Polygamy Is Not Adultery

God's law dictates that sexual relationships between men and women is only
sanctioned within a marital relationship. Sexual relationships between men and
women outside of marriage fall within one of three broad categories: adultery,
promiscuity, or rape.

Lawful polygamy is not adultery; it is a material relationship which is sanctioned

and governed by God's law. Adultery is the result of a husband or a wife breaking
the marriage contract. Adultery is an illegal relationship with someone other than
the person to whom one is married. According to the letter of the law, polygamy is
not adultery because there is a marriage agreement in place between the husband
and each wife.

"Marriage is honorable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and
adulterers God will judge" (Heb.13:4 KJV).

Polygamy in the Bible:

The sections of this article are:
1- A brief look at polygamy in the Old Testament.
2- Polygamy in the New Testament. Jesus allowed polygamy.
3- Some Christians believe that the Old Testament prohibited Polygamy. See my
rebuttal to Deuteronomy 17:17.
4- Do Paul's 1 Timothy 3:2 and 1 Timothy 3:12 prove that polygamy is prohibited
in the Bible?
5- Christians are hypocrites for following ONLY 1 Timothy 3:2 and 1 Timothy 3:12.
6- 1 Kings 11:1-4 does not condemn polygamy!
7- Christians who agree with polygamy!
8- Conclusion.
There is a widely prevailing misconception about the Bible's New Testament
prohibiting polygamy. The Bible allows polygamy in both the Old Testament and
the New Testament. Please don't forget to visit the Christian sites that agree with
Polygamy in the New Testament that I linked to at the end of this page.

1- A brief look at polygamy in the Old Testament:

Let us look at some of the verses from the Old Testament that allow polygamy:
In Exodus 21:10, a man can marry an infinite amount of women without any limits
to how many he can marry.
In 2 Samuel 5:13; 1 Chronicles 3:1-9, 14:3, King David had six wives and numerous
concubines.
In 1 Kings 11:3, King Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines.
In 2 Chronicles 11:21, King Solomon's son Rehoboam had 18 wives and 60
concubines.
In Deuteronomy 21:15 "If a man has two wives, and he loves one but not the
other, and both bear him sons...."
There are a lot more verses from the Old Testament that allow polygamy, but I
think that the above are sufficient enough to prove my point.

2- Polygamy in the New Testament:

Jesus said: "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law (the Old Testament)
or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the
truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least
stroke or a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law (the Old Testament)
until everything is accomplished. (Matthew 5:17-18)"

There is not a single verse from the New Testament that prohibits polygamy. Let
us look at the following:
1 Corinthians 7
10 I instruct married couples to stay together, and this is exactly what the Lord
himself taught. A wife who leaves her husband
11 should either stay single or go back to her husband. And a husband should not
leave his wife.
Notice, no command for the husband to "remain single". This is because he can
marry another single woman at any time.

Matthew 5:31-32
31 "It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of
divorce.'
32 But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital
unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the
divorced woman commits adultery.
A man can marry multiple women, while the woman can only marry one man.
Here Jesus warns that unlawful divorces will cause women to commit adultery,
because they would still be married to their first husbands.

Matthew 19:1-12 "1. When Jesus had finished saying these things, he left Galilee
and went into the region of Judea to
the other side of the Jordan.
2. Large crowds followed him, and he healed them there.
3. Some Pharisees came to him to test him. They asked, "Is it lawful for a man to
divorce his wife for any and every reason?"
4. "Haven't you read," he (Jesus) replied, "that at the beginning the Creator `made
them male and female,'
5. and said, `For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united
to his wife, and the two will become one flesh' ?
6. So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let
man not separate."
7. "Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a
certificate of divorce and send her away?"
8. Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts
were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning.
9. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital
unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."
Below, I've amply proven that this verse
here, Matthew 19:9, is either a punishment or a
restriction for an unauthorized divorce. It is not a
general Law that applies to all believing men as the
other sayings from Jesus clearly prove. Jesus also
explained this verse, Matthew 19:9, much better in:
Matthew 5:31-32
31 "It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his
wife must give her a certificate of divorce.'
32 But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife,
except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to
become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the
divorced woman commits adultery.
A man can marry multiple women, while the
woman can only marry one man. Here Jesus warns
that unlawful divorces will cause women to commit
adultery, because they would still be married to
their first husbands.
10. The disciples said to him, "If this is the situation between a husband and wife,
it is better not to marry."
11. Jesus replied, "Not everyone can accept this word, but only those to whom it
has been given.
12. For some are eunuchs because they were born that way; others were made
that way by men; and others have renounced marriage because of the kingdom of
heaven. The one who can accept this should accept it."

