PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT (AERODYNAMICS) - AEROPLA

44 1hr

A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the 1.4 . 2. 4. 8.

airstream decreases to half of the original value. The
aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor :
5259 81 0
The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is: the point of the suction the centre of the c.g.
maximum point of the pressure. location.
thickness of wing.
the wing.

5260 81 0
The location of the centre of pressure of a positive shift aft. shift in shift forward. not shift.
cambered wing at increasing angle of attack will: spanwise
direction.
5261 81 0
5262 81 The unit of density is: kg/m³ psi kg/cm² Bar 1
5263 81 The unit of measurement of pressure is: kg/dm² psi kg/m³ lb/gal 0
The boundary layer of a wing is caused by: the normal a turbulent suction at a layer on
shock wave stream the upper the wing in
at transonic pattern wing side. which the
speeds. around the stream
wing. velocity is
lower than
the free
stream
velocity, due
to friction.

5264 81 0
A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which: the vortices the velocity the no velocity
are weak. is constant. temperature components
varies exist, normal
constantly. to the
surface.

5265 81 0
The (subsonic) static pressure: increases in decreases in is the total is the
a flow in a a flow in a pressure pressure in
tube when tube when plus the a point at
the diameter the diameter dynamic which the
decreases. decreases. pressure. velocity has
become
zero.

5266 81 0
The true airspeed (TAS) is: higher than equal to the lower than lower than
the speed of IAS, the speed of the indicated
the multiplied by the airspeed
undisturbed the air undisturbed (IAS) at ISA
airstream density at airstream conditions
about the sea level. about the and altitudes
aeroplane. aeroplane. below sea
level.

5267 81 0
 The lift- and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section: vary linearly depend on are normal are
with the the pressure to each proportional
angle of distribution other at just to each
attack. about the one angle of other,
wing cross attack. independent
section. of angle of
attack.
5268 81 0
The total pressure is: can be static static ½ rho V²
measured in pressure pressure
a small hole plus the minus the
in a surface, dynamic dynamic
parallel to pressure. pressure.
the local
stream.

5269 81 0
A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream 16 . 4. 8. 12 .
velocity increases by a factor 4. The aerodynamic drag
will increase with a factor :
5270 81 1
The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain The weight The c.g. The The specific
airstream depends amongst others on: of the body. location of airstream mass of the
the body. velocity. body.
5271 81 0
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady 1.45 0.9 0.45 1.9
horizontal flight is 0.35. Increase in angle of attack of 1
degree will increase CL by 0.079. A vertical up gust
instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees. The
load factor will be :
5272 81 1
The Mach trim system will: pump the adjust the adjust the keep the
fuel from elevator trim stabilizer, Mach
tank to tank, tab, depending Number
depending depending on the Mach automaticall
on the Mach on the Mach Number. y constant.
Number. Number.

5273 81 0
The aerofoil polar is: the relation a graph, in a graph of a graph of
between the which the the relation the relation
horizontal thickness of between the between the
and the the wing lift lift
vertical aerofoil is coefficient coefficient
speed. given as a and the drag and the
function of coefficient. angle of
the chord. attack.
5274 81 0
How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from Decreasing, Decreasing. Increasing. Increasing,
stalling speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight then then
and level flight at constant weight? increasing. decreasing.
5275 81 1
Vortex generators: transfer change the reduce the take kinetic
energy from turbulent spanwise energy out
the free boundary flow on of the
airflow into layer into a swept wing. boundary
the laminar layer to
boundary boundary reduce
layer. layer. separation.
5276 81 1
Induced drag is created by the: propeller spanwise interference separation
wash flow pattern of the air of the
blowing resulting in stream boundary
across the the tip between layer over
wing. vortices. wing and the wing.
fuselage.
5277 81 0
 Which of the following will reduce induced drag? Elliptical lift Low aspect Flying at Extending
distribution. ratio. high angles the flaps.
of attack.
5278 81 1
Which of the following statements is correct? Static Dynamic A Dynamic
stability stability dynamically stability is
means that means that stable possible
the after being aeroplane only when
aeroplane is displaced would be the
also from original almost aeroplane is
dynamically equilibrium impossible statically
satble about condition, to fly stable about
the relevant the manually. the relevant
axis. aeroplane axis.
will return to
that
condition
without
oscillation.

5279 81 0
An aeroplane has static directional stability; in a side-slip nose of the nose of the nose of the right wing
to the right, initially the: aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane tends to go
will remain tends to tends to down.
in the same move to the move to the
direction. left. right.
5280 81 0
When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the decrease. remain the vary as the increase.
lift coefficient will: same. square of
IAS.
5281 81 0
A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will: improve the improve the improve the increase the
lift low speed high speed critical Mach
coefficient of characteristi characteristi Number.
the trailing cs. cs.
edge flap.

5282 81 0
Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach higher total lower static higher loss higher total
number a normal shock wave has a temperature. temperature. in total pressure.
pressure.
5283 81 0
The lift force, acting on an aerofoil : increases, is mainly is maximum is mainly
proportional caused by at an angle caused by
to the angle overpressur of attack of 2 suction on
of attack e at the degrees. the
until 40 underside of upperside of
degrees. the aerofoil. the aerofoil.

5284 81 0
In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall first appearance separation attachment
due to the appearance of the bow of the of the shock
of a shock wave. boundary wave on the
wave at the layer at the trailing edge
upper side shock of the wing.
of the wing. waves.

5285 81 0
Shock induced separation results in decreasing decreasing constant lift. increasing
5286 81 drag. lift. lift. 0
If an aeroplane is flying at transonic speed with moves into moves into stays all the disappears.
increasing Mach number the shock wave on the upper trailing edge leading edge time at the
side of the wing direction. direction. same
position.
5287 81 1
Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of upper side lower side of leading edge trailing edge
a shock wave will appear at the of the wing. the wing. of the wing. of the wing.
5288 81 1
 To increase the critical Mach number a conventional be used with have a large have a low have a large
aerofoil should a high angle leading edge thickness to camber.
of attack. radius. chord ratio.

5289 81 0
In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock exactly 1. small but still high lower than 1.
wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can be supersonic. (supersonic)
obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is .
5290 81 0
The critical Mach number can be increased by a T-tail. an increase sweepback positive
in wing of the wings. dihedral of
aspect ratio. the wings.
5291 81 0
Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach smaller higher higher smaller
number a normal shock wave has a expansion. compression expansion. compression
. .
5292 81 0
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the stay decrease decrease. increase.
static temperature will constant. and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again.

5293 81 0
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the decrease. stay decrease increase.
Mach number will constant. and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again.

5294 81 0
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the decrease. increase. stay decrease
local speed of sound will constant. and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again.

5295 81 1
The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the the static the friction in kinetic the speed
fact that pressure the energy in the reduction is
decrease is boundary flow is too high.
comparativel layer is changed into
y high. higher. heat energy.

5296 81 0
If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight is increase. stay decrease decrease.
increased, the shock wave angles will constant. and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again.

5297 81 0
The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to transonic supersonic hypersonic subsonic
5298 81 M = 1.3 is called the range. range. range. range. 1
A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard only the only the the inboard only the
ailerons is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number. In inboard outboard and spoilers will
this case ailerons are aileron are outboard be active,
active. active. ailerons are not the
active. ailerons.
5299 81 1
 When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 77%. 59%. 130%. 169%.
times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a
percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would
be:
5300 81 0
The aspect ratio of the wing: is the ratio is the ratio is the ratio is the ratio
between the between the between between the
wing span tip chord chord and wing span
and the root and the wing root chord. and the
chord. span. mean
geometric
chord.
5301 81 0
A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining increase increase increase increase
airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot thrust and thrust and thrust and angle of
has to: angle of keep angle decrease attack and
attack. of attack angle of keep thrust
unchanged. attack. unchanged.
5302 81 1
When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of zero downwards downwards. upwards.
the centre of pressure of the combined wing / fuselage is because in because it is
in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the steady flight always
tailplane will be: all loads are negative
in regardless
equilibrium. of the
position of
the centre of
gravity.

5303 81 0
In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines It depends Down. Up. No elevator
mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly on the movement
increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to position of will required
maintain the pitching moment zero ? the centre of because the
gravity. thrust line of
the engines
remains
unchanged.

5304 81 0
Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach No, this is Yes, this Yes, but only Yes, if you
number than the 'buffet-onset' Mach number? not causes no during want to fly
acceptable problems. approach. fast at very
high
altitudes.
5305 81 1
If a symmetrical aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to aft to the aft to the forward to forward to
supersonic speed the centre of lift will move mid chord. trailing edge. the leading the mid
edge. chord.
5306 81 1
The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in: degrees % chord. camber. meters.
cross
section tail
angle.
5307 81 0
The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a wing tip aft forward wing root
stall is due to the stalling first. movement movement stalling first.
of the centre of the centre
of gravity. of gravity.

5308 81 1
The high speed buffet is induced by a shift of the boundary boundary expansion
centre of layer layer control. waves on
gravity. separation the wing
due to shock upper side.
waves.

5309 81 0
 Tuck under will happen above or only above only at the only below
below the the critical critical Mach the critical
critical Mach Mach number. Mach
number number. number.
depending
on the angle
of attack.

5310 81 0
The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will skin friction induced form drag. wave drag.
5311 81 decrease the drag. drag. 0
Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will decrease decrease decrease increase the
the shock the the stalling effectivenes
wave interference speed by s of the
induced drag of the increase of spoiler due
separation. trailing edge the to increase
flaps. tangential in parasite
velocity of drag.
the swept
wing.

5312 81 1
Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' contoured improve the apply area increase the fit the engine
fuselage. This is done to low speed rule. strength of intakes
characteristi the wing root better to the
cs. junction. fuselage.

5313 81 0
What is the effect on the aeroplane's static longitudinal The static The static The static The static
stability of a shift of the centre of gravity to a more aft longitudinal longitudinal longitudinal longitudinal
location and on the required control deflection for a stability is stability is stability is stability is
certain pitch up or down? larger and larger and smaller and smaller and
the required the required the required the required
control control control control
deflection is deflection is deflection is deflection is
smaller. larger. larger. smaller.

5314 81 0
The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of minor spoilers are pulling up weight
importance being constant) altitude selected from a dive. decreases.
changes from OUT to
occur e.g. 0- IN.
10.000 ft.
5315 81 0
Which statement about the trim position is true related to A nose Because A nose At the
centre of gravity and adjustable stabiliser position ? heavy characteristi heavy forward limit
aeroplane c speeds at aeroplane for centre of
requires that take off do requires that gravity,
the stabiliser not vary with the stabiliser stabiliser
leading edge centre of leading edge trim is
is lower than gravity is higher adjusted
compared location, the than maximum
with a tail need for compared Nose Down
heavy stabiliser with a tail to obtain
aeroplane adjustment heavy maximum
is dependent aeroplane. elevator
on flap authority at
position only. take off
rotation.

5316 81 1
When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, dependent nose down. nose up. zero.
the change in pitch moment will be: on c.g.
location.
5317 81 0
 Deflection of leading edge flaps will: increase decrease decrease not affect
critical angle CLmax. drag. critical angle
of attack. of attack.
5318 81 1
Slat extension will: increase reduce tip create gaps decrease
critical angle vortices. between the energy in
of attack. leading edge the
and engine boundary
nacelles. layer on the
upperside of
the wing.

5319 81 1
Spoiler deflection causes : an increase decrease in an increase an increase
in lift only lift and drag in drag and in lift and
decrease in drag
lift
5320 81 0
The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the 1.41 1.07 1.30 2.00
5321 81 following factor: 1
The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with: CL square root CLmax CL²
5322 81 (CL) 0
When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall decreases increases increases increases
speed : with with the load with the with flap
increasing factor square root extension
bank angle squared of load
factor
5323 81 0
Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces Fowler flaps, seal upper and weight in the
are: upper and between lower nose of the
lower rudder wing's rudder, seal control
trailing edge between surface,
and leading wing's horn
edge of a trailing edge balance
control and leading
surface, edge of a
horn control
balance surface

5324 81 0
When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, can only ensures that makes makes
this: function in a part of the trimming aerodynamic
combination aerodynamic superfluous. balancing of
with an forces is still the control
elevator trim felt on the surfaces
tab. column. meaningless
.

5325 81 0
Which statement about a primary control surface The position The servo The control Due to the
controlled by a servo tab, is correct ? is tab can also effectivenes effectivenes
undetermine be used as a s of the s of the
d during trimtab. primary servo tab
taxiing, in surface is the control
particular increased by surface area
with tailwind. servo tab can be
deflection. smaller.

5326 81 1
Which combination of design features is known to be Straight Swept back Straight Swept back
responsible for deep stall? wings and wings and a wings and a wings and
aft fuselage T-tail. T-tail. wing
mounted mounted
engines engines.

5327 81 0
 The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single idle power idle power full power full power
engined aeroplane is: and stick and stick and stick and stick
roll-neutral neutral, roll-neutral roll-neutral
nose-down waiting for nose-down, nose-down,
and no other the natural correcting correction
corrections. nose-down for angle of for angle of
tendency. bank with bank with
rudder. stick.

5328 81 0
The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch point of stagnation centre of centre of
is activated by the change of the: lowest point. pressure. gravity.
pressure.
5329 81 0
The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic the CAS there is a the angle of the IAS
speeds as long as.... exceeds the nose-down attack is exceeds the
power-on attitude. smaller than power-on
stall speed. the value at stall speed.
which the
stall occurs.

5330 81 0
Which of the following statements concerning control is On some Hydraulically In general In a
correct? aeroplanes, powered the differential
the servo control maximum aileron
tab also surfaces do downward control
serves as a not need elevator system the
trim tab. mass deflection is control
balancing. larger than surfaces
upward. have a
larger
upward than
downward
maximum
deflection.

5331 81 0
When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at decrease. first increase remain the increase.
constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually : and then same.
decrease.
5332 81 0
On a wing fitted with a "fowler" type trailing edge flap, the an an increase an increase an
"Full extended" position will produce: unaffected in wing area in wing area unaffected
CD, at a only. and camber. wing area
given angle and increase
of attack. in camber.

5333 81 0
When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated ? Flaps (and Flaps Landing Landing
slats) (and/or gear gear
retracted or slats) retracted. extended.
speed above extended or
a certain speed below
value. a certain
value..

5334 81 1
In a turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will n greater n smaller n greater n smaller
be: than 1, VS than 1, VS than 1, VS than 1, VS
higher than lower than in lower than in higher than
in straight straight and straight and in straight
and level level flight. level flight. and level
flight. flight.
5335 81 1
By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady 52%. 41%. 19%. 31%.
level turn at 45° angle of bank, compared to straight and
level flight?
5336 81 0
 The trailing edge flaps when extended : worsen the increase the significantly significantly
best angle of zero lift increase the lower the
glide angle of angle of drag
attack attack for
maximum lift

5337 81 1
The function of the stick pusher is: to activate to activate to vibrate to pull the
and push and push the controls. stick, to
the stick the stick avoid a high
forward at or forward prior speed stall.
beyond a to stick
certain value shaker.
of angle of
attack.

5338 81 1
During an erect spin recovery: the control the ailerons the control the control
stick is are held in stick is stick is
pulled to the the neutral moved side moved side
most aft position. ways, ways, in the
position. against the direction of
angle of the angle of
bank. bank.

5339 81 0
How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane Elevator The elevator The elevator The exterior
change, when trimming for speed increase ? deflection is is deflected is deflected appearance
increased further up by further of the
further a downward downward aeroplane
downward deflected by means of will not
by an trim tab a movable change
upward horizontal
deflected stabiliser
trim tab

5340 81 1
At what speed does the front of a shock wave move The true air The ground The speed The speed
across the earth's surface? speed of the speed of the of sound at of sound at
aeroplane. aeroplane. ground level. flight level.
5341 81 0
A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing tendency to nose up nose down increase
contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall increase tendency tendency. sensitivity of
behaviour can be: speed after and/or lack elevator
initial stall. of elevator inputs.
response.
5342 81 0
After the transition point between the laminar and the mean the the mean the
turbulent boundary layer speed boundary speed and boundary
increases layer gets friction drag layer gets
and the thicker and increases thinner and
friction drag the speed the speed
decreases decreases increases

5343 81 0
The stall speed : increases increases decreases does not
with the with an with an depend on
length of the increased increased weight
wingspan weight weight

5344 81 0
At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS): decreases remains the decreases increases
same until the
tropopause
5345 81 0
Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with Excessive pitch down pitch down pitch down
dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall wing drop and yaw. and minor and increase
characteristics include: and deep wing drop. in speed.
stall.
5346 81 1
 Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the: centre of wing surface aeroplane centre of
gravity is is greater possesses a gravity is
located in than the large trim located in
front of the horizontal speed front of the
leading edge tail surface. range. neutral point
of the wing. of the
aeroplane.
5347 81 0
Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by: angle engine aeroplane aeroplane
between thrust. weight. wing
wing chord location.
and fuselage
centre line.

5348 81 0
An aeroplane that has positive static stability: is always can be is always is never
dynamically dynamically dynamically dynamically
unstable. stable, stable. stable.
neutral or
unstable.
5349 81 0
The "short period mode" is an: oscillation oscillation oscillation unstable
about the about the about the movement
lateral axis. vertical axis. longitudinal of the
axis. aeroplane,
induced by
the pilot.
5350 81 1
Which one of the following statements about the dynamic An aft C.G. Damping of Speed Period time
stability of a conventional aeroplane about the lateral axis position the phugoid remains of the
is correct? shortens the is normally constant phugoid is
period time very weak. during one normally 5
of the period of the sec.
phugoid. phugoid.

5351 81 0
After a disturbance about the lateral axis, an aeroplane Statically Statically Statically Statically
oscillates about the lateral axis at a constant amplitude. stable - unstable - stable - unstable -
The aeroplane is: Dynamically Dynamically Dynamically Dynamically
neutral stable unstable neutral
5352 81 1
Which of the following are used as stall warning devices? Stick shaker Angle of Angle of Stick shaker
and angle of attack attack and stallstrip
attack indicator and sensor and .
indicator. speed stallstrip.
indicator.
5353 81 0
Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is Critical tip geometric Blade angle Propeller
correct? velocity = propeller = angle angle of
propeller pitch = the between attack =
speed at theoretical blade chord angle
which risk of distance a line and between
flow propeller propeller blade chord
separation blade axis line and
at some element is propeller
parts of travelling in vertical
propeller forward plane
blade direction in
occurs. one
propeller
revolution

5354 81 0
 "Tuck under" is: the tendency the tendency shaking of the tendency
to nose to nose up the control to nose
down when when speed column at down when
speed is is increased high Mach the control
increased into the Number. column is
into the transonic pulled back.
transonic flight regime.
flight regime.

5355 81 1
The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst maximum too small minimum maximum
others limited by the: elevator effect of the value of the longitudinal
deflection. controls on stick force stability of
the per g. the
aeroplane. aeroplane.
5356 81 0
For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is at the between the with a aft of the
located: neutral point aft limit and sufficient neutral point
of the the neutral minimum of the
aeroplane. point of the margin aeroplane.
aeroplane. ahead of the
neutral point
of the
aeroplane.
5357 81 0
The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 450 N. 150 N. 225 N. 375 N.
150 N/g. The load factor in straight and level flight is 1.
The increase of stick force necessary to achieve the load
factor of 2.5 is:
5358 81 0
The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre (1) aft C.G. (1) (1) forward (1) forward
stability are positively affected by: position (2) aeroplane C.G. position C.G. position
aft CG. nose up trim (2) forward (2)
position. (2) CG. position. aeroplane
aeroplane nose up
nose up trim.
trim.
5359 81 0
The C.G. position of an aeroplane is forward of the Aeroplane Stick force Increasing Increase of
neutral point in a fixed location. Speed changes cause a nose up trim stability is 10 kt speed
departure from the trimmed position. Which of the decreases not affected trimmed at generates
following statements about the stick force stability is the stick by trim. low speed pull forces.
correct? force has more
stability. effect on the
stick force
than
increasing
10 kt
trimmed at
high speed.

5360 81 0
The lift formula is: L= W L= CL 2 L= n W L= CL 1/2
5361 81 RHO V² S RHO V² S 0
Positive static stability of an aeroplane means that once it tendency will tendency will initial initial
has been displaced the : be to move be to move tendency to tendency to
with an with an move is move is
oscillating oscillating towards its away from
motion of motion of equilibrium its
decreasing increasing position. equilibrium
amplitude. amplitude. position.

5362 81 0
 Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer The Mach A Mach A straight A Mach
is correct? trimmer trimmer wing trimmer
corrects the corrects the aeroplane reduces the
natural change in always stick force
tendency of stick force needs a stability of a
a swept wing stability of a Mach straight wing
aeroplane to swept wing trimmer for aeroplane to
pitch-up. aeroplane flying at zero at high
above a Mach Mach
certain Mach numbers numbers.
number. close to
MMO.

5363 81 0
When the air is passing through a shock wave the static decrease increase. decrease. stay
temperature will and beyond constant.
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again

5364 81 0
Which of the following statements about the spin is Every During spin An In the spin,
correct? aeroplane recovery the aeroplane is airspeed
should be ailerons prone to continuously
designed should be spin when increases.
such that it kept in the the stall
can never neutral starts at the
enter a spin. position. wing root.

5365 81 0
Which of the following statements about stall speed is Increasing Decreasing Increasing Use of a T-
correct ? the anhedral the angle of the angle of tail will
of the wing sweep of the sweep of the decrease
will wing will wing will the stall
decrease decrease decrease speed..
the stall the stall the stall
speed. speed. speed.

5366 81 0
Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) (1) not move (1) move aft, (1) move aft, (1) move aft,
wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will: (2) move (2) not (2) move (2) move aft.
forward. move. forward.
5367 81 0
Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1) and (1) (1) (1) (1)
drag (2) in the stall change as follows : increases decreases decreases increases
(2) (2) (2) (2)
decreases. increases. decreases. increases.
5368 81 0
Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw Spiral dive. Buffeting. Dutch roll. Tuck under.
5369 81 damper ? 0
A statically unstable aeroplane is: never always sometimes sometimes
dynamically dynamically dynamically dynamically
stable. stable. stable. unstable.
5370 81 1
With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral (1) decrease (1) decrease (1) increase (1) increase
stability (1) and the dynamic lateral/directional stability (2) (2) (2) increase. (2) (2) increase.
of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will: decrease. decrease.
5371 81 0
One of the requirements for dynamic stability is: a small C.G. effective positive a large
range. elevator. static deflection
stability. range of the
stabilizer
trim.

5372 81 0
 Which of the following statements about dihedral is The Effective Dihedral Dihedral is
correct? "effective dihedral is contributes necessary
dihedral" of the angle to dynamic for the
an between the but not to execution of
aeroplane 1/4-chord static lateral slip-free
component line and the stability. turns.
means the lateral axis
contribution of the
of that aeroplane.
component
to the static
lateral
stability.

5373 81 1
What happens during an engine failure with two similar The same The same Less roll More roll
aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one of them with yaw roll tendency tendency for tendency for
jet engines, the other one with co-rotating propellers: tendency for for both the propeller the propeller
both aeroplanes. aeroplane. aeroplane.
aeroplanes
regardless
of left or
right engine
failure.

5374 81 0
The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle Aeroplane Principal Local air Direction of
between blade chord line and: heading. direction of speed propeller
propeller vector. axis.
blade.
5375 81 0
"Tuck under" is caused by (i) which movement of the (i) aft (ii) (i) forward (i) aft (ii) (i) forward
centre of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change of increasing (ii) decreasing (ii)
the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer. increasing decreasing
5376 81 0
"Tuck under" may happen at: low Mach all Mach only at low high Mach
5377 81 numbers. numbers. altitudes. numbers. 0
Which of the following statements about the stall of a Buffeting is The nose The Just before
straight wing aeroplane is correct? the result of down effect horizontal the stall the
flow is the result tail will stall aeroplane
separation of increasing at a higher will be have
on the tail downwash, speed than a nose-down
plane. due to flow the wing. tendency.
separation.

5378 81 0
Which one of the following systems suppresses the Rudder Yaw damper. Roll spoilers. Spoiler
5379 81 tendency to "Dutch roll"? limiter. mixer. 0
Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave ? The airflow The airflow The airflow The airflow
changes expands changes changes
from when from direction
subsonic to passing the supersonic
supersonic aerofoil to subsonic
5380 81 0
Which statement is correct about a spring tab ? At high IAS it Its main At high IAS it At low IAS it
behaves like purpose is to behaves like behaves like
a fixed increase a servo tab a servo tab
extension of stick force
the elevator per g

5381 81 0
Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on Wing root Landing Wing tip Engine
5382 81 the induced drag ? junction gear cowling 0
Winglets create an decrease decrease increase the
elliptical lift the induced the static manoeuvrab
distribution. drag. lateral ility.
stability.
5383 81 0
 The interference drag is created as a result of separation the addition interaction downwash
of the of induced between behind the
induced and parasite aeroplane wing.
vortex. drag. parts (e.g.
wing/fuselag
e).
5384 81 0
(For this question use annex 081-6249A)_x000D_ Line c Line a Line b Line d
Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane?
5385 81 1
Increasing dynamic (kinetic) pressure will have the The drag is The drag This has no The drag
following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (all other only affected increases. effect. decreases.
factors of importance remaining constant) : by the
ground
speed.
5386 81 0
A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach- fly at a larger fly at a lower extend the fly at a
number, that provides a buffet margin of 0.3g angle of altitude and flaps to the higher
incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4g attack the same first Mach-
incremental the pilot must : Mach- selection number
number

5387 81 0
An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number It remains It increases It decreases It decreases
from FL 350. What is the effect on true airspeed ? constant as as pressure as altitude
temperature increases decreases
increases

5388 81 0
High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, Increasing Increasing Decreasing Increasing
has the effect of : lift and drag induced induced lift and
drag and drag and critical angle
decreasing critical angle of attack
critical angle of attack
of attack

5389 81 0
What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least straight wing winglets swept wings
5390 81 sensitive to turbulence : wings dihedral 0
"A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway the upper the camber the chord the mean
between the upper and lower surface of a aerofoil". This camber line line line aerodynamic
definition is applicable for : chord line
5391 81 0
Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the Increased Less power Higher tip- decrease
number of propeller blades ? noise can be speed propeller
absorbed by efficiency
the propeller

5392 81 0
One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared it is a more the structure it leads to the system's
with a fixed stabilizer system is that: powerful weighs less greater complexity is
means of stability in reduced
trimming flight
5393 81 1
When air has passed through a shock wave the speed of increased. not affected decreased. decreased
sound is and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again

5394 81 1
(For this question use annex 081-6250A)_x000D_ the parasite the induced the total the lift force.
The diagram shows the parameter X versus TAS. If a drag. drag. drag.
horizontal flight is considered the axis X shows
5395 81 0
 Which of the following statements is true? Through Limiting Through By
extension of factors in extension of increasing
the flaps in severe the flaps in the flap
severe turbulence severe setting in
turbulence are the turbulence it severe
the centre of possibility of is possible turbulence
pressure will a stall and to reduce the stall
move aft the margin the speed speed will
which will to the and increase be reduced
increase the structural the margins and the risk
margins to limitations to the for
the structural exceeding
structural limits the
limits structural
limits will be
decreased

5396 81 0
5397 81 Rotation about the lateral axis is called : yawing. slipping. pitching. rolling. 0
During landing of a low-winged jet aeroplane, the fully down up and the fully down up and the
maximum elevator up deflection is normally required and the C.G. C.G. is fully and the C.G. C.G. is fully
when the flaps are: is fully forward. is fully aft. aft.
forward.
5398 81 1
In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward wing elevator engine trim system,
allowable position of the centre of gravity could be limited surface, capability, thrust, trim tab
by the: stabilizer elevator engine surface.
surface. control location.
forces.
5399 81 0
If the total sum of moments about one of its axis is not would be would fly a would not be would
zero, an aeroplane: difficult to path with a affected experience
control. constant because the an angular
curvature. situation is acceleration
normal. about that
axis.
5400 81 0
The centre of gravity moving aft will: increase the decrease not affect the increase or
elevator up the elevator elevator up decrease
effectivenes up or down the elevator
s. effectivenes effectivenes up
s. s. effectivenes
s, depending
on wing
location.

5401 81 1
Increasing air pressure will have the following effect on The drag is The drag This has no The drag
the drag of an aeroplane (angle of attack, OAT and TAS only affected increases. effect. decreases.
are constant): by the
ground
speed.
5402 81 0
In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in Aft centre of Forward Aft centre of Forward
straight and level flight have the highest value ? gravity and centre of gravity and centre of
idle thrust. gravity and take-off gravity and
take-off thrust. idle thrust.
thrust.
5403 81 0
(For this question use annex 081-6253A)_x000D_ V1 > V2 and V1 = 0 and V1 < V2 and V1 = 0 and
How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and V2 < V V2 > V V2 < V V2 = V
point 2 related to the relative wind/airflow V?
5404 81 0
 The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the Will increase Will Will increase May
following factors: during turn, decrease with increase
increased with a increased during
mass and an forward c.g. load factor, turbulence
aft c.g. location, icing and will
location lower conditions always
altitude and and more increase
due to the flaps when
slip stream banking in a
from a turn
propeller on
an engine
located
forward of
the wing

5405 81 0
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the Increase Increase Increase Decrease in
following factors: with with during turn, a forward
increased increased increased c.g. location,
load factor, load factor, mass and higher
icing more flaps forward c.g. altitude and
conditions but will not location due to the
and an aft increase due slip stream
c.g. location to the bank from a
angle in a propeller on
turn an engine
located
forward of
the wing

5406 81 0
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the May May Will increase Will increase
following factors: increase increase in a turn, with
with altitude, when the higher increased
especially c.g. moves temperature load factor,
high altitude, forward, with and will more flaps
will increase higher increase and
during icing altitude and when the increased
conditions due to the c.g. moves bank angle
and will slip stream aft in a turn
increase from a
when the propellor on
c.g. moves an engine
forward located
forward of
the wing

5407 81 1
Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in Laminar No Transition Turbulent
velocity close to the surface? boundary difference boundary boundary
layer layer layer
5408 81 0
An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 kts lift is less drag is less weight is lift is equal
IAS and 1000 feet/min vertical speed. In this condition: than drag than the greater than to weight
combined lift
forces that
move the
aeroplane
forward
5409 81 0
(For this question use annex 081-6239A)_x000D_ Body d Body c Body a Body b
Which one of the bodies in motion (all bodies have the
same cross section area) will have lowest drag?
5410 81 0
 An aeroplane, with a C.G. location behind the centre of upwards. zero. downwards. upwards or
pressure of the wing can only maintain a straight and downwards
level flight when the horizontal tail loading is: depending
on elevator
deflection.

5411 81 1
(For this question use annex 081-6271A)_x000D_ Krueger flap Slat Fowler flap Slotted flap
5412 81 The high lift device shown in the figure is a 0
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross 91 KCAS 78 KCAS 57 KCAS 67 KCAS
weight of 6850 Ibs. What is the stall speed when the
weight is 5000 Ibs ?
5413 81 0
What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane 70 000 N 60 000 N 50 000 N 80 000 N
at a gross weight of 50 000 N, in a horizontal coordinated
45 degrees banked turn ?
5414 81 1
Load factor is : Lift/Weight Weight/Lift 1/Bank Wing
5415 81 angle loading 1
Which has the effect of increasing load factor ? (all other Increased Rearward Vertical Increased
relevant factors being constant) air density CG location gusts aeroplane
mass
5416 81 0
Which statement is correct? _x000D_ distance for glide glide distance for
The lift to drag ratio provides directly the climb up to a distance distance horizontal
certain from a given from a given flight.
altitude. altitude at altitude.
zero wind.

5417 81 0
The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables it delays the the laminar it it changes
the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because : stall to a part of the decelerates the camber
higher angle boundary the upper of the wing
of attack layer gets surface
thicker boundary
layer air
5418 81 1
(For this question use annex 081-6270A)_x000D_ Plain flap Split flap Single Fowler flap
5419 81 Which type of flap is shown in the picture? slotted flap 0
5420 81 What is the unit of measurement for power ? N/m Nm/s kgm/s² Pa/m² 0
(For this question use annex 081-6272A)_x000D_ Slot or slat Krueger flap Fowler flap Slotted flap
5421 81 The high lift device shown in the figure below is a 0
A plain flap will increase CLmax by boundary centre of lift increasing increasing
layer control. movement. the camber angle of
of the attack.
aerofoil.
5422 81 0
During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of sink bank. climb. yaw.
attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of suddenly.
importance being constant)
5423 81 1
During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of yaw. climb. bank. sink
attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of suddenly.
importance being constant)
5424 81 0
Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum unchanged. smaller or smaller. larger.
angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is larger
depending
on flap
deflection.
5425 81 0
A slat will provide a increase the increase the increase the
boundary boundary camber of lift by
layer suction layer energy the aerofoil increasing
on the upper and and divert the wing
side of the prolongs the the flow area and the
wing. stall to a around the camber of
higher angle sharp the aft
of attack. leading portion of
edge. the wing.

5426 81 0
 (For this question use annex 081-6269A)_x000D_ Plain flap Split flap Fowler flap Double
5427 81 Which type of flap is shown in the picture? slotted flap 0
(For this question use annex 081-6263A)_x000D_ Point c Point d Point b Point a
Which point in the diagram gives the best glide condition?
5428 81 0
Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive In the Upper side Lower side In front of
angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow stagnation the
velocities occur ? point stagnation
point
5429 81 0
Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively horizon. relative chord line. longitudinal
parallel to the wind/airflow. axis.
5430 81 0
If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect the induced drag and lift the lift is the effective
angle of are reduced. increased angle of
attack is and the drag attack is
increased. is decreased.
decreased.
5431 81 0
Ground effect has the following influence on the landing does not increases, increases. decreases.
distance : change. only if the
landing flaps
are fully
extended.

5432 81 0
An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal the TAS at the TAS at the TAS at the TAS at
flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes. the higher both the higher the higher
(all other factors of importance being constant, assume altitude is altitudes is altitude altitude is
ISA conditions and no compressibility effects) higher the same cannot be lower
determined
5433 81 1
The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch velocity and forward velocity and RPM
propeller is increased when : RPM velocity RPM increases
increase increases decrease and forward
and RPM velocity
decreasing decreases

5434 81 0
(For this question use annex 081-6262A)_x000D_ Point d Point c Point a Point b
5435 81 Which point marks the value for minimum sink rate? 0
If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen rho1 = rho2 rho1 < rho2 rho1 > rho2 The density
to the air density (rho) if the cross sectional area of a tube depends on
changes ? (low speed, subsonic and incompressible flow) the change
of the tube
area.
5436 81 1
(For this question use annex 081-6264A)_x000D_ Point b Point c Point d Point a
Which point in the diagram gives the lowest speed in
horizontal flight?
5437 81 0
What is the correct relation of the True Air Speed (TAS) VR/Dmin < VR/Dmin = VR/Dmin > VR/Dmin >
for minimum sink rate (VR/Dmin) and best glide angle VBest glide VBest glide VBest glide VBest glide
(VBest glide) at a given altitude? or VR/Dmin
< VBest
glide
depending
on the type
of
aeroplane.

5438 81 1
If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with idle- decrease increase and decrease increase and
power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will and the rate the rate of and the rate the rate of
of descent descent will of descent descent will
will increase. increase. will decrease.
decrease.

5439 81 1
 If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idle- increase and decrease decrease increase and
power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will the rate of and the rate and the rate the rate of
descent will of descent of descent descent will
increase. will will increase. decrease.
decrease.

5440 81 0
How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into Differential Horn- Anti- Servo tabs
and roll out from a turn ? aileron balanced balanced
deflection controls rudder
control
5441 81 1
What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of : spoilers fuselage slats flaps
mounted
speed-
brakes
5442 81 0
(For this question use annex 081-6261A)_x000D_ Point c Point d Point a Point b
Which point shown in the figure corresponds with CL for
minimum horizontal flight speed?
5443 81 0
On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic remain move move aft. remain
airflow, at low angle of attack, when the angle of attack is unaffected. forward. matching the
increased, the centre of pressure will (assume a airfoil
conventional transport aeroplane) : aerodynamic
centre.
5444 81 0
Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the: wing axis. longitudinal vertical axis. lateral axis.
5445 81 axis. 0
The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where: pitching change of lift aerodynamic the
moment due to forces are aeroplane's
coefficient variation of constant. lateral axis
does not angle of intersects
vary with attack is with the
angle of constant. centre of
attack. gravity.
5446 81 1
With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will (I) up, (II) aft. (I) down, (II) (I) up, (II) (I) down, (II)
move (I) ...and the point of lowest pressure will move aft. forward. forward.
(II) ...Respectively (I) and (II) are:
5447 81 0
The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and climb path angle of glide path angle of
5448 81 the chord line is the: angle. incidence. angle. attack. 0
The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the same as the angle of glide path climb path
chord line of an aerofoil is: angle attack. angle. angle.
between
chord line
and fuselage
axis.

5449 81 0
On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the "pitch up" is caused by never is caused by is caused by
phenomenon: wingtip stall. occurs, extension of boundary
since a trailing edge layer fences
swept wing lift mounted on
is a augmentatio the wings.
"remedy" to n devices.
pitch up.
5450 81 1
The Cl - alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil in the origin. below the nowhere. above the
intersects with the vertical axis of the Cl - alpha graph: origin. origin.
5451 81 0
Low speed pitch up is caused by the: wing tip Mach trim spanwise spanwise
vortex. system. flow on a flow on a
swept back swept
wing. forward
wing.
5452 81 0
Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow lower side upper side upper side lower side
separation normally start at high angles of attack? leading trailing edge. leading trailing edge.
edge. edge.
5453 81 0
 Which of the following statements about boundary layers The The The The
is correct? turbulent turbulent turbulent turbulent
boundary boundary boundary boundary
layer is layer gives a layer will layer has
thinner than lower skin separate more kinetic
the laminar friction than more easily energy than
boundary the laminar than the the laminar
layer. boundary laminar boundary
layer. boundary layer.
layer.

5454 81 0
Bernoulli's equation can be written as:_x000D_ pt = q - ps pt = ps / q pt = ps + q pt = ps - q
(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and q=dynamic
pressure)
5455 81 0
In a two-dimensional flow pattern, where the streamlines increase decrease. increase. not change.
converge the static pressure will : initially, then
decrease.
5456 81 0
Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's The dynamic The dynamic The dynamic The total
theorem is correct? pressure is pressure pressure pressure is
maximum in increases as decreases zero when
the static as static the velocity
stagnation pressure pressure of the
point. decreases. decreases. stream is
zero.
5457 81 0
Consider a certain stream line tube. The velocity of the increase the not affect the increase the decrease
stream in the tube is V. An increase of temperature of the mass flow. mass flow. mass flow the mass
stream at constant value of V will: when the flow.
tube is
divergent in
the direction
of the flow.

5458 81 0
The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the chord the chord the chord the fuselage
the angle between : line and the line of the line of the core line and
camber line aerofoil and aerofoil and the free
of the the free the fuselage stream
aerofoil. stream centreline. direction.
direction.
5459 81 0
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady 3.18 2.13 1.09 2.0
horizontal flight is 0.4. Increase of angle of attack of 1
degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust
instantly changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The
load factor will be :
5460 81 0
What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit Mcrit Mcrit Mcrit
Mcrit at constant IAS ? decreases increases as increases as decreases.
as a result of a result of a result of
flying at a flying at a compressibil
greater smaller ity effects.
angle of angle of
attack. attack.
5461 81 0
When the air has passed through a normal shock wave lower than equal to 1. higher than less than 1.
the Mach number is before but before.
still greater
than 1.
5462 81 0
The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. 500 kts 320 kts 480 kts 600 kts
5463 81 The speed of sound is: 1
Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a Swept A low A T-tail. A canard
super stall? wings. horizontal wing.
tail.
5464 81 0
The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by centre of lift. transition centre of stagnation
5465 81 a change in the location of the region. gravity. point. 0
 "Flutter" may be caused by: roll control high distorsion by low airspeed
reversal. airspeed bending and aerodynamic
aerodynamic torsion of wing stall.
wing stall. the structure
causing
increasing
vibration in
the
resonance
frequency.

5466 81 0
An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the x 2.0 x 0.5 x 4.0 x 0.25
IAS is doubled. The change in lift coefficient will be:
5467 81 0
Which formula or equation describes the relationship m=F.a a=F. m F=m / a F=m. a
between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)?
5468 81 0
On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which negative zero equal to the positive
Cl=0 is: (pitch-down) moment (pitch-up)
coefficient
for stabilized
angle of
attack.

5469 81 0
On a non swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated remains slightly shifts shifts from shifts aft by
from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the aerodynamic unchanged. forward. 25% to about 10%.
centre : about 50%
of the
aerofoil
chord.
5470 81 0
Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch equal to infinite positive negative
moment when Cl=0 is: zero. (pitch-up). (pitch-
down).
5471 81 0
The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest induced parasite parasite induced
when the: drag is drag is drag equals drag is equal
lowest. equal to the twice the to zero.
induced induced
drag. drag.
5472 81 0
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady 1.71 0.74 1.49 2.49
horizontal flight is 0.42, increase in angle of attack of 1
degree increases CL by is 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly
changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor
will be :
5473 81 1
The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear Wcos.gamm W(1- W(1- W/cos.gam
climb with a climb angle (gamma) is approximately: a. sin.gamma). tan.gamma). ma.
5474 81 1
Flaperons are controls which are used simultaneously as flaps and ailerons and ailerons and flaps and
elevator. flaps. elevator. speed
brakes.
5475 81 0
A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt turn at a turn at a turn at a turn at the
TAS. A more heavy aeroplane at the same bank and the bigger turn smaller turn higher turn same turn
same speed will: radius. radius. rate. radius.
5476 81 0
During flap down selection in a continuous straight and the stall the total the centre of the lift
level flight at constant IAS and weight: speed boundary pressure coefficient
increases. layer moves aft. and the drag
becomes coefficient
laminar. increase.

5477 81 0
Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing increasing increasing decreasing increasing
5478 81 stall speed (IAS)? air density. load factor. weight. altitude. 0
 Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal The load The turn The lift The rate of
steady turns. Further data are:_x000D_ factor A is radius A is coefficient A turn A is
A:_x000D_ larger than larger than is smaller larger than
W= 1500 kg_x000D_ the load the turn than the lift the rate of
Bank= 20°_x000D_ factor B. radius B. coefficient B. turn B.
TAS= 130 kt_x000D_
_x000D_
B:_x000D_
W= 1500 kg_x000D_
Bank= 20°_x000D_
TAS= 200 kt_x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following statements is correct?

5479 81 0
Which of the following statements about a constant The The RPM The selected The blade
speed propeller is correct? propeller decreases RPM is kept angle
system with constant by increases
keeps the increasing the manifold with
aeroplane aeroplane pressure. increasing
speed speed. speed.
constant.
5480 81 0
The difference between IAS and TAS will: decrease at decrease at increase at increase at
increasing decreasing decreasing increasing
speed. altitude. temperature. air density.
5481 81 0
Lift is generated when: a certain the shape of an aerofoil is a certain
mass of air the aerofoil placed in a mass of air
is is slightly high velocity is retarded.
accelerated cambered. air stream.
downwards.

5482 81 1
The turn indicator shows a right turn. The slip indicator is a higher turn more right more right less right
left of neutral. To coordinate the turn: rate is bank is rudder is bank is
required. required. required. required.
5483 81 0
Differential aileron deflection: equals the is required increases is required
drag of the to keep the the CLmax. to achieve
right and left total lift the required
aileron. constant roll-rate.
when
ailerons are
deflected.
5484 81 1
Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, that has turn turn turn turn
experienced a left engine failure and continues indicator left indicator left indicator indicator
afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings of neutral, of neutral, neutral, slip neutral, slip
level ? slip indicator slip indicator indicator indicator left
left of neutral. neutral. of neutral.
neutral.

5485 81 0
5486 81 The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on: TAS. weight. load factor. wind. 1
 Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is The wing tip The flow Tip vortices The flow
correct? vortices and direction at can be direction at
the induced the upper diminished the upper
drag side of the by vortex and under
decrease at wing has a generators. side of the
increasing component wing, both
angle of in wing root deviate in
attack. direction, the wing tip
flow at the direction.
underside of
the wing in
wing tip
direction.

5487 81 0
VA is: the the the speed at the speed
maximum maximum which a that should
speed at speed at heavy not be
which which rolls transport exceeded in
maximum are allowed. aeroplane the climb.
elevator should fly in
deflection up turbulence.
is allowed.

5488 81 1
The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is sonic. decreasing. not increasing.
increasing, the speed of the subsonic and incompressible changing.
flow inside is
5489 81 0
When the air is passing through a shock wave the density decrease. stay decrease increase.
will constant. and beyond
a certain
Mach
number start
increasing
again

5490 81 0
Increase of wing loading will: decrease increase decrease increase the
the minimum CLmax. take off stall speeds.
gliding speeds.
angle.

5491 81 0
The Mach number: is the ratio is the ratio is the ratio increases at
between the between the between the a given TAS,
TAS of the TAS of the IAS of the when the
aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane temperature
and the local and the and the local rises.
speed of speed of speed of
sound. sound at sea sound.
level.

5492 81 1
Bernoulli's equation can be written as :_x000D_ pt = q - ps pt - q = ps pt = ps - q pt + ps = q
(pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic
pressure)
5493 81 0
The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic (I) N / m3, (I) kg / m, (II) (I) N / m, (II) (I) N / m², (II)
5494 81 pressure q are: (II) kg / m². N / m². kg. N / m². 0
The units of the density of the air (I) and the force (II) are: (I) N / kg, (II) (I) kg / m3, (I) kg / m², (I) N / m3,
5495 81 kg. (II) N. (II) kg. (II) N. 0
In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the (I) decrease, (I) increase, (I) increase, (I) increase,
streamlines converge, in this part of the pattern, the static (II) increase. (II) increase. (II) (II)
pressure (I) will ...and the velocity (II) will ... : decrease. decrease.
5496 81 1
 The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of bottom chord line bottom bottom
an aerofoil is the angle between the: surface and and the surface and surface and
the chord relative the the relative
line. undisturbed horizontal airflow.
airflow.
5497 81 0
Dihedral of the wing is: the angle the angle the angle the angle
between the between the between the between the
0.25 chord 0.25 chord leading edge 0.25 chord
line of the line of the of the wing line of the
wing and the wing and the and the wing and the
horizon. lateral axis. lateral axis. vertical axis.

5498 81 0
Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter No. Yes, but only Yes slightly. Yes strongly.
in medium horizontal turbulence? if the pitch is
full-fine.
5499 81 0
Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight lift stall speed. lift and the maximum lift
will increase the : coefficient drag. coefficient
and the (CLmax)
drag. and the
drag.

5500 81 0
An example of differential aileron deflection during Left aileron: Left aileron: Left aileron: Left aileron:
initiation of left turn is: 2° 5° 2° 5°
down_x000 up_x000D_ up_x000D_ down_x000
D_ Right Right D_
Right aileron: 2° aileron: 5° Right
5501 81 aileron: 5° down down aileron: 2° 0
A normal shock wave: upa
is can occur at is a upa
is
discontinuity different discontinuity discontinuity
plane in an points on the plane in an plane in an
airflow, aeroplane in airflow, in airflow, in
which is transonic which the which the
always flight. temperature pressure
normal to drops drops
the surface. suddenly. suddenly.

5502 81 0
If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane the centre of the neutral the the centre of
will rotate about: gravity. point of the aerodynamic pressure of
aeroplane. centre of the the wing.
wing.
5503 81 1
Dihedral of the wing: decreases increases is the only is only
the static the static way to positive for
lateral lateral increase the aeroplanes
stability. stability. static lateral with high
stability. mounted
wings.
5504 81 0
A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to: a too high an a better an
pulling stick increasing recovery unacceptabl
force during static performance e low value
rotation in longitudinal in the spin. of the
the take off. stability. manoeuvre
stability
(stick force
per g, Fe/g).

5505 81 0
If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim nose-left. nose-down. neutral. nose-up.
5506 81 indicator presents: 0
 The static pressure is acting: only only in the in all only in
perpendicula direction of directions. direction of
r to the the total the flow.
direction of pressure.
the flow.
5507 81 0
The induced drag: increases as increases as increases as has no
the the lift the aspect relation to
magnitude coefficient ratio the lift
of the tip increases. increases. coefficient.
vortices
decreases.
5508 81 0
What is the position of the elevator in relation to the The elevator At a forward The elevator The position
trimmable horizontal stabilizer of a power assisted deflection CG the is always depends on
aeroplane, which is in trim ? (compared elevator is deflected speed, the
to the deflected slightly position of
stabilizer upward and downwards slats and
position) is at an aft CG in order to flaps and the
always zero. the elevator have position of
is deflected sufficient the centre of
downward. remaining gravity.
flare
capability.

5509 81 0
What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset The values The values The values The values
Boundary chart? of the Mach of MMO at of Mcrit at of the Mach
Number at different different Number at
which low weights and weights and which low
speed and altitudes. altitudes. speed and
Mach Buffet shock-stall
occur at occur at
different different
weights and weights and
altitudes. altitudes.

5510 81 1
Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an 1 and 2 are 1 is incorrect 1 and 2 are 1 is correct
aeroplane is correct (all other factors of importance being correct. and 2 is incorrect. and 2 is
constant) ?_x000D_ correct. incorrect.
_x000D_
1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the wing will increase
the gust load factor._x000D_
_x000D_
2. Increasing the speed will increase the gust load factor.

5511 81 1
Which statement is correct? Extension of Spoiler Extension of Extension of
flaps has no extension flaps causes flaps will
influence on decreases a reduction increase
the minimum the stall of the stall (CL/CD)max
rate of speed and speed, the , causing the
descent, as the minimum maximum minimum
only the TAS rate of glide rate of
has to be descent, but distance descent to
taken into increases also decrease.
account. the minimum reduces.
descent
angle.

5512 81 0
 What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll? A forward An An An
movement increased increased increased
of the centre anhedral. static lateral static
of gravity. stability. directional
stability.
5513 81 0
In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of All phases of The last part The take-off During climb
ice located on the wing leading edge most critical? the take-off of the run. with all
are equally rotation. engines
critical. operating.

5514 81 0
Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is Doubles if Varies with Increases Is
correct ? the the square always if the independent
temperature root of the density of of altitude.
increases absolute the air
from 9° to temperature. decreases.
36°
Centigrade.
5515 81 0
Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum Propeller The gliding The CL/CD Induced
drag (subsonic) ? aeroplanes angle is ratio is drag is
fly at that minimum. minimum. greater than
speed at the parasite
max. drag.
endurance.
5516 81 0
From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can the the the the
read: minimum maximum minimum minimum
CL/CD ratio CL/CD ratio drag and the drag
and the and maximum coefficient
minimum maximum lift lift. and the
drag. coefficient. maximum
lift.
5517 81 0
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor 200 kt 141 kt 282 kt 70 kt
n=1. In a turn with a load factor of n=2, the stall speed is:
5518 81 0
The induced angle of attack is the result of: downwash a large local downwash change in
due to tip angle of due to flow direction of
vortices. attack in a separation. flow due to
two the effective
dimensional angle of
flow. attack.

5519 81 1
A propeller turns to the right, seen from behind. The roll the pitch the roll the pitch the
torque effect in the take-off will: aeroplane to aeroplane aeroplane to aeroplane
the right. nose up. the left. nose down.
5520 81 0
Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at the required the required the required the stick
constant speed and side slip angle, where the geometric lateral lateral lateral force per g
dihedral of an aeroplane is increased ? control force control force control force decreases.
increases. decreases. does not
change.

5521 81 1
Increasing the number of propeller blades will: increase the increase the increase the decrease
maximum propeller noise level the torque in
absorption efficiency. at maximum the propeller
of power. power. shaft at
maximum
power.

5522 81 1
The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet 1.5 2.5 3.75 2.0
5523 81 transport aeroplane with flaps extended is: 0
 The following factors increase stall speed : an increase a higher increasing a lower
in load weight, bank angle, weight,
factor, a selecting a increasing decreasing
forward c.g. higher flap thrust, slat bank angle,
shift, setting, a extension. a smaller
decrease in forward c .g. flapsetting.
thrust. shift.
5524 81 1
Which statement is correct? The The As the angle The centre
stagnation stagnation of attack of pressure
point is point is increases, is the point
another always the on the
name for situated on stagnation wing's
centre of the point on the leading edge
pressure. chordline, wing's profile where the
the centre of moves airflow splits
pressure is downwards. up.
not.

5525 81 0
How will the density and temperature change in a Density will Density will Density will Density will
supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave increase, increase, decrease, decrease,
to behind it ? temperature temperature temperature temperature
will increase. will will increase. will
decrease. decrease.
5526 81 1
Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is The rotation If the THS Early nose Nothing
correct, during take-off at the maximum allowable forward will require position is wheel special will
centre of gravity limit, while the THS (Trimmable extra stick just within raising will happen.
Horizontal Stabilizer) has been positioned at the force. the limits of take place.
maximum allowable AND (Aeroplane Noise Down) the green
position. band, the
take off
warning
system will
be activated.

5527 81 1
When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by in front of below the above the behind the
mass balancing, these weights will be located with the hinge. hinge. hinge. hinge.
respect to the hinge of the control surface:
5528 81 1
Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by: pitching and increasing increasing pitching and
rolling. RPM and RPM and yawing.
yawing. rolling.
5529 81 0
A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The high angles high speed. large angles large angles
asymmetric thrust effect is mainly induced by: of attack. of yaw. of climb.
5530 81 1
A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The yaw the roll the yaw the roll the
asymmetric thrust effect in the climb will: aeroplane to aeroplane to aeroplane to aeroplane to
the left. the left. the right. the right.
5531 81 1
A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a VMO. VA. MD. MMO.
constant IAS and constant weight. The operational limit
that may be exceeded is:
5532 81 0
The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is the angle the angle the angle for the angle
defined as: between the formed by maximum between the
aeroplane the lift/drag ratio wing chord
climb path longitudinal line and the
and the axis of the direction of
horizon. aeroplane the relative
and the wind/airflow.
chord line of
the wing

5533 81 0
 A horn balance in a control system has the following to prevent to obtain to decrease to decrease
purpose: flutter. mass the effective stick forces.
balancing. longitudinal
dihedral of
the
aeroplane.

5534 81 0
Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing: CD is only CL is both CL and CD is
increased decreased CD are increased,
and CL is (CD remains increased. while CL
decreased. unaffected). remains
unaffected.

5535 81 1
Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ? At constant At constant At constant At constant
IAS the TAS Mach TAS the IAS the
decreases number the Mach Mach
IAS number number
increases decreases increases

5536 81 0
VMO : should be is equal to is the should be
chosen in the design calibrated not greater
between VC speed for airspeed at than VC.
and VD maximum which MMO
gust is reached at
intensity. 35 000 ft.

5537 81 0
Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given 1.20 VS. 1.30 VS. 1.12 VS. greater than
configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be VS.
triggered is:
5538 81 0
In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant decrease. remain increase or increase.
airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of constant. decrease
attack will: depending
on type of
flap.
5539 81 0
What is the purpose of an auto-slat system ? extend provide ensures that assist the
automaticall automaticall the slats are ailerons
y when a y slat IN always during
certain value selection extended rolling.
of angle of after take- when the
atttack is off. ground/flight
exceeded. system is in
the "ground"
position.

5540 81 1
The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free sonic speed the a shock- a
stream airfoil Mach number at which: (M=1) is maximum wave "supersonic
reached at a operating appears on bell"
certain point temperature the upper appears on
on the upper is reached. surface. the upper
side of the surface.
aerofoil.

5541 81 1
 The function of the slot between an extended slat and the allow space reduce the slow the air cause a
leading edge of the wing is to: for vibration wing flow in the venturi effect
of the slat. loading. slot so that which
more energizes
pressure is the
created boundary
under the layer.
wing.
5542 81 0
Which of the following series of configurations has an slats only slats only flaps only clean wing,
increasing critical angle of attack ? extended, extended, extended, flaps only
clean wing, flaps only clean wing, extended,
flaps only extended, slats only slats only
extended. clean wing. extended. extended.
5543 81 0
An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with Wing roots: Wing roots: Wing roots: Wing roots:
slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible slats_x000D L.E. L.E. slats_x000D
efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the _ flaps_x000D flaps_x000D _
wings is: Wing tips: _ _ Wing tips:
5544 81 no devices Wing tips: Wing tips: L.E. flaps 0
A deployed slat will: increase the increase the increase the decrease
camber of boundary boundary the
the aerofoil layer energy, layer energy boundary
and increase move the and increase layer energy
the effective suction peak the suction and
angle of from the peak on the decrease
attack, so fixed part of fixed part of the suction
that CLmax the wing to the wing, so peak on the
is reached at the slat, so that the stall slat, so that
higher that the stall is postponed CLmax is
angles of is postponed to higher reached at
attack. to higher angles of lower angles
angles of attack. of attack.
attack.

5545 81 0
An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What Pitch control Pitch control The servo- The pitch
will happen when only the elevator jams during flight ? reverses has been tab now control
direction. lost. works as a forces
negative double.
trim-tab.
5546 81 1
After take-off the slats (when installed) are always Because Because Because Because
retracted later than the flaps. Why ? VMCA with FLAPS SLATS SLATS
SLATS EXTENDED EXTENDED EXTENDED
EXTENDED gives a large gives a large provides a
is more decrease in decrease in better view
favourable stall speed stall speed from the
compared to with with cockpit than
the FLAPS relatively relatively FLAPS
EXTENDED less drag. less drag. EXTENDED.
situation.

5547 81 0
Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which: shockstall the critical somewhere Mach buffet
occurs. angle of about the occurs.
attack is airframe
reached. Mach 1 is
reached
locally.
5548 81 0
 When "spoilers" are used as speed brakes: at same at same CLmax of they do not
angle of angle of the polar affect wheel
attack, CL attack, CD is curve is not braking
remains increased affected. action during
unaffected. and CL is landing.
decreased.

5549 81 0
During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the downward upward on on the on the
roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection: on the the upgoing upgoing downgoing
upgoing wing and wing only. wing only.
wing and downward
upward on on the
the downgoing
downgoing wing.
wing.
5550 81 1
Stick forces, provided by an elevator feel system, depend elevator stabilizer elevator stabilizer
on: deflection, position, deflection, position,
static total dynamic static
pressure. pressure. pressure. pressure.
5551 81 0
For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle decreases is lower in is always is optimum
of attack of each blade, measured at the reference when the ground run positive when the
section: aircraft than in flight during idling aircraft is in
speed (with descent. a stabilized
decreases identical cruising
(with engine flight.
identical RPM).
engine
RPM).

5552 81 0
Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip? To ensure To ensure Because the Because the
that the root that the tip local angle local angle
produces produces of attack of a of attack of a
most thrust. most thrust. blade blade
segment is segment is
dependent dependent
on the ratio on the ratio
of that of that
segment 's segment 's
speed in the speed in the
plane of plane of
rotation and rotation and
the true the angular
airspeed of velocity of
the the
aeroplane. propellers.

5553 81 0
Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance produce an have a produce a have more
than fixed-pitch propellers because they: almost higher greater blade
maximum maximum maximum surface area
efficiency efficiency thrust than a than a fixed-
over a wider than a fixed- fixed-pitch pitch
speed pitch propeller. propeller.
range. propeller.

5554 81 1
If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed decrease decrease increase and increase and
propeller during a glide with idle power and constant and the rate and the rate the rate of the rate of
speed, the propeller pitch will: of descent of descent descent will descent will
will will increase. decrease. increase.
decrease.

5555 81 0
 Trailing edge flap extension will: increase the decrease increase the decrease
critical angle the critical critical angle the critical
of attack and angle of of attack and angle of
increase the attack and decrease attack and
value of decrease the value of increase the
CLmax. the value of CLmax. value of
CLmax. CLmax.
5556 81 0
Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between: the usable the thermal usable the thrust
(power power of (power and the
available) fuel-flow and available) maximum
power and shaft power. power of the thrust.
the propeller
maximum and shaft
power. power.

5557 81 0
Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will: just turn move aft, turn down, just move
down. then turn then move aft.
down. aft.
5558 81 0
When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered the RPM is the drag of the propeller the
position: then just the propeller produces an windmilling
sufficient to is then optimal RPM is the
lubricate the minimal. windmilling maximum.
engine. RPM.

5559 81 0
An aeroplane has the following flap settings : 0°, 15°, 30° The slats. Flaps from Flaps from Flaps from
and 45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above 0° to 15°. 15° to 30°. 30° to 45°.
selections will produce the greatest negative influence on
the CL/CD ratio?
5560 81 0
When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range much more a higher IAS a pitch up a stability
with increasing Mach Number the centre of the pressure thrust from to input of the augmentatio
of the wing will move aft. This requires: the engine. compensate stabilizer. n system.
the nose
down effect.

5561 81 0
How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude? It remains It remains It increases It remains
constant at constant. with constant at
lower increasing lower
altitudes but altitude, altitudes but
increases at because the decreases at
higher density higher
altitudes due decreases. altitudes due
to to
compressibil compressibil
ity effects. ity effects.

5562 81 1
The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and VC Vflutter VMO VD
5563 81 manoeuvre) diagrams is created by the speed: 0
Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural 50 ft/sec and 66 ft/sec and 65 ft/sec at 55 ft/sec and
5564 81 strength in gust (clean configuration) ? VC. VD. all speeds. VB. 1
The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated 25, 55, 75 35, 55, 66 25, 50, 66 15, 56, 65
by the following three vertical speed in ft/s (clean
configuration) :
5565 81 0
Which load factor determines VA? manoeuvrin gust load manoeuvrin manoeuvrin
g ultimate factor at 66 g flap limit g limit load
load factor. ft/sec gust. load factor. factor.
5566 81 0
By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the 4.36% lower. no change 19% lower. 10% lower.
5567 81 aeroplane's weight decreases by 19%? 0
The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA VS= VA Va= VA VA= VS VS= VA
(EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed SQRT(3.75) SQRT(3.75) SQRT(2.5) SQRT(2.5)
in the following formula:_x000D_
(SQRT= square root)
5568 81 0
 A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight MMO. VMO. VNE. VD.
descent at a constant Mach Number with constant weight.
The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
5569 81 0
Two methods to increase the critical Mach Number are: thin aerofoils positive thick thin aerofoils
and dihedral cambering aerofoils and and sweep
of the wing. of the dihedral of back of the
aerofoil and the wing. wing.
sweep back
of the wing.

5570 81 0
5571 81 The bow wave will appear first at: M= 1.3 M= 1.0 M= Mcrit M= 0.6 0
What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane 3.75 6 2.5 1.5
5572 81 in the manoeuvring diagram? 0
The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above wave drag. increased increased increased
the critical Mach Number is due to: angle of interference skin friction.
attack. drag.
5573 81 1
The most important problem of ice accretion on an increase in blocking of reduction in increase in
aeroplane during flight is: drag. control CLmax. weight.
surfaces.
5574 81 0
The speed of sound is affected by the: pressure of humidity of temperature density of
5575 81 the air. the air. of the air. the air. 0
Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the first increase. remain decrease.
TAS will: increase, constant.
then
decrease.
5576 81 0
If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant not change. increase or increase. decrease.
in the standard troposphere the Mach Number will: decrease,
depends of
the type of
aeroplane.
5577 81 0
The formula for the Mach Number is:_x000D_ M= TAS / a M= a / TAS M= TAS*a M= IAS / a
5578 81 (a= speed of sound) 1
To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to Mach EAS. TAS. IAS.
5579 81 determine the: Number. 1
In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in behind the aileron down aileron aileron
subsonic flight because: shock wave deflection deflection deflection
pressure is moves the only affects only partly
lower. shock wave the air in affects the
forward. front of the pressure
shock wave. distribution
around the
wing.
5580 81 0
In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an in front of very weak in between a outside the
aeroplane are: the and conical area, conical area
aeroplane. negligible. depending depending
on the Mach on the Mach
Number. Number.

5581 81 0
The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane can be dihedral of sweep back vortex control
increased by: the wings. of the wings. generators. deflection
5582 81 0
The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free buffet. shock wave. supersonic local sonic
stream Mach Number, which produces the first evidence flow. flow.
of :
5583 81 0
 When air has passed an expansion wave, the static increased. unchanged. decreased. decreased
pressure is: or
increased,
depending
on Mach
Number.
5584 81 0
5585 81 The Mach trim system will prevent: dutch roll. buffeting. shock stall. tuck under. 0
Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following The The The velocity The
statements is correct? pressure temperature increases. temperature
decreases. decreases. increases.
5586 81 0
If an aeroplane is accelerated from subsonic to to a position to a position to the mid forward.
supersonic speeds, the centre of pressure will move: near the near the chord
leading trailing edge. position.
edge.

5587 81 0
Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of (1) thick and (1) thick and (1) thin and (1) thin and
attack will produce the lowest Mcrit values? (2) large. (2) small. (2) large. (2) small.
5588 81 1
Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest shockstall. high-speed low-speed deep stall.
5589 81 angle of attack? stall. stall. 1
When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight on the somewhere somewhere at the wing
and level flight the first shockwaves will occur: underside of on the fin. on the root
the wing. hoizontal segment,
tail. upperside.
5590 81 0
The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing an increase engine buffeting of buffeting of
aeroplane may be : (assume no corrective devices, in speed and unbalance the the
straight and level flight) a tendency and aeroplane aeroplane
to pitch up. buffeting. and a and a
tendency to tendency to
pitch up. pitch down.
5591 81 0
A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant Shock stall. Deep stall. Accelerated Low speed
altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall can stall. stall.
occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
5592 81 0
Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of Low speed Deep stall. Shock stall. Accelerated
5593 81 attack? stall. stall. 0
Which of the following statements is correct ?_x000D_ I is correct, II I is incorrect, I is incorrect, I is correct, II
I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed is incorrect II is correct II is incorrect is correct
VMCL can be limiting._x000D_
II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder
deflection.
5594 81 0
Which of the following statements is correct ?_x000D_ I is correct, II I is incorrect, I is correct, II I is incorrect,
I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed is correct II is incorrect is incorrect II is correct
VMCL can be limiting._x000D_
II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available
maximum roll rate
5595 81 0
Which of the following statements is correct ?_x000D_ I is incorrect, I is correct, II I is incorrect, I is correct, II
I VMCL is the minimum control speed in the landing II is incorrect is incorrect II is correct is correct
configuration._x000D_
II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available
maximum roll rate
5596 81 0
The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at a certain CLmax (CL/CD^2)m (CL^3/CD^2) (CL/CD)max
angle of attack. Which are the corresponding ax max
aerodynamic coefficients(s) ?
5597 81 0
 What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a It may suffer It may break It may suffer It will
speed just exceeding VA ? permanent if the permanent collapse if a
deformation elevator is deformation turn is
if the fully because the made.
elevator is deflected flight is
fully upwards. performed at
deflected too large
upwards dynamic
pressure.

5598 81 1
The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a Mach buffet turbulence turbulence a sudden
minimum acceptable loadfactor because exceeding that will occur may induce may exceed necessary
altitude: immediately. Mach buffet. the limit load bankangle
factor. may exceed
the limit load
factor.

5599 81 0
If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed decrease increase and increase and decrease
propeller during a glide with idle power and constant and the rate the rate of the rate of and the rate
speed, the propeller pitch will: of descent descent will descent will of descent
will increase. decrease. increase. will
decrease.

5600 81 1
Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface decrease increase the decrease increase the
will: the intensity critical Mach the span magnitude
of shock Number. wise flow at of the shock
wave high Mach wave.
induced air Numbers.
separation.

5601 81 1
Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing: increase decrease decrease increase
critical Mach critical Mach wave drag. wave drag.
Number. Number.
5602 81 0
The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the decrease increase the decrease increase the
acceleration through the transonic flight regime will: the static static the static lateral
lateral longitudinal longitudinal stability.
stability. stability. stability.
5603 81 0
In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is: rectangular. irregular. triangular. the same as
in subsonic
flight.
5604 81 1
Shock stall is: separation separation separation separation
of the flow of the flow at of the flow at of the
behind the high angles the trailing boundary
bow wave. of attack and edge of the layer behind
at high Mach wing at high the shock
Numbers. Mach wave.
Numbers.

5605 81 0
In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are the IAS. the CAS. the Mach the TAS.
5606 81 strongly determined by: Number. 0
The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows: Negative Its only Zero Positive
dihedral purpose is to dihedral dihedral
effect ease effect effect
aeroplane
loading
5607 81 0
The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional Stabilizing No effect Destabilizing Negative
stability is as follows: effect dihedral dihedral
effect effect
5608 81 1
 Which of the following flight phenomena can only happen Elevator Mach buffet. Dutch roll. Speed
at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number? stall. instability.
5609 81 0
Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Shock stall. Dutch roll. Tuck under. Mach buffet.
Mach Numbers below the critical Mach Number?
5610 81 0
The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the increase of decrease of decrease of increase of
aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are: CLmax and CLmax and CLmax and CLmax and
decrease of increase of decrease of increase of
drag. drag. drag. drag.

5611 81 0
How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation increases, increases, decreases, decreases,
and temperature ? because at a because because the because
lower VMCG is engine VMCG is
density a related to V1 thrust expressed in
larger IAS is and VR and decreases. IAS and the
necessary to those IAS
generate the speeds decreases
required increase if with TAS
rudder force the density constant and
decreases decreasing
density

5612 81 0
Which statement about stick force per g is correct? The stick The stick If the slope The stick
force per g force per g of the Fe-n force per g
increases, can only be line must have
when centre corrected by becomes both an
of gravity is means of negative, upper and
moved aft. electronic generally lower limit in
devices speaking order to
(stability this is not a assure
augmentatio problem for acceptable
n) in case of control of an control
an aeroplane. characteristi
unacceptabl cs.
e value.

5613 81 0
The correct drag formula is: D= CD 1/2 D= CD 2 D= CD 1/2 D= CD 1/2
5614 81 RHO V² S RHO V² S RHO V S 1/RHO V² S 1
At an aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio 2/1 1/2 1/1 It varies
between induced drag Di and profile drag Dp? Di/Dp= between
aeroplane
types.
5615 81 0
If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this a roll to a roll to port a decrease an increase
causes: starboard (left). in relative in lift on the
(right). airspeed on port (left)
the wing.
starboard
(right) wing.

5616 81 0
Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the: horizon. longitudinal relative chord line.
axis. wind/airflow.
5617 81 0
 Which one of the following statements about the lift-to- At the The highest The lift/drag The highest
drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct? highest value of the ratio always value of the
value of the lift/drag ratio increases as lift/drag ratio
lift/drag ratio is reached the lift is reached
the total when the lift decreases. when the lift
drag is is zero. is equal to
lowest. the aircraft
weight.

5618 81 1
Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest Rectangular. Elliptical. Tapered. Positive
local profile lift coefficient at the wingroot ? angle of
sweep.
5619 81 1
An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady 141 kt. 82 kt. 150 kt. 122 kt.
level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level turn with
a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is:
5620 81 0
Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static Increased Anhedral. Dihedral. High wing.
5621 81 lateral stability of an aeroplane? wing span. 0
Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering Because the Because it Because Because the
disconnected? nosewheel must be nosewheel value of
steering possible to steering has VMCG must
could abort the no effect on also be
become take-off the value of applicable
inoperative even after VMCG. on wet
after an the and/or
engine has nosewheel slippery
failed. has already runways.
been lifted
off the
ground.

5622 81 0
What is the effect of high aspect ratio of an aeroplane's It is It is It is reduced It is
wing on induced drag? unaffected increased because the increased
because because effect of because
there is no high aspect wing-tip high aspect
relation ratio vortices is ratio has
between produces reduced. greater
aspect ratio greater frontal area.
and induced downwash.
drag.

5623 81 0
Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive The The engine. The The wing.
contribution to the static longitudinal stability ? horizontal fuselage.
tailplane.
5624 81 1
Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift augmentation no pitching a nose-up a force a nose-down
devices, will produce: moment. pitching which pitching
moment. reduces moment.
drag.
5625 81 0
(For this question use annex 081-1331A)_x000D_ M= 0.72 to M= 0.65 to M= 0.74 to M= 0.69 to
An A 310 aeroplane weighing 100 tons is turning at FL M higher M higher M= 0.84 M higher
350 at constant altitude with a bank of 50 degrees. Its than 0.84 than 0.84 than 0.84
flight Mach range between low-speed buffeting and high-
speed buffeting goes from:
5626 81 0
 Which of the following statements about static lateral and An The effects An Static
directional stability is correct? aeroplane of static aeroplane directional
with an lateral and with an stability can
excessive static excessive be increased
static directional static by installing
directional stability are directional more
stability in completely stability in powerful
relation to its independent relation to its engines.
static lateral of each static lateral
stability, will other stability, will
be prone to because be prone to
spiral dive. they take "Dutch roll".
(spiral place about
instability) different
axis.

5627 81 1
Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in 1 is correct 1 and 2 are 1 is incorrect 1 and 2 are
supersonic flow ?_x000D_ and 2 is correct. and 2 is incorrect.
_x000D_ incorrect. correct.
1. The temperature in front of an expansion wave is
higher than the temperature behind it._x000D_
_x000D_
2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than
the speed behind it.
5628 81 1
The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the: speed is low. C.G. position flaps are C.G. is on
is on the down. the aft C.G.
forward C.G. limit.
limit.

5629 81 0
When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator larger. smaller. unchanged. dependent
deflection for a manoeuvre with a load factor greater than on trim
1 will be: position.
5630 81 1
By what approximate percentage will the stall speed 52% 19% 31% 41%
increase in a horizontal coordinated turn with a bank
angle of 45° ?
5631 81 0
The buffet margin : increases is always decreases is always
during a greatest during a positive at
descent with after a descent with Mach
a constant stepclimb a constant numbers
IAS. has been Mach below MMO.
executed. number.

5632 81 1
The angle of attack of a wing profile is defined as the The local The local The The
angle between : airflow and airflow and undisturbed undisturbed
the mean the airflow and airflow and
camberline. chordline. the mean the
camberline. chordline.
5633 81 0
Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a 1 and 2 are 1 is incorrect 1 and 2 are 1 is correct
sub-sonic airflow are correct?_x000D_ incorrect. and 2 is correct. and 2 is
_x000D_ correct. incorrect.
1. the dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in
the throat are equal._x000D_
_x000D_
2. the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the
throat are equal.
5634 81 0
 Which statement is correct about the gust load on an 1 is incorrect 1 is correct 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are
aeroplane (IAS and all other factors of importance and 2 is and 2 is correct. incorrect.
remaining constant) ?_x000D_ correct. incorrect.
_x000D_
1. the gust load increases, when the weight
decreases._x000D_
_x000D_
2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases.

5635 81 0
The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light 4.4 2.5 3.8 6.0
aeroplane in the utility category in the clean configuration
is:
5636 81 1
How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, The elevator The elevator The elevator Nothing
when the trim is used during a speed decrease ? is deflected is deflected is deflected changes in
further further further the exterior
downwards upwards by downwards view.
by means of means of a by means of
an upwards downwards a trimmable
deflected deflected horizontal
trimtab. trimtab. stabiliser.

5637 81 0
Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces spring tab, servo tab, balance tab, mass in the
are: servo tab, spring tab, horn nose of the
and power seal balance, and control
assisted between the mass surface,
control. wing trailing balance. horn
edge and balance and
the leading mass
edge of balance.
control
surface.

5638 81 0
Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in a 1 is incorrect 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct
supersonic flow ?_x000D_ and 2 is incorrect. correct. and 2 is
_x000D_ correct. incorrect.
1- The density in front of an expansion wave is higher
than behind._x000D_
_x000D_
2- The pressure in front of an expansion wave is higher
than behind.
5639 81 0
The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight angle of square of square of speed.
at constant weight varies linearly with the: attack. the angle of the speed.
attack.
5640 81 0
An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller (1) is larger (1) is equal (2) is larger impossible
and a non rotating (2) propeller. Which statement about than (2). to (2). than (1). to say which
propeller drag is correct? one is
largest.
5641 81 1
An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load (i) 1/2 (ii) (i) 4 (ii) 1/2 (i) 1/16 (ii) (i) 1/4 (ii) 2
factor equal to 1. The induced drag coefficient (i) and the 1/16 1/4
induced drag (ii) alter with the following factors:
5642 81 0
The terms "q" and "S" in the lift formula are: static static dynamic square root
pressure pressure pressure of surface
and wing and dynamic and the area and wing
surface area pressure of the wing loading

5643 81 0
 An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the lighter wing less easier a wing which
fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing, is construction. influence on maintenance is less
: longitudinal of the sensitive to
control of engines. flutter.
thrust
changes.

5644 81 0
Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential Sensitivity Turn co- Adverse Aileron
aileron deflection? for spiral ordination. yaw. reversal.
dive.
5645 81 0
The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight V 1/V 1/V² V²
and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with:
5646 81 0
If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level increase. remain the increase or decrease.
flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually : (flap same. decrease,
span less than wing span) depending
on the initial
angle of
attack.
5647 81 0
Which of the following wing planforms produces the Circular. Elliptical. Rectangular. Tapered.
lowest induced drag? (all other relevant factors constant)
5648 81 0
In what way do (1) induced drag and (2) parasite drag (1) (1) (1) (1)
alter with increasing speed? decreases increases decreases increases
and (2) and (2) and (2) and (2)
increases. increases. decreases. decreases.
5649 81 1
The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an 1 : no effect, 1 : positive, 1 : negative, 1 : no effect,
aeroplane is as follows :_x000D_ 2 : negative, 2 : negative, 2 : positive, 2 : positive,
(1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional) 3 : positive 3 : negative 3 : positive 3: negative
5650 81 1
What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on increases. remains is decreases.
Mcrit at n=1, when flying at constant IAS ? The value of constant. independent
Mcrit: of the angle
of attack.

5651 81 1
One method to compensate adverse yaw is a balance differential balance tab. antibalance
5652 81 panel. aileron. tab. 0
Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll? Pitching and Pitching and Pitching and Rolling and
yawing. rolling. adverse yawing.
yaw.
5653 81 0
The relationship between induced drag and the aspect induced an increase a decrease there is no
ratio is: drag = 1.3 in the aspect in the aspect relationship
aspect ratio ratio ratio
value increases increases
the induced the induced
drag drag
5654 81 0
A high aspect ratio wing produces: an increase a decrease less a decrease
in induced in induced sensitivity to in stall
drag drag gust effects speed
5655 81 0
 What is the effect on induced drag of weight and speed induced induced induced induced
changes ? drag drag drag drag
decreases increases increases decreases
with with with with
decreasing increasing decreasing increasing
speed and speed and speed and speed and
induced induced induced induced
drag drag drag drag
decreases increases increases decreases
with with with with
increasing decreasing increasing decreasing
weight weight weight weight

5656 81 0
What will happen in ground effect ? the wing an increase a significant the induced
downwash in strength increase in angle of
on the tail of the wing thrust attack and
surfaces tip vortices required induced
increases drag
decreases
5657 81 0
Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land when a at a speed when the when the
will occur : higher than approaching height is less height is less
normal the stall than halve of than twice
angle of the length of the length of
attack is the wing the wing
used span above span above
the surface the surface

5658 81 0
Which statement is correct about the laminar and friction drag friction drag friction drag separation
turbulent boundary layer : is lower in will be equal is lower in point will
the laminar in both types the turbulent occur earlier
layer of layers layer in the
turbulent
layer

5659 81 1
A Machtrimmer: corrects increases is necessary has no effect
insufficient the stick for on the
stick force force per g compensatio shape of the
stability at at high Mach n of the elevator
high Mach Numbers. autopilot at position
Numbers. high Mach versus
Numbers. speed (IAS)
curve for a
fully
hydraulic
controlled
aeroplane.

5660 81 1
Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when : the static the static the dutch roll the static
directional lateral and tendency is directional
stability is directional too strongly stability is
negative and stability are suppressed positive and
the static both by the yaw the static
lateral negative. damper. lateral
stability is stability is
positive. relatively
weak.

5661 81 0
The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the top to beneath to the top to beneath to
the air pressure on top and beneath the wing and its beneath the the top of beneath the the top of
direction of movement goes from : wing via the the wing via wing via the the wing via
wing's the trailing leading edge the wing tip
trailing edge edge

5662 81 0
 A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by: increasing decreasing increasing increasing
the camber the skin only the the critical
of the friction. camber of angle of
aerofoil and the aerofoil. attack.
improving
the
boundary
layer.
5663 81 1
The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of the chord of the chord of the average the wing
any planform is a a large chord of the area divided
rectangular rectangular actual by the wing
wing with wing aeroplane span
same
moment and
lift
5664 81 1
What is the most effective flap system? Fowler flap. Split flap. Plain flap. Single
5665 81 slotted flap. 1
Which of the following statements about the difference Deploying a Deploying a Deploying a Deploying a
between Krueger flaps and slats is correct? Krueger flap slat will form Krueger flap slat will
will increase a slot, will form a increase
critical angle deploying a slot, critical angle
of attack, Krueger flap deploying a of attack,
deploying a does not. slat does deploying a
slat does not. Krueger flap
not. does not.

5666 81 0
In case the Mach trimmer fails: the Mach try to the speed the
number relocate the must be kept aeroplane
must be centre-of- constant. weight must
limited. gravity aft. be limited.

5667 81 1
Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of tailwind headwind increase of decrease of
ground distance during a glide ? aeroplane aeroplane
weight weight
5668 81 1
In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight trim tab effectivenes the pilot mechanical
controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer instead of deflection s of trim tabs does not feel adjustment
trim tabs on the elevator. This is because : increases is insufficient the stick of trim tabs
Mcrit for those forces at all creates too
aeroplanes many
problems
5669 81 0
What should be usually done to perform a landing with choose a choose a if possible, use the
the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight position ? higher lower relocate as Mach
landing landing many trimmer until
speed than speed than passengers after
normal normal. as possible landing.
and/or use a to the front
lower of the cabin.
flapsetting
for landing.

5670 81 1
Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of for an for a for a for an
attack? asymmetric symmetric symmetric asymmetric
aerofoil with aerofoil, if aerofoil, if aerofoil, if
positive angle of angle of angle of
camber, if attack = 0, attack = 0, attack = 0,
angle of Cl =0 Cl is not Cl =0
attack is equal to 0
greater than
0, Cl = 0

5671 81 0
 Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at CL is much CL is much CL has CL is lower
normal angle of attack: lower than greater than approximatel than CD
CD CD y the same
value as CD

5672 81 0
The critical angle of attack: changes remains increases if decreases if
with an unchanged the CG is the CG is
increase in regardless moved moved aft
gross weight of gross forward
weight
5673 81 0
The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream is 9 . 6. 1.5 . 3.
increased by a factor 3. The shape will not alter. The
aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor :
5674 81 0
The following unit of measurement: kgm/s² is expressed Newton Pascal Joule Watt
5675 81 in the SI-system as : 1
In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the Negative, Positive, No effect, Positive,
degree of positive camber of the aerofoil? because the because the because because the
lift vector lift vector camber of centre of
rotates rotates the aerofoil pressure
forward at backward at produces a shifts
increasing increasing constant rearward at
angle of angle of pitch down increasing
attack. attack. moment angle of
coefficient, attack.
independent
of angle of
attack.

5676 81 0
An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 300 3354 2381 4743 9000
kt, and a bank angle of 45°. Its turning radius is equal metres. metres. metres. metres.
to:_x000D_
(given: g= 10 m/s²)
5677 81 0
Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual Servo tab Spring tab Balance tab Anti-balance
5678 81 reversion of fully powered flight controls ? tab 1
When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back Higher Greater Increased Lower
wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept critical Mach strength longitudinal stalling
back wing has the advantage of : number stability speed
5679 81 1
The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial uncontrolled compressibil changes in increased
jets in order to minimize the adverse effects of : changes in ity effects on the position drag due to
stabilizer the stabilizer of centre of shock wave
setting pressure formation

5680 81 0
There are two types of boundary layer: laminar and it has less it is thinner skin friction energy is
turbulent. One important advantage the turbulent tendency to drag is less less
boundary layer has over the laminar type is that : separate
from the
surface
5681 81 1
Induced drag may be reduced by: a decrease the use of a an increase an increase
of the aspect wing tip with in aspect in the taper
ratio a much ratio ratio of the
thinner wing
aerofoil

5682 81 0
Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) CL²and S CL² and AR CL and CD CL and b
is the ratio of : (wing (aspect (wing span)
surface) ratio)
5683 81 0
 Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each Low wing, Fuselage Sweep back, High wing,
increase static lateral stability ? dihedral, mounted under wing sweep back,
elliptical engines, mounted large and
wing dihedral, T- engines, high vertical
planform. tail. winglets. fin.

5684 81 0
What factors determine the distance travelled over the The wind The wind The wind The wind
ground of an aeroplane in a glide ? and the and the and CLmax and weight
lift/drag aeroplane's together with
ratio, which mass power
changes loading,
with angle of which is the
attack ratio of
power
output to the
weight

5685 81 1
For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following the speed at the the speed at just another
applies. VA is : which the maximum which symbol for
aeroplane speed in unrestricted the rough air
stalls at the smooth air application speed
manoeuvrin of elevator
g limit load control can
factor at be used,
MTOW. without
exceeding
the
maximum
manoeuvrin
g limit load
factor

5686 81 1
One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling leading edge tip stall will wing root tip stall will
characteristics. At the stall : stall will occur first, stall will occur first,
occur first, which occur first, which
which produces a which produces a
produces a pitch-up produces a nose-down
nose-down moment. rolling moment
moment moment
5687 81 0
The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation Angle of CD and CL and CD TAS and
between : attack and angle of stall speed
CL attack
5688 81 0
Critical Mach-number is the : highest speed at speed at highest
speed which there which there speed at
without is subsonic is which the
supersonic airflow over supersonic aeroplane is
flow over all parts of airflow over certificated
any part of the all parts of for operation
the aircraaeropl the (MMO).
aeroplane. ane Mach aeroplane.
number < 1).

5689 81 1
) - AEROPLANES

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0
0 0 0
1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 1
1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0
0 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0
0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 0
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0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0
1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 0

1 0 0
0 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0
0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0
0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0
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0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0
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0 1 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0
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1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0
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0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0
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0 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0
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0 1 0

0 0 0

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1 0 0

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0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0
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1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

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0 0 0

1 0 0
1 0 0

1 0 0

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0 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0
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0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

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0 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0
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0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0
0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1
0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 1 0
0 0 1

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0
0 0 0
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0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0
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1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0
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1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0
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1 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

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1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

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0 0 0

0 0 1
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0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 1
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0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 0
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0 1 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0
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0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0
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0 1 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 1 0
1 0 0

0 0 1
1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 1
0 1 0
0 0 1

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 1

0 0 1
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1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 0
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1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 1 0
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0 0 0

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0 0 1

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0 0 1
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0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

1 0 0
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0 0 0

1 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 1 0
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0 1 0

0 1 0

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

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0 0 1

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0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 1
0 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0
1 0 0

1 0 0

0 0 1

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

0 0 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0
0 0 1

0 0 0

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

0 0 0
 PERFORMANCE OF AEROPLANES

34 1hr

Which of the following statements with regard to the The There is no The A lower height
actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd minimum legal minimum than 400 ft is
climb segment is correct? value minimum value allowed in
according to value, according to special
regulations because this regulations circumstances
is 1000 ft. will be is 400 ft. e.g. noise
determined abatement.
from case to
case during
the
calculation
of the net
flight path.

1720 32 0 0 1 0
What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of The ROC is The ROC The ROC The ROC
climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain affected by and the speed speed
constant ? the mass, ROC speed increases decreases
but not the are with with increasing
ROC speed. independant increasing mass.
of the mass. mass.

1721 32 0 0 1 0
Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or VMCA V1 V2 VMCG
1722 32 absence of stopway and/or clearway ? 0 1 0 0
Uphill slope increases increases decreases decreases the
the allowed the take-off the take-off
take-off distance accelerate distance only.
mass. more than stop
the distance
accelerate only.
stop
distance.
1723 32 0 1 0 0
Balanced V1 is selected if it is equal if the for a runway for a runway
to V2. accelerate length length limited
stop limited take- take-off with a
distance is off with a clearway to
equal to the stopway to give the
one engine give the highest mass.
out take-off highest
distance. mass.

1724 32 0 1 0 0
A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: The The The The one
accelerate clearway accelerate engine out
stop does not stop take-off
distance is equal the distance is distance is
equal to the stopway. equal to the equal to the all
take-off all engine engine take-off
distance take-off distance.
available. distance.
1725 32 1 0 0 0
 V2 has to be equal to or higher than 1.15 VMCG. 1.1 VSO. 1.15 VR. 1.1 VMCA.
1726 32 0 0 0 1
Which one of the following statements concerning drift- The drift- The drift- An engine When
down is correct? down down failure at determining
procedure procedure high cruising the obstacle
requires a requires a altitude will clearance
minimum minimum always result during drift-
descent obstacle in a drift- down, fuel
angle after clearance of down, dumping may
an engine 35 ft. because it is be taken into
failure at not account.
cruising permitted to
altitude. fly the same
altitude with
one engine
inoperative
as with all
engines
operating.

1727 32 0 0 0 1
The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller 1.2 Vs 1.2 Vs1 1.15 Vs 1.3 Vs
powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may
not be less than:
1728 32 0 0 1 0
The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed Depending Higher Lower Depending on
for maximum range cruise. on density the OAT and
altitude and net mass.
mass.
1729 32 0 1 0 0
According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following Malfunctioni The landing When Reverse thrust
statements concerning the landing distance for a ng of an distance is determining is one of the
turbojet aeroplane is correct? anti-skid the distance the factors always
system has from 35 ft maximum taken into
no effect on above the allowable account when
the required surface of landing determining
runway the runway mass at the landing
length. to the full destination, distance
stop. 60% of the required.
available
landing
runway
length
should be
taken into
account.

1730 32 0 0 1 0
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the The climb The climb None. The effect
climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an limited take- limited take- would vary
increase in the headwind component? off mass off mass depending
would would upon the
increase. decrease. height of any
obstacle within
the net take-
off flight path.

1731 32 0 0 1 0
 If the field length limited take off mass has been a greater a greater the obstacle the obstacle
calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the field length field length clearance clearance limit
use of any additional clearway in take off performance limited take limited take limit to be to be
calculations may allow off mass but off mass but increased increased with
with a lower with a higher with no an higher V1
V1 V1 effect on V1

1732 32 1 0 0 0
The speed V2 is the lowest the take-off that speed the lowest
safety safety at which the airspeed
airspeed at speed. PIC should required to
which the decide to retract flaps
aeroplane is continue or without stall
under not the take- problems.
control with off in the
aerodynamic case of an
surfaces in engine
the case of failure.
an engine
failure.

1733 32 0 1 0 0
Which statement regarding the influence of a runway increases reduces V1 increases reduces V1
down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down- V1 and and reduces V1 and and increases
slope... increases take-off reduces the the accelerate
the take-off distance accelerate stop distance
distance required stop required
required (TODR). distance (ASDR).
(TODR). required
(ASDR).

1734 32 0 1 0 0
Which of the following statements is applicable to the The The There is no The minimum
acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb maximum minimum requirement one engine out
segment ? acceleration legally for minimum acceleration
height allowed climb height must be
depends on acceleration performance maintained in
the height is at when flying case of all
maximum 1500 ft. at the engines
time take-off acceleration operating.
thrust may height.
be applied.

1735 32 1 0 0 0
 Which of the following statements with regard to the An An An An aeroplane
optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct? aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane always flies on
usually flies sometimes always flies the optimum
above the flies above below the cruise altitude,
optimum the optimum optimum because this is
cruise cruise cruise most attractive
altitude, as altitude, altitude, as from an
this provides because otherwise economy point
the largest ATC Mach buffet of view.
specific normally can occur.
range. does not
allow to fly
continuously
at the
optimum
cruise
altitude.

1736 32 0 1 0 0
Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance The speed V2 + 10 kt. The speed V2.
during climb? for which the for
ratio maximum
between rate of climb.
rate of climb
and forward
speed is
maximum.

1737 32 1 0 0 0
In a given configuration the endurance of a piston speed, mass altitude, altitude, speed and
engined aeroplane only depends on: and fuel on speed, mass speed and mass.
board. and fuel on mass.
board.

1738 32 0 1 0 0
A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum Straight Straight Heading, Altitude
control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be flight flight and altitude and
maintainable after engine failure? altitude a positive
rate of climb
of 100 ft/min

1739 32 1 0 0 0
Which statement regarding the relationship between The The The The traffic load
traffic load and range is correct? maximum maximum maximum can be limited
zero fuel landing traffic load is by the desired
mass limits mass is not limited range.
the basically by the
maximum equal to the reserve fuel
quantity of maximum quantity.
fuel. zero fuel
mass.

1740 32 0 0 0 1
The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three- 1.3 Vs 1.15 Vs 1.15 Vs1 1.2 Vs
engined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be
less than:
1741 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified Maximum Maximum Go-Around Maximum
rating? Cruise Continuous Thrust Take-off Thrust
Thrust Thrust
1742 32 1 0 0 0
 Which statement with respect to the step climb is Performing a In principle a A step climb A step climb
correct ? step climb step climb is may not be provides better
based on performed performed economy than
economy immediately unless it is a cruise climb.
can be after the indicated in
limited by aircraft has the filed
the 1.3-g exceeded flight plan.
altitude. the optimum
altitude.

1743 32 1 0 0 0
The speed VLO is defined as long lift off speed. landing gear design low
distance operating operating
operating speed. speed.
speed.
1744 32 0 0 1 0
The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as take-off lift off speed. take-off critical engine
climb speed decision failure speed.
or speed at speed.
35 ft.
1745 32 1 0 0 0
The speed VS is defined as speed for stalling safety speed design stress
best specific speed or for take-off speed.
range. minimum in case of a
steady flight contaminate
speed at d runway.
which the
aeroplane is
controllable.

1746 32 0 1 0 0
The speed V1 is defined as take-off take-off speed for engine failure
decision climb speed. best angle of speed.
speed. climb.
1747 32 1 0 0 0
With all other things remaining unchanged and with T independent proportional proportional proportional to
the outside static air temperature expressed in degrees from T to T to 1/T² 1/T
K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet powered
aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach
Number and zero headwind,is as follows:

1748 32 0 1 0 0
Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel 3787 kg/h 3426 kg/h 3259 kg/h 3602 kg/h
consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a
holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the
first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is
equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is
105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:

1749 32 0 0 1 0
A constant headwind component increases decreases increases increases the
the best rate the angle of the angle of flight
of climb. climb. maximum path during
endurance. climb.
1750 32 0 0 0 1
On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch inferior to 95 is between equal to 125 equal to 95 kt
propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum kts 95 and 125 kt
drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum kt
fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt._x000D_
_x000D_
The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a
speed:
1751 32 0 0 0 1
 Density altitude is the height above pressure altitude altitude read
the surface altitude reference to directly from
corrected for the standard the altimeter
'non datum plane
standard'
temperature

1752 32 0 1 0 0
If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage independent lower with higher with a lower with a
(nautical miles per kg) is from the an aft centre forward forward centre
centre of of gravity centre of of gravity
gravity position. gravity position.
position. position.
1753 32 0 0 0 1
V1 has to be higher than equal to or equal to or equal to or
than VR. higher than higher than higher than
V2. VMCG. VMCA.
1754 32 0 0 1 0
The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard 685 m 755 m 715 m 555 m
atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude._x000D_
Using the following corrections:_x000D_
"± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation"_x000D_
"- 5 m / kt headwind"_x000D_
"+ 10 m / kt tail wind"_x000D_
"± 15 m / % runway slope"_x000D_
"± 5 m / °C deviation from standard
temperature"_x000D_
The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft
elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1%
up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is:

1755 32 0 1 0 0
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a an increase requires an an increase a higher
given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at in airspeed increase in in airspeed coefficient of
higher gross mass is required power and and power is drag is
but power decrease in required. required.
setting does the
not change. airspeed.

1756 32 0 0 1 0
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a the lift/drag the airspeed the airspeed the airspeed
given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at ratio must will be and the drag will be
higher gross mass be increased will be decreased and
increased. but the drag increased. the drag
does not increased.
change.

1757 32 0 0 1 0
The take-off distance required increases due to due to head due to lower due to slush
downhill wind gross mass on the runway.
slope because of at take-off.
because of the drag
the smaller augmentatio
angle of n.
attack.
1758 32 0 0 0 1
Due to standing water on the runway the field length higher. unaffected. only higher lower.
limited take-off mass will be for three and
four engine
aeroplanes.

1759 32 0 0 0 1
 On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is by uphill by by low by a lower
increased slope. headwind. outside air take-off mass
temperature. because the
aeroplane
accelerates
faster to V1.

1760 32 1 0 0 0
Which statement regarding V1 is correct ? When The VR may not V1 may not be
determining correction be lower higher than
V1, reverse for up-slope than V1 Vmcg
thrust may on the
only be used balanced V1
on the is negative
remaining
symmetric
engines

1761 32 0 0 1 0
How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take- has no decreases increases varies with
off run ? The thrust change slightly while slightly while mass changes
during take- the the only.
off and aeroplane aeroplane
climb. speed builds speed builds
up. up.
1762 32 0 1 0 0
During climb to the cruising level, a headwind increases increases decreases decreases the
component the amount the climb the climb ground
of fuel for time. time. distance flown
the climb. during that
climb.
1763 32 0 0 0 1
A constant headwind increases increases increases increases the
the angle of the angle of the rate of descent
the descent descent. descent. distance over
flight path. ground.
1764 32 1 0 0 0
VR cannot be lower than: 105% of V1 1.2 Vs for 1.15 Vs for V1 and 105%
and VMCA. twin and turbo-prop of VMCA.
three engine with three or
jet more
aeroplane. engines.
1765 32 0 0 0 1
By what factor must the landing distance available (dry 60/115 0.60 115/100 1.67
runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied
to find the landing distance required? (planning phase
for destination).
1766 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6570A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)_x000D_ y : 1300 feet y : 950 feet y : 1400 feet : 750 feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
of 50 ft ._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : ISA +15°C_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs_x000D_
Tailwind component: 10 kt_x000D_
Flaps: Landing position (down) _x000D_
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1767 32 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 032-6571A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)_x000D_ y : 1700 feet y :1150 feet y : 1500 feet : 920 feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
of 50 ft ._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : ISA_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs_x000D_
Tailwind component: 5 kt_x000D_
Flaps: Landing position (down) _x000D_
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1768 32 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6572A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)_x000D_ y : 1480 feet y : 940 feet y : 1650 feet : 1150 feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
of 50 ft ._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : 0°C_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs_x000D_
Tailwind component: 5 kt_x000D_
Flaps: Landing position (down)
_x000D_
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1769 32 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-6573A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)_x000D_ y : 1450 feet y :1794 feet y : 1300 feet : 2000 feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
of 50 ft ._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : ISA +15°C_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs_x000D_
Headwind component: 10 kt_x000D_
Flaps: Landing position (down) _x000D_
Runway: short and wet grass- firm
soil_x000D_
Correction factor (wet grass): 1.38

1770 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6574A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)_x000D_ y : 2800 feet y : 2200 feet y : 2470 feet : 1440 feet
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance
to a height of 50 ft ._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : 30°C_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs_x000D_
Tailwind component: 2.5 kt_x000D_
Flaps: up _x000D_
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1771 32 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 032-6575A or 2900 lbs > 3650 lbs 3240 lbs 3000 lbs
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)_x000D_
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the maximum
allowable take off mass ._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : ISA_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft_x000D_
Headwind component: 5 kt_x000D_
Flaps: up _x000D_
Runway: Tarred and Dry_x000D_
Factored runway length: 2000 ft_x000D_
Obstacle height: 50 ft

1772 32 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-6576A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)_x000D_ y : 2050 ft y : 1150 ft y : 2450 ft : 1260 ft
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance
to a height of 50 ft._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : -7°C_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs_x000D_
Headwind component: 5 kt_x000D_
Flaps: Approach setting_x000D_
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1773 32 1 0 0 0
On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle 106425 kg 118455 kg 102150 kg 121310 kg
requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to
provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a
mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For
the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle
of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum
mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum
gradient?

1774 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6569A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)_x000D_ y : 1120 feet y : 1700 feet y : 1370 feet : 1850 feet
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
of 50 ft ._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : 27 °C_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane Mass: 2900 lbs_x000D_
Tailwind component: 5 kt_x000D_
Flaps: Landing position (down) _x000D_
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1775 32 0 0 0 1
 Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet 286 781 kg 74 064 kg 209 064 kg 101 596 kg
aeroplane are as follows:_x000D_
Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine_x000D_
g = 10 m/s²_x000D_
Drag = 72 569 N_x000D_
Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%_x000D_
SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight_x000D_
The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment
conditions is:

1776 32 0 0 0 1
What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance No affect Tailwind only The IAS will The IAS will be
speed? effects be decreased.
holding increased.
speed.

1777 32 1 0 0 0
When the outside air temperature increases, then the field the field the field the field length
length length length limited take-off
limited take- limited take- limited take- mass
off mass and off mass and off mass increases but
the climb the climb decreases the climb
limited take- limited take- but the climb limited take-off
off mass off mass limited take- mass
decreases. increases. off mass decreases.
increases.

1778 32 1 0 0 0
With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of The screen When the In case of a Screen height
the following statements is correct? height can runway is reverser cannot be
be lowered wet, the V1 inoperative reduced.
to reduce reduction is the wet
the mass sufficient to runway
penalties. maintain the performance
same information
margins on can still be
the runway used.
length.

1779 32 1 0 0 0
The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the middle of the lift-off the point the point half
the brake release point and: the segment point. where V2 is way between
between reached. V1 and V2.
VLOF point
and 35 ft
point.

1780 32 1 0 0 0
The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated below which at which the below which at which the
airspeed: the take-off failure of the take-off must take-off must
must be critical be rejected if be rejected.
continued. engine is an engine
expected to failure is
occur. recognized,
above which
take-off must
be
continued.

1781 32 0 0 1 0
 With regard to a unaccelerated horizontal flight, which The The The The minimum
of the following statement is correct? minimum minimum minimum drag is a
drag is is a drag is drag is function of the
function of independant proportional pressure
the density of the to the altitude.
altitude. aircraft aircraft
mass. mass.
1782 32 0 0 1 0
Which of the following statements is correct? Induced Induced Induced Induced drag
drag is drag drag increases with
independant decreases decreases increasing
of the with with speed.
speed. increasing increasing
angle of speed.
attack.
1783 32 0 0 1 0
Which of the following statements is correct?_x000D_ the minimum the minimum the minimum the minimum
If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, drag drag drag drag
decreases decreases increases increases decreases and
and the IAS and the IAS and the IAS the IAS for
for minimum for minimum for minimum minimum drag
drag drag drag increases.
decreases. decreases. increases.

1784 32 1 0 0 0
Consider the graphic representation of the power maximum minimum maximum critical angle
required versus true air speed (TAS), for a jet aeroplane endurance. power. specific of attack.
with a given mass. When drawing the tangent out of the range.
origin, the point of contact determines the speed of:

1785 32 1 0 0 0
A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range the point of the minimum the minimum the point of
flight._x000D_ contact of drag. required contact of the
The speed corresponds to: the tangent power. tangent from
from the the origin to
origin to the the power
Drag versus required (Pr)
TAS curve. versus TAS
curve.

1786 32 1 0 0 0
If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than The ASDR The take-off The one The VMCG will
VMCG, which of the following is correct ? will become is not engine out be lowered to
greater than permitted. take-off V1.
the one distance will
engine out become
take-off greater than
distance. the ASDR.

1787 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6581A or 18 832 ft 18 347 ft 21 505 ft 24 637 ft
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)_x000D_
_x000D_
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a
height of 2000 ft above the reference zero inthe
following conditions:_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T. at take-off: 25°C_x000D_
Airport pressure altitude: 1000 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane mass: 3600 lbs_x000D_
Speed: 100 KIAS_x000D_
Wind component: 15 kts Headwind

1788 32 0 1 0 0
 The speed VR is the speed must be must be must be equal
at which higher than higher than to or lower
rotation to V2. VLOF. than V1.
the lift-off
angle of
attack is
initiated.

1789 32 1 0 0 0
The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed VS. VMC. VSO. VS1.
at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing
configuration is abbreviated as
1790 32 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-6590A or 880 ft 1550 ft 1020 ft 1400 ft
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)_x000D_
Using the Landing Diagramm, for single engine
aeroplane, determine the landing distance (from a
screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following
conditions: _x000D_
Given : _x000D_
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft_x000D_
O.A.T.: 5°C_x000D_
Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs_x000D_
Headwind component: 15 kt_x000D_
Flaps: Approach setting_x000D_
Runway: tarred and dry_x000D_
Landing gear: down

1791 32 0 0 0 1
If the airworthiness documents do not specify a 20 % 15 % 5% 10 %
correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing
distance must be increased by:
1792 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight 908 NM 902 NM 875 NM 860 NM
planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) _x000D_
Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single
engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes
reserve, in the following conditions:_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T.: ISA -15°C _x000D_
Pressure altitude: 12000 ft_x000D_
Power: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300
RPM

1793 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight 851 NM 911 NM 865 NM 739 NM
planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) _x000D_
Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single
engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes
reserve, in the following conditions: _x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T.: ISA +16°C_x000D_
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft_x000D_
Power: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100
RPM

1794 32 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight 136 kt and 131 kt and 125 kt and 134 kt and
planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1)_x000D_ 56,9 lbs/hr 56,9 lbs/hr 55,7 lbs/hr 55,7 lbs/hr
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow
(lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the
following conditions:_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
OAT: 3°C_x000D_
Pressure altitude: 6000 ft_x000D_
Power: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100
RPM

1795 32 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight 160 kt and 158 kt and 160 kt and 159 kt and
planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)_x000D_ 69,3 lbs/hr 74,4 lbs/hr 71,1 lbs/hr 71,7 lbs/hr
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow
(lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the
following conditions:_x000D_
_x000D_
Given:_x000D_
OAT: 13°C_x000D_
Pressure altitude: 8000 ft_x000D_
RPM: 2300

1796 32 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6584A or Flight 22,4 in.Hg 23,0 in.Hg 22,4 in.Hg 22,4 in.Hg
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)_x000D_ and 69,3 and 69,0 and 71,1 and 73,8
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine lbs/hr lbs/hr lbs/hr lbs/hr
aeroplane, determine the manifold pressure and fuel
flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in
the following conditions:_x000D_
_x000D_
Given:_x000D_
OAT: 13°C_x000D_
Pressure altitude: 8000 ft_x000D_
RPM: 2300

1797 32 1 0 0 0
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy have no decrease increase the decrease the
limited a higher uphill slope would effect on the the required maximum maximum
maximum take-off mass for mass for take-
mass for distance. take-off. off.
take-off.

1798 32 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-6582A or 16 665 ft 18 909 ft 18 073 ft 20 109 ft
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)_x000D_
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a
height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe
following conditions:_x000D_
Given : _x000D_
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA_x000D_
Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane mass: 3300 lbs_x000D_
Speed: 100 KIAS_x000D_
Wind component: 5 kts Tailwind

1799 32 1 0 0 0
 In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the the point of the point of the point of the point of
speed for maximum range corresponds with: intersection contact of contact of contact of the
of the the tangent the tangent tangent from
parasite from the from the the origin to
drag curve origin to the origin to the the drag
and the parasite induced curve.
induced drag curve. drag curve.
drag curve.
1800 32 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 032-6580A or 2375 ft 1900 ft 1600 ft 2000 ft
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)_x000D_
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance
over a 50 ft obstacle height._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : 30°C_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs_x000D_
Tailwind component: 5 kt_x000D_
Flaps: Approach setting_x000D_
Runway: Short, wet grass, firm
subsoil_x000D_
Correction factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions)

1801 32 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6579A or 1290 ft/min 1370 ft/min 1210 ft/min 1150 ft/min
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)_x000D_
With regard to the climb performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed
(ft/min)._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : ISA + 15°C_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs_x000D_
Flaps: up_x000D_
Speed: 100 KIAS

1802 32 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-6578A or approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)_x000D_ y : 4200 ft y : 5040 ft y : 3960 ft : 3680 ft
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance
to a height of 50 ft._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : 38°C_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs_x000D_
Tailwind component: 5 kt_x000D_
Flaps: Approach setting_x000D_
Runway: Dry Grass_x000D_
Correction factor: 1.2

1803 32 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 032-6577A or 65 and 75 71 and 82 73 and 84 68 and 78
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)_x000D_ KIAS KIAS KIAS KIAS
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed
for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft._x000D_
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
O.A.T : ISA+10°C_x000D_
Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs_x000D_
Headwind component: 5 kt_x000D_
Flaps: up _x000D_
Runway: Tarred and Dry

1804 32 0 1 0 0
At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine 120 kt 130 kt 115 kt 125 kt
aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The
minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
1805 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-11661A or 440 m 615 m 525 m 415 m
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)_x000D_
_x000D_
An extract of the flight manual of a single engine
propeller aircraft is reproduced in annex._x000D_
Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope
runway_x000D_
Actual conditions are:_x000D_
pressure altitude: 1 500 ft_x000D_
outside tempereature: +18°C_x000D_
wind component: 4 knots tailwind_x000D_
_x000D_
For a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance
will be:

1806 32 0 0 1 0
Is there any difference between the vertical speed Yes, the No Yes, the Yes, the
versus forward speed curves for two identical difference is difference. difference is difference is
aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero that for a that the that the lighter
thrust and wind) given angle heavier aeroplane will
of attack aeroplane always glide a
both the will always greater
vertical and glide a distance.
forward greater
speeds of distance.
the heavier
aeroplane
will be
larger.

1807 32 1 0 0 0
The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at 500 ft/min 100 ft/min 0 ft/min 125 ft/min
1808 32 the absolute ceiling is: 0 0 1 0
During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate Maximum Service Absolute Thrust ceiling
of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called: transfer ceiling ceiling
ceiling
1809 32 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 032-6583A or 1030 ft/min 1170 ft/min 1310 ft/min 1120 ft/min
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)_x000D_ and 8,4% and 9,9% and 11,3% and 9,3%
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the gradient
of climb in the following conditions:_x000D_
Given : _x000D_
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA_x000D_
Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ft_x000D_
Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs_x000D_
Speed: 100 KIAS

1810 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the equations below defines specific range SR = SR = True SR = SR = Mach
(SR)? Groundspee Airspeed/Tot Indicated Number/Total
d/Total Fuel al Fuel Flow Airspeed/Tot Fuel Flow
Flow al Fuel Flow

1811 32 0 1 0 0
At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow increase are increase in decrease in
of a jet engine with independent proportion to proportion to
increasing of outside air the ambient the ambient
altitude. temperature pressure at pressure at
(OAT). constant constant
temperature. temperature.

1812 32 0 0 0 1
The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM is inversely increases in does not is independent
proportional proportion to change with of the
to the the changing airspeed.
airspeed. airspeed. altitude.

1813 32 0 1 0 0
The intersections of the thrust available and the drag in descent in in in
curve are the operating points of the aeroplane with accelerated unaccelerate unaccelerated
constant level flight. d climb. level flight.
IAS.
1814 32 0 0 0 1
At speeds below minimum drag the a lower a higher the aeroplane
aeroplane speed speed can not be
can be requires a requires a controlled
controlled higher higher manually.
only in level thrust. thrust.
flight.
1815 32 0 1 0 0
A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires a higher less thrust more thrust more thrust
coefficient of and a lower and a lower and a lower
lift. coefficient of coefficient of coefficient of
lift. lift. drag.

1816 32 1 0 0 0
A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number a higher a lower a lower a lower angle
requires angle of coefficient of coefficient of of attack.
attack. lift. drag.
1817 32 1 0 0 0
The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap increasing increasing decreasing increasing the
extension or by the angle of the TAS. the 'nose-up' CAS.
attack. elevator trim
setting.
1818 32 1 0 0 0
When flying the "Backside of Thrustcurve" means a lower a lower the thrust a thrust
airspeed airspeed required is reduction
requires less requires independent results in an
thrust more thrust. of the acceleration of
because airspeed. the aeroplane.
drag is
decreased.
1819 32 0 1 0 0
 "Maximum endurance" is the same can be flown can be is achieved in
as maximum in a steady reached with unaccelerated
specific climb only. the 'best rate level flight with
range with of climb' minimum fuel
wind speed in consumption.
correction. level flight.

1820 32 0 0 0 1
What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the The safety The take-off The The climb
event of a climb limited take-off? margin with distance accelerate limited take-off
respect to required with stop mass is the
the runway one engine distance highest.
length is out at V1 is required is
greatest. the shortest. the shortest.

1821 32 1 0 0 0
Which of the following statements is correct? The The take-off The climb The
accelerate distance with limited take- performance
stop one engine off mass is limited take-off
distance out is independant mass is
required is independant of the wind independant of
independant of the wind component. the wind
of the component. component.
runway
condition.

1822 32 0 0 1 0
The drift down requirements are based on: the landing the obstacle the actual the maximum
mass limit at clearance engine flight path
the during a thrust output gradient
alternate. descent to at the during the
the new altitude of descent.
cruising engine
altitude if an failure.
engine has
failed.

1823 32 0 1 0 0
The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS the radius of the bank the radius of the true
depends on the turn and angle only. the turn and airspeed and
the weight of the bank the bank
the angle. angle.
aeroplane.

1824 32 0 1 0 0
Long range cruise is selected as the speed the climbing specific the higher
for best cruise with range with speed to
economy. one or two tailwind. achieve 99%
engines of maximum
inoperative. specific range
in zero wind.

1825 32 0 0 0 1
 The optimum altitude is the is the increases as decreases as
altitude at altitude up to mass mass
which the which cabin decreases decreases.
specific pressure of and is the
range 8 000 ft can altitude at
reaches its be which the
minimum. maintained. specific
range
reaches its
maximum.

1826 32 0 0 1 0
To achieve the maximum range over ground with reduced to higher equal to the lower
headwind the airspeed should be the gust compared to speed for compared to
penetration the speed maximum the speed for
speed. for range cruise maximum
maximum with no wind. range cruise
range cruise with no wind.
with no wind.

1827 32 0 1 0 0
The take-off run is the distance the 1.5 times the 1.15 times the
of the point horizontal distance distance from
of brake distance from the the point of
release to a along the point of brake release
point take-off path brake to the point at
equidistant from the release to a which VLOF is
between the start of the point reached
point at take-off to a equidistant assuming a
which VLOF point between the failure of the
is reached equidistant point at critical engine
and the between the which VLOF at V1.
point at point at is reached
which the which VLOF and the
aeroplane is reached point at
attains a and the which the
height of 50 point at aeroplane
ft above the which the attains a
runway aeroplane is height of 35
assuming a 35 ft above ft above the
failure of the the take-off runway with
critical surface. all engines
engine at operative.
V1.

1828 32 0 1 0 0
During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by The one V2 may be It may lead The stop
selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which engine out too high so to over- distance
problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed take-off that climb rotation. required will
immediatly above the correct value of V1? distance performance exceed the
required decreases. stop distance
may exceed available.
the take-off
distance
available.

1829 32 0 0 0 1
 Which combination of circumstances or conditions A high A low A high A low runway
would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off? runway runway runway elevation and
elevation elevation elevation a head wind.
and tail and a cross and a head
wind. wind. wind.

1830 32 1 0 0 0
During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off By selecting By selecting By selecting By selecting a
mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field a higher flap a higher V2. a lower V2. lower flap
length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the setting. setting.
performance limited TOM be increased? There are no
limiting obstacles.
1831 32 1 0 0 0
VX is the speed the speed the speed the speed for
for best for best for best rate best specific
angle of angle of of climb. range.
flight path. climb.
1832 32 0 1 0 0
The speed for maximum endurance is the lower can either is always is always
speed to be higher or higher than lower than the
achieve 99% lower than the speed speed for
of maximum the speed for maximum
specific for maximum specific range.
range. maximum specific
specific range.
range.
1833 32 0 0 0 1
A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet increased unchanged decreased very
snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light- significantly
twin's flight manual. _x000D_ decreased
The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:

1834 32 1 0 0 0
The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight 1, 5, 8, 10 1, 4, 6, 9 2, 3, 6, 9 1, 4, 5, 10
path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is
defined by the following parameters:_x000D_
1 Gear up_x000D_
2 Gear down_x000D_
3 Wing flaps retracted_x000D_
4 Wing flaps in take-off position_x000D_
5 N engines at the take-off thrust_x000D_
6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust_x000D_
7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt_x000D_
8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS_x000D_
9 Speed over the path equal to V2_x000D_
10 At a height of 35 ft above the runway_x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statements are:

1835 32 0 1 0 0
Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on nosewheel primary primary primary
directional control being maintained by: steering aerodynamic aerodynamic aerodynamic
only. control only. control and control,
nosewheel. nosewheel
steering and
differential
braking.
1836 32 0 1 0 0
 The drift down procedure specifies requirements engine climb weight obstacle
concerning the: power at the gradient during clearance
altitude at during the landing at during descent
which descent to the alternate to the net
engine the net level- level-off
failure off altitude altitude
occurs
1837 32 0 0 0 1
The take-off performance requirements for transport all engines only one failure of failure of
category aeroplanes are based upon: operating. engine critical critical engine
operating. engine. or all engines
operating
which ever
gives the
largest take off
distance.

1838 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following distances will increase if you Take-off run Accelerate Take-off All Engine
increase V1? Stop distance Take-off
Distance distance
1839 32 0 1 0 0
1840 32 Which of the following answers is true? V1 <= VR V1 > Vlof V1 > VR V1 < VMCG 1 0 0 0
The approach climb requirement has been established minimum obstacle manoeuvrab manoeuvrabilit
to ensure: climb clearance in ility in case y during
gradient in the of landing approach with
case of a approach with one full flaps and
go-around area. engine gear down, all
with one inoperative. engines
engine operating.
inoperative.
1841 32 1 0 0 0
Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway A reduction The use of a In case of a Screenheight
is correct? of screen reduced Vr reverser reduction can
height is is sufficient inoperative not be applied
allowed in to maitain the wet because of
order to the same runway reduction in
reduce safety performance obstacle
weight margins as information clearance.
penalties for a dry can still be
runway used

1842 32 1 0 0 0
The length of a clearway may be included in: the distance the take-off the the take-off
to reach V1. distance accelerate- run available.
available. stop
distance
available.
1843 32 0 1 0 0
At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a increases increases is decreases
jet engine with slightly with independent slightly with
decreasing increasing of the increasing
OAT. airspeed. airspeed. airspeed.
1844 32 0 1 0 0
A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft 33,0 m/s 330 ft/min 3 300 ft/min 3,30 m/s
maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no wind, this climb
gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of
approximately:
1845 32 0 1 0 0
 Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, 5°, the 5°, both 20°, the 20°, both
show the following limitations with flap 10° obstacle limitations obstacle limitations are
selected:_x000D_ limit is are limit is increased
- runway limit: 5 270 kg_x000D_ increased increased increased
- obstacle limit: 4 630 kg_x000D_ but the but the
Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg._x000D_ runway limit runway limit
Considering a take-off with flaps at: decreases decreases

1846 32 1 0 0 0
Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a it will not 105 m 90 m 75 m
light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%._x000D_ clear the
It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway obstacle
(horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point
with an obstacle clearance margin of:

1847 32 0 1 0 0
Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ? Step climbs To respect To fly as Step climbs
do not have ATC flight close as are only
any special level possible to justified if at
purpose for constraints. the optimum the higher
jet altitude as altitude less
aeroplanes; aeroplane headwind or
they are mass more tailwind
used for reduces. can be
piston expected.
engine
aeroplanes
only.

1848 32 0 0 1 0
Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated the lift the thrust the drag the resultant
straight and level flight ? from lift and
drag
1849 32 1 0 0 0
An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS 90 minutes 180 minutes 180 minutes 180 minutes
rule may be up to : flying time flying time to flying time to flying time
from the first a suitable a suitable from suitable
enroute airport in still airport under airport in still
airport and air with one the air at a normal
another 90 engine prevailing cruising speed
minutes inoperative. weather
from the condition
second with one
enroute engine
airport in still inoperative.
air with one
engine
inoperative.

1850 32 0 1 0 0
ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight 75 minutes 60 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes
conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is flying time at flying time in flying time in flying time at
within an area of the still air at the still air at the the normal
approved approved normal cruising
one engine one engine cruising speed.
out cruise out cruise speed.
speed. speed.

1851 32 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 032-3589A or All the Because at Because at Due to higher
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24)_x000D_ curves start this mass it this mass TAS at this
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet at the same takes about the engines mass it takes
aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg point, which 3 minutes to slow down at more time to
gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at is situated decelerate a slower rate develop the
approximately 3 minutes at FL370? outside the to the after failure, optimal rate of
chart. optimum there is still descent,
speed for some thrust because of the
drift down at left during inertia
the original four involved.
cruising minutes.
level.

1852 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-3590A or At higher At higher At lower The engines
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5)_x000D_ temperature temperature temperature are pressure
With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet s the flat s the VMBE s one has to limited at
aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb rated determines take the lower
limit graph show a kink at 30°C, pressure altitude 0? engines the climb danger of temperature,
determines limit mass. icing into at higher
the climb account. temperatures
limit mass. they are
temperature
limited.

1853 32 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-3591A or There is a The climb The effect of There is no
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5)_x000D_ built-in limit the wind effect of the
Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet safety performance must be wind on the
aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been measure. s are taken taken from climb angle
omitted from the chart? relative to another relative to the
the air. chart. ground.

1854 32 0 1 0 0
In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust In level flight In In a climb In a descent
required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)? with accelerated with with constant
constant IAS level flight constant IAS TAS
1855 32 1 0 0 0
How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of V2 has the V2 V2 has no V2 decreases
T/O flaps 10°? same value increases in connection if not restricted
in both proportion to with T/O flap by VMCA.
cases. the angle at setting, as it
which the is a function
flaps are set. of runway
length only.

1856 32 0 0 0 1
Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) 115 m 100 m 85 m It will not clear
screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the- the obstacle
ground climb gradient._x000D_
_x000D_
It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the
runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50
ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:

1857 32 1 0 0 0
 The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard 810 m 970 m 890 m 870 m
atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude._x000D_
Using the following corrections :_x000D_
_x000D_
"± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation "_x000D_
"- 5 m / kt headwind "_x000D_
"+ 10 m / kt tail wind "_x000D_
"± 15 m / % runway slope "_x000D_
"± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature
"_x000D_
_x000D_
The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft
elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2%
up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is :

1858 32 0 1 0 0
The take-off decision speed V1 is: not less than a chosen sometimes a chosen limit.
V2min, the limit. If an greater than If an engine
minimum engine the rotation failure is
take-off failure is speed VR. recognized
safety recognized before
speed. after reaching V1
reaching V1 the take-off
the take-off must be
must be aborted.
aborted.

1859 32 0 0 0 1
The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends same speed an increase same speed an increase in
two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power and fuel- in speed, and an speed and
setting in relation to the 65 % results in: burn/distanc fuel increase of fuel-
e, but an consumption the fuel-burn burn/distance,
increase in and fuel- per hour and but an
the fuel-burn burn/distanc fuel- unchanged
per hour. e. burn/distanc fuel-burn per
e. hour.

1860 32 0 1 0 0
With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 3° 3% 5° 8%
1861 32 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about : 1 0 0 0
At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is 7.5% 10% 2.5% 5%
increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific
consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly
consumption is approximately increased by:

1862 32 0 0 0 1
For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long 1339 m. 1771 m. 1540 m. 1147 m.
runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be
"wet". The "dry runway" landing distance, should not
exceed:
1863 32 1 0 0 0
During the certification flight testing of a twin engine 1547 m. 1720 m. 1779 m. 1978 m.
turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal
to:_x000D_
- 1547 m with all engines running_x000D_
- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all
other things remaining unchanged._x000D_
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

1864 32 0 0 1 0
 In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 based on the height by the height at the minimum
ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is pressure which which power vertical
altitudes. acceleration is reduced to distance
and flap maximum between the
retraction climb thrust. lowest part of
should be the aeroplane
completed. and all
obstacles
within the
obstacle
corridor.

1865 32 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 032-915A)_x000D_ -1267 ft / 0 ft / min. +3293 ft / +1267 ft / min.
What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine min. min.
turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1)
and a mass of 75 000 kg?_x000D_
Using the following: g = 10 m/s² _x000D_
1 kt = 100 ft/min_x000D_
SIN( Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag)/
Weight
1866 32 0 0 0 1
A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet increased unchanged reduced substantially
snow._x000D_ decreased
The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises
a landing in these conditions. _x000D_
The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry
runway:
1867 32 1 0 0 0
The danger associated with low speed and/or high can be exists only has to be limits the
speed buffet reduced by above MMO. considered maneuvering
increasing at take-off load factor at
the load and landing. high altitudes.
factor.
1868 32 0 0 0 1
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° an increased a reduced an increased a reduced
and 35°._x000D_ landing landing landing landing
If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will distance and distance and distance and distance and
have: _x000D_ degraded degraded better go- better go-
go-around go-around around around
performance performance performance performance

1869 32 0 0 1 0
What will be the influence on the aeroplane It will It will It will It will increase
performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increase the increase the decrease the take-off
increased? accelerate take-off the take-off distance
stop distance. distance. available.
distance
available.

1870 32 0 1 0 0
Which statement is correct? VR must not VR must not VR must not VR must not
be less than be less than be less than be less than
1.1 VMCA 1.05 VMCA 1.05 VMCA VMCA and not
and not less and not less and not less less than 1.05
than V1. than 1.1 V1. than V1. V1.

