meaningful and productive is decided by the
employer and the worker (Ref: BCRSP Guide, HP Section 4, pages 4 and 8-
9)
192. Output assessments in Training involve tests and exams to determine the
level of one's knowledge (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 86)
193. Hippocrates identified lead poisoning in miners and metallurgists around
350 BCE (before the common era) (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OH Section, page 3)
194. Nip points or bites occur when rotating parts go in opposite directions
(Ref: BCRSP Guide, STT Section, Safeguarding page 22)
195. Where, dB0 and dB1 are the sound levels at Thumb rule of Decibel
a. Concept of Rule of Thumb of Decibel: There are 6 thumb rules as
under:
• Decibel Rule of six: If the distance from a sound source is doubled, the reduction in
sound pressure level is 6 decibels
We can prove it mathematically also

For example, use eqn:(see Math Reference):
dB1 = dB0 +
distances d0 and d1 respectfully.

If the distance is doubled, d0/d1 = 0.5. Then the above eqn becomes:
dB1 – dB0 = 20 log 0.5
dB1 – dB0 = - 6.
Example: If sound level is 100 decibels at 20 feet from a sound source, what will be
decibels at 10 feet from the same sound source?
Ans: 94 dB(A).
So Decibel Rule of six gives exact value without calculation. Others give
approximate value without calculation for practical purpose. Will be discussed during
training.
• Decibel Rule of five (Now Decibel Rule of 3):
• Earlier:
• If the exposure time from a sound source is halved, the equivalent sound
pressure level, which can be allowed, can be increased by 5 decibels. This is
applied if we want to take administrative control to change the exposure time.
For example, Suppose 90 dB(A) is permitted for 8 hrs working, but in our
plant it is 115 dBA, we have to decide the allowable exposure time so that
dose remains equivalent to permitted value. Its answer will be 15 minutes (1/4
hrs). Actually all of us know the following table, which comes from the
Decibel Rule of five:
Noise Level Time
90 dBA 8 hrs
95 dBA 4 hrs
100 dBA 2 hrs
105 dBA 1 hr
110 dBA 1/2 hrs i.e., 30 minutes
115 dBA 1/4 hrs i.e., 15 minutes
………….So On………………..
Now: If the exposure time of a sound source is half, the permitted sound
pressure level is 3 dBA more:
Presently
87 dB –8 hrs
90 dB -4 hrs
93 dB -2 hrs
96 dB -1 hrs
99 dB - ½ hrs
102 dB - ¼ hrs
NB: See detailed table for CRSP math

• Decibel Rule of 3:
• When two decibel levels are equal or within 1 dB of each other, their sum is 3
dB higher than the higher individual level. For example, 80 dBA + 80 dBA =
83 dBA; 100 dB + 101 dB = 104 dB.
• When two decibel levels are 2 or 3 dB apart, their sum is 2 dB higher than the
higher individual level. For example, 87 dBA + 85 dBA = 89 dBA; 75 dBA +
77 dBA = 79 dBA.
• When two decibel levels are 4 to 9 dB apart, their sum is 1 dB higher than the
higher individual level. For example, 80 dBA + 86 dBA = 87 dBA; 32 dB +
36 dB = 37 dB.
• Decibel Rule of Zero:
• When two decibel levels are 10 or more dB apart, their sum is the same as the
higher individual level. For example, 80 dB + 95 dB = 95 dB.
• Rule for combining noise levels when several sound level sources are present:
• In situations where several sound levels have to be added to obtain the combined
effect, the following procedure can be used:
• First step: Add the two lowest decibel levels.
• First step: Add the result of step 1 to the next higher level.
• Continue until all decibel levels have been added.
• Example: Five machines are operating in a machine shop, each generating a sound:
Machine 1: 79 dBA; Machine 2: 85 dBA; Machine 3: 87 dBA; Machine 4: 95 dBA;
Machine 5: 93 dBA
• Answer: Combined effect from all five machines operating simultaneously is

equivalent to a sound level of 98 dBA
NB: A high frequency noise is more harmful to human ear than a low frequency
noise having the same amount of sound energy.
196. There are three Classes of biological safety cabinets: Class I, Class II and
Class III. Class II has four sub-categories A, B1, B2 and B3 for a total of 6
Categories (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OH Section, page 62)
197. Both fumes and gases are the most toxic bi-product of the welding process
198. The five steps in developing a fire safety program are in order: assess needs
and capabilities; analyze facilities; analyze fire hazards; implement controls;
and evaluate effectiveness. (Ref: The Fire Safety Management Handbook, by
Daniel E. Della-Giustina, Chapter 3, pages 22-23)
199. The outcome of a continuous inspection is to: Provide immediate corrective
action and controls. Inspections are used to identify and locate potentially
hazardous conditions and provide action items and controls (Ref: BCRSP
200. How do you best measure the extent to which learning transfer has occurred?
Happiness Index, Goals Achievement and Learning Transfer. All of these
are effective measures of the extent to which learning transfer has occurred
(Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 86)
201. Comparative management would provide all (Increasingly homogeneous
networks in terms of customer needs, Shared knowledge between companies,
Information about how other managers and companies become successful)
but NOT provide Definitive answers to foster cultural change to adapt to
other practices. Comparative management is meant to be used cautiously
and only as a learning tool. It does not provide definitive answers but
develops ideas around competing effectively in the global marketplace (Ref:
BCRSP Guide, OES Section, pages 14-15)
202. Guardrails, mid-rails and toe boards shall be installed on all open sides and
ends of platforms more than 10ft (3m) above the working surface (floor).
203. Selection and proper use of PPE ensures proper fit and comfort so
workers will wear it (Ref: BCRSP Guide, STT Section, page 23)
204. Water would best to extinguish a "deep seated" fire because it will act to
displace oxygen and has a very strong cooling effect. (Ref: BCRSP Guide,
FPP Section, page 8)
205. If regular attendance at work is not celebrated or even recorded employee
absenteeism may become a problem. If employees perceive that attendance
is of little concern which of the following is a likely outcome? Cultural
absenteeism. If employees perceive that attendance is of little concern
cultural absenteeism is a likely outcome (Ref: Disability Management:
Theory, Strategy and Industry Practice, D.E.G. Dyck, page 264)
206. The three categories of essential management skills are: Technical,
human and conceptual. Managers must exude technical, human and
conceptual skills to translate knowledge into action (Ref: BCRSP Guide,
207. As a supervisor you should discipline a minor deviation from procedure by:
Oral reprimand. An oral reprimand reinforces positive behaviours to inspire
change (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 69)
208. A positive philosophy behind inspections emphasizes: Fact finding.
Inspections are used to identify and locate potentially hazardous conditions
209. A building which is wholly or partly composed of wood or another approved
combustible material is known as what type of building construction? Type V
210. Occupant load is: Building gross area x number of occupants
211. A machine that is designed to be easy to inspect and maintain is a type of
safeguard. True
212. If a worker has to work in an oxygen deficient atmosphere the worker must
wear: Self contained breathing apparatus with full face piece
213. Which communication barrier may result from the practice of communicating
hazards to employees by posting notices? Unable to validate if employees read
and understood
214. According to Fitt’s Law on human movement, which statement below is
correct: The time it takes to move from a starting point to a final target area
is a function of the distance to the target and the size of the target.
215. To control noise using the concept of hierarchy of controls, what would you
recommend as the first solution? Uncouple equipment parts creating vibration
216. You work as a safety advisor in an administrative building with many other
co-workers. Lately there has been an increase in the number of headaches and
you happen to know that the facilities department is having the ventilation system
cleaned. What would you do? Tell the employer and co-workers that there
may a problem and investigate with facilities as soon as possible
217. Which detector would best be able to detect the difference between fire and
non-fire radiation? Infrared flame detectors
218. Performance evaluations are an example of a(n) ____________ document.
Operational
219. Which word best reflects the duty of a health and safety committee?
Internal auditor
220. An organization that implements a program to encourage employees to
report near misses (hits) and dedicates resources to investigate those
incidents and generate lessons learned, is strengthening which component of
the OHS&E management system? Incident reporting and investigation
221. Two specific hazards for heat and ignition in the workplace that are most
important are: Welding and smoking
222. For office workers, what is the recommended amount of illumination to
have on their computer workstation? 250-500 lux
223. Which evaluation strategy would be least likely to tell you whether
appropriate skills/knowledge has been transferred to the shop floor?
Comfort of the venue
224. Congested halls, transportation of hazardous substances, and reduced
aisle dimensions can be identified using material flow analysis. True
225. Which type of strategic plan would ask the question what sort of safety
values do we want to embrace in our organization? Institutional strategy
226. Corporate strategy ?
227. Functional strategy ?
228. Growth strategy ?
229. Which list best characterizes why design engineers may not do a good
plant safety assessment? They believe too optimistically in their own designs,
lack knowledge of hazards, and are under pressure to finish the project.
230. The purpose of using a “tag” when performing a lockout work activity is
to:Identify the person applying the lock
231. The hazard created from the swing movement of a load, crane cab or
counterweight is known as a: Swing hazard
232. Which organization has the role of testing products and systems using a
formal evaluation process to ensure it complies with all applicable
standards? Canadian Standards Association (CSA)
233. A safety belt is a critical component worn by a worker when using a
personal fall protection system for fall arrest. False
234. Which standard is the first consensus-based OHS management standard?
CSA Z-1000
235. CSA Z731 is aimed at providing guidance on emergency preparedness
and response. True
236. A worker who is designated as a signaller should walk where compared to
the load: Ahead of the moving load
237. Budgeting, as a control function, exercises control over what? Resource
utilization to achieve performance objectives
238. Which below is the correct definition of fume: Very fine solid aerosol
particle ?
239. Using the hierarchy of controls principle, which ordered list would be
used to solve a low work height problem? Provide a chair, train employees
how to bend properly, provide back belts
240. A person performing a job safety analysis would follow which steps?
Select subject jobs, break the job into sequenced steps, identify hazards, and
make recommendations.
241. Which one from the list below would not likely be related to labour
relations? Management style
242. Prior to allowing a worker to perform work in a confined spine, a series
of things are done to ensure the worker’s safety. The document that
includes, among other things, indication of inspection of on-site rescue
equipment and results obtained in atmospheric testing of that confined space
is called a: Entry permit
243. Feeling uneasy when working in close proximity to your co-workers
would be a consideration for employee well-being which stems from which
factor? Culture
244. Which would not be a likely benefit of adopting an ISO 9000 quality
standard? Reduced employee turnover rate
245. What is the most important factor to consider to prevent steel metal
racking from over turning? Height-depth ratio of the rack
246. If one of your worker’s health has been harmed from using an approved
chemical that has long been used in your organization, what options does the
worker have? The worker can elect to either apply for workers
compensation benefits, or sue the manufacturer of the chemical
247. safety representative, what should the worker safety representative‘s next
step be? Fix it, if possible, then report it to the worker’s supervisor and
communicate to the worker, the duty to correct hazards if possible, not just
report hazards
248. Written text, such as used in training materials, is best comprehended
when: Upper and lower case is used, the literacy level is matched to the
worker, and pictograms supplement words for ESL workers.
249. The ISO 14000 environment management system model is based on the
Plan-Do-Check-Act approach. With this approach there are 18 elements
organized around five basic components. The first component is setting an
environmental policy. What is the second component? Plan and set
environmental objectives and targets relating to the policy
250. A _________________ is the foundation upon which a program of
planned inspections should be based. Hazard control inventory
251. If an OHS Manager refuses to lie about a lost time claim in the annual
safety statistics report, even though the lost time claim ruins a great safety
record, the OHS Manager has adopted what sort of ethical view?
Kantianism
252. Which list below reflects the correct order for the organizational training
process cycle? Set learning goals, document needs analysis, determine how to
verify that learning goals are achieved, deliver instruction
253. The formula for effective training is to do what? Determine clear learning
goals and target groups
254. Employees who view the training they have just received as a waste of
their time and energy are likely to have received training that is:About
skills/knowledge they have already mastered
255. Employees who experience negative stress in the workplace are likely
experiencing: High job demands but perceived little control over those
demands
256. Re-arranging work schedules so that two workers are working in the
same vicinity is considered to be the same as working alone. False
257. A worker has been working on a production line for 3 years. Six months
ago the worker developed carpel tunnel syndrome and received medical
treatment. Two weeks after returning to work, the same worker began to
develop symptoms again and feels it is because of the hazardous nature of
the work activity. What is the best option for this worker? Report the
symptoms/hazard to the Supervisor
258. Which statement below best reflects what a leader would do, as opposed
to what a manager would do. Create vision and meaning for the
organization
259. Continuity planning would not include which activity: Develop and
emergency management plan
260. As a safety inspector, if you become knowledgeable about a company’s
safety history of non-compliance and are at a safety conference, not
disclosing the company’s information or name best reflects which
professional responsibility? Protect the confidentiality of all professionally
acquired information
261. How would you determine if your workplace has work factors related to
an increased risk of violence? Talk to workers, identify at-risk occupations,
conduct a visual inspection, review previous incidents
262. Which two conflict resolution strategies require the higher degree of
assertiveness in order to carry it out? Collaboration and Authoritative
command
263. What is an important safety consideration when using a radial arm saw?
That the saw blade cannot travel past the forward edge of the cutting table
264. Using Fault Tree Analysis, various parallel and sequential combinations
of system component faults are identified that can result in a single system
fault. True
265. A medium size company that continually engages in environmentally
hazardous activities has: Failed to consider the potential benefits of an active
environmental management system
266. One purpose of an environmental audit is to: Review environmental risks
associated with the site and site operation.
267. The term ‘protective factor’ in respiratory protection is used to describe:
The overall effectiveness of a respirator and the nature of contaminants.
268. Portable conveyors are equipped with skirtboards or sideboards because:
They keep material from falling over the side
269. The key advantages of hiring older peoplecompared to younger people is
that older people are described as loyal, experienced and having a strong work
ethic
270. Lateral job movements, long term employment, and a broad concern for
employee involvement were all part of Theory Z a modern management
approach using Japanese management practices
271. According to Douglas McGregor’s Theory X a manager believes workers
dislike work, lack ambition, are irresponsible, are resistant to change, and prefer
to be led. A punch clock system is the only effective way to monitor and
measure their attendance at work
272. The theory that would best reflect a supervisory behaviour that creates
initiative and high productivity levels is McGregor's Theory Y
273. The fault tree is a process developed from the decision tree theory Howard
Raiffa
274. Fault trees find the failures of entire systems through deduction
275. Deductive analysis, including fault trees, postulates failure of the entire system
So Deductive methods of analysis include: Predicted events
276. Positive tree analysis provides the requirements for success with a list of
should do's
277. Job Task Analysis/ also known as a Job Safety Analysis: Each task to be
analysed will be broken down into its component parts. What effort, movement,
force etc. is the operator required to perform
278. Straddle trucksare built to carry long materials
279. A disadvantage of hiring a professional or external auditor to complete an
OHS management system audit is the external auditor will not have a good
understanding of the historical development of the OHS management system and
may have a more difficult time understanding how the system functions
280. Federal government Canada regulates several waste management activities
like Disposing of radioactive wastes; Exporting and importing waste across the
international border; Storing PCB wastes but except for Establishing methods of
analyzing waste composition in landfills: but Generally, current waste diversion
and composition is managed at the municipal and provincial levels.
281. In addition to the major risk factors, Size and shape of material used, working
reaches and environmental conditions, Foreign born workers, culture, gender
and previous injuries are also considered ergonomic risk factors with the
exception of sexual orientation. There have been no studies linking sexual
orientation as an ergonomic risk factor
282. Good air flow in the workplace such as the wind reduces heat stress by
evaporative or sweat cooling as long as the air is dry enough for evaporation
of produced sweat such as when TWB <<< TDB
283. Safety belts with lanyards are not acceptable fall arrest systemsas serious
injuries or death can occur if a worker falls but Fall arrest system using a harness
on a scaffold; or Safety belts in conjunction with a harness to position and
prevent the worker from falling or A full body harness with lanyard and shock
absorber to arrest a fall
284. Organizing involves arranging tasks, people and other resources required to
do the work but not Inspiring people, Monitoring performance or Setting
performance objectives
285. The four ethical views adopted in past are The Utilitarian View, The
Individualism View, The Moral-Rights View and The Justice View but not The
Managerial View
286. Safeguarding is any means of preventing a workerfrom coming into
contact with moving parts that could cause harm. A bar that prevents an
operator's hands from entering the work area of a hydraulic press after the
machine has been activated is known as a Point of operation safety guard NOT
Machine guard or Hand guard or Enclosure
287. Max Dupree stated the following: "There may be no single thing more
important on our efforts to achieve meaningful work and fulfilling relationships
than to learn and practice the art of communication” to emphasize leading
through communication.
288. The foundation of a health and safety management system is considered to be
executive management commitment to the health and safety of workers
289. The three main elements of WHMIS(Workplace Hazardous Materials
Information System ) are Labeling (workplace and supplier), training (generic
and site specific) and MSDSs
290. Waste composition analysis or waste audit is part of the activities group of
audits
291. Lift trucks can be used to lift and lower workers if they are designed by a
professional engineer, the maximum load is established, the guardrails and toe-
boards are in place and the platform is secured to the forks and mast. To have
overhead protectionis not a factor.
292. One of the following is not something an employer must have in place to
demonstrate due diligence through an audit is An environmental management
system. Audits are necessary for evaluating the OHS management system
elements, not for ensuring environmental due diligence (careful and
persistent work or effort ) other than what is included in the program
293. Type of a strategy would be used as a 'last resort' approach according to the
adaptive model is Reactor. The reactor strategy is the 'follow-as-last-resort'
approach. This approach is not long term and primarily responds to competitive
pressures to survive
294. The body that would be involved in the review of projects where the federal
government was providing financial assistance to build new infrastructure is
Canadian Environmental Assessment Agency. The CEAA is the agency in
charge of administering the environmental assessment process of projects in the
private or public sector; where the federal government is a proponent, they are
providing money, providing land or issuing some sort of federal regulatory
approval
295. The term “contaminated site” has many very broad definitions. It is best
defined In relation to the anticipated use of the site (residential, recreational
or industrial). The term “contaminated site” is defined in relation to the
anticipated use of the site (residential, recreational or industrial)
296. Discipline is used with employees to ensure that employees think about and
improve their behaviours. Which of the following approaches to discipline is key
in addressing an unsafe behaviour being performed by several individuals in
different levels of an organization: A reprimand should be consistently applied a
formal expression of disapproval. A reprimand should be consistently applied. A
reprimand should be consistently applied to all individuals: a hot stove
burns anyone who touches it, and it does so every time
297. Final step in using a Job Safety Analysis (JSA) to provide a solution is
Change or re-affirm the work procedures for a certain job. The final step in job
safety analysis is to make a recommendation based on the hazards identified; this
may include changes to job procedures
298. Type of strategic plan would be used to gain efficiencies through reducing
operations. Retrenchment strategies involving liquidation. Liquidation is
closing down of operations through sale of assets or declaration of bankruptcy.
299. Cost effectiveness is not a method of hazard analysis, (Inductive Deductive
Reductive)
300. Prequalification of a contractor who specializes in excavations is highly
recommended because it represents a high hazard activity
301. Fault trees find the failures of entire systems through deduction and are the
reverse image of positive trees
302. Positive trees are less commonly used than fault trees because they can easily
become a list of "should" and sound moralizing
303. Job safety analysis breaks jobs down into steps to look for hazards and make
recommendations
304. An employer can make a workplace more family friendly by providing
flexible work arrangements, job sharing and childcare or elder care
305. Planned change is most likely to stem from: Someone’s perception of a
performance gap
306. Which below is the correct definition of fume: Very fine solid aerosol
particle
307. Which is not a method of controlling potential energy? Safeguarding
308. Training delivered using primarily verbal communication, may lead to:
Confusion and inconsistencies
309. Which detector would best be able to detect the difference between fire
and non-fire radiation? Infrared flame detectors
310. Which definition below best describes the role of facilitator in
organizational activities such as safety? Active unbiased member of
employee learning process
311. Hearing is the single most important source of incoming information.
False
312. Fault tree analysis (FTA) is a top-down, deductive analytical method after
an accident or in a preventative method. From the list below, select the item
that is part of the FTA method. Component failures, human errors, and
external events are traced through Boolean logic gates to an undesired event
such as an accident.
313. The air volume flow rate through a duct is a function of which two
factors: Velocity and cross section area through which the air flows
314. Which is not a significant hazard in the chemical process industry?
Cutting, shearing and stabbing hazards
315. Which below would not be an example of non-ionizing radiation: X-rays
316. What would not be a key feature of ISO 9000? Focused on occupational
health and safety
317. Which below would not be a typical power of a health and safety officer?
Direct the employer to add more workers to a process so that workers do not
have to work as hard
318. A building which is wholly or partly composed of wood or another approved
combustible material is known as what type of building construction? Type V
319. If 80 people were interviewed in an audit and 60 workers interviewed
indicated they had received health and safety orientation in their first week of
work, the percent of positive responses for orientation is: 75%
320. Written text, such as used in training materials, is best comprehended when:
Upper and lower case is used, the literacy level is matched to the worker,
and pictograms supplement words for ESL workers.
321. Operational documents are most likely to be contained in the company safety
manual. false
322. The circadian rhythm is best defined as: A 24-hour cycle of physical, mental
and behavioural changes
323. According to the hierarchy of risk controls, which would be the first choice in
a series of recommendations to control levels of airborne chemicals: Isolation of
the process
324. Which statement below best reflects the concept of ‘total quality
management’? Quality comes from defect prevention
325. A work platform on a scaffold must be at least _____ wide. 50 cm / 20 in.
326. A worker has been working on a production line for 3 years. Six months ago
the worker developed cubital tunnel syndrome and received medical treatment.
Two weeks after returning to work, the same worker began to develop symptoms
again and feels it is because of the hazardous nature of the work activity. What is
the best option for this worker? Report the symptoms/hazard to the
Supervisor
327. INCIDENTS & INVESTIGATION:

328. Why are incidents investigated? To prescribe action items to prevent
similar incidents. Incident investigations find cause which can be used to
prescribe corrective actions (Ref: BCRSP Guide, STT Section, page 15)
329. The extent of an Incident Investigation is determined by:The potential for
injury or property damage.
330. An incident is defined as an unwanted and unplanned event that may result in
equipment damage and/or injury or illness to the victim. An accident is defined as
an occurrence in a sequence of events that produces unintended injury, death or
property damage. The reason for the differentiation is to increase awareness that
accidents are not random events but rather preventable events. All accidents
should be investigated regardless of the severity of the injury or property damage
331. In 1930 Heinrich proposed Law of Ratio among major injuries, minor
injuries and unsafe acts:For every 300 unsafe acts, there are 29 minor injuries
and one major injury
This statement does first show the connection between behaviour and injury
332. Heinrich’s theory of accident causation is Ancestry / Social environment,

