CAREER POINT .

AIPMT - 2001

AIPMT - 2001
Q.1 The dimension of Planck constant equals to that Q.8 Two particles having mass 'M' and 'm' are
of : moving in a circular path having radius R & r
(1) Energy (2) Momentum respectively. If their time period are same then
(3) Angular momentum (4) Power the ratio of angular velocity will be : -
Q.2 Following truth table represent which logic r R R
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4)
gate – R r r
Q.9 A child is sitting on a swing. Its minimum and
A B C maximum heights from the ground is
1 1 0 0.75 m and 2 m respectively, its maximum
speed will be
0 1 1
(1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s
1 0 1
(3) 8 m/s (4) 15 m/s
0 0 1
Q.10 The current (I) in the circuit will be : -
(1) XOR (2) NOT 20
(3) NAND (4) AND
Q.3 Which rays contain (+ Ve) charged particle : - 30
(1) α-rays (2) β-rays I
20 5V
(3) γ-rays (4) X-rays
Q.4 An electron having mass 'm' and kinetic energy E 5 5 5 5
enter in uniform magnetic field B (1) A (2) A (3) A (4) A
40 50 10 20
perpendicularly, then its frequency will be : -
Q.11 Biological importance of Ozone layer is : -
eE 2πm
(1) (2) (1) It stops ultraviolet rays
qVB eB
(2) Ozone layer reduces green house effect
eB 2m
(3) (4) (3) Ozone layer reflects radio waves
2πm eBE
(4) Ozone layer controls O2/H2 ratio in
Q.5 A particle is thrown vertically upward. Its
atmosphere
velocity at half of the height is 10 m/s. Then the
maximum height attained by it : - Q.12 Two springs A and B having spring constant KA
and KB. (KA = 2KB) are stretched by applying
(g = 10 m/s2)
force of equal magnitude. If energy stored in
(1) 8 m (2) 20 m (3) 10 m (4) 16 m spring A is E then energy stored in B will be : -
Q.6 A particle is projected making angle 45º with
E E
horizontal having kinetic energy K. The kinetic (1) 2E (2) (3) (4) 4E
energy at highest point will be : - 4 2
K K Q.13 A charge Q µc is placed at the centre of cube,
(1) (2) (3) 2K (4) K
2 2 the flux coming out from any surfaces will be : -

Q.7 A black body has wavelength λm corresponding Q Q

(1) × 10–6 (2) × 10–3
to maximum energy at 2000 K. Its wavelength 6ε 0 6ε 0
corresponding to maximum energy at 3000 K Q Q
(3) (4)
will be : - 2ε 0 8ε 0
3 2
(1) λm (2) λm Q.14 X(n, α) 37 Li , then X will be : -
2 3
10
16 81 (1) 5 B (2) 95 B (3) 11
4 Be (4) 42 He
(3) λm (4) λm
81 16
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Q.15 Half life of radioactive element is 12.5 Hour and Q.23 A cylindrical rod having temperature T1 and T2
its quantity is 256 gm. After how much time its at its end. The rate of flow of heat Q1 cal/sec. If
quantity will remain 1 gm : - all the linear dimension are doubled keeping
(1) 50 Hrs (2) 100 Hrs temperature remain const. then rate of flow of
heat Q2 will be : -
(3) 150 Hrs (4) 200 Hrs
(1) 4Q1 (2) 2Q1
Q.16 A scientist says that the efficiency of his heat
engine which work at source temperature 127ºC Q1 Q1
(3) (4)
and sink temperature 27º C to 26%, then 4 2
(1) It is impossible Q.24 If A + B = A = B then angle between
(2) It is possible but less probable
A and B will be : -
(3) It is quite probable
(1) 90º (2) 120º (3) 0º (4) 60º
(4) Data are incomplete
Q.25 Optical fibre are based on : -
Q.17 A cricketer catches a ball of mass 150 gm. in 0.1
(1) Total internal relfection
second moving with speed 20 ms–1. Then he
(2) Less scattering
experiences force of : -
(3) Refraction
(1) 300 N (2) 30 N (3) 3 N (4) 0.3 N
(4) Less absorbtion coefficient
Q.18 If the tension and diameter of a sonometer wire
of fundamental frequency n is doubled and Q.26 Which one among shows particle nature of
density is halved then its fundamental frequency light.
will become (1) P.E.E. (2) Interference
n n (3) Refraction (4) Polirazation
(1) (2) 2n (3) n (4)
4 2 Q.27 Two waves having equation
Q.19 The total energy of particle performing SHM x1 = a sin(ωt + φ1)
depend on : - x2 = a sin (ωt + φ2)
(1) K, a, m (2) K, a If in the resultant wave the frequency and
(3) K, a, x (4) K, x amplitude remains equals to amplitude of
Q.20 With what velocity should a particle be projected superimposing waves. Then phase diff. between
so that its height becomes equal to radius of them : -
earth - π 2π
(1) (2)
1/ 2 1/ 2 6 3
 GM   8 GM 
(1)   (2)   π π
 R   R  (3) (4)
1/ 2 1/ 2
4 3
 2 GM   4 GM 
(3)   (4)   Q.28 In Thomson mass spectrograph E ⊥ B then the
 R   R 
velocity of underflected electron beam will be :
Q.21 A disc is placed on a surface of pond which has
5 |E| | B| E2
refractive index . A source of light is placed 4 (1) (2) E × B (3) (4)
3 | B| |E| B2
m below the surface of liquid. The minimum
radius of disc will be so light is not coming out Q.29 Energy per unit volume for a capacitor having
(1) ∞ (2) 3m (3) 6m (4) 4m area A and separation d kept at potential
diffeence V is given by : -
Q.22 A ray of light travelling in air haves wavelength λ,
frequency n, velocity v and intensity I. If this ray 1 V2 1 V2
(1) ε0 (2)
enters into water then these parameter are λ', n' , v' 2 d2 2ε 0 d 2
and I' respectively. Which relation is correct 1 Q2
(3) CV 2 (4)
(1) λ = λ′ (2) n = n′ (3) v = v′ (4) I = I′ 2 2C