1871 32 0 0 1 0
 The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the Improved Unchanged Unchanged, Degraded
climb performance. _x000D_ if a short
The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the field take-off
climb performance to be: is adopted

1872 32 0 0 0 1
How is wind considered in the take-off performance Since take- Not more Unfactored Not more than
data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ? offs with than 50% of headwind 80% headwind
tailwind are a headwind and tailwind and not less
not and not less components than 125%
permitted, than 150% are used. tailwind.
only of the
headwinds tailwind.
are
considered.

1873 32 0 1 0 0
A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature decreases decreases increases has no
the field the take-off the climb influence on
length distance. limited take- the allowed
limited take- off mass. take-off mass.
off mass.
1874 32 1 0 0 0
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° an increased a reduced a reduced an increased
and 35°._x000D_ landing landing landing landing
If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will distance and distance and distance and distance and
have: better go- degraded better go- degraded go-
around go-around around around
performance performance performance performance

1875 32 0 1 0 0
The critical engine inoperative does not decreases increases increases the
affect the the power the power power
aeroplane required required and required
performance because of decreases because of the
since it is the lower the total greater drag
independent drag caused drag due to caused by the
of the power by the the windmilling
plant. windmilling windmilling engine and the
engine. engine. compensation
for the yaw
effect.

1876 32 0 0 0 1
The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross VS1 (stalling VMO VA (design VSO (stalling
weight and altitude is highest at speed in (maximum manoeuvrin speed in
clean operating g speed) landing
configuration limit speed) configuration)
)

1877 32 0 0 0 1
A higher outside air temperature (OAT) increases increases decreases decreases the
the field the climb the take-off brake energy
length limited take- distance. limited take-off
limited take- off mass. mass.
off mass.
1878 32 0 0 0 1
 The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the a decrease an increase an increase a decrease of
optimum is: of both the of both the of the field the field length
field length field length length limited take-off
limited take- limited take- limited take- mass but an
off mass and off mass and off mass but increase of the
the climb the climb a decrease climb limited
limited take- limited take- of the climb take-off mass.
off mass. off mass. limited take-
off mass.

1879 32 0 0 1 0
The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in 4,9 % 3,9 % 4,3 % 4,7 %
standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure
altitude._x000D_
Using the following corrections:_x000D_
"± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"_x000D_
"± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature"_x000D_
" - 1 % with wing anti-ice"_x000D_
" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice"_x000D_
The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated
at 1 000 ft, 17° C; QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and
engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is :

1880 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-4732A or This gross The The The increment
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24)_x000D_ weight increment equivalent represents fuel
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet accounts for accounts for gross weight used before
aeroplane, what is meant by "equivalent gross weight at the lower the higher at engine engine failure.
engine failure" ? Mach fuel flow at failure is the
number at higher actual gross
higher temperature weight
temperature s. corrected for
s. OAT higher
than ISA
+10°C.

1881 32 0 0 1 0
The approach climb requirement has been established minimum obstacle manoeuvera manoeuverabil
so that the aeroplane will achieve: climb clearance in bility in the ity during
gradient in the event of approach with
the event of approach landing with full flaps and
a go-around area. one engine gear down, all
with one inoperative. engines
engine operating.
inoperative.

1882 32 1 0 0 0
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing remains increases at decreases remains
altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and unchanged constant and the CAS unchanged but
configuraton the drag but the the TAS. decreases the TAS
CAS too because increases.
increases. of the lower
air density.

1883 32 0 0 0 1
 Which of the following factors favours the selection of a High field Low field High field Low field
low flap setting for the take-off? elevation, elevation, elevation, no elevation, no
distant close-in obstacles in obstacles in
obstacles in obstacles in the climb-out the climb-out
the climb-out the climb-out path, low path, short
path, long path, long ambient runway and a
runway and runway and temperature low ambient
a high a high and short temperature.
ambient ambient runway.
temperature. temperature.

1884 32 1 0 0 0
Which of the following sets of factors will increase the Low flap Low flap Low flap High flap
climb-limited TOM? setting, high setting, high setting, low setting, low
PA, high PA, low OAT. PA, low OAT. PA, low OAT.
OAT.
1885 32 0 0 1 0
If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will: increase. decrease. increase in not be
the flaps affected.
extended
case.
1886 32 0 0 0 1
Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how There is no Allowable Allowable Allowable
does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take- effect on take-off take-off take-off mass
off mass? allowable mass mass increases.
take-off remains decreases.
mass. uninfluenced
up to 5000 ft
PA.
1887 32 0 0 1 0
In which of the following distances can the length of a In the one- In the all- In the take- In the
stopway be included? engine engine take- off run accelerate
failure case, off distance. available. stop distance
take-off available.
distance.

1888 32 0 0 0 1
If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the The The It has no Take-off with
following statements is true? accelerate accelerate effect on the antiskid
stop stop accelerate inoperative is
distance distance stop not permitted.
increases. decreases. distance.

1889 32 1 0 0 0
The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane is only is the is dependent is dependent
with a pressurised cabin certified for highest on on the OAT.
four-engine pressure aerodynamic
aeroplanes. altitude ceiling.
certified for
normal
operation.
1890 32 0 1 0 0
The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a less than 4 unchanged, only a new higher than 4
4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general 000 m. equal to 4 performance 000 m.
conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 000 m. analysis will
kg._x000D_ determine if
_x000D_ the service
If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will ceiling is
be: higher or
lower than 4
000 m.

1891 32 0 0 0 1
 (For this question use annex 032-4733A or 2600 m. 2700 m. 2900 m. 3100 m.
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28)_x000D_
What is the minimum field length required for the worst
wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-
skid inoperative?_x000D_
Elevation: 2000 ft_x000D_
QNH: 1013 hPa_x000D_
Landing mass: 50 000 kg_x000D_
Flaps: as required for minimum landing
distance_x000D_
Runway condition: dry_x000D_
Wind: _x000D_
Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt_x000D_
Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt

1892 32 0 0 0 1
What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if It will It will It will It will decrease
aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased? increase the increase the increase the the take-off
take-off take-off accelerate distance
distance ground run. stop required.
required. distance.

1893 32 0 0 0 1
The absolute ceiling is the is the is the can be
altitude at altitude at altitude at reached only
which the which the which the with minimim
best climb aeroplane rate of climb steady flight
gradient reaches a theoretically speed
attainable is maximum is zero.
5% rate of climb
of 100
ft/min.

1894 32 0 0 1 0
The induced drag of an aeroplane is increases decreases decreases
independent with with with increasing
of the increasing increasing gross weight.
airspeed. airspeed. airspeed.

1895 32 0 0 1 0
Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway Yes, but the No. No, unless Yes, but the
length to determine the take-off distance available ? stopway its centerline stopway must
must have is on the be able to
the same extended carry the
width as the centerline of weight of the
runway. the runway. aeroplane.

1896 32 0 1 0 0
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off Only for Yes. No. Only for take-
1897 32 and landing data ? landing. off. 0 1 0 0
In case of an engine failure recognized below V1 the take-off the take-off the take-off the take-off is
must be may be should only to be
rejected. continued if be rejected if continued
a clearway is a stopway is unless V1 is
available. available. less than the
balanced V1.

1898 32 1 0 0 0
In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or the take-off a height of the take-off the take-off
above V1 must be 50 ft must should be must be
rejected if be reached rejected if continued.
the speed is within the the speed is
still below take-off still below
VLOF. distance. VR.

1899 32 0 0 0 1
 The take-off distance available is the total the length of the runway the runway
runway the take-off length minus length plus
length, run available stopway. half of the
without plus the clearway.
clearway length of the
even if this clearway
one exists. available.

1900 32 0 1 0 0
The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at a higher V1. a longer a shorter an increased
take-off is take-off run. ground roll. acceleration.
1901 32 0 0 1 0
Reduced take-off thrust has the can be used is not can be used if
benefit of if the actual recommend the headwind
improving take-off ed at very component
engine life. mass is low during take-off
higher than temperature is at least 10
the s (OAT). kt.
performance
limited take-
off mass.

1902 32 1 0 0 0
1903 32 The speed for best rate of climb is called VY. VX. V2. VO. 1 0 0 0
The aerodynamic ceiling is the is the depends is the altitude
altitude at altitude at upon thrust at which the
which the which the setting and best rate of
aeroplane speeds for increase climb
reaches 50 low speed with theoretically is
ft/min. buffet and increasing zero.
for high thrust.
speed buffet
are the
same.

1904 32 0 1 0 0
Which statement is correct? VR is the VR is the In case of VR is the
speed at lowest climb engine lowest speed
which speed after failure below for directional
rotation engine VR the take- control in case
should be failure. off should be of engine
initiated. aborted. failure.

1905 32 1 0 0 0
Given:_x000D_ VS< VMCA< VR< VMCA< VMU<= V2min<
VS= Stalling speed_x000D_ V2 min VLOF VMCA< V1 VMCA> VMU
VMCA= Air minimum control speed _x000D_
VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine
failure)_x000D_
V1= take-off decision speed_x000D_
VR= Rotation speed_x000D_
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed_x000D_
VLOF: Lift-off speed _x000D_
The correct formula is:

1906 32 1 0 0 0
Required runway length at destination airport for is less then is more than is 60% is the same as
turboprop aeroplanes at an at an longer than at an alternate
alternate alternate at an airport.
airport. airport. alternate
airport.
1907 32 0 0 0 1
 Which of the following are to be taken into account for Airport Airport Airport Airport
the runway in use for take-off ? elevation, elevation, elevation, elevation,
runway runway runway runway slope,
slope, slope, slope, outside air
outside air standard standard temperature,
temperature, temperature, temperature, standard
pressure standard pressure pressure and
altitude and pressure altitude and wind
wind and wind wind components.
components. components. components.

1908 32 1 0 0 0
Which of the following will decrease V1? Increased Inoperative Increased Inoperative
take-off flight outside air anti-skid.
mass. managemen temperature.
t system.
1909 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air The VMCA only Straight The aeroplane
minimum control speed)? aeroplane applies to flight can not is
will not four-engine be uncontrollable
gather the aeroplanes maintained below VMCA
minimum below
required VMCA,
climb when the
gradient critical
engine has
failed.

1910 32 0 0 1 0
During take-off the third segment begins: when when flap when when landing
acceleration retraction is acceleration gear is fully
starts from completed. to flap retracted.
VLOF to V2. retraction
speed is
started.
1911 32 0 0 1 0
What margin above the stall speed is provided by the 1,10 VSO VMCA x 1,2 1,30 VSO 1,05 VSO
1912 32 landing reference speed VREF? 0 0 1 0
How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, Allowable A downhill A downhill An uphill slope
assuming other factors remain constant and not take-off slope slope increases
limiting? mass is not decreases increases take-off mass.
affected by allowable allowable
runway take-off take-off
slope. mass. mass.
1913 32 0 0 1 0
Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of Increased Increased Decreased Decreased
the following alternatives will decrease the take-off pressure outside air take-off take-off mass,
ground run? altitude, temperature, mass, increased
increased decreased increased density,
outside air pressure pressure increased flap
temperature, altitude, altitude, setting.
increased decreased increased
take-off flap setting. temperature.
mass.

1914 32 0 0 0 1
The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field Decreased Decreased Increased Increased
length limited Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the TOD TOD TOD TOD required
zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is required and required and required and and increased
the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to decreased increased decreased field length
zero flap position? field length field length field length limited TOM.
limited TOM. limited TOM. limited TOM.

1915 32 0 1 0 0
 The second segment begins when flaps when when when flap
are selected acceleration landing gear retraction
up. starts from is fully begins.
V2 to the retracted.
speed for
flap
retraction.
1916 32 0 0 1 0
Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind? the field the obstacle the take-off the climb
limited take- limited take- run. limited take-off
off mass. off mass. mass.
1917 32 0 0 0 1
Field length is balanced when take-off calculated all engine one engine
distance V2 is less acceleration acceleration
equals than 110% to V1 and from V1 to
accelerate- VMCA and braking VLOF plus
stop V1, VR, distance for flare distance
distance. VMCG. rejected between VLOF
take-off are and 35 feet
equal. are equal.

1918 32 1 0 0 0
A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and Reduce / Reduce / Remain Remain
maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the decrease. remain constant / constant /
pitch angle change? constant. decrease. become larger.
1919 32 1 0 0 0
Which of the following statements is correct ? If a clearway A stopway An underrun A clearway is
or a stopway means an is an area an area
is used, the area beyond beyond the beyond the
liftoff point the take-off runway end runway which
must be runway, able which can can be used
attainable at to support be used for for an aborted
least at the the an aborted take-off.
end of the aeroplane take-off.
permanent during an
runway aborted
surface. take-off.

1920 32 0 1 0 0
For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles by banking by banking only by by standard
in the first segment may be avoided not more as much as using turns - but only
than 15° needed if standard after passing
between 50 aeroplane is turns. 1500 ft.
ft and 400 ft more than
above the 50 ft above
runway runway
elevation. elevation.

1921 32 1 0 0 0
 Which of the following is true according to JAA Maximum Maximum Maximum Maximum
regulations for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes not Take-off Run use of Landing Landing
performing a steep approach? is 0,5 x clearway is Distance at Distance at
runway. 1,5 x the destination is
runway. destination 0,95 x LDA
aerodrome (Landing
and at any Distance
alternate Available).
aerodrome
is 0,7 x LDA
(Landing
Distance
Available).

1922 32 0 0 1 0
The net flight path climb gradient after take-off smaller. larger. equal. depends on
compared to the gross climb gradient is: type of aircraft.
1923 32 1 0 0 0
The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is: 1.20 Vs for 1.15 Vs for 1.20 Vs for 1.15 Vs for all
all turboprop four-engine all turbojet turbojet
powered turboprop aeroplanes. aeroplanes.
aeroplanes. aeroplanes
and 1.20 Vs
for two or
three-engine
turboprop
aeroplanes.

1924 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-1562A or 52 000 kg 56 000 kg 55 000 kg 70 000 kg
Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4 )_x000D_
For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap
settings (5° and 15°) are certified._x000D_
Given:_x000D_
Field length avalaible= 2400 m_x000D_
Outside air temperature= -10°C_x000D_
Airport pressure altitude= 7000 ft_x000D_
The maximum allowed take-off mass is:

1925 32 0 1 0 0
An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 4500 6000 4000 5000 metres.
metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the metres. metres. metres.
calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the
take-off distance available cannot be greater than:

1926 32 1 0 0 0
During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, 2096 m. 1950 m. 2009 m. 2243 m.
the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to
a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is
reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet
above the take-off surface are:_x000D_
- 1747 m, all engines operating_x000D_
- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at
V1, the other factors remaining unchanged._x000D_
Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off
run (TOR). What is the correct distance?

1927 32 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following statements is correct? When The drift The drift An engine
determining down down failure at high
the obstacle regulations procedure cruising
clearance require a requires a altitude will
during drift minimum minimum always result
down, fuel descent obstacle in a drift down,
dumping angle after clearance of because it is
may be an engine 35 ft. not permitted
taken into failure at to fly the same
account. cruising altitude as with
altitude. all engines
operating.

1928 32 1 0 0 0
How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure VMCA VMCA is not VMCA VMCA
altitude? increases affected by decreases increases with
with pressure with pressure
increasing altitude. increasing altitude higher
pressure pressure than 4000 ft.
altitude. altitude.

1929 32 1 0 0 0
Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of The obstacle The A take-off in Wind speed
the following statements is correct? limited mass maximum the direction plays no role
can never bank angle of an when
be lower which can obstacle is calculating this
than the be used is also particular
climb limited 10°. permitted in mass.
take-off tail wind
mass. condition.

1930 32 0 0 1 0
For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is The required When In any case An anti-skid
correct? landing field determining runway system
length is the the slope is one malfunction
distance maximum of the has no effect
from 35 ft to allowable factors taken on the
the full stop landing into account required
point. mass at when landing field
destination, determining length.
60% of the the required
available landing field
distance is length.
taken into
account, if
the runway
is expected
to be dry.

1931 32 0 1 0 0
 Which statement is correct? The The climb The climb The climb
performance limited take- limited take- limited take-off
limited take- off mass will off mass mass depends
off mass is increase if increases on pressure
the highest the when a altitude and
of:_x000D_ headwind larger take- outer air
field length component off flap temperature
limited take- increases. setting is
off used.
mass_x000
D_
climb limited
take-off
mass_x000
D_
obstacle
limited take-
off mass.
1932 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following factors determines the maximum Aerodynami Theoretical Service Economy.
flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph? cs. ceiling. ceiling.
1933 32 1 0 0 0
Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is The speed The speed The speed The speed
achieved at: for for minimum that that
maximum lift drag. corresponds approximately
coefficient. to the speed corresponds to
for the maximum
maximum rate of climb
climb angle. speed.

1934 32 0 0 0 1
The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum Maximum Holding. Long range. Maximum
amount of fuel between two airfields. Which flight endurance. range.
procedure should the pilot fly?
1935 32 0 0 0 1
Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes To ensure To ensure To ensure Because
should be checked. For what reason? that the that the that the overheated
brake wear wheels have thermal brakes will not
is not warmed up blow-out perform
excessive. evenly. plugs are adequately in
not melted. the event of a
rejected take-
off.
1936 32 0 0 0 1
The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the take-off the take-off the landing the accelerate-
: run distance distance stop distance
available. available. available. available.

1937 32 0 0 0 1
Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take- V1, VMCG, V1, VR, V1, VR, V2, VMCG, V1,
1938 32 off? VR, V2. VMCG, V2. VMCA. VR, V2. 0 0 0 1
A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which The The Mach The The Stalling
operational speed limit is most likely to be reached? Minimum limit for the Maximum speed.
control Mach trim operating
speed air. system. Mach
number.
1939 32 0 0 1 0
A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Never High Speed Maximum Maximum
Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be Exceed Buffet Limit Operational Operating
exceeded first? Speed Mach Speed
Number
1940 32 0 0 0 1
Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by : VR and V2 and VR and V2 and VMCG
1941 32 VMCG VMCA VMCA 1 0 0 0
 Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off The climb The climb 50% of a On high
mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct? limited take- limited take- head wind is elevation
off mass off mass is taken into airports
decreases determined account equipped with
with at the speed when long runways
increasing for best rate determining the aeroplane
OAT. of climb. the climb will always be
limited take- climb limited.
off mass.

1942 32 1 0 0 0
The minimum value of V2 must exceed "air minimum 15% 20% 30% 10%
1943 32 control speed" by: 0 0 0 1
Which statement regarding V1 is correct? When The V1 V1 is not V1 is not
determining correction allowed to allowed to be
the V1, for up-slope be greater greater than
reverse is negative. than VR. VMCG.
thrust is only
allowed to
be taken into
account on
the
remaining
symmetric
engines.

1944 32 0 0 1 0
When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the the actual the distance the the end of the
TODA: take-off from brake "balanced runway will be
mass equals release to take-off cleared by 35
the field V1 will be distance" feet following
length equal to the equals 115% an engine
limited take- distance of the "all failure at V1.
off mass. from V1 to engine take-
the 35 feet off distance".
point.

1945 32 1 0 0 0
For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the The greater Dry snow is A slush The
following statements is correct? the depth of not covered performance
contaminatio considered runway must data for take-
n at constant to affect the be cleared off must be
take-off take-off before take- determined in
mass, the performance off, even if general by
more V1 has . the means of
to be performance calculation,
decreased data for only a few
to contaminate values are
compensate d runway is verified by
for available. flight tests.
decreasing
friction.

1946 32 0 0 0 1
 To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the use use normal postpone make a
pilot should: maximum landing-, the landing "positive"
reverse braking- and until the risk landing and
thrust, and reverse of apply
should start technique. hydroplaning maximum
braking no longer reverse thrust
below the exists. and brakes as
hydroplaning quickly as
speed. possible.

1947 32 0 0 0 1
What is the advantage of a balanced field length For a A balanced A balanced A balanced
condition ? balanced field length field length take-off
field length provides the gives the provides the
the required greatest minimum lowest
take-off margin required elevator input
runway between field length force
length "net" and in the event requirement
always "gross" take- of an engine for rotation.
equals the off flight failure.
available paths.
runway
length.

1948 32 0 0 1 0
The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined at the lowest at the at the at the practical
aeroplane, in level flight, is reached: possible optimum service ceiling.
altitude. cruise ceiling.
altitude.
1949 32 1 0 0 0
During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin increase, decrease, increase, remain
to low speed buffet will: because the because the because the constant,
lift lift lift because the
coefficient coefficient coefficient Mach number
increases. decreases. decreases. remains
constant.

1950 32 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-2219A or 10 kt. No wind. 5 kt. 15 kt.
Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4 )_x000D_
With regard to the graph for landing performance, what
is the minimum headwind component required in order
to land at Helgoland airport?_x000D_
Given:_x000D_
Runway length: 1300 ft_x000D_
Runway elevation: MSL_x000D_
Weather: assume ISA conditions_x000D_
Mass: 3200 lbs_x000D_
Obstacle height: 50 ft

1951 32 1 0 0 0
The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance 15% 20% 10% 30%
with international requirements, the following margins
above stall speed in landing configuration:
1952 32 0 0 0 1
Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° a better a shorter a longer a shorter take-
will normally result in : climb and an take-off take-off off distance
equal take- distance and distance and and an equal
off distance. a better a better climb.
climb. climb.

1953 32 0 0 1 0
 Which statement about reduced thrust is correct? In case of Reduced Reduced Reduced
reduced thrust can thrust is thrust is used
thrust V1 be used primarily a in order to
should be when the noise save fuel.
decreased. actual take- abatement
off mass is procedure.
less than the
field length
limited take-
off mass.

1954 32 0 1 0 0
What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a The time to The time to The time to The effect on
given altitude? climb does climb climb time to climb
not change. increases. decreases. will depend on
the aeroplane
type.

1955 32 1 0 0 0
Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: is an is the is the is always
airspeed at airspeed of airspeed on equal to VEF
which the the the ground (Engine
aeroplane is aeroplane at which the Failure
airborne but upon pilot is speed).
below 35 ft reaching 35 assumed to
and the pilot feet above have made
is assumed the take-off a decision to
to have surface. continue or
made a discontinue
decision to the take-off.
continue or
discontinue
the take-off .

1956 32 0 0 1 0
A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an 1 250 m. 1 090 m. 1 655 m. 1 440 m.
aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m.
Which of the following is the maximum landing distance
for a dry runway?
1957 32 0 0 0 1
A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine the long the speed the speed at the speed
inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to range correspondi the corresponding
maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should speed. ng to the maximum to the
choose: minimum lift. maximum
value of (lift / value of the lift
drag)^3/2. / drag ratio.

1958 32 0 0 0 1
Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: a specific a 1% higher an IAS a specific
range which TAS for which is 1% range which is
is about maximum higher than 99% of
99% of specific the IAS for maximum
maximum range. maximum specific range
specific specific and a lower
range and range. cruise speed.
higher cruise
speed.

1959 32 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 032-1014A)_x000D_ d c a b
Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams
provided correctly shows the movement of the "Thrust
Required Curve .(M1>M2).
1960 32 0 1 0 0
For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of Decreases. Does not Increases Increases.
increased altitude on specific range? change. only if there
is no wind.
1961 32 0 0 0 1
Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum TAS for both will both will both will stay
endurance, other factors remaining constant, maximum increase decrease constant
range will with with regardless of
increase increasing increasing altitude.
with altitude. altitude.
increased
altitude
while TAS
for
maximum
endurance
will
decrease
with
increased
altitude.

1962 32 0 1 0 0
The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet is always is is only increases
aeroplane: equal to the independent dependent when the
powerplant of the on the aeroplane
ceiling. aeroplane outside air mass
mass. temperature. decreases.

1963 32 0 0 0 1
How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the TAS TAS TAS is TAS is not
troposphere? decreases. increases. constant. related to
Mach Number.
1964 32 1 0 0 0
Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing Both will Both will Both will Vx will
altitude affect Vx and Vy: increase. remain the decrease. decrease and
same. Vy will
increase.
1965 32 1 0 0 0
With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range equal to that equal to that lower than equal to that of
for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is: maximum correspondi that of maximum lift
endurance. ng to zero maximum lift to drag ratio.
induced to drag ratio.
drag.

1966 32 0 0 0 1
The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to Increase at Smaller. Larger. Not change.
that with flaps retracted, will normally be: moderate
flap setting,
decrease at
large flap
setting.
1967 32 0 1 0 0
Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel 3365 kg/h. 3578 kg/h. 3804 kg/h. 4044 kg/h.
consumptions are considered to be equal) are at
holding speed at the same altitude._x000D_
The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly
fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second
aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:

1968 32 0 0 1 0
 An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path -90m + 90m + 90m + 0.125D
clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle- 1.125D D/0.125 0.125D
corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is
at least:
1969 32 0 0 1 0
How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb Best angle Best angle Both Both increase.
vary with increasing altitude? of climb of climb decrease.
increases decreases
while best while best
rate of climb rate of climb
decreases. increases.

1970 32 0 0 1 0
Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces Weight and Thrust and Weight and Weight, drag
1971 32 determine an aeroplane's angle of climb? drag only. drag only. thrust only. and thrust. 0 0 0 1
A head wind will: increase the increase the increase the shorten the
climb flight angle of rate of climb. time of climb.
path angle. climb.
1972 32 1 0 0 0
At which minimum height will the second climb segment When gear 1500 ft 400 ft above 35 ft above
end? retraction is above field field ground.
completed. elevation. elevation.
1973 32 0 0 1 0
The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and 2 engined the failure of the failure of the failure of
the climb segments are only specified for: aeroplane. two engines the critical any engine on
on a multi- engine on a a multi-
engined multi- engined
aeroplane. engines aeroplane.
aeroplane.

1974 32 0 0 1 0
In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action deploy reduce the reverse apply wheel
to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the airbrakes or engine engine brakes.
aeroplane is to: spoilers. thrust. thrust.
1975 32 0 1 0 0
During certification flight testing on a four engine 2938 m 3050 m 3513 m 2555 m
turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances
measured are:_x000D_
- 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at
V1_x000D_
- 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things
being equal_x000D_
_x000D_
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

1976 32 0 1 0 0
Which of the following represents the maximum value VREF VR VMCA V2
for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy
speed are not limiting?
1977 32 0 1 0 0
Which of the following represents the minimum for V1? VMCG VLOF VMU VR
1978 32 1 0 0 0
Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be: higher than same as that changed so lower than that
that for for clean that Vx for clean
clean configuration increases configuration.
configuration . and Vy
. decreases
compared to
clean
configuration
.

1979 32 0 0 0 1
 Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are At a given At a given At a given There is no
descending at idle thrust. Which of the following angle of angle of angle of difference
statements correctly describes their descent attack the attack the attack, both between the
characteristics ? heavier lighter the vertical descent
aeroplane aeroplane and the characteristics
will always will always forward of the two
glide further glide further speed are aeroplanes.
than the than the greater for
lighter heavier the heavier
aeroplane. aeroplane. aeroplane.

1980 32 0 0 1 0
Take-off run is defined as the horizontal distance to distance to Distance from
distance V1 and stop, 35 feet with brake release
along the assuming an an engine to V2.
take-off path engine failure at V1
from the failure at V1. or 115% all
start of the engine
take-off to a distance to
point 35 feet.
equidistant
between the
point at
which VLOF
is reached
and the
point at
which the
aeroplane is
35 ft above
the take-off
surface.

1981 32 1 0 0 0
A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the Decrease / Increase / Increase / Decrease /
1982 32 specific range / fuel flow change? decrease. decrease. increase. increase. 0 1 0 0
During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle remain decrease. increase. increase at
of the aeroplane will: constant. first and
decrease later
on.
1983 32 0 1 0 0
During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight decrease / increase / increase / decrease /
level and at the maximum range speed, the IAS / the decrease. decrease. increase. increase.
drag will:
1984 32 1 0 0 0
An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL Is constant Decreases Increases in Increases in
270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 in the first in the first the first part; the first part;
at the IAS reached at FL 270._x000D_ part; part; is constant decreases in
How does the angle of descent change in the first and in decreases in increases in in the the second.
the second part of the descent?_x000D_ the second. the second. second.
Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore
compressibility effects.
1985 32 0 0 1 0
 Which statement with respect to the step climb is Executing a A step climb A step climb A step climb is
correct? desired step must be is executed executed in
climb at high executed because principle
altitude can immediately ATC desires when, just
be limited by after the a higher after leveling
buffet onset aeroplane altitude. off, the 1.3g
at g-loads has altitude is
larger than exceeded reached.
1. the optimum
altitude.

1986 32 1 0 0 0
Given that:_x000D_ V2min<= VMCG<=VE 1.05 1.05 VMCG<
VEF= Critical engine failure speed _x000D_ VEF<= VMU F < V1 VMCA<= VEF<= VR
VMCG= Ground minimum control speed_x000D_ VEF<= V1
VMCA= Air minimum control speed _x000D_
VMU= Minimum unstick speed_x000D_
V1= Take-off decision speed_x000D_
VR= Rotation speed_x000D_
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed_x000D_
The correct formula is:

1987 32 0 1 0 0
The determination of the maximum mass on brake 67 700 kg / 69 000 kg / 72 200 kg / 5 69 700 kg / 25
release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° 15 deg 15 deg deg deg
and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following
values, with wind:_x000D_
Flap angle: 5° 15°
25°_x000D_
Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71
500_x000D_
2nd segment slope limitation: 72 200 69 000 61
800_x000D_
Wind correction:_x000D_
Head wind:+120kg / kt_x000D_
Tail wind: -360kg / kt_x000D_
Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the
maximum mass on brake release and corresponding
flap angle will be:

1988 32 1 0 0 0
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing increases increases decreases remains
altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and and the TAS but TAS slightly unchanged but
configuraton the power required increases by remains because of the TAS
the same constant. the lower air increases.
percentage. density.

1989 32 1 0 0 0
The speed range between low speed buffet and high narrows with decreases is only increases with
speed buffet increasing with limiting at increasing
mass and increasing low altitudes. mass.
increasing mass and is
altitude. independent
of altitude.

1990 32 1 0 0 0
For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing 2 070 m. 1565 m. 1800 m. 2609 m.
distance for wet runways when the landing distance
available at an aerodrome is 3000 m?
1991 32 0 1 0 0
 Which of the following combinations basically has an Configuratio Mass and Altitude and Configuration
effect on the angle of descent in a glide?_x000D_ n and angle altitude. configuration and mass.
(Ignore compressibility effects.) of attack. .
1992 32 1 0 0 0
Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset The value of The value of The values The value of
Boundary Chart? the critical the Mach of the Mach maximum
Mach number at number at operating
number at which low which low Mach number
various speed and speed and (MMO) at
masses and shockstall Mach buffet various
altitudes. occur at occur at masses and
various various power
weights and masses and settings.
altitudes. altitudes.

1993 32 0 0 1 0
What is the effect of a head wind component, compared Maximum Maximum Maximum Maximum
to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the range speed range speed range speed range speed
speed for maximum climb angle respectively? decreases increases increases decreases and
and and and maximum
maximum maximum maximum climb angle
climb angle climb angle climb angle speed
speed speed speed stays increases.
decreases. increases. constant.

1994 32 0 0 1 0
The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is lower than is the same is always is always
is a minimum the minimum as the lower than higher than
drag speed minimum the minimum the minimum
in the climb drag speed. drag speed. drag speed.
and higher
than the
minimum
drag speed
in the
descent.

1995 32 0 0 1 0
Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in Vs, Maximum Vs, Vx, Maximum
the performance diagram is correct? Maximum endurance Maximum endurance
range speed, range speed speed, Long
speed, Vx Maximum range speed,
range Maximum
speed, Vx range speed

1996 32 0 0 1 0
The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a the point the lowest at stalling on the "back
minimum is where a point of the speed (VS). side" of the
tangent from drag curve. drag curve.
the origin
touches the
drag curve.

1997 32 1 0 0 0
The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of minimum minimum maximum maximum
a jet aeroplane, respectively, is the point for specific drag. specific endurance.
range. range.
1998 32 0 1 0 0
 The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit improves the increases improves the decreases the
maximum the stalling longitudinal maximum
range. speed. stabiity. range.
1999 32 1 0 0 0
The Density Altitude is used to is used to is equal to is used to
calculate the determine the pressure establish
FL above the altitude. minimum
the aeroplane clearance of
Transition performance 2.000 feet
Altitude. . over
mountains.
2000 32 0 1 0 0
Which of the following combinations adversely affects High Low High Low
take-off and initial climb performance ? temperature temperature temperature temperature
and high and high and low and low
relative relative relative relative
humidity humidity humidity humidity
2001 32 1 0 0 0
What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off has no effect decreases decreases increases the
speeds? The slope on the take- the take-off the TAS for IAS for take-
off speed speed V1. take-off. off.
V1.
2002 32 0 1 0 0
A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific 14 kg/NM. 11.7 kg/NM. 10.7 kg/NM. 8.17 kg/NM.
fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and
per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage
of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same flying conditions,
the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with
a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of
thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:

2003 32 0 0 0 1
Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft decreases increases affects increases the
limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain the induced the power neither drag induced drag.
unchanged) drag and required. nor power
reduces the required.
power
required.
2004 32 1 0 0 0
With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be 1.1 Vs The highest The highest 1.2 Vs
flown at approximately: CL/CD ratio. CL/CD²
ratio.
2005 32 0 1 0 0
A higher outside air temperature increases does not reduces the reduces the
the angle of have any angle of angle and the
climb but noticeable climb but rate of climb.
decreases effect on increases
the rate of climb the rate of
climb. performance climb.
.
2006 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following provides maximum obstacle 1.2Vs. The speed The speed, The speed for
clearance during climb? for at which the maximum
maximum flaps may be climb angle
rate of climb. selected one Vx.
position
further UP.

2007 32 0 0 0 1
 What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant The "1.3G" The lift The TAS IAS stays
Mach number? altitude is coefficient continues to constant so
exceeded, increases. increase, there will be
so Mach which may no problems.
buffet will lead to
start structural
immediately. problems.

2008 32 0 1 0 0
The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in : The The The The maximum
maximum maximum maximum range for a jet
endurance angle of range for a aeroplane.
for a climb for a propeller
propeller propeller driven
driven driven aeroplane.
aeroplane. aeroplane.
2009 32 0 0 1 0
For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is Longest Minimum Minimum Minimum fuel
the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed' ? flight drag. specific fuel flow.
duration. consumption
.

2010 32 0 0 1 0
If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a A better A better long A higher A lower cruise
given mass which of the following will occur? maximum range. cruise mach mach number.
range. number.
2011 32 0 0 1 0
Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet Maximum Maximum Vs, Vs, maximum
aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds) endurance endurance maximum range speed,
speed, speed, long angle climb maximum
maximum range speed, angle climb
range speed, maximum speed.
speed, maximum range
maximum range speed.
angle of speed.
climb speed.

2012 32 0 0 1 0
What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during The drag The drag The drag The drag
the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is remains increases decreases. increases
maintained?_x000D_ almost considerably initially and
(Assume a constant mass.) constant. . decreases
thereafter.
2013 32 1 0 0 0
How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary The lift Only at low The lift The lift
with altitude?_x000D_ coefficient speeds the coefficient is coefficient
(No compressibility effects.) increases lift independant decreases
with coefficient of altitude. with increasing
increasing decreases altitude.
altitude. with
increasing
altitude.
2014 32 0 0 1 0
A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is 7.86%. 12.86%. 1.286%. 27%.
established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-
to-drag ratio is 14._x000D_
Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newtons. The
gradient of climb is:_x000D_
(given: g= 10 m/s²)
2015 32 0 1 0 0
 The maximum horizontal speed occurs when: The thrust is The thrust The The thrust is
equal to does not maximum equal to the
minimum increase thrust is maximum
drag. further with equal to the drag.
increasing total drag.
speed.
2016 32 0 0 1 0
A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine giving the giving the for long- of greatest lift-
inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In lowest Cl/Cd highest range to-drag ratio.
order to allow the greatest clearance height, the ratio. Cd/Cl ratio. cruise.
appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
2017 32 0 0 0 1
The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches is the is the point is the point is the point
the power required curve maximum where the where Drag where the Lift
drag speed. Lift to Drag coefficient is to Drag ratio is
ratio is a a minimum. a minimum.
maximum.

2018 32 0 1 0 0
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other an increased an increased a reduced a reduced
things, the following consequences on landing landing landing landing landing
performance: distance and distance and distance and distance and
degraded improved degraded go improved go-
go-around go-around around around
performance performance performance performance

2019 32 0 0 0 1
A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other a reduced an increased a reduced an increased
things, the following consequences on take-off take-off take-off take-off take-off
performance: distance and distance and distance and distance and
improved improved degraded degraded
initial climb initial climb initial climb initial climb
performance performance performance performance

2020 32 0 0 0 1
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other an increases an increased a reduced a reduced
things, the following consequences on take-off take-off take-off take-off take-off
performance: distance and distance and distance and distance and
degraded improved degraded improved
initial climb initial climb initial climb initial climb
performance performance performance performance

2021 32 0 0 0 1
The 'maximum tyre speed' limits: V1 in kt VLOF in V1 in kt TAS. VR, or VMU if
ground terms of this is lower
speed. ground than VR.
speed.
2022 32 0 1 0 0
The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with aircraft mass TAS glide angle IAS increases.
constant Mach number, mainly because the : decreases. decreases. increases.
2023 32 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 032-2211A)_x000D_ Figure b Figure c Figure a Figure d
Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the
movement of the power required curve with increasing
altitude .(H1 < H2)
2024 32 0 0 0 1
 In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) T + W sin T - W sin T-D=W T+D=-W
equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given GAMMA = D GAMMA = D sin GAMMA sin GAMMA
by:_x000D_
(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
2025 32 1 0 0 0
Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a Increasing Increasing Lowering Keeping same
change in the landing reference speed (VREF): VREF and VREF VREF VREF
making a because wind
steeper glide has no
path to avoid influence on
the use of IAS.
spoilers.

2026 32 0 1 0 0
A headwind component increasing with altitude, as has no effect does not improves decreases
compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is on rate of have any angle and angle and rate
constant) climb. effect on the rate of climb. of climb.
angle of
flight path
during climb.

2027 32 1 0 0 0
With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the An An An An aeroplane
following statements is correct ? aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane always flies
always flies flies most of sometimes below the
at the the time flies above optimum
optimum above the or below the altitude,
altitude optimum optimum because Mach
because this altitude altitude buffet might
is because this because occur.
economicall yields the optimum
y seen as most altitude
the most economic increases
attractive result. continuously
altitude. during flight.

2028 32 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 032-4744A)_x000D_ b c d a
Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS)
for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the
correct curves for "flaps down" compared to "clean"
configuration?
2029 32 0 0 0 1
A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number IAS IAS IAS IAS increases
below the tropopause. Which of the following decreases increases decreases and TAS
statements is correct? and TAS and TAS and TAS increases.
increases. decreases. decreases.
2030 32 0 0 1 0
With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum the the minimum the critical the minimum
time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding maximum drag. Mach angle of
to: lift. number. descent.
2031 32 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 032-2929A)_x000D_ maximum critical angle maximum maximum
Consider the graphic representation of the power thrust. of attack. specific endurance.
required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston range.
engined aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing
the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A)
determines the speed of:
2032 32 0 0 1 0
For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum that which that which 1.4 times the that which
range is : givesthe givesthe stall speed gives the
minimum maximun in clean maximum lift
value of value of lift configuration to drag ratio.
drag. .

2033 32 0 0 0 1
 Complete the following statement regarding the take-off (i) V2 (ii) 3 (i) V1 (ii) 1 (i) V1 (ii) 2 (i) V1 (ii) 2
performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. seconds (iii) second (iii) seconds (iii) seconds (iii)
Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for Take-off Accelerate - Take-off Accelerate -
a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft distance stop distance stop distance
must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the available. distance available. available.
(iii) ......... available.

2034 32 0 0 0 1
What is the effect of increased mass on the There is no The gliding The lift/drag The speed for
performance of a gliding aeroplane? effect. angle ratio best angle of
decreases. decreases. descent
increases.

2035 32 0 0 0 1
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed increase the have no decrease increase the
limited, downhill slope would required effect on the the maximum
take-off maximum maximum mass for take-
distance. mass for mass for off.
take-off. take-off.

2036 32 0 1 0 0
The first segment of the take-off flight path ends at 35 ft at at at reaching
above the completion completion V2.
runway. of gear of flap
retraction. retraction.
2037 32 0 1 0 0
The take-off mass could be limited by the take-off the take-off the the climb
distance distance maximum gradient with
available available brake one engine
(TODA) only. (TODA), the energy only. inoperative
maximum only.
brake
energy and
the climb
gradient with
one engine
inoperative.

2038 32 0 1 0 0
Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of Increase of Decrease of Headwind. Tailwind.
ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the aircraft aircraft
appropriate minimum glide angle speed? mass. mass.
2039 32 0 0 0 1
What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of The speed is The The altitude The elevator
the power curve'? unstable. aeroplane cannot be must be pulled
will not stall. maintained. to lower the
nose.

2040 32 1 0 0 0
Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane maximum holding, maximum maximum
are basically identical?_x000D_ climb angle, maximum drag, range,
The speeds for: minimum climb angle maximum minimum drag
glide angle and endurance and minimum
and minimum and glide angle.
maximum glide angle. maximum
range. climb angle.
2041 32 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 032-4743A or Yes, the It does not No, the Performance
Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2)_x000D_ chart has matter which performance will be better
With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will been made take-off will be worse than in the
the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take- for this technique is than in the chart.
off where the brakes are released before take-off power situation. being used. chart.
is set?

2042 32 0 0 1 0
In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited 15 degrees 10 degrees 20 degrees 25 degrees up
and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank up to height up to a up to a to a height of
angle should not exceed of 400 ft. height of height of 400 ft.
400 ft. 400 ft.
2043 32 1 0 0 0
You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What During the No The rate of The rate of
do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = acceleration noticeable climb climb
ISA) ? to the Mach effect since increases decreases
number .78 the true since the since climb
the rate of airspeed at constant performance
climb is 300 kt IAS IAS-climb is at a constant
approximatel and .78 replaced by Mach number
y zero. Mach are the constant is grossly
the same (at Mach-climb. reduced as
ISA compared to
temperature constant IAS.
TAS=460 kt)

2044 32 0 0 1 0
If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to lower. higher. unchanged. only affected
290/.74 the new crossover altitude is by the
aeroplane
gross mass.

2045 32 1 0 0 0
The optimum cruise altitude is the pressure the pressure the pressure the pressure
altitude at altitude at altitude up to altitude at
which the which the which a which the
best specific fuel flow is a cabin speed for high
range can maximum. altitude of speed buffet
be achieved. 8000 ft can as TAS is a
be maximum.
maintained.

2046 32 1 0 0 0
The optimum cruise altitude increases if the if the if the if the
temperature tailwind aeroplane aeroplane
(OAT) is component mass is mass is
increased. is increased. decreased.
decreased.
2047 32 0 0 0 1
Below the optimum cruise altitude the TAS for the Mach the Mach the IAS for
long range number for number for long range
cruise long range long range cruise
increases cruise cruise increases
continuously increases decreases continuously
with continuously continuously with
decreasing with with decreasing
altitude. decreasing decreasing altitude.
altitude. altitude.

2048 32 0 0 1 0
 Under which condition should you fly considerably lower If at the If at the If the If the
(4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ? lower lower maximum temperature is
altitude altitude altitude is lower at the
either more either below the low altitude
headwind or considerably optimum (high altitude
less tailwind less altitude. inversion).
can be headwind or
expected. considerably
more
tailwind can
be expected.

2049 32 0 1 0 0
Which of the following is a reason to operate an In order to The aircraft In order to It is efficient to
aeroplane at 'long range speed'? achieve can be prevent loss fly slightly
speed operated of speed faster than
stability. close to the stability and with maximum
buffet onset tuck-under. range speed.
speed.

2050 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following factors leads to the maximum High mass. Headwind. Tailwind. Low mass.
2051 32 flight time of a glide? 0 0 0 1
The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by selecting a selecting a selecting a a lower flap
lower V1. lower V2. lower VR. setting for
take-off and
selecting a
higher V2.
2052 32 0 0 0 1
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used the runway it is dark. the runway obstacles are
when: is is wet. present close
contaminate to the end of
d. the runway.

2053 32 1 0 0 0
When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway decreases / increases / remains decreases /
the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb remains increases. constant / decreases.
performance: constant. remains
constant.
2054 32 1 0 0 0
The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes 43% 92% 67% 70%
at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated
landing distance plus
2055 32 0 1 0 0
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine A tailwind A tailwind A tailwind A headwind
thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? component component component component
increases decreases increases increases the
fuel and time the ground the ground ground
to descent. distance. distance. distance.

2056 32 0 0 1 0
 If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance the fuel the drift fuel jettisoning
altitude during a drift down procedure recommend jettisoning down should should be
ed drift down should be be flown with started at the
speed started when flaps in the beginning of
should be the obstacle approach drift down.
disregarded clearance configuration
and it should altitude is .
be flown at reached.
the stall
speed plus
10 kt.

2057 32 0 0 0 1
'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied after cabin to conduct to conduct a after engine
depressuriza an visual failure if the
tion. instrument approach if aeroplane is
approach at VASI is above the one
the available. engine out
alternate. maximum
altitude.
2058 32 0 0 0 1
The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if: The take-off The actual The actual The actual
distance take-off take-off take-off mass
available is mass (TOM) mass (TOM) (TOM) is lower
lower than including a is greater than the field
the take-off margin is than the length limited
distance greater than climb limited TOM.
required one the TOM.
engine out performance
at V1. limited TOM.

2059 32 0 0 0 1
The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at 67% 92% 43% 70%
the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated
landing distance plus
2060 32 0 1 0 0
Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the VY and VX VY and VX VY and VX VX is
gradient and the rate of climb whereas are not are are increased and
affected by a decreased. increased. VY is
higher gross decreased.
mass.

2061 32 0 0 1 0
The maximum mass for landing could be limited by the climb the climb the climb the climb
requirement requirement requirement requirements
s with one s with all s with all with one
engine engines in engines in engine
inoperative the the landing inoperative in
in the approach configuration the approach
landing configuration but with gear configuration.
configuration . up.
.

2062 32 0 0 0 1
An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for increases / decreases / increases / increases /
minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept increases / constant / increases / constant /
constant, what is the effect of a lower mass?_x000D_ decreases decreases constant increases
_x000D_
Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio

2063 32 1 0 0 0
 An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding remains the may decreases. increases.
speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide same. increase or
distance: decrease
depending
on the
aeroplane.
2064 32 0 0 1 0
The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than: 1.05VLOF. 1.3V1. 1.2Vs. 1.2VMCG.
2065 32 0 0 1 0
Which of the following speeds can be limited by the Lift-off IAS. Lift-off TAS. Lift-off EAS. Lift-off
'maximum tyre speed'? groundspeed.
2066 32 0 0 0 1
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used windshear is it is dark. the runway the runway is
when: reported on is dry. wet.
the take-off
path.
2067 32 1 0 0 0
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used the runway the OAT is anti skid is it is dark.
2068 32 when: is wet. ISA +10°C not usable. 0 0 1 0
After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain Emergency ETOPS. Long Range Drift Down
its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should Descent Cruise Procedure.
be applied? Procedure. Descent.
2069 32 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statements is correct? VR is the VR should VR should VR is the
speed at not be not be speed at
which the higher than higher than which, during
pilot should V1. 1.05 VMCG. rotation, the
start to nose wheel
rotate the comes off the
aeroplane. runway.

2070 32 1 0 0 0
The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of true rate of climb the increase the increase of
airspeed to to true of altitude to altitude to
rate of climb. airspeed. horizontal air distance over
distance ground
expressed expressed as
as a a percentage.
percentage.

2071 32 0 0 1 0
The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass decreases increases increases is independent
with with with of altitude.
increasing increasing increasing
altitude altitude altitude due
since the since the to the higher
thrust drag true
available decreases airspeed.
decreases due to the
due to the lower air
lower air density.
density.

2072 32 1 0 0 0
As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb VX is VX is always VY is always VX is always
sometimes above VY. above VMO. below VY.
below and
sometimes
above VY
depending
on altitude.
2073 32 0 0 0 1
 Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting, improves the improves the decreases decreases the
climb rate of climb rate of climb rate of climb
gradient if if the and increses and the angle
the airspeed airspeed is angle of of climb.
is below VX. below VY. climb.

2074 32 0 0 0 1
If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for the the the the aeroplane
level flight aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane decelerates if
accelerates descends if decelerates the altitude is
if the altitude the airspeed if it is in the maintained.
is is region of
maintained. maintained. reversed
command.
2075 32 1 0 0 0
The rate of climb is angle of is the is is the downhill
climb times horizontal approximatel component of
true component y climb the true
airspeed. of the true gradient airspeed.
airspeed. times true
airspeed
divided by
100.
2076 32 0 0 1 0
Which of the equations below expresses approximately Climb Climb Climb Cimb Gradient
the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small Gradient = Gradient = Gradient = = (Lift/Weight)
climb angles? ((Thrust - ((Thrust + ((Thrust - x 100
Drag)/Weigh Drag)/Lift) x Mass)/Lift) x
t) x 100 100 100
2077 32 1 0 0 0
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine The higher The higher The higher The mass of
thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? the gross the gross the average an aeroplane
mass the mass the temperature does not have
greater is lower is the (OAT) the any effect on
the speed speed for lower is the the speed for
for descent. descent. speed for descent.
descent.

2078 32 1 0 0 0
In unaccelerated climb lift equals thrust equals thrust equals lift is greater
weight plus drag plus drag plus than the gross
the vertical the uphill the downhill weight.
component component component
of the drag. of the gross of the gross
weight in the weight in the
flight path flight path
direction. direction.

2079 32 0 0 1 0
With one or two engines inoperative the best specific reduced. improved. not affected. first improved
range at high altitudes is and later
reduced.
2080 32 1 0 0 0
Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway V1 is V1 remains The field The usable
in take-off calculation is correct? increased. constant. length length of the
limited take- clearway is not
off mass will limited.
increase.

2081 32 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following statements, concerning the It should be It cannot be It should be It should not
obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A calculated in lower than determined be corrected
aeroplane, is correct? such a way the on the basis for 30° bank
that there is correspondi of a 35 ft turns in the
a margin of ng climb obstacle take-off path.
50 ft with limited take- clearance
respect to off mass. with the
the "net take respect to
off flight the "net
path". take-off flight
path".

2082 32 0 0 1 0
Concerning the landing gear, which of the following Nitrogen Rate of Tyre Rate of
factors would limit the take-off mass? pressure in rotation of pressure rotation of the
the strut and the wheel at and brake wheel and tyre
brake lift off and temperature. pressure.
temperature. brake
energy.
2083 32 0 1 0 0
On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases The specific The speed The specific The specific
continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. range and must be range range
The result is: the optimum increased to increases decreases and
altitude compensate and the the optimum
increases. the lower optimum altitude
mass. altitude increases.
decreases.

2084 32 1 0 0 0
 INSTRUMENTATION - AEROPLANES
56 domande 1hr 1\2

The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the allows the shows the moves when shows the
EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicators: display of the vibration the limit value
parameter level of the correspondin not to be
value to be engine under g value is exceeded.
adopted consideration exceeded
during take- . and remains
off. positioned at
the maximum
value that
has been
reached.

1117 22 0 0 1 0
A landing will be considered to be performed in the 3, 4 and 5. 1 and 4. 2, 3 and 5. 1 and 2.
SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode when:_x000D_
1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam
until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically._x000D_
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the
decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically._x000D_
3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam
until the flare._x000D_
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height
is approximately 30 ft._x000D_
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed
automatically._x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1118 22 0 0 0 1
When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch 1 and 2. 1, 2 and 3. 3. 1 and 3.
channel automatic trim is to:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- cancel the hinge moment of the elevator_x000D_
2- ease as much as possible the load of the servo-
actuator _x000D_
3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during
the autopilot disengagement _x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1119 22 0 1 0 0
Among the following functions of an autopilot, those 1, 3, 4 and 5. 3, 4 and 5. 1, 2, and 6. 1, 2, 3 and
related to the airplane guidance are:_x000D_ 6.
_x000D_
1- pitch attitude holding_x000D_
2- horizontal wing holding_x000D_
3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding_x000D_
4- altitude holding_x000D_
5- VOR axis holding_x000D_
6- yaw damping_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1120 22 0 1 0 0
 Among the following functions of an autopilot, those 2, 4, and 5. 1, 2 and 5. 1, 2, 3 and 6. 3, 4, 5 and
related to the airplane stabilization are:_x000D_ 6.
_x000D_
1- pitch attitude holding_x000D_
2- horizontal wing holding_x000D_
3- displayed heading or inertial track holding_x000D_
4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding_x000D_
5- yaw damping_x000D_
6- VOR axis holding_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1121 22 0 1 0 0
A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain read a little read a little freeze at react like
hole with the static port open causes the airspeed high. low. zero. an
indicator to : altimeter.
1122 22 0 0 0 1
A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet airspeed airspeed altimeter vertical
will affect the following instrument (s) : indicator, indicator only. speed
altimeter and only. indicator
vertical only.
speed
indicator.
1123 22 0 1 0 0
The altimeter is fed by : differential static dynamic total
1124 22 pressure pressure pressure pressure 0 1 0 0
The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by : differential static dynamic total
1125 22 pressure pressure pressure pressure 0 1 0 0
The float type fuel gauges provide information on: mass whose mass whose volume volume
indication indication is whose whose
varies with independent indication indication
the of the varies with is
temperature temperature the independe
of the fuel. of the fuel. temperature nt of the
of the fuel. temperatur
e of the
fuel.

1126 22 0 0 1 0
Torque can be determined by measuring the : oil pressure phase frequency of quantity of
at the fixed difference an impulse light
crown of an between 2 tachometer passing
epicycloidal impulse attached to a through a
reducer of tachometers transmission rack-wheel
the main attached to a shaft. attached
engine transmission to a
gearbox. shaft. transmissi
on shaft.

1127 22 1 0 0 0
A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display a blue or a red full a blue or an orange
device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance white full square. white empty full circle.
System) by : lozenge. lozenge.
1128 22 0 0 1 0
A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the blue or white red full circle. red full blue or
display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision empty square. white full
Avoidance System) by a : lozenge. lozenge.
1129 22 0 0 1 0
An "intruding traffic advisory" is represented on the a red full a yellow full a blue or a blue or
display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision square. circle. white empty white full
Avoidance System) by displaying : lozenge. lozenge.
1130 22 0 1 0 0
 On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the that advises asking the asking the asking the
preventive "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution the pilot to pilot to pilot to pilot to
advisory": avoid certain modify modify the modify the
deviations effectively heading of speed of
from the the vertical his aircraft. his
current speed of his aircraft.
vertical rate aircraft.
but does not
require any
change to be
made to that
rate.

1131 22 1 0 0 0
On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a asking the which does asking the asking the
corrective "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution pilot to not require pilot to pilot to
advisory": modify any action modify the modify the
effectively from the pilot heading of speed of
the vertical but on the his aircraft. his
speed of his contrary asks aircraft.
aircraft. him not to
modify his
current
vertical
speed rate.

1132 22 1 0 0 0
When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising "fail survival" "fail safe" "fail soft" or "fail
and approach, the system is considered: or without with failure with passive"
failure effect effect without minimized or without
with function disconnectio failure effect. failure
always n. effect but
ensured. with
disconnect
ion.

1133 22 0 0 1 0
The Altitude Select System: Disengages Is Illuminates a Engages
autopilot annunciated light when autopilot
Auto Trim at by light selected Auto Trim
selected and/or sound altitude is at selected
altitude when attained altitude
airplane is
approaching
selected
altitude

1134 22 0 1 0 0
The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to : tell the pilot trim throttles control help Auto
when to obtain elevator trim Pilot
elevator smooth tab in order compensa
trimming is engine power to relieve te for
required variation elevator load crosswind
influence

1135 22 0 0 1 0
The purpose of Auto Throttle is: automatic to deactivate to to
shut down of manual synchronize maintain
one engine throttles and engines to constant
at too high transfer avoid engine
temperature engine "yawing" power or
control to airplane
Auto Pilot speed

1136 22 0 0 0 1
 The capacity fuel gauges provide information: on mass on mass which is which
whose whose independent varies with
indication is indication of the the
independent varies with temperature temperatur
of the the of the fuel. e of the
temperature temperature fuel.
of the fuel. of the fuel.

1137 22 1 0 0 0
The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro 1C, 2B, 3A 1B, 2A, 3C 1A, 2B, 3C 1B, 2C, 3A
assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros,_x000D_
-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)_x000D_
-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)_x000D_
-one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)_x000D_
The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:

1138 22 0 0 0 1
An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and for IFR or on multipilot for VFR and on
heading mode is compulsory: night flights airplanes. IFR flights airplanes
with only one with only one over 5.7 t.
pilot. pilot.

1139 22 1 0 0 0
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked gradually under-read indicate a continue
during a descent the instrument will: indicate zero height to display
equivalent to the
the setting on reading at
the millibar which the
subscale blockage
occured

1140 22 0 0 0 1
The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted a sub-scale an induction more combinatio
altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure logarithmic pick-off effective n of
altimeter is the use of: function device temperature counters/p
compensatin ointers
g leaf springs

1141 22 0 1 0 0
If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked continue to under-read over-read gradually
during a climb, the instrument will: indicate the by an amount return to
reading at equivalent to zero
which the the reading
blockage at the time
occured that the
instrument
became
blocked

1142 22 1 0 0 0
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) read zero continue to under-read over-read
becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: indicate the
speed
applicable to
that at the
time of the
blockage

1143 22 0 0 0 1
When climbing at a constant Mach number below the decrease increase at a remain increase
tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed linear rate constant at an
(CAS) will: exponenti
al rate
1144 22 1 0 0 0
For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level lower True lower True higher True higher
flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result in a: Airspeed Airspeed Airspeed True
(TAS) due to (TAS) due to (TAS) due to Airspeed
a decrease in an increase a decrease in (TAS) due
air density in air density air density to an
increase in
air density

1145 22 0 1 0 0
 When descending through an isothermal layer at a decrease increase at a remain increase
constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed linear rate constant at an
(TAS) will: exponenti
al rate
1146 22 1 0 0 0
A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non- under-read. over-read. over-read in under-
pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause a climb and read in a
it to: under-read in climb and
a descent. over-read
in a
descent.
1147 22 1 0 0 0
The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure the total the static the total the
sensors. The pitot tube directly supplies: pressure pressure pressure and dynamic
the static pressure
pressure

1148 22 1 0 0 0
An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle decreases. remains decreases if increases.
maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total constant. the static
temperature remains constant, the Mach number : temperature
is lower than
the standard
temperature.

1149 22 0 0 0 1
The indications on a directional gyroscope or 2,3,5. 1,2,3,5. 3,4,5. 1,2,4,5.
gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- rotation of Earth._x000D_
2- aeroplane motion on Earth._x000D_
3- lateral and transversal aeroplane bank
angles._x000D_
4- north change._x000D_
5- mechanical defects._x000D_
_x000D_
Chose the combination with true statements only:
1150 22 0 1 0 0
For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the depends only 0°/hour +5°/hour -5°/hour
005°S and 005°N parallels, the precession error of the on the
directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to: aircraft's
ground
speed
1151 22 0 1 0 0
While inertial platform system is operating on board an without with damping with damping without
aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following damping and and a period and a period damping
characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a a period of of 84 of about 84 and a
pendulous system: about 84 seconds minutes. period of
seconds about 84
minutes
1152 22 0 0 1 0
In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required to Position the Check Determine Re-erect
insert the local geographical coordinates. This is computing operation of magnetic or laser
necessary to: trihedron with laser gyros. true heading. gyros.
reference to
earth.

1153 22 1 0 0 0
An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the piloting from piloting and piloting only. navigation.
functions of: take-off to guidance of
landing an aircraft in
without any both the
action from horizontal
the human and vertical
pilot. planes.

1154 22 0 1 0 0
 An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with deviates to deviates to deviates to disappear
crosshair trend bars), heading 270°, in HDG mode its right stop the right and the right and s, the new
(heading hold). A new heading, of 360°, is selected the as long as will be remains in heading
vertical trend bar : the centred as that position selection
aeroplane is soon as you until the has
more than roll the aircraft has deactivate
10° off the aircraft to the reached d the HDG
new selected bank angle heading mode.
heading. calculated by 360°.
the flight
director.

1155 22 0 1 0 0
Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. flashing red amber red green
Those requiring action but not immediately, are signalled
by the colour:
1156 22 0 1 0 0
Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors: in North due to cross- due to of
seeking, due wind gusts Schüler type parallax,
to bank angle particularly oscillations due to
and magnetic on westerly oscillation
heading or easterly s of the
headings compass
rose

1157 22 1 0 0 0
On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed control of selection of on a twin- control of
propeller, the RPM indicator enables :_x000D_ power. engine RPM. engine the
aeroplane, propeller
automatic regulator
engine and the
synchronisati display of
on. propeller
RPM.

1158 22 0 0 0 1
A stall warning system is based on a measure of : groundspeed aerodynamic airspeed. attitude.
. incidence.
1159 22 0 1 0 0
When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the relieve the react to synchronize relieve the
automatic trim is to: pressure on altitude the A.P. servo
the control changes in longitudinal motor and
column and Altitude Hold loop return the
return, the mode aircraft in-
aircraft in- trim at A.P.
trim at A.P. disconnect
disconnect

1160 22 0 0 0 1
The command functions of an autopilot include, among 2-3-4 1-2-5 1-2-3-5 3-5
others, the holding of :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- vertical speed_x000D_
2- altitude_x000D_
3- attitude_x000D_
4- bank_x000D_
5- heading_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct
statements is :

1161 22 0 1 0 0
Machmeter readings are subject to: temperature setting error. position density
error. pressure error.
error
1162 22 0 0 1 0
Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only temperature pressure. density. temperatur
depends on : and the e.
pressure.
1163 22 0 0 0 1
 The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 3, 4, 5, 6
releases a warning in the following cases :_x000D_ 6
_x000D_
1- excessive rate of descent_x000D_
2- excessive ground proximity rate_x000D_
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around_x000D_
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration_x000D_
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath_x000D_
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1164 22 1 0 0 0
In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are ND TCC (Thrust throttles PFD
engaged, the crew will check the : (Navigation Control position. (Primary
Display). Computer). Flight
Display)
1165 22 0 0 0 1
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit 1,2,3,4,5,6 1 1,3,4,5 1,2,4,5,6
Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft
having been granted the airworthiness certificate after
1st April 1998 will record:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the radiotelephonic communications transmitted or
received by the cockpit crew_x000D_
2- the audio environment of the cockpit_x000D_
3- the cabin attendants communications in the cabin via
the interphone_x000D_
4- the flight crew members communications in the
cockpit via the interphone_x000D_
5- the flight crew members communications in the
cockpit via the public address system_x000D_
6- the audio signals identifiying the navigation or
approach aids_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1166 22 0 0 0 1
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Automatically From the first When the Automatic
Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft, when the radio contact pilot selects ally prior
having been granted an airworthiness certificate after wheels leave with Air the "CVR: to the
1st April 1998, shall start recording : the ground Traffic ON" during aircraft
until the Control until engine start moving
moment radio until the pilot under its
when the shutdown selects the own power
wheels touch after the "CVR: OFF" until flight
the ground flight. during the completion
again. engine shut when the
down. aircraft is
no longer
able to
move
under its
own
power.

1167 22 0 0 0 1
The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3 1, 2
provides :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory)_x000D_
2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution
Advisory)_x000D_
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)_x000D_
4- ground proximity warning_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1168 22 0 0 1 0
 The aim of the flight director is to provide information to allowing him allowing him allowing him about his
the pilot: to return to a to return to a to return to a position
desired path desired path desired path with
according to according to in an optimal regard to a
a 45° a 30° way. radioelectr
intercept intercept ic axis.
angle. angle.

1169 22 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 022-9768A)_x000D_ located to the located to the experiencing experienci
An aircraft is under guidance mode following a VOR leftside of the rightside of rightside ng a
radial. From the ADI and HSI information represented in selected the selected wind. leftside
the enclosed annex, it is possible to deduce that the radial. radial. wind.
aircraft is :

1170 22 0 0 0 1
The correction of the control surface deflection made by 1,2. 1, 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3. 2, 3, 4.
the automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilize the
longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as the
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- difference between the reference attitude and the
instantaneous attitude is high._x000D_
2- rate of change of the difference between the
reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is
high._x000D_
3- temperature is low._x000D_
4- pressure altitude is high._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1171 22 1 0 0 0
The correction of the control surface deflection made by 1, 2, 3 and 4. 1 and 2. 3 and 4. 1, 2 and 3.
the auto-pilot calculator in order to keep a given altitude
will be all the more significant when the :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- difference between the attitude necessary to keep the
given or reference altitude and the instantaneous
attitude is high._x000D_
2 - variation speed of the difference between the attitude
necessary to maintain the altitude and the instantaneous
attitude is high._x000D_
3 - difference between the altitude of reference and the
instantaneous altitude is high._x000D_
4 - variation speed of the difference between the
reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude is
high._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1172 22 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 022-9771A)_x000D_ 781.85 hPa. 942.13 hPa. 1 013.25 644.41
The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard + 10" hPa. hPa.
atmosphere is:
1173 22 1 0 0 0
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a 30 ft to 5 000 the ground to 50 ft to 2 500 the ground
system working according to a height span ranging ft 500 ft ft to 1 000 ft
from :
1174 22 0 0 1 0
All the anemometers are calibrated according to: Bernouilli's St-Venant's Bernouilli's St-Venant'
limited formula limited formula
formula which formula which
which takes considers the which takes into
into account air as an considers the account
the air uncompressi air as an the air
compressibili ble fluid. uncompressi compressi
ty. ble fluid. bility.

1175 22 0 0 0 1
 In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best close to the on the close to the on the
efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the axis and with periphery axis and with periphery
mass : a low rotation and with a a high and with a
speed. high rotation rotation low
speed. speed. rotation
speed.

1176 22 0 1 0 0
The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard 644 kt. 332 kt. 661 kt. 1059 kt.
1177 22 atmosphere is: 0 0 1 0
In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the lower than equal to the independent higher
calibrated airspeed (CAS) is : the true true airspeed of the true than the
airspeed (TAS). airspeed true
(TAS). (TAS). airspeed
(TAS).
1178 22 0 1 0 0
The GPWS calculator receives the following signals 2,3,4,6 1,2,4,5 1,3,4,5,6 1,2,5,6
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - vertical speed_x000D_
2 - radio altimeter height_x000D_
3 - pressure altitude_x000D_
4 - glidepath deviation _x000D_
5 - gear and flaps position_x000D_
6 - angle of attack_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

1179 22 0 1 0 0
The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following 1,2,4,6,7 3,4,5,6 2,3,5,7 1,2,5,6,7
modes :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- excessive descent rate _x000D_
2- excessive rate of terrain closure_x000D_
3- excessive angle of attack_x000D_
4- too high descent attitude _x000D_
5- loss of altitude after take-off_x000D_
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration_x000D_
7- excessive glidepath deviation_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1180 22 0 0 0 1
The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is 50 ft to 5 000 50 ft to 2 500 0 ft to 2 500 0 ft to 5
active for a height range from: ft measured ft measured ft measured 000 ft
by the radio by the radio by the radio measured
altimeter. altimeter. altimeter. by the
radio
altimeter.
1181 22 0 1 0 0
For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic 1,2,4 2,3,4 1,3,4 1,2,3
heading, the flight director computer takes into
account:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- track deviation_x000D_
2- rate of track closure_x000D_
3- rate of change of track closure_x000D_
4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference
unit_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

1182 22 0 0 0 1
The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1 1, 2
provides :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- traffic information_x000D_
2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution
Advisory)_x000D_
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)_x000D_
4- ground proximity warning_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1183 22 0 0 1 0
 The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric 1, 2 and 3. 1. 2 and 3. 1 and 3.
signal varying with:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the angular position of a wind vane_x000D_
2- the deviation between the airplane flight attitude and
the path calculated by the inertial unit_x000D_
3- a probe differential pressure depending on the
variation of the angle of attack_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1184 22 0 0 0 1
In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a proportional of a fixed of a fixed proportion
bank attitude input : to the value equal value equal al to the
deviation to 27°. to 20°. aircraft
between the true
selected airspeed
heading and but not
the current exceeding
heading but a given
not value.
exceeding a
given value.

1185 22 1 0 0 0
In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 5 2, 3 1, 2
measured with :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- resistance thermometers_x000D_
2- thermocouple thermometers_x000D_
3- reactance thermometers_x000D_
4- capacitance thermometers_x000D_
5- mercury thermometers_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

1186 22 0 0 0 1
The QNH is by definition the value of the: altimeter atmospheric altimeter atmospher
setting so pressure at setting so ic
that the the level of that the pressure
needles the ground needles of at the sea
indicate zero overflown by the altimeter level of the
when the the aircraft. indicate the location
aircraft is on altitude of the for which it
ground at the location for is given.
location for which it is
which it is given.
provided.

1187 22 0 0 1 0
A synchroscope is used on aircraft to: reduce the reduce the achieve set several
vibration of rpm of each optimum engines to
each engine. engine. control of on- the same
board speed.
voltages.

1188 22 0 0 0 1
 A landing will be considered to be performed in the 1 and 2. 2, 3 and 5. 1 and 4. 3, 4 and 5.
AUTOMATIC mode when:_x000D_
1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam
until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically._x000D_
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the
decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically._x000D_
3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam
until the flare._x000D_
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height
is approximately 30 ft._x000D_
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed
automatically._x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1189 22 0 0 0 1
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a "traffic "traffic "traffic "traffic
transponder without altitude reporting capability, the advisory" and advisory", advisory" advisory"
TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a : horizontal vertical and only. and
"resolution horizontal vertical
advisory". "resolution "resolution
advisory". advisory".

1190 22 0 0 1 0
In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are "fail survival" "fail soft" or "fail passive" "fail hard"
used, the system is considered: or without with or without or with
failure effect minimized failure effect failure
with function failure effect. but with effect and
always disconnectio disconnect
ensured. n. ion.

1191 22 1 0 0 0
In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of "fail soft" with "fail passive" "fail survival" "fail hard"
the two autopilots, the system is considered: minimized or without or without or without
failure effect. failure effect failure effect failure
but with with function effect and
disconnectio always disconnect
n. ensured. ion.

1192 22 0 1 0 0
The flight director indicates the : optimum path path optimum
path at the permitting permitting instantane
moment it is reaching a reaching a ous path
entered to selected selected to reach
reach a radial in radial over a selected
selected minimum minimum radial.
radial. time. distance.
1193 22 0 0 0 1
The stall warning system receives information about 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 4
the :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- airplane angle of attack_x000D_
2- airplane speed_x000D_
3- airplane bank angle_x000D_
4- airplane configuration_x000D_
5- load factor on the airplane_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1194 22 0 0 0 1
 During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft autopilot glideslope autopilot Loc and
the: maintains a mode is maintains an Glideslope
vertical disconnected angle of modes are
speed and the attack disconnect
depending airplane depending ed and the
on the radio continues its on the radio airplane
altimeter descent until altimeter carries on
height. landing. height. its descent
until
landing.

1195 22 1 0 0 0
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) 1, 2, 4 1, 2 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4
computer receives information :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- about the pressure altitude through the mode S
transponder_x000D_
2- from the radio-altimeter_x000D_
3- specific to the airplane configuration_x000D_
4- from the inertial units_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1196 22 0 0 1 0
An autopilot is selected "ON" in mode "altitude hold," the aircraft will aircraft will mode altitude aircraft will
pilot alters the barometric pressure set on the sub-scale remain at the climb or hold will remain at
of his altimeter the: same descend in disengage the same
altitude, the the sense of altitude,
autopilot the change, the
takes its the autopilot autopilot
pressure takes its takes its
information pressure pressure
from the information informatio
altimeter from the n from the
corrected to altimeter static
standard source
pressure,
1013.25 hPa

1197 22 0 0 0 1
The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge an a forbidden a special a normal
corresponds to: exceptional operating operating operating
operating range. range. range.
range.
1198 22 0 0 1 0
On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are control panel upper strip of upper strip of upper strip
displayed on the: of the flight the PFD the ND of the
director only. (Primary (Navigation ECAM
Flight Display). (Electronic
Display). Centralize
d A/C
Managem
ent).

1199 22 0 1 0 0
All the last generation aircraft use flight control systems. management global 2-D global 3-D managem
The Flight Management System (FMS) is the most system Flight Flight ent system
advanced system ; it can be defined as a: optimized in Management Management optimized
the horizontal System System in the
plane vertical
plane

1200 22 0 0 1 0
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a "traffic "traffic "traffic "traffic
serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic advisory", advisory" and advisory" and advisory"
Collision Avoidance System) generates a : vertical and vertical horizontal only.
horizontal "resolution "resolution
"resolution advisory". advisory".
advisory".
1201 22 0 1 0 0
 The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a speed speed maximum maximum
moving red and white hatched pointer. This pointer indicated on indicated on speed in speed in
indicates the: the the VMO VMO
autothrottle autothrottle operation operation,
control box, control box versus versus
versus versus altitude temperatur
temperature altitude e

1202 22 0 0 1 0
An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The decreases. increases if remains increases.
autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the outside constant.
the total temperature decreases, the Mach number : temperature
is higher than
the standard
temperature,
decreases if
lower.

1203 22 0 0 1 0
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in +/-60 feet +/-75 feet +/-30 feet +/-70 feet
1204 22 feet from indicated must not exceed : 1 0 0 0
The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature average temperature temperatur
temperature) probe is the : within the temperature of the e of the
hottest within the exhaust carburator
cylinder, whole set of gases. to be
depending cylinders. monitored
on its when the
position in outside air
the engine temperatur
block. e is
between
-5°C and
10°C.

1205 22 1 0 0 0
A transport airplane has to be equipped with an altitude 2 1,3,4 1,5 3,4
warning device. This system will warn the crew about
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during both
climb and descent._x000D_
2 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during climb
only._x000D_
3 - the loss of altitude during take-off or missed
approach._x000D_
4 - a wrong landing configuration._x000D_
5 - a variation higher or lower than a preselected
altitude._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1206 22 0 0 1 0
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter height of the altitude of the height of the height of
the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true: aircraft with aircraft. lowest the aircraft
regard to the wheels with with
runway. regard to the regard to
ground at the ground
any time. at any
time.

1207 22 0 0 1 0
 A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a 2,5 2,3,4,5 2 1,3,4
Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This
system will warn the crew in case of :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one
shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS._x000D_
2 - dangerous ground proximity._x000D_
3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed
approach._x000D_
4 - wrong landing configuration._x000D_
5 - descent below glidepath, within limits._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

1208 22 0 1 0 0
The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope:_x000D_ 1-3-4 2-5 1-6 1-3
_x000D_
1 - with one degree of freedom._x000D_
2 - with two degrees of freedom_x000D_
3 - the frame of which is supported by two return
springs._x000D_
4 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the
pitch axis._x000D_
5 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the
yawing axis._x000D_
6 - the spinning wheel axis of which is
horizontal._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1209 22 0 0 0 1
In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static underreads overreads overreads keeps on
pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter: the altitude. the altitude in the altitude in providing
case of a case of a reliable
sideslip to side-slip to reading in
the left and the right and all
displays the displays the situations
correct correct
information information
during during
symmetric symmetric
flight. flight.

1210 22 0 1 0 0
An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in 18°. 12°. 36°. 30°.
order to achieve a rate 1 turn, the pilot will have to bank
the aircraft at an angle of:
1211 22 1 0 0 0
The yellow sector of the temperature gauge corresponds a frequent a forbidden an a normal
to: operating operating exceptional operating
range. range. operating range.
range.
1212 22 0 0 1 0
The pendulum type detector system of the directional a torque 2 torque a levelling a nozzle
gyro feeds : motor on the motors erection integral
sensitive axis arranged torque motor with the
horizontally outer
gimbal
ring
1213 22 0 0 1 0
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an equal to the higher than the same as lower than
atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the standard the real the real the real
aircraft are warm is: altitude. altitude. altitude. altitude.
1214 22 0 1 0 0
 Mach Trim is a device to compensate for : weight backing of the effects of the effects
reduction the fuel transfer of
resulting aerodynamic between the temperatur
from fuel center at high main tanks e variation
consumption Mach and the tank during a
during the numbers by located in the climb or
cruise moving the horizontal tail descent at
elevator to constant
nose-up Mach

1215 22 0 1 0 0
In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect 10% 3% 7% 5%
the regulatory margins between stall and natural
buffet._x000D_
The warning system supplies the corresponding alarm.
The required margin related to the stall speed is:

1216 22 0 0 1 0
The Mach number is : the ratio of a direct the ratio of the ratio of
the aircraft function of the indicated the aircraft
true airspeed temperature ; airspeed to convention
to the sonic it varies in the sonic nal
velocity at proportion to velocity at airspeed
the altitude the square the altitude to the
considered root of the considered sonic
absolute velocity at
temperature the
altitude
considere
d

1217 22 1 0 0 0
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance both the the replies the echos the echos
System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. replies from from the from the of collision
TCAS uses for its operation : the transponders ground air avoidance
transponders of other traffic control radar
of other aircraft radar system system
aircraft and especially
the ground- installed
based radar on board
echoes

1218 22 0 1 0 0
Different pressure sensors are used according to the 2,1,3 3,1,2 1,2,3 3,2,1
intensity of the pressure measured (low, medium or
high)_x000D_
Classify the following sensors by order of increasing
pressure for which they are suitable :_x000D_
1- bellows type_x000D_
2- Bourdon tube type_x000D_
3- aneroid capsule type
1219 22 0 1 0 0
The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the combustion combustion high high
EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) is carried out at the : chamber chamber pressure pressure
outlet. intake. chamber turbine
intake. outlet.
1220 22 0 0 0 1
The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas thermocoupl based on based on capacitors
temperature on an aircraft equipped with turbojets are: es. metallic parts metallic whose
whose conductors capacity
expansion/co whose varies
ntraction is resistance proportion
measured. increases nally with
linearly with temperatur
temperature. e.

1221 22 1 0 0 0
The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency weather primary radio high
of 4400 MHz is the : radar. radar. altimeter. altitude
radio
altimeter.
1222 22 0 0 1 0
 A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used 1,4. 1,2,3,4,5. 2,3,5. 2,3,4.
in_x000D_
1. An inertial attitude unit_x000D_
2. An automatic pilot_x000D_
3. A stabilizing servo system_x000D_
4. An inertial navigation system_x000D_
5. A rate-of-turn indicator_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1223 22 1 0 0 0
In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is The Measuremen Measuremen Measurem
calculated from: difference t of outside t of elapsed ent of
between air time for a absolute
absolute and temperature radio signal barometric
dynamic (OAT) transmitted to pressure
pressure at the ground from a
the fuselage surface and static
back source on
the
fuselage

1224 22 0 0 0 1
The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the a bank or an apparent too slow the
effect of : pitch attitude weight and precession aircraft's
of the aircraft an apparent on the track over
vertical horizontal the earth
gimbal ring

1225 22 1 0 0 0
An Air Data Computer (ADC) : Measures Transforms Is an Converts
position error air data auxiliary air data
in the static measuremen system that measurem
system and ts into provides ents given
transmits this electric altitude by ATC
information impulses information in from the
to ATC to driving servo the event ground in
provide motors in that the static order to
correct instruments source is provide
altitude blocked correct
reporting altitude
and speed
informatio
n

1226 22 0 1 0 0
The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by in the latitude in the latitude on the on the
15°/hour : 30° 45° equator North pole
1227 22 0 0 0 1
The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local on the in the latitude in the latitude on the
vertical when it is located : equator 30° 45° North pole
1228 22 1 0 0 0
A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to an artificial a directional a turn a
correct errors on : horizon gyro unit indicator gyromagn
etic
indicator
1229 22 1 0 0 0
When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant too much too much too much attitude
attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a nose-up and nose-up and nose-up and and bank
classic artificial horizon : bank correct bank too high bank too low correct
1230 22 0 0 1 0
When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a too much too much attitude and too much
constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the nose-up and nose-up and bank correct nose-up
following on a classic artificial horizon : bank correct bank too high and bank
too low
1231 22 0 0 1 0
When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a too much too much attitude and too much
constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the nose-up and nose-up and bank correct. nose-up
following on a classic artificial horizon : bank too bank too low. and bank
high. correct.
1232 22 1 0 0 0
 The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding : in standard in ambiant in standard in ambiant
atmosphere, atmosphere, atmosphere, atmospher
to the to the to the e, to the
reference pressure Ps pressure Ps reference
pressure Ps prevailing at prevailing at pressure
this point this point Ps

1233 22 0 0 1 0
The response time of a vertical speed detector may be correction bimettalic return spring second
increased by adding a: based on an strip calibrated
acceleromete port
r sensor.

1234 22 1 0 0 0
The density altitude is : the altitude of the the pressure the
the standard temperature altitude pressure
atmosphere altitude corrected for altitude
on which the corrected for the relative corrected
density is the density for the
equal to the difference prevailing at density of
actual between the this point air at this
density of the real point
atmosphere temperature
and the
standard
temperature

1235 22 1 0 0 0
The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation position barometric instrument hysteresis
of the static pressure near the source is known as: pressure error. error. effect.
error.
1236 22 1 0 0 0
Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in 3,4. 2,4. 1,3. 1,2.
a banked turn, the rate-of-turn indicator is a valuable
gyroscopic flight control instrument ; when it is
associated with an attitude indicator it indicates
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw
axis_x000D_
2. The bank of the aircraft_x000D_
3. The direction of the aircraft turn_x000D_
4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real
vertical_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

1237 22 0 0 1 0
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a a three- a DC voltage an AC an AC
magnetic sensor, connected to an RPM indicator is : phase varying with voltage voltage,
voltage the RPM ; varying with the
frequency the indicator the RPM ; frequency
varies with is a simple the indicator of which
the RPM; the voltmeter rectifies the varies with
indicator is with a signal via a the RPM;
provided with rev/min. diode bridge the
a motor scale and is indicator
which drives provided with converts
a magnetic a voltmeter the signal
tachometer into
square
pulses
which are
then
counted

1238 22 0 0 0 1
 The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form 1, 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 3. 1, 2, 3 and
of:_x000D_ 4.
_x000D_
1- a specific dedicated screen _x000D_
2- a screen combined with the weather radar_x000D_
3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen
which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and
Resolution Advisory (RA)_x000D_
4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System)
screen_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1239 22 0 0 0 1
In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static breaking the slightly descending calculating
pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate rate-of-climb opening a as much as the
emergency means for restoring a practically correct indicator window to possible in ambient
static pressure intake : glass window restore the order to fly at static
ambient a pressure pressure,
pressure in as close to allowing
the cabin 1013.25 hPa for the
as possible altitude
and QNH
and
adjusting
the
instrument
s

1240 22 1 0 0 0
Today's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint- The The The The true
Venant formula), indicate, in the absence of static (and airspeed, equivalent conventional airspeed
instrumental) error : whatever the airspeed, in airspeed
altitude all cases (CAS) in all
cases
1241 22 0 0 1 0
The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance F.M.S. (Flight air traffic transponders airborne
Systems) is based on the use of : Management control radar fitted in the weather
System) systems aircraft radar
system
1242 22 0 0 1 0
In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision turn left/turn too low glide slope climb/desc
Avoidance System) will give information such as : right terrain ent
1243 22 0 0 0 1
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives in horizontal based on only in the only in the
avoidance resolutions : and vertical speed control vertical plane horizontal
planes plane
1244 22 0 0 1 0
Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Resolution No protection In one of the In one of
System) : Advisory is available system the system
(RA) must against modes, the modes,
not be aircraft not warning : the
followed equipped "TOO LOW warning :
without with a TERRAIN" is "PULL UP"
obtaining serviceable generated is
clearance SSR generated
from ATC transponder

1245 22 0 1 0 0
The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning 2,3 1,3 1,2,4 2,4
System) is governed by laws taking the aircraft height
into account as well as :_x000D_
1- the descent rate_x000D_
2- the climb rate_x000D_
3- the aircraft configuration_x000D_
4- the selected engine rpm_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1246 22 0 1 0 0
 The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with :_x000D_ 4 1,2 1,2,4 1,2,3,4
1- aircraft attitude_x000D_
2- accelerations_x000D_
3- atmospheric pressure_x000D_
4- temperature_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1247 22 0 0 1 0
The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of 1,2,3 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,4
:_x000D_
1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC
voltage_x000D_
2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage_x000D_
3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC
voltage_x000D_
4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase
voltage_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1248 22 0 1 0 0
The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with yaw damper rudder yaw damper rudder
information regarding the: action on the displacement action only position
rudder by the rudder on the
pedals ground

1249 22 1 0 0 0
A vibration indicator receives a signal from different vibration vibration acceleration vibration
sensors (accelerometers). It indicates the : period amplitude at measured by frequency
expressed in a given the sensors, expressed
seconds frequency expressed in in Hz
g

1250 22 0 1 0 0
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an equal to the lower than the same as higher
atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the standard the real the real than the
aircraft are cold is : altitude. altitude. altitude. real
altitude.
1251 22 0 1 0 0
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase a DC voltage an AC an AC a three-
AC generator, connected to RPM indicator, is : varying with voltage, the voltage phase
the RPM; the frequency of varying with voltage,
indicator is a which varies the RPM; the the
plain with the indicator frequency
voltmeter RPM; the rectifies the of which
with a indicator signal via a varies with
rev/min. converts the diode bridge the RPM;
scale signal into and is the
square provided with indicator is
pulses which a voltmeter provided
are then with a
counted motor
which
drives a
magnetic
tachomete
r

1252 22 0 0 0 1
Given :_x000D_ Tt = Ts(1-0.2 Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Tt = Ts/ Tt =
- Ts the static temperature (SAT)_x000D_ M²) Kr.M²) (1+0.2 Kr.M²) Ts(1+0.2
- Tt the total temperature (TAT)_x000D_ M²)
- Kr the recovery coefficient_x000D_
- M the Mach number_x000D_
The total temperature can be expressed approximately
by the formula :
1253 22 0 0 0 1
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a serviceable serviceable SELCAL DME
proximity alarm system which detects a "traffic" when the SSR weather system system
conflicting traffic is equipped with a : transponder radar
1254 22 1 0 0 0
 When being engaged, and without selecting a particular a constant all aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
mode, an automatic pilot enables : _x000D_ speed on piloting and stabilisation piloting
track, wings guidance with attitude and
horizontal. functions hold or guidance
except maintaining functions.
maintaining vertical
radio- speed and
navigation possibly
course lines. automatic
trim.

1255 22 0 0 1 0
On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode by the pilot by the pilot automatically if the
is engaged: pushing a selecting in case of an aircraft
button G.A. mode autopilot or reaches
located on on the thrust flight director the
the throttles. computer alarm. decision
control panel. height
selected
on the
radio
altimeter
at a higher
speed
than the
one
selected.

1256 22 1 0 0 0
Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means: Localizer Coupling has Localizer is System is
ALARM, occurred and armed and armed for
making system coupling will localizer
localizer provides occur when approach
approach not control data flag warning and
authorized to capture disappears coupling
the centerline will occur
upon
capturing
center line

1257 22 0 0 0 1
A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: Is Is fully Only works of Contains
automatically independent there is a its own
connected to of external complete separate
the primary energy electrical gyro
vertical gyro resources in failure
if the an
alternator emergency
fails situation

1258 22 0 0 0 1
If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is At high There will be ATC will get At high
compensated for position error and another altimeter speed the no difference an erroneous speed, the
which is not ; and all other factors being equal... non- between altitude non-
compensated them if the report SSR compensa
altimeter will air data ted
indicate a computer altimeter
lower altitude (ADC) is will
functioning indicate a
normally higher
altitude

1259 22 0 0 0 1
For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs Height DH lamp DH lamp Audio
during approach the .. indication is flashes red flashes red warning
removed and the signal
audio signal sounds
sounds
1260 22 1 0 0 0
 Indication of Mach number is obtained from: Indicated An ordinary A kind of Indicated
speed and airspeed echo sound speed
altitude using indicator comparing (IAS)
a speed scaled for velocity of compared
indicator Mach sound with with true
equipped numbers indicated air speed
with an instead of speed (TAS) from
altimeter type knots the air
aneroid data
computer

1261 22 1 0 0 0
The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid (i) static (i) vacuum (i) static (i) total
capsules located in a sealed casing._x000D_ pressure (ii) (or a very low pressure at pressure
The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) total pressure) (ii) time t (ii) (ii) static
are respectively : pressure static static pressure
pressure pressure at
time t - t
1262 22 0 1 0 0
In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement a triangular a frequency a pulse a wave
(above the ground) is based upon: amplitude modulation transmission, transmissi
modulation wave, for for which on, for
wave, for which the time between which the
which frequency transmission frequency
modulation variation and shift by
phase shift between the reception is DOPPLER
between transmitted measured on effect after
transmitted wave and the a circular ground
and received received scanning reflection
waves after wave after screen. is
ground ground measured.
reflection is reflection is
measured. measured.

1263 22 0 1 0 0
On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the: standard pressure density temperatur
altitude altitude altitude e altitude
1264 22 0 1 0 0
The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator VLO for the VLE for the VFE for the VNO for
are : lower limit lower limit lower limit the lower
and VNE for and VNE for and VNE for limit and
the upper the upper the upper VNE for
limit limit limit the upper
limit

1265 22 0 0 0 1
During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a The Mach The Mach The Mach The Mach
constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) : number number number is number is
increases increases constant and constant
and the true and the true the true and the
airspeed airspeed airspeed true
(TAS) (TAS) is (TAS) is airspeed
increases. constant. constant. (TAS)
decreases
.

1266 22 1 0 0 0
The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine rating is the propeller propoller rating is
can include a small red arc within the arc normally used minimum efficency is generates the
(green arc)_x000D_ usable in minimum at vibration, maximum
In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the cruise this rating continuous possible in
: rating is continuous
forbidden mode

1267 22 0 0 1 0
 The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft maximum optimum speed not to minimum
comprises different sectors and color marks. The blue speed in climbing be exceeded, control
line corresponds to the : operations, speed with or VNE speed, or
or VMO one engine VMC
inoperative,
or Vy
1268 22 0 1 0 0
The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot according to according to at a constant at a
takes place : an an heading constant
interception interception magnetic
versus radio versus range course
deviation law and angular

1269 22 0 0 1 0
The "heading hold" mode is selected on the flight cannot be is centered if is centered if is
director (FD) with a course to steer of 180°. Your aircraft centered the aircraft is the aircraft centered if
holds a heading of 160°. The vertical bar of the FD: on optimum has a the aircraft
path to join starboard has a port
heading 180° drift of 20° drift of 20°

1270 22 0 1 0 0
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is 2 and 4. 1 and 3. 2 and 3. 1 and 4.
carried out by:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a
constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach
number_x000D_
2- the autothrottles in the climb mode at a constant
calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number_x000D_
3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path
holding mode_x000D_
4- the autothrottles in the altitude or glide path holding
mode_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1271 22 0 0 0 1
A gyromagnetic compass or heading reference unit is an 2,5 1,3,5 2,3,5 1,4
assembly which always consists of :_x000D_
1- a directional gyro_x000D_
2- a vertical axis gyro_x000D_
3- an earth's magnetic field detector_x000D_
4- an azimuth control_x000D_
5- a synchronising control_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1272 22 0 1 0 0
A radio altimeter can be defined as a : ground radio ground radio self- self-
aid used to aid used to contained contained
measure the measure the on-board aid on-board
true height of true altitude used to aid used
the aircraft of the aircraft measure the to
true height of measure
the aircraft the true
altitude of
the aircraft

1273 22 0 0 1 0
The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator VSI for the VSO for the VSI for the VSO for
are : lower limit lower limit lower limit the lower
and VFE for and VLE for and VLE for limit and
the upper the upper the upper VFE for
limit limit limit the upper
limit

1274 22 0 0 0 1
 When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go- 1, 3 and 4. 1, 2 and 3. 1, 2 and 5. 1, 4 and 5.
around :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the autothrottle reacts immediately upon the pilot
action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around) switch in
order to recover the maximum thrust_x000D_
2- the autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the
airplane_x000D_
3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces
the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag_x000D_
4- the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the
airplane_x000D_
5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap
deflection in order to reduce the drag_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1275 22 0 0 1 0
The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed true airspeed computed calibrated equivalent
expressed in : (TAS). airspeed airspeed airspeed
(COAS). (CAS). (EAS).
1276 22 0 0 1 0
A failed RMI rose is locked on 090° and the ADF pointer 225°. 135°. Impossible to 315°.
indicates 225°. The relative bearing to the station is : read, due to
failure RMI.
1277 22 0 1 0 0
An airplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle remains decreases if increases. decreases
maintains a constant Mach number. If the total constant. the static .
temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed: temperature
is lower than
the standard
temperature,
increases if
above.

1278 22 0 0 1 0
A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when a sound a sound and a visual at least
mandatorily installed on board an aircraft, must in all alarm or a visual alarm alarm to one sound
cases generate : visual alarm which a alarm to
sound alarm which a
can be visual
alarm can
be added

1279 22 0 0 0 1
The essential components of a flight director are 2,4 2,3 1,4 1,2
:_x000D_
1- a computer_x000D_
2- an automatic pilot_x000D_
3- an autothrottle_x000D_
4- command bars_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1280 22 0 0 1 0
A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light heading altitude heading, to heading
twin-engined aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of hold the and to
the automatic pilot is at least to hold the: altitude and hold the
to have a altitude
radio axis
tracking
function
1281 22 0 0 0 1
 An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic and the ensures a and the and the
pilot : autothrottle correct final autothrottle autothrottl
ensure a approach, at ensure a e ensure a
correct final least up to correct final correct
approach, at ground roll approach, at final
least up to while the least up to approach,
ground roll human pilot flare-out at least up
controls the to flare-out
power while the
human
pilot
controls
the power

1282 22 1 0 0 0
Considering the maximum operational Mach number initially by by the MMO by the VMO initially by
(MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the theVMO, in still air the MMO,
captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from then by the then by
a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of MMO below the VMO
arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at a certain below a
any time of the descent. He will be limited : flight level certain
flight level

1283 22 0 0 0 1
The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a total dynamic total static
pitot tube is the : pressure plus pressure. pressure. pressure.
static
pressure.
1284 22 0 0 1 0
An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The increases. decreases. decreases if remains
autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the the outside constant.
total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed: temperature
is lower than
the standard
temperature,
increases if
higher.

1285 22 0 0 0 1
An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The decreases. increases if remains increases.
autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the the static constant.
total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed: temperature
is higher than
the standard
temperature,
decreases if
lower.

1286 22 0 0 1 0
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) WHOOP DON'T SINK DON'T SINK DON'T
generates the following sound signal or signals when the WHOOP always followed by SINK
aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around : PULL UP followed by WHOOP repetitive
repetitive WHOOP WHOOP only
only WHOOP PULL UP if
PULL UP the sink rate
overshoots a
second level

1287 22 0 0 0 1
The basis properties of a gyroscope are :_x000D_ 3,4 2,5 2,3,5 1,3,5
1. The gyro's weight._x000D_
2. The rigidity in space._x000D_
3. The inertia._x000D_
4. The high RPM._x000D_
5. The precession_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1288 22 0 1 0 0
 The static pressure error of the static vent on which the static Mach deformation aircraft
altimeter is connected varies substantially with the: temperature number of of the altitude
the aircraft aneroid
capsule
1289 22 0 1 0 0
The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to: allow reduce the reduce the inform the
damping of hysteresis effect of crew of a
the effect friction in the failure of
measuremen linkages the
t in the unit instrument

1290 22 0 0 1 0
The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially time passed mach aircraft static
with the: at a given number of altitude. temperatur
altitude. the aircraft. e.
1291 22 1 0 0 0
VLE is the maximum : speed flight speed speed at speed with
authorized in with landing which the flaps
flight gear down landing gear extended
can be in a given
operated with position
full safety

1292 22 0 1 0 0
VLO is the maximum : speed at flight speed speed with cruising
which the with landing flaps speed not
landing gear gear down. extended in a to be
can be given exceeded
operated with position. except in
full safety. still air with
caution.

1293 22 1 0 0 0
VNE is the maximum speed : at which the with flaps which must not to be
flight controls extended in never be exceeded
can be fully landing exceeded except in
deflected position still air and
with
caution
1294 22 0 0 1 0
VNO is the maximum speed : which must at which the with flaps not to be
never be flight controls extended in exceeded
exceeded. can be fully landing except in
deflected. position. still air and
with
caution.
1295 22 0 0 0 1
The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true - 300 ft/min - 150 ft/min - 250 ft/min - 500
airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3 ft/min.
degrees, indicates :
1296 22 0 0 0 1
The advantages provided by an air data computer to 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,2,3 1,3,4
indicate the altitude are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. Position/pressure error correction_x000D_
2. Hysteresis error correction_x000D_
3. Remote data transmission capability_x000D_
4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in
the event of a failure_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

1297 22 0 0 0 1
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to a an an antenna and
the indicated airspeed (IAS) : compressibili instrument and instrument
ty and and compressibili and
density position/pres ty correction. density
correction. sure error correction.
correction.
1298 22 0 1 0 0
 The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are VS1 for the VS1 for the VS1 for the VS0 for
: lower limit lower limit lower limit the lower
and VNE for and VLO for and VNO for limit and
the upper the upper the upper VNO for
limit limit limit the upper
limit

1299 22 0 0 1 0
Among the flight control instruments, the artificial two degrees two degrees one degree one
horizon plays an essential part. It uses a gyroscope of freedom, of freedom, of freedom, degree of
with :_x000D_ whose axis is whose whose freedom,
Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro oriented and horizontal horizontal whose
are determined by the number of gimbal rings it continously axis axis is vertical
comprises. maintained to correspondin maintained in axis
local vertical g to a a horizontal oriented in
by an reference plane by an the
automatic direction is automatic direction
erecting maintained in erecting of the real
system. a horizontal system vertical to
plane by an the
automatic location is
erecting maintaine
system d in this
direction
by an
automatic
erecting
system

1300 22 1 0 0 0
With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the increasing fluctuating decreasing constant
aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a : speed. speed. speed. speed.
1301 22 0 0 1 0
The indication of the directional gyro as an on-board 1,3,4 1,2,3,4,5,6 2,5,6 1,3,4,6
instrument are valid only for a short period of time. The
causes of this inaccuracy are :_x000D_
1. The earth's rotation_x000D_
2. The longitudinal acceleration_x000D_
3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the
earth._x000D_
4. The mechanical defects of the gyro_x000D_
5. The gyro's weight_x000D_
6. The gimbal mount of the gyro rings_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

1302 22 0 0 0 1
With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield calibrated ground true equivalent
altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same : airspeed. speed. airspeed. airspeed.
1303 22 1 0 0 0
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated decreases increases increases decreases
runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed abruptly steadily abruptly stadily
indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated towards zero towards VNE
airspeed :
1304 22 0 1 0 0
The mach number is the: indicated equivalent true airspeed corrected
airspeed airspeed (TAS) divided airspeed
(IAS) divided (EAS) by the local (CAS)
by the local divided by speed of divided by
speed of the local sound the local
sound speed of speed of
sound sound

1305 22 0 0 1 0
The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the (Pt + Ps) to (Pt - Ps) to Pt to Ps (Pt - Ps) to
1306 22 computation of the ratio : Ps Ps Pt 0 1 0 0
 After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud increases decreases decreases increases
which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the steadily abruptly steadily abruptly
airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent towards zero towards
and finds that the indicated airspeed : VNE

1307 22 0 0 1 0
The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of : the outside the static the total the
temperature pressure pressure differential
pressure
measurem
ent

1308 22 1 0 0 0
The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of 1, 2, 3 and 4. 1 and 3. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 1 and 5.
a modern transport airplane receives information about 5.
the: _x000D_
_x000D_
1- angle of attack_x000D_
2- engine R.P.M._x000D_
3- configuration_x000D_
4- pitch and bank attitude_x000D_
5- sideslip_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1309 22 0 1 0 0
A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates 1, 2, 3, 5 and 1, 2, 3, 4 and 1,2 and 4. 3, 4, 5 and
automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with 6. 5. 6.
aural and/or light warning signals in the case
of:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to
terrain_x000D_
2- a dangerous proximity to the ground_x000D_
3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-
around_x000D_
4- an abnormal flight attitude_x000D_
5- an abnormal landing configuration_x000D_
6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slope_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1310 22 1 0 0 0
A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm a barometric a barometric a barometric a
connected to : aneroid aneroid aneroid barometic
capsule and capsule and capsule aneroid
an airspeed an airspeed subjected to capsule
sensor sensor a static subjected
subjected to subjected to pressure and to a
dynamic a static an airspeed dynamic
pressure. pressure. sensor pressure
subjected to and an
a dynamic airspeed
pressure. sensor
subjected
to a static
pressure.

1311 22 0 0 1 0
 The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a one degree two degrees two degrees one
gyro stabilised compass system are : of freedom, of freedom, of freedom, degree of
whose whose whose axis freedom,
vertical axis, horizontal aligned with whose
aligned with axis the vertical to horizontal
the real correspondin the location axis is
vertical to the g to the is maintained maintaine
location is reference in this d in the
maintained in direction is direction by horizontal
this direction maintained in an erecting plane by
by an the horizontal system. an
automatic plane by an automatic
erecting automatic erecting
system. erecting system.
system.

1312 22 0 1 0 0
The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not these metals these metals contact these
modified if one or several intermediate metals are are are points are metals are
inserted in the circuit provided that: maintained at maintained at maintained at not the
a a equal same as
temperature temperature temperature those
higher than lower than between constitutin
that of the that of the these g the
cold source. cold source. different thermocou
metals. ple.

1313 22 0 0 1 0
An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle decreases if decreases. increases. remains
maintains a constant Mach number. If the total the static constant.
temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed : temperature
is lower than
the standard
temperature,
increases if
higher.

1314 22 0 1 0 0
A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the intruder the intruder the intruder a simple
provides: relative relative relative intruding
position and position and position and airplane
possibly an possibly an possibly an proximity
indication of indication of indication of warning.
a collision a collision a collision
avoidance avoidance avoidance
manoeuvre manoeuvre manoeuvre
within both within the within the
the vertical horizontal vertical plane
and plane only. only.
horizontal
planes.

1315 22 0 0 1 0
A "Bourdon Tube" is used in:_x000D_ pressure vibration smoke turbine
sensors detectors detectors temperatur
e probes
1316 22 1 0 0 0
 The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is is at its shows itself is dependent is, in spite
subject to errors, one of which is due to the movement greatest by an on the of this,
of the aircraft._x000D_ value when apparent ground insignifica
This error... the aircraft rotation of speed of the nt and
follows a the horizontal aircraft, its may be
meridional axis of the true track neglected
track gyroscope and the
which seems average
to turn at 15° latitude of the
per hour to flight
the right in
the northern
hemisphere

1317 22 0 0 1 0
A closed loop control system in which a small power an amplifier. a feedback an autopilot. a
input controls a much larger power output in a strictly control servomec
proportionate manner is known as : circuit. hanism.
1318 22 0 0 0 1
(Use the appendix to answer this question)_x000D_ 1 2 3 4
_x000D_
The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose
down attitude is n°
1319 22 1 0 0 0
The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator Kinetic Static Dynamic Total
(VSI) is based on the measurement of the rate of pressure pressure pressure pressure
change of:
1320 22 0 1 0 0
When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a 2, 3, and 4. 1 and 3. 2 and 3. 1, 2, and
magnetic compass tends to "undershoot;" when turning 4.
onto a southerly heading it tends to
"overshoot":_x000D_
_x000D_
1)these compass indications are less reliable in the
northern hemisphere than in the southern
hemisphere._x000D_
2)these compass oscillations following a lateral gust are
not identical if the aircraft is heading north or
south._x000D_
3) this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction
of the compass. _x000D_
4) this behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung
compass._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statements are :

1321 22 0 0 1 0
A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of 1, 2, and 3. 1 and 2. 1 and 3. 2 and 3.
turn._x000D_
Rate of turn depends upon :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 : bank angle_x000D_
2 : aeroplane speed_x000D_
3 : aeroplane weight_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping the correct statements is :

1322 22 0 1 0 0
The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a an aneroid a bellows a Bourdon a
low pressure fuel pump is: capsule. sensor. tube. differential
capsule.
1323 22 1 0 0 0
The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a a differential a Bourdon a bellows an aneroid
gas turbine engined powerplant is: capsule. tube. sensor. capsule.
1324 22 0 0 0 1
 The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 4.
are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance_x000D_
2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power
supply_x000D_
3- the measurement is independent of temperature
variations_x000D_
4- the option to use without restriction several indicators
connected in parallel to a single transmitter_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1325 22 0 0 0 1
A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force cold junction hot junction cold junction hot
between the "hot junction" and the "cold junction" of a is maintained is maintained is maintained junction is
thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature constant. constant. at 15 °C. maintaine
values provided that the temperature of the: d at 15 °C.

1326 22 1 0 0 0
Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro : consumes a has a longer is influenced has a fairly
lot of power life cycle by long
temperature starting
cycle

1327 22 0 1 0 0
Among the following engine instruments, the one oil pressure fuel pressure oil manifold
operating with an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the : gauge. gauge. thermometer. pressure
gauge.
1328 22 0 0 0 1
Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass amplifier. error erecting heading
1329 22 flux gate is transmitted to the : detector. system. indicator. 0 1 0 0
The principle of capacitor gauges is based on: the variation the variation the variation the current
of capacity of flow and in capacity of variation in
by volumetric torque a condensor a
measuremen exercised in with the Wheaston
t exercised a supply line nature of the e bridge
on the dielectric
sensor

1330 22 0 0 1 0
A paddle-wheel placed in a the fuel circuit of a gas volumetric mass flow by volumetric mass flow
turbine engine initially measures: flow by a tally a tally of the flow by by
of the impulses measure of a measure
impulses voltage of a
proportional voltage
to the proportion
rotational al to the
speed rotational
speed

1331 22 1 0 0 0
The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to compass compass compass true north
coincide the indications of:_x000D_ north and the north and north and and
lubber line. magnetic true north. magnetic
north. north.

1332 22 0 1 0 0
The position of a Flight Director command indicates the repeats the enables the only
bars:_x000D_ manoeuvers ADI and HSI measuremen displays
to execute, to information t of deviation informatio
achieve or from a given n relating
maintain a position. to radio-
flight electric
situation. deviation.

1333 22 1 0 0 0
In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic equal to 180° none on a none on a equal to
compass on the northern hemisphere is: on a 090° 270° heading 090° heading 180° on a
heading in a in a left turn. in a right 270°
right turn. turn. heading in
a right
turn.
1334 22 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use appendix )_x000D_ 2 3 4 1
_x000D_
The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient
rudder is:_x000D_

1335 22 0 0 1 0
The advantages of an electric float gauge are:_x000D_ 1, 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 4
_x000D_
1- ease of manufacture_x000D_
2- independence of the indication relative to the
variations of the aircraft power system if the
measurement is made by a ratiometer_x000D_
3- independence of the indication relative to the
variations of the aircraft power system if the
measurement is made by a galvanometer_x000D_
4- independence of the indication relative to temperature
variations_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1336 22 1 0 0 0
The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a twice that of the same as twice that of the same
capacity gauging system can be graduated directly in air and varies that of air air and varies as that of
weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is: directly with and varies inversely with air and
density. directly with density. varies
density. inversely
with
density.

1337 22 1 0 0 0
Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer ADI Attitude BDHI RMI Radio HSI
is presented in the form of command bars on the Display Bearing Magnetic Horizontal
following instrument: Indicator. Distance Indicator. Situation
Heading Indicator.
Indicator.
1338 22 1 0 0 0
The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature is simple. can operate is very carries out
indicator is that it: without an accurate. an
electrical independe
power nt
supply. measurem
ent of the
supply
voltage.

1339 22 0 0 0 1
Given :_x000D_ Ts = Tt. Ts = Tt.(0.2. Ts = Tt/( 0.2 Ts = Tt /
M is the Mach number_x000D_ (1+0.2. M²) M²) M²) (1+0.2.
Ts is the static temperature_x000D_ M²)
Tt is the total temperature
1340 22 0 0 0 1
Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) 1, 2. 2, 3. 3, 4. 1, 4.
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director
Bars._x000D_
2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary
Flight Display)._x000D_
3- the PFD is the main flying instrument._x000D_
4- the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the
ND._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:
1341 22 0 1 0 0
The data supplied by a radio altimeter: indicates the concerns is used only is used by
distance only the by the radio the
between the decision altimeter automatic
ground and height. indicator. pilot in the
the aircraft. altitude
hold
mode.

1342 22 1 0 0 0
 The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision 3, 5 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 5
approaches:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range._x000D_
2 are of the pulsed type._x000D_
3 are of the frequency modulation type._x000D_
4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft._x000D_
5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500
ft._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of the correct statements is :

1343 22 1 0 0 0
In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when change the compensate account for place the
main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it display scale residual signal antennas
is necessary to: in short final, altitude due processing on the
in order to to antennas time in the bottom of
have a height above unit and the
precise the ground apply a aeroplane.
readout. and coaxial correction
cables factor to the
length. reading.

1344 22 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 022-10217A)_x000D_ increase the decrease the increase the decrease
After having programmed your flight director, you see flight attitude flight attitude flight attitude the flight
that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director until the until the until the attitude
Indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the command command command until the
appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars bars recentre bars recentre bars recentre command
indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left on the on the on the bars
and : symbolic symbolic horizon. recentre
airplane. airplane. on the
horizon.

1345 22 1 0 0 0
During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly an apparent an apparent a heading no
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : turn to the turn to the fluctuating apparent
East. West. about 180°. turn.
1346 22 0 0 0 1
The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring 2 2 high and 2 high and a
system is based on the use of: acceleromete low low frequency
rs. frequency frequency converter.
amplifiers. filters.

1347 22 1 0 0 0
In the Northern hemisphere, during deceleration an apparent an apparent no apparent a heading
following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic turn to the turn to the turn. fluctuating
compass will indicate : South. North. about
270°.

1348 22 1 0 0 0
In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration no apparent a heading an apparent an
following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic turn. fluctuating turn to the apparent
compass will indicate : about 090°. North. turn to the
South.

1349 22 0 0 1 0
The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is magnetized soft iron hard iron pairs of
corrected by using : needles pieces pieces permanent
magnets
1350 22 0 1 0 0
The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is the hard iron the hard iron the soft iron the hard
due to the action of : pieces pieces pieces iron ices
influenced by influenced influenced by and the
the by the mild the soft iron
geomagnetic iron pieces geomagnetic pieces
field field influenced
by the
hard iron
pieces

1351 22 0 0 1 0
 In order to measure temperature the cylinder head thermocoupl wheatstone ratiometer bourdon
temperature (CHT) gauge utilises a : e consisting bridge circuit. circuit. tube.
of two
dissimilar
metals.

1352 22 1 0 0 0
The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll: controls the controls the controls the controls
ailerons, with rudder, with ailerons, with the rudder,
the angular the angular Mach with Mach
rate about rate about Number as Number
the vertical the vertical the input as the
axis as the axis as the signal. input
input signal. input signal. signal.

1353 22 0 1 0 0
A laser gyro consists of : two moving a laser 2 electrodes a gyro with
cavities generating (anodes+cat 2 degrees
provided with two light hodes) of freedom
mirrors waves

1354 22 0 1 0 0
A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors an artificial a directional a turn a
on :_x000D_ horizon. gyro. indicator. gyromagn
etic
compass.

1355 22 1 0 0 0
A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 150° 170° 190° 210°
20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
the turn on an approximate heading of :

1356 22 0 0 0 1
A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 190° 160° 200° 170°
20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
the turn on an approximate heading of :

1357 22 0 1 0 0
A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 355° 330° 015° 030°
10° bank at a latitude of 50° North. Using a direct
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
the turn on an approximate heading of :
1358 22 0 0 0 1
A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 010° 330° 350° 030°
20° bank at a latitude of 40° North. Using a direct
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
the turn on to an approximate heading of :

1359 22 0 1 0 0
An aeroplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle increases if decreases. increases. remains
maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total the static constant.
temperature remains constant, the Mach number : temperature
is lower than
the standard
temperature,
decreases if
higher.

1360 22 0 1 0 0
The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the on any on a given at any at a given
deviation of a magnetic compass : heading heading latitude latitude
1361 22 1 0 0 0
The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic deviation map showing compass map
heading by reference to a: correction the isogonic swinging showing
curve lines curve the
isoclinic
lines
1362 22 0 0 1 0
The magnetic heading can be derived from the true compass map showing map showing deviation
heading by means of a : swinging the isogonal the isoclinic correction
curve lines lines curve

1363 22 0 1 0 0
 The total air temperature (TAT) is always : higher than higher lower higher than lower than
Static Air than Static Static Air Static Air
Temperature Air Temperature Temperatu
(SAT) Temperature (SAT) re (SAT)
depending (SAT) depending depending
on the depending on the on the
Calibrated Air on the altitude. altitude.
Speed Calibrated Air
(CAS). Speed
(CAS).

1364 22 1 0 0 0
The static air temperature (SAT) is : an absolute a differential a relative a relative
temperature temperature temperature temperatur
expressed in expressed in expressed in e
degrees degrees degrees expressed
Celsius Kelvin Celsius in degrees
Kelvin

1365 22 1 0 0 0
The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of: the rotor of a the rotor of a a notched a circular
single phase three-phase wheel magnet
A.C. A.C. rotating in with four
generator. generator. front of an poles.
electro-
magnet.
1366 22 0 0 1 0
The "Bourdon tube" is used to measure : a flow rate. pressure. temperature. quantity.
1367 22 0 1 0 0
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 an artificial a turn a fluxgate a
degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is: horizon indicator compass directional
gyro
1368 22 0 0 0 1
When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball turning right turning right turning left turning left
indicator are on the left, the aircraft is: with too with not with too with not
much bank enough bank much bank enough
bank

1369 22 0 0 1 0
On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator needle to the needle in the needle in the needle to
indicates : left, ball to middle, ball middle, ball the left,
the left to the right to the left ball to the
right
1370 22 0 0 0 1
On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator needle in the needle to the needle to the needle in
indicates : middle, ball right, ball to right, ball to the
to left left right middle,
ball to
right
1371 22 0 1 0 0
The rate-of-turn is the: pitch rate in a change-of- yaw rate in a aircraft
turn heading rate turn speed in a
of the aircraft turn
1372 22 0 1 0 0
At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn angular yaw rate of pitch rate of roll rate of
actually consists in measuring the : velocity of the aircraft the aircraft the aircraft
the aircraft
1373 22 0 1 0 0
In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate-of-turn high bank high bank low bank low bank
consists for : angles,in angles, in angles, in angles , in
measuring measuring measuring measuring
the yaw rate the roll rate the yaw rate the roll
rate

1374 22 0 0 1 0
In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is: proportional independent proportional inversely
to the aircraft to the aircraft to the aircraft proportion
true airspeed true airspeed weight al to the
aircraft
true
airspeed
1375 22 0 0 0 1
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 a directional an artificial a turn a flux gate
degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is : gyro horizon indicator compass
1376 22 1 0 0 0
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 fluxgate directional turn indicator gyromagn
degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a : compass gyro etic
compass
1377 22 0 0 1 0
 At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed remains remains decreases increases
(CAS) : unchanged unchanged when the when the
when the when the altitude altitude
outside outside increases increases
temperature temperature
increases decreases

1378 22 0 0 1 0
At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach increases decreases remains remains
number : when the when the unchanged unchange
altitude altitude when the d when
increases increases outside the
temperature outside
increases temperatur
e
decreases

1379 22 1 0 0 0
When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the temperature. pressure. dielectrical density.
mass fuel flowmeter takes into account the fuel : constant.
1380 22 0 0 0 1
The heading reference unit of a three-axis data 2 degrees of 2 degrees of 1 degree of 1 degree
generator is equipped with a gyro with: freedom and freedom and freedom and of freedom
horizontal vertical spin horizontal and
spin axis axis spin axis vertical
spin axis

1381 22 1 0 0 0
When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator turning left turning right turning right turning left
is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is: with too with not with too with not
much bank enough bank much bank enough
bank

1382 22 0 0 0 1
The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft pulse a frequency amplitude
is based on: modulation of combination modulation of modulatio
the carrier of frequency the carrier n of the
wave. modulation wave. carrier
and pulse wave.
modulation.

1383 22 0 0 1 0
A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine fuel pressure vacuum in absolute absolute
measures : leaving the the pressure in airpressur
carburettor. carburettor. intake e entering
system near the
the inlet carburettor
valve. .

1384 22 0 0 1 0
The stick shaker calculator receives the following 2, 3 2, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4,
informations :_x000D_ 5, 6
_x000D_
1- mass of the airplane_x000D_
2- angle of attack_x000D_
3- wing flap deflection_x000D_
4- position of the landing gear_x000D_
5- total air temperature_x000D_
6- pressure altitude_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1385 22 1 0 0 0
If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers leak in too high float fuel of too ice in
atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably; pressure level. low volatility. induction
gauge line. system.
1386 22 1 0 0 0
 A directional gyro is:_x000D_ 1-4 2-4 2-3 1-3
_x000D_
1- a gyroscope free around two axis_x000D_
2- a gyroscope free around one axis_x000D_
3- capable of self- orientation around an earth-tied
direction_x000D_
4- incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied
direction_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct
statements is:

1387 22 1 0 0 0
Modern low altitude radioaltimeters emit waves in the HF (High UHF (Ultra SHF (Super VLF (Very
following frequency band: Frequency). High High Low
Frequency). Frequency). Frequency
).

1388 22 0 0 1 0
The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information engines and systems. piloting. weather
1389 22 dedicated to: alarms. situation. 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 022-3880A)_x000D_ real offset pilot aircraft
The block diagram of an auto-pilot is shown in the deflection of EPSILON at command E. response
annex._x000D_ the control the computer S.
For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting surface input.
law is the relationship between the deflection of the (BETA
control surface commanded by the computer (BETA c) control
and the: surface
feedback).

1390 22 0 1 0 0
The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when passes over descends passes over descends
an aircraft: the outer below a pre- the ILS inner below a
marker. set marker. pre-set
barometric radio
altitude. altitude.
1391 22 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 022-11232A)_x000D_ increase the increase the decrease the decrease
After having programmed your flight director, you see flight attitude flight attitude flight attitude the flight
that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director and bank and bank and bank attitude
indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the your airplane your your airplane and bank
appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars to the left aeroplane to to the left your
indicate that you must : until the the right until until the airplane to
command the command the right
bars recentre command bars recentre until the
on the bars recentre on the command
symbolic on the symbolic bars
aeroplane. symbolic aeroplane. recentre
aeroplane. on the
symbolic
aeroplane.

1392 22 1 0 0 0
An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The decreases. decreases if remains increases.
autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the outside constant.
the total temperature increases, the Mach number : temperature
is higher than
the standard
temperature,
increases if
lower.

1393 22 0 0 1 0
The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator 1 degree of 1 degree of 2 degrees of 2 degrees
is equipped with a gyro with : freedom and freedom and freedom and of freedom
horizontal vertical spin vertical spin and
spin axis axis axis horizontal
spin axis

1394 22 0 0 1 0
 The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate 1, 2, 4 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4
from:_x000D_
1. magnetic masses_x000D_
2. ferrous metal masses_x000D_
3. non ferrous metal masses_x000D_
4. electrical currents_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:
1395 22 1 0 0 0
The purpose of the automatic trim is to:_x000D_ 1, 3. 2, 3. 1, 2, 3. 1, 2.
_x000D_
1- reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control
surface in order to relieve the load on the servo-
actuator_x000D_
2- ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the
autopilot is disengaged_x000D_
3- maintain the same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off
within the whole flight envelope_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1396 22 0 0 1 0
The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the 1, 3. 1, 2. 1, 2, 3. 2, 3.
forward part of the fuselage supply an electrical signal
indicating:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the angular position of a wind vane_x000D_
2- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the
variation of the angle of attack_x000D_
3- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the
variation of the speed_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1397 22 0 1 0 0
The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a airplane proximity to altimeter airplane
visual and aural warning to the pilot when the: altitude is the ground setting differs altitude
equal to the becomes from the differs
decision dangerous. standard from a
altitude. setting above selected
the transition altitude.
altitude.

1398 22 0 0 0 1
The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer 2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 2. 1, 2, 3.
are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- easy transmission of the information._x000D_
2- independence of the information relative to the
airborne electrical power supply._x000D_
3- freedom from any spurious current due to the
commutator._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1399 22 0 0 1 0
The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator 1, 3. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 3, 4. 2, 4.
tachometer are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C.
generator commutator_x000D_
2- the importance of line resistance on the information
value_x000D_
3- the independence of the information in relation to the
airborne electrical power supply_x000D_
4- the ease of transmission of the information_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1400 22 1 0 0 0
 The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator 2. 1, 2, 3. 1, 2. 1, 3.
tachometer are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the presence of spurious signals due to a D.C.
generator commutator_x000D_
2- the importance of line resistance on the information
value_x000D_
3- the influence of temperature on the tachometer
information_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1401 22 1 0 0 0
In a modern airplane equipped with an ECAM 1, 2. 1, 2, 3. 1, 3, 4. 3, 4.
(Electronic centralized aircraft monitor), when a failure
occurs in a circuit, the centralized flight management
system:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- releases an aural warning_x000D_
2- lights up the appropriate push-buttons on the
overhead panel_x000D_
3- displays the relevant circuit on the system
display_x000D_
4- processes the failure automatically_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1402 22 0 1 0 0
The engagement of an autopilot is not possible 1, 2, 4. 2, 3, 4. 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4.
when:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- there is a fault in the electrical power supply_x000D_
2- the controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-
off_x000D_
3- there is a synchronization fault in the pitch
channel_x000D_
4- there is a fault in the attitude reference unit_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1403 22 0 0 0 1
The oncoming stall of a large transport airplane appears control stick an orange a natural a bell type
in the form of: vibrations light on the buffeting warning.
simulating warning which occurs
natural display. prior to the
buffeting. simulated
buffeting.

1404 22 1 0 0 0
The voice recorder records on four different channels 1, 2, 3, 4. 1, 3. 1, 4. 1, 2, 3.
the following information:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- aural warnings_x000D_
2- radio communications_x000D_
3- conversations between the crew members through
the cockpit interphone_x000D_
4- announcements to the passengers_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1405 22 1 0 0 0
The stall warning system of a large transport airplane 1, 4. 1, 2, 4, 5. 1, 2, 5. 1, 2, 4.
includes:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- an angle of attack sensor _x000D_
2- a computer_x000D_
3- a transmitter originating from the
anemometer_x000D_
4- an independent pitot probe_x000D_
5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating
system_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
1406 22 0 0 1 0
 When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball turning left turning left turning right turning
indicator are on the right, the aircraft is : with too with not with too right with
much bank enough bank much bank not
enough
bank
1407 22 0 0 1 0
If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear "DON'T "TERRAIN, "TOO LOW, "SINK
retracted) in proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground SINK, DON'T TERRAIN" TERRAIN" RATE,
Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is SINK" followed by (twice) SINK
detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of "WHOOP followed by RATE"
descent, the system provides the following aural warning WHOOP "TOO LOW followed
signals : PULL UP" GEAR" by
(twice) (twice) "WHOOP
WHOOP
PULL UP"
(twice)

1408 22 0 0 0 1
When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator turning left turning right turning right turning left
is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is : with too with not with too with not
much bank enough bank much bank enough
bank

1409 22 0 1 0 0
A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with: 1 degree of 3 degrees of 2 degrees of 0 degree
freedom. freedom. freedom. of
freedom.
1410 22 0 0 1 0
If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) the aircraft during take- the aircraft at too low
activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning experiences off or missed experiences altitude,
"DON'T SINK" (twice times), it is because : an approach an the aircraft
unexpected manoeuvre, unexpected has an
proximity to the aircraft proximity to excessive
terrain, has started to the terrain, rate of
without loose with landing descent.
landing-flap altitude. gear
selected. retracted.

1411 22 0 1 0 0
In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, pitch axis roll and yaw pitch roll and pitch and
automatic trimming is normally effected about the : only. axes only. yaw axes. roll axes
only.
1412 22 1 0 0 0
Which one of the following statements is true with regard It only It operates to It only It operates
to the operation of a Mach trim system : operates counteract operates over the
above a pre- the larger when the full aircraft
determined than normal autopilot is speed
Mach forward engaged. range.
number. movements
of the wing
centre of
pressure at
high
subsonic
airspeeds.

1413 22 1 0 0 0
In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet directly fed directly to amplified and inversely
any vibration produced by the engine is : proportional the cockpit filtered proportion
to engine indicator before being al to
speed. without fed to the engine
amplification cockpit speed.
or filtering. indicator.

1414 22 0 0 1 0
Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", 15°/hour to 7.5°/hour to 7.5°/hour to 10.5°/hour
the error due to the earth rotation make the north the right. the right. the left. to the
reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude right.
of 45°N, this reference turns by...
1415 22 0 0 0 1
The operating principle of Flowmeters, or "unit flow quantity of pressure and volumetric volume
meters," the most commonly used at the present time, is fuel temperature mass and di- and
to measure across their system the : movement of the fuel electric viscosity
resistance of of the fuel
the fuel
1416 22 1 0 0 0
 The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by di-electric height of the volume of the charge of
capacitor type contents gauges. The working principle of resistivity of fuel fuel condensor
these sensors is to measure the : the fuel s
1417 22 0 0 0 1
To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas gas pressure thermocoupl bi-metallic liquid
turbines are equipped with thermometers which work on e strip expansion
the following principle:
1418 22 0 1 0 0
During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the nose-down constant nose-down nose-up
resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the attitude attitude followed by a attitude
horizon bar indicating a : nose-up
attitude
1419 22 0 0 0 1
An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of will be nul is such that is such that will be nul
045°. The isogonic line on the area chart indicates 0°. the compass the compass if the
The compass deviation is O°._x000D_ will indicate a will indicate a wings are
On a take-off with zero wind, the northerly turning error: value value kept level.
noticeably noticeably
below 045°. above 045°.