In the above verses, we see that Jesus was approached with a question about
whether or not it is allowed for a man to divorce his wife in Matthew 19:3. Jesus
immediately referred to the Old Testament for the answer in Matthew 19:4. He
referred to Adam and Eve, one man and one woman. The Old Testament does talk
about the story of Adam and Eve as one husband and one wife. However, the Old
Testament which Jesus had referred to in Matthew 19:3 does allow
polygamy. Also, when a man becomes a one flesh with his wife in Matthew 19:5-
6, this doesn't mean that the man can't be one flesh with another woman. He can
be one flesh with his first wife, and one flesh with his second wife, and one flesh
with his third wife and so on. Polygamy in not a sin:

 2 Samuel 12:8
8. I gave your master's house to you, and your master's wives into your arms. I
gave you the house of Israel and Judah. And if all this had been too little, I would
have given you even more.

GOD Almighty here supposedly says that He gave to David Saul's wives, and GOD
would have even given him more wives if he (David) wanted.

To further prove this point, let us look at the following from the New Testament:
Matthew 22:23-32 "23. That same day the Sadducees, who say there is no
resurrection, came to him with a question.
24. "Teacher," they said, "Moses told us that if a man dies without having children,
his brother must marry the widow and have children for him.
25. Now there were seven brothers among us. The first one married and died, and
since he had no children, he left his wife to his brother.
26. The same thing happened to the second and third brother, right on down to
the seventh.
27. Finally, the woman died.
28. Now then, at the resurrection, whose wife will she be of the seven, since all of
them were married to her?"
29. Jesus replied, "You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures or the
power of God.
30. At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they
will be like the angels in heaven.
31. But about the resurrection of the dead--have you not read what God said to
you,
32. `I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob' ? He is not
the God of the dead but of the living."
In Matthew 22:24-28, the Jews referred to Deuteronomy 25:5 from the Old
Testament where it states that if a woman's husband dies, and she didn't have any
kids from him, then she must marry his brother regardless whether he had a wife
or not. When the Jews brought this situation up to Jesus in Matthew 22:24-28,
Jesus did not prohibit at all for the childless widow to marry her husband's
brother, even if here were already married. Instead, Jesus replied to them by
saying that we do not marry at the resurrection (before Judgment), and we will be
like angels in heaven (Matthew 22:30).
Resurrection or Heaven?
The resurrection is different from being in
Heaven. We will all resurrect. But this is only
the beginning. Some of us will be Judged by
GOD Almighty to Hell, and some will be
Judged to Heaven. In Heaven, will there be:
1- Sex? Will men have testicles and penises,
sperms and semens? And will women have
vaginas, eggs and wombs that can house
fetuses?
2- Marriage? Will Adam and Eve, for
example, be a husband and a wife in Heaven?
The Bible is silent about all of this.
If Jesus, during his stay on earth in that Jewish culture, allowed for a widow to
marry her former husband's brother, even if he were already married, then this
negates the Christians' claim about the Bible prohibiting polygamy. A man can be
one flesh with more than one woman. In the case of Matthew 22:24-28, the man
can be one flesh with his wife, and one flesh with his deceased brother's wife.
Also keep in mind that Exodus 21:10 allows a man to marry an infinite amount of
women, and Deuteronomy 21:15 allows a man to marry more than one wife.
Please visit: Widows are protected in Islam from their in-laws, but are forced and
not protected in the Bible's NT and OT.