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Q.30 On the horizontal surface of a truck a block of Q.37 A dipole of moment p is placed in uniform
mass 1 kg is placed (µ = 0.6) and truck is
electric field E then torque acting on it is given
moving with acceleration 5 m/s2 then the
by : -
frictional force on block will be : -
(1) 5N (2) 6N (1) τ = p . E (2) τ = p × E
(3) 5.88N (4) 8N (3) τ = p + E (4) τ = p – E
Q.31 Tangent galvanometer is used to measure : -
Q.38 If number of turn, area and current through it is
(1) Potential difference given by n, A and i respectively then its
(2) Current magnetic moment will be : -
(3) Resistance (1) niA (2) n2iA
(4) In measuring charge ni
(3) niA2 (4)
Q.32 A capacitor of capacity C and reactance X if A
capacitance and frequency become double then Q.39 The equation of a wave is represented by : -
reactance will be : -
 x
X y = 10–4 sin 100 t –  m, then the velocity of
(1) 4X (2)  10 
2
wave will be : -
X
(3) (4) 2X (1) 100 m/s (2) 4 m/s
4
(3) 1000 m/s (4) 0.00 m/s
Q.33 A disc is rolling the velocity of its centre of mass
Q.40 The interplaner distance in a crystal is 2.8 × 10–8
is Vcm then which one will be correct : -
m. The value of maximum wavelength which can
(1) The velocity of highest point is 2Vcm and
be diffracted : -
point of contact is zero
(1) 2.8 × 10–8 m (2) 5.6 × 10–8 m
(2) The velocity of highest point is Vcm and point
(3) 1.4 × 10–8 m (4) 7.6 × 10–8 m
of contact is Vcm
Q.41 The energy of hydrogen atom in nth orbit is En
(3) The velocity of highest point is 2Vcm and
then the energy in nth orbit of singly ionised
point of contact is Vcm
helium atom will be : -
(4) The velocity of highest point is 2 Vcm and
(1) 4 En (2) En/4
point of contact of contact is 2Vcm
(3) 2En (4) En/2
Q.34 If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is
10–7Ωm and current flow through it is 0.1 A, Q.42 Among which the magnetic susceptibility does
cross-sectional area of wire is 10–6 m2 then not depend on the temperature : -
potential gradient will be : - (1) Dia-magnetis (2) Paramagnetis
–2
(1) 10 V/m –4
(2) 10 V/m (3) Ferro-magnetism (4) Ferrite
–6
(3) 10 V/m –8
(4) 10 V/m Q.43 The resistance of each arm of the wheat stone
Q.35 For a coil having L = 2 mh, current flow through bridge is 10 ohm. A resistance of 10 ohm is
it is I = t2 e–t then the time at which emf become connected in series with galvanometer then the
zero : - equivalent resistance across the battery will be :

(1) 2 s (2) 1 s (1) 10 ohm (2) 15 ohm

(3) 4 s (4) 3 s (3) 20 ohm (4) 40 ohm

Q.44 Copper and silicon is cooled from 300 K to
IC
Q.36 For a common emmiter circuit if = 0.98 then 60 K, the specific resistance : -
IE
(1) Decrease in copper but increase in silicon
current gain for common emitter circuit will be :-
(2) Increase in copper but decrease in silicon
(1) 49 (2) 98 (3) Increase in both
(3) 4.9 (4) 25.5 (4) Decrease in both

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Q.45 In BCC, the distance between two nearest atoms (1) I > II > III (2) III > I > II
will be : - (3) II > III > I (4) I > III > II
3 3 a Q.52 CH3–CH2–CH–CH3 obtained by chlorination of
(1) 3 a (2) a (3) a (4)
2 4 2 Cl
Q.46 250 N force is required to raise 75 kg mass from n-butane, will be : -
a pulley. If rope is pulled 12 m then the load is (1) Meso form (2) Racemic mixture
lifted to 3m, the efficiency of pulley system will
(3) d-form (4) l-form
be : -
Q.53 Which alkeneon ozonolysis gives
(1) 25% (2) 33.3%
CH3CH2CHO and CH3CCH3 : -
(3) 75% (4) 90%
Q.47 A photo-cell is illuminated by a source of light, O
which is placed at a distance d from the cell. If CH3
(1) CH3CH2CH = C
the distance become d/2, then number of CH3
electrons emited per second will be : -
(2) CH3CH2CH = CHCH2CH3
(1) Remain same (2) Four times
(3) CH3CH2CH = CHCH3
(3) Two times (4) One-fourth
(4) CH3 – C = CHCH3
Q.48 Mn and Mp represet the mass of neutron and
proton respectively. An element having mass CH3
M has N neutron and Z-protons, then the correct Q.54 Intermediates formed during reaction of
relation will be : - RCNH2 with Br2 and KOH are : -
(1) M < {N.Mn + Z.Mp} (2) M > {N.Mn + Z.Mp} O
(3) M = {N.Mn+Z.Mp} (4) M=N{Mn + Mp} (1) RCONHBr and RNCO
Q.49 A 1 kg stationary bomb is exploded in three parts (2) RNHCOBr and RNCO
having mass 1 : 1 : 3 respectively. Parts having (3) RNH-Br and RCONHBr
same mass move in perpendicular direction with (4) RCONBr2
velocity 30 ms–1, then the velocity of bigger part Q.55 An organic compound A(C4H9Cl) on reaction
will be : - with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon
10 which on monochlorination gives only one
(1) 10 2 ms–1 (2) ms –1
2 chloro derivative then, A is : -
15 (1) t-butyl chloride
(3) 15 2 ms –1 (4) ms –1
2 (2) sec. butyl chloride
Q.50 Energy is released in nuclear fission is due to (3) Iso butyl chloride
(1) Few mass is converted into energy (4) n-butyl chloride
(2) Total binding energy of fragements is more Q.56 Which of the following is incorrect : -
than the B.E. of parantel element (1) FeCl3 is used in detection of phenol
(3) Total B.E. of fragements is less than the B.E. (2) Fehling solution is used in detection of
of parantel element glucose
(4) Total B.E. of fragements is equals to the B.E. (3) Tollen reagent is used in detection of
of parantal element is unsaturation
Q.51 The correct acidic order of following is : - (4) NaHSO3 is used in detection of carbonyl
OH OH OH compound
Q.57 Which of following give positive Fehling
(I) (II) (III) solution test
(1) Sucrose (2) Glucose
CH3 NO2
(3) Fats (4) Protein
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Q.58 Which of the following is not correctly matched Q.63 Which of the following is correxct about H-
bonding in nucleotide : -
(1) Neoprene – CH2 – C = CH – CH2 – (1) A–T G–C (2) A–G T–C
Cl n (3) G–T A–C (4) A–A T–T
(2) Nylon-66 Q.64 Which is correct statement : -
O (1) Starch is polymer of α-glucose
–NH–(CH2)6 – NH – CO – (CH2)4 – C – O – (2) Amylose is a component of cellulose