1420 22 0 1 0 0
During deceleration following a landing in Northerly an apparent an apparent a heading no
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : turn to the turn to the fluctuating apparent
East. West. about 360°. turn.
1421 22 0 0 0 1
The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning 1,2,5,6,7 1,2,3,5,7 2,3,4,5,7 1,2,5,6,7
System), are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical
Speed) _x000D_
2- Radio Altimeter_x000D_
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)_x000D_
4- NAV/VOR_x000D_
5- Flap (position)_x000D_
6- Angle of Attack_x000D_
7- Landing Gear (position)_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statement is:

1422 22 0 1 0 0
Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude too high too high attitude and too high
and bank, the artificial horizon indicates : pitch-up and pitch-up and banking pitch up
too low correct correct and too
banking banking high
banking
1423 22 1 0 0 0
The disavantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge 1 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 4, 5
are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the design is complex_x000D_
2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude
variations_x000D_
3- the indications are influenced by the accelerations
_x000D_
4- the indications are influenced by temperature
variations_x000D_
5- that an alternative current supply is
necessary_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

1424 22 0 1 0 0
 In an average or heavy weight transport airplane, 1, 3 1, 2 1, 2, 3 2
generally, the fuel quantity is measured by "capacitor"
gauges because these give :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- indications partly independent of fuel temperature
variations_x000D_
2- indications almost independent of the airplane's
attitude and accelerations_x000D_
3- indications expressed in density_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1425 22 0 1 0 0
The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is rotation magnetic frequency of electromot
to measure the: speed of an field the electric ive force
asynchronou produced by impulse (EMF)
s motor a dynamo or created by a produced
energized by an alternator. notched by a
an alternator. wheel dynamo or
rotating in a an
magnetic alternator.
field.

1426 22 0 0 1 0
The operating principle of the "induction" type of electromotive frequency of magnetic rotation
tachometer is to measure the: force (EMF) the electric field speed of
produced by impulse produced by an
a dynamo or created by a a dynamo or asynchron
an alternator. notched an alternator. ous motor
wheel energized
rotating in a by an
magnetic alternator.
field.

1427 22 0 0 0 1
An automatic landing system which can keep on "REDUNDAN "OPERATIO "PASSIVE" "SAFE"
operating without deterioration of its performances T" NAL"
following the failure of one of the autopilots is called
"FAIL...:
1428 22 0 1 0 0
An automatic landing system necessitating that the "OPERATIO "SAFE" "REDUNDAN "PASSIVE"
landing be continued manually in the case of a system NAL" T"
failure during an automatic approach is called "FAIL...."
1429 22 0 0 0 1
The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic directional error flux valve. directional
compass resetting device originates from the: gyro erection detector. gyro unit.
device.
1430 22 0 1 0 0
The heading information originating from the error erector heading amplifier.
1431 22 gyromagnetic compass flux valve is sent to the: detector. system. indicator. 1 0 0 0
The flight data recorder must start data recording when lining before the when taking- when the
automatically: up. airplane is off. landing
able to move gear is
by under its retracted.
own power.

1432 22 0 1 0 0
VFE is the maximum speed : at which the with the flaps with the flaps with the
flaps can be extended in extended in a flaps
operated. take-off given extended
position. position. in landing
position.
1433 22 0 0 1 0
The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio 2700 MHz to 5 GHz. 4200 MHz to 5400 MHz
altimeter is: 2900 MHz. 4400 MHz. or 9400
MHz.
1434 22 0 0 1 0
In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration a heading an apparent an apparent a constant
following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic fluctuating turn to the turn to the heading.
compass will indicate : about 090°. South. North.
1435 22 0 1 0 0
If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the 686 kt. 596 kt. 247 kt. 307 kt.
1436 22 local speed of sound is : 0 1 0 0
 A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself on ground. when going at at the
automatically: around. approximatel decision
y 100 ft. height.
1437 22 0 0 1 0
The airplane outside air temperature "probe" measures "static" air "total" air "static" air "total" air
the : temperature temperature temperature temperatur
minus minus kinetic minus kinetic e minus
compressibili heating heating compressi
ty effects in effects in effects in bility
order to order to order to effects in
obtain the obtain the obtain the order to
total static total obtain the
temperature. temperature. temperature. static
temperatur
e.

1438 22 0 1 0 0
When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, remains is temporarily temporarily is damped
approaches the "cone of confusion" over a VOR station, always disconnected switches over by a trim
the roll channel of the autopilot : coupled to . to the input
the selected heading signal
VOR radial. mode. from the
lateral trim
system.

1439 22 0 0 1 0
Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given 2 degrees-of- 1 degree-of- l degree-of- 2 degrees-
by a gyro at : freedom in freedom in freedom in of-freedom
the vertical the horizontal the vertical in the
axis axis axis horizontal
axis

1440 22 0 0 0 1
For this question use annex (022-10179A)_x000D_ 3 2 1 4
_x000D_
Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented
in the appended annex. The one corresponding to the
optimal interception path calculated by a flight director is
number :
1441 22 0 1 0 0
The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity 1, 3 1 1, 2, 3 3
Warning System) concerns aeroplanes which are,
depending on their age, weight and passenger
capacity :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- turboprop-powered_x000D_
2- piston-powered_x000D_
3- jet-powered_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

1442 22 1 0 0 0
The gyromagnetic compass torque motor : causes the causes the feeds the is fed by
directional heading error detector the flux
gyro unit to indicator to system valve
precess precess
1443 22 1 0 0 0
 A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the 2-3-5 1-3-4-5 3-5 1-4-5
horizontal component of the earth's magnetic
field._x000D_
_x000D_
1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron
bars_x000D_
2- the primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5
Hz)_x000D_
3- the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass
or a directional gyro_x000D_
4- the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft
three inertial axis_x000D_
5- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field
indication is less than 0,5%_x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?

1444 22 1 0 0 0
The flight data recorders must preserve the 48 hours of 30 minutes of 25 hours of flight
conversation and aural warnings of the last : operation operation operation
1445 22 0 1 0 0
A thermocouple can be made of: a three wire a single wire two metal two metal
coil. coil. conductors of conductor
different s of the
nature fixed same
together at nature
two points. fixed
together at
two points.

1446 22 0 0 1 0
The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator 1,4 1,2 2,4 2,3
System are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- Mach Meter indication_x000D_
2- Angle of Attack_x000D_
3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS)_x000D_
4- Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats)_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

1447 22 0 0 1 0
In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part I, the flight data at the right or as far to the as far as near to
recorder is to be located in the aircraft : left wing tip rear as forward as the
practicable practicable landing
gear as
practicable

1448 22 0 1 0 0
Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as acceleration. deviation. variation. regulation.
much as possible :_x000D_
1449 22 0 1 0 0
In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration no apparent a heading an apparent an
following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic turn. fluctuating turn to the apparent
compass will indicate : about 270°. North. turn to the
South.

1450 22 0 0 1 0
The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch reset the set the automatically transfer a
channel. Its function is to: attitude, after attitude to an disengage stabilized
engaging instantaneou the autopilot aeroplane
(the s value in the case of to the pilot
autopilot). before an excessive during
engaging the pitch up. autopilot
autopilot. disengage
ment.

1451 22 0 0 0 1
 The autothrottle :_x000D_ 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 4 1, 3 and 4
_x000D_
1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM_x000D_
2- enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM_x000D_
3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated
airspeed (IAS)_x000D_
4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as
the autopilot_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1452 22 1 0 0 0
The advantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are 1 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- easy construction_x000D_
2- independence of indications with regard to airplane
attitude_x000D_
3- independence of indications with regard to the
accelerations _x000D_
4- independence of indications with regard to
temperature variations_x000D_
5- independence of indications with regard to
vibrations_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1453 22 1 0 0 0
The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth 180°/hour 5°/hour 15°/hour 90°/hour
1454 22 rotation is: 0 0 1 0
Landing shall be considered as having been carried out at the outer during during the at the
automatically when the autopilot and the auto-throttle of marker. ground roll. flare. decision
an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew : height.
1455 22 0 1 0 0
When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet true airspeed indicated indicated true
transport airplane equipped with autopilot (AP) and auto- (TAS) is airspeed airspeed airspeed
throttle (ATS) systems the: maintained (IAS) is (IAS) is (TAS) is
constant by maintained maintained maintaine
the auto- constant by constant by d constant
throttle the auto- the autopilot by the
system. throttle by means of autopilot
system. elevator. by means
of
elevator.

1456 22 0 0 1 0
The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes:_x000D_ 1, 2, 3, 4 2, 4 1, 2 1, 4
1. a microphone_x000D_
2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire
resistance standards_x000D_
3. an independent battery_x000D_
4. a flight data recorder_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
1457 22 0 0 1 0
The computers of the electrical flight controls system 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4
comply with programs defined by attitude control laws
such as :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the
load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as control
data sources_x000D_
2- the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral
stability_x000D_
3- the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes
depending on the speed_x000D_
4- these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope
_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1458 22 0 1 0 0
 The synchronization of the autopilot control channel 3, 4 2, 4 1, 4 2, 3
system :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- enables the prevention of jerks during disengagement
_x000D_
2- enables the cancellation of rudder control
signals_x000D_
3- enables the prevention of jerks during
engagement_x000D_
4- functions in the heading, navigation, approach
modes_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1459 22 1 0 0 0
A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5 1, 3, 5
following functions :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations
monitoring)_x000D_
2- automatic starting sequence _x000D_
3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's
instruments_x000D_
4- thrust management and protection of operation limits
_x000D_
5- monitoring of the thrust reversers_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1460 22 0 1 0 0
In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer 3, 5 1, 2 2, 5 1, 4
indicator :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the transmitter is a direct current generator_x000D_
2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive
speed _x000D_
3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive
speed_x000D_
4- the speed indicating element is a
galvanometer_x000D_
5. the speed indicating element is an asynchronous
motor driving a magnetic tachometer_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1461 22 1 0 0 0
The two main sources of information used to calculate fan rotation fan rotation high fan
turbojet thrust are the: speed (or speed (or pressure rotation
N1) or the N1) or the turbine speed (or
total EPR (Engine rotation N1) or the
pressure at Pressure speed or the total
the low Ratio). EPR (Engine pressure
pressure Pressure at the high
turbine Ratio). pressure
outlet. compress
or outlet.

1462 22 0 1 0 0
 A cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record :_x000D_ 1, 5 2, 4 3, 4 1, 2
_x000D_
1. the information exchanged by the cabin crew_x000D_
2. the conversations between the crew members and
voice communications transmitted from or received on
the flight deck by radio_x000D_
3. the announcements made via the public address
even if it has not been selected_x000D_
4. the conversations and alarms audible in the
cockpit_x000D_
5. the captain conversations only_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

1463 22 0 1 0 0
An "altitude warning system" must at least warn the crew 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5 1, 3, 4 1, 3
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- when approaching the pre-selected altitude_x000D_
2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too
fast_x000D_
3- in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-
selected altitude (at least by an aural warning)_x000D_
4- in case of excessive vertical speed_x000D_
5- when approaching the ground with the gear
retracted_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

1464 22 0 0 0 1
In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the prevents is inhibited can itself, intervenes
system which ensures synchronisation :_x000D_ uncommand when the when it fails, only when
ed surface automatic prevent the the
deflection pilot is automatic automatic
when the engaged. pilot from pilot has
automatic being been
pilot is engaged. engaged.
disengaged.

1465 22 0 0 1 0
The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to rudder(s) elevator(s) elevator(s), elevator(s)
trim out the hinge moment of the : and rudder(s) rudder(s) and
ailerons.
1466 22 0 0 0 1
The automatic power control system (autothrottle) of a 1, 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 5 2, 4 1, 4, 5
transport airplane has the following mode(s) :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- capture and holding of speeds_x000D_
2- capture and holding of Mach number_x000D_
3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack_x000D_
4- capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power
Ratio)_x000D_
5- capture and holding of flight paths_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

1467 22 1 0 0 0
A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot until the flare. until reaching during the until
and auto-throttle ensure good performance from the decision landing roll reaching
final approach : height. and 100 ft,
sometimes height at
until the which
aircraft point the
comes to a autopilot is
complete automatic
stop. ally
disconnect
ed.

1468 22 0 0 1 0
 The flight data recorder must automatically stop data landing gear airplane airplane main gear
recording when the: is extended clears the cannot any shock strut
and locked. runway. longer move compress
by its own es when
power. touching
the
runway.

1469 22 0 0 1 0
The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of : guiding the stabilizing stabilizing monitoring
airplane and and the
path. monitoring monitoring movement
the the of the
movement movement airplane
around the around the centre of
airplane airplane gravity.
aerodynamic centre of
centre. gravity.

1470 22 0 0 1 0
A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a restore the maintain the roll wings maintain
conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in flight attitude flight attitude level and the track
roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot and the rate obtained at maintain the and the
will : of turn that moment. heading flight
selected on obtained at attitude
the autopilot that moment. obtained
control at that
display unit. moment.

1471 22 0 1 0 0
A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal a direct the flight the flux the air-
from : reading director. valve. data-
magnetic computer.
compass.
1472 22 0 0 1 0
If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the a mass equal a mass of the exact a mass
capacitor gauges indicate: to the mass water mass of equal to
of a same different from water zero.
volume of zero, but contained in
fuel. inaccurate. the tanks.

1473 22 0 1 0 0
From a flight mechanics point of view, the "guidance" stabilizing monitoring stabilizing monitoring
functions of a transport airplane autopilot consist in: and the and the
monitoring movements monitoring movement
the of the centre the s of the
movements of gravity in movements aerodyna
around the the three around the mic centre
aerodynamic dimensions centre of in the
centre. of space gravity. three
(path). dimension
s of space
(path).

1474 22 0 1 0 0
During a Category II automatic approach, the height altimeter. radio GPS (Global encoding
information is supplied by the : altimeter. Positioning altimeter.
System).
1475 22 0 1 0 0
Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate 10 hours. 30 minutes. 60 minutes. 25 hours.
of which is subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data
recording system must be able to store the recorded
data for a minimum of the last :

1476 22 0 0 0 1
 The autopilot basic modes include, among other things, 1, 4 1, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3
the following functions :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- pitch attitude hold _x000D_
2- pressure altitude hold_x000D_
3- horizontal wing hold_x000D_
4- heading hold _x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

1477 22 0 1 0 0
The basic principle used for measuring a quantity of fuel internal capacity of a electromotive capacity of
in a transport airplane equipped with "capacitor" gauges resistance of capacitor force of a a
is that the: a capacity depends on capacity capacitor
depends on the distance depends on depends
the nature of between its the nature of on the
the dielectric plates. the dielectric nature of
in which it is in which it is the
immersed. immersed. dielectric
in which it
is
immersed.

1478 22 0 0 0 1
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by : dividing dividing multiplying
turbine compressor compressor multiplying
discharge discharge inlet pressure compress
pressure by pressure by by turbine or
compressor turbine discharge discharge
inlet discharge pressure. pressure
pressure. pressure. by turbine
inlet
pressure.

1479 22 1 0 0 0
The command bars of a flight director are generally HSI RMI (Radio ILS ADI
represented on an: (Horizontal Magnetic (Instrument (Attitude
Situation Indicator) Landing Director
Indicator) System) Indicator)
1480 22 0 0 0 1
A thermocouple type thermometer consists of: a single-wire two metal two metal a
metal conductors of conductors of Wheatston
winding. different type the same e bridge
connected at type connected
one point. connected at to a
two points. voltage
indicator.

1481 22 0 1 0 0
The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the : necessity of generation of influence of high
providing a spurious temperature influence
power supply signals at the on the of line
source. commutator. indication. resistance
on the
indication.

1482 22 1 0 0 0
In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in 1, 3, 4, 6 1, 2, 6 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 2, 3, 4, 5
addition to the mode display devices, the following
fundamental elements :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- Airflow valve_x000D_
2- Sensors_x000D_
3- Comparators_x000D_
4- Computers_x000D_
5- Amplifiers_x000D_
6- Servo-actuators_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

1483 22 0 0 1 0
 The principle of capacity gauges is based on the: capacitance flow rate and capacitance current
variation by torque variation of a variation in
the volume variation given the
measuremen occurring in a capacitor Wheatston
t carried out supply line. with the type e bridge.
on the of dielectric.
sensor.

1484 22 0 0 1 0
The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the a monitoring a synthetic a flying and a
pilot, while still looking outside, to have: only during view of the flight path monitoring
Cat III instrument control aid. of engine
precision procedure. data.
approaches.

1485 22 0 1 0 0
The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control computer input and crew inputs computer
channel may be defined as the relationship between the input output to the input
: deviation signals at the computer deviation
data and the amplifier and the data and
signals level detector the output
received by respectively responses control
the control (returned to deflection
servoactuato deviation the airplane). signals.
rs. data and
control
deflection
signals.

1486 22 0 0 0 1
Flight recorder duration must be such that flight data, 20 hours for 48 hours for 25 hours for 24 hours
cockpit voice and sound warnings may respectively be flight data, 15 flight data, 60 flight data, 30 for flight
recorded during at least: minutes for minutes for minutes for data, 60
cockpit cockpit cockpit minutes
voices and voices and voices and for cockpit
warnings warnings warnings voices and
horns. horns horns. warnings
horns.

1487 22 0 0 1 0
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder underread. be just as show the overread.
air, the altimeter will : correct as actual height
before. above
ground.

1488 22 0 0 0 1
 GENERAL NAVIGATION

54 2hr

In a remote indicating compass system the amount of positioning using a mounting the use of
deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical the master vertically the detector repeater
circuits may be minimised by: unit in the mounted unit in the cards
centre of the gyroscope wingtip
aircraft
4090 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12401A)_x000D_ 091° - 105° - 105° - 091° -
What are the average magnetic course and distance 562 NM 480 NM 562 NM 480 NM
between _x000D_
position N6000 W02000 and Sumburg VOR (N5955 W
00115)?
4091 61 0 0 1 0
When decelerating on a westerly heading in the anti- clockwise anti- clockwise
Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct clockwise giving an clockwise giving an
reading magnetic compass will turn : giving an apparent giving an apparent
apparent turn toward apparent turn towards
turn towards the south turn towards the north
the north the south

4092 61 0 1 0 0
The value of magnetic variation: must be 0° varies cannot has a
at the between a exceed 90° maximum of
magnetic maximum of 180°
equator 45° East and
45° West

4093 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-2304A)_x000D_ 0930 0113 2230 1413
The UTC of sunrise on 6 December at WINNIPEG
(Canada) (49°50'N 097°30'W) is:
4094 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annexes 061-2305A and 061- 1200 1300 0700 0800
2305B)_x000D_
When it is 1000 Standard Time in Kuwait, the Standard
Time in Algeria is:
4095 61 0 0 0 1
The north and south magnetic poles are the only the value of a freely isogonals a freely
positions on the earth's surface where: magnetic suspended converge suspended
variation compass compass
equals 90° needle will needle will
stand stand
vertical horizontal
4096 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12400A)_x000D_ 118° - 117° - 130° - 131° -
What are the average magnetic course and distance 440 NM 494 NM 440 NM 494 NM
between _x000D_
INGO VOR (N6350 W01640) and Sumburg VOR
(N5955 W 00115)?
4097 61 0 0 0 1
On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are: ellipses curves straight lines curves
convex to concave to
the equator the equator
4098 61 0 0 1 0
What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar 0.866 0.5 0.0 1.0
4099 61 Stereographic chart? 0 0 0 1
Which one of the following describes the appearance of Ellipses Curves Straight lines Curves
rhumb lines, except meridians, on a Polar Stereographic around the convex to concave to
chart? Pole the Pole the Pole
4100 61 0 0 0 1
 Which one of the following statements is correct They are They are The higher Any straight
concerning the appearance of great circles, with the complex curves the latitude line is a
exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart curves that convex to the closer great circle
whose tangency is at the pole ? can be the Pole they
convex approximate
and/or to a straight
concave to line
the Pole
4101 61 0 0 1 0
On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance expands is constant reduces is constant
between parallels of latitude spaced the same number between, throughout between, between,
of degrees apart : and reduces the chart and expands and expands
outside, the outside, the outside, the
standard standard standard
parallels parallels parallels

4102 61 0 0 1 0
Which one of the following, concerning great circles on a They are all They They are all With the
Direct Mercator chart, is correct? curves approximate curves exception of
concave to to straight convex to meridians
the equator lines the equator and the
between the equator, they
standard are curves
parallels concave to
the equator

4103 61 0 0 0 1
Parallels of latitude on a Direct Mercator chart are : parallel arcs of straight lines parallel
straight lines concentric converging straight lines
equally circles above the unequally
spaced equally pole spaced
spaced
4104 61 0 0 0 1
On a Direct Mercator chart, meridians are: parallel, inclined, parallel, inclined,
equally equally unequally unequally
spaced, spaced, spaced, spaced,
vertical straight lines vertical curved lines
straight lines that meet at straight lines that meet at
the nearer the nearer
pole pole
4105 61 1 0 0 0
Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the 66° 68° 72° 62°
sun will rise above the horizon and set every day?
4106 61 1 0 0 0
The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North compass compass magnetic alignment
4107 61 is called: deviation error variation error 1 0 0 0
A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart is is a is a Rhumb can only be
for normal flight planning purposes: approximatel Loxodromic line a parallel of
y a Great line latitude
Circle
4108 61 1 0 0 0
A Rhumb line is : a line a line on the the shortest any straight
convex to surface of distance line on a
the nearest the earth between two Lambert
pole on a cutting all points on a projection
Mercator meridians at Polyconic
projection the same projection
angle

4109 61 0 1 0 0
Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect having the with the having the of equal
points : same same same latitude
elevation variation longitude
above sea
level
4110 61 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 061-1828A and the data for 41°00'N 41°05'N 40°55'N 40°50'N
1215 UTC)_x000D_ 028°10'W 027°50'W 027°55'W 027°40'W
1215 UTC LAJES VORTAC (38°46'N 027°05'W) RMI
reads 178°, _x000D_
range 135 NM._x000D_
Calculate the aircraft position at 1215 UTC?
4111 61 0 0 1 0
A chart has the scale 1 : 1 000 000. From A to B on the 20.6 38.1 44.5 54.2
chart measures 1.5 inches (one inch equals 2.54
centimetres), the distance from A to B in NM is :
4112 61 1 0 0 0
The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the 23.5° 25.3° 27.5° 66.5°
4113 61 plane of equator is approximately : 1 0 0 0
A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre 310° 130° 160° 220°
line of the CRT of an airborne weather radar. If the
heading of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the magnetic
variation is 15° East, the true bearing of the aircraft from
the feature is:
4114 61 0 0 1 0
On which of the following chart projections is it NOT Transverse Polar Direct Lambert's
_x000D_ Mercator stereographi Mercator conformal
possible to represent the north or south poles? c
4115 61 0 0 1 0
The chart distance between meridians 10° apart at 1 : 6 000 1 : 2 500 1 : 3 000 1 : 5 000
latitude 65° North is 3.75 inches. The chart scale at this 000 000 000 000
latitude approximates:
4116 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-1818A)_x000D_ 70°15'N 80°00'N 78°45'N 79°15'N
Assume a North polar stereographic chart whose grid is 080°E 080°E 087°E 074°E
_x000D_
aligned with the Greenwich meridian._x000D_
An aircraft flies from the geographic North pole for a
distance _x000D_
of 480 NM along the 110°E meridian, then follows a grid
track _x000D_
of 154° for a distance of 300 NM._x000D_
Its position is now approximately:

4117 61 0 1 0 0
Some inertial reference and navigation systems are only the gyros and gyros and the
known as "strapdown". _x000D_ gyros, and acceleromet acceleromet gyroscopes
This means that: not the ers are ers need and
acceleromet mounted on satellite acceleromet
ers, become a stabilised information ers become
part of the platform in input to part of the
unit's fixture the aircraft obtain a unit's fixture
to the vertical to the
aircraft reference aircraft
structure structure

4118 61 0 0 0 1
As the INS position of the departure aerodrome, 080° 27.4'W 099° 32.6'W 099° 32.6'E 080° 27.4'E
coordinates 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'W are input instead of
35°32.7'N 139°46.3'E. When the aircraft subsequently
passes point 52°N 180°W, the longitude value shown on
the INS will be:
4119 61 0 1 0 0
In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a without with with without
pendulous system, an aircraft inertial platform damping damping damping damping
incorporates a device: and a period and a period and a period and a period
of 84.4 SEC of 84.4 SEC of 84.4 MIN of 84.4 MIN

4120 61 0 0 1 0
On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct meridian of Equator, datum prime
along the: tangency parallel of meridian meridian
origin and and and the
prime meridian equator
vertical perpendicula
r to it
4121 61 1 0 0 0
On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency parallel of north and standard Equator
is most accurately represented at the: origin south limits parallels
of the chart
4122 61 1 0 0 0
 The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a 1 : 30 000 1 : 18 000 1 : 21 000 1 : 25 000
direct Mercator chart is 133 cm. What is the 000 000 000 000
approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S?
4123 61 0 0 0 1
What is the chart distance between longitudes 179°E 167 mm 72 mm 133 mm 106 mm
and 175°W on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 :
5 000 000 at the equator?
4124 61 0 0 1 0
The constant of the cone, on a Lambert chart where the 0.50 0.64 0.75 0.40
convergence angle between longitudes 010°E and
030°W is 30°, is:
4125 61 0 0 1 0
The platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) is gyroscopic vertical movement in aircraft
maintained at right angles to the local vertical by inertia, earth velocities, the yawing manoeuvres
applying corrections for the effects of: rotation and earth plane, , earth
real drift precession, secondary rotation,
centrifugal precession transport
forces and and wander and
transport pendulous coriolis
drift oscillation

4126 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-2326A to 061- 0200 0600 1000 1200
2326D)_x000D_
When it is 0600 Standard Time in Queensland
(Australia) the Standard Time in Hawaii (USA) is:
4127 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-2325A to 061- 1715 on 30 1215 on 1 1315 on 1 1615 on 30
2325D)_x000D_ April May May April
An aircraft takes off from Guam at 2300 Standard Time
on 30 April local date. _x000D_
After a flight of 11 HR 15 MIN it lands at Los Angeles
(California). _x000D_
What is the Standard Time and local date of arrival
(assume summer time rules apply)?
4128 61 1 0 0 0
Isogonals converge at the: Magnetic North North and North and
equator magnetic South South
pole only magnetic geographic
poles only and
magnetic
poles
4129 61 0 0 0 1
When accelerating on an easterly heading in the anti- clockwise clockwise anti-
Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct clockwise giving an giving an clockwise
reading magnetic compass will turn : giving an apparent apparent giving an
apparent turn toward turn toward apparent
turn toward the north the south turn toward
the south the north
4130 61 0 1 0 0
When turning right from 330°(C) to 040°(C) in the over-indicate under- over-indicate under-
northern hemisphere, the reading of a direct reading the turn and indicate the the turn and indicate the
magnetic compass will: liquid swirl turn and liquid swirl turn and
will liquid swirl will increase liquid swirl
decrease will the effect will increase
the effect decrease the effect
the effect
4131 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an 060° more than more or less less than
accurate rate one turn to the right/starboard. If the initial 060° than 060° 060°
heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct depending
reading magnetic compass should read: on the
pendulous
suspension
used

4132 61 0 0 0 1
 The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field: weakens weakens is is
with with approximatel approximatel
increasing increasing y the same y the same
distance distance at all at magnetic
from the from the magnetic latitudes
magnetic nearer latitudes 50°N and
poles magnetic less than 50°S
pole 60°
4133 61 0 0 0 1
A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the agonic line aclinic line isogonal isotach
value of magnetic variation is zero is called an:
4134 61 1 0 0 0
A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard shows lines the scale is shows all the scale is
parallels: of longitude only correct great circles only correct
as parallel along the as straight at parallel of
straight lines standard lines origin
parallels

4135 61 0 1 0 0
On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between 1 : 2 000 1 : 6 000 1 : 5 000 1 : 3 750
meridians 5° apart along latitude 37° North is 9 cm. The 000 000 000 000
scale of the chart at that parallel approximates:
4136 61 0 0 1 0
On the 27th of February, at 52°S and 040°E, the sunrise 0523 UTC 0743 UTC 0243 UTC 2143 UTC
is at 0243 UTC. _x000D_
On the same day, at 52°S and 035°W, the sunrise is at:
4137 61 0 1 0 0
An aeroplane flies from A (59°S 142°W) to B (61°S varies by decreases varies by 4° increases by
148°W) with a TAS of 480 kt. _x000D_ 10° by 6° 5°
The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial
Navigation System in which AB track is active._x000D_
On route AB, the true track:

4138 61 0 0 0 1
The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 300 NM 450 NM 600 NM 150 NM
4139 61 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N 007°30'W) is: 1 0 0 0
An aircraft is over position HO (55°30'N 060°15'W), 031° 332° 028° 208°
where YYR VOR (53°30'N 060°15'W) can be received.
The magnetic variation is 31°W at HO and 28°W at
YYR._x000D_
What is the radial from YYR?
4140 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 0.87 0.825 0.90 0.85
TAS = 485 kt,_x000D_
OAT = ISA +10°C,_x000D_
FL 410._x000D_
Calculate the Mach Number?
4141 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 099° 279° 049° 229°
A polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with
the zero meridian. _x000D_
Grid track 344°, _x000D_
Longitude 115°00'W,_x000D_
Calculate the true course?
4142 61 0 0 0 1
For a distance of 1860 NM between Q and R, a ground 1685 NM 1532 NM 930 NM 1865 NM
speed "out" of 385 kt, a ground speed "back" of 465 kt
and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the
distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is:

4143 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the 277° 284° 263° 270°
autopilot connected to the aircraft's inertial system. The
coordinates of A (45°S 010°W) and B (45°S 030°W)
have been entered._x000D_
The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the
nearest degree, is:
4144 61 1 0 0 0
The constant of cone of a Lambert conformal conic chart 68°25' 21°35' 23°18' 66°42'
is quoted as 0.3955. _x000D_
At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency
correctly represented?
4145 61 0 0 1 0
 The duration of civil twilight is the time: agreed by needed by between between
the the sun to sunset and sunset and
international move from when the when the
aeronautical the apparent centre of the centre of the
authorities height of 0° sun is 12° sun is 6°
which is 12 to the below the below the
minutes apparent true horizon true horizon
height of 6°

4146 61 0 0 0 1
The Great Circle bearing of 'B' (70°S 060°E), from 'A' 150°(T) 090°(T) 315°(T) 135°(T)
4147 61 (70° S 030° W), is approximately: 0 0 0 1
In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7 1 : 7 000 1 : 1 300 1 : 700 000 1 : 130 000
4148 61 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately: 000 000 0 1 0 0
At 60° N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1 : 3 000 1 : 3 000 1 : 3 500 1 : 1 500 1 : 6 000
000._x000D_ 000 000 000 000
What is the scale at the equator?
4149 61 0 0 0 1
During initial alignment an inertial navigation system is horizontal the aircraft computer vertical
north aligned by inputs from: acceleromet remote matching of acceleromet
ers and the reading measured ers and the
east gyro compass gravity north gyro
system magnitude
to gravity
magnitude
of initial
alignment

4150 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation 60°00.0'N 59°49.0'N 60°11.0'N 60°05.7'N
system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following
two points have been entered in the INS
computer:_x000D_
WPT 1: 60°N 030°W_x000D_
WPT 2: 60°N 020°W_x000D_
When 025°W is passed the latitude shown on the
display unit of the inertial navigation system will be:

4151 61 0 0 0 1
The azimuth gyro of an inertial unit has a drift of 6 NM 60 NM 12 NM 1 NM
0.01°/HR._x000D_
After a flight of 12 HR with a ground speed of 500 kt, the
error on the aeroplane position is approximately :

4152 61 0 0 1 0
The drift of the azimuth gyro on an inertial unit induces proportional sinusoîdal proportional proportional
an error in the position given by this unit. "t" being the to t/2 to t to the
elapsed time._x000D_ square of
The total error is: time, t²
4153 61 0 0 1 0
With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS required to not required required for required for
input is: provide a Polar rhumb line
W/V read navigation navigation
out
4154 61 1 0 0 0
Given:_x000D_ GD = (AD X GD = (AD - GD = AD X GD = TAS/
AD = Air distance _x000D_ GS)/TAS TAS)/TAS (GS (GS X AD)
GD = Ground distance_x000D_ -TAS)/GS
TAS = True Airspeed_x000D_
GS = Groundspeed_x000D_
Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate
ground distance (GD) gone?
4155 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12583A)_x000D_ N5210 N5155 N5205 N5200
Given: _x000D_ W00800 W00810 W00805 W00800
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 143°,_x000D_
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 050°._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4156 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12604A)_x000D_ Connemara Punchestow KERRY/Farr Waterford
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5211 aerodrome n aerodrome anfore NDB
W00931? aerodrome
4157 61 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 061-12589A)_x000D_ SHA SHA SHA SHA
Given:_x000D_ 205°_x000D 033°_x000D 212°_x000D 025°_x000D
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1_x000D_ _ _ _ _
CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7_x000D_ CRK 321° CRK 149° CRK 328° CRK 141°
Aircraft position N5220 W00910_x000D_
Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position?
4158 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12588A)_x000D_ N5228 N5300 N5258 N5225
Given: _x000D_ W00920 W0830 W00825 W00917
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 048°/22
NM._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4159 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12587A)_x000D_ N5155 N5200 N5330 N5328
Given: _x000D_ W00915 W0925 W00830 W00820
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 025°/49
NM._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4160 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12586A)_x000D_ N5228 N5303 N5220 N5305
Given: _x000D_ W00935 W00810 W00930 W00815
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 232°/32
NM._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4161 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12591A)_x000D_ SHA SHA SHA SHA
Given:_x000D_ 068°_x000D 060°_x000D 240°_x000D 248°_x000D
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1_x000D_ _ _ _ _
CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7_x000D_ CRK 145° CRK 138° CRK 137° CRK 325°
Aircraft position N5230 W00930_x000D_
Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position?
4162 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12584A)_x000D_ N5250 N5230 N5300 N5225
Given: _x000D_ W00950 W00800 W00945 W00805
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120°/35
NM._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4163 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12592A)_x000D_ SHA SHA SHA SHA
Given:_x000D_ 042°_x000D 213°_x000D 033°_x000D 221°_x000D
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1_x000D_ _ _ _ _
CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1_x000D_ CON 138° CON 310° CON 130° CON 318°
Aircraft position N5330 W00800_x000D_
Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position?
4164 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12582A)_x000D_ N5220 N5215 N5210 N5205
Given: _x000D_ W00750 W00755 W00750 W00755
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 129°,_x000D_
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 047°._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4165 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12581A)_x000D_ N5230 N5225 N5220 N5240
Given: _x000D_ W00800 W00805 W00750 W00750
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120°,_x000D_
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 033°._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4166 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12580A)_x000D_ N5205 N5215 N5210 N5118
Given: _x000D_ W00915 W00917 W00910 W00913
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 205°,_x000D_
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 317°._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4167 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12579A)_x000D_ N5210 N5220 N5230 N5210
Given: _x000D_ W00930 W00920 W00910 W00910
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 223°,_x000D_
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 322°._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4168 61 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 061-12578A)_x000D_ 035° - 80 042° - 83 036° - 81 044° - 82
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and EKN NDB
(N5423.6 W00738.7)?
4169 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12577A)_x000D_ 327° - 124 335° - 128 325° - 126 320° - 127
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CFN NDB (N5502.6
W00820.4)?
4170 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12585A)_x000D_ N5210 N5208 N5315 N5317
Given: _x000D_ W00830 W00840 W00915 W00908
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 165°/36
NM._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4171 61 1 0 0 0
Where and when are the IRS positions updated? During flight IRS Updating is Only on the
IRS positions are normally ground
positions are updated by carried out during the
automaticall pressing the by the crew alignment
y updated by 'Take-off/ when over- procedure
the FMC Go-around' flying a
button at the known
start of the position
take-off roll (VOR station
or NDB)

4172 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12560A)_x000D_ 165° - 27 335° - 43 025° - 38 233° - 35
What is the radial and DME distance from CON NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5330
W00930?
4173 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12602A)_x000D_ 265° - 17 077° - 18 257° - 17 086° - 18
Given:_x000D_ NM NM NM NM
CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1)_x000D_
Castlebar aerodrome (N5351 W00917)_x000D_
What is the CON radial and DME distance when
overhead Castlebar aerodrome?
4174 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12601A)_x000D_ 154° - 38 326° - 37 146° - 38 333° - 37
Given:_x000D_ NM NM NM NM
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)_x000D_
Connemara aerodrome (N5314 W00928)_x000D_
What is the SHA radial and DME distance when
overhead Connemara aerodrome?
4175 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst 4500 3900 6500 650 FT/MIN
maintaining a GS of 540 kt._x000D_ FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately:
4176 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12600A)_x000D_ 240° - 41 068° - 41 248° - 42 060° - 42
Given:_x000D_ NM NM NM Nm
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)_x000D_
Birr aerodrome (N5304 W00754)_x000D_
What is the SHA radial and DME distance when
overhead Birr aerodrome?
4177 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12590A)_x000D_ SHA SHA SHA SHA
Given:_x000D_ 124°_x000D 131°_x000D 304°_x000D 312°_x000D
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1_x000D_ _ _ _ _
CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7_x000D_ CRK 009° CRK 017° CRK 189° CRK 197°
Aircraft position N5230 W00820_x000D_
Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position?
4178 61 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 061-12598A)_x000D_ N5330 N5343 N5335 N5337
Given:_x000D_ W00820 W00925 W00925 W00820
CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) DME 30 NM,_x000D_
CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 25 NM,_x000D_
Aircraft heading 270°(M),_x000D_
Both DME distances decreasing._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4179 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12574A)_x000D_ 156° - 136 164° - 138 336° - 137 344° - 139
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and SLG NDB
(N5416.7 W00836.0)?
4180 61 0 0 1 0
What is the source of magnetic variation information in a Magnetic Magnetic The main The FMS
Flight Management System (FMS)? variation is variation directional calculates
calculated information gyro which is MH and MT
by each IRS is stored in coupled to from the
based on each IRS the magnetic FMC
the memory; it is sensor (flux position
respective applied to valve)
IRS position the true positioned in
and the heading the wingtip
aircraft calculated
magnetic by the
heading respective
IRS

4181 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12597A)_x000D_ N5255 N5250 N5305 N5310
Given:_x000D_ W00815 W0030 W00930 W00820
CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 34 NM,_x000D_
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 26 NM,_x000D_
Aircraft heading 090°(M),_x000D_
Both DME distances increasing._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4182 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12596A)_x000D_ N5307 N5355 N5310 N5252
Given:_x000D_ W00923 W00825 W00830 W00923
CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 18 NM,_x000D_
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 30 NM,_x000D_
Aircraft heading 270°(M),_x000D_
Both DME distances decreasing._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4183 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12595A)_x000D_ N5225 N5215 N5205 N5215
Given:_x000D_ W00810 W00805 W00915 W00915
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 41 NM,_x000D_
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 30 NM,_x000D_
Aircraft heading 270°(M),_x000D_
Both DME distances decreasing._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4184 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12594A)_x000D_ N5235 N5200 N5215 N5215
Given:_x000D_ W00750 W00935 W00940 W00745
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 50 NM,_x000D_
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 41 NM,_x000D_
Aircraft heading 270°(M),_x000D_
Both DME distances increasing._x000D_
What is the aircraft position?
4185 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12593A)_x000D_ SHA SHA SHA SHA
Given:_x000D_ 137°_x000D 317°_x000D 145°_x000D 325°_x000D
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1_x000D_ _ _ _ _
CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1_x000D_ CON 046° CON 226° CON 055° CON 235°
Aircraft position N5320 W00950_x000D_
Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position?
4186 61 0 0 0 1
 (For this question refer to annex 061-12599A)_x000D_ 119° - 44 127° - 45 299° - 42 307° - 43
Given:_x000D_ NM NM NM NM
CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7)_x000D_
Kerry aerodrome (N5210.9 W00931.4)_x000D_
What is the CRK radial and DME distance when
overhead Kerry aerodrome?
4187 61 0 0 0 1
Which of the following lists, which compares an Inertial The platform It does not There is little There is little
Reference System that utilises Ring Laser Gyroscopes is kept suffer from or no 'spin or no 'spin
(RLG) instead of conventional gyroscopes, is completely stable 'lock in' error up' time and up' time and
correct? relative to and it is it does not it is
the earth insensitive suffer from insensitive
mathematica to 'lock in' error to
lly rather gravitational gravitational
than ('g') forces ('g') forces
mechanicall
y but it has a
longer 'spin
up' time

4188 61 0 0 0 1
Gyrocompassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is ON ALIGN STBY ATT/REF
accomplished with the mode selector switched to:
4189 61 0 1 0 0
With reference to an inertial navigation system (INS), HDG/DA TK/GS XTK/TKE DSRTK/STS
the initial great circle track between computer inserted
waypoints will be displayed when the control display unit
(CDU) is selected to:
4190 61 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statement is correct concerning Gyro- Gyro- Gyro- Gyro-
gyro-compassing of an inertial navigation system (INS)? compassing compassing compassing compassing
of an INS is of an INS is of an INS is of an INS is
not possible possible in possible in not possible
in flight flight flight in flight
because it because it because it because it
cannot can cannot can
differentiate differentiate differentiate differentiate
between between between between
movement movement movement movement
induced and induced and induced and induced and
misalignmen misalignmen misalignmen misalignmen
t induced t induced t induced t induced
acceleration acceleration acceleration acceleration
s. s. s. s.

4191 61 1 0 0 0
During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation will accept a will not will accept a will not
system (INS) the equipment: 10° error in accept a 10° 10° error in accept a 10°
initial error in initial initial error in initial
latitude and latitude but latitude but latitude or
initial will accept a will not initial
longitude 10° error in accept a 10° longitude
initial error in initial
longitude longitude

4192 61 0 1 0 0
Double integration of the output from the east/west velocity distance vehicle distance
accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in east/west east/west longitude north/south
the NAV MODE give:
4193 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12576A)_x000D_ 268° - 91 272° - 89 270° - 90 278° - 89
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CRN NDB (N5318.1
W00856.5)?
4194 61 0 0 1 0
 The principle of 'Schuler Tuning' as applied to the both gyro- only gyro- both gyro- only to
operation of Inertial Navigation Systems/ Inertial stabilised stabilised stabilised 'strapdown'
Reference Systems is applicable to: platform and systems and laser laser gyro
'strapdown' gyro systems
systems systems but
only when
operating in
the non
'strapdown'
mode

4195 61 1 0 0 0
The automatic flight control system is coupled to the 60°N to 60°N to 30°S to 30°S to
guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system. 60°N 50°N 30°N 25°S
_x000D_
Which pair of latitudes will give the greatest difference
between initial track read-out and the average true
course given, in each case, a difference of longitude of
10°?
4196 61 1 0 0 0
The resultant of the first integration of the output from change of vehicle departure velocity
the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation longitude longitude along the
system (INS) in NAV MODE is: local parallel
of latitude

4197 61 0 0 0 1
One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope cavity zero drop beam lock dither
occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero rotation
when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced.
What is the name of the technique, effected by means of
a piezo-electric motor, that is used to correct this error?

4198 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-9442A)_x000D_ HDG 064° - HDG 075° - HDG 070° - HDG 075° -
Complete line 6 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', ETA 1449 ETA 1452 ETA 1459 ETA 1502
positions 'L' to 'M'._x000D_ UTC UTC UTC UTC
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4199 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-9441A)_x000D_ HDG 337° - HDG 320° - HDG 337° - HDG 320° -
Complete line 5 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', ETA 1422 ETA 1412 ETA 1322 ETA 1432
positions 'J' to 'K'._x000D_ UTC UTC UTC UTC
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4200 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-9440A)_x000D_ HDG 344° - HDG 344° - HDG 354° - HDG 034° -
Complete line 4 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', ETA 1303 ETA 1336 ETA 1326 ETA 1336
positions 'G' to 'H'._x000D_ UTC UTC UTC UTC
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4201 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-9439A)_x000D_ HDG 095° - HDG 106° - HDG 115° - HDG 105° -
Complete line 3 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', ETA 1155 ETA 1215 ETA 1145 ETA 1205
positions 'E' to 'F'._x000D_ UTC UTC UTC UTC
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4202 61 0 0 0 1
The resultant of the first integration from the north/south change latitude velocity groundspee
accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in latitude along the d
the NAV MODE is: local
meridian
4203 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 900 FT/MIN 1000 700 FT/MIN 800 FT/MIN
ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG,_x000D_ FT/MIN
GS = 150 kt._x000D_
What is the approximate rate of descent?
4204 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12605A)_x000D_ Clonbullogu TUSKAR WTD NDB KERRY/Farr
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5212 e aerodrome ROCK LT.H. anfore
W00612? NDB aerodrome
4205 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12573A)_x000D_ 286° - 81 294° - 80 075° - 81 277° - 83
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and FOY NDB
(N5234.0 W00911.7)?
4206 61 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 061-12572A)_x000D_ 011° - 47 020° - 46 348° - 46 191° - 45
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0) and CFN NDB (N5502.6
W00820.4)?
4207 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12571A)_x000D_ 113° - 97 293° - 98 063° - 101 071° - 100
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) and BEL VOR
(N5439.7 W00613.8)?
4208 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12570A)_x000D_ 089° - 95 229° - 125 237° - 130 057° - 126
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and BEL VOR (N5439.7
W00613.8)?
4209 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12569A)_x000D_ 262° - 86 128° - 99 308° - 98 316° - 96
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and SLG NDB (N5416.7
W00836.0)?
4210 61 0 0 0 1
The following points are entered into an inertial zero a 9° a 4° a 9°
navigation system (INS)._x000D_ increase decrease decrease
WPT 1: 60°N 30°W_x000D_
WPT 2: 60°N 20°W_x000D_
WPT 3: 60°N 10°W_x000D_
The inertial navigation system is connected to the
automatic pilot on route (1-2-3)._x000D_
The track change when passing WPT 2 will be
approximately:

4211 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 8.3 NM 7.0 NM 13.1 NM 14.5 NM
aircraft height 2500 FT,_x000D_
ILS GP angle 3°._x000D_
At what approximate distance from THR can you expect
to capture the GP?
4212 61 1 0 0 0
The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft 9° greater 5° less than 9° less than 5° greater
is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial than the final the final one the final one than the final
navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from one one
waypoint No. 2 (60°00'S 070°00'W) to No. 3 (60°00'S
080°00'W)._x000D_
Comparing the initial track (°T) at 070°00'W and the final
track (°T) at 080°00'W, the difference between them is
that the initial track is approximately:

4213 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 800 FT/MIN 950 FT/MIN 1500 1400
TAS = 197 kt, _x000D_ FT/MIN FT/MIN
True course = 240°,_x000D_
W/V = 180/30kt. _x000D_
Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40.
_x000D_
Distance to be covered during descent is 39
NM._x000D_
What is the approximate rate of descent?
4214 61 0 0 0 1
What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an Mach Mach Mach Mach
aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS? number number number number
remains decreases; increases; increases;
constant; TAS TAS remains TAS
TAS decreases constant increases
increases
4215 61 0 0 0 1
 Which of the following statements concerning the earth's Dip is the The blue At the The earth's
magnetic field is completely correct? angle pole of the earth's magnetic
between earth's magnetic field can be
total magnetic equator, the classified as
magnetic field is inclination transient,
field and situated in varies semi-
vertical field North depending permanent
component Canada on whether or
the permanent
geograhic
equator is
north or
south of the
magnetic
equator

4216 61 0 1 0 0
Which of the following correctly lists the order of OFF - OFF - ON OFF - OFF -
available selections of the Mode Selector switches of an ALIGN - - ALIGN - STBY - ALIGN -
inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel? NAV - ATT NAV ALIGN - ATT - NAV
NAV
4217 61 1 0 0 0
The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft 266° 270° 274° 278°
is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial
navigation system (INS)._x000D_
The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3
(55°00'N 020°00'W) and No.4 (55°00'N
030°00'W)._x000D_
With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest
whole degree, the initial track read-out from waypoint
No. 3 will be:

4218 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12575A)_x000D_ 010° - 71 358° - 72 006° - 71 002° - 72
What is the average track (°T) and distance between NM NM NM NM
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) and CON VOR
(N5354.8 W00849.1)?
4219 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12568A)_x000D_ 205° - 71 017° - 70 025° - 70 197° - 71
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5) and CRN NDB
(N5318.1 W00856.5)?
4220 61 0 0 1 0
The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic using long pendulous keeping the using the
(dead beat) by: magnets suspension magnetic lowest
of the assembly acceptable
magnetic mass close viscosity
assembly to the compass
compass liquid
point and by
using
damping
wires

4221 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12603A)_x000D_ 296° - 46 304° - 47 124° - 46 116° - 47
Given:_x000D_ NM NM NM NM
CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1)_x000D_
Abbey Shrule aerodrome (N5335 W00739)_x000D_
What is the CON radial and DME distance when
overhead Abbey Shrule aerodrome?
4222 61 0 0 1 0
What is the validity period of the 'permanent' data base 28 days one 3 calendar 14 days
of aeronautical information stored in the FMC In the calendar months
B737-400 Flight Management System? month
4223 61 1 0 0 0
 What indication, if any, is given in the B737-400 Flight A warning No A warning A warning
Management System if radio updating is not available? message is indication is message is message is
displayed on given so displayed on displayed on
the Flight long as the the EHSI the IRS
Director IRS and MFDU displays
System positions
remain
within limits
4224 61 0 0 1 0
Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management Multi- Flight Inertial Flight
System (FMS) is used to enter flight plan routeing and Function Managemen Reference Director
performance parameters? Control t Computer System System
Display Unit
4225 61 1 0 0 0
The purpose of the Flight Management System (FMS), both manual continuous manual continuous
as for example installed in the B737-400, is to provide: navigation automatic navigation automatic
guidance navigation guidance navigation
and guidance and guidance as
performance and automatic well as
managemen performance performance manual
t managemen managemen performance
t t managemen
t

4226 61 0 1 0 0
How is the radio position determined by the FMC in the DME/DME DME/DME DME ranges VOR/DME
B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? or and/ or range and
VOR/DME VOR/ADF bearing
bearings

4227 61 1 0 0 0
A direct reading compass should be swung when: the aircraft there is a there is a the aircraft is
has made large, and large stored for a
more than a permanent, change in long period
stated change in magnetic and is
number of magnetic longitude frequently
landings latitude moved

4228 61 0 1 0 0
In which of the following situations is the FMC present Just after At top of At top of On final
position of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument take-off climb descent approach
System likely to be least accurate?
4229 61 1 0 0 0
The annunciator of a remote indicating compass system synchronisin compensatin setting local setting the
is used when: g the g for magnetic 'heading'
magnetic deviation variation pointer
and gyro
compass
elements
4230 61 1 0 0 0
The convergence factor of a Lambert conformal conic 38°15' 51°45' 52°05' 80°39'
chart is quoted as 0.78535. _x000D_
At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency
correctly represented?
4231 61 0 1 0 0
At 47° North the chart distance between meridians 10° 1 : 8 000 1 : 3 000 1 : 2 500 1 : 6 000
apart is 5 inches. _x000D_ 000 000 000 000
The scale of the chart at 47° North approximates:
4232 61 0 0 0 1
On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be curve straight line curve complex
represented by a: convex to concave to curve
the equator the equator
4233 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an 225° less than more or less more than
accurate rate one turn to the right. _x000D_ 225° than 225° 225°
If the initial heading was 135°, after 30 seconds the depending
direct reading magnetic compass should read: on the
pendulous
suspension
used

4234 61 0 0 0 1
 When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern clockwise clockwise anti- anti-
hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading giving an giving an clockwise clockwise
magnetic compass will turn: apparent apparent giving an giving an
turn towards turn towards apparent apparent
the north the south turn towards turn towards
the north the south

4235 61 0 0 1 0
On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard along the along the in the area along the
parallels, the quoted scale is correct: prime two standard between the parallel of
meridian parallels standard origin
parallels

4236 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12615A)_x000D_ 6 2 3 5
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
DME?
4237 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12623A)_x000D_ 2 3 4 5
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Control
Zone boundary?
4238 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A)_x000D_ 1 3 4 5
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Flight
Information Region (FIR) boundary?
4239 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12620A)_x000D_ 3 6 7 1
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
VORTAC?
4240 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12619A)_x000D_ 6 7 1 2
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
TACAN?
4241 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12618A)_x000D_ 5 6 2 3
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
basic, non-specified, navigation aid?
4242 61 1 0 0 0
In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs manually manually automaticall manually
are used during preflight to: initialize the initialize the y initialize initialize the
IRSs, FMC IRSs and the IRSs and Flight
and FMC with FMC with Director
Autothrottle dispatch dispatch System and
with dispatch information information FMC with
information dispatch
information
4243 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12616A)_x000D_ 3 5 6 2
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
VOR?
4244 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12613A)_x000D_ VOR: NDB civil airport: NDB: ILS civil airport:
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart ILS NDB
symbols shown at position N5211 W00705?
4245 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12614A)_x000D_ 6 7 1 2
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
VOR/DME?
4246 61 0 0 1 0
Which of the following lists the first three pages of the POS INIT - IDENT - POS INIT - IDENT -
FMC/CDU normally used to enter data on initial start-up RTE - RTE - RTE - POS INIT -
of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? IDENT DEPARTUR DEPARTUR RTE
E E
4247 61 0 0 0 1
Which FMC/CDU page normally appears on initial INITIAL POS INIT PERF INIT IDENT
power application to the B737-400 Electronic Flight
Instrument System?
4248 61 0 0 0 1
 Which of the following lists all the methods that can be Identifier Identifier Identifier Identifier
used to enter 'Created Waypoints' into the CDU of a bearing/dista bearing/dista bearing/dista bearing/dista
B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? nce; place nce; place nce; place nce; place
distance/pla bearing/plac bearing/plac bearing/plac
ce distance; e bearing; e distance; e bearing;
along-track along-track along/across latitude and
displacemen displacemen -track longitude;
t; latitude t; latitude displacemen waypoint
and and t; latitude name
longitude longitude and
longitude

4249 61 0 1 0 0
Which of the following can all be stored as five letter Waypoint Waypoint Waypoint Airway
waypoint identifiers through the CDU of a B737-400 names; names; names; names;
Electronic Flight Instrument System? navaid navaid navaid navaid
frequencies; positions; identifiers; identifiers;
runway airport ICAO runway airport
codes; identifiers; numbers; names;
airport ICAO airport airport ICAO waypoint
identifiers names identifiers code
numbers

4250 61 0 0 1 0
What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, Urgent and Priority and Urgent and Alerting and
the two levels of message produced by the CDU of the Routine Alerting Advisory Advisory
B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
4251 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12617A)_x000D_ 2 3 4 6
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates an
NDB?
4252 61 0 0 1 0
ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a only attitude navigation altitude, only attitude
back-up mode providing: information information heading and and heading
position information
information

4253 61 0 0 0 1
Permanent magnetism in aircraft arises chiefly from: the the effect of hammering, exposure to
combined internal and the the earth's
effect of wiring and effect of the magnetic
aircraft exposure to earth's field during
electrical electrical magnetic normal
equipment storms field, whilst operation
and the under
earth's construction
magnetic
field

4254 61 0 0 1 0
An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an 325° 145° 195° 205°
airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing
of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation
the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 020°
with the magnetic variation (VAR) 25°W?

4255 61 0 1 0 0
An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on 130° 160° 190° 220°
an airborne weather radar display. What is the true
bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading
(MH) of 355° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 15°E?

4256 61 0 0 0 1
An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on 329° 059° 101° 239°
an airborne weather radar display. What is the true
bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading
(MH) of 215° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 21°W?

4257 61 0 1 0 0
 An island appears 60° to the left of the centre line on an 086° 226° 026° 046°
airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing
of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation
the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 276°
with the magnetic variation (VAR) 10°E?

4258 61 0 0 0 1
Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different bearing and hexadecimal by waypoints geographic
formats._x000D_ distance name coordinates
In which of the following formats can waypoints be
entered into all INSs?
4259 61 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statements concerning the The It is not It is It is updated
position indicated on the Inertial Reference System positions updated constantly when 'go-
(IRS) display is correct? from the two once the IRS updated around' is
IRSs are mode is set from selected on
compared to to NAV information take-off
obtain a obtained by
'best the FMC
position'
which is
displayed on
the IRS

4260 61 0 1 0 0
What additional information is required to be input to an Mach TAS IAS Altitude and
Inertial Navigation System (INS) in order to obtain an Number OAT
W/V readout?
4261 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft departs from position A (04°10' S 178°22'W) 53°20'N 45°00'N 53°20'N 45°00'N
and flies northward following the meridian for 2950 NM. 172°38'E 172°38'E 169°22W 169°22W
It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for
382 NM to position B. _x000D_
The coordinates of position B are?
4262 61 0 1 0 0
The angle between the true great-circle track and the 7.8° 9° 15.6° 5.2°
true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A (60°
S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure
A, is:
4263 61 1 0 0 0
Given: Waypoint 1. 60°S 030°W_x000D_ 060°11'S 059°49'S 060°00'S 060°06'S
Waypoint 2. 60°S 020°W_x000D_
What will be the approximate latitude shown on the
display unit of an inertial navigation system at longitude
025°W?
4264 61 0 0 0 1
What is the time required to travel along the parallel of 5 HR 00 MIN 2 HR 30 MIN 1 HR 15 MIN 1 HR 45 MIN
latitude 60° N between meridians 010° E and 030° W at
a groundspeed of 480 kt?
4265 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12607A)_x000D_ Brittas Bay Castlebar Connaught Connemara
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5351 aerodrome aerodrome aerodrome aerodrome
W00917?
4266 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12606A)_x000D_ Punchestow Connemara KERRY/Farr Clonbullogu
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5311 n aerodrome aerodrome anfore e aerodrome
W00637? aerodrome
4267 61 1 0 0 0
Which of the following statements concerning the loss of It is not The The IRS has The mode
alignment by an Inertial Reference System (IRS) in flight usable in navigation to be selector has
is correct? any mode mode, coupled to to be rotated
and must be including the to ATT then
shut down present remaining back
for the rest position and serviceable through
of the flight ground system and ALIGN to
speed a NAV in order
outputs, is realignment to obtain an
inoperative carried out in-flight
for the in flight realignment
remainder of
the flight

4268 61 0 1 0 0
 The two standard parallels of a conical Lambert 0.90 0.66 0.18 0.44
projection are at N10°40'N and N41°20'._x000D_
The cone constant of this chart is approximatively :
4269 61 0 0 0 1
Given: _x000D_ 4° Left 8° Left 12° Left 16° Left
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 90 NM,_x000D_
Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right of
course._x000D_
What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?

4270 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12612A)_x000D_ VOR: DME: civil airport: VOR: DME: civil airport:
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart NDB: VOR: DME: NDB: NDB: DME:
symbols shown at position N5318.1 W00856.5? compulsory non- compulsory non-
reporting compulsory reporting compulsory
point reporting point reporting
point point
4271 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12611A)_x000D_ civil airport: VOR: DME: civil airport: VOR: DME:
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart NDB: DME: NDB: VOR: DME: NDB: non-
symbols shown at position N5416.7 W00836.0? compulsory compulsory non- compulsory
reporting reporting compulsory reporting
point point reporting point
point
4272 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12610A)_x000D_ military VOR: DME: military civil airport:
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart airport: danger area airport: VOR: DME
symbols shown at position N5318.0 W00626.9? VOR: NDB VOR: DME
4273 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12609A)_x000D_ VOR: DME: VOR: DME: civil airport: civil airport:
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart NDB:compul NDB: ILS VOR: DME: VOR: non-
symbols shown at position N5150.4 W00829.7? sory compulsory compulsory
reporting reporting reporting
point point point
4274 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12608A)_x000D_ Belmullet Carnmore Clonbullogu EAGLE
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5417 aerodrome aerodrome e aerodrome ISLAND
W01005? LT.H. NDB
4275 61 0 0 0 1
The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit place it reduce the facilitate place it in a
of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip of an where it will amount of easy position
aeroplane is to: not be deviation maintenance where there
subjected to caused by of the unit is no
electrical or aircraft and increase electrical
magnetic magnetism its exposure wiring to
interference and to the cause
from the electrical Earth's deviation
aircraft circuits magnetic errors
field

4276 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ N01°40' S01°40' N01°40' S01°40'
Position 'A' is N00° E100°, _x000D_ E101°40' E097°07' E097°07' E101°40'
Position 'B' is 240°(T), 200 NM from 'A'._x000D_
What is the position of 'B'?
4277 61 0 1 0 0
The main advantage of a remote indicating compass requires less is able to senses, has less
over a direct reading compass is that it: maintenance magnify the rather than moving parts
earth's seeks, the
magnetic magnetic
field in order meridian
to attain
greater
accuracy

4278 61 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following statements concerning the The The The The
aircraft positions indicated on a triple fit Inertial positions will positions will positions will positions are
Navigation System (INS)/ Inertial Reference System be the same only differ if only differ if likely to
(IRS) on the CDU is correct? because one of the an error has differ
they are an systems has been made because
average of been when they are
three decoupled inputting the calculated
different because of a present from
positions detected position at different
malfunction the sources
departure
airport

4279 61 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statements concerning the NAV mode NAV mode NAV mode NAV mode
operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)/Inertial must be must be must be must be
Reference System (IRS) is correct? selected selected on selected selected
prior to the runway prior to the when the
movement just prior to loading of alignment
of the take-off passengers procedure is
aircraft off and/or commenced
the gate freight

4280 61 1 0 0 0
Which of the following statements concerning the INS/IRS can INS/IRS can INS/IRS can INS/IRS can
alignment procedure for Inertial Navigation only be be aligned in only be be aligned in
Systems(INS)/Inertial Reference Systems (IRS) at mid- aligned in either the aligned in either the
latitudes is correct? NAV mode ALIGN or the ALIGN ALIGN or
NAV mode mode ATT mode
4281 61 0 1 0 0
The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial 5 MIN 10 MIN 20 MIN 2 MIN
Reference System using laser ring gyros is
approximately:
4282 61 0 1 0 0
What is the name given to an Inertial Reference System Solid state Ring laser Strapdown Rigid
(IRS) which has the gyros and accelerometers as part of
the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure?
4283 61 0 0 1 0
The sensors of an INS measure:_x000D_ precession acceleration velocity the
horizontal
component
of the earth's
rotation

4284 61 0 1 0 0
A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then the INS is it can only no useful everything
turns it back ON a few moments later. Following this usable in be used for information returns to
incident: NAV MODE attitude can be normal and
after a reference obtained is usable
position from the INS
update
4285 61 0 1 0 0
The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar Direct Gnomonic Lambert Stereographi
areas is based on a: Mercator projection conformal cal
projection projection projection
4286 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-9438A)_x000D_ HDG 193° - HDG 188° - HDG 193° - HDG 183° -
Complete line 2 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', ETA 1239 ETA 1229 ETA 1249 ETA 1159
positions 'C' to 'D'._x000D_ UTC UTC UTC UTC
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4287 61 1 0 0 0
Position A is located on the equator at longitude 01°11'N 01°11'S 01°11'N 01°11'S
130°00E. _x000D_ 128°49'E 128°49'E 131°11'E 131°11'E
Position B is located 100 NM from A on a bearing of
225°(T)._x000D_
The coordinates of position B are:
4288 61 0 1 0 0
In order to fly from position A (10°00'N, 030°00'W) to the great- a straight a rhumb line the constant
position B (30°00'N, 050°00'W), maintaining a constant circle route line plotted track average drift
true course, it is necessary to fly: on a route
Lambert
chart
4289 61 0 0 1 0
 The rhumb line track between position A (45°00'N, 345 315 330 300
010°00'W) and position B (48°30'N, 015°00'W) is
approximately:
4290 61 0 1 0 0
4291 61 The diameter of the Earth is approximately: 40 000 km 12 700 km 6 350 km 18 500 km 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12624A)_x000D_ 3 4 5 2
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an
uncontrolled route?
4292 61 0 1 0 0
The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is scale at the scale at the mean scale mean scale
the: equator standard between between the
parallels pole and parallels of
equator the secant
cone

4293 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12625A)_x000D_ 2 3 4 5
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates the boundary
of advisory airspace?
4294 61 0 0 0 1
A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1 : 3 704 1 : 3 208 1 : 185 200 1 : 1 852 1 : 7 408
000. _x000D_ 000 000 000
What is the scale at latitude 60° S?
4295 61 0 0 1 0
The distance measured between two points on a 370.00 NM 67.20 NM 3.69 NM 36.30 NM
navigation map is 42 mm (millimetres). The scale of the
chart is 1:1 600 000._x000D_
The actual distance between these two point is
approximately:
4296 61 0 0 0 1
The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical 0.42 0.39 0.60 0.92
orthomorphic projection are 07°40'N and 38°20'
N._x000D_
4297 61
The constant of the cone for this chart is:
0 1 0 0
On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of is zero varies as the equals earth is the same
the meridians: throughout secant of the convergency as earth
the chart latitude at the convergency
standard at the
parallels parallel of
origin
4298 61 0 0 0 1
A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and 1 : 6 000 1 : 3 000 1 : 5 000 1 : 1 000
represents 150 NM. _x000D_ 000 000 000 000
The chart scale is:
4299 61 1 0 0 0
On a Polar Stereographic chart, the initial great circle 030° (T) 330° (T) 150° (T) 210° (T)
course from A 70°N 060°W to B 70°N 060°E is
approximately:
4300 61 1 0 0 0
The maximum difference between geocentric and 90° North 0° North and 45° North 60° North
geodetic latitude occurs at about: and South South and South and South
(equator)
4301 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12632A)_x000D_ 9 10 11 12
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of
lighted obstacles?
4302 61 0 0 0 1
A course of 120°(T) is drawn between 'X' (61°30'N) and 66.7 cm 33.4 cm 38.5 cm 36.0 cm
'Y' (58°30'N) on a Lambert Conformal conic chart with a
scale of 1 : 1 000 000 at 60°N. _x000D_
The chart distance between 'X' and 'Y' is:

4303 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12638A)_x000D_ 14 16 10 12
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lightship?
4304 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12637A)_x000D_ 15 16 10 14
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an
aeronautical ground light?
4305 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12636A)_x000D_ Shipwreck Off-shore Lightship Off-shore
What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. showing lighthouse helicopter
16? above the landing
surface at platform
low tide
4306 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12635A)_x000D_ Hazard to Lighthouse Aeronautical Visual
What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. aerial ground light reference
15? navigation point
4307 61 0 0 1 0
 Given: _x000D_ 6 378.4 6 367.0 6 399.9 6 356.9
value for the ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297. _x000D_
Earth's semi-major axis, as measured at the equator,
equals 6378.4 km. _x000D_
What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the earth at the axis
of the Poles?
4308 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12633A)_x000D_ 9 11 13 14
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an
exceptionally high unlighted obstacle?
4309 61 0 0 1 0
On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart great circles that curves straight lines curves straight lines
are not meridians are: concave to within the concave to regardless
the pole of standard the parallel of distance
projection parallels of origin

4310 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12631A)_x000D_ 9 11 12 13
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of
unlighted obstacles?
4311 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12630A)_x000D_ 9 10 11 12
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lighted
obstacle?
4312 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12629A)_x000D_ 12 9 10 11
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an unlighted
obstacle?
4313 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12628A)_x000D_ 15 6 7 8
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Way-point?
4314 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12627A)_x000D_ 8 15 6 7
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a compulsory
reporting point?
4315 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question refer to annex 061-12626A)_x000D_ 15 6 7 8
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a non-
compulsory reporting point?
4316 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12634A)_x000D_ 14 10 12 13
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an
exceptionally high lighted obstacle?
4317 61 1 0 0 0
What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of 093°53.1'W 094°12.0'W 093°48.5'W 093°54.0'W
4318 61 58°42'N 094°00'W? 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 360° / 15 kt 190° / 15 kt 010° / 15 kt 180° / 15 kt
True Heading = 090° _x000D_
TAS = 180 kt_x000D_
GS = 180 kt_x000D_
Drift 5° right_x000D_
Calculate the W/V?
4319 61 1 0 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 180 kt 200 kt 220 kt 230 kt
True Heading = 090°_x000D_
TAS = 200 kt_x000D_
W/V = 220° / 30 kt._x000D_
Calculate the GS?
4320 61 0 0 1 0
An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090°. 85 NM 88 NM 56 NM 176 NM
_x000D_
The W/V is 045° / 50kt._x000D_
How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and
return in one hour?
4321 61 1 0 0 0
The following information is displayed on an Inertial 220° / 60 kt 325° / 60 kt 320° / 60 kt 225° / 60 kt
Navigation System:_x000D_
GS 520 kt,_x000D_
True HDG 090°,_x000D_
Drift angle 5° right,_x000D_
TAS 480 kt._x000D_
SAT (static air temperature) -51°C._x000D_
The W/V being experienced is:
4322 61 0 0 1 0
The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 30 kt 24 kt 27 kt 21 kt
240°/35 kt. Runway 30 (300°). _x000D_
What is the cross-wind component?
4323 61 1 0 0 0
 On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a: small circle spiral curve curve straight line
concave to convex to
the nearer the nearer
pole pole
4324 61 0 0 0 1
A great circle track joins position A (59°S 141°W) and B It increases It decreases It increases It decreases
(61°S 148°W). _x000D_ by 6° by 6° by 3° by 3°
What is the difference between the great circle track at A
and B?
4325 61 1 0 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 435 kt 600 kt 535 kt 450 kt
True Heading = 180° _x000D_
TAS = 500 kt_x000D_
W/V 225° / 100 kt_x000D_
Calculate the GS?
4326 61 1 0 0 0
A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME +/- 2 NM +/- 7 NM +/- 3.5 NM +/- 1 NM
station: _x000D_
radial 180°+/- 1°, distance = 200 NM. _x000D_
What is the approximate error?
4327 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM 3640 FT 2210 FT 680 FT 1890 FT
from the runway, on a flat terrain; its height is
approximately:
4328 61 0 1 0 0
A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual fly the fly fly reverse set heading
flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft's position is to reverse of expanding headings towards a
maintain visual contact with the ground and: the heading circles until and line feature
being flown a pinpoint is associated such as a
prior to obtained timings until coastline,
becoming the point of motorway,
uncertain departure is river or
until a regained railway
pinpoint is
obtained

4329 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12405A)_x000D_ KIRKWALL STORNOW SUMBURG SAXAVORD
Which of the following beacons is 185 NM from (N5858 W AY (N5815 H (N5955 (N6050
AKRABERG (N6124 W00640)? 00254) W00617) W00115) W00050)
4330 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12404A)_x000D_ N6127 N6010 N6109 N6027
An aircraft on radial 110° at a range of 120 NM from W00443 E00255 E00255 E00307
_x000D_
SAXAVORD VOR (N6050 W00050) is at position:
4331 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12403A)_x000D_ N6320 N6020 N6345 N6040
An aircraft on radial 315° at a range of 150 NM from W01205 W00405 W01125 W00320
_x000D_
MYGGENES NDB (N6206 W00732) is at position:
4332 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft passes position A (60°00'N 120°00'W) on 279° 288° 261° 270°
route to position B (60°00'N 140°30'W). _x000D_
What is the great circle track on departure from A?
4333 61 1 0 0 0
Given the following:_x000D_ 180° 190° 194° 204°
True track: 192°_x000D_
Magnetic variation: 7°E_x000D_
Drift angle: 5° left_x000D_
What is the magnetic heading required to maintain the
given track?
4334 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation System only inertial the autopilot at least one only inertial
(INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both navigation is of the inertial navigation
inertial navigation systems are navigating from way- system No. unserviceabl navigaton system No.
point A to B. The inertial systems' Central Display Units 1 is drifting e in NAV systems is 2 is drifting
(CDU) sho shows:_x000D_ mode drifting
- XTK on INS 1 = 0_x000D_
- XTK on INS 2 = 8L_x000D_
(XTK = cross track)_x000D_
From this information it can be deduced that:

4335 61 0 0 1 0
 On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45° North, a 57 NM 70 NM 81 NM 86 NM
certain length represents 70 NM. _x000D_
At latitude 30° North, the same length represents
approximately:
4336 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 38°39'E 49°57'E 51°51'E 40°33'E
Position A 45°N, ?°E_x000D_
Position B 45°N, 45°15'E_x000D_
Distance A-B = 280 NM_x000D_
B is to the East of A_x000D_
Required: longitude of position A?
4337 61 1 0 0 0
On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the 315° 225° 250° 135°
South Pole, a straight line joins position A (70°S 065°E)
to position B (70°S 025°W)._x000D_
The true course on departure from position A is
approximately:
4338 61 0 1 0 0
On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured 1 : 4 750 1 : 7 000 1 : 6 000 1 : 3 500
between two meridians spaced 5° apart at latitude 60°N 000 000 000 000
is 8 cm._x000D_
The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:

4339 61 0 0 0 1
Two positions plotted on a polar stereographic chart, A 023° 247° 305° 203°
(80°N 000°) and B (70°N 102°W) are joined by a
straight line whose highest latitude is reached at
035°W._x000D_
At point B, the true course is:
4340 61 0 0 0 1
If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following 240 kt 550 kt 480 kt 960 kt
parallel 60°N at a ground speed of 480 kt. In order to
circle around the Earth along the equator in the same
amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of:

4341 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 208° 211° 180° 221°
Magnetic heading 311°_x000D_
Drift angle 10° left_x000D_
Relative bearing of NDB 270°_x000D_
What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured
from the aircraft?
4342 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 090° / 33 kt 180° / 33 kt 270° / 33 kt 360° / 33 kt
True heading = 310° _x000D_
TAS = 200 kt_x000D_
GS = 176 kt_x000D_
Drift angle 7° right._x000D_
Calculate the W/V?
4343 61 0 0 1 0
Given the following:_x000D_ 048° 072° 056° 064°
Magnetic heading: 060°_x000D_
Magnetic variation: 8°W_x000D_
Drift angle: 4° right_x000D_
What is the true track?
4344 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant 192 kt, 7° 200 kt, 3.5° 192 kt, 7° 225 kt, 7°
TAS of 210 kt. _x000D_ right right left left
The wind velocity is 350° / 30 kt. _x000D_
The GS and drift angle are:
4345 61 1 0 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 461 kt , LSS 461 kt , LSS 237 kt, LSS 490 kt, LSS
FL 350,_x000D_ 296 kt 576 kt 296 kt 461 kt
Mach 0.80,_x000D_
OAT -55°C. _x000D_
Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound
(LSS)?
4346 61 0 1 0 0
For a given track the:_x000D_ -35 kt -65 kt -55 kt -45 kt
Wind component = +45 kt_x000D_
Drift angle = 15° left_x000D_
TAS = 240 kt_x000D_
What is the wind component on the reverse track?
4347 61 0 1 0 0
 Given:_x000D_ 16° right 7° left 7° right 9° left
Magnetic heading = 255°_x000D_
VAR = 40°W_x000D_
GS = 375 kt_x000D_
W/V = 235°(T) / 120 kt_x000D_
Calculate the drift angle?
4348 61 0 1 0 0
The great circle distance between position A (59°34.1'N 2 700 NM 10 800 NM 5 400 NM 10 800 km
008°08.4'E) and B (30°25.9'N 171°51.6'W) is:
4349 61 0 0 1 0
On a Mercator chart, the scale: is constant varies as 1/2 varies as varies as the
throughout cosine of the 1/cosine of sine of the
the chart co-latitude latitude latitude
(1/cosine=
secant)
4350 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 8° right 6° right 4° right 8° left
Distance A to B = 120 NM,_x000D_
After 30 NM aircraft is 3 NM to the left of
course._x000D_
What heading alteration should be made in order to
4351 61 arrive at point 'B'? 1 0 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 130 MIN 145 MIN 162 MIN 181 MIN
Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NM_x000D_
Groundspeed 'out' 430 kt_x000D_
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt_x000D_
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is:
4352 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 1510 NM 2290 NM 2370 NM 1310 NM
'R'._x000D_
Given:_x000D_
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM_x000D_
True airspeed 480 kt_x000D_
Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt_x000D_
Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt_x000D_
Safe endurance 10:00 HR
_x000D_
The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
'Q' is:
4353 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 1742 1752 1756 1820
'R'._x000D_
Given:_x000D_
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM_x000D_
True airspeed 480 kt_x000D_
Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt_x000D_
Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt_x000D_
The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'Q' and 'R' is:

4354 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 1630 NM 1940 NM 1908 NM 1736 NM
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM_x000D_
Mean groundspeed 'out' 420 kt_x000D_
Mean groundspeed 'back' 500 kt_x000D_
Safe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN
_x000D_
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
'A' is:
4355 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 193 MIN 163 MIN 173 MIN 183 MIN
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM_x000D_
Groundspeed 'out' 420 kt_x000D_
Groundspeed 'back' 500 kt_x000D_
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is:
4356 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft at latitude 10° South flies north at a GS of 22°00'N 03°50'N 02°00'N 12°15'N
890 km/HR. _x000D_
What will its latitude be after 1.5 HR?
4357 61 0 0 1 0
 An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 1744 1846 1721 1657
'B'._x000D_
Given:_x000D_
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM_x000D_
True airspeed 470 kt_x000D_
Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt_x000D_
Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt_x000D_
The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is:

4358 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 290 MIN 219 MIN 197 MIN 209 MIN
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NM_x000D_
Groundspeed 'out' 365 kt_x000D_
Groundspeed 'back' 480 kt_x000D_
Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN
_x000D_
The time from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A'
is:
4359 61 1 0 0 0
Transverse Mercator projections are used for: maps of maps of radio plotting
large large navigation charts in
north/south east/west charts in equatorial
extent extent in equatorial areas
equatorial areas
areas
4360 61 1 0 0 0
An Oblique Mercator projection is used specifically to topographic plotting charts of the radio
produce: al maps of charts in great circle navigational
large east/ equatorial route charts in
west extent regions between two equatorial
points regions
4361 61 0 0 1 0
On a transverse Mercator chart, with the exception of straight lines hyperbolic parabolas ellipses
the Equator, parallels of latitude appear as: lines
4362 61 0 0 0 1
On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly meridians of equator and meridian of prime
correct along the: tangency parallel of tangency meridian
origin and the and the
parallel of equator
latitude
perpendicula
r to it
4363 61 1 0 0 0
The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a to ensure by having to minimise to maximise
remote reading compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane that the unit detector the amount the units
is: is in the units on both of deviation exposure to
most wingtips, to caused by the earth's
accessible cancel out aircraft magnetic
position on the deviation magnetism field
the aircraft effects and
for ease of caused by electrical
maintenance the aircraft circuits
strucure

4364 61 0 0 1 0
Route 'A' (44°N 026°E) to 'B' (46°N 024°E) forms an 038° 322° 328° 032°
angle of 35° with longitude 026°E. Average magnetic
variation between 'A' and 'B' is 3°E._x000D_
What is the average magnetic course from 'A' to 'B'?

4365 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 2844 NM 2141 NM 1611 NM 1759 NM
'B'._x000D_
Given:_x000D_
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM_x000D_
True airspeed 470 kt_x000D_
Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt_x000D_
Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt_x000D_
Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN
_x000D_
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
'A' is:
4366 61 0 1 0 0
 An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 1157 1206 1203 1153
'B',_x000D_
distance 480 NM at an average GS of 240 kt. It departs
'A' at 1000 UTC._x000D_
After flying 150 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 2
MIN behind planned time._x000D_
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised
ETA at 'B'?
4367 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12402A)_x000D_ 032° - 036° - 029° - 042° -
What are the initial true course and distance between 470 NM 638 NM 570 NM 635 NM
_x000D_
positions N5800 W01300 and N6600 E00200?
4368 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 18° Right 15° Right 9° Right 6° Right
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 100 NM,_x000D_
Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left of
course._x000D_
What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?

4369 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 375 kt 395 kt 335 kt 355 kt
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 325 NM,_x000D_
Planned GS 315 kt,_x000D_
ATD 1130 UTC,_x000D_
1205 UTC - fix obtained 165 NM along track._x000D_
What GS must be maintained from the fix in _x000D_
order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
4370 61 0 0 0 1
Given: _x000D_ 340 kt 360 kt. 300 kt 320 kt.
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 475 NM,_x000D_
Planned GS 315 kt,_x000D_
ATD 1000 UTC,_x000D_
1040 UTC - fix obtained 190 NM along track._x000D_
What GS must be maintained from the fix in _x000D_
order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
4371 61 1 0 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 235°/50 kt 300°/30 kt 265°/50 kt 195°/50 kt
Magnetic track = 210°,_x000D_
Magnetic HDG = 215°,_x000D_
VAR = 15°E,_x000D_
TAS = 360 kt,_x000D_
Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN._x000D_
Calculate the true W/V?
4372 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 180°/45 kt 340°/45 kt 320°/50 kt 210°/15 kt
Magnetic track = 075°,_x000D_
HDG = 066°(M),_x000D_
VAR = 11°E,_x000D_
TAS = 275 kt_x000D_
Aircraft flies 48 NM in 10 MIN._x000D_
Calculate the true W/V °?
4373 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 1664 NM 1698 NM 1422 NM 1490 NM
Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NM_x000D_
Groundspeed 'out' 430 kt_x000D_
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt_x000D_
Safe endurance 7 HR 20 MIN
_x000D_
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
'A' is:
4374 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 1347 UTC 1340 UTC 1333 UTC 1401 UTC
'B',distance _x000D_
320 NM, at an average GS of 180 kt. It departs 'A' at
1200 UTC._x000D_
After flying 70 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 3
MIN ahead of planned time._x000D_
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised
ETA at 'B'?
4375 61 0 0 1 0
 Given:_x000D_ 167 MIN 219 MIN 290 MIN 197 MIN
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NM_x000D_
Groundspeed 'out' 365 kt_x000D_
Groundspeed 'back' 480 kt_x000D_
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is:
4376 61 0 1 0 0
An island is observed to be 15° to the left._x000D_ 268 302 088 122
The aircraft heading is 120°(M), variation
17°(W)._x000D_
4377 61
The bearing °(T) from the aircraft to the island is:
0 0 1 0
A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 12 NM 3 NM 6 NM 9 NM
315° and 3 MIN later on a relative bearing of 270°.
_x000D_
The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt._x000D_
What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and
the ground feature?
4378 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 238 MIN 263 MIN 288 MIN 323 MIN
Distance 'A' to 'B' 3623 NM_x000D_
Groundspeed 'out' 370 kt_x000D_
Groundspeed 'back' 300 kt_x000D_
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is:
4379 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 1467 NM 1642 NM 1838 NM 1313 NM
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM_x000D_
Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt_x000D_
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt_x000D_
Safe endurance 9 HR
_x000D_
The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
between 'Q' and 'R' is:
4380 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 110 MIN 106 MIN 102 MIN 114 MIN
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM_x000D_
Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt_x000D_
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt_x000D_
The time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'Q' and 'R' is:
4381 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180°(T) for 685 04°30'S 09°05'S 03°50'S 04°10'S
km._x000D_
On completion of the flight the latitude will be:
4382 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 1110 UTC 1044 UTC 1050 UTC 1115 UTC
'B',_x000D_
distance 250 NM at an average GS of 115 kt. It departs
'A' at 0900 UTC._x000D_
After flying 75 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 1.5
MIN behind planned time._x000D_
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised
ETA at 'B'?
4383 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12554A)_x000D_ 070° - 58 207° - 31 019° - 31 035° - 30
What is the radial and DME distance from SHA NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5310
W00830?
4384 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12561A)_x000D_ 320° - 44 333° - 36 236° - 44 223° - 36
What is the radial and DME distance from BEL NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5410
W00710?
4385 61 0 0 1 0
Fuel flow per HR is 22 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83 2 HR 15 MIN 4 HR 32 MIN 3 HR 12 MIN 3 HR 53 MIN
IMP GAL._x000D_
What is the endurance?
4386 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12559A)_x000D_ 311° - 22 240° - 24 140° - 23 119° - 42
What is the radial and DME distance from CON NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5340
W00820?
4387 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12558A)_x000D_ 320° - 8 094° - 64 260° - 30 088° - 29
What is the radial and DME distance from CON NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5400
W00800?
4388 61 0 0 0 1
 (For this question use annex 061-12557A)_x000D_ 214° - 26 049° - 45 169° - 35 358° - 36
What is the radial and DME distance from CON NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5430
W00900?
4389 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at latitude 10°North flies south at a 03°50'S 02°00'S 12°15'S 22°00'S
groundspeed of 445 km/HR._x000D_
What will be its latitude after 3 HR?
4390 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12555A)_x000D_ 132° - 36 212° - 26 139° - 35 129° - 46
What is the radial and DME distance from SHA NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5220
W00810?
4391 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12563A)_x000D_ 296° - 65 126° - 33 222° - 48 315° - 34
What is the radial and DME distance from BEL NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5500
W00700?
4392 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12553A)_x000D_ 309° - 33 057° - 27 293° - 33 324° - 17
What is the radial and DME distance from SHA NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5300
W00940?
4393 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12552A)_x000D_ 293° - 39 106° - 38 113° - 38 104° - 76
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5140
W00730?
4394 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12551A)_x000D_ 023° - 48 017° - 43 039° - 48 024° - 43
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5230
W00750?
4395 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12550A)_x000D_ 350° - 22 295° - 38 170° - 22 311° - 38
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5210
W00920?
4396 61 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 061-12549A)_x000D_ 014° - 33 220° - 40 030° - 33 048° - 40
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5220
W00810?
4397 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-9437A) _x000D_ 268° - 1114 282° - 1128 282° - 1114 268° - 1128
Complete line 1 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG'; UTC UTC UTC UTC
positions 'A' to 'B'._x000D_
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
4398 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12556A)_x000D_ 354° - 34 198° - 37 346° - 34 214° - 37
What is the radial and DME distance from SHA NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)_x000D_
to position N5210 W00920?
4399 61 0 0 0 1
On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain 110 NM 73.5 NM 78 NM 45 NM
length represents a distance of 90 NM on the earth.
_x000D_
The same length on the chart will represent on the earth,
at latitude 30°N, a distance of :
4400 61 1 0 0 0
The 'departure' between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N 170°W 140°W 145°E 175°E
'x' is 900 NM._x000D_
What is the longitude of 'x'?
4401 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 002°10'W 000°15'E 000°40'E 005°15'E
315 km._x000D_
On completion of the flight the longitude will be:
4402 61 0 0 1 0
A flight is to be made from 'A' 49°S 180°E/W to 'B' 58°S, 540 804 1000 1222
180°E/W._x000D_
The distance in kilometres from 'A' to 'B' is
approximately:
4403 61 0 0 1 0
At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the End of Beginning of End of Beginning of
4404 61 sun (aphelion)? December January September July 0 0 0 1
At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun Beginning of End of Beginning of End of June
4405 61 (perihelion)? January March July 1 0 0 0
 Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50°N/S)._x000D_ Spring Summer summer Winter
At which time of year is the relationship between the equinox and solstice and solstice and solstice and
length _x000D_ autumn spring winter autumn
of day and night, as well as the rate of change of equinox equinox solstice equinox
declination _x000D_
of the sun, changing at the greatest rate?
4406 61 1 0 0 0
Two points A and B are 1000 NM apart. TAS = 490 470 NM 455 NM 500 NM 530 NM
kt._x000D_
On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind
is -20 kt._x000D_
On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent
headwind is +40 kt._x000D_
What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the the
Point of Equal Time (PET)?
4407 61 0 0 0 1
In which two months of the year is the difference June and April and February March and
between the transit of the Apparent Sun and Mean Sun December August and September
across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest? November
4408 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12562A)_x000D_ 098° - 45 278° - 44 090° - 46 278° - 10
What is the radial and DME distance from BEL NM NM NM NM
VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5440
W00730?
4409 61 0 1 0 0
On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain 124.2 NM 118.2 NM 122.3 NM 117.7 NM
length represents a distance of 120 NM on the earth.
_x000D_
The same length on the chart will represent on the earth,
at latitude 10°N, a distance of :
4410 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12567A)_x000D_ 206° - 71 198° - 72 026° - 71 018° - 153
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and BAL VOR
(N5318.0 W00626.9)?
4411 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12566A)_x000D_ 135° - 96 322° - 95 142° - 95 315° - 94
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and WTD NDB
(N5211.3 W00705.0)?
4412 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 061-12565A)_x000D_ 177° - 92 357° - 89 169° - 91 349° - 90
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) and CRN NDB
(N5318.1 W00856.5)?
4413 61 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-12564A)_x000D_ 090° - 91 270° - 89 098° - 90 278° - 90
What is the average track (°M) and distance between NM NM NM NM
WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and KER NDB
(N5210.9 W00931.5)?
4414 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 12 NM 21 NM 22 NM 14 NM
Direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 200 000 at
equator;_x000D_
Chart length from 'A' to 'B', in the vicinity of the equator,
11 cm._x000D_
What is the approximate distance from 'A' to 'B'?
4415 61 1 0 0 0
What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun 0° 23° 45° 66°
will reach an altitude of 90° above the horizon at some
time during the year?
4416 61 0 1 0 0
What is the meaning of the term "standard time" ? It is the time It is an It is another It is the time
zone system expression term for set by the
applicable for local UTC legal
only in the mean time authorities
USA for a country
or part of a
country

4417 61 0 0 0 1
 Given:_x000D_ S41°10' S41°10' S48°50' S48°50'
The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux W177°43.5' E177°43.5' W177°43.5' E177°43.5'
are:_x000D_
N48°50' E002°16.5'_x000D_
The coordinates of the antipodes are :
4418 61 0 0 1 0
How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 MIN 45 SEC 2.36 3.25 39.0 3.94
4419 61 if GS is 135 kt? 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 120° 130° 145° 115°
Course 040°(T),_x000D_
TAS is 120 kt,_x000D_
Wind speed 30 kt._x000D_
Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction
of:
4420 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 120 kt 132 kt 141 kt 102 kt
IAS 120 kt,_x000D_
FL 80,_x000D_
OAT +20°C. _x000D_
What is the TAS?
4421 61 0 0 1 0
Given: _x000D_ 340°/25 kt 340°/98 kt 155°/25 kt 160°/50 kt
Compass Heading 090°, _x000D_
Deviation 2°W, _x000D_
Variation 12°E, _x000D_
TAS 160 kt._x000D_
Whilst maintaining a radial 070° from a VOR station,
_x000D_
the aircraft flies a ground distance of 14 NM in 6 MIN.
_x000D_
What is the W/V °(T)?

4422 61 0 0 0 1
Given: _x000D_ 27500 FT 31000 FT 33500 FT 26000 FT
Pressure Altitude 29000 FT, _x000D_
OAT -55°C. _x000D_
Calculate the Density Altitude?
4423 61 1 0 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 025°/45 kt 020°/95 kt 025°/47 kt 200°/95 kt
M 0.80, _x000D_
OAT -50°C, _x000D_
FL 330, _x000D_
GS 490 kt, _x000D_
VAR 20°W, _x000D_
Magnetic heading 140°, _x000D_
Drift is 11° Right. _x000D_
Calculate the true W/V?

4424 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 0.76 0.78 0.81 0.84
TAS 487kt, _x000D_
FL 330, _x000D_
Temperature ISA + 15. _x000D_
Calculate the MACH Number?
4425 61 0 0 1 0
4426 61 What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330? -56°C -66°C -81°C -50°C 0 0 0 1
When an aircraft on a westerly heading on the northern lag behind indicate a to turn faster indicate a
hemisphere accelerates, the effect of the acceleration the turning turn towards than the turn towards
error causes the magnetic compass to: rate of the the south actual the north
aircraft turning rate
of the
aircraft
4427 61 0 0 0 1
When is the magnetic compass most effective? In the region On the About In the region
of the geographic midway of the
magnetic equator between the magnetic
North Pole. magnetic South Pole.
poles

4428 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 7°R - 487 kt 6°L - 487 kt 7°R - 491 kt 7°L - 491 kt
TAS = 472 kt,_x000D_
True HDG = 005°,_x000D_
W/V = 110°(T)/50kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4429 61 0 1 0 0
 What is the local mean time, position 65°25'N 123°45'W 2200 0615 0815 1345
4430 61 at 2200 UTC? 0 0 0 1
An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and 04°00'N 03°58'N 04°00'N 04°00'N
distances _x000D_ 030°00'W 030°02'W 029°58'W 030°02'W
from position 04°00'N 030°00'W :_x000D_
600 NM South, _x000D_
then 600 NM East, _x000D_
then 600 NM North, _x000D_
then 600 NM West._x000D_
The final position of the aircraft is:
4431 61 0 0 1 0
Isogrives are lines that connect positions that have: the same O° magnetic the same the same
variation dip grivation horizontal
magnetic
field strength

4432 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 1788 NM 2040 NM 3720 NM 5420 NM
62° N 110° E. _x000D_
The total distance travelled is?
4433 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. 209 kt 131 kt 160 kt 183 kt
_x000D_
What is its groundspeed?
4434 61 0 0 1 0
How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 0 MIN 34 1 MIN 07 1 MIN 55 2 MIN 30
4435 61 Kt ? SEC SEC SEC SEC 0 1 0 0
4436 61 730 FT/MIN equals: 5.2 m/sec 1.6 m/sec 2.2 m/sec 3.7 m/sec 0 0 0 1
4437 61 265 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80) 862 kg 895 kg 940 kg 803 kg 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 9°R - 143 kt 9°L - 146 kt 18°R - 146 16°L - 156 kt
TAS = 140 kt,_x000D_ kt
True HDG = 302°,_x000D_
W/V = 045°(T)/45kt_x000D_
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4438 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 4°L - 314 kt 4°R - 310 kt 4°R - 314 kt 4°L - 310 kt
TAS = 290 kt,_x000D_
True HDG = 171°,_x000D_
W/V = 310°(T)/30kt_x000D_
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4439 61 1 0 0 0
Given: GS = 135 kt._x000D_ 3 HR 20 MIN 3 HR 12 MIN 3 HR 25 MIN 3 HR 19 MIN
Distance from A to B = 433 NM._x000D_
What is the time from A to B?
4440 61 0 1 0 0
The angular difference, on a Lambert conformal conic difference in map earth conversion
chart, between the arrival and departure track is equal longitude convergence convergence angle
to:
4441 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 0810 UTC 0716 UTC 0736 UTC 0730 UTC
True course A to B = 250°_x000D_
Distance A to B = 315 NM_x000D_
TAS = 450 kt. _x000D_
W/V = 200°/60kt._x000D_
ETD A = 0650 UTC._x000D_
What is the ETA at B?
4442 61 0 0 1 0
An Agonic line is a line that connects: positions positions points of points of
that have 0° that have equal equal
variation the same magnetic dip magnetic
variation horizontal
field strength

4443 61 1 0 0 0
Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are: Rhumb lines Great circles both Rhumb are neither
lines and Rhumb lines
Great circles nor Great
circles

4444 61 1 0 0 0
Given: GS = 510 kt._x000D_ 6 7 5 4
Distance A to B = 43 NM_x000D_
What is the time (MIN) from A to B?
4445 61 0 0 1 0
 Given:_x000D_ 089° 091° 100° 101°
true track 070°_x000D_
variation 30°W_x000D_
deviation +1°_x000D_
drift 10°R_x000D_
Calculate the compass heading?
4446 61 1 0 0 0
The angle between True North and Magnetic North is drift variation deviation compass
4447 61 called : error 0 1 0 0
Given: GS = 122 kt._x000D_ 8 HR 10 MIN 8 HR 04 MIN 7 HR 48 MIN 7 HR 49 MIN
Distance from A to B = 985 NM._x000D_
What is the time from A to B?
4448 61 0 1 0 0
What is the value of the magnetic dip at the magnetic 0° 90° 45° 60°
4449 61 south pole ? 0 1 0 0
Given: GS = 236 kt._x000D_ 1 HR 40 MIN 1 HR 30 MIN 1 HR 09 MIN 1 HR 10 MIN
Distance from A to B = 354 NM_x000D_
What is the time from A to B?
4450 61 0 1 0 0
Given: GS = 435 kt._x000D_ 4 HR 10 MIN 4 HR 25 MIN 3 HR 25 MIN 3 HR 26 MIN
Distance from A to B = 1920 NM._x000D_
What is the time from A to B?
4451 61 0 1 0 0
Given: GS = 345 kt._x000D_ 11 HR 00 11 HR 02 10 HR 19 10 HR 05
Distance from A to B = 3560 NM._x000D_ MIN MIN MIN MIN
What is the time from A to B?
4452 61 0 0 1 0
Given: GS = 480 kt._x000D_ 11 HR 07 11 HR 15 11 HR 10 11 HR 06
Distance from A to B = 5360 NM._x000D_ MIN MIN MIN MIN
What is the time from A to B?
4453 61 0 0 1 0
Given: GS = 95 kt._x000D_ 5 HR 03 MIN 4 HR 59 MIN 5 HR 00 MIN 5 HR 08 MIN
Distance from A to B = 480 NM._x000D_
What is the time from A to B?
4454 61 1 0 0 0
Given: GS = 105 kt._x000D_ 00 HR 58 01 HR 01 00 HR 59 00 HR 57
Distance from A to B = 103 NM._x000D_ MIN MIN MIN MIN
What is the time from A to B?
4455 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 3°R - 470 kt 5°L - 475 kt 5°R - 475 kt 5°L - 470 kt
TAS = 470 kt,_x000D_
True HDG = 317°_x000D_
W/V = 045°(T)/45kt_x000D_
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4456 61 0 0 0 1
At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation: depends on depends on depends on varies slowly
the type of the magnetic the true over time
compass heading heading
installed
4457 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 6L - 256kt 6R - 251kt 8R - 259kt 6R - 259kt
TAS = 270 kt,_x000D_
True HDG = 270°,_x000D_
Actual wind 205°(T)/30kt,_x000D_
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4458 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 065°(T) / 70 050°(T) / 70 040°(T) / 055°(T) /
FL120, _x000D_ kt. kt. 105 kt. 105 kt .
OAT is ISA standard, _x000D_
CAS is 200 kt,_x000D_
Track is 222°(M),_x000D_
Heading is 215°(M),_x000D_
Variation is 15°W._x000D_
Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN._x000D_
What is the W/V?

4459 61 0 1 0 0
At latitude 60°N the scale of a Mercator projection is 1 : 16.2 cm 35.6 cm 19.2 cm 17.8 cm
5 000 000. The length on the chart between 'C' N60°
E008° and 'D' N60° W008° is:
4460 61 0 0 0 1
Given :_x000D_ 096° 104° 107° 100°
A is N55° 000°_x000D_
B is N54° E010°_x000D_
The average true course of the great circle is
100°._x000D_
The true course of the rhumbline at point A is:
4461 61 0 0 0 1
 Given:_x000D_ 180 NM 170 NM 165 NM 195 NM
Distance A to B is 360 NM. _x000D_
Wind component A - B is -15 kt,_x000D_
Wind component B - A is +15 kt,_x000D_
TAS is 180 kt._x000D_
What is the distance from the equal-time-point to B?

4462 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 373 kt 360 kt 403 kt 354 kt
Half way between two reporting points the navigation log
gives the following information:_x000D_
TAS 360 kt, _x000D_
W/V 330°/80kt, _x000D_
Compass heading 237°, _x000D_
Deviation on this heading -5°, _x000D_
Variation 19°W._x000D_
What is the average ground speed for this leg?

4463 61 0 0 1 0
(For this question use appendix )_x000D_ 1302 UTC 1257 UTC 1300 UTC 1303 UTC
Given:_x000D_
TAS is120 kt. _x000D_
ATA 'X' 1232 UTC,_x000D_
ETA 'Y' 1247 UTC,_x000D_
ATA 'Y' is 1250 UTC. _x000D_
What is ETA 'Z'?
4464 61 1 0 0 0
A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that : Compass Compass True North is True North is
North is East North is East of West of
of Magnetic West of Magnetic Magnetic
North Magnetic North North
North
4465 61 0 0 1 0
In northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in an a heading of a decrease an increase an apparent
easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate: East in heading in heading turn to the
South
4466 61 0 1 0 0
Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives: magnetic compass true heading magnetic
4467 61 track heading course 0 1 0 0
The purpose of compass check swing is to:_x000D_ cancel out cancel out measure the cancel out
the the effects of angle the vertical
horizontal the magnetic between component
component fields found Magnetic of the earth's
of the earth's on board the North and magnetic
magnetic aeroplane Compass field
field North

4468 61 0 0 1 0
At what approximate latitude is the length of one minute 30° 45° 0° 90°
of arc along a meridian equal to one NM (1852 m)
correct?
4469 61 0 1 0 0
Isogonals are lines of equal : wind magnetic compass pressure.
4470 61 velocity. variation. deviation. 0 1 0 0
Given: GS = 120 kt._x000D_ 00 HR 43 00 HR 44 00 HR 45 00 HR 42
Distance from A to B = 84 NM._x000D_ MIN MIN MIN MIN
What is the time from A to B?
4471 61 0 0 0 1
The distance between positions A and B is 180 NM. An 8° Right 2° Left 4° Right 6° Right
aircraft departs position A and after having travelled 60
NM, its position is pinpointed 4 NM left of the intended
track. Assuming no change in wind velocity, what
alteration of heading must be made in order to arrive at
position B?
4472 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent 1800 1900 2000 1700
_x000D_ FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross that VOR at
FL80. _x000D_
Mean GS during descent is 271kt. _x000D_
What is the minimum rate of descent required?
4473 61 0 1 0 0
 Given: _x000D_ 190 º/63 kt 355 º/15 kt 195 º/61 kt 195 º/63 kt
Magnetic track = 315 º, _x000D_
HDG = 301 º(M),_x000D_
VAR = 5ºW,_x000D_
TAS = 225 kt, _x000D_
The aircraft flies 50 NM in 12 MIN._x000D_
Calculate the W/V(°T)?
4474 61 1 0 0 0
Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by 16.0 NM 26.7 NM 19.2 NM 38.4 NM
an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt
and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN?
4475 61 0 1 0 0
A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the 011°E 009°36'E 008°E 019°E
cone of 0.80. _x000D_
A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53°N
004°W) to B is 080° at A; course at B is 092°(T).
_x000D_
What is the longitude of B?
4476 61 1 0 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 21 kt 24 kt 27 kt 18 kt
Runway direction 305°(M),_x000D_
Surface W/V 260°(M)/30 kt. _x000D_
Calculate the cross-wind component?
4477 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft at FL350 is required to commence descent 1800 1900 1600 1700
_x000D_ FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
when 85 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL80.
_x000D_
The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt. _x000D_
What is the minimum rate of descent required?
4478 61 1 0 0 0
An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the 088° 122° 268° 302°
left. _x000D_
The aircraft heading is 120°(M) and the magnetic
variation 17°W. _x000D_
What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island?

4479 61 0 0 1 0
During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed drift groundspee position track
at right angles by an aircraft. The time between these d
roads can be used to check the aircraft:
4480 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 0.44 0.39 0.40 0.42
FL250, _x000D_
OAT -15 ºC, _x000D_
TAS 250 kt._x000D_
Calculate the Mach No.?
4481 61 0 0 1 0
Given: _x000D_ 290 kt 246 kt 250 kt 186 kt
TAS = 220 kt;_x000D_
Magnetic course = 212 º, _x000D_
W/V 160 º(M)/ 50kt,_x000D_
Calculate the GS?
4482 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 MIN, how long 90 MIN 80 MIN 50 MIN 100 MIN
4483 61 does it take to travel 215 NM? 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 9°R - 533 kt 7°R - 531 kt 9°R - 433 kt 8°L - 435 kt
TAS = 485 kt,_x000D_
True HDG = 226°,_x000D_
W/V = 110°(T)/95kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4484 61 1 0 0 0
 Which of the following statements concerning earth An isogonal An isogonal An isogonal An isogonal
magnetism is completely correct? is a line is a line is a line is a line
which which which which
connects connects connects connects
places of places with places with places with
equal dip; the same the same the same
the aclinic is magnetic magnetic magnetic
the line of variation; the variation; the variation; the
zero aclinic aclinic is the agonic line
magnetic dip connects line of zero is the line of
places with magnetic dip zero
the same magnetic dip
magnetic
field strength

4485 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 40 NM 74 NM 100 NM 4 NM
Chart scale is 1 : 1 850 000. _x000D_
The chart distance between two points is 4 centimetres.
_x000D_
Earth distance is approximately :
4486 61 1 0 0 0
The Earth can be considered as being a magnet with red pole blue pole red pole blue pole
the: near the near the near the near the
north pole of north pole of north pole of north pole of
the earth the earth the earth the earth
and the and the and the and the
direction of direction of direction of direction of
the magnetic the magnetic the magnetic the magnetic
force force force force
pointing pointing pointing pointing
straight straight up straight up straight
down to the from the from the down to the
earth's earth's earth's earth's
surface surface surface surface

4487 61 0 0 0 1
Complete the following statement regarding magnetic magnetic magnetic a reducing an
variation. _x000D_ pole pole field strength increasing
The charted values of magnetic variation on earth movement movement causing field strength
normally change annually due to: causing causing numerical causing
numerical numerical values at all numerical
values at all values at all locations to values at all
locations to locations to decrease. locations to
increase or increase. increase.
decrease

4488 61 1 0 0 0
Which one of the following is an advantage of a remote It eliminates It is more It senses the It is lighter
reading compass as compared with a standby the effect of reliable magnetic than a direct
compass? turning and because it is meridian reading
acceleration operated instead of compass
errors by electrically seeking it, because it
pendulously and power is increasing employs,
suspending always compass apart from
the detector available sensitivity the detector
unit from unit, existing
sources aircraft
within the equipment
aircraft

4489 61 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following statements is correct concerning Turning Turning Turning Turning
the effect of turning errors on a direct reading compass? errors are errors are errors are errors are
greatest on greatest on greatest on greatest on
east/west north/south east/west north/south
headings, headings, headings, headings,
and are and are and are and are
greatest at greatest at least at high least at high
high high latitudes latitudes
latitudes latitudes

4490 61 0 1 0 0
Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a Before an After any of Whenever After an
compass swing on a Direct Reading Compass? aircraft goes the aircraft an aircraft aircraft has
on any flight radio carries a passed
that involves equipment large freight through a
a large has been load severe
change of changed regardless electrical
magnetic due to of its content storm, or
latitude unserviceabi has been
lity struck by
lightning

4491 61 0 0 0 1
The parallels on a Lambert Conformal Conic chart are straight lines parabolic hyperbolic arcs of
represented by: lines lines concentric
circles
4492 61 0 0 0 1
The main reason that day and night, throughout the inclination of earth's relative gravitational
year, have different duration, is due to the: the ecliptic rotation speed of the effect of the
to the sun along sun and
equator the ecliptic moon on the
speed of
rotation of
the earth
4493 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft departing A(N40º 00´ E080º 00´) flies a N40º 00´ N40º 00´ N40º 00´ N40º 00´
constant true track of 270º at a ground speed of 120 kt. E068º 10´ E064º 20´ E070º 30´ E060º 00´
_x000D_
What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6
HR?
4494 61 0 1 0 0
The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal isogrives isoclines isogonals isotachs
4495 61 magnetic variation are called: 0 0 1 0
An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an 234° 038° 054° 318°
airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing
of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation
the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of 276° with the
magnetic variation 12°W?
4496 61 0 0 1 0
At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take off underreads indicates a indicates the overreads
on heading West, a direct reading compass : the heading turn to the correct the heading
south heading
4497 61 0 0 1 0
The ICAO definition of ETA is the: actual time estimated estimated estimated
of arrival at time of time en time of
a point or fix arrival at an route arrival at
en-route destination
point or fix
4498 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a 69 NM 79 NM 49 NM 59 NM
DME facility at FL80. _x000D_
Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS
for descent is 276 kt. _x000D_
The minimum range from the DME at which descent
should start is:
4499 61 1 0 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 4°L - 145 kt 8°L - 146 kt 7°L - 156 kt 4°L - 168 kt
TAS = 190 kt,_x000D_
True HDG = 085°,_x000D_
W/V = 110°(T)/50kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4500 61 0 1 0 0
The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro the vertical any plane the the vertical
in: and horizontal plane
horizontal plane
plane
4501 61 0 0 1 0
 An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent 1650 2400 1000 1550
when _x000D_ FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
100 NM from a DME facility and to cross the station at
FL120. _x000D_
If the mean GS during the descent is 396 kt, the
minimum _x000D_
rate of descent required is approximately:
4502 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft at FL140, IAS 210 kt, OAT -5°C and wind 15 kt 20 kt 25 kt 30 kt
component minus 35 kt, is required to reduce speed in
order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than
planned. _x000D_
Assuming that flight conditions do not change, when 150
NM from the reporting point the IAS should be reduced
by:
4503 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 860 FT/MIN 890 FT/MIN 920 FT/MIN 960 FT/MIN
120 NM from a VOR and to cross the facility at FL130. If
the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum rate
of descent required is:
4504 61 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at FL310, M0.83, temperature -30°C, is M0.74 M0.76 M0.78 M0.80
required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting
point five minutes later than planned. _x000D_
Assuming that a zero wind component remains
unchanged, when 360 NM from the reporting point Mach
Number should be reduced to:
4505 61 1 0 0 0
A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the 34°W 36°W 38°W 41°W
cone of 0.75. _x000D_
The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this
chart from A (40°N 050°W) to B is 043°(T) at A; course
at B is 055°(T). _x000D_
What is the longitude of B?
4506 61 1 0 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 19 kt 16 kt 13 kt 10 kt
Runway direction 210°(M),_x000D_
Surface W/V 230°(M)/30kt. _x000D_
Calculate the cross-wind component?
4507 61 0 0 0 1
At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kt, _x000D_ 0451 0454 0445 0448
is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 NM distant.
_x000D_
The aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80.
_x000D_
For a mean rate of descent of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean
GS of 232 kt, _x000D_
the latest time at which to commence descent is:
4508 61 0 0 1 0
An aircraft at FL330 is rerquired to commence descent 1850 1950 1650 1750
_x000D_ FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
when 65 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at
FL100. _x000D_
The mean GS during the descent is 330 kt. _x000D_
What is the minimum rate of descent required?
4509 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an 60 NM 30 NM 40 NM 50 NM
NDB at 0830. At 0840 the relative bearing from the
same position is 270°. _x000D_
Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kt, what is the
approximate range from the NDB at 0840?
4510 61 0 0 1 0
4511 61 The equivalent of 70 m/sec is approximately: 136 kt 145 kt 210 kt 35 kt 1 0 0 0
A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 30 NM and 30 NM and 40 NM and 40 NM and
325° and five minutes later on a relative bearing of 280°. 060° 240° 110° 290°
The aircraft heading was 165°(M), variation 25°W, drift
10°Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing was
280°, the distance and true bearing of the aircraft from
the feature was:

4512 61 0 1 0 0
On a chart, the distance along a meridian between 1 : 185 000 1 : 18 500 1 : 1 850 1 : 1 000
latitudes 45°N and 46°N is 6 cm. The scale of the chart 000 000 000
is approximately:
4513 61 0 0 1 0
 An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind 174 kt 159 kt 165 kt 169 kt
component +30kt, is required to reduce speed in order
to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
_x000D_
Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM
from the reporting point IAS should be reduced to:

4514 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 27 kt 31 kt 34 kt 24 kt
Runway direction 083°(M),_x000D_
Surface W/V 035/35kt._x000D_
Calculate the effective headwind component?
4515 61 0 0 0 1
Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 130 150 329 43
12 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 2 000 000?
4516 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME 1340 1390 1240 1290
facility at _x000D_ FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN FT/MIN
FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from
the facility. _x000D_
If the mean GS for the descent is 335 kt, the minimum
rate of _x000D_
descent required is:
4517 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft at FL370, M0.86, OAT -44°C, headwind M0.73 M0.75 M0.79 M0.81
component 110 kt, is required to reduce speed in order
to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
_x000D_
If the speed reduction were to be made 420 NM from the
reporting point, what Mach Number is required?

4518 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 18 kt and 20 kt and 12 kt and 15 kt and
For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component 50 kt 40 kt 38 kt 43 kt
_x000D_
of at least 10 kt and has a cross-wind limitation of 35 kt.
_x000D_
The angle between the wind direction and the runway is
60°, _x000D_
Calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind
speeds?

4519 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a 68 NM 53 NM 58 NM 63 NM
DME facility at FL70. Maximum rate of descent is 2500
FT/MIN, mean GS during descent is 248 kt. What is the
minimum range from the DME at which descent should
commence?
4520 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 328° 322° 316° 326°
An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R
(322°);_x000D_
The wind velocity reported by the tower is 350°/20
kt.;_x000D_
TAS on approach is 95 kt. _x000D_
In order to maintain the centre line, the aircraft's heading
(°M) should be :
4521 61 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 061-1829A and the data for 1344 1341 1354 1348
1300 UTC)_x000D_
1300 UTC DR position 37°30'N 021°30'W alter heading
_x000D_
PORT SANTO NDB (33°03'N 016°23'W) _x000D_
TAS 450 kt,_x000D_
Forecast W/V 360°/30kt._x000D_
Calculate the ETA at PORT SANTO NDB?
4522 61 0 0 0 1
What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL ? 1 US-GAL 1 litre equals 1 US-GAL 1 litre equals
equals 4.55 4.55 US- equals 3.78 3.78 US-
litres GAL litres GAL
4523 61 0 0 1 0
 The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies: inversely directly with directly with inversely
with the the the vertical with both
vertical horizontal component vertical and
component component of the earth's horizontal
of the earth's of the earth's magnetic components
magnetic magnetic field of the earth's
field field magnetic
field

4524 61 0 1 0 0
What is the final position after the following rhumb line 59°00'N 60°00'N 60°00'N 59°00'N
tracks and distances have been followed from position 090°00'W 090°00'W 030°00'E 060°00'W
60°00'N 030°00'W?_x000D_
South for 3600 NM, _x000D_
East for 3600 NM, _x000D_
North for 3600 NM, _x000D_
West for 3600 NM._x000D_
The final position of the aircraft is:
4525 61 0 1 0 0
In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed from TAS from TAS by by
(GS) is calculated: and W/V and W/V integrating integrating
from Air from RNAV gyro measured
Data data precession acceleration
Computer in N/S and
(ADC) E/W
directions
respectively

4526 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 126 - 320 kt 125 - 318 kt 123 - 320 kt 125 - 322 kt
TAS = 375 kt,_x000D_
True HDG = 124°,_x000D_
W/V = 130°(T)/55kt._x000D_
Calculate the true track and GS?
4527 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 018° 025° 358° 346°
true track 352°_x000D_
variation 11° W_x000D_
deviation is -5°_x000D_
drift 10°R._x000D_
Calculate the compass heading?
4528 61 0 0 1 0
Given :_x000D_ 215 kt 200 kt 210 kt 220 kt
True altitude 9000 FT,_x000D_
OAT -32°C,_x000D_
CAS 200 kt._x000D_
What is the TAS?
4529 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ less than it the same as greater than randomly
An aircraft is flying a track of 255°(M),_x000D_ was at 2254 it was at it was at different
2254 UTC, it crosses radial 360° from a VOR station, UTC 2254 UTC 2254 UTC than it was
_x000D_ at 2254 UTC
2300 UTC, it crosses radial 330° from the same
station._x000D_
At 2300 UTC, the distance between the aircraft and the
station is :
4530 61 0 1 0 0
The distance between two waypoints is 200 14 NM 7 NM 0 NM 21 NM
NM,_x000D_
To calculate compass heading, the pilot used 2°E
magnetic variation instead of 2°W._x000D_
Assuming that the forecast W/V applied, what will the off
track distance be at the second waypoint?
4531 61 1 0 0 0
The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart : is constant is constant varies is constant
along a across the slightly as a along a
meridian of whole map function of parallel of
longitude latitude and latitude
longitude
4532 61 0 0 0 1
5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a longitude 75°00' 78°45' 80°05' 81°10'
4533 61 difference of: 0 0 1 0
 The Local Mean Time at longitude 095°20'W, at 0000 1738:40 0621:20 1738:40 0621:20
UTC, is : same day same day previous day previous day
4534 61 0 0 1 0
Isogonic lines connect positions that have: the same the same 0° variation the same
angle of variation elevation
magnetic dip
4535 61 0 1 0 0
4536 61 The circumference of the earth is approximately: 10800 NM 21600 NM 43200 NM 5400 NM 0 1 0 0
Seasons are due to the: Earth's variable inclination of Earth's
rotation on distance the polar elliptical
its polar axis between axis with the orbit around
Earth and ecliptic the Sun
Sun plane
4537 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 189 - 370 kt 186 - 370 kt 176 - 370 kt 192 - 370 kt
TAS = 370 kt,_x000D_
True HDG = 181°,_x000D_
W/V = 095°(T)/35kt._x000D_
Calculate the true track and GS?
4538 61 0 1 0 0
Civil twilight is defined by :_x000D_ sun altitude sun altitude sun upper sun altitude
is 12° below is 18° below edge is 6° below
the celestial the celestial tangential to the celestial
horizon horizon horizon horizon

4539 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 002 - 98 kt 005 - 102 kt 345 - 100 kt 348 - 102 kt
TAS = 125 kt,_x000D_
True HDG = 355°,_x000D_
W/V = 320°(T)/30kt._x000D_
Calculate the true track and GS?
4540 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 283 - 150 kt 279 - 152 kt 282 - 148 kt 275 - 150 kt
TAS = 135 kt,_x000D_
HDG (°T) = 278,_x000D_
W/V = 140/20kt_x000D_
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4541 61 1 0 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 032 - 425 kt 036 - 435 kt 034 - 445 kt 028 - 415 kt
TAS = 480 kt,_x000D_
HDG (°T) = 040°,_x000D_
W/V = 090/60kt._x000D_
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4542 61 0 0 1 0
Given: _x000D_ 226 - 186 kt 231 - 196 kt 224 - 175 kt 222 - 181 kt
TAS = 155 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 216°,_x000D_
W/V = 090/60kt._x000D_
Caslculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4543 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 098 - 178 kt 109 - 182 kt 091 - 183 kt 103 - 178 kt
TAS = 170 kt,_x000D_
HDG(T) = 100°,_x000D_
W/V = 350/30kt._x000D_
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4544 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 5R - 207 kt 7R - 204 kt 7L - 269 kt 5L - 255 kt
TAS = 235 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 076°_x000D_
W/V = 040/40kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4545 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 5L - 385 kt 4L - 415 kt 2L - 420 kt 6L - 395 kt
TAS = 440 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 349°_x000D_
W/V = 040/40kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift and GS?
4546 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 294° 278° 306° 322°
True course 300°_x000D_
drift 8°R_x000D_
variation 10°W_x000D_
deviation -4° _x000D_
Calculate the compass heading?
4547 61 0 0 1 0
 Given: _x000D_ 4L - 400 kt 6L - 400 kt 8L - 415 kt 3L - 415 kt
TAS = 465 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 124°,_x000D_
W/V = 170/80kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift and GS?
4548 61 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 3°L - 166 kt 4°R - 165 kt 2°R - 166 kt 4°L - 167 kt
TAS = 132 kt,_x000D_
True HDG = 257°_x000D_
W/V = 095°(T)/35kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4549 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 9°W 21°W 25°W 5°W
True track 180°_x000D_
Drift 8°R_x000D_
Compass heading 195°_x000D_
Deviation -2°_x000D_
Calculate the variation?
4550 61 0 1 0 0
On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60°N, the distance 1 : 2 780 1 : 278 000 1 : 5 560 1 : 556 000
measured between W002° and E008° is 20 cm. The 000 000
scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
4551 61 1 0 0 0
An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before 115 NM 105 NM 84 NM 97 NM
sunset. The pilot flies a track of 090°(T), W/V 130°/ 20
kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of departure
before sunset, the furthest distance which may be
travelled is:
4552 61 0 0 0 1
Assume a Mercator chart._x000D_ 60° N or S 30° N or S 0° 45° N or S
The distance between positions A and B, located on the
same parallel and 10° longitude apart, is 6 cm. The
scale at the parallel is 1 : 9 260 000._x000D_
What is the latitude of A and B?
4553 61 1 0 0 0
On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37°N and 65°N), great circle great circle great circle rhumb line is
with respect to the straight line drawn on the map and rhumb and rhumb is to the to the north,
between A ( N49° W030°) and B (N48° W040°), the: line are to line are to north, the the great
the south the north rhumb line is circle is to
to the south the south

4554 61 1 0 0 0
A direct Mercator graticule is based on a projection that spherical concentric cylindrical conical
4555 61 is : 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 14 720 FT 15 280 FT 15 840 FT 14 160 FT
Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airport_x000D_
Elevation of airport 720 FT._x000D_
QNH is 1003 hPa._x000D_
OAT at FL150 -5°C._x000D_
What is the true altitude of the aircraft?_x000D_
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
4556 61 0 1 0 0
An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE 6 400 FT 6 800 FT 6 000 FT 4 000 FT
(altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963 hPa, temperature =
32°C)._x000D_
Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the
second altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate
approximately :
4557 61 1 0 0 0
Given :_x000D_ 75 kt 60 kt 40 kt 90 kt
ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTC_x000D_
GS is 441 kt _x000D_
TAS is 491 kt _x000D_
At 2010 UTC, ATC requests a speed reduction to cross
the meridian at 2105 UTC._x000D_
The reduction to TAS will be approximately:
4558 61 0 0 1 0
The flight log gives the following data :_x000D_ 117°, 4°L, 125°, 2°R, 119°, 3°L, 115°, 5°R,
"True track, Drift, True heading, Magnetic variation, 121°, 1°E, 123°, 2°W, 122°, 2°E, 120°, 3°W,
Magnetic heading, Compass deviation, Compass 122°, -3°, 121°, -4°, 120°, +4°, 123°, +2°,
heading"_x000D_ 119° 117° 116° 121°
The right solution, in the same order, is :_x000D_

4559 61 0 0 1 0
 Given : _x000D_ 52 NM and 60 NM and 60 NM and 30 NM and
Position 'A' N60 W020,_x000D_ 60 NM 30 NM 52 NM 60 NM
Position 'B' N60 W021, _x000D_
Position 'C' N59 W020. _x000D_
What are, respectively, the distances from A to B and
from A to C?
4560 61 0 0 0 1
Concerning direct reading magnetic compasses, in the on an on a on a on an
northern hemisphere, it can be said that : Easterly Westerly Westerly Easterly
heading, a heading, a heading, a heading, a
longitudinal longitudinal longitudinal longitudinal
acceleration acceleration deceleration acceleration
causes an causes an causes an causes an
apparent apparent apparent apparent
turn to the turn to the turn to the turn to the
South South North North

4561 61 0 0 0 1
Given: _x000D_ 134 - 178 kt 134 - 188 kt 120 - 190 kt 128 - 180 kt
TAS = 225 kt,_x000D_
HDG (°T) = 123°,_x000D_
W/V = 090/60kt._x000D_
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4562 61 1 0 0 0
Compass deviation is defined as the angle between: True North the Magnetic True North
and horizontal North and and
Compass and the total Compass Magnetic
North intensity of North North
the earth's
magnetic
field

4563 61 0 0 1 0
At 0020 UTC an aircraft is crossing the 310° radial at 40 080° - 226 kt 088° - 232 kt 085° - 226 kt 090° - 232 kt
NM of a VOR/DME station._x000D_
At 0035 UTC the radial is 040° and DME distance is 40
NM._x000D_
Magnetic variation is zero._x000D_
The true track and ground speed are :
4564 61 0 0 1 0
A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 1 : 5 000 1 : 7 000 1 : 3 500 1 : 6 000
NM._x000D_ 000 000 000 000
The scale of this chart is approximately :
4565 61 0 1 0 0
From the departure point, the distance to the point of inversely inversely proportional inversely
equal time is :_x000D_ proportional proportional to the sum proportional
to ground to the sum of ground to the total
speed back of ground speed out distance to
speed out and ground go
and ground speed back
speed back
4566 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 036° and 052° and 056° and 055° and
Required course 045°(M);_x000D_ 151 kt 154 kt 137 kt 147 kt
Variation is 15°E;_x000D_
W/V is 190°(T)/30 kt;_x000D_
CAS is 120 kt at FL 55 in standard atmosphere._x000D_
What are the heading (°M) and GS?
4567 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 6°R - 259 kt 6°L - 256 kt 6°R - 251 kt 8°R - 261 kt
TAS = 270 kt,_x000D_
True HDG = 145°,_x000D_
Actual wind = 205°(T)/30kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
4568 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 1680 FT 320 FT 680 FT - 320 FT
Airport elevation is 1000 ft. _x000D_
QNH is 988 hPa._x000D_
What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
_x000D_
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
4569 61 1 0 0 0
 Given: _x000D_ 25 kt 33 kt 31 kt 26 kt
Maximum allowable crosswind component is 20 kt.
_x000D_
Runway 06, RWY QDM 063°(M). _x000D_
Wind direction 100°(M)_x000D_
Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed?
4570 61 0 1 0 0
The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 60°N is 18 706 NM 20 000 NM 34 641 NM 10 800 NM
4571 61 approximately: 0 0 0 1
Given: _x000D_ 31 kt 36 kt 21 kt 26 kt
Runway direction 230°(T), _x000D_
Surface W/V 280°(T)/40 kt. _x000D_
Calculate the effective cross-wind component?
4572 61 1 0 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 180/10kt 180/05kt 000/05kt 000/10kt
True HDG = 206°,_x000D_
TAS = 140 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 207°,_x000D_
GS = 135 kt._x000D_
Calculate the W/V?
4573 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 8R - 104 kt 9R - 108 kt 10L - 104 kt 9L - 105 kt
TAS = 95 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 075°,_x000D_
W/V = 310/20kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift and GS?
4574 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 312 - 232 kt 311 - 230 kt 313 - 235 kt 310 - 233 kt
TAS = 227 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 316°, _x000D_
W/V = 205/15kt._x000D_
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4575 61 1 0 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 179 - 220 kt 181 - 180 kt 180 - 183 kt 180 - 223 kt
TAS = 198 kt,_x000D_
HDG (°T) = 180,_x000D_
W/V = 359/25._x000D_
Calculate the Track(°T) and GS?
4576 61 0 0 0 1
Given: _x000D_ 075 - 213 kt 077 - 210 kt 077 - 214 kt 079 - 211 kt
TAS = 200 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 073°,_x000D_
W/V = 210/20kt._x000D_
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4577 61 0 0 1 0
Given: _x000D_ 097 - 201 kt 099 - 199 kt 121 - 207 kt 121 - 199 kt
TAS = 200 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 110°,_x000D_
W/V = 015/40kt._x000D_
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4578 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 262 - 237 kt 264 - 241 kt 264 - 237 kt 262 - 241 kt
TAS = 270 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 260°,_x000D_
W/V = 275/30kt._x000D_
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4579 61 0 0 0 1
Given: _x000D_ 265/30kt 260/30kt 257/35kt 255/25kt
True HDG = 307°,_x000D_
TAS = 230 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 313°,_x000D_
GS = 210 kt._x000D_
Calculate the W/V?
4580 61 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 105/75kt 110/75kt 115/70kt 110/80kt
True HDG = 233°,_x000D_
TAS = 480 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 240°,_x000D_
GS = 523 kt._x000D_
Calculate the W/V?
4581 61 0 1 0 0
 Given: _x000D_ 305 - 169 kt 309 - 170 kt 309 - 141 kt 301 - 169 kt
TAS = 155 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 305°,_x000D_
W/V = 160/18kt._x000D_
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4582 61 0 0 0 1
Given: _x000D_ 180/40kt 180/35kt 180/30kt 185/35kt
True HDG = 074°,_x000D_
TAS = 230 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 066°,_x000D_
GS = 242 kt._x000D_
Calculate the W/V?
4583 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 002 - 173 kt 359 - 166 kt 357 - 168 kt 001 - 170 kt
TAS = 130 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 003°,_x000D_
W/V = 190/40kt._x000D_
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4584 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 010/45kt 010/50kt 005/50kt 010/55kt
True HDG = 054°,_x000D_
TAS = 450 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 059°,_x000D_
GS = 416 kt._x000D_
Calculate the W/V?
4585 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 360/35kt 180/35kt 295/35kt 115/35kt
True HDG = 145°,_x000D_
TAS = 240 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 150°,_x000D_
GS = 210 kt._x000D_
Calculate the W/V?
4586 61 0 0 0 1
Given:_x000D_ 095/25kt 095/20kt 090/15kt 090/20kt
True HDG = 002°,_x000D_
TAS = 130 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 353°,_x000D_
GS = 132 kt._x000D_
Calculate the W/V?
4587 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 335/55kt 340/45kt 340/50kt 335/45kt
True HDG = 035°,_x000D_
TAS = 245 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 046°,_x000D_
GS = 220 kt._x000D_
Calculate the W/V?
4588 61 0 0 1 0
Given: _x000D_ 096°, 29 095°, 31 075°, 39 076°, 34
course required = 085° (T),_x000D_ MIN MIN MIN MIN
Forecast W/V 030/100kt,_x000D_
TAS = 470 kt,_x000D_
Distance = 265 NM._x000D_
Calculate the true HDG and flight time?
4589 61 0 0 1 0
Given: _x000D_ 069° - 448 kt 068° - 460 kt 078° - 450 kt 070° - 453 kt
True course from A to B = 090°,_x000D_
TAS = 460 kt, _x000D_
W/V = 360/100kt,_x000D_
Average variation = 10°E,_x000D_
Deviation = -2°._x000D_
Calculate the compass heading and GS?
4590 61 1 0 0 0
For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface 20 kt 22 kt 26 kt 15 kt
_x000D_
W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kt. _x000D_
VAR is 13°E. _x000D_
Calculate the cross wind component?
4591 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 033° 007° 359° 337°
true track is 348°, _x000D_
drift 17° left, _x000D_
variation 32° W, _x000D_
deviation 4°E. _x000D_
What is the compass heading?
4592 61 1 0 0 0
 Given:_x000D_ 18 kt 8 kt 15 kt 11 kt
Maximum allowable tailwind component for landing 10
kt. _x000D_
Planned runway 05 (047° magnetic). _x000D_
The direction of the surface wind reported by ATIS 210°.
_x000D_
Variation is 17°E. _x000D_
Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed that can
_x000D_
be accepted without exceeding the tailwind limit?