Matthew 19:9 is a punishment:

Matthew 19:9 above was clearly either a punishment or a restriction for an

unauthorized divorce, because otherwise if the man does marry another woman,
- while keeping the first wife, - then he would not be committing adultery.
Remember that Jesus said:
 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law (the Old Testament) or the
Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth,
until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke or a
pen, will by any means disappear from the Law (the Old Testament) until
everything is accomplished. (Matthew 5:17-18)"
And we know that the Law does allow polygamy. GOD Almighty even Said that He
would've given David more wives if the ones he had weren't enough.
3- Some Christians believe that the Old Testament prohibited Polygamy:
My response to Rachel is below:

Here is an email that I received from a Christian reader. My rebuttal is below her
email:
From: "Rachel Thomas" <[email protected]>
To: [email protected]
Subject: (no subject)
Date: Sun, 14 Oct 2001 17:45:28 +0000
mr.Osama..
I do seriously wonder if u will publish any part of my this mail in ur site
..but I cudnt help writing to u.
I only have one verse to quote from the Bible..Deut 17:17 Neither shall he
multiply wives for himself.

this is a commandment that God gave for the kings of his nation but sadly
none of the kings.ie David,Solomon obeyed it and if u will read the whole of
the Bible u will get to see the tragic consequences of their disobedience.So
what u re actually using to support ur theory is a broken commandment..a
source of much grief and trouble.
You have used many verses and derivations to support ur theory but it is
very distorted form the actual truth the Bible contains.
Fear God.
Rachel
My response:
Dear Rachel,
Here is what Deuteronomy 17:17 that you referred me to says in the NIV Bible:
"The king, moreover, must not acquire great numbers of horses for himself or
make the people return to Egypt to get more of them, for the LORD has told you,
'You are not to go back that way again.' He must not take many wives, or his heart
will be led astray. He must not accumulate large amounts of silver and
gold. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 17:16-17)"
In no way, does Deut 17:17 prohibit polygamy. It prohibited the King from
marrying MANY WIVES. I wonder what is the limit to that? Certainly it doesn't
limit it to just one wife. "Many wives"clearly proves: (1) The person can have
multiple wives, but not too much; and (2) It doesn't limit marriage to only one
wife. I don't know where do you see the verse limiting marriage to only one wife.
Also, how can you suggest that the Old Testament prohibited polygamy when for
instance Deuteronomy 21:15 clearly states: "If a man has two wives, and he loves
one but not the other, and both bear him sons...." And also Exodus 21:10 allows a
man to marry an infinite amount of women without any limits to how many he
can have.
Plus also, you are ignoring the fact that Deuteronomy 17:17 speaks exclusively
about kings, or one lone king, and NOT about people in general. So even if your
translation was the correct one, it still doesn't disprove anything from my
argument.

4- Do Paul's 1 Timothy 3:2 and 1 Timothy 3:12 prove that polygamy is prohibited
in the Bible?
Let us look at the verses 1 Timothy 3:2 and 1 Timothy 3:12 from the NIV Bible:
"Now the overseer [some translations have it as "bishop"] must be above
reproach, the husband of but one wife, temperate, self-controlled, respectable,
hospitable, able to teach, (From the NIV Bible, 1 Timothy 3:2)"
"A deacon must be the husband of but one wife and must manage his children
and his household well. (From the NIV Bible, 1 Timothy 3:12)"
As we clearly see in those two verses, only church ministers and religious leaders
are prohibited from practicing polygamy. There is no mention for ordinary people
or general population. So unless every Christian in Christianity is considered a
"bishop", "deacon", "priest" or a "minister", then these two verses are without a
doubt irrelevant! They do not disprove polygamy in the Bible at all!
Instead, they prove my point about polygamy being allowed in the Bible for the
ordinary! Here we clearly see Paul addressing the practice of polygamy among
the "believers", and he only prohibited it to the religious leaders so that perhaps
they can have better time and dedication for the church. A man with 10 wives
would be too lousy and too busy for anything and everything.

Have polygamy been really prohibited by Jesus, Paul would not have told his
religious leaders to not practice it.

Paul would not have seen the need for it.

At any rate, Paul is known to have his own agenda and own words inserted into
the Bible. In the following verses for instance, we see in the Bible Paul's words
and not GOD Almighty's:
"Now about virgins: I have no command from the Lord, but I give a judgment as
one who by the Lord's mercy is trustworthy. (From the NIV Bible, 1 Corinthians
7:25)"

2 Timothy 4:9-13
9 Do your best to come to me quickly,
10 for Demas, because he loved this world, has deserted me and has gone to
Thessalonica. Crescens has gone to Galatia, and Titus to Dalmatia.
11 Only Luke is with me. Get Mark and bring him with you, because he is helpful
to me in my ministry.
12 I sent Tychicus to Ephesus.
13 When you come, bring the cloak that I left with Carpus at Troas, and my
scrolls, especially the parchments.