n (3) Proteins are composed of only one type of

amino acid
O O (4) In cyclic structure of fructose, there are four
(3) Terylene –OCH2–CH2–C C– carbons and one oxygen atom
n
O
CH3 ..
Q.65 – C – NH – (peptide bond)
(4) PMMA – CH2 – C – which statement is incorrect about peptide
COOCH3 n bond : -
Q.59 Which of the following is correct : - (1) C–N bond length in protiens is longer than
(1) Cyclo heptane is an aromatic compound usual bond length of N-bond
(2) Diastase is an enzyme (2) Spectroscopic analysis show planar structure
(3) Acetophenone is an ether of – C –NH – group

(4) All the above O

Q.60 The incorrect IUPAC name is : - (3) C–N bond length in proteins is smaller than
usual bond length of C–N bond
(1) CH3–C–CH–CH3 2-methyl-3-butanone
(4) None of above
O CH3
Q.66 In steam distillation of toluene, the pressure of
(2) CH3–CH–CH–CH3 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
toluene in vapour is : -
CH3 CH2–CH3 (1) Equal pressure of barometer
(3) CH3–C≡CCH(CH3)2 4-methyl-2-pentyne (2) Less than pressure of barometer
(4) CH3–CH–CH–CH3 2-bromo-3-chloro butane (3) Equal to vapour pressure to toluene in
Cl Br simple distillation
Q.61 In preparation of alkene from alcohol using (4) More than vapour pressure of toluene in
Al2O3 which is effective factor : - simple distillation
(1) Porousity of Al2O3 Q.67 A compound of molecular formula is C7H16
(2) Temperature shows optical isomerism, compound will be
(3) Concentration (1) 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
(4) Surface area of Al2O3 (2) 2, 2-dimethyl butane
Q.62 Which of following is correct : - (3) 2-methyl hexane
(1) Any aldehyde gives secondary alcohol on (4) None of the above
reduction Q.68 Change in enthalpy for reaction
(2) Reaction of vegetable oil with H2SO4 give 2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g)
glycerin If heat of formation of H2O2(l) and H2O(l) are
(3) C2H5OH, iodine with NaOH gives iodoform – 188 & – 286 KJ/mol respectively : -
(4) Sucrose on reaction with NaCl give invert (1) – 196 KJ/mol (2) + 196 KJ/mol
sugar
(3) + 948 KJ/mol (4) – 948 KJ/mol