4593 61 0 0 0 1
Given: _x000D_ 075/50kt 075/45kt 070/40kt 070/45kt
True HDG = 133°,_x000D_
TAS = 225 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 144°,_x000D_
GS = 206 kt._x000D_
Calculate the W/V?
4594 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 1R - 165 kt 1L - 215 kt 1L - 225 kt 1R - 175 kt
TAS = 190 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 355°,_x000D_
W/V = 165/25kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift and GS?
4595 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 11R - 142 kt 11R - 140 kt 10R - 146 kt 9R - 140 kt
TAS = 140 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 005°,_x000D_
W/V = 265/25kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift and GS?
4596 61 0 0 1 0
Given: _x000D_ 358 - 428 kt 001 - 432 kt 000 - 430 kt 357 - 430 kt
TAS = 465 kt,_x000D_
Track (T) = 007°,_x000D_
W/V = 300/80kt._x000D_
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
4597 61 1 0 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 175 - 420 kt 175 - 432 kt 174 - 428 kt 173 - 424 kt
TAS = 485 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 168°,_x000D_
W/V = 130/75kt._x000D_
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4598 61 0 0 1 0
Given: _x000D_ 1L - 225 kt 1R - 221 kt 2R - 223 kt 2L - 224 kt
TAS = 230 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 250°,_x000D_
W/V = 205/10kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift and GS?
4599 61 0 0 1 0
Given: _x000D_ 358 - 101 kt 359 - 102 kt 346 - 102 kt 006 - 95 kt
TAS = 90 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 355°,_x000D_
W/V = 120/20kt._x000D_
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4600 61 0 0 1 0
Given: _x000D_ 057 - 144 kt 052 - 143 kt 051 - 144 kt 050 - 145 kt
TAS = 132 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 053°,_x000D_
W/V = 205/15kt._x000D_
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
4601 61 0 0 0 1
Given: _x000D_ 4L - 195 kt 6L - 194 kt 7L - 192 kt 3L - 190 kt
TAS = 205 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 180°,_x000D_
W/V = 240/25kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift and GS?
4602 61 0 1 0 0
Given: _x000D_ 1L - 205 kt 1R - 205 kt 1L - 265 kt 1R - 295 kt
TAS = 250 kt,_x000D_
HDG (T) = 029°,_x000D_
W/V = 035/45kt._x000D_
Calculate the drift and GS?
4603 61 1 0 0 0
 METEOROLOGY
c

90 2 1\2 hr

Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during period in cumulus mature dissipating

the which stage. stage. stage.
precipitation
is falling.
3272 50
Which of the following phenomena should be described BCFG FZFG HZ SN
as precipitation at the time they are observed?
3273 50
What prevents air from flowing directly from high- Katabatic The Coriolis Surface
pressure areas to low-pressure areas ? force pressure force friction
gradient
force
3274 50
With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland strong wind strong wind strong wind light wind,
during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced is with associated shear, good visibility
: subsidence with an convection and a high
at low levels almost clear and snow cloud ceiling
sky showers

3275 50
Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind When the Surface Isobars When the
flow patterns around high- and low-pressure systems isobars are winds flow connect isobars are
that are shown on a surface weather chart. close perpendicula contour lines far apart,
together, the r to the of equal crest of
pressure isobars. temperature. standing
gradient waves may
force is be marked
greater and by stationary
wind lenticular
velocities clouds.
are stronger.

3276 50
What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land Advection. Steam. Orographic. Radiation.
during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions ?
3277 50
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence there are a warm front freezing rain a cold front
that thunderstor has passed occurs at a has passed
ms in the higher
area altitude
3278 50
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the mature cumulus dissipating period in
stage. stage. stage. which
precipitation
is not falling.

3279 50
3280 50 The most dangerous form of airframe icing is dry ice. rime ice. clear ice. hoar frost.
In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely Cirrus Stratus Snow. Freezing
3281 50 to have the highest rate of accretion ? clouds. clouds. rain.
 What are the differences between radiation fog and Radiation Radiation Radiation Radiation fog
advection fog ? fog forms fog is fog forms forms only
due to night formed by due to on the
cooling and surface surface ground,
advection cooling in a cooling at advection
fog due to calm wind. night in a fog only on
daytime Advection light wind. the sea.
cooling. fog is Advection
formed by fog forms
evaporation when warm
over the humid air
sea. flows over a
cold surface.

3282 50
The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind effect of coriolis centrifugal centrifugal
around an anticyclone because the coriolis is effect force is force
added to opposes the added to the opposes the
friction centrifugal pressure pressure
force gradient gradient

3283 50
The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind centrifugal coriolis force coriolis force centrifugal
around a low pressure system because the force is is added to opposes to force
added to the the pressure the opposes the
pressure gradient centrifugal pressure
gradient force gradient

3284 50
The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or increasing an surface a low level
become low stratus is : surface wind increasingly cooling. temperature
speed. stable inversion.
atmosphere.

3285 50
What characterizes a stationary front ? The weather The surface The surface The warm air
conditions wind usually wind usually moves at
that it has its has its approximatel
originates is direction direction y half the
a parallel to perpendicula speed of the
combination the front r to the front cold air
between
those of an
intense cold
front and
those of a
warm and
very active
front

3286 50
If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its a lower rate the same a lower rate a higher rate
temperature increases at than in dry rate as if the than in dry than in dry
air, as air mass air, as air, as it
evaporation were dry. condensatio gives up
absorbs n gives out latent
heat. heat. evaporation
heat.
3287 50
 How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion ? The coldest The coldest The coldest The coldest
air in front of air in front of air behind air mass
and the less and the and the behind and
cold air is warm air warm air in the less cold
behind the behind the front of the air in front of
occlusion; occlusion; occlusion; the
the warm air the less cold the less cold occlusion;
mass is air is above air mass is the warm air
above ground level. above mass is
ground level. ground level. above
ground level.

3288 50
In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature decreases increases increases at is almost
with altitude with altitude first and constant
decreases
afterward
3289 50
The thickness of the troposphere varies with longitude rotation of the wind latitude
3290 50 the earth
Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first 5 km 3 km 8 km 11 km
3291 50
In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is stable unstable a layer of conditionally
15°C and 13°C at 1000m. This layer of air is: heavy unstable
turbulence
3292 50
The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an height of the stability of intensity of intensity of
aircraft is proportional to the aircraft the air the solar vertical and
radiation horizontal
windshear
3293 50
An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low From the left From the left From the From the
altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going directly away and slightly and slightly right and right and
from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to on the tail on the nose slightly on slightly on
the aircraft, does the wind come from ? the nose the tail

3294 50
Where does polar continental air originate? The region Siberian Areas of The region of
of landmass. arctic water. the Baltic
Greenland. sea.
3295 50
What is characteristic of the pamperos? A marked Foehn A marked Katabatic
advance of conditions in advance of winds in the
cold arctic the Spanish cold air in Atlas
air in North Pyrenees South Mountains
America America
3296 50
Friction between the air and the ground results in the backing of veering of backing of veering of
northern hemisphere in: the wind and the wind and the wind and the wind and
increase of increase of decrease of decrease of
wind speed wind speed wind speed wind speed
at the at the at the at the
surface. surface. surface. surface.

3297 50
Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an It decreases It increases. It remains Without
aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if any, will constant. knowing the
this have on the aircraft's true altitude ? pressure
change this
question
cannot be
answered.

3298 50
What is the most likely temperature at the tropical -25°C. -75°C. -55°C. -35°C.
3299 50 tropopause?
Which weather condition lowers true altitude as Warm Cold high. Warm high. Cold low.
compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight depression.
over mountains could be dangereous?
3300 50
 In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you Tailwind with Headwind Wind from Wind from
expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a no drift. with no drift. the right. the left.
low pressure area at FL 100?
3301 50
What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be Light Severe Moderate Light
encountered while flying through a cold front in the turbulence in turbulence in turbulence in turbulence in
summer over Central Europe at FL 100? ST cloud. CB cloud. NS cloud. CB cloud.
3302 50
You are flying at 2 500 FT/AGL, with a southerly wind, South- Southwest. South. South-
and intend to land at an airport, at sea level directly southwest. southeast.
below. From approximately which direction would you
expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern
hemisphere)?
3303 50
A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows up the slope down the up the slope down the
during the slope during during the slope during
day. the day. night. the night.
3304 50
Where is the source of tropical continental air that The Southern Southern The Azores
affects Europe in summer? southern Italy. France. region.
Balkan
region and
the Near
East.
3305 50
A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers Variable. Parallel to Sea to land. Land to sea.
an area of the Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. the
What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a coastline.
sunny afternoon?
3306 50
In which air mass are extremely low temperatures Arctic Polar Polar Tropical
encountered? maritime air. continental maritime air. continental
air. air.
3307 50
With what type of clouds are showers most likely Stratus. Cumulonimb Stratocumul Nimbostratus
3308 50 associated? us. us. .
At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely Shortly after At sunset. Late Shortly after
to occur? sunrise. evening. midnight.
3309 50
What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog? 2 000 FT. 5 000 FT. 10 000 FT. 500 FT.
3310 50
When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, When very When very When very When very
occur? humid warm humid cold dry cold air humid warm
air meets air meets meets with air meets
with dry cold with dry very dry with very
air. warm air. warm air. humid cold
air.
3311 50
What wind conditions, occuring just before dawn, favour Westerly, 10 Easterly, 10 Calm. Northerly, 10
the formation of fog at an airport where the temperature kt variable. kt. kt.
is 15°C and the dew point is 14°C?
3312 50
Which of the following weather conditions favour the Light wind, Light wind, Strong wind, Light wind,
formation of radiation fog? extensive extensive little or no little or no
cloud, dry cloud, moist cloud, moist cloud, moist
air. air. air. air.
3313 50
What type of fronts are most likely to be present during Cold fronts. Warm fronts, Cold High level
the winter in Central Europe when temperatures close to warm occlusions. cold fronts.
the ground are below 0°C, and freezing rain starts to occlusions.
fall?
3314 50
What are the typical differences between the The air of The North- The air of The North-
temperature and humidity between an air mass with its the Azores is Russian air the Azores is Russian air
origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over warmer and is warmer warmer and is colder and
northern Russia ? dryer than and dryer more humid more humid
the North- than the air than the than the air
Russian air. of the North- of the
Azores. Russian air. Azores.

3315 50
 Which of the following clouds may extend into more than Altocumulus. Cirrus. Nimbostratu Stratus.
3316 50 one layer? s.
Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only Moderate Heavy rain Hail. Drizzle.
water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes? rain with with large
large drops. drops.
3317 50
Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter Occlusions. The north The north Frontal
little or no precipitation? side of the side of the zones.
alps with a alps with a
prevailing prevailing
Foehn from Foehn from
the south. the north.
3318 50
Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over The release Radiation Unstable air. Convection
flat land? of latent during the during the
heat. night from day.
the earth
surface in
moderate
wind.
3319 50
Which of the following processes within a layer of air Subsidence. Frontal lifting Convection. Radiation.
may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds? within stable
layers.
3320 50
What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds? Large water Small water Large water Small water
droplets, droplets, droplets, droplets,
instability, stability, no stability, no instability,
turbulence, turbulence turbulence, turbulence,
showers and and showers and extensive
mainly clear extensive mainly rime areas of rain
ice. areas of ice. and rime ice.
rain.

3321 50
Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of ST, CS. SC, NS. CI, SC. CU, CB.
3322 50 unstable air conditions?
Which of the following clouds are classified as medium AS, AC. SC, NS CI, CC. CS, ST.
3323 50 level clouds in temperate regions ?
(For this question use annex 050-1914A)_x000D_ 3. 1. 2. 4.
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is
representative of altocumulus castellanus?
3324 50
Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL A strong Stronger The Friction
are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are pressure Coriolis influence of between the
southerly. What is the primary reason of difference gradient at force at the warm air at wind and the
between these two wind directions? higher surface. the lower surface.
altitudes. altitude.
3325 50
A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 100 - 1500 1500 - 7000 15000 - 7000 - 15000
500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a FT above FT above 25000 FT FT above the
uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At the terrain. the terrain. above the terrain.
what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to terrain.
be expected?
3326 50
What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels Cumulus. Altostratus. Cumulonimb Nimbostratus
when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass? us. .
3327 50
Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely NS. CS. SC. ST.
3328 50 to produce heavy precipitation ?
What characteristics will the surface winds have in an Strong and Moderate Strong and Very weak
area where the isobars on the weather map are very parallel to and parallel flowing but gusty
close together? the isobars. to the across the and flowing
isobars. isobars. across the
isobars.

3329 50
 Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds? Pressure Friction Pressure Pressure
gradient force, gradient gradient
force, pressure force, force,
Coriolis gradient Coriolis centrifugal
force. force, force, force, friction
Coriolis centrifugal force.
force. force.
3330 50
How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft? Continued Changes in Rapid and Large, abrupt
flight in this altitude or somewhat changes in
environment attitude rhythmic altitude or
will result in occur but bumpiness attitude
structural the aircraft is occur but the
damage. remains in experienced aircraft may
positive without only be out
control at all appreciable of control
times. changes in momentarily.
altitude or
attitude.

3331 50
Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the Light. Severe. Violent. Moderate.
following ICAO description?_x000D_
"There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude
and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control
at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed.
Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the
aircraft's center of gravity. Occupants feel strain against
seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and
walking are difficult."

3332 50
For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers Thunderstor Sand up to Hail. Dust and
associated with a Harmattan wind? ms. FL 150. poor visibility.
3333 50
What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing Mistral. Scirocco. Bora. Ghibli.
down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the
winter and spring called?
3334 50
In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze during the during the during the during the
blows : night and is day and is day and is night and is
weaker than stronger weaker than stronger than
the sea- than the the sea- the sea-
breeze. sea-breeze. breeze. breeze.

3335 50
What is the main composition of clouds classified as Water Water Ice crystals. Supercooled
"high level clouds"? droplets. vapour. water
droplets.
3336 50
Where is a squall line to be expected? In front of an Behind a In front of a At the
active cold cold front. cold front surface
front. occlusion at position of a
higher warm front.
levels.
3337 50
In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be NS. Calm winds, TS, SH. CB, TS.
expected over land during the summer in the centre of a haze.
stationary high pressure zone ?
3338 50
At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic Summer. Spring. Autumn. Winter.
lows moving from west to east generally at their most
southerly position?
3339 50
What is the relationship between meteorological visibility The met. vis. The met. vis. The met. vis. There is no
(met.vis.) and RVR in homogeneous fog? is generally generally is generally is specific
less than the greater than the same as relationship
RVR. the RVR. the RVR. between the
two.

3340 50
 The wind indicator for a weather observation receives On a mast 8- 1 m above Close to the On the roof
the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this 10 m above the runway. station about of the
instrument placed? the ground. 2 m above weather
the ground. station.

3341 50
You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C In clouds Over flat Over flat In clouds
and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150 through 8 oktas NS. What pushed up terrain, away terrain, pushed up
type and degree of icing is most probable? against the from fronts, moderate against the
mountains, moderate to hoar frost. mountains,
moderate to severe moderate to
severe rime mixed ice. severe
ice. mixed ice.
3342 50
You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a Mid-day. Afternoon. Early Morning.
hot summer day, when the weather is unstable. What is evening.
the best time of day to conduct this flight?
3343 50
At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to Spring, Summer, Autumn, Winter.
3344 50 occur in North America? summer. autumn. winter.
In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for Around Early Late Mid -
3345 50 thunderstorms due to warm updrafts? midnight. morning. morning. afternoon.
Which of the following conditions are you most likely to Extreme High cloud Low cloud Severe
encounter when approaching an active warm front at turbulence base, good base and thunderstorm
medium to low level ? and severe surface poor s at low
lightning visibility, and visibility. altitude.
striking the isolated
ground. thunderstor
ms.

3346 50
What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, Low Subsidence, High High air
for thunderstorms formed by lifting processes, over temperature inversion. temperature pressure (>
land? s, low s, high 1013 hPa),
humidity. humidity. high
temperatures
.
3347 50
What type of air movement is associated with the centre Divergence Divergence Convergenc Convergenc
line of a trough? with with lifting. e with e with lifting.
descending descending
air. air.
3348 50
What are squall lines? Bands of Unusual The surface The paths of
intensive intensive weather tropical
thunderstor cold fronts. associated revolving
ms. with upper storms.
air troughs.

3349 50
Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern Continuous Decrease in Icing, huge Good
side of the Alps with stormy winds from the south precipitation, temperature, mass of visibility,
(Foehn)? severe moderate to clouds. turbulence.
turbulence. severe icing.

3350 50
What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly Continuous Clear skies. Frontal Thunderstor
waves? rain. weather. ms and rain.
3351 50
What winds are mainly associated with the winter Southeasterl Northeasterl Southwesterl Northwesterl
monsoon in the monsoon regions of the Indian sub- y winds y winds y winds y winds
continent ? carrying bringing dry carrying bringing dry
warm and and hazy air. warm and and hazy air.
humid air. humid air.
3352 50
Which of the following cloud types can project up into Cumulonimb Cirrostratus Altocumulus Altostratus
3353 50 the stratosphere? us
 What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at Rising air Instability Divergence Sinking air
higher levels in a stationary high? at higher
levels
3354 50
On which coast of North America, is the danger of SE coast W coast N coast NE coast
3355 50 tropical revolving storms the greatest?
Which of the following phenomena should be described SA TS SQ DZ
as precipitation at the time they are observed?
3356 50
During which stage of thunderstorm development are Cumulus Dissipating Cumulus Mature
rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to stage. stage. stage and stage.
occur ? mature
stage.
3357 50
In which of the following bands of latitude is the 3° - 8°S. 8° - 12°S. 7° - 12°N. 0° - 7°N.
intertropical convergence zone most likely to be
encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de
Janeiro?
3358 50
Which of the following changes of state is known as Liquid direct Solid direct Solid direct Liquid direct
sublimation? to vapour to vapour to liquid to solid
3359 50
3360 50 The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is: 1/150 1/50 1/300 1/500
What type of low pressure area is associated with a A low on lee Heat low. Polar front A cold air
surface front? side of a low. pool.
mountain.
3361 50
In which approximate direction does the centre of a In the In the In the In the
frontal depression move? direction of direction of direction of direction of
the warm the isobars the sharpest the isobars
sector ahead of the pressure behind the
isobars. warm front. increase. cold front.

3362 50
Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with At the Behind the Ahead of the At the
cold front characteristics? junction of front. front. surface
the position of
occlusion. the front.
3363 50
What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest? Warm Cold front. Warm front. Cold
3364 50 occlusion. occlusion.
Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical CI, CS. Fair weather CU, CB. ST with
of the warm sector of a depression during winter? CU. drizzle.
3365 50
What weather conditions are prevalent during the Rain 8 octas CS, Cloud cover Showers and
summer, over the North Sea, approximately 300 km covering a AS without mostly thunderstorm
behind a quickly moving cold front? large area, 8 precipitation. scattered, s.
octas NS. isolated
showers.

3366 50
What surface weather is associated with a stationary A tendency Thunderstor NS with The
high pressure region over land in the winter? for fog and ms. continuous possibility of
low ST. rain. snow
showers.
3367 50
Which one of the following statements regarding the Thunderstor The ITCZ is The ITCZ Frequent and
intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct? ms seldom always does not widespread
occur within associated change its thunderstorm
the area of with a strong position s are to be
the ITCZ. jet stream. during the expected
course of within the
the year. area of the
ITCZ.

3368 50
What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a Subsidence. Convergenc Advection. Convection.
3369 50 large high pressure area? e.
 What weather conditions are indications of the summer Stratus Sandstorms. Fog. Thunderstor
monsoon in India? clouds and ms, showers
drizzle. of heavy
rain.

3370 50
After passing at right angles through a very active cold A backing in An increase A decrease A veering in
front in the direction of the cold air, what will you the wind in tailwind. in headwind. the wind
encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after direction. direction.
a marked change in temperature?

3371 50
When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa? March to December to March to April to July
May and February May and and
October to and July to August to December to
November. October. October. February.

3372 50
Which of the following best describes the intertropical The zone The zone The zone The zone
convergence zone ? where cold where the where the where the
fronts form west winds trade winds Harmattan
in the meet the of the meets the
tropics. subtropical northern northeasterly
high hemisphere trade winds
pressure meet those over Africa.
belt. of the
southern
hemisphere.

3373 50
What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean West in the West in the East then West deep
area? earlier earlier south. into the USA.
stages and stages and
later turning later turning
south east. north east.
3374 50
During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to Winter. Winter and All seasons. Summer and
appear in the northern hemisphere? spring. autumn.
3375 50
What is encountered during the summer, over land, in Strong Fine Nothing Showers and
the centre of a cold air pool? westerly weather CU. (CAVOK). thunderstorm
winds. s.
3376 50
How do you recognize a cold air pool? As a high A cold air A cold air As a low
pressure pool may pool may pressure
area aloft only be only be area aloft
(e.g. on the recognized recognized (e.g. on the
500 hPa on the on the 500 hPa
chart). surface surface chart).
chart as a chart as a
low pressure high
area. pressure
area.

3377 50
During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the Decreasing Strong, A strong Increasing
following sequence of clouds:_x000D_ temperature gusty winds. downdraugh temperatures
Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus._x000D_ s. t. .
Which of the following are you most likely to encounter ?

3378 50
What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm Very good Moderate Very poor Good
sector of tropical maritime air, during the summer? (greater than (several (less than 1 (greater than
50 km). km). km). 10 km).
3379 50
In which meteorological forecast chart is information 300 hPa Significant 24 hour 500 hPa
about CAT regions found? chart. Weather surface chart.
Chart. forecast.
3380 50
 A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the It depends The same Higher than Lower than
condensation level and then returned to its original level. upon the as the the starting the starting
What is the final temperature of the parcel of air? QFE. starting temperature. temperature.
temperature.

3381 50
What is the effect of a strong low level inversion ? It promotes It promotes It prevents It results in
vertical extensive vertical good visual
windshear. vertical windshear. conditions.
movement
of air.
3382 50
The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the -9°C. -15°C. -6°C. -18°C.
temperature be at FL 110 if the ICAO standard lapse
rate is applied ?
3383 50
If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature 5900 FT. 5760 FT. 6240 FT. 6000 FT.
deviation is ISA +10°C in the lower troposphere up to
18000 FT, what is the actual layer thickness between FL
60 and FL 120 ?
3384 50
Which of the following is a common cause of ground or Terrestrial Warm air The Heating of
surface temperature inversion ? radiation on being lifted movement the air by
a clear night rapidly aloft, of colder air subsidence
with no or in the vicinity under warm
very light of air, or the
winds. mountainous movement
terrain. of warm air
over cold air.

3385 50
At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa -58°C. -54°C. -50°C. -56,5°C.
chart is -48°C; according to the tropopause chart, the
tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350 ?
3386 50
3387 50 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "BKN"? 5 - 7 oktas. 3 - 4 oktas. 6 - 8 oktas. 8 oktas.
When is the RVR reported at most airports? When the When the When the When the
meteorologic RVR RVR meteorologic
al visibility decreases decreases al visibility
decreases below 800 below 2000 decreases
below 800 m. m. below 1500
m. m.
3388 50
A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required Less than It remains More than Without QNH
separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air 1000 FT 1000 FT 1000 FT information,
advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical it can not be
separation be? determined

3389 50
What positions are connected with contour lines on the Positions Positions Positions Positions
weather chart? with the with the with the with the
same air same wind same height same
density. velocity. in a chart of thickness
constant between two
pressure. constant
pressure
levels.

3390 50
Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric Solar Absorption Absorption Convection
warming. Which of the following contribute the most ? radiation and and and
and vaporization. evaporation. condensatio
conduction. n.
3391 50
On which of the following aviation weather charts can a Significant Wind / Surface Upper air
pilot most easily find a jetstream? weather temperature chart. chart.
chart. chart.
3392 50
 How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, By reading By By simple By reading
which is between two upper air chart levels? (e.g. wind wind interpolation interpolation wind
at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are direction and of the wind of wind direction and
available). speed from information information speed from
the 300 hPa available available the next
chart. from the two from the two higher chart.
charts, while charts.
also
considering
the
maximum
wind
information
found on the
Significant
Weather
Chart.

3393 50
Why are indications about the height of the tropopause The The The Tropopause
not essential for flight documentation in the tropics? tropopause meteorologic temperature informations
is generally al services s of the are of no
well above are unable tropical value.
the flight to provide tropopause
level actually such a chart. are always
flown. very cold
and
therefore not
important.

3394 50
In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of 20 minutes. 60 minutes. 120 minutes. 10 minutes.
your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the
maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in
anyone instance ?
3395 50
How are well separated CB clouds described on the ISOL CB. OCNL CB. EMBD CB. FREQ CB.
3396 50 Significant Weather Chart?
Which one of the following statements applies to the It is, by It indicates a It is, by It separates
tropopause? definition, an strong definition, a the
isothermal temperature temperature troposphere
layer lapse rate inversion from the
stratosphere

3397 50
The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL FL 110 FL 80 FL 20 FL 100
3398 50 would you expect a temperature of -6° C?
Which of the following are favourable conditions for the An Warm air Water Cold air aloft
formation of freezing rain? isothermal aloft from droplets from which
layer aloft which rain is falling from hail is falling
with a falling into cold air aloft into air that is
temperature air with a with a warm.
just above temperature temperature
0°C through below 0°C. below 0°C.
which rain is
falling.

3399 50
 How is the direction and speed of upper winds described The The The The direction
in forecasts ? direction is direction is direction is is relative to
relative to relative to relative to true north
true north magnetic magnetic and the
and the north and north and speed is in
speed is in the speed is the speed is miles per
knots. in knots. in miles per hour.
hour.
3400 50
(For this question use annex 050-2061A)_x000D_ 4 3 1 2
Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation
is applicable to the straight line A-B?
3401 50
How does the height of the tropopause normally vary It remains It increases It remains It decreases
with latitude in the northern hemisphere ? constant from south constant from south to
from north to to north. throughout north.
south. the year.
3402 50
What, approximately, is the average height of the 40 km 16 km 8 km 11 km
3403 50 tropopause over the equator ?
In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity Stratopause. Troposphere Tropopause. Stratosphere
3404 50 concentrated ? . .
At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at Unable to be Greater than Less than Equal to the
this level is: determined the density the density density of the
without of the ISA of the ISA ISA
knowing the atmosphere atmosphere atmosphere
QNH. at FL 180. at FL 180. at FL 180.

3405 50
(For this question use annex 050-2053A)_x000D_ 270° 15 kt. 240° 25 kt. 240° 20 kt. 270° 30 kt.
What is the wind direction and speed at 3 000 FT
overhead position "Q" at 0600 UTC?
3406 50
(For this question use annex 050-2055A)_x000D_ 1 3 4 2
The cold front is indicated with a number at position:
3407 50
(For this question use annex 050-2056A)_x000D_ 4 2 1 3
Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates
ground fog:
3408 50
(For this question use annex 050-2058A)_x000D_ The upper The lower The center The center of
What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather limit of limit of the of a a high
chart? significant tropopause. tropopause pressure
weather at "high", area at 400
FL 400. where the hPa.
tropopause
is at FL 400.

3409 50
A layer is conditionally unstable if the air is stable for becomes is unstable is unstable
saturated air stable by for saturated for saturated
and unstable lifting it. air as well as air and
for dry air. for dry air. stable for dry
air.

3410 50
(For this question use annex 050-2060A)_x000D_ Track D-A Track C-A Track B-A Track B-C
Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by
the cross-section shown on the left ?
3411 50
3412 50 What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 FT ? 2.0°C 1.5°C 3.5°C 3.0°C.
(For this question use annex 050-2064A)_x000D_ Position 1 Position 2 Position 4 Position 3
Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of
movement, where will this polar frontal wave have
moved ?
3413 50
(For this question use annex 050-2065A)_x000D_ Polar Tropical Tropical Polar
What is the classification of the airmass affecting continental. continental. maritime. maritime.
position "Q" at 0600 UTC?
3414 50
 The lowest assumed temperature in the International -100°C -56.5°C -273°C -44.7°C
3415 50 Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is :
Under what condition does pressure altitude have the At sea level When the When the At standard
same value as density altitude ? when the altimeter has altimeter temperature.
temperature no position setting is
is 0°C. error. 1013,2 hPa.

3416 50
In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m is in the is smaller at remains is greater at
increase in height order of 27 higher levels constant at higher levels
hPa near than at lower all levels. than at lower
MSL. levels. levels.

3417 50
A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In FL 50. FL 390. FL 300. FL 100.
temperate regions which of the following average
heights is applicable ?
3418 50
What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal 15 m (50 8 m (27 FT). 32 m (105 64 m (210
to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500 m ? FT). FT). FT).
3419 50
In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the Elevation of Temperature Elevation of Elevation
following must be known ? the airfield. at the the airfield and the
airfield. and the temperature
temperature at the
at MSL. airfield.
3420 50
At which pressure and temperature conditions may you In a cold low At a In a warm At a
safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at pressure temperature high temperature
least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe region less than or pressure greater than
altitude? equal to that region or equal to
of the ISA that of the
and where ISA and
the QNH is where the
less than QNH is
1013 hPa greater than
or equal to
1013 hPa

3421 50
(For this question use annex 050-2059A)_x000D_ Uniform Cutting wind. West wind Warm south
Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather pressure condition. wind
chart ? (Spacing of the isobars: 5 hPa) pattern. condition
(Foehn).
3422 50
What does dewpoint mean? The The The freezing The
temperature temperature level temperature
to which a at which ice (danger of at which the
mass of air melts. icing). relative
must be humidity and
cooled in saturation
order to vapour
reach pressure are
saturation. the same.

3423 50
Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to The coastal Cold air Warm air The sea is
the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)? region of the moving over moving over warmed by
sea cools at warm water cold water strong
night radiation
from the sun

3424 50
 How does freezing rain develop? Through Through Rain falls Rain falls on
melting of melting of through a cold ground
sleet grains ice crystals layer where and then
temperature freezes
s are below
0°C

3425 50
3426 50 What type of cloud can produce hail showers? AC CB NS CS
What is the boundary layer between troposphere and Tropopause. Ionosphere. Stratosphere Atmosphere.
3427 50 stratosphere called? .
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 850 hPa. 700 hPa. 500 hPa. 300 hPa.
3428 50 4781 FT pressure level (FL50)?
An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while 5°C colder 10°C colder 10°C 5°C warmer
cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation than ISA. than ISA. warmer than than ISA.
from the ISA at this level? ISA.
3429 50
Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest winter during summer winter in the summer in
in the night during the afternoon. the
and early night and afternoon.
morning. early
morning.
3430 50
Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental exceeds the exceeds the is less than is between
lapse rate dry adiabatic saturated the the dry and
lapse rate. adiabatic saturated saturated
lapse rate. adiabatic adiabatic
lapse rate. lapse rate.
3431 50
What positions are connected by isobars on the surface Positions Positions Positions Positions
weather chart? with the with the with the with the
same same wind same same air
temperature velocity at a relative pressure at a
at a given given level pressure given level
level heights
3432 50
The polar front is the boundary between: polar air and arctic air and arctic air and maritime
tropical air. polar air. tropical air. polar air and
continental
polar air.

3433 50
What flying conditions may be encountered when flying Average Average Average Average
in cirrus clouds? horizontal horizontal horizontal horizontal
visibility less visibility less visibility visibility
than 500 m; than 500 m; more than more than
nil icing. light to 1000 m; light 1000 m; nil
moderate to moderate icing.
icing. rime ice.

3434 50
Which of the following is the definition of relative Ratio Ratio Ratio Ratio
humidity ? between the between air between between
actual temperature water water vapour
mixing ratio and vapour (g) and air
and the dewpoint pressure (kg) X 100
saturation temperature and
mixing ratio X 100 atmospheric
X 100 pressure X
100

3435 50
The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How It decreases It is only It increases It is not
is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by with influenced with influenced by
changes of the amount of water vapour in it? increasing by increasing changing
water temperature. water water
vapour. vapour. vapour.

3436 50
 Relative humidity is not does not changes is not
affected by change when water affected
temperature when water vapour is when air is
changes of vapour is added, even ascending or
the air. added though the descending.
provided the temperature
temperature remains
of the air constant.
remains
constant.

3437 50
How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated It is only It decreases It is not It increases
airmass influenced by temperature changes? influenced with influenced with
by the increasing by increasing
amount of temperature. temperature temperature.
water changes.
vapour.
3438 50
How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an When When When When
unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature? temperature temperature temperature temperature
increases, decreases, decreases, increases,
the relative the relative the relative the relative
humidity humidity humidity and humidity
increases, decreases, the dewpoint decreases,
and the and the remain and the
dewpoint dewpoint constant. dewpoint
decreases. increases. remains
constant.

3439 50
When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it It remains It increases It decreases. It increases.
have on relative humidity? constant. up to 100%,
then
remains
stable.
3440 50
During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C It must It must It must It must
and a dew point of +5°C were measured. What decrease to decrease by decrease to decrease to
temperature change must occur during the night in order +5°C. 5°C. +6°C. +7°C.
to induce saturation?
3441 50
Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, In the vicinity Near the At the At the
may the ITCZ be encountered? of Dakar Canary latitudes of latitudes of
Islands Gibraltar Algeria
3442 50
Which of the following is a common result of subsidence An inversion CB-clouds Wide spread Clear air
? over a large and NS and AS turbulence at
area with thunderstor clouds and higher
haze, mist. ms over a intense altitudes .
large area. precipitation.

3443 50
What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a BKN CU and Sky clear ST with Fair weather
polar front depression over Central Europe in the CB drizzle CU
summer ?
3444 50
What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front Strong winds The north- The The varied
jet stream? in the upper south pressure elevations of
atmosphere horizontal difference, the
temperature close to the tropopause
gradient at ground, in the polar
the polar between a front region
front high over
the Azores
and a low
over Iceland

3445 50
 Which jet stream is connected with a surface front The polar The arctic jet The The
system? front jet stream subtropical equatorial jet
stream jet stream stream
3446 50
At approximately what altitude is the subtropical jet FL 500 FL 400 FL 200 FL 300
3447 50 stream found over Europe?
A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to Specific Relative Absolute Mixing ratio
adiabatic effects. Which of the following changes ? humidity humidity humidity
3448 50
In which of the following changes of state is latent heat Solid to gas Liquid to gas Gas to liquid Solid to liquid
3449 50 released ?
In which of the following regions does polar maritime air Region of Baltic Sea Black Sea East of
3450 50 originate ? British Isles Greenland
In which of the following situations can freezing rain be Ahead of a Ahead of a Ahead of a Behind a
encountered ? cold front in warm front cold front in warm front in
the summer in the winter the winter the summer
3451 50
How do air masses move at a warm front ? Cold air Cold air Warm air Warm air
overrides a undercuts a undercuts a overrides a
warm air warm air cold air cold air mass
mass mass mass
3452 50
Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to Moist warm Moist cold Dry warm air Dry cold air
the formation of advection fog ? air moving air moving moving over moving over
over a cold over a warm a cold a warm
surface surface surface surface

3453 50
What is the relative movement of the two airmasses Cold air Warm air Cold air Warm air
along a cold front ? pushes pushes over slides over a pushes
under a a cold air warm air under a cold
warm air mass mass air mass
mass
3454 50
Which of the following is most likely to lead to the A marked Ground A build up of A marked
dissipation of radiation fog ? decrease in cooling a high increase in
wind velocity caused by pressure wind velocity
close to the radiation area near the
ground during the resulting in ground
night adiabatic
warming
associated
with a
sinking air
mass

3455 50
Which of the following describes a warm occlusion? The air The warmer The coldest The air mass
mass ahead air mass is air mass is behind the
of the front ahead of the ahead of the front is more
is drier than original original unstable
the air mass warm front warm front than the air
behind the mass ahead
front of the front

3456 50
When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Winter and Summer Winter Autumn and
3457 50 Europe? spring winter
In which main direction does a polar front depression Across the Across the Along the Along the
move? front front front front towards
towards the towards the towards the the west
north south east
3458 50
(For this question use annex 050-2388A)_x000D_ A rise in A drop in Irregular Approximatel
What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during pressure pressure fluctuations y constant
the next hour? pressure
3459 50
 How are high level condensation trails formed that are to Through a Only through In conditions Through
be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ? decrease in unburnt fuel of low water vapour
pressure, in the humidity, released
and the exhaust through the during fuel
associated gases particles of combustion
adiabatic soot
drop in contained in
temperature the exhaust
at the wing gases
tips while
flying
through
relatively
warm but
humid air

3460 50
What process in an air mass leads to the creation of Lifting Sinking Convection Radiation
3461 50 wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage? process
Which of the following cloud is classified as low level CS AS CC ST
3462 50 cloud ?
In which of the following conditions is moderate to Within cloud In Below the In clear air
severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered? of any type Nimbostratu freezing above the
s cloud level in clear freezing level
air
3463 50
Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when: water water relative temperature
vapour vapour is humidity and dew
condenses. present. reaches point are
98%. nearly equal.

3464 50
What type of precipitation would you expect at an active Showers Freezing Light to Drizzle
unstable cold front? associated rain moderate
with continuous
thunderstor rain
ms
3465 50
Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of Meteorologic Meteorologic RVR for RVR for
data from the following METAR ?_x000D_ al visibility al visibility runway 16 runway 14
16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 1000 m, 400 m, RVR 1000 m, 1500 m,
M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 = RVR 400 m, for runway meteorologic meteorologic
freezing 16 1000 m, al visibility al visibility
level at 300 dew point increasing in 400 m, QNH
m, variable -2°C, the next 2 1026 hPa,
winds, freezing fog. hours to wind 160° at
temperature 2000 m, 3 kt.
2°C. vertical
visibility 300
m,
temperature
-2°C.

3466 50
What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, Excessive NS spread Dense CI Frequent SC
could indicate the presence of a tropical revolving accumulatio over a large
storm? n of CU area
3467 50
An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream It decreases. It increases. It first It remains
from south to north, beneath the core. How would the increases, constant.
OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this then
portion of the flight? decreases.
3468 50
What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core? 30000 FT. 40000 FT. 50000 FT. 20000 FT .
3469 50
What is the approximate ratio between height and width 1/1 1/10 1/1000 1/100
3470 50 for a jet stream cross section?
Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern The polar The The arctic jet The
hemisphere? night jet equatorial jet stream. subtropical
stream. stream. jet stream.
3471 50
 What is the average height of the jet core within a polar 40000 FT. 50000 FT. 30000 FT. 20000 FT.
3472 50 front jet stream?
An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar It falls and It falls. It rises. It stays the
front jet stream, at FL 400 in the southern hemisphere. then rises. same.
What change, if any, in temperature will be
experienced ?
3473 50
A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should possible but not possible. a common not unusual
be world-wide regarded as: a very rare occurence. in polar
phenomeno regions.
n.

3474 50
How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 He ascends He He turns He descends
FT/AGL, when he is unable to deice, nor land? to the cold continues to back before to the warm
air layer fly at the the aircraft air layer
above. same loses below.
altitude. manoeuvrab
ility.

3475 50
You receive the following METAR :_x000D_ The RVR is 300 m. 700 m. 900 m.
LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 unknown,
M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG =_x000D_ because the
What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC? "NOSIG"
does not
refer to
RVR.

3476 50
Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft small large water snow.
surfaces of supercooled supercooled vapour.
water drops. water drops.
3477 50
An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream tailwind. headwind. from the from the left.
2500 FT below its core at right angles. While crossing, right
the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing
wind is
3478 50
(For this question use annex 050-3030A)_x000D_ EKCH LOWW LFPG LEMD
To which aerodrome is the following TAF most
applicable ?_x000D_
TAF 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO
1113 25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB
BECMG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 5000
SHRA BKN020 BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999 SCT030

3479 50
What name is given to the low level wind system Monsoon. Trade winds. Doldrums. Westerly
between the subtropical high pressure belt and the winds.
equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?
3480 50
In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be The cold air The warm Exactly in About 12000
expected ? side of the air side of the centre of FT above the
core. the core. the core. core.
3481 50
What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified 100 kt. 60 kt. 50 kt. 70 kt.
3482 50 as a jet stream?
 A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream With a ITCZ. With an With a warm With a cold
gives the following windprofile (Northern easterly front. front.
hemisphere)._x000D_ wave.
900hPa 220/20kt _x000D_
800hPa 220/25kt _x000D_
700hPa 230/35kt _x000D_
500hPa 260/60kt _x000D_
400hPa 280/85kt_x000D_
300hPa 300/100kt_x000D_
250hPa 310/120kt _x000D_
200hPa 310/80kt_x000D_
Which system is the jet stream associated with?

3483 50
Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical Anywhere in In the centre About 600 In the wall of
revolving storm? the eye. of the eye. km away clouds
from the around the
eye. eye.
3484 50
In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase You show no Owing to You cancel Because of
of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you examine further these the flight the expected
the following weather reports of pressing importance at interest in reports and since the turbulence
the time:_x000D_ these taking into expected you select a
EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev reports, account the dangerous flight level
turb fcst einn fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn =_x000D_ since they presence of weather below FL
LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev do not heavy conditions 250.
cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc =_x000D_ concern the thunderstor along the
EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for route to be ms at route would
london fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn flown. planned FL demand too
52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst 310 you much of the
mov e wkn =_x000D_ select a passengers.
Which decision is correct? higher flight
level (FL
370).

3485 50
Does the following report make sense?_x000D_ The report The report is The report is The report is
LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG would never nonsense, not possible, possible,
be seen, because it is because, because
because impossible with a shallow fog
shallow fog to observe a temperature is defined as
is not meteorologic of 2°C and a a thin layer
reported al visibility of dew point of of fog below
when the 5 km if 2°C there eye level.
meteorologic shallow fog must be
al visibility is is reported. uniform fog.
more than 2
km.

3486 50
During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) one of the the air at the the air at
to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft two QNH Marseille is altimeters Marseille is
remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is values may warmer than are colder than
that : be incorrect. that at erroneous, that at Palma
Palma de and need to de Mallorca.
Mallorca. be tested.
3487 50
Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe Nimbostratu Altocumulus Stratocumul Cirrocumulus
turbulence ? s lenticularis us
3488 50
The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by rain starting continuous continuous frequent
at surface updraughts downdraugh lightning
ts
3489 50
What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, 3°C per 2°C per 6.5°C per 4.5°C per
3490 50 in the standard ICAO atmosphere ? 1000 m 1000 m 1000 m 1000 m
 Which of the following conditions would cause the Air Air Atmospheric Pressure
altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually temperature temperature pressure altitude the
flown ? lower than higher than lower than same as
standard. standard standard indicated
altitude.
3491 50
Which of the following conditions are most favourable to Unstable air Either stable Moist Stable air at
the formation of mountain waves ? at mountain or unstable unstable air mountain top
top altitude air at at mountain altitude and
and a wind mountain top and wind a wind at
at least 20 top and a of less than least 20
knots wind of at 5 knots knots
blowing least 30 blowing blowing
across the knots across the across the
mountain blowing mountain mountain
ridge. parallel to ridge. ridge.
the
mountain
ridge.

3492 50
An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air Climbing Turn right Maintain FL Descending
mass side at FL 270 and experiencing moderate to 270
severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL
310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by :

3493 50
The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the 10210 FT. 9790 FT. 11410 FT. 8590 FT.
temperature deviation from ISA is -15°C below FL
100._x000D_
What is the true altitude of FL 100?
3494 50
What information is required to convert a minimum safe Lowest Highest Highest Lowest value
altitude into a lowest usable flight level? value of value of value of of QNH and
QNH and QNH and QNH and the lowest
the highest the highest the highest negative
negative negative positive temperature
temperature temperature temperature deviation
deviation deviation deviation from ISA
from ISA. from ISA. from ISA
3495 50
(For this question use annex 050-3017A)_x000D_ Equatorial Polar front Arctic jet Sub-tropical
What name is given to the jet stream lying across India jet stream. jet stream. stream. jet stream.
(A) ?
3496 50
You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude 15690 FT. 14370 FT. 13830 FT. 16230 FT.
of 15000 FT/AMSL. The air is on an average 15°C
colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa.
What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa)
read?
3497 50
Which of the following types of jet streams can be Equatorial Arctic jet Equatorial Subtropical
observed all year round? jet stream / stream / jet stream / jet stream /
polar front subtropical arctic jet polar front jet
jet stream. jet stream. stream. stream.
3498 50
An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, 1105 FT. 1280 FT. 1375 FT. 1200 FT.
QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The
altimeter will indicate :
3499 50
At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to January to May to July. July to September
3500 50 occur over the southern islands of Japan? May. November. to January.
3501 50 What units are used to report vertical wind shear? m/100 FT. m/sec. kt/100 FT. kt.
Which of the following weather reports is a warning of SIGMET. ATIS. SPECI. TAF.
conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft
in flight ?
3502 50
 In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET A sudden Marked Fog or a Clear ice on
issued ? change in mountain thunderstor the runways
the weather waves. m at an of an
conditions aerodrome. aerodrome.
contained in
the METAR.

3503 50
After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 998 hPa. 1028 hPa. 1015 hPa. 1013 hPa.
1715 FT), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1310 FT.
The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa.
What is the QNH at this aerodrome?

3504 50
You intend to overfly a mountain range. The 14100 FT. 13830 FT. 14370 FT. 15900 FT.
recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to
the aviation chart, 15000 FT/AMSL. The air mass that
you will fly through is on average 15°C warmer than the
standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1023
hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at
the recommended minimum flight altitude?

3505 50
You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 ISA -20°C ISA +/-0°C ISA +20°C ISA +12°C
FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the
standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ?
3506 50
What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH QFE equals No clear QFE is QFE is
at an airport situated 50 FT below sea level? QNH. relationship greater than smaller than
exists. QNH. QNH.
3507 50
Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface significantly slightly significantly slightly below
temperature, under shelter, is 3°C. The sky is covered below 0°C. above +3°C. above +3°C. +3°C.
by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is
covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night
of January 3rd to January 4th should be

3508 50
At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, cirrus. cumulus altocumulus cirrostratus.
3509 50 the cloud most likely to be encountered is mediocris. lenticularis.
At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature M00/M01 M01/M02 00/M01 M01/M01
and dew point are respectively: T = - 0,5°C,Td =
-1,5°C._x000D_
In the METAR message transmitted by this station, the
"temperature group" will be:
3510 50
In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an 50 to 85 km 85 to more 11 to 50 km 0 to 11 km
average from than 200 km
3511 50
What type of clouds are associated with snow showers ? Altostratus Nimbostratu Cumulus Cumulus and
and stratus s and altostratus
cumulonimb
us
3512 50
What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ? Nimbostratu Towering Towering Altostratus
s. cumulus and cumulus and and stratus.
cumulonimb altostratus.
us.

3513 50
From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ? Stratus. Altostratus Cumulus Cirrostratus.
3514 50
 Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation water dew point actual water water vapour
between vapour and air vapour weight and
weight and temperature content and dry air weight
humid air saturated
volume water
vapour
content

3515 50
Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates the height of in standard the flight the aircraft's
the aircraft's atmosphere, level. altitude
wheels the height of above the
above the the aircraft mean sea
runway. above the level.
official
airport
elevation.

3516 50
In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising Tailwinds. Strong Headwinds. Light winds
level FL 370) from Bombay (19°N - 73°E) to Bangkok northerly diagonal to
(13°N - 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect? winds. the route.
3517 50
On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, half an hour at the one hour half an hour
the minimum temperature is reached approximately before moment the before after sunrise
sunrise sun rises sunrise
3518 50
How long does a typical microburst last? About 30 1 to 5 Less than 1 1 to 2 hours.
3519 50 minutes. minutes. minute.
In which month does the humid monsoon in India start? In October. In In March. In June.
3520 50 December.
At about what geographical latitude as average is 10°N. 30°N. 80°N. 50°N.
3521 50 assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?
During July flights from Bangkok (13°N - 100°E) to The flights The wind The flights The flights in
Karachi (25°N - 67°E) experience an average tailwind happen to components during the January
component of 22 kt. In January the same flights, also be in the correspond summer encountered,
operating at FL 370, have an average headwind of 50 kt. area of the to the encountered by chance,
What is the reason for this difference? polar front seasonal , by chance, very unusual,
jet stream. change of very adverse
the regional unusual, conditions.
wind system. favourable
conditions.

3522 50
What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight A subtropical A polar front One A polar front
from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23°S) at FL 350 in jet stream jet stream subtropical jet stream
July ? followed by followed by jet stream. followed by
a polar front a subtropical one or two
jet stream. jet stream subtropical
and later, a jet streams.
second polar
front jet
stream.

3523 50
While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Crosswind A headwind. A tailwind. Crosswind
Europe (3000 FT below its core) and OAT is decreasing, from the from the left
what would be the prevailing wind? right
3524 50
What is normally the most effective measure to reduce Change of Increase of Decrease of Change of
3525 50 or avoid CAT effects? course. speed. speed. flight level.
 Which area of a polar front jet stream in the northern In the core Above the Looking Looking
hemisphere has the highest probability of turbulence? of the jet core in the downstream, downstream,
stream. boundary the area to the area to
between the left of the right of
warm and the core. the core.
cold air.
3526 50
Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature FL 150 FL 80 FL 180 FL 220
profile :_x000D_
3000 FT +15°C_x000D_
6000 FT +8°C_x000D_
10000 FT +1°C_x000D_
14000 FT -6°C_x000D_
18000 FT -14°C_x000D_
24000 FT -26°C_x000D_
At which of the following flight levels is the risk for
aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest?

3527 50
An isohypse (contour) is the limit indicates the indicates the is the longest
between two altitude of true altitude slope line of
air masses the zero of a a frontal
of different degree pressure surface
temperature isotherm level

3528 50
A zone of strong convection currents is encountered Decrease Increase the Decrease Increase the
during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide to the speed / speed / try to the speed / speed / try to
continue the flight. What are your precautionary try to climb climb above try to descend
measures? above the the zone of descend below the
zone of convective below the zone of
convective currents if zone of convective
currents if aircraft convective currents.
aircraft performance currents.
performance parameters
parameters allow.
allow.

3529 50
What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation Humid High relative Clear skies, Precipitation
of hill fog? stable air humidity and calm or light which is lifted
mass, wind an unstable winds, with by the action
blowing air mass relatively low of moderate
towards the humidity winds
hills. striking the
range

3530 50
Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast of the low there is no of the strong the
Pacific and the south Atlantic because water coriolis force southeast southeast
temperature. present. wind. trade winds
cross over
into the
northern
hemisphere.

3531 50
Refer to the following TAF extract:_x000D_ Between 0 500 m. 2000 m. Between 500
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 m and 1000 m and 2000
0500 FG VV001_x000D_ m. m.
What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
3532 50
Refer to the following TAF extract:_x000D_ Vertical Vertical RVR less RVR greater
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 visibility 100 visibility 100 than 100 m. than 100 m.
0500 FG VV001_x000D_ m. FT.
What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean?
3533 50
 What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving Temperature Cold air The Latent heat
storm? difference advancing equatorial jet released
between from stream. from
equatorial temperate condensing
low pressure latitudes. water
trough and vapour.
subtropical
high
pressure
belt.

3534 50
Which of the following meteorological phenomenon AC AC Halo. Red cirrus.
indicates upper level instability which may lead to castellanus. lenticularis.
thunderstorm development ?
3535 50
Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally frontal thermal frontal lifting frontal lifting
caused by occlusion. triggering. (warm front). (cold front).

3536 50
Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest? Thermal Orographic Frontal Thunderstor
thunderstor thunderstor thunderstor ms formed
ms. ms. ms. by lifting
processes.
3537 50
During which months is the Hurricane season in the July until October until January until April until
Caribbean? November. January. April. July.
3538 50
How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a 9 hours. 1 hour. 30 minutes. 2 hours.
3539 50 METAR valid?
You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at You assume Since the This This
approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a the front result of phenomeno phenomenon
strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely associated such n does not is absolutely
changes. with the jet readings surprise you normal as
stream to be seems at all, since you are
very weak impossible, normally no crossing the
with you will after large jet core.
practically landing have temperature
no the differences
temperature instruments are possible
difference tested. at these
between the heights.
two
airmasses.

3540 50
At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be From the From the From the From the
expected in connection with a CB? ground up to ground up to ground up to base of the
a maximum about FL about FL clouds up to
of FL 450. 200. 100. FL 200.

3541 50
What is a microburst? A A An A small low
concentrate concentrate extremely pressure
d downdraft d downdraft strong wind system
with high with high gust in a where the
speeds and speeds and tropical wind
a lower a higher revolving circulates
temperature temperature storm. with very
than the than the high speeds.
surrounding surrounding
air. air.

3542 50
 What is a SPECI? An A selected A routine A warning of
aerodrome special aerodrome meteorologic
forecast aerodrome weather al dangers at
issued every weather report an
9 hours. report, issued every aerodrome,
issued when 3 hours. issued only
a significant when
change of required.
the weather
conditions
have been
observed.

3543 50
Appended to a METAR you get the following runway The friction The braking The runway Aquaplaning
report: 01650428_x000D_ coefficient is action will be will be wet. conditions.
What must you consider when making performance 0.28. medium to
calculations? good.
3544 50
Refer to the following TAF extract:_x000D_ Many long The new A quick Many short
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 term conditions change to term
0500 FG VV001_x000D_ changes in are achieved new changes in
What does the "BECMG" data indicate for the 18 to 21 the original between conditions the original
hour time frame? weather. 1800 and between weather.
2100 UTC 1800 UTC
and 1900
UTC.
3545 50
Refer to the following TAF extract:_x000D_ 4 - 8 oktas, 1 - 4 oktas, 5 - 7 oktas, 1 - 4 oktas,
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 ceiling 400 ceiling 400 ceiling 400 ceiling 400
0500 FG VV001_x000D_ m. m. FT. FT.
What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean?
3546 50
Refer to the following TAF extract;_x000D_ Probability Conditions The cloud Change
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 of 30%. will last for at ceiling expected in
0500 FG VV001_x000D_ least 30 should lift to less than 30
What does the abbreviation "PROB30" mean? minutes. 3000 FT. minutes.
3547 50
Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet In the warm In the cold Just above Just below
stream to be found? air mass. air mass. the warm-air the cold-air
tropopause. tropopause.

3548 50
What is the most significant difference between an Wind Vertical Horizontal Windspeed.
equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams ? direction. dimension. dimension.
3549 50
What does the term METAR signify? A METAR is A METAR is A METAR is A METAR
a warning of a flight a landing signifies the
dangerous forecast, forecast actual
meteorologic issued by added to the weather
al conditions the actual report at an
within a FIR. meteorologic weather aerodrome
al station report as a and is
several brief generally
times daily. prognostic issued in
report. half-hourly
intervals.

3550 50
Which of the following meteorological phenomena can MIFG FG HZ +FZRA
rapidly change the braking action of a runway?
3551 50
During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern south and north and south and north and
hemisphere, the polar front jet stream moves toward the speed speed speed speed
increases decreases decreases increases
3552 50
 What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars Greater Greater Surface Coriolis force
at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars ? density of atmospheric friction
the air at the pressure at
surface the surface

3553 50
Which type of fog is likely to form when air having Frontal fog Advection Radiation Steam fog
temperature of 15°C and dew point of 12°C blows at 10 fog fog
knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ?
3554 50
In addition to a lifting action, what are two other Stable Unstable Unstable Stable
conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation ? conditions conditions conditions conditions
and low and low and high and high
atmospheric atmospheric moisture moisture
pressure pressure content content
3555 50
If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing 5000 feet 3000 feet 12000 feet 9000 feet
level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000 feet in
the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing
rain the lowest ?
3556 50
Refer to TAF below._x000D_ a maximum a minimum more than not less than
EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 5 km. of 1,5 km 10 km 1,5 km but
1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 and a could be in
TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 maximum of excess of 10
26010KT_x000D_ 5 km. km.
From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at
2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be :
3557 50
What does the term SIGMET signify? A SIGMET is A SIGMET is A SIGMET is A SIGMET is
a flight a brief an actual a warning of
forecast, landing weather dangerous
issued by forecast report at an meteorologic
the added to the aerodrome al conditions
meteorologic actual and is
al station weather generally
several report issued at
times daily half-hourly
intervals

3558 50
What does the term TREND signify? It is a flight It is a brief It is the It is a
forecast, landing actual warning of
issued by forecast weather dangerous
the added to the report at an meteorologic
meteorologic actual aerodrome al conditions
al station weather and is
several report generally
times daily issued at
half-hourly
intervals

3559 50
The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on -10 FT. 560 FT. 20 FT. 11 FT.
reference 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a
point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is
1023 hPa._x000D_
Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 FT, the reading
on the altimeter on the ground will be:
3560 50
Which of the following phenomena should be described BR MIFG +SHSN VA
as precipitation at the time they are observed?
3561 50
(For this question use annex 050-2432A)_x000D_ LFPO LOWW LEMD EDDL
At which airport, is the following weather development
taking place? _x000D_
TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710
OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100
BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 =

3562 50
 Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of BCFG SA +RA FG
3563 50 aquaplaning?
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is 34004KT 16002KT 05016G33K 23015KT
most likely in the next few hours? 9999 0100 FG T 8000 8000
SCT040 SCT300 OVC015 BKN030
SCT100 06/06 08/06 OVC070
m05/m08 Q1022 Q1028 17/14 Q1009
Q1014 BECMG NOSIG = BECMG
NOSIG = 1000 = 4000 =

3564 50
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a 1350Z 1350Z 1350Z 1350Z
thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours? 21005KT 16004KT 34003KT 04012KT
9999 8000 0800 SN 3000
SCT040CB SCT110 VV002 OVC012
SCT100 OVC220 m02/m04 04/03 Q1022
26/18 02/m02 Q1014 BECMG
Q1016 Q1008 NOSIG = 5000 =
TEMPO NOSIG =
24018G30
TS =

3565 50
In which of the following METAR reports, is the 1850Z 1850Z 1850Z 1850Z
probability of fog formation in the coming night the 06018G30K 25010KT 15003KT 21003KT
highest? T 5000 4000 RA 6000 8000
OVC010 BKN012 SCT120 SCT250
04/01 OVC030 05/04 12/m08
Q1024 12/10 Q1032 Q1028
NOSIG = Q1006 BECMG NOSIG =
TEMPO 1600 =
1500 =

3566 50
Look at this TAF for Zurich Airport_x000D_ Meteorologic Meteorologic Severe Meteorologic
TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 al visibility al visibility rainshowers, al visibility 10
BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA 4000 10 meteorologic kilometres or
BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z metres, kilometres or al visibility more, main
=_x000D_ gusts up to more, main 4000 cloudbase
Which of these statements best describes the weather 25 knots, cloudbase metres, 3000 feet,
most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC? temperature 1200 feet, temperature wind 250°,
18°C. gusts up to 15°C, gusts temperature
45 knots. up to 35 18°C.
knots.

3567 50
An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude 2922 FT. 4278 FT. 4194 FT. 3006 FT.
of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local
QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be
3568 50
In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of 961 hPa. 948 hPa. 942 hPa. 967 hPa.
Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is
3569 50
How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in Increases At first it Remains Decreases
the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause? increases constant
and higher
up it
decreases
3570 50
(For this question use annex 050-4369A)_x000D_ FL 260 FL 100 FL 20 FL 180
Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at
what altitude will the freezing level above Tunis be
found?
3571 50
(For this question use annex 050-2422A)_x000D_ Symbol a) Symbol b) Symbol c) Symbol d)
Which of the following symbols represents a tropical
revolving storm?
3572 50
 Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies SW NW SE trade SW
at the equator? monsoon monsoon winds and monsoon
and NW and SW NE trade and NW
trade winds trade winds winds monsoon

3573 50
From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the SE NE SW N
3574 50 southern hemisphere?
What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would Heavy Clouds, on Heavy clear Strong north
you expect with Foehn from south? airframe the southern air winds on the
icing sides of turbulence southern
conditions passes in on the side of the
on the the Alps southern Alps
northern side of the
side of the Alps
Alps
3575 50
Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest Between Between Close to the Between
clear ice accretion to occur in a CB? -2°C and -20°C and freezing -30°C and
-15°C -30°C level -40°C
3576 50
Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of : water small snow large
vapour supercooled supercooled
water drops water drops
3577 50
What weather condition would you expect at a squall Thunderstor Strong Fog Strong
line? ms steady rain whirlwinds
reaching up
to higher
levels

3578 50
What is the approximate maximum diameter of a 400 m 20 km 50 km 4 km
3579 50 microburst ?
In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall the same less in rain - greater
compared to during drizzle is below 1 km,
in drizzle -
more than 2
km

3580 50
The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can a high- long streaks dust or haze a constant
sometimes be visually identified in flight by pressure of cirrus at high level outside air
centre at clouds. temperature
high level
3581 50
(For this question use annex 050-2421A)_x000D_ Symbol a) Symbol b) Symbol c) Symbol d)
Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
3582 50
(For this question use annex 050-2433A) _x000D_ 26012KT 22020G36K 20004KT 23014KT
What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport 9999 T 1500 8000 3000 +RA
(LFPO) around 0550 UTC? SCT025 TSGR SCT110 SCT008
SCT040 SCT004 SCT250 OVC025
14/09 BKN007 22/08 15/13 Q1004
Q1018 BKN025CB Q1016 NOSIG =
TEMPO 18/13 NOSIG =
5000 SHRA Q1009
= BECMG
NSW =

3583 50
What is a trend forecast? A route A routine A landing An
forecast report forecast aerodrome
valid for 24 appended to forecast valid
hours METAR/SPE for 9 hours
CI, valid for
2 hours

3584 50
 What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" mean? 3-5 Eights of Nil 5-7 Eights of 3-4 Eights of
the sky is significant the sky is the sky is
cloud cloud cover cloud cloud
covered covered covered
3585 50
What does the abbreviation "nosig" mean? No report No weather Not signed No
received related by the significant
problems meteorologis changes
t
3586 50
In which weather report would you expect to find GAFOR TAF METAR SIGMET
3587 50 information about icing conditions on the runway?
In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is 00000KT VRB01KT 22004KT VRB02KT
the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the 9999 8000 6000 -RA 2500
highest? SCT300 SCT250 SCT012 SCT120
21/01 11/10 Q1028 OVC030 14/M08
Q1032 BECMG 17/14 Q1035
NOSIG = 3000 = Q1009 NOSIG =
NOSIG =
3588 50
Which of the following weather reports could be, in LSZB LFSB LSGG LSZH
accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to 30004KT 00000KT 22003KT 26024G52KT
"CAVOK"? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 9999 9000 9999 9999
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT) SCT090 SCT080 SCT120 BKN060
10/09 22/15 BKN280 17/14 Q1012
Q1006 Q1022 09/08 RETS
NOSIG = NOSIG = Q1026 TEMPO
BECMG 5000 TSRA =
5000 =

3589 50
Which of the following weather reports could be, in LFSB LSZH LSGG LSZB
accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to 24008KT VRB02KT 22006KT 28012KT
"CAVOK"? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 9999 9000 9999 9999
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT) SCT050 BKN080 BKN090 OVC100
18/11 Q1017 21/14 17/15 16/12 Q1012
RERA Q1022 Q1008 BECMG
NOSIG = NOSIG = RERA 5000 =
NOSIG =
3590 50
Within a short interval, several flight crews report that The The The The airspace
they have experienced strong clear air turbulence in a competent competent competent in question,
certain airspace. What is the consequence of these aviation aviation aviation will be
reports? weather weather weather temporarily
office will office will office will closed
issue a issue a issue a
SPECI storm SIGMET
warning
3591 50
A microburst phenomenon can arise in the downdraugh updraught of downdraugh updraught of
t of a a t of a a
cumulonimb cumulonimb cumulonimb cumulonimb
us at the us at the us at the us at the
mature mature formation growth
stage. stage. stage. stage.
3592 50
Which weather chart gives information about icing and Surface Significant 500 hPa 700 hPa
the height of the freezing level ? chart weather chart chart
chart
3593 50
Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the in the warm in front of behind the at the apex
direction of the 2000 feet wind sector the warm cold front of the wave
front
3594 50
(For this question use annex 050-2547A)_x000D_ -15°C -25°C -19°C -23°C
What is the average temperature at FL 160 between
Oslo and Paris ?
3595 50
(For this question use annex 050-2548A)_x000D_ ISA -4°C ISA -12°C ISA +12°C ISA +4°C
What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius,
from the International Standard Atmosphere overhead
Frankfurt ?
3596 50
 (For this question use annex 050-2549A)_x000D_ 10 kt 30 kt 15 kt 25 kt
What is the speed of the front located over France ?
3597 50
(For this question use annex 050-2550A)_x000D_ 230° / 120 220° / 120 kt 050° / 120 050° / 120 kt
Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and m/sec km/h
maximum speed of the jet stream affecting the route
between Munich and London ?
3598 50
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport._x000D_ 250° / 20 kt 120° / 15 kt 140° / 10 kt 300° / 15 kt
FCNL31 281500_x000D_ gusts 25 kt maximum
EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG wind 25 kt
1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823
3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT
8000 NSW BKN020 =_x000D_
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At
ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast ?

3599 50
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport._x000D_ 5 km 5 NM 6 km 3 km
FCNL31 281500_x000D_
EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG
1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823
3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT
8000 NSW BKN020 =_x000D_
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC.
What is the minimum visibility forecast for ETA
Amsterdam ?

3600 50
(For this question use annex 050-2554A)_x000D_ Scattered Well Overcast Scattered
Flight Shannon to London. What amount and type of castellanus separated nimbo towering
cloud is forecast for the eastern sector of the route cumulonimb layered cumulus
between Shannon and London at FL 220 ? us cumulonimb
us
3601 50
(For this question use annex 050-2555A)_x000D_ 5 to 7 oktas Mainly 5 to 8 4 oktas Isolated
Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of towering oktas of broken cumulonimb
cloud would you expect at FL 160 ? cumuliform stratiform cumulus us only
cloud and cloud in
with layers
moderate
turbulence
3602 50
An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. 7650 FT. 8600 FT. 8350 FT. 8000 FT.
After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local
QNH, the reading will be approximately
3603 50
(For this question use annex 050-2558A)_x000D_ -16°C -28°C -24°C -20°C
What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva ?
3604 50
Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport._x000D_ Light drizzle Moderate Heavy rain Continuous
FCFR31 281400_x000D_ and fog snow showers moderate
LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO showers rain
1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30
TSRA =_x000D_
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of
precipitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux ?

3605 50
What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm At some 500 At some 800 Extensive At some 500
front ? km from the km CS, later areas of fog. km AS, later
front, groups AS, and at At some 100 CS and at
of CB, later some 300 km from the some 80 km
at some 250 km NS until front NS before the
km the front begin front CB
thickening
AS

3606 50
 A frontal depression passes through the airport. What Rain or Continuous Continous Showers
form of precipitation do you expect ? snow during rain or snow rain or snow during some
about 12 during 6 while the 2 hours until
hours until hours until frontal wave the warm
the warm the warm passes for a front arrives.
front arrives. front arrives. period of Drizzle in the
Within the The some 24 warm sector
warm sector precipitation hours. within 12
the rain stops for hours. Rain
increases. several or snow on
Improvemen hours within the passage
t on the the warm of the cold
passage of sector. On front.
the cold the arrival of
front. the cold
front,
showers
within a
couple of
hours.

3607 50
What characteristic is associated with a temperature Clear ice Area of Stability Instability
inversion ? active
storms
3608 50
What pressure is defined as QFE? The The The The pressure
pressure at pressure of pressure reduced to
field the altimeter reduced to sea level
elevation sea level using ISA
using actual temperatures
temperature
s

3609 50
In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the the pressure turbulence is turbulence is wind speed
wind changes direction towards the low pressure area gradient formed and formed and decreases
because : increases pressure pressure and
increases decreases therefore
coriolis force
decreases

3610 50
The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by mountain mountain at valley during valley during
thermal effects is toward the : during night. daylight daylight as
daylight hours. much as at
hours. night.

3611 50
The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent at height of at a reduced to at flight level
lines of equal pressure observatory determined sea level
density
altitude
3612 50
On the approach, the surface temperature is given as No, Yes, Yes, but only No, flights
-5°C. The freezing level is at 3000 FT/AGL. At 4000 absolutely between between clear of
FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is no icing will ground level 3000 and cloud
falling._x000D_ occur. and 3000 4000 experience
According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to FT/AGL. FT/AGL. no icing.
an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an
inclined front. Would you expect icing?

3613 50
(For this question use annex 050-2556A)_x000D_ 3 to 5 oktas 5 to 8 oktas 1 to 4 oktas 5 to 7 oktas
3614 50 To what extent is Munich covered by clouds ?
 (For this question use annex 050-2510A)_x000D_ From FL 250 From FL 220 From FL 240 From below
In what height range and at what intensity could you to FL 320, to FL 400, to FL 370, FL 130 to FL
encounter turbulence in CAT area n°2? moderate moderate light 270, light
3615 50
While approaching your target aerodrome you receive length of meteorologic portion of minimum
the following message:_x000D_ runway al visibility runway visibility at
RVR runway 23: 400m_x000D_ which a pilot on runway which a pilot this
This information indicates the in an aircraft 23. on the aerodrome,
on the threshold of with runway
ground any of the 23 being the
would see, runways one in
on the would see, service.
threshold of with runway
runway 23. 23 in
service.

3616 50
3617 50 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SCT" ? 5 - 7 oktas 1 - 4 oktas 3 - 4 oktas 1 - 2 oktas
(For this question use annex 050-2493A)_x000D_ Moderate Severe Severe Moderate
Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is turbulence, turbulence, turbulence, turbulence,
forecast at FL 200 ? light icing moderate severe icing moderate
icing icing
3618 50
(For this question use annex 050-2496A)_x000D_ LSZH ESSA ENFB EFHK
Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of
precipitation?
3619 50
(For this question use annex 050-2503A)_x000D_ 33000 FT 15000 FT 28000 FT 30000 FT
Over Paris at what height would you expect to find the
tropopause according to the map?
3620 50
(For this question use annex 050-2504A)_x000D_ FL 160 FL 360 FL 220 FL 340
What is the optimum flight level between Rome and
Paris according to the significant weather chart?
3621 50
(For this question use annex 050-2505A)_x000D_ FL 320 FL 140 FL 220 FL 160
Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC.
At what flight level would you first expect to encounter
clear air turbulence on the climb out from Zurich?

3622 50
(For this question use annex 050-2506A)_x000D_ FL 340 FL 280 FL 300 FL 390
What is the approximate height of the tropopause
between Munich and Helsinki?
3623 50
(For this question use annex 050-2545A)_x000D_ 030/40 190/40 210/40 240/20
3624 50 What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris ?
(For this question use annex 050-2509A)_x000D_ FL 140 FL 260 FL 320 FL 180
You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the
following flight levels would you choose in order to avoid
turbulence and icing?
3625 50
Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport._x000D_ 10 or more 8 km 8 NM 10 NM
FCFR31 281400_x000D_ km
LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO
1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30
TSRA =_x000D_
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA
Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ?

3626 50
(For this question use annex 050-2511A)_x000D_ FL 330 FL 360 FL 300 FL 280
At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated
over nothern Scandinavia ?
3627 50
(For this question use annex 050-2512A)_x000D_ Position C, Position D, Position B, Position A,
At which position could you encounter thunderstorms, FL 200. FL 290. FL 270. FL 200.
and what is the maximum height of the CB clouds?
3628 50
 (For this question use annex 050-2513A)_x000D_ FL 330 FL 300 FL 350 FL 240
At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over
Frankfurt?
3629 50
(For this question use annex 050-2522A)_x000D_ 220 / 60 250 / 80 040 / 60 160 / 90
Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich -
London at FL 280.
3630 50
(For this question use annex 050-2523A)_x000D_ 020/50 050/40 200/45 350/40
What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and
Rome ?
3631 50
(For this question use annex 050-2529A)_x000D_ -57°C -45°C -39°C -33°C
The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be
3632 50
(For this question use annex 050-2539A) Warm front Cold front Warm front Cold front
_x000D_ occlusion occlusion
The front labelled "Z" is a:
3633 50
(For this question use annex 050-2541A)_x000D_ Equatorial Polar front Arctic jet Sub-tropical
What name is given to the jet stream lying over North jet stream jet stream stream jet stream
Africa (B) ?
3634 50
What is the approximate composition of the dry air by 88 % 50 % 21 % 10 %
volume in the troposphere ? oxygen, 9 % oxygen, 40 oxygen, 78 oxygen, 89
nitrogen, % nitrogen, % nitrogen, % nitrogen,
and the rest and the rest and the rest and the rest
other gasses other gasses other gasses other gasses

3635 50
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport._x000D_ 500 m 800 FT 500 FT 250 FT
FCNL31 281500_x000D_
EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG
1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823
3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT
8000 NSW BKN020 =_x000D_
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC.
What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at
Amsterdam?

3636 50
The Bora is a cold cold cold squally warm
catabatic catabatic catabatic catabatic
wind with wind always wind with the wind which
gusts associated possibility of occurs
associated with clouds violent gusts mainly in
with a and heavy summer
maritime air showers
mass
3637 50
Which of the following phenomena are formed when a Stratified Inversions Showers Areas of
moist, stable layer of air is forced to rise against a clouds and severe
mountain range ? thunderstor turbulence
ms
3638 50
The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by subsidence convection a decrease a decrease
in in pressure
temperature
3639 50
Altostratus clouds are classified as high level convective medium low level
3640 50 clouds clouds level clouds clouds
Convective clouds are formed in summer in mid- in unstable in stable
during the latitudes atmosphere atmosphere
day only only
3641 50
The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can stability of dewpoint air relative
contain depends on the the air temperature humidity
3642 50
Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation stratiform convective stratiform convective
falls from clouds with clouds with clouds with clouds with
severe moderate little or no little or no
turbulence turbulence turbulence turbulence
3643 50
 A super-cooled droplet is a water a droplet still a water a small
droplet that in liquid droplet that particle of
has been state at a is mainly water at a
frozen temperature frozen temperature
during its below below -50°C
descent freezing
3644 50
Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from cirro-type clouds convective stratified
clouds containing clouds clouds
only ice
crystals
3645 50
A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become raising the lowering the compressing expanding it
saturated by temperature pressure, it adiabatically
keeping adiabatically
temperature
constant

3646 50
A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated moving the lifting the lowering the moving the
by parcel to an parcel to a parcel to a parcel to an
area with higher level lower level area with
higher lower
pressure pressure and
and equal equal
temperature temperature

3647 50
When water evaporates into unsaturated air relative heat is heat is relative
humidity is absorbed released humidity is
decreased not changed
3648 50
In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the QFE QNH QFE QNH
rounded to rounded up rounded rounded
the nearest to the down to the down to the
hPa. nearest hPa. nearest hPa. nearest hPa.

3649 50
Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of poor surface instability in the the presence
visibility the presence of of warm air
atmosphere a low level aloft
inversion

3650 50
The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most between 10 between 5 above 15 kt below 5 kt
likely to form is : and 15 kt and 10 kt
3651 50
 Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get An aircraft Aircraft Aircraft An aircraft
considerable damage and at least temporarily the has in the made by made by made by
manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. atmosphere composite composite metal has a
Which one of the following statements is correct? the same material can material may certain
qualities as ´t conduct a get severe capacity to
a "Faradays lightning and damage, the attract a
cage", which will therefore crew may be lightning, but
means that very seldom blinded and the lightning
struck of be struck. temporarily will follow the
lightning lose the surface and
seldom hearing. therefore no
occurs. But if damage will
it happens, be caused.
the result will
be an
occasional
engine
failure. The
crew may
get a shock.

3652 50
3653 50 Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal QFF QFE QNE QNH
In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 400 - 300 500 - 400 600 - 500 300 - 200
3654 50 situated? hPa hPa hPa hPa
Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a about 1000 tens of about 200 about 500
3655 50 tropical downpour can decrease to minimal metres metres metres metres
Given the following METAR: EDDM 250850Z 33005KT Visibility is There is a Runway 26R RVR on
2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 reduced by distinct and runway runway 26R
05/05 Q1025 NOSIG water change in 26L have the is increasing
droplets RVR same RVR
observed

3656 50
A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi low relative a very strong sand/dust in very
Arabia. Shortly after take off the aircraft's rate of climb humidity temperature the engines pronounced
drops to zero. This can be due to inversion downdrafts

3657 50
What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher Direction Direction Direction Direction
levels? relative to relative to relative to relative to
true north magnetic magnetic grid north
and speed in north and north and and speed in
knots speed in speed in kmh
knots kmh
3658 50
The troposphere is the reaches the has a contains all
separation same height greater oxygen of
layer at all vertical the
between the latitudes extent above stratosphere
stratosphere the equator
and than above
atmosphere the poles

3659 50
You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH 4000 FT Less than 0 0 FT More than 0
of a field on a nearby island with an elevation of 4000 FT FT, but less
FT is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20°C. What is than 4000
your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 FT
hPa is set in the subscale?
3660 50
 The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if the indicated standard the outside the air
altitude is atmospheric air pressure is
equal to the conditions temperature 1013.25 hPa
pressure occur is standard at the
altitude for that surface
height

3661 50
Which of the following conditions gives the highest value QFE = 995 QFE = 995 QFE = 1000 QFE = 1003
of the QNH? hPa, hPa, hPa, hPa,
elevation = elevation = elevation = elevation =
1200 FT 1600 FT 1200 FT 1200 FT
(366m) (488m) (366m) (366m)
3662 50
The QNH is equal to the QFE if T actual < T the elevation T actual = T T actual > T
standard =0 standard standard
3663 50
The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height mean sea the pressure the highest airfield level
above level altitude of terrain within
the a radius of 8
observation km from the
station at the observation
time of station
observation

3664 50
The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the value average highest lowest value
representati value of the value of the of the A-, B-
ve of the A-, B- and A-, B- and and C-
touchdown C-position C-position position
zone
3665 50
For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 540 metres 120 metres 160 metres 600 metres
1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is
3666 50
Hoar frost is most likely to form when flying inside flying in taking off flying inside
stratiform supercooled from an convective
clouds. drizzle. airfield with clouds.
a significant
ground
inversion.

3667 50
In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a 030/28 340/20 030/20 340/28
cyclonic pressure distribution is 350/24, over the sea the
surface wind would approximate
3668 50
Which of the following are medium level clouds ? Cirrocumulu Cumulonimb All Altostratus
s and us convective and
cirrostratus clouds altocumulus
3669 50
Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to 500 to 1000 100 to 200 the surface 1000 to 2000
3670 50 have bases from FT FT to 6500 FT FT
Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely experience change change in change in
to little or no significantly speed but direction but
change in in speed and not in not in speed
speed and direction direction
direction
3671 50
Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that There is a Without There is no There is a
is flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere, where cross wind knowing cross wind cross wind
wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains from the temperature from the left
constant ? right at FL 180
this question
can not be
answered

3672 50
 Which of the following statements concerning the core It lies in the It lies in the It lies at a It and its
of a polar front jet stream is correct ? warm air; its cold air; the height where surface
pressure thermal wind there is no projection lie
surfaces are reverses horizontal in the warm
horizontal at direction at temperature air
the height of the height of gradient; the
the core the core slope of the
pressure
surfaces at
the height of
the core is at
its maximum

3673 50
On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs the polar air the polar air below the above the
from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This is below and is on the core of the core of the
means that to the east eastern side jet the jet the
of the core and above horizontal horizontal
of the jet the core of temperature temperature
the jet gradient gradient runs
runs from from north to
north to south
south

3674 50
An isohypse of the 500 hPa pressure surface is labelled topography pressure is topography pressure
with the number 552. This means that for all points on is 552 552 hPa is 552 altimeter will
the isohypse the decameters meters overread by
above MSL above MSL 552 FT

3675 50
Which of the following statements concerning trade They reach They reach They occur They occur
winds is correct? up to the up to the only in the only in the
tropopause tropopause lower part of lower part of
and are and are the the
more more troposphere troposphere
pronounced pronounced and are and more
over the over the more pronounced
continents oceans pronounced over the
over the oceans
continents

3676 50
In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N SE trade SW winds NE trade NE monsoon
and 20°N the prevailing winds are winds throughout winds in winter and
the whole SW
year monsoon in
summer

3677 50
Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are SW SW NE SE monsoon
the monsoon in monsoon in monsoon in in July and a
July and a July and a July and a SW
NE SE monsoon SW monsoon in
monsoon in in January monsoon in January
January January
3678 50
The main factor which contributes to the formation of reduction of warm air saturation of saturation of
very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the outgoing moving over the cold air the warm air
radiation a cold by rain by rain falling
due to surface falling into it into it and
clouds and evaporating
evaporating

3679 50
 A cumulonimbus cloud at moderate latitudes in summer a only water only ice a
contains combination droplets crystals combination
of ice of ice
crystals, crystals and
water water
droplets and droplets
supercooled
water
droplets

3680 50
Which of the following factors have the greatest effect Aircraft Relative Cloud Aircraft
on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft speed and humidity temperature speed and
? curvature of inside the and droplet size of cloud
the airfoil cloud size droplets

3681 50
The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to magnetic the 0- grid north true north
3682 50 north meridian
Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the Neither of Aircraft S Aircraft T Aircraft S
other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same the aircraft experiences experiences and T
cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of accumulate more icing more icing experience
small supercooled droplets. Which of the following ice due to than T. than S. the same
statements is most correct concerning ice accretion ? the small amount of
size of icing
droplets.
3683 50
While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a Mixed ice. Frost. Rime ice. Clear ice.
small amount of a white and rough powderlike
contamination is detected along the leading edge of the
wing. This contamination is called:

3684 50
A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an freeze freeze travel back travel back
airfoil will most likely immediately immediately over the over the
and create and create wing, wing,
rime ice. clear ice. creating creating
rime ice. clear ice.
3685 50
What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, Typhoon. Mistral. Foehn. Bora.
that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe?
3686 50
What are the characteristics of the Bora ? It is a very It is a warm It is a dry It is a cold
cold wind and moist, and hot and very
that blows southwesterl southerly strong wind
mainly in y wind wind that blows
winter from experienced experienced mainly in
a in the in the winter from a
northwesterl eastern Sahara tableland
y direction in Mediterrane desert, that downwards
the an, that often carries to the
Mediterrane usually dust. Adriatic
an carries
precipitation.

3687 50
What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows Bora. Scirocco. Foehn. Mistral.
downwards from mountain chains? In the Alps, for
instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly
wind depending on the weather situation.

3688 50
 The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally the the low the strong converging
deeper in winter than in summer is that temperature pressure winds of the air currents
contrasts activity of north are of
between the sea east Atlantic in greater
arctic and of Canada is winter are intensity in
equatorial higher in favourable winter.
areas are winter. for the
much development
greater in of lows.
winter.

3689 50
Which one of the following statements is correct It reaches its It reaches its It oscillates It oscillates
concerning the movement of the ITCZ in the region of maximum maximum during the during the
West Africa? northerly southerly year year
position of position of between 10 between the
15° - 20° N 5° S in degrees Equator and
in July January North and 10 degrees
10 degrees North.
South.
3690 50
What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to South-west South-east Indian, Winter
the main part of India its greatest proportion of monsoon. trade wind. maritime monsoon.
precipitation? tropical air
mass.
3691 50
Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) In winter In summer Throughout In summer
have a westerly direction. There is, however, an along the from the the year to from south-
important easterly jet stream. When and where is it Russian Middle East the south of east Asia
likely to be encountered ? coast facing extending the Azorian extending
the Arctic over the high. over
ocean. southern southern
part of the India to
Mediterrane central
an to Africa.
southern
Spain.

3692 50
What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of Warm fronts Precipitation Showers of Rainshowers
precipitation in the equatorial region ? are common is generally rain or hail , hail
with in the form occur showers and
continuous of showers throughout thunderstorm
rain. The but the year; the s occur the
frequency is continuous frequency is whole year,
the same rain occurs highest in but
throughout also. The January. frequency is
the year greatest highest
intensity is in during two
July. periods:
April-May
and October-
November.

3693 50
A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and Depart Take-off is Depart on Depart
27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at runway 27 not possible runway 09 runway 27
300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just with as under these with a with
above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest steep an conditions. tailwind. maximum
departure procedure ? ascent as throttle
possible. during the
passage
through the
inversion.

3694 50
 The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above The The The The
FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In turbulence is turbulence turbulence is turbulence is
what way can moderate to severe Clear Air Turbulence a large scale can be wave like a small scale
affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers? one (waving) resembled which makes one and can
so that the with the the flight cause
aircraft will roughness unpleasant damage of
be difficult to of a for the worn out
manoeuvre. washing- passengers type. The
The board (small but the manoeuvring
passengers scale) and manoeuvrin of the aircraft
will feel will not have g will not be will be made
some influence on affected more difficult
discomfort. the aircraft essentially. or even
and its impossible.
solidity, but For the
will make passengers
flight a little the flight will
more be
difficult. The unpleasant.
passengers
will seldom
notice
anything of
this
turbulence.

3695 50
Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as is heated by loses water is heated by reaches
air sinks it expansion vapour compression warmer
layers
3696 50
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 200 hPa 300 hPa 500 hPa 700 hPa
3697 50 38662 FT pressure level (FL 390) ?
Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause? There is no It is higher in It is higher in It is highest
significant polar equatorial in middle
difference regions than regions than latitudes
with change in equatorial in polar
of latitude regions regions

3698 50
(For this question use annex 050-4339A)_x000D_ Symbol a) Symbol c) Symbol b) Symbol d)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an
aircraft in flight?
3699 50
(For this question use annex 050-4338A)_x000D_ Symbol b) Symbol a) Symbol d) Symbol c)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical
revolving storm?
3700 50
(For this question use annex 050-4337A)_x000D_ Symbol c) Symbol d) Symbol a) Symbol b)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe
icing ?
3701 50
(For this question use annex 050-4336A)_x000D_ Anticyclone Trough of Depression Ridge of high
Which of the following best describes Zone D? low pressure pressure
3702 50
The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest freezing fog stratus cumulus cirrus
3703 50 to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in
(For this question use annex 050-4335A)_x000D_ Col Trough of Depression Ridge of high
Which of the following best describes Zone C? low pressure pressure
3704 50
(For this question use annex 050-4334A)_x000D_ Ridge of Depression Trough of Col
Which of the following best describes Zone B? high low pressure
pressure
3705 50
 (For this question use annex 050-4333A)_x000D_ Ridge of Depression Trough of Col
Which of the following best describes Zone A? high low pressure
pressure
3706 50
(For this question use annex 050-4332A)_x000D_ C B D A
3707 50 The warm sector is indicated by letter:
(For this question use annex 050-4331A)_x000D_ C D A B
3708 50 A trough is indicated by letter:
When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and 700 hPa 850 hPa 300 hPa 500 hPa
temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ?
3709 50
On the European continent METARs of main airports are 2 hours 3 hours 0.5 hour 1 hour
compiled and distributed with intervals of
3710 50
Below a low level inversion visibility is often moderate or very good at very good in moderate or
poor night the early poor due to
because morning heavy snow
there is no showers.
vertical
exchange
3711 50
Which of the following weather reports could be, in 24009KT 29010KT 04012G26K 15003KT
accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to 6000 RA 9999 T 9999 9999
"CAVOK"? SCT010 SCT045TCU BKN030 BKN100
OVC030 16/12 11/07 Q1024 17/11 Q1024
12/11 Q1007 Q1015 NOSIG = NOSIG =
TEMPO RESHRA
4000 = NOSIG =

3712 50
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 500 hPa 300 hPa 200 hPa 700 hPa
3713 50 30065 FT pressure level (FL 300)?
For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind greater at greater at the same at equivalent to
speed will be 30°N than at 60°N than at all latitudes gradient wind
60°N 30°N north or ± thermal
south of 15° component

3714 50
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 200 hPa 700 hPa 500 hPa 300 hPa
3715 50 18289 FT pressure level (FL 180) ?
For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N greatest at the same at greatest at least at 50°N
3716 50 the speed of the geostrophic wind will be 40°N all latitudes 60°N
Under anticyclone conditions in the northern proportional greater than less than the the same as
hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the only to the the geostrophic the thermal
gradient wind is Coriolis geostrophic wind component
force wind
3717 50
In which of the following areas do surface high pressure Greenland, Azores, SE Greenland, Iceland, SW
systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic SW Europe, USA, SW Azores, NE USA, Azores
region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjoining land NE Canada Europe Canada
areas during the northern summer?

3718 50
(For this question use annex 050-10721A)_x000D_ w t u v
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind
circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zone
3719 50
(For this question use annex 050-10722A)_x000D_ SE trade travelling NE trade subtropical
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic winds low pressure winds high
and wind circulation, zone "t" is an area of systems pressure
systems
3720 50
(For this question use annex 050-10723A)_x000D_ u and w s and y t only t and x
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind
circulation the travelling low pressure systems are
applicable to zone
3721 50
 (For this question use annex 050-10724A)_x000D_ disturbed equatorial subtropical antarctic high
Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is temperate low pressure high pressure due
predominantly influenced by the zone of low due to the pressure, to the
pressure, proximity of with the absence of
bringing an the occasional any
almost intertropical passage of protective
continuous convergence fronts land mass
succession zone over originating in between
of fronts central the adjacent south
resulting in Australia zone of Australia and
strong disturbed Antarctica
winds, low temperate
cloud and low pressure
rain

3722 50
(For this question use annex 050-10725A)_x000D_ SE trade subtropical travelling NE trade
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic winds high low pressure winds
and wind circulation, zone "y" is an area of pressure systems
systems
3723 50
(For this question use annex 050-10726A)_x000D_ w u t v
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind
circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone
3724 50
(For this question use annex 050-10727A)_x000D_ SW trade subtropical NE trade travelling
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic winds high winds depressions
and wind circulation, zone "u" is in area of pressure
3725 50
If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these 850 hPa 300 hPa 500 hPa 700 hPa
upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest
your flight level ?
3726 50
Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest at the top of at the at the at the top of
a marked condensatio condensatio the friction
surface- n level when n level when layer.
based there is no there is
inversion. night strong
radiation. surface
friction.
3727 50
The height of the lifting condensation level is determined wet temperature temperature wind and
by adiabatic and at surface dewpoint at
lapse rate dewpoint at and air the surface
and the surface pressure
dewpoint at
the surface
3728 50
SIGMET information is issued as a warning for all aircraft light aircraft VFR heavy
significant weather to only operations aircraft only
only
3729 50
Runway visual range can be reported in a SIGMET both a TAF a METAR a TAF
and a
METAR
3730 50
If CAVOK is reported then no low no clouds low level any CB's
drifting snow are present windshear have a base
is present has not above 5000
been FT
reported
3731 50
ATIS information contains only meteorologic only operational
operational al and meteorologic information
information operational al and if
information information necessary
meteorologic
al
information
3732 50
 (For this question use annex 050-4725A)_x000D_ SW warm localised NE wind
Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to monsoonal southerly depression affecting
Freetown, the Harmattan is a wind causing dust-bearing giving north-west
extensive wind squally Africa during
areas of affecting the winds. November to
advection coast of April
fog along North Africa. reducing
the West visibility in
African rising dust.
coast south
of 15°N.

3733 50
Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of increases decreases decreases increases
the tropopause and its and its and its and its
temperature temperature temperature temperature
decreases decreases increases increases

3734 50
All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are severe extreme moderate light
requested to report it. You experience CAT which causes
passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their
seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are
dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. This
intensity of CAT should be reported as

3735 50
The equatorial easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs : during the during the only in the only in the
whole year whole year summer of winter of the
in the in the the northern northern
southern northern hemisphere hemisphere
hemisphere hemisphere at approx. at approx. 30
45 000 FT 000 FT

3736 50
Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated surface surface surface surface
with a non frontal thermal depression because of : convergence convergence divergence divergence
and upper and upper and upper and upper
level level level level
divergence divergence convergence convergence
causing causing causing causing
widespread widespread widespread widespread
ascent of air descent of descent of ascent of air
in the air in the air in the in the
depression depression depression depression

3737 50
The validity of a TAF is between 6 9 hours from stated in the 2 hours
and 9 hours the time of TAF
issue
3738 50
The region of the globe where the greatest number of the northern the north- the the south-
tropical revolving storms occur is Indian west Pacific, carribean western
ocean, affecting sea, Indian
affecting Japan, affecting the ocean,
India, Sri Formosa, West Indies, affecting
Lanka and Korea and Mexico and Madagascar,
Bangladesh. the Chinese the south- Mauritius
coastline. east and the
coastline of island of
the USA. Réunion.

3739 50
 In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a behind is in front of behind is behind is
warm occlusion when the cold air less cold the surface colder than colder than
than the cold position of the cold air the cold air in
air in front, front is only in front. front, with
with the at a high the warm air
warm air at a altitude. being at a
high altitude. high altitude.

3740 50
(For this question use annex 050-4340A)_x000D_ Symbol b) Symbol c) Symbol d) Symbol a)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an
aircraft in flight?
3741 50
(For this question use annex 050-4362A)_x000D_ EKCH EINN ESSA LSZH
At which airport is the following weather development
taking place?_x000D_
TAF 231322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005
BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999
BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU
BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220 =

3742 50
A SPECI is an aviation a warning a forecast an aviation
routine for special for special selected
weather weather weather special
report phenomena phenomena weather
report
3743 50
Which of the following weather reports could be, in 27019G37K 34004KT 00000KT 26012KT
accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to T 9999 7000 MIFG 0100 FG 8000 SHRA
"CAVOK"? BKN050 SCT260 VV001 11/11 BKN025
18/14 09/08 Q1025 16/12 Q1018
Q1016 Q1029 BECMG NOSIG =
NOSIG = BECMG 0500 =
1600 =
3744 50
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of Broken, Wind 250°, Gusts of 38 Mean wind
the METAR ?_x000D_ cloudbase thunderstor knots, speed 20-38
25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 600 feet and m with thunderstor knots,
Q1016 BECMG NSW = 1500 feet, moderate m with meteorologic
temperature hail, QNH heavy hail, al visibility
18°C 1016 hPa dew point 1200 metres,
18°C temperature
23°C

3745 50
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of RVR for Meteorologic Meteorologic Meteorologic
the METAR ?_x000D_ runway 14 al visibility al visibility al visibility for
00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 800 metres, 200 metres, 200 feet, runway 14
m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = vertical RVR for RVR for 800 metres,
visibility 100 runway 16 runway 16 fog with hoar
feet, calm, 1500 more than frost, RVR
meteorologic metres, 1500 for runway
al visibility temperature metres, 16 more than
improving to -3°C, vertical vertical 1500 metres
800 metres visibility 100 visibility 100
in the next 2 metres feet, fog with
hours hoar frost

3746 50
 Which of the following statements is an interpretation of Moderate to Moderate to Zone of Severe
the SIGMET ?_x000D_ strong clear severe clear moderate to turbulence
LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID air air severe observed
030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps turbulence turbulence turbulence below FL 260
btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf = of constant to be moving north of the
intensity to expected towards the Alps. Pilots
be expected north of the area north of advised to
north of the Alps. the Alps. cross this
Alps Intensity Intensity area above
increasing. increasing. FL 380
Danger zone Pilots
between FL advised to
260 and FL cross this
380 area above
FL 260

3747 50
The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly western western western the Atlantic
affects Africa, Africa Africa, at a ocean,
where it is between 10° latitude of between
situated and 20°N 25°N in July. latitudes
between the and the 10°N and
10°N and northern 30°N,
30°N coasts of the depending
parallels, Arabian sea on the time
depending in July. of year.
on the time
of the year.

3748 50
Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for That the That the That the That the
Nice:_x000D_ weather at weather weather in VOLMET
TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK =_x000D_ Nice is conditions at Nice after speaker has
0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 clearly more 0920 were 0920 is also got his
TEMPO TS =_x000D_ volatile than actually likely to be locations
What can be concluded from the differences between the TAF predicted in as predicted mixed up,
the two reports ? could have the TAF in the TAF because
predicted there is no
earlier in the way the
morning latest
VOLMET
report could
be so
different from
the TAF

3749 50
On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching QFE QFE and QFE and QFE
decreases QNH QNH increases
and QNH decrease. increase. and QNH
increases. decreases.
3750 50
(For this question use annex 050-4363A)_x000D_ 16002KT 26014KT 23018G35K 21002KT
Which of the following weather conditions would be 0200 8000 T 9999 6000 BR
expected at Athens Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC? R33L/0600N BKN090 SCT035 SCT040
FG VV001 17/12 10/04 29/16 Q1026
12/12 Q1009 Q0988 NOSIG =
Q1031 BECMG NOSIG =
BECMG 4000 =
0800 =

3751 50
(For this question use annex 050-4364A)_x000D_ LSZH ENFB EKCH ESSA
Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming
night?
3752 50
(For this question use annex 050-4365A)_x000D_ 230/10 200/30 040/10 250/20
Select from the map the average wind for the route
Zurich - Rome at FL110.
3753 50
 (For this question use annex 050-4366A)_x000D_ -12°C -6°C +5°C -9°C
Select from the map the average temperature for the
route Zurich - Rome at FL 110.
3754 50
(For this question use annex 050-4367A)_x000D_ FL 20 FL 140 FL 120 FL 60
Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical
temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing
level above Shannon be found?
3755 50
Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport_x000D_ Meteorologic Meteorologic Meteorologic Meteorologic
TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG al visibility al visibility al visibility 6 al visibility
0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 800 metres, 800 metres, kilometres, 2,5
BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 =_x000D_ wind from vertical cloudbase kilometres,
Which of these statements best describes the weather 230°, visibility 200 500 feet, cloudbase
that can be expected at 1200 UTC? cloudbase feet, calm windspeed 5 500 feet,
500 feet knots windspeed 5
knots
3756 50
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of Thunderstor Thunderstor Athens The
the SIGMET ?_x000D_ ms must be ms have Airport is thunderstorm
SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd ts obs and fcst in expected in formed in closed due s in the
w part of athinai fir / mov e / intst nc = the western the eastern to Athens FIR
part of the part of the thunderstor are
Athens FIR. Athens FIR ms. The increasing in
The and are thunderstor intensity, but
thunderstor slowly m zone are
m zone is moving west should be stationary
moving east. east of above the
Intensity is Athens by western part
constant 1820 UTC of the Athens
FIR

3757 50
Supercooled droplets can be encountered in winter only in only in at any time
only in high winter above winter at of the year
clouds 10000 FT high altitude
3758 50
In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The air pressure pressure at thickness of wind
vertical extent of these clouds depends on the at the different the unstable direction
surface levels layer
3759 50
Advection fog can be formed when warm moist cold moist warm moist cold moist air
air flows air flows air flows flows over
over a over a over a warmer
colder warmer warmer water
surface surface surface
3760 50
The morning following a clear, calm night when the advection good clear radiation fog a cold front
temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to fog weather
produce
3761 50
When the temperature and dew point are less than one unlimited fog or low clear and high
degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to visibility cloud cool scattered
be clouds
3762 50
An observer on the northern hemisphere is under continuously continuously initially initially
influence of the wind system of a depression, which is backing veering backing, veering, then
moving from West to East. The centre of the depression then veering backing
passes to the South of the observer. For this observer
the wind direction is
3763 50
With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally Stratus Nimbostratu Cumulonimb Cumulus
3764 50 associated ? s us
The diameter of a typical tornado is only a few about 2 to 6 in the order 100 to 150
3765 50 metres km of 10 km metres
In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm Mature Cumulus Dissipating In all stages
cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously? stage stage stage
3766 50
 Which of the following statements describes a An A small low A high A high speed
microburst ? extremely pressure speed downdraft of
strong wind system downburst of air with a
gust where the air with a higher
associated wind generally temperature
with a circulates at lower than its
tropical high speed temperature surroundings
revolving than its
storm surrounding
s

3767 50
Fallstreaks or virga are strong water or ice strong gusts
katabatic particles downdraugh associated
winds in falling out of ts in the with a well
mountainous a cloud that polar jet developed
areas and evaporate stream, Bora
accompanie before associated
d by heavy reaching the with jet
precipitation ground streaks

3768 50
The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are 12 km and 4 km and 1- 4 km and 8 km and 5-
in the order of 5-10 5 minutes 30-40 15 minutes
minutes minutes
3769 50
Supercooled droplets can occur in clouds, fog clouds but precipitation clouds but
and not in but not in not in fog
precipitation precipitation clouds
3770 50
Frontal fog is most likely to occur in summer in in winter in in advance in rear of a
the early the early of a warm warm front
morning morning front
3771 50
Supercooled droplets are always at a small and at large and at at a
temperature a a temperature
below temperature temperature below -60°C
freezing below below
freezing freezing
3772 50
Visibility is reduced by haze when a light a cold front small dust particles
drizzle falls just passed waterdroplet are trapped
s are below an
present inversion

3773 50
Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets small and of any size large and at small and at
are freeze at a a
rapidly temperature temperature temperature
s below just below just below
-35°C. freezing freezing

3774 50
During an adiabatic process heat is added but neither added lost
the result is added nor
an overall lost
loss
3775 50
The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an 1°C 2°C 0.65°C 0.5°C
3776 50 unsaturated rising parcel of air is
The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a 0.6°C 1°C 1.5°C 0.35°C
saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the
atmosphere is approximately
3777 50
 The following temperatures have been observed over a The height The The layer Assuming
station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL. of the temperature between that the MSL
Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C._x000D_ freezing at 10000 FT 16000 and pressure is
20000.-12 18000.-11 16000.-10 14000.-10 12000.-6 level over is in 18000 FT is 1013.25 hPa
10000.-2 8000. +2 6000. +6 4000. +12 2000. +15 the station is agreement absolutely the true
surface+15. approximatel with the unstable altitude of an
y 12000 FT. temperature aircraft would
in the actually be
International higher than
Standard the indicated
Atmosphere. altitude.

3778 50
In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be low stratus showers of haze drizzle
restricted by rain or snow
3779 50
A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of coincides indicates indicates intersects the
severe icing when the temperature profile with a dry temperature temperature 0°C isotherm
adiabatic s below s above 3°C twice
lapse rate -40°C
3780 50
A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by SWC and TAF and METAR and TAF and
3781 50 information supplied in SIGMET METAR SIGMET SIGMET
Freezing precipitation occurs mainly in the mainly in the only in the only in the
form of form of precipitation precipitation
freezing hail freezing rain of a cold of a warm
or freezing or freezing front front
snow drizzle

3782 50
In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to there is a the surface cumulus a rapid
affect surface visibility when low level wind is clouds have moving cold
inversion strong and developed in front has just
gusty the passed the
afternoon area

3783 50
The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less water water heat is moist air is
than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air vapour vapour released heavier than
because: doesn't cool absorbs the during the dry air
as rapidly as incoming condensatio
dry air heat from n process
the sun

3784 50
If the surface temperature is 15°C , then the 0°C 5°C -5°C -15°C
temperature at 10000 FT in a current of ascending
unsaturated air is:
3785 50
An inversion is a decrease an increase an increase a decrease
of of of pressure of pressure
temperature temperature with height with height
with height with height

3786 50
During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets rapidly and slowly and slowly and rapidly and
freeze do not do not spread out spread out
spread out spread out
3787 50
The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast SW NE NE SW
of Africa north of the equator (gulf of Guinea) is a monsoon in tradewind in monsoon in monsoon in
winter and summer and winter and summer and
NE SE SE NE
monsoon in tradewind in tradewind in tradewind in
summer winter summer winter
3788 50
 Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the cold air is warm air is cold air is warm air is
moist and moist and moist and moist and
the the the the
environment environment environment environment
al lapse rate al lapse rate al lapse rate al lapse rate
is less than is less than exceeds the exceeds the
the dry the saturated saturated
adiabatic saturated adiabatic adiabatic
lapse rate adiabatic lapse rate lapse rate
lapse rate

3789 50
A microburst has a has a life is always occurs only
diameter up time of more associated in tropical
to 4 km than 30 with areas
minutes thunderstor
ms
3790 50
In which of the following areas is the highest frequency Subtropical Temperate Tropical Polar
3791 50 of thunderstorms encountered ?
Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon Warm front Cold mass Occlusion Airmass
in summer over land in moderate latitudes? thunderstor thunderstor thunderstor thunderstorm
ms ms ms s
3792 50
What are the requirements for the formation of a A cumulus An adequate Water A
thunderstorm? cloud with supply of vapour and stratocumulu
sufficient moisture, high s cloud with
moisture conditional pressure sufficient
associated instability moisture
with an and a lifting
inversion action

3793 50
A gustfront is characterize another formed by normally
d by heavy name for a the cold air encountered
lightning cold front outflow from directly
a below a
thunderstor thunderstorm
m
3794 50
Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines ? For severe Severe For severe Severe
squall lines squall lines squall lines squall lines
a SIGMET is only occur in a TAF is always move
issued the tropics issued from
northwest to
southeast

3795 50
Large hail stones only occur in are entirely only occur in are typically
thunderstor composed of frontal associated
ms of mid- clear ice thunderstor with severe
latitudes ms thunderstorm
s

3796 50
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus Rain or hail Continuous Roll cloud Frequent
stage of a thunderstorm? at the updraft lightning
surface
3797 50
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is Anvil stage Dissipating Cumulus Mature stage
characterized predominantly by downdrafts? stage stage
3798 50
The most hazardous type of cloud that may be cumulus cirrus cumulonimb stratocumulu
3799 50 encountered on a cross country flight is us s
Vertical wind shear is horizontal horizontal vertical vertical
variation in variation in variation in variation in
the the vertical the the vertical
horizontal wind horizontal wind
wind wind
3800 50
 Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air with warm that is that is stable with cold
mass absolutely mass
properties stable properties
3801 50
What information is given on a Significant Weather The The The The
Chart? significant significant significant significant
weather weather weather that weather in a
forecast for forecast for is observed period 3
a period 6 the time at the time hours before
hours after given on the given on the and 3 hours
the time chart chart after the time
given on the given on the
chart chart

3802 50
Clear ice is dangerous because it spreads out is heavy and is is not
and contains is difficult to translucent translucent
many air remove from and only and forms at
particles the aircraft forms at the the leading
surfaces leading edges
edges

3803 50
An easterly wave is a disturbance wave in a wave-like small scale
in the higher trade wind disturbance wave
levels belt, moving in the disturbance
associated from east to monsoon in the tropics,
with the west, with regime of moving from
equatorial severe India, east to west,
easterly jet, convective moving from with severe
moving from activity in east to west, convective
east to west, rear of its with severe activity
with severe trough convective ahead of its
convective activity trough
activity in ahead of its
rear of its trough
trough

3804 50
Which of the following statements concerning the It does not It is an area There are It lies totally
intertropical convergence zone is true? change its of low frequent in the
position over pressure occurrences northern
the oceans and low of CB hemisphere
during the relative in July and
year humidity totally in the
southern
hemisphere
in January

3805 50
The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs September, July, August, December, February,
in October, September January, March, April
November February
3806 50
A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is situated a cold a warm quasi
between 50° anticyclone/s anticyclone/ stationary/sit
and 70°N/a teering quasi uated
cold depressions/ stationary/sit between
anticyclone/s situated over uated 50°N and
teering Scandinavia between 70°N/a cold
depressions 50°N and anticyclone
70°N
3807 50
The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere trade wind subsidence friction radiation
of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is inversion inversion inversion inversion
called
3808 50
 A cold pool is usually develops normally occurs
most evident usually in disappears frequently in
in the winter when at night and winter to the
circulation very occurs south of the
and unstable almost Alps when
temperature maritime exclusively this region is
fields of the polar or in summer under the
middle maritime influence of
troposphere arctic air cold north-
and may currents westerly
show little or stream airstream
no sign on a southwards
surface along the
chart eastern side
of an
extensive
ridge of high
pressure, in
association
with
occluded
systems

3809 50
If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then warm high cold low cold high warm low
3810 50 the pressure system is a
A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered in an behind of a ahead of a at an
airmass with stationary cold front occluded
cold mass front front
properties

3811 50
In a warm front occlusion the warm air the warm the warm the cold air is
is lifted front front lifted
overtakes becomes a
the cold front aloft
front
3812 50
Which of the following circumstances most favour the Warm moist Maritime Advection of Moist air
development of radiation fog? air at the tropical air very cold air over land
windward flowing over over much during clear
side of a cold sea warmer sea night with
mountain little wind

3813 50
Which of the following statements is true concerning It forms at It forms It forms It can be
advection fog? night or the when slowly and formed
early unstable air disappears suddenly by
morning is cooled rapidly day or night
adiabatically

3814 50
Runway Visual Range (RVR) is measured usually reported reported in
with better than when TAF and
ceilometers meteorologic meteorologic METAR
alongside al visibility al visibility is
the runway less than
2000m
3815 50
Freezing fog exists if fog droplets are are frozen are freezing freeze when
supercooled very rapidly temperature
falls below
zero

3816 50
 The most dangerous low level wind shears are during any near valleys when strong in areas with
encountered period when and at the ground layered
wind speed windward inversions clouds and
is greater side of are present wind speeds
than 35 kt mountains. and near higher than
and near thunderstor 35 kt
valleys ms

3817 50
Under which of the following conditions is the most A jet stream, A westerly A straight jet A curved jet
severe CAT likely to be experienced ? with great jet stream at stream near stream near
spacing low latitudes a low a deep
between the in the pressure trough
isotherms summer area

3818 50
The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large clear ice hoar frost rime ice cloudy ice
supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5°C is
most likely to be
3819 50
What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane West in the West in the East West deep
in the Carribean area? earlier earlier into the U.S.
stages and stages and
later south later north
east east
3820 50
Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during in unstable and early and early in
the night atmosphere morning only morning only association
s in winter in summer with radiation
inversions

3821 50
The sea breeze is a wind from the sea blowing at occurring occurring that reaches
night in mid- only in mid- only in the up to the
latitudes latitudes and lower layers tropopause
in daytime of the in daytime
atmosphere
in daytime

3822 50
The Foehn wind is a warm fall cold fall wind warm cold anabatic
wind anabatic wind
wind
3823 50
During a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the veers and backs and veers and backs and
surface (no frontal passage) the wind normally decreases decreases increases increases
3824 50
Wind is caused by the horizontal the rotation friction
movements pressure of the earth between the
of fronts differences air and the
ground
3825 50
In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface counter- counter- from a low clockwise
blows clockwise clockwise pressure around, and
around, and around, and area to a away from
away from toward the high the centre of,
the centre centre of, a pressure a low
of, a high low pressure area pressure
pressure area area
area.

3826 50
In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL right and about 45 directly left and
directly towards the centre of a low pressure area, will behind degrees to ahead behind
find the wind blowing from the right of
directly
ahead
3827 50
 When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a strong blowing changing light
weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely perpendicula direction
to be r to the rapidly
isobars
3828 50
In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following Elevation of Elevation of Elevation of Temperature
item(s) must be known ? the airfield the airfield the airfield at the airfield
and the and the
temperature temperature
at MSL at the airfield

3829 50
Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North They The Their From the
Atlantic? intensify diameter is greatest earth's
rapidly after 50-500 m frequency of surface up to
landfall occurrence the
is in winter tropopause
the core is
warmer than
its
surroundings

3830 50
In still air the temperature decreases at an average of environment saturated dry adiabatic normal lapse
1.2°C per 100 m increase in altitude. This temperature al lapse rate adiabatic lapse rate rate
change is called: lapse rate
3831 50
Which of the following statements concerning jet In the In the In the In the
streams is correct? southern northern northern southern
hemisphere hemisphere hemisphere hemisphere
only easterly both only westerly no jet
jet streams westerly and jet streams streams
occur easterly jet occur occur
streams
occur

3832 50
Freezing rain occurs when snow falls rain falls into ice pellets water vapour
into an a layer of air melt first turns
above- with into water
freezing temperature droplets
layer of air s below 0°C

3833 50
An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern It remains Without It decreases It increases
hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the constant knowing
following is correct concerning its true altitude ? temperature
s at FL 180
this question
can not be
answered.

3834 50
A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature less than more than between 1°C 0.65°C per
decrease with height is 0.65°C per 1°C per per 100m 100m
100m 100m and 0.65°C
per 100m

3835 50
A layer in which the temperature remains constant with neutral conditionally absolutely unstable
3836 50 height is unstable stable
A layer in which the temperature increases with height is conditionally neutral absolutely absolutely
3837 50 unstable stable unstable
A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1°C per absolutely absolutely conditionally neutral for
3838 50 100m is stable unstable unstable dry air
If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of absolutely conditionally neutral absolutely
the layer is 10°C and at the top of the layer is 8°C then stable unstable unstable
this layer is
3839 50
 An inversion is a layer that an a an unstable
can be absolutely conditionally layer
either stable stable layer unstable
or unstable layer

3840 50
The greater the pressure gradient the closer the further the closer the further the
isobars and isobars will isobars and isobars will
the stronger be apart and the lower the be apart and
the wind the weaker temperature the higher
the wind s the
temperature

3841 50
When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a continually from the from the continually
station on the shore of a large body of water will from water land in water in from land to
experience wind to the land daytime and daytime and water
from the from the
water at land at night
night
3842 50
The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication presence of presence of risk of development
of the valley winds mountain orographic of thermal
waves thunderstor lows
ms
3843 50
The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates stability in subsidence instability in strong
the higher in a large the middle convection at
troposphere part of the troposphere low height
troposphere

3844 50
What type of cloud is being described ?_x000D_ Nimbostratu Cirrostratus Stratus Altostratus
A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and s
uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow
grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the
outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in
the form of ragged patches.

3845 50
Cumulus clouds are an indication for up and stability the the approach
downdrafts approach of of a warm
a cold front front
3846 50
Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern If in this If in this If in this If in this
hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a pressure pressure pressure pressure
heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following surface the surface the surface the surface the
statements is correct? wind comes wind comes wind comes wind comes
from the from the from the from the
direction 360 direction 180 direction 270 direction 090
degrees, degrees, degrees, degrees,
then true then true then true then true
altitude is altitude is altitude is altitude is
increasing increasing increasing increasing

3847 50
The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily wind speed, roughness temperature, stability, wind
on roughness of surface, local time, speed,
of surface, temperature, environment roughness of
temperature local time al lapse rate surface

3848 50
If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these 850 hPa 700 hPa 500 hPa 300 hPa
upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest
your flight level ?
3849 50
 A super-cooled droplet is one that has a shell is at an remains has frozen to
of ice with above liquid at a become an
water inside freezing below ice pellet
it temperature freezing
in below temperature
freezing air
3850 50
Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of water freezing rain droplets small super-
vapour striking the forming on cooled
turning aircraft the aircraft droplets
directly into and then striking the
ice crystals freezing aircraft
on the
aircraft
surface
3851 50
An airmass is unstable when an temperature pressure temperature
ascending and humidity shows a increases
parcel of air are not marked with height
continues to constant variation
rise to a over a given
considerable horizontal
height. area

3852 50
An airmass is stable when the lapse the vertical temperature pressure is
rate is 1°C motion of a in a given constant
per 100 m rising parcel area drops
of air tends off very
to become rapidly with
weaker and height
disappears.

3853 50
On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar during the immediately during early about
heating is most pronounced early after sunset morning midmorning
afternoon hours before
sunrise

3854 50
A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of advection cumulus nocturnal the passage
fog clouds radiation of cold front
3855 50
Clear ice forms as a result of supercooled supercooled water ice pellets
droplets water vapour splattering
freezing on droplets freezing to on the
impact spreading the aircraft aircraft
during the
freezing
process
3856 50
In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface centripetal the the frictional
is caused by forces inbalance of curvature of forces
the the isobars
horizontal
gradient
force and
the Coriolis
force
3857 50
Geostrophic wind always veers with is is directly
increases height if cold perpendicula proportional
with air is r to the to the density
increasing advected in horizontal of the air
height the northern pressure
hemisphere gradient
force
3858 50
 A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that Pampero Khamsin Harmattan Scirocco
blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is
known as a
3859 50
A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by Foehn Harmattan Mistral Bora
prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is
known as a
3860 50
The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to density of horizontal curvature of sine of
the the air pressure isobars latitude
gradient
3861 50
Large supercooled water drops, which freeze on impact rime ice hoar frost cloudy ice clear ice
3862 50 on an aircraft, form
The wind speed in a system with curved isobars higher if always always lower higher if
compared to a system with straight isobars is (other curvature is higher curvature is
conditions being the same) anticyclonic cyclonic
3863 50
Freezing fog consists of ice crystals supercooled frozen water frozen
water droplets minute snow
droplets flakes
3864 50
In an area of converging air convective stratified clouds can clouds can
clouds can clouds can not be be formed
be dissolved be dissolved formed
3865 50
You are flying from east to west in the northern If the wind is If the wind is If you have a If you have a
hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface. Which of from the from the head wind tail wind you
the following statements is correct? north you south you you are are losing
are gaining are gaining gaining altitude
altitude altitude altitude
3866 50
Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are straight lines curved lines straight lines curved lines
and friction and friction and no and no
is involved. is involved. friction is friction is
involved. involved
3867 50
Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of smooth a high risk of turbulence poor visibility
flying thunderstor at and below at surface
conditions ms the cloud
below the level
cloud level
3868 50
The Chinook is a warm warm and very cold downslope
anabatic dry wind that wind with wind that
wind up the forms as air blowing occurs
slopes of descends on snow particularly at
snowfields the leeward night as air
or glaciers side of the cools along
Rocky mountain
Mountains slopes

3869 50
The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) the friction of the coriolis contour lines the coriolis
above the friction layer because the air with force tends are lines that force acts
the earth's to balance connect perpendicula
surface with the points with r on a line
gives the horizontal the same that connects
airflow a pressure windspeed high and low
diversion gradient in the upper pressure
perpendicula force air system
r to the
gradient
force.

3870 50
 During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with surface wind angle wind tends surface wind
anticyclonic conditions, the speed tends between to back from speed tends
to be highest isobars and early to be highest
at night surface wind morning until during the
direction early early
tends to be afternoon afternoon
greatest in
the early
afternoon

3871 50
Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in rising rising falling falling
pressure pressure pressure pressure and
and likely and likely and likely likely
formation of dissipation dissipation formation of
clouds of clouds of clouds clouds
3872 50
The geostrophic wind depends on density, earth's geographic centripetal
earth's rotation, latitude, force, height,
rotation, geographic centripetal pressure
geographic latitude, force, height gradient
latitude centripetal
force
3873 50
In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind during the at night at night up during the
blows day up from down from from the day down
the valley the valley from the
mountains mountains
3874 50
At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) veers in the backs in the veers in the backs in the
the wind direction changes from the surface up to the friction layer friction layer friction layer friction layer
tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind and veers and veers and backs and and
above the above the above the backs above
friction layer friction layer friction layer the friction
layer

3875 50
The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient curvature of friction horizontal slope of
wind is caused by isobars temperature pressure
gradients surfaces
3876 50
From which of the following pieces of information can Environment Surface Dry Pressure at
the stability of the atmosphere be derived? al lapse rate temperature adiabatic the surface
lapse rate
3877 50
What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet The wind at They have They are The surface
and the surface wind? 3000 feet is the same practically wind is
parallel to direction, but the same, veered
the the surface except when compared to
isohypses wind is eddies exist, the wind at
and the weaker, caused by 3000 feet
surface wind caused by obstacles and is
direction is friction usually
across the weaker.
isobars
toward the
low pressure
and the
surface wind
is weaker.

3878 50
During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is It will remain It is not It will It will
adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is the same possible to decrease increase
1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading give a
during the resetting procedure ? definitive
answer
3879 50
 Which of the following cloud types are most likely to Altostratus Altocumulus Stratocumul Stratus and
produce light to moderate icing when they are not and and us and cumulonimb
subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cirrocumulus altostratus. cirrostratus us
cloud droplets?
3880 50
(For this question use annex 050-4371A)_x000D_ 260/40 050/35 240/40 210/25
Select from the map the average wind for the route
Athens - Geneva at FL 160.
3881 50
(For this question use annex 050-4370A)_x000D_ 10°C colder 10°C 4°C colder 4°C warmer
What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the than ISA warmer than than ISA than ISA
Frankfurt - Rome route? ISA
3882 50
(For this question use annex 050-4368A)_x000D_ 050/40 030/35 230/40 200/50
Select from the map the average wind for the route
Frankfurt - Rome at FL 170.
3883 50
The following weather report_x000D_ 9 hour TAF. 24 hour TAF. SPECI. METAR.
EDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG
1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG
VV001_x000D_
is a :
3884 50
Refer to the following TAF for Zurich._x000D_ 1500 m. 5000 FT. 1500 FT. 1000 FT.
LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080
TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG
1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=_x000D_
The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200
UTC) is:

3885 50
Refer to the following TAF for Zurich._x000D_ 6 NM. 4 km. 10 km. 6 km.
LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080
TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG
1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=_x000D_
The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:

3886 50
8/8 stratus base 200 FT/AGL is observed at sunrise at Winter: SCT Winter: OVC Winter: clear Winter: BKN
an aerodrome in the north of France; the QNH is 1028 base 3000 base 500 sky; summer base 2500
hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt._x000D_ FT/AGL; FT/AGL; BKN CB FT/AGL;
What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer summer base 1500 summer BKN
summer and winter? OVC base SCT base FT/AGL. base 3500
500 FT/AGL. 3000 FT/AGL.
FT/AGL.