Titus 3:12-14
12 As soon as I send Artemas or Tychicus to you, do your best to come to me at
Nicopolis, because I have decided to winter there.
13 Do everything you can to help Zenas the lawyer and Apollos on their way and
see that they have everything they need.
14 Our people must learn to devote themselves to doing what is good, in order
that they may provide for daily necessities and not live unproductive lives.
He decided to winter there???
Are these verses Paul's own opinions and commands or are they truly GOD
Almighty's UNCOMPROMISED Divine Revelations??

The Almighty Dollar: [1] [2] [3] [4] [5]

The Almighty Dollar & Power were the Ultimate
Reason:
"Everyone who owned land or houses would sell
them and bring the money to the apostles" (The
Bible, Acts 4:34-35)
 Paul could lift mountains, and Jesus' disciples raising
people from the dead.

 The Bible's metaphoric resurrections.

The infestation of the Pauls:

Paul was a rodent from an infestation of rodents. The

plague of tens (10s) of false messiahs and prophets at
the time is thoroughly proven [1] [2] [3] [4] [5]. Like
the saying goes:
 "You are a product of your environment"

Paul was certainly a product of the plenty of false

liars that were roaming around:
 Shortly after Jesus, 10s of false messiahs and
prophets emerged.
  Paul thoroughly exposed as a liar and
charlatan. Exposed from his own books.

 Paul's perfect, sinless and infallible pedophiles and

thieves (1 Corinthians 2:15).

 Visit: [1] [2] [3] [4] [5].

 Paul could lift mountains, and Jesus' disciples raising

people from the dead.

 The Bible's metaphoric resurrections.

The verses above from Paul contradict his other own verse in 2 Timothy 3:16:
"All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and
training in righteousness, (From the NIV Bible, 2 Timothy 3:16)"
If the Bible was truly GOD Almighty's Holy Words, and if Paul was truly GOD
Almighty's Apostle, then we wouldn't have this kind of junk in the Bible.
Also another side point, Paul obviously didn't know much about the Old
Testament, because the Bible itself admits that it is corrupted and not perfect. So
it can never be "All God-breathed":
"`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the
LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From
the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
Another corruption from Paul is his disagreements and fights with the other
disciples who were more authentic than him, since they lived with and saw Jesus,
while he never even once saw Jesus. Most of the New Testament is nothing but
conversations between people, which are clearly not inspirations from GOD
Almighty. For instance, Paul fought with Saint Peter and accused him of being
"clearly in the wrong" (Galatians: 2:11-12), and had a huge argument with Saint
Barnabas (Acts 15:36-39). Now one must ask, did GOD for instance favor Paul
over Barnabas and Peter and inspired him the words while he was fighting with
them? If so, since Peter was "clearly in the wrong", then how about his Gospels?
Wasn't every word that Peter spoke supposedly inspired by GOD? How then could
he be "clearly in the wrong"? One of them must be in the wrong, which in either
case, would also produce another contradiction to 2 Timothy 3:16. Is Paul GOD
Himself? No Christian believes in that. So why then take everything he says
including 2 Timothy 3:16 as the Words of GOD Almighty when they contain clear
contradictions in them?
Please visit Many famous Historians and Theologians before came to conclusions
that Paul was not truthful.
The original Bible was lost! See comments from the commentary of the NIV
Bible (one of the most used Bibles world wide) itself admitting that most of the
Books and Gospels of the Bible are corrupted. No one ever claimed ownership of
the current Books and Gospels. The owners/writers are unknown.

5- Christians are hypocrites for following ONLY 1 Timothy 3:2 and 1 Timothy 3:12:
Since some Christians are so big on being politically correct to the majority of their
corrupted people, who practice open pornography, sodomy, homosexual
marriage, open sexuality (through tight and too revealing cloths), etc..., and they
LOVE to use nonsense such as 1 Timothy 3:2 and 1 Timothy 3:12 to prove that
polygamy is prohibited in the Bible when on the contrary I proved beyond
question, in the previous section, that they do allow polygamy to the general
public, then I would like to ask them this:
If you're so big on following Paul's teachings, then why do you allow your women
to preach in churches?!
Didn't Paul himself say: "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not
permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience
as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands
at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church. (1 Corinthians
14:34)"
Why then do you have popular female church ministers such as Mrs. Joyce
Meyer? What ever happened to Paul's command in 1 Corinthians 14:34?!