Fault, Unsafe act / Unsafe condition, Accident and Injury
Heinrich Theory of accident points to unsafe act / fault of employee as cause

but modern concept points to management failure as root cause
333. The primary reason for an incident investigation is to: Identify the causes and
prevent recurrence
334. Accident theories show the factors leading to accidents, and their relations
between each other. It is complementary to the Risk
335. accident theories influence the use of various safety management
techniques, such as inspections and investigations
336. Accident theory provides theoretical basis for the Internal Responsibility
System (IRS): everyone in the organization can contribute to accident causation.
337. Ergonomic models – poor workplace design as a major factor in inducing
human error.
338. outcome of the accident is fire or explosion or the release of hazardous
material into the environment
339. Most accident theories are far more explicit about “safety” than they are about
“health”
340. psychological model account for stress
341. There are strengths and weaknesses of each model
342. An accident theory explains how accidents are caused
343. It can show causes that are many steps removed from an accident or factors
outside of the workplace
344. If you believe that accidents are caused by “stupid and careless workers”, then
you will focus your efforts in accident prevention on "policing workers" -- close
supervision, discipline and training will be your chief activities. If you believe
that the ultimate causes of accidents are the inappropriate policies, operations and
structures within management, then you will address organizational problems
such as responsibility, authority and accountability.
345. There is No "one best" theory or model: select a theory that is appropriate in
the circumstances.
346. Accident theories are useful far more than accident investigations.
347. many types of accident theories overlap
348. “Management models”, called “domino models” of Heinrich, Bird and
Adams
349. Heinrich’s model is a old one and emphasizes worker behaviour rather than
the management system, but it is important as it was the point of departure for
more modern approaches which find the root causes of accidents in problems
with the management system.
350. The Adams model look at the individual people in the management system
(and not simply at defective policies and programs in the system), and so it can
be related to the Internal Responsibility System (IRS) – the philosophy
underlying OHS legislation in Canada.
351. “Psychological models” focus on psychological factors – stress, alertness,
motivation
352. Subset of psychological models: “psychosocial models”, which emphasize the
effect of social factors in the workplace on an individual’s motivation and
attitude. To the extent that management has an influence on the workplace
“culture”, there is overlap with management models
353. “Decision models” overlap with ergonomic models, and can be viewed as a
subset of psychological models. They focus on an operator’s memory, perception
and problem-solving abilities. They are most useful when applied to the operation
of complex control systems – a control room scenario where the operator must
monitor numerous displays and initiate many control activities
354. Energy models find the sources of accidents in unwanted flows of energy, or
interruptions in needed flows of energy. They usually involve “barrier concept” –
an obstruction in the path of energy flow.
355. “Systems safety” models: Example - Development of space shuttles and
nuclear power plants, where “first time safe” is critical, as opposed to a
“continuous improvement” philosophy. The Management Oversight Risk Tree
(MORT) is an example of a very complex systems safety approach
356. A “theory” is a set of ideas or principles that work together to explain
something about reality. We create a “model” for a theory when we try to
describe the theory in a useful way. we often have to use metaphors like
“dominos”.
357. Older models, such as Heinrich’s, tended to focus on the worker and tended
to be single cause or involve a simple linear chain of causation. More modern
models tend to illustrate problems in the system that lead to unsafe behaviour –
situational and organizational problems. This is often been considered to be an
improvement in the sense that we move away from “fault” of the worker, or
supervisor, and look to factors that cause people to make errors. But as a word of
caution, we can get so caught up in “systems” that we ignore people factors.
While we do not want to foster models that result in “blame” and “fault”, we do
want to be explicit about personal responsibility and individual creativity and
motivation. We also want to account for stress factors that occur outside the
workplace and which are not within the direct control of the management system.
358. if a near miss occurs, the supervisor should determine whether or not there
was a possibility of a major injury occurring. If there was such a possibility
then that is a near miss which should be further investigated.
359. If it was a near miss involving a high energy source, then we ought to expend
resources doing further investigation of this near miss, because it could have
resulted in very severe injury.
360. Heinrich proposed that if we can eliminate the unsafe practices and unsafe
conditions that lead to near misses, then we will inevitably reduce the
probability of minor injuries and major injuries occurring
361. The lessons to be learned from both the Heinrich and Bird pyramid models is
that the concern should be with accidents and incidents and not primarily with
injuries
362. What is considered to cause the holes in the "swiss cheese" in James Reason's
Swiss Cheese accident theory? active failures, sharp end human failures & latent
conditions
363. The Tripod-Delta model is most similar to Swiss Cheese of James
Reason's(Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, pages 83-84).
364. The Incident investigation process often includes middle and senior level
management staff. The best reason for this is The corrective actions to prevent
recurrence of the incident could have an effect on the whole organization
365. The Five Whys method of Incident Investigation involves Finding the root
causes by repeatedly asking the question why
366. Who proposed the so-called "Swiss Cheese" model? James Reason's
Swiss Cheese model shows the relationship between hazards, defenses and
losses. The defenses available are like pieces of Swiss cheese. The holes in the
Swiss cheese move and change size and if they all come to align the hazard
can penetrate through the defenses causing a loss (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT
Section, pages 80-81).
367. The Tripod-Delta model suggests that the focus of accident control should
be on measuring processes that disrupt safe operations or "general failure
types" (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, page 83).The Tripod-Delta model
was developed for Shell International
368. Either one of the two components in the Firenze model may fail or be
faulty resulting in an accident. One of these components is the worker. What
is the other? The machine. In the Firenze model one of the two components
in the man-machine system may fail independently of the human decision
making process. The machine may fail due to poor design or maintenance
and may cause an accident regardless of the state the worker is in (Ref:
BCRSP Guide, AT Section, pages 72-74).
369. Which of the following accident causation theories would be considered
an ergonomic model? Firenze. The Firenze accident causation theories
considered as ergonomic model highlights the relationship between the
individual worker and his or her surroundings. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT
Section, page 72)
370. What type of model is the Firenze model? A combination of an ergonomic
and systems model. In the Firenze model the "man-machine system" is
evident. This is made up of the worker, the machine and the general
environment. This ergonomic and system model model is the Firenze is A
combination of an ergonomic and systems model highlights the relationship
between the worker and his or her surroundings (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT
Section, pages 72-74).
371. Heinrich’s model is a old one and emphasizes worker behaviour rather
than the management system, but it is important as it was the point of
departure for more modern approaches which find the root causes of
accidents in problems with the management system. The Adams model look
at the individual people in the management system (and not simply at
defective policies and programs in the system), and so it can be related to the
Internal Responsibility System (IRS) – the philosophy underlying OHS
legislation in Canada.
motivation
373. subset of psychological models: “psychosocial models”, which emphasize
the effect of social factors in the workplace on an individual’s motivation
and attitude. To the extent that management has an influence on the
workplace “culture”, there is overlap with management models
374. Which statement below best sums up the (internal responsibility system)
IRS model: Everyone in the organization can cause or prevent an accident in
the workplace
375. Which of the following accident causation theories would be considered to
be a management model? Zabetakis. Zabetakis is classified as a management
model and it is also an important example of an energy model (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, AT Section, page 71)
376. What type of model is the Zabetakis model? A combination of a
management and energy model. The Zabetakis model is a management
model of the accident process but it is also an important example of an
energy model (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, page 71).
377. The Zabetakis model is which of the following? A cyclical domino model.
The Zabetakis model is cyclic domino model. Things flow back (or feedback)
to the beginning of the intermediate dominos (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT
Section, page 71)
378. What is the central element of the Zabetakis model? The unplanned
release of energy. The central element of the Zabetakis model is the
unplanned release of energy; this is what leads to the accident and personal
injury and property damage. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, page 71)
379. Heinrich's original domino theory is a simple linear sequence of causes

model first proposed in the 1930's (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, pages
28-30)
380. if a near miss occurs, the supervisor should determine whether or not
there was a possibility of a major injury occurring. If there was such a
possibility then that is a near miss which should be further investigated.
381. If it was a near miss involving a high energy source, then we ought to
expend resources doing further investigation of this near miss, because it
could have resulted in very severe injury.
382. Heinrich proposed that if we can eliminate the unsafe practices and
unsafe conditions that lead to near misses, then we will inevitably reduce the
probability of minor injuries and major injuries occurring
383. The lessons to be learned from both the Heinrich and Bird pyramid
models is that the concern should be with accidents and incidents and not
primarily with injuries
384. What type of model is the accident proneness theory? Psychological. The
accident proneness theories are some of the earliest psychological theories of
accident causation (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, page 46)
385. What is the root cause of accidents according to Russell Ferrell's theory?
Human Error. Russell Ferrell's theory locates the cause of accidents in
human error. It is a multi-causation model in the sense that numerous errors
on the part of people lead to the same accident. Human error is due to
overload by: load applied, capacity to take load, and state of motivation or
arousal (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, page 55).
386. The Ball Energy Model is particularly helpful in completing hazard
assessments. The model requires that critical energy sources be identified.
The impact of such a critical energy loss or release can be assessed and an
appropriate control can be put in place (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section,
page 63).
387. Unwanted energy flow is: A high-energy component involved in an energy
release
388. Accident theories show the factors leading to accidents, and their
relations between each other. It is complementary to the Risk
389. accident theories influence the use of various safety management
techniques, such as inspections and investigations
390. accident theory provides theoretical basis for the Internal Responsibility
System (IRS)
391. Everyone in the organization can contribute to accident causation.
392. Ergonomic models – poor workplace design as a major factor in inducing
human error.
393. outcome of the accident is fire or explosion or the release of hazardous
material into the environment
394. Most accident theories are far more explicit about “safety” than they are
about “health”
395. psychological model account for stress
396. An accident theory explains how accidents are caused
397. It can show causes that are many steps removed from an accident or
factors outside of the workplace
398. If you believe that accidents are caused by “stupid and careless workers”,
then you will focus your efforts in accident prevention on "policing
workers" -- close supervision, discipline and training will be your chief
activities. If you believe that the ultimate causes of accidents are the
inappropriate policies, operations and structures within management, then
you will address organizational problems such as responsibility, authority
and accountability.
399. No "one best" theory or model: select a theory that is appropriate in the
circumstances.
400. Accident theories are useful far more than accident investigations.
401. many types of accident theories overlap
402. “Decision models” overlap with ergonomic models, and can be viewed as
a subset of psychological models. They focus on an operator’s memory,
perception and problem-solving abilities. They are most useful when applied
to the operation of complex control systems – a control room scenario where
the operator must monitor numerous displays and initiate many control
activities
403. Energy models find the sources of accidents in unwanted flows of energy,
or interruptions in needed flows of energy. They usually involve “barrier
concept” – an obstruction in the path of energy flow.
404. The Energy Barrier Trace model suggests that the harmful energy can be
controlled at three distinct points along the accident pathway. What are the
three points? ) at source, along pathway and at target.The Energy Barrier
Trace model suggests that the harmful energy can be controlled at three
distinct points along the accident pathway. They can be controlled at the
source, along the pathway and at the target (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section,
page 79).
405. The ABC in the ABC Model stands for Activator-Behaviour-
Consequences (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, page 58).
406. In the Surry model there are two main periods or cycles: danger build up
and danger release. In both of these cycles there are three stages: perception,
cognitive processes and psychological response. The behaviour of the worker
in the two cycles is considered separately (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section,
pages 75-76).
407. The CSA model is referred to as an "accident information model". The
CSA model assumes the causation process is complex, mutli-faceted and
systems oriented. It accounts for both injury and disease and is described in
a reactive fashion; it is used after the event in the course of an investigation
(Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, pages 77-78).
408. Weaver's Domino Model suggests that the "unsafe act and/or condition,
the accident and the injury" are symptoms of operational error. (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, AT Section, page 67).
409. Weaver's Up-dated Accident Sequence is a domino Model helps to find
the operator error. The three questions that Weaver asks are: What caused
the accident? Why was the operational error permitted? Whether
management had preventable knowledge? (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section,
page 67)
410. The major point of the Douglas Stair Step Model is that there is no single
acceptable standard for performing work safely. The acceptable standard is
a range in which tasks and conditions can be blended together. (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, AT Section, page 66).
411. The Surry model is a decision model where the focus is on sequences of
events that have to succeed or fail in order for an accident to be avoided or
for an accident to happen (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, page 75).
412. Which activity is not fundamental for successful incident prevention?
Complying with regulatory requirements
413. Accidents, then, happen because a chain reaction occurs with each domino
knocking down the domino to the right.
414. Accident Proneness Theories
415. To some degree it might be said that Heinrich's original domino model was a
behaviour model or a psychological theory.
416. Psychological models obviously focus on psychological factors such as stress
or conscious decisions to take risks. Some of the earliest psychological theories
of accident causation are the Accident Proneness theories, which held that there
are certain personality traits that are conducive to accident causation.
417. The Adjustment Stress Theory
418. The Adjustment Stress Theory is the basis of some of the other human factors
models. This theory assumes that accidents will occur where stress on a worker
exceeds the capacity of the worker to handle stress, Figure 31.
419. There are two general categories of stress: external stress and internal stress.
External stress is obviously stress on the worker by environmental factors, which
may be social or physical in nature. A worker who is in an environment which is
hot, noisy and crowded will experience external stress. Internal stress has to do
with some of the factors that we considered in the life change unit theory. A
worker may come to work carrying all sorts of problems in his or her mind that
put the worker in a state of stress.
420. Some of the external stressors that have been identified as significant are:
a. temperature
b. illumination
c. comfort
d. congestion
e. manual effort
f. weight of material handled
g. frequency of parts handled
h. alcohol consumption
i. 1. Ancestry and Social Environment Recklessness, stubbornness,