3887 50
You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is 21740 feet 18260 feet 19340 feet 20660 feet
-40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What
is the true altitude?
3888 50
(For this question use annex 050-4249A)_x000D_ Wind speed The true The true Wind speed
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper at B is altitude will altitude will at A and at B
level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. higher than be higher at be higher at is the same
Which of these statements is correct? at A B than at A A than at B
3889 50
(For this question use annex 050-4248A)_x000D_ Wind speed Wind speed The true The true
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper at Madrid is at B is altitude will altitude will
level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. higher than higher than be higher at be higher at
Which of these statements is correct? at A at A B than at A A than at B

3890 50
(For this question use annex 050-4247A)_x000D_ Wind speed The true The true Wind speed
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper at A and at B altitude will altitude will at A is higher
level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. is the same be higher at be higher at than at B
Which of these statements is correct? A than at B B than at A
3891 50
(For this question use annex 050-4373A)_x000D_ 4°C warmer 8°C warmer 12°C colder 8°C colder
What is the deviation of the temperature at FL 140 than ISA than ISA than ISA than ISA
above Copenhagen compared to ISA?
3892 50
 During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is It will It will remain It is not It will
adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 decrease the same possible to increase
hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the give a
resetting procedure? definitive
answer
3893 50
(For this question use annex 050-4374A)_x000D_ 020/20 200/15 260/25 230/20
Select from the map the average wind for the route
Zurich - Hamburg at FL 240.
3894 50
An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local It will It will It will remain It will not be
QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude decrease increase the same affected
reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition
level ?
3895 50
An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm There is A lower A higher The same
summer's day. The weather is fine, and there is a high insufficient altitude than altitude than altitude as
pressure system in the area. During the flight, a information the elevation the elevation the elevation
mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What to come to a of the of the of the
reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the conclusion summit summit summit
summit's elevation?
3896 50
An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold The same There is A higher A lower
winter's day. The regional QNH is 1013 hPa. During the altitude as insufficient altitude than altitude than
flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its the elevation information the elevation the elevation
summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, of the to come to a of the of the
compared to the elevation of the summit? summit conclusion summit summit

3897 50
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true It is warmer Its average It is colder There is
altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa. _x000D_ than ISA temperature than ISA insufficient
What assumption, if any, can be made about the air is about ISA information
mass in which the aircraft is flying ? to come to
any
conclusion
3898 50
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true It is warmer There is Its average It is colder
altitude of 12000 feet; local QNH is 1013 hPa. What than ISA insufficient temperature than ISA
assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in information is the same
which the aircraft is flying ? to come to as ISA
any
conclusion
3899 50
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true It is colder It is warmer Its average There is
altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is unknown. What than ISA than ISA temperature insufficient
assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in is the same information
which the aircraft is flying ? as ISA to make any
assumption

3900 50
During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is Its average It is warmer There is It is colder
13500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if temperature than ISA insufficient than ISA
any, can be gained about the air mass in which the is the same information
aircraft is flying? as ISA to make any
assumption

3901 50
During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille The air at One of the The The aircraft
(QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 Marseille is QNH values altimeter is is being
hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is warmer than must be faulty blown off
the probable reason for this ? that at wrong track to the
Palma de left
Mallorca
3902 50
 During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille Have your Recheck the Compensate None, the
(QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 altimeter QNH by heading reason for
hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What checked, because one further to the the change is
action, if any, should be taken ? because its of the QNH left that the air
readings are values must around
obviously be wrong Palma is
wrong warmer than
the air
around
Marseille

3903 50
An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 the air at the air at the one of the
hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) Palma de Palma de altimeters two QNH
experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for Mallorca is Mallorca is are values may
this is that : warmer than colder than erroneous, be incorrect
that at that at and need to
Marseille Marseille be tested
3904 50
If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is FL 90 FL 110 FL 130 FL 150
-2°C, at what altitude will the "freezing level" be?
3905 50
If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10°C +15°C -10°C -15°C +5°C
warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside
temperature likely to be?
3906 50
(For this question use annex 050-4246A)_x000D_ The true Wind speed Wind speed The true
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper altitude will at A is higher at Paris is altitude will
level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. be higher at than at B higher than be higher at
Which of these statements is correct? B than at A at B A than at B

3907 50
When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and 500 hPa 300 hPa 850 hPa 700 hPa
temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ?
3908 50
In which of the following situations is an aircraft most Level flight Flying in Level flight Flying in
susceptible to icing ? in snowfall heavy below a rain dense cirrus
below a drizzle. producing clouds.
nimbostratus cloud when
layer. OAT is
below zero
degrees C.

3909 50
The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere has a fixed has a fixed varies with has a fixed
value of value of time value of
0.65°C/100 2°C/1000 FT 1°C/100m
m
3910 50
An inversion is a layer of air which is absolutely conditionally conditionally absolutely
3911 50 unstable unstable stable stable
Marseille Information gives you the following 8000 FT at 1000 FT at 1000 FT at 1000 FT at
meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for 1600 Ajaccio and Ajaccio and Ajaccio and Ajaccio and
UTC :_x000D_ 9000 FT at 2000 FT at 9000 FT at 500 FT at
Ajaccio: wind 360°/2 kt, visibility 2000 m, rain, BKN Calvi Calvi Calvi Calvi
stratocumulus at 1000 FT, OVC altostratus at 8000 FT,
QNH 1023 hPa._x000D_
Calvi: wind 040°/2 kt, visibility 3000 m, mist, FEW
stratus at 500 FT, SCT stratocumulus at 2000 FT, OVC
altostratus at 9000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa._x000D_
The ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore:

3912 50
The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa 39 000 FT 30 000 FT 32 000 FT 34 000 FT
3913 50 corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about
 An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible all clouds cumulonimb stratocumulu zones of
to detect the location of us, but s and its precipitation,
provided vertical particulary
that cloud of development liquid-state
this type is precipitation,
accompanie and also
d by falls of their intensity
hail

3914 50
Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur the cold air the cold air the warm air the warm air
in a warm front if is is is is
convectively convectively convectively convectively
unstable. stable. stable. unstable.
3915 50
You have been flying for some time in dense layered If you do not In a dense Severe Severe
cloud. The outside air temperature is -25°C. Which of have layered airframe airframe
the following statements is true? weather cloud icing is icing is icing is quite
radar on unlikely also unlikely likely under
board there at an outside under these these
is no need to air conditions conditions
worry, as CB temperature
is unlikely to of -5°C
form in such
cloud

3916 50
(For this question use annex 050-4393A)_x000D_ TAF LSZH TAF LSZH TAF LSZH TAF LSZH
The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the 101601 101601 101601 101601
ground at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the 05020G35K 23012KT 32008KT VRB02KT
following reports reflects weather development at Zurich T 8000 6000 RA 9999 8000
Airport? BKN015 BKN012 SCT030TCU SCT280
TEMPO OVC030 TEMPO BECMG
1720 TEMPO 2201 1618
05018KT 2023 32020G32K 00000KT
0300 22025G40K T 3000 3500 MIFG
+SHSN T 1600 TSRA BECMG
VV002 = +SNRA BKN020CB 1820 1500
BKN003 = BCFG
OVC015 = BECMG
2022 0100
FG VV001 =

3917 50
(For this question use annex 050-4392A)_x000D_ Westerly Easterly High Warm
Which typical weather condition is shown by the design wind wind pressure southerly
for northern Italy? wind
3918 50
(For this question use annex 050-4391A)_x000D_ Uniform Cutting wind Easterly Westerly
Which typical weather condition is shown by the design pressure waves waves
for the area of Central Europe ? pattern
3919 50
 In Zurich during a summer day the following weather A cold front A trough line Storm A warm front
observations were taken:_x000D_ passed the passed the clouds due passed the
160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 station early station early to warm air station early
13/12 Q1010 NOSIG =_x000D_ in the in the came close in the
160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 morning and morning and to and morning and
RERA NOSIG =_x000D_ a warm front a warm front grazed the a cold front
160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 during late during late station during late
NOSIG =_x000D_ afternoon afternoon afternoon
161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008
NOSIG =_x000D_
161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG
=_x000D_
161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003
BECMG 25020G40KT TS =_x000D_
161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006
BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG =_x000D_
161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005
NOSIG =_x000D_
What do you conclude based on these observations?

3920 50
(For this question use annex 050-4372A)_x000D_ -27°C -14°C -21°C -11°C
Select from the map the average temperature for the
route Athens - Geneva at FL 150.
3921 50
(For this question use annex 050-4388A)_x000D_ Zurich - Zurich - Zurich - Hamburg -
On which of these routes would you not need to worry Madrid Hamburg Vienna Stockholm
about icing at FL 180?
3922 50
If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1005 hPa 990 hPa 995 hPa 1000 hPa
1015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?_x000D_
(Assume 1hPa = 8m)
3923 50
(For this question use annex 050-4386A)_x000D_ Constantly in Constantly in First in the In the
If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, the the troposphere stratosphere
where will your cruising altitude be? stratosphere troposhere and later in for part of
the time
stratosphere

3924 50
(For this question use annex 050-4385A)_x000D_ Paris - Zurich - London - Zurich -
Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you Bordeaux Rome Zurich Copenhagen
expect to encounter moderate and locally severe CAT at
FL 300?
3925 50
(For this question use annex 050-4384A)_x000D_ 140 km/h 145 kt 340 kt 95 kt
Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect
at FL 340 above Rome?
3926 50
(For this question use annex 050-4383A)_x000D_ Cloud most Scattered Out of cloud Largely free
If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 240, of the way; thunderstor throughout of cloud;
what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? little chance ms the flight moderate
of CAT icing half
way along
the route

3927 50
(For this question use annex 050-4382A)_x000D_ Zurich - Rome - Shannon - Zurich -
On which of these routes would you not have to worry Athens Berlin Hamburg Rome
about turbulence at FL 340?
3928 50
(For this question use annex 050-4381A)_x000D_ The front to The jet Thunderclou There is no
Which of the following statements is true? the north of stream ds have significant
Frankfurt is above Italy formed over cloud above
moving has a the Iberian Rome
north-east at maximum peninsula
about 5 kt speed of extending to
120 km/h some 25000
meters

3929 50
 (For this question use annex 050-4380A)_x000D_ Flight largely Prolonged CAT for the Scattered
If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what in cloud; no severe first half of thunderstorm
conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? turbulence turbulence the flight s
and icing
throughout
the flight
3930 50
(For this question use annex 050-4379A)_x000D_ FL 280 FL 310 FL 350 FL 250
Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt
would you expect the tropopause to be located?
3931 50
(For this question use annex 050-4378A)_x000D_ Tunis - Copenhagen Rome - Hamburg -
On which of the following routes can you expect icing to Rome - Helsinki Frankfurt Oslo
occur, on the basis of the chart?
3932 50
(For this question use annex 050-4377A)_x000D_ -51°C -55°C -63°C -47°C
Select from the map the average temperature for the
route Geneva -Stockholm at FL 260.
3933 50
(For this question use annex 050-4376A)_x000D_ 030/70 190/75 340/90 360/80
Select from the map the average wind for the route
Shannon - Lisboa at FL 290.
3934 50
(For this question use annex 050-4375A)_x000D_ -41°C -49°C -33°C -30°C
Select from the map the average temperature for the
route Zurich - Lisboa at FL 200.
3935 50
In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic pressure 060/12 060/18 075/12 045/12
system the geostrophic wind at 2000 FT over the sea is
060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most
likely to be
3936 50
A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 0°C -2°C +2°C +4°C
metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature
gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the
temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500
metres above sea level?

3937 50
(For this question use annex 050-10797A)_x000D_ northerly northerly mean mean
The dotted line designated "Z" represents the limit of the limit of the position of position of
sub tropical SE trade the the
jet stream winds during intertropical intertropical
during July January front (ITCZ) front (ITCZ)
during July during
January
3938 50
(For this question use annex 050-10798A)_x000D_ axis of the mean mean mean
The dotted line labelled "Y" represents the subtropical position of position of position of
jet stream the the the
during intertropical temperate/tr intertropical
January convergence opical front convergence
zone (ITCZ) during July zone (ITCZ)
during July during
January

3939 50
(For this question use annex 050-10799A)_x000D_ Generally Reduced Wet and Dry and clear
What weather conditions are most likely to affect an clear skies - visibility due thundery due to the
approach to Dakar during July? NW trade to the rising due to the influence of
winds sand of the proximity of the Azores
Harmattan intertropical high
convergence pressure
zone (ITCZ) system

3940 50
 (For this question use annex 050-10800A)_x000D_ SW NE passage of high
Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are monsoon monsoon frontal incidence of
mainly influenced by the and the system tropical
proximity of generated in revolving
the ITCZ the south storms
indian ocean originating in
the persian
gulf

3941 50
(For this question use annex 050-10801A)_x000D_ SW NW SE monsoon NE monsoon
Weather conditions at Bombay during January are monsoon monsoon
mainly influenced by the
3942 50
(For this question use annex 050-10802A)_x000D_ mainly fine and early increasing
The weather most likely to be experienced at position overcast warm with morning fog high and
"R" is with little or no lifting to low medium
anticyclonic cloud stratus cloud cover
gloom and
generally
good visibility

3943 50
A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In FL 100 FL 180 FL 300 FL 390
temperate regions which of the following average
heights is applicable ?
3944 50
A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In FL 100 FL 390 FL 180 FL 160
temperate regions which of the following average
heights is applicable ?
3945 50
A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In FL 300 FL 390 FL 100 FL 50
temperate regions which of the following average
heights is applicable ?
3946 50
The station pressure used in surface weather charts is QFE QNH QNE QFF
3947 50
What is the technical term for an increase in Inversion Subsidence Adiabatic Advection
3948 50 temperature with altitude?
How would you characterise an air temperature of -55°C High Low Very high Within +/-
at the 200 hPa level over western Europe? 5°C of ISA
3949 50
If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C -30°C -45°C -60°C -15°C
warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside
temperature likely to be?
3950 50
How would you characterise an air temperature of -15°C Within +/- 20°C below Low High
at the 700 hPa level over western Europe? 5°C of ISA standard
3951 50
(For this question use annex 050-10793A)_x000D_ May to July December to July to January to
The arrows labelled "u" represent the tracks of tropical and are April and are October and March and
revolving storms which occur mainly from called called are called are called
cyclones tornadoes typhoons willy-willies

3952 50
The temperature at FL 160 is -22°C. What will the 0°C +4°C -8°C -4°C
temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate
is applied ?
3953 50
The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the +3°C 0°C -3°C +7°C
temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate
is applied ?
3954 50
The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the 0°C +2°C -4°C -6°C
temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse
rate is applied ?
3955 50
Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 Ionosphere Troposphere Lower Upper
per cent of all water vapour? stratosphere stratosphere
3956 50
 (For this question use annex 050-10803A)_x000D_ overcast fine and early increasing
The weather most likely to be experienced at position with drizzle warm at first morning fog amounts of
"R" is and hill fog - AC lifting to low AS and NS -
Castellanus stratus heavy rain
and CB in
late
afternoon
with
thunderstor
ms

3957 50
Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind? Scirocco Harmattan Bora Chinook
3958 50
Dew point is defined as the the lowest the lowest the
temperature temperature temperature temperature
to which at which to which air below which
moist air evaporation must be the change
must be will occur for cooled in of state in a
cooled to a given order to given volume
become pressure reduce the of air will
saturated at relative result in the
a given humidity absorption of
pressure latent heat

3959 50
The process by which water vapour is transformed supercooling supersaturat radiation sublimation
3960 50 directly into ice is known as ion cooling
(For this question use annex 050-10850A)_x000D_ ridge of high col trough of low depression
The pressure distribution located mainly in square 2A is pressure pressure
a
3961 50
A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is divergence divergence convergence convergence
an area of and and and and
subsidence widespread subsidence widespread
ascent ascent
3962 50
Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal It forms over It forms over It forms over It forms over
depression? the ocean in land in land in the ocean in
winter winter summer summer
3963 50
A Foehn wind occurs on the windward leeward side leeward side windward
side of a of a of a side of a
mountain mountain mountain mountain
range and is range and is range and is range and is
caused by caused by caused by caused by
surface the significant surface
cooling and condensatio moisture heating
reverse air n level being loss by
flow lower on the precipitation
leeward side from cloud
than on the
windward
side

3964 50
How would you characterise an air temperature of -30°C High Within +/- Low Very low
at the 300 hPa level over western Europe? 5°C of ISA
3965 50
The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea Less than More than 1016 hPa It is not
level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower 1016 hPa 1016 hPa possible to
than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? give a
definitive
answer
3966 50
 (For this question use annex 050-4389A)_x000D_ TAF LSGG TAF LSGG TAF LSGG TAF LSGG
This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground 230716 230716 230716 230716
at 0600 UTC on May 4. Which of the following reports VRB03KT 23016KT 05014KT 26012KT
reflects weather development at Geneva Airport? 6000 BR 8000 -RA 5000 9999
SCT020 BKN030 OVC015 SCT030
BECMG OVC070 BECMG BKN080
0811 BECMG 0810 8000 TEMPO
23005KT 0810 5000 BKN018 1013
9999 RA BKN020 BECMG 25020G35KT
SCT025TCU OVC050 1013 3000 TSRA
PROB 40 TEMPO 05015G30K or +SHRA
TEMPO 3000 +RA T 9999 BKN030CB
1216 BKN010 SCT025 = BECMG
34012G30K OVC030 1316
T 3000 BECMG VRB02KT
TSRA 1215 3000 BCFG
BKN020CB 25014KT SCT100 =
= 8000
SCT030
BKN090 =

3967 50
An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the increases decreases increases remains
temperature with height with height with height constant with
at a constant at a constant height
rate rate

3968 50
An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature increases decreases increases remains
with height with height with height constant with
more than more than height
1°C/100m 1°C/100m
3969 50
The height and the temperature of the tropopause are 16 km and 16 km and 8 km and 8 km and -
respectively in the order of -40°C over -75°C over -40°C over 75°C over
the poles the equator the equator the poles
3970 50
The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is about 11 km 8 km 14 km 16 km
3971 50
What of the following is the most important constituent in Hydrogen Water Nitrogen Oxygen
the atmosphere from a weather stand-point ? vapour
3972 50
The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100 0.5°C variable 0.65°C 1°C
m in the International Standard Atmosphere is :
3973 50
If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 990 hPa 1035 hPa 1025 hPa 985 hPa
3974 50 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?
If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa 1015 hPa 1010 hPa 1005 hPa
3975 50 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH ?
The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres Less than 1030 hPa It is not More than
below sea level is 1030 hPa. The air temperature is 1030 hPa possible to 1030 hPa
10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the give a
QNH? definitive
answer
3976 50
The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres 1018 hPa It is not More than Less than
below sea level is 1018 hPa. The air temperature is possible to 1018 hPa 1018 hPa
10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the give a
QFF? definitive
answer
3977 50
The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level Less than More than It is not 1022 hPa
is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What 1022 hPa 1022 hPa possible to
is the QFF? give a
definitive
answer
3978 50
 (For this question use annex 050-10795A)_x000D_ a westerly variable in light a subtropical
Considering that portion of the route indicated from 30°E polar front direction and easterlies westerly jet
to 50°E, the upper winds in January above FL 300 are jet stream, less than 30 stream,
most likely to be maximum kt maximum
speed speed
exceeding exceeding
90 kt 90 kt

3979 50
The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea 1009 hPa Less than It is not More than
level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower 1009 hPa possible to 1009 hPa
than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? give a
definitive
answer
3980 50
When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to December to May to July August to Not
affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia? April October experienced
at Darwin
3981 50
The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea 1016 hPa Less than It is not More than
level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher 1016 hPa possible to 1016 hPa
than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? give a
definitive
answer
3982 50
A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In FL100 FL 300 FL 390 FL 50
temperate regions which of the following average
heights is applicable ?
3983 50
The temperature at 10000 FT in the International -35°C -5°C 0°C -20°C
3984 50 Standard Atmosphere is :
The tropopause is lower south of the over the over the in summer
equator than equator than North Pole than winter in
north of it over the than over moderate
South Pole the equator latitudes

3985 50
The tropopause is a level at which temperature water pressure vertical
ceases to vapour remains currents are
fall with content is constant strongest
increasing greatest
height
3986 50
The troposphere is the part of the boundary boundary part of the
atmosphere between the between the atmosphere
above the mesosphere stratosphere below the
stratosphere and and the tropopause
thermospher mesosphere
e

3987 50
Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and NE Canada, Greenland, Azores, Siberia,
65°N together with the adjacent land areas during Iceland Iberian Siberia Iceland,
winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at peninsula Canaries
the surface is
3988 50
(For this question use annex 050-10788A)_x000D_ December to June to June to December to
The arrows labelled "r" represent the mean tracks of April and are October and October and April and are
tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from called are called are called called
tornadoes typhoons hurricanes cyclones

3989 50
Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern It tends to It rapidly It tends to It tends to
hemisphere? move round closes on, maintain its move round
the primary and merges position the primary
in an with the relative to in a cyclonic
anticyclonic primary the primary sense
sense
3990 50
 Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly Because Because Because the Because
in the western parts of the tropical oceans? they are there is a gulf there is a
areas in maximal formation of maximum of
which there temperature the humidity as a
is a strong difference coastlines result of the
progressive between triggers a trade
windshear land mass strong rotary winds`long
with and sea circulation sea passage
increase of
height

3991 50
(For this question use annex 050-10791A)_x000D_ December to May to December to May to
The arrows labelled "s" represent the mean tracks of April and are November April and are November
tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from called and are called and are
typhoons called cyclones called
cyclones hurricanes
3992 50
(For this question use annex 050-10792A)_x000D_ June to December to June to June to
The arrows labelled "t" represents the mean track of October and April and are October and October and
tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from are called called are called are called
cyclones hurricanes tornadoes hurricanes

3993 50
If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa 995 hPa 1005 hPa 1025 hPa
3994 50 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?
The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea Less than It is not More than 1022 hPa
level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. 1022 hPa possible to 1022 hPa
What is the QFF? give a
definitive
answer
3995 50
Which of the following cloud types is least likely to NS CI AS CB
3996 50 produce precipitation ?
Which of the following cloud types is found at high AS CU CI SC
3997 50 levels?
Which of the following cloud types is a medium level CS ST SC AS
3998 50 cloud ?
Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most Strong Very low Little or no Very dry air
likely to form? surface temperature cloud
winds s
3999 50
Which of the following is most likely to lead to the Heat loss Dry, warm The Cold air
formation of radiation fog? from the air passing passage of passing over
ground on over warm fronts warm ground
clear nights ground
4000 50
With which of the following types of cloud is "+RA" SC ST NS AC
4001 50 precipitation most commonly associated?
Which of the following is typical for the passage of a Mainly Mainly Rapid drop Rapid
cold front in the summer ? towering layered in pressure increase in
clouds clouds once the temperature
front has once the
passed front has
passed
4002 50
With what type of cloud is "DZ" precipitation most CB CC CU ST
4003 50 commonly associated?
Which of the following types of cloud can extend over ST CI CB AC
4004 50 the low, medium and high cloud levels ?
With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely CB, ST NS, CC AS, NS SC, AS
4005 50 during the summer months ?
With what type of cloud is "+TSRA" precipitation most SC NS CB AS
4006 50 commonly associated?
 Read this description: "After such a fine day, the ring A warm front A blizzard Weather at A cold front
around the moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for the back of a
the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down cold front
outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low
ceiling of uniform grey; but at least it has become a little
bit warmer." Which of these weather phenomena is
being described?
4007 50
What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of It will remain It will have It will show a It will have
an aircraft parked on the ground during the period unchanged. increased. small decreased.
following the passage of an active cold front ? increase or
decrease.
4008 50
What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of It will remain It will be It will It will be
an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an active unchanged. decreasing. fluctuate up increasing.
cold front passes? and down by
about +/- 50
feet.
4009 50
An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 Behind. To the left. To the right. In front.
feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for drift. In
which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of
low pressure ?
4010 50
With what type of cloud is "GR" precipitation most ST CC CB AS
4011 50 commonly associated?
An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an Tailwind Headwind Crosswind Crosswind
airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When from the from the left
downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What right
wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and
landing during a sunny afternoon?

4012 50
Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the 25° - 35°. 10° - 15°. 35° - 55°. 55° - 75°.
4013 50 subtropical high-pressure belt ?
Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the 25° - 35° 10° - 15° 55° - 75° 35° - 55°
region of travelling low pressure systems ?
4014 50
Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds Close to the In the Just below At about
to be found ? ground stratosphere the 5500 metres
tropopause altitude
4015 50
A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of A high Decreasing Reduced Turbulence
stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to zero probability visibility due visibility and due to a
degrees C at ground level, you can expect: for icing in to snowfall light icing in strong
clouds. below cloud clouds inversion,
Severe icing base, but but no icing
in the upper only light because
part due to icing in clouds
accumulatio clouds. consist of ice
n of large crystals
droplets.

4016 50
If Paris reports a wind of 08010KT on the METAR, what 08015KT 05020KT 08005KT 11020KT
wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
of 2000 feet above the ground ?
4017 50
(For this question use annex 050-4387A)_x000D_ Turbulence Scattered Freezing The front to
Which of these statements is true? is likely to be thunderstor level above the north of
encountered ms can be Madrid is London is
at FL 410 expected higher than moving south
over Madrid over France FL 120

4018 50
 A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 100 - 1500 15000 - 7000 - 1500 - 7000
m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform FT above 35000 FT 15000 FT FT above the
CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what the terrain above the above the terrain
height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be terrain terrain
expected?
4019 50
Which of the following is true of a land breeze? It blows only It blows from It blows from It blows by
at noon land to water water to land day
4020 50
A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 7000 - 15000 - 1500 - 7000 100 - 1500
m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform 15000 FT 25000 FT FT above FT above
SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what above above ground ground
height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be ground ground
expected?
4021 50
An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an Tailwind Headwind Crosswind Crosswind
airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When from the left from the right
downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What
wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and
landing during a sunny afternoon ?

4022 50
Which of the following statements is true of the dew It can be It can be It can be It can only be
point of an air mass? higher than used used to equal to, or
the together with estimate the lower, than
temperature the air air mass's the
of the air pressure to relative temperature
mass estimate the humidity of the air
air mass's even if the mass
relative air
humidity temperature
is unknown

4023 50
Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air ST, AS CU, CB NS, CU CB, CC
4024 50 conditions?
(For this question use annex 050-4273A) _x000D_ 2 3 4 1
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is
representative of altocumulus lenticularis?
4025 50
(For this question use annex 050-4274A) _x000D_ 2 1 4 3
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is
representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus?
4026 50
(For this question use annex 050-4297A)_x000D_ Track B-C Track A-D Track A-E Track B-D
Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks
(dashed lines) is this cross-section to be expected?
4027 50
If Paris reports a wind of 30012KT on the METAR, what 33025KT 23030KT 30025KT 27020KT
wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
of 2000 feet above the ground ?
4028 50
The dewpoint temperature can not be can be equal is always is always
equal to the to the air lower than higher than
air temperature the air the air
temperature temperature temperature

4029 50
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 700 hPa 850 hPa 500 hPa 300 hPa
4030 50 9882 FT pressure level (FL 100) ?
Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable The layer is The wet The The
layer? unstable for adiabatic environment environment
unsaturated lapse rate is al lapse rate al lapse rate
air 0.65°C/100 is less than is less than
m 1°C/100m 0.65°C/100m

4031 50
 The stability in a layer is increasing if warm and cold and dry warm air is warm air is
moist air is air is advected in advected in
advected in advected in the upper the lower
the lower the upper part and part and cold
part part cold air in air in the
the lower upper part
part
4032 50
Which of the following statements concerning the lifting Unsaturated Unsaturated Unsaturated Saturated
of a parcel of air is correct ? parcels cool parcels cool parcels cool parcels
more rapidly less rapidly at a rate of always cool
than than 0.65°C per at a rate of
saturated saturated 100m 0.65°C per
parcels parcels 100m

4033 50
When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected wind will wind speed stability stability
the back with will always increases in decreases in
increasing decrease the layer the layer
height in the with
northern increasing
hemisphere height in the
northern
hemisphere

4034 50
What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of It will first It will remain It will first It will
an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front increase unchanged. decrease fluctuate up
is passing? then then and down by
decrease. increase. about +/- 50
feet.

4035 50
The difference between temperature and dewpoint is moist air air with high air with low dry air
greater in temperature temperature

4036 50
(For this question use annex 050-4319A)_x000D_ 2 4 3 1
Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates
low stratus:
4037 50
Relative humidity depends on moisture moisture temperature moisture
content and content of of the air content and
pressure of the air only only temperature
the air of the air

4038 50
The dewpoint temperature can be can be can not be can not be
reached by reached by equal to the lower than
cooling the lowering the air the air
air whilst pressure temperature temperature
keeping whilst
pressure keeping
constant temperature
constant

4039 50
Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and weak low Azores low Azores high Scandinavia
65°N and the adjacent land areas during mid-summer, over NE and and weak n high and
the predominant pressure systems are Canada and Icelandic low over NE Azores high
Scandinavia high Canada
n high

4040 50
(For this question use annex 050-10784A)_x000D_ secondary trough of low ridge of high col
The pressure system at position "D" is a low pressure pressure
4041 50
 Select the answer which you consider will complete Siberia Azores Iceland / USA
correctly the following statement in relation to the main Greenland
pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region
between 30°N and 65°N. During winter the predominant
mean low pressure system at the surface is usually
centred over
4042 50
The following statements deal with precipitation, Precipitation Precipitation Precipitation Precipitation
turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most may be is frequently and icing are may be
likely alternatives for NS cloud: snow, sleet in the form usually nil. snow, sleet
or rain. Icing of hail. Icing Turbulence or rain. Icing
and and is rarely is probable
turbulence turbulence more than and may
are are moderate. range
frequently frequently between light
severe. severe. and severe.
Turbulence
is rarely
more than
moderate.

4043 50
Relative humidity is higher in is higher in decreases if increases if
warm air cool air than the air is the air is
than in cool in warm air cooled whilst cooled whilst
air maintaining maintaining
the vapour the vapour
pressure pressure
constant constant

4044 50
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause PE +FZRA GR SHSN
4045 50 airframe icing ?
(For this question use annex 050-4298A)_x000D_ Position B Position C Position D Position A
Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of
movement, to which position will the polar frontal wave
have moved ?
4046 50
With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms Apparently Increase Show strong Decrease
around, what will the indication of the aneroid altimeter nothing, rapidly. fluctuations. rapidly.
of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of because any
about ten minutes? changes
would be
small.

4047 50
(For this question use annex 050-4305A)_x000D_ Severe Moderate to Radiation Thunderstor
Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the gradient strong fog is ms may
following statements is likely to apply? wind likely Foehn in the unlikely in occur in the
over Central Alps. Central summer
Europe. Europe in months over
the winter. Central
Europe.

4048 50
In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to -20°C to -35°C to 0°C to -10°C +10°C to 0°C
4049 50 form on the aircraft's surface? -35°C -50°C
Which of the following statements is true regarding It may occur It always It is likely to It will occur
moderate-to-severe airframe icing? in the occurs in occur in in clear-sky
uppermost altostratus nimbostratus conditions
levels of a cloud cloud
cumulonimb
us capillatus
formation

4050 50
 Which of the following statements is true regarding It will not It always It is unlikely It may occur
moderate-to-severe airframe icing? occur in occurs in to occur in in the
clear-sky altostratus nimbostratus uppermost
conditions cloud cloud levels of a
cumulonimb
us capillatus
formation

4051 50
Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological Any cloud Hail Water Fog
4052 50 radar screens? vapour
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled NS CS AS SC
4053 50 out?
What are the images of satellites provided daily by the To locate To measure To help To locate
Weather Service used for? fronts in wind provide 14- precipitation
areas with currents on day zones
few the ground forecasts
observation
stations
4054 50
(For this question use annex 050-4314A)_x000D_ Diagram b) Diagram a) Diagram d) Diagram c)
Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield.
Which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect
temperatures above the airfield concerned?
4055 50
At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change of Moderate Light Severe Extreme
course and/or altitude desirable" recommendation be
followed?
4056 50
At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change course Severe Light Moderate Extreme
and/or altitude immediately" instruction be followed?
4057 50
At what degree of icing can ICAO's "No change of Light Moderate Severe Extreme
course and altitude necessary" recommendation be
followed?
4058 50
When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust With gusts When gusts When gusts With gusts of
factor ? of at least 35 are at least are at least at least 25
knots 10 knots 15 knots knots
above the above the
mean wind mean wind
speed speed

4059 50
If Paris reports a wind of 19015KT on the METAR, what 25025KT 22010KT 22030KT 16020KT
wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
of 2000 feet above the ground ?
4060 50
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled CU CI SC NS
4061 50 out?
What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, 45 km/h 35 km/h 55 km/h 60 km/h
4062 50 expressed in kilometres per hour?
The dry adiabatic lapse rate is greater in is greater has a has a
summer during the variable constant
than in night than value fixed value
winter during the
day
4063 50
The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of 2°C/1000FT 0.65°C/100 0.5°C/100m 1°C/100m
4064 50 m
 Which one of the following statements concerning the Probability A cloud Greatest risk Risk for icing
formation of aircraft icing is most correct ? of icing consisting of of icing increases
increases both conditions is when cloud
when dry supercooled experienced temperature
snow starts cloud in cirrus decreases
to fall from a droplets and clouds. well below
cloud. ice crystals minus 12
produces degrees C.
aircraft icing

4065 50
An air mass is called stable when the the vertical the the pressure
environment motion of temperature in a given
al lapse rate rising air in a given air area is
is high, with tends to mass constant
little vertical become decreases
motion of air weaker and rapidly with
currents disappears height

4066 50
Rising air cools because it contracts it expands surrounding it becomes
air is cooler more moist
at higher
levels

4067 50
A layer can be stable for stable for unstable for unstable for
unsaturated saturated air unsaturated unsaturated
air and and unstable air and air and
unstable for for neutral for conditionally
saturated air unsaturated saturated air unstable
air

4068 50
In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 conditionally conditionally absolutely absolutely
metres increase in height is more than 1°C. This layer unstable stable unstable stable
can be described as being
4069 50
You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is 15630 feet 16370 feet 16910 feet 15090 feet
-27°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What
is the true altitude?
4070 50
You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The 12210 feet 11250 feet 11790 feet 11520 feet
chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12000 feet
above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying
through is an average 10°C warmer than ISA. Your
altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at
nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show
when you have reached the recommended minimum
altitude?
4071 50
In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease 0.65°C per 1°C per 0.5°C per 0.6°C per
in temperature with height below 11 km is 100m 100m 100m 100m
4072 50
An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 FT, 1080 FT 700 FT 380 FT 0 FT
QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What
will it indicate ?
4073 50
Which statement is correct regarding the International At MSL At MSL At MSL At MSL
Standard Atmosphere ? temperature pressure is temperature temperature
is 10°C and 1013.25 hPa is 15°C and is 15°C and
the and the pressure is the decrease
decrease in decrease of 1013.25hPa in
temperature temperature temperature
with height is with height is with height is
1°C per 1°C per 1°C per
100m 100m 100m

4074 50
 The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the overcast and clear and clear and overcast and
sky is winds are winds are winds are winds are
strong weak strong weak
4075 50
What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, 50 kt 55 kt 60 kt 70 kt
4076 50 expressed in knots?
Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to At the centre Where there In the At the centre
the ground? of a high- is little transition of a low-
pressure variation in zone pressure
system pressure between two system
over a large air masses
area during
the winter
months

4077 50
Subsidence is : vertically horizontal vertically the same as
downwards motion of air upwards convection
motion of air motion of air
4078 50
Advection is : the same as horizontal vertical the same as
convection motion of air motion of air subsidence
4079 50
When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the zero while elevation zero while elevation
pressure altimeter indicates landing only while landing while landing
if conditions landing only if
are as in the conditions
International are as in the
Standard International
Atmosphere Standard
Atmosphere

4080 50
After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is 2280 feet. 660 feet. 1200 feet. 1740 feet.
noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1013,2 hPa and
that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the
aerodrome above mean sea level ?
4081 50
Which statement is true ? QNH is QNH can be QNH can be QNH can not
lower than 1013.25 only lower as well be 1013.25
1013.25 hPa for a station as higher hPa
at any time at MSL than
1013.25 hPa

4082 50
What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, 30 m/sec 20 m/sec 15 m/sec 25 m/sec
4083 50 expressed in m/sec?
The radiation of the sun heats the air in the the surface the air in the the water
troposphere of the earth, troposphere vapour in the
only directly which heats directly air of the
if no clouds the air in the troposphere
are present troposphere

4084 50
Which of the following statements is true ? QNH is QNH is QNH is QNH can be
always lower always always equal equal to QFE
than QFE higher than to QFE
QFE
4085 50
 QNH is defined as pressure at pressure at QFE QFE reduced
MSL in the MSL in the reduced to to MSL using
standard actual MSL using the values of
atmosphere atmosphere the values of the standard
the actual atmosphere
atmosphere

4086 50
Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric It decreases It is higher in It is higher at It always
pressure ? with height winter than night than decreases
in summer during the with height
day at a rate of 1
hPa per 8m

4087 50
What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based The average The The actual The average
on? speed of the strongest speed at the speed of the
previous 30 gust in the time of previous 10
minutes previous recording minutes
hour

4088 50
If Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what 14020KT 17015KT 19040KT 16030KT
wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
of 2000 feet above the ground?
4089 50
0 1 0 0

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0 1 0 0
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0 0 1 0

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0 0 0 1

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0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
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0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

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0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
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0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
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0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
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0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
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0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
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1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
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0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

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0 1 0 0
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0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0
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0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

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0 1 0 0

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1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

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0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
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1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
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1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
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0 0 0 1

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0 0 1 0

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0 0 0 1

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0 0 0 1

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0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
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0 0 0 1

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0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
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0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
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0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
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1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
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1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
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0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
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1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
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0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0
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1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
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0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
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1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
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0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
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1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
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0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
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0 0 1 0

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0 0 1 0

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1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
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0 1 0 0

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0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
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0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

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0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
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0 1 0 0

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0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

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0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

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0 0 0 1

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0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

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0 0 0 1

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0 0 0 1

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0 0 0 1

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1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
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0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

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0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
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0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
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0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
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1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
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0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
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0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
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0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
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1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

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0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
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1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
 COMMUNICATION

46 1hr

Which of these statements best describes the meaning Select Permission Wait and I Continue on
of the phrase "Standby" ? STANDBY granted for will call you present
on the SSR action heading and
transponder proposed listen out

5690 91 0 0 1 0
What does the phrase "Read back" mean: Did you Check and Repeat all, Let me know
correctly confirm with or the that you
receive this originator specified have
message? part, of this received and
message understood
back to me this
exactly as message
received
5691 91 0 0 1 0
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I should Request Report Acknowledg Confirm
5692 91 like to know..." or "I wish to obtain..."? e 1 0 0 0
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Pass Report Request Say again Check
5693 91 me the following information...": 1 0 0 0
Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message That is right Affirm That is Correct
5694 91 has been repeated correctly: affirmative 0 0 0 1
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say:"I Roger Will comply OK, will do it Wilco
understand your message and will comply with it": with your
instruction
5695 91 0 0 0 1
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "An error QNH 1017, QNH 1017, QNH 1017, QNH 1017,
has been made in this transmission (or message negative negative I correction negative
indicated). The correct version is ...": 1016 say again QNH 1016 QNH 1016
1016
5696 91 0 0 1 0
What does the phrase "Roger" mean: A direct A direct Cleared for I have
answer in answer in take-off or received all
the the negative cleared to of your last
affirmative land transmission

5697 91 0 0 0 1
Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire Repeat your What was Repeat your Say again
message is required: message your last
message? transmission
5698 91 0 0 0 1
When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase Return to Advise the Join base Land at the
"Transmitting blind due to receiver failure" during an en- the airport of time of its leg when nearest
route flight, the aircraft station shall also: departure next approaching airfield/airpo
intended the airfield rt
transmission for landing

5699 91 0 1 0 0
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft ABC BC X-BC XY-BC
5700 91 XY-ABC is correct: 0 0 1 0
When the term "Overcast" is used in an aviation routine 50% or more Less than No clouds 100%
weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering 50% but poor
the sky is: ground
visibility
5701 91 0 0 0 1
 Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of 118.000 - 108.000 - 1810 - 2850 11650 -
the Aeronautical Mobile Service? 136.975 117.975 KHz 13200 KHz
MHZ MHz
5702 91 1 0 0 0
Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission Any The air- The The regional
of an urgency call: frequency at ground international guard
pilot's frequency in emergency frequency
discretion use at the frequency
time
5703 91 0 1 0 0
An urgency message shall be preceded by the ALERFA, PAN PAN, URGENCY,s MAYDAY,
radiotelephony urgency signal: spoken spoken poken three spoken
three times three times times three times
5704 91 0 1 0 0
Urgency is defined as: A condition A condition A condition A condition
of being concerning concerning concerning
threatened the safety of the safety of the attitude
by serious an aircraft a person on of an aircraft
and/or other board or when
imminent vehicles or within sight intercepting
danger and of a person and the localizer
of requiring on board, requiring during an
immediate but which immediate ILS
assistance does not assistance approach
require
immediate
assistance

5705 91 0 1 0 0
Under which of the following circumstances shall an When When flying When In distress
aircraft squawk 7700 ? following a within passing the
SID controlled transition
airspace level
5706 91 0 0 0 1
5707 91 An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk: 7500 7700 6700 7600 0 1 0 0
Which of the following frequencies is an international 121.050 121.500 122.500 6500 KHz
5708 91 emergency frequency: MHz MHz MHz 0 1 0 0
The distress message shall contain as many as Aircraft call Aircraft call Aircraft call Aircraft call
possible of the following elements/details: sign, sign, present sign, nature sign, route
aerodrome position, of distress, of flight,
of departure, assistance pilot's destination
position and required intention, airport
level present
position,
level and
heading

5709 91 0 0 1 0
The frequency used for the first transmission of a The distress Any other Any The
"MAYDAY" call shall be: frequency international frequency at frequency
121.5 MHz emergency pilot's currently in
frequency discretion use

5710 91 0 0 0 1
An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by DETRESFA, PAN PAN, URGENCY, MAYDAY,
radiotelephony: DETRESFA, PAN PAN, URGENCY, MAYDAY,
DETRESFA PAN PAN URGENCY MAYDAY
5711 91 0 0 0 1
 Distress is defined as: A condition A condition A condition A condition
concerning concerning of being concerning
the attitude the safety of threatened the safety of
of an aircraft a person on by serious an aircraft or
when board or and/or of a person
intercepting within sight imminent on board,
the localizer and danger and but which
during an requiring requiring does not
ILS immediate immediate require
approach assistance assistance immediate
assistance

5712 91 0 0 1 0
When the term "Scattered" is used in an aviation routine No clouds Half or less More than Sky entirely
weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering below 5000 than half (3 half but less covered (8
the sky is: feet/GND or 4 octas) than octas)
overcast (5
to 7 octas)
5713 91 0 1 0 0
An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates: It is It is about to It is unable It is diverting
requesting make a to establish to the
immediate forced communicati alternate
level change landing on due to aerodrome
radio
equipment
failure
5714 91 0 0 1 0
When the term "CAVOK" is used in an aviation routine Visibility 10 Visibility 10 Visibility Visibility
weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and km or more, km or more, more than 8 more than
clouds are: no clouds no clouds km, no 5000 m, no
below 5000 below 1500 clouds clouds
feet/GND feet/GND below 3000 below 1500
feet/GND m/GND
5715 91 1 0 0 0
How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report Up to 1500 In feet and In nautical Up to 5000
(METAR) expressed in plain language: m in metres, nautical miles only m in metres,
above in miles above in
kilometres kilometres

5716 91 0 0 0 1
What is the correct way of expressing visibility ? Visibility Visibility Visibility 1.2 Visibility 1.2
1200 metres 1200 feet nautical kilometres
miles
5717 91 1 0 0 0
What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts ? Discrete Voice NDB DME voice
VHF channel of frequencies channel
frequency an ILS
or/and VOR
5718 91 1 0 0 0
How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of VOLMET ATIS AFIS SIGMET
specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight:
5719 91 1 0 0 0
When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing When flying When the When When the
communications failure keep a watch for instructions VFR above aircraft is entering a aircraft is
passed by visual signals ? clouds entering the FIR during forming part
traffic an IFR flight of the
pattern of an aerodrome
uncontrolled traffic at a
airport controlled
aerodrome
5720 91 0 0 0 1
What is the transponder code for radio communication 7600 6700 7500 7700
5721 91 failure: 1 0 0 0
 Under which of the following circumstances shall an In case of When When When flying
aircraft station squawk 7600 ? radio entering bad approaching over desert
communicati weather a prohibited areas
on failure areas area

5722 91 1 0 0 0
An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an Attempt to Continue the Return to Land at the
aeronautical station on the designated frequency. What establish flight to the the airport of nearest
action is required by the pilot: contact with destination departure airport
the station airport without an
on an without any ATC unit
alternative communicati
frequency on

5723 91 1 0 0 0
What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station Try to Divert to the Squawk Land at the
if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an establish alternate mode A nearest
aeronautical station ? communicati airport code 7500 aerodrome
on with other appropriate
aircraft or to the route
aeronautical of flight
stations

5724 91 1 0 0 0
A message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind On the On the On the On all
due receiver failure" shall be transmitted: frequency regional international available
presently in guard emergency aeronautical
use frequency frequency stations

5725 91 1 0 0 0
If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground PAN PAN, "Transmittin "Read you "How do you
station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit PAN PAN, g blind" one, read read?"
messages preceded by the phrase: PAN PAN you one"
5726 91 0 1 0 0
In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind During VFR Twice on the Only once On the
transmission, this should be made: flights only designated on the emergency
frequency designated frequency
frequency only
5727 91 0 1 0 0
How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the Negative No SSR Transponder Negative
aircraft is not equipped with transponder: transponder not available squawk
5728 91 1 0 0 0
Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by SIGMET Runway Aviation SPECI and
VOLMET: reports routine TAF
weather
reports
(METAR) of
specific
airports
5729 91 0 0 1 0
Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville Stephenville Stephenville Stephenville
Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the TOWER XY- TOWER XY- TOWER XY- TOWER XY-
correct phrasing for this transmission: ABC signal ABC ABC radio ABC
check frequency check 118.7 preflight
check check
5730 91 0 0 1 0
How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is Ready for Ready to Ready to go Ready for
prepared for take-off: take-off line-up departure or
ready
5731 91 0 0 0 1
Which of these phrases is used to inform the control Going Overshootin Will make Pulling up
tower that a pilot perform a missed approach: around g another
approach
5732 91 1 0 0 0
What does the instruction "Go around" mean ? Make a 360° Proceed with Carry out a Overtake the
turn your missed aircraft
message approach ahead
5733 91 0 0 1 0
 What does the instruction "Orbit right" mean ? Right-hand Leave the Make 360° Turn right to
circuits are runway to turns to the avoid other
in use the right right traffic
5734 91 0 0 1 0
What does the instruction "Vacate left" mean ? Clear the Hold Turn left to Give way to
runway position on leave the aircraft from
immediately the left side runway the left
of the
runway
5735 91 0 0 1 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the CONTROL AERODRO APRON TOWER
aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control ME
service:
5736 91 0 0 0 1
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical FLIGHT CONTROL INFORMATI FLIGHT
station providing flight information service: CENTRE ON INFORMATI
ON
5737 91
CENTRE
0 0 1 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical CONTROL GROUND APPROACH TOWER
station providing surface movement control of aircraft
on the manoeuvring area:
5738 91 0 1 0 0
When may the name of the location or the call sign Never Only after In dense When
suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be the traffic during satisfactory
omitted ? aeronautical rush hours communicati
station has on has been
used the established
abbreviated and
call sign provided it
will not be
confusing to
do so

5739 91 0 0 0 1
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee Cherokee Cherokee X- Cherokee X-
5740 91 Cherokee XY-ABC is correct: BC XY-BC BC ABC 1 0 0 0
When is an aircraft station allowed to use its Only after Provided no In dense After it has
abbreviated call sign ? satisfactory confusion is traffic been
communicati likely to addressed in
on has been result this manner
established by the
aeronautical
ground
station

5741 91 0 0 0 1
How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER TOWER XY- Stephenville Stephenville Stephenville
on initial call ? ABC TOWER XY- TOWER X- XY-ABC
ABC BC
5742 91 0 1 0 0
Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact 118.7 X-BC Will change Changing Stephenville
Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the to TOWER over X-BC TOWER X-
correct response to indicate that it will follow this X-BC BC
instruction ?
5743 91 1 0 0 0
When the term "Broken" is used in an aviation routine 1 to 4 octas 8 octas No clouds 5 to 7 octas
weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering below 10000 below 5000
the sky is: feet feet
5744 91 0 0 0 1
 Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: "X- Right turn Straight Straight Wilco,
BC climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before turning after 2500, ahead, 2500 ahead, at cleared for
right, wind 270 degrees 6 knots, cleared for take- roger, X-BC feet right 2500 feet take-off, X-
off".What is the correct read back: turn, wind right turn, BC
west 6 cleared for
knots, take-off, X-
cleared for BC
take-off, X-
BC

5745 91 0 0 1 0
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC recycle 1015". X-BC is X-BC has X-BC has X-BC is
What does this mean: requested to been been requested to
set new identified by identified at reselect
code 1015 SSR code 10:15 (UTC) SSR code
1015 1015
5746 91 0 0 0 1
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:_x000D_ X-BC is X-BC is X-BC is X-BC is
"X-BC squawk standby ". What does this mean? requested to requested to requested to requested to
standby as switch to standby on standby for
the radar standby the radar
controller is position frequency vectors
busy

5747 91 0 1 0 0
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:_x000D_ Radar X-BC should X-BC shall X-BC shall
"X-BC squawk ident". What does this mean: identification perform an reselect his operate the
has been identification assigned IDENT
achieved by turn of at mode and button
correlating least 020 code
an observed degrees
radar blip
with aircraft
XY-ABC

5748 91 0 0 0 1
RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC identified". What X-BC should Radar X-BC is not X-BC should
does this mean: operate the identification visible on perform an
IDENT- has been the radar identification
button achieved screen turn

5749 91 0 1 0 0
What does the phrase "Squawk 1234" mean: Select code Give a short Make a test Standby on
1234 on the count for DF transmission frequency
SSR (direction on 123.4 123.4 MHz
transponder finder) MHz

5750 91 1 0 0 0
Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS Changing to Will contact Checking Monitoring
frequency 123.25, on which information are being 123.25 X-BC 123.25 X-BC 123.25 X-BC 123.25 X-BC
broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that
it will follow this instruction ?
5751 91 0 0 0 1
How should a pilot terminate the read-back of an ATC With his own With the With the With the
clearance ? aircraft call word "wilco" ATC ground word "roger"
sign station call
sign

5752 91 1 0 0 0
What is the correct way to transmit and read back One two One two One twenty One two
frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF channel separated by 25 zero three zero decimal decimal zero decimal
KHz): seven three seven three seven three seven
five

5753 91 0 1 0 0
 An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in- Roger Will stop Wilco Holding
use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will before short
follow this instruction ?
5754 91 0 0 0 1
Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back: Yes, unless No, if the No, if the No, if the
authorized ATC route communicati content of
otherwise by clearance is on channel the ATC
ATS transmitted is clearance is
authority in a overloaded clear and no
concerned published confusion is
form (e.g. likely to arise
Standard
Instrument
Departure
Route/SID)

5755 91 1 0 0 0
Which elements of instructions or information shall Time check, Runway-in- Runway-in- Surface
always be read back ? runway-in- use, use, wind,
use, altimeter visibility, visibility,
altimeter settings, surface ground
settings, SSR codes, wind, temperature,
level level heading runway-in-
instructions, instructions, instructions, use,
SSR codes heading and altimeter altimeter
speed settings settings,
instructions heading and
speed
instructions

5756 91 0 1 0 0
On the readability scale what does "Readability 5" Readable Perfectly Unreadable Problem to
mean: but with readable understand
difficulty
5757 91 0 1 0 0
On the readability scale what does "Readability 3" Loud and Unreadable Readable No problem
mean: clear but with to
difficulty understand
5758 91 0 0 1 0
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Yes": Yes Roger Affirmative Affirm
5759 91 0 0 0 1
An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet.TOWER Heading 045 Heading Heading 45 045 and
requests heading and level. What is the correct at 2500 feet north-east at at 2500 feet 2500
response: level 25
5760 91 1 0 0 0
The message addressed to an Area Control Center A flight A An urgency A message
"request radar vectors to circumnavigate adverse safety meteorologic message. relating to
weather" is: message. al message. direction
finding.
5761 91 1 0 0 0
A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by Urgency Class B Distress Flight safety
grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate message. message. message. message.
assistance is called:
5762 91 0 0 1 0
Which of the messages listed below shall not be Radio Meteorologic Flight safety Urgency
handled by the aeronautical mobile service? teletype al messages. messages.
messages. messages.
5763 91 1 0 0 0
The message to an aeronautical ground station "please An urgency An A flight A flight
call a taxi-cab for us. We will arrive at 1045" is: message. unauthorize regularity safety
d message. message. messages.
5764 91 0 1 0 0
 The priority of the instruction "taxi to runway 05" is: Less than Same as Greater than Greater than
"cleared to "line-up "transmit for "caution,
land". runway 07 QDM". construction
and wait". work left of
taxiway".

5765 91 0 1 0 0
What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a Hotel Bravo Hotel Bravo Hotel Bravo Hotel Bravo
radio message? India Yankee India Victor Juliett Juliett India
Charlie Charlie Yankee Kilo
Charlie
5766 91 0 0 1 0
What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 three three five three five three five
when indicating an altitude or an height ? thousand zero zero hundred double zero
five hundred
5767 91 1 0 0 0
What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH one QNH one QNH one QNH one
QNH ? double "O" thousand double zero zero zero
one and one one one
5768 91 0 0 0 1
When transmitting time, which time system shall be Local time Local time No specific Co-
used? (LT), 24- (LT) A.M. system, as ordinated
hour clock and P.M. only the universal
minutes are time (UTC)
normally
required
5769 91 0 0 0 1
The time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of Two zero. Twenty. Two zero Nine twenty
transmitting this time if there is no possibility of this hour. A.M.
confusion about the hour ?
5770 91 1 0 0 0
The order of priority of the following messages in the Flight Flight safety Flight safety Meteorologic
aeronautical mobile service is: regularity message, message, al message,
message, direction meteorologic direction
distress finding al message, finding
message, message, flight message,
meteorologic urgency regularity flight safety
al message. message. message. message.

5771 91 0 0 1 0
The order of priority of the following messages in the Distress Meteorologic Distress Direction
aeronautical mobile service is: message, al message, message, finding
flight safety direction urgency message,
message, finding message, distress
urgency message, direction message,
message. flight finding urgency
regularity message. message.
message.

5772 91 0 0 1 0
Flight safety messages are: Messages Air traffic Operation Messages
relating to control messages concerning
direction messages. concerning the safety of
finding. non-routine an aircraft, a
landings. vessel, any
other vehicle
or a person.

5773 91 0 1 0 0
Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, Flight safety Class B Flight Service
etc.) belong to the category of: messages. messages. regularity messages.
messages.
5774 91 1 0 0 0
 To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - Low Medium Very high Very low
136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong frequency frequency frequency frequency
?
5775 91 0 0 1 0
What does the phrase "Go ahead" mean: Pass me the Yes Proceed with Taxi on
following your
information.. message
.

5776 91 0 0 1 0
Which is the frequency separation between consecutive 75 KHz 250 KHz 25 KHz 50 KHz
5777 91 frequencies in the VHF band: 0 0 1 0
Which phenomena will normally influence the reception Level of The Electrical Day- and
of VHF transmission ? aircraft and ionosphere discharges night effect
terrain as they
elevations happen
frequently in
thunderstor
ms

5778 91 1 0 0 0
Under which of the following circumstances may you Aircraft at Aircraft at Aircraft at Aircraft at
expect a solid reception of theTOWER frequency 118.2 low level, far low level, in high level in low level but
MHz: away from the vicinity the vicinity far away
the ground of the of the from the
station, in ground ground ground
the radio station, in station station
shadow the radio
zone of a hill shadow
zone of a hill

5779 91 0 0 1 0
Which is the maximum distance at which you might About 8 NM About 15 About 150 About 85
expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level NM NM NM
50:
5780 91 0 0 0 1
Which is the maximum distance at which you might About 12 About 120 About 300 About 30
expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level NM NM NM NM
100:
5781 91 0 1 0 0
What does the term "blind transmission" mean? A A A A
transmission transmission transmission transmission
of messages where no from one of
relating to reply is station to information
en-route required another relating to
weather from the station in air
information receiving circumstanc navigation
which may station. es where that is not
affect the two-way addressed
safety of communicati to a specific
aircraft on cannot station or
operations be stations.
that is not established
addressed but it is
to a specific believed that
station or the called
stations. station is
able to
receive the
transmission
.

5782 91 0 0 1 0
 The priority of the pilot's message "request QDM" is: Less than Same as Greater than Less than
"descend to "latest QNH "turn left "request
flight level..." 1018". heading..." climb to
flight level..."

5783 91 0 0 1 0
Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to Wilco. Standby. Go ahead. Roger.
say :_x000D_
"Wait and i will call you"?
5784 91 0 1 0 0
During the transmission of numbers containing a The term The term The term The term
decimal point : DECIMAL DECIMAL DECIMAL DECIMAL
can be must be must always can be
omitted if no spoken only be omitted with
chance of if followed transmitted. friendly ATS
misundersta by three units only.
nding exists. digits.

5785 91 0 0 1 0
What is meant by good microphone technique ? Speak very Keep the Make large Use a
loudly into microphone use of normal
the far away hesitation conversation
microphone. since it sounds as tone, speak
improveds "er". clearly and
the distinctly.
readability.
5786 91 0 0 0 1
My message will be more effective and understandable Stress every Maintain the Use the Stress the
if I : beginning of speaking words twice end of
message volume at a method message
constant
level
5787 91 0 1 0 0
The clearance : "cleared for immediate take-off runway An urgency An A flight A flight
03" is: message. unauthorize regularity safety
d message. message. message.
5788 91 0 0 0 1
Which abbreviation is used for "Co-ordinated universal COUT. UTC. CUT. GMT.
5789 91 time"? 0 1 0 0
Which abbreviation is used for the term "control zone"? CTZ. CTA. CTR. CZ.
5790 91 0 0 1 0
What does the abbreviation "AFIS" mean? Aerodrome Aerodrome Automatic Aeronautical
flashing flight flight flight
identification information information information
signal. service. service. system.
5791 91 0 1 0 0
What does the abbreviation "FIR" mean? Flow Flight Flight Flight
information information information information
received. radar. region. required.
5792 91 0 0 1 0
A message concerning aircraft parts and material An urgency A flight A flight A flight
urgently required is: message. safety security regularity
message. message. message.
5793 91 0 0 0 1
What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean? Sunset to No specific Continuous Sunrise to
sunrise. working day and sunset.
hours. night
service.
5794 91 0 0 0 1
What does the abbreviation "HX" mean? No specific Sunrise to Sunset to Continuous
working sunset. sunrise. day and
hours. night
service.
5795 91 1 0 0 0
 Which phraseology is to be used to ask the control "Backtrack "Request "Clearance "To enter
tower for permission to taxi on a runway in the direction clearance". backtrack on to back
opposite to that in use ? runway". backtrack". runway".
5796 91 0 1 0 0
What are the propagation characteristics of VHF: Practically The waves The waves Similar to
straight-line are reflected travel along short waves
similar to at the the surface with
light waves ionosphere of the earth practically
at the height and no
of about 100 penetrate atmospheric
km and into valleys disturbance
reach the in a way that
earth topographic
surface in al obstacles
the form of have no
sky-waves influence

5797 91 1 0 0 0
What does QDM mean? True bearing Magnetic Magnetic True
from the heading to bearing from heading to
station the station the station the station
(no wind) (no wind)
5798 91 0 1 0 0
What is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing from the QDR QTE QDM QFE
5799 91 station"? 1 0 0 0
What does QDR mean? True Magnetic Magnetic True bearing
heading to bearing from heading to from the
the station the station the station station
(no wind)
5800 91 0 1 0 0
What is the Q-code for "true bearing from the station"? QFE QTE QDR QDM
5801 91 0 1 0 0
What is the Q-code for "magnetic heading to the station QTE. QDM. QDR. QNE.
5802 91 (no wind)? 0 1 0 0
5803 91 Which Q-code is used to report altitude ? QFF QNJ QNH QFE 0 0 1 0
If you are requested to report your height, to which Q- QBI QFE QNH QDM
5804 91 code-setting would you refer ? 0 1 0 0
What does QTE mean? Magnetic True Magnetic True bearing
bearing from heading to heading to from the
the station. the station the station. station.
(no wind).
5805 91 0 0 0 1
Must a "general call" be acknowledged"? Yes, from all No. Yes, but only Yes, from all
stations in a from the stations in
random station first the
sequence. called. sequence
they have
been
adressed.
5806 92 0 1 0 0
Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an 1, 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 3, 4, 5 all
aircraft in flight must be read back?_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - "descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet"_x000D_
2 - "wind 240°, 15 knots, gusts 30 knots"_x000D_
3 - "turn right heading 210"_x000D_
4 - "reduce speed to 160 knots"_x000D_
5 - "squawk 1723"_x000D_
6 - "braking action poor"

5807 92 0 0 1 0
 What does the word "check" mean ? Confirm your Read back I understand Examine a
last my last your system or
transmission instruction. message. procedure.
.
5808 92 0 0 0 1
Before transmitting the pilot should...: Make sure Listen out on Make sure Always write
that the the that the the message
emergency frequency to aircraft is and read it
frequency is ensure no levelled off. during the
tuned in at interference transmission
the same with another .
time. station
already
transmitting
will occur.

5809 92 0 1 0 0
What does the word "acknowledge" mean ? Repeat all of Let me know Pass me the Repeat all of
your last that you following this
transmission have information. message
. received and back to me
understood exactly as
this received.
message.

5810 92 0 1 0 0
What is meant by the phrase " readibility 4"? Perfectly Readable Readable. Readable
readable. but with now and
difficulty. then.
5811 92 0 0 1 0
Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical Distress Urgency Overload of Technical
station in case of : traffic. communicati the difficulties.
on. frequency.
5812 92 1 0 0 0
What does the word "approved" mean ? Permission That is Authorized I repeat for
for proposed correct. to proceed clarity or
action under the emphasis.
granted. conditions
specified.
5813 92 1 0 0 0
Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a Break. Stop. I say again. Over.
5814 92 separation between portions of a message ? 1 0 0 0
On the readability scale what does "readability 1" Readable Unreadable. Readable. Perfectly
mean ? but with readable.
difficulty.
5815 92 0 1 0 0
What does the word "cancel" mean ? Annul the A change Wait and I Consider
previously has been will call you. that
transmitted made to transmission
clearance. your last as not sent.
clearance.
5816 92 1 0 0 0
What is meant by the phrase "readability 2"? Readable Readable Readable. Unreadable.
but with now and
difficulty. then.
5817 92 0 1 0 0
Which of the following calls is a "general call" ? YX-EFG, ALL YX-ABC, YX-DEF
YX-FGH STATIONS YX-BCD, Stephenville
over. Stephenville YX-CDE CONTROL.
CONTROL. Stephenville
CONTROL.

5818 92 0 1 0 0
 What does the phrase "Verify" mean: Check and Repeat your Read back Consider
confirm with last VDF bearing that
originator transmission transmission
as not sent

5819 92 1 0 0 0
During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of Heading Heading Heading A read back
XY-ABC to turn on to heading 360°. The correct read three six north, X-BC. three is not
back of this instruction is : zero, X-BC. hundred necessary
sixty, X-BC. as XY-ABC
has been
identified
5820 92 1 0 0 0
Which word or phrase shall be used when giving Approved. I say again : Cleared. Go ahead.
authorization to proceed under specified conditions ? proceed.
5821 92 0 0 1 0
What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck Readability The None. Other
on transmit (switched "on") ? will improve frequency stations will
for all can not be have to use
stations. used by the "words
others. twice"
technique.
5822 92 0 1 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical ARRIVAL RADAR CONTROL APPROACH
station providing approach control (no radar service) ?
5823 92 0 0 0 1
To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active Runway Runway Clear of Runway
5824 92 runway a pilot shall report to the controller : cleared. free. runway. vacated. 0 0 0 1
A message concerning a protected medical transport PAN PAN MEDICAL PROTECTE PAN PAN
operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical MEDICAL TRANSPOR D TRANSPOR
transportation shall be preceded by the signal: T TRANSPOR T
T
5825 92 1 0 0 0
What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' The aircraft The The The aircraft
mean ? has an phrase/signa message has a sick
urgent need l is which passenger
of medical inadmissible follows on board
care upon in concerns a and
landing at radiotelepho protected requests
destination ny medical priority to
airport transport land
operated by
aircraft
assigned
exclusively
to medical
transportatio
n

5826 92 0 0 1 0
In case the transponder fails before the departure for an Inform ATC Obtain prior Inform FIS Insert under
IFR flight, the pilot shall: after permission for relay to item 18 of
departure by ATC to AIS the flight
conduct the plan
flight "transponder
unserviceabl
e"

5827 92 0 1 0 0
 When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for RVR runway The values RVR at the RVR runway
runway 16 ATC will use the following phrase: 16 of the beginning of 16 ... metres
touchdown .. transmissom runway 16 is diagonal ...
. metres, eter are: ... ... metres metres
mid-point ... metres diagonal ...
metres, stop and ... metres
end ... metres
metres
5828 92 1 0 0 0
What does "Friction coefficient 45" in a runway report Braking Braking Braking Braking
mean: action poor action not action good action
measurable medium
5829 92 0 0 1 0
What does "Friction coefficient 20" in a runway report Braking Braking Braking Braking
mean: action action poor action action good
unreliable medium
5830 92 0 1 0 0
What does the phrase "break break" mean ? My It indicates It indicates The
transmission the the exchange of
is ended and separation separation transmission
I expect a between between s is ended
response messages portions of a and no
from you. transmitted message response is
to different transmitted expected.
aircraft in a to an aircraft
very busy station.
environment
.

5831 92 0 1 0 0
What does the word "report" mean ? Examine a Pass me the Repeat all of Say again.
system or following this
procedure. information. message
back to me
exactly as
received.
5832 92 0 1 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the RADAR- RADAR- RADAR. CONTROL.
aeronautical station providing radar service (in CONTROL. SERVICE.
general) ?
5833 92 0 0 1 0
How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to Cancelling Stopping Abandoning Aborting
5834 92 abandon the take-off manoeuvre: take-off take-off take-off 0 1 0 0
When shall the phrase "Take-off" be used by a pilot : Never, it is To inform Only when To
used only by TOWER the aircraft acknowledg
the control when ready has already e take-off
tower for departure moved onto clearance
the active only
runway
5835 92 0 0 0 1
What does the word "wilco" mean ? I understand I have I read you As
your received all five. communicati
message of your last on is difficult,
and will transmission I will call you
comply with . later.
it.

5836 92 1 0 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the CLEARANC CLEARANC RADIO. DELIVERY.
aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery ? E. E
DELIVERY.
5837 92 0 0 0 1
 When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL To assist To leave the Not to To continue
STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, stop transmitting Stephenville frequency in interfere with normal
MAYDAY" it is requested : RADAR in use. the distress communicati
handling the communicati on on the
distress on. frequency in
traffic. use.
5838 92 0 0 1 0
Which of these phrases is used if you want to My last Disregard Cancel my Forget it
communicate that a message: "Consider that transmission last
transmission as not sent": is cancelled message
5839 92 0 1 0 0
When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL Discontinue To resume To impose Acknowledg
STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, distress traffic ended" communicati normal silence to e receipt of
it is requested : on with communicati other this
Stephenville on with stations in its message.
RADAR. Stephenville vicinity.
RADAR.
5840 92 0 1 0 0
What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair Fastair 345 Fastair 45 2345 No
2345 ? abbreviated
form
5841 92 0 0 0 1
When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to "Message "Please "All "General
more than one station, the call starts with : to all aircraft listen" stations" broadcast"
on this
frequency"

5842 92 0 0 1 0
Under what runway conditions is the braking action Runway Runway Runway Runway
reported to be "Unreliable": covered with covered with covered with conditions
wet snow ice dry snow normal
and slush

5843 92 1 0 0 0
What does the word "disregard" mean ? Consider An error has Annul the Wait and I
that been made previously will call you.
transmission in this transmitted
as not sent. transmission clearance.
.
5844 92 1 0 0 0
Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say : Speak Words twice. Repeat. Say again.
5845 92 "Reduce your rate of speech" ? slower. 1 0 0 0
Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you Verify. Confirm. Correct. Acknowledg
have correctly received a message, clearance, e.
instruction, etc ?
5846 92 0 1 0 0
What does the word "recleared" mean ? An error has Consider A change Permission
been made that has been for proposed
in my last transmission made to action
transmission as not sent. your last granted.
. clearance.

5847 92 0 0 1 0
What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that We have the Information Weather We have the
ATIS Information Golf has been received: ATIS Golf Golf Golf Information
received
5848 92 0 1 0 0
Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a Cleared. Approved. Break break. Recleared.
change has been made to your last clearance and this
new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or
part thereof ?
5849 92 0 0 0 1
What does the word "negative" mean ? Consider Annul the I say again. That is not
that previously correct.
transmission transmitted
as not sent. clearance.

5850 92 0 0 0 1
 What does the word "negative" mean ? Proposed Disregard Consider Permission
action last that not granted.
granted. instruction. transmission
as not sent.

5851 92 0 0 0 1
What phrase shall be used when asking for the How do you Read back . Report Read you
readability of a transmission ? read ? readability . loud and
clear .
5852 92 1 0 0 0
Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has Correction. Correct. Negative. Disregard.
5853 92 been made in a transmission or message ? 1 0 0 0
QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate: The The The The
atmospheric altimeter atmospheric atmospheric
pressure sub-scale pressure at pressure
corrected to setting to aerodrome referred to
the aircraft obtain the elevation (or the highest
cockpit flight level at runway fixed
height. reference threshold). obstacle
datum. located on
the surface
of an
aerodrome.

5854 92 0 0 1 0
QNH is the Q-code to indicate: The The The The
atmospheric atmospheric atmospheric altimeter
pressure at pressure pressure sub-scale
aerodrome measured at referred to setting to
elevation (or the the highest obtain
at runway aerodrome obstacle elevation
threshold). reference located on when on the
point (ARP). the surface ground.
of an
aerodrome.

5855 92 0 0 0 1
What does the word "correct" mean ? An error has Permission Negative, That is
been made for proposed the correct correct.
in this action not version
transmission granted. is ... .
. The correct
version
is ... .

5856 92 0 0 0 1
Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat I say again . Confirm . Read back . Verify .
5857 92 for clarity or emphasis ? 1 0 0 0
What does the word "contact" mean ? That is Establish Radar Listen out on
correct . radio contact contact (frequency) .
with ... . established .
5858 92 0 1 0 0
The expression " transmitting blind due to receiver An aircraft An aircraft A radar A ground
failure" implies that no answer is expected. It shall be station being station doing controller station
used by: aware of blind performing a broadcasting
receiver transmission PAR or SRE information
failure s at a "non- final to all
towered" approach. listening
airfield stations.

5859 92 1 0 0 0
What does the abbreviation "ATIS" mean? Automatic Air traffic Automatic Airport
terminal information terminal terminal
information service. information information
system. service. service.
5860 92 0 0 1 0
 What does the abbreviation "RVR" mean: Runway Recleared Runway Radar
visibility via route... visual range vectors
report requested
5861 92 0 0 1 0
What does the abbrevation "RNAV" mean: Route Radio Area Radar aided
navigation navigation navigation navigation
5862 92 0 0 1 0
What does the abbreviation "SSR" mean: Surface Standard Secondary Search and
strength of snow report surveillance surveillance
runway radar radar
5863 92 0 0 1 0
What does "SELCAL" mean: A system A system in A system in A system
which which which provided for
permits the radiotelepho radiotelepho direct
selective ny ny exchange of
calling of communicati communicati information
individual on can be on between between air
aircraft over established two stations traffic
radiotelepho between can take services
ne channels aircraft only place in both (ATS) units
linking a directions
ground simultaneou
station with sly
the aircraft

5864 92 1 0 0 0
What does the abbrevation "MLS" mean: Minimum Microwave Minimum Mean sea
sector level landing safe level level
system
5865 92 0 1 0 0
What does the abbrevation "INS" mean: International International Inertial Instrument
NOTAM navigation navigation navigation
system service system system
5866 92 0 0 1 0
What does the term "way point" mean: A specified A defined A signal A general
geographical position on indicating term
position an the direction meaning the
used to aerodrome of the taxiway-
define an used for the runway-in- and the
area calibration of use runway-
navigation the inertial system of an
route or the navigation international
flight path of system airport
an aircraft
employing
area
navigation

5867 92 1 0 0 0
An "Automatic Terminal Information Service" provides: Routine Information Current Weather
information concerning meteorologic reports
to arriving en-route al and relating a
and weather operational specific
departing phenomena information number of
aircraft by which may essential for aerodromes
means of effect the the safety of located
continuous safety of the air within a flight
and aircraft navigation information
repetitive operation. within a FIR. region (FIR).
broadcast .

5868 92 1 0 0 0
 What does the term "clearance limit" mean: The time The point to The time of The time at
after which which an expiry of an which an
an air traffic aircraft is air traffic aircraft is
control granted an control given an air
clearance air traffic clearance traffic control
will be control clearance
automaticall clearance
y cancelled
if the flight
has not
been
commenced

5869 92 0 1 0 0
When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the An An approach An approach A visual
following best describes the term "Visual approach" ? extension of by an IFR executed by manoeuvre
an flight when an IFR flight executed by
instrument either part or unable to an IFR flight
approach all of an maintain when the
procedure to instrument VMC weather
bring an approach conditions at
aircraft into procedure is the
position for not aerodrome
landing on a completed of
runway and the destination
which is not approach is are equal to
suitably executed in or better
located for visual than
straight-in- reference to required
approach terrain VMC minima

5870 92 0 1 0 0
What does the term "Expected Approach Time" mean: The holding The time at The time at The time at
time over which ATC which an which an
the radio expects that arriving arriving
facility from an arriving aircraft, aircraft
which the aircraft, upon expects to
instrument following a reaching the arrive over
approach delay, will radio aid the
procedure leave the serving the appropriate
for a landing holding point destination designated
will be to complete aerodrome, navigation
initiated its approach will aid serving
for a landing commence the
the destination
instrument aerodrome
approach
procedure
for a landing

5871 92 0 1 0 0
The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of Four fifteen One six one Four fifteen Sixteen
transmitting this time if there is any possibility of in the five P.M. fifteen
confusion about the hour ? afternoon
5872 92 0 1 0 0
 When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence Never In all calls In all calls to In the initial
category include the word "Heavy" immediately after its the call to the
call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy: aerodrome aerodrome
tower and control tower
the and the
approach approach
control unit control unit

5873 92 0 0 0 1
What is the correct way of transmitting the number one one one one one one one
118.1 to indicate a frequency ? eight eighteen eight one eight point
decimal one one one
5874 92 1 0 0 0
Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville Stephenville 118.0 Fastair Changing Changing to
ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way ARRIVAL 345 over Fastair ARRIVAL
to indicate it will follow this instruction: Fastair 345 345 Fastair 345
5875 92 0 1 0 0
What does the abbreviation "SAR" mean? Surveillance Standard Secondary Search and
airport radar. arrival route. altimeter rescue.
responder.
5876 92 0 0 0 1
Which of the following messages shall a station in Stop Stop Stop All stations
control of distress use to impose silence ? transmitting, transmitting, transmitting, in this
MAYDAY DISTRESS EMERGENC frequency,
Y MAYDAY
traffic
5877 92 1 0 0 0
The distress communication and silence conditions Distress Emergency MAYDAY Disregard
shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which traffic ended communicati traffic ended distress
words shall this message include ? on finished communicati
on, OUT
5878 92 1 0 0 0
What does the abbreviation "AIS" mean? Aerodrome Airport Aerodrome Aeronautical
identification information information information
signal-area. system. service. service.
5879 92 0 0 0 1
What does the abbreviation "H24" mean? Sunrise to Sunset to No specific Continuous
sunset. sunrise. working day and
hours. night
service.
5880 92 0 0 0 1
What does the abbreviation "IMC" mean? In most International In Instrument
cases. meteorologic meteorologic meteorologic
al channel. al al
conditions. conditions.

5881 92 0 0 0 1
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say : Say again, Repeat twice Message Words twice
''Communication is difficult. Please send every word or say again second time
group of words twice'' ?
5882 92 0 0 0 1
When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit ... MAYDAY, ... MAYDAY ... distress ... cancel
a message cancelling the distress condition. Which resuming cancelled condition distress
words shall this message include ? normal terminated
operations

5883 92 0 0 0 1
 What does the term "air-ground communication" mean? Two-way One-way One-way Any
communicati communicati communicati communicati
on between on from on from on from
aircraft and aircraft to stations or aircraft to
stations or stations or locations on ground
locations on locations on the surface station
the surface the surface of the earth requiring
of the earth of the earth handling by
the
Aeronautical
Fixed
Telecommun
ication
Network
(AFTN)

5884 92 1 0 0 0
What does the term "broadcast" mean? A A A A
transmission transmission radiotelepho transmission
containing of ny where no
meteorologic information transmission reply is
al and relating to from ground required
operational air station to from the
information navigation aircraft in receiving
to aircraft that is not flight. station.
engaged in addressed
flights over to a specific
remote and station or
oceanic stations.
areas out of
range of
VHF ground
stations.

5885 92 0 1 0 0
The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting Aircraft call Name of the Aircraft Aircraft call
an urgency condition shall contain at least the following sign, station identification sign, nature
elements/details : destination addressed, , aerodrome of the
airport, ETA present of departure, urgency
at position, level and condition,
destination, assistance heading pilot's
route of required intention,
flight present
position,
level and
heading

5886 92 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statements is correct ? ATC The urgency The urgency There is no
clearances communicati communicati difference
have the ons have ons have regarding
same priority priority over priority over priority
as urgency all the other all the other between
communicati communicati communicati distress
ons ons, except ons communicati
distress ons and
urgency
communicati
ons

5887 92 0 1 0 0
 What is the correct way of transmitting the number thirteen one three one three one three
13.500 to indicate an altitude or cloud height ? thousand thousand five hundred five zero
five hundred five hundred zero
5888 92 0 1 0 0
A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken The aircraft The aircraft The aircraft Imminent
word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY means: has a very has a is forced to danger
urgent message to perform a threatens
message to transmit fuel dumping the aircraft
transmit concerning procedure and
concerning adverse immediate
the safety of weather assistance is
a ship, conditions required
aircraft or along its
vehicle route of
flight

5889 92 0 0 0 1
In case of a SSR transponder failure occuring after Land at the Squawk Continue the Inform the
departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall: nearest 7600 flight in VMC competent
suitable ATC unit
aerodrome immediately
for repair
5890 92 0 0 0 1
A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication Squawk Squawk Squawk Squawk
failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to: 7600 and 7600 and 7600 and 7600,
thereafter, thereafter maintain the maintain
regardless return to the heading last present
of any route assigned by heading for
limitation indicated in ATC for a 1 minute
instructed by the current period of 3 and
ATC, return flight plan in minutes and thereafter
to the route the most then return return to the
indicated in direct to the flight route
the current manner path in indicated in
flight plan on accordance the current
the shortest with the flight plan on
way current flight the shortest
plan way

5891 92 0 1 0 0
Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing Maintain the Climb Land at the Maintain the
radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to level last immediately departure altitude last
squawk 7600 and: assigned by to the aerodrome assigned by
the ATC for cruising in any case ATC for a
a period of 3 level period of 5
minutes and indicated in minutes and
then climb in the flight then
accordance plan continue in
with the accordance
flight plan with the
flight plan

5892 92 1 0 0 0
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on 30 minutes 30 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes
an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within: after noticing after waiting after after ETA or
the radio for the EAT vacating the the last EAT,
failure transition whichever is
layer later

5893 92 0 0 0 1
 An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on Immediately After 3 At, or as 5 minutes
an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the after minutes, if close to, the after the last
designated navigation aid serving the destination reaching in an expected ETA expected
aerodrome (no EAT received): any case approach resulting approach
time is not from the time
acknowledg current flight acknowledg
ed plan ed

5894 92 0 0 1 0
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on Until the Under no 5 minutes in 3 minutes, if
an IFR flight in IMC has to hold over the designated expected circumstanc any case an expected
navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome: approach es approach
time last time is not
received and acknowledg
acknowledg ed
ed

5895 92 1 0 0 0
An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on Proceed to Divert to the Execute a Proceed in
an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to: an area from most VMC accordance
where the suitable approach at with the
flight can be aerodrome the nearest current flight
continued according to suitable plan to the
according to the route of aerodrome designated
the visual flight navigation
flight rules aid serving
the
destination
aerodrome

5896 92 0 0 0 1
An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio Land at the Return to Land at the Land at the
communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to : nearest the alternate destination
suitable aerodrome aerodrome aerodrome
aerodrome of departure

5897 92 1 0 0 0
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on Leave Squawk Continue the Continue to
an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to: controlled IDENT and flight to fly in VMC,
airspace and proceed to destination land at the
continue the the alternate aerodrome nearest
flight within aerodrome in any case suitable
uncontrolled aerodrome,
airspace report its
arrival

5898 92 0 0 0 1
Blind transmission shall be made: On regional During IFR On the To all
guard flights only designated available
frequencies frequency aeronautical
only (frequency stations
in use)
5899 92 0 0 1 0
Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted ? Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft
identification identification identification identification
, position, , position, , position, , position,
next position time time, level level

5900 92 0 1 0 0
 ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL Leaving 100 Leaving Descending Down to
80. What is the correct readback by the pilot: to 80, flight level to 80, flight level
Fastair 345 100 Fastair 345 80, Fastair
descending 345
to flight level
80, Fastair
345
5901 92 0 1 0 0
What does the word "Monitor" mean: Wait and I Establish Examine a Listen out on
will call you radio contact system or (frequency).
with... procedure
5902 92 0 0 0 1
What shall the pilot's readback be for_x000D_ Climbing to Climbing to Climbing two Climbing to
"Climb to FL 280": flight level flight level eight zero two eighty
two eight two eighty
zero
5903 92 1 0 0 0
What does the instruction:_x000D_ Fastair 345 Fastair 345 Fastair 345 Fastair 345
"Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER" mean: should listen should should should
on change contact standby on
frequency frequency to TOWER on the current
118.9 on 118.9, on 118.9 frequency
which which
TOWER will aerodrome
initiate data are
further being
communicati broadcast
ons

5904 92 1 0 0 0
Which elements of instructions or information shall ATC QNH, SSR SSR code, QNH,
always be read back ? clearance, code, QNH, take- weather
speed approach off information,
instructions, aid clearance, runway-in-
runway state serviceability speed use
information instructions

5905 92 0 0 1 0
The distress signal and the distress message to be sent The air- The The regional The FIS
by an aircraft in distress be on: ground emergency guard frequency
frequency in frequency in frequency designated
use at the any case for the
time airspace
concerned
5906 92 1 0 0 0
What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial Fastair 345 Fastair 345 Heavy Fastair 345
call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach widebody heavy Fastair 345
control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off
weight of more than 136 tonnes:

5907 92 0 1 0 0
The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as: An airline An A frequency A regional
operation international for air-to-air UHF
frequency emergency communicati frequency
frequency on

5908 92 0 1 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical ...APPROAC ...RADAR ...DIRECTO ...ARRIVAL
station indicating approach control radar arrivals: H R
5909 92 0 0 0 1
 An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground There is a The aircraft The aircraft The aircraft's
station that: sick is in distress is being transceiver
passenger hijacked is
on board unserviceabl
e

5910 92 0 1 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical ...APPROAC ...DEPARTU ...CONTROL ...RADAR
station indicating approach control radar departures: H RE
5911 92 0 1 0 0
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical ...RADAR ...CONTROL ...CENTRE ...APPROAC
station indicating area control centre (no radar): H
5912 92 0 1 0 0
A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken Imminent The aircraft An aircraft The aircraft
words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means: danger is diverting on final has a very
threatens from the approach is urgent
the aircraft route starting the message to
and cleared missed transmit
immediate because of a approach concerning
assistance is thunderstor procedure the safety of
required m and asks a ship,
for aircraft or
immediate other
reclearance vehicle, but
immediate
assistance is
not required

5913 92 0 0 0 1
Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is Going Missed Pulling up Overshootin
5914 92 initiating a missed approach procedure: around approach g 1 0 0 0
Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an Unable to Negative Impossible Disregard
instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out: comply instruction to make it
5915 92 1 0 0 0
On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall: Acknowledg Impose Change the Monitor the
e the radio silence frequency, frequency to
message on the because ensure
immediately frequency in radio silence assistance if
use will be required
imposed on
the
frequency in
use

5916 92 0 0 0 1
If you are requested to "Report flight conditions", what Indicate Indicate Indicate Indicate if
does that mean: whether you whether you weather visibility is
are flying are flying in conditions sufficient for
IFR or VFR IMC or in as wind, landing
VMC visibility,
temperature

5917 92 0 1 0 0
What shall the pilot's readback be for "climb to 2500 Climbing to Climbing to Climbing to Up to two
feet": two point two two thousand
five thousand thousand five hundred
five hundred five hundred
feet

5918 92 0 0 1 0
85%
82%
 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

Domanda rispostaA
The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating Two consecutive periods
in an area distant from designated medical examination each of three month in the
facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence case a flight crew member
authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made of an aircraft engaged in
as an exception and shall not exceed: non-commercial operations.

1 10
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS +/- 20 kt.
authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled
aircraft to adjust their speed when established on
intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment
should not be more than:
2 10
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the 4 NM from the threshold on
3 10 speed where the aircraft has passed: final approach.
Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory need to file a flight plan
airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory
service:
4 10
The color identification of the contents of droppable Red for medical supplies
containers and packages containing survival equipment and first aid equipment.
should take the form of coloured streamers according to the
following code:
5 10
The color identification of the contents of droppable Black for food and water.
containers and packages containing survival equipment
should take the form of coloured streamers according to the
following code:
6 10
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using 20 NM.
DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:

7 10
The color identification of the contents of droppable Red for food and water.
containers and packages containing survival equipment
should take the form of coloured streamers according to the
following code:
8 10
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS 5 NM.
authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar
controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is
approximately:
9 10
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by Shall not extend beyond
another contracting state, the validity of the authorization: one year for ATPL and
PCL.
10 10
The transition level: Is published on the
approach and landing chart
for each aerodrome
11 10
The transition level: is calculated and decided
by the commander

12 10
 Which information is not included in Instrument Appraoch OCA or OCH
Charts (IAC) in the AIP
13 10
According to international agreements wind direction shall be When the local variation
adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic exceeds 10° East or 10°
: West.
14 10
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference As soon as possible
('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or commence emergency
cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS descent in order minimize
shall try to: the difference between
cabin pressure and outside
pressure

15 10
The color identification of the contents of droppable Red for miscellaneous
containers and packages containing survival equipment equipment.
should take the form of coloured streamers according to the
following code:
16 10
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived +/- 250 ft.
level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall
be:
17 10
The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent collisions Except when an aircraft is
with terrain. flying IFR in IMC.
18 10
A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used 60 NM.
at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft
reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way-point.
This minimum is:
19 10
A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, B, C, D and E.
when operating in controlled airspaced classified as:
20 10
One minute separation may be used between departing 45° immediately after take-
aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: off.
21 10
Two minutes separation may be used between departing The preceeding aircraft is
aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when: 20 kt or more faster than
the following aircraft.
22 10
When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, 20 degrees.
the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the
aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not
greater than:
23 10
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar 2 NM from touchdown.
controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach,
except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a
distance of:
24 10
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft 2.0 NM between aircraft on
established on the localizer course shall be: the same localizer course.
25 10
An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to 3 NM.
consider executing a missed approach, if the position or
identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of
the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar
display for significant interval during the last:

26 10
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS 5.0 NM.
authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
27 10
The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific +/- 200 ft.
level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that
appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
28 10
 An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level +/- 500 ft of the assigned
as long as the SSR mode C derived level information level.
indicated that it is within:
29 10
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed +/- 300 ft.
a level when the SSR mode C derived level information
indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction
by:
30 10
The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not 1.5 NM.
31 10 below:
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies 900 metres
dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for
the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the
length of this approach light system?

32 10
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided 2 NM.
between aircraft on the same localizer with additional
longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
33 10
Except in special circumstances determined by the public the passenger is to leave
authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through that state within one (1) day
the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that from the day of his (her)
contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or arrival
any other circumstances, the contracting state where the
international airport is located shall permit such a passenger
to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to
the arrival when

34 10
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? 250 kt only for IFR up to FL
35 10 100
In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, at least 12 hours in
which are not engaged in schedule international services, advance of the expected
and which are making flights across the territory of a ETA
Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such
Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a
flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information
is to be received :

36 10
An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international for a period of 12 hours
air services and which is making a flight to or through any
designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted
temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that
State without security for customs duty.

37 10
Which one of the statements is correct : contracting states shall
accept an oral declaration
of baggage from
passengers and crew

38 10
In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid may require him to obtain
passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states any other identity document
prior to the commencement
of his flight

39 10
When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not shall not impose penalties,
unladen at their intended destination but are unladen at fines and custom duties but
another international airport, the contracting state where the taxes on the operator
unlading takes place; if satisfied that there has been no
gross negligence or careless by the operator

40 10
 A contracting state which continues to require the The air waybill number and
presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the the number of packages
information indicated in the heading of the format of the related to the air way bill
cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s) : number

41 10
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding in the Acts in force of the
and clearance of airmail and shall comply with the Universal Postal Union
documentary procedures as prescribed :
42 10
The informations on holding, approach and departure GEN
43 10 procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft : has to be typewritten or
produced by electronic data
processing techniques
44 10
When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the is not responsible for the
operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the person inadmissible for
operator : entry in the receiving state
45 10
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of annex 6
persons and their baggage in international flights is :
46 10
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of annex 9
cargo and other articles on international flights is :
47 10
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of 2 months following the date
Montreal by written notification to the depositary ICAO is informed
governments. The denounciation shall take effect :

48 10
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to may require the assistance
believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on of passengers to restrain
board the aircraft, an offense against penal law such person
49 10
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared cargo but is free from any
under the procedure applicable to : kind of declaration forms

50 10
Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be AIP supplements and shall
published in accordance with : be clearly identifical

51 10
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another 20 minutes at the time the
aircraft on the same track, the following minimum level is crossed.
longitudinal separation shall be provided:
52 10
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to : approve the ticket prices
set by international airline
companies
53 10
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago binding for all air line
convention are to be considered: companies with
international traffic
54 10
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: the regulation of
transportation of dangerous
goods
55 10
 An integrated aeronautical information package consists of AIP, including amendment
the following elements service; supplements to
AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight
information bulletin (PIB);
AIC; checklists and
summuries

56 10
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger The nationality letters for
area shall be composed by : the location indicators
assigned to the state,
followed by P, R and D

57 10
Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or 2 copies of General
pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities Declarations and Cargo
concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some Manifest and one copie of a
copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores simple stores list.
list. The numbers of the copies are :

58 10
Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of Three months or longer
long duration and information of short duration which
contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as
AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.

59 10
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies 50 metres
dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways.
Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code
4?
60 10
A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be Not more than 2 months
61 10 issued at intervals of :
A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the No more than 15 days
62 10 AFTN at intervals of :
The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of YELLOW
a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to
be of operational significance. This information is provided
using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic
eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely,
with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is
expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code
is
63 10
The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) GEN, ENR (en-route) and
64 10 are : AD (aerodromes)
The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part : ENR
65 10
The informations concerning charges for FAL
aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are on the
following part of the AIP
66 10
In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given At least 6 months after
to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area cancellation of the area to
shall not be re-used for a period of which they refer
67 10
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design The terrain surrounding the
68 10 of an instrument departure procedure? airport.
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are Service provided : Traffic
CORRECT? Information as far as
practical; ATC Clearance :
required ;
69 10
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above No minima, VFR flights are
3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are : not permitted
70 10
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you Select A7600 and continue
experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will : according currenct flight
plan to destination ;
71 10
 The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. 31th of December the same
The validity of the previous profeciency check was the 30th year
of June. The period of the new profeciency check can be and
can't exceed:
72 10
What does the abbreviation OIS mean? Obstacle identification
73 10 surface.
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and 10 NM provided that the
each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: leading aircraft maintains a
true airspeed of 20 kt or
more faster than the
succeding aircraft.

74 10
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be To ignore the wind and
followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected: proceed on an heading
equal to the track.
75 10
In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location AGA
76 10 indicators"?
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle 35 ft.
clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
77 10
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the 15°.
78 10 aligment of the runway centre line within:
In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack 1 minute.
79 10 procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
How many separate segments has an instrument approach 4.
80 10 procedure.
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument At the FAF.
81 10 approach procedure commence?
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the At least 300m (984 ft).
initial approach segment in an instrument approach
procedure?
82 10
What does the abbreviation DER mean? Depature end of runway.
83 10
Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide Code 2000.
recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
84 10
Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide Code 7000.
85 10 recognition of an emergency aircraft?
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the To conduct surveillance
provision of approach control service is: radar approaches.

86 10
The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: To provide radar
separation.
87 10
When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC not advise the aircraft
unit shall: before issuing instructions.

88 10
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the To apply a reduced vertical
provision of approach control service is: separation of 500 feet
between IFR and VFR
flights.
89 10
Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS 3 NM.
authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be
terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
90 10
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches 70 degrees with the plane
the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of of symmetry of the latter
less than :
91 10
Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not To instruct the pilot to
available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the execute one or more
following procedures: changes of 10°.
92 10
93 10 The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is : 17 years
Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? Your aircraft has been
identified and you will
receive separation from all
aircraft while in contact with
this radar facility.

94 10
What is meant when departure control instruct you to Advisories will no longer be
"resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an issued by ATC.
airway?
95 10
Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and the Regional Air Navigation
Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for meeting
adoption ?
96 10
You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction With a PPL plus flight
97 10 for the issue of a PPL instructor rating
The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : 2 years
98 10
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a Based turn.
99 10 holding pattern is called:
When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be To request pilot to set
identified by one of the following procedures: transponder on position
"OFF".
100 10
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator Requested by ATC.
101 10 (IDENT) feature unless:
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the 1 minute.
outbound track is performed from the start of turn for
categories A and B aircraft for:
102 10
The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: 1500 ft.
103 10
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition as hlight level.
104 10 altitude will be reported:
The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition as altitude.
105 10 level will be reported :
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot At all times during flight,
shall operate the transponder: regardless of whether the
aircraft is within or outside
airspace where SSR is
used for ATS purposes.

106 10
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the Shall continuously operate
pilot: this mode only when the
aircraft is within controlled
airspace.

107 10
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there 15°.
is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries
of:
108 10
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the 7700.
pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the
transponder to:
109 10
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the Track.
110 10 holding pattern shall be according to:
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots Read back only the code to
111 10 shall: be set.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between 10 minutes.
aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed, is:
112 10
 The longitudinal separation minima based on time between 10 minutes.
aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed and the
preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or
more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

113 10
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between 5 minutes.
aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed and the
preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or
more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

114 10
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft 10 minutes.
departed from the same aerodrome and following the same
track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true
airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft,
is:
115 10
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft 8 minutes.
departed from the same aerodrome and following the same
track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true
airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft,
is:
116 10
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall 7500.
set the transponder to Mode A Code:
117 10
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? Arrival, initial, intermediate
118 10 and final.
The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire the Rome Convention
to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer
damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is :
119 10
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS Intersect the localizer at 30°
procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix and will not be more 10 NM
to the localizer. The DR track will: in length.
120 10
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the 150m (492 ft).
intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach
procedure?
121 10
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which Final approach segment.
alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
122 10
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment IF.
123 10 begins at the:
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path 300m (984 ft) to 600m
intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from: (1968 ft).
124 10
How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends 5 NM.
125 10 the buffer area?
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are 6m.
based among other standard conditions, on a vertical
distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide
path antenna, not greater than:
126 10
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the 1 minute 30 seconds.
outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for
categories C, D, E aircraft for:
127 10
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a 3.3%.
128 10 nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach At the point where the climb
procedure end? is established.
129 10
 The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after Aerodrome traffic pattern.
completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into
position for landing on runway which is not suitably located
for straight-in approach, is:
130 10
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular Prohibits circling within the
sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual total sector in which the
manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and obstacle exists.
missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the
published procedure:
131 10
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the half scale deflection of the
assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre glidepath indicator and
line more than : horizontal 35 ° off the
centerline.

132 10
A circling approach is: A flight manoeuvre to be
performed only under radar
vectoring.
133 10
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces Half a scale deflection.
assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the
centreline, after being established on track, more than:
134 10
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: outside the daylight-period
in flight, but not on the
ground when it is being
towed;
135 10
Which statement is correct? The lower limit of an UIR
may coincide with an IFR
cruising level
136 10
The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal Essential separation
separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the
standard criteria is called :
137 10
The closure of a runway for a year, because of only in AIP
138 10 maintenance, will be published :
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration : information signs; orange
background with black
inscriptions.
139 10
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its the TAS varies by plus or
current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case : minus 5% of the TAS
notified in the flightplan.
140 10
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of International Civile Aviation
141 10 Tokyo by notification addressed Organisation
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the at least 2000 feet within
minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle 5KM of the estimated
over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR position
flight :
142 10
Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the 7%.
final approach segment to ensure the required minimum
obstacle clearance, is :
143 10
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates landing, take-off and taxiing
that : is allowed on runway
and/or taxiway only;
144 10
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft_x000D_ follow ATC instructions.
The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
instructions_x000D_
You should :
145 10
 The primary area of an instrument approach segment is : the outside part of the
segment where the
obstacle clearance
increases from o ft to the
appropriate minimum

146 10
In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial decreasing from 984 to 492
147 10 approach segment provides at least : ft
A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed : during IFR flights, if there is
permanent sight on the
movement area and the
underlying ground;

148 10
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if : the pilot has the field and
the underlying terrain in
sight and will keep it in
sight;
149 10
When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to the flight can only continue
departure and restorage is impossible, than : in the most direct manner;

150 10
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E / a clearance and/or two-way
radiocommunication is
required.
151 10
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a 900m
152 10 precision-approach runway CAT II :
What is a "barrette"? a frangible structure on
which approach lights are
fixed.

153 10
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway a RVR of 550 meters and a
served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down DH of not less than 200 ft.
to:
154 10
155 10 Turning departures provide track guidance within : 10 Km
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this 150 m from threshold
156 10 marking shall commence at :
In a standard holding pattern turns are made : in a direction depending on
157 10 the wind direction
Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome Suspension of VFR
control service is correct? operations can not be
initiated by the aerodrome
controller;

158 10
On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in- 40 degrees or less
approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the
final approach track and the runway centreline is :
159 10
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service The Alert phase is
is correct? established when no
communication has been
received from an aircraft
within a period of thirty
minutes after the time a
communication should
have been received;

160 10
 Which statement regarding approach control service is During a visual approach
correct ? an aircraft is maintaining its
own separation ;

161 10
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if 3NM
a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the
end of the runway._x000D_
Identification has to be achieved within :
162 10
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist : of group of at least three
white lights flashing in
sequence towards the
runway ;
163 10
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation 30 NM
facility, is in general valid within a sector of :
164 10
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a 5° of the alignment of the
straight departure the initial departure track is within : runway centre-line
165 10
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by 2,5 NM
agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be
vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than :
166 10
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance the operator
167 10 Altitude/Height) for an approavh procedure?
When letters are used for registration mark combinations RCC
shall not be used which might be confused with urgent
signals for example
168 10
To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum 16 and 60 years
169 10 and maximum age (with ATPL) is :
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed by regional air navigation
agreements
170 10
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in C, D, E, F, and G
order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace
classes :
171 10
The assigment of the common mark to a common mark the International Civil
registering authority will be made by : Aviation Organisation

172 10
The common mark shall be selected from the series of to state of the operator
symbols included in the radio call signs allocated :

173 10
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a the state of registry or
combination of letters and numbers and shall be that common mark registering
assigned by : authority
174 10
An information issued by a meteorological watch office An AIRMET information
concerning the occurence or expected occurence of
specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the
safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not
already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in
the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is

175 10
When letters are used for registration mark combinations LLL
shall not be used which might be confused with urgent
signals for example
176 10
 Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording 30 seconds of UTC at all
devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct times
time to within plus or minus
177 10
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations RCC
shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or
distress signals for example
178 10
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air at least between 40
aircraft shall be centimetres and 50
centimetres
179 10
The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent at least 30 centimetres
structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air
aircraft shall be
180 10
The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a over 5.700 kg maximum
continuing structural integrity program to ensure the certificate take-off and
airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific landing mass
information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in
respect of aeroplanes :
181 10
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be the state of registry, the
allowed to resume its flight, if state of design and the
state of manufacture
consider that the aircraft is
still airworthy

182 10
The loading limitations shall include : all limiting mass and
centres of gravity
183 10
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations four letter combinations
shall not be used which might be confused with the beginning with Q

184 10
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all 25 NM on the route
turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a between 30° and 90° at and
tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a below FL190
radius of :
185 10
Each member state should designate an appropriate only to passengers and
authority with its administration to be responsible for the aircrew in international civil
development implementation and maintenance of a national transport flights and
aviation security programme. This programme should apply : domestic flights

186 10
During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a 1NM from touch-down;
missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower-controller"
has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the moment the
aircraft is :
187 10
Which statement is correct ?_x000D_ ATC will apply separation
During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Classe only with other IFR-traffic
C):
188 10
189 10 "Cabotage" refers to: crop spraying
A Special Air Report comprises a number of flight identification and
sections._x000D_ weather noted ;
In section I the pilot fills in :
190 10
 When a member state allows police officers, security staff, Prior notification by the
bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry state of embarcation to the
weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, foreign state in which the
permission for the carriage of weapons should be weapons will be carried on
conditional upon : the airport of arrival and
notification of the pilot in
command of a decision to
permit a weapon to be
carried on board his aircraft

191 10
Except in some special cases the establishment of change- 100 NM or more
over points should be limited to route segments of
192 10
For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some boarding after to all other
supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as : passengers
193 10
The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as 5 minutes or more.
194 10 possible, in case the expected delay is :
Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) plus or minus 4 NM on a 90
types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation per cent containment basis
accuracy of
195 10
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all 22.5 NM between 30° and
turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a 90° at and above FL260
tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined
with a radius of :
196 10
The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, 1 minute
197 10 not exceed
Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall immediately a significant
be updated change occurs
198 10
Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and both air traffic services and
dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the the meteorological office
responsability of
199 10
ATIS broadcast shall not be transmitted on
the voice channel of an ILS

200 10
Member states should introduce specific security measures None of the answers is
for the air transport of the following groups of potentially correct
disruptive passengers defined below :
201 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have 20 hours of instrument
completed in aeroplanes not less than : instruction time of which not
more than 10 hours may be
instrument ground time

202 10
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be the OCH
below:_x000D_
203 10
The duration of the period of currency of a medical the licence is issued or
204 10 assessment shall begin on the date : validated
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by shall not extend more than
another contracting state the validity of the authorization 15 days from the date of
the licence

205 10
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences 12 months to 6 months
aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the
medical examination shall be reduced from :
206 10
 Type ratings shall be established all the answers are correct

207 10
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot the flight time towards the
performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the total time required for
functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to higher grade of pilot licence
be credit : in accordance with the
requirements of the
licensing authority
208 10
An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence 50 hours and 10 hours
aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have
completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-
command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing
Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in
aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively

209 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall 200 hours of flight time and
have completed in aeroplanes not less than : 70 hours as pilot in
command
210 10
The licensing authority shall determine whether experience 100 hours of which not
as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it more than 15 hours shall
has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of have been acquired in a
1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a flight procedure trainer or
maximum of : basic instrument flight
trainer

211 10
The national civil aviation security programme shall be ECAC
established by :

212 10
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate Shall be specified to ICAO
authority within its administration to be responsible for the and to ECAC
development, implementation and maintenance of the
national civil aviation security programme. The said
appropriate authority :
213 10
Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure The state above question in
that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are incomplete. The pilot in
obliged to travel because they have been the subject of command and the aircraft
judicial or administrative proceedings in order that operator are to be
appropriate security measures can be taken informed.

214 10
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC the airport controller.
conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
215 10
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the air traffic control and flight
alert phase is the responsibility of: information centers.
216 10
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach 25 knots at any stage
may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC.
These adjustments shall never be more than :
217 10
For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall 5 hours of night flight time
have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges including 3 take offs and 5
of the licence are to be exercised at night landings as pilot in
command
218 10
 The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence- to act as pilot-in command
aeroplane shall be : in any aeroplane engaged
in operations other than
commercial air
transportation

219 10
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been Only for categories C, D
established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is and E aircraft.
determined:
220 10
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon the Chicago Convention
proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or
by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to
compensation as provided by :

221 10
The convention on offences and certain acts committed on the convention of Chicago
222 10 board aircraft, is :
The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, the convention of Madrid
223 10 is
The convention of Tokyo applies to damage : caused in the territory of a
contrating state by any
aircraft regardless the
registration

224 10
The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an 50 % of the co-pilot flight
aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be time towards the total flight
entitled to be credit with not more than : time required for a higher
grade of pilot licence

225 10
In certain circumstances a medical examination may be A single period of six
deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided months in the case of a
that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and flight crew member of an
shall not exceed : aircraft engaged in non
commercial operations.

226 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold a current class I medical
assessment
227 10
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is ± 12.5 NM _x000D_
:_x000D_
228 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall 15 hours and 540 km
have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country (300NM)
flight time as pilot in command including a cross country
flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of
which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be
made. The hours and distance referred are :

229 10
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall 10 hours of cross country
have completed in aeroplanes not less than : flight time as pilot-in-
command including a cross
country flight not less than
540 km (300NM)

230 10
 An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane 150 hours and 75 hours
shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours,
either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ......
hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as
co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-
command the duties and functions of a pilot in command
provided that the method of supervision employed is
acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours
are respectively :

231 10
The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall 250 hours and 10 hours
have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of
cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours
shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under
the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and
functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of
supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority.
The state above hours are respectively :

232 10
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have 75 hours of instrument
completed in aeroplanes not less than : time, of which not more
than 30 hours may be
instrument ground time.
233 10
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have 100 hours of night flight as
completed in aeroplanes not less than : pilot in command or as co-
pilot
234 10
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall 17 years of age
235 10 not be less than :
The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing Annex 12
standards and recommended practices for Personnel
Licensing is :
236 10
For a category I precision approach, the decision height 200 ft
cannot be lower than :_x000D_
237 10
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the true air speed at 65%
cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed power.
box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
238 10
Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten (1) until the completion of
minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft operations.
accident._x000D_
_x000D_
-aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search
and Rescue Centre_x000D_
-aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue
Centre_x000D_
-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter_x000D_
_x000D_
The command of the situation is the responsibility of;

239 10
At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting make at least one complete
help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, turn over the group of
the pilot must : people in difficulty.

240 10
The international convention defining rules relative to the Tokyo Convention.
responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of
passengers, baggage and freight is the :
241 10
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) standards and
establishes;_x000D_ recommended international
practices for contracting
member states.

242 10
 Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is only at transition level.
done:_x000D_

243 10
The first freedom of the air is:_x000D_ The opportunity to operate
a commercial flight with
passengers on
board_x000D_
between two states.
244 10
An air traffic control unit :_x000D_ may not ask an aircraft to
change its call sign after
accepting the flight plan.

245 10
The second freedom of the air is the : right to operate a
commercial passenger
flight with passengers on
board between two states.

246 10
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was Montreal
247 10 established by the international convention of :
An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a "Need mechanical
search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft assistance".
accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an
"X"._x000D_
This indicates :
248 10
An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a give way to another aircraft.
series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies
that the aircraft must :
249 10
When mixing or contact does take place between the persons not subjected
passengers subjected to security control and other persons to security control shall be
not subjected to such control after the security screening identified
points at airports serving international civil aviation have
been passed
250 10
The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : Damage caused by foreign
aircraft to third parties on
the surface
251 10
An AIRAC is :_x000D_ An Acronym for a system
aimed at advance
notification based on
common effective dates, of
circumstances
necessitating significant
changes in operating
procedures.

252 10
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight 5 700 kg for airplanes and
plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an 2 700 kg for helicopters.
aircraft is less than or equal to:
253 10
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound 10 NM_x000D_
radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for
a distance from the IAF of:
254 10
 Given:_x000D_ FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.
_x000D_
AGL = above ground level_x000D_
AMSL = above mean sea level_x000D_
FL = flight level_x000D_
_x000D_
within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR
must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:

255 10
For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the will stop on the parking
estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the area._x000D_
aircraft:
256 10
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures 2.5%
published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb
gradient of:
257 10
A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach... using at least one source of
_x000D_ bearing information and
one source of elevation or
distance information.

258 10
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller is cleared for take-off.
the following light signal : a series of green flashes. This
signal means that the aircraft :
259 10
The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is of endurance at cruising
the estimated time : _x000D_ power taking into account
pressure and temperature
on that day.
260 10
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate write XXXX in box 16 and
airport (box 16) of a flight plan form..._x000D_ indicate in box 18
(additional information)
ALTN/followed by the name
of the_x000D_airport
261 10
An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical 1st freedom
landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will
be exercised ?
262 10
When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: 030° magnetic in still air
"fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading: conditions (thereby flying
the magnetic track)
263 10
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320._x000D_ A 7620 Mode C
In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will
squawk code :_x000D_
264 10
Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) : it can only supply limited
services to the users and
under no circumstances
may it supply ATC services.

265 10
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is automatically at the control
done :_x000D_ zone boundary.
266 10
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft must give way to another
receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft.
aircraft :
267 10
 The pilot in command of an aircraft:_x000D_ 3-4-5
_x000D_
1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from
ATC._x000D_
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying"._x000D_
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety
reasons._x000D_
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to
an ATC instruction._x000D_
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory
clearance._x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?

268 10
While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal may continue to taxi to the
from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal take-off area.
means that the aircraft :
269 10
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a Instructional flight time as
PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall studen-pilot-in-command of
have completed at least 50 hours : aeroplanes.

270 10
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted 20 degrees
and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS
final approach track,the final vector shall be such as to
enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or
MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than :

271 10
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to the missed approach track
parallel runways provided that : for one approach diverges
by at least 20° (degrees)
from the missed approach
track of the adjacent
approach

272 10
During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight 120 kt
tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B
aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope,
is:
273 10
A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport ceiling greater or equal to
where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest DH or MDH, and VH
accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away._x000D_ (horizontal visibility) greater
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: or equal to VH required for
landing, with an available
instrument approach
procedure to be envisaged
with one engine out

274 10
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft 3.0 NM
are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or
MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when
independent parallel approaches are being conducted :

275 10
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or 5 minutes
MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a
LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter
aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off,
this minimum is :
276 10
 A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or 760 m
MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a
LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter
aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite
direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated
by :
277 10
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft 200 m (660 ft)
are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or
MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when
independent parallel approaches are being conducted :

278 10
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft medium aircraft behind
and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ?
279 10
Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally C, D and E airspaces
within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less
than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped
with a functioning radio receiver within class :

280 10
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria 2 minutes
when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft
and both are using the same runway ?
281 10
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class Two years
282 10 ratings are valid for :
According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi- Of the skill test
engine class ratings will be one year from the date :
283 10
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller 4 KT
possesses wind information in the form of components,
significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and
speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind
component significant change is :

284 10
Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights On at least 20 days
operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks consecutively
and :
285 10
A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" The aeroplane will not be
because in the first case: able to reach a suitable
aerodrome.
286 10
Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, Setting the SSR decoder to
and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code mode A code 7000 and
7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller thereafter to code 7500
shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :

287 10
When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, 80 NM
and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number
equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV
distance based separation minimum may be used on the
same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal
separation minimum. The distance is :

288 10
Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using 40 NM
DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track,
provided that each aircraft utilizes "on Track" DME stations
and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME
readings, is :
289 10
 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at 2 minutes
the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed provided that the
preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or
more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

290 10
According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating A certificate of
for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. airworthiness issued by a
One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has : non-member state.
291 10
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at 3 minutes
the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed will be
292 10
According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for Microlights having fixed
single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, wings and moveable
including : aerodynamic control
surfaces acting in all three
dimensions.
293 10
According to JAR-FCL, a professionnal flight crew licence At the diiscretion of the
license issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for Authority of the Member
use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State State concerned for a
period not exceeding the
period validity of basic
licence
294 10
According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the Any period
privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations
at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their
medical fitness which might render them unable to safely
exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay
seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming
aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:

295 10
According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private 24 months until age of 40,
pilots will be valid for 12 months thereafter

296 10
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has 150 hours of flight time plus
satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying 10 hours of instrument
training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes ground time
having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a
JAA Member State at least:

297 10
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for : two years
298 10
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area continue flight onto
where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of destination, complying with
clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The last received clearances
procedure to be followed is: then with filed flight plan.

299 10
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at 3 minutes
the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed provided that the
preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or
more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

300 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted Airspace D
and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR
flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic
information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive
traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified
as :
301 10
 Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to 610 m is established
parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone between extended runway
(NTZ) of at least : centre lines and as is
depicted on the radar
display
302 10
Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is have to be as indicated by
established, the procedures applicable there in : ICAO council
303 10
The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace 8 km visibility when at or
classified as B, is : above 3050 m (10.000 ft)
AMSL and clear of clouds

304 10
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as 5 km visibility, 1500 m
B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and horizontal and 300 m
distance from clouds vertical from clouds
305 10
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as 5km at or above 3050 m
C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m
distance from clouds horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds

306 10
Flight information service provided to flights shall include the C to G (inclusive)
provision of information concerning collision hazards to
aircraft operating in airspace classes:
307 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, Airspace E
all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are
separated from each other is classified as
308 10
A strayed aircraft is : only that aircraft which has
deviated significantly its
intended track
309 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR Airspace B
flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are
separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic
information as far as is practical, is classified as

310 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, Airspace D
all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory
service and all flights receive flight information service if
requested, is classified
311 10
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and Airspace F
receive flight information service if requested, is classified as
312 10
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention Annex 14
contains international standards and recommended practices
for air traffic services (ATS)?
313 10
What will be your action if you can not comply with a a non-standard holding
standard holding pattern? pattern is permitted.

314 10
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which 230 kt TAS.
315 10 will be the maximum speed ?
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, Airspace C
all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR
flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR
flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive
traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified
as :
316 10
 Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel at least 30° (degrees) from
runways provided that : the missed approach track for one the missed approach track
approach diverges by : of the adjacent approach
317 10
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller 5 KT
possesses wind information in the form of components,
significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and
speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind
component significant change is :

318 10
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the Horizontally moving his
following signals: hands, fingers extended,
palms toward ground
319 10
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a The appropriate ATC unit
deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be shall be notified of the
taken? action taken as soon as
circumstances permit
320 10
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a Adjust the heading of
controlled flight deviates from the track? aircraft to regain track as
soon as practicable
321 10
Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions Aircraft "A" regardless of
within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is the direction which "B" is
approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a approaching
converging course. Which has the right of way?

322 10
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival cumulonimbus
information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are :

323 10
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted at least 2.0 NM prior to
to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS intercepting the ILS glide
localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall path or specified MLS
be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS elevation angle
localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight
for :
324 10
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means : Come back and land.

325 10
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum 1 minute
separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is
taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the
same runway ?
326 10
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace 240 KT IAS
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL,
is :
327 10
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace 250 KT TAS
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL,
is :
328 10
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace 250 KT IAS
classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL,
is :
329 10
The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights 250 KT TAS
inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050
m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is :
330 10
Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of Has a maximum mass over
occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state 5 700 kg
of manufacture shall in the case of an accident or serious
incident inform the state of occurence of the name of its
representative to be present at the investigation when the
aircraft :
331 10
 Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level 2 000 feet above the
to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled highest obstacle within 8
airspace? nautical miles of course

332 10
333 10 A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is : Medium
Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: GVATAM
an special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific
format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due
to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash
cloud.
334 10
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing 10 km
between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft
335 10
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a Reversal track.
designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction
to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the
reciprocal of the designated track is called a :

336 10
337 10 In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: Aerodrome elevation.
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a pass the fix at the rate of
descend shall be made so as to : descent of 500 feet/min,
which is obligatory.
338 10
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach Race track
between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of
the intermediate or final approach track is a:
339 10
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR When seems possible to
approach continue its descend below the OCA? land

340 10
The protection areas associated with instrument approach 25° or the bank angle
procedures are determined with the assumption that turns giving a 3°/s turn rate,
are performed at a bank angle of: whichever is lower, for
departure, approach or
missed approach
instrument procedures, as
well as circling-to-land (with
or without prescribed flight
tracks).

341 10
If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled The meteorological visibility
aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual must not be less than 8 km
approach' may be given under certain conditions
342 10
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of When the commander in
an airport, separation minima may be reduced: the following aircraft has
the preceding aircraft in
sight and is able to
maintain own separation

343 10
Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible If the commander so
requests

344 10
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace When QNH is higher than
shall be given as flight level (FL) the standard pressure 1013
hPa
345 10
At what moment during the approach should the reported When passing the
346 10 airfield altimeter setting be set? transition altitude
 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller 8 KT
possesses wind information in the form of components,
significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and
speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind
component significant change is :

347 10
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft 1000 feet
348 10 flying IFR below flight level 290?
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention Annex 14
contains minimum specifications for the design of
aerodromes?
349 10
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention Annex 1
contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have
international validity?
350 10
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference As soon as possible
('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or commence emergency
cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS descent in order minimize
shall try to: the difference between
cabin pressure and outside
pressure

351 10
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ? ICAO must be informed
about changes in the
national regulations

352 10
What action should be taken if contact is los with the Maintain your circling
aerodrome on the down wind leg ? altitude and turn towards
the aerodrome
353 10
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP Visibility minima
approach and landing charts

354 10
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place : when the aircraft is leaving
controlled airspace during
VMC
355 10
Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago The law enforcement
convention for the initation of an accident investigation? authorities of the state in
which the aircraft is
registered
356 10
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what The pilot does not have to
does that mean to the pilot? follow up the position of the
aircraft
357 10
Which of the following alternatives describes the complete 3 crossbars, centre line
CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system? with 3 or 2 lamps per light
unit
358 10
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position flight level during descent
of the aircraft should be expressed as
359 10
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the flight level on or below the
aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed transition level
in:
360 10
An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. When the other aircraft has
Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to reported that it has
descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When descended through FL 130
is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below
can be expected ?
361 10
The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Amphibious/inactive or
Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to simulated inactive.
Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot
such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine
_________.
362 10
 If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a Turn 90 degrees towards
circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ? the runway and wait for
visual conctact
363 10
When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to 4 NM from the touchdown
the threshold of the runway transmission should not be
interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the
aircraft is within a distance of :
364 10
The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring IFPS
important changes in the methods of operation, based on
common effective dates, is identified by the acronym:
365 10
Which of the following is NOT an international distress 121.5 MHz
366 10 frequency ?
The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of 30
any illness which they are suffering which involves
incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence
relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or
more. The number of days is :

367 10
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an MAP.
instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an
initial climbing turn towards the:
368 10
If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew if still not fit to fly when
functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the his/her current medical
authority must be informed : certificate expires
369 10
(For this question use annex 010-9805A)_x000D_ 4
Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to
the symbol meanning "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE"
is :
370 10
If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a until two minutes before the
departing aircraft may take off in any direction arriving aircraft is estimated
to be over the instrument
runway
371 10
(For this question use annex 010-9804A)_x000D_ Proceding in the direction
372 10 The ground - air visual code illustrated means : shown
The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a half NM
distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as
determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of
the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed
point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case
distance and level information shall be given at each

373 10
Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from 4 NM from touchdown
the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the
aircraft before it reaches a distance of :
374 10
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to 2 NM from the touchdown
execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been
received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft
reaches a distance of :

375 10
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to Last 5 NM of the approach
consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not
visible on the radar display for any significant interval during
the :
376 10
What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should ± 10KT
be requested to make when under radar control and
established on intermediate and final approach ?
377 10
 Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, At least 15 minutes before
provided that they can be again brought into operation : the expected arrival of an
aircraft
378 10
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises You are still in radar
you that you are on the airway and to "resume own contact, but must make
navigation". This phrase means that: position reports.
379 10
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed 120 m (384 ft)
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the
intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
380 10
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a : maximum bank angle of
25°.

381 10
The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and Security program.
buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is
called:
382 10
Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure The contracting States will
acts, it can be said: not assist with navigation
aids, air transit services,
etc, to an aircraft affected
by an unlawful seizure act.

383 10
Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by 12 NM
DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that
the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest
difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one
aircraft to climb or descend
384 10
The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the : Geneva convention 1936
385 10
(For this question use annex 010-9806A)_x000D_ operation completed
What is the meanning of the showed symbol in the ground-
air visual signal code for use by rescue units ?
386 10
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed 30 m (98 ft)
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the
intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
387 10
The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) AIP Supplements
and the short-term extensive or graphical information are
published as follows:
388 10
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed 90 m (295 ft)
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the
final phase of this missed approach is :
389 10
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes Distress 7700. Hijacking
that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary 7600. Communicaton
Surveillance Radar (SSR)? failure 7500.
390 10
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ? Right hand turns / 1 minute
391 10 outbound
(For this question use annex 010-9801A)_x000D_ 3
Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to the
symbol meaning "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (are) :
392 10
(For this question use annex 010-9802A)_x000D_ 2
Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning "we
have found all personnel" is :
393 10
(For this question use annex 010-9803A)_x000D_ Require assistance
What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air
visual signal code for use by survivors ?
394 10
 During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle 150 m (492 ft)
clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary
area is equal to :
395 10
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based The longuest aeroplane
on: maximum width only

396 10
If radio communication is established during an interception Descend for landing
but communications in a common language is not possible,
which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting
aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for
landing ?
397 10
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the Raising arm and hand
following signals: horizontally in front of body,
fingers extended then
clenching fist.
398 10
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted 60 minutes in excess of the
flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight estimated time off blocks.
plan submitted when the delay is:
399 10
Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? Estimated time over FIR
400 10 boundary, endurance.
The position reports shall contain the following elements of Aircraft identification,
information in the order listed: position, time, flight level or
altitude, next position and
time over and ensuing
significant point.

401 10
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight Land on the nearest
in IMC, generally the pilot shall: suitable aerodrome and
report the termination of the
flight to ATC.

402 10
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight Y
commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently
changes to IFR?
403 10
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a 50 minutes prior to leave
404 10 controlled flight at least: the blocks.
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight I
commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently
changes to VFR?
405 10
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area Need special precautions
means: while approaching for
landing.
406 10
407 10 The runway edge lights shall be : red
On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of all vehicles moving on the
an aerodrome shall give way to: apron except the "follow
me" vehicle
408 10
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to The airport is unsafe, do
land means: not land
409 10
Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: A controlled airspace
extending upwards from the
surface of the earth to a
specified limit.
410 10
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in The air traffic service
respect to terrain clearance? reporting office when
accepting the flight plan.
411 10
 You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A 1, 2.
descend below the MDA should not be made until :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight_x000D_
2. visual reference has been established and can be
maintained _x000D_
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a
landing can be made_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is :

412 10
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 15 miles from the centre of
the aerodrome or
aerodromes concerned in
the direction from which
approaches may be made.

413 10
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a 200 metres.
height above the ground level or water of not less than:
414 10
The units providing Air Traffic Services are: Area Control Centre -
Approach Control Office
and Aerodrome Control
Tower.

415 10
The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service An air traffic control service
for IFR flights arriving and
departing.
416 10
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: Preventing collisions
between aircraft, between
aircraft and obstacles on
the manoeuvring area and
expediting and maintaining
an orderly flow of air traffic

417 10
When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in 1 and 4
command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is
reached:_x000D_
1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")_x000D_
2 He must request and obtain clearance._x000D_
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR
flight plan._x000D_
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight
plan._x000D_
The correct combination of statements is:

418 10
Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Providing advisory services
419 10
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic Switching on and off three
pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to times the landing lights
indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring
immediate assistance?
420 10
When are ATIS broadcasts updated ? Every 30 minutes if weather
conditions are below those
for VFR ; otherwise hourly

421 10
 When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the operational air traffic control
decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of centres
the:
422 10
Alert phase is defined as follows: A situation related to an
aircraft and its occupants
are considered to be in a
state of emergency.

423 10
The rule governing flight over water for a single engined limits flight to up to 10
aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers: minutes flying time from the
nearest shore.
424 10
The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow is 5 minutes.
control centre):
425 10
"ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the Controlled VFR flights and
provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in VFR flights.
relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated
therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever
separation minima is not applied. The following flights are
considered essential traffic one to each other.