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Q.69 When 1 mol gas is heated at constant volume Q.76 Sp. vol. of cylinderical virus particle is
temp. is raised from 298 to 308 K. Heat supplied 6.02 × 10–2 cc/gm. Whose radius and length are
to the gas is 500 J. Then which statement is 7 Å & 10Å respectively. If NA = 6.02 × 1023.
correct : - Find mol. wt. of virus : -
(1) q = w = 500 J, ∆U = 0 (1) 1.54 kg/mol.
(2) q = ∆U = 500J, w = 0 (2) 1.54 × 104 kg/mol.
(3) q = w = 500 J, ∆U = 0 (3) 3.08 × 104 kg/mol.
(4) ∆U = 0, q = w = – 500 J (4) 3.08 × 103 kg/mol.
1 Q.77 Pure water can be obtain from sea water by
Q.70 Enthalpy of CH4 + O2 → CH3OH is negative.
2 (1) Centrifugation (2) Plasmolysis
If enthalpy of combustion of CH4 and CH3OH (3) Reverse osmosis (4) Sedimentation
and x and y respectively. Then which relation is Q.78 Stand electrode potential are
correct : - Fe+2/Fe Eº = – 0.44
(1) x > y (2) x < y (3) x = y (4) x ≥ y +3
Fe /Fe +2
Eº = 0.77
Q.71 For the reaction 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 rate and rate +2 +3
If Fe , Fe and Fe block re kept together, then :-
constant are 1.02 × 10–4 and 3.4 × 10–5 sec–1 (1) Fe+3 increases
respectively.Then conc.of N2O5 at that time will
(2) Fe+3 decreases
be : -
(1) 1.732 (2) 3 Fe +2
(3) reamins unchanged
Fe +3
(3) 1.02 × 10–4 (4) 3.4 × 105
(4) Fe+2 decreases
Q.72 A human body required the 0.01 Curie activity of
radioactive susbtance after 24 hours. Half life of Q.79 Which is not correct regarding the adsorption of
radioactive is 6 hours. Then max. activity of a gas on surface of solid: -
radioactive sustance that can be injected will be : - (1) On increasing temp. adsorption increase
(1) 0.08 (2) 0.04 (3) 0.16 (4) 0.32 continuously
Q.73 When a bio chemical reaction is carried out in (2) Enthalpy & entropy change is – Ve
laboratory out side the human body in the (3) Adsorption is more for some specific
absence of enzyme, then the rate of reaction substance
obtained is 10–6 times, than activation energy of (4) Reversible
reaction in the presence of enzyme is : - Q.80 PbO2 → PbO ∆G298 < 0
6 SnO2 → SnO ∆G298 > 0
(1)
RT
Most probable oxidation state of Pb & Sn will be :
(2) P is required
(1) Pb+4, Sn+2 (2) Pb+4, Sn+2
(3) Different from, Ea obtained in laboratery
(3) Pb+2, Sn+2 (4) Pb+2, Sn+4
(4) Can't say any things
Q.81 Which of the following two species in the pair
Q.74 Molarity of liquid HCl if density of liq. HCl is are isostructural : -
1.17 gm/cc : -
(1) XeF2, IF2– (2) NH3, BF3
(1) 36.5 (2) 18.25 (3) 32.05 (4) 42.10
Q.75 Percentage of Se in peroxidase anhydrous (3) CO 3–2 , SO 3–2 (4) PCl5, ICl5
enzyme is 0.5% by weight (at. wt = 78.4) then Q.82 In which of the following bond angle is
minimum molecular weight of peroxidase maximum :
anhydrous enzymes is : -
(1) NH3 (2) NH +4
(1) 1.568 × 104 (2) 1.568 × 103
(3) PCl3 (4) SCl2
(3) 15.68 (4) 2.136 × 104

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Q.83 Which of the following statement is not correct Q.90 Main axis of a diatomic molecule is z,
(1) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3 molecular orbtial px and py overlaps to form,
(2) In Lanthanide series ionic radius of Ln+3 ions which of the following orbital : -
decreases (1) π molecular orbtial
(3) La is actually an element of transition series (2) σ molecular orbital
rather Lanthanide (3) δ molecular orbtial
(4) Aomic radius of Zr and Hf are same because (4) No bond will form
of Lanthanide contraction Q.91 Which of the following will exhibit maximum
Q.84 Correct order of Ist IP among following elements ionic conductivity : -
Be, B, C, N, O is : - (1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(1) B < Be < C < O < N (3) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 (4) [Ni(CO)4]
(2) B < Be < C < N < O Q.92 The following quantum no's are possible for
(3) Be < B < C < N < O how many orbital n = 3, l = 2, m = +2
(4) Be < B < C < O < N (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Q.85 Which of the following will give maximum Q.93 – –
In HS , I , R–NH2, NH3 order of proton
number of isomers : - excepting tendency will be :-
(1) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] (1) I– > NH3 > R–NH2 > HS–
+2
(2) [Ni(en)(NH3)4] (2) NH3 > R-NH2 > HS– > I–
–2
(3) [Ni(C2O4)(en)2] (3) RNH2 > NH3 > HS– > I–
+
(4) [Cr(SCN)2(NH3)4] (4) HS– > RNH2 > NH3 > I–
–4
Q.86 Coordination number of Ni in [(C2O4)3] is Q.94 The Beans are cooked earlier in pressure
(1) 3 (2) 6 cooker, because : -
(3) 4 (4) 2 (1) B.P. increase with increasing pressure
Q.87 Which of following organometallic compound is (2) B.P. decrease with increasing pressure
σ and π bonded : - (3) Extra pressure of pressure cooker, softens
(1) [Fe(η5 – C5H5)2] the beans
(2) K[PtCl3(η2 – C2H4)] (4) Internal energy is not lost while cooking is
(3) [Co(CO)5NH3] +2 pressure cooker
(4) Fe(CH3)3 Q.95 The most convenient method to protect the
Q.88 Which statement is incorrect : - bottom of ship made of iron is : -
(1) Ni(CO)4 – Tetrahedral, paramagnetic (1) Coating it with Red lead oxide
(2) White tin plating
(2) Ni(CN ) 4–2 - Square planar, diamagnetic
(3) Connecting it with Mg block
(3) Ni(CO)4 - Tetrahedral, diamagnetic
(4) Connecting it with Pb block
(4) [Ni(Cl)4]–2 – Tetrahedral, paramagnetic
Q.96 Zn convert it's melted state to its solid state, it
Q.89 In X- H ----- Y, X and Y both are electronegative has HCP structure, then find out nearest no. of
elements : - nearest atom : -
(1) Electro density on X will increase and on H (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 4
will decrease
Q.97 Nitrogen form N2, but phosphorous form P2, it's
(2) In both electron density will increase at a time convert in P4, reason is : -
(3) In both electron density will decrease (1) Triple bond present between phosphorous atom
(4) On X electron density will decrease and on (2) pπ – pπ bonding is weak
H increases (3) pπ – pπ bonding is strong
(4) Multiple bond form easilly