avariciousness, and other undesirable traits of character may be passed
along through inheritance. Environment may develop undesirable traitsof
character or may interfere with education. Both inheritance and
environment cause faults of the person.
j. 2. Fault of Person Inherited or acquired faults of person, such as
recklessness, violent temper, nervousness, excitability, inconsiderateness,
ignorance of safe practice, etc., constitute proximate reasons for
committing unsafe acts or for the existence of mechanical or physical
hazards.
k. 3. Unsafe Act and/or Mechanical or Physical Hazard Unsafe
performance of persons, such as standingunder suspended loads, starting
machinery without warning, horseplay, and removal or safeguards;
andmechanical or physical hazards, such as unguarded gears, unguarded
point of operation, absence of railguards, and insufficient light, result
directly in accidents.
l. 4. Accident Events such as falls of persons, striking of persons by flying
objects, etc. are typical accidentsthat cause injury.
m. 5. Injury Fractures, lacerations, etc. are injuries that result directly from
accidents.
421. Older models, such as Heinrich’s, tended to focus on the worker and
tended to be single cause or involve a simple linear chain of causation. More
modern models tend to illustrate problems in the system that lead to unsafe
behaviour – situational and organizational problems. This is often been
considered to be an improvement in the sense that we move away from “fault” of
the worker, or supervisor, and look to factors that cause people to make errors.
Heinrich’s model is a old one and emphasizes worker behaviour rather than the
management system, but it is important as it was the point of departure for more
modern approaches which find the root causes of accidents in problems with the
management system. The Adams model look at the individual people in the
management system (and not simply at defective policies and programs in the
system), and so it can be related to the Internal Responsibility System (IRS) –
the philosophy underlying OHS legislation in Canada.
422. Heinrich's original domino theory is a simple linear sequence of causes
model first proposed in the 1930's
423. If a near miss occurs, the supervisor should determine whether or not there
was a possibility of a major injury occurring. If there was such a possibility
then that is a near miss which should be further investigated?
424. If it was a near miss involving a high energy source, then we ought to expend
resources doing further investigation of this near miss, because it could have
resulted in very severe injury.
425. Heinrich proposed that if we can eliminate the unsafe practices and unsafe
conditions that lead to near misses, then we will inevitably reduce the probability
of minor injuries and major injuries occurring
426. The lessons to be learned from both the Heinrich and Bird pyramid
models is that the concern should be with accidents and incidents and not
primarily with injuries
427. In the Firenze model one of the two components in the man-machine system
may fail independently of the human decision making process. The machine may
fail due to poor design or maintenance and may cause an accident regardless of
the state the worker is in
428. The Firenze accident causation theories considered as ergonomic model
highlights the relationship between the individual worker and his or her
surroundings
429. The three main components of the Firenze model are the man; the machine;
and the general environment. These three parts are inseparable and work
together
430. The main "stressors" in the Firenze model include poor information or
inability to use available information. These stressors lead to poor decision
making, the risk will increase, the task will not be achieved and an accident will
occur
431. This ergonomic and system model is the Firenze is A combination of an
ergonomic and systems model highlights the relationship between the worker and
his or her surroundings
432. The Tripod-Delta model is most similar to Swiss Cheese of James
Reason's
motivation subset of psychological models: “psychosocial models”, which
emphasize the effect of social factors in the workplace on an individual’s
motivation and attitude. To the extent that management has an influence on the
workplace “culture”, there is overlap with management models
434. Adam's people-oriented accident sequence is a revised version of his first
domino accident model
435. Zabetakis is classified as a management model and it is also an important
example of an energy model. The Zabetakis model is a management model of the
accident process but it is also an important example of an energy model. The
Zabetakis model is cyclic domino model. Things flow back (or feedback) to the
beginning of the intermediate dominos. The central element of the Zabetakis
model is the unplanned release of energy; this is what leads to the accident and
personal injury and property damage
436. Frank Bird further developed Heinrich's model, and identified that the
ultimate cause of accidents was "lack of control by management" which was due
to failures by the "key person": the Supervisor
437. James Reason's Swiss Cheese model shows the relationship between
hazards, defenses and losses. The defenses available are like pieces of Swiss
cheese. The holes in the Swiss cheese move and change size and if they all come
to align the hazard can penetrate through the defenses causing a loss
438. The holes in the "swiss cheese" in James Reason's Swiss Cheese accident
theory are caused by: active failures (unsafe acts or sharp end human failures)
and latent conditions
439. limitation of his research James Reason's model of accident causation is that it
focuses on organizational accidents
440. The Tripod-Delta model suggests that the focus of accident control should be
on measuring processes that disrupt safe operations or "general failure types"
441. The Tripod-Delta model was developed for Shell International
442. Which accident model would not have us focus on defects in the
management system? Heinrich’s domino theory
443. What is the lesson to be learned from pyramid models? We should be
concerned with numerous high frequency events because they often precede
serious injuries.
Auditing (Domain 2)
1. The phase of the interview that an auditor focus on the interviewee's needs and
attitude is Opening phase. The auditor needs to make the transition from the last
interview and focus on the interviewee's needs, initial attitude and concerns in the
opening phase of the interview process
2. Some of the benefits of scored audit instruments are that they facilitate objectivity
and may require less professional judgment
3. Range scoring provides an audit score that ranges from 0 to 5 based on what the
employer may have in place even if it doesn’t quite meet the standard. True
4. "Requires less professional judgment" and "focusing on results rather than auditor
style" are examples of benefits from which type of auditing instrument? Scored
instrument NOT Un-scored audit instruments
5. Un-scored audit instruments are often preferred by professional auditors
because: There is more flexibility in the report writing
6. What is the best description of a health and safety audit? A gap analysis between the
company’s current oh & s management system and a set of standards. NB The
audit is not an inspection, nor is it used to address compliance issues; it is
specifically a tool measuring the status of the health and safety management
system compared to established standards (which make up the audit instrument
elements and sub elements). The gap between the system and the standard is
addressed with recommendations. Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD page 3.
7. What is the main purpose of OH & S Audit? To evaluate the effectiveness of Health
& Safety Management System. NB Evaluating health and safety management
systems is an important process to ensure that the fundamental management
infrastructure is in place to effectively manage health and safety. Audits have
become a primary tool for assessing the health and safety management system,
with the development of audit protocols and instruments to meet a variety of
objectives.
8. The three verification techniques used in auditing an HSE management system are:
Review and analyse documentation, conduct interviews, observe work practices
and conditions
9. How often a HSE management system is audited may vary. The frequency of audits
will depend on: Degree of workplace hazards
10. A HSE audit is a comprehensive and objective review of the design and effectiveness
of an organization's HSE management system. Auditing the system allows the
organization to: Obtain valuable input from employees
11. What are two major classifications of documents that are reviewed in an audit?
Directive documents and operational records. Policies and procedures, Directive
documents and blank forms relate to directive documents & Minutes of JHSC
meetings are operational records.
12. Operational records and documents include all the following (Health and safety
committee minutes, Staff meetings/toolbox meeting minutes, Orientation
checklists ) except Management system manuals
13. Training records, Orientation attendance sheet, Meeting minutes are Operational
documents where as orientation & training requirements gives directions i.e., . Ref :
BCRSP Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD page 18.
.
14. Operational documents OR records reflect which of the following? What actually
occurs in the company are records. Ref : BCRSP Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD
page 17-18.
15. What is the best description of a health and safety audit? A gap analysis between the
company’s current oh&s management system and a set of standards. The audit health
and safety audit is not an inspection, nor is it used to address compliance issues; it is
specifically a tool measuring the status of the health and safety management system
compared to established standards (which make up the audit instrument elements and
sub elements). The gap between the system and the standard is addressed with
recommendations.
16. When conducting a document review of inspection reports, what sample of documents
should the auditor review? A representative sample of inspection reports sufficient
enough for the auditor to assess them.
17. What type of audit would involve reviewing a policy statement, then checking training
records, equipment and log books? Compliance Audit.
18. The people that attend the closeout meeting should be: The same people that attended
the kick off meeting
19. Audit interview selections are made by: The auditor
20. Most sampling for audit interviews is done using: Targeted sampling and random
selection
21. Auditors are expected to conduct audits following and applying an established code of
ethics. A key element of an auditor code of ethics is: . Confidentiality of information
22. Audits can degenerate into a "contest" between those seeking to hide weaknesses in
their systems and auditors trying to find them. A technique to avoid this is to: Use a
transparent standard as an agreed basis for the audit
23. The two general classes of audit instruments are: Scored and un-scored
24. An auditor may encounter interviewees who resist providing the requested
information. Should this be encountered, the auditor should: Stress confidentiality
25. Auditor competence requires knowledge, skill, practical experience and suitable
personal qualities. The skills of a good auditor have much in common with: An
incident investigator
26. An international standard that an organizations can use to have its management
system third-party registered for certification is: ISO Certification like ISO
14001 etc
27. An environmental audit is defined as: . A planned, documented, and
independent assessment to determine if agreed upon criteria (for environment)
are being met
28. The report usually contains the following (Executive summary, Methodology
description, Element profiles - strengths and recommendations for improvement)
components except for: Interview rough notes
29. The post-audit phase of any audit should include: A written report and
presentation meeting
30. XYZ Company has had a number of fines and orders written by the provincial
health and safety officers. The company has asked you to initiate a compliance
audit of the entire company. Compliance Audits provide a: Process to educate
workers about the legislation
31. Compliance Audits are often performed to: Ensure due diligence is carried out in
managing HSE programs at the operational level
32. The primary purpose of a Health and Safety Environmental Audit is to: Measure
the health, safety and environmental system against accepted standards
33. In order to demonstrate due diligence, an employer must prove they have these
elements in place: Written HSE policies that are communicated to workers,
orientation and training, work procedures, documented enforcement of policies
and procedures and: mechanism to monitor, measure and evaluate the establish
process and procedures
34. The following organizations (International Labour Organization ILO-OSH,
ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, British Standards Institute OHSAS) have developed a
occupational health and safety management systems except for: ISO 14000 series
etc
35. The first component in the OHSAS 18001 model is: OH &S Policy
36. Formal Inspections are: Different from health and safety audits because they
address specific hazards and controls
37. Conflicting reports or evidence found during an audit should: Be included in
your report with recommendations to clarify the information
38. Surveys and questionnaires are typically: An auditor's most valuable source of
objective data
39. To ensure an HSE audit is conducted efficiently and effectively, several activities
must be carried out before the on-site activities start. The following activities (A
meeting to verify the need and motivation behind the organization's request for
the HSE audit, Requests for information necessary to assemble a proposal to
guide the HSE audit, Prepare and submit a proposal describing the HSE audit
logistics, scope and methodology ) are necessary to prepare the organization and
auditor for an audit except for: A meeting with the union representatives to
ensure they understand how the audit will be conducted
40. The auditor must be confident that the sampling sizes are large enough to obtain
accurate information. This is an accepted method of selecting employees for
interviews: Targeted selection combined with a more unsystematic approach
41. This phase begins when the auditor or audit team arrives at the work site to be
audited. If there is multi-work sites included in the scope of the audit, this phase
like Pre Audit Phase, Post Audit Phase, Final Audit Phase may be common but
Audit Phase may be repeated at each of the work sites
42. The purpose of the opening meeting is to do the following: Formally initiate the
audit and outline the audit process and methodology, Provide an opportunity to
answer any questions ,clarify audit objectives and desired outcomes
43. OHSAS 18001, the US ANSI Z10 and the Canadian GSA Z1000 all utilize a Plan-
Do-Check-Act approach introduced in auditing by: ISO 9000 and ISO 14000
44. You have been asked to conduct a health, safety audit of XYZ Company. One of
the first stages in conducting this audit was to have an opening meeting. Of
course you also have to consider how you will conduct your closing meeting: The
purpose of the opening meeting was to do all the following (Formally initiate the
audit and outline the audit process and methodology, Introduce the auditor to
organization personnel and vice versa, Provide an opportunity to answer any
questions, clarify audit objectives and desired outcomes) except: Discuss the
financial aspects of the proposal
45. Above Case. The purpose of the closeout meeting was to: Summarize the on-site
data collection process and outline preliminary findings
46. This process involves the entire company by assessing the effectiveness of the
processes in place to prevent injuries and improve health and safety in the
workplace. This process is referred to as: Health and safety management system
audits NOT Workplace inspection
47. Some auditing instruments provide a list of questions to ask each level of
employee in the organization. This can sometimes have adverse effects to the
interviewing process. How can an employee feel when auditors use such a list?
They're being bombarded with questions
48. Which is the most preferred yet inaccurate method (by both the interviewee
and auditor) for recording information from an interview? Using symbols and
brief "trigger" words
49. While the interview process in progress, the auditor should always ask Open-ended
_ questions and be a active listener
50. There are three phases to a HSE audit. Which of the phases is the clarification
process in? Closing phase
51. How should it be indicated on the audit report, when an auditor feels it's
necessary for the company to make improvements on their health and safety
management system? "Recommended" NOT Must / Shall
52. Essential external auditor qualifications and skills include: Knowledge of the
audit process, communication skills and OHSE management experience
53. Auditors have three major sources of information (like Observations,
Documentation Review, Interviews ) about the organization that is being audited.
Auditor knowledge of the industry is NOT normally included in the list.
54. Compliance Audits are most likely performed as a result of: Legal Obligation
55. The interviewing of employees should follow a standard process. The typical
approach includes: Preparing, Opening, Conducting and Closing
56. A familiarization tour is not designed to be a comprehensive review of the
facilities and processes. It therefore has several limitations and the auditor must
be cautious about drawing too many far-reaching conclusions during the
familiarization tour because: Observations may not cover all functions that are
normally occurring
57. A 'boundary condition' identifies elements that are to be audited and might draw
attention to specific items that are to be included or excluded. A boundary
condition for an EMS audit might include: Part of an organization to be audited
and Interaction with regulatory agencies
58. Which one of the following is not something an employer must have in place to
demonstrate due diligence through an audit? : one of the following is not
something an employer must have in place to demonstrate due diligence through
an audit is An environmental management system. Audits are necessary for
evaluating the OHS management system elements, (and Written HSE policies, A
safety orientation and training system, A system to measure and evaluate the
established processes) not for ensuring environmental due diligence other than
what is included in the program (Ref: BCRSP Guide, HSE Auditing, pages 4-5)
59. What is the advantage of using an external auditor to complete an audit.? Has no
vested interests in the results of the audit. Justification: Remain unbiased. Ref:
BCRSP Guide “AUD” Page # 5
60. Most sampling for interviews is done using a semi-randomized technique. Ref:
BCRSP Guide “AUD” Page # 13-14.
61. Audit recommendations must be based on which of the following? Document
review, verified data, interviews, & site observations. Document review, verified
data, interviews and site observations are the instruments to perform audit. Ref :
BCRSP AUD Page # 11.
62. What are the three phases of audits? Pre Audit activities, Audit Evaluations and
Post Audit activities. The audit process is frequently broken down into three
phases – the work done before the audit on-site activities start, the on-site
activities, and the work done after the on-site activities have been completed.
These are often referred to as pre-audit, audit, and post-audit phases, although
they are all included in the term “audit”. BCRSP Guide AUD page 10.
63. How long the kick off meeting be? Usually the opening meeting is approximately
1-2 hours long. BCRSP Guide AUD page 17.
64. Recommendations in an Audit Should reserve the use of “must” for clear cases of
non compliance
65. The close out meeting is a customary face to face meeting to debrief company
representatives on audit findings. Which of the following is not a part of
debriefing. Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD page 28-29
66. An auditor may encounter interviews who resist providing the requested information.
Should this be encountered, the auditor should then Stress confidentiality.
67. How many program elements are to be included in an Audit? It depends on why
the audit is being done, base line, internal, external, limited scope etc.
68. How long should an interview take to complete? 20 – 30 minutes is a guideline
but some will be longer and some shorter depending on the role. The length of
each interview will vary depending upon the number of questions required to
validate audit elements and the position of the interviewee as able to provide the
required information. Generally, frontline staff are interviewed for 20-30
minutes, and management for a somewhat longer period. The longest interviews
are usually held with professional members of the health and safety department
and the health and safety committee, who are more knowledgeable about the
program details. These interviews can last an hour or more. Ref : BCRSP Ref :
BCRSP Guide AUD page 22.
69. Which one of the following is not an advantage of having professional auditor? May
not understand the history of program development. Disadvantages of
Professional Auditor – Not aware of hidden hazards, May be unaware of
industry specific hazards or regulations, May not understand history of program
development Ref : BCRSP Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD page 5.
70. What is the benefit of qualitative (un-scored) scoring audit ? Allow for auditor
determined weighting of importance of items. Benefits on Un-scored
Instruments: Give auditors freedom to address systemic issues, Meet the
requirement for some certifications, Allow for auditor-determined weighting of
importance of items, Do not specify the numbers of interviews required, Do not
result in a focus on “scores”, but rather on findings and recommendations. Ref :
BCRSP Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD page 10.
71. What of the following is not a common element in Health & Safety Management
System? Management commitment, Inspections, Hazard control.are common
element but Program incentives not a key element. Ref : BCRSP Ref : BCRSP
Guide AUD page 6.
72. Audit reports does not contain document review as it is a tool used to gather
information. Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD page 32.
73. Audit’s Verification techniques includes execution of company documents,
interviews with all levels of staff & direct observations in work place. Ref :
74. Compliance Audit is required to assess to what extent the system performance
meets the legislation requirements. Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD page 4.
75. Audits are necessary to evaluate OHS management System elements not for
ensuring environmental due diligence other than what is included in the
program. Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD page 2 - 4.
76. What does Deming’s PDCA cycle stand for: Plan, Do, Check , Act. It is Denim’s
cycle. Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD page 9
77. “What is your involvement in the company’s Health and Safety program ?” is an
open ended question which does not require simple one word answer. Open
ended questions require the interviewee to provide more details. Ref : BCRSP
Guide AUD page 28. But “Do you participate in Health & Safety policy ?”;
“Would all the employees know of contents & purpose of Health & safety
Policy?” or Do you actually participate in Health & Safety meeting in your area
of the plant?” are NOT open ended question.
78. Which personal attribute(s) should an Auditor have? Mature, Open minded,
Tenacious, Analytical, accurate-ness are personal attribute(s) of an Auditor
because those are related to sound judgment and good analytical skills . Ref :
79. The Pre-Audit activities of planning the parameters for the audit do not include
fee structure . This would have to be included in the proposal letter. . Ref :
80. The lead auditor is responsible for the scoring in a team audit. Ref : BCRSP
Guide AUD page 29.
81. Which of the following is a key component included in an audit proposal letter?
Should include scope of audit and facilities to be audited. Ref : BCRSP Guide
AUD page 12.
82. Audits are necessary to evaluate OH&S Management System elements and not
for ensuring environmental due diligence other than what is intended in the
program. Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD page 24.
83. An audit is a set of recommendations intended to improve the health and safety
management system. False
84. Which would be a disadvantage to using an internal auditor? Vested interest in
audit results. Advantage of internal auditor may be Knowledge of hidden
hazards, knowledge of the objectives of the organization, Knows the people.
85. The sentence, which best describes reasons for conducting HSE management
systems audits? To establish a baseline from which to measure improvements
and provide a benchmark.
86. Verifying corrective action occurred using the last 6 months of inspection reports is an
example activity that occurs when conducting a(n): Audit
87. Uniquely desirable attribute of an internal auditor is Objectivity
88. Checking the procedures that are in place and inspecting documentation to assure that
procedures are being followed to control hazards is an example of an audit. False
89. Support for an auditor’s evaluation can be found in: Field notes of the auditor’s
observations & Number of positive responses converted to a percentage & also
Number of on-site incident investigation reports reviewed
90. Verifying corrective action occurred using the last 6 months of inspection reports is
an example activity that occurs when conducting a(n): audit
91. Which below is an auditor pre-audit activity? Writes proposal
92. Which below is an employer on-site audit activity? Arranges interviews and tours
93. Range scoring provides an audit score that ranges from 0 to 5 based on what the
employer may have in place even if it doesn’t quite meet the standard. true
ERGONOMICS(Domain 3)
1. “Ergonomics (or human factors) is the scientific discipline concerned with
interactions among humans and other elements of a system (e.g. the tools, equipment,
products, tasks, organization, technology, and environment). The profession applies
theory, principles, data, methods and analysis to design in order to optimize human
well-being and overall system performance.”
2. The International Ergonomics Association (IEA) provides further background:
“Derived from the Greek ergon (work) and nomos (laws) to denote the science of
work, ergonomics is a systems-oriented discipline which now extends across all
aspects of human activity. Practicing ergonomists must have a broad understanding of
the full scope of the discipline. That is, ergonomics promotes a holistic approach in
which considerations of physical, cognitive, social, organizational, environmental and
other relevant factors are taken into account. Ergonomists often work in particular
economic sectors or application domains. Application domains are not mutually
exclusive and they evolve constantly; new ones are created and old ones take on new
perspectives.”
3. The Association of Canadian Ergonomists (ACE)1 uses the definition:
“Ergonomics (or human factors) is the scientific discipline concerned with
interactions among humans and other elements of a system (e.g. the tools, equipment,
products, tasks, organization, technology, and environment). The profession applies
theory, principles, data, methods and analysis to design in order to optimize human
well-being and overall system performance.”
4. What are Work-Related Musculoskeletal Disorders (WMSDs)?
Work-related musculoskeletal disorders (WMSDs) are a group of conditions that
involve muscles, tendons, ligaments, bones, joints, nerves, blood vessels, cartilage,
spinal disks, or related soft tissue. Other names given to this general category of
injuries include repetitive strain injuries (RSI), occupational overuse syndrome
(OOS),and cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs).
5. A simple definition of ergonomics is “design for human use”. In the workplace, this
means applying knowledge of human characteristics to optimize the match between
workers, their tasks, and the work environment. The key principle is fitting the task to
the human
6. If an object is truly ergonomically designed then there is a good fit between the
product and which of the following? The individuals using it
7. For something to be considered truly 'ergonomically designed' it must: Have a good
fit between the product and the end user's needs. True ergonomics would only
consider the end user and the environment and tasks that the person would be
using the device within and for (Ref: BCRSP Guide, ERG Section, pages 31-32)
8. A job involves lifting boxes that weigh 11 kg. At the origin of the lift H = 30 em, V
= 40 em, and D = 100 em. The boxes are lifted at the rate of 6 per minute for 1 to
2 hours per shift. There is no angle of asymmetry and the coupling is rated as
good. Using the 1991 Revised NIOSH Lifting Equation, determine the following
What is the recommended weight limit (RWL)? 7.5 kg
9. What is the lifting index (LI)? 1.5
10. Workstations are redesigned so that lifting at the origin occurs at H =25 em, V = 50
em, and D = 40 em. What is the new Ll? 1.1
11. In order to prevent musculoskeletal injuries related to material handling, it is
important to consider: Worker characteristics
12. This describes a prolonged state of contraction of the muscles during which the
internal pressure of the muscle tissue compresses the blood vessels and blood no
longer flows through the muscle: Static. In other words, Static muscular effort can be
described as: . Prolonged state of muscular contraction
13. Dynamic muscular effort is characterized by: An alternation of contraction and
extension, tension and relaxation, muscle length changes often rhythmically
14. Epicondylitis is a MSI that refers to the common malady of Tennis elbow. (Ref:
BCRSP Guide, ERG Section, page 14)
15. One of the most useful ways of assessing the work load is Measuring the heart rate
16. Tenosynovitis is best described as An inflammation of the tendon sheath
17. A muscle produces its greatest strength at the beginning of the contraction (Ref:
BCRSP Guide, ERG Section, page 16)
18. In designing a piece of equipment, the principle that controls and displays must
conform to is Displays should generally move in the same direction as movement
of controls
19. Prolonged monotonous work which calls for continuous vigilance can give rise to
feelings of: Fatigue
20. Which would most likely describe a regulation related to ergonomics? The
employer shall consult with a representative sample of workers
21. Which of the following statements is most correct? An employer cannot be charged
in relation to ergonomic hazards in any OH&S jurisdiction in Canada
22. Ergonomics is a complicated multi-disciplinary science that focuses on the
interaction between: People and their work environment
23. Kinesiology is commonly described as: The scientific study of muscles and human
movement
24. Tendonitis is described as: Inflammation of a tendon as a result of repeated small
tears
25. Factors affecting risk of MSI injury include: Posture, Force, Repetition, Point
Pressure and Mechanical Stress,Workplace Components
26. The most favourable working height during manual work which requires space for
tools, materials, containers, etc., is:100 to 150 mm below elbow level
27. A display or any other visual target should be placed within a viewing angle
between:5° above and 30° below the horizontal plane
28. As a result of multiple employees being diagnosed with similar MSI injuries, the
safety professional would most benefit from consulting with An ergonomist
29. A worker falls on a piece of ice and hears a pop in his left shoulder. What type of
musculoskeletal classification would this injury be? Acute
30. There are three scenarios in which ergonomics is typically introduced into the
workplace: Like something urgent, something old and something new but NOT
something basic
31. What is the primary objective of the 10 step ergonomics process? Eliminate hazards
and mismatches between people, tasks and their environment.
32. The study of human body measurements is referred to as: Anthropometry
33. As suggested in the book "Fitting the Task to the Human", the guideline that applies
when wanting to acclimatize workers to very hot conditions is: 50 % of the working
time in the heat and increase this by 10 % each day
34. NIOSH Revised Lifting Equation Assessing heart rates Biomechanical analysis
areexample of quantitative methods used for performing job assessments but NOT
Job factor Checklist
35. The two ways of retrieving information from our long term memory is referred to as:
Recall and recognition
36. What is the most effective way of training? Using a multiple approach
37. Ganglion Cysts: Develop a tendon sheath or joint capsule, and are filled with
synovial fluid, often found on the wrist
38. When evaluating repetitive work, the key factors to be considered include: The
position of the joints when the task is performed; the force exerted and the repetition
rate or amount of recovery time provided
39. What is the key principle when applying ergonomics to the workplace? Individual
differences. Individual differences is the most important consideration when applying
ergonomics to the workplace (Ref: BCRSP Guide, ERG Section, page 38)
40. Ergonomics legislation has the goal of preventing or reducing work-related
musculoskeletal disorders (WMSDs). other terms like repetitive motion injuries
(RMIs), repetitive strain injuries (RSIs), or cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs) are
also referred to in legislation.
41. The prevalence of musculoskeletal injuries in the work place: Indicate that the most
RSIs involve the neck, shoulder, wrist/hand, back and elbow/lower arm.
Musculoskeletal injuries are a significant part of society's injury profile (Ref:
BCRSP Guide, ERG Section, pages 17-18)
42. The ergonomics process is one that: Easily complements standard hazard
identification and assessment processes. No matter which formal process you use, it
will follow the same basic steps as any successful hazard identification and
assessment process because the outcome is the same: a healthy and safe environment
(Ref: BCRSP Guide, ERG Section, pages 31-32)
43. A WMSD is a work-related musculoskeletal disorder (Ref: BCRSP Guide,
Ergonomics, page 3-5)
44. A common fallacy regarding ergonomics is that the workplace should be designed for
the 'average' worker. There are no people who are average in most or all respects
(Ref: BCRSP Guide, ERG Section, page 39)
45. What theory assumes that accidents occur when the stress on a worker exceeds the
capacity to handle stress (internal and external)? Adjustment Stress. The Adjustment
Stress theory assumes that accidents occur when the stress on a worker exceeds the
capacity to handle internal (home life, self-esteem, personal relationships, financial
etc.) stress and external (heat, noise, chemical exposure etc.) stress. (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, AT Section, page 53-54).
46. Which one of the following is a characteristic of the reorganization of work to reduce
the risk of musculoskeletal disorders: Work rate. Work rate is something to consider
when addressing the pace at which work is being done and how it can be a potential
risk factor leading to a musculoskeletal disorder (Ref: BCRSP Guide, ERG Section,
page 23)
47. A workplace ergonomics process operates effectively when it is integrated within
the organization’s safety management system. True
48. Which would not be a typical element in the application of ergonomics in design?
Eliminate hazards and control risks
49. The application of ergonomics in the workplace would not include the following?
A flu vaccine clinic
50. The level of risk for developing a musculoskeletal disorder from awkward
postures depends on: How much, how often, and for how long the person is exposed
to awkward postures
51. Evaluating preventive and protective measures and managing changer would be
part of which element of an ergonomics program? Monitor and follow-up
52. The NIOSH Lifting Equation is used to assess the risk from frequent awkward
postures or fatiguing tasks. False
53. What equation can be used to determine if the weight lifted is suitable for
workers to lift without getting hurt? National Institute of Occupational Safety and
Health Lifting Equation
54. If you have been asked as a consultant to provide ergonomic advice to a worker
for setting up their workstation, and it has been shown that your advice caused a
repetitive strain injury to that worker, what could happen to you? The worker
could sue you or, if the worker elects to receive workers’ compensation, the workers’
compensation board can sue you
55. When evaluating repetitive work, the key factors to be considered include: The
position of the joints when the task is performed; the force exerted and the repetition
rate or amount of recovery time provided
56. Employees who work primarily seated at a computer workstation may benefit the
most from which program? Physical fitness
57. An ergonomist is a person who would be best consulted on issues concerning the
design of a cart for moving spools. true
58. Which would not be a typical element in the application of ergonomics in design?
Eliminate hazards and control risks
59.
Fire Prevention and Protection (Domain 4)
1. Fire Chemistry: Fire is a chemical reaction that may be defined as: “self-sustained
oxidation of a fuel that emits heat and light”. Three variables are required in order to
initiate a fire: fuel, oxygen and heat. These three variables form the fire triangle which
is shown in the text. Fire prevention involves taking steps to prevent these three
variables from combining. Fire prevention strategies include controlling fuels,
controlling oxygen sources, and controlling heat sources. Once a fire begins, there are
four variables required to sustain it. These are fuel, oxygen, heat, and chemical chain
reactions. These four variables represent the fire tetrahedron which is diagramed in
the text. Chemical chain reactions are ongoing within the flame. These reactions
involve the oxidation of fuel molecules and the reduction of oxygen molecules.
Chemical chain reactions produce smoke which contains byproducts of combustion
such as carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, carbon and other molecules. Fire can
extinguished removing heat, oxygen or fuel or by inhibiting chemical chain reactions.
2. The concept of fire protection assumes fire will occur and focuses on eliminating or
controlling the variables in the fire tetrahedron. Fire prevention on the other hand,
attempts to control the variable in the fire triangle before fire occurs. Fires are
classified into four general classes based upon the type of fuel that is consumed and
the agents used in extinguishment. Class A fires involve ordinary combustibles such
as wood, paper, cloth, rubber and some plastics. Class A fires are usually extinguished
with water because it can penetrate the fuel and absorb heat. Class B fires involve
flammable and combustible liquids and gases such as gasoline, alcohol and propane.
Common extinguishing agents for Class B fires are foam, carbon dioxide and dry
chemicals that serve to smother the fire or reduce the oxygen concentration available
in the burning zone. Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment. Class C
fires can be extinguished by nonconductive extinguishing agents such as dry
chemicals and inert gases. Class D fires involve combustible metals such as
magnesium, sodium, titanium, powdered aluminum, potassium, and zirconium. Class
D fires can be extinguished by special agents produced for the specific metal.
3. There are two ways that heat sources ignite fire: (1) they provide a flame that
directly ignites a fuel; or (2) they heat the fuel to its auto ignition temperature. In both
of these cases heat must be transferred to the fuel. Heat is transferred in through three
different methods: conduction, convection, and radiation.
4. Fire evolves through three specific stages as the fuel and oxygen available are
consumed. The incipient stage is the first or beginning stage of a fire. This is the
stage where the fire has just begun and there is ample fuel and oxygen available.
Following the incipient stage a fire evolves to the free-burning stage. During the
free-burning stage the self-sustained chemical reactions intensify, greater amounts of
heat are produced, and the fuel and oxygen are consumed rapidly. Flashover often
occurs during the free-burning stage of a structure fire. Flashover occurs when the
contents of a room simultaneously reach their ignition temperature and become
involved in flames. When flashover occurs, temperatures can exceed 2000 0 F,
making human survival nearly impossible. The third stage in the evolution of a fire is
called the smoldering stage. This stage occurs as a result of the carbon monoxide and
carbon dioxide produced in the free burning stage. When the oxygen concentration is
reduced less than 15% by volume the chemical reaction associated with fire will not
have sufficient oxygen to support free-burning combustion. When a fresh supply of
oxygen is introduced to a fire at the smoldering stage sudden flaming combustion can
reoccur, creating a condition known as a backdraft. In some cases a backdraft can be
so violent that an explosion will occur making human survival nearly impossible.
5. NFPA Standard 550, Fire Safety Concepts Tree can be applied to the development
of a fire safety system for all building structures Fire Safety Concepts Tree (FSCT)
as a guide for developing and implementing a workplace fire safety management
program. There are three major components to the FSCT. The first component is
Fire Safety Objectives. Three primary objectives are life safety, property
conservation, and business continuity. The second component is Prevent Fire
Ignition. The basic concepts outlined in the previous chapter help to provide the
CRSP with a basic understanding of these concepts. Strategies to control fire ignition
include controlling ignition sources, controlling heat transfer, and controlling fuels.
The third component of the FSCT is Manage Fire Impact. Strategies associated with
this area include controlling fuel; controlling the environment; automatically or
manually suppressing fire; and controlling fire with construction. A fire safety
management program is divided into eight elements OBJECTIVES that can be
expressed as performance based objectives. The eight areas are: Inspections;
Education and Training; Fire Suppression; Emergency Services; Evaluation of
Fire Possibility; Fire Prevention; Reports and Record Keeping; and
Communication
6. An industrial fire brigade is an essential part of every plant emergency plan NFPA
600, Industrial Fire Brigades, provides guidelines for organizing an industrial fire
brigade. There are five basic responsibilities that should be fulfilled by an industrial
fire brigade: i) supervise evacuation drills. ii) operate firefighting equipment
(extinguishers and hoses) iii) provide emergency scene first aid and CPR if
needed. iv) conduct inspections v) implement emergency shutdown procedures.
7. Emergency planning is essential in order to avoid losses and injuries to people,
damage to property, and disruptions to the continuity of business.
8. There are three essential steps in the emergency planning process: The first step is to
recognize and identify hazards and assess potential vulnerabilities. Types of
emergencies and vulnerabilities should be ranked to allow for the prioritization of
resources later in the planning process. The second step is to contemplate the most
likely and severe emergencies and develop plans for dealing with them. The plans
should include consideration of aspects such as escape routes and assembly locations
for evacuees, access routes for fire fighters, water supply, detection and alarm
systems, communication methods, automatic fire suppression, and protection of
adjacent compartments and structures.
9. There are ten (USA: 4) steps in a management program for hazard analysis/reduction
(Risk Analysis).
a. 1) Identification of Hazards
b. 2) Hazard Inventory
c. 3) Descriptive Information
d. 4) Fire/ Emergency Plan
e. 5) Training Program
f. 6) Inspection Program
g. 7) Scheduled Drills
h. 8) Risk Evaluation (In USA, likelyhood / probability, consequence &..)
i. 9) Responsibility/Accountability of Management
j. 10) Recommendations to all levels of Management
10. In addition to the need to identify products , MSDS is required. The following
information should be readily accessible in MSDS sheets:
a. 1) How hazardous is the product? (flammable, toxic, poisonous, explosive)
b. 2) Will it cause cancer? (is it carcinogenic?)
c. 3) What organs does it affect? (heart, lungs, skin)
d. 4) Will it evaporate readily? (density and boiling point)
e. 5) Will it sink or float in water? (density and specific gravity)
f. 6) Will the gas vapour rise or fall?
g. 7) What are the exposure limits?
h. 8) What protective equipment must be used?
i. 9) What first aid measures are required if exposed?
j. 10) What to do if there is a spill or release.
k. 11) How to handle a spill or release.
l. 12) Whom to contact for more information.
11. Employees must be trained on the contents of MSDS sheets and the sheets must be
stored in a visible and accessible location where employees have ready access to them
12. Information to help with the mitigation of spills and releases of hazardous materials is
provided 24 hours by two different agencies. The Chemical Manufacturer’s
Association has established the Chemical Transportation Emergency Center
(CHEMTREC) that provides information and assistance to emergency responders
throughout North America. In Canada there is a similar organization called
CANUTEC that will provide 24 hour assistance ensure that incompatible substances
are properly separated during storage and handling. For example, classes of material
such as flammable liquids and gases should be separated from oxidizers such as
oxygen or liquid oxygen that have the potential to increase the hazards posed by
flammable substances. Similarly, attention should be given to the reactivity of specific
products through hazard analysis, and steps should be taken to reduce the potential for
incompatible products to come into contact with one another.
13. Consideration of the safe handling of hazardous material should begin at the planning
stages of an industry. Hazardous materials should be isolated from other areas such as
power supplies, storage areas, and emergency exits.
14. Special guidelines exist for specific hazards such as pressurized storage vessels,
outdoor storage tanks and underground storage tanks. Precautions should also be
taken to protect piping that may be used to transfer hazardous substances. Emergency
shutdown systems should be considered, and should be designed to address both
human error and mechanical failure. Buildings can be constructed in such away that
spills or releases can be contained within a defined portion of the facility and isolated
from other areas of operations.
15. In addition to the identification and isolation of hazardous materials, the hazard
analysis process also requires the consideration of potential sources of ignition. There
are four basic categories of ignition sources: electrical, chemical, mechanical,
and nuclear.
16. Flash point is the temperature at which a flammable liquid produces enough vapour
to be ignited. This is an important concept since it is the vapours produced by
flammable liquids that pose the danger of ignition or explosion. Fire point is the
temperature at which continuous combustion occurs, this is typically a few degrees
higher than the flash point. Liquids, such as gasoline that have flash points at or below
ambient or room temperature are easy to ignite and burn rapidly. Liquids such as
motor oil that have a flash point above ambient temperatures pose less of a risk since
they must be heated in order to ignite. The concept of flash point tells us the
temperature at which a substance produces sufficient vapours that will allow ignition
to occur. At flash point, however, a source of ignition is required for combustion to
occur. As substances are heated beyond their flash point they will eventually reach
their ignition temperature and will ignite automatically without the introduction of an
additional ignition source. Any flammable substance will burn without an ignition
source when it is heated to its ignition temperature.
17. LPG’s having this characteristic include Propane, Butane, Propylene, and Butylene.
Gases that are lighter than air have a vapour density less than 1 and tend to rise and
accumulate along ceilings and in attics. Chemicals used the workplace pose hazards
both in terms of their own inherent properties and in terms of their potential to be
accidentally combined with other chemicals. There are four types of chemicals that
should be of concern to the CRSP: Combustible chemicals; oxidizing chemicals, air-
reactive and water-reactive chemicals; and unstable chemicals. Examples of each?
18. Other potential hazards that require specific attention explosives and blasting agents;
toxic chemicals; halogen and halogenated hydrocarbons; radioactive chemicals;
combustible solids; combustible metals; and plastics.
19. Life safety is a major concern. NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, contains fundamental
life safety requirements. It is a comprehensive document that classifies occupancies,
details the requirements of means of egress, outlines the requirements for fire
protection and building services, and provides guidelines for specific types of