6- 1 Kings 11:1-4 does not condemn polygamy!

A Christian emailed me telling me that it is true that King Solomon had 100s of
wives and concubines in the Old Testament, but that led him astray according to 1
Kings 11:1-4, thus this makes polygamy sinful and condemned in the Bible. Well,
let us look at the verses from the NIV Bible:
1 Kings 11
Solomon's Wives
1 King Solomon, however, loved many foreign women besides Pharaoh's
daughter-Moabites, Ammonites, Edomites, Sidonians and Hittites.
2 They were from nations about which the LORD had told the Israelites, "You
must not intermarry with them, because they will surely turn your hearts after
their gods." Nevertheless, Solomon held fast to them in love.
3 He had seven hundred wives of royal birth and three hundred concubines, and
his wives led him astray.
4 As Solomon grew old, his wives turned his heart after other gods, and his heart
was not fully devoted to the LORD his God, as the heart of David his father had
been.
As we clearly see in 1 Kings 11:2, the marriage of multiple wives by itself is not
sinful and was never condemned. It was Solomon's marriage from the pagan
women that was prohibited by GOD Almighty, because they were idol worshipers,
and it resulted for him to be led astray and follow their pagan gods. I don't see
any specific condemnation of polygamy in general in this verse what so ever! I
mean the Bible's Old Testament (since 1 Kings 11:1-4 exist in the Old Testament) is
crystal clear about allowing polygamy: "If a man has two wives, and he loves one
but not the other, and both bear him sons....(From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy
21:15)" How much more clearer can it get?

7- Christians who agree with polygamy!

Since I received several emails in the past from Christians who agree with
polygamy, few of which have recommended the Christian sites below that agree
with polygamy, I have decided to document them without giving the author's
name and email address so that they wouldn't get harassed.

Christian sites agreeing with polygamy in the Bible:

A Christian site that agrees with Polygamy.
Another Christian site that agrees with Polygamy (Be Free).
Another Christian site that agrees with Polygamy.
http://www.biblicalpolygamy.com/

Emails that I received from Christians:

(Emphasis below are mine)
From: ***** <*****@hotmail.com>
To: [email protected]
Subject: Your web article on polygamy in the Bible
Date: Thu, 19 Oct 2006 23:41:59 -0500
God (YHWH - the Eternal One) portrays Himself, through the words of His prophet,
as the Husband of two "wives," Aholah and Aholibah, representing Samaria
(Kingdom of Israel) and Jerusalem (Kingdom of Judah). Now this is a spritual
figure, not a literal physical one, for God is not a man, with literal wives. Yet, the
physical, temporal example used to illustrate a spiritual lesson or point must be
valid. Nathan, God's prophet, chastised King David for raping Bathsheba and
having her husband, Uriah the Hittite (probably a proselyte to the faith of God),
murdered. He said to David that God had given much to David, including his
'master's' (Saul, David's predecessor on the throne) WIVES. These in addition to
the number of wives David already had, plus a number of concubines. And,
Nathan said, if those had not been enough God would have given him more!! It is
not certain that the father of the man who took his father's wife was a polygamist.
He well could have been a widower who had remarried whose son, the fornicator,
had lain with his second wife, not the son's mother but his stepmother. The son's
own mother may have been dead. At any rate, the son did not respect the status
of his stepmother and her relationship with his father but treated her as an harlot.
It is also possible that the father was also dead and the son in his lust pretended
that he could take his (in his opinion) former stepmoter to bed, or wherever he
took her.
Polygamy is a concession to the imperfections and imbalances in humanity. There
have never been provided one woman for every man and one man for every
woman. In all cases of civilized society (ignoring a few frontier, unsettled regions
and war-torn areas) there are always more women of marriageable age than men
of marriageable age. For one thing, women attain marriageable age several years
earlier than men. Mary, mother of Jesus, is believed to have been 13 or 14 when
she bore Him. Was God, the Holy Spirit, a statutory rapist by our standards?
Hardly. God is not ruled by man's laws and customs or opinions. English common
law set the minimum age for marriage at 12 for females. Jewish tradition set it at
10. Many American states set the minimum age at 12, 14, 15 and 16. Canada
allows females members of native American tribes to marry at 7 according to their
tribal laws, though when they reach 14 they can repudiate such marriages as
lacking their understanding consent (after being married for 7 years and even
bearing several children?).
Unlike the Mormon teachings the Bible does not encourage polygamy; it simply
permits it. This is similar to Mohammed's permission of up to 4 wives but then
only if the man is certain he can treat them all equitably and love them without
favoritism other than due respect to his first wife.