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–5
Q.98 Ionisation constant of CH3COOH is 1.7 × 10 Q.104 What is true for plasmid : -
and concentration of H+ ions is 3.4 × 10–4. Then (1) Plasmids are widely used in gene transfer
find out initial concentration of CH3COOH (2) These are found in virus
molecules : - (3) Plasmid contain gene for vital activities
(1) 3.4 × 10–4 (2) 3.4× 10–3 (4) These are main part of chromosome
(3) 6.8 × 10–4 (4) 6.8 × 10–3 Q.105 Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due to
–6
Q.99 Solubility of a M2S salt is 3.5 × 10 then find deposition of sugars instead of starch. It was
out solubility product : - due to which enzyme : -
(1) 1.7 × 10–6 (2) 1.7 × 10–16 (1) Amylase
–18 –12
(3) 1.7 × 10 (4) 1.7 × 10 (2) Invertase

Q.100 If a ab X species emits firstly a positron, then two (3) Diastase

(4) Absence of starch branching enzyme
α and two β and at last one α is also
Q.106 Before the European invader which vegetable
after intially it fainally convets into stable
c
was absent in India :-
dY species so correct relation will be : -
(1) Potato and Tomato
(1) c = b – 12, d = a – 5 (2) Simla mirch and Brinjal
(2) a = c – 8, d = b – 1 (3) Maize and chichinda
(3) a = c – 6, d = b – 0 (4) Bitter gourd
(4) a = c – 4, a = b – 2 Q.107 Which of the following is true pair of
Q.101 Independent assortment of genes does not takes biofertilizers : -
place when : - (1) Azolla and BGA
(1) Genes are located on homologous (2) Nostoc and legume
chromosomes (3) Rhizobium and grasses
(2) Genes are linked and located on same (4) Salmonella & E. Coli
chromosome Q.108 Ratio of complementry genes is : -
(3) Genes are located on non-homologous (1) 9 : 3 : 4 (2) 12 : 3 : 1
chromosome (3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4 (4) 9 : 7
(4) All the above Q.109 When dominant and recessive allels express
Q.102 What is true for monoclonal antibodies : - itself together it is called : -
(1) These antibodies obtained from one parent (1) Co-dominance
and for one antigen (2) Dominance
(2) These obtained from different parents and for (3) Amphidominance
one antigen (4) Pseudo dominance
(3) These obtained from one parent and for many Q.110 A and B genes are linked. What shall be
antigens genotype of progeny in a cross between AB/ab
(4) These obtained from many parents and for and ab/ab : -
many antigen (1) AAbb and aabb (2) AaBb and aabb
Q.103 In Negative operon : - (3) AABB and aabb (4) None
(1) Inducer binds with repressor Q.111 Which statement correct about centre of origin
(2) Co-repressor does not binds with repressor of plant : -

(3) Corepressor binds with inducer (1) More diversity in improved variety
(2) Frequency of dominant gene is more
(4) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon
(3) Climatic condition more favourable
(4) None
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Q.112 Probability of four son to a couple is : - Q.121 In which of the following haemocyanin pigment
1 1 1 1 is found : -
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 16 32 (1) Annelida (2) Echinodermata
Q.113 Two nonallelic genes produces the new (3) Insecta (4) Lower chrodata
phenotype when present together but fail to do so Q.122 Anemophilly type of pollination is found in
independently then it is called : - (1) Salvia (2) Bottle brush
(1) Epistasis (3) Vallisneria (4) Coconut
(2) Polygene Q.123 What is the eye of potato : -
(3) Non complimentry gene (1) Axillary bud (2) Accessory bud
(4) Complimentry gene (3) Adventitious bud (4) Apical bud
Q.114 Which of the following cut the DNA from Q.124 Due to discovery of which of the following in
specific places : - 1980, the evolution was termed as RNA world :
(1) Restriction endonuclease (EcoRI) (1) m-RNA, t-RNA- r-RNA synthesise proteins
(2) Ligase (2) In some virus RNA is genetic material
(3) Exonuclease (3) RNA have enzymatic property
(4) Alkaline phosphate (4) RNA is not found in all cells
Q.115 Tetradynamous conditions occur in : - Q.125 Which pair is wrong : -
(1) Cruciferae (2) Malvaceae (1) C3 – Maize
(3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae (2) C4 – Kranz anatomy
Q.116 Which is correct pair for edible part : - (3) Calvin cycle - PGA
(1) Tomato – Thalamus (4) Hatch and Slake cycle – O.A.A.
(2) Maize - Cotyledons Q.126 Which breaks dormancy of potato tuber : -
(3) Guava - Mesocarp (1) Gibberellin (2) IAA
(4) Date palm - Pericarp (3) ABA (4) Zeatin
Q.117 Bicarpellary gyanoecium and oblique ovary Q.127 Hormone responsible for senescence : -
occurs in : -
(1) ABA (2) Auxin
(1) Mustard (2) Banana
(3) GA (4) Cytokinin
(3) Pisum (4) Brinjal
Q.128 Which of the following prevents the fall of
Q.118 Edible part of Banana : - fruits : -
(1) Epicarp (1) GA3 (2) NAA
(2) Mesocarp and less developed endocarp (3) Eethylene (4) Zeatin
(3) Endocarp and less developed mesocarp Q.129 Loading of phloem is related to : -
(4) Epicarp & mesocarp (1) Increase of sugar in phloem
Q.119 In Hydra, waste material of food digestion and (2) Elongation of phloem cell
nitrogenous waste material removed from : -
(3) Separation of phloem parenchyma
(1) Mouth and mouth
(4) Strengthening of phloem fiber
(2) Body wall and body wall
Q.130 Which pigment system inactivated in red drop : -
(3) Mouth and body wall
(1) PS-I and P.S-II (2) PS – I
(4) Mouth and tentacles
(3) PS – II (4) None
Q.120 In which of the following animal post anal tail is
Q.131 Which plant is LDP : -
found
(1) Tobacco (2) Glycine max
(1) Earthworm (2) Lower invertebrate
(3) Mirabilis jalapa (4) Spinach
(3) Scorpion (4) Snake