426 10
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in uncertainty phase, urgency
emergency are: phase, distress phase.
427 10
Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation 3 000 feet.
428 10 between aircraft on the same direction is:
If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but UNABLE TO COMPLY
communication on a common language is not possible,
which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted
aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the
instructions received ?
429 10
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an The airliner operator
430 10 aircraft during flight time is:
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a 1 500 feet or visibility is
VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling less than 5 km
is less than :
431 10
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC 2000 feet (600 m).
432 10 within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC 2000 feet (600 m).
433 10 within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and Clear of clouds and in sight
9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must of the surface; 8 km
remain on principle at least: visibility.
434 10
Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive With an intercept of 20° or
and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar more.
controller:_x000D_
"Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further
advised"._x000D_
Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that radio
communication cannot be stablished again and you have to
return to your current flight plan route:
435 10
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 1 mile horizontaly and 1
000 feet MSL are : 000 feet verticaly from
clouds; 5 km visibility
436 10
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle 15 NM (28 km).
clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation
facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is
predicated:
437 10
"Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to To pass the specified point
expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft. This inbound at the previously
will be obtained requesting aircraft: notified time.
438 10
 During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot When advised by Tower.
should contact departure control:
439 10
When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding 45 metres.
positions have not been established, aircraft shall not be
held closer to the runway in use more than:
440 10
Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft Known to the relevant air
which are likely to be affected by the information and which traffic services units.
are:
441 10
Alerting service shall be provided: In so far as practicable to
all aircraft having filed a
flight plan or otherwise
known by the ATS.

442 10
Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall At least 15° separated at a
be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: distance of 15 NM or more
from the facility.
443 10
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of The pilot should propose
an aircraft: another clearance to the
ATC concerned.
444 10
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting Executing a climbing turn of
aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted 90 degrees or more without
aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" ? crossing the line of flight of
the intercepted aircraft.

445 10
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
attempt to establish radio communication with the
intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
446 10
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight The delay is more than 60
plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended minutes of the estimated
or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, time of departure.
when:
447 10
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should: Read back those parts
containing level
assignments, vectors or
any part requiring
verification.
448 10
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC Continue the flight
you have two way communication failure? maintaining VMC and land
as soon as practicable.
449 10
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to Emergency aircraft
land ?
450 10
Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall At least 45° separated at a
be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: distance of 15 miles or
more from the FIX.
451 10
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: Achieving separation
452 10 between IFR flights
The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a This procedure is not
controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight allowed.
when:
453 10
 Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller the weather permits.
have to be executed as:
454 10
What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by Vertical, horizontal and
455 10 ATC? composite separation.
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with 7 600
SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the
appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on
mode "A"
456 10
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC 5%
unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level
varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan
by plus or minus:
457 10
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10 1 nautical mile horizontally
000 feet MSL are : and 1 000 feet vertically
from clouds; 5 km visibility
458 10
Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall At least 45° separated at a
be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: distance of 15 NM or more
from the facility.
459 10
In which section of AIP are contained information elements AGA.
relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas?
460 10
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground A landing aircraft can be
at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable stopped if overcoming the
area where: end of runway.
461 10
Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which Flight Information Service,
the following services are provided: Alerting Service and
Advisory Service.
462 10
The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of 2B.
two elements which are related to the aeroplane
performance characteristics and dimensions. These
elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in
the example under listed:
463 10
You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence If not airborne until 0920, a
expires at 0920. What does it mean ? new clearence has to be
issued
464 10
According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code 36 m up to but not including
465 10 Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of: 52 m.
Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to Code letter "D".
be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
466 10
"Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to: Permit aircraft to make a
portion of its initial climb to
a specific height.
467 10
"TODA" take-off distance available is: The length of the runway
available plus the length of
clearway available (if
provided).

468 10
"Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by 15 m.
aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9
m. The taxiway width shall be:
469 10
"Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for Non precision approach
the operation of aircraft using instrument approach runways, precision
procedures. approach runways category
I, II and III.
470 10
 Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Only AIP and NOTAM's.
Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in
which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services
outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and
origination of:
471 10
"ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: The length of the take-off
run available plus the
length of stopway and
clearway (if provided) .
472 10
A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air Aeronautical Information
navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters Publication (AIP).
and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
473 10
According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code 1 500 m.
number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:
474 10
In which section of AIP are contained information elements AD.
relating to refuelling facilities and limitations on refuelling
services?
475 10
In which section of AIP are contained information elements RAC.
relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological
service is provided?
476 10
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio Mode B code 7600.
477 10 communication failure?
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change Transition altitude.
the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25
hPa when passing:
478 10
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 1 minute.
479 10 140?
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The Direct.
published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute
outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on
an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry
procedure.
480 10
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 2 minutes
481 10 140?
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns First right and then to the
after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into left.
which direction?
482 10
The units responsable for promoting efficient organization of Area control centre, flight
search and rescue service are: information centre and
rescue coordination centre.
483 10
Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the Since no physical injury has
grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the been noticed and the flight
aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure. is over, the actions to be
taken are related only to
insurance, to the repair
man, the operator and the
persons in charge of the
runway and taxiways.

484 10
The Alerting Service is provided by: The ATS unit responsible
for the aircraft at that
moment.

485 10
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic An ATS NOTAM.
Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in
advance of its effective date is:
486 10
487 10 Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: Flashing yellow.
The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from The stated above is correct.
the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the
moment such person has been definitely admitted in other
Contracting State of destination.

488 10
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced Fixed lights showing
489 10 threshold shall be: variable white.
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should Flashing green.
490 10 be:
The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at Blue colour identification
a land aerodrome shall be: given by Morse Code.
491 10
In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar? 2.
492 10
How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final None.
approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a
PAPI?
493 10
Runway threshold lights shall be: Fixed lights showing green
or white colours.

494 10
In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 Only the aircraft wing span.
495 10 shall identify:
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the 150 m.
single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a
length of:
496 10
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified Control area.
497 10 limit above the earth is:
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of Control zone.
498 10 the earth to a specified upper limit is:
ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all Class A.
flights are subject to air traffic control service and are
separated from each other is classified as:
499 10
Aerodrome traffic is: All traffic on the
manoeuvring area and
flying in the vicinity of an
aerodrome.
500 10
When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a At least 30 minute prior to
public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the land.
aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic
dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in
advance as possible and:
501 10
Air Traffic Service unit means: Air Traffic Control units,
Flight Information Centers
or Air Services reporting
offices.
502 10
Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be The aerodrome shall be
considered controlled? provided with a Control
Tower.
503 10
504 10 High intensity obstacle lights should be: Flashing white.
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: Fixed lights showing green.
505 10
506 10 Taxiway edge lights shall be: Fixed showing blue.
In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation By a letter - for example 3
number shall be supplemented: parallel runways "L" and
"R" and the central has no
letter.
507 10
 In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the Only on the approach
two units nearest the runway as red and the two units slope.
farthest from the runway as white when:
508 10
The "PAPI" shall consist of: Two wing bars of 4 sharp
transition multi-lamp or
paired units equally
spaced.
509 10
The abbreviation PAPI stands for: Precision Approach Path
510 10 Indicator.
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre Fixed lights showing
511 10 line and crossbar lights shall be: variable white.
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: Fixed red or preferably
512 10 orange.
Runway end lights shall be: Fixed lights showing
variable white.
513 10
EDURES

rispostaB rispostaC rispostaD ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

A single period of three Two consecutive periods each of six A single period of six month in the
month in the case of a flight month in the case of a flight crew case of a flight crew member of an
crew member of an aircraft member of an aircraft engaged in non- aircraft engaged in non-commercial
engaged in commercial commercial operations. operations.
operations.

0 0 0 1
+/- 10 kt. +/- 15 kt. +/- 8 kt.

1 0 0 0
2 NM from the threshold on 3 NM from the threshold on final 5 NM from the threshold on final
final approach. approach. approach. 1 0 0 0
may file a flight plan under Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan Shall nevertheless submit a flight
pilot's discretion. and notify changes made thereto to plan but changes made thereto are
the ATS unit providing that service. not necessary to be notified.

0 0 1 0
Blue for blankets and Black for food and water. Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.
protective clothing.

1 0 0 0
Yellow for blankets and Red for food and water. Blue for medical supplies and first
protective clothing. aid equipment.

0 1 0 0
10 NM. 5 NM. 20 NM when the leading aircraft
maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or
more faster than the succeding
aircraft.
1 0 0 0
Yellow for medical supplies Black for miscellaneous equipment. Blue for blankets and protective
and first aid equipment. clothing.

0 0 1 0
6 NM. 8 NM. 10 NM.

0 0 1 0
Is only considered for PPL. Shall not extend beyond the period of Depends on the regulations of the
validity of the licence. contracting sate which renders valid
the licence.
0 0 1 0
Is calculated by the Will be distributed via NOTAM Is calculated by ATS
commander

0 0 0 1
shall be the lowest shall be the highest available flight for the aerodrome is published in the
available flight level above level below the transition altitude that AGA section of the AIP
the transition altitude that has been established
has been established

0 1 0 0
DME-frequencies Any addition to minima when the Obstacles penetrating the obstacle
aerodrome is used as alternate free area in the final approach
sector
0 0 1 0
In upper wind forecast for When an aircraft on the request by a Before landing and take-off
areas north of lat 60° north meteorological watch office (MWO) or
or 60° south. at specified points transmits a PIREP
0 0 0 1
Continue at an altitude that Fly the emergency triangle Declare an emergency
differs from the
semicircular rule with 1000
feet when above FL 290
and 500 feet when lower
than FL 290

0 1 0 0
Blue for food and water. Yellow for medical supplies and first Black for food and water.
aid equipment.

0 1 0 0
+/- 500 ft. +/- 300 ft. +/- 200 ft.

0 0 1 0
Correct, expect when an Prevent collisions with terrain Do not prevent collisions with terrain
IFR flight is vectored by
radar.
0 1 0 0
50 NM. 20 NM. 80 NM.

0 0 0 1
B. B and C. B, C and D.

0 1 0 0
30° immediately after take- 15° immediately after take-off. 25° immediately after take-off.
off.
1 0 0 0
The preceeding aircraft is The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or
10 kt or more faster than more faster than the following aircraft. more faster than the following
the following aircraft. aircraft.

0 0 1 0
30 degrees. 25 degrees. 15 degrees.

0 1 0 0
3 NM from touchdown. 2.5 NM from touchdown. 1 NM from touchdown.

1 0 0 0
5.0 NM between aircraft on 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent
the same localizer course. localizer course. localizer course.
0 0 1 0
1 NM. 4 NM. 2 NM.

0 0 0 1
3.0 NM. 10.0 NM. 3.5 NM.

1 0 0 0
+/- 150 ft. +/- 250 ft. +/- 300 ft.

0 0 0 1
+/- 300 ft of the assigned +/- 200 ft of the assigned level. +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
level.
0 1 0 0
More than 200 ft. More than 300 ft. 300 ft.

0 0 1 0
3.0 NM. 5.0 NM. 2.0 NM.
0 1 0 0
420 metres 1000 metres 1200 metres

1 0 0 0
5 NM. 2.5 NM. 3 NM.

0 0 0 1
the passenger is to leave the passenger is to leave that state the passenger is to leave that state
that state within 72 within two (2) days from the day of his within two (2) weeks from the day of
(seventy two) hours from (her) arrival his (her) arrival
the time of arrival of that
passenger

0 0 1 0
250 kt for IFR and VFR UP 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
TO FL 100 0 1 0 0
at least 2 hours in advance at least 4 hours in advance of arrival at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
of arrival

0 1 0 0
For a period to be for a period of 24 hours for a period of 48 hours
established by that State

0 1 0 0
contracting states shall contracting states shall accept an oral contracting states may not accept
accept an oral declaration declaration of baggage only from oral declaration of baggages
of baggage only from crew passengers

1 0 0 0
in certain cases any other none of the answers are applicable shall not require him to obtain any
identity may be required other identity document from their
consultates or operators prior to
initiate the flight

0 0 0 1
shall not impose penalties, shall not impose penalties, fines, shall not impose penalties and fines
fines and taxes but custom customs duties and taxes on the but customs duties and taes on
duties on the operator operator thexes on the operator

0 0 1 0
The air waybill number The air waybill number; the number of The air waybill number and the
packages related to each air waybill nature of the goods
number and the nature of the goods

0 0 1 0
by IATA and accepted by by IATA and accepted by ICAO by the Regional Postal Office
the contracting states
1 0 0 0
AD MAP ENR
0 0 0 1
are accepted at the are accepted in handwritten block has to be typewritten
contracting state discretion lettering in ink

0 0 1 0
and the state of the shall not be preclude from recovering shall not recover from such person
operator are both from such person any transportation any transportation costs arising from
responsible for the person costs arising from his (her) his (her) inadmissibility
inadmissible inadmissibility
0 0 1 0
annex 15 annex 9 annex 8

0 0 1 0
annex 8 annex 15 annex 16

1 0 0 0
4 months following the date 6 months following the date on which 3 months following the date on
on which notification is notification is received by the which notification is received by the
received by the Depositary Depositary Governments Depositary Governments
Governements

0 0 1 0
may not require or may deliver such person to the may request such person to
authorise the assistance of competent authorities disembark
other crew members
0 0 1 0
cargo but clearence accompanied baggage or under cargo and is covered by a traffic
documents provided by another simplified customs procedure document
airlines shall be completed distinct from that normally applicable
by the passenger prior to to other cargo
shipment

0 0 1 0
AIC procedures and AIRAC procedures and identified by NOTAM procedures and identified
identified by the acronym the acronym AIRAC by acronym NOTAM followed by a
AIC followed by a number number

0 0 1 0
15 minutes at the time the 10 minutes at the time the level is 5 minutes at the time the level is
level is crossed. crossed. crossed.
0 1 0 0
approve new internationel approve new international airlines develop principles and techniqe for
airlines with jet aircraft international aviation
0 0 0 1
binding for the member advice and guidance for the aviation binding for all member states
states that have not notified legislation within the member states
ICAO about a national
difference
0 1 0 0
operator¹s licence for the security system at airports limitation of the operator¹s
international scheduled responsibility vis-á-vis passenger
aviation and goods transported
0 0 0 1
AIP, including amendment AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and AIP including amendment service;
service; supplements to PIB; AIC and checklist summaries supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC;
AIP, NOTAM, AIC and AIRAC
checklist summaries

1 0 0 0
The letters P (Prohibited), The nationality letters for location The letters P (Prohibited), R
R (Restricted) and D indicators assigned to the state or (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for
(Dangerous) followed by territory, followed the letters P. R and the area concerned and figures
figures D and figures

0 0 1 0
2 copies of General 2 of each 3 of each
Declaration and of Cargo
Manifest and of a stores list

0 0 1 0
Six months or longer One year or longer Two months or longer

1 0 0 0
45 metres 35 metres 40 metres

0 1 0 0
Not more than one month Not more than three months Not more than 28 days
0 1 0 0
Not more than 28 days Not more than 10 days Not more than one month
0 0 0 1
GREEN ORANGE RED

0 0 0 1
GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, GEN, ENR, RAC, AD GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL
FAL, SAR, MET, MAP. 1 0 0 0
AGA MET GEN
0 0 0 1
RAC AD GEN

0 0 0 1
At least 3 months after At least 2 months after cancellation of At least one year after cancellation
cancellation of the area to the area to which they refer of the area to which they refer
which they refer
0 0 0 1
ATC requirements. Navigation aids. Airspace restrictions.
1 0 0 0
Service provided : Air Service provided : Traffic Information Service provided : Air Traffic Control
Traffic Control Service; as far as practical; ATC Clearance : Service; ATC Clearance : required ;
ATC Clearance : not not required ;
required
0 0 1 0
8 km visibility, and clear of 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and
clouds ; 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ; 1000 ft vertical distance from
clouds ;
0 1 0 0
Descend to the flight level Land at the nearest suitable Land at the nearest suitable
submitted for that portion of aerodrome and inform ATC aerodrome maintaining VMC and
flight ; inform ATC ;

0 0 0 1
15th of October the same 30th of October the same year 30th of April the following year
year

1 0 0 0
Obstacle in surface. Obstacle identification slope. Obstruction in surface.
1 0 0 0
10 NM provided that the 20 NM provided that the leading 10 NM provided that the leading
leading aircraft maintains a aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 aircraft maintains a true airspeed of
true airspeed of 40 kt or kt or more faster than the succeding 10 kt or more faster than the
more faster than the aircraft. succeding aircraft.
succeding aircraft.

1 0 0 0
To request clearance from To correct for known wind to remain To request from ATC different
ATC for applying a wind within the protected airspace. heading for wind correction.
correction.
0 0 1 0
ENR AD GEN
0 0 0 1
0.8 % gradient. 0 ft. 3.3 % gradient.

0 0 1 0
30°. 45°. 12.5°.
1 0 0 0
2 minutes. 3 minutes. 1 minute 30 seconds.
0 0 0 1
Up to 4. Up to 5. 3.
0 0 1 0
At the final en-route fix. At the IAF. At the IF.
0 0 1 0
150m (492 ft). 300m (984 ft). At least 150m (492 ft).

1 0 0 0
Distance end of route. Departure end of route. Distance end of runway.
1 0 0 0
Code 7500. Code 7700. Code 7600.

0 1 0 0
Code 7700. Code 7500. Code 7600.
0 1 0 0
To apply a reduced vertical To apply a horizontal separation less To provide instructions in order to
separation of 500 feet than 5 NM. reduce separations minima, if
between IFR flights and accepted by the pilots.
VFR flights.
1 0 0 0
To assist aircraft due to To assist aircraft on the location To assist aircraft where navigation
failure of airborne storms. appears unsatisfactory.
equipment.
1 0 0 0
Inform the aircraft only if Inform the aircraft prior to issue any Inform the aircraft only if
radar identification has instructions or advice based on the communication's load permits it.
been achieved without use of radar.
availability of SSR.
0 0 1 0
To provide instructions to To conduct precision radar approach To apply a horizontal separation less
reduce the separation (PAR). than 5 NM.
minima.
0 0 1 0
2 NM. 4 NM. 5 NM.

0 1 0 0
50 degrees with the plane 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry 80 degrees with the plane of
of symmetry of the latter of the latter symmetry of the latter
1 0 0 0
To instruct the pilot to To instruct the pilot to execute one or To instruct the pilot to execute one
execute one or more more changes of 30° or more. or more changes of 20° or more.
changes of 45°.
0 0 1 0
16 years 18 years 21 years 1 0 0 0
You will be given traffic ATC is receiving your transponder and Your aircraft has been identified on
advisories until advised will furnish vectors and traffic the radar display and radar flight
that the service has been advisories until you are advised that instructions will be provided until
terminated or that radar contact has been lost. radar identification is terminated.
contact has been lost.

0 0 0 1
You are still in radar You should maintain that airway by Radar Service is terminated.
contact, but must make use of your navigation equipment.
position reports.
0 0 1 0
the Air Navigation the Assembly the Council
Commission
0 1 0 0
With a CPL With a theorical CPL examination plus With an ATPL
flight instructor rating 0 0 1 0
1 year 6 months 5 years
0 1 0 0
Racetrack pattern. Procedure turn. Shuttle.
0 0 0 1
To request pilot to switch Observation of compliance with an To request pilot to set transponder
from "ON" to "STDBY". instruction to operate transponder on position "ON".
from "ON" to "STBY" and back to
"ON".
0 0 1 0
They operate within They operate a transponder with Mode They operate within non controlled
controlled airspace. C. airspace. 1 0 0 0
1 minute 15 seconds. 1minute 30 seconds. 2 minutes.

1 0 0 0
1000 ft. 3000 ft. 2500 ft.
0 0 1 0
according pilot's choice. as altitude. as height.
0 0 1 0
According to pilot's choice. as flight level. as height.
0 0 1 0
Only when the aircraft is Only when the aircraft is flying within Only when directed by ATC.
flying within airspace where controlled airspace.
SSR is used for ATS
purposes.

1 0 0 0
Shall continuously operate Shall continuously operate this mode Shall continuously operate this
this mode unless otherwise only when directed by ATC. mode regardless of ATC
directed by ATC. instructions.

0 1 0 0
20°. 5°. 10°.

0 0 1 0
7600. 7000. 7500.

0 0 0 1
Heading. Course. Bearing.
0 1 0 0
Read back the mode and Use only the word ROGER. Use only the word WILCO.
code to be set. 0 1 0 0
5 minutes. 15 minutes. 3 minutes.

1 0 0 0
15 minutes. 5 minutes. 3 minutes.

0 0 1 0
6 minutes. 10 minutes. 3 minutes.

0 0 0 1
2 minutes. 5 minutes. 3 minutes.

0 0 1 0
3 minutes. 5 minutes. 10 minutes.

0 1 0 0
7700. 7600. 2000.

0 0 1 0
Arrival, intermediate and Initial and final. Initial, intermediate and final.
final. 0 0 0 1
the Warsaw Convention the Paris Convention the Tokyo Convention

1 0 0 0
Intersect the localizer at Intersect the localizer at 30° and will Intersect the localizer at 45° and will
45° and will not be more 10 not be more 5 NM in length. not be more 5 NM in length.
NM in length.
0 1 0 0
300m (984 ft). 450m (1476 ft). 600m (1968 ft).

1 0 0 0
Initial approach segment. Intermediate approach segment. Arrival segment.

1 0 0 0
FAP. FAF. MAP.
0 1 0 0
150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft). 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
ft).
0 0 0 1
3 NM. 5 km. 3 km.
1 0 0 0
3m. 9m. 12m.

1 0 0 0
2 minutes. 1 minute 15 seconds. 1 minute.

0 0 1 0
5%. 2.5%. 0.8%.
0 0 1 0
At the missed approach At the first point where 50m (164 ft) At the point where a new approach,
point. obstacle clearance is obtained and holding or return to en-route flight is
can be maintained. initiated.
1 0 0 0
Visual manoeuvring Visual approach. Contact approach.
(circling).

0 1 0 0
Permits circling only in Recommends not to perform circling Prohibits the circling approach to the
VMC. within the total sector in which the affected runway.
obstacle exists.

1 0 0 0
full scale deflection of the half scale deflection of the localizer full scale deflection of the localizer
localizer indicator and half indicator. indicator.
scale deflection of the
glidepath indicator.

0 0 1 0
A contact flight manoeuvre. A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the A visual manoeuvre to be conducted
runway in sight. only in IMC.
0 0 1 0
One scale deflection. A quarter of scale deflection. One and a half of scale deflection.

1 0 0 0
while taxiing, but not when outside the daylight-period at engine- on the ground when the engines are
it is being towed; start. During the daylight-period this is running
not applicable;

0 0 0 1
The lower limit of a TMA The lower limit of a CTA shall be The upper limit of a CTR shall be
shall be established at a established at a height of at least established at a height of at least
height of at least 700ft 1500ft AGL; 3000ft AMSL;
AGL;
0 1 0 0
Composite separation Combined separation Reduced separation

0 1 0 0
NOTAM, AIP and MAL in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive only in NOTAM
Supplement. 0 0 1 0
mandatory instruction information signs; yellow or black mandatory instruction signs ; red
signs; black background background with black or yellow background with black inscriptions.
with red inscriptions. inscriptions.
0 0 1 0
of an emergency. the estimated time is in error by more it is a deviation from the track.
than 10 minutes.
1 0 0 0
the other Contracting United Nations to all States Members of United
States Nations 1 0 0 0
at least 2000 feet within 8 at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the
KM of the estimated estimated position estimated position
position

0 1 0 0
8%. 6,5%. 5%.

0 0 1 0
this aerodrome is using taxiing need not be confined to the gliderflying is performed outside the
parallel runways taxiways ; landing area;

0 0 1 0
request ATC for other select code A7500 on your follow the instructions of the
instructions. transponder. intercepting aircraft.

0 0 0 1
A defined are symmetrically the most critical part of the segment the first part of the segment ;
disposed about the nominal where the minimum altitude should be
flight track in which full kept very carefully;
obstacle clearance is
provided.

0 1 0 0
984 ft 1476 ft 492 ft
0 1 0 0
during IFR and VFR flights during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is as in above, but in addition there
in VMC; 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA should be a visibility of 5,5 km or
or MDA for that procedure; more

1 0 0 0
the aircraft gets radar the pilot is following the published all mentioned answers are correct
vectors ; approach procedure

0 0 0 1
you are not allowed to departure to the nearest suitable you must indicate the failure in the
commence the flight airport where repair can be effected is fightplan, after which the ATC will
allowed endeavour to provide for
continuation of the flight;
0 0 1 0
two way a clearance is required. a clearance and two-way
radiocommunication is not radiocommunication is required.
required.

0 1 0 0
150m 300m 600m
1 0 0 0
three or more groundlights a highted obstacle near the runway a CAT II or III holding position.
closely spaced together to and/or taxiway.
appear as a bar of lights.

0 1 0 0
a RVR of 200 meters and a a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of
DH of not less than 100 ft. not less than 100 ft. not less than 200 ft.
0 0 1 0
5 Km 15 Km 20 Km 1 0 0 0
450 m from threshold 600 m from threshold 300 m from threshold
0 0 0 1
to the right to the left in a direction depending on the entry
; 0 1 0 0
ATC permission is required An aircraft entering the traffic circuit The aerodrome control service is a
for entering the apron with without permission of ATC, will be service provided for the purpose of
a vehicule cleared to land if this is desirable ; preventing collisions between
aircraft on the movement area;

0 0 1 0
20 degrees or less 10 degrees or less 30 degrees or less

0 0 0 1
The distress phase is Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft Alerting Service and Flight
established when an known or believed to be the subject of Information Service are often
aircraft is known or unlawful interference, shall be provided by the same ATS unit
believed th be the subject informed about this;
of unlawful interference

0 0 0 1
If it is anticipated that an Approach control have to advise the An approach sequence shall be
aircraft has to hold for 30 aircraft operators about substantial established according to the
minutes or more, an delays in departure in any event when sequence of initial radio contact
Expected Approach Time they are expected to exceed 45 between aircraft and approach
will be transmitted by the minutes ; control ;
most expeditious means to
the aircraft
0 1 0 0
5NM 1NM 2NM

0 0 1 0
always of a straight row of of flashing lights only; of an arbitrary amount of green
lights towards the runway lights;

1 0 0 0
25 NM 10 NM 15 NM

0 1 0 0
10° of the alignment of the 25° of the alignment of the runway 15° of the alignment of the runway
runway centre-line centre-line centre-line
0 0 0 1
1,5 NM 3 NM 5 NM

1 0 0 0
the pilot-in-command ; the "flight-operations" of the company the state
0 0 0 1
LLL DDD PAN

0 0 0 1
17 and 59 years 18 and 60 years 21 and 59 years
0 0 0 1
by states on the basis of by states but not on the basis of by ICAO on the basis of regional air
regional air navigation regional air agreements navigation agreements
agreements
0 1 0 0
F and G only A, B, C, D, E, F and G F only

1 0 0 0
the state of registry and the International Telecommunication the state of registry
accepted by the Union
International
Telecommunication Union

1 0 0 0
to the International Civil to the state of registry by the to the State of registry by the
Aviation Organisation by International Civil Aviation International Telecommunication
the International Organisation Union
Telecommunication Union

0 1 0 0
the state of registry only the International Civil Aviation the Internationnal
Organisation Telecommunication Union
1 0 0 0
A SIGMET information A NOTAM An En-Route Meteo Report

1 0 0 0
TTT FFF RCC

0 1 0 0
15 seconds of UTC at all 10 seconds of UTC at all times 1 minute of UTC at all times
times
1 0 0 0
LLL XXX DDD

0 0 1 0
at least 60 centimetres at least 75 centimetres at least 50 centimetres

0 0 0 1
at least 40 centimetres at least 20 centimetres at least between 20 centimetres and
40 centimetres
1 0 0 0
up to 5.700 kg maximum up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate over 5.700 kg maximum certificate
certificate take-off mass take-off and landing mass take-off mass

0 0 0 1
the state of manufacture the state of design and the state of the state of registry considers that
informs the state of registry manufacture inform the state of the damage sustained is of a nature
that the damage sustained registry that the aircraft is still such that the aircraft is still airworthy
is of a nature such that the airworthy
aircraft is still airworthy

0 0 0 1
all limiting mass, mass all limiting mass, centres of gravity all limiting mass, centres of gravity
distributions and centres of position and floor loadings position, mass distributions and floor
gravity loadings
0 0 0 1
three letters combinations letters used for ICAO identification five letter combinations used in the
used in the international documents international code of signals
code of signals

0 0 0 1
15 NM on the route 15 NM on the route between 30° and 22.5 NM on the route between 30°
between 30° and 90° at 90° at and above FL 200 and 90° at and above FL 250
and below FL 190

0 1 0 0
to all international civil air only to all international civil transport only to passengers and aircrew in
transport including aircraft including aircraft engaged solely in the international civil transport flights
engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
carriage of cargo and yet to
domestic flights at the
discretion of each member
state
0 1 0 0
3 NM from touch-down; 4 NM from touch-down; 2 NM from touch-down;

0 0 0 1
ATC will apply separation ATC will apply separation with other the pilot to apply separation with
with other arriving traffic traffic other traffic;
0 0 1 0
domestic air services ; a national air carrier; a flight above territorial waters; 0 1 0 0
urgent messages a position report, including aircraft weather noted ;
identification, height, position and time
;
0 0 1 0
Notification of the pilot in Agreement between the state of Agreement between the state of
command of a decision to embarcation and the state of embarcation and the airport of
permit a weapon to be destination arrival
carried on board his aircraft
only

1 0 0 0
60 NM or more 75 NM or more 50 NM or more

0 1 0 0
the boarding will be at the the boarding has to be done at the boarding prior to all passengers
pilot in command discretion state discretion
0 0 0 1
15 minutes or more 10 minutes 20 minutes
1 0 0 0
plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent
per cent containment basis containment basis containment basis
0 0 0 1
20 NM on the route 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and 25.0 NM on the route between 30°
between 30° and 90° at above FL200 and 90° at and above FL 250
and above FL200
0 0 1 0
2 minutes 3 minutes 30 seconds
0 0 0 1
at least every half an hour as prescribed by the meteorological as prescribed by the state
independently of any office
significant change
1 0 0 0
the unit as prescribed the the air traffic services the meteorological office serving the
states aerodrome (s)
0 0 1 0
Shall be transmitted on the Shall not be transmitted on the voice Shall only be transmitted on a
voice channel of an ILS, on of a VOR discrete VHF frequency
a discrete VHF frequency
or on the voice channel of
a VOR
1 0 0 0
Deportees, inadmissible Deportees and persons in lawful Deportees and inadmissible persons
persons and persons in custody only only
lawful custody
0 1 0 0
15 hours of instrument time 10 hours of instrument instruction time 20 hours of instrument instruction
of which not more than 5 of which not more than 5 hours may time of which not more than 5 hours
hours as pilot in command be instrument ground time may be instrument ground time.

0 0 1 0
200 ft 350 ft_x000D_ 400 ft

1 0 0 0
the licence is issued or the licence is delivered to the pilot the medical assessment is issued
renewed 0 0 0 1
the Contracting state shall not extend beyond the period of shall not extend beyond the period
rendering a licence valid validity of the licence other than for of validity of the licence
may extend the date of the use in private flights
validity at its own
discretion
0 0 0 1
12 months to 3 months 24 months to 12 months none of the answers are correct

1 0 0 0
for any type of aircraft only aircraft certificated for operation only for aircraft certificated for
whenever considered with a minimum crew of at least two operation with a minimum crew of at
necessary by the authority pilots least two pilots and each type of
helicopter
0 1 0 0
50% of his flight time in full with his flight time towards the in full with his flight but not more
towards the total time total time required for higher grade of than 300 hours towards the total
required for higher grade of pilot licence time required for a higher grade of
pilot licence pilot licence

0 0 1 0
40 hours and 10 hours 40 hours and 15 hours 50 hours and 15 hours

1 0 0 0
150 hours of flight time and 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours
100 hours as pilot in completed during a course of as pilot in command
command approved training as a pilot of
aeroplanes
0 0 1 0
75 hours of which not more 100 hours, of which not more than 25 100 hours of which not more than 20
than 20 hours shall have hours shall have been acquired in a hours shall have been acquired in a
been acquired in a flight flight procedure trainer or basic basic instrument flight trainer
procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
instrument flight trainer

0 0 1 0
ICAO and other Each contracting state ICAO
organisations including the
contracting state
concerned
0 0 1 0
Shall be specified to ICAO, Should be specified to ICAO and to Shall be specified to ICAO
ECAC and to other ECAC
contracting states

0 0 0 1
Correct. The aircraft operator and the pilot in These measures are of the
command are only to be informed discretion of the contracting state.
when any passenger is the subject of
judicial proceedings.

1 0 0 0
the pilot in command. the approach controller. the radar controller._x000D_

0 1 0 0
search and rescue air traffic coordination control centres only.
coordination centres. centres._x000D_
1 0 0 0
20 knots and not within 4 10 knots and not within 5 NM of 15 knots at any stage
NM of threshold threshold

0 1 0 0
5 hours of night flight time 5 hours of night flight time including 5 5 hours of night flight time including
including 5 take offs and 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in
landings as pilot in in command or as co-pilot command
command
0 1 0 0
to act as pilot in command to act as pilot in command in any none of the answers are correct
in any aeroplane engaged aeroplane certificate for single pilot
in commercial air operation other than in commercial air
transportation transportation

1 0 0 0
For all categories of For each category of aircraft, and it Only for categories A and B aircraft.
aircraft, and it is the same may be different for each one of them.
for all of them.
0 0 1 0
the Warsaw Convention the Montreal Convention the Rome Convention

0 0 0 1
the convention of Tokyo the convention of Paris the convention of Rome
0 1 0 0
the convention of Tokyo the convention of Warsaw the convention of Rome
0 1 0 0
the above convention does caused in the territory of a contracting only caused in the territory of a
not deal with this item state or in a ship or aircraft registered contracting state by an aircraft
there in , by an aircraft registered in registered in the territory of another
the territory of another contraction contracting state
state
0 0 1 0
40 % of the co-pilot flight 100 hours of flying time required for a 60 % of the co-pilot flight time
time towards, the total flight higher grade of a pilot licence towards, the total flight time required
time required for a higher for a higher grade of a pilot licence
grade of a pilot licence

1 0 0 0
Two consecutive periods A single period of six months in the in the case of a private pilot, a single
each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an period of 12 months
case of a flight crew aircraft engaged in commercial
member of an aircraft operations.
engaged in non
commercial operations

1 0 0 0
a current class II medical a current class III medical assessment a current class medical assessment
assessment as prescribed by the state issuing
the licence
1 0 0 0
± 2.5 NM ± 5 NM ± 10 NM

0 0 1 0
20 hours and 270 km 20 hours and 540 km (300NM) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
(150NM)

0 0 1 0
25 hours of cross country 15 hours of cross country flight time as 20 hours of cross country flight time
flight time as pilot-in- pilot-in-command including a cross as pilot-in-command including a
command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km cross country flight not less than 540
country flight not less than (300NM) km (300NM)
540 km (300NM)

0 0 0 1
250 hours and 100 hours 200 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 100 hours

0 1 0 0
150 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 100 hours

0 0 0 1
100 hours of instrument 150 hours of instrument time, of which 75 hours of instrument time, of
time, of which not more not more than 75 hours of instrument which not more than 20 hours of
than 30 hours of instrument ground time. instrument ground time.
ground time
1 0 0 0
100 hours of night flight 75 hours of night flight as pilot in 75 hours of night time only as pilot in
only as pilot in command command or as co-pilot command
1 0 0 0
16 years of age 18 years of age 21 years of age
0 0 1 0
Annex 1 Annex 2 Annex 11_x000D_

0 1 0 0
250 ft 150 ft_x000D_ 100 ft

1 0 0 0
true air speed (TAS). estimated ground speed (G/S). indicated air speed (IAS).

0 1 0 0
(1), then by mutual consent (1), then by mutual consent (2) until (1), and then by mutual consent to
(2) and then (3). the completion of operations. (3)._x000D_

0 1 0 0
transmit, by luminous fly over the group of people in difficulty switch his landing lights on and off
Morse signal, a series of as low as possible. twice or, if he is not so equipped, his
the letter "R" using navigation lights twice.
his_x000D_
navigational lights.
0 0 0 1
Hague Convention. Montreal Convention. Warsaw Convention.

0 0 0 1
aeronautical standards proposals for aeronautical regulations standards and recommended
adopted by all states. in the form of 18 annexes. _x000D_ practices applied without exception
by all states, signatory to the
Chicago convention.

1 0 0 0
at transition altitude during at transition level during climb and only at transition altitude.
climb and transition level transition altitude during descent.
during descent.

0 1 0 0
The right to board The right to overfly without landing. The right to land for a technical stop.
passengers from the state
where the aircraft is
registered and to fly to an
other state.
0 0 1 0
may ask an aircraft to may require to change the call sign for must not ask an aircraft to change its
temporarily change its call safety reasons when there is a risk of call sign._x000D_
sign for safety reasons confusion between two or more similar
when there is a risk of call signs providing the aircraft is on a
confusion between two or repetitive flight plan.
more similar call signs.

0 1 0 0
right to land for a technical right to overfly without landing right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-
stop border traffic).

0 1 0 0
Chicago The Hague Warsaw_x000D_
0 1 0 0
"Need medical assistance". "Landing impossible". "All occupants alive"._x000D_

0 1 0 0
return to land and that not land for the moment regardless of not land because the airport is not
clearance to land will be previous instructions. available for landing.
communicated in
due_x000D_
course. 0 0 0 1
the passengers concerned only the passengers are to be re only the passengers cabin baggage
and their cabin baggage screened are to be re screened
shall be re screened before
boarding an aircraft

0 1 0 0
Regulation of Damage caused by any aircraft to third offences and certain other acts
transportation of dangerous parties on the surface committed on board aircraft
goods
1 0 0 0
A publication issued by or A notice distributed by means of A package which consists of the
with the authority of a state telecommunication containing following elements : AIP,
containing aeronautical information_x000D_ supplements to the AIP, NOTAM,
information of a lasting concerning the establishment, AIC, checklists and summaries.
character essential to air condition or change in any
navigation. aeronautical_x000D_
facility service, procedure or hazard,
the timely knowledge of
which_x000D_
is essential to personnel concerned
with flight operations.

1 0 0 0
7 000 kg. 14 000 kg. 20 000 kg._x000D_

0 1 0 0
5 NM 25 NM 20 NM

0 0 1 0
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL. FL 30 or 100 ft AGL._x000D_
AGL.

0 1 0 0
will leave the initial will arrive overhead the initial will land.
approach fix to start the approach fix.
final approach.
0 0 1 0
2% 5%_x000D_ 3.3%

1 0 0 0
using bearing, elevation carried out by a crew of at least two using bearing, elevation and
and distance information, pilots trained with a specific working distance information.
providing the pilot uses a method.
flight director or an
autopilot certified to a
height below 200 ft.

0 0 0 1
may continue to taxy must stop. must return to its point of
towards the take-off area. departure._x000D_
0 1 0 0
required by the aircraft required by the aircraft from the required by the aircraft from brake
from take-off to arrive moment it moves by its own power release at take-off until
overhead the destination until it stops at the end of the flight landing._x000D_
airport. (block time).
0 1 0 0
write XXXX in box 16 and write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in
indicate in box 18 box 18 (additional information) box 18 (additional information)
(additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of ALTN/followed by the name of
DEGT/followed by the the_x000D_airport. the_x000D_airport.
name of the airport
0 0 0 1
3rd freedom 4th freedom 2nd freedom

0 0 0 1
030° true_x000D_ 030° true, in still air conditions 030° magnetic
(thereby flying the true track)

0 0 0 1
A 0020 Mode C A 7600 Mode C A 5300 Mode C

0 0 1 0
its purpose is to supply it has the same privileges and its only purpose is to relay ATC
ATC services but it is not a prerogatives as an ATC organisation information to the aircraft in flight or
state organisation. but its activity is neither continuous nor on the ground.
regular.

1 0 0 0
with the pilot's through a central control unit. by agreement with the receiving unit.
consent._x000D_
0 0 0 1
must come back to land is cleared to land. must land immediately and clear the
and the landing clearance landing area._x000D_
will be sent in due time.

0 1 0 0
1 - 4_x000D_ 2-3-5 3-5

0 0 0 1
must vacate the landing must stop. must return to its point of
area in use. departure._x000D_
0 1 0 0
Instructional flight time as Cross country flight time as pilot-in- Cross country flight time as pilot of
student-pilot-in-command command in aeroplanes or helicopters aeroplanes or helicopters of which at
of aeroplanes or of which at least 10 hours shall be in least 10 hours shall be in
helicopters of which at aeroplanes. aeroplanes.
least 10 hours shall be in
aeroplanes.
0 0 1 0
15 degrees 30 degrees 25 degrees

0 0 1 0
the missed approach track the missed approach track for one the missed approach track for one
for one approach diverges approach diverges by at least 45° approach diverges by at least 30°
by at least 25° (degrees) (degrees) from the missed approach (degrees) from the missed approach
from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach track of the adjacent approach
track of the adjacent
approach

0 0 0 1
125 kt 150 kt 135 kt

0 0 0 1
VH (visibility horizontal) ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, VH (visibility horizontal) greater or
greater or equal to VH and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing on
required for landing, and equal to VH required for landing, with the runway to be used
ceiling greater or equal to an available instrument approach
ceiling required for landing, procedure
with an available
instrument approach
procedure

0 0 1 0
5.0 NM 1.0 NM 2.0 NM

1 0 0 0
3 minutes 1 minute 2 minutes

0 0 0 1
Less than 730 m 730 m Less than 760 m

0 0 0 1
150 m (500 ft) 100 m (330 ft) 300 m (1000 ft)

0 0 0 1
medium aircraft other light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 medium aircraft behind heavy
medium aircraft - 2 minutes minutes aircraft - 3 minutes

1 0 0 0
E airspace D and E airspaces D airspace

0 1 0 0
3 minutes 1 minute 5 minutes

1 0 0 0
One year Two years up to age 40 years then Five years after licence issuie.
one year thereafter. 1 0 0 0
The application is received Of the last medical certificate Of issue
by the Authority.
0 0 0 1
5 KT 3 KT 2 KT

0 0 0 1
On at least 20 occasions On at least ten occasions or every day On at least ten occasions or every
over a period of at least ten day over a period of at least 20
consecutive days consecutive days
0 0 1 0
The aeroplane or a There is a serious and imminent The aeroplane has suffered
passenger's safety require danger requiring immediate damages which impair its fitness to
the flight immediately assistance. fly.
interrupted.
0 0 1 0
Setting the SSR decoder to Setting the SSR decoder to mode A Setting the SSR decoder to mode A
mode A 7500 then to 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500 and thereafter to code
standby and thereafter to code 7500 7700
code 7700

0 0 0 1
100 NM 70 NM 60 NM

1 0 0 0
20 NM 10 NM 25 NM

0 1 0 0
3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes

0 1 0 0
A certificate of Handling characteristics that require Handling characteristics that require
airworthiness issued by the additional flying or simulator training the use of more than one crew
manufacturer. member

0 0 1 0
10 minutes 15 minutes 5 minutes

0 1 0 0
Any other type of All self.-sustaining gliders. All types of single-pilot, single-
aeroplane if considered engine aeroplanes fitted with a
necessary. turbojet engine.

0 0 1 0
At the discretion of the At the discretion of the Authority of that At the discretion of the Authority of
Authority of that Member Member State concerned for a period that Member State concerned for a
State concerned for a not exceeding one year, provided that period not exceeding one year,
period not exceeding one the basic licence remains valid. provided that the basic licence
year remains valid.

0 0 0 1
More than 12 hours More than 12 days More than one week

0 1 0 0
24 months until age of 40, 60 months until age of 30, 24 months 60 months until age of 30, 24
12 months until age of 60 until age of 50, 12 months until age of months until age of 40, 12 months
and 6 months thereafter 65 and 6 months thereafter thereafter

0 0 1 0
200 hours of flight time plus 150 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time
10 hours of instrument
ground time

0 0 1 0
The period of validity of the Indefinitely one year
licence. 0 0 0 1
descend to En-route land on the closest appropriate adopt a VFR flight level and
Minimum Safe Altitude and aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic continue flight onto destination
join closest airfield open to Services of landing
IFR operations

0 0 1 0
10 minutes 2 minutes 5 minutes

0 0 0 1
Airspace B Airspace E Airspace A

1 0 0 0
500 m is established 710 m is established between 600 m is established between
between extended runway extended runway centre lines and as extended runway centre lines and as
centre lines and as is is depicted on the radar display is depicted on the radar display
depicted on the radar
display
1 0 0 0
have to be as agreed at the need not to be identical with those has to be the same as the
regional air navigation applicable in the underlying flight underlying flight information region
meetings information region
0 0 1 0
8 km visibility when at or 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m
above 3050 m (10.000 ft) ft) AMSL, clear of clouds (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal
AMSL, and 1500 m and 300 m vertical from cloud
horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds
1 0 0 0
5 km below 3050 m 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft)
(10.000 ft) AMSL and clear 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300
of clouds from clouds m vertical from clouds
0 1 0 0
5 NM at or above 3050 m 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft)
(10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m AMSL, and clear of clouds AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m
horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
vertical from clouds

0 0 0 1
A to G (inclusive) A to E (inclusive) F and G

1 0 0 0
Airspace B Airspace C Airspace D

0 1 0 0
only that aircraft which an aircraft in a given area but whose An aircraft which has deviated
reports that it is lost identity has not been established significantly from its intended track
or which reports that it is lost
0 0 0 1
Airspace A Airspace E Airspace D

0 0 1 0
Airspace F Airspace G Airspace E

0 1 0 0
Airspace C Airspace E Airspace G

0 0 0 1
Annex 6 Annex 17 Annex 11

0 0 0 1
it is permitted to deviate Follow the radio communication failure inform the ATC immediately and
from the prescribed holding procedure. request a revised clearance.
pattern at pilots discretion.
0 0 0 1
240 kt IAS. 240 kt TAS. 230 kt IAS.
0 0 0 1
Airspace D Airspace E Airspace B

1 0 0 0
at least 45° (degrees) from at least 25° (degrees) from the missed at least 15° (degrees) from the
the missed approach track approach track of the adjacent missed approach track of the
of the adjacent approach approach adjacent approach

1 0 0 0
3 KT 10 KT 8 KT

1 0 0 0
Raise arm and hand, with Arms down , palms facing inwards, Crossing arms extended above his
fingers extended, moving arms from extended position head
horizontally in front of inwards.
body , then clench fist
0 1 0 0
Request an amended Submit a detailed report to ATC within Squawk 7700
clearance or cancel the 24 hours
IFR flight plan

1 0 0 0
Inform the ATC unit If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting Notify ATC of the new track
immediately for the ATC instructions immediately and comply with
instructions
1 0 0 0
Aircraft "B" regardless of Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right
the direction "A" is
approaching

0 0 1 0
below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the
below the highest minimum highest minimum sector altitude, highest minimum sector altitude,
sector altitude, whichever whichever is the greater whichever is the greater
is the greater

0 1 0 0
at least 3.0 NM prior to at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting
intercepting the ILS glide the ILS glide path or specified MLS the ILS glide path or specified MLS
path or specified MLS elevation angle elevation angle
elevation angle

1 0 0 0
Give way to another aircraft Dangerous airfield. Do not land. Not with standing any previous
and hold the circuit. instructions, do not land for the time
being.
0 0 0 1
2 minutes 3 minutes 4 minutes

0 1 0 0
Not applicable 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS

0 1 0 0
Not applicable 240 KT IAS 250 KT IAS

0 0 0 1
250 KT TAS Not applicable 260 KT IAS

1 0 0 0
260 KT IAS Not applicable 250 KT IAS

0 0 1 0
Has a maximum mass over Has a maximum mass over 100.000 Has a maximum mass over 27.000
2 250 kg kg kg

0 0 1 0
1 000 feet above the 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle 1 000 feet above the highest
highest obstacle within 8 within 8 kilometres of course obstacle within 8 nautical miles of
kilometres of the estimated course
position of the aircraft

0 1 0 0
Poor Good Medium/poor 0 1 0 0
NAVTAM VULTAM ASHTAM

0 0 0 1
6 NM 3 NM 2 km

0 1 0 0
Procedure turn. Base turn. Race track.

0 1 0 0
Mean sea level. Aeredrome reference point. Relevant runway threshold. 0 1 0 0
leave the intermediate pass the fix not below the specified follow approximately 50 feet above
approach altitude, step by crossing altitude. the nominal glide path.
step until reaching the
MAPt.
0 0 1 0
Base turn Procedure turn Reversal procedure

0 1 0 0
When the aircraft is in When the aircraft has the control When the aircraft is in contact with
visual contact with the tower in sight the ground but not with the runway
ground and with the runway in sight yet
lights in sight
0 1 0 0
25° or the bank angle The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s
giving a 3°/s turn rate, for all procedures with airspeed turn rate, whichever is lower, for
whichever is lower, for limitation related to aeroplane departure and approach instrument
departure and approach categories. procedures, 25° for circling-to-land
instrument procedures, as with prescribed flight tracks and 15°
well as circle-to-land, and for missed approach procedures.
15° for missed approach
procedures.

1 0 0 0
The air traffic controller will Continued approach will be according The approach must be passing the
provide separation to other to VFR FAF
controlled traffic

0 1 0 0
At the discretion of the air If the commander of the involved Only if the air traffic controller has
traffic controller aircraft so requests the involved aircraft in sight

1 0 0 0
If instructed by ATC so long If instructed by ATCso long as VMC is Only when leaving controlled
as VMC is forecasted forecasted during the next 60 minutes airspace
during the next 30 minutes

1 0 0 0
only in airspace class A if the obstacle clearance is more than Above the transition altitude when
2000 feet applicable
0 0 0 1
Within the transition layer When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 When passing the transition level
FT AGL 0 0 0 1
4 KT 10 KT 5 KT

0 0 1 0
500 feet 1500 feet 2000 feet
1 0 0 0
Annex 6 Annex 11 Annex 10

1 0 0 0
Annex 2 Annex 3 Annex 4

1 0 0 0
Continue at an altitude that Fly the emergency triangle Declare an emergency
differs from the
semicircular rule with 1000
feet when above FL 290
and 500 feet when lower
than FL 290

0 1 0 0
ICAO must be informed ICAO must be informed about ICAO shall approve the pricing of
about new flight crew differences from the standards in any tickets on international airline
licenses and any of the Annexes to the convention connections
suspended validity of such
licenses
0 0 1 0
Request an amended Initiate a missed approach Descend to OCL/ACH and in the
clearance hope that the visibility is better at a
lower altitude
0 0 1 0
Obstacles penetrating the OCH or OCA DME-frequencies
obstacle free area in the
final approach sector
1 0 0 0
on the initiative of the at the clearance limit, irrespective of as instructed by an air traffic control
aircraft commander the weather conditions unit
0 1 0 0
The government of the Operators of the same aircraft type The aircraft manufacturer
state in which the accident
took place

0 1 0 0
The aircraft is subject to Position reports may be omitted The radar identity of the aircraft has
positive control been established
0 0 0 1
5 crossbars, centre line 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1
with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per lamps per light unit lamp per light unit
light unit
0 1 0 0
either altitude above mean altitude above mean sea level during altitude above mean sea level
sea level or flight level descent during climb
during climb
0 0 1 0
flight level on or below the altitude above sea level on or below altitude above sea level on or above
transition altitude the transition altitude the transition altitude
0 0 1 0
When the other aircraft has When the other aircraft has reported When the other aircraft has reported
reported that it has left FL that it has reached FL 70 that it has left FL 120
140

1 0 0 0
Single-engine/inactive. Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated Land/inactive.
inoperative.

0 0 1 0
If you have other visual Turn towards the inner marker for the Initiate a missed approach
cues, continue with ground runway in use, maintaining circling
contact alitude

0 0 0 1
2 NM from the touchdown 3 NM from the touchdown 1.5 NM from the touchdown

1 0 0 0
NOTAM EATCHIP AIRAC

0 0 0 1
243.0 MHz 2.182 KHz 2430 KHz
0 0 0 1
60 90 21

0 0 0 1
FAF. Final missed approach track. Landing runway.

0 0 0 1
After 21 days of as soon as possible if the illness is after one calendar month of
consecutive "illness" expected to last more than 21days consecutive illness
0 1 0 0
1 2 3

0 1 0 0
until ten minutes before the until five minutes before the arriving until three minutes before the
arriving aircraft is estimated aircraft is estimated to be over the arriving aircraft is estimated to be
to be over the instrument instrument runway over the instrument runway
runway
0 0 1 0
Require medical assistance Require assistance Please indicate direction
0 0 1 0
1 NM 1.5 NM half mile

1 0 0 0
5 NM from touchdown 2 NM from touchdown 3 NM from touchdown

0 0 1 0
4 NM from the touchdown 5 NM from the touchdown 1.5 NM from the touchdown

1 0 0 0
Last 2 NM of the approach Last 4 NM of the approach Last 3 NM of the approach

0 1 0 0
± 25 KT ± 20KT ± 15 KT

0 0 1 0
At least 5 minutes before At least one hour before the expected At least 30 minutes before the
the expected arrival of an arrival of an aircraft expected arrival of an aircraft
aircraft
0 0 1 0
Radar services are You are to contact the centre at the You are to assume responsability for
terminated and you will be next reporting point. your own navigation.
responsable for position
reports.
0 0 0 1
30 m (98 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 90 m (295 ft)

0 1 0 0
rate of 3°per second or at a rate of 3°per second or at a bank rate of 3°per second.
bank angle of 20°, which angle of 25°, which ever requires the
ever requires the lesser lesser bank.
bank.
0 0 1 0
Manoeuvring area. Terminal. Aeronautical part

0 0 0 1
The Annex 17 does not The contracting States will make The contracting States will make
recognise the importance provisions to ensure that an aircraft provisions to ensure that an aircraft
of consusltations between affected by an unlawful seizure act, affected by an unlawful seizure act,
the State where an aircraft which has landed in their territory, which has landed in their territory,
affected by an unlawful world be retained, unless its departure would be detained in all cases.
interference act has landed is justified to protect lives.
and the aircraft operator's
State.

0 0 1 0
15 NM 20 NM 10 NM

0 0 0 1
Chicago convention 1944 Warzaw convention 1929 Geneva convention 1948
0 1 0 0
we have found all we have found only some personnel we are returning to base
personnel

1 0 0 0
50 m (164 ft) 90 m (295 ft) 120 m (384 ft)

1 0 0 0
AIP Amendments NOTAM Trigger NOTAM

1 0 0 0
120 m (384 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 30 m (98 ft)

0 0 1 0
Distress 7500. Hijacking Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500.
7700. Communication Communication failure 7700. Communication failure 7600.
failure 7600.
0 0 0 1
Right hand turns / 1.5 Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes
minutes outbound outbound 1 0 0 0
4 1 2

0 0 1 0
3 4 1

0 0 0 1
Landing here impossible Drop emergency supplies at this point Require medical assistance

0 0 0 1
300 m (984 ft) 210 m (690 ft) 120 m (394 ft)

1 0 0 0
The over-all length of the The over-all length of the longest The over-all length of the longest
longest aeroplane normally aeroplane normally using the aeroplane.
using the aerodrome and aerodrome and its maximum fuselage
its maximum fuselage weight.
width.

0 1 0 0
Descend Let down You land

0 1 0 0
Arms down, palms facing Crossing arms extended above his Horizontally moving hands, fingers
inwards, moving arms from head. extended, palms toward ground.
extended position inwards.

1 0 0 0
60 minutes in excess of the 30 minutes in excess of the estimated 30 minutes in excess of the
estimated time of time off blocks. estimated time of departure.
departure.
0 0 1 0
Estimated time of arrival Estimated elapse time (EET), Present position, estimated time of
(ETA), endurance. endurance. arrival (ETA). 0 1 0 0
Aircraft identification, Aircraft identification, position, time, Aircraft identification, position, time,
position, flight level or true air speed, flight level or altitude, flight level or altitude, next position
altitude,time, next position next position and time over. and time over.
and time over and ensuing
significant point.

1 0 0 0
Try to get contact on other Transmit blind indicating details Try to get contact on other
frequencies either ground required at least 2 times. frequencies either ground or aircraft
or aircraft stations. stations - Transmit being indicating
important details required 2 times.

0 0 0 1
Z I V

0 1 0 0
60 minutes prior to 10 minutes prior to departure. 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
departure. 0 1 0 0
V Z Y

0 0 0 1
The aerodrome is being An area unit for the movement of Special precautions must be
used by gliders and that aircraft. observed due to bad state of the
glider flights are being taxiways.
performed.
0 1 0 0
white blue green 0 1 0 0
aircraft taking off or about other vehicles and pedestrians other converging aircraft
to take off
0 1 0 0
The airport is temporarily Give way to other aircraft in Continue circling and wait for further
closed, continue circling emergency instructions
1 0 0 0
A controlled airspace A controlled airspace extending A controlled airspace extending
extending upwards from a upwards from a specified limit above upwards from a height of 900 feet
height of 1000 feet above the earth. above the earth.
the earth.
0 0 1 0
The pilot in command. The aircraft operator. The ATC.

0 1 0 0
2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 2, 3.

0 0 0 1
20 miles from the centre of 5 nautical miles from the centre of the 10 miles from the centre of the
the aerodrome or aerodrome or aerodromes concerned aerodrome or aerodromes
aerodromes concerned in in the direction from which approaches concerned in the direction from
the direction from which may be made. which approaches may be made.
approaches may be made.

0 0 1 0
300 metres. 150 metres. 500 metres.

1 0 0 0
Area Control Centre - Area Control Centre - Flight Area Control Centre - Flight
Advisory Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Information Centre - Approach
Information Centre - Office and Tower. Control Office - Aerodrome Control
Approach Control Office Tower and Air Traffic Services
and Tower. reporting office.
0 0 0 1
An air traffic control service An air traffic control service provided An air traffic control service provided
provided for IFR and VFR for IFR traffic within a Control Zone. for the arriving and departing
flights within a Control controlled flights.
Zone.
0 0 0 1
Applying separation Preventing collisions between Avoiding colisions between all
between aircraft and controlled air traffic and expediting and aircraft and maintaining an orderly
expediting and maintaining maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic flow of air traffic
an orderly flow of air traffic

1 0 0 0
2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3

1 0 0 0
Providing alerting services Achieving separation between Providing flight Information Service
controlled flights 0 0 1 0
Switching on and off four Switching on and off four times the The repeated switching on and off of
times the landing lights navigation lights the landing lights

0 0 0 1
Only when weather Only when the ceiling and/or visibility Upon receipt of any official weather,
conditions change enough changes by a reportable value regardless of content change or
to require a change in the reported values
active runway or instrument
approach in use

0 0 0 1
flight information or control air traffic co-ordination services search and rescue co-ordination
organisations centres
1 0 0 0
A situation related to an A situation where an apprehension An emergency event in which an
aircraft which reports that exists as to the safety of an aircraft aircraft and its occupants are
the fuel on board is and its occupants. considered to be threatened by a
exhausted. danger.

0 0 1 0
limits flight to up to 8 NM limits such flight to a height sufficient does not permit such flight in any
from the nearest shore. to land safely if the engine fails. circumstances.
0 0 1 0
is 15 minutes. depends on the type of flight (10 is 10 minutes.
minutes for international flights, 5
minutes for domestic flights).
0 1 0 0
All IFR flights. Only controlled IFR flights. All IFR flight in controlled airspaces
and controlled VFR.

0 0 0 1
uncertainty phase, distress uncertainty phase, alert phase, uncertainty phase, alert phase,
phase, urgency phase. distress phase and urgency phase. distress phase.
0 0 0 1
1 500 feet. 4 000 feet. 2 000 feet.
0 0 1 0
NOT POSSIBLE CAN NOT CAN NOT COMPLY

0 0 1 0
The commander The ATC controller if the aircraft is The aircraft owner
flying in a controlled airspace 0 1 0 0
1 000 feet or visibility is 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8
less than 5 km km km
1 0 0 0
500 feet (150 m). 2500 feet (750 m). 1000 feet (300 m).
0 0 0 1
1000 feet (300 m). 500 feet (150 m). 4000 feet (1200 m).
1 0 0 0
2 000 feet horizontally, 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet
1000 feet vertically from vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility. vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
clouds; 5 km visibility.
0 0 1 0
With an intercept of at least With an intercept of at least 30°. On the nearest way.
45°.

0 0 0 1
2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 clear of clouds; 8 km visibility
000 feet verticaly from feet verticaly from clouds; 8 km
clouds; 8 km visibility visibility
0 0 0 1
20 NM (37 km). 30 NM (55 km). 25 NM (46 km).

0 0 0 1
To pass a specified point. To apply a step down descent between To maintain a specified speed during
aircraft in the approach sequence. the approach procedure.
1 0 0 0
Before penetrating the When clear of the airport and After take-off.
clouds. established on the first heading given
in the clearance.
1 0 0 0
60 metres. 50 metres. 30 metres.

0 0 1 0
Known to the relevant air Provided with the air traffic control Provided with air traffic control
traffic services units by a services and otherwise known to the services, only.
filed flight plan. relevant air traffic service units.
0 0 1 0
For all controlled flight, to For all aircraft provided with air traffic To any aircraft known or believed to
any aircraft known or control services, only. be subject of unlawful interference,
believed to be subject of only.
unlawful interference, and
in so far as practicable to
all aircraft having filed a
flight plan or otherwise
known to the ATS.

0 1 0 0
At least 30° separated at a At least 45° separated at a distance of At least 15° separated at a distance
distance of 15 NM or more 15 NM or more from the facility. of 15 miles or more from the facility.
from the facility.
1 0 0 0
He may request and, if He may request another clearance The pilot has to accept the ATC
practicable, obtain an and the ATC concerned has to accept clearance because it has been
amended clearance. the pilot request. based on the flight plan filed with
ATC.
0 1 0 0
Rocking wings twice and Circling the intercepted aircraft in a Rocking the wings and flashing the
crossing in front of the clock-wise pattern. navigational lights.
aircraft.

1 0 0 0
121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

1 0 0 0
The delay is more than 30 The delay is more than 60 minutes of The delay is more than 30 minutes
minutes of the estimated the estimated time off-blocks. of the estimated time off-blocks.
time off departure.

0 0 1 0
Read back the initial route Read back should be unsolicited. Read back the entire clearance as
clearance, level required by regulation.
assignments and
transponder codes.

0 0 0 1
Continue the flight at the Maintain your assigned level and route Return to the aerodrome of
assigned level and route; and land at the nearest aerodrome departure.
start approach at your ETA. that has VMC conditions.

1 0 0 0
Military aircraft VIP (Head of state) aircraft Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick
person needing immediate medical
attention
1 0 0 0
At least 30° separated at a At least 30° separated at a distance of At least 45° separated at a distance
distance of 15 NM or more 15 miles or more from the FIX. of 15 NM or more from the fix.
from the FIX.
0 0 0 1
Providing flight Information Providing advisory service Achieving separation between
Service controlled flights 0 0 0 1
Requested by the pilot, Requested by the pilot and during the Requested by the pilot and
during the day light and day light. authorized by the state overflown.
authorized by the state
overflown.
0 1 0 0
Standard rate turns if not Decided on pilot's discretion. Prescribed by the aircraft
otherwise instructed by operations.
ATC.
0 1 0 0
Vertical, horizontal and Time separation and track separation. Composite separation.
longitudinal separation. 1 0 0 0
7 000 7 700 7 500

0 0 1 0
3% 2% 10 %

1 0 0 0
1 nautical mile horizontally 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet
and 1000 feet vertically vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility. verticaly from clouds; 5 km visibility
from clouds; 8 km visibility

0 0 1 0
At least 30° separated at a At least 30° separated at a distance of At least 15° separated at a distance
distance of 15 miles or 15 NM or more from the facility. of 15 NM or more from the facility.
more from the facility.
0 0 1 0
ENR. MAP. GEN.

0 1 0 0
A landing aircraft can be An aircraft taking-off or landing can be An aircraft can be stopped in the
stopped only in emergency. stopped. case of an abandoned take-off.
0 0 0 1
Flight Information Service Flight Information Service and Flight Information Service and
only. Advisory Service. Alerting Service.

0 0 0 1
6D. 5E. 4F.

1 0 0 0
Do not take off before 0920 The take off clearence is expected at After 0920 return to the ramp and
0920 file a new flight plan
1 0 0 0
24 m up to but not 15 m up to but not including 24 m. 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
including 36 m. 0 0 0 1
Code letter "E". Code letter "C". Code letter "B".

0 0 1 0
Reduce the risk of damage Protect aircraft during take-off or Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails
to aircraft running off a landing operations. the take-off.
runway.
1 0 0 0
The length of the take-off The length of the take-off run available The length of the take-off run
run available plus the plus the length of the stopway. available plus the length of clearway
length of the stopway and available (if provided).
clearway (if provided).

0 0 0 1
23 m. 25 m. 18 m.

0 0 0 1
Precision approach Instrument approach runways, Precision approach runways in
runways category I, II and precision approach runways category general.
III. I, II and III.
1 0 0 0
AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and Only NOTAM's and Circulars. Integrated Aeronautical Information
AIRAC. Package.

0 0 0 1
The length of the take-off The length of the take-off run available The length of the runway plus the
run available plus the plus the length of stopway (if stopway length of stopway available (if
length of the clearway. provided) . stopway provided).
0 0 1 0
NOTAM. AIRAC. Aeronautical Information Circular
(AIC).

0 0 0 1
1 200 m. 1 800 m and over. 1 600 m.

0 0 1 0
FAL. GEN. SAR.

1 0 0 0
COM. MET. GEN.

0 0 0 1
Mode A code 7700. Mode A code 7600. Mode A code 7500.
0 0 1 0
Transition layer. Transition level. The level specified by ATC.

1 0 0 0
2 minutes. 2 minutes 30 seconds. 1 minute 30 seconds.
0 0 0 1
Either "off set" or "parallel". Off set. Parallel.

0 1 0 0
1,5 minutes 30 secondes 1 minute
0 0 0 1
Teardrop to the left and To the right. To the left.
then to the right.
0 0 1 0
Rescue coordination centre Alerting centre and rescue Flight information centre and rescue
and rescue sub-centres. coordination centre. coordination centre.

0 1 0 0
This is an irregularity in the This is an incident and the pilot-in- This is an accident and the crew
operation, the crew must command must report it to the airport must follow the procedure relevant
inform the operator of the authority within the next 48 hours. to this case.
delay caused by necessary
repair.

0 0 0 1
The ATC unit responsible Only by ATC units. The Area Control Centres.
for the aircraft at that
moment, when it is
provided with 121.5 MHz.

1 0 0 0
An Advisory NOTAM. An AIRAC. A NOTAM RAC.

0 0 1 0
Fixed orange. Fixed red. Flashing red. 0 0 1 0
The operator has no The obligation is for the Contracting The obligation of the operator
obligation. State of the operator. terminates as soon as the person
leaves the aeroplane.

1 0 0 0
Fixed lights, white or yellow Fixed lights showing variable white or Flashing white.
colour. yellow. 1 0 0 0
Fixed white. Flashing white. Fixed green.
0 0 1 0
White and green colour White colour identification given by Green colour identification given by
identification given by Morse Code. Morse Code.
Morse Code.
0 0 0 1
4. 5. 3.
0 0 0 1
1. 2. 3.

0 0 1 0
Fixed unidirectional lights Fixed unidirectional lights showing Fixed lights green colours.
showing green in the white in the direction of approach to
direction of approach to the the runway.
runway.

0 1 0 0
The width of the aircraft The lenght of the aircraft fuselage. The aircraft wing span and the outer
wing. main gear wheel span. 0 0 0 1
200 m. 250 m. 300 m.

0 0 0 1
Control zone. Advisory airspace. Flight Information Region.
1 0 0 0
Control area. Air traffic zone. Advisory airspace.
1 0 0 0
Class D. Class E. Class B.

0 0 0 1
All traffic on the All traffic on the movement area and All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
manoeuvring area. flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

1 0 0 0
At least one hour prior to At least when the aircraft enter that At least immediately before landing.
land. state airspace.

1 0 0 0
Air Traffic Control units and Air Traffic Control units and Air Flight Information Centers and Air
Flight Information Centers. Services reporting offices. Services reporting offices.

1 0 0 0
The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be located within The aerodrome shall be located
located within a Control a controlled airspace. within a Control Zone (CTR) and
Zone. provided with a Control Tower.
1 0 0 0
Flashing red. Fixed red. Fixed orange. 1 0 0 0
Fixed lights showing blue. Fixed lights showing yellow. Fixed lights showing white.
1 0 0 0
Fixed showing green. Fixed showing yellow. Flashing showing blue. 1 0 0 0
By a letter - for example 2 By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
parallel runways "L" and parallel runways.
"R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R".
0 1 0 0
On or close to the Above the approach slope. Below the approach slope.
approach slope.
0 1 0 0
Two wing bars of 6 sharp A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi- A wing bar of 4 sharp transition
transition multi-lamp or lamp equally spaced. multi-lamp or paired units equally
paired units equally spaced.
spaced.
0 0 0 1
Precision Approach Path Precision Approach Power Indicator. Precision Approach Power Index.
Index. 1 0 0 0
Flashing lights showing Fixed lights showing variable green. Flashing lights showing variable
variable white. green. 1 0 0 0
Fixed red or preferably Flashing blue. Flashing red or preferably yellow.
blue. 0 0 0 1
Fixed unidirectional lights Fixed unidirectional lights showing Fixed lights showing variable red.
showing red in the direction white in the direction of the runway.
of the runway.
0 1 0 0
 AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT

The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger cabin 1 3 0 2

of an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration for passenger
seats is 31, is:
514 21
The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a 5 minutes 30 minutes 10 minutes 90 seconds
certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut
off for at least:
515 21
The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurized aircraft 3,4 2,3 1,2,3,4 2
at a 240 flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers on
board._x000D_
As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. each crew member will have available a quick fitting inhaler
device._x000D_
2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that the
cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m._x000D_
3 . the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for the supply of 100
% of the occupants during the whole flight time above the flight level 150
after an eventual depressurization._x000D_
4. the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of two
passengers during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is
greater than 8 000 feet._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

516 21
The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating vary the drive the vary directly
system is to : engine rpm generator at generator maintain a
(within limits) a constant rpm in order constant
to speed. to proportion
compensate compensate between the
for various for various rpm of an
AC loads. AC loads. engine and
a generator.

517 21
An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats one fire- three fire- two fire- one fire-
is 10 seats must be equipped with: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
in the s in the s in the in the
cockpit and passenger cockpit and cockpit and
two fire- cabin only. two fire- three fire-
extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s in the s in the s in the
passenger passenger passenger
cabin. cabin. cabin.

518 21
The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum 4 2 1 3
519 21 approved configuration of passenger seats is 201, is :
 In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of amphibians 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2 3, 4 2, 3
and hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person on board is
compulsory when the airplane is :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to
return in the case of an engine failure._x000D_
2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off shore._x000D_
3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a
ditching probability exists in the case of a problem._x000D_
4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM off
shore._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

520 21
In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated : once the when immediately immediately
passengers leaving the on the on ditching.
are in the airplane. opening of
water. the exits.
521 21
In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted of only one no 1 2 2
passenger deck, equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying megaphone. megaphone. megaphone megaphone
passengers, must be equipped with : s. s if there are
more than
31
passengers
on board.
522 21
The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to: provide provide the supply all provide the
some cabin the flight crew
passengers attendants passengers with
with with in case of respiratory
additional respiratory depressuriza assistance
respiratory protection. tion. after
assistance depressuriza
after an tion.
emergency
descent
following a
depressuriza
tion.

523 21
The survival oxygen is: the oxygen the oxygen a the oxygen
supplied to a used for therapeutical supplied to
passenger protection oxygen the airplane
who needs against specifically occupants in
oxygen for smoke and carried for case of
pathological carbon certain accidental
reasons. dioxide. passengers. depressuriza
tion.
524 21
The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking replace the replace the mark only to be used
system is to : overhead overhead the exits at only at night.
emergency emergency the floor
lighting lighting in level.
during an case of
emergency failure.
evacuation
with a thick
smoke.

525 21
 In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained: within the across the in the at the entry
combustion turbine. cooling to the
chamber. airflow exhaust unit.
around the
flame tube.
526 21
(For this question use annex 021-9377A)_x000D_ the the the the
When fire is detected on engine n°2, the fire shutoff handle n°2 is pulled discharge of discharge of discharge of discharge of
and the extinguishing agent n°1 is discharged. This results in : fire fire fire fire
extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
bottle n°2 bottle n°1 bottle n°1 bottle n°1
and and and and
illumination illumination illumination illumination
of the of the of the of the
DISCH DISCH DISCH DISCH
indicator (discharge) indicator indicator
lamp of indicator lamp of lamp of
agent n°1 on lamp agent n°1 on agent n°1 on
engine n°1 both engines engine no.
and agent and DISCH
n°2 on indicator
engine n°2 lamp of
agent n°2 on
engine n°1

527 21
Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an 1,2,5,6 2,3,4,5 1,3,4 1,3,4,5
aircraft is pulled, the effects are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system_x000D_
2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine
concerned_x000D_
3. setting of extinguishing systems_x000D_
4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves_x000D_
5. isolation of the associated electric current generators_x000D_
6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

528 21
A passenger emergency mask is a : mask with continuous mask with continuous
flow on flow mask flow on flow mask
request and and can be request and and cannot
cannot be used if there can be used be used if
used if there is smoke in if there is there is
is smoke in the cabin. smoke. smoke in the
the cabin. cabin.

529 21
In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire- special halon. powder. water.
530 21 extinguisher must be conveniently located containing : fluids.
An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats 7 manual- 4 manual 3 manual 5 manual-
is 200 seats must be equipped with: fire fire- fire- fire
extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s in the s in the s in the s in the
passenger passenger passenger passenger
cabin. cabin. cabin. cabin.
531 21
 The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely the oxygen these these these
free of oil or grease traces as: system substances substances substances
would be mixed with could plug catch fire
contaminate oxygen the oxygen spontaneous
d. could catch masks ly in the
fire in the filters. presence of
presence of oxygen
a spark. under
pressure.

532 21
An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 2, 5, 6 2, 3, 4, 6
are inoperative the:_x000D_ 6
_x000D_
1. external door opening mechanism_x000D_
2. internal door opening mechanism_x000D_
3. door opening aid device_x000D_
4. open door locking system_x000D_
5. auxiliary means of evacuation_x000D_
6. emergency lighting_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

533 21
The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the 1, 3 2, 3 2, 4 1, 2
passengers is :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,_x000D_
2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system,_x000D_
3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,_x000D_
4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

534 21
In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire 1,2,3,4,5 1,4,5 2,3 2,5
detectors are located in the highest risk compartments. Theses
compartments are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. the main landing gear wheel wells_x000D_
2. the fuel tanks_x000D_
3. the oil tanks_x000D_
4. the auxiliary power unit_x000D_
5. around the engines_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

535 21
Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type : optical or chemical electrical magnetic
536 21 ionization
On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type only at an only in a on at least at any
fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase isolated uniform way one loop isolated
detected: point of the along the point of the
loops loops loops or else
generally on
all the loops

537 21
Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an a decrease a decrease a decrease an increase
increase in temperature produces : in the in pressure in resistance in resistance
reference
current
538 21
 (For this question use annex 021-6736A)_x000D_ a condition since the jack will the jack will
The schematic diagram annexed illustates a jack and selector valve in a of hydraulic pressures move to the move to the
typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic pressure throughout : lock exists are equal, left due to right due to
and no the jack is pressure equal
movement free to move acting on pressure
of the jack in response differential acting on
will take to external areas. differential
place. forces. areas.

539 21
In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve : regulates allows two is a self- allows two
pump possible lapping non- units to be
delivery sources of return valve. operated by
pressure. pressure to one
operate one pressure
unit. source.
540 21
To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting auxiliary a high a stand-by an
control, a hydraulic system often incorporates hydraulic pressure hydraulic accumulator.
motors. relief valve. pump.
541 21
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for : undercarriag flap flight nose wheel
e selection extension controls in steering
and only. the event of after the
automatic loss of aeroplane
brake engine has landed.
system. driven
hydraulic
power.
542 21
In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the increase by remain the increase by decrease by
contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If 10 %. same. 5 %. 5 %.
a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated
fuel weight would :
543 21
Tyre "creep" may be described as the : circumferenti the increase the gradual
al movement in inflation decrease in circumferenti
of the tyre in pressure inflation al increase
relation to due to pressure of tyre wear.
the wheel drease in due to
flange. ambient increase in
temperature. ambient
temperature.

544 21
The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to : ensure the invert the ensure the ensure the
output signal input signal input signal input signal
is of the such that the is AC only. is DC only.
same state output is
as the input always of
signal. the opposite
state.

545 21
In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units (APUs) high TGT high turbine high TGT overspeed
have automatic controls for stating, stopping and maintaining operation only. gas and loss of and high oil
within safe limits. These controls provide correct sequencing of the temperature oil pressure temperature
starting cycle as well as protection against : (TGT), only. only.
overspeed,
loss of oil
pressure
and high oil
temperature.

546 21
 Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will : increase as fluctuate always initially
ambient with jack remain the increase
temperature displacemen same. with system
decreases. t and pressurisatio
accumulator n.
pressure.
547 21
The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into reduction crankshaft piston camshaft
548 21 rotary motion is termed the : gear
Which of the following factors would be likely to increase the possibility slightly using too the use of a using an
of detonation occurring within a piston engine ? retarding the lean a fuel with a engine with
ignition fuel/air high octane a low
timing mixture ratio rating as compression
compared to ratio
the use of
one with a
low octane
rating

549 21
In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately rich weak too weak to normal
9:1, the mixture is said to be : support
combustion
550 21
To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume of a diffuser a power jet an a mixture
air flowing through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying accelerator control
excessive fuel as engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with : pump
551 21
The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is between the after the after the oil in the return
fitted : oil tank and pressure has passed line to the oil
the pressure pump but through the tank after
pump before the engine and the oil has
oil passes before it passed
through the enters the through the
engine sump scavenge
pump

552 21
When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, low cylinder high high cylinder high engine
excessive leaning will cause : head and manifold head and rpm
exhaust gas pressure exhaust gas
temperature temperature

553 21
On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes : a single both a a warning a single
warning light warning light light for each warning light
and a single and an engine and but a
alarm bell alarm bell a single separate
unique to alarm bell alarm bell
each engine common to for each
all engines engine

554 21
 With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor : will only form will only form will only form may form at
at OAT's at outside air at OAT's OAT's higher
below temperature below the than +10°C.
+10°C. s (OAT's) freezing
below the point of fuel.
freezing
point of
water.

555 21
A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for air air either air air
ground starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to conditioning conditioning conditioning conditioning
certification limitations) and on the ground : and and thrust in or electrical and
electrical the event of services, but electrical
services. engine never both services (on
failure. at the same the ground)
time. electrical
and
hydraulic
back-up
services (in
the air).

556 21
557 21 The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the : stator. oscillator. slip ring. rotor.
A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by mass air position of position of position of
regulating the : flow into the the inward the duct the outflow
cabin. relief valve. relief valve(s).
valve(s).
558 21
In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is the the duct a rate of the
normally controlled by : difference relief valve change difference
between the when selector. between the
barometric operating at altitude
pressure the selected on
selected on maximum the cabin
the cabin cabin pressure
pressure differential controller
controller pressure. and the
and ambient aeroplane
barometric altitude.
pressure.

559 21
(For this question use annex 021-6716A)_x000D_ 100 N. 1000 N. 20 N. 1 N.
In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing Force would
be acting on the right hand side ? (The diagram is not to scale)
560 21
Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the 1000 psi. 500 psi. 1500 psi. 2500 psi.
hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will
read :
561 21
Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause : an increased fluid loss. a decreased an increased
fluid fluid fluid
temperature. temperature. pressure.

562 21
On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of the the master pressure to the brake
power is derived from : aeroplane's cylinders. the rudder actuators.
hydraulic pedals.
system.
563 21
 Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If 1000 psi. 4000 psi. 3000 psi. 2000 psi.
the hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of
3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator
should be :
564 21
"Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as : aircraft a possibly the the amount
vibration damaging oscillatory of free
caused by vibration of movement movement
the nose the nose of the nose of the nose
wheel upon wheel when wheel when wheel before
extension of moving on extended steering
the gear. the ground. prior to takes effect.
landing.

565 21
An accumulator in a hydraulic system will : reduce fluid reduce fluid store fluid increase
temperature temperature under pressure
and only. pressure. surges
pressure. within the
system.
566 21
The term "Bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and charge air cold air unit source of means by
pressurisation system, refers to the : across the (air cycle the charge which
inter-cooler machine) air. pressurisatio
heat arrangement n is
exchanger. . controlled.
567 21
In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first : used to compressed, passed passed
increase the passed across an across an
cabin air through a expansion expansion
supply secondary turbine, then turbine, then
pressure heat compressed directly to
when the exchanger, and passed the heat
charge and then through a exchanger.
pressure is across an secondary
too low. expansion heat
turbine. exchanger.

568 21
The term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane : has the has the is only has the
ability to means to pressurised ability to
maintain a maintain in the area maintain a
constant cabin of the constant
cabin pressure control cabin
altitude at all higher than cabin. differential
flight ambient pressure at
altitudes. pressure. all flight
altitudes.

569 21
Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by : engine rpm. inward relief regulating pressurisatio
valve(s). the n duct relief
discharge of valve(s).
air through
the outflow
valve(s).

570 21
 Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in the the outflow the a constant
normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained : pressurisatio valves will pressurisatio mass air
n system move to the n system flow is
ceases to fully open must be permitted
function until position. controlled through the
leakage manually. cabin.
reduces the
pressure.

571 21
Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator a rate of a rate of zero. a rate of
should indicate : climb. descent of descent
approximatel dependent
y 300 feet upon the
per minutes. cabin
differential
pressure.
572 21
Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the: faster the slower the faster the faster the
engine engine engine engine
functions, functions, functions, functions,
the more the the more the the further the more
spark is spark is past TDC retarded the
advanced advanced the spark spark is.
occurs
573 21
Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are : All bonding Ground Passengers Aircraft must
and earthing Power Units may be be more
connections (GPU) are boarded than 10
between not to be (traversing metres from
ground operated. the refuelling radar or HF
equipment zone) radio
and the providing equipment
aircraft suitable fire under test.
should be extinguisher
made before s are readily
filler caps available.
are
removed.

574 21
There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop 60 life 60 life One 30-seat 60 life
aircraft. Its speed is 240 kt. At a point along the course steered, above jackets and jackets life boat and jackets, two
the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable for three 30- two 20-seat 30-seat life
emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with regulations seat life life boats boats
is : boats

575 21
An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those centrifugal engine oil a coil spring electro-
encountered in starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from operating force pressure magnetic
at higher speeds by action of
operating
magneto.
576 21
 The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two To be able To reduce To prevent Because
separate switches is to use two the that both there are
different trim probability of pilots two trim
speeds, slow a trim- perform motors.
trim rate at runaway opposite trim
high speed inputs.
and high
trim rate at
low speed

577 21
Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the the air the skin of the the cabin
outflow valve(s) would close. The result would be that: supply would the cabin pressure pressure
automaticall would be differential would
y be stopped overstressed would go to become
the equal to the
maximum ambient
value outside air
pressure
578 21
The function of an air cycle machine is to : cool the decrease remove the pump the
bleed air. the pressure water from conditioned
of the bleed the bleed air. air into the
air. cabin.

579 21
The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to : ensure prevent prevent prevent
sufficient overheating vapour cavitation in
pump output of the pump. locking. the pump
580 21
A manual inflation handle: serves to serves to operates a is generally
actuate inflate a life hand pump not applied
inflation of a jacket when for manual on slides.
slide when the normal inflation of a
automatic inflation slide
inflation fails function fails

581 21
The advantages of thermal anti-icing are :_x000D_ 1,2 3,4 1,3 2,4
1. Simple and reliable system_x000D_
2. Profiles maintained_x000D_
3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor_x000D_
4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without substantial
reduction in engine thrust_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:
582 21
The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger activate a settle an obtain free exits in
aircraft. Its function is to : radio escalating forced case of
survival conflict with access to a evacuation
beacon by unreasonabl fire behind a via the
cutting off e panel and a sides.
the red passengers, general
coloured top who purpose tool
threaten during
flight safety. evacuation.

583 21
 The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker is: (1)not (1)not (1) suitable (1) not
resettable, resettable, for high suitable for
(2) not (2)resettable currents, (2) high
resettable. . not suitable currents, (2)
for high suitable for
currents.fus high
e circuit currents.fus
breaker e circuit
breaker

584 21
The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link Braking with Taxiing with Touch down Gear down
in a bogie gear is an a small with selection
inoperative turning crosswind
anti skid radius.
system.
585 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the the entire the entire 10 minutes 30 minutes.
survival oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during and flight time flight time or the entire
following an emergency descend is: where the where the flight time
cabin cabin where the
pressure pressure cabin
altitude is altitude is pressure
above above altitude is
13000 ft. 10000 ft above
minus 30 15000 ft,
minutes. whichever is
the greater.

586 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of liferafts plus 30 %. in the case in the case plus 10 %.
to be found on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the of a loss of of a loss of
entire aircraft occupants: two rafts. one raft of
the largest
rated
capacity.
587 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the cockpit seats on 12500 ft. 13000 ft. 14000 ft. 10000 ft.
duty in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve
for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
588 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non- 13000 ft. 10000 ft. 14000 ft. 15000 ft.
pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire
flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
589 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of the passengers in a non- 10000 ft but 13000 ft. 10000 ft. 10000 ft but
pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire not not
flight time when the cabin altitude pressure is greater than: exceeding exceeding
13000 ft 13000 ft.
minus 30
minutes.
590 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, seats by 30 passengers seats by 10 passengers
the total number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals must %. by 30%. %. by 10 %.
be at least greater than the number of:
591 21
The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is a pressure portable an air a continuous
mostly : demand equipment recycle flow system
system only system
592 21
 On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following 1,2,4,6 1,3,5,6 2,3,4,5,6 1,2,4,5
type:_x000D_
1. AC generator over-voltage_x000D_
2. AC generator under-voltage_x000D_
3. over-current_x000D_
4. over-speed_x000D_
5. under-frequency_x000D_
6. undue vibration of AC generators_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

593 21
An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio compressor jet pipe jet pipe combustion
of: outlet pressure to pressure to chamber
pressure to compressor combustion pressure to
compressor inlet chamber compressor
inlet pressure. pressure. inlet
pressure. pressure.
594 21
Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often "all or "any or all" "state "inhibited" or
referred to as the : nothing" gate. indicator" "negated"
gate. gate. gate.
595 21
A condenser in parallel with breaker points will permit assist in assist in intensify
arcing negative collapse of current in
across feedback to secondary secondary
points secondary winding. winding
coil
596 21
An impulse magneto coupling advances gives an gives a reduces
ignition automatic retarded magneto
timing and spark spark at speed
gives a increase starting during
hotter spark during high engine
at starting speed warm-up
operation.
597 21
If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the defective fouled spark excessive switch wire
cause may be : condenser plugs carbon grounded
formation in
cylinder
head.
598 21
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes cannot be cannot be will not will not
disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine started with shut down operate at operate at
the switch in by turning the left the right
the ON the switch to magneto magneto
position the OFF
position.
599 21
An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for advancing quick absorbing providing a
ignition removal and starting retarded
timing installation loads spark for
engine
starting.
600 21
Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a worn oil too large oil restricted oil too small
pump pump passage scavenger
pump.
601 21
 Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the pushing the firmly activating firmly
passenger cabin, the system is activated by mask pulling the the relevant pulling the
against the mask switch in the cover behind
face and towards the cockpit. which the
breath face, after oxygen
normally. the cover mask is
has opened. stowed.

602 21
A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring that the that the that the CSD equal AC
electric starter-motor remains at a voltage from
generator maintains a constant all
produces a constant RPM not generators.
constant RPM not withstanding
frequency. withstanding the
the generator
acceleration RPM
of the
engine.

603 21
An aircraft magneto is switched off by grounding grounding opening the opening the
the the primary primary secondary
secondary circuit circuit circuit
circuit.
604 21
The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances the lifetime the these in that case
cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that of the procedures aeroplanes some fuel
fatigue and often tanks remain
sensitive checklists consume too empty during
parts has for this kind much fuel on the whole
been based of short haul flight, which
on a aeroplanes flights. stresses the
determined will take too aeroplane's
load much time structure in
spectrum an
unacceptabl
e way

605 21
The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing .. by pilot at a certain the system
action automaticall low speed is always
y armed
606 21
The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are : the oil the oil the oil the oil
supplies the supplies the supplies the supplies the
spring sealing and damping damping
function and lubrication and function and
the nitrogen function, the lubrication the nitrogen
supplies the nitrogen function, the supplies the
damping supplies the nitrogen spring
function. damping supplies the function
function. heat-
dissipation
function.

607 21
 A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid the oxygen if the manual the oxygen
decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to masks are automatic override of masks are
the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen automaticall mask the automaticall
system ? y presented presentation automatic y presented
to flight crew has been presentation to cabin
members activated, of crew
the oxygen passenger members
will flow oxygen and
within the masks is, passengers
first 3 generally
minutes speaking,
not possible

608 21
Load shedding means .. To leave Reduction of A procedure Temporarily
behind extra airloads on used in or
cargo if the the flaps by control permanent
centre of means of systems to switching off
gravity the flap load reduce the of certain
moves relief value stick forces electric
outside users to
limits avoid
overload of
electric
generators

609 21
A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an Grease Water Halon Nitrogen
610 21 oxygen installation is :
The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to increase the trap fuel distribute the ventilate the
fuel level at sediments or fuel to the tank during
the boost sludge in the various refuelling
pump lower part of tanks during under high
location the tank refuelling pressure

611 21
A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is : an AC a a thermistor. an inverter.
generator. transformer
rectifier unit.
612 21
Turbine blade stages may be classed as either "impulse" or "reaction". In the pressure the pressure the pressure the pressure
an impulse blade section : rises across remains remains drops across
the nozzle constant constant the nozzle
guide vanes across the across the guide vanes
and remains nozzle guide nozzle guide and remains
constant vanes and vanes and constant
across the drops across rises across the
rotor the rotor constant rotor
blades . blades . across the blades .
rotor
blades .

613 21
A turbocharger consists of a : compressor compressor turbine compressor
and turbine driving a driving a and turbine
on individual turbine via a compressor mounted on
shafts. reduction via a a common
gear. reduction shaft.
gear.
614 21
 In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is : the same as independent greater than less than
turbine rpm. of turbine turbine rpm. turbine rpm.
rpm.
615 21
When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the : pressure pressure velocity temperature
drops. rises. decreases. increases.
616 21
For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed will run is designed operates will enable
at which the engine : without any to idle after most the
external starting. efficiently in generators
assistance. the cruise.. to supply
bus-bar
voltage.
617 21
The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of prevent prevent ensure that ensure that
gas flow is to : damage to overheating the the
the jet pipe and maximum maximum
from subsequent acceptable acceptable
overheating. creep of the temperature temperature
nozzle guide within the at the
vanes. combustion turbine
chamber is blades is not
not exceeded.
exceeded.

618 21
In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in oil pressure. thermal blade creep. the resultant
position when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the expansion. of
engine is running due to : aerodynamic
and
centrifugal
forces.
619 21
"Conditioned" air is air that has : had the had the been had any
oxygen oxygen controlled in moisture
content content respect of removed
increased. reduced. temperature from it.
and
pressure.

620 21
The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors control the spill enable an reduce the
is to : acceleration compressor external air likelihood of
time of the air should supply to compressor
engine. the engine spin up the stall.
overspeed compressor
thus for engine
controlling starting.
the speed.
621 21
The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a contact rotor turning contact distributor
magneto are accomplished by the: breaker past the breaker arm aligning
points position of points with one of
closing. maximum opening. the high
flux in the tension
armature. segments.
622 21
An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return complete double pole semi- single pole
path to earth, may be defined as a negative circuit. negative circuit.
system. system.
623 21
The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of : ampere- volts. watts. internal
624 21 hours. resistance.
 A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve : checking the checking the comparing checking the
discharge battery the "on-load" level of the
current of voltage "off- and "off- electrolyte.
the battery load". load" battery
"on-load". voltages.

625 21
When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the : load as loss of fuse or CB component
indicated by continuity should will operate
the ammeter will prevent isolate the normally, but
will increase. its working circuit due to will not
components excess switch off.
from current
functioning. drawn.
626 21
When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load an an carrying out the
sharing is achieved by : equalising equalising systematic synchronous
circuit which, circuit which, load- bus-bar.
in in turn, shedding
conjunction controls the procedures.
with the speed of the
voltage generators.
regulators,
varies the
field
excitation
current of
the
generators.

627 21
The services connected to a supply bus-bar are normally in: series, so parallel, so series, so parallel, so
that isolation that isolating that isolating that isolation
of loads individual one load of loads
increases loads increases decreases
the bus-bar decreases the bus-bar the bus-bar
voltage. the bus-bar current voltage.
current consumption
consumption .
.

628 21
In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that : generator only one generator one
voltages are generator voltages are generator
almost equal can supply not equal, comes "on-
before the the bus-bar dependent line" before
generators at a time. on load. the other.
are
paralleled.

629 21
If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the EPR both EPR EPR EPR
engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is decreases and EGT decreases remains
that : and EGT decrease. and EGT constant and
increases. remains EGT
constant. increases.
630 21
A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel the reverser reverse has the reverser the reverser
illuminates when: doors are been doors have doors are
locked. selected but moved to unlocked.
the doors the reverse
have thrust
remained position.
locked.
631 21
 The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal pressure in user diluter user
mode, operates when the : the oxygen breathes in control is in requires 100
reservoir is normal percent
more than position oxygen
500 psi
632 21
Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor diffuser is a velocity rises pressure pressure velocity,
device in which the: and rises and rises at a pressure
pressure velocity falls. constant and
falls. velocity. temperature
rise.
633 21
A "fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by: the high the high airflow the low
pressure pressure drawn pressure
compressor turbine. across it by turbine.
through the high
reduction pressure
gearing. compressor.

634 21
In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by air entering fuel air entering air leaving
controlling the amount of: the supplied. the the
compressor compressor. compressor
and fuel by the
entering the opening or
combustion closing of
chambers. bleed
valves.
635 21
In a free turbine engine: the there is no its shaft may the air
compressor mechanical be enters the
and power connection connected to compressor
output shaft between the either a via the input
are compressor compressor turbine.
mechanicall and the or another
y connected. power turbine.
output shaft.

636 21
The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces: none of the the greater half the the lesser
thrust. part of the thrust. part of the
thrust. thrust.
637 21
At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti- may rise or will fall. will rise. will be
icing or a similar system, the turbine temperature: fall unchanged.
depending
on which
stage of the
compressor
is used for
the bleed
and the rpm
of the
engine at
the moment
of selection.

638 21
 A turbocharger system is normally driven by: an the exhaust an electric an hydraulic
electrically system. motor. motor.
activated
hydraulically
powered
clutch.
639 21
A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle an attempt compressor the starter failure of the
speed. It may be caused by: to ignite the surging. cutting out fuel to ignite
fuel before early in the in the
the engine starting starting
has been sequence sequence
accelerated before the after the
sufficiently engine has engine has
by the accelerated been
starter. to the accelerated
required rpm to the
for ignition. required rpm
by the
starter.

640 21
The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the: pressure in pressure of pressure of difference
the oil tank the oil on the the oil on the between the
reservoir. inlet side of outlet side of pressure
the pressure the pressure pump
pump. pump. pressure
and the
scavenge
pump
pressure.

641 21
A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a: Fire Smoke Carbon Fire fighting
detection detection dioxide system
system system warning
system
642 21
The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the: area of the weight of the volume of diameter of
piston to the air induced the cylinder the bore to
cylinder to its weight with the the piston
volume. after piston at stroke.
compression bottom dead
. centre to
that with the
piston at top
dead centre.

643 21
Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the oil pump. fuel filter. sparking carburettor.
644 21 efficiency of the: plugs.
The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to: ensure create a rise create the prevent
complete in pressure depression enrichment
atomisation at the throat necessary to of the
of the fuel before the cause fuel to mixture due
before mixture flow through to high air
entering the enters the the velocity
induction induction carburettor through the
system. system. jets. carburettor.

645 21
 The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by: moving the altering the varying the varying the
butterfly depression air supply to fuel supply
valve on the main the main to the main
through a discharge discharge discharge
separate tube. tube. tube.
linkage to
the main
throttle
control.

646 21
The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute: primary secondary primary secondary
current to current to current to current to
the sparking the sparking the the
plugs. plugs. condenser. condenser.

647 21
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the : number of number of number of field strength
individual pairs of individual and the
poles only. poles and poles and speed of the
the speed of the field rotor.
the rotor. strength.
648 21
The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a heat the fuel cool the oil cool the oil cool both the
recirculatory type oil system is to: only. and heat the only. oil and the
fuel. fuel.
649 21
The true statement among the following in relation to the application of current in a Current in a The current power in the
Ohm's law is : circuit is circuit is in a circuit is circuit is
inversely directly directly inversely
proportional proportional proportional proportional
to the to the to the to the
electromotiv applied resistance of square of
e force. electromotiv the circuit. the current.
e force.
650 21
In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument a TRU. an inverter. a rectifier. a contactor.
651 21 operation may be obtained from :
When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship must be 90° is must be must be in
of each generator: out of unimportant. synchronous opposition.
synchronisat .
ion.
652 21
When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must be of the same: voltage and amperage voltage and frequency
frequency. and kVAR. amperage. and
amperage.
653 21
The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC amperes kVA and volts and volts and
system are : and kVAR. amperes. kilowatts.
kilowatts.
654 21
"Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the voltage output output output
generator : regulator is frequency is frequency frequency is
out of too low. varies with too high.
adjustment. engine
speed.
655 21
If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, decrease. remain the increase. be zero.
656 21 the current flowing in the circuit will : same.
 Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by : automatic controlling carefully monitoring
adjustment the selecting the the kVAR of
of the torque generator number of each
on each field current. loads on the generator/alt
generator bus-bars at ernator.
rotor via the any one
CSD unit. time.

657 21
An AC generator driven by a CSD unit : does not requires a requires a does not
need a voltage voltage need a
voltage controller to controller to voltage
controller maintain maintain controller
since an AC constant constant since the
generator frequency. voltage CSD will
voltage under load. ensure
cannot alter constant
under load. voltage.

658 21
On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries a a static a DC the AC bus
are charged in flight from : Transformer inverter. transformer via current
Rectifier and rectifier. limiters.
Unit.
659 21
On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with oil over- oil output low oil
means of monitoring the: temperature temperature speed and temperature
and low oil and oil pressure. and low oil
pressure. synchronous quantity.
speed.
660 21
When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the : voltage to voltage to current electrolyte to
decrease increase due produced to "boil".
under load. to the increase due
current to the
available. reduced
voltage.
661 21
Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services indicates a would be indicates a indicates a
switched on, an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery : faulty normal and battery generator
reverse is only cause failure since failure, thus
current relay. for concern there should requiring the
if the high be no engine to be
charge rate immediate shut down
persists. charge. immediately.

662 21
Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be : used only in used only in reset at any used in AC
AC circuits. DC circuits. time. and DC
circuits.
663 21
A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which : can be reset will allow the will not allow is free from
at any time. contacts to the contacts the normal
be held to be held CB tripping
closed in closed while characteristi
order to a current c.
clear a fault fault exists
in the circuit. in the circuit.

664 21
 The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to: vary directly drive the vary the
generator maintain a generator at engine rpm
rpm in order constant a constant (within limits)
to proportion speed. to
compensate between the compensate
for various rpm of for various
AC loads. engine and AC loads.
generator.
665 21
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the : field strength number of number of number of
and the individual pairs of individual
speed of the poles only. poles and poles and
moving part. the speed of the field
the moving strength.
part.

666 21
Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by : monitoring adjusting the carefully controlling
the kVAR of torque on secting the the
each each number of generator
generator/alt generator loads on the field current.
ernator. rotor via the bus-bars at
CSD unit. any one
time.
667 21
In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC 3 phase rotary Transformer static
power is obtained from a : current converter. Rectifier inverter.
transformer Unit.
unit.
668 21
Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will 24 volts, 80 12 volts, 80 24 volts, 40 12 volts, 40
result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of : ampere- ampere- ampere- ampere-
hours. hours. hours. hours.
669 21
The purpose of the "Pressure Relief Valve" in a high pressure oxygen act as a maximize relieve reduce
system is to : manual the charging overpressur pressure in
shut-off pressure of e if the the oxygen
valve the system pressure reservoir to
reducing a suitable
valve manifold
malfunctions pressure for
the regulator

670 21
If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, must be is must be must be
then the phase relationship of each generator: 240° out of unimportant. synchronise 120° out of
phase. d. phase.
671 21
To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in only reactive only real both real an the matching
parallel : loads need loads need reactive of loads is
to be to be loads must unimportant.
matched. matched. be matched.

672 21
A bus-bar is : the stator of a device a distribution a device
a moving which may point for permitting
coil only be used electrical operation of
instrument. in DC power. two or more
circuits. switches
together.

673 21
 A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary slight low oil excessive illumination
reason(s) for disconnection are : variation pressure variation of of the CSD
about the and/or high voltage and disconnect
normal oil kVAR. warning
operating temperature light.
frequency. of the
generator
drive.
674 21
A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight : automaticall automaticall may be reset may be reset
y resets in y resets at on the in flight
flight engine shut- ground only, using the
providing down. after engine reset
engine rpm shut-down. mechanism.
is below a
given value.

675 21
(For this question use annex 021- 6660A)_x000D_ a NAND a NOR gate. an an INVERT
The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic) : gate. EXCLUSIVE or NOT gate.
gate.
676 21
Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected : during at flight idle in on the
engine engine rpm. accordance ground only.
operation with the
only. regulated
voltage level
of the AC
generator.

677 21
When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter : a load no load the battery the load
should be should be should be condition is
applied to applied to isolated. unimportant.
the battery in the battery
order to give because it
a better would
indication of depress the
condition. voltage.

678 21
If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a there will be the intensity a force will the current
magnetic field : no effect of the be exerted will increase.
unless the magnetic on the
conductor is field will conductor.
moved. decrease.

679 21
When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field : there will be the field will current will an
no effect on collapse. flow in electromotiv
the accordance e force
conductor. with (EMF) is
Flemings left induced in
hand rule. the
conductor.
680 21
 In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when their the equal loads adequate
operating in parallel, it is necessary to ensure that : voltages are synchronisin are voltage
almost g bus-bar is connected to differences
equal. disconnecte each exists.
d from the generator
busbar busbar
system. before
paralleling.
681 21
The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of batteries at generators output of the generator at
the : varying at varying TRU. varying
loads. speeds and loads and
the batteries speeds.
at varying
loads.

682 21
A circuit breaker : may be reset is self can only be can be reset
manually resetting reset after on the
after the after the major ground only.
fault has fault has maintenance
been been .
rectified. rectified.

683 21
A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to : allow a short limit the instantaneou limit the
term current in sly rupture to current in
overload the field limit the the
before circuit. current in armature.
rupturing. the load.

684 21
The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to : provide a prevent isolate all provide safe
single earth electrolytic components distribution
for electrical corrosion electrically of electrical
devices. between and thus charges and
mating make the currents.
surfaces of static
similar potential
metals. constant.

685 21
A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at : 90°. 120°. 60°. 45°.
686 21
Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often "all or "any or all" "inhibited" or "state
referred to as the : nothing" gate. "negated" indicator"
gate. gate. gate.
687 21
A static inverter is a: transistorize device for static filter against
d unit used reversing discharger. radio
to convert the polarity interference.
DC into AC. of the static
charge.
688 21
On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating Airflow RPM of the Bleed air Airflow
the: entering the engine. valve. leaving the
cabin. cabin.
689 21
The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel: vent system. tank drains. top off unit. dump
690 21 system.
 In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to: allow a cool bleed allow a cool bleed
steady air and homogeneo air.
compressor compressor us
outlet air from the temperature
temperature. turbo by mixing air
refrigerator. flows from
various air
conditioning
groups in
operation.

691 21
If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery: is has 1/12 has 1/12 has 1/12
unserviceabl less voltage, less less voltage
e. but can still capacity, but and less
be used. can still be capacity, but
used. can still be
used.

692 21
When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads frequency. voltage. torque of the energizing
are balanced by means of the: Constant current.
Speed Drive
(CSD).

693 21
In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is: stator - rotor - stator stator - rotor rotor - rotor -
stator - rotor stator
694 21
The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller: is an is intended controls the is driven by
electrically to control propeller, if the engine
driven oil the pitch the speed and supplies
pump, which setting of the governor pressure oil
supplies the propeller fails. to the
propeller during flight propeller in
with in order to case of
pressure oil, obtain a engine
when the constant problems.
engine is speed.
inoperative.

695 21
The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire Water. CO2. Powder. Freon.
696 21 protection system is:
 Fuel dump systems are required: on aircraft on all on all on all
with a transport transport transport
Maximum category category category
Take-Off aircraft aircraft. aircraft with
Weight where the more than
(MTOW) Maximum 150 seats.
higher than Take-Off
5.7 tons. Weight
(MTOW) is
significant
higher than
the
Maximum
Landing
Weight
(MLW).

697 21
In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):_x000D_ 1, 2, 5 2, 3, 4 1, 4, 5 1, 3, 6
_x000D_
1- may be disconnected from the engine shaft._x000D_
2- may be disconnected from the generator._x000D_
3- is a hydro-mechanical system._x000D_
4- is an electronic system._x000D_
5- may not be disconnected in flight._x000D_
6- may be disconnected in flight._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

698 21
The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to : close the prevent prevent fuel damp out
vent lines in positive movement movement
case of pressure to the wing of the fuel in
turbulence. build up tip. the tank.
inside the
tank.
699 21
The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to: take part in mechanicall take part in maintain a
the y protect the the voltage constant
balancing of alternator regulation. frequency.
reactive drive shaft
loads. during
coupling.

700 21
When a continuous element of a fire detection system is 2, 3 1, 4 2, 4 1, 3
heated:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. its resistance decreases._x000D_
2. its resistance increases._x000D_
3. the leakage current increases._x000D_
4. the leakage current decreases._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

701 21
 The chemical oxygen generator is a system:_x000D_ 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 6 1, 4, 6 2, 4, 5
_x000D_
1. which is inexpensive_x000D_
2. requiring no external input_x000D_
3. which is lightweight_x000D_
4. requiring no maintenance_x000D_
5. with adjustable flow rate_x000D_
6. which is unsafe_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

702 21
The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the : inlet guide surge bleed variable Fuel Control
vanes. valves. setting type Unit (F.C.U.).
nozzle guide
vanes.

703 21
In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because... their they are they weigh their output
electrolyte is cheaper less than voltage is
neither than lead- lead-acid more
corrosive acid batteries. constant
nor batteries. than lead-
dangerous. acid
batteries.
704 21
The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is .. To avoid a To change To change To change
short circuit. DC into AC. the DC AC into DC.
voltage.
705 21
The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC induced induced alternators The
generators (dynamos) is that the: (output) windings of supply all of alternators
windings of the the output generate
the alternators current much less
alternators are rotating through the power than
are fixed (rotor), and commutator DC
(stator), and the dynamos s and brush generators.
the dynamos have a assemblies.
have a fixed rotary
inductor inductor coil.
(field) coil.

706 21
In an alternator rotor coil you can find : AC. Three-phase Only DC.
AC. induced
current.
707 21
The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a : distribution shutoff check valve. flow control
valve. valve. valve.
708 21
In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of 4 24 12 8
709 21 poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on: Pitot tubes. Elevator Slat leading Fin leading
leading edges. edges.
edges.
710 21
When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with is disarmed unfolds and unfolds but becomes
evacuation slides is controlled from the outside, the slide: automaticall becomes does not inflated in its
y. inflated. become packboard
inflated. thus
preventing
its unfolding.

711 21
 The "cabin differential pressure" is: the pressure cabin approximatel approximatel
differential pressure y 5 psi at y 15 psi at
between the minus maximum. maximum.
air entering ambient
and leaving pressure.
the cabin.

712 21
The cabin rate of descent is: a cabin always the a cabin is not
pressure same as the pressure possible at
increase. airplane's decrease. constant
rate of airplane
descent. altitudes.

713 21
The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category 15.5 psi 9.0 psi 3.5 psi 13.5 psi
714 21 airplane is approximately:
The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for: engine wings. pitot tubes. propellers.
715 21 intakes.
What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning Supplying Supplying Cooling of Supplying
system? the heat the the APU the heat
exchangers Passenger compartmen exchangers
with cooling Service Unit t. with cooling
air during (PSU) with air during
cruise flight. fresh air. slow flights
and ground
operation.

716 21
The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by: roots type single radial main engine piston
compressors compressors compressors compressors
. . . .
717 21
Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from: the second the low the high the low
fan stage. pressure pressure pressure
compressor. compressor. compressor
and from the
high
pressure
compressor
if necessary.

718 21
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system Diaphragm Centrifugal Gear type Piston
719 21 are: pumps. pumps. pumps. pumps.
On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against Vinyl Anti-icing Rain Electric
icing by : coating. fluid. repellent heating.
system.
720 21
The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by density resistivity electrical dielectric
measuring the: variation of variation of resistance change
the fuel. the fuel. change. between fuel
and air.
721 21
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system electro- mechanicall removable centrifugal
are: mechanical y driven by only after pumps,
wobble the engine's the driven by an
pumps, with accessory associated electric
self- gearbox. tank has motor.
regulated been
pressure. emptied.
722 21
 The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, prevent, at maintain and ease low prevent fuel
upstream of the main fuel filter so as to: low fuel improve fuel pressure from
temperature, heating pumps work freezing in
the risk of power. by fuel pipes
ice formation increasing due to low
from water fuel fluidity. temperature
contained in s at high
the fuel. altitude.

723 21
On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system 28 V DC 115 V DC 115 V AC 28 V AC
are supplied with electric power of the following type:
724 21
The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel 5 to 10 psi 3000 to 300 to 500 20 to 50 psi
725 21 supply system is within the following range: 5000 psi psi
In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows: fuel cooling fuel heating automatic jet engine oil
so as to as required fuel heating cooling
prevent whenever by the through
vapour fuel filter engine oil so thermal
creation clogging is as to exchange
likely to detected. prevent icing with fuel
unprime in fuel filter. flowing from
nozzles. tanks.
726 21
The fuel crossfeed system: allows is only used is only used is only used
feeding of to feed an on the in flight for
any engine engine from ground for fuel transfer
from any the tank of fuel transfer from one
fuel tank. the opposite from one tank to
wing. tank to another.
another.

727 21
The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to: Prevent Restrict the Prevent Prevent the
mixture of fuel from overpressur fuel from
the fuel and flowing to e in the tank. flowing in
hydraulic the wing tips the vent
fluid. during lines.
abnormal
manoeuvre
(side
slipping...).

728 21
On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through: Bleed air The return Ram air A pressure
from the lines of the scoops on regulator in
engines. fuel pumps. the the wing tip.
underside of
the wing.

729 21
The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are: Integral Cell tanks. Combined Fixed built-in
730 21 tanks. fuel tanks. tanks.
In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for: pressure. temperature. humidity. purity.
731 21
The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the compression tension, then tension. compression
wing, is subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading edge, , then in in .
from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in: tension. compression
.
732 21
For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller (1) high (2) (1) low (2) (1) low (2) (1) high (2)
733 21 lever position (2) at brake release is : forward. forward. aft. aft.
 For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the : volume of mass of fuel mass of fuel volume of
fuel and and volume and mass of fuel and
volume of air of air air entering volume of air
entering the entering the the cylinder. entering the
carburettor. carburettor. cylinder.

734 21
On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios are obtained by air flow. fuel flow and fuel flow, air fuel flow.
the adjustment of : air flow. flow and
temperature.

735 21
To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, decrease increase the increase the decrease
means to: the amount amount of mixture the fuel flow
of fuel in the fuel in the ratio. in order to
mixture in mixture to compensate
order to compensate for the
compensate for the decreasing
for the decreasing air density.
increasing air pressure
air density. and density.

736 21
When applying carburettor heating : the mixture a decrease the mixture no change
becomes in RPM becomes occurs in the
richer. results from leaner. mixture
the lean ratio.
mixture.

737 21
When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a volume of air amount of volume of air amount of
lean position the : entering the fuel entering entering the fuel entering
carburettor the carburettor the
is reduced. combustion is increased. combustion
chamber is chamber is
increased. reduced.
738 21
When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the increase of decrease of decrease of constant air
piston engine performance is affected because of a : air density air density air density density for a
for smaller for a smaller for a bigger
quantity of quantity of constant quantity of
fuel. fuel. quantity of fuel.
fuel.
739 21
A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This results lower higher slight loss of higher
in a cylinder efficiency. power. torque.
head
temperature.

740 21
The cross-feed fuel system is used to : automaticall feed every allow the allow the
y fill every engine from fuel to be unusable
tank up to any fuel quickly fuel
the desired tank. thrown away elimination.
level. in case of
emergency

741 21
For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the: oil outside oil pressure. quantity of
temperature. pressure. oil.
742 21
 The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a higher constant lower higher
fixed pitch propeller is a : efficiency in efficiency in propeller efficiency in
all operating all operating blade stress. cruising
ranges. ranges. range.

743 21
In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled power connection connection connection
mounted, the changover relay allows : supply to the of the AC of the of the
faulty AC generator to ground Auxiliary
generators its power truck Power Unit
busbar. distribution to its (APU) to its
busbar. distribution main busbar.
busbar.
744 21
Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. exciter exciter exciter generator
In respect of the AC generator it can be said that the: control relay, control relay control relay breaker
the and the opens. opens.
generator generator
breaker and breaker
the tie open.
breaker
open.
745 21
The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure 1, 2, 3 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 4
are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. Weight saving_x000D_
2. Easy fault detection_x000D_
3. Increase of short-circuit risk_x000D_
4. Reduction of short-circuit risk_x000D_
5. Circuits are not single-wired lines_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

746 21
The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 12000 6000 800 1600
Hertz is: revolutions revolutions revolutions revolutions
per minute. per minute. per minute. per minute.
747 21
As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must be 1, 3, 5 1, 4, 5 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4
met for paralleling AC generators:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. Equal voltage_x000D_
2. Equal current_x000D_
3. Equal frequencies_x000D_
4. Same phase rotation_x000D_
5. Voltages of same phase_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

748 21
In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is reduce the reduce the maintain a maintain a
tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to: axial speed axial speed, constant constant
in cruising whatever the axial speed axial speed
flight. engine in cruising whatever the
rating. flight. engine
rating.
749 21
In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as V V increases, V V increases,
follows: decreases, Ps decreases, Ps
Ps decreases. Ps increases.
decreases. increases.
750 21
Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. They fire. overtempera smoke. overtempera
detect : ture and fire. ture.
751 21
 Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:_x000D_ 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 3, 4 2, 4
_x000D_
1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects._x000D_
2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating
0 volt_x000D_
3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication systems_x000D_
4. set the aircraft to a single potential_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

752 21
Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with : Cruising Full rich Mixture ratio Mass ratio of
mixture setting. very close to 1/15.
setting. idle cut-out.
753 21
The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2, 4, 5, 6. 4, 5, 6, 7. 1, 4, 5, 6, 7.
engine are the :_x000D_ 7.
_x000D_
1. tacho-generator N1_x000D_
2. tacho-generator N2_x000D_
3. thrust reverser pneumatic motors_x000D_
4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)_x000D_
5. oil pumps_x000D_
6. hydraulic pumps_x000D_
7. high pressure fuel pumps_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

754 21
On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin 7 - 9 psi 3 - 5 psi 13 - 15 psi 22 psi
755 21 differential pressure is approximately:
The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ... Through the By means of By means of Through a
refueling cap the aircraft the aircraft unique point
of every tank suction suction (an
pumps. pumps underwing
through a refueling
unique point center).
(an
underwing
refueling
center).

756 21
The vapor lock is : A stoppage The exhaust The effect of The
in a fuel gases the water abnormal
feeding line obstructions vapor mixture
caused by a caused by bubbles in enrichment
fuel vapor an engine the induction caused by a
bubble. overheating. manifold greater
caused by gasoline
the vaporisation
condensatio in the
n carburettor.

757 21
 The fuel system boost pumps are used to : avoid the feed the feed the fuel avoid the
bubbles lines with control units, bubbles
accumulatio fuel for which inject accumulatio
n. directing it to the n and feed
the engine pressurized the lines with
at a positive fuel into the fuel for
pressure. engine. directing it to
the engine
at a positive
pressure.

758 21
The pneumatic system accumulator is useful : in to eliminate to eliminate to offset for
emergency the fluid the fluid flow the starting
cases. pressure variations. of some
variations. devices.

759 21
The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service After the after pulling immediately only above
units. The oxygen flow starts : system has the oxygen FL200
been mask
switched on downwards
by a crew
member

760 21
If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on Water type Dry and CO2 and BCF and
fire; the following extinguisher types should be used for fire fighting: extinguisher water type water type CO2 type
s extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s
761 21
A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to FL 450. The 198 (110% 270 (150% 240 (one 210 (one
cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats from of the of the additional additional
each side of central aisle). The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks seating seating mask per mask per
for this aeroplane must be: capacity). capacity). seat block). seat row).
762 21
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, across 30 minutes 120 minutes 90 minutes 60 minutes
an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without at cruising at cruising at cruising at cruising
survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an speed. speed. speed. speed.
emergency landing at a distance greater than :

763 21
In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant speed move in a move in the move in the move in low
propeller in a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system certain pitch highest pitch lowest pitch pitch
position position by position by position by
depending the the oil pressure
on aerodynamic centrifugal created by
windmilling al force. force. the
RPM. windmilling
propeller.
764 21
The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are:_x000D_ 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 4. 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3.
_x000D_
1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparkes._x000D_
2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment._x000D_
3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves._x000D_
4. Avoid greasy matter._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

765 21
 To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to : gain speed gain speed use the manually
for so as to use electric release the
aerodynamic the engine unfeathering blade latch.
unfeathering unfeathering pump.
. pump.

766 21
The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder engine displacement cylinder piston area * piston area * cylinder
is : length * piston stroke piston stroke volume *
cylinder * number of number of
diameter cylinders cylinders

767 21
In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. This lighter lower fuel better piston cheaper
permits a : construction. consumption cooling. construction
.
768 21
When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed reducing the increasing increasing adjusting
propeller, engine overload is avoided by : RPM before the manifold the RPM Fuel Flow
reducing the pressure before before the
manifold before increasing manifold
pressure. increasing the manifold pressure.
the RPM. pressure.

769 21
The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller increases only varies decreases is
with with engine with independent
increasing RPM. increasing of the true
true air true air air speed.
speed. speed.
770 21
A propeller blade is twisted, so as to avoid the decrease allow a keep the
appearance the blade higher local Angle
of sonic tangential mechanical of Attack
phenomena. velocity from stress. constant
the blade along the
root to the blade.
tip.
771 21
A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system during : Cruise. Take-off. Landing. Take-off and
landing.
772 21
When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of reduces. increases. stays stays
attack of a fixed pitch propeller : constant. constant
because it
only varies
with engine
RPM.
773 21
When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller stays increases. reduces. first reduces
(RPM and MAP levers are not moved) : constant. and after a
short time
increases to
its previous
value.

774 21
The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel .. To cool the To prime the Because To shorten
pumps. pumps. their the fuel
efficiency is lines, so
greater. minimising
the pressure
losses.

775 21
 A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it The Life jackets Life rafts Life jackets
further than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency regulation and rafts must be must be
landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One does not must be available for available for
engine out airspeed is 155 kt. require life available for all all
jackets or all occupants. occupants.
rafts to be occupants.
taken on
board in this
particular
case.

776 21
When a wire type fire system is tested: the wire is the wiring Only the a part of the
totally and the warning wire is totally
heated. warning are function is heated.
tested. tested.
777 21
If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the Negative Positive Negative Positive
pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum: cabin cabin differential cabin
differential differential pressure at differential
pressure at pressure at maximum pressure at
maximum maximum cabin maximum
operating cabin altitude. operating
ceiling. altitude. ceiling.
778 21
In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of Mechanical Thermal Physical/che Electrical
modern commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is: (pneumatic (use of hot mical (electrical
source air). (glycol- resistances).
which acts based
by liquid).
deforming
the profiles
of the
leading
edge).

779 21
With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford The The The The
protection against the formation of ice, the only correct statement is: pneumatic pneumatic pneumatic inflatable de-
mechanical mechanical mechanical ice boots of
device can device is device can the
only be used used a lot on only be used pneumatic
as a de-icing modern as an anti- mechanical
device. aircraft as it icing device. device are
is arranged
inexpensive perpendicula
and easy to r to the
maintain. leading
edges.

780 21
 Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true on modern on modern on modern on modern
statement is: aeroplanes, aeroplanes, aeroplanes, aeroplanes,
electrically electrical electrically electrically
powered power powered powered
thermal supply being thermal thermal
devices are available in devices are devices are
used to excess, this very used as de-
prevent icing system is efficient, icing devices
on small very often therefore for pitot-
surfaces used for they only tubes, static
(pitot-static, large need little ports,
windshield... surfaces de- energy. windshield...
). icing.

781 21
The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft 1, 2, 4, 5 1, 4, 5, 7 1, 2, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 8
are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1) engine air intake and pod._x000D_
2) front glass shield._x000D_
3) radome._x000D_
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts._x000D_
5) leading edge of wing._x000D_
6) cabin windows._x000D_
7) trailing edge of wings._x000D_
8) electronic equipment compartment._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

782 21
In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment: gives protects all protects the protects the
medical the members of members of
assistance occupants the crew the crew
to certain against the against the against
passengers effects of effects of fumes and
with accidental accidental noxious
respiratory depressuriza depressuriza gases.
disorders. tion. tion.

783 21
When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is: only able to not able to able to only able to
transmit. do any radio radiotelepho receive.
communicati ne.
on.

784 21
Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the 8 ft, 8 ft, 6 ft, 6 ft,
occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
above the ground greater than: on the on the on the on the
ground, one ground, ground, ground, one
main gear or landing gear landing gear main gear or
nose gear extended. extended. nose gear
collapse. collapse.

785 21
The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained hot air hot air a fuel heater an electrical
from : coming from coming from system. heater
the engine's the engine's system.
compressors turbines.
.

786 21
 In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with there will be the engine the fire the power
no fault protection), if the line is accidently grounded: no effect on fire alarm is supply is cut
the system extinguisher triggered. off
striker is automaticall
automaticall y.
y activated.
787 21
A turbo-fan cold air unit will: not affect the increase decrease cause a
charge air charge air charge air pressure
pressure. pressure pressure drop as well
whilst whilst as an
causing hte causing hte associated
temperature temperature temperature
to drop in to rise in the drop in the
the heat heat charge air.
exchanger. exchanger.

788 21
In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to: protect the protect all protect give medical
flight crew the certain assistance
and cabin occupants passengers, to
attendants against the and is only passengers
against effects of carried on with
fumes and accidental board for pathological
noxious depressurisa these respiratory
gases. tion. people. disorders.

789 21
An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and 220. 230. 200. 180.
has the following characteristics:_x000D_
Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the certificate
of airworthiness= 230_x000D_
Number of seats on board= 200_x000D_
Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180_x000D_
The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in the aircraft cabin
should be:
790 21
From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type FL 300. FL 390. FL 100. FL 250.
791 21 oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?
What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask? Cabin air A mixture of Cabin air 100%
and oxygen oxygen and and oxygen. oxygen.
or 100% freon gas.
oxygen.
792 21
In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in HF VHF UHF VLF
793 21 the following frequencies:
The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is: 24.60 cm 2.46 cm 24.60 m 2.46 m
794 21
For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable to C Its It is not It allows It better
Band because: penetration absorbed by greater detects
power is heavy scanning clouds
higher. precipitation rates. contour and
s. range is
greater with
the same
transmission
power.

795 21
 DURALUMIN alloys :_x000D_ 1,4,5 2,4,5 1,3,6 2,3,6
_x000D_
1 have an aluminium-copper base._x000D_
2 have an aluminium-magnesium base._x000D_
3 are easy to weld._x000D_
4 are difficult to weld._x000D_
5 have a good thermal conductivity._x000D_
6 have a poor air corrosion resistance_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

796 21
For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts :_x000D_ 2,5,6 1,5,6 2,3,4 1,3,4
_x000D_
1 The mounting principle is parallel mounting._x000D_
2 No routine check is necessary._x000D_
3 The member is removed at the end of the calculated life
cycle._x000D_
4 Certain components may not be accessible._x000D_
5 The principle is the redundancy of components_x000D_
6 The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the
other system components._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

797 21
A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will: inhibit the activate the automaticall activate an
fire detector fire detection y initiate alarm in the
when the system APU cockpit and
detection when the shutdown in the
line is detection and fire landing gear
connected to line is extinguisher bay for
ground. connected to striker ground crew.
ground. activation in
the event of
fire.

798 21
"Conditioned" air is air that has: oxygen oxygen been oxygen
content content controled in content
increased. reduced. respect of regulated to
temperature a preset
and value.
pressure.
799 21
The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is: Used on a Harmful to Only used Used only at
continual the integrity when hot-air low altitudes
basis as it of the demisting is where there
reduces the windows in insufficient. is a risk of
thermal the event of ice
gradients a bird strike. formation.
which
adversely
affect the
useful life of
the
components.