occupancies. Life safety is also a fundamental principle and objective considered in
the National Building Code of Canada and the National Fire Code of Canada
20. Basic terms outlined by the NFPA: means of egress; exit access; exit discharge;
number of means of egress; egress width; door width; impediments; locked doors;
occupant load; exit capacity; travel distance; lighting; emergency lighting; marking
the means of egress; stairs; hazard contents; occupancy; fire alarm system;
compartmentation; interior finish; headroom.
21. Fire load is a measure of the maximum heat that would be produced if all the
combustibles in a given area burned. Fire load includes combustible contents
(furniture, decorations, books, paper, stored goods, and so forth) as well as
combustible components of the building. A calculation of the fire load in a particular
building or section of a building is necessary in order to determine the level of fire
protection that is required. This will include the rate of flow for automatic suppression
devices such as fire sprinkler systems, as well as the amount of water or other
extinguishment agents that must be available for fire fighters. A method of
controlling and containing a fire is known as compartmentalization. This is a key
concept in building design that prevents the spread of fire from one area of a building
to another. Fire compartments are created through the use of firewalls and fire
resistive windows and doors. Firewalls and fire doors are rated by agencies such as
UL and CSA based on the period of time that they can withstand exposure to fire.
22. Heat detectors sense thermal energy, flame detectors sense radiant energy, and
smoke detectors sense airborne particles
23. Flame detectors activate in response to radiant energy generated by the flame or
combustion. Two types of flame detectors commonly used are ultraviolet (UV)
detectors and infrared (IR) detectors. Ultraviolet and infrared flame detectors are
sensitive devices that can be set off accidentally by a variety of causes such as arc
welding, matches, lighters, and even direct sun light.
24. Heat detectors are designed to detect the thermal output or heat from a fire. There are
two basic types of heat detectors: The first is fixed temperature detectors, which
include spot detectors intended for use in small areas, as well as line detectors that are
electrically operated and activated by temperature. The second type of heat detector is
the rate-of-rise detector that is designed to a threshold rate of heat rise. Rate-of-rise
detectors are best suited to situations where a relatively fast developing fire is
expected.
25. Smoke detectors respond to the visible and invisible products of combustion. There
are two basic types of smoke detectors. The first type described in the text uses a
photoelectric sensor to detect the presence of smoke particles. Photoelectric detectors
are relatively sensitive to smoke from smoldering fires but react slowly to flaming
fires. There is a limitation to where photoelectric detectors can be placed because they
need a relatively powerful supply of electricity to operate and can not be operated by
batteries. The second type is the ionization smoke detectors that detects combustion
products such as carbon and carbon rich particles. Ionization detectors can operate on
a high voltage electrical supply or on low voltage batteries. They are designed for
both spot detection and air duct detection. Ionization detectors respond well to flames
but are relatively insensitive to smoldering fires.
26. There are four basic types of automatic sprinkler systems. The wet pipe system is
the simplest type of system. It also is the quickest reacting system since there is water
in the pipes at all times. If a sprinkler head is activated the water sprays out
immediately. Wet pipe systems can only be used in areas where the temperature is
always above freezing levels. The dry pipe system can be used to protect property in
areas that are susceptible to freezing temperatures. Dry systems are filled with
pressurized air or nitrogen that must be released from the system before the water will
flow. When a sprinkler head is activated the release of pressure in the system activates
the water flow. The water must reach the sprinkler head within sixty seconds of
activation. The deluge system is different from the previous two types in that the
sprinkler heads are not plugged by fusible links or bulbs. In the deluge configuration
all sprinkler heads are open and a fire detection system is connected to a sprinkler
valve. If fire is detected the valve is opened and water is supplied to all of the
sprinkler heads. The pre-action system is a combination of a dry system and an alarm
system.
27. A fire detection system is connected to the sprinkler valve and if it is activated that it
expels the pressurized air or nitrogen from the system and supplies the system with
water. Water does not actually flow however unless a sprinkler head is activated. The
pre-action detectors typically activate at a temperature lower than the activation
temperature of the sprinkler heads. The pre-action phase signals an alarm and allows
time for human intervention before the water flow is initiated. This type of system is
often used in computer rooms and other locations that are sensitive to water damage.
While automatic fire sprinkler systems are the most common and widely used fire
control systems, there are also a variety of other systems available that use different
extinguishment agents and methods. Carbon dioxide systems are specifically
engineered for specific hazards. Carbon dioxide systems are designed to displace the
oxygen supply in the burning zone and extinguish the fire. The use of carbon dioxide
systems is limited to Class A and Class B fires
28. Information and Resources:
a. formation of Public Safety and Emergency Preparedness Canada
b. Canadian Standards Association (CSA) is an independent, not -for-profit
organization that was established in Canada in 1919. CSA tests products and
systems to ensure they meet with CSA and/or other recognized standards.
CSA certification tells you that the product or system has been evaluated
under a formal process that includes examination, testing, and follow-up
inspection to ensure it complies with all applicable standards. The well-
recognized CSA symbol appears on over one billion products worldwide
c. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) is an international association
based in the United States in Quincy Massachusetts, a suburb of Boston. The
NFPA’s mission is to prevent the loss of life and property from fire. The
NFPA is a technical and an educational organization. Its primary technical
activity is the production of consensus standards. These standards cover a
variety of topics relating to fire prevention and protection. The standards are
written in such a way that they can be adopted into laws or regulations
29. The third step is to ensure that the organization is capable of implementing the
emergency plan. This involves regular drills, rehearsals, and simulations. Emergency
plans must be tested through practice in order to ensure that all personnel are aware of
their duties and responsibilities and to uncover weaknesses in the plan and
unanticipated challenges. Section of the text dealing with the fire triangle a number of
potential ignition sources are outlined. Some sources are: open flames from torches
and pilot lights; sparks from electrical equipment; hot surfaces such as electrical
motors, wires, and pipes; radiant heat from boilers and portable heaters; lightning;
static discharges; arcing from wires or electrical equipment; heat from mechanical
friction or hydraulic oil under pressure; chemical reactions that produce heat; heat
from slow oxidation or fermentation. While all of the potential sources of heat and
ignition included in this general list are worthy of attention,there are two specific
hazards that require special attention in the workplace. These are cutting and welding,
and smoking. NFPA 51B, Fire Prevention in Use of Cutting and Welding Processes,
provides an outline of precautions to be observed as well as sample forms that can be
used to ensure workplace safety. Smoking in the work place is also a major cause of
fire loss and should be an area of concern for management. Smoking should be
prohibited in areas where there is a presence of flammable liquids or gases,
combustible dusts, combustible fibers, storage or processing of combustible materials.
30. Identification and Control of Hazardous Materials:
a. Two standardized methods of classifying and identifying hazardous materials,
the United Nations and the United States Department of Transport (DOT)
classification systems. DOT labeling system contains requirements for the
shipping, marking, labeling, and placarding of more than 1400 different
hazardous materials
b. Workplace Hazardous Materials Identification System (WHMIS) is federally
legislated in Canada
31. ERG2012 was developed jointly by the US Department of Transportation, Transport
Canada, and the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico (SCT)
for use( in each emergency service vehicle) by firefighters. It is primarily a guide to
aid first responders in (1) quickly identifying the specific or generic classification of
the material(s) involved in the incident, and (2) protecting themselves and the general
public during this initial response phase of the incident.
32. A number of precautions can be taken in the workplace to reduce or eliminate static
electrical charges as potential ignition sources. All equipment containing or used to
transfer Class I flammable liquids should be electrically grounded. Ionization, the use
of non-conduction materials, and the use of coatings, are additional methods of
reducing the dangers of static electrical charges. Flammable gases pose many of the
same problems as flammable liquids, but their physical state poses some unique
challenges and concerns. Many types of gases are shipped in a liquid state which
requires that the product be kept under pressure or at a lower temperature. When these
liquids are exposed to higher temperatures or the pressure is released they turn to their
gaseous state and are often uncontrollable. Vapour density is an important concept as
this indicates the relative weight of a gas as compared to air. Most Liquefied
Petroleum Gases (LPG’s) are heavier than air, have a vapour density greater than 1,
and tend to travel along floor and accumulate in pits, trenches and low-lying areas.
33. Air sampling detectors are suitable for use in computer rooms, telecommunication
facilities, offices and residences. A stream of air is continuously drawn into and
expelled from the detector, and xenon lamps are used to analyze the particles in the
air. Xenon-based air sampling detectors are considered the most reliable and valid
measures of fire intensity.
34. Automatic fire sprinkler systems use water as an extinguishing agent and are
designed to apply water to the area of origin when a fire is in the incipient stage.
Sprinkler systems consist of a water supply, a control valve, a system of pipes that
distribute the water, and sprinkler heads with heat sensitive fusible links or bulbs
35. Foam is another alternative extinguishing agent that serves to displaces oxygen a
smother a fire. Foam can be generated chemically or mechanically
36. Halon is an extinguishing agent that works by interrupting the chemical chain
reactions that occur during combustion. Halons decompose when exposed to high heat
and they remain in the atmosphere for long periods of time and deplete the ozone
layer.
37. Water Spray Systems are a recent adaptation of fire sprinkler systems that use high
pressure to create water mist. Spray systems are designed to extinguish fires by
cooling, smoothing and dilution
38. Dry Chemical Extinguishing Systems are effective on Class A, B, and C fires. They
are typically designed for use on flammable liquids and grease fires. Dry Chemical
extinguishing agents provide a small smothering effect, and inhibit chemical chain
reactions in fires. Dry Chemical agents are commonly used in portable extinguishers
39. Portable fire extinguishers are required to be located in highly visible and accessible
locations, first line of defense when a fire is in its incipient stage
40. Five basic factors that contribute to the effective use of portable fire extinguishers are:
a. 1) People must be trained in the use and handling of extinguishers.
b. 2) Extinguishers must be placed in suitable locations.
c. 3) Extinguishers must be in sound working order.
d. 4) Suitable types of extinguishers must be provided for the type of hazards
likely to be encountered.
e. 5) Early warning of the fire is required for the extinguisher to be effective
41. The accumulation of foreign materials such as dirt, dust, paint, and others on sprinkler
heads is commonly called loading. Loading can delay or prevent the activation of a
sprinkler head.
42. the authority to enforce building and fire codes is delegated to municipalities
43. Under Canadian civil law the tort of negligence provides the basis for legal liability.
Civil suits involving allegations of negligence may be initiated by individuals or by
insurance companies who are looking to recover funds paid out in major losses. In
order to successfully advance a claim of negligence a plaintiff must establish:
a. 1) There was a duty or obligation.
b. 2) The accepted practices or codes of conduct that should apply to a particular
situation.
c. 3) The defendant failed to meet accepted standards or codes of conduct.
d. 4) That losses or damages occurred as a result of the negligent actions or
behaviours.
44. Canada does not have umbrella federal legislation that is comparable to the
Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) in the United States
45. Most fire departments use some form of the Incident Command System (ICS) to
assign personnel and coordinate tasks during emergency operations. ICS is a rational
management system whereby all activities and communications flow through one
centralized authority, the Incident Commander. During emergency operations a
command post will be established for the incident commander and this shall be the
communications hub and coordination center. Emergency pre-planning activities
should include the local fire department and ideal locations for the command post can
be pre-established to allow for familiarity and quick set-up in a real emergency. As
part of the ICS the Incident Commander will assign specific officers to deal with
liaison functions and safety. The CRSP may also be used as a resource person or
consultant to the Safety Officer
46. The key objectives of an emergency response plan include:
a. Improve safety awareness and emergency/disaster readiness.
b. Protect lives and assets of the corporation.
c. Assign specific emergency responsibilities.
d. Provide training and preparation for fire brigade and employees.
e. Provide for orderly and efficient transition from normal to emergency
procedures.
f. Review the plan with local emergency response officials and note key contacts
and telephone numbers.
g. Develop a crisis communication plan for dealing with the media.
h. Purchase and maintain equipment and supplies necessary for emergency
situations.
i. Provide the communication and transportation systems needed in emergencies.
j. Develop and lead simulations and drills based on emergency action plan.
k. Periodically evaluate and revise the emergency response plan.
l. Document evaluation results and corrective actions and make necessary
adjustments in revised plan.
47. Key consideration in emergency response planning
a. ALERTING AND WARNING employees, Employees should be trained on
how to report emergencies and on what to do in case of an emergency,
including when and how to evacuate. The plan should include an up-to-date
list of key personnel who should be notified in case of an emergency
b. ACCOUNTABILITY visitors after an evacuation occurs. The following four
steps should be considered: 1. Employees should gather in pre-designated
assembly areas. 2. A roll call should be taken in the assembly areas a list of
those unaccounted for forwarded to the official in charge. 3. A method should
be established to account for non-employees. 4. The plan should include
provisions for further evacuation in the event that the emergency worsens
c. Emergencies often include a series of quickly unfolding events, and a great
deal of CONTINUITY OF confusion. It is very important that plans specify a
means to maintain management MANAGEMENTcontrol and timely decision
making. It is also important to preserve vital information and company
records. Three important measures to be taken to ensure continuity of
leadership are: 1. Maintain a continuous chain of command. 2. Develop and
establish clear lines of succession. 3. Provide for an alternative headquarters
48. The fire tetrahedron has four elements. They are: heat, oxygen, fuel and the chain
reaction. The so-called "chain reaction" is the feeding of the fuel oxygen mixture with
a surplus of "fire-radicals" that help to propagate the combustion chemical reaction
process. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, FPP Section, page 8)
49. The four types of ignition sources are: Chemical, Electrical, Mechanical, and
Nuclear. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, FPP Section, pages 12-13)
50. There are four ordinary classes of fires: A is ordinary combustibles; B is flammable
and combustible liquids; C involves electrical equipment; and D is combustible
metals. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, FPP Section, pages 8-9)
51. There are four ordinary classes of fires: A is ordinary combustibles; B is flammable
and combustible liquids; C involves electrical equipment; and D is combustible
metals. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, FPP Section, pages 8-9)
52. A dry pipe sprinkler system is best used to protect property that is subject to freezing
temperatures. Water is not maintained in the distribution piping. Instead it remains
pressurized with air or nitrogen. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, FPP Section, page 17)
53. Which type of sprinkler system is appropriate for a building that is susceptible to
freezing? Dry pipe
54. Which would not be a basic feature of a fire control system? Inspect the fire
extinguisher and report defects
56. A dry pipe sprinkler system is best used to protect property that is subject to
freezing temperatures. Water is not maintained in the distribution piping. Instead it
remains pressurized with air or nitrogen. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, FPP Section, page 17)
58. Fire prevention is best described as: Incorporation of inspections and educations to
prevent fire losses before they occur
59. Component of a fire safety concepts tree? Fire safety objectives, Prevent fire
ignition & Manage fire impact NOT Investigate all fires
60. Education and training to prevent fire losses before they occur would most likely
include which elements? Learning how to recognize fire hazards and use fire control
equipment, and fire code compliance
61. Which organization is comprised of four insurance companies who conduct
research, develops standards, and issues approval on material and fire
protection equipment? Factory Mutual (FM)
62. The concept of preventing fire ignition would not include which control? Control
fire with construction
63. Which statement below is true about the National Building Code (NBC)?
Provides minimum requirements for health, life safety, and structural sufficiency in
new buildings
64. Which type of fire would you extinguish using water? Rubber
65. Blocked fire exits from product that has just been received because of a lack of
storage space is an example of: Material flow analysis
66. How many means of egress are needed for buildings containing over 1000
people? 4
67. What is NFPA 1600? National standard on disaster/emergency management and
business continuity programs
68. A systematic approach to fire protection systems’ inspection, testing and
maintenance should follow guidelines established by the manufacturers and
by:NFPA. NFPA Standards have been adopted by many Canadian jurisdictions
giving them the force of law when referenced in a regulation or code. B, C, and D all
refer to standard making organizations; however their guidelines and standards often
defer to, or reference the National Fire Protection Association Standards.
69. The greatest lethal source of fire gases in plastics is usually: Carbon monoxide
70. Carbon dioxide extinguishes fire by: Displacing part of the atmosphere at or near the
fire
71. The minimum temperature at which the vapour concentration above a liquid is high
enough to form an ignitable mixture with air is called the Flash point
72. A proposed fire protection program to address deficiencies should present to
management: The costs of the program compared with the reduction in insurance rates
73. When a cigarette is dropped into a sofa, the fire reaction progresses through several
stages before the fire is rampant. Which of the following is correct? The incipient
stage represents the major life-threatening situation
74. Following the introduction of a fire protection program, a small company can evaluate
the program's effectiveness by comparing: The reports of inspections by the insurance
company and the fire department
75. A combustible liquid has a flash point at or above:37.8 degrees C (100° F)
76. Foam extinguishers normally are used on Class A and B fires
77. The most important consideration for selecting and placing smoke detectors is the Air
flow within the building
78. Compartmentalization refers to the: Enclosure of areas for storage and fire control
purposes
79. Most heat detectors fall into the two broad categories of: Fixed temperature or rate
of rise
80. The quickest and most dependable fire protection in buildings are Sprinkler systems
81. XYZ Company has had a fire that nearly wiped out the plant. Your manager has asked
you to develop a comprehensive fire safety plan to help address some of the
deficiencies that were noted by the investigators. One of the first steps in developing a
fire safety plan includes: The establishment of objectives for life safety, property
conservation and business continuity
82. Above Case study, Special consideration must be given to this when developing a
company's fire safety management plan: By-products of a fire
83. To following elements are required to sustain a fire: Oxygen, heat, fuel, chain reaction
84. Fuel is defined as any material that: can be oxidized rapidly
85. Class K fires involve: Fires in cooking appliances that involve combustible cooking
media, (vegetable or animal oils and fats)
86. This code is an important consideration in the NFPA 101 document because it
classifies occupancies and provides details on egress, fire protection and building
services: . Life Safety Code
87. "Fire Load" is the measurement of the maximum: Heat that would be produced if all
the combustibles burned in an area. "Fire Load" is the measurement of the maximum:
Heat that would be produced if all the combustibles burned in an area
88. Two types of heat or thermal detectors are:Fixed Temperature, Rate of Rise
89. This system is designed to prevent water damage from broken sprinklers or piping. A
valve will be actuated by fire detection system sending water to the sprinkler heads
and water flows once the sprinkler heads are opened by the heat from the fire. . Dry
Pipe Systems
90. When shutting down a sprinkler system for maintenance the cardinal rule is: Notify
the fire department
91. There are piping systems in a building with connections for hoses at various locations
so the fire department pumper trucks can hook up to and provide water or supplement
an existing water supply. These are referred to as: Wet and Dry Standpipe
92. The absence of residues, a low toxicity and electrical non-conductivity are positive
features of this fire extinguishing agent:Halogenated Agents
93. XYZ Company has been experience remarkable growth over the last 2 years and has
decided to expand their warehouse. Your immediate supervisor has asked you to
recommend a fire detection system. In the process of considering what detector would
be most appropriate you studied two types of heat or smoke detectors and these
were: Photoelectric Detectors, Ionizing Detectors
94. Above Case: In one of the detectors you discovered that it emits a beam of light.
When this is interrupted or reflected by a visible smoke particle it will cause a change
in the electric conductivity and this results in an alarm. This detector was a(n):UV
Detector
95. Above Case: The fires that may occur with the products that are kept on site will
certainly emit a great deal of smoke. Although these detectors are essentially
insensitive to heat and ordinary illumination, like sunlight they were not a good
selection because they might be blinded by the thick smoke and these were.
Photoelectric Detectors
96. Above Case: You decided to recommend these detectors which use xenon lamps to
analyze particles in the air because they are considered to be the most reliable and
valid measures of fire intensity and are: UV Detectors
97. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) is the main association dealing with
national fire safety. Which of the following statements is not true about the NFPA ? .
The NFPA's standards are developed by the president of a committee
98. A fire triangle is a model that shows the three factors that need to be present in order
to initiate a fire which include: fuel, oxygen and heat. The ease of ignition of a solid
fuel is dependent on several factors, which is the most important factor?
Flammability of the fuel material
99. Loss potential due to fire must be identified in an organization. A proven way of
accomplishing this is by establishing a plant self-inspection program. Which of the
following is not a main focus of the self-inspection program? Fire suppression
100. The United Nations and the United States Department of Transport (DOT)
came up with two standardized methods of classifying and identifying hazardous
materials. The U.S Department of Transportation labeling system (49 CFR 172)
contains specific requirements for the shipping, marking, labeling, and placarding of
1400 hazardous materials. Which of the following is not an objective of the standard?
. To provide immediate warning of potential danger
101. A management process is important to assure that life safety standards are
being followed. A baseline life safety inspection must assure: The condition and
adequacy of the means of egress and its protective features and The number of exits
provided is adequate for the occupant load
102. Tests are done to provide a basis for division of industrial facilities into classes
depending on the fuel available for contribution to a fire. Which of the following is an
example of moderate heat release occupancy? General warehouses
103. Fire extinguisher maintenance programs should include accurate and up to
date record keeping. Which of the following is not required in the fire extinguisher
records? Hydrostatic test data and the name of the person or company conducting it
104. Which of the following is a true statement? An "A" type extinguisher can be
used on a cooking oil fire
105. A systematic approach to fire protection systems’ inspection, testing and
maintenance should follow guidelines established by the manufacturers and by:
NFPA.NFPA Standards have been adopted by many Canadian jurisdictions giving
them the force of law when referenced in a regulation or code. B, C, and D all refer
to standard making organizations; however their guidelines and standards often defer
to, or reference the National Fire Protection Association Standards.
106. In Canada, the National Building Code and the National Fire Code are
developed under the: National Research Council. The NRC develops the Codes on
a consensus basis through committees of various stakeholders.
107. Fire Safety Organizations and Resources:
a. nature and importance of consensus standards
b. major roles played by four specific standards making organizations: CSA,
NFPA, UL, and Factory Mutual
c. purpose of the National Building Code and the National Fire Code and will be
able to explain the differences in the purpose and scope of the two documents
108. Fire Chemistry:
a. basics of fire chemistry and fire behaviour
b. how fires can be prevented and extinguished
c. concerned with fire detection and fire control
d. definition of fire, fire triangle and the fire tetrahedron
e. four different classes of fire and provide examples of each
f. three stages of fire development and three methods of heat transfer.
g. flashover” and “backdraft”
109. Essential Elements of Workplace Fire Safety Programs:
a. workplace fire safety program and how to be integrated with larger loss
prevention and control programs
110. the major components of the fire safety concepts tree
a. eight performance-based objectives
b. five basic responsibilities for an industrial fire brigade
c. the three steps in the emergency planning process
d. precautions necessary to minimize the risks associated with cutting and
welding, smoking in the workplace, and other potential sources of ignition
111. Identification and Control of Hazardous Materials:
a. standardized international system of hazardous material identification
b. techniques for isolating hazards and properly identifying compatibility issues
between various classes of hazardous materials
c. importance of ignition sources, flash point, ignition point, static electricity,
and gases.
d. understanding of the use of chemicals, explosives and blasting agents, toxic
chemicals, halogens and halogenated hydrocarbons, and radioactive chemicals
in the workplace.
112. Building Construction:
a. the term “life safety” as it pertains to building construction
b. 21 accepted terms and requirements that pertain to life safety code
c. three categories of combustibility and the five types of building construction,
d. basic building safety concepts such as flame spread rating, fire loading, and
compartmentalization.
113. Fire Detection Systems
a. different types of automatic fire detection systems
b. advantages and disadvantages. The overall purpose of fire detection systems is
to detect the presence of fire quickly and provide an alarm or warning: quick
and appropriate responses
c. basic principles of fire detection
d. basic operating principles of ultra violet and infrared flame detectors
e. basic operating principles of fixed-temperature and rate-of-rise thermal fire
detectors.
f. different types of smoke detectors
g. How to select different types of Fire Detection Systems?
h. air sampling detectors and advantages
114. Fire Control Systems
a. Fire control systems go a step further than detection systems in that they detect
fire and sound an alarm, but they also automatically initiate action to confine
or control the fire. The most common type of fire control systems are
automatic fire sprinkler systems which are designed to apply water
automatically to a fire at its place of origin in the incipient stage. In addition to
automatic fire sprinkler systems, there are many other types of fire control
systems that operate on a variety of extinguishment principles.
b. three basic operating features of automatic sprinkler systems and outline the
four basic types of systems.
c. other automatic fire control systems including: carbon dioxide systems; foam
extinguishing systems; halon and halon alternative extinguishing systems;
water mist systems; and dry chemical extinguishing systems
d. types of portable fire extinguishers and five basic factors that contribute to the
effective use of portable fire extinguishers.
115. Care, Maintenance and Inspection:
a. NFPA 10, Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers, and NFPA 25, Standard
for Inspection, Testing and Maintenance of Water-based Fire Protections
Systems
b. basic principles for the inspection and maintenance of sprinkler and portable
fire extinguishers
c. cardinal rule that should be followed when shutting off water to repair
sprinkler systems.
116. Legal Aspects, Organization and Legislation:
a. legal responsibilities and liabilities of each of the following groups: upper
management; safety managers; middle managers; lower managers; and
employees
b. basic principles of the fire department incident command system (ICS) and
outline the ways that safety professionals interact with fire officials during
emergency situations
c. relations between safety professionals and fire officials during emergency and
non-emergency situations.
117. Emergency Response Planning for Safety Professionals
a. key elements of an emergency response plan, and must be familiar with key
tasks such as alerting and warning employees, accountability after an
evacuation, training of employees, and continuity of management during and
after an emergency
b. four steps involved in establishing accountability after an evacuation.
c. three specific measures to be taken to ensure the continuity of management
during and after an emergency
118. Fire prevention is best described as: Incorporation of inspections and
educations to prevent fire losses before they occur
119. Which statement below is true about the National Fire Code (NFC)? A
national standard in Canada that is adopted and may be revised by the provinces
120. The concept of preventing fire ignition would not include which control?
Control fire with construction
121. Which element of an occupational health and safety program would be most
connected to fire safety? Hazardous materials handling and storage
Health and Wellness (Domain 5)
1. Stan, a 67-year-old safety department manager, is preparing for a performance review
meeting he is about to have with Stacey, the 22 year old safety coordinator that has
been on the job for 6 months. One particular issue he wants to address is Stacey's
apparent lack of assertiveness in speaking to workers and supervisors about obvious
safety deficiencies in her area of the plant. Which of the following approaches would
make perfect sense to Stan's generation of workers, but is unlikely to have an
influence on Stacey due to their generational values differences? People will follow
the rules once they understand them
2. In a disability management program, the most critical factor in ensuring a successful
return to work outcome is:Early intervention
3. The phrase meaningful and productive work is often used when discussing
modified/alternate duties. Meaningful and productive is decided by the Employer
and the worker
4. The most critical person in the detection of alcohol and drug-related problems that a
worker may be experiencing is: The line supervisor
5. Breathalyzer testing for alcohol impairment: Is an acceptable practice for
employees in safety-sensitive positions
6. "Job Analysis" is a tool that can be used to determine an employee's fitness to work
and appropriate early return-to-work options. It examines: Physical abilities,
language skills and clerical skills
7. A wellness program for workers over the age of 50 should consider: Information on
diet, lifestyle, exercise, nutrition, and stress.
8. The possibility of workplace violence needs to be treated: As a hazard of the
workplace
9. By definition, Workplace Violence includes: Harassment and Intimidation
10. When modifying a worker's job tasks it is essential that functional capacity tests be
performed comparing the worker's abilities to a: Physical Demand Analysis
11. Primary health protection programs include Flu and other immunizations
12. Secondary health protection programs include: Audiometric Testing
13. A worker has been injured at Frank's Drywall Company. The company has been
informed that the worker will not be able to return to work as a result of his injuries.
The company has come to you to ask for your advice in this matter. You discover that
the treating physician hasn't provided any information on the injured worker. What
information can be requested by the employer from the attending physician about an
injured worker: Any restrictions on patient activities
14. Above case.The worker has mentioned that if he was forced to return to work it
would violate his human rights. You inform the company that human rights
legislation actually requires an employer to: Accommodate workers to the point of
reasonable and practicable expectations of parties concerns
15. Disability Management is best described as: A proactive program for reducing
the impact of injury or disease on the workers ability to perform work
16. Issues such as a lack of clear work expectations and poor performance feedback form
part of which environment in the workplace? Psychosocial
17. When disability intervention management and rehabilitation services are delayed or
absent, the injured worker will likely: Begin to accept the "sick role" and not wish
to return to work
18. There are a number of factors which cause unacceptable workers' compensation costs
and most of these are: Internal and within the employer's control
19. This plays a vital role as part of the team by strengthening communication and serving
as the liaison between employer representatives, employees, WCB, benefit plan
providers, and rehabilitation providers. Essentially it facilitates the implementation of
disability management strategies and return-to-work plans as is referred to as: Case
Management Services
20. It is critical that a supervisor involved in accommodating an injured employee
knowsThe recommended work restrictions and limitations
21. Critical Debriefing Sessions are typically: Held within 72 hours of the incident &
Confidential and non-judgmental
22. Critical Stress Management (CSM) programs have historically been focused on health
care and emergency response personnel. The three critical steps in managing a
Critical Stress Management program are: Recognize the problem, Define critical
incidents, Provide debriefing & counselling
23. When documenting an employee's performance a supervisor should follow a
recommended F.O.C.U.S. process. F.O.C.U.S. means: Filed in the employee file,
Objective, Clear, Used, Systematic
24. Health protection (illness prevention) programs are normally introduced into the
workplace to comply with provincial/federal legislation. Which of the following
choices is a health protection program? Hearing conservation programs & Medical
monitoring programs
25. You're the health and safety advisor for XYZ Company. The company GAO has
asked you to brief him on the Workers Compensation Boards role in dealing with
injured workers. He also wants to know if he should develop a return to work
program for injured workers. Effective WCB Management for XYZ Company must
include all the following except for: Assisting in the completion of the workers
WCB report form
26. Above case. The most critical step in the development of a successful return to work
program for the Company is: Setting return to work goals soon after the onset of
disability and providing timely rehabilitation services
27. Above case. The modified work programs that will be developed are essentially done
by: Integrating any combination of job tasks
28. There have been a number of injuries at this new plant. Another company
representative has told the employer that the WCB manages the entire worker claim
and that there is very little the organization can do. You have been asked to provide
your thoughts on the matter. You explain that company should aggressively manage
all their compensation systems. The most important reason is: To ensure claims are
validated and that injured workers can return to work quickly
29. Above case.If the company develops a well-managed return to work or modified work
program it will consistently demonstrate: A significant financial savings
30. Above case. Effective modified duties programs ensure that the work done by the
injured worker is meaningful and productive, there is no risk of further injury and the:
. Duties will not delay recovery
31. Employee Assistance Programs (EAP's) are available in the workplace to provide
professional counselling services to employees and their families, to help them
overcome problems that affect their work performance. What is the key component
of an EAP? Respecting and upholding confidentiality
32. Today's four generation workforce provides some challenges for corporate cultures
managing their Occupational Health. Safety and Environmental cultures. Which of the
following best defines Generation X de-motivating factors: Meaningless tasks and
paying your dues
33. Today's four generational workforce provides some challenges for corporate cultures
managing their Occupational Health. Safety and Environmental cultures. Which of
the following best defines "Millennium Generation" de-motivating factors: . Formal
business attire, seniority systems
34. According to the Public Health Agency of Canada the determinants of health include:
Income, social status, physical environment, and gender
35. Company policies on substance use define behavioural expectations and allow
organizations to: Take action when substandard behaviour is detected
36. A disability claims manager is responsible for a variety of functions, the most critical
of which is: Initiating and maintaining communication
37. A treating physician can provide the following information to the employer about an
injured worker: Any restrictions on patient activities
38. A strategy that gives structure and organization to the activity of returning injured
workers to the workplace as soon as possible following a work related accident is a
definition of a: Disability Management Program NB: The key to this question is the
descriptor, ‘strategy that gives structure and organization’. Thus, a disability
management program may contain all the other programs in its scope
39. What are the five key areas to be balanced in a properly developed employee
assistance program (EAP)? Intellectual, social, spiritual, mental and physical
health. NB: The five key areas to be balanced in a properly developed employee
assistance program are: intellectual, social, spiritual, mental and physical health
(Ref: Disability Management: Theory, Strategy and Industry Practice, D.E.G.
Dyck, page 236)
40. What is the main reason for having an EAP program for employees at work?
Personal and family problems undermine work performance if left unchecked
41. What is the most important feature of an EAP if it is to be successful?
Confidentiality. NB The most important feature of a successful EAP is
confidentiality (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Health Promotion, page 10-12)
42. What is the ISO standard that provides guidance on the development of occupational
health and safety management systems? ISO has not yet approved a standard for
OHS management systems. NB ISO has not yet approved a standard for OHS
management systems. The OHSAS 18001 has been based on the BS 8800 (British
Standard 8800) and may likely form a basis for an eventual ISO standard on
OHS management systems (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Risk Management Section, page
15).
43. What are the health effects associated with exposure to mould? Allergy and infection
& Poisoning. NB Mould in the workplace has been indicated as a factor in the
following conditions: infection, poisoning, allergy and sensitivities. The most
common symptoms of mould exposure, in the average office, seem to be allergies
and sensitivities (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OH Section, page 63)
44. What does “fitness to work” mean? Suitability of an individual or group’s health
in relation to the job and work environment NB Fitness to work is the suitability
of an individual or group’s health in relation to the job and work environment
(Ref: Disability Management: Theory, Strategy and Industry Practice, D.E.G.
Dyck, page 105)
45. What are the two types of stress considered as part of a stress management program?
Distress and eustress. The two types of stress considered as part of a stress
management program are distress and eustress (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Health
46. Which of the following is not a common element in a health and safety
management system? Program incentives. NB Program incentives are not key
elements in a health and safety management system (Ref: BCRSP Guide, HSE
Auditing, page 7)
47. When conducting a document review of inspection reports, what sample of documents
should the auditor review? A representative sample of inspection reports sufficient
enough for the auditor to assess them.NBThe auditor must ensure that sufficient
documentation is reviewed to be able to evaluate a company’s health and safety
system. Ref : BCRSP Guide AUD page 19
48. Why is it important to target the audience when developing health promotion
activities? This ensures the activity is developed and delivered to the audience
who will benefit from the activity. NB It is important to target the audience when
developing health promotion activities to ensure that the activity is developed
and delivered to the audience who will benefit from the activity (Ref: Disability
Management: Theory, Strategy and Industry Practice, D.E.G. Dyck, page 105)
49. How is obesity measured? Body-mass-index greater than 30 NB Obesity is
measured as a body-mass-index greater than 30 (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Health
50. What is the definition of workplace stress? Conflict between the organizational
culture and management style NB The best definition of workplace stress is
conflict between the organizational culture and management style (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, Health Promotion, page 12-14)
51. Which of the following definitions best describes health protection? Any behavior or
action taken to protect, promote or maintain health NB Health protection is best
described as any behavior or action taken to protect, promote or maintain
health. The (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Health Promotion, page 4-6)
52. What are the key ingredients for good employee mental health? Open
communication, freedom from hostility and employees feeling that they have
been heard and appreciated NB The key ingredients for good employee mental
health inlcude: open communication, freedom from hostility and employees
feeling that they have been heard and appreciated (Ref: Disability Management:
Theory, Strategy and Industry Practice, D.E.G. Dyck, page 356)
53. What is meant by tertiary prevention? Assist the individual to regain level of
functioning once a condition occurs NB Tertiary prevention includes any action
or activity that assist the individual to regain a level of functioning once a
condition occurs (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Health Promotion, page 5-7)
54. Which audit validation technique is most likely to reveal a discrepancy between the
employees’ perception of management’s commitment to health and safety and
management’s perceived commitment? Interviews NB During employee interviews
the discrepancy between the employees’ perception of management’s
commitment to health and safety and management’s perceived commitment is
most often identified (Ref: BCRSP Guide, HSE Auditing, page 6-8)
55. What is an occupational health and safety management system? It is a framework of
accountabilities to ensure critical components of the health and safety program
are developed, implemented and documented NB An occupational health and
safety management system is a framework of accountabilities to ensure critical
components of the health and safety program are developed, implemented and
documented. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, HSE Auditing, pages 1-3)
56. An EAP program will be effective only if it maintains: Complete confidentiality NB
Referral and use of EAP programs require strict confidential and professional
assistance to employees and their families (Ref: BCRSP Guide, HP Section 3,
pages 4 and 8)
57. Which accident theory would predict an employee that has just been widowed and
promoted would be at risk to have an accident? Life Change Unit Theory NB The
life change unit (LCU) theory assumes that the probability that a person will
have an accident is contextual. People under psychological stress due to the death
of a spouse, workplace promotion or other significant change will be more likely
to have accidents. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, AT Section, pages 48-50)
58. Which one of the following is the key principle of Human Rights legislation in the
disability management context? Accommodation of the ill/injured worker
59. Which would be an advantage to integrating occupational and non-occupational
disability management? Reduces disability costs by 19-25%
60. If you are asked as an external health and safety consultant to resolve an issue with
supply chain management accident frequency, what is the best course of action to take
in order to avoid a potential future lawsuit? Follow a professional and thorough
problem identification, analysis and problem solving process, documenting
where appropriate
61. A treating physician can provide the following information to the employer about an
injured worker: Any restrictions on patient activities. NB Confidentiality of
medical information limits the physician’s ability to provide the employer with
any information on the patient other than that described in D
62. A strategy that gives structure and organization to the activity of returning injured
workers to the workplace as soon as possible following a work related accident is a
definition of a: Disability Management Program NB The key to this question is
the descriptor, ‘strategy that gives structure and organization’. Thus, a disability
management program may contain all the other programs in its scope
63. What is the key factor for a successful employee assistance program (EAP)?
Confidential
64. A service technician who works for a service organization fell down while walking
down a slippery driveway of a home owner. The workers’ compensation board
provided benefits to the injured worker. What may happen next? The workers’
compensation board may sue the homeowner
65.
Law and Ethics (Domain 6)