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Q.132 What is true for photolithotrops : - Q.141 L.S.D. is : -
(1) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen (1) Hallucinogenic (2) Sedative
from organic compounds (3) Stimulant (4) Tranquiliser
(2) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen Q.142 Which set is similar : -
from inorganic compounds (1) Corpus luteum – graffian follicles
(3) Obtain energy from organic compounds (2) Sebum-sweat
(4) Obtain energy from inorganic compounds (3) Bundle of his – Pace macker
Q.133 In which of the following plant sunken stomata (4) Vita B7 - Niacin
are found : -
Q.143 Salmonella is related with : -
(1) Nerium (2) Hydrilla
(1) Typhoid (2) Polio
(3) Mango (4) Guava
(3) T.B. (4) Tetanus
Q.134 What is the best pH of the soil for cultivation of
Q.144 Difference in gram ⊕ and gram bacteria is
plants : -
due to -
(1) 3.4 – 5.4 (2) 6.5 – 7.5
(1) Cell wall (2) Cell membrane
(3) 4.5 – 8.5 (4) 5.5 – 6.5
(3) Ribosome (4) Cytoplasm
Q.135 Which fish selectively feed on larva of
Q.145 What is sarcomere : -
mosquito : -
(1) Part between two H-line
(1) Gambusia (2) Rohu
(2) Part between two A-line
(3) Clarias (4) Exocoetus
(3) Part between two I-band
Q.136 Which one of the following is correct match
(4) Part between two Z-line
(1) Reserpine – Tranquilliser
Q.146 Which statement is correct for muscle
(2) Cocaine – opiatic narcotic
contraction : -
(3) Morphine – Hallucinogenic
(1) Length of H-zone become decrease
(4) Bhang – Analgesic
(2) Length of A-band remains constant
Q.137 What is B.O.D. : -
(3) Length of I-band become increase
(1) The amount of O2 utilised by organisms in
(4) Length of two Z-line become increase
water
Q.147 Characteristics character of human cornea
(2) The amount of O2 utilized by micro
organisms for decomposition (1) Secreted by conjuctiva and glandular
(2) It has lacrimal gland which secrete tears
(3) The total amount of O2 present in water
(3) Blood circulation is absent in cornea
(4) All of the above (4) In old age it become harden and white layer
Q.138 In grasses what happens in micro spore mother deposite on it which causes the cataract
cell for the formation of mature pollen grains : - Q.148 Which of the most infectious disease is : -
(1) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions (1) Hepatitis -B (2) AIDS
(3) Cough and cold (4) Malaria
(2) One meiotic & one mitotic divisions
Q.149 Interferons are synthesized in response to
(3) One meiotic division
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Bacteria
(4) One mitotic division (3) Viruses (4) Fungi
Q.139 What is the intensity of sound in normal Q.150 Cauliflower mosaic virus contains : -
conversation : - (1) ss RNA (2) ds RNA
(1) 10 – 20 decibal (2) 30 – 60 decibal
(3) ds DNA (4) ss DNA
(3) 70 – 90 decibal (4) 120 – 150 decibal
Q.151 Reason of lung cancer : -
Q.140 Adventive embryony in citrus is due to : -
(1) Coal mining (2) Calcium fluoride
(1) Nucellus (2) Integuments
(3) Cement factory (4) Bauxite mining
(3) Zygotic embryo (4) Fertilized egg
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Q.152 When water moves through a semipermeable Q.162 Male XX and female XY sometime occur due to
membrane then which of the following pressure (1) Deletion
develops : - (2) Transfer of segments in X and Y
(1) O.P. (2) S.P. (3) T.P. (4) W.P. chromosomes
Q.153 Proteinaceous pigment which control the (3) Aneuploidy
activities concerned with light : - (4) Hormonal imbalance
(1) Phytochrome (2) Chlorophyll Q.163 No. of Bar Body in XXXX female : -
(3) Anthocyanin (4) Carotenoids (1) 1 (2) 2
Q.154 Glycolate induces opening of stomata in : - (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Presence of oxygen (2) Low CO2 conc. Q.164 Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus
(3) High CO2 (4) CO2 absent for RNA synthesis : -
Q.155 Enzyme first used for nitrogen fixation : - (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) Nitrogenase (2) Nitroreductase (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Transferase (4) Transaminase Q.165 What is true for Archaebacteria : -
Q.156 Maximum number of bases in plasmids (1) All Halophiles (2) All photosynthetic
discovered so far : - (3) All fossils (4) Oldest living beings
(1) 50 kilo base (2) 500 kilo base Q.166 Extranuclear inheritence occurs in : -
(3) 5000 kilo base (4) 5 kilo base (1) Killer paramaecium
Q.157 Passive absorption of minerals depend on (2) Killer Amoeba
(1) Temperature (3) Euglena
(2) Temperature and metabolic inhibitor (4) Hydra
(3) Metabolic inhibitor Q.167 Extranuclear chromosomes occur in : -
(4) Humidity (1) Peroxisome, Ribosome
Q.158 Half life period of C14 is : - (2) Chloroplast and Mitochondria
(1) 500 years (2) 5000 years (3) Mitochondria and Ribosome
(3) 50 years (4) 5 × 104 years (4) Chloroplast and Lysosome
Q.159 Which one correctly matched : - Q.168 Spoilage of oil can be detected by which fatty
(1) Vit. E – Tocoferole acid : -
(2) Vit. D – Riboflavin (1) Oleic acid (2) Linolenic acid
(3) Vit. B – Calciferole (3) Linoleic acid (4) Erusic acid
(4) Vit. A – Thiamine Q.169 When we migrate from dark to light, we fail to
Q.160 E. Coli about to replicate was placed in a see for sometimes but after a time visibility
medium containing radio active thymidine for becomes normal. It is example of
five minutes. Then it was made to replicate in a (1) Accomodation
normal medium. Which of the following (2) Adaptation
observation shall be correct : -
(3) Mutation
(1) Both the strands of DNA will be radio active
(4) Photoperiodism
(2) One strand radio active
Q.170 In plants inulin and pectin are
(3) Each strand half radio active
(1) Reserved material
(4) None is radio active
(2) Wastes
Q.161 Most abundant organic compound on earth is
(3) Excretory material
(1) Protein (2) Cellulose
(4) Insect attracting material
(3) Lipids (4) Steroids