My response:
Dear Sir,
I agree for a good part with all of your points above except for the last statement
about Prophet Muhammad, peace be upon him, permitting up to 4 wives. It
wasn't the Prophet of Islam who permitted anything, but rather Allah Almighty.
But I see your point clearly, and yes, the Noble Quran does indeed discourage
polygamy. I have demonstrated this with several Noble Verses
at: www.answering-christianity.com/polygamy.htm.
Polygamy is not always bad and discouraged. When Allah Almighty allowed
polygamy in Islam, it was due to primarily protecting the orphans:
"If ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly with the orphans, marry women
of your choice, Two or three or four; but if ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal
justly (with them), then only one, or (a captive) that your right hands possess, that
will be more suitable, to prevent you from doing injustice. (The Noble Quran,
4:3)"
Back then, when the Muslims fought their battles against the many pagan tribes
who waged many wars against Islam because they felt threatened from Islam
since Islam called for the demolishing of all idols and only worshiping the One,
Living and True GOD Almighty, many Muslim men found themselves with:
1- Orphan children of other Muslim warriors who died in the battle field.
2- Orphan children from the infidels' side.
3- Widowed and single women from the Muslims' side.
4- Widowed and single women from the infidels' side.
So here we have Osama Abdallah (me) who only has one lovely wife with few
children, and then all of the sudden, he finds himself given 20 orphan-children to
take care of along with his own children that his wife is already busy with. What
do we do? Allah Almighty allowed for Osama Abdallah to:
1- Sponsor these orphans and to marry up to four Muslim wives to take care of
them.
2- Sponsor these orphans and only keep his one wife and bring instead few new
harems to help take care of the orphans.
If Osama Abdallah sees that too much trouble will result in the future between
the women - that he will find himself in a major civil war between them over him
because he's just too handsome - and he is too busy to get involved and solve the
problems, and the women will cause him too much headache through their
endless fights and screaming, then Osama Abdallah will most certainly support
such civil war....no ehmm#%&@....I mean Osama Abdallah will only keep one wife,
because he is commanded by Allah Almighty to only keep his one and only lovely
wife provided that the orphans are not compromised, because Allah Almighty
clearly Said: "If ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly with the
orphans..." Osama Abdallah will have to make that call based on his best and
honest judgment :>) before Allah Almighty.
So as you clearly see, Allah Almighty's Divine Law regarding polygamy is quite just
and beautiful in the Noble Quran. It's main reason was never to allow the man to
sexually enjoy more women, but rather to solve a major social problem that
occurred 1,500 years ago, and that is protecting the helpless orphans by the aid
of as many women as needed, whether wives or harems!
May Allah Almighty continue to Lead you and open your heart to Islam. Ameen.

8- Conclusion:
The Bible in both the Old Testament and the New Testament does allow
polygamy. Jesus peace be upon him never prohibited polygamy. Jesus lived for
33 years of his life on earth among a nation who practiced polygamy. He never
even once denounced it!
The Bible does allow men to marry an infinite amount of women. Women in
Christianity can be treated and considered as nothing but sex objects because the
Bible doesn't have any rules or controls over men in this issue. Also, women in
the Bible are forced to marry men in special cases such as forcing childless widows
to marry their brothers in law. It doesn't matter whether the widow wants to
marry her brother in law or not, she will still have to do it anyway without any
choice!.
Another case where women in the Bible are forced to marry men is when a man
rapes a single woman, then she must marry him and she can't get a divorce from
him (no matter how bad he is) for the rest of her life according to Deuteronomy
22:28-30. Only death can separate her from him! See how the Bible punishes to
death the men who rape married women, but forces the single raped women to
marry their rapists.