1. On a bright sunny day a company was shipping some class 3 dangerous goods to one
of their customers in another province. At approximately 2:00 pm the driver was
involved in an accident and some of the product was reported to be leaking. During
this accidental release of a dangerous good the person responsible for reporting is.
The driver
2. Above Case. The Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act class 3 for dangerous
goods is: Flammable liquids
3. Constitutional law establishes: which level of government has authority to make
which kind of laws
4. Canada is a constitutional democracy that is governed by three major institutions
united through the Queen. Those institutions are best described as: . the Executive,
the Legislature and the Judiciary
5. In strict liability offences, the crown must prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the
accused: committed the prohibited act.
6. Strict liability, sometimes called absolute liability, is the legal responsibility for dama
ges, or injury, even if the person found strictly liable wasnot at fault or negligent. Stric
t liability has been applied to certain activities in tort, such as holding an employer abs
olutely liable for the tortsof her employees, but today it is most commonly associated
with defectively manufactured products.
7. In ProductLiability cases involving injuries caused by manufactured goods, strict lia
bility has had a major impact on litigation since the1960s. In 1963, in Greenman v. Yu
ba Power Products, 59 Cal. 2d 57, 377 P.2d 897, the California Supreme Court beca
me the first court toadopt strict tort liability for defective products. Injured plaintiffs h
ave to prove the product caused the harm but do not have to prove exactly howthe ma
nufacturer was careless. Purchasers of the product, as well as injured guests, bystande
rs, and others with no direct relationship withthe product, may sue for damages cause
d by the product.
8. An injured party must prove that the item was defective, that the defect proximately
caused the injury, and that the defect rendered the product
unreasonably dangerous. A plaintiff may recover damages even if the seller has exerci
sed all possible care in the preparation and sale of theproduct.
9. Common law, once referred to as "the law of the land", pertains to: Decisions derived
from precedence and earlier court rulings
10. Actions initiated within the court related to common law are initiated by a: Lawsuit
NOT Criminal charge or Prosecution
11. In Canada, "doing anything, or failing to do anything, that it is one's duty to do, and
that shows wanton or reckless disregard for the lives and safety of other persons" is
known as . Criminal negligence
12. A tort, in common law jurisdictions, is a civil wrong that unfairly causes someone
else to suffer loss or harm resulting in legal liability for the person who commits the
tortious act, called a tort feasor. Although crimes may be torts, the cause of legal
action is not necessarily a crime, as the harm may be due to negligence which does
not amount to criminal negligence. The victim of the harm can recover their loss
as damages in a lawsuit.
13. In criminal law, criminal negligence is a surrogate mens rea (Latin for "guilty mind")
required to constitute a conventional as opposed to strict liability offense. It is not,
strictly speaking, a mens rea because it refers to an objective standard of behaviour
expected of the defendant and does not refer to his mental state. It is defined as an act
that is: careless, inattentive, neglectful, willfully blind, or in the case of gross
negligence what would have been reckless in any other defendant
14. Mens rea (/ˈmɛnz ˈriːə/; Latin for "the guilty mind"), in criminal law, is viewed as
one of the necessary elements of some crimes. The standard common law test of
criminal liability is usually expressed in the Latin phrase, actus reus non facit reum
nisi mens sit rea, which means "the act is not culpable unless the mind is guilty".
Thus, in jurisdictions with due process, there must be an actus reus, or "guilty act",
accompanied by some level of mens rea to constitute the crime with which the
defendant is charged (see the technical requirement of concurrence). As a general
rule, criminal liability does not attach to a person who merely acted with the absence
of mental fault. The exception is strict liability crimes.
15. In civil law, it is usually not necessary to prove a subjective mental element to
establish liability for breach of contract or tort, for example. However, if a tort is
intentionally committed or a contract is intentionally breached, such intent may
increase the scope of liability as well as the measure of damages payable to
the plaintiff.
16. Therefore, mens rea refers to the mental element of the offence that accompanies
the actus reus. In some jurisdictions, the terms mens rea and actus reus have been
replaced by alternative terminology. In Australia, for example, the elements of the
federal offenses are now designated as "fault elements" or "mental elements" (mens
rea) and "physical elements" or "external elements" (actus reus). This terminology
was adopted to replace the obscurity of the Latin terms with simple and accurate
phrasing
17. Product liability is the area of law in which manufacturers, distributors, suppliers,
retailers, and others who make products available to the public are held responsible
for the injuries those products cause. Although the word "product" has broad
connotations, product liability as an area of law is traditionally limited to products in
the form of tangible personal property
18. Products Liability distinguishes between three major types of product liability
claims:
a. manufacturing defect,
b. design defect,
c. a failure to warn (also known as marketing defects).
19. A professional conflict of interests exists when there is a conflict between: Private
interests and professional responsibilities. A conflict of interest (COI) is a situation
in which a person or organization is involved in
multiple interests (financial, emotional, or otherwise), one of which could
possibly corrupt the motivation of the individual or organization
20. When dealing with an infraction of the OH&S legislation, and OH&S Officer may
issue which of the following type of action? A direction or order. Infraction:
Violation or infringement; breach of a statute, contract, or obligation.
The term infraction is frequently used in reference to the violation of a particular
statute for which the penalty is minor, such as a parking infraction.
21. Provincial and Federal OH&S Officers have the legal authority to do many but
cannot stop the work of an project
22. Canadian workers have three traditional rights under OH&S law in most provinces,
they are: the right to refuse dangerous work, the right to participate, the right to
know about the hazards at their workplace
23. In Product Liability law, implied warranties can be best described as: by the
manufacturer or dealer placing the product on sale, it is suitable for a specific
purpose or use a guarantee that is held to exist in law, even if not specified by the
seller
24. Strict liability is a concept in product liability lawsuits that: makes it unnecessary for
the plaintiff to show negligence or fault to hold the manufacturer liable if an injury or
defect has occurred associated with their product
25. When evaluating ethical alternatives, which of the following form the strongest case
upon which to base a decision? Applying as many of the above as possible
26. Ethical decision-making refers to the process of evaluating and choosing among
alternatives in a manner consistent with ethical principles. In making ethical
decisions, it is necessary to perceive and eliminate unethical options and select the
best ethical alternative.
27. The process of making ethical decisions requires:
a. Commitment: The desire to do the right thing regardless of the cost
b. Consciousness: The awareness to act consistently and apply moral
convictions to daily behavior
c. Competency: The ability to collect and evaluate information, develop
alternatives, and forsee potential consequences and risks
d. Good decisions are both ethical and effective:
28. Ethical decisions generate and sustain trust; demonstrate respect, responsibility,
fairness and caring; and are consistent with good citizenship. These behaviors provide
a foundation for making better decisions by setting the ground rules for our behavior.
29. Effective decisions are effective if they accomplish what we want accomplished and
if they advance our purposes. A choice that produces unintended and undesirable
results is ineffective. The key to making effective decisions is to think about choices
in terms of their ability to accomplish our most important goals. This means we have
to understand the difference between immediate and short-term goals and longer-
range goals
30. In the Sault Ste. Marie case two branches of the due diligence defence were set out
mistake of facts and reasonable precautions
31. Due Diligence Defence
32. Background: A director or officer is said to have acted with due diligence if he or she
exercised the degree of care, diligence and skill that a reasonably prudent person
would have exercised in comparable circumstances. The standard is said to be
"objective" because a director must exercise the reasonable care and skill which an
ordinary person might be expected to exercise in the circumstances. In situations
where a due-diligence defence is applicable, the onus of proof of substantiating due
diligence is on the director. The due-diligence defence for directors and officers is a
provision commonly found in modern corporate laws like the Saskatchewan Non-
profit Corporations Act and the Canada Business Corporations Act. The Canada
Corporations Act does not provide this kind of defence.
33. In a 1992 Supreme Court judgment the court reaffirmed the process for regulatory
offences which is that the Crown must prove the accused committed the prohibited act
beyond a reasonable doubt, at which point: the burden reverts to the accused to
prove, on a balance of probabilities, that it was duly diligent in its efforts to
prevent the offence
34. Ethical conduct that considers that the good of the community may be sacrificed for
the rights of an individual is called: Rights-based Theory
35. The BCRSP Code of Ethics establishes standards of ethical behaviour of the Canadian
Registered Safety Professionals. Choose that is not part of the CRSP Code of Ethics:
Protect and promote the safety and health of people, property and the
environment unless it conflicts with self-interest
36. A contract is a set of mutual promises enforceable at law. A contract requires:
competent parties, a subject matter that is not against public policy and a
consideration in return
37. Ontario's Ham Commission is credited with establishing: the internal responsibility
system
38. One of the workers' compensation principles established by Sir William Meredith,
Chief Justice of Ontario in 1913 was: workers need to contribute through payroll
deduction a part of an employer's WCB premium
39. A corporate OH&S program designed for your company's various locations which
establish duties and authorities of the various levels of management and employees in
the plants is an example of: Internal Responsibility System
40. The following is responsible for threatened and endangered species: . Federal and
provincial governments
41. Environmental laws in Canada encompass conservation, pollution control, land use
and: Public health
42. Environmental law is a relatively new field of law comprising laws designed to
protect the natural environment
43. In Canada the power to pass laws relating to the environment is divided between
federal and provincial governments. The Constitution gives the federal
government power to pass laws relating to fisheries, shipping, interprovincial
trade and commerce, and criminal law.
44. Federal legislation enacted under these powers includes the Canadian
Environmental Protection Act, the Canadian Environmental Assessment Act, the
Pest Control Products Act, the Canada Shipping Act, the Arctic Waters
Pollution Prevention Act, the Fisheries Act and the Transportation of Dangerous
Goods Act
45. In the TOG Act a reference to marking of containers describes: Shipping and
technical names and is required for each package, freight container and
transport vehicle
46. An investigation of a warehouse at ABC Company found a number of dangerous
goods improperly labeled and marked. Some of the vehicles used to transport these
dangerous goods did not have the proper placards or other information required under
the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act. In the Transportation of Dangerous
Goods Act reference to labels describes: Labels on packages and or containers
47. Above Case. In the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act a reference to placards
describes: Large signs used to identify transport vehicles
48. Which of the following elements must be present in order for a cause of action for
negligence to arise? There must be a duty recognized by the law to avoid this
damage
49. As described in the Canadian Labour Code Part II and other OHS legislation across
Canada, What is the purpose of the term "limitation of liability": The government
officer/inspector will not be intimidated by threats of legal action after making a
decision
50. A compliance order can be and is most commonly issued when: There is a
regulatory infraction
51. A true criminal offence under the Canada Criminal Code involves a mental element as
part of the offence itself. What is this element called? Mens rea
52. Referring to the Canada Labour Code, the amount of time someone has to take legal
action before they are prohibited from doing is called: Limitation period
53. What are the three definitions that Bill C45 brought to the Criminal Code of Canada
that are important? Organization, Representative, Senior Officer
54. As per the Criminal Code of Canada there is a new test regarding criminal liability for
an organization that can be categorized into two branches. The second branch test is
called the "aggregated mens rea". Choose the statement which best describes this
term: Knowledge of high risk from groups of people can be combined
55. The term Kantianism is a tradition in ethical theory, and is an important source of
modern human rights. How would you define this term? Focusing on right and
wrong action, without regard to consequences
56. Which of the following statements is included in the CRSPs Code of Ethics? Provide
sound judgment in pursuance of professional duties
57. When a worker has refused unsafe work, when must an OH&S Officer be called?
After the employer has taken action or refused to take action and the worker still
believe danger exists
58. The CRSP is considered a "quasi-profession" because: People who are not
members of the profession are legally allowed to practice
59. A relatively straightforward and effective method of evaluating the ethical nature of a
decision is: The reasonable person test
60. The centrepiece of federal environmental legislation in Canada is the Canadian
Environmental Protection Act. The main goal of this act is to: Contribute to
sustainable development through pollution prevention and to protect the
environment, and human life and health from the risks associated with toxic
substances
61. Every province or territory has a ministry vested with executive powers for pollution
abatement and nature conservation. Which one of the following affairs do the
provincial authorities manage? Ensuring development projects comply with
environmental standards
62. A ‘procedural’ approach to regulation: Sets out detailed rules telling you how to
reach a standard. A regulation is the detailed legal authority, whereas an Act is the
basic legal authority. Some jurisdictions are including performance standards into
their procedural regulations; this will allow the organization to measure their
procedures against the minimum legal standard for compliance.
63. A ‘privative clause’: Prevents a person from appealing an administrator’s
decision. Workers’ compensation is a provincial matter. The study guide confirms
that CRSP’s need to know the various compensation regimes in which they
operate. Privacy clauses exist in compensation law to limit the appeal process.
For example: ‘an action or decision of the _____ under this Act is final and is not
open to question or review in a court.’
64. Which of the following is not an ethical view with respect to managing with
ethics? The Managerial View. The four ethical views adopted in past are The
Utilitarian View, The Individualism View, The Moral-Rights View and The
Justice View (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 6)
65. Under Canadian civil law the tort of negligence provides the basis for legal
liability. Civil suits involving allegations of negligence may be initiated by
individuals or by insurance companies who are looking to recover funds paid out
in major losses. In order to successfully advance a claim of negligence a plaintiff
must establish:
b. 2) The accepted practices or codes of conduct that should apply to a
particular situation.
behaviours.
67. What is Tort law? Is a “private wrong” other than contract that is recognized by
law. Tort law is a “private wrong” other than contract that is recognized by law.
There are some wrongs we do to each other which the law does not recognize as
being important enough, or as public enough, to be the basis of legal action. A
person who feels they have been “wronged” by another person must fit the
wrong conduct into a “cause of action” such as negligence, trespass, assault,
defamation, or nuisance etc. mandatory (Ref: Occupational Health and Safety
law, Study Guide, Unit 1, page 28)
68. What are the main sources of law? The Legislatures and the courts. We refer to the
“sources of law” as “legal materials” such as the Acts, Regulations, Codes and
case reports. The actual “sources of law” are the legislatures and the courts that
create the “legal materials” (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Law and Ethics, page 15)
69. What is true regarding Fitts' Law? It is a landmark study of human movement, It
predicts the time it takes to move from a starting point to a final target area, The
kind of motion it describes is aimed and rapid. In the work environment, there
are few work tasks where Fitts' Law doesn't apply (Ref: BCRSP Guide, ERG
Section, page 26)
70. What is a lawsuit? A legal proceeding where one party is suing another for a
“remedy” or an “injunction”. A “prosecution” is a legal proceeding where the
State is charging the defendant with an offense that is a breach of an Act or
regulation (BCRSP Guide, page 16)
71. What is a prosecution? A legal proceeding where the State is charging the
defendant with an “offence” that is a breach of an Act or regulation. A lawsuit is
a legal proceeding where one party is suing another for a “remedy” or an
“injunction”. (BCRSP Guide, page 16)
72. What is the role of the Legislature with respect to law-making and the legal
system? Making the laws. The roles of the various parties in the legal systems are
as follows: legislatures make the laws; courts interpret the laws; bureaucracies
draft and administer the laws; police and inspectors enforce the law and the
citizens vote for the law makers (BCRSP Guide, page 15)
73. If a “bill” is introduced that a CRSP thinks will be detrimental to workplace health
and safety when should he or she voice their opposition to it? After the second
reading when it goes to committee for scrutiny and possible amendment. A bill
receives three readings before the legislature. After the second reading it goes to
“committee” where it is scrutinized and possibly amended. It is at this point that
a CRSP can have some behind the scenes impact. Although political influence is
best achieved before a bill is ever introduced to the legislature some impact can
be affected after the second reading, before the third reaethicsding and final
enactment (BCRSP Guide, page 19)
74. What is the role of the courts with respect to law-making and the legal system?
Interpreting and applying the law. The roles of the various parties in the legal
systems are as follows: legislatures make the laws; courts interpret the laws;
bureaucracies draft and administer the laws; police and inspectors enforce the
law and the citizens vote for the law makers (BCRSP Guide, page 15)
75. What is the role of the bureaucrats with respect to law-making and the legal system?
Drafting and administering the law
76. In relation to our legal system what is a “bill”? A draft Act. A draft Act is called a
“bill”. A “government bill” as the name suggests is a draft Act introduced to the
legislature by the party in power and can be passed into law (BCRSP Guide,
page 18)
77. What is the role of the OHS Inspectors with respect to law-making and the legal
system? Enforcing the law. The roles of the various parties in the legal systems
are as follows: legislatures make the laws; courts interpret the laws;
bureaucracies draft and administer the laws; police and inspectors enforce the
law and the citizens vote for the law makers (BCRSP Guide, page 15)
78. Considering the concept expressed in “Volenti Non Fit Injuria” which of the
following is true? Workplace injuries whether self-inflicted or involuntary are
prosecutable offenses. “Volenti Non Fit Injuria“ is the assumption of risk rule. It
is not applicable to workplace settings any more but is still in existence in the
common law. For example if you play a game of hockey it is assumed that accept
the ordinary risks of the game. So you do not complain if you fall down and
bruise your leg (Ref: Occupational Health and Safety law, Study Guide Unit 2
page 2)
79. Why were no-fault workers compensation systems introduced in Canada? The
common law system did not adapt quickly enough to the new and emerging
industrialized economy leaving the need for a new system. The common law
system did not adapt quickly enough to the new and emerging industrialized
economy leaving the need for a new system. Some employers were being sued
into bankruptcy. Some employees were being killed and seriously injured and
were never compensated. In 1910 the Premier of Ontario appointed Justice
William Meredith to head a Royal Commission to study workers compensation
systems and make recommendations for a new system for Ontario (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, Law and Ethics, page 5)
80. If the IRS (internal responsibility system) has every person inside an organization
responsible for health and safety. Who does the ERS (external responsibility system)
make responsible for health and safety? The government and its inspectors. The
ERS (external responsibility system) makes the government and its inspectors
responsible for health and safety (Ref: Occupational Health and Safety Law,
Study Guide Unit 5 page 22)
81. “Recognize their professional abilities and never undermine the skills of others
unless it puts people at risk” is not part of the Code. of Ethics Instead this element
of the Code requires the CRSP to “Recognize the professional limitations and
level of competence as well as the special skills of others in related professions”.
All of the answers are direct statements or re-worded commitments expressed in
the CRSP Code of Ethics. (Ref: BCRSP Law and Ethics Study Guide, page 98)
82. “Professional ethics” is about the standard of care the professional must live up
to with respect to conflicts of interest, honesty, respect, courtesy etc. Professional
ethics is a subset of ethics in general; it is concerned with those issues of an
ethical nature that arise between the professional and the client, between
professionals and between professionals and third parties. (Ref: BCRSP Law
and Ethics Study Guide, page 96).
83. Justice William Meredith’s “historic tradeoff” was created by the WCB reforms he
recommended be put in place. Workers had to give up their rights to sue their
employers but gained guaranteed protection against income loss due to
industrial accidents or disease (Ref: Occupational Health and Safety law, Study
Guide Unit 2 page 21)
84. Who is credited with WCB reform in Canada that created the system we enjoy today?
Justice William Meredith. Justice William Meredith was appointed in 1910 to
head a Royal Commission to study workers compensation schemes and to make
recommendations for an Ontario scheme (Ref: Occupational Health and Safety
law, Study Guide Unit 2 page 21)
85. Doctor is a “full profession” and they are therefore “full professionals” because
they belong to a profession. A person cannot practice medicine unless they are
licensed and charges can be brought against them for practicing without a
license. For Doctors there is a statutory regime that backs them as a monopoly
(Ref: BCRSP Law and Ethics Study Guide, page 96).
86. Mens rea is the mental state necessary to do the wrong. “A guilty mind” or “an
evil mind” is the described mental state required to commit the offense. This
concept is used in criminal law but almost never in regulatory law (Ref:
Occupational Health and Safety law, Study Guide, Unit 1, page 31)
87. A Bylaw is like a Regulation in the sense that it is a subordinate type of law. It is
law and it is enforceable as law but it is made under the authorization of an Act.
Municipal Bylaws are a good example. Guidelines are not law and by definition
are not mandatory (Ref: Occupational Health and Safety law, Study Guide, Unit
1, page 25)
88. Who are the three parties in the so-called “WHMIS triad” that developed and
brought into legislation the elements of WHMIS? Labour, Industry and
Government. WHMIS was developed through negotiations between federal
labour, provincial authorities, industry representatives and organized labour
(Ref: Occupational Health and Safety Law, Study Guide Unit 9 page 3
89. The three main elements of WHMIS are Labeling (workplace and supplier),
training (generic and site specific) and MSDSs (Ref: Occupational Health and
Safety Law, Study Guide Unit 9 page 17)
90. All of these substances may be hazardous however pesticides are exempt from
WHMIS because its manufacture, distribution and application are already
regulated federally (Ref: Occupational Health and Safety Law, Study Guide Unit
9, page 23).
91. Two standardized methods of classifying and identifying hazardous materials,
the United Nations and the United States Department of Transport (DOT)
classification systems. DOT labeling system contains requirements for the
shipping, marking, labeling, and placarding of more than 1400 different
hazardous materials
92. Workplace Hazardous Materials Identification System (WHMIS) is federally
legislated in Canada
93. ERG2004) was developed jointly by the US Department of Transportation,
Transport Canada, and the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation
of Mexico (SCT) for use( in each emergency service vehicle) by firefighters. It is
primarily a guide to aid first responders in (1) quickly identifying the specific or
generic classification of the material(s) involved in the incident, and (2)
protecting themselves and the general public during this initial response phase of
the incident.
94. The purpose of the Hazardous Products Act is to provide a framework for
controls of the advertising, sale and importation of certain restricted substances.
This Act contains the provisions for WHMIS (Ref: BCRSP Guide,
Environmental Practices, pages 24-25)
95. When we “map” the IRS onto due diligence the Supervisor's role is coaching and
problem solving (Ref: Occupational Health and Safety Law, Study Guide Unit 5
page 12-13)
96. The Pittsburg Study (1907) was a study of the compensation paid out to
surviving dependents of workers killed in Allegheny County. It was responsible
for gaining the attention of the public regarding the poor treatment of the
dependants of workplace fatalities. The study showed that 50% of the families of
workers killed at work received no compensation at all (Ref: Occupational
Health and Safety law, Study Guide Unit 2 page 20)
97. Thorndike’s law of effect suggests: behaviour that results in a pleasant outcome
is likely to be repeated and behaviour that results in an unpleasant outcome is
not likely to be repeated (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 56
98. Under Canadian civil law the tort of negligence provides the basis for legal
liability. Civil suits involving allegations of negligence may be initiated by
individuals or by insurance companies who are looking to recover funds paid out
in major losses. In order to successfully advance a claim of negligence a plaintiff
must establish:
b. 2) The accepted practices or codes of conduct that should apply to a
particular situation.
behaviours.
100. All banks in Canada are federally regulated regardless of the Provinces in
which they operate (Ref: Occupational Health and Safety law, Study Guide, Unit
1, page 31)
101. What are the two main purposes of OHS law? Compensation and
Prevention. The two main purposes of OHS law are compensation and
prevention. Compensation: after someone has been injured or has contracted a
disease. Prevention: instead of looking to the past we look to the future and try to
prevent injury and illness (Ref: Occupational Health and Safety law, Study
Guide, Unit 1, page 2)
102. In the "command and control" model of regulation the role of the
workplace health and safety officer is that of enforcer (Ref: Occupational Health
and Safety law, Study Guide Unit 5 page 3)
103. Weight of evidence principle means: Ensure available evidence is of
sufficient strength, coherence, and consistency to support the conclusion that a
serious hazard may exist
104. Due to a successful working relationship as a safety consultant, you are
now offered work on a project by your client to perform environmental clean-up
but you do not have any experience in that particular area, how would you get
the contract and still be ethical?
105. Due to a successful working relationship as a safety consultant, you are
now offered work on a project by your client to perform environmental clean-up
but you do not have any experience in that particular area, how would you get
the contract and still be ethical? Advise the client of the need for an
environmental clean-up specialist and include the cost of that in your proposal to
the client
106. A ‘procedural’ approach to regulation: Sets out detailed rules telling you
how to reach a standard. A regulation is the detailed legal authority, whereas an
Act is the basic legal authority. Some jurisdictions are including performance
standards into their procedural regulations; this will allow the organization to
measure their procedures against the minimum legal standard for compliance.
107. You are in a jam and need to conduct fall prevention training the next day, but
have no materials ready to go. You do have a presentation you received from a fellow
safety professional when you attended a conference last year. You decide to contact
that person and request permission to reuse their slides for your training tomorrow.
That decision best reflect which professional responsibility? Recognize and respect
the original work, integrity and ability of their peers
108. Which statement below best sums up the (internal responsibility system) IRS
model: Everyone in the organization can cause or prevent an accident in the
workplace
109. Worker compensation boards in Canada come into existence and obtain their
powers from: Statutes usually called Acts
110. A homeowner needs the roof to be fixed in his house and contracts an
organization to come and fix the roof. During the roofing repairs, a roofer falls from
the roof and dies. What type of law is not likely to have a bearing on the case?
Constitutional law
111. If one of your worker’s health has been harmed from using an approved
chemical that has long been used in your organization, what options does the worker
have? The worker can elect to either apply for workers compensation benefits, or
sue the manufacturer of the chemical
Management system (Domain 7)