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Q.171 Gene and cistron words are sometimes used Q.180 Microtubules absent in : -
synonymously because : - (1) Mitochondria (2) Flagella
(1) One cistron contains many genes (3) Spindle fibres (4) Centriole
(2) One gene contains many cistrons Q.181 Which aquatic fern performs nitrogen fixation : -
(3) One gene contains one cistron (1) Azolla (2) Nostoc
(4) One gene contains no cistron (3) Salvia (4) Salvinia
Q.172 Element necessary for the middle lamella Q.182 Roots of which plant contains a red pigment
(1) Ca (2) Zn which have affinity for oxygen : -
(3) K (4) Cu (1) Carrot (2) Soyabean
Q.173 Cycas have two cotyledons but not included in (3) Mustard (4) Radish
angiosperms becuase of : - Q.183 Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with
(1) Naked ovules (1) Oat (2) Barley (3) Maize (4) Rye
(2) Seems like monocot Q.184 At the time of organogenesis genes regulate the
(3) Circinate ptyxis process at different levels and at different time
(4) Compound leaves due to :
Q.174 Plant Decomposers are : - (1) Promoter (2) Regulator
(1) Monera and fungi (3) Intron (4) Exon
(2) Fungi and plants Q.185 A mutant strain of T4 – Bacteriophage, R-II,
(3) Protista and Animalia fails to lyse the E-Coli but when two strains R-
IIX and R-IIY are mixed then they lyse the
(4) Anibalia and Mogna
E.Coli. What may be the possible reason : -
Q.175 What is true for cyano bacteria : -
(1) Bacteriophage transforms in wild
(1) Oxygenic with nitrogenase
(2) It is not mutated
(2) Oxygenic without nitrogenase
(3) Both strains have simillar cistrons
(3) Non oxygenic with nitrogenase
(4) Both strains have different cistrons
(4) Non oxygenic without nitrogenase
Q.186 Reason of diversity in living being : -
Q.176 m-RNA is synthesised on DNA template in
which direction : - (1) Mutation

(1) 5' → 3' (2) 3' → 5' (2) Long term evolutionary change
(3) Both (4) Any (3) Gradual change
Q.177 Cytochrome is : - (4) Short term evolutionary change
(1) Metallo flavo protein Q.187 Sickle cell anaemia is due to : -
(2) Fe containing porphyrin pigment (1) Change of Amino Acid in α-chain of
Haemoglobin
(3) Glycoprotein
(2) Change of Amino Acid in β-chain of
(4) Lipid
Haemoglobin
Q.178 Which of the following less general in characters
(3) Change of Amino acid in both α and β
as compared to genus : -
chain of Haemoglobin
(1) Species (2) Division
(4) Change of Amino acid either α or β chain
(3) Class (4) Family of Haemoglobin
Q.179 Adhesive pad of fungi penetrate the host with the Q.188 Similarities in organism with different genotype
help of : - indicates : -
(1) Mechanical pressure and enzymes (1) Microevolution
(2) Hooke and suckers (2) Macroevolution
(3) Softening by enzymes (3) Convergent evolution
(4) Only by mechanical pressure (4) Divergent evolution

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Q.189 What is correct for Blood group 'O' : - Q.197 Forecomming generations are less adaptive than
(1) No antegens but both a and b antibodies are their parental generation due to : -
present (1) Natural selection (2) Mutation
(2) A antegen and b antibody (3) Genetic drift (4) Adaptation
(3) Antigen and Antibody both absent Q.198 During regeneration, modification of an organ
(4) A and B antigens and a, b, antibodies to other organ is known as : -
Q.190 Which of the following is closest relative of (1) Morphallogenesis
man : - (2) Epimorphosis
(1) Chimpanzee (2) Gorilla (3) Morphallaxis
(3) Orangutan (4) Gibbon (4) Accretionary growth
Q.191 Which of the following is correct order of the Q.199 Occurence of endemic species in south america
evolutionary history of man : - and Australia due to : -
(1) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthel (1) These species has been extinct from other
man, Cromagnon man regions
(2) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homosapiens (2) Continental separation
Cromagnon man (3) These is no terrestrial route to these places
(3) Peking man, Hedalberg man, Neanderthal (4) Retrogressive evolution
man, Cromagnon man Q.200 Darwins theory of pangenesis shows similarity
(4) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homosapiens with theory of inheritance of acquired characters
Hedalberg man then what shall be correct according to it : -
Q.192 Which cells do not form layer and remains (1) Useful organs become strong and
structurally seperate : - developed while useless organs become
(1) Epithelial cells (2) Muscle cells extinct. These organs help in struggle for
(3) Nerve cells (4) Gland cells survival
Q.193 During an injury Nasal septum gets damaged (2) Size of organs increase with aging
and for it's recovery which cartilage prefered : - (3) Development of organs is due to will power
(1) Elastic cartilage (2) Hyaline cartilage (4) There should be some physical basis of
(3) Calcified cartilage (4) Fibrous cartilage inheritance
Q.194 First life on earth was : -
(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Chemohetrotrophs
(3) Autotrophs
(4) Photoautotrophs
Q.195 Frequency of an allele in an isolated population
may change due to : -
(1) Genetic drift (2) Gene flow
(3) Mutation (4) Natural selection
Q.196 In lederberg's replica plating experiment what
shall be used to obtain streptomycin resistant
strain : -
(1) Minimal medium and streptomycine
(2) Complete medium and streptomycine
(3) Only minimal medium
(4) Only complete medium
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ANSWER KEY (AIPMT-2001)