800 21
On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are : Installed not Located on Installed in
only in the necessary at the engines. each tank.
center tank. all.
801 21
 The automatic fuelling shut off valve: stops stops cuts off the stops
fuelling as fuelling as fuel in case fuelling as
soon as a soon as a of engine soon as the
certain certain fuel fire. fuel spills
pressure is level is into the
reached. reached ventline.
inside the
tank.
802 21
During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the the surge there is fire. the fuel has fuelling
fuel supply system when: vent tank is reached a system has
filled. predetermin reached a
ed volume certain
or mass. pressure.
803 21
(For this question use annex 021-980A)_x000D_ after high after low after high in the fuel
The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel-flow pressure pressure pressure control unit
measurement is carried out : pump first valve (item valve (item (item 3).
stage (item 1). 4).
2).
804 21
The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to: maintain the reduce the increase the maintain a
correct fuel-to-air fuel-to-air constant fuel
weight fuel ratio when ratio when metering
to air ratio altitude altitude whatever the
when the increases. increases. altitude.
altitude
increases.
805 21
The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning All fuel until All up to a 15 tons. All fuel.
system is: the defined
maximum reserve
landing quantity.
weight is
reached.
806 21
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. 14000 ft 8000 ft 12000 ft 10000 ft
This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude: (approx. (approx. (approx. (approx.
4200 m) 2400 m) 3600 m) 3000 m)
807 21
The pack cooling fan provides: cooling air to cooling air to cooling air to air to the
the primary the primary the pre- eyeball
and and cooler. outlets at the
secondary secondary Passenger
heat heat Service Unit
exchanger exchanger (PSU).
during during slow
cruise. flight and
ground
operation.

808 21
 The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several P: pre-cools P: precools P: warms up P: warms up
components: these include two heat exchangers; the primary exchanger the engine the engine engine bleed engine bleed
(P) and the secondary exchanger (S)._x000D_ bleed bleed air_x000D_ air_x000D_
The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows: air_x000D_ air_x000D_ S: S: increases
S: increases S: reduces recirculates the
the the the cabin air, temperature
temperature temperature reducing its of air
of the air of the air temperature. originating
used for air- from the from the
conditioning primary compressor
of cargo exchanger of the pack.
compartmen or from the
t (animals). pack's
compressor.

809 21
The trim tab : reduces increases increases reduces
hinge hinge hinge hinge
moment and moment and moment and moment and
increases control reduces control
control surface control surface
surface efficiency. surface efficiency.
efficiency. efficiency.

810 21
The term "cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane: has the has the has the is only
ability to ability to means to pressurized
maintain maintain a maintain the in the area
constant any constant cabin of the
cabin cabin pressure at control
differential altitude at all a higher cabin.
pressure. flight level than
altitudes. the ambient
pressure.

811 21
When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage increased. dependent unaffected. decreased.
oxygen content is: on the
degree of
pressurisatio
n.
812 21
The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and source of means by charge air cold air unit
pressurisation system, refers to the: the charge which across the (air cycle
air. pressurisatio inter-cooler machine)
n is heat arrangement
controlled. exchanger. .
813 21
In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first: compressed, passed passed compressed,
then goes across an across an then passed
through a expansion expansion across an
heat turbine, then turbine, then expansion
exchanger, compressed directly to turbine
and across and passed the heat through a
an through a exchanger. heat
expansion heat exchanger.
turbine. exchanger.

814 21
 In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass secondary secondary turbine compressor
air flow is routed via the: heat heat outlet of the outlet of the
exchanger exchanger cold air unit cold air unit
outlet to the outlet to the to the to the
turbine inlet compressor primary heat primary heat
of the cold inlet of the exchanger exchanger
air unit. cold air unit. inlet. inlet.

815 21
Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet compressor fan section. turbine by-pass
816 21 aeroplanes is usually taken from the: section. section. ducting.
The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine): drives the increases drives the drives the
compressor the pressure compressor compressor
which of the air in the unit in the unit,
provides supply to the and causes creating a
pressurisatio cabin. a pressure temperature
n. increase in drop in the
the conditioning
conditioning air.
air.

817 21
In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air an a a condenser. an
temperature and pressure is achieved by: expansion compressor. evaporator.
turbine.
818 21
In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the ensure an increase the ensure an maintain a
cold air unit to: adequate cabin air adequate constant
pressure supply charge air cabin mass
and pressure flow across air flow.
temperature when the the inter-
drop across charge cooler heat
the cooling pressure is exchanger.
turbine. too low.

819 21
Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water separation before the just after the after the before the
unit is placed: cooling heat cooling heat
turbine. exchangers. turbine. exchangers.
820 21
The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is regulate Maintain a regulate discharge
to : cabin constant and cabin cabin air to
pressure at sufficient pressure to atmosphere
the mass air the selected if cabin
maximum flow to altitude. pressure
cabin ventilate the rises above
pressure cabin and the selected
differential. minimise altitude.
cabin
pressure
surges.

821 21
In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to: prevent seal the keep the reduce fluid
pump system hydraulic combustibilit
cavitation fluid at y
optimum
temperature

822 21
 The purpose of a shuttle valve is to: Protect a Relieve Prevent Supply an
hydraulic excess overloading operating
system from pressure in of the unit with the
overpressur hydraulic hydraulic most
e. systems. pump. appropriate
system
pressure.
823 21
Shuttle valves will automatically: Switch Shut down Guard Reduce
hydraulically systems systems pump loads.
operated which are against
units to the overloaded. overpressur
most e.
appropriate
pressure
supply.
824 21
In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is as a for damping for fluid for pressure
used : pressure pressure storage. storage.
relief valve. surges in the
system.
825 21
In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion: of Freon in a of Freon in in the in a
heat the turbine. turbine. pressure
exchanger. relief valve.
826 21
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure: increases remains may exceed decreases
constant the
maximum
permitted
differential
unless
immediate
preventative
action is
taken.

827 21
The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is 2, 6, 4 5, 6, 1 4, 5, 3 1, 2, 3
to perform the following functions:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. control of cabin altitude,_x000D_
2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change,_x000D_
3. limitation of differential pressure_x000D_
4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude_x000D_
5. cabin ventilation_x000D_
6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight
phases._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

828 21
During a normal pressurised climb after take-off: the the cabin absolute cabin
pressurisatio differential cabin pressure
n system is pressure is pressure decreases
inoperative maintained increases to more slowly
until an constant compensate than
altitude of 10 for the fall in atmospheric
000 feet is pressure pressure
reached outside the
aircraft

829 21
 In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical equal to the equal to half lowest at the highest at
loads that produce a bending moment which is: zero -fuel the weight of wing root the wing root
weight the aircraft
multiplied by multiplied by
the span the semi
span

830 21
Main cabin temperature is: controlled controlled by not Only
automaticall individual controllable controllable
y, or by flight passenger. at the at maximum
crew maximum cabin
selection. cabin differential
differential pressure.
pressure.
831 21
In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the Water and Synthetic oil. Mineral oil. Vegetable
832 21 fluids used are: glycol. oil.
Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in a constant the outflow the the outflow
normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained: mass air valves will pressurisatio valves will
flow is move to the n system move to the
permitted fully open ceases to fully closed
through the position. function until position.
cabin. leakage
reduces the
pressure.

833 21
Cabin pressure is controlled by : the cabin air delivering a controlling the cabin air
mass flow substantially the flow of re-circulation
control inlet constant air into the system.
valve(s). flow of air cabin with a
into the constant
cabin and outflow.
controlling
the outflow.

834 21
During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be Fully closed Partially fully closed At the pre-
decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are: until the open. until the set position
cabin cabin climbs for take-off.
descends to to a selected
a selected altitude.
altitude.

835 21
The purpose of a ditching control is to: achieve open the direct close the
rapid outflow pressurisatio outflow
depressurisa valve(s). n air to the valve(s).
tion. flotation
bags.
836 21
The cabin pressure is regulated by the: Air cycle Air Cabin inlet Outflow
machine. conditioning airflow valve.
pack. valve.
837 21
The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by : The engine's The cabin The cabin The engine's
bleed outflow inlet airflow. RPM.
valves. valve.
838 21
 Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between: actual cabin cabin cockpit and cabin
pressure pressure passenger pressure
and selected and ambient cabin. and ambient
pressure. air pressure. air pressure
at MSL.

839 21
Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not 8000 ft 4000 ft 6000 ft 10000 ft
840 21 allowed to exceed:
Cabin altitude means the: difference in flight level flight level cabin
height the aircraft is altitude at pressure
between the flying at. maximum expressed
cabin floor differential as altitude.
and ceiling. pressure.

841 21
(For this question use annex 021-786A)_x000D_ FL 230 FL 340 FL 280 FL 180
In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a
cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure to 5
psi._x000D_
The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin altitude
is:
842 21
An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when: the elevators the elevators there is a the elevators
are actuated are fitted trimmable are actuated
by with servo- stabilizer. by reversible
irreversible tabs or trim servo-
servo- tabs. control units.
control units.

843 21
On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for ground ground ground ground
the: power unit, power unit, power unit, power unit.
the starting the air the starting
system, the conditioning system.
air unit.
conditioning
unit.
844 21
The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to: lower reduce or to trim the trim the
manoeuvrin cancel aeroplane aeroplane at
g control control during low
forces. forces. normal flight. airspeed.

845 21
A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to : avoid absorb the control the lock the
rotation of spring wheels. landing gear.
the piston tension.
rod relative
to the gear
oleo strut.
846 21
In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is Mechanicall Pneumaticall Electrically Hydraulically
847 21 usually: y driven. y driven. driven. driven.
Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be Mechanicall Electrically. Pneumaticall By hydraulic
extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure. y y. accumulator
s.
848 21
If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre Used on the Repaired repaired Never
can be: nose wheel several once. repaired.
only. times.
849 21
 The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the brake Increased Decreased Increased Decreased
pressure will be : on the faster on the faster on the on the
turning turning slower slower
wheels. wheels. turning turning
wheels. wheels.
850 21
The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a: Belt brake. Multiple disk Drum type Single disk
851 21 brake. brake. brake.
The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they : release air release air prevent the prevent heat
from the tyre from the tyre brakes from transfer from
in case of in case of overheating. the brake
overpressur overheating. disks to the
e. tyres.

852 21
In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their To switch to To isolate a To allow by- To prevent
function is : the part of the passing of a total system
secondary system and hydraulic loss in case
system in protect it pump in of a leaking
case of a against case it is hydraulic
leak in the accidental subject to line.
primary pollution. excessive
brake pressure,
system. without
further
damage to
the system.

853 21
The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:_x000D_ 3 and 5 1 and 2 1 and 5 2 and 3
_x000D_
1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the
control surfaces_x000D_
2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike_x000D_
3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of
systems_x000D_
4. immunity to different interfering signals_x000D_
5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

854 21
The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is: mixture of mineral oil synthetic oil vegetable oil
mineral oil
and alcohol
855 21
An artificial feel unit system: is mounted must be must be is necessary
in parallel on mounted in mounted in on a
a spring tab. parallel on series on an reversible
an irreversible servodyne
irreversible servo- unit.
servo- control unit.
control unit.
856 21
 Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:_x000D_ 1, 3, 4, 6 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 5, 7 2, 3, 4, 5
_x000D_
1. thermal stability_x000D_
2. low emulsifying characteristics_x000D_
3. corrosion resistance_x000D_
4. good resistance to combustion_x000D_
5. high compressibility_x000D_
6. high volatility_x000D_
7. high viscosity_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

857 21
In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 1200 psi 4200 psi 1800 psi 3000 psi
psi._x000D_
An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system
pressure of 3000 psi. _x000D_
The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of
the accumulator, reads:
858 21
Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed? At the In the At actuators. At the
859 21 pumps. reservoirs. coolers.
Hydraulic fluids : Cause high Do not Are irritating Are irritating
fire risk. require to eyes and to eyes and
special care. skin and skin.
cause high
fire risk.

860 21
Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are: Water base Vegetable Mineral base Phosphate
fluids. base fluids. fluids. ester base
fluids.
861 21
Hydraulic power is a function of : Pump size System Pump RPM System
and volume pressure only. pressure
flow. and volume and tank
flow. capacity.
862 21
Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a 3000 psi 4000 psi 2000 psi 1000 psi
863 21 system pressure of approximately:
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass:_x000D_ 2,4 1,3,5 1,2,3 2,5
1 Is a limitation set by regulation._x000D_
2 Is designed for a maximum load factor._x000D_
3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root._x000D_
4 Requires to empty external tanks first._x000D_
5 Requires to empty internal tanks first._x000D_
The correct combination of true statements is :
864 21
Thermal plugs are installed in: cabin cargo wheel rims. fire warning
windows. compartmen systems.
ts.
865 21
What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open throttle The turbine The turbine The The power
if the waste gate is seized ? shaft will blades will manifold air of the motor
break. separate. pressure will
(MAP) value decrease.
may exceed
the
maximum
allowed
value.

866 21
 The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of: the total the total the total the total
turbine turbine turbine inlet turbine inlet
outlet outlet pressure to pressure to
pressure to pressure to the total the total
the total the total compressor compressor
compressor compressor inlet outlet
inlet outlet pressure. pressure.
pressure. pressure.
867 21
The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke engine (TDC = Top before TDC behind TDC behind TDC before TDC
Dead Center) at each at each at each at each
crankshaft crankshaft second second
revolution. revolution. crankshaft crankshaft
revolution. revolution.
868 21
The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by : Torque times Work times Force times Pressure
869 21 RPM. velocity. distance. times arm.
The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction Heat loss Indicated Brake horse Friction
brake is : power. horse power. power. horse power.
870 21
The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the: propeller accessory camshaft. gear box
blades. gear box. which is
located
between the
engine and
the
propeller.
871 21
The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant temperature. air density. engine humidity.
power lever setting, because of the decreasing : temperature.
872 21
The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are : cold and dry warm and cold and warm and
air at high humid air at humid air at dry air at
pressure. low high high
pressure. pressure. pressure.
873 21
The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with lower losses lower friction leaner lower back
increasing altitude at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM during the losses. mixture at pressure.
because of the : gas change. higher
altitudes.

874 21
The passenger oxygen mask will supply : a mixture of a mixture of 100 % a mixture of
oxygen and cabin air and oxygen. compressed
freon gas. oxygen. air and
oxygen or
100 %
oxygen.
875 21
The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is : a hybrid a piston a radial an axial
compressor. compressor. compressor. compressor.
876 21
The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by : switching the switching the switching the opening the
diluter passenger diluter oxygen-
demand oxygen ON. demand bottle
regulator regulator valves.
and the ON.
passenger
oxygen ON.
877 21
 One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that : there is no it uses the it has a there is no
danger of exhaust gas better torsion at
knocking. energy propulsive the
which efficiency. crankshaft.
normally is
lost.
878 21
With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an RPM and RPM and RPM and RPM
aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller? Fuel Flow MAP EGT indicator.
indicator. indicator. indicator.
879 21
An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used control the assist the control the control the
to : fuel pilot to settle cylinder carburator
temperature. correct head inlet air flow.
mixture. temperature.

880 21
During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being Manifold Air RPM Manifold Air RPM
constant) the : Pressure decreases. Pressure increases.
(MAP) (MAP)
decreases. increases.
881 21
The conditions which can cause knocking are : High Low Low High
manifold manifold manifold manifold
pressure pressure pressure pressure
and high and high and high fuel and low
revolutions revolutions flow. revolutions
per minute. per minute. per minute.
882 21
Which of the following qualitative statements about a fixed propeller blades blade is blade is airfoil
optimized for cruise condition, is true for the take-off case? The angle of reduces to relatively relatively section is
attack of the propeller : zero. high. small. negative.
883 21
The 'constant speed propeller' has its best only above in general a only at the
efficiency and below worse design
during climb. the design efficiency speed a
point a than the better
better fixed efficiency
efficiency propeller. than the
than the fixed
fixed propeller.
propeller
with the
same design
speed.

884 21
What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a "constant speed It will It will It will It will remain
propeller" if the manifold pressure is increased ? increase increase and decrease so the same
after a short that the
time it will be engine can
the same increase
again
885 21
The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at: low low high high
airspeeds airspeeds airspeeds airspeeds
with low with high with low with high
power power power power
setting. setting. setting. setting.
886 21
 During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM stays increases. decreases. only stays
indication and constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston constant. constant if
engine : the speed
control lever
is pushed
forward.

887 21
The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works pneumaticall with hot air. with anti- electrically.
888 21 y. icing fluid.
If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside negative outflow air cycle negative
ambient air pressure the : pressure valve open machine will pressure
relief valve completely. stop. relief valve
will close will open.
889 21
Static dischargers :_x000D_ 2,4,5. 1,2,5. 1,3,4. 3,4,5.
_x000D_
1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical
potential_x000D_
2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical
discharge_x000D_
3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value
approximating 0 volts_x000D_
4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence with the on-
board radiocommunication systems to a minimum_x000D_
5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and
the electrified clouds_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

890 21
The octane rating of a fuel characterises the : fuel volatility quantity of fuel the anti-
heat electrical knock
generated conductivity capability
by its
combustion
891 21
The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour fire point self ignition flash point combustion
ignites in contact with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is the: point point
892 21
'Fail safe construction' is : A simple and A type of A A type of
cheap type construction construction construction
of for small which is in which the
construction. aircraft only. suitable for load is
aerobatic carried by
flight. other
components
if a part of
the structure
fails.

893 21
The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against Synthetic Mineral oil Vegetable oil Water and
cavitation is : fluid. based fluid. based fluid glycol based
(caster oil). fluid.
894 21
The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet Electrical Hot air Pneumatic Liquid de-
aeroplanes is the de-icing system. system with icing system.
system. expandable
boots.

895 21
 During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect leading leading the whole slats and the
edges only. edges, slats upper wing leading edge
and the surface and flaps only.
leading edge the flaps.
flaps.
896 21
The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is 2 adiabatic 2 adiabatic 2 adiabatic, 2 adiabatic
enclosed by the following gas state change lines and 1 and 2 1 isochoric and 2
isothermic isobaric and 1 isochoric
lines. lines. isobaric lines.
lines.
897 21
The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of Thermal Fluid de- Pneumatic Electrical
898 21 modern turboprop aeroplanes is : anti-icing. icing. boots. heating.
In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller' the spring the oil the oil the
force turns pressure pressure aerodynamic
the propeller turns the turns the force turns
blades propeller propeller the propeller
towards blades blades blades
smaller pitch towards towards towards
angle. higher pitch smaller pitch higher pitch
angle. angle. angle.

899 21
A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated .. When there Only at take- When there When
are off and is entering
approximatel during approximatel areas with
y 5 cm of ice approach. y 1,5 cm of icing
on leading ice on conditions.
edges leading
edges.
900 21
A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by checking the checking the heating up checking the
wiring sensor with the sensor continuity of
harness for pressurized with test the system
faults but not gas. power with a test
the sensor. connection. switch.

901 21
Smoke detector systems are installed in the engine fuel tanks. upper cargo wheel wells.
nacelles. compartmen
ts (class E).

902 21
The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the water. carbon freon. sand.
903 21 ground is : dioxide.
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the seat rows in passengers emergency seats in the
passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of : the cabin. in the cabin. exits in the cabin.
cabin.
904 21
In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in the: tyres. landing gear cabin. fuel tanks.
bays / wheel
wells.
905 21
 The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes must be must be depends on must be in
arranged to arranged to the decision accordance
allow all allow at least of the with the
passengers 50 % of all manufacture number of
and all crew passengers r in passengers
members to to leave the agreement on board.
leave the aeroplane with the
aeroplane within 2 operator.
within 90 minutes.
sec. through
50 % of the
available
emergency
exits.

906 21
If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen _x000D_ passenger oxygen oxygen is oxygen
system is exceeded the: oxygen bottles will discharged becomes
masks will explode. overboard unusable for
drop down. via a safety the
plug. passengers.

907 21
The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen _x000D_ deliver is only mix air and deliver
system is to : oxygen flow recommend oxygen in a oxygen flow
only above ed with passenger when
FL 100. smoke in the oxygen inhaling.
cockpit. mask.
908 21
In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied by turbo ram air, the APU. bleed air
compressors heated via a from the
. heat engines.
exchanger.
909 21
Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively : low high weak rich mixture.
barometric barometric mixture.
pressure. pressure.
910 21
Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the: mass of fuel volume of volume of mass of fuel
and mass of fuel and fuel and and mass of
air entering volume of air volume of air air entering
the cylinder. entering the entering the the
carburettor. cylinder. carburettor

911 21
Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of it reduces it reduces it reduces it reduces
carburettor heat? the volume the density the volume the density
of air of air of air of air
entering the entering the entering the entering the
carburettor,t carburettor, carburettor,t carburettor,
hus leaning thus leaning hus thus
the fuel/air the fuel/air enriching the enriching the
mixture mixture fuel/air fuel/air
mixture mixture

912 21
The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine the higher the lower the the higher compression
have which of the following relations? the octane octane the octane ratio is
rating is, the rating is, the rating is, the independent
higher the higher the lower the of the
possible possible possible octane
compression compression compression rating.
ratio is ratio is ratio is.

913 21
 Vapour lock is : vaporizing of the inability vaporizing of the
fuel in the of a fuel to fuel prior to formation of
carburettor vaporize in reaching the water
the carburettor vapour in a
carburettor fuel system
914 21
Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical use only keep tank keep tanks drain tanks
way to minimize this when an aircraft is used every day or so is to : high octane vents topped off at end of
gasoline plugged and when the each day's
filler cap aircraft is not flight
tight in use
915 21
In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be it drains the the gasoline it washes it fouls the
avoided because : carburettor dilutes the the lubricant spark plugs
float oil and of cylinder
chamber necessitates walls
changing oil

916 21
The primary purpose of a supercharger is to : provide provide a maintain increase
leaner richer power at quantity of
mixtures at mixture at altitude fuel at
altitudes high metering jet
below 5000 altitudes
ft
917 21
An excessively rich mixture can be detected by : black smoke high cylinder white smoke a long
from head from purple flame
exhaust. temperature exhaust. from
s exhaust.

918 21
An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists .. Only for Only if the If the If there is an
counterrotati 'constant aeroplane unbalanced
ng propeller speed has a large propeller.
propeller' angle of
mechanism attack.
is broken.
919 21
Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when : the mixture a rich the sparking the mixture
is ignited mixture is plug ignites is ignited by
before the ignited by the mixture abnormal
piston has the sparking too early. conditions
reached top plugs. within the
dead centre. cylinder
before the
spark occurs
at the plug

920 21
In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur? main air venturi and float accelerator
bleed and the throttle chamber pump and
main valve and fuel inlet main
discharge filter metering jet
nozzle
921 21
The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an engine maximum take-off critical rated power.
when it is operated at specified rpm and manifold pressure conditons power. power. power.
established as safe for continuous operation is termed :
922 21
 A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned : upstream of between the between the downstream
the needle needle valve metering jet of th
valve. and the and the discharge
metering jet. discharge nozzle.
nozzle.

923 21
The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is : compression induction, induction, induction,
induction, compression compression power,
power, , expansion, , power, compression
exhaust. power. exhaust. , exhaust.

924 21
Specific fuel consumption is defined as the : maximum mass of fuel designed quantity of
fuel required to fuel fuel required
consumption produce unit consumption to run the
of the power for for a given engine for
aircraft. unit time. rpm. one minute
at maximum
operating
conditions.

925 21
In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to : prevent a weaken the enrich the correct for
weak cut mixture mixture variations in
when the strength strength due the fuel/air
throttle is because of to ratio due to
opened reduced decreased decreased
rapidly at exhaust air density at air density at
altitude. back altitude. altitude.
pressure at
altitude.

926 21
The purpose of an ignition switch is to : control the connect the connect the connect the
primary secondary battery to contact
circuit of the coil to the the magneto breaker and
magneto distributor condenser in
series with
the primary
coil

927 21
Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current : from the directly from from the from a self-
booster coil. the aircraft aircraft contained
batteries. batteries via electro-
an inverter. magnetic
induction
system.
928 21
On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller : in a descent manifold the propeller in level
at a fixed pressure setting is flight,
throttle decreases constant at manifold
setting as the all indicated pressure will
manifold aircraft airspeeds. remain
pressure will climbs at a constant
always fixed throttle when the
remain setting. rpm is
constant. increased by
opening the
throttle.

929 21
 The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor : enters at the enters at a enters the enters via
periphery tangent to eye of the the diffuser
and leaves the rotor and impeller and and is fed to
via the eye leaves via leaves at a the impeller
of the the stator. tangent to at the
impeller. the optimum
periphery. angle of
attack.
930 21
A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the : swept total volume clearance total volume
volume to to the volume to to the swept
the clearance the swept volume.
clearance volume. volume.
volume.
931 21
In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a: key board screen unit hard disk printer
932 21 drive
The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5 2, 3, 4
are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. a greater autonomy,_x000D_
2. no risk of explosion,_x000D_
3. reversible functioning,_x000D_
4. easy storage and maintenance,_x000D_
5. possibility to regulate flow._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

933 21
In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by : pulling the pushing the pushing the pulling the
RPM lever RPM lever power lever power levers
backwards. forward. forward. backwards.

934 21
The crank assembly consists of propeller, Crankcase, crankshaft, crankshaft,
crankshaft, crankshaft, camshaft, connecting
pistons and connecting valves, valve rods and
connecting rods and springs and pistons.
rods. pistons. push rods.

935 21
Ignition systems of piston engines are : dependant dependant independant dependant
on the DC- on the AC- from the on the
Generator. Generator. electrical battery.
system of
the aircraft.
936 21
The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to: serve to provide the provide the feed cooling
increase the engine with engine with air to the
relative additional air additional air engine
velocity at at high at high cowling.
the first power power
compressor settings and settings at
stage. low air cruising
speeds. speed.
937 21
Skip distance is the: highest wavelength thickness of range from
critical distance of a the the
frequency certain ionosphere transmitter
distance frequency to the first
sky wave
938 21
A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, attenuation refraction propagation ducting
939 21 this is called :
 On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings compression piston engine overall
are readjusted in order to increase the: ratio displacemen r.p.m. efficiency
t
940 21
In a four-stroke piston engine, the only "driving" stroke is : intake compression exhaust firing-
941 21 expansion
In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature compression low volatility vaporization freezing
that causes carburettor ice is normally the result of: of air at the of aviation of fuel and temperature
carburettor fuel expansion of of the air
venturi the air in the entering the
carburettor carburettor

942 21
In computer technology, an input peripheral is a: keyboard screen unit hard disk diskette
943 21 drive drive
The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the: automatic increase in measureme difference in
metering of air velocity nt of the fuel air pressure
air at the in the throat flow into the at the
venturi as of a venturi induction venturi
the aircraft causing an system throat and
gains increase in the air inlet
altitude air pressure

944 21
In computer technology, an EPROM is:_x000D_ 1,4 1,3 2,3 2,4
_x000D_
1. a read-only memory_x000D_
2. a write memory_x000D_
3. erases its content when power supply is cut off_x000D_
4. keeps its content when power supply is cut off_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
945 21
On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a: leading edge leading edge leading edge trailing edge
flap close to flap close to flap flap
the wing root the wing tip
946 21
The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following Lower Higher Lower Higher
change in circumstance occurs : frequency frequency frequency frequency
ang higher and lower and lower and higher
position of position of position of position of
the reflecting the reflecting the reflecting the reflecting
ionospheric ionospheric ionospheric ionospheric
layer layer layer layer

947 21
Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at : cruising idling full throttle take-off
948 21 speed
If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch the engine a still the engine the power
becomes disconnected the most noticeable result will be that: cannot be operating cannot be developed
shut down engine will started with by the
by turning run down the ignition engine will
the ignition switch in the be strongly
switch to the "ON" reduced
"OFF" position
position
949 21
For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent on: a properly a lean the a rich fuel/air
functioning fuel/air circulation of mixture
thermostat mixture lubricating
oil

950 21
 The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power exhaust intake valve both valves both valves
stroke are : valve closed closed and open. closed.
and intake exhaust
valve open. valve open.

951 21
The main purpose of the mixture control is to: adjust the decrease increase the decrease
fuel flow to the air oxygen oxygen
obtain the supplied to supplied to supplied to
proper the engine the engine the engine
fuel/air ratio
952 21
In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers the the right the left the left
'minimum engine is the engine is the engine
control critical critical produces a
speed' is motor. motor. higher yaw
determined moment if
by the failure the right
of the right engine fails
engine. than vice
versa.

953 21
In computer technology, an output peripheral is a: hard disk diskette screen unit keyboard
954 21 drive drive
The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit results 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5
in:_x000D_
1. automatic disconnection of the generator from the aircraft AC
busbar_x000D_
2. opening of generator field current relay_x000D_
3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker_x000D_
4. opening of balancing circuit connecting two generators_x000D_
5. lighting of an indicator lamp_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

955 21
A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with 12000 ft. 14000 ft. 15000 ft. 13000 ft.
individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of
depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before the
cabin pressure altitude exceeds:
956 21
Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times 490. 410. 300. 250.
957 21 during commercial flight.
A diluter demand oxygen regulator : mixes air delivers delivers is only
and oxygen oxygen flow oxygen flow recommend
in a when only above ed for use
passenger inhaling. FL 100. with smoke
oxygen in the
mask. cockpit.
958 21
A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passenger 3 1 passenger no first aid 1 passenger
are on board and the expected Flight Level on route Paris-Alger is FL passengers for the entire required. for the entire
330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide for the entire flight after flight after
breathing supply for at least: flight after cabin cabin
cabin depressuriza depressuriza
depressuriza tion at cabin tion at cabin
tion at cabin altitude of altitude
altitude more than between
between 8000 ft. 10000 and
10000 and 14000 ft.
14000 ft.

959 21
 As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information the aircraft take-off. the aircraft the aircraft
must be given to passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to be reaches FL reaches FL reaches FL
carried out at Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be completed 250. 100. 140.
before :
960 21
In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the gaseous. liquid. chemical. chemical or
961 21 following state: gaseous.
The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:_x000D_ 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 1, 4, 6 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
1. simple connection_x000D_ 6
2. high starting torque_x000D_
3. flexibility in use_x000D_
4. lighter weight of equipment_x000D_
5. easy to convert into direct current_x000D_
6. easy maintenance of machines_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:
962 21
On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium- 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 3, 4, 6, 7 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
Nickel. Their advantages are:_x000D_
1. low risk of thermal runaway_x000D_
2. high internal resistance, hence higher power_x000D_
3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating_x000D_
4. wider permissible temperature range_x000D_
5. good storage capability_x000D_
6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing_x000D_
7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging._x000D_
The combination of correct statement is:

963 21
Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing 2, 4. 2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 4.
when:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the
ground_x000D_
2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions_x000D_
_x000D_
This effect is overcome by means of:_x000D_
_x000D_
3. the torque link_x000D_
4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

964 21
A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance voltage coil voltage coil generator shunt exciter
between the: and the and the and the and the
series series series series
winding turn. winding. winding turn. winding turn.

965 21
The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose assist the withstand provide integrate the
purpose is to: skin in the shear sound and strains due
absorbing stresses. thermal to
the isolation. pressurizatio
longitudinal n to which
traction- the skin is
compression subjected
stresses. and convert
them into a
tensile
stress.

966 21
 When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator the exciter the tie the exciter the
connected to the mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation breaker, the breaker. breaker and generator
protection device opens: generator the breaker.
breaker and generator
the tie breaker.
breaker.

967 21
When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on only one AC tie breaker. generator exciter exciter
generator, the protection device opens the : breaker and breaker and breaker,
tie breaker. generator generator
breaker. breaker and
tie breaker.

968 21
When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to exciter exciter exciter generator
the aircraft AC busbar, the protection device opens the: breaker. breaker and breaker, breaker.
generator generator
breaker. breaker and
tie breaker.

969 21
A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by : air tapped air via a ram water at 8 a fan located
from the low air intake. degrees before the
pressure centrigade generator.
compressor. from the air-
conditioning
system.
970 21
The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in : series with series with parallel with parallel with
the shunt the the shunt the
field coil. armature. field coil. armature.
971 21
On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the the stabilizer the auxiliary a set of the main
generator is activated by: winding winding. permanent field
jointly with magnets. winding.
the voltage
regulator.

972 21
An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place: fully in the in the stator in order to fully in the
rotor. and in the produce a stator.
rotor. degree of jet
propulsion <
1/2.

973 21
Landing gear torque links are used to: maintain the prevent take up the prevent the
compass rotation of lateral extension of
heading the landing stresses to the landing
throughout gear piston which the gear oleo
taxiing and in the oleo gear is strut rod.
take-off. strut. subjected.
974 21
The function of a fusible plug is to protect protect the protect the function as a
against tyre against brake special
excessive explosion against circuit
pressure in due to brake disk breaker in
the excessive fusion due to the electric
pneumatic temperature. excessive system
system. temperature.

975 21
 On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator the exciter the exciter The The
connected to the aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device breaker and breaker, the generator generator
opens: the generator breaker and breaker.
generator breaker and tie breaker.
breaker. tie breaker.

976 21
The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: metric. hectometric. myriametric. decimetric.
977 21
In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by : both a CHT both engine a manifold a cylinder
gauge and rpm pressure head
manifold readings gauge only. temperature
pressure and a gauge
gauge. manifold (CHT), a
pressure manifold
gauge. pressure
gauge, and
engine rpm
readings.

978 21
When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to: 0.5 0 1 0.1
979 21
The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF cathode-ray VHF VHF VHF
direction finder is a: tube. transmitter- compass receiver
receiver operating in operating in
operating in the 200 kHz the 118 MHz
the 118 MHz to 1750 kHz to 136 MHz
to 136 MHz range. range.
range.
980 21
The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following decimetric. centimetric. hectometric. myriametric.
981 21 wavelengths:
The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths: centimetric. metric. hectometric. myriametric.
982 21
The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths: metric. hectometric. decimetric. centimetric.
983 21
The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths: metric. hectometric. decimetric. centimetric.
984 21
The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following hectometric. metric. centimetric. decimetric.
985 21 wavelengths:
The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths: hectometric. myriametric. metric. centimetric.
986 21
A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of seats seats. passengers. passengers
oxygen dispensing units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the exceeded by exceeded by
same as the total number of : 10%. 10%.
987 21
The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following wavelengths: myriametric. centimetric. metric. hectometric.
988 21
 Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the 2, 3, 4, 5 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4, 6
oxygen regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to
about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)_x000D_
2. supply pure oxygen_x000D_
3. supply diluted oxygen_x000D_
4. supply oxygen at normal pressure_x000D_
5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure_x000D_
6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin
altitude_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

989 21
The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: decimetric. metric. centimetric. myriametric.
990 21
The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths: decimetric. centimetric. hectometric metric.
or kilometric.
991 21
A thermal circuit breaker: forbids any can be reset protects the is a
overcurrent. without any system in protection
danger even the event of system with
if the fault overheating, a quick
remains. even without break
exceeding capacity of
the about one
maximum hundredth of
permissible a second.
current.

992 21
The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which: must have supplies the is driven at is excited by
the same aircraft with constant its
characteristi three-phase speed Generator
cs as the 115-200 V, throught a Control Unit
main AC 400 Hz AC. Constant (GCU) as
generator so Speed Drive soon as the
that it can be (CSD), in the APU starts
easily same way up.
coupled with as the main
the latter. AC
generator.

993 21
As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can 2, 3 3, 4 2, 4 1, 3
be said that:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage_x000D_
2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record the
failure_x000D_
3. All the commands originating from the control panel are applied via
the GCU, except dog clutch release_x000D_
4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC
generator as soon as the APU starts up_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

994 21
995 21 Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are: purple. pink. blue. red.
 A magnetic circuit-breaker is: a protection permits an can be reset is a system
system that overcurrent without any with a slow
has a quick limited in danger even response
tripping time. when fault time.
response. remains.

996 21
A tubeless tyre is a tyre:_x000D_ 1, 5, 6. 3, 4, 5. 1, 2, 5. 2, 3, 6.
_x000D_
1. which requires solid or branched wheels_x000D_
2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations_x000D_
3. whose mounting rim must be flawless_x000D_
4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing
device_x000D_
5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture_x000D_
6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the
tire_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

997 21
The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing locked- in the locked-down not in the
gear is : down. required and its door required
position. is locked. position.
998 21
The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths: centimetric. metric. hectometric. decimetric.
999 21
Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in 1,4 1, 2, 4 3 2, 3
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. an emergency in the case of depressurization._x000D_
2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a
passenger._x000D_
3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin._x000D_
5. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1000 21
Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber Springs. Nitrogen and Nitrogen. Oxygen.
used on larger aircraft ? a viscous
liquid.
1001 21
In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear A bolt. A latch An aural A warning
being inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of : located in warning light which is
the landing horn. activated by
gear lever. the WOW
(Weight On
Wheels)
sensor
system.

1002 21
The function of the selector valve is to: select the automaticall discharge communicat
system to y activate some e system
which the the hydraulic hydraulic pressure to
hydraulic system. fluid if the either side of
pump should system an actuator.
supply pressure is
pressure. too high.

1003 21
 The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear A hydraulic An A Pressure An actuator
motion is called ... pump. accumulator. regulator. or jack.
1004 21
The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce: small small high high
pressure pressure pressure pressure
and large and small and large and small
flow. flow. flow. flow.
1005 21
A relay is : A switch An electrical An An electrical
specially energy electromagn security
designed for conversion etically switch.
AC circuits. unit. operated
switch.
1006 21
1007 21 The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is : 50 Hz. 60 Hz. 400 Hz. 200 Hz.
Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output maintain the decrease increase the change the
voltage. If the electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will : intensity of the intensity intensity of direction of
the of the the the
excitation excitation excitation excitation
current current. current. current.
constant.
1008 21
A main landing gear is said to be "locked down" when: the actuating the the strut is it is in the
cylinder is at correspondi locked by an down
the end of ng indicator overcentre position.
it's travel. lamp is mechanism.
amber.

1009 21
In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the pilot must pilot must pilot can pilot has to
red arc the: disconnect it disconnect disconnect it throttle back.
and it, and the to allow it to
manually generator is cool and use
control the not available it again.
alternator. for the rest
of flight.

1010 21
Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning Angle of Angle of Angle of Angle of
computers? attack and attack, flaps attack, flaps attack and
flaps and deflection deflection, flaps and
spoilers and EPR. EPR and slats
deflection. N1. deflection.

1011 21
Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with : two oxygen only portable two only one
systems oxygen independent oxygen
both bottles. oxygen system
supplying systems, supplying
the cockpit one the whole
and the supplying aircraft.
cabin. the cockpit,
the other the
cabin.

1012 21
When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen is constant is 100 %. increases decreases
mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator: whatever the when the when the
altitude. altitude altitude
increases. increases.
1013 21
In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger a mixture of pure oxygen pure oxygen cabin air
breathes : oxygen and under at the under
cabin air. pressure. ambient pressure.
pressure.
1014 21
 Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the : cockpit only. toilets only. cabin only. cockpit and
1015 21 the cabin.
1016 21 The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about : 30 minutes. 2 hours. 5 minutes. 15 minutes.
The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 4, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
are :_x000D_ 6
_x000D_
1. reduced weight and volume,_x000D_
2. easy storage and maintenance,_x000D_
3. greater autonomy,_x000D_
4. no risk of explosion,_x000D_
5. reversible functioning,_x000D_
6. no maintenance._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1017 21
The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. a flow which cannot be modulated,_x000D_
2. a heavy and bulky system,_x000D_
3. non reversible functioning,_x000D_
4. risks of explosion,_x000D_
5. poor autonomy._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1018 21
The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport Gaseous or Gaseous. Chemical Liquid.
aeroplanes is stored is : chemical compound.
compound..
1019 21
The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 10 metres. 1 metre. 1000 100 metres.
1020 21 kHz is: metres.
The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are: directly kept in automaticall providing an
connected to operating y connected alternative
the battery. conditions to the current.
by an battery if
electrical generators
resistance in have failed.
the case of
energy
failure.

1021 21
The purpose of static wick dischargers is to : be able to fly dissipate dissipate provide a
higher static charge static charge path to
because of of the from the ground for
less aircraft aircraft skin static
electrical inflight thus after charges
friction. avoiding landing. when
radio refuelling.
interference
as a result of
static
electricity.

1022 21
 A tubeless tyre has :_x000D_ 2, 3. 1,3. 2, 4. 1, 4.
_x000D_
1- a built-in-air tube._x000D_
2- no built-in-air tube._x000D_
3- a crossed side casing._x000D_
4- a radial side casing._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:
1023 21
(For this question use annex 021-4008A)_x000D_ impossible possible with impossible possible with
Reference should be made to the fuel sypply system shown in without "CROSSFE because "CROSSFE
annex._x000D_ causing the ED" open there is no ED" open
In flight, with center tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance is APU stop. and tank 2 fuel in center and tank 1
detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2)._x000D_ pumps tank. pumps
Rebalancing of the two tanks is: "OFF". "OFF" and
tank 2
pumps "ON".

1024 21
An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level._x000D_ A descent The aircraft The crew DELTA P will
During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by must be has to climb has to rise up to its
the crew and the cabin rate of climb indicator reads -200ft/min._x000D_ initiated to to a higher intermittently maximum
Given that :_x000D_ prevent the flight level in cut off the value, thus
DELTA P: Differential pressure_x000D_ oxygen order to incoming air causing the
Zc: Cabin altitude masks reduce Zc to flow in order safety relief
dropping its initial to maintain a valves to
when Zc value. zero Zc. open.
reaches
14000ft.

1025 21
In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is: an a damping designed to a buffer
accumulator type take up the accumulator
designed to accumulator hydraulic whose
restore designed to energy function is to
brake take up the filtered by assist the
energy in the pressure the anti-skid hydraulic
event of a fluctuations system in system
hydraulic of the order to during high
failure. automatic prevent intensity
braking wheel braking.
system. blocking.

1026 21
An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310._x000D_ VZc VZc VZc VZc
Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs increase_x0 decrease_x0 increase_x0 decrease_x0
to the open position. Given :_x000D_ 00D_ 00D_ 00D_ 00D_
_x000D_ Zc Zc Zc Zc
VZc: Cabin rate of climb indication_x000D_ increase_x0 increase_x0 increase_x0 decrease_x0
Zc: Cabin pressure altitude_x000D_ 00D_ 00D_ 00D_ 00D_
DELTA P: Differential pressure_x000D_ DELTA P DELTA P DELTA P DELTA P
_x000D_ decrease decrease increase increase
This will result in a:

1027 21
 Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure 2, 3, 4. 3, 4, 5. 1, 5. 1, 3.
Ratio (EPR):_x000D_
_x000D_
1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude
increases_x000D_
2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach
number_x000D_
3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the
thrust irrespective of engine wear due to ageing._x000D_
4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the
turbine outlet and the compressor inlet_x000D_
5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the
indicated EPR is lower than the real EPR_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1028 21
Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop._x000D_ when at zero when with
During deceleration : braking, the power, the feathered, propeller
propeller propeller the propeller windmilling,
supplies thrust is zero produces the thrust is
negative and the thrust and zero and the
thrust and engine absorbs no propeller
absorbs power engine supplies
engine absorbed is power. engine
power. nil. power.

1029 21
The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling outlet and inlet and outlet and inlet and
unit : uses a uses a uses an uses an
centrifugal centrifugal evaporation evaporation
process. process. process. process.
1030 21
Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 4 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3
efficiently transmit the:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. normal bending stresses_x000D_
2. tangent bending stresses_x000D_
3. torsional moment_x000D_
4. shear stresses_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1031 21
In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ... The right The right The right The right
aileron will aileron will aileron will aileron will
ascend, the descend, the descend, the ascend, the
left one will left one will left one will left one will
descend, the ascend, the ascend, the descend, the
right spoiler right spoiler right spoiler right spoiler
will retract will retract will extend will extend
and the left and the left and the left and the left
one will one will one will one will
extend. extend. retract. retract.

1032 21
 The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer 1, 3. 1, 2, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. 2, 4.
whose input data is:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. idle wheel speed (measured)_x000D_
2. braked wheel speed (measured)_x000D_
3. brake temperature (measured)_x000D_
4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate_x000D_
5. tire pressure_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1033 21
A Yaw Damper is : A rudder An elevator An elevator A roll trim
damper augmentor. augmentor tab.
designed to to avoid the
avoid the nose-down
"Dutch roll". effect at
speeds
greater than
M=0.8.
1034 21
The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are : series shunt series shunt compound
wound. wound. wound. wound.
1035 21
The output of a generator is controlled by : varying the the reverse varying the varying the
length of current relay field speed of the
wire in the circuit strength. engine.
armature breaker.
windings.
1036 21
Fuses are rated to a value by : their their the number the number
wattage. resistance of amperes of volts they
measured in they will will pass.
ohms. carry.
1037 21
A relay is : a unit which a device a another
is used to which is magnetically name for a
convert used to operated solenoid
electrical increase switch. valve.
energy to electrical
heat energy. power.

1038 21
1039 21 The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is : 1,8 volts. 1,2 volts. 2,2 volts. 1,4 volts.
Batteries are rated in : Amperes.ho Amperes/vol Watts. Ohms.
1040 21 urs. ts.
It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if : there is static noises a circuit there is
heavy can be breaker interference
corrosion on heard on the pops out. on the VOR
the fuselage radio. receiver.
skin
mountings.

1041 21
 In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is: The The The The
frequency frequency frequency frequency
band band band band
correspondi correspondi correspondi correspondi
ng to ng to ng to ng to
maximum maximum maximum maximum
gain less 20 gain, gain less 3 gain.
decibels. increased by decibels.
10 kHz at
each end.

1042 21
A smoke mask is a : continuous mask with continuous mask with
flow mask flow on flow mask flow on
and covers request and and covers request and
the whole covers only only the covers the
face. the nose nose and whole face.
and the the mouth.
mouth.
1043 21
On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which the ribs. the webs. the skin. the spars.
1044 21 take up the vertical bending moments Mx are:
On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre: will have an will be more will wear at it's tread will
increased subject to the deteriorate
critical viscosity shoulders faster
hydroplannin aquaplaning
g speed on dry
runway

1045 21
When the magneto selector switch is set to "OFF" position, the piston A wire from There are On a There is a
engine continues to run normally._x000D_ the magneto local hot magneto, a carbon
The most probable cause of this failure is that: is in contact points in the grounding deposit on
with a engine wire is the spark
metallic part (probably broken. plugs
of the due to electrodes.
engine. overheating
of the
cylinder
heads).

1046 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 6 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 7 hand fire- 8 hand fire-
is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in located in
the the the the
passenger passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t. t.

1047 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 7 hand fire- 6 hand fire- 8 hand fire- 9 hand fire-
is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in located in
the the the the
passenger passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t. t.

1048 21
 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 3 HALON 2 HALON 4 HALON 1 HALON
is greater than 60 seats must be equipped with at least: 1211 fire- 1211 fire- 1211 fire- 1211 fire-
extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher.
s. s. s.
1049 21
Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by :_x000D_ a the aircraft's a manual pressurized
pressurized general pump, used air from the
gas canister pneumatic when air
combined circuit. needed by conditioning
with the slide the cabin system.
itself. crew.

1050 21
Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that :_x000D_ the same the seals the with setting
circuit is must be passenger on
used by the carefully circuit never "NORMAL",
crew and the greased to uses the crew
passengers. avoid chemically breathes a
sparks. generated mixture of
oxygen. oxygen /
cabin air.
1051 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 3 hand fire- 2 hand fire- 4 hand fire- 5 hand fire-
is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in located in
the the the the
passenger passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t. t.

1052 21
An oxygen regulator has 3 controls :_x000D_ the "O2" with the the power the
_x000D_ lever on ON EMERGENC lever on ON, EMERGENC
- a power lever : ON/OFF_x000D_ enables Y lever on and, the Y lever on
- an "O2" lever : NORMAL/100%_x000D_ breathing of OFF, in an "O2" lever ON enables
- an emergency lever : ON/OFF_x000D_ the over- emergency on NORMAL breathing of
_x000D_ pressure situation, allows the pure oxygen
Among the following statements, the correct proposition is :_x000D_ oxygen at a one cannot oxygen to at ambient
constant use the enter the pressure.
flow rate. oxygen regulator
mask to and enables
breathe. breathing of
a mixture of
air/oxygen
according to
altitude.

1053 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 3 hand fire- 4 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 2 hand fire-
is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in located in
the the the the
passenger passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t. t.

1054 21
 In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ... compress drive drive the clear the
the air in devices like compressor burnt gases,
order to pumps, by using part the
provide a regulator, of the expansion of
better generator. energy from which
charge of the exhaust provide the
the gases thrust
combustion
chamber

1055 21
The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the : reference propeller propeller propeller
chord line reference reference plane of
and the chord line chord line rotation and
propeller and the and the the relative
plane of relative extremity of airflow.
rotation. airflow. the
propeller.
1056 21
A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to : make the prevent any create the transform
body gears rotation of wheel pitch the
pivot when the oleo on bogie translational
the strut in the gears. movement
nosewheel undercarriag of the rudder
is turned e shock pedals into
through absorber. the
more than rotational
20°. movement
of the
nosewheel.

1057 21
For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is the the reservoir the security the pumps
:_x000D_ regulation constitutes a components are always
system reserve of comprise the electric due
deals only hydraulic filters, the to the high
with fluid pressure pressures
emergency maintained relief valves, which they
operation under the by- must deliver
and is not pressure by passes, and (140 to 210
applied to all a pneumatic the fire shut- kg/cm²).
hydraulic back off valve.
services but pressure (air
only those or nitrogen)
considered and destined
as essential. to serve as a
fluid or
pressure
reserve.

1058 21
When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch feathered. windmilling. transparent. at zero drag.
1059 21 angle is near 90°, the propeller is said to be...
A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of 1 halon fire- 3 halon fire- no halon 2 halon fire-
more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at extinguisher. extinguisher fire- extinguisher
least 3 portable fire-extinguishers including: s. extinguisher. s.
1060 21
 In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher is normal, if is abnormal is abnormal requires an
than normal oil pressure._x000D_ it decreases and requires but does not oil change.
This higher pressure :_x000D_ after startup. the engine require the
to be shut engine to be
down. shut down.

1061 21
On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, a hollow bolt a pressure the water
due for example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there screwed into relief valve "Emergency injection
is: the wheel situated in Burst" triggered at
which melts the filler function of a fixed
at a given valve. the anti-skid temperature
temperature system in order to
(thermal which lower tyre
fuse) and adapts temperature.
deflates the braking to
tyre. the tyre
temperature.

1062 21
The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a: warning light warning bell. warning gear
and a light. warning.
warning bell
(or aural
alert).
1063 21
The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to isolate the 1 - 2 -3 1-2 1 - 2 - 3 -4 1
battery:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - from the bus when the battery charge is deemed
satisfactory_x000D_
2 - when there is a battery overheat condition_x000D_
3 - in case of an internal short circuit_x000D_
4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1064 21
On an aeroplane, spoilers are :_x000D_ upper wing lower wing upper wing lower wing
surface surface surface surface
devices, devices, devices, devices,
their their their their
deflection is deflection is deflection is deflection is
always always symmetrical symmetrical
asymmetrica asymmetrica or or
l. l. asymmetrica asymmetrica
l. l.

1065 21
The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal 2-3 2-4 1-3 1-2
flow compressors are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - expensive to manufacture_x000D_
2 - limited airflow_x000D_
3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage_x000D_
4 - limited compression ratio_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct answers is :

1066 21
On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:_x000D_ leading edge leading edge trailing edge trailing edge
flaps close flaps close flaps close flaps close
to the wing to the wing to the wing to the wing
tip root root tip
1067 21
 When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire delay the wait for the avoid false allow
alarm is triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to: triggering of triggering of alarms in temperature
the fire the second case of s to equalise
extinguinshe fire detection vibrations
rs and loop in order
increase to confirm
their the fire
efficiency

1068 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 6 hand fire- 3 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 4 hand fire-
is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in located in
the the the the
passenger passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t. t.

1069 21
Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the 2 - 3 2-4 1-2-3-4 3-4
following characteristics :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - high heating_x000D_
2 - valve fragility_x000D_
3 - lower risk of bursting_x000D_
4 - better adjustment to wheels_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination containing all the correct statements is:

1070 21
On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold a value a lower a greater zero on the
pressure gauge always indicates... equal to the value than value than ground
QFE when atmospheric atmospheric when the
the engine is pressure pressure engine is
at full power when the when the stopped.
on the engine is engine is
ground. running. running.
1071 21
A stage in an axial compressor: _x000D_ is made of has a is made of a has a
row of stator compression rotor disc compression
blades ration in the followed by ratio in the
followed by order of 0.8 a row of order of 2.1
a rotor disc stator blades

1072 21
For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the: external internal internal fuelflow
airflow mass airflow mass airflow mass mass
divided by divided by divided by divided by
the internal the external the fuelflow the internal
airflow mass airflow mass mass airflow mass

1073 21
The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if the pump the reservoir there is a the pump
:_x000D_ output level is at leak in the power
pressure is the normal reservoir accumulator
insufficient. operation return line. is deflated.
limit.

1074 21
 (For this question use annex 021-10164A)_x000D_ the C2 and the C1 and the C1 and only one
The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried out by C4 sensors C2 sensors C3 sensors sensor
four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4._x000D_ detect detect detect detects
They are associated with the logic circuit as described in the smoke. smoke. smoke. smoke.
annex._x000D_
The repeating bell is activated when:
1075 21
Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading 2-4 1-3 1-4 2-3
edge de-icing devices, one can affirm that :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - They prevent ice formation._x000D_
2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become
visible._x000D_
3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds._x000D_
4 - There are more than ten cycles per second._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is :

1076 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 2 hand fire- 3 hand fire- 4 hand fire- 1 hand fire-
is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s conveniently
conveniently conveniently conveniently located in
located in located in located in the
the the the passenger
passenger passenger passenger compartmen
compartmen compartmen compartmen t.
t. t. t.

1077 21
In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air low high fan bleed
pressure is regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the intermediate pressure pressure air valve
manifold by the : pressure bleed air bleed air
check-valve valve valve

1078 21
Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft centrifugal high centrifugal low pressure
are:_x000D_ high pressure low pressure variable
pressure variable type pumps. swash plate
pumps. swash plate pumps.
pumps.

1079 21
During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed high low manifold high low manifold
propeller, a wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values manifold pressure manifold pressure
results in excessive pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when pressure and low pressure and high
one simultaneously selects a ... and high RPM. and low RPM.
RPM. RPM.
1080 21
The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power :_x000D_ 4 1-3 1-2 2-3
_x000D_
1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas
velocity_x000D_
2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient
air_x000D_
3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not
moving_x000D_
4 - is independant of the outside air temperature_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1081 21
 The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet:_x000D_ 3-4-5-6 3 2-3-4 1
_x000D_
1 - throughout the operating range of the engine_x000D_
2 - for accelerations_x000D_
3 - for ground starts_x000D_
4 - for in-flight relights_x000D_
5 - during turbulence in flight_x000D_
6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1082 21
Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if : the aircraft power is the engine the aircraft
descends increased runs at the climbs
without a too abruptly. authorized without
mixture maximum mixture
adjustment. continuous adjustment.
power for
too long.
1083 21
"Vapor lock" is the phenomenon by which: abrupt and burnt gas heat water
abnormal plugs produces vapour plugs
enrichment forming and vapour plugs are formed
of the remaining in in the fuel in the intake
fuel/air the exhaust line. fuel line
mixture manifold following the
following an following an condensatio
inappropriat overheat n of water in
e use of and thereby fuel tanks
carburettor disturbing which have
heat. the exhaust. not been
drained for
sometime.

1084 21
The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:_x000D_ in flight only. by the air by an by bleed air
conditioning auxiliary coming from
system. system. the turbine-
engine.

1085 21
The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such 2-3 2-4 1-3 1-4
that:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used_x000D_
2 - in case of accidental drop of the "continuous flow" passenger masks,
no crew action is required_x000D_
3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly_x000D_
4 - the system's filling adaptors must be greased with non freezable or
graphite grease_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1086 21
 The cross-feed fuel system enables:_x000D_ the supply of the supply of the supply of only the
any jet the jet the outboard transfer of
engine from engines jet engines fuel from the
any fuel mounted on from any centre tank
tank. a wing from outboard to the wing
any fuel tank fuel tank. tanks.
within that
wing.

1087 21
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set emergency. on demand. 100% normal.
1088 21 to:
(For this question use appendix )_x000D_ 1- cantilever 1- half-fork 1- cantilever 1- half fork
_x000D_ 2- dual 2- single 2- fork 3- 2- fork 3-
Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams wheels 3- trace 3- half fork 4- cantilever
:_x000D_ half fork 4- cantilever dual wheels 4- tandem
_x000D_ fork 4- dual
wheels
1089 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an emergency 1,4. 1, 2, 3 et 4. 1, 2. 1, 2, 4.
descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access
to a minimum amount of oxygen in:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the
cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft._x000D_
2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the
cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000
ft minus 30 minutes._x000D_
3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000
ft._x000D_
4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over 25000
ft._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1090 21
The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will 12 volt / 40 24 volt / 80 24 volt / 40 12 volt / 80
1091 21 create a unit with the following characteristics; amp hours amp hours amp hours amp hours
The global output of a piston engine is of:_x000D_ 0.50 0.75 0.90 0.30
(global output = Thermal energy corresponding to the available
shaft/power over the total thermal energy produced).
1092 21
For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a 1/9 th 1/10th 1/12th 1/15 th
richness of 1 is obtained for a weight ratio of:_x000D_
1093 21
(For this question use appendix )_x000D_ 1 2 3 4
_x000D_
On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as
a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the point marked:

1094 21
 In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which accumulatin creating a breaking the c
ignites the fuel/air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists g in a brief high primary
in : condenser a intensity current in
low volt magnetic order to
current from field which induce a low
the battery, will be sent amp high
reconstitute through the volt current
it as high distributor at which is
voltage the distributed to
current at appropriate the spark
the moment time. plugs.
the spark is
generated.

1095 21
From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is remain the increase or increase decrease
reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should: same decrease,
depending
on the
engine type
1096 21
The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the : mass of fuel volume of volume of real mixture
relative to fuel relative fuel relative ratio relative
the volume to the to the mass to the
of air. volume of of the theoretical
air. volume of ratio.
air.
1097 21
The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on... its phase its rotation the strength its load
balance speed of the
excitation
current

1098 21
The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer to decrease to withdraw to a have that it does
is : fuel it from the greater not require a
consumption influence of effectivenes de-icing
by creating a wing s at high system
tail heavy turbulence speed
situation

1099 21
The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the Req = R1 + Req = R1 x 1/Req = 1/ 1/Req =
equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following R2 R2 (R1 + R2) 1/R1 + 1/R2
formula:
1100 21
The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the battery is generator is battery is alternator is
: greater than greater than greater than greater than
the battery the the battery
alternator voltage and generator voltage and
voltage and to open voltage and to open
to open when the to open when the
when the opposite is when the opposite is
opposite is true opposite is true
true true

1101 21
Using compressor bleed air to power systems: has no increases is limited to decreases
influence on aircraft the phases aircraft
aircraft performance of take-off performance
performance and landing

1102 21
 The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished 3-4-6 2-4-5 1-5-6 1-3-5
by:_x000D_
_x000D_
- a propeller control lever used to select:_x000D_
1 - propeller RPM_x000D_
2 - turbine temperature_x000D_
3 - turbine RPM_x000D_
_x000D_
- a fuel control lever used to select:_x000D_
4 - propeller RPM_x000D_
5 - torque_x000D_
6 - turbine temperature_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1103 21
With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you: Reduce Reduce Increase Increase
manifold manifold manifold manifold
pressure pressure pressure pressure
and enrich and lean the and enrich and lean the
the mixture mixture the mixture mixture
1104 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 3 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 6 hand fire- 4 hand fire-
is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in located in
the the the the
passenger passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t. t.

1105 21
With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge: is automatic is automatic does not is the pilot's
and after a delay need the task
immediate to allow the engine to be
pilot to stop stopped
the engine

1106 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off crash axe in crow-bar in crash axe or crash axe
mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger the cockpit the cockpit a crow-bar and a crow-
seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats and a crow- and a crash in the pilot bar in the
must be equipped with a: bar in the axe in the compartmen passenger
passenger passenger t. compartmen
compartmen compartmen t.
t. t.

1107 21
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be equipped with 1,86 m. 1,89 m. 1,83 m. 1,80 m.
equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the
ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the
passenger emergency exit is higher than:
1108 21
The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they : are highly act as flame use the are electrical
corrosive inhibitors by cooling conductors.
particularly absorbing effect
for the air's created by
aluminium oxygen. the venturi
alloys. during
discharge.
1109 21
 In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is at night, due by day, due at night and by day and
particularly found :_x000D_ to the to the when when
combination combination raining. raining.
of the sky of sky and
and ground ground
waves. waves.
1110 21
(Use the appendix to answer this question)_x000D_ free turbine free turbine single shaft single shaft
_x000D_ and and axial turbine and turbine and
The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type:_x000D_ centrifugal compressor centrifugal axial
compressor compressor compressor

1111 21
A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the provided never provided provided
recommended: that the that it is an that the
grade is aeronautical grade is
lower petrol higher
1112 21
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration 5 hand fire- 7 hand fire- 8 hand fire- 6 hand fire-
is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher extinguisher
s s s s
conveniently conveniently conveniently conveniently
located in located in located in located in
the the the the
passenger passenger passenger passenger
compartmen compartmen compartmen compartmen
t. t. t. t.

1113 21
The portable emergency beacons which are used after an emergency 12 h 72 h 48 h 24 h
1114 21 landing or ditching have a duration of :
The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate your and a smoke which is and a smoke which is
position to the emergency teams are a flare: device which used at device which used at night
are only daytime and are only and a smoke
used at a smoke used in the device which
night. device which daytime. is used in
is used at the daytime.
night.

1115 21
The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is the alcohol rain wipers are the electric
that : de-icing repellent sufficient de-icing
system for should never under heavy system for
cockpit be sprayed rain cockpit
windows is onto the conditions to windows is
also suitable windshield provide also suitable
for rain unless the adequate for rain
protection rainfall is view through protection
very heavy the cockpit
windows.

1116 21
OWERPLANT, EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT- AEROPLANES

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
0 1 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0
1 0 0 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0

0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 1 0

0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0

1 0 0 0

0 0 0 1

0 0 0 1

0 0 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0
 MASS AND BALANCE - AEROPLANES

In cruise, an extreme aft longitudinal center of gravity: _x000D_ moves away brings the moves away
the cyclic cyclic stick the cyclic
stick from its closer to its stick from its
forward stop forward stop forward stop
and and and
increases decreases decreases
the stress in the stress in the stresses
the rotor the rotor in the head
head head rotors

1489 31
The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg._x000D_ 1 450 kg 1 000 kg 950 kg
The maximum take-off mass, landing and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg.
The block fuel mass is 550kg, and the taxi fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass
of payload is:
1490 31
An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not will not be will be are
entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected achieved. greater than unaffected
and calculated take-off safety speeds required. but V1 will
be
increased.
1491 31
(For this question use appendix 031-11590A )_x000D_ 6 270 kg 6 270 kg 6 270 kg
_x000D_ and 4.796 m and 5.012 m and 4.61 m
Without the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are 6 000 kg
and 4,70m._x000D_
_x000D_
- the mass of the pilot is 90 kg_x000D_
- the mass of the copilot is 100 kg_x000D_
- the mass of the flight engineer is 80 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
With the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are :

1492 31
The Basic Mass of a helicopter is the mass of the helicopter without crew, : without without without
specific specific payload,
equipments equipment with specific
for the for the equipment
mission, mission, for the
without without mission,
payload, payload, without the
with fuel on with the unusable
board. unusable fuel.
fuel and
standard
equipment.

1493 31
 (For this question use annex 031-11250A, 031-11250B and 031-11250C)_x000D_ 30.5 % 27.4 % 29.3 %
Knowing that:_x000D_
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg_x000D_
. Basic index: 119.1_x000D_
. Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per
PAX)_x000D_
. Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex._x000D_
. Fuel: 40 000 kg_x000D_
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in %
MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at:

1494 31
(For this question use annex 031-11222A and 031-11222B )_x000D_ 25 % 27 % 31 %
The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of gravity
located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the
local staff informs the flight crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded
in cargo 4. After loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be:

1495 31
The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following 40 400 kg 32 100 kg 32 900 kg
data:_x000D_
- Block fuel: 40 000 kg_x000D_
- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg_x000D_
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg_x000D_
- Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg_x000D_
- Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg_x000D_
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg_x000D_
- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
The maximum traffic load for this flight is:

1496 31
(For this question use annex 031-11227A)_x000D_ front cargo: front cargo: front cargo:
An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a planned take-off 9 260 kg; 3 740 kg; 6 760 kg;
mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.) located at 15.38 m rearward of rear cargo: 1 rear cargo: 6 rear cargo:
the reference point, representing a C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean 240 kg 760 kg 3 740 kg
Aerodynamic Cord). The current cargo load distribution is: front cargo: 6 500 kg;
rear cargo: 4 000 kg. For performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the
value of the centre of gravity location to 33 % MAC. The front and rear cargo
compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the reference point
respectively. After the transfer operation, the new cargo load distribution is:

1497 31
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic the the mean the mean
Chord._x000D_ aeroplane in aerodynamic aerodynamic
This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of the relation to chord in chord in
length of: the leading relation to relation to
edge the leading the trailing
edge edge
1498 31
The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following 55 000 kg 55 800 kg 25 800 kg
data:_x000D_
- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg_x000D_
- Block fuel: 30 000 kg_x000D_
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg_x000D_
- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kg_x000D_
The traffic load available for this flight is:
1499 31
 (For this question use annex 031-11251A , 031-11251B and 031-11251C)_x000D_ 29.3 % 28.3 % 30.5 %
Knowing that:_x000D_
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg_x000D_
. Basic index: 119.1_x000D_
. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per
PAX)_x000D_
. Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex._x000D_
. Fuel: 42 000 kg_x000D_
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in %
MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at:

1500 31
(For this question use annex 031-11219A)_x000D_ 5 600 kg 3 600 kg It is not
An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a planned take-off possible to
mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.) is located at 15.38 m rearward establish the
of the reference point, representing a C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean required
Aerodynamic Cord). For performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the centre of
value of the centre of gravity location to 35 % MAC. The front and rear cargo gravity
compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the reference point location.
respectively, the cargo load mass which needs to be transferred from the front to
the rear cargo compartment is:

1501 31
The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data:_x000D_ 61 500 kg 54 000 kg 55 000 kg
Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg_x000D_
Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg_x000D_
Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg_x000D_
Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kg_x000D_
Knowing that:_x000D_
Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg_x000D_
Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg_x000D_
Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg_x000D_
Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kg_x000D_
The maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is:

1502 31
(For this question use appendix 031-11589A)_x000D_ beyond the 6 180 kg 6 180 kg
_x000D_ limit and 0.059m and 0.075m
Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG position of the to the right to the right
helicopter are 6 000 kg and 0.055 m to the right._x000D_
_x000D_
- the mass of the wet man on the winch is 180 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
With the man on the winch, the mass and lateral CG-position of the helicopter are :

1503 31
Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single engine aeroplane._x000D_ 2449 lbs 2589 lbs 2659 lbs
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs _x000D_
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs _x000D_
Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs_x000D_
Cargo Mass : 350 lbs_x000D_
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal._x000D_
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal._x000D_
Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.

1504 31
An aeroplane has a mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) of 134.5 inches. The leading 18,14% 75,6% 85,5%
edge of this chord is at a distance of 625.6 inches aft of the datum. Give the
location of the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in terms of percentage MAC if the
mass of the aeroplane is acting vertically through a balance arm located 650
inches aft of the datum.
1505 31
 Determine the Take-off Mass for the following single engine aeroplane._x000D_ 2764 lbs 2809 lbs 2659 lbs
_x000D_
Given :_x000D_
Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs_x000D_
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs_x000D_
Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs_x000D_
Cargo Mass : 350 lbs_x000D_
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal._x000D_
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal._x000D_
Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.

1506 31
With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following Reserve LM = TOM - MTOM =
statements is always correct ?_x000D_ Fuel = TOM Trip Fuel ZFM +
LM = Landing Mass_x000D_ - Trip Fuel maximum
TOM = Take-off Mass_x000D_ possible fuel
MTOM = Maximum Take-off Mass_x000D_ mass
ZFM = Zero Fuel Mass_x000D_
MZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel Mass_x000D_
DOM = Dry Operating Mass
1507 31
(For this question use annexes 031- 11205A and 031-11205B)_x000D_ 1 000 kg 500 kg from 1 000 kg
A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data:_x000D_ from cargo 1 cargo 1 to from cargo 3
Corrected dry operating mass: 110 100 kg_x000D_ to cargo 4 cargo 3 to cargo 1
Basic corrected index: 118.6_x000D_
Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1: 4 000 kg ; cargo 2: 2 000 kg ; cargo 3: 2 000
kg;_x000D_
other cargo compartments are empty_x000D_
Take-off mass: 200 000 kg; centre of gravity (C.G.) location: 32 %_x000D_
For perfomance reasons, the captain decides to redistribute part of the cargo
loading between cargo compartments, in order to take off with a new C.G. location
of 34 %. He asks for a transfer of:

1508 31
With reference to mass and balance calculations (on an aeroplane) a datum point a point from a fixed point the point
is used. This datum point is : which all from which through
balance all balance which the
arms are arms are sum of the
measured. measured. It mass values
The location may be (of the
of this point located aeroplane
varies with anywhere on and its
the the contents) is
distribution aeroplane's assumed to
of loads on longitudinal act vertically.
the axis or on
aeroplane. the
extensions
to that axis.

1509 31
If 390 Ibs of cargo are moved from compartment B (aft) to compartment A 463.7 506.3 436.7
(forward), what is the station number of the new centre of gravity (cg)._x000D_
Given : Gross mass 116.500 Ibs_x000D_
Present cg station 435.0_x000D_
Compartment A station 285.5_x000D_
Compartment B station 792.5
1510 31
An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the 4 meter. 41.6 cm. 40 cm.
ground with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of
6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10
meter._x000D_
How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?
1511 31
 Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at the focal the axis. the centre of
which the mass is located. That point is known as point. gravity of the
aeroplane.
1512 31
The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard masses for the operator the operator the operator
passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a scheduled flight a group of should use may use the may use the
passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it is apparent that even the the standard standard
lightest of these exceeds the value of the declared standard mass. individual masses for masses for
masses of the load and the balance
the balance but must
passengers calculation correct
or alter the without these for the
standard correction load
masss calculation

1513 31
The datum used for balance calculations is: chosen on chosen on chosen on
the the the
longitudinal longitudinal longitudinal
axis of the axis of the axis of the
aircraft, and aeroplane, aeroplane,
always at but not and
the fire-wall necessarily necessarily
level between the situated
nose and between the
the tail of the nose and
aircraft the tail of the
aircraft

1514 31
The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. Its at or near at or near at or near
precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located the forward the focal the natural
limit of the point of the balance
centre of aeroplane point of the
gravity. axis system. empty
aeroplane.

1515 31
In calculations with respect to the position of the centre of gravity a reference is an arbitrary calculated a reference
made to a datum. The datum is reference from the plane which
chosen by data derived is chosen by
the pilot from the the
which can weighing aeroplane
be located procedure manufacture
anywhere on carried out r. Its position
the on the is given in
aeroplane. aeroplane the
after any aeroplane
major Flight or
modification. Loading
Manual.

1516 31
 (For this question use annexes 031-6564A and 031-6564B or Loading Manual 2548,8 6675 2496,3
SEP1 Figure 2.4)_x000D_
With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel
moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions:_x000D_
Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs._x000D_
Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In._x000D_
Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs._x000D_
Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs._x000D_
Pilot and front seat passenger : 300 lbs (total)

1517 31
Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's The The The
maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by: maximum maximum maximum
zero fuel zero fuel landing
mass. mass plus mass.
the take-off
mass.
1518 31
Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density heavier than lighter than lighter than
of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are anticipated anticipated anticipated
carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aeroplane is and the and the and the
calculated calculated calculated
safety safety safety
speeds will speeds will speeds will
be too low. be too high be too low

1519 31
Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load the speed at un- V1 will be
and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they aeroplane stick will be reached
will notice that will rotate higher than sooner than
much earlier expected expected
than
expected.
1520 31
(For this question use annex 031-9596 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure Forward limit Forward limit Forward limit
4.11)_x000D_ 8.0% MAC 8.6% MAC 8.0% MAC
At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from aft limit aft limit aft limit
the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: 27.2% MAC 27.0% MAC 26.8% MAC

1521 31
At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a 228.34 645.78 20.18 inches
position 625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches inches aft of inches aft of aft of datum
determine the position of the CG in relation to to the datum. datum datum
1522 31
The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The 60 % 10 % 16 %
mean aerodynamic chord lies between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The
cg expressed as % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is:
1523 31
Given:_x000D_ It moves aft It moves aft It moves
Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kg_x000D_ by 0.157 m. by 0.31 m. forward by
Centre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17 m_x000D_ 0.157 m.
What is the effect on cg location if you move 20 passengers (total mass = 1 600
kg) from station 16 to station 23?
1 31
(For this question use annex 031-12274A)_x000D_ 7000 kg 8268 kg 655 kg
An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of 10320 kg_x000D_
Complete the necessary sections of the attached appendix and determine which of
the answers given below represents the maximum increase in the traffic load

1525 31
The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always: The take-off The take-off The take-off
mass minus mass minus mass minus
the take-off the wing fuel the fuselage
fuel mass. mass. fuel mass.

1526 31
 In relation to an aeroplane, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the mass of the printed in found in the inclusive of
aeroplane structure complete with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other the loading latest an
items of equipment considered to be an integral part of the particular aeroplane manual and version of allowance
configuration. Its value is includes the weighing for crew,
unusable schedule as crew
fuel. corrected to baggage
allow for and other
modification operating
s. items. It is
entered in
the loading
manifest.

1527 31
Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off Maximum Actual Maximum
fuel, the traffic load is normally limited by: take-off landing zero fuel
mass. mass. mass.
1528 31
(For this question use annex 031-11247A and 031-11247B)_x000D_ 2 000 kg in 1 000 kg in 2 500 kg in
A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data:_x000D_ cargo 1; 2 cargo 1; 3 cargo 1; 1
Corrected Dry Operating Mass: 110 100 kg_x000D_ 000 kg in 000 kg in 500 kg in
Basic corrected index: 118.6_x000D_ cargo 4 cargo 4 cargo 4
Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1 = 4 000 kg; cargo 2 = 2 000 kg; cargo 3 = 2 000
kg;_x000D_
The other cargo compartments are empty._x000D_
Take-off mass: 200 000 kg_x000D_
Centre of gravity location: 32 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord)_x000D_
To maximize performance, the captain decides to redistribute part of the cargo load
between cargo 1 and cargo 4, in order to take off with a new centre of gravity
location at 35 % MAC. After loading, the new load distribution between cargo 1 and
cargo 4 is:

1529 31
(For this question use annex 031-11246A and 031-11246B)_x000D_ 34 % 25 % 28 %
The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of gravity
located at 31 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the
local staff informs the crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in
cargo 1. After loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be:

1530 31
Given:_x000D_ 12 900 kg 13 300 kg 9 300 kg
Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kg_x000D_
Maximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kg_x000D_
Maximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kg_x000D_
Maximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kg_x000D_
Trip fuel= 4 000 kg_x000D_
Fuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kg_x000D_
The maximum traffic load is:
1531 31
(For this question use annex 031-1581A)_x000D_ Take-off cg Landing cg Landing cg
The loading for a flight is shown in the attached loadsheet, with the following data is out of is out of is out of
applying to the aeroplane:_x000D_ limits at limits at limits at
Maximum take-off mass: 150 000 kg_x000D_ 12.34 m aft 11.97 m aft 10.17 m aft
Maximum landing mass: 140 000 kg_x000D_ of datum. of datum. of datum.
Centre of gravity (cg) limit forward: 10.5 m aft of datum_x000D_
aft: 13.0 m aft of datum_x000D_
Estimated trip fuel: 55 000 kg
1532 31
 (For this question use annex 031-1580A)_x000D_ 30.4 %. 35.5 %. 27.5 %.
A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics shown in the appendix, has a
take-off weight (W) of 460 000 N and a centre of gravity (point G on annex) located
at 15.40 m from the zero reference point._x000D_
At the last moment the station manager has 12 000 N of freight added in the
forward compartment at 10 m from the zero reference point._x000D_
The final location of the centre of gravity, calculated in percentage of mean
aerodynamic chord AB (from point A), is equal to:
1533 31
Given:_x000D_ 68.9 kg. 73.5 kg. 62.5 kg.
Total mass: 7500 kg_x000D_
Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5 _x000D_
Aft cg limit station: 79.5_x000D_
How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to
the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg location to the
aft limit?
1534 31
Given:_x000D_ 121 300 kg 113 900 kg 120 300 kg
Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg_x000D_
Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg_x000D_
Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kg_x000D_
Trip fuel= 27 500 kg_x000D_
Block fuel= 35 500 kg_x000D_
Engine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg_x000D_
The maximum take-off mass is equal to:
1535 31
Given that the total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg with a centre of gravity 16 529 kg 8 680 kg 43 120 kg
position at 22.62m aft of the datum. The centre of gravity limits are between 18m
and 22m. How much mass must be removed from the rear hold (30 m aft of the
datum) to move the centre of gravity to the middle of the limits:

1536 31
A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance Station. Moment. MAC.
1537 31 from the datum is known as:
The mass of an aeroplane is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75 30 cm. 34 cm. 33 cm.
metres from the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move:
1538 31
The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes : Crew and Unusable Fuel and
crew fuel and passengers
baggage, reserve fuel. baggage
catering, and cargo.
removable
passenger
service
equipment,
potable
water and
lavatory
chemicals.

1539 31
Which is true of the aeroplane empty mass? It is dry It is the It is a
operating actual take- component
mass minus off mass, of dry
traffic load. less traffic operating
load. mass.
1540 31
 In mass and balance calculations the "index" is: the moment a location in an imaginary
divided by a the vertical
constant. aeroplane plane or line
identified by from which
a number. all
measureme
nts are
taken.

1541 31
Loads must be adequately secured in order to: allow steep avoid avoid any
turns. unplanned centre of
centre of gravity (cg)
gravity (cg) movement
movement during flight.
and aircraft
damage.
1542 31
Traffic load is the: Dry Dry Take-off
Operating Operating Mass minus
Mass minus Mass minus Zero Fuel
the the variable Mass.
disposable load.
load.
1543 31
If individual masses are used, the mass of an aeroplane must be determined prior at intervals at intervals at regular
to initial entry into service and thereafter of 9 years. of 4 years if annual
no intervals.
modification
s have taken
place.

1544 31
Given are the following information at take-off_x000D_ 61.29 cm aft 61.28 cm aft 61.26 cm aft
_________________________________________________________________ of datum. of datum. of datum.
___x000D_
STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm)_x000D_
_________________________________________________________________
___x000D_
Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350_x000D_
Crew 145 -160 -23200_x000D_
Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000 _x000D_
Freight 2 410 -40 -16400_x000D_
Fuel 6045 -8 - 48360_x000D_
Oil 124 +40 +4960_x000D_
Given that the flight time is 2 hours and the estimated fuel flow will be 1050 litres
per hour and the average oil consumption will be 2.25 litres per hour. The specific
density of fuel is 0.79 and the specific density of oil is 0.96._x000D_
Calculate the landing centre of gravity

1545 31
An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made:_x000D_ 32505 kg 30180 kg 28400 kg
nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kg _x000D_
left main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg _x000D_
right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kg _x000D_
If the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg with a crew mass of 545 kg,
the empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule, is
1546 31
 (For this question use annex 031-2946A) _x000D_ 3 500 kg 35 000 kg 62 500 kg
The total mass of an aeroplane is 145000 kg and the centre of gravity limits are
between 4.7 m and 6.9 m aft of the datum. The loaded centre of gravity position is
4.4 m aft. How much mass must be transferred from the front to the rear hold in
order to bring the out of limit centre of gravity position to the foremost limit:

1547 31
(For this question use annex 033-9583A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 page on the nose at the 540 inches
20)_x000D_ of the leading edge forward of
For the medium range twin jet the datum point is located aeroplane. of the Mean the front
Aerodynami spar.
c Chord
(MAC).

1548 31
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of at right governed by parallel to
the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a direction angles to the the the gravity
flight path. distribution vector.
of the mass
within the
aeroplane.
1549 31
When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically through its through its through the
centre of centre of main wheels
gravity. pressure. of its
undercarriag
e assembly.

1550 31
The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act vertically vertically always along
through the through the the vertical
centre of datum point. axis of the
pressure. aeroplane.

1551 31
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is in a fixed must be can be
position and maintained allowed to
is unaffected in a fixed move
by position by between
aeroplane careful defined
loading. distribution limits.
of the load.

1552 31
An aeroplane has its centre of gravity located 7 metres from the datum line and it 7000 Nm. 34 300 Nm. 343 000 Nm.
1553 31 has a mass of 49000 N. The moment about the datum is:
 Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity (cg)._x000D_ 60.16 cm aft 53.35 cm aft 56.53 cm aft
_x000D_ datum. datum. datum.
_________________________________________________________________
___x000D_
STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm)_x000D_
_________________________________________________________________
___x000D_
Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350_x000D_
Crew 145 -160 -23200_x000D_
Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000_x000D_
Freight 2 410 -40 -16400_x000D_
Fuel 6045 -8 -48360_x000D_
Oil 124 +40 +4960

1554 31
(For this question use annex 031-11248A , 031-11248B and 031-11248C)_x000D_ 30.5 % 32.5 % 28.0 %
Knowing that:_x000D_
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg_x000D_
. Basic index: 119.1_x000D_
. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per
PAX)_x000D_
. Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex._x000D_
. Fuel: 42 000 kg_x000D_
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in %
MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at:

1555 31
Given:_x000D_ 140 kg. 14 kg. 207 kg.
Total mass 2900 kg_x000D_
Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 115.0_x000D_
Aft cg limit station: 116.0_x000D_
The maximum mass that can be added at station 130.0 is:
1556 31
(For this question use annex 031-11273A and 031-11273B)_x000D_ It is not 3 000 kg 2 000 kg
A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg. Following cargo possible to from cargo 4 from cargo 4
loading, the crew is informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 38 % obtain the to cargo 1. to cargo 1.
MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond limits. The captain decides then required
to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to obtain centre of
a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. He asks for a transfer of: gravity.

1557 31
Which of the following statements is correct? The The The Basic
Maximum Maximum Empty Mass
Zero Fuel Take-off is equal to
Mass Mass is the mass of
ensures that equal to the the
the centre of maximum aeroplane
gravity mass when excluding
remains leaving the traffic load
within limits ramp. and useable
after the fuel but
uplift of fuel. including the
crew.

1558 31
 Which of the following statements is correct? If the actual If the actual The lowest
centre of centre of stalling
gravity is gravity is speed is
located close to the obtained if
behind the forward limit the actual
aft limit of of the centre centre of
centre of of gravity the gravity is
gravity it is aeroplane located in
possible that may be the middle
the unstable, between the
aeroplane making it aft and
will be necessary to forward limit
unstable, increase of centre of
making it elevator gravity
necessary to forces
increase
elevator
forces

1559 31
Which of the following statements is correct? The station The centre If the actual
(STA) is of gravity is centre of
always the given in gravity is
location of percent of located
the centre of MAC behind the
gravity in calculated aft limit the
relation to a from the aeroplane
reference leading edge longitudinal
point, of the wing, stability
normally the where MAC increases.
leading edge always = the
of the wing wing chord
at MAC halfway
between the
centre line of
the fuselage
and the wing
tip

1560 31
(For this question use annex 031-12268A)_x000D_ 20.1 % 20.3 % 22.6 %
Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine from the following the
correct values for the take off mass and the position of the centre of gravity at that
mass if the fuel index correction to be applied is given as - 0.9

1561 31
(For this question use annex 031-12269A)_x000D_ 52900kg 52900 kg 49130 kg
Using the data given at the appendix to this question, if the fuel index corrections and 19 % and 21.6 % and 21.8 %
(from ZFM index) are as follows_x000D_
9500 kg - 0.9_x000D_
6500 kg - 6.1_x000D_
3500 kg - 4.7_x000D_
3000 kg - 4.3_x000D_
Which of the following represent the correct values for landing mass of the
aeroplane and the position of the centre of gravity for this condition ?

1562 31
 Given an aeroplane with:_x000D_ 75000 kg 77200 kg 77200 kg
Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg_x000D_ and 20000 and 19400 and 22200
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg_x000D_ kg kg kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kg_x000D_
Dry Operating Mass : 48000 kg_x000D_
Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg,_x000D_
_x000D_
Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-
off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:

1563 31
(For this question use annex 031-11275A and 031-11275B)_x000D_ cargo 1: 5 cargo 1: 4 cargo 1: 6
A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg; the cargo load is 000 kg; 000 kg; 000 kg;
distributed as follows: cargo 1: 3 000 kg; cargo 4: 7 000 kg. Once the cargo loading cargo 4: 4 cargo 4: 5 cargo 4: 4
is completed, the crew is informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 000 kg 000 kg 000 kg
38 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond the limits. The captain
decides then to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in
order to obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. Following the transfer
operation, the new load distribution is:

1564 31
Given an aeroplane with: _x000D_ 125500 kg 125500 kg 130500 kg
Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kg_x000D_ and 21500 and 26500 and 26500
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg _x000D_ kg kg kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kg_x000D_
Dry Operating Mass: 82000 kg_x000D_
Scheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve fuel is 5000 kg._x000D_
_x000D_
Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-
off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:

1565 31
(For this question use annex 031-11249A , 031-11249B and 031-11249C)_x000D_ 30.5 % 28.0 % 29.3 %
Knowing that:_x000D_
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg_x000D_
. Basic index: 119.1_x000D_
. Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per
PAX)_x000D_
. Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex._x000D_
. Fuel: 40 000 kg_x000D_
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in %
MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at:

1566 31
(For this question use annex 031-12271A)_x000D_ 18 % 19 % 15 %
From the data given at the appendix and assuming a fuel index shift of - 5.7 from
the ZFM loaded index, determine which of the following is the correct value
(percentage MAC) for the position of the centre of gravity at Take Off Mass.

1567 31
 (For this question use annex 031-12272A)_x000D_ 210 kg 280 kg no cargo
For the purpose of calculating traffic loads, an operator's loading manual gives the can be
following standard mass values for passengers. (These values include an loaded in
allowance for hand baggage)_x000D_ hold number
Male 88 kg_x000D_ 1
Female 70 kg_x000D_
Child 35 kg_x000D_
Infant 6 kg_x000D_
The standard mass value to be used for hold baggage is 14 kg per piece_x000D_
The loading manifest shows the following details :_x000D_
Passengers loaded _x000D_
Males 40_x000D_
Females 65_x000D_
Children 8 _x000D_
Infants 5_x000D_
Baggage in hold number 4: 120 pieces_x000D_
_x000D_
Using the standard mass values given and the data in the appendix, select from
the following the correct value for the mass of freight (all loaded in hold No1) which
constitutes the remainder of the traffic load

1568 31
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 71 000 kg 99 000 kg 53 000 kg
1569 31 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass?
(For this question use annex 031-12273A)_x000D_ 66770 kg 60425 kg 61600 kg
From the data contained in the attached appendix, the maximum allowable take - and 17320 and 10975 and 12150
off mass and traffic load is respectively : kg kg kg
1570 31
(For this question use annex 031-11258A and 031-11258B)_x000D_ 23.0 % 21.8 % 20.0 %
The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of
gravity located at 26 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine
start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from
cargo 4. After the handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC
will be:
1571 31
(For this question use annex 031-11257A and 031-11257B )_x000D_ 31 % 25 % 33 %
The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of
gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) . Shortly prior to engine
start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from
cargo 4. After the handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC
will be:
1572 31
(For this question use annex 031-12270A)_x000D_ 35100 kg 48600 kg 51300 kg
Using the data given at the appendix, determine which of the following correctly and 20.5 and 57.0 and 57.0
gives the values of the Zero Fuel Mass (ZFM) of the aeroplane and the load index
at ZFM
1573 31
If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the It will cause The cg It will cause
location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aeroplane? the cg to location will the cg to
move change, but move aft.
forward. the direction
cannot be
told the
information
given.

1574 31
 Determine the Landing Mass for the following single engine aeroplane._x000D_ 2799 lbs 2659 lbs 2449 lbs
_x000D_
Given:_x000D_
Standard Empty Mass :1764 lbs _x000D_
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs_x000D_
Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs_x000D_
Cargo Mass : 350 lbs_x000D_
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal._x000D_
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal._x000D_
Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal.

1575 31
In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum? It is the most It is the It is the point
aft position distance on the
of the centre from the aeroplane
of gravity. centre of designated
gravity to the by the
point manufacture
through rs from
which the which all
weight of the centre of
component gravity
acts. measureme
nts and
calculations
are made.

1576 31
The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the: longitudinal lateral axis. vertical axis.
1577 31 axis.
(For this question use annex 031-1569A) _x000D_ 26.57 cm aft 32.29 cm aft 26.57 cm
Where is the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in the diagram? of datum. of datum. forward of
datum.
1578 31
Given are:_x000D_ 69 600 kg 74 000 kg 72 000 kg
_x000D_
- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg_x000D_
- Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg_x000D_
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg_x000D_
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg_x000D_
- Trip fuel: 18 000 kg_x000D_
- Contingency fuel: 900 kg_x000D_
- Alternate fuel: 700 kg_x000D_
- Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg_x000D_
Determine the actual take-off mass:

1579 31
On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel Mass is related The bending Maximum Wing loaded
to: moment at Structural trip fuel.
the wing Take-Off
root. Mass.

1580 31
Given that:_x000D_ 146 000 kg. 120 900 kg. 121 300 kg.
- Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg_x000D_
- Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg_x000D_
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg_x000D_
- Trip fuel: 27 000 kg_x000D_
- Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg_x000D_
- Contingency fuel: 1350 kg_x000D_
- Alternate fuel: 2650 kg_x000D_
- Final reserve fuel: 3000 kg_x000D_
Determine the actual take-off mass:

1581 31
 (For this question use annex 031-12267A )_x000D_ 51300 Kg 46130 Kg 46130 Kg
Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine which of the following and 20,8% and 20,8% and 17,8%
gives the correct values for the Zero Fuel Mass and position of the centre of gravity
(% MAC) at that mass.
1582 31
At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available The dry The The dry
for determining the mass of the aircraft:_x000D_ operating operating operating
1- Dry operating mass_x000D_ mass mass is the mass
2- Operating mass_x000D_ includes mass of the includes
Which statement is correct: fixed aeroplane take-off fuel.
equipment without take-
needed to off fuel.
carry out a
specific
flight.

1583 31
Which one of the following is correct? Moment = Arm = Force Arm =
Force / Arm X Moment Moment /
Force
1584 31
The maximum zero-fuel mass:_x000D_ 2, 5, 6 4, 2, 6 1, 2, 3
1- is a regulatory limitation_x000D_
2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g_x000D_
3- is due to the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root_x000D_
4- imposes fuel dumping from the outer wings tank first_x000D_
5- imposes fuel dumping from the inner wings tank first_x000D_
6- can be increased by stiffening the wing_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:
1585 31
The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the: total load of strength of strength of
the fuel the wing root the fuselage
imposed
upon the
wing

1586 31
(For this question use annex 031-12266A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) 40.0 35.5 41.5
_x000D_
Using the load and trim sheet for the JAR FCL twin jet, which of the following is the
correct value for the index at a Dry Operating Mass (DOM) of 35000 kg with a CG
at 14% MAC ?
1587 31
For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry The total The total The total
Operating Mass is defined as: mass of the mass of the mass of the
aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
ready for a ready for a ready for a
specific type specific type specific type
of operation of operation of operation
excluding all excluding excluding all
traffic load. crew and usable fuel
crew and traffic
baggage. load.

1588 31
 When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is basic mass basic mass standard
defined as the sum of the: plus variable plus special empty mass
equipment equipment plus specific
mass mass equipment
mass plus
trapped
fluids plus
unusable
fuel mass

1589 31
For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Take-off Ramp Fuel Trip Fuel
Operating Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus Fuel Mass. Mass. Mass.

1590 31
For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic less the plus the plus the Trip
Load is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass Operating Operating Fuel Mass.
Mass. Mass.
1591 31
Which of the following alternatives corresponds to zero fuel mass? Take-off The mass of Operating
mass minus an mass plus
fuel to aeroplane load of
destination with no passengers
and usable fuel. and cargo.
alternate.
1592 31
An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a maximum maximum en route
high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an zero fuel certificated obstacle
exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting mass. take - off clearance
factor(s) in determining the take - off mass ? mass. requirement
s.
1593 31
The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, maximum maximum maximum
is : regulated certificated regulated
take - off taxi (ramp) taxi (ramp)
mass. mass. mass.
1594 31
The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by : bearing taxi distance structural
strength of to take - off consideratio
the taxiway point. ns.
pavement.

1595 31
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no usable fuel on governed by listed in the governed by
board. It is a limitation which is: the traffic Flight the
load to be Manual as a requirement
carried. It fixed value. s of the
also It is a centre of
provides structural gravity limits
protection limit. and the
from structural
excessive limits of the
'wing aeroplane.
bending'.

1596 31
The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass differ by the are the differ by the
value of the same value. sum of the
traffic load mass of
mass. usable fuel
plus traffic
load mass.
1597 31
 Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aeroplane) may be determined passengers passenger passengers
from a verbal statement by or on behalf of the passengers if the number of carried is seats carried is
less than 6. available is less than 20.
less than 20.

1598 31
(For this question use annex 031-9640 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 5400 kg 6350 kg. 3185 kg.
4.14)_x000D_
A revenue flight is planned for the transport aeroplane. Take-off mass is not airfield
limited. The following data applies:_x000D_
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg_x000D_
Performance limited landing mass 55000 kg_x000D_
Fuel on board at ramp-_x000D_
Taxi fuel 350 kg_x000D_
Trip fuel 9730 kg_x000D_
Contingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kg_x000D_
Alternate fuel 1600 kg_x000D_
Passengers on board 130_x000D_
Standard mass for each passenger 84 kg_x000D_
Baggage per passenger 14 kg_x000D_
Traffic load Maximum possible_x000D_
Use the loading manual provided and the above data. Determine the maximum
cargo load that may be carried without exceeding the limiting aeroplane landing
mass.

1599 31
The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items 18400 kg 20700 kg 23000 kg
(including crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel
mass is given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is:
1600 31
(For this question use annex 031-9643 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 7730 kg 11730 kg 15730 kg
4.14)_x000D_
The following data relates to a planned flight of an aeroplane -_x000D_
Dry Operational mass 60520 kg_x000D_
Performance limited take-off mass 92750 kg_x000D_
Performance limited landing mass 72250 kg_x000D_
Maximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 kg_x000D_
Fuel on board at take-off -_x000D_
Trip fuel 12500 kg_x000D_
Contingency and final reserve fuel 2300 kg_x000D_
Alternate fuel 1700 kg_x000D_
Using this data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum traffic load that can be
carried.

1601 31
(For this question use annex 031-9644 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 6300 kg 12700 kg 4800 kg
4.14)_x000D_
Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kg_x000D_
Performance limited take-off mass 127000 kg_x000D_
Performance limited landing mass 98500 kg_x000D_
Maximum zero fuel mass 89800 kg_x000D_
Fuel requirements for flight -_x000D_
Trip fuel 29300 kg_x000D_
Contingency and final reserve fuel 3600 kg_x000D_
Alternate fuel 2800 kg._x000D_
The maximum traffic load that can be carried on this flight is:

1602 31
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the unuseable traffic load traffic load
aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus and crew and crew and
standard standard unuseable
mass. mass. fuel.

1603 31
 The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg 65200 kg. 79000 kg 78000 kg
including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is
12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
1604 31
'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass 35 kg for 35 kg 35 kg only if
of a child as children over irrespective they are
2 years of age over 2 years
occupying a provided old and
seat and 10 they occupy occupy a
kg for infants a seat. seat.
(less than 2
years)
occupying a
seat.

1605 31
(For this question use annex 031-9598 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure Forward limit Forward limit Forward limit
4.11)_x000D_ 8.5% MAC 8.0% MAC 8.2% MAC
The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the range of safe aft limit aft limit aft limit
CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: 26.1% MAC 26.5% MAC 26.2% MAC

1606 31
For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on board, a variable a fixed value a fixed value
other than unusable quantities, is : value which which will which is
may limit the limit the stated in the
payload amount of Aeroplane
carried. fuel carried. Operating
Manual.

1607 31
(For this question use annexes 031-9631A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 421.5 inches 421.5 inches 835.5 inches
4.9)_x000D_ is 4541 kg. is 2059 Lbs. is 3062 kg.
From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load that can
be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm
centroid at :
1608 31
On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use 76 kg 84 kg (male) 88 kg (male)
standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is 76 kg 74 kg
not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is (female). (female).
1609 31
The standard mass for a child is 38 kg for all 30 kg for 35 kg for all
flights. holiday flights.
charters and
35 kg for all
other flights.

1610 31
On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter-continental flight, the 11 kg per 15 kg per 13 kg per
1611 31 'standard mass' which may be used for passenger baggage is passenger. passenger. passenger.
 The following data applies to a planned flight._x000D_ 15200 kg 10730 kg 12700 kg
Dry Operating Mass 34900 kg_x000D_
Performance limited Take-Off Mass 66300 kg_x000D_
Performance limited Landing Mass 55200 kg_x000D_
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 53070 kg_x000D_
Fuel required at ramp:-_x000D_
Taxy fuel 400 kg_x000D_
trip fuel 8600 kg_x000D_
contingency fuel 430 kg_x000D_
alternate fuel 970 kg_x000D_
holding fuel 900 kg_x000D_
Traffic load 16600 kg_x000D_
Fuel costs at the departure airfield are such that it is decided to load the maximum
fuel quantity possible. The total fuel which may be safely loaded prior to departure
is :

1612 31
In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to flight crew flight crew flight crew
use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are (male) 88 (male) 88 85 kg., cabin
kg. (female) kg. (female) crew 75 kg.
75 kg., cabin 75 kg., cabin each. These
crew 75 kg. crew 75 kg. are inclusive
each. These each. These of a hand
include an do not baggage
allowance include an allowance.
for hand allowance
baggage. for hand
baggage.

1613 31
Prior to departure the medium range twin jet aeroplane is loaded with maximum 12840 kg 13090 kg. 16470 kg
fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity) of 0.78. _x000D_
Using the following data - _x000D_
Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kg_x000D_
Performance limited landing mass 54200 kg_x000D_
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg_x000D_
Taxi fuel 250 kg_x000D_
Trip fuel 9250 kg_x000D_
Contingency and holding fuel 850 kg_x000D_
Alternate fuel 700 kg_x000D_
The maximum permissible traffic load is

1614 31
(For this question use annex 031-9660 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 15 815 kg 13 655 kg 16 080 kg
3.1)_x000D_
The medium range jet transport aeroplane is to operate a flight carrying the
maximum possible fuel load. _x000D_
Using the following data as appropriate, determine the mass of fuel on board at
start of take off._x000D_
Departure airfield performance limited take-off mass: 60 400 kg_x000D_
Landing airfield -not performance limited._x000D_
_x000D_
Dry Operating Mass: 34930 kg_x000D_
Fuel required for flight -_x000D_
Taxi fuel: 715 kg_x000D_
Trip fuel: 8600 kg_x000D_
Contingency and final reserve fuel: 1700 kg_x000D_
Alternate fuel 1500 kg_x000D_
Additional reserve 400 kg_x000D_
Traffic load for flight 11000 kg

1615 31
 An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on 19650 kg 121450 kg 39105 kg
board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg.
The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be
1616 31
When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the Flight Stalling Stalling
following is true? endurance speeds will speeds will
will be be higher. be lower.
increased.

1617 31
If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle be greater, be remain
of attack will drag will decreased, constant,
increase and drag will drag will
endurance decrease decrease
will and and
decrease. endurance endurance
will increase. will
decrease.
1618 31
In order to provide an adequate "buffet boundary" at the commencement of the unaffected increased to increased to
cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 as Vs 191 knots, 202 knots
knots. If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs always drag will but, since
will be occurs at the decrease the same
same angle and air angle of
of attack. distance per attack is
kg of fuel will used, drag
increase. and range
will remain
the same.

1619 31
The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aeroplane's tanks is given 11364 kg. 14383 kg. 18206 kg.
as 3800 US Gallons. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass
of fuel which may be loaded is
1620 31
Conversion of fuel volume to mass may be may be must be
done by done by done by
using using using actual
standard standard measured
fuel density fuel density fuel density
values as values as values.
specified in specified in
the JAR - OPS
Operations 1.
Manual, if
the actual
fuel density
is not
known.

1621 31
The maximum certificated take - off mass is : a structural a take - off a take - off
limit which limiting mass limiting mass
may not be which is which is
exceeded affected by governed by
for any take the the gradient
- off. aerodrome of climb after
altitude and reaching
temperature. V2 .

1622 31
 The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew baggage; plus catering and Maximum Dry Zero Fuel
removable passenger equipment; plus potable water and lavatory chemicals but Zero Fuel Operating Mass.
excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is referred to as: Mass Mass.

1623 31
When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aeroplane, which of the drain all removable drain all
following is not required? chemical passenger engine tank
toilet fluid services oil.
tanks. equipment
to be off-
loaded.
1624 31
An aeroplane is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving The The The
the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the commander Operator. appropriate
'operational items' ? of the Aviation
aeroplane. Authority.

1625 31
An aeroplane may be weighed in an area of at a in an
the airfield specified enclosed,
set aside for 'weighing non-air
maintenance location' on conditioned,
. the airfield. hangar.

1626 31
(For this question use annex 031-9603 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure Forward limit Forward limit Forward limit
4.11)_x000D_ 8.2% MAC 7.3% MAC 8.7% MAC
A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as aft limit aft limit aft limit
determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is : 27.0% MAC 26.8% MAC 26.8% MAC

1627 31
(For this question use annex 031-9604 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure forward limit forward limit forward limit
4.11)_x000D_ 7.6% aft limit 7.7% aft limit 8.3% aft limit
The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of safe CG 26.9% MAC. 25.2% MAC 26.3% MAC
positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:

1628 31
(For this question use annex 031-9605 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 314.5 421.5 367.9
4.9)_x000D_ inches. inches. inches.
For the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm (B.A.) for the forward hold
centroid is:
1629 31
Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of Movement Normal Changing
gravity on an aeroplane in flight ? of cabin consumption the tailplane
attendants of fuel for a (horizontal
going about swept wing stabiliser)
their normal aeroplane. incidence
duties. angle.
1630 31
(For this question use annex 031-9608 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 7.18 kg per 13.12 kg per 13.15 kg per
4.9)_x000D_ inch. inch. inch.
Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum running
load for the aft section of the forward lower deck cargo compartment is:

1631 31
(For this question use annex 031-9609 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 7288 kg in 68 kg per 3305 kg in
4.9)_x000D_ forward square foot. forward
Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load compartmen compartmen
intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is: t and 9232 t and 4187
kg in aft kg in aft
compartmen compartmen
t. t.
1632 31
 The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aeroplane is given as 40 cm by 30 cm by 30 cm by
750 kg per square metre. A package with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded. 200 cm 300 cm 200 cm
Assuming the pallet base is entirely in contact with the floor, which of the following
is the minimum size pallet that can be used ?
1633 31
The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the Flight Manual 416.0 kg 1015.6 kg 41.6 kg
as 650 kg per square metre. What is the maximum mass of a package which can
be safely supported on a pallet with dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm?
1634 31
The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as the moment the lever. the moment.
arm or
balance
arm.
1635 31
(For this question use annex 031-9613 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 158.3 kg 285.5 kg 28.5 kg must
4.9)_x000D_ must be off may be be off
A pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 cm x 250 cm has a total loaded. added. loaded.
mass of 300 kg. The pallet is carried on two ground supports each measuring 20
cm x 200 cm. _x000D_
Using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how much mass
may be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet in order for the load
intensity to match the maximum permitted distribution load intensity for lower deck
forward cargo compartement.

1636 31
The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aeroplane a fixed value a value a value
may be loaded prior to engine start. It is : which is which varies which varies
listed in the with airfield only with
Flight temperature airfield
Manual. and altitude. altitude.
Corrections Standard
are listed in corrections
the Flight are listed in
Manual. the Flight
Manual.

1637 31
When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be : extremely extremely extremely
stable and unstable and unstable and
require small require require small
elevator excessive elevator
control to elevator control to
change control to change
pitch. change pitch.
pitch.
1638 31
 A jet transport has the following structural limits:_x000D_ 16 430 kg 17 070 kg 16 570 kg
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kg_x000D_
The aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with the following
requirements:_x000D_
-Taxi fuel: 400 kg_x000D_
-Trip fuel: 8400 kg_x000D_
-Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg_x000D_
-Alternate fuel: 1100 kg_x000D_
If the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the maximum traffic load that can
be carried on the flight if departure and landing airfields are not performance
limited.

1639 31
(For this question use annex 031-9630 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 9232 kg 1568 kg 3062 kg
4.9)_x000D_
From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the aft cargo compartment
has a maximum total load of :
1640 31
(For this question use annex 031-9629 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 68 kg per 150 kg per 68 Lbs per
4.9)_x000D_ square foot. square foot. square foot.
From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane, the maximum floor
loading intensity for the aft cargo compartment is :
1641 31
A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at the the landing the landing
destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The approach distance distance will
landing mass will be higher than planned and path will be required will be
steeper and be longer. unaffected.
threshold
speed
higher.

1642 31
An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses whenever whenever a 9 years for
'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this the major each
interval is Certificate of modification aeroplane.
Airworthines is carried
s is out.
renewed.

1643 31
During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates the centre of the centre of the centre of
much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that : gravity is too pressure is gravity may
far forward. aft of the be towards
centre of the aft limit.
gravity.
1644 31
If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator become become become
control will : heavier lighter heavier
making the making the making the
aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
more easy to more easy to more difficult
manouevre manouevre to
in pitch. in pitch. manouevre
in pitch
1645 31
Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane less usable fuel. traffic load, usable fuel,
potable potable
water and water and
lavatory lavatory
chemicals. chemicals.
1646 31
 The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 41455 kg 42545 kg 42000 kg
14200 kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is
545 kg the Dry Operating Mass is
1647 31
In relation to an aeroplane the Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the usable fuel usable fuel potable
aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation but excluding and traffic and crew. water and
load. lavatory
chemicals.

1648 31
An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to: be totally cause the be caused
unrelated to centre of by a centre
the position gravity to of gravity
of the centre move which is
of gravity. forwards. towards the
rearward
limit.

1649 31
If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: tend to over require benefit from
rotate during elevator trim reduced
take-off. which will drag due to
result in an the
increase in decrease in
fuel angle of
consumption attack.
.
1650 31
The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' and 'crew the the authority the person
members' included within the Dry Operating Mass lies with commander. of the state compiling
of the weighing
registration. schedule.

1651 31
A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the 30000 Nm 130000 Nm 80000 Nm
present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum. _x000D_
(Assume: g=10 m/s^2)_x000D_
The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is :
1652 31
An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will a reduced an increase a reduction
result in : fuel in in power
consumption longitudinal required for
as a result of stability. a given
reduced speed.
drag.

1653 31
The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in the loading the loading the weighing
manifest. It manifest. It schedule
differs from differs from and is
Dry the zero fuel amended to
Operating mass by the take account
Mass by the value of the of changes
value of the 'traffic load'. due to
'useful load'. modification
s of the
aeroplane.

1654 31
Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values for baggage if has 20 or has 6 or has 30 or
the aeroplane more seats. more seats. more seats.

1655 31
 The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter :_x000D_ 11 cm left 4 cm right 4 cm left
_x000D_
- mass at front point: 300 kg_x000D_
- mass at right rear point : 1 100 kg_x000D_
- mass at left rear point : 950 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
It is given that the front point is located 0.30 m left of the longitudinal axis and the
rear points are symmetricaly located 1.20 m from this axis._x000D_
The helicopter's lateral CG-position relative to the longitudinal axis is:

1656 31
To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include: Maximum Maximum Maximum
landing zero fuel take-off
mass mass mass
augmented augmented decreased
by fuel on by the fuel by the fuel
board at burn. burn.
take-off.
1657 31
Allowed traffic load is the difference between :_x000D_ allowed take operating allowed take
off mass and mass and off mass and
basic mass basic mass operating
mass

1658 31
In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will: decrease increase does not
longitudinal longitudinal influence
static static longitudinal
stability stability static
stability
1659 31
Given:_x000D_ 73 000 kg 73 000 kg 71 300 kg
Dry operating mass = 38 000 kg_x000D_ and 24 700 and 27 000 and 23 000
maximum structural take-off mass = 72 000 kg_x000D_ kg kg kg
maximum landing mass = 65 000 kg_x000D_
maximum zero fuel mass = 61 000 kg_x000D_
Fuel burn = 8 000 kg_x000D_
Take-off Fuel = 10 300 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
The maximum allowed take-off mass and payload are respectively :

1660 31
After weighing a helicopter the following values are noted:_x000D_ 4.52 m 4.09 m 4.21 m
_x000D_
forward point: 350 kg_x000D_
aft right point: 995 kg_x000D_
aft left point: 1 205 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
What is the longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum situated 4 m in front of
the rotor axis, knowing that the forward point is at 2.5 m forward of the rotor axis
and the aft points are 1 m aft of the rotor axis?

1661 31
(For this question use annex 031-11632A )_x000D_ 450 kg 350 kg 250 kg
_x000D_
The empty mass of your helicopter is 1 100 kg with a CG-position at 3.05m. The
load is as follows:_x000D_
_x000D_
-total mass of pilot and co-pilot: 150 kg_x000D_
-total mass of passengers at rear: 200 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
In order not to exeed the limitations the minimum remaining fuel on board should
be:

1662 31
 (For this question use annex 031 11634A)_x000D_ 1 098 kg 1 105 kg 585 kg
Maximum allowed take-off mass limit: 37 200kg_x000D_
Dry operating mass: 21 600 kg_x000D_
Take-off fuel: 8 500 kg_x000D_
Passengers on board: male 33, female 32, children 5_x000D_
Baggages: 880 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
The company uses the standard passenger mass systems (see annex) allowed by
regulations. The flight is not a holiday charter._x000D_
In these conditions, the maximum cargo that may be loaded is

1663 31
Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 m_x000D_ 183 kg 165 kg 104 kg
Moment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 m_x000D_
Moment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 m_x000D_
The aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MAC_x000D_
To move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the
forward to the aft cargo hold?
1664 31
Given the following :_x000D_ 48 400 kg 53 000 kg 47 800 kg
- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg_x000D_
- Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg_x000D_
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg_x000D_
-Taxi fuel: 600 kg_x000D_
-Contingency fuel: 900 kg_x000D_
-Alternate fuel: 800 kg_x000D_
-Final reserve fuel: 1 100 kg_x000D_
-Trip fuel: 9 000 kg_x000D_
Determine the actual take-off mass:

1665 31
The maximum load per running metre of an aeroplane is 350 kg/m. The width of A load of A load of A load of
the floor area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre. 400 kg in a 500 kg in a 400 kg in a
Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly crate with crate with crate with
on the floor? dimensions dimensions dimensions
1.2 m x 1.2 1.5 m x 1 m 1.4 m x 0.8
m x 1.2 m. x 1 m. m x 0.8 m.
1666 31
With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be A tendency A decrease A decrease
expected? to yaw to the in range. in the
right on landing
take-off. speed.
1667 31
(For this question use annex 031-11619A )_x000D_ 2.97 m 2.82 m 2.91 m
_x000D_
A helicopter's basic mass is 1 100 kg and the longitudinal CG-position is at 3.10
m._x000D_
Determine the longitudinal CG position in the following conditions :_x000D_
_x000D_
- pilot and front passenger : 150 kg_x000D_
- rear passengers : 150 kg_x000D_
- fuel : 500 kg

1668 31
The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to: Actual Dry Actual Zero
Landing Operating Fuel Mass
Mass plus Mass plus plus the
the take-off take-off fuel traffic load
fuel and the
traffic load
1669 31
 The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of : The The The
maximum maximum maximum
mass for permissible mass
some mass of an authorized
aeroplanes aeroplane for a certain
including the with no aeroplane
fuel load and usable fuel. not including
the traffic traffic load
load and fuel
load.

1670 31
While making mass and balance calculation for a particular aeroplane, the term all the oil unusable all the oil,
'Empty Mass' applies to the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus and fuel. fuel and full fuel, and
operating hydraulic
fluids. fluid but not
including
crew and
traffic load.

1671 31
Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the higher stall lower reduced
centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause speed. optimum maximum
cruising cruise
speed. range.
1672 31
What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ? The The The
effectivenes relationship dihedral,
s of the of thrust and angle of
horizontal lift to weight sweepback
stabilizer, and drag. and the keel
rudder and effect.
rudder trim
tab.
1673 31
The total mass of an aeroplane is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 900 kg 30.0 kg 196 kg
2.0 m from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum
line._x000D_
What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the
datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?
1674 31
The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a: low gross low gross high gross
mass and mass and aft mass and aft
forward centre of centre of
centre of gravity. gravity.
gravity.
1675 31
The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the: Operating Basic Empty Actual
Mass plus Mass plus Landing
all the traffic the fuel Mass plus
load. loaded. trip fuel.

1676 31
 The centre of gravity of a body is that point where the where the which is
sum of the sum of the always used
moments external as datum
from the forces is when
external equal to computing
forces acting zero. moments.
on the body
is equal to
zero.

1677 31
Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following 63.4 % MAC 47.0 % MAC 23.1 % MAC
data:_x000D_
Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 m_x000D_
Distance datum - leading edge: 9.63 m_x000D_
Length of MAC: 8 m
1678 31
(For this question use annexes 031-11069A and 031-11069B)_x000D_ 32.5 % 36 % 25 %
Contrary to the forecast given in the LOAD and TRIM sheet, cargo compartment 1
is empty. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will
be located at:
1679 31
(For this question use annexes 031-11070A and 031-11070B)_x000D_ 35.5 % 31.5 % 24.5 %
Contrary to the loading sheet forecasts you have :_x000D_
_x000D_
Cargo compartment 1: empty passengers in compartment OA: 20_x000D_
Cargo compartment 2: 1 000 kg passengers in compartment OB: 20_x000D_
Cargo compartment 3: 3 000 kg passengers in compartment OC: 30_x000D_
Cargo compartment 4: 2 000 kg_x000D_
Cargo compartment 5: 1 000 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord), will be located
at:

1680 31
(For this question use annexes 031-11071A and 031-11071B)_x000D_ 27.8 % 30.5 % 28.5 %
Just prior to departure, you accept 10 passengers additional on board who will be
seated in "compartment OC" and you have 750 kg unloaded from cargo
compartment 5. _x000D_
The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located
at:
1681 31
(For this question use annexes 031-11072A and 031-11072B)_x000D_ 31.5 % 26 % 35.5 %
The weight and balance sheet is available and contrary to the forecast, cargo
compartment 1 is empty._x000D_
The zero fuel weight centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) is
located at:
1682 31
The floor of the main cargo hold is limited to 4 000 N/m2._x000D_ 500 kg 5 000 kg 100 kg
It is planned to load a cubic container each side of which measures 0.5m._x000D_
Its maximum gross mass must not exceed:_x000D_
(assume g=10m/s2)

1683 31
Assume:_x000D_ Station Station Station
Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kg_x000D_ 117.69 118.33 120.22
Centre of gravity at station: 115.8_x000D_
_x000D_
What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the
station 30 to station 120?
1684 31
 (For this question use annex 031-4739A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 4 390 4 372 4 720
3.4)_x000D_
With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the ramp mass
(lbs) in the following conditions:_x000D_
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs_x000D_
Basic arm: 88.5 Inches_x000D_
One pilot: 160 lbs_x000D_
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs_x000D_
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs_x000D_
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs_x000D_
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs_x000D_
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs_x000D_
Block fuel: 100 US Gal._x000D_
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal._x000D_
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. _x000D_
Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal.

1685 31
By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a zero fuel landing Dry
specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get: mass mass operating
mass
1686 31
A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum fuel and 14 331 kg 13 240 kg 16 770 kg
maximum traffic load. On the return flight the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be
filled to capacity with a total fuel load of 20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79
kg/l._x000D_
The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:_x000D_
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg_x000D_
The performance limited take off mass at Valencia is 67 330 kg._x000D_
The landing mass at London is not performance limited._x000D_
Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg_x000D_
Trip Fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kg_x000D_
Taxi fuel: 250 kg_x000D_
The maximum traffic load that can be carried from Valencia will be:

1687 31
The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane includes traffic load traffic load the revenue-
plus useable only. earning
fuel. portion of
traffic load
only.

1688 31
An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry 17080 kg 12200 kg. 10080 kg.
Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off
mass is 64280 kg the useful load is
1689 31
(For this question use annex 031-9676 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 11349 litres 8850 litres 11646 litres
4)_x000D_
For the medium range transport aeroplane, from the loading manual, determine the
maximum total volume of fuel which can be loaded into the main wing tanks. (Fuel
density value 0.78)
1690 31
 An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. The operational operational operational
nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is items have a items have a items have a
given as 72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this mass of mass of mass of
aeroplane? 2800 kg and 2800 kg and 2800 kg and
the the the
maximum maximum maximum
useful load traffic load traffic load
is 14780 kg. for this for this
aeroplane is aeroplane is
11980 kg. 14780 kg.

1691 31
An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off 21500 kg 21220 kg 20870 kg
mass is 89200 kg. _x000D_
Certificated maximum masses are as follows:_x000D_
Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg_x000D_
Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg_x000D_
MaximumLanding mass 71520 kg_x000D_
Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg_x000D_
Fuel on board at ramp:_x000D_
Taxi fuel 600 kg_x000D_
Trip fuel 17830 kg_x000D_
Contingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kg_x000D_
If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this
flight is

1692 31
The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, is 61300 kg. 29600 kg 26900 kg. 68400 kg
The operational items (including crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg. If the take-
off mass is 132000 kg (including a useable fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful
load is
1693 31
The following data applies to an aeroplane which is about to take off: _x000D_ 18200 kg 17450 kg 78900 kg
Certified maximum take-off mass 141500 kg _x000D_
Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg _x000D_
Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg _x000D_
Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg _x000D_
Crew baggage in hold 110 kg_x000D_
Fuel on board 60700 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
From this data calculate the mass of the useful load.

1694 31
A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's 18 170 kg 13 950 kg 25 800 kg
structural limits:_x000D_
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg_x000D_
The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited
landing mass is 55 470 kg._x000D_
Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg_x000D_
Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg_x000D_
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg_x000D_
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg_x000D_
Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg _x000D_
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:

1695 31
 A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's 20 420 kg 17 810 kg 21 170 kg
structural limits:_x000D_
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg_x000D_
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited._x000D_
Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg_x000D_
Trip Fuel: 11 500 kg_x000D_
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg_x000D_
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kg_x000D_
Alternate Fuel: 1 350 kg _x000D_
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:

1696 31
A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's 19 500 kg 17 840 kg 19 100 kg
structural limits:_x000D_
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg_x000D_
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg_x000D_
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited._x000D_
Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg_x000D_
Trip Fuel: 11 800 kg_x000D_
Taxi Fuel: 500 kg_x000D_
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 600 kg_x000D_
Alternate Fuel: 1 900 kg _x000D_
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:

1697 31
(For this question use annex 031-9685 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure The flight The flight The flight is
4.14)_x000D_ may be may be 'landing
The medium range twin jet transport is scheduled to operate from a departure safely safely mass' limited
airfield where conditions limit the take-off mass to 65050 kg. The destination operated operated and the
airfield has a performance limited landing mass of 54500 kg. The Dry Operating with the with an traffic load
Mass is 34900 kg. Loading data is as follows - _x000D_ stated traffic additional must be
Taxi fuel 350 kg_x000D_ and fuel 200 kg of reduced to
Trip fuel 9250 kg_x000D_ load. traffic load. 17500 kg.
Contingency and final reserve fuel 1100 kg_x000D_
Alternate fuel 1000 kg_x000D_
Traffic load 18600 kg_x000D_
Check the load and ensure that the flight may be operated without exceeding any
of the aeroplane limits. Choose, from those given below, the most appropriate
answer.

1698 31
The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter :_x000D_ 3,36 m 0,04 m 3,44 m
_x000D_
- front point : 220 kg_x000D_
- right rear point : 500 kg_x000D_
- left rear point : 480 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
The helicopter's datum is 3.40 m forward of the rotor axis. The front point is located
2.00 m forward of the rotor axis and the rear points are located 0.50 m aft of the
rotor axis._x000D_
The longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum is:

1699 31
To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be weighed with a 3 points of 2 points of 1 point of
1700 31 minimum of: support support support
 The determination of the centre of gravity in relation to the mean aerodynamic consists of consists of consists of
chord:_x000D_ defining the defining the defining the
centre of centre of centre of
gravity gravity gravity
longitudinall longitudinall longitudinall
y in relation y in relation y in relation
to the to the length to the length
position of of the mean of the mean
the aerodynamic aerodynamic
aerodynamic chord and chord and
centre of the leading the trailing
pressure edge edge

1701 31
The centre of gravity is the centre of focus along neutral point
thrust along the along the
the longitudinal longitudinal
longitudinal axis, in axis, in
axis, in relation to a relation to a
relation to a datum line datum line
datum line

1702 31
During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 rupture of a permanent a elastic
requirements was subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight one or more deformation deformation
Manual specifies that the aircraft is certified in the normal category for a load factor structural of the whilst the
of -1.9 to +3.8._x000D_ components structure load was
Considering the certification requirements and taking into account that the applied, but
manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its conception, a supplementary no
margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe; permanent
distortion
1703 31
At a mass of 1 800 kg, a helicopter equipped with a winch has a lateral CG-position 10.5 cm to 10,5 cm to 1.5 cm to the
of 5 cm to the left. The CG of the load suspended from the winch is at a distance the right the right right
of 60 cm to the right. With a winch load of 200 kg the lateral CG-position of the
helicopter will be:
1704 31
The Dry Operating Mass of a helicopter is the total mass of a helicopter : including the including the ready for a
crew,the fuel crew, the specific
and the usable fuel operation
specific and the including the
equipments specific crew and
for the equipments traffic load,
mission but for the not including
excluding mission and the usable
payload payload fuel

1705 31
 The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's loading manifest:_x000D_ must be is 87300 kg is 87300 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 93500 kg_x000D_ reduced to which is and excess
Expected landing mass at destination 81700 kg_x000D_ 81700 kg in acceptable structural
Maximum certificated landing mass 86300 kg_x000D_ order to in this case stress could
Fuel on board 16500 kg_x000D_ avoid a high because this result
During the flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which is not speed is a
'performance limited' for landing. Fuel remaining at landing is 10300 kg. The approach. diversion
landing mass and not a
normal
scheduled
landing.

1706 31
(For this question use appendix 031-11605A)_x000D_ 4,455 m 4,615 m 0,217 m
_x000D_
Without the crew, the weight and the CG-position of the aircraft are 7 000 kg and
4,70m._x000D_
_x000D_
- the mass of the pilot is 90 kg_x000D_
- the mass of the copilot is 75 kg_x000D_
- the mass of the flight engineer is 90 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
With this crew on board, the CG-position of the aircraft will be:

1707 31
At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which a landing a high a high
is not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number short threshold threshold
one engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the resultant speed and speed and a
aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely from the possible shorter stop
result of this action will be increased undercarriag distance.
angle of e or other
approach structural
due to the failure.
very high
aeroplane
mass.

1708 31
The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2._x000D_ 32 kg 320 kg 80 kg
It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side._x000D_
It's maximum gross mass must not exceed:_x000D_
(assume g=10m/s2)
1709 31
The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The masses of the following 30 300 kg 38 300 kg 30 665 kg
items are :_x000D_
- catering: 300 kg_x000D_
- safety and rescue material: nil_x000D_
- fly away kit: nil_x000D_
- crew (inclusive crew baggage): 365kg_x000D_
- fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg_x000D_
- unusable fuel: 120 kg_x000D_
- passengers, baggage, cargo: 8 000 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
The Dry Operating Mass is :

1710 31
 Based on actual conditions, an aeroplane has the following performance take-off 4 100 kg 4 200 kg 4 700 kg
mass limitations:_x000D_
_x000D_
Flaps : 0° 10° 15°_x000D_
Runway: 4100 4400 4600_x000D_
Climb: 4700 4500 4200_x000D_
_x000D_
Masses are in kg_x000D_
Structural limits: take-off/landing/zero fuel: 4 300 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
The maximum take-off mass is :

1711 31
The mass and balance information gives :_x000D_ 34 % 17 % 22 %
Basic mass : 1 200 kg ; Basic balance arm : 3.00 m_x000D_
_x000D_
Under these conditions the Basic centre of gravity is at 25% of the mean
aerodynamic chord (MAC). The length of MAC is 2m._x000D_
_x000D_
In the mass and balance section of the flight manual the following information is
given :_x000D_
Position Arm_x000D_
front seats : 2.5 m_x000D_
rear seats : 3.5 m_x000D_
rear hold : 4.5 m_x000D_
fuel tanks : 3.0 m_x000D_
The pilot and one passenger embark; each weighs 80 kg. Fuel tanks contain 140
litres of petrol with a density of 0.714. The rear seats are not occupied.Taxi fuel is
negligable._x000D_
The position of the centre of gravity at take-off (as % MAC) is :

1712 31
The mass displacement caused by landing gear extension: does not creates a creates a
create a pitch-down longitudinal
longitudinal longitudinal moment in
moment moment the direction
(pitch-up or
pitch-down)
determined
by the type
of landing
gear

1713 31
Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity Elevator and Location of The need to
positions on an aeroplane? tailplane the maintain a
(horizontal undercarriag low value of
stabiliser) e. stalling
effectivenes speed.
s in all flight
conditions.