1. The basic management functions are Planning, organizing, leading and controlling
2. An important benefit of inside-out planning would be: Defining the organization's
unique market niche
3. Setting objectives and deciding how to accomplish them is part of which management
function? Planning
4. The safety manager/director can gain the greatest line management support by:
Relating safety to productivity and cost measures
5. A management technique frequently used in order to explore options and ideas is:
Brainstorming
6. Autocratic, supportive and laissez-faire are three basic leadership styles or patterns. A
laissez-faire style is best for handling: Routine problems
7. In a graphic presentation of Theory X and Theory Y, the behaviour a 9,9 supervisor
exhibits is: High production, high people
8. The function of a labour/management safety committee is to: Fulfil the worker's
right to participate
9. According to Herzberg, a strong motivation factor is: Growth opportunities
10. In 1989, Max DePree wrote a book on: . Business leadership
11. The axiom of "distinguishing the significant few from the trivial many" is known
as: The Pareto Principle
12. In the study of traditional management, the term "span of control" is used to
indicate: The number of personnel under one supervisor
13. A key concept in the classical approach to management and the bureaucratic
management model is: Organizational structure, hierarchy of authority,
complete description of duties and responsibilities
14. Styles of conflict management require relative emphasis on: Cooperativeness and
assertiveness
15. A key motivational factor that can be applied to influence behaviour is:
Feedback
16. The safety professional's role within an organization can best be described as:
Develops the information needed for the line to exercise its authority for safety
17. A motive can best be described as: A drive
18. The attitude of a supervisor can affect employee attitude towards incident
prevention: Significantly
19. When developing a safety training program the most important factor is:
Training objectives
20. As a manager you should discipline a minor rule infraction by: Oral reprimand
21. Safety programs attempt to change attitudes toward safety; the three main
criteria to do so are: Fairness, consistency, and credibility
22. In the 1920s studies were conducted to determine the effects of illumination,
fatigue and monotony on employee satisfaction and productivity. These studies
are generally referred to as: Hawthorne studies
23. During a tour of a plant a safety professional sees at-risk behaviour. The safety
professional should: Call the supervisor
24. Total Quality Management (TQM) can best be defined as: An organizational
commitment to continual improvement and total customer satisfaction
25. Corporate environmental objectives are: Required by environmental legislation
26. Which of the following is one of the 5 major components of the ISO 14001
standard? Checking and Corrective Action
27. "Sustainable development" in EHS management refers to? Meeting the needs of
the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their
own needs
28. Psychological models of accidents focus on: Personal stress or job stress
29. Dr. Dan Peterson's theory states that worker relationships are affected by the
two factors of: Performance and reward
30. Your company is considering reorganizing their quality management plans.
They are looking for a problem-solving model to use. Your recommendation
could be DNV's RAIDERS approach. What does the acronym RAIDERS mean?
Recognize the problem, Analyze the problem, Identify possiblecauses. Develop
possible solutions, Evaluate possible solutions, Reach a decision, Stimulate action
31. The concept of Management by Objectives (MBO) is a good example of a
participative approach to goal setting is: Edwin Locke's goal-setting theory
32. Thorndike's law of effect states that "Behaviour that results in a pleasant
outcome is likely to be repeated; behaviour that results in an unpleasant outcome
is not likely to be repeated". This theory argues that: The likely recurrence of a
response is generally governed by its consequence or effect generally in the
form of reward or punishment
33. In the management of work teams the assumption is that teams pass through
various stages of development. The third stage is: Norming
34. All managers share four basic management functions or responsibilities. Those
as best described as: Planning, Organizing, Leading and Controlling
35. There are four main areas in which Canadian governments take an active role in
regulating business affairs. Those are best described as: Occupational Health &
Safety, Labour Practices, Environmental Protection and Consumer Protection
36. McGregor described two theories of worker attitude towards their work. Theory
X states: workers are generally not interested in their work and must be
motivated externally
37. McGregor described two theories of worker attitude towards their work. Theory
X states: workers are generally not interested in their work and must be
motivated externally
38. A Total Quality Management (TQM) principle is that: Every employee is
responsible for product quality
39. The three branches of the classical approach to management are: Scientific
management, administrative principles, bureaucratic organization
40. Human studies have shown that people who are singled out for special attention
tend to perform as anticipated merely because of the expectations created by the
situation. This is often referred to as: The Hawthorne Effect
41. The important steps in job/task instruction are: Motivate, Tell/Show, Test,
Check
42. The five "P"s in effective Safety Talk design are: Prepare, Pinpoint, Personalize,
Picturize, Prescribe
43. Successful employee training can be said to follow 7 steps, which of the following
presents 4 of those steps in the correct order? Identify training needs, set
training objectives, evaluate the training, follow-up
44. Common methods of identifying training needs include: Surveys, performance
appraisals, task analysis
45. Clayton Alderfer's theory on human motivation collapses Maslow's five needs
categories into: Existence, Relatedness and Growth needs
46. McClelland identified three human motivational needs that are central to his
theory. They are: Achievement, Power, Affiliation
47. Victor Vroom's expectancy theory is based on the relationship among three
factors. They are: Expectancy, Instrumentality and Valence
48. There are three major types of managerial controls. They are best described as:
Preliminary, Concurrent, Post-Action
49. Kurt Lewin describes the process of change as three phases. They are:
Unfreezing, Changing, Refreezing
50. Henri Fayol published "Administration lndustrielle et General" (General and
Industrial Administration) in 1916. Fayol's five "rules" or "duties" of
management are: Foresight, Organization, Command, Coordination, Control
51. When motivating human safe behaviour a safety sign telling workers that they
should put on their hard hat would be an example of: an antecedent or activator
52. Frank and Lillian Gilbreth are the acclaimed pioneers of: Motion Studies
53. Conflicts that that involve such disagreements in goal setting, resources
allocations and reward distribution are examples of: substantive conflict
54. Conflict resolution occurs when: the underlying source(s) has been eliminated
55. Modern communication theory considers communication to be made up of these
components: sender, message, receiver, feedback
56. Zero-based budgeting demands that: the budget must be justified in its entirety
at the beginning of each new funding cycle
57. The Leadership Grid described by Hersey, Blanchard and Johnson displays
leadership qualities in a two-dimensional matrix. A manager demonstrating a
9:1 management style is said to be: Authority-Obedience Management
58. The Situational Leadership model suggests that managers adjust their leadership
style in accordance with the situation and type of task at hand. The model
suggests that the type of leadership behaviour that best manages high follower
readiness/low task behaviour situations is: Participating
59. According to Herzberg, a strong motivation factor is: Feeling of Recognition
60. The Life Change Unit theory consists of ranking stressful events. A study found
that: a person who acquired fewer than 150 points in the previous year has a
33% of serious illness in the next two years
61. Levels of management must perform well in different capacities and at all levels
of responsibility. Whose role is it to direct, support work, develop and pursue
short-term performance objectives and operating decisions? first-level managers
62. There are two areas of criteria used to indicate a manager's success in the quest
for productivity. What are they? performance effectiveness and performance
efficiency
63. There are three main influences that affect ethical managerial behavior:
Employing organization, manager's personal experience and: external
environment
64. Robert L. Katz classified three essential management skills into all but one of
these categories: theoretical skills
65. Comparative management is not intended to provide definitive answers, but to:
develop critical and creative thinking about the way managers do their work and
how they may do it better
66. Who wrote the book The Principles of Scientific Management, and also developed
the four principles of scientific management for managers to follow? Frederick
Taylor
67. Which behaviour would best describe a manager who operates under Douglas
McGregor's Theory Y? supervisory behaviours create initiative and high
productivity
68. Management takes this approach and it also forms the basis of techniques used to
improve managerial decision-making and problem solving. What is this approach
called? quantitative approach
69. Which two steps in the six step problem-solving process may require the process
to be recycled in order to take necessary corrective actions? conduct ethics check
& evaluate results
70. A third party involved in a conflict resolution that will issue a binding decision
after listening to both sides is referred to as a(n): arbitrator
71. Choose the statement that best describes the order in which management would
utilize the planning and forecasting processes: Planning proceeds after the
implications of forecasts have been made
72. Turnaround, liquidation and divestiture are three primary ways of which grand
strategy type? Retrenchment strategies
73. At which stage in the product life cycle approach to strategic planning does
emphasis tend to shift towards seeking ways that would extend a product's life?
Decline
74. Which strategic process leads the strategic planning effort and ensures the
strategies are well implemented? Strategic management
75. The hybrid structure is a common approach in which managers blend the _
and approaches: Functional and Divisional
76. What makes up core culture in an organization? Past "heroes" who have
displayed values and beliefs about the right ways to behave
77. The following bullets pertain to which element of the Plan-Do-Check-Act concept: •
Refine goals of the project and the problems, • Determine quality indicators,
• Develop a plan to pilot the changes: Planning
78. The DNV Management System's ISMEC model is a form of a: Continuous
improvement tool
79. Hersey-Blanchard's situational leadership theory supports the concept of a leader's
behaviour being adjusted according to the readiness of their followers. In a situation
where the follower degree of readiness was "unable and unwilling or insecure", what
would be the corresponding leadership behaviour style? Telling
80. Strengthening desirable behaviour by making the avoidance of an unpleasant
consequence contingent on the occurrence of the behaviour is what strategy to
organizational behaviour modification? Negative reinforcement
81. There are six basic steps in the effective teamwork model. The first is problem
awareness. The second step is: Gathering Data
82. The statement that best describes progressive discipline is: An approach that
reprimands according to the severity and frequency of employee's infractions
83. When force-coercion is used as a change strategy what are the likely results?
Temporary compliance
84. The first step of the three step workplace training cycle model is curriculum, the
second step is: Evaluation
85. Just in time methods includes all but one of these manufacturing philosophies:
Quality control problems are no longer occurring
86. The basic components and elements of an effective EMS systematically work
towards continual improvement. Which component must be endorsed by senior
management, and must be an integral part of an organizations business
strategy? Environmental policy
87. Which of the following pertains to an Environmental Management Standard?
ISO 14001
88. The Kerr's Goals Freedom Alertness Theory suggests that: Employers should
provide workers with personal freedom
89. It is important to know whether there are planned responses to accidents. That's
why this theory of accident causation considers the post-accident response. Who
was the developer of this theory? . Zabetakis' Theory of Accident Causation
90. The energy models are great tools for prioritizing accident investigations. What
is a good rule of thumb from these energy models in regards to accident
investigations? Only investigate near misses that were created from a high
energy source
91. Task analysis involves the identification of: Critical tasks
92. The steps taken when introducing a PPE program are: Policy, selection, training
and enforcement
93. When electric current contacts a person, the severity of the electric shock is
determined by: The amperage and length of time receiving the current
94. The most significant health hazard in the welding process is: Fumes and gases
95. In a machine shop a worker is exposed to the following levels of noise: 89 dBA
for 3 hours ; 97 dBA for 1 hour ; 87 dBA for 2 hours (6 hours total). What is the
total noise dose? 2.1
96. In a machine shop a worker is exposed to the following levels of noise:89 dBA
for 3 hours ; 97 dBA for 1 hour ; 87 dBA for 2 hours (6 hours total). Is the
worker overexposed? Yes, by double the allowed exposure
97. A local exhaust ventilation system requires 2.5 m/s velocity to contain emissions
from a grinding process. The enclosing hood opening is 1 m high and 1.5 m
wide. The round duct is 30 em in diameter. What volumetric flow rate of air in
m3/s is required to generate this face velocity? 3.75 m3/s
from a grinding process. The enclosing hood opening is 1 m high and 1.5 m
wide. The round duct is 30 em in diameter. At that flow rate what is the velocity
of the air flowing through the 30 em round duct? 53.57 m/s.
99. A worker working inside on a warm day and your readings are 33 °C air
temperature; 30 °C globe; 28 °C wet bulb . The calculated WBGT is ? 28.6 °C
100. Control strategies to contain an occupational health hazard should be
considered: During the design of the process system
101. Control strategies to contain an occupational health hazard should be
considered: During the design of the process system
102. Chemical contaminants may gain access to the human biological systems
by: Inhalation, absorption and ingestion
103. Air in a utility vault contains 700 ppm of Methane (CH4). How many
mg/m3 of Methane are in the vault that has a volume of 25 m3? The MW of
Methane is 16. 458
104. Breaking a liquid into a dispersed state is called a: Mist
105. Air in a chemical laboratory contains 35 ppm of methanol (TLV 200
ppm),60 ppm of isobutyl acetate (TLV 150 ppm), and 55 ppm of xylene (TLV
100 ppm). Has the TLV of this mixture been exceeded? Yes, slightly over the
TLV
106. Almost all lasers produced today are potential eye hazards because: They
produce extremely high light radiation in a narrow wavelength
107. Workers who operate air impact or vibrating hand tools may suffer from:
Reynaud’s Syndrome
108. Dilution ventilation is best suited for situations when: Air contaminants
are not highly flammable or toxic and are not produced at high rates
109. Theory Z suggests which of the following: Lateral job movements. NB:
Lateral job movements, long term employment, and a broad concern for
employee involvement were all part of Theory Z a modern management
approach using Japanese management practices (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES
Section, page 14)
110. If an employer uses a punch card system to regulate and monitor worker
entry and exit to a work place what comparative management theory would they
subscribe to? Theory X. NB: According to Douglas McGregor’s Theory X a
manager believes workers dislike work, lack ambition, are irresponsible, are
resistant to change, and prefer to be led. A punch clock system is the only
effective way to monitor and measure their attendance at work (Ref: BCRSP
111. In the field of management theory, “Theory Z” refers to: Adherence to
Japanese management principles.
112. Which theory would best reflect a supervisory behaviour that creates
initiative and high productivity levels? Theory Y
113. Which theory would best reflect a supervisory behaviour that creates initiative
and high productivity levels? The theory that would best reflect a supervisory
behaviour that creates initiative and high productivity levels is McGregor's
Theory Y (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 20)
114. Who stated the following: "There may be no single thing more important on
our efforts to achieve meaningful work and fulfilling relationships than to learn and
practice the art of communication.” to emphasize leading through communication?
Max Dupree
115. The foundation (most important) of a health and safety management
system is considered to be executive management commitment to the health and
safety of workers (Ref: BCRSP Guide, HSE Auditing, page 5-7)
116. The International system for identifying hazardous materials uses a four-
colored diamond. "yellow" area signifies Reactivity hazard (Blue: Health hazard;
Red: Flammability hazard & white = special hazard)
117. The "flash point" is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will evolve
enough vapor to form an explosive mixture. In the presence of an ignition source
the explosive mixture will ignite. The flash point is considered to be the best
overall measure of the fire hazard of a flammable liquid. (Ref: BCRSP Guide,
FPP Section, pages 12-13)
118. Key elements of the management process involve planning, organizing,
leading and controlling (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 10)
119. Planning is the first function of management ( OES Section, page 9)
120. Matrix structures work well for one-of-a-kind special projects and for
organizations pursuing growth in complex environments (Ref: BCRSP Guide,
121. A supervisor's approach can affect an employee's attitude and ultimate
behaviour toward accident prevention. Which leadership trait would a supervisor
exude to influence others? Supervisors must have motivation in order to have the
strong desire to lead and to influence others in support of the organization's
vision (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 51-52)
122. According to contemporary motivation theory, the most important motivator
is: Recognition for achievement
123. Recognition for achievement is the second most important motivator
124. An audit of the OHS&E management system that reveals the employer is not
diligent in implementing and enforcing use of hazard controls, will likely result in
recommendations pertaining to which component of the OHS&E management
system? Hazard control process
125. If you work for an organization as a safety professional and notice that there is
a significant discharge of chemicals into the public environment surrounding the
plant, what is the first thing you should do? Verbally or in writing inform the
employer, concerned Supervisor and co-workers of any immediate or potential
safety or health hazards and then ensure safe handling to minimize risk
126. When you ask your team members for their input and opinion, but you still
have the final say, you are using which type of leadership style? Consultative
127. Which statement below reflects the essential goal in the management of
quality? Measurement against agreed standards
128. A directive leadership style would work best in which situation? Emergency
or high risk situation
129. Monitoring performance best reflects an activity that would be performed
when exercising the controlling management function?
130. The effective manager in the emerging workplace recognizes High
performance and satisfaction among team members. as foundational goals
131. Division of labour happens when large tasks are broken down into smaller
tasks, which are then assigned to individuals or teams. What aspect of an organization
helps co-ordinate this division of labour? authority structure
132. How would you determine if your workplace has work factors related to an
increased risk of violence? Talk to workers, identify at-risk occupations, conduct a
visual inspection, review previous incidents
133. Feeling uneasy when working in close proximity to your co-workers would be
a consideration for employee well-being which stems from which factor? Culture
134. A directive leadership style would works best in which situation below:
Emergency or high risk situation
135. What would be a potential outcome of constructive conflict? Greater
effort/people working harder
136. If an OHS Manager refuses to lie about a lost time claim in the annual safety
statistics report, even though the lost time claim ruins a great safety record, the OHS
Manager has adopted what sort of ethical view? Kantianism
137. Which type of strategic plan would ask the question what sort of safety values
do we want to embrace in our organization? Institutional strategy
Occupational Hygiene (Domain 8)