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 3 3 1 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 2 1
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 1 3 2
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 1 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 1 3 2 3 2 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 2 3 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 4
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 1 2 1 1 4 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 2 4 2 1
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 2 1 1 4 1 1 4 1 2 2 3 4 1 1 4 4 3 3 4
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 1 4 1 3 1 1 1 2 1 3 4 2 1 4 1 1 2 1 2 1
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 1 1 1 1 4 1,2 3 1 3 3 3 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 2 3 3 4 1 2 4 2 1 3 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 1 2 4 4 4 2 2 3 1 1 3 3 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 4

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

5. 10. Equivalent ckt is
v=0 30Ω

10 ms–1
h

h/2 20Ω 5V
5V
I=
2 2h (30 + 20)Ω
v = u – 2g
2
5
0 = (10)2 – 10h I= A
50
h = 10 m
kx 2 k 2 x 2 f2
6. K′ = Kcos2 45º = K/2 12. E= = ⇒E=
2 2k 2k
9.
1
Q Force is equal ∴ E ∝
k
Maximum
16. Carnot engine is an Ideal engine so its efficiency
Minimum will be will be maximum
400 – 300
V ∴ ηmax. = × 100% = 25%
h = 2m 400
h1
ground therefore 26% efficient engine is impossible

Apply COME between maxm and min point 17. Impulse = change in momentum
1
mgh = Mgh1 + MV2 ∆P 150 × 10 –3 × 20
2 F= = = 30 N
∆t 0. 1

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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2001
1 T frL = µs.N pseudo force = ma
18. n=
2l πr 2ρ = µs.mg =1×5
= 0.6 ×1 × 10 F =5N
ρ 1
ρ1 = , T = 2T and D1 = 2D ;k r1 = 2r = 6N
2
∴ F < frL block does not move
1 2T 1 T
n1 = = =n static firction = applied force
2l ρ 2l πr 2ρ
π( 2r ) 2
2 ⇒ fr = 5N
⇒ No change
Iρ
– GMm 1 34. Solve by x =
20. Apply energy consevation + mv2 A
R 2
35. I = t2e–t
GMm GM
=– ⇒v= dl dl
2R R e=L here emf is zero when =0
dt dt
21. dl
= 2te–t – t2 e–t= 0
dt
⇒ te–t (t – 2) = 0 ⇒ t = 2 sec
r
θc IC I α
4 36. = α = 0.98 ; C = β = = 49
θc 4 + r2
2
IE IB 1– α

40. 2dsinθ = nλ Q – 1 ≤ sin θ ≤ 1

1 1
sin θc = = Therefore λmax. = 2d ⇒ λmax. = 2 × 2.8 × 10–8m
µ 5/3
⇒ λmax. = 5.6 × 10–8 m
r 3
⇒ =
42 + r 2 5 useful work mgh (75g ) × 3
46. η= = = = 0.75
total work F× d 250 × 12
⇒ r =3
49. Apply conservation of linear momentum
KA (T1 – T2 )
23. Heat flow rate = =Q ⇒ 3mV = 30 2 m
L
when linear dimensions are doubled ⇒ V = 10 2
A1 ∝ r12, L1 = L (m)30 2
A2 ∝ 4r12, L1 = 2L1 so Q2 = 2Q1 (m) 30

2
24. A+B = A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ

⇒ A2 = A2 + A2 + 2A2 cos θ (m) 30

1
⇒ cos θ = – ⇒ θ = 120º
2 (3m)V
2
1 v
29. Energy density = ∈0 2 52. CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3→ CH3–CH2CH–CH3
2 d
intermediate Sp2 hybrid planar
30. Cl
shape → recemic mix

1kg planr shape (leryh; vkÑfr) ij reagent dk

2
a=5m/s
F = ma fr
vkØe.k nksuksa rjQ ls gks ldrk gSA

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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2001
1 76. Sp. vol (vol. of 1gm) cylindrical virus particle
70. CH4 + O2 → CH3OH
2 = 6.02 × 10–2 cc/gm
∆H = x – y given ∆H = – ve radius of virus r = 7Å = 7 × 10–8 cm
Hence x – y < 0 x < y length of virus = πr2l
22
71. 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 = × (7 × 10–8)2 × 10 × 10–8 = 154 × 10–23cc
7
this is a first order reaction
Vol.
rate wt. of one virus particle =
∴ rate = K[N2O5] [N2O5] = Sp.vol.
K
154 × 10 –23
⇒ gm
72. At the end of 25 hrs. activity = 0.01 M 6.02 × 10 – 2
half life = 6 hrs ∴ mol. wt. of virus = wt. of NA particles
24 154 × 10 –23
In 24 hrs. there are = 4 half life = × 6.02 × 10+23 gm/mol
6 –2
6.02 × 10
(A)
Activity of susbtance after n half life = = 15400 gm/mol = 15.4 kg/mol
2n
(A)
⇒ = 0.01 (A) = 0.16
24

74. Density = 1.17 gm/cc.

⇒ 1cc. solu. contains 1.17 gm of HCl
1.17 × 1000
∴ molarity =
36.5 × 1

75. In peroxidase anlydrous enzyme 0.55 Se is

present means, 0.5gm. Se is present in 100gm of
enzyme
In a molecule of enzyme one Se atom must be
present hence 78.4 gm Se will be present in
100
× 78.4 = 1.568 × 104
0. 5

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