1. In a machine shop a worker is exposed to the following levels of noise:89 dBA for 3
hours, 97 dBA for 1 hour and 87 dBA for 2 hours. 6 hours total: What is the total
noise dose?2.1
2. Above case. Is the worker overexposed? Yes, by double the allowed exposure
from a grinding process. The enclosing hood opening is 1 m high and 1.5 m wide.
The round duct is 30 em in diameter. What volumetric flow rate of air in m3/s is
required to generate this face velocity? 3.75 m3/s
4. At that flow rate what is the velocity of the air flowing through the 30 em round
duct? 53.57 m/s
5. A worker working inside on a warm day and your readings are 33 °C air
temperature; 30 °C globe; 28 °C wet bulb . The calculated WBGT is 28.6 °C
6. Hypoxia results when the respiratory system is exposed to A decreased oxygen
atmosphere
7. Control strategies to contain an occupational health hazard should be considered:
During the design of the process system
8. Chemical contaminants may gain access to the human biological systems by:
Inhalation, absorption and ingestion
9. Air in a utility vault contains 700 ppm of Methane (CH4). How many mg/m3
of Methane are in the vault that has a volume of 25 m3? The MW of Methane is 16:
458
10. Breaking a liquid into a dispersed state is called a: Mist
11. Air in a chemical laboratory contains 35 ppm of methanol (TLV 200 ppm) 60 ppm of
isobutyl acetate (TLV 150 ppm), and 55 ppm of xylene (TLV 100 ppm). Has the
TLV of this mixture been exceeded? Yes, slightly over the TLV
12. The TLV-TWA represents a concentration of a substance that: May be exceeded in
certain circumstances
13. In order to measure an airborne concentration "colourimetric tubes" (e.g. Draeger,
Gastec) may be used. These detector tubes have a plus or minus accuracy of: 25%
14. The test method used to check the fit of a respirator every time it is donned is:
Positive pressure/negative pressure
15. In a local exhaust ventilation system, the most important characteristic is the:
Capture of the contaminant at the point of generation
16. Two machines each generate a noise level of 85 dBA. When both machines are
operating simultaneously the noise level is approximately: 88 dBA
17. The biological effects of microwave radiation include an increase in: Body heating
and eye cataracts
18. How much air in m3/s is needed to provide 5 air changes/hour in a room 3 m high x
7.5 m wide x 29 m long? 0.91 m3/s
19. Almost all lasers produced today are potential eye hazards because: They produce
extremely high light radiation in a narrow wavelength
20. Workers who operate air impact or vibrating hand tools may suffer from: Raynaud's
Syndrome
21. The eye contains a fluid in the anterior chamber. This fluid is called the: Aqueous
humor
22. Dilution ventilation is best suited for situations when: Air contaminants are not
highly flammable or toxic and are not produced at high rates
23. Asbestosis is a chronic, sometimes fatal lung disease caused by Inhaling asbestos
fibres
24. Health effects from ionizing radiation are classified into two broad categories. What is
the category referred to in which their effects are clearly observable and can be
immediate or delayed? Deterministic
25. Ammonia was used in the production of fertilizer at XYZ Company. There have been
a number of problems associated with the start up. Workers have been exposed to
ammonia and other solvents associated with the process and with construction of
new holding tanks. The concentration of Ammonia (NH4) reported in the air during a
leak was 11,206 parts per million (ppm). What is the concentration in milligrams per
meter cube (mg/m3)? The molecular weight of nitrogen is 14 and hydrogen is 1:
8,250 mg/m3
26. Above Case. During construction of a ventilation system to reduce the ammonia it
was determined that 2000 cubic foot per minute of air traveled through one round duct
that measured eight inches in diameter. What was the air velocity in this duct? 5731
fpm
27. Above Case. In another area of the plant workers are using two solvents with similar
toxicological properties. The first compound Xylene was measured to have a
concentration of 20 ppm and the second compound toluene had a concentration of 10
ppm over the same time period. The TLV - OEL's for Xylene are 100 ppm and
Toluene 50 ppm. Was the TLV-OEL for these workers exceeded? No
28. Above Case. A worker was exposed to styrene during the building of a fibreglass
holding tank for solid fertilizer. Their exposures have been measured and found to
vary during the 8 hour shift. The worker was exposed to 4 hours at 200 ppm; 1 hour
at 0 ppm; 1 and a half hours at 150 ppm and 1 and half hours at 200 ppm. What is the
approximate exposure? 166
29. A worker in a plastics plant has the following exposure to Chlorine during a shift: 2 hours at
0.5 ppm; 1 hour at 0.3 ppm; 3 hours at 1.0 ppm; 2 hours at 0.2 ppm. If Chlorine has a TLV-
TWA of 0.5 ppm, is the worker overexposed? Yes, just over the TLV
30. The industrial hygienist is not easily able to monitor for: Psychological hazards
31. Which of the following is the control method of choice for toxic chemicals? . Use a
less toxic chemical
32. There are two primary types of asphyxiants that describe how certain toxins interfere
with the oxygenation of tissue. .... asphyxiants are inert and dilute or displace oxygen
where as asphyxiants act by interfering with a chemical reaction and prevents the
actual uptake of oxygen in the blood: Simple, Chemical
33. These types of gases cause asphyxiation through a chemical action to prevent the
blood from transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissues, or by preventing the
tissues from utilizing the oxygen. Chemical Asphyxiants
34. This substance may cause physical defects in a developing embryo or fetus. Important
considerations must be given when exposing women because it's difficult to detect
the earliest stages of pregnancy and thus it's difficult to protect the embryo from
exposure. A teratogen
35. These particulate will enter the structures of the lung (alveoli) which are critical in the
gas exchange process. Silica which causes silicosis is a classic example of this
situation: The respirable particles are size respirable size of anything less then 5
microns
36. The LDso is expressed _ In mg/kg of an organism with exposure to toxic
gases
37. Ammonia was used in the production of fertilizer at XYZ Company. There have been
a number of problems associated with the start up. Workers have been exposed to
ammonia and other solvents associated with the process and with construction of
new holding tanks. In another area of the plant workers are using two solvents with
similar toxicological properties. The first compound Xylene was measured to have a
concentration of 20 ppm and the second compound toluene had a concentration of 10
ppm over the same time period. The TLV - OEL's for Xylene are 100 ppm and
Toluene 50 ppm. Was the TLV-OEL for these workers exceeded? No
38. Above Case. A worker was exposed to styrene during the building of a fibreglass
holding tank for solid fertilizer. Their exposures have been measured and found to
vary during the 8 hour shift. The worker was exposed to 4 hours at 200 ppm; 1 hour
at 0 ppm; 1 and a half hours at 150 ppm and 1 and half hours at 200 ppm. What is the
approximate exposure? 166
39. A worker in a plastics plant has the following exposure to Chlorine during a shift: 2
hours at 0.5 ppm; 1 hour at 0.3 ppm; 3 hours at 1.0 ppm; 2 hours at 0.2 ppm. What is
the 8-hour TWA? 0.59 ppm
40. Above Case. If Chlorine has a TLV-TWA of 0.5 ppm, is the worker overexposed?
Yes, just over the TLV
41. You are using two solvents with similar toxicological properties. The first compound
Xylene was measured to have a concentration of 20 ppm and the second compound
toluene had a concentration of 10 ppm over the same time period. The TLV- OEL's
for Xylene are 100 ppm and Toluene 50 ppm. Was the TLV-OEL for these workers
exceeded? No
42. 50,000 ppm is equal to: 5%
43. An instrument used to measure a person's hearing is called a: Audiometer
44. This refers to age induced hearing loss: Presbycusis
45. The three mechanisms by which an employee can be protected from ionizing radiation
are: Time, Distance, Shielding
46. These three properties of laser light are what make it more hazardous than ordinary
light: Monochromatic, directional, and coherent
47. "Action Level" refers to exposures that have reached of the occupational
exposure limit: 50 %
48. Building a sound absorbing enclosure around a pump that while running generates 87
dBA is an example of: engineering control
49. Workers working in a nuclear power plant have the risk of being exposed to a variety
of ionizing radiation. Workers have expressed concern about the type of protection
that would be considered effective: You're aware that ionizing radiation includes:
Beta particles, alpha particles, cosmic rays, x-rays
50. XYZ Company has constructed a storage facility and has decided to install a
ventilation system to manage the air quality. It has been noted that the product in the
facility does tend to escape into the air. It was decided to install dilution ventilation to
control the contaminants released in this facility because the contaminants: Are at a
low-concentration and do not pose health/environmental hazard & Are released
at a regular rate in the environment
51. Above Case. A contractor has installed one square ventilation duct to the room. The
velocity of air through the duct is 4000 fpm. The duct is 6 inches by 6 inches. What is
the flow rate? 1000 cfm
52. Occupational hygiene focuses specifically on hazards and health effects of exposures
to chemical, physical and biological agents. Which is not an example of a physical
hazard? Silica
53. If using direct reading equipment for sampling, what wouldn't you be able to sample
for? Mold
54. Who was the publisher of De Morbis Artificum and was also considered the "Father of
Occupational Medicine"? Bernardo Ramazzini
55. What two chemicals cause metal fume fever during welding or soldering operations?
Magnesium oxide and zinc
56. Choose the chemical that is responsible for causing skin irritation. Chlorine
57. What are the particles called that when inhaled stay in the alveolar region?
Respirable
58. A local exhaust system will consist of a hood to capture emissions at the source.
Which of the following is not one of the three basic types of hoods? Retractable
hood. Three basic types of hoods are Capture hood, Receiving hood and
Enclosure hood.
59. If the TLV of a certain chemical is 20 ppm, and the measured TWA (repeated
several times) is 13 ppm, Then: Action should be taken to reduce employee
exposure
60. If the 8 hour OEL for a substance is 300 ppm, what would the OEL actually be for a
worker who must work a double shift (16 hours)? 75
61. You are using two solvents with similar toxicological properties. The first compound
Xylene was measured to have a concentration of 70 ppm and the second compound
Toluene had a concentration of 35 ppm over the same time period. The TLV-OEL's
for Xylene is 100 ppm and Toluene is 50 ppm. Was the TLV-OEL for these workers
exceeded? Yes
62. A person is exposed to Ammonia (TWA-TLV = 25 ppm) What is the TWA exposure
for an 8-hour shift if the person was exposed to the following: 2 hours at 55 ppm; 2
hours at 25 ppm; 1 hour at 0 ppm (lunch); 1 hour at 17 ppm; 2 hours at 25 ppm. 28.4
63. Mycotoxins are related to which of the following occupational hazards? Mold
64. A worker in a noisy environment was monitored for 8 hours and subject to the
following exposures. 4 hrs at 80dBA (allowable exposure time 24 hours), 2 hrs at
85dBA (allowable exposure time 8 hrs), and 2 hours at 90dBA (allowable exposure
time 2 hrs). During the 8 hours was the worker: . Overexposed
65. Occupational dermatitis represents one of the most common forms of occupational
disease. The significance of dermal [skin] absorption in terms of overall body burden
of chemicals is still largely unknown. In 1997, a single incident focused the attention
of health and safety professionals on to the seriousness of dermal exposure. A
professor of chemistry died of mercury intoxication, days after a brief exposure to
dimethyl mercury. The occasion occurred in the laboratory when the chemical leaked
across a latex glove. How could this fatality have been prevented? The glove
selection should have been impermeable to the chemical used.
66. How could a safety practitioner have assisted in a prevention program? The CRSP
could have completed a risk assessment, noting the chemicals and PPE in use, for
the laboratory manager with recommended controls.
67. What is the most common approach used to assess skin exposure to a contaminant?
Using pads or dosimeters to determine the amount of contaminant deposited on
the skin.
68. TLV is the ACGIH Threshold Limit Value (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OH Section, page
5)
69. The “skin” notation means the liquid form of the compound may be readily
absorbed through the skin and will contribute to the overall exposure dose (Ref:
BCRSP Guide, OH Section, page 7)
70. There are three types of TLVs: 8-hour TWA TLV, 15-Minute STEL TLV and a
Ceiling TLV (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OH Section, page 5)
71. A worker is exposed to a time weighted average concentration of bitumen at 4 mg/m3
(TLV = 5 mg/m3) and a time weighted average concentration of benzene at 0.5 ppm
(TLV = 1.0 ppm). Assuming additivity what would the worker’s calculated exposure
dose be? Dose = TWA1/TLV1 +TWA2/TLV2 = 4/5 + 0.5/1.0 = 1.3 (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, OH Section, page 34
72. The area of the back and spinal column that receives the most loading and is most
vulnerable to injury is? The lumbar area or lower back sustains the most load and
therefore is the most vulnerable (Ref: BCRSP Guide, ERG Section, page 19)
73. The best way to prevent back problems from occurring is: Allowing the back to
absorb stresses through its neutral posture and maintaining mobility in the back (i.e.,
Maintaining as neutral of a back posture and keep as much postural change occurring
throughout the day as possible) are the best ways to minimize undue harm (Ref:
BCRSP Guide, ERG Section, pages 19-20)
74. High performance teams generally share common characteristics. Which of the
following is not one of those characteristics? ) Compromising and people focussed
75. Total Quality Management is continual improvement and total customer
satisfaction. It is generally defined as applying quality principles to all aspects of
operations (Ref: BCRSP Guide, OES Section, page 78)
76. A hepatotoxin is a substance that is toxic to the liver (Ref: National Safety Council
Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene, 4th Ed, page 954)
77. The normal frequency range of hearing is from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (Ref: BCRSP
Guide, OH Section, page 44)
78. Which statement below is not true about biological hazards and chemical agents?
Biological agents are evaluated by air sampling; chemical agents are evaluated
by taking specimens from symptomatic workers
79. Re-arranging work schedules so that two workers are working in the same vicinity is
considered to be the same as working alone. False
80. The incident commander can change depending on the size of the incident. True
81. You have been asked to provide environmental protection training because of your
CRSP designation but you know nothing about environment protection, what should
you do? Explain the scope of the CRSP certification, your professional
limitations and level of competence on the subject matter, then offer a solution
82. Which would not be a step in the problem solving process? Mathematical
forecasting
83. A worker is considered to be working alone or in isolation when he or she ___ ? does
not have assistance that is readily available in case of emergency, injury, or ill
health
84. For comfort in office environments, what is the maximum concentration of carbon
dioxide that should be present? 1000 ppm
85. If a mold concentration is at a higher level indoors than outdoors in the summertime,
we can assume: Mold is growing, reproducing and distributing its spores indoors
86. The concept of ‘fitness for work’ considers Prescription drugs, Fatigue, Mental health
etc but typically does not consider what? Personal protective equipment
87. To control noise using the concept of hierarchy of controls, what would you
recommend as the first solution? Uncouple equipment parts creating vibration
88. Which substance is likely to cause severe skin burns upon contact? Hydrofluoric
acid
89. If a worker has to work in an oxygen deficient atmosphere the worker must wear: Self
contained breathing apparatus with full face piece
90. Which factor below helps to establish exposure limits knowing that airborne
contaminants fluctuate in quantity over the course of the production shift: Time
weighted average
91. Biomechanics is concerned with: Mechanical laws related to human movement
92. A biological agent that is transported to one or more target organs where it has a
health effect is known as what? Systemic effect
93. For a biological agent to cause ill health in a worker, what has to happen? Agent has
to be transmitted from the source and enter the worker
94. What would be an appropriate action to take for workers exposed to a Class I laser?
Nothing
95. Physiology is concerned with: Functions of living organisms
96. Fire, Respiratory impairment, Dermatitis etc are concern for someone who handles
solvents but Which would not be a concern for someone who handles solvents:
Tendonitis
97. A “TLV” is best described as: Airborne concentrations that are low risk for
adverse health effects even with repeated daily exposure
98. A federal firm, headquartered in Ontario is employing people in British Columbia to
install telecommunication towers that connect across Canada. If these workers have
an issue with health and safety prevention and want to contact an official in OHS
prevention, who would they contact? A health and safety inspector from the
federal government
99. Musculoskeletal disorders are a group of conditions that may effect: Spinal discs,
joints, nerves, muscles and tendons but NOT organs, Bones, spinal cord,
ligaments etc
100. Which statement below is not true about biological hazards and chemical
agents? Biological agents are evaluated by air sampling; chemical agents are
evaluated by taking specimens from symptomatic workers
101. If you are faced with a situation that you believe is immediately dangerous to
the life or health of a worker, but the construction site superintendent does not want to
stop the work, what should you do? Use your own authority, or the authority of
management or OHS prevention standards to resolve the dangerous work before
it proceeds
102. Which is the lowest on the rung of enforcement steps one can have with a
government agent who is enforcing OHS prevention standards? Warning
103. Hand-arm vibration syndrome (HAVS) is also known as: Reynaud’s disease
of occupational origin
104. To deter negative effects from working at night time, which may be the best
environmental risk control? Increased lighting
105. The two types of respirators are: air-purifying and supplied-air
106. One of the health effects that may affect welders exposed to gasses and
vapours generated during welding is: Pulmonary oedema (swelling and
accumulation of fluid in the lungs)
107. Which area does not provide information for establishing occupational
exposure limits: Plant studies
108. A rare lung disease, known as mesothelioma, is caused by what? Breathing in
asbestos fibers
109. Which solution would be appropriate to prevent dermatitis: Gloves
110. The precautionary principle means: Take timely preventive action whenever
a serious or irreversible health hazard is believed to exist as a significant
possibility
111. A government agent who is enforcing OHS prevention standards has little
power to do what? Specify how to comply but has full power to Conduct
inspections, Conduct investigations, Speak with workers
112. Which statement below is not correct about our skin: The skin is a
continuous, impervious layer
113. Lethal doses shown as LD50 would not be likely to specify which route of
application: Respiratory
114. Symptoms of a toxic work environment usually includes: Decreased
productivity, decreased employee health and increased business costs
115. A pre-screening method taken to identify peak or ceiling concentrations of a
contaminant is known as what? Grab sampling
116. Which chemical exposure was associated with a liver cancer called
angiosarcoma? Vinyl chloride This association of chemical exposure to vinyl
chloride monomer, resulting in a rare form of liver cancer, has been published in
occupational hygiene literature for the past 15 years
117. What is the most common approach used to assess skin exposure to a
contaminant? Using pads or dosimeters to determine the amount of contaminant
deposited on the skin.
118. A pre-screening method taken to identify peak or ceiling concentrations of a
contaminant is known as what? Grab sampling
119. If a ventilation system has been shut down, what is the most likely result?
Increase in carbon dioxide
120. Which would not be a biosafety management practice for low –to- moderate
risk biological agents. Hermetically sealed glovebox enclosures
121. Symptoms of a toxic work environment usually includes: Decreased
productivity, decreased employee health and increased business costs
122. Which below matches the definition of the dose of a chemical which when
given to a group of animals on a single occasion will cause death in half (50%) of
them? LD50
123. Hand-arm vibration syndrome (HAVS) is also known as: Raynaud’s disease
of occupational origin
124. A rare lung disease, known as mesothelioma, is caused by what? Breathing in
asbestos fibers
125. Which item below would not likely result in evaluating the hazard as
Immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH): Gas at 10% of the lower
explosive limit
126. The two types of respirators are: air-purifying and supplied-air
127. Which health and safety tool would a laboratory technician not likely make
use of on a daily basis? Eyewash stations
128. Which statement below is not correct about our skin: The skin is a
continuous, impervious layer
129. A “TLV” is best described as: Airborne concentrations that are low risk for
adverse health effects even with repeated daily exposure
130. The preferred method of ventilation for welding is: At the source mechanical
ventilation
Risk Management-(Domain 9)
1. Risk is defined as the chance of loss. "Pure or static risk" can be described as: A risk
that does not allow a person or organization an opportunity for gain when they
are exposed to it
2. Risk financing is the partner of risk control. It is a tool for paying for losses that
occur. A typical risk financing tool is: Paying losses as current expenses, relying on
normal cash flow to absorb loss
3. Risk is determined by assessing its two components which are: Probability and
severity
4. A security guard in matters of arrest: Has the same legal powers of arrest as the
property owner
5. Clear decision-making within the risk management process is essential. One of the
decision-criteria to be considered is: Precautionary principle
6. The core activities that constitute the essential decision-making steps in the risk
management process are: Estimation, evaluation and control
7. IEDIM is an acronym from Det Norske Veritas in regard to managing risks. The letter
D in the acronym stands for: Develop a plan, including the 4 Ts
8. ISMEC is an acronym presented by DNV to represent a method of managing the lost
control process. ISMEC stands for? Identify work, Set Standards, Measure,
Evaluate, Commend or Correct
9. Developing a safety system that meets the CSA Z1000 or OHSAS 18001 standards
will aid in risk management because... It causes an organization to standardize,
document and evaluate its hazards and controls
10. The term "Cumulative Burden" is defined as: the number of days lost due to
accidents and sick days due to work-related illnesses
11. A process that "addresses less quantifiable non-scientific aspects of the risk - the
economic, social and legal factors" is: Risk evaluation
12. A risk control technique considered to be "avoidance" is referred to as: Termination
13. A risk control technique considered to be "reduction" of risk exposure is referred to
as: Treatment
14. In the management of risks, the "reasonable relationship" principle describes the need
to: Establish a reasonable relationship between the risk and the cost of the
control
15. A risk that occur all the time at varying levels of exposure, such as hazardous dusts,
toxic chemicals, noise levels and radiation is referred to as a: Continuous Hazard
16. Basic components of a spill prevention and response plan include: Preventative
maintenance, backup equipment and proper chemical storage
17. The first step in identifying areas of significant risk is to: Describe the system or
process to be assessed
18. "Residual risk" would be considered: The risk that remains after all considered
safety controls have been applied.
19. What should be the first concern in planning for emergencies? Protection of
employees and the public
20. In terms of emergency planning and business continuity, which of the following
should initiate the process? Management leadership and commitment
21. What is the purpose of the Incident Command System (ICS)? To define command
and coordinate multi-agency incident response.
22. Which of the following would NOT be considered a form of workplace violence? A
heated argument
23. The hazard control strategy that relies most heavily on employee compliance to rules
work procedures is known as? Administrative Controls
24. Under WHMIS legislation we find the following classifications of hazardous
products: Six classifications, Classes A through F.
25. In 1978 William Lowrance coined the phrase below that now constitutes the
foundation of current risk management theory and practices: "A thing is safe if its
attendant risks are deemed to be acceptable"
26. The three key steps undertaken in making decisions within any risk management
framework are risk elimination, evaluation and control
27. DNV Management Systems has developed the IEDIM model, which depicts the
critical steps in managing the risks of exposure to workplace hazards. Acronym
stands for: Identify the Loss Exposure, Evaluate the Risk, Develop a Plan,
Implement the Plan, Monitor the System
28. DNV GL is an international certification body and classification society with
main expertise in technical assessment, research, advisory, and risk
management. It was created in 2013 as a result of a merger between two leading
organizations in the field - Det Norske Veritas (Norway) and Germanischer
Lloyd (Germany).
29. DNV GL is the world's largest classification society with 13,175 vessels and
mobile offshore units (MOUs) amounting to 265.4 mill gt in its portfolio, which
represents a global market share of 21%.
30. Prior to this merger, both DNV and GL had acquired several companies such
as Hélimax Energy (Canada), Garrad Hassan (UK),Windtest (Germany),
and KEMA (Netherlands), which have contributed to expanding DNV GL's
current capacity to offer its expertise across several industries, most notably in
renewable energy, maritime, oil & gas, electrification, and business assurance. In
addition to providing services, it also invests heavily in research and
development.
31. The company currently has 16,000 employees with headquarters in Oslo,
Norway, and operates with the vision "Global Impact for a Safe and Sustainable
Future".
32. When transferring an identified risk a company can:find an insurance provider
to insure the risk, find a provider ofservices who can perform the risky task and
or establish a self insurance fund to pay for the deductible
33. Which of the following is NOT one of the four T's of managing risk? Transport
the Risk
34. There are four ways to mitigate the risks to the organisation, these being
typically referred to as Treat, Tolerate, Transfer and Terminate and are known
collectively as the “4 Ts”.
35. Tolerate means the risk is known and accepted by the organisation. In such
instances the senior management team should formally sign off that this course
of action has been taken.
36. Transfer means the risk is passed to a third party, for example an insurer or an
outsourcer, to manage although this does not eliminate the risk.
37. Terminate means we stop the process, activity etc. or stop using the premises, IT
system etc. which is at risk and hence the risk is no longer relevant.
38. Treat means we aim to reduce the likelihood of the threat materialising or else
reduce the resultant impact through introducing relevant controls and continuity
strategies.
39. Teed can help you to identify the relevant risk mitigation strategies and ensure
that your risks are managed in a cost-justified, effective manner.
40. There is a fundamental distinction made between a hazard and a risk.
Risk is defined as: the chance that someone or something will be adversely
affected in a particular way by unintended exposure to the situation
41. Security is best defined as: the protection of personnel, assets, and information
from non-business losses arising from deliberate acts
42. In the DNV Management Systems, IEDIM model, these variables would be used
to determine the level of risk for each loss exposure: Frequency, Severity,
Probability
43. Performance Bonds provides protection for failure to: Live up to contractual
obligations
44. Security is the protection of personnel, assets, and information from non-
business losses arising from: Deliberate acts
45. Security is the protection of personnel, assets, and information from non-
business losses arising from: Deliberate acts
46. The principle of sound science assumes that appearances can often be deceiving
if they are based on incomplete or biased information or inadequate scientific
studies. The principle tends therefore to emphasize the need for: Collection of
better quality and more complete scientific information before a risk decision is
made, to avoid erroneous or excessive responses to trivial or non-existent
hazards
47. Risk can then be calculated as the product of two key variables: The likelihood
of effects and severity of effects
48. Canada's CSA Z1000-2006 "Occupational Health and Safety Management" is
Developed so that Canadian organizations can be objectively audited
49. CAN/CSA Z1000-2006 is the Canadian national consensus standard emphasizing
the Occupational Health & Safety Management System processes. With strong
emphasis on worker participation and other key characteristics, Z1000 provides
organizations with a significant tool to help enhance existing OHSMS programs
or establish new ones, which may improve protection of workers, while at the
same time help reduce legal liability of Canadian organizations.
Based on the Plan–Do-Check-Act management system model, Z1000 can be
incorporated into companies with an already existing OHSAS 18001, ISO 9001,
or ISO 14001 system: OHSAS 18001 is an international occupational health and
safety management system. Registration to this standard enables companies to
identify and control health and safety risks, while at the same time promote
employee well-being and a safe work environment. Companies that have an
OHSAS system have integrated Z1000 to enable them to identify safety risks and
hazardous concerns above and beyond their existing system.
50. ISO 9001 is the quality management system. As quality, risk, and safety go hand
in hand, companies utilize the commonalties of management reviews, corrective
and preventive actions, internal audits, and other processes to incorporate Z1000
into their existing quality and health & safety systems.
51. ISO 14001 is an environmental management system that assists companies in
planning, monitoring and continually improving their competitive position and
environmental performance.
52. Integration: All of the above standards are compatible and easily integrated with
one another, which allows for audits to be conducted simultaneously in most
cases. By combining registration to multiple standards, your company will see
the added benefits that each registration offers
53. Continual improvement in an OHSMS can have four different aspects:Falling
injury/damage rates, lower usage of OHS resources, improvement in corporate
climate and culture, greater OHSMS understanding and implementation
54. OHSAS 18000 is an international occupational health and safety management
system specification. It comprises two parts, 18001 and 18002 and embraces
BS8800 and a number of other publications.
55. OHSAS 18001 was created via a concerted effort from a number of the worlds
leading national standards bodies, certification bodies, and specialist
consultancies.
56. OHSAS helps in a variety of respects... it helps: minimise risk to employees/etc;
improve an existing OH&S management system; demonstrate diligence; gain
assurance; etc. The benefits can be substantial
57. Central to OHSAS requirements are strong policies and procedures. To assist in
this respect, we can therefore offer a full code of practice.
58. The role of Risk Management is to provide A framework for decision making
regarding risk management
59. The role of Risk Management is to provide A framework for decision making
regarding risk management
60. Select the best description of the hierarchy of hazard controls: Elimination,
Substitution, Warnings, Administration, PersonalProtective Equipment
61. These two agencies provide 24 hour services to help deal with hazardous
chemical spills. CHMTREC and CANUTEC. CHMTREC
=Chemical Transportation Emergency Center CANUTEC = Canadian
Transport Emergency Center
62. During the selection of controls to mitigate a hazard, residual risk is linked to an
organizations: Risk tolerance.
63. Once a list of potential emergencies has been developed and prioritized, what is
the next step in emergency preparedness planning? Develop a plan of action.
64. During emergency management, a "Unified Command" structure is established
when: More than one agency shares incident management responsibility.
65. An emergency response program intended to support business continuity would
include all but one of the following components. Which component is not
commonly associated with business continuity? Development of task specific safe
work practices and procedures
66. "Pure risk" is a form of risk where there is, A chance of loss but no chance of
gain
67. What is the role of risk management? To provide a decision-making framework
prioritizing safety and health issues and concerns
68. In implementing controls to manage hazards, the following sequence or
hierarchy of control strategies should be considered: Eliminate the hazard; limit
duration of exposure; P.P.E
69. In situations where health hazards are believed to exist, what principle implies
that decision-makers should move towards a timely preventive action?
Precautionary principle
70. The main components of an OH&S system include four main activities which
can be summed up with the acronym 'PDCA', what activities are included in the
(A) meaning Act portion? Review and continual improvement
71. Which of the following is NOT a problem encountered by reliance on traditional
health and safety statistics? WCB rates are based only on the number of injuries
experienced
72. Which of the following would not be considered a "leading indicator" of safety
performance? Management competence and safety knowledge
73. When deciding on control measures you first try to eliminate the hazard. If this
is not possible you then next move on to try and eliminate the risk by:
Substituting a less hazardous material
74. Risk estimation is a process that attempts to quantify the amount of risk
pertaining to a given health hazard, using scientific information on the nature of
the hazard and analytical methods to calculate the risk in the exposed population
75. Fidelity bonds provide insurance to the insured for: Liabilities related to
employee dishonesty
76. White Collar Crime refers to: Misuse of managerial power for personal gain,
Misuse of authority for personal profit
77. EDIM is an acronym from Det Norske Veritas in regards to managing risks. The
letter E in the acronym stands for: Evaluate the risks of each exposure
78. IEDIM is an acronym from Det Norske Veritas in regards to managing risks.
The FIRST letter I in the acronym stands for: Identify all loss exposures
79. Loss control seeks to reduce the: Likelihood of an occurrence or reduce its
severity
80. The first step in emergency planning is:Identification of hazards and risk.
81. Although an Incident Command System (ICS) may expand or contract in size
and scope depending on the nature of the emergency, which of the following
positions is always established when an ICS is used? The incident commander.
82. The following would be an example of an Engineering control strategy for a lone
worker protection program: Physical barriers such as counters and non-
breakable glass to separate worker from others
83. Speed limits on provincial roads are an example of which type of hazard control?
Administrative control
84. By law, controlled products in the workplace must have the following: Labels
85. The safety practitioner will approach risk management as: A system-wide
assessment of risks and risk control, with emphasis on worker safety and health
86. Perceptions of risk may affect the tolerance for certain types of hazards. Which
of the following may bias the judgement of one of the affected parties? Value
assumptions; or, subjective interpretations of evidence based on personal or
societal values
87. The role of risk management is which of the following? Provide a framework for
health and safety decision-making where there is uncertain or incomplete
information. The role of risk management is to provide a framework for decision
making about health and safety matters where there is uncertain and incomplete
information (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Risk Management Section, page 1).
88. The safety practitioner will approach risk management as:A system-wide
assessment of risks and risk control, with emphasis on worker safety and health.
89. Pure risk is defined as any situation where a person can experience? Any loss or
injury.Pure risk is a risk involving the probability or possibility of loss with no
chance for gain (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Risk Management Section, Page 7)
90. If the workplace hazard is noise what is the workplace risk? Workers may suffer
hearing damage. If the workplace hazard is noise the workplace risk is that
workers may suffer hearing damage (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Risk Management
Section, page 6).
91. What are the four “Ts” of risk management? Treat, Tolerate, Terminate and
Transfer. The four “Ts” of risk management are: Treat, Tolerate, Terminate
and Transfer (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Risk Management Section, page 9)
92. What is the precautionary principle? Full scientific evidence is not required to
impose measures to protect the environment. Research takes time and we can
apply knowledge from information already known. It is one of the guiding
principles of CEPA Section A. (Ref: BCRSP Guide, EP Section, page 45)
93. The precautionary principle means:Take timely preventive action whenever a
serious or irreversible health hazard is believed to exist as a significant
possibility
94. Following the precautionary principle if there is little evidence to determine the
health risk associated with exposure to a hazardous substance then: Exposure is
not permitted.Following the precautionary principle if there is little evidence to
determine the health risk associated with exposure to a hazardous substance
then the only acceptable exposure is zero (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Risk Management
Section, page 11).
95. Which of the following are the preferred methods of controlling risks? Risk
avoidance. The preferred methods of controlling risks are to eliminate them all
together (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Risk Management Section, page 7)
96. Which is the bigger concern: a low probability high hazard or a high probability
low hazard? Both are serious concerns. Both are serious concerns. Using a risk
management matrix, both would be rated high hazards, requiring an equivalent
effort to control (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Risk Management Section, page 10).
97. What elements must be measured to effectively examine the question of health
and safety performance? Inputs, process, outputs and culture. Inputs, process,
outputs and health and safety culture must be measured to effectively examine
the question of health and safety performance (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Risk
Management Section, page 20).Inputs, process, outputs and health and safety
culture must be measured to effectively examine the question of health and safety
performance (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Risk Management Section, page 20).
98. What is the first step in the risk analysis process? Risk identification.The first
step in risk analysis is risk identification (Ref: BCRSP Guide, Risk Management
Section, page 8)
99. The goal of risk management in safety is: Provide a framework for decision
making to prioritize safety issues.
100. Likelihood is defined as: How likely could it happen
101. Consequences is defined as: How severely could it affect health and safety
102. According to the hierarchy of risk controls, which would be the first choice in a
series of recommendations to control levels of airborne chemicals: Isolation of the
process
103. Which would not be an advantage of the matrix organizational reporting
structure? Power struggles
104. Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs considers which two factors to be
higher-order needs of people? Esteem and self-actualization
105. Which may not be the best organizational motivator for implementing a hearing
conversation program? Self-actualization of the health potential of employees
106. Transferring risk to an outside organization with prior arrangement is called
residual risk management. False
107. A core activity in the risk management process is risk estimation. Risk
estimation is defined as: A process that attempts to quantify the amount of risk
pertaining to a given health hazard
108. Risk ranking schemes that determine a risk score are the same as quantitative
risk assessment. False
109. A core activity in the risk management process is risk estimation. Risk estimation is
defined as: A process that attempts to quantify the amount of risk pertaining to a
given health hazard

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GENERAL

OH&S Legislation in Canada - Internal Responsibility System

 Establishes responsibility sharing systems

 Establishing an OSH Program

Document needed for Due Diligence ?

 Worker orientation, education, and training.

Areas reviewing due diligence?

 Elimination (including substitution): remove the hazard from the workplace, or

Instead Of: Consider:

 Have the controls solved the problem?

2. ISMEC stands for:

3. What Is Environmental Management?

4. What Is An Environmental Management System?

5. Key Principles Of EMS

6. The PDCA approach leads to continual improvement that translates into an

11. The ISO 14000 Family Of Standards

Formula (SR) : # of Lost-Time Injuries x 200,000

Bird Caging Kinking

53. Metal fume fever is caused by the fumes of: Magnesium.

PSM = Process Safety Management

Normal Distribution / Bell curve

Left / Negative skew-ness

We can prove it mathematically also

distances d0 and d1 respectfully.

NB: See detailed table for CRSP math

• Decibel Rule of Zero:

• First step: Add the two lowest decibel levels.

• Continue until all decibel levels have been added.

• Answer: Combined effect from all five machines operating simultaneously is

327. INCIDENTS & INVESTIGATION:

332. Heinrich’s theory of accident causation is Ancestry / Social environment,

Heinrich Theory of accident points to unsafe act / fault of employee as cause

379. Heinrich's original domino theory is a simple linear sequence of causes

i. 1. Ancestry and Social Environment Recklessness, stubbornness,

Law and Ethics (Domain 6)

Management system (Domain 7)

Occupational Hygiene (Domain 8)

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