1714 31
(For this question use annex 031-11606A)_x000D_ 0,062m to 0,016m to beyond the
_x000D_ the right the left limits
Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG-position of the aircraft
are 6 000 kg and 0,04 m to the right._x000D_
_x000D_
- the mass of the man on the winch is 100 kg_x000D_
_x000D_
With the man on the winch , the lateral CG-position of the aircraft will be:
1715 31
 (For this question use annex 031-4741A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 433 906 377 746 401 338
3.4)_x000D_
With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the total
moment (lbs.In) at landing in the following conditions:_x000D_
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs._x000D_
One pilot: 160 lbs._x000D_
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs._x000D_
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)_x000D_
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs._x000D_
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs._x000D_
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs._x000D_
Block fuel: 100 US Gal._x000D_
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal._x000D_
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal._x000D_
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal._x000D_
Total moment at take-off: 432226 lbs.In

1716 31
An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg._x000D_ 2 150 kg 1 600 kg 1 550 kg
The maximum take-off, landing, and zero-fuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg.
Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg._x000D_
The payload available is :
1717 31
(For this question use annex 031-4742A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 91.84 inches 91.92 inches 91.69 inches
3.4)_x000D_ aft of datum aft of datum aft of datum
With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the CG
location at take off in the following conditions:_x000D_
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs._x000D_
One pilot: 160 lbs._x000D_
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs._x000D_
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)_x000D_
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs._x000D_
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs._x000D_
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs._x000D_
Zero Fuel Mass: 4210 lbs._x000D_
Moment at Zero Fuel Mass: 377751 lbs.In_x000D_
Block fuel: 100 US Gal._x000D_
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal._x000D_
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal._x000D_
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.

1718 31
(For this question use annex 031-4740A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 9 360 56 160 433 906
3.4)_x000D_
With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the block fuel
moment (lbs.In.) in the following conditions:_x000D_
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs._x000D_
One pilot: 160 lbs._x000D_
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs._x000D_
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)_x000D_
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs._x000D_
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs._x000D_
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs._x000D_
Block fuel: 100 US Gal._x000D_
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal._x000D_
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal._x000D_
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.

1719 31
NES

brings the
cyclic stick
closer to its
forward stop
and
increases
the stress in
the rotor
head

0 0 0 1
1 500 kg

0 1 0 0
will give
reduced
safety
margins.

0 0 0 1
6 270 kg
and 4.594 m

0 0 0 1
without
specific
equipment
for the
mission,
without
payload,
wthout
unusable
fuel.

0 1 0 0
28.0 %

0 0 0 1
33 %

0 0 0 1
18 900 kg

0 1 0 0
front cargo:
4 550 kg;
rear cargo: 5
950 kg

0 1 0 0
the mean
aerodynamic
chord in
relation to
the datum

0 1 0 0
25 000 kg

0 0 1 0
32.3 %

0 0 1 0
4 600 kg

0 0 0 1
55 500 kg

0 1 0 0
6 180 kg
and 0.041m
to the right

1 0 0 0
2414 lbs

1 0 0 0
10,5%

1 0 0 0
2799 lbs

0 0 0 1
MZFM =
Traffic load +
DOM

0 1 0 0
1 500 kg
from cargo 3
to cargo 1

1 0 0 0
a point near
the centre of
the
aeroplane. It
moves
longitudinall
y as masses
are added
forward and
aft of its
location.

0 1 0 0
433.3

0 0 0 1
25 cm.

0 0 1 0
the datum.

0 0 0 1
the operator
is obliged to
use the
actual
masses of
each
passenger

1 0 0 0
chosen on
the
longitudinal
axis of the
aircraft and
necessarily
situated
between the
leading edge
and trailing
edge of the
wing

0 1 0 0
at a
convenient
point which
may not
physically be
on the
aeroplane.
0 0 0 1
calculated
from the
loading
manifest.

0 0 1 0
2311,8

1 0 0 0
The
maximum
take-off
mass.

0 0 0 1
heavier than
anticipated
and the
calculated
safety
speeds will
be too high

0 1 0 0
V1 will be
increased.

0 1 0 0
Forward limit
7.4% MAC
aft limit
27.0% MAC

0 0 0 1
605.43
inches aft of
datum
0 1 0 0
41 %

0 0 1 0
It moves aft
by 3.22 m.

0 1 0 0
1830 kg

0 0 0 1
The
maximum
take-off
mass minus
the take-off
fuel mass.
1 0 0 0
found in the
flight manual
and is
inclusive of
unusable
fuel plus
fluids
contained in
closed
systems.

0 1 0 0
Maximum
landing
mass.
0 0 1 0
3 000 kg in
cargo 1; 1
000 kg in
cargo 4

0 0 1 0
37 %

0 1 0 0
14 600 kg

1 0 0 0
Take-off cg
is out of
limits at
10.17 m aft
of datum.

0 0 1 0
16.9 %.

0 0 1 0
65.8 kg.

0 0 1 0
120 900 kg

0 0 0 1
29 344 kg

0 0 0 1
Index.
1 0 0 0
40 cm.

0 0 1 0
Passengers
baggage
and cargo.

1 0 0 0
It is dry
operating
mass minus
fuel load.

0 0 1 0
the range of
moments
the centre of
gravity (cg)
can have
without
making the
aeroplane
unsafe to fly.

1 0 0 0
prevent
excessive
'g'-loading
during the
landing flare.

0 1 0 0
Zero Fuel
Mass minus
Dry
Operating
Mass.

0 0 0 1
only if major
modification
s have taken
place.

0 1 0 0
61.27 cm aft
of datum.

0 1 0 0
31960 kg

0 1 0 0
7 500 kg

0 0 0 1
540 cm
forward of
the front
spar.

0 0 1 0
always
parallel to
the
aeroplane's
vertical axis.

0 0 1 0
through a
point defined
as the
datum point.

1 0 0 0
vertically
through the
centre of
gravity.

0 0 0 1
may only be
moved if
permitted by
the
regulating
authority
and
endorsed in
the
aeroplane's
certificate of
airworthines
s.

0 0 1 0
1.43 Nm.
0 0 1 0
56.35 cm aft
datum.

0 0 1 0
31.5 %

0 0 0 1
317 kg.

0 0 1 0
1 000 kg
from cargo 4
to cargo 1.

0 1 0 0
The
Maximum
Landing
Mass of an
aeroplane is
restricted by
structural
limitations,
performance
limitations
and the
strength of
the runway.

0 0 0 1
A tail heavy
aeroplane is
less stable
and stalls at
a lower
speed than
a nose
heavy
aeroplane

0 0 0 1
A tail heavy
aeroplane is
less stable
and stalls at
a lower
speed than
a nose
heavy
aeroplane

0 0 0 1
17.5 %

0 0 0 1
49130 kg
and 19 %

0 0 0 1
75000 kg
and 17200
kg

0 0 0 1
cargo 1: 4
000 kg;
cargo 4: 6
000 kg

0 0 1 0
130500 kg
and 31500
kg

0 0 1 0
27.4 %

0 0 1 0
14 %

1 0 0 0
260 kg

0 0 0 1
64 000 kg
0 0 1 0
68038 kg
and 18588
kg
0 0 1 0
30.2 %

0 1 0 0
27 %

0 1 0 0
46300 kg
and 20.5

0 1 0 0
It will not
affect the cg
location.

0 0 1 0
2589 lbs

0 0 0 1
It is the most
forward
position of
the centre of
gravity.

0 0 1 0
horizontal
axis. 1 0 0 0
32.29 cm
forward of
datum.
0 0 1 0
70 400 kg

1 0 0 0
Variable
equipment
for the flight.

1 0 0 0
120 300 kg.

0 0 0 1
41300 Kg
and 17,8%

0 0 1 0
The
operating
mass
includes the
traffic load.

1 0 0 0
Arm = Force
/ Moment
0 0 1 0
1, 3, 5

0 0 0 1
allowable
load exerted
upon the
wing
considering
a margin for
fuel tanking

0 1 0 0
33..0

1 0 0 0
The total
mass of the
aeroplane
ready for a
specific type
of operation
excluding all
usable fuel.

0 0 1 0
empty mass
dry plus
variable
equipment
mass

0 0 1 0
Ramp Fuel
Mass less
the fuel for
APU and
run-up.
1 0 0 0
less the Trip
Fuel Mass.
1 0 0 0
Operating
mass plus
passengers
and cargo.

0 1 0 0
altitude and
temperature
of the
departure
airfield.
0 0 0 1
maximum
certificated
take - off
mass.
0 1 0 0
tyre speed
and
temperature
limitations.

0 0 1 0
tabulated in
the Flight
Manual
against
arguments
of airfield
elevation
and
temperature.

0 1 0 0
differ by the
mass of
usable fuel.

1 0 0 0
passenger
seats
available is
less than 6.

0 0 0 1
4530 kg.

0 0 0 1
19460 kg.

1 0 0 0
7010 kg

0 0 0 1
7100 kg

0 0 1 0
traffic load,
unuseable
fuel and
crew
standard
mass.
0 0 1 0
93000 kg

0 1 0 0
35 kg for
children over
2 years
occupying a
seat and 10
kg for infants
(less than 2
years) not
occupying a
seat.

0 1 0 0
Forward limit
9.5% MAC
aft limit
26.1% MAC

0 1 0 0
a variable
value which
is governed
by the
payload
carried.

0 0 1 0
835.5 inches
is 6752 kg.

0 0 1 0
84 kg

0 0 0 1
35 kg for
holiday
charters and
38 kg for all
other flights.

0 0 1 0
14 kg per
passenger. 0 1 0 0
13230 kg

0 0 1 0
flight crew
85 kg., cabin
crew 75 kg.
each. These
do not
include a
hand
baggage
allowance.

0 0 1 0
18040 kg

0 1 0 0
14 470 kg

0 0 0 1
141100 kg

0 0 0 1
Gradient of
climb for a
given power
setting will
be higher.

0 1 0 0
remain
constant,
drag will
increase and
endurance
will increase.

1 0 0 0
increased to
191 knots,
drag will
increase and
air distance
per kg of
fuel will
decrease.

0 0 0 1
13647 kg.

1 0 0 0
must be
done using
fuel density
values of
0.79 for JP 1
and 0.76 for
JP 4 as
specified in
JAR - OPS,
IEM - OPS
1.605E.

1 0 0 0
limited by
the runway
take off
distance
available. It
is tabulated
in the Flight
Manual.

1 0 0 0
Aeroplane
Prepared for
Service
( APS)
Mass.
0 1 0 0
drain all
useable fuel.

0 0 1 0
The
aeroplane
manufacture
r or supplier.

0 1 0 0
in a quiet
parking area
clear of the
normal
manoeuvrin
g area.

0 0 1 0
Forward limit
7.8% MAC
aft limit
27.0% MAC

0 0 0 1
forward limit
8.0% aft limit
27.2% MAC.

0 0 1 0
257 inches.

0 0 1 0
Lowering the
landing gear.

0 0 1 0
14.65 kg per
inch.

0 1 0 0
150 kg per
square foot.

0 1 0 0
40 cm by
300 cm

1 0 0 0
101.6 kg

1 0 0 0
the index.

1 0 0 0
28.5 kg may
be added.

0 1 0 0
a value
which is only
affected by
the outside
air
temperature.
Corrections
are
calculated
from data
given in the
Flight
Manual.

1 0 0 0
extremely
stable and
will require
excessive
elevator
control to
change
pitch.
0 0 0 1
16 370 kg

0 0 0 1
4187 kg

0 0 0 1
68 kg per
square
metre.

1 0 0 0
the
approach
path will be
steeper.

0 1 0 0
4 years for
each
aeroplane.

0 0 1 0
the
aeroplane is
overloaded.

0 0 1 0
become
lighter
making the
aeroplane
more difficult
to
manouevre
in pitch.
0 0 1 0
usable fuel
and traffic
load.

0 0 0 1
56200 kg

0 0 1 0
usable fuel,
potable
water and
lavatory
chemicals.
1 0 0 0
be caused
by a centre
of gravity
which is
towards the
forward limit.

0 0 1 0
require less
power for a
given
airspeed.

0 1 0 0
the operator.

0 0 0 1
50000 Nm

0 0 1 0
an increased
risk of
stalling due
to a
decrease in
tailplane
moment

0 0 0 1
the weighing
schedule. If
changes
occur, due to
modification
s, the
aeroplane
must be re-
weighed
always.

0 0 1 0
is carrying
30 or more
passengers.

1 0 0 0
11 cm right

0 1 0 0
Maximum
landing
mass
augmented
by the fuel
burn.

0 0 0 1
allowed take
off mass and
basic mass
plus trip fuel

0 0 1 0
not change
the static
curve of
stability into
longitudinal
1 0 0 0
71 300 kg
and 25 300
kg

0 0 1 0
4.15 m

1 0 0 0
125 kg

0 0 0 1
901 kg

0 0 1 0
110 kg

0 0 0 1
48 000 kg

0 0 1 0
A load of
700 kg in a
crate with
dimensions
1.8 m x 1.4
m x 0.8 m.
1 0 0 0
A decrease
of the
stalling
speed.
0 1 0 0
2.85 m

0 0 1 0
Dry
Operating
Mass plus
the take-off
fuel

0 1 0 0
The
maximum
mass
authorized
for a certain
aeroplane
not including
the fuel load
and
operational
items

0 1 0 0
all the
consumable
fuel and oil,
but not
including
any radio or
navigation
equipment
installed by
manufacture
r.

0 1 0 0
increased
cruise
range.
0 0 0 1
The location
of the centre
of gravity
with respect
to the
neutral
point.

0 0 0 1
300 kg

0 0 0 1
high gross
mass and
forward
centre of
gravity.
0 0 0 1
Dry
Operating
Mass plus
the traffic
load.
0 0 0 1
through
which the
sum of the
forces of all
masses of
the body is
considered
to act.

0 0 0 1
36.3 % MAC

0 0 0 1
31 %

0 0 0 1
32.5 %

0 1 0 0
27.2 %

1 0 0 0
32 %

0 0 1 0
1 000 kg

0 0 1 0
Station
118.25

1 0 0 0
4 120

0 0 1 0
take-off
mass
0 0 1 0
9 830 kg

1 0 0 0
the revenue-
earning
portion of
traffic load
plus useable
fuel.

1 0 0 0
29280 kg.

0 0 0 1
5674 litres

1 0 0 0
operational
items have a
mass of
2800 kg and
the
maximum
useful load
is 11980 kg.

0 1 0 0
21080 kg

0 0 0 1
70700 kg

0 0 1 0
78150 kg

0 0 1 0
17 840 kg

0 0 0 1
21 070 kg

0 1 0 0
19 200 kg

0 1 0 0
The flight is
'zero fuel
mass' limited
and the
traffic load
must be
reduced to
14170 kg.

0 0 1 0
1,18 m

0 0 1 0
4 point of
support 1 0 0 0
consists of
defining the
centre of
gravity
longitudinall
y in relation
to the
position of
the
aerodynamic
convergence
point

0 1 0 0
point where
all the
aircraft mass
is
considered
to be
concentrate
d
0 0 0 1
no distortion,
permanent
or temporary
of the
structure

0 1 0 0
1.5 cm to the
left

0 0 1 0
excluding
the crew but
including
specific
equipments
for the
mission and
not including
the usable
fuel

0 0 1 0
is 83200 kg
which is in
excess of
the
regulated
landing
mass and
could result
in
overrunning
the runway

0 0 1 0
4,783 m

0 1 0 0
a landing
further along
the runway
than normal.

0 1 0 0
800 kg

0 0 1 0
30 785 kg

0 0 0 1
4 300 kg

0 0 0 1
29 %

0 0 1 0
creates a
pitch-up
longitudinal
moment

0 0 1 0
The need to
minimise
drag forces
and so
improve
efficiency.

1 0 0 0
0,0633m to
the right

1 0 0 0
432 221

0 0 1 0
2 200 kg

0 1 0 0
93.60 inches
aft of datum

0 1 0 0
30 888

0 1 0 0
 HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS

The ability of detecting relevant information which is not perception sensation appreciation attention
presented in an actively monitored input channel is
known as
2520 40 0 0
The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information on on when no on stimulating several
processing in the brain) in spatial disorientation occurs: stimulating stimulating semicircular semicircular canals
the saccule the cochlea canal is simultaneously
and the intensely stimulated
utricle of the
inner ear

2521 40 0 0
To prevent vertigo in flight we should look towards breath keep not move the head
the sides deeply but breathing suddenly while we are
when we control the normally turning
make a turn respiratory
frequency
2522 40 0 0
A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a His/her self The An His/her self-concept is
captain. Which psychological consequence is most -concept is increased upgrading going to change
likely? going to be command does not because of new roles
stabilized authority have any of and tasks which have to
because of leads to a the be incorporated.
the higher higher mentioned
status as a professionali psychologica
captain. sm. l
consequenc
es.

2523 40 0 0
Different non-technical related opinions between pilots 1, 2 and 4 only 1 is 2 and 3 are 2,3 and 4 are correct
from different cultural backgrounds might be seen in are correct correct correct
connection with:_x000D_
-1 : the variations of technical training and
skills._x000D_
-2 : communication problems._x000D_
-3 : conflicting ways of management._x000D_
-4 : interpersonal problems._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:
2524 40 0 0
When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a proprioceptiv vision cochlea sense of balance
slight degree of hypoxia is the e sensitivity
2525 40 0 1
 In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the will be are does not will increase as a result
members of the crew: hampered facilitated loose its of the increase of
by the from the importance technical dissemination
decrease in non-verbal of information
actions point of view
brought owing to the
about by increased
technical availability
improvemen wich results
ts from
technical
lightening of
the workload

2526 40 0 0
Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by the cochlea the the the saccule and the
semicircular tympanum utricle
canals
2527 40 0 1
Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to Mentally Sensitive. Disciplined. Jovial.
teamwork under high workload conditions in the absent.
cockpit?
2528 40 1 0
The 'cocktail party effect' is the tendency the tendency the ability to the ability to drink too
to believe not to pick up much at social gathering
information perceive relevant
that relevant information
reinforces information unintentional
our mental ly
model of the
world

2529 40 0 0
Which of the following personality characteristics makes Friendliness. Assertivenes Competitive General intelligence.
2530 40 crew decision making most effective? s. ness. 0 1
The semicircular canals form part of the middle ear ear drum external ear inner ear
2531 40 0 0
It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The swollen swollen pain and gentle descents at high
reason for this is: tissue in the tissue in the damage to altitude can result in
inner ear will Eustachian the eardrum damage to the ear drum
prevent the tube will can result,
air from cause particularly
ventilating permanent during fast
through the hearing loss descents
tympanic
membrane

2532 40 0 0
Which of the following tasks are possible to do Read and Maintain Listen Talk and rehearse a
simultaneously without mutual interference? listen manual attentively frequency in working
attentively. straight and and solve a memory.
level flight problem.
and solve a
problem.
2533 40 0 1
The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many 0,02 - 0,05 0,2 - 0,25 0,3 - 0,35 0,01 - 0,015 mg % per
factors. However, the rate of metabolism or digestion of mg % per mg % per mg % per hour
alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about hour hour hour
2534 40 0 0
 Our mental model of the world is based entirely on entirely on on both our on both our past
the sensory past past experiences and the
information experiences experiences sensory information we
we receive and our receive
motor
programmes

2535 40 0 0
"The Bends" as a symptom of decompression sickness pain in the CNS- loss of pain in the joints
consists of: thorax and a disturbances peripheral
backing vision
cough
2536 40 0 0
Very high ambition and need for achievement disturbe the fulfil the always improves the coping
climate of requirement promote process with personal
cooperation s of stress teamwork failures
resistance
2537 40 1 0
Once we have constructed a mental model we tend to give to give equal to alter that to give undue weight to
undue weight to model information that confirms
weight to contradicting unnecessaril the model
information and y frequently
that confirming
contradicts information
the model
2538 40 0 0
The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit facilitated considerably reduced the improved man-machine
aircraft has: feedback improved all scope for communication as a
from the the non-verbal result of flight sensations
machine via communicati communicati
more on facilities on in
concise data of the crew interpersona
for l relations
communicati
on on the
flight deck

2539 40 1 0
One of the substances present in the smoke of Carbonic Tar Carbon Carbon monoxide
cigarettes can make it significantly more difficult for the anhydride dioxide
red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a
consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance
are we referring to?
2540 40 0 0
When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the of the that we are of turning in of the sharp dipping of
sensation immediate starting a the same the nose of the aircraft
stabilization spin into the direction
of the opposite
aircraft direction

2541 40 0 1
When accelerating in level flight we could experience climb descent turn spin
2542 40 the sensation of a 1 0
Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can conductive presbycusis a ruptured noise induced hearing
end up in hearing loss (eefects of ear drum loss
aging)
2543 40 0 0
All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration are to cut will not affect are to cut are to cut out the low
as part of the process of growing old._x000D_ out all tones a pilot's out the high tones first
The effects of aging equally hearing if he tones first
is wearing
ear-plugs all
the time

2544 40 0 0
 The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations 30 - 15000 16 - 20,000 0 - 16 Hz 20,000 - 40,000 Hz
2545 40 between the frequencies dB Hz 0 1
The intensity of a sound is measured in cycles per curies decibels hertz
2546 40 second 0 0
Information stays in the short-term memory less than 1 from 5 to 10 around 24 about 20 seconds
2547 40 second minutes hours 0 0
The ozone-layer is situated in the thermospher ionosphere stratosphere troposphere
2548 40 e 0 0
The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) the maxillary the middle the inner ear the outer ear
are situated in sinus ear
2549 40 0 1
An individually given feedback improves The receiver The The The feedback should
communication. Which of the following rules should a of the feedback feedback only be given if
feedback comply with? feedback should not should requested by the
should be referred always captain.
immediately to a relate to a
justify his concrete specific
behaviour. situation. situation.

2550 40 0 0
The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I 78 % 78 % 78 % 71 % nitrogen, 28 %
C A O standard atmosphere) is nitrogen, 21 nitrogen, 21 nitrogen, 28 oxygen, 0,9 % argon,
% oxygen, % oxygen, % oxygen, 0,03 % carbon dioxide
0,9 % argon, 0,9 % 0,9 %
0,03 % carbon carbon
carbon dioxide, 0,03 dioxide, 0,03
dioxide % argon % argon

2551 40 1 0
A fatigued pilot considerably will show is acting will get precordial pain
increases signs of similar as
the ability to increased when
concentrate irritability encounterin
g a state of
depression
2552 40 0 1
The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the 18 000 feet 10 000 feet 25 000 feet 30 000 feet
2553 40 pressure at sea level at 1 0
A slight lack of coordination which can make it difficult to 0.2 % blood 0.05 % 0.1 % blood 0.15 % blood alcohol
carry out delicate and precise movements occurs when alcohol blood alcohol
the level of alcohol in the blood is exceeding alcohol
2554 40 0 1
The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce nicotine carbon lead tar
modifications in cells which develop a cancer) in the monoxide
bronchi of the lungs is
2555 40 0 0
Decompression sickness occurs in association with Gay Lussac Henry´s law Boyle Dalton´s law
exposure to reduced atmospheric pressure._x000D_ ´s law Mariotte´s
The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of law
solution in body tissues can be derived from:

2556 40 0 1
The normal rate of breathing is 32 to 40 60 to 100 20 to 30 12 to 16 cycles a minute
cycles a cycles a cycles a
minute minute minute
2557 40 0 0
The main function of the red blood cells is to participate the cellular to contribute to transport oxygen
in the defense of to the
process of the immune
coagulation organism response of
of the blood the
organism

2558 40 0 0
 Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not between 3 between 5 below 3 000 up to 5 000 m
occur (indifferent phase) 000 m and 5 000 m and 7 m
000 m 000 m
2559 40 0 0
During paradoxical sleep the tone of respiration is the rhythm rapid eye movements
the muscles very regular of the heart can be observed
is similar to is very
that in the regular
waking state

2560 40 0 0
The human information processing system is highly independanc flexibility speed working memory
efficient compared to computers because of its y from capacity
attention
2561 40 0 1
Motor programmes are: stored stored rules that rules that enable us to
routines that routines that enable us to deal with preconceived
enable enable deal with situations
patterns of patterns of novel
behaviour to behaviour to situations
be executed be executed
only under without
continuous continuous
conscious conscious
control control

2562 40 0 1
Working memory enables us, for example, to remember to remember to store a to ignore messages for
our own a clearance large other aircraft
name long enough amount of
to write it visual
down information
for about 0.5
seconds

2563 40 0 1
The relationship between arousal and flying approximatel approximatel approximatel approximately sinusoidal
performance is y the form of y linear y
an inverted increasing exponential
U
2564 40 1 0
In a complex task high levels of arousal reduce narrow the improve lead to better decision-
failures span of performance making
attention
2565 40 0 1
In the short-term-memory, information is stored for 5 minutes 1 hour a couple of 20 seconds
2566 40 approximately days 0 0
According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the 2 °C every constant in - 2 °C every 10 °C every 100 feet
temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is 1000 metres the 1000 feet
approximately troposphere
2567 40 0 0
Which of the following operations are performed more 2,3,4 1,2,3 2,4 3,4
effectively by automatic systems than by people ?
_x000D_
1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon_x000D_
2. Long term controlling of a set value (e.g holding of
trajectory) _x000D_
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not
exceeded (e.g holding of flight path) _x000D_
4. Qualitative decision-making

2568 40 0 1
 What are the main factors which bring about reduced or 1,3 3,4 1,2,3 2,4
low vigilance (hypovigilance) ?_x000D_
1. The monotony of the task_x000D_
2. Tiredness,the need for sleep_x000D_
3. A lack of stimulation_x000D_
4. Excessive stress
2569 40 0 0
Which of the following statements concerning tends to only affects may occur at essentially occurs
hypovigilance is correct ?_x000D_ occur at the certain any moment several minutes after the
Hypovigilance : end of the personality of the flight intense take-off phase
mission as a types
result of a
relaxation in
the
operators'
attention

2570 40 0 0
What is "divided attention"? Ease of Difficulty of The adverse Alternative management
concentratin concentratin effect of of several matters of
g on a g on a motivation interest
particular particular which leads
objective objective to one's
attention
being
dispersed

2571 40 0 0
What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance ? 1,3 1,4 2,3 2,4
_x000D_
1. Decrease in sensory perception_x000D_
2. Increase in selective attention_x000D_
3. Sensation of muscular heaviness_x000D_
4. Decrease in complacency
2572 40 1 0
Which of the following are the most favourable solutions 1,4 1,2 1,3 3,4
to manage phases of reduced or low vigilance
(hypovigilance)?_x000D_
1. Healthy living_x000D_
2. Use of amphetamines_x000D_
3. Reducing the intensity of the light_x000D_
4. Organising periods of rest during the flight
2573 40 1 0
Which of the following drawbacks are associated with 2,3,4 1,3 1,2 1,4
automation ?_x000D_
1. Reduced competence in manually controlling the
aircraft_x000D_
2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming
automatic_x000D_
systems _x000D_
3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a
sidestick_x000D_
4. General decrease in technical reliability

2574 40 0 0
Discussing private matters in the cockpit decreases can improve should be is appropriate in any
the captains team spirit avoided by phase of flight
role of all means in
leadership the cockpit

2575 40 0 1
 As a result of automation in cockpits, man-man coordination communicati communication and
communicati between the on and coordination call for an
on has been members is coordination even greater effort on
significantly facilitated by have clearly the part of the crew
improved the provision improved in members
of more man-man
precise and and man-
more machine
important relations
information

2576 40 0 0
Which of the following statements summarises the It only Motivation It stimulates It increases the
impact that motivation may have on attention ? facilitates has only a attention but mobilisation of energy
attention in small effect may lead to and thus facilitates the
extreme on attention, phases of quality of alertness and
cases (risk but it low arousal attention
of death) facilitates
alertness

2577 40 0 0
Which of the following operations are performed more 3,4 2,3,4 1,4 1,2
effectively by people than by automatic systems ?
_x000D_
1. Qualitative decision-making_x000D_
2. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon_x000D_
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not
exceeded_x000D_
4. Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.)

2578 40 0 0
What is the sender's frequent reason to communicate The receiver He/she has Afterwards There is no need to
implicitly ('between the lines')? grasps not to adjust he/she make up one's mind
quickly what to the always can before starting to
the sender communicati claim to communicate.
means. on style of have been
the misundersto
communicati od.
on partner.

2579 40 0 0
Mark the two most important attributes for a positive 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4
leadership style:_x000D_
(1) dominant behaviour_x000D_
(2) examplary role-behaviour_x000D_
(3) mastery of communication skills_x000D_
(4) "Laissez-faire" behaviour
2580 40 1 0
Nonverbal communication should be supports is of no is always used
avoided by verbal meaning in intentionally
all means in communicati the cockpit
the cockpit on
2581 40 0 1
 How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not You cannot The Beeing silent Each situation requires
communicate'? influence statement as well as communication.
your own above is a inactive are
communicati missprint. nonverbal
on. behaviour
patterns
which
express a
meaning.

2582 40 0 0
Metacommunication is defined as balancing having an active communicating about
the own assessment listening the communication
ideas and conversation
interests
with those of
the
interlocutor
2583 40 0 0
The performance of the man machine system is above a a balanced a a combination in which
all : combination combination combination the pilot must keep the
which is between which must main repetitive tasks and
based on someone make the automated systems
decreasing actively pilot under his control in line
the pilot's engaged in available for with rule-based
workload his work and the sphere behaviour
and automated in which he
increasing systems is most
his time for which serve qualified,
supervision to control namely
the pilot's checking
workload departures
from the
normal
operating
range

2584 40 1 0
In order to minimize the effects of crossing more than 3- 2,3 1,3 2,4 1,4
4 time zones with a layover more than 24 hrs, it is
advisable to :_x000D_
1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the rhythm of the
arrival country_x000D_
2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure
country for as long as possible_x000D_
3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking ,sleeping
alternation and regular meal pattern )_x000D_
4. Try to sleep as much as possible to overcome
negative arousal effects

2585 40 1 0
Which of the following statements best characterise a 1,3,4 2,3 2,4 1,4
synergetic cockpit?_x000D_
1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by
the crew_x000D_
2. There is little delegating of tasks_x000D_
3. Communications are few in number but precise and
geared purely to the flight_x000D_
4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to
leadership-style, which fluctuate between authority and
laissez-faire

2586 40 0 0
 What elements establish synergy within the crew ? Synergy is It is only the Synergy Synergy establishes
independent captain's must be built itself automatically within
of the status which up from the the crew, right through
natural allows the start of the from briefing to
individual establishme mission debriefing
characteristi nt of synergy (briefing)
cs of the within the and be
group crew maintained
members until it
(communicat comes to an
ion, mutual end
confidence, (debriefing)
sharing of
tasks, etc.)

2587 40 0 0
Which of the following solutions represent antidotes to 2,3,4 2,4 1,2,4 1,2,3
conflicts ?_x000D_
1. Seeking arbitration_x000D_
2. Actively listening to other people_x000D_
3. Abandoning facts so as to move the conversation to a
more emotional level_x000D_
4. Becoming aware of cultural influences
2588 40 0 0
Which of the following statements concerning tiredness Tiredness is Tiredness is Tiredness is Tiredness is a subjective
is correct ? always the the an objective sensation which is
result of an consequenc psychophysi reflected in
intellectual e of a ological hypovigilance or in poor
overload diminution of symptom of management of
performance a reduction intellectual capabilities
in attention
capabilities

2589 40 0 0
What is the effect of tiredness on attention ? It increases It leads to It has no It reduces the ability to
the ability to one's specific manage multiple matters
manage attention effects on
multiple being attention
matters dispersed
between
different
centres of
interest

2590 40 0 0
What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on It reduces It increases It increases It causes muscular
performance ? concentratio fatigue, fatigue and spasms
n and concentratio concentratio
fatigue only n and n difficulties,
with sleep attention but
loss greater difficulties, facilitates
than 48 the risk of stress
hours sensory managemen
illusions and t by
mood muscular
disorders relaxation,

2591 40 0 1
 Which of the following statements in regard to Low Extremely Too much Motivation will reduce
motivation is correct? motivation high motivation the task automation
will motivation in may result in process
guarantee combination hypovigilanc
adequate with e and thus in
attention excessive a decrease
managemen stress will in attention
t capabilities limit
attention
managemen
t capabilities

2592 40 0 1
Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), the 1,3 1,4 2,3 2,4
effects of adjustment to destination time :_x000D_
1. are longer for western rather than eastern
flights_x000D_
2. are longer for eastern rather than western
flights_x000D_
3. vary little between individuals_x000D_
4. may vary greatly between individuals
2593 40 0 0
Which of the following are primary sources of motivation 2,4 1,2,3,4 1,2,3 3,4
in day-to-day professional life ?_x000D_
1. Beeing in control of one's own situation_x000D_
2. Fear of punishment_x000D_
3. Success (achievement of goals)_x000D_
4. Social promotion, money
2594 40 0 1
Of the following statements concerning the effects of Sensorimoto Sensorimoto Sensorimoto Sensorimotor
circadian rhythms on performance, we know that : r r and r and performance is better in
performance intellectual intellectual the evening whereas
is better in performance performance intellectual performance
the morning are better in are better in is better in the morning
whereas the morning the evening
intellectual and are and very
performance sensitive to sensitive to
is better in the duration the duration
the evening of the sleep of the
state waking
period

2595 40 0 0
What are the various factors which guide attention ? 1,2 2,3,4 1,3,4 1,4
_x000D_
1. The level of automation of behaviour_x000D_
2. Response time_x000D_
3. The salience of the information_x000D_
4. Expectations
2596 40 0 0
With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in the more the more the less the more behaviour is
the attention mechanism, we know that : behaviour is behaviour is behaviour is automated, the less it
automated, automated, automated, requires conscious
the more it the more it the less it attention and thus the
requires requires requires more it frees mental
attention attention attention resources
and the and the less and the
more it frees it frees more it frees
resources resources resources

2597 40 0 0
 What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the The The Expectations They always lead to
perception mechanism ? unconscious attention often guide routine errors
mechanism area is the focus of
of attention enlarged, attention
leads to thus it will towards a
focus on all lead to an particular
relevant uncertainty aspect, while
information in regard to possible
necessary alternates
decisions are
neglected

2598 40 0 0
The level of automation of behaviour-patterns facilitates errors in routine mistakes decision-making errors
the saving of resources and therefore of attention. On selecting an errors (slips)
the other hand, it may result in : appropriate
plan of
action

2599 40 0 1
What are the effects of distress (overstress) ? It reduces It activates It has very It increases vigilance for
vigilance resources little a longer period than
and stored in immediate stress itself, but may
focusses memory effect on focus attention
attention vigilance
and
attention
2600 40 0 0
Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by the duration the the intensity the duration and
of a noise suddenness of the noise intensity of a noise
but not its of onset of a but not its
intensity noise duration

2601 40 0 0
What seem to be the main roles of deep sleep ? It is confined Its main role Via physical It essentially allows for
to physical is recovery, it physical recovery and
recuperation associated is the reconstitution of
associated with characterise neuron energy reserves
with fatigue activities of d by an
memory alternation
activities of dream
and phases and
restoration paradoxical
of attention phases
capabilities

2602 40 0 0
The heart muscle is supplied with blood from: the coronary the auricles ventricles the pulmonary veins
arteries
2603 40 1 0
Young pilots or pilots with little experience of airplanes task for task, flight unexperienc experienced pilots are
differ from experienced pilots in the following way : an expert's planning ed pilots less routine-minded than
workload is performance refer to young pilots because
greater than decreases information they know that routine
a novice's with age, more than causes mistakes
one and experts
experience when
is unable to carrying out
mask this the same
deficiency task

2604 40 0 0
 Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in only front- only pilot failure of the there is hardly ever a
aviation shows that : line training will human single cause responsible
operators make it factor is
are involved possible to always
improve the connected
situation with
technical
breakdowns

2605 40 0 0
Thinking on human reliability is changing. Human Human The It is thought that it will be
errors are errors can individual possible to eliminate
now be avoided. view of errors in the near future
considered All it takes is safety has
as being to be vigilant gradually
inherent to and to replaced the
the cognitive extend one's systemic
function of knowledge view of
human and safety
are
generally
inescapable

2606 40 1 0
Which of the following statements concerning Communicat Professional Professional The syntax of
communication is valid? ion must communicati communicati communication is of little
take priority on means: on means to importance to its
over any using a exchange success. Only the words
other flight restricted information uttered are important.
activity and specific as little as
under all language, possible.
circumstanc tailored to
es minimize
misundersta
ndings.

2607 40 0 1
Which of the following statements is true? Stress People are Stressors Stressors are
should capable of accumulate independent from each
always be living without thus other.
avoided stress. increasing
under any the
circumstanc likelihood to
es. exhaustion.
2608 40 0 0
How should a pilot react, when suffering from chronic Attempt to Use Ignore the Always consult a
stress? reduce the moderate particular psychotherapist before
stress by administratio stressors the next flight.
using a n of and increase
concept tranquillizers your
which before flight. physical
approaches exercises.
the entire
body and
improves
wellness.

2609 40 1 0
 Which elements of communication are prone to The receiver The sender Coding and The sender
malfunctioning? and the decoding
receiver as
well as
coding and
decoding
2610 40 0 1
The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is 80/20 mm 180/120 mm 220/180 mm 120/80 mm Hg
2611 40 (systolic/diastolic): Hg Hg Hg 0 0
What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the 1,2 2,4,5 1,3,5 1,2,3
stress reactions?_x000D_
-1 : increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline
secretion._x000D_
-2 : an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of
glucose._x000D_
-3 : a decrease in stress resistance._x000D_
-4 : activation of the digestive system._x000D_
-5 : secretion of cortisol to mobilize attention._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

2612 40 0 0
At rest the cardial output (the quantity of blood the heart 45 liters/min 75 liters/min 5 liters/min 450 ml/min
pumps in one minute) of an adult is approximately:
2613 40 0 0
With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke 6 liters/min 7 liters/min 8 liters/min 5 liters/min
volume of 70 ml the cardial output is about:
2614 40 0 0
Pulse rate is influenced by the following 1,2,3 and 4 2,3 and 4 1,2 and 4 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2
factors:_x000D_ are correct are correct, are correct, is false
1. Adrenalin_x000D_ 1 is false 3 is false
2. Cortisol_x000D_
3. Physical exercise._x000D_
2615 40 4. Glucose concentration in the blood 0 0
The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about: 60 to 80 30 to 50 90 to 100 110 to 150 beats/min
2616 40 beats/min beats/min beats/min 1 0
Someone who has anaemia has: not enough not enough not enough not enough plasma
white blood functional platelets
cells hemoglobin
2617 40 0 1
The behavioural effects of stress may include :_x000D_ 1,4 and 5 1 and 4 are 1,2 and 3 2,4 and 5 are correct
-1 : manifestation of aggressiveness._x000D_ are correct correct are correct
-2 : a willingness to improve communication._x000D_
-3 : a willingness for group cohesion._x000D_
-4 : a tendency to withdrawl._x000D_
-5 : inappropriate gestural agitation._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
2618 40 1 0
In case of in-flight stress, one should : use all only trust in demonstrate always carry out a
available oneself; aggressiven breathing exercise
resources of beeing sure ess to
the crew to know the stimulate the
own limits crew

2619 40 1 0
 Which of the following statements concerning stress is Stress is a Stress will Stress Stress is evaluated as a
correct? necessary be evaluated always positiv mechanism only
way of differently creates a in connection with
demonstrati depending state of high precise tasks of the kind
ng one's on whether it tension encountered in
own work. improves or which aeronautics
reduces decreases
performance cognitive
. and
behavioural
performance
.

2620 40 0 1
To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise avoided double the triple the double the resting heart
should be since raising resting heart resting heart rate for at least 20
the heart rate for at rate for 20 minutes, three times a
rate least an minutes, week
shortens the hour, five once a week
life of the times a
heart week
2621 40 0 0
Which of the following is most true? Regular Regular Regular Regular exercise is
exercise and exercise is exercise is beneficial to general
reduction in beneficial to an health, and is the only
caloric general impediment effective way to lose
consumption health, but to losing weight
are both the most weight since
essential in efficient way it increases
order to lose to lose the
weight weight is by metabolic
reducing rate
caloric
consumption

2622 40 0 1
The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone 1 - 1.5 hours 2 - 2.5 hours 3 - 3.5 hours 4 - 4.5 hours a day
will resynchronise to this new time zone at a rate of a day a day a day
about
2623 40 1 0
The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily the amount the number the point the duration of your
by of time you of points you within your previous sleep
have been have in your circadian
awake 'credit/deficit' rhythm at
system which you
try to sleep
2624 40 0 0
A selective attentional mechanism is required because of because of because of because the capacity of
the limitations in the limited the long term memory is
limitations of our store of capacity of limited
the sense motor the central
organs programmes decision
maker and
working
memory
2625 40 0 0
The capacity of the short-term memory is about 30 unlimited about 7 very limited - only one
2626 40 items items item 0 0
 The cognitive effects of stress may include :_x000D_ 3,4,5 1,3,4,6 1,2,5 2,3,5,6
-1 : excessive haste._x000D_
-2 : an improvement in memory._x000D_
-3 : a complete block: action is impossible._x000D_
-4 : a risk of focusing on a particular aspect._x000D_
-5 : ease of decision-making._x000D_
-6 : an increase in the rate of mistakes._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which brings together all correct
statements is :

2627 40 0 1
Acute stress quickly leads to a state of the a decrease a permanent state of
overactivatio mobilization in the incapacitation
n beyond of resources amount of
the control required to resources
of willpower cope with mobilized to
the stressor face the
situation

2628 40 0 1
What is the effect of stress on performance ?_x000D_ 1,2,3 1,3,4 1,2,4 2,3,4
-1 : It always reduces performance._x000D_
-2 : Optimum performance is obtained with optimum
arousal._x000D_
-3 : Excessive stress weakens performance._x000D_
-4 : Insufficient stress weakens performance._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:
2629 40 0 0
Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress 2,3,5 1,3,5 1,3,4 3,4,5
reactions?_x000D_
-1 : noise._x000D_
-2 : interpersonnal conflict._x000D_
-3 : temperature._x000D_
-4 : administrative problem._x000D_
-5 : hunger._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

2630 40 0 1
Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on: the the the the capabilities of the
evaluation of evaluation of evaluation of individual and the
the situation the situation the solutions provided by the
and the and the the capabilities environment
evaluation of state of of the
capabilities fatigue of individual
to cope with the and the time
it individual available

2631 40 1 0
Stress appears:_x000D_ 1,2,4 3,4 1,2 2, 3
-1 : only in a situation of imminent danger._x000D_
-2 : only when faced with real, existing and palpable
phenomenon._x000D_
-3 : sometimes via imagination, the anticipation of a
situation or its_x000D_
outcome._x000D_
-4 : because of the similarity with a formerly
experienced stressful _x000D_
situation_x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

2632 40 0 1
 What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very The The The time The objective threat of
demanding stress situation? unexpected subjective available to the situation.
outcome of evaluation of cope with
the situation. the situation the situation.
by the
individual.

2633 40 0 1
The organism is mobilized by a process known as: NAS : GMS : GAF : GAS : General
Natural General General Adaptation Syndrome
Adaptation Mobilization Adaptation
Syndrome Syndrome. Function.
2634 40 0 0
What are the three phases of General Adaptation alarm, alert, Alarm, Alert, resistance,
Syndrome ? resistance, resistance, resistance, performance.
performance exhaustion exhaustion.
,
2635 40 0 0
What is characterized by a "laissez-faire" cockpit ? The The high A passive Each member carries
captain's level of approach by out actions and makes
authority independenc the captain choices without explicity
rules all the e granted to allows informing the other
actions or each decisions, members about them
decisions member by choices and
associated the captain actions by
with the quickly leads other crew
situation to tension members
between the
various crew
members

2636 40 0 0
The relationship which exists between crew error and is has been is dependent is a linear relationship
flight safety : independent evolving for on the social which introduces crew
of the 40 years and training as the main
operational and has now technical factor
context, with become system and
the latter independent also on the
being of the social operational
identical for and context
any flight technical created by
operation system the system

2637 40 0 0
Informal roles within a crew do not characterize evolve as a are explicitely set out by
impair the inefficient result of the the crew
captain's crews interactions
influence that take
place among
crew
members

2638 40 0 0
Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient Ability to Ability to Ability to Communicational skills
decision making on the cockpit? search for think ahead persuade and social competence.
and examine and specify others to
all available alternative follow the
information courses of own point of
regarding a action. view.
situation.

2639 40 0 0
 The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be subjective external the situational factors only
based on perception factors only emergency
and checklist
evalutation only
of situational
factors

2640 40 1 0
Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking find it find it easy find it find it difficult to get out
about a problem he will probably difficult to to interpret impossible of that way of thinking
stick to the data in to get out of and difficult to try a
his/her different that way of different interpretation of
interpretatio ways thinking, the data
n of the data whatever
happens
2641 40 0 0
To maintain good situational awareness you 2, 3 and 4 all answers 1 and 4 are 1 and 3 are correct
should:_x000D_ are correct are correct correct
(1) believe only in your own interpretation of the
data_x000D_
(2) gather as much datas as possible from every
possible _x000D_
source before making inferences_x000D_
(3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the
situation as_x000D_
events progress and try to make time to review the
situation_x000D_
(4) consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis
to see _x000D_
whether it is correct

2642 40 1 0
Doing a general briefing in the preflight phase the to avoid particular complete to depart on schedule
captain should emphasize inadequate requirement delegation of
handling of s in the field all duties
flight of crew
controls coordination
due to
specific
circumstanc
es

2643 40 0 1
During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain The captain The captain The captain The captain lets the
notices that his copilot on the one hand is rather lets the flies the first lets the copilot fly and
unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand copilot fly leg by copilot fly encourages him frankly
highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour and himself and and gives to ask for any support
most likely is inappropriate? observes his explains him detailled that needed
behaviour each action instructions
without any to the copilot what to do
comments in order to
keep him
informed
about his
decisions

2644 40 1 0
 Which of the following statements best characterise a While Without The The communication
self-centered cockpit ? decreasing taking note egocentric between crew members
communicati of what the personality always increases when
on, the other of the the captain takes charge
independenc members captain often of a situation
e of each are doing, leads to a
member each one synergetic
bolsters the does his cockpit
crew's own thing
synergy while at the
same time
assuming
that
everyone is
aware of
what is
being done
or what is
going on

2645 40 0 1
Which of the following sentences concerning crew- Mistakes The quality The quality To be a member of a
performance is correct? can always of crew- of crew- team can not increase
be detected performance performance one's own motivation to
and is not depends on succeed in coping with
corrected dependent the social- task demands
faster by the on social- competence
individual competence of individual
of individual team
team members
members

2646 40 0 0
It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of this reduces it makes the such this lowers the ability
behaviour (operating procedures) as possible in the amount flight deck behaviour requirement in pilot
commercial aviation mainly because of training easier to reduces selection
required design errors even
under
adverse
circumstanc
es
2647 40 0 0
Which statement is correct? Crew decision making is always ask adapt their are always are always relationship
generally most efficient, if all crew members concerned the captain managemen task oriented oriented
what to do t style to
meet the
situational
demands
2648 40 0 1
Which behaviour does most likely promote a Active Responding Staying to Giving up the own point
constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts? listening. with counter- the own of view.
arguments. point of
view.
2649 40 1 0
The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on both pilots both pilots both pilots both pilots flying
having the respecting wearing the together very often for a
same each other same long period
political and and striving uniform
ideological for the same
attitude goals
2650 40 0 1
 During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the He should He should He should He should not further
captain starts to smoke a cigarette in the cockpit. The learn to repeat his report the discuss this issue but
flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a accept the worries chief pilot should come back to this
non-smoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your captain about about this conflict during the
problem', and continues smoking. What should the smoking smoking in behaviour of debriefing
copilot do? cigarettes in the cockpit the captain
the cockpit and should
argue with
the captain
about this
problem until
the conflict
is solved

2651 40 0 0
How would you call the leadership style of a captain High task- Low task- Low task- High task-orientation
who primarily is interested in a friendly atmosphere orientation orientation orientation and low relationship-
within his crew, who is always constructive and and high and low and high orientation
encouraging, who usually compromises in interpersonal relationship- relationship- relationship-
conflicts, who trusts in the capabilities of his crew- orientation orientation orientation
members, and who leaves the crew freedom for own
decisions, even if this makes the process more difficult?

2652 40 0 0
If the copilot continuosly feels unfairly treated by the internally duly point freeze the speak up and point at
captain in an unjustified way, then he should retire and out the communicati consequencies if unfair
think problem, on and thus behaviour persists
positive reconcentrat avoid
e on his immediate
duties and confrontatio
clear the n
matter in a
more
appropriate
occasion

2653 40 0 1
Which one of the following statements characterizes a tries to mainly tries keeps a decides what to do and
democratic and cooperative leadership style?_x000D_ clarify the to reconcile neutral pushes his own opinion
If conflicts evolve, the leader reasons and all persons position and through
causes of involved in does not
the conflict the conflict participate in
with all and tries to arguing
persons reestablish a
involved nice and
friendly
atmosphere
within the
team

2654 40 1 0
Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due maturation drug practice and innate mechanisms
to influence experience
2655 40 0 0
The quality of learning : is is is promoted depends on long-term
independent independent by feedback memory capacity
of the level of age on the value
of motivation of one's own
performance

2656 40 0 0
 The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding is a long way represents is has improved
sabotage and acts of terrorism) : short of the about fifty approximativ considerably over the
safety level accidents ely 1 last fifteen years
of road around the accident per
transport world every million
year airport
movements
2657 40 0 0
Long-term memory is an essential component of the Long-term The It is The capacity of long-
pilot's knowledge and expertise. memory recovery of desirable to term memory is limited
stores information pre-activate
knowledge from long- knowledge
on a term stored in
temporary memory is long-term
basis immediate memory to
and easy have it
available
when
required

2658 40 0 0
As a cause of accidents, the human factor is cited in has which is plays a negligible role in
approximatel increased cited in commercial aviation
y 70 - 80 % considerably current accidents. It is much
of aviation since 1980 - statistics, more important in
accidents the applies to general aviation
percentage the flight
of accident crew and
in which this ATC only
factor has
been
involved has
more than
tripled since
this date

2659 40 1 0
An excessive need for safety guarantees hampers is absolute is the most important
the right severly the necessary attribute of a line pilot
decision way of pilot for a safe
making in decision flight
critical making operation
situations
2660 40 0 1
Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive It is most It is most It is most It is more effective than
pretraining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation of important for important for effective, if it training by doing
actions. the selfcontrol is practiced
acquisition on an
of complex abstract
perceptual level if
motor skills imagination

2661 40 1 0
The decision making in emergency situations requires the whole distribution speed of informing ATC
firstly: crew to of tasks and reaction thoroughly about the
focus on the crew situation
problem coordination

2662 40 0 1
 How can the process of learning be facilitated? By By punishing By By reinforcing successful
increasing the learner reinforcing trials
the for errors
psychologica unsuccessfu
l pressure l trials
on the
student

2663 40 0 0
When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should make up his take as always make avoid making up his
mind before much time up his mind mind until the very last
consulting as he needs quickly to minute
other crew and is give himself
members available to as much
make up his spare time
mind as possible

2664 40 0 1
Mental training is helpful to improve flying skills only at a at all levels only for only for instructor pilots
certain level of flying student
of flying proficiency pilots
experience

2665 40 0 1
A high level of motivation is related to monotony to high to high to complacency
states levels of levels of
arousal intelligence
2666 40 0 1
What is meant by the term 'complacency'? To question An Physiologica Careless negligence or
possible agreement l unjustified self-
solutions between consequenc confidence
captain and es on pilots
co-pilot due because of
to Crew fear of flying
Resources
Managemen
t

2667 40 0 0
What does the 'End Deterioration Effect'('Home-itis') The The The result of The potential risk of
mean? breakdown tendency to a poor loosing orientation after
of crew sudden, preflight flying in clouds
coordination imperceptibl planning
due to e errors
interpersona shortly
l tensions before the
between end of a
captain and flight
co-pilot

2668 40 0 1
 'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe 2 and 3 are 4 is correct 1 and 2 are 1, 2 and 3 are correct
which of the following statements?_x000D_ correct correct
1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an
environment in _x000D_
which it is frequently exercised, even if it is
inappropriate to do _x000D_
so_x000D_
2.The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to
be _x000D_
executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is
inappropriate to do _x000D_
so_x000D_
3. The tendency for people bo behave in different ways
in different _x000D_
social situations_x000D_
4. The gaining of environmental skills

2669 40 0 0
A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the it is Crew the crew can the attention of the
traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that guaranteed Coordination pay more cockpit crew will become
that the crew can be attention to reduced with the
maqintains neglected on solve the consequence of 'being
always long haul problem in out of the loop'
situational flights an abnormal
awareness without situation
compromizin without
g safety monitoring
the
automatic
systems

2670 40 0 0
The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is Poikilotherm Homeostasi Heterostasis Homeothermy
2671 40 called : y s 0 1
How can a pilot avoid automation complacency? Always fly Nothing, Regard the Always try to enhance
the whole because it is automatic your aviation related
flight system- system as knowledge during low
manually to inherent additional workload periods
remain in crew
man- members
machine that needs
loop to be
crosschecke
d as well

2672 40 0 0
The needs of an individual lead to : preservation no change in prolonged a change in the
from his suppression individuals motivation
dangers only motivation of all basic and consequently to an
if social and needs in adaptation of the
needs are conrequently favour of behaviour
beeing to the high self-
satisfied persistence actualization
of the
individuals
behaviour in
regard to the
desired
outcome

2673 40 0 0
 What does not apply to a constructive and helpful It should be It should be It should be Feedback should always
feedback? individually formulated actual and state bluntly the
tailored to subjectively specify in personal failings of the
the and regard to the receiver
receiver's personally concerned
background ('I' instead of situation
'one')
2674 40 0 0
What strategy should be put in place when faced with A strategy of A non- A Laissez- A strategy of no
an anticipated period of time pressure ? preparing sequential faire strategy commitment
decisions strategy
2675 40 1 0
In terms of decision-making, the intention to become the the the attempt an authoritarian
integrated into the team, to be recognised as the leader improvemen suggestion to agree on approach thus
or to avoid conflicts may lead to : t of internal of a decisions demonstrating ones own
risk sequential made by ability to lead
assessment solution in other crew
capabilities which members
everyone
can
contribute
what he/she
knows

2676 40 0 0
Which problem may be overlooked in the process of The Owing to Preparing Preparing decisions
making a decision? captain's great haste, decisions promotes the
superior bypassing often leads appearance of
knowledge, analysis of to strategies inflexibilities
justified by the current of minimum
his/her actual commitment
status situation in
order to
apply the
decision
prepared
beforehand

2677 40 0 1
Which of the following statements concerning conflicts The Conflict Whatever Conflicts are negative in
is correct ? emergence managemen the cause of themselves and can only
of a conflict t involves the conflict, lead to a general
always the its resolution detachment of involved
results from participation must parties
calling into of all necessarily
question the involved involve an
general parties in additional
abilities of finding an party if it is
one of the acceptable to be
involved collective effective
parties solution

2678 40 0 1
 What is synergy in a crew ? The The A The coordinated action
uncoordinat coordinated behavioural of unrelated individual
ed action of action of all expedient performances in
the members associated achieving a non-
crewmembe towards a with the standard task
rs towards a common desynchroni
common objective, in sation of the
objective which coordinated
collective actions
performance
is proving to
be more
than the
sum of the
individual
performance
s

2679 40 0 1
Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a professional one always a tendency one always wants to see
way that: pilots will selects a to select the previous experience
never choice in most familiar confirmed by new
question accordance solution first decisions
established with the and
procedures company's foremost,
usual sometimes
practices to the
detriment of
achieving
the best
possible
result

2680 40 0 0
Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes: are non- are Are the form part of personality
evolutive essentially product of and that, as a result,
adaptation driving personal they cannot be changed
procedures forces disposition in an adult
regardless behind and past
of the result changes in experience
of the personality with
actions reference to
associated an object or
with them a situation

2681 40 0 0
Decision-making can be influenced by the following 1,4 2,4 1,3 2,3
factors:_x000D_
1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a
majority _x000D_
within the group they belong to_x000D_
2. people always tend to keep the future decisions in
line with _x000D_
those their superiors have made in the past_x000D_
3. people more easily tend to select data which meet
the _x000D_
expectations_x000D_
4. people hardly base decisions on their personal
preferences but _x000D_
rather on rational information

2682 40 0 0
 What characterises the notion of role ? The The The function Only the functions
characteristi hierarchical and associated with role
c behaviour position of behaviour
associated the function associated
with the and the with the
description associated particular
of the behaviour role
various roles
of a
particular
status

2683 40 0 0
What distinguishes status from role ? While role While role Unlike Unlike status, role is
defines- via defines the status, role fixed and is modified
behaviour- enjoyment of is fixed and either by the situation in
the functions a is not flight or by the
that must be hierarchical modified interactions of a new
performed position and either by the crew
by its situation in
individuals, recognition flight or by
status by the the
defines the group, status interactions
enjoyment of defines - via of a new
a behaviour- crew
hierarchical the functions
position and that must be
its performed
recognition by
by the group individuals

2684 40 1 0
What optimises crew co-operation ?_x000D_ 1,2,3 1 1,2 2,3
1. Sharing and common task_x000D_
2. Confidence in each others capability_x000D_
3. Precise definition of functions associated with each
crew_x000D_
members role
2685 40 1 0
An autocratic cockpit is described by : The Despite the Each of the The atmosphere is
captain's overly strong members relaxed thanks to a
excessive authority of chooses captain who leaves
authority the captain, what job to complete freedom to the
cosiderably everything do without various members of the
reduces functions telling the crew
communicati correctly others and
ons and owing to his in the belief
consequentl natural that
y the leadership everyone is
synergy and aware of
cohesion of what he is
the crew doing

2686 40 1 0
 What are the most frequent results of an self-centred A major risk Performance In a two-pilot High group performance
captain on the flight deck ? of authority is very poor flight deck, despite the strained
inversion if as self- the co-pilot relations
the co-pilot centred is ignored
is behaviour and may
inassertive leads to an react by
increase of disengaging,
cooperation showing
and delayed
efficiency responses
or
demonstrate
the
scapegoat
effect

2687 40 0 0
What are the most frequent and the least appropriate 2,3,4 1,2 3,4 1,3,4
reactions on the part of a co-pilot when faced with a
highly authoritarian captain ?_x000D_
1. Self-assertion_x000D_
2. A scapegoat feeling_x000D_
3. Delayed reactions to observed
discrepancies_x000D_
4. Disengagement
2688 40 1 0
What are typical consequences of conflicts between 2, 3 and 4 1,3 and 4 1,2 and 3 1, 2 and 4 are correct
crew members?_x000D_ are correct are correct are correct
-1 The quality of work performance decreases as a
result of the _x000D_
impoverishment of communications_x000D_
-2 A decrease in the quality of
communications_x000D_
-3 In the case of a crew made up of experts, conflicts
only result in _x000D_
a deterioration in relations between the
individuals_x000D_
-4 A decrease in the usage of available resources on
the flight _x000D_
deck_x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

2689 40 0 0
Which of the following elements make up the 1,2,3,4 1,2,4 2,3 2,3,4
personality of an individual ?_x000D_
1. Heredity_x000D_
2. Childhood environment_x000D_
3. Upbringing_x000D_
4. Past experience
2690 40 1 0
What may be the origins of representation errors ? 1,2 3,4 2,3 1,3,4
_x000D_
1. Perception errors_x000D_
2. The catering for all available information _x000D_
3. Incorrect information from the observed
world_x000D_
2691 40 4. The receipt of a bad piece of information 0 0
What may become the main risk of a "laissez-faire" Disengagem Inversion of Lack of Appearance of
cockpit ? ent of the authority communicati agressiveness
co-pilot on
2692 40 0 1
 What are the main characteristics of active errors ? 2,3 1,2 3,4 1,4
_x000D_
They :_x000D_
1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line
operators_x000D_
2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in
progress_x000D_
3. are down to first-line operators_x000D_
4. have an impact on the overall action whose timing
may be _x000D_
affected significantly

2693 40 1 0
The descriptive aspect of errors according to Hollnagel's 1,2,4 1,3 2,4 1,2,3
model describes various directly observable types of
erroneous actions which are :_x000D_
1. Repetition and omission_x000D_
2. The forward leap and the backward leap_x000D_
3. Intrusion and anticipation_x000D_
4. Intrusion

2694 40 1 0
Errors which occur during highly automated actions may 1,4 1,2 3,4 2,3,4
result from :_x000D_
1. the capture of a poor action subprogram_x000D_
2. a mistake in the decision making process_x000D_
3. the application of a poor rule_x000D_
4. an action mode error
2695 40 1 0
Which of the following errors occur at rules-based 3,4 1,3 2,4 1,2
level ?_x000D_
1.Omission_x000D_
2.The application of a poor rule_x000D_
3. Attentional capture_x000D_
4. The poor application of a good rule
2696 40 0 0
Under what circumstances will a pilot change from When Failure of all The An automated cognitive
automated level to rule-based level ? detecting, the known appearance check procedure
that an rules of a situation
automated or problem
behaviour which is
will no unknown
longer lead and
to the completely
intended new
outcome

2697 40 1 0
Which biases relate to human decision making? 1,2 3,4 1,2,4 1,2,3
_x000D_
1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of
the risk of an event occurring_x000D_
2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our
decision even in the face of facts which contradict
it_x000D_
3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to
influence the particular decision_x000D_
4. There is natural tending to select only objective facts
for decision-making purposes
2698 40 0 0
 What happens in problem-solving when the application A switch is A second Actions A switch is made to
of a rule allows for the situation to be resolved ? made to monitoring return to an knowledge mode in
knowledge- rule must be automatic order to refine the
based mode applied mode results
in order to
continue
monitoring
of the
problem

2699 40 0 0
Which statement is correct? Problems in There is no Inconsistent Problems in the personal
the personal relation communicati relation between crew
relation between on members hardly
between inadequate behaviour hamper their
crew communicati improves communication process.
members on and flight safety.
very likely incidents or
hamper their accidents.
communicati
on process.

2700 40 1 0
What are the main strategies for adapting to time The The The The preparation of
constraints ? preparation prioritisation preparation action and the
of action and of tasks and of action and prioritisation of tasks
time the the
managemen application application
t of of
procedures procedures
2701 40 0 0
What would be the priority aim in the design of man- To eliminate To cater To put in To reduce the risks of
machine interfaces and in the creation of their the risk of systematicall place the appearance or non-
application procedures for combatting problems latent errors y for the redundant detection of errors
associated with human error ? occuring consequenc alarm entailing serious
es of errors systems consequences
in order to
analyse their
nature and
modify
ergonomic
parameters

2702 40 0 0
Decision-making results in: a subjective a choice a choice an objective choice
choice between always concerning applicable
concerning different based on solutions for a given end
applicable solutions for the
solutions achieving a experience
goal of the PIC

2703 40 0 1
In decision-making, the selection of a solution 1,3 4 1,2,3,4 1,2,4
depends :_x000D_
1. on objective and subjective criteria_x000D_
2. on the objective to be achieved_x000D_
3. on the risks associated with each solution_x000D_
4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker

2704 40 0 0
 Which of the following characteristics form part of A good A decision is A good A group decision must
decision-making on the flight deck ? decision only valid in decision can always be established
depends on a defined always be prior to action
analysis of and reversed if
the situation delimited its result
time does not
come up to
expectations

2705 40 1 0
Decision-making is a concept which represents : a voluntary an an automatic a spontaneous act of
and automated process of seeking the most
conscious or selection effective solution in a
process of automation- from among given situation when
selection, like act of the various faced with a defined
from among applying solutions to problem
possible defined a given
solutions, for procedures problem
a given
problem

2706 40 1 0
The DECIDE model is based on : a a a normative a statistical model based
prescriptive prescriptive generic on observation of human
generic generic model based decision-making
model, model which on
taking into is subject to mathematica
account the mathematica l logic
method l logic
which seems
most likely to
come up
with the
solution

2707 40 1 0
In problem-solving, what determines the transition from The Attentional Knowledge The unsuitability of the
rules-based activities to a knowledge-based activity ? unsuitability capture of rules automated actions
of the known which apply
rules for the to the
problem problem
posed posed

2708 40 1 0
Starting a coordinated level turn can make the pilot descent turn into the increase the climb
believe to opposite rate of turn
direction into the
same
direction
2709 40 0 0
 Using a checklist prior start is a contribution to frustration safety, stress, workload, because using
because the because checklists will increase
concentratio time the pilot´s workload prior
n on the pressure take-off
check list prior take-off
items will is always
draw the present
pilot´s
attention to
flight related
tasks,
reducing
distraction
from
personal
stress

2710 40 0 1
The "ideal professional pilot" is, in his behaviour, "person" and rather neither rather "goal" than
"goal" "person" "person" nor "person" oriented
oriented than "goal" "goal"
oriented oriented
2711 40 1 0
Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during are of no change will have an will not stimulate any of
flight are important physiological factors limiting the interest blood effect on the vestibular organs
pilots performance if not taken into consideration. Linear when presssure blood
accelerations along the long axis of the body performing and blood pressure
aerobatics volume and blood
distribution flow if the
in the body accelerative
force acts
across the
body at right
angles to the
body axis

2712 40 0 1
Hypoxia effects visual performance._x000D_ get colour get blurred have a be unable to maintain
A pilot may: blindness and/or reduction of piercing vision below
accompanie tunnel vision 25% in 5000 FT AGL
d by severe visual acuity
headache at 8000 FT
AGL

2713 40 0 1
The semicircular canals monitor relative horizontal gravity angular accelerations
speed and vertical
acceleration
s
2714 40 0 0
The cupula in the semicircular canal will be bent, when the fluid the cupula the fluid the cupula will bend on
a rotation begins. This is because (endolymph) will stay in (endolymph) constant angular speeds
within the place and will preceed
semicircular give the the
canal lags correct accelerated
behind the impression canal walls
accelerated
canal walls

2715 40 1 0
 The kinesthetic sense does not orient an individual to the relative a touch on our the condition in the body
his surroundings, but informs him of motion and the skin surrounding itself
relative s
position of
his body
parts
2716 40 1 0
When accelerating forward the otoliths in the give the give the give the give the illusion of
utriculus/sacculus will illusion of illusion of illusion of climbing (body tilting
banking straight and descending backwards, nose of the
level flight (body tilting a/c going up)
downwards,
or forwards,
nose of the
airplane
going down)

2717 40 0 0
When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity the fact that schedule the effect the effect they have on
have been taken and the pilot intends to fly, attention there is no only those they have on hearing
has to be payed to difference in pilots, who reaction time
the quality of show no and
sleep reactions to perceptional
produced these awareness
under the medications
influence of
those drugs
compared to
normal drug-
free sleep

2718 40 0 0
Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot spinning into spinning into straight and climbing and turning into
get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover from a the opposite the same level flight the original direction of
spin? He will get the illusion of direction direction the spin
2719 40 1 0
What is the name for the sensation of rotation occuring "Seat-of-the- Graveyard "Pilot's" Sudden incapacitation.
during flight and which is caused by multiple irritation of Pants" spin. Vertigo.
several semicircular canals at the same time? illusions.
2720 40 0 0
"Pilot's vertigo": the is a the a sudden loss of visual
impression sensation of impression perception during flight
of climbing rotation of flying due to multiple irritation
when during flight straight and of the utriculus and
banking due to level while sacculus at the same
multiple the aircraft is time
irritation of spinning
several
semicircular
canals at the
same time

2721 40 0 1
 With "vertigo" the instrument-panel seems to tumble . conflicting oxygen the coriolis tuned resonance caused
This is due to information deficiency effect in the by vibration
between the semicircular
semicircular canals
canals and
the tympanic
membrane

2722 40 0 0
Which flight-maneouvre will most likely induce vertigo? banking climbing descending flying straight and level
2723 40 Turning the head while 1 0
Vertigo is the result of "Oculogyral "Autokinetic- "Elevator "Coriolis-effect"
2724 40 illusion" illusion" illusion" 0 0
A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may the feeling of the illusion the the illusion of climbing or
get: rotation to turn impression descending
of stationary
objects
moving to
the right or
left

2725 40 0 0
Which of the following applies when alcohol has been Even after Drinking Small Acute effects of alcohol
consumed? the coffee at the amounts of cease immediately when
consumption same time alcohol 100% oxygen is taken
of small will increase increase
amounts of the visual
alcohol, elimination performance
normal rate of
cautionary alcohol
attitudes
may be lost

2726 40 1 0
The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless alarm phase alarm phase exhaustion resistance phase -
of the cause of stress. This mechanism occurs in three - resistance - denial phase - exhaustion phase -
phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the "General phase - phase - resistance recovery phase
Adaptation Syndrome". _x000D_ exhaustion exhaustion phase -
The sequence is: phase phase adaptation
phase
2727 40 1 0
According to the different phases of the "General 2 and 3 are 1,2 and 3 1 and 2 are only 1 is correct
Adaptation Syndrom" check the following correct, 1 is are correct correct, 3 is
statements:_x000D_ false false
1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e.
adrenalin) will cause a massiv release of glucose into
the blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure
as well as an increase in the rate and depth of
breathing_x000D_
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic
system uses a different type of hormone (cortisol)
assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing
sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for
sustained operation._x000D_
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be
given time to eliminate the waste products which have
been generated excessively during the two preceeding
phases,

2728 40 0 1
If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will eustress distress adaptation hypoxia
2729 40 remain in the state of: 0 1
 1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having 1 and 2 are 1 is correct, 1 is false, 2 1 and 2 are both false
coped with _x000D_ both correct 2 is false is correct
a stressful situation. _x000D_
2. An individual's prospect of the situation and his/her
abilities to _x000D_
cope with it will determine the type and strength of
stress.
2730 40 1 0
Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot 1, 2 and 4 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4
because he is lacking experience. Manifestations of this are correct, correct, 3 false, 3 and is false
type of stress are:_x000D_ 3 is false and 4 are 4 are
1. nervousness and chanellized attention_x000D_ false correct,
2. being rough at the controls_x000D_
3. smoke and drink much more alcohol than
usual_x000D_
4. airsickness, lack of sleep
2731 40 0 1
The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as depends on does not depends on depends on self-
stressful the depend on the level of confidence alone
individual's his capacity demand but
perception to absorb not on
of available information individual
abilities in interpretatio
comparison n of the
to the situational
situational demands
demands

2732 40 1 0
The human performance is generally constant better when better very always better in the
throughout relaxed, early in the evening than in the
the day independent morning morning
of the period
of day

2733 40 0 1
Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may increase the intensify the compensate show undesired effects
rate of effects of the for side only during night flights
alcohol drugs effects of
elimination drugs
from the
blood
2734 40 0 1
Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, when 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only 5 is 1, 2 and 3 4 and 5 are correct
he is subjected to hypoxia?_x000D_ are correct false are correct
1. Fatigue._x000D_
2. Euphoria._x000D_
3. Lack of concentration._x000D_
4. Pain in the joints._x000D_
5. Sensation of suffocation.
2735 40 0 0
Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a of 15000 FT above 10 of 10 000 FT lower than 10 000 FT
moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in when 000 FT
the blood equal to an altitude breathing
100%
oxygen
2736 40 0 1
A pilot who smokes will loose some of his capacity to 5 - 8% 0.5 - 2% 12 - 18% 20 - 25%
transport oxygen combined with hemoglobin. _x000D_
Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation
capacity would he give away when he smokes one
pack of cigarettes a day?

2737 40 1 0
 Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the a mild a a mild a mild carbon dioxide
flyer, because there are long-term and short-term carbon suppressed carbon poisoning increasing the
harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can monoxide desire to eat monoxide pilot's tolerance to
get: poisoning and drink poisoning hypoxia
increasing decreasing
the pilot´s the pilot´s
tolerance to tolerance to
hypoxia hypoxia
2738 40 0 0
Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical 1 and 3 are 1 and 3 are 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only 4 is false
factors and essential to good night vision:_x000D_ false, 2 and correct, 2 are correct
1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision 4 are correct and 4 are
performance_x000D_ false
2. An excess intake of vitamin A will improve night
vision_x000D_
performance significantly_x000D_
3. Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a
balaced diet_x000D_
containing sufficient vitamin A_x000D_
4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in
photopic _x000D_
vision but not in scotopic vision

2739 40 0 1
The consumption of medicines or other substances may 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 are Only 2 is false.
have consequences on qualification to fly for the are correct are correct, false, 1 and
following reasons:_x000D_ 4 is false 2 are
1. The desease requiring a treatment may be cause for correct.
_x000D_
disqualification._x000D_
2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the
body to a _x000D_
treatment._x000D_
3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight
safety._x000D_
4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily
immediately _x000D_
disappear when the treatment is stopped.

2740 40 1 0
Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by only 3, 4 and 2, 3 and 4 only 1 is 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are
an aviator can cause the following undesirable 5 are correct are correct correct correct
effects:_x000D_
1. Drowsiness, dizziness_x000D_
2. Dry mouth_x000D_
3. Headaches_x000D_
4. Impaired depth perception_x000D_
5. Nausea
2741 40 0 0
What do you do, when you are affected by "pilot`s 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 are Only 4 is false
vertigo"?_x000D_ are correct are correct, correct, 3
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross- 4 is false and 4 are
check._x000D_ false
2. Believe the instruments._x000D_
3. Ignore illusions._x000D_
4. Minimize head movements.
2742 40 1 0
Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate) is approx. is approx. depends on definitely depends on
0.015% per 0.3% per wether you the amount and
hour and hour get some composition of food
cannot be sleep in which has been eaten
expedited between
drinks
2743 40 1 0
 The metabolisation of alcohol can be can be is a question is quicker when used to
accelerated influenced of time it
even more by easy to
by coffee get
medication
2744 40 0 0
The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, there is the pilot is the pilot is informations from the
when contradictory buckled too performing vestibular organ in the
information tight to his an effective inner ear are ignored
between the seat and instrument
instruments cannot cross-check
and the sense the and is
vestibular attitude ignoring
organs changes of illusions
the aircraft
by his Seat-
of-the-
Pants-Sense

2745 40 1 0
Which of the following components belong to the middle Ossicles Otoliths Endolymph Semicircular canals
2746 40 ear? 1 0
Which is the audible range to human hearing? Between 16 Between 16 Between 16 Between 16 Hz and 20
MHz and 20 KHz and 20 Hz and 20 KHz
000MHz KHz MHz
2747 40 0 0
The vestibular organ reacts to gives the reacts to reacts to vibrations of
linear/angula impression pressure the cochlea
r of hearing changes in
acceleration the middle
and gravity ear

2748 40 1 0
Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for The The cochlea The The eustachian tube
the impression of angular acceleration? semicircular sacculus
canals and utriculus
2749 40 1 0
Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by The The The The cochlea
changes in gravity and linear acceleration? eustachian sacculus semicircular
tube and utriculus canals
2750 40 0 1
The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is to believe a poor the lack of to rely on instruments
the attitude instrument attention to when flying in and out of
indicator cross-check the vertical clouds
and speed
permanently indicator
transitioning
back and
forth
between
instruments
and visual
references

2751 40 0 1
What does not impair the function of the photosensitive Fast speed Oxygen Acceleration Toxic influence (alcohol,
cells? deficiency nicotine, medication)
2752 40 1 0
 Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance the primary the side medication only the primary effect
and the side effects only has no has to be considered;
effects have have to be influence on side effects are
to be considered pilot´s negligable
considered performance

2753 40 1 0
Stress management programmes usually involve: only the only the the use of the prevention and/or
removal of prevention psychoactiv the removal of stress
stress of stress e drugs
2754 40 0 0
The effect of hypoxia to vision does not is stronger is usual can only be detected
depend on with the rods stronger with when smoking tobacco
the level of the cones
illumination
2755 40 0 1
Hypoxia will effect night vision and causes at 5000 FT less than and causes the
hyperventilat day vision autokinetic phenomena
ion
2756 40 0 1
What impression do you have when outside references Objects Objects There is no It is difficult to determine
are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow and vapor)? seem to be seem to be difference the size and speed of
closer than much bigger compared objects
in reality than in with flying on
reality a clear and
sunny day

2757 40 0 0
Concerning flying and blood alcohol content the flying with up no flying flying with up flying with up to 0.15 %
following statement is correct: to 0.08 % under the to 0.05 % blood alcohol
blood influence of blood
alcohol is alcohol alcohol
safe, since
driving is
safe up to
this limit
2758 40 0 1
Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the acceleration angular vibrations vibrations from 16 Hz to
individual, can be caused by along the velocity from 1 to 18 kHz
longitudonal 100 Hz
body axis
2759 40 0 0
When assessing an individuals risk in developing Only 3 is 1, 2 and 3 1, 2, 3 and 4 2 and 3 are correct, 1
coronary artery disease, the following factors may correct, 1, 2 are correct, are correct and 4 are false
contribute:_x000D_ and 4 are 4 is false
1.obesity_x000D_ false
2.distress_x000D_
3.smoking_x000D_
4.family history
2760 40 0 0
The fovea centralis is where the the area of the area of the area of the blind spot
optic nerves best day best day (optic disc)
come vision and vision and
together with best night no night
the pupil vision vision at all

2761 40 0 0
 Flying a coordinated level turn will make the make the first give the make the blood being
seat-of-the- body`s impression pooled in the head
pants sense pressure of climb ,
feel a receptors then the
decreased feel an impression
pressure increased of descent
along the pressure
body`s along the
vertical axis body`s
vertical axis

2762 40 0 1
A stress reaction is: the non- the specific the non- the specific stimuli
specific response of specific causing a human body
response of the body to stimuli to respond
the body to every causing a
every demand human body
demand placed on a to respond
placed on a person
person
2763 40 1 0
What can a pilot do to avoid "Flicker vertigo" when flying Fly straight Switch Dim the Engage the autopilot
in the clouds? and level strobe-lights cockpit lights until breaking the clouds
and avoid off to avoid
head reflections
movements
2764 40 0 1
"Pilot's vertigo" is the is the is the announces the
condition of sensation to sensation of beginning of airsickness
dizziness keep a climbing
and/or rotation caused by a
tumbling after strong linear
sensation completing a acceleration
caused by turn
contradictory
impulses to
the central
nervous
system
(CNS)

2765 40 1 0
Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head "Flicker- "Oculogravic "Pilot`s "Nystagmus"
2766 40 movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of vertigo" illusion" vertigo" 0 0
How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered during Only 4 is 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1and 2 are correct, 3
a real or simulated instrument flight?_x000D_ correct are correct are correct and 4 are false
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-
check._x000D_
2. Always believe the instruments; never trust your
sense of feeling._x000D_
3. Ignore arising illusions._x000D_
4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to
"shake-off" _x000D_
illusions.

2767 40 0 0
 How can a pilot prevent "pilots-vertigo"? Avoid steep Practise an Use the Maintain orientation on
turns and extremely autopilot and outside visual
abrupt flight fast disregard references as long as
maneouvers scanning monitoring possible and rely upon
and maintain technique the the senses of balance..
an effective using off- instruments.
instrument center
cross check. vision.

2768 40 1 0
Through which part of the ear does the equalization of External Eustachian Cochlea Tympanic membrane
pressure take place, when altitude is changed? auditory tube
canal
2769 40 0 1
Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or will not corresponds corresponds makes the pilot to pull up
false reactions in a pilot lacking visual contact to the stimulate the with the with the the nose to compensate
ground, because this sensation "seat-of-the- sensation a sensation a for level flight
pants" sense pilot gets pilots gets,
when when flying
starting a straight and
climb or level or
performing a starting a
level turn descent

2770 40 0 1
A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired Concentrate Depend on Depend on Reduce rate of breathing
(dust, smoke, snow). What is the correct action to on the information the until all symptoms
prevent vertigo? vertical from the instruments disappear, then breathe
speedomete semicircular normal again
r canals of the
inner ear,
because
those are
the only
ones giving
correct
information

2771 40 0 0
When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of radial linear vertical angular acceleration
acceleration will be acceleration acceleration acceleration
2772 40 0 0
What is understood by air-sickness? A sensory An illness An illness An illness caused by an
conflict caused by caused by infection of the middle
within the evaporation reduced air ear
vestibular of gases in pressure
system the blood
accompanie
d by nausea,
vomiting and
fear

2773 40 1 0
Vibrations can cause blurred vision. _x000D_ photosensiti eyeballs optic nerve cristalline lens
2774 40 This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of the: ve cells 0 1
 Vibrations within the frequency band of 1/10 to 2 Hertz interfere with make the upset the interfere with those of
are a factor contributing to air-sickness, because they the stomach and vestibular the own blood thus
frequencies its contents apparatus causing circulation
of the vibrating at problems
central the same
nervous frequency
system
2775 40 0 0
What should a pilot do if he has no information about be aware make a be aware make an instrument
the dimensions of the runway and the condition of the that visual that approach and be aware
terrain underneath the approach? He should approaches approach approaches of the illusory effects that
over and call the over water can be induced
downsloping tower for always make
terrain will assistance the pilot feel
make him that he is
believe that lower than
he is higher actual height
than actual

2776 40 0 0
The probability to suffer from air-sickness is higher, the the student the student the passenger or student
when passenger ist motivated has good is afraid and/or
has taken and adapted outside demotivated to fly
anti-motion to the visual
sickness specific reference
remedies stimuli of
prior flight flying

2777 40 0 0
What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 are Only 4 is correct
with passengers?_x000D_ are correct are correct, correct, 1
1. Avoid turbulences._x000D_ 4 is false and 2 are
2. Avoid flying through rough weather._x000D_ false
3. Seat passenger close to the center of
gravity._x000D_
2778 40 4. Give pertinent information. 1 0
Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling Flying Climbing Turning into Descending and turning
out of a coordinated level turn? straight and the original into the opposite
level direction direction
2779 40 0 0
You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), high low low high approach with
to an international airport (runway width 45 m). On approach approach approach overshoot
reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a: with with with
undershoot overshoot undershoot
2780 40 0 0
A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 not only 4 is 1, 2 and 3 are correct
8.000 feet. You advise him to:_x000D_ are correct advisable correct
1. unbuckle and massage the belly_x000D_
2. stand up and let go the gases out of the
intestines_x000D_
3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonhydrated
beverages _x000D_
before flight in the future_x000D_
4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight

2781 40 0 0
Excessive exposure to noise damages: the ossicles the eardrum the sensitive the semi circular canals
membrane
in the
cochlea

2782 40 0 0
A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit barotrauma pressure coriolis autokinetic illusion
2783 40 floor during a tight turn, experiences: vertigo illusion 0 0
 Empty field myopia is caused by: ozone at flying over lack of atmospheric perspective
altitude mountainous distant focal
terrain points
2784 40 0 0
When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for the colour of the light is the size of the intensity of the light
several seconds in the dark he might get the illusion the light is moving the lightis is varying
that: varying varying
2785 40 0 1
When you stare at a single light against the dark (f.e. an autokinetic black hole coriolis leans
isolated star) you will find the light appears to move phenomeno illusion illusion
after some time. This phenomenon is called: n
2786 40 1 0
Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: _x000D_ 1,2 and 3 1,3 and 4 1,2,3 and 4 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1
1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by are correct, are correct, are correct is false
infection or trauma _x000D_ 4 is false 2 is false
2. a damage of the auditory nerve _x000D_
3. an obstruction in the auditory duct _x000D_
4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
2787 40 0 0
The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during being too being too being too climbing
approaches at night and over water, jungle or desert. low, flying a high and too close,
When the pilot is lacking of visual cues other than those steeper far away, landing long
of the aerodrome there is an illusion of approach dropping low
than normal and landing
short

2788 40 0 1
The Eustachian tube connects: the middle the middle the auditory the semi circular canals
ear and the ear and the duct and the
inner ear pharynx inner ear
2789 40 0 1
You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) high low low high approach with
to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On reaching approach approach approach overshoot
your destination there is a risk of performing a: with with with
undershoot overshoot undershoot
2790 40 0 0
1. In case of conflicting information you can always trust 1 is correct, 1 and 2 are 1 is false, 2 1 and 2 are correct
your _x000D_ 2 is false false is correct
Seat- of-the-Pants-Sense._x000D_
2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory
organs_x000D_
and the instruments you must believe the
instruments.
2791 40 0 0
How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By moving the looking maintaining believing your body
head into outside a good senses only.
the direction whenever instrument
of the possible cross check.
resultant ignoring the
vertical. attitude
indicator.
2792 40 0 0
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or Tilt your Rely on the Get adapted Rely entirely on the
overcome spatial disorientation? head to the Seat-of-the- to low levels indications of the flight
side to get Pants- of instruments.
better Sense. illumination
informations before flying
from the and use off-
semicircular center vision
canals. all the time.

2793 40 0 0
 How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight? Establish Always try to Rely on Rely on the kinaesthetic
and maintain catch good sense.
a good outside situational
instrument visual cues. awareness
cross check. believing
your natural
senses.

2794 40 1 0
If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you dim the scan the use your continue on instruments
should: cockpit surrounding oxygen
lighting s mask
2795 40 0 0
Getting uneasy will effect:_x000D_ 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 are 1 and 3 are 2, 3 and 4 are correct
1. attention_x000D_ are correct correct correct
2. concentration _x000D_
3. memory _x000D_
4. prudence
2796 40 1 0
How is haze effecting your perception? Objects Objects will Haze makes Objects seem to be
seem to be give better the eyes to closer than in reality.
further away contrast. focus at
than in infinity
reality.
2797 40 1 0
Glaucoma is: disturbed disturbed high intra- disturbed colour vision
adaptation night vision ocular
pressure
2798 40 0 0
A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism change of reflex data control system
on stimulation of receptors is called: stimulation processing
level
2799 40 0 1
The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled the lens the pupil the ciliary the cornea
2800 40 by: body 0 1
When focussing on near objects: the shape of the cornea the pupil the shape of lens gets
lens gets gets smaller gets larger more spherical
flatter
2801 40 0 0
The ability of the lens to change its shape is called: binocular depth adaptation accomodation
2802 40 vision perception 0 0
The first stage in the information process is perception selective the sensory stimulation
attention recognition
of
information
2803 40 0 0
Presbyopia is: far short myopia high intraocular pressure
sightedness sightedness
linked with
age
2804 40 1 0
Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by: reduced damage of a blocked pressure differences on
mobility of the sensitive Eustachian both sides of the
the ossicles membrane tube eardrum
in the
cochlea due
to
overexposur
e to noise

2805 40 0 1
Glaucoma_x000D_ 1 and 3 are 2 and 3 are 1 is correct, 1, 2 and 3 are correct
1. can lead to total blindness_x000D_ correct, 2 is correct, 1 is 2 and 3 are
2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual false false false
field_x000D_
3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage
2806 40 0 0
 On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will be absorbed expand stay the shrink
by tissues same
and blood
2807 40 0 1
Glaucoma is characterised by: _x000D_ 2, 3 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2
1. disturbed light adaptation _x000D_ are correct , are correct are correct, is false
2. progressive narrowing of the visual field _x000D_ 1 is false 4 is false
3. insidious onset and concealed progression _x000D_
4. an increase in intra-ocular pressure
2808 40 1 0
The peripheral vision is important for: binocular colour vision detecting visual acuity
vision moving
objects
2809 40 0 0
Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is only in the it is tiring to only in the the reduction in the field
important during flight to use the scan ning technique, foveal area look peripheral of vision with decreasing
because resolution is continually area of the altitude is due to a lack
good in the same retina of vitamin A
enough to direction resolution is
see an good
object enough to
clearly see an
object
clearly

2810 40 1 0
The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is 5 minutes 10 minutes 10 seconds 25 - 30 minutes
2811 40 about: 0 0
The photosensitive cells beeing responsible for night the rods the fovea the cones the cones and the rods
2812 40 vision are called: 1 0
When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you a), b), c) and a), b) and c) a) and b) are c) and d) are correct, a)
can protect yourself from flashblindness by:_x000D_ d) are are correct, correct, c) and b) are false
a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lights_x000D_ correct d) is false and d) are
b) looking inside the cockpit_x000D_ false
c) wearing sunglasses_x000D_
d) using face blinds or face curtains when installed

2813 40 1 0
Which scanning technique should be used when flying Blink your Look with Look to the Look directly at the
at night? eyes. one eye. side (15 - 20 object.
deg) of the
object.
2814 40 0 0
Which of the following statements about long-term 2, 3 and 4 2 and 4 are 1 and 4 are 1 and 2 are correct
memory are correct?_x000D_ are correct correct correct
-1: Information is stored there in the form of descriptive,
rule-based_x000D_
and schematic knowledge._x000D_
-2: The period of time for which information is retained
is limited by_x000D_
the frequency with which this same information is
used._x000D_
-3: It processes information quickly and has an effective
mode of_x000D_
access in real time._x000D_
-4: Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow for
a reduction_x000D_
in access time.

2815 40 0 0
The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of 12 hours 48 hours 24 hours 1.5 hours
2816 40 about: 0 0
 If you are disorientated during night flying you must: look outside descend check your relay on instruments
rate of
breathing -
do not
breathe too
fast
2817 40 0 0
Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk stress decompressi hyperventilat hypoxia
of getting: on sickness ion
without
having a
decompressi
on

2818 40 0 1
Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the Judgement A small An increase When drinking coffee,
human body? and decision amount of of altitude the human body
making can alcohol decreases metabolizes alcohol at a
be affected increases the adverse faster rate than normal.
even by a visual acuity. effect of
small alcohol.
amount of
alcohol.

2819 40 1 0
Which statement is correct? _x000D_ 1,2 and 3 1 and 2 are 1 and 3 are 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is
1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from are correct correct, 3 is correct, 2 is false
coronary heart disease _x000D_ false false
2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals
pysiological altitude_x000D_
during flight_x000D_
3. Smokers have a greater chance of decreasing ung
cancer
2820 40 1 0
Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood hemoglobin carbon carbon the smoke of one
to carry oxygen. This is because: has a monoxide in monoxide cigarette can cause an
greater the smoke of increases obstruction in the
affinity for cigarettes the partial respiratory tract
carbon assists pressure of
monoxide diffusion of oxygen in
than it has oxygen in the alveoli
for oxygen the alveoli

2821 40 1 0
CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct, 1 is false, 2 is correct
cigarettes can lead to: _x000D_ both false both correct 2 is false
1. reduction of time of usefull consciousness _x000D_
2. hypoxia at a much lower altitude than normal
2822 40 0 1
After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of 5 minutes. 10 minutes. 30 to 60 15 seconds or less
2823 40 useful consciousness is about: seconds 0 0
Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as: relative altitude altitude air pressure increases
humidity increases decreases
decreases
2824 40 0 1
Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the 1 to 2 3 to 5 5 to 10 10 to 12 minutes
2825 40 time of useful consciousness would be about: minutes minutes minutes 1 0
Disturbance of the biological clock appears after 1 and 3 are 1,2,3 and 4 2 and 4 are 1,2 and 3 are correct
a:_x000D_ correct are correct correct
1. bad night's sleep _x000D_
2. day flight Amsterdam - New York _x000D_
3. day flight Amsterdam - Johannesburg_x000D_
4. night flight New York - Amsterdam
2826 40 0 0
 The effects of sleep deprivation on 1 and 3 are 1,2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 are correct
performance:_x000D_ correct are correct are correct
1. increase with altitude_x000D_
2. decrease with altitude_x000D_
3. increase with higher workload_x000D_
4. decrease with higher workload
2827 40 1 0
Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns 1 and 2 are 1 is not 1 is correct, 1 and 2 are both not
_x000D_ both correct correct, 2 is 2 is not correct
1. can lead to symptoms of drowsiness, irritability and correct correct
lack of_x000D_
concentration_x000D_
2. will make an individual more prone to make errors

2828 40 1 0
Check the following statements:_x000D_ 1 is false, 2 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct 2 is false
1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to be is correct both false both correct
aware of _x000D_
personal performance degradation_x000D_
2. Performance loss may be present up to 20 minutes
after _x000D_
awaking from a short sleep (nap)
2829 40 0 0
The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night's 1 is correct 2 1 is not 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are both correct
sleep._x000D_ is not correct correct 2 is both not
1. Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of correct correct
REM- _x000D_
sleep._x000D_
2. Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep can harm a
human being_x000D_
in the long run.
2830 40 0 0
1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep 1 is correct 2 1 and 2 are 1 is not 1 and 2 are both correct
cycle_x000D_ is not correct false correct 2 is
during the night._x000D_ correct
2. REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of
mental and _x000D_
physical functions than all the other sleep stages are.

2831 40 0 0
Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities can make will stimulate will have no may improve the mental
the brain the brain, effect at all functions, so that the
cells to be making the symptoms of hypoxia
more pilot are much better to be
susceptible resistant to identified
to hypoxia hypoxia

2832 40 1 0
Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to: 1, 2, 3, 4 are 1, 2 , 3 and 1, 2 and 4 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is
_x000D_ correct 5 are correct are correct false
1. loss of muscular power_x000D_
2. headache _x000D_
3. impaired judgement _x000D_
4. pain in the joints _x000D_
5. loss of consciousness
2833 40 0 1
 Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you You should This This This phenomenon is
experience pain in the joints. Which of following ask for symptom phenomeno treated by breathing
answers is correct? medical indicates n is treated 100% nitrogen.
advice (flight decompressi by
surgeon) on sickness physiotherap
since this is and will y.
a symptom disappear
of when you
decompressi take some
on sickness. exercise.

2834 40 1 0
Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the 1,2 and 4 2,3 and 4 1 and 2 are 1,3 and 4 are correct
extra risk of:_x000D_ are correct are correct correct
1. flatulence_x000D_
2. pain in the ear during descent_x000D_
3. pressure vertigo_x000D_
4. pain in the nasal sinuses
2835 40 0 1
Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can hypoxia pain in the bends chokes
2836 40 you expect: sinuses 0 1
Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by: increasing using an leveling off blocking the effected ear
the rate of oxygen and possibly with the palm of your
descent mask climbing hand
2837 40 0 0
The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during a volume of the total the the quantity of a gas
decompression can be explained by the principle that: gas is pressure of molecules of dissolved in a fluid is
inversely a mixture of a gas will proportional to the
proportional gases is move from pressure of that gas
to the equal to the an area of above the fluid (Henry's
pressure of sum of the higher Law)
this gas at partial concentratio
constant pressures of n or partial
temperature the separate pressure to
(Boyle's law) gases an area of
(Dalton's lower
Law) concentratio
n or partial
pressure
(law of
diffusion)

2838 40 0 0
Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a chokes creeps leans bends
2839 40 decompression is called: 0 0
Which symptom does not belong to the following list: bends chokes creeps leans
2840 40 0 0
After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you 6 hours 12 hours 48 hours 24 hours
have to wait a period of time before flying again. This
period is at least:
2841 40 0 0
Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, chokes bends creeps leans
2842 40 following a decompression are called: 1 0
A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress coping eustress stressors distress (stress
2843 40 factors can perceive: stress reactions) 0 0
 Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased only 4 is 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 are 1, 3 and 4 are correct
by:_x000D_ correct are correct correct
1. SCUBA-Diving_x000D_
2. Obesity_x000D_
3. Age_x000D_
4. Body height
2844 40 0 1
Decompression symptoms are caused by: low oxygen release of dissolved low carbon dioxide
pressure of locked gases from pressure of inhaled air
inhaled air gases from tissues and
joints fluids of the
body
2845 40 0 0
In the event of rapid decompression the first action for descent to transmit carry out don oxygen masks and
the flight deck crew is: the higher of mayday call check for ensure oxygen flow
10000 ft or structural
MSA damage
2846 40 0 0
After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30.000 FT informing informing preventing maintaining aircraft
the first action of the pilot shall be: ATC the cabin panic of the control and preventing
crew passengers hypoxia (use of oxygen
mask)
2847 40 0 0
The following actions are appropriate when faced with 1, 2 and 3 1 and 4 are 1 and 3 are 2, 3 and 4 are correct
symptoms of decompression sickness:_x000D_ are correct correct correct
1. climb to higher level_x000D_
2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as
soon as_x000D_
possible_x000D_
3. breathe 100 % oxygen_x000D_
4. get medical advice about recompression after landing

2848 40 0 0
Decompression sickness can be prevented by:_x000D_ 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 are only 3 is correct
1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18 000 FT_x000D_ are correct are correct correct, 4 is
2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when false
flying at high _x000D_
altitudes_x000D_
3. performing physical exercises before and during the
flight_x000D_
4. breathing 100 % oxygen for 30 min prior and during
the flight

2849 40 1 0
What is the TUC at 20 000 FT? 1to 2 hours 5 to 10 about 30 1 to 2 minutes
2850 40 minutes minutes 0 0
The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin bends chokes leans creeps
2851 40 following a decompression are called: 0 0
Hypoxia can be caused by:_x000D_ 1 is false, 2, 1, 2, 3 are 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 are correct, 3
1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere 3 and 4 are correct, 4 is are correct and 4 are false
when flying at_x000D_ correct false
high altitudes without pressurisation and
supplemental oxygen_x000D_
2. a decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to
carbon_x000D_
monoxide attached to the hemoglobin_x000D_
3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+
Gz)_x000D_
4. malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen
(i.e. after_x000D_
a hangover)

2852 40 0 0
 Which of the following factors may have an influence on High blood Blood Low blood High and low blood
medical disqualification? pressure pressure pressure pressure as well as a
only. problems only. poor condition of the
cannot occur circulatory system.
in aircrew
because
they always
can be
treated by
in-flight
medication.

2853 40 0 0
Hypoxia can also be caused by a lack of too much increasing a lack of red blood cells
nitrogen in carbon oxygen in the blood or
ambient air dioxide in partial decreased ability of the
the blood pressure hemoglobin to transport
used for the oxygen
exchange of
gases

2854 40 0 0
Which statement applies to hypoxia? it is possible sensitivity carbon you may become
to prognose and reaction monoxide immune to hypoxia when
when, how to hypoxia increases exposed repeatedly to
and where varies from the hypoxia
hypoxia person to tolerance of
reaction person the brain to
starts to set oxygen
in deficiency

2855 40 0 1
A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation altitude symptoms cyanosis there are great
is: hypoxia is caused by (blue color differences between the
very unlikely hyperventilat of finger-nail two
at cabin ion will and lips)
pressure immediately exists only in
altitudes vanish when hypoxia
above 10 100%
000 ft oxygen is
given

2856 40 0 0
Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ? Pain in the Low blood Excessive Lack of concentration,
joints pressure rate and fatigue, euphoria
depth of
breathing
combined
with pains in
the chest
area
2857 40 0 0
In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia Visual Nausea and Dull Dizziness, hypothermia.
and carbon monoxide poisoning. _x000D_ disturbances barotitis. headache
Please mark those indicating hypoxia: , lack of and bends.
concentratio
n, euphoria.

2858 40 1 0
A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and 16 000 ft 18 000 ft 38 000 ft 22 000 ft
without using supplemental oxygen will pass the "critical
threshold" at approximately:
2859 40 0 0
 A pilot will get hypoxia if he is flying after after if his rate of climb
an decompressi decompressi exceeds 5 000 ft/min
unpressurize on at high on to 30 000
d airplane at altitude and feet and
an altitude of not taking taking 100 %
15 000 feet additional oxygen via
and oxygen in an oxygen
breathing time mask
100 %
oxygen

2860 40 0 1
Breathing 100% will lift the pilot's physiological safe 10 000 22 000 ft 45 000 ft 38 000 ft
2861 40 altitude to approximately: 0 0
Hypoxia is caused by a higher reduced reduced an increased number of
affinity of the partial partial red blood cells
red blood oxygen pressure of
cells pressure in nitrogen in
(hemoglobin the lung the lung
) to oxygen

2862 40 0 1
Large amounts of carbon dioxide are eliminated from to become to turn more to accelerate not to change at all
the body when hyperventilating. This causes the blood more acid thus the oxygen
alkaline eliminating supply to the
increasing more brain
the amount oxygen from
of oxygen to the
be attached hemoglobin
to the
hemoglobin
at lung area

2863 40 1 0
Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by the blood attaching attaching the hemoglobin in the
plasma itself to the itself to the red blood cells
hemoglobin hemoglobin
in the red in the white
blood blood cells
plasma
2864 40 0 0
How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz ? Tighten Take an Relax the Tightening of muscles,
shoulder upright seat muscles, ducking the head and
harness. position. ducking the perform a kind of
head and pressure breathing.
lean upper
body
forward.
2865 40 0 0
The negative (radial) acceleration of an airplane affects the vertical the the the vertical body axis
the sitting pilot with inertia along : body axis transverse transverse upwards
downwards body axis to body axis to
the right the left
2866 40 0 0
"Grey out" can be observed if a pilot is subjected to - 3 Gz + 3 Gx + 3 Gy + 3 Gz
2867 40 more than: 0 0
The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision are the rods are the are rods and is the cornea
2868 40 cones cones 1 0
 Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying Since the Hypoxia Hypoxia The pilot may loose
solo? first signs of does not improves control when he is using
hypoxia are cause a loss vision at the oxygen mask.
generally of control in night, so the
hard to steering the pilot will
detect plane. have no
(hypoxia of indication of
the brain), danger.
the solo pilot
may not be
able to react
in time (i.e.
activate his
emergency
oxygen
system)

2869 40 1 0
The impression of an apparent movement of light "autokinesis" "white out" "oculogyral "oculografic illusion"
when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the illusion"
dark is called
2870 40 1 0
The proprioceptive senses ("Seat of-the-Pants-Sense") give wrong is a natural can be used, can neither be used for
information, human if trained, to motor coordination in
when instinct, avoid spatial IMC and VMC
outside always disorientatio
visual indicating n in IMC
reference is the correct
lost attitude
2871 40 1 0
Pilot stress reactions : seem to be are related do not differ from pilot to pilot,
always the to an change with depending on how a
same for internationall the person manages the
most pilots y recognized environment particular stressors
list of or different
stressors situations
where the but mainly
top-ten with the
items should characters
be avoided themselves
by all means

2872 40 0 0
Which of the following is NOT an hazardous attitude? Anti- Impulsivity Domination Macho
2873 40 authority 0 0
The trend in airplane hull-loss rate over the last three the year of the crew the the number of engines
decades seems to be related to : manufacture manufacture
r
2874 40 0 1
The area in front of a threshold descends towards the approach is to misjudge approach is to drop far below the
threshold._x000D_ lower than the length of higher than glide path
Possible danger is: normal and the runway normal and
may result in may result in
a short a long
landing landing
2875 40 0 0
 A pilot approaching an upslope runway is establishes establishes may feel that he is
performing a a higher a slower higher than actual. This
steeper than than normal than normal illusion may cause him
normal approach approach to land short.
approach, speed speed with
landing long the risk of
stalling out
2876 40 0 0
Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for Lack of The Dizziness. Lack of adaptation.
conducting safe flight ? accomodatio interference
n. of reasoning
and
perceptive
functions.

2877 40 0 1
2878 40 The time for dark adaptation is 1/10 sec 10 min 30 min 10 sec 0 0
Which statement is correct ? Oxygen The blood The gradient Oxygen diffusion from
diffusion plasma is of diffusion the lungs into the blood
from the transporting is higher at does not depend on
blood into the oxygen. altitude than partial oxygen pressure.
the cells it is at sea-
depends on level.
their partial
oxygen
pressure
gradient.

2879 40 1 0
A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways a flatter than the risk to an early or a steeper than normal
only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to normal land short of high "round approach dropping low
: approach the overrun out"
with the risk
of "ducking
under"

2880 40 0 0
Autokinesis is the the change the the apparent movement
phenomeno in diameter automatical of a static single light
n of spinning of the pupil, adjustment when stared at for a
lights after when of the relatively long period of
the abuse of looking in crystalline time in the dark
alcohol the dark lens to
objects
situated at
different
distances

2881 40 0 0
To prevent the "autokinetic phenomena", the following turn down look out for fixate the look sideways to the
can be done: cabin light additional source of source of light for better
and shake references light, first fixation
head inside and/or with one
simultaneou outside the eye, then
sly cockpit using with the
peripheral other
vision also

2882 40 0 1
 A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, The light The source The source The source of light is
dust or haze). What kind of sensation could the pilot source will of light of light approaching him with
get? make the moves away stands still increasing speed
pilot believe, from him
that he is
climbing

2883 40 0 1
With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal finger nails more peripherical an increased amount of
or overstress: and lips will oxygen will and scotopic carbon dioxide is
turn blue reach the vision will be exhaled causing
("cyanosis") brain improved muscular spasms and
even unconsciousness

2884 40 0 0
When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due a delay in the less oxygen a poor saturation of
to high arousal or overstress, the carbon dioxide level in the onset of activation of to be oxygen in the blood
the blood is lowered, resulting in: hypoxia the diffused into
when flying respiratory the cells
at high centre,
altitudes which in turn
causes
hypoxia

2885 40 0 0
The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude breathlessne euphoria hyperventilat sensation of heat and
are ss and and ion blurred vision
reduced impairment
night vision of
judgement
2886 40 0 1
Which problem may occur, when flying in an improbable difficult to impossible no problem to estimate
environment of low contrast (fog, snow, darkness, to get visual estimate the to detect the correct speed and
haze)?_x000D_ illusions correct objects size of approaching
Under these conditions it is: speed and objects
size of
approaching
objects
2887 40 0 1
Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the The The cochlea The The sacculus and
perception of noise? eustachian semicircular utriculus
tube canals
2888 40 0 1
"Tunnel vision" (loss of peripherical vision) can be - 3.5 Gz + 3.5 Gx - 3.5 Gy + 3.5 Gz
2889 40 observed if a pilot is subjected to more than: 0 0
When the pilot suffers from hypothermia (loss of cabin his need for his oxygen his oxygen his oxygen need will be
heating): oxygen will need will not need will be raised and his tolerance
be increased be affected reduced to hypoxia will be
as long as giving him a increased
he stays better
conscious tolerance to
hypoxia at
higher
altitudes

2890 40 1 0
To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude Approximate Approximate Approximate Approximately 38 000 ft.
is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen plus pressure ly 14 000 ft. ly 20 000 ft. ly 45 000 ft.
after a rapid decompression ?
2891 40 0 0
 You can survive at any altitude, provided that 21% oxygen pressure the enough oxygen,
is available respiration is temperature pressure and heat is
in the air you guaranteed in the cabin available
breath in for that does not
altitude drop below
10" C

2892 40 0 0
At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without Approximate 22 000 ft Approximate Approximately 38 - 40
pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected? ly 10 - 12 ly 35 000 ft. 000 ft.
000 ft.
2893 40 0 0
Breathing 100% oxygen at 38000 ft is equivalent to 18 000 ft 10 000 ft 8 000 ft 14 000 ft
2894 40 breathe ambient air at : 0 1
The atmosphere contains the following gases: 78% 78% 78% helium, 78% helium, 21%
nitrogen, nitrogen, 21% oxygen, oxygen, 0,03% carbon
21% 21% oxygen, 1% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases
oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide,
0,03% monoxide, rest: rare
carbon rest: rare gases
dioxide, rest: gases
rare gases

2895 40 1 0
The atmospheric gas pressure rises with decreases decreases drops faster at lower
altitude linear with slower at altitudes in comparison
altitude lower to the same altitude
altitudes changes at higher
compared altitudes
with higher
levels and
equivalent
altitude
changes

2896 40 0 0
The earth's atmosphere consists of different gases in 1D, 2C, 3B, 1D, 2C, 3A, 1B, 2A, 3D, 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
various concentration. Match the following:_x000D_ 4A 4B 4C
_x000D_
1 nitrogen A 0,03%_x000D_
2 oxygen B 0,92%_x000D_
3 carbon dioxide C 20.95%_x000D_
4 rare gas D 78,10%

2897 40 0 1
Which part of the ear could be affected due to air The The The cochlea The sacculus and
pressure changes during climb and/or descent? eustachian semicircular utriculus
tube and the canals
tympanic
membrane
(ear drum)

2898 40 1 0
The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor movements relative gravity angular accelerations
with speed and
constant linear
speeds acceleration
s
2899 40 0 0
Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and Gravity Linear Angular Gravity and linear
sacculus? alone acceleration acceleration acceleration
and angular
acceleration

2900 40 0 0
 The eustachian tube is the passage way between the nose, sinuses and nasopharynx nose, pharynx and inner
pharynx and the pharynx and the ear
the external middle ear
auditory
canal

2901 40 0 0
The retina of the eye is the light- filters the is the only regulates the light
sensitive UV-light muscle, that falls into the eye
inner lining changing the
of the eye size of the
containing crystalline
the lens
photorecept
ors essential
for vision

2902 40 1 0
In order to completely resynchronise with local time less time more time about one about one week per 2.5
after zone crossing, circadian rhythms require when flying when flying day per 2.5 hours of time shift
from east to from east to hours of
west west time shift
2903 40 1 0
When oxygen is beeing transferred from the blood into external ventilation hyperventilat internal respiration
the tissues and carbon dioxide from the body cells into respiration ion
the blood, it is called:
2904 40 0 0
A certain amount of water vapor saturated air (i.e. larger smaller constant first larger, then smaller
intestinal gases) is transported from sea-level up to 34
000 ft. In the same amount of dry air, the volume of this
gas is :
2905 40 1 0
In the following list you will find several symptoms listed Headache, High levels Euphoria, Muscular spasms,
for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. _x000D_ increasing of arousal, accomodatio mental confusion,
Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide nausea, increased n problems, impairment of hearing.
poisoning. dizziness. error blurred
proneness, vision.
lack of
accuracy.
2906 40 1 0
In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external Carbon Carbon Ambient air. Oxygen.
respiration). Which gas will diffuse from the blood into monoxide. dioxide.
the lungs?
2907 40 0 1
The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled the amount the amount the total the amount of carbon
by: of carbon of nitrogen atmospheric dioxide in the blood
monoxide in in the blood pressure
the blood
2908 40 0 0
An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the a reduction an improving shortness of a decrease of acidity in
blood leads to: of red blood resistance to breath the blood
cells hypoxia
2909 40 0 0
Which of the following is true concerning carbon It has no It is always It is to be It combines 5 times
monoxide? physiological present in found in the faster to the hemoglobin
effect when the lungs. smoke of than oxygen.
mixed with cigarettes
oxygen. lifting up a
smoker's
"physiologic
al altitude".

2910 40 0 0
Affinity to hemoglobin is best with: nitrogen oxygen carbon carbon monoxide
2911 40 dioxide 0 0
 Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in Blood fat. Hemoglobin White blood Plasma.
the blood? in the red cells.
blood cells.
2912 40 0 1
Fatigue and permanent concentration lower the increase the do not affect will increase the
tolerance to tolerance to hypoxia at tolerance to hypoxia
hypoxia hypoxia all when flying below 15
000 feet
2913 40 1 0
Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide The human Inhaling Several A very early symptom for
poisoning? body shows carbon days are realising carbon
no sign of monoxide needed to monoxide poisoning is
carbon leads to recuperate euphoria.
monoxide hyperventilat from a
poisoning. ion. carbon
monoxide
poisoning.
2914 40 0 0
The fovea is an area in is sensitive is an area in is the area responsible
which cones to very low which rods for night vision
predominate intensities of predominate
light

2915 40 1 0
Carbon monoxide poisoning only occurs occurs only is more likely is more likely to occur in
in jet-driven above 15 to occur in aeroplanes with twin-
aeroplanes degrees aeroplanes engines because of high
OAT where the engine efficiency
cabin heat is
technically
supplied by
coating the
exhaust

2916 40 0 0
Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous Small Carbon Carbon With increasing altitude
during flying. _x000D_ amounts of monoxide is monoxide the negative effects of
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? carbon odourless increases carbon monoxide
monoxide and cannot the oxygen poisoning will be
are be smelled. saturation in compensated.
harmless. the blood.

2917 40 0 1
The respiratory process consists mainly of the diffusion the the the transportation of
of oxygen transportatio transportatio carbon dioxide to the cell
through the n of oxygen n of oxygen and elimination of
respiratory to the cell to the cell oxygen
membranes and the and the
into the elimination elimination
blood, of carbon of nitrogen
transportatio monoxide
n to the
cells,
diffusion into
the cells and
elimination
of carbon
dioxide from
the body

2918 40 1 0
 The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of 21% 5% 10,5% 42%
approximately _x000D_
34 000 ft is :
2919 40 1 0
The following applies for the physical properties of at an altitute at sea-level at an altitude a water vapor saturated
gases: of 63 000 ft a gas has of 18 000 ft gas at 34 000 ft has 6
water will 1/3 of the a gas times its volume as it
boil at volume it volume is would have at sea-level
temperature would have three times
of 65°C at 27000 ft as large as it
would be at
sea-level

2920 40 0 1
The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is increases is dependent is constant decreases with
21% which with on the for all increasing altitude
increasing present air altitudes
altitude pressure conventional
airplanes
can reach
2921 40 0 0
Gases of physiological importance to man are: oxygen and nitrogen and oxygen and oxygen, nitrogen and
carbon carbon carbon water vapor
dioxide dioxide monoxide
2922 40 1 0
The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is independent depending dependent the excess pressure
from the on the active on the caused by inhaling
partial transportatio pressure
pressures of n of nitrogen gradient
the into the between the
participating alveoli participating
gases gases during
respiration

2923 40 0 0
The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more with colds after a with colds with colds and fast
likely to occur and slow decompressi and rapid climbs
ascents on descents
2924 40 0 0
Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) is only is an is only is caused by a difference
caused by irritation of caused by in pressure existing
the flying sinuses by colds and between the sinus cavity
sport, not by abuse of their effects and the ambient air
the diving nose sprays
sport
2925 40 0 0
Sensory input to the "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is given pressure of subcutaneou blood acceleration of the
by the heart on s pressure rushing into stomach (nausea)
the receptors legs
diaphragm and
kinesthetic
muscle
activity
sensors

2926 40 0 1
The so-called "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is useful for the only not suitable only to be used by
instrument sense a pilot for spatial experienced pilots with
and contact can rely on, orientation the permission to fly in
flight when flying when IMC
in IMC outside
visual
references
are lost
2927 40 0 0
 The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) allow the are are indicate the difference
are important for motor coordination. _x000D_ pilot to important completely between gravity and G-
They determine senses for unreliable forces
the absolute flight training for
vertical at in IMC orientation
flight when flying
condition in IMC

2928 40 0 0
The maximum number of unrelated items that can be about 30 unlimited about 7 very limited - only 3
2929 40 stored in working memory is: items items items 0 0
A barotrauma of the middle ear is a dilatation an infection an acute or a bacterial infection of
of the of the middle chronic the middle ear
eustachian ear caused trauma of
tube by rapid the middle
decompressi ear caused
on by a
difference of
pressure on
either side of
the eardrum

2930 40 0 0
Orientation in flight is accomplished by_x000D_ 2, 3 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 are correct , 1
1. eyes_x000D_ are false, are correct are correct is false
2. utriculus and sacculus_x000D_ only 1 is
3. semicircular canals_x000D_ correct
4. Seat-of-the-pants-Sense
2931 40 0 1
The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in muscles, semicircular utriculus and skin of the breech only
the tendons and canals sacculus
joints
sensitive to
the position
and
movement
of body
parts

2932 40 1 0
What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic Not smoke Avoid food Wait at least Select meals with high
vision)? before start containing 60 minutes contents of vitamin B
and during high to night- and C
flight and amounts of adapt before
avoid flash- vitamin A he takes off
blindness
2933 40 1 0
Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied pain in the a reduction dizziness noises in the ear
by joints in hearing
ability and
the feeling of
increasing
pressure

2934 40 0 1
Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur when in sudden when during a long high
climbing steep turns descending altitude flight
rapidly
2935 40 0 0
 Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use Stop Increase the Stop Use drugs against a cold
against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis). descending, rate of chewing and
climb again descent swallowing
and then movements
descend ("Valsalva")
with reduced
sink rate

2936 40 1 0
Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain. More At lower Only in During descent as well
_x000D_ frequent altitudes. pressurized as during climb, when
When is this the case? when flying aircraft when the cabin pressure
above 18 flying at altitude is exceeding 2
000 FT in a higher flight 000 FT
non- levels.
pressurized
aircraft.
2937 40 1 0
A barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis) is more is only causes is to be expected during
likely, when caused by severe pain rapid decompressions,
the pilot is large in the but an emergency
flying with a pressure sinuses descent immediately
respiratory changes following the
infection and during climb decompression will
during eliminate the problem
descent

2938 40 1 0
At a high altitude flight (no cabin pressure system climb to a perform use descend to lower altitude
available), a pilot gets severe flatulence due to trapped higher "valsalva supplementa
gases. The correct counter-measure is: altitude maneouvre" l oxygen
2939 40 0 0
One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression are the are the is a shock are neurological
sickness emerging after a decompression in airline bends chokes damages to the CNS
operation
2940 40 1 0
Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle you breath barotrauma the the nose is pinched
ear and the ambient, when: through the exists in the eustachian
mouth sinuses tube is
blocked
2941 40 0 0
Adaptation is the reflection the the the change of the
of the light at adjustment adjustment diameter of the pupil
the cornea of the of the eyes
crystalline to high or
lens to focus low levels of
light on the illumination
retina

2942 40 0 0
The mechanism of accomodation is caused by: the the diameter the the elasticity of the optic
functioning of the pupil functioning nerves
of the of the ciliary
muscles of muscle
the eye aroud the
lens

2943 40 0 0
 Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor can be can be should be can cause spatial
blades neglected avoided avoided, disorientation and/or
when the because it nausea, when looked at
strobe-lights may destroy for a longer period of
are switched the optical time
on nerve

2944 40 0 0
A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When greater lower height greater lower than actual height
approaching a smaller and/or narrower runway, the pilot height and and the height than with the tendency to
may feel he is at a the impression he actually is overshoot
impression of landing with the
of landing slow tendency to
short land short
2945 40 0 0
Approaches at night without visual references on the lower than lower than higher than higher than actual
ground and no landing aids (e.g. VASIS) can make the actual actual actual altitude with the risk of
pilot believe of beeing altitude with altitude with altitude with overshooting
the risk of the risk of the risk of
overshooting ducking landing short
under ("ducking
under")

2946 40 0 0
Scanning at night should be performed by: scanning concentrate avoiding slight eye movements to
with one eye d fixation on food the side of the object
open an object containing
(image must Vitamin A
fall on the
fovea
centralis)

2947 40 0 0
Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night- Vitamin A is Accomodati Vitamin A The transfer of light
blindness? essential to on is deficiency stimulus from the rods to
the destroyed interrupts a nerve impulse
regeneration the oxygen depends on vitamin A
of visual supply to the
purple photosensiti
ve cells

2948 40 1 0
Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay- LT (local MEZ (middle ZT (zonal UTC (universal time
over of 4 days. What time measure is relevant for your time). european time). coordinated).
circadian rhythm on the 3. day? time).
2949 40 1 0
The time required for complete adaptation is for high for day and for night 10 for high levels of
levels of night: 30 min sec and for illumination 10 sec and
illumination day 30 min for full dark adaptation
10 minutes 30 min
and for low
levels of
illumination
30 minutes
2950 40 0 0
How can you determine if a person is suffering from a Barotrauma There is no Hearing Aerosinusitis will never
barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) or of the middle difference difficulties develop during descent
the middle ear (aerotitis) ? ear will not will normally
effect accompany
hearing aerotitis

2951 40 0 0
 Depth perception when objects are close (< 1 m) is seeing with good visual the "blind spot" at the
achieved through two eyes visibility only memory only retina
(binocular
vision)
2952 40 1 0
What misjudgement may occur if an airplane is flying Objects will Objects Objects Objects will appear
into fog, snow or haze? appear seem to seem to be closer than they really
bigger in move slower farther away are
size than in than in than in
reality reality reality

2953 40 0 0
Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses) are ideal, as are can have are generally forbidden
long as advantageo disadvantag for pilots
there are no us for pilots es when
polarisation used in the
effects cockpit due
to their
dependence
on ultraviolet
light which is
screened by
the cockpit
glass

2954 40 0 0
Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC can cause will improve will effect the can cause disorientation
colour- the pilots pilots
illusions depth binocular
perception vision
2955 40 0 0
The "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense" can be used, can be used can give is a natural human
if trained, to as a false inputs instinct which will always
avoid reference for to body indicate the correct body
disorientatio determining orientation position in space
n in space attitude when visual
when reference is
operating in lost
visual and
instrument
meteorologic
al conditions

2956 40 0 0
What are easily observable indications of stress? Lowering of Faster, deep Rising of the Perspiration, flushed
the blood inhalation, blood skin, dilated pupils, fast
pressure. stabbing pressure, breathing.
pain around pupils
the heart. narrowing,
stabbing
pain around
the heart.
2957 40 0 0
Why should a pilot turn his attention to the instruments pressure perception his attention the danger of a "greying
when approaching on a snowed up, foggy or cloudy differences of distance will be out" will make it
winterday? Because can cause and speed is distracted impossible to determine
the altimeter difficult in an automaticall the height above the
to give environment y under terrain
wrong of low these
information contrast conditions

2958 40 0 1
 The requirement of good sunglasses is to absorb fit to the eliminate increase the time for
enough pilots distortion in dark adaptation
visible light individual aircraft
to eliminate taste windshields
glare without
decreasing
visual acuity,
absorb UV
and IR
radiation
and absorb
all colors
equally

2959 40 1 0
What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required 1,2,3,4 and 1and 5 are 1,2,3 and 4 Only 2 and 3 are correct
by physical need)?_x000D_ 5 are correct both false are correct,
1. Pressure breathing._x000D_ 5 is false
2. Anxiety or fear._x000D_
3. Overstress._x000D_
4. Strong pain._x000D_
5. Jogging.
2960 40 0 0
Barodontalgia arises only even arises arises in arises especially with
at higher with healthy combination irritations of the sensitive
altitudes and teeth with a cold tissues close to the root
after and very of a tooth
decompressi high rates of
on descent
2961 40 0 0
Where is the "critical threshold" at which a pilot not It38000 FT 22000 FT. 18000 FT It25000 FT
using oxygen reaches the critical or lethal zone?
_x000D_
It starts at:
2962 40 0 1
At what altitude ("threshold for compensatory 8000-9000 9000-10000 10000- 6000-7000 FT
reactions") does the human organism start with FT FT 12000 FT
remarkable measures to compensate for the drop in
pO2 when climbing?_x000D_
At about:
2963 40 0 0
Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because: not enough oxygen blood oxygen saturation of the
time is left to saturation of circulation to blood is decreased
exchange the blood is the brain is
oxygen in increased slowed down
the lungs and the
brain will be
supplied
with more
blood than
normal

2964 40 0 0
A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of there is a he is flying a there is an the pilot is emotionally
time may even get unconscious. _x000D_ low CO- tight turn increased aroused
Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when: pressure in blood flow to
the blood the brain
2965 40 0 0
What could cause hyperventilation ? Abuse of Extreme low Fatigue Fear, anxiety and
alcohol rate of distress
breathing
2966 40 0 0
Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be 38000 FT 45000 FT 60000 FT 80000 FT
2967 40 sufficient up to an altitude of: 1 0
 Which of the following could a pilot experience when he 1,2 and 3 1,2 and 4 1 is false, all 2 and 4 are false
is hyperventilating?_x000D_ are correct, are correct, others are
1. Dizziness_x000D_ 4 is false 3 is false correct
2. Muscular spasms_x000D_
3. Visual disturbances_x000D_
4. Cyanosis
2968 40 1 0
TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) is: the time the length of the time the time after pressure
between the time during before loss until decompression
start of which an becoming sickness sets in
hypoxia and individual unconscious
death can act with at a sudden
both mental pressure
and physical loss
efficiency
and
alertness;
measured
from the
moment at
which he is
exposed to
hypoxia

2969 40 0 1
Out of the list of possible measures to counteract avoid speak breathe into hold breath
hyperventilation, the most effective measure against strenuous soothingly a plastic or
hyperventilation tetany is: flight and get the paper bag
manoeuvres person to
breathe
slowly
2970 40 0 0
Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning Slow heart Slow rate of Cyanosis Dizzy feeling
hyperventilation? beat breathing (blueing of
lips and
finger nails)
2971 40 0 0
The readjustment of the biological rhythms after a time with flights with flights with flights with flights towards the
shift is normally more difficult towards the towards the towards the West
North South East
2972 40 0 0
The process of responding to a sender by confirming feedback redundancy synchronizat transference
2973 40 the reception of a message is called ion 1 0
Which combination of elements guarantee the Coding. Synchronizat Encoding. Feedback.
understanding of a message without adding new ion.
information to it?
2974 40 0 0
Attitudes are defined as: the the genetic a synonym tendencies to respond to
conditions predispositio for people, institutions or
necessary ns for behaviour events either positively
for carrying thinking and or negatively
out an acting
activity
2975 40 0 0
When the optical image forms in front of the retina; we myopia hypermetrop presbyopia astigmatism
2976 40 are talking about ia 1 0
 A good method to treat hyperventilation is to: excecute the close the talk oneself don an oxygen mask
valsalva eyes and through the
manoeuvre relax relevant
procedure
aloud to
emotionally
calm down
and reduce
the rate of
breathing
simultaneou
sly

2977 40 0 0
Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving is forbidden can cause prevents any has no influence on
equipment (> 10 m depth) for the flight decompressi dangers altitude flights
crew, on sicknesss caused by
because it even when aeroembolis
leads to flying at m
hypoxia pressure (decompres
altitudes sion
below 18 sickness)
000 FT when
climbing to
altitudes not
exceeding
30 000 FT

2978 40 0 1
What counter-measure can be used against a Close the Increase Stop Pilots should apply anti-
barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)? mouth, pinch rate of climbing, cold remedies prior
the nose descent start descent every flight to prevent
tight and barotrauma in the middle
blow out ear
thereby
increasing
the pressure
in the mouth
and throat.
At the same
time try to
swallow or
move lower
jaw
(Valsalva)

2979 40 1 0
Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach decompresio barosinusitis pressure barotitis
and intestinals can lead to: n sickness pain or
flatulence
2980 40 0 0
Disturbances of pressure equalization in air-filled ebulism hypoxia hyperventilat barotrauma
2981 40 cavities of the head (nose, ear etc.) are called: ion 0 0
The eustachian tube serves for the pressure nose and frontal, nose middle ear sinuses of the nose and
equalization between pharyngeal and and external external atmosphere
cavity and maxillary atmosphere
external sinuses
atmosphere
2982 40 0 0
 Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to cabin sudden emergency fast flights from a high-
pressure pressure descents pressure zone into a low
loss when surges in the after a cabin pressure area when
flying at cabin at pressure flying an unpressurized
higher altitudes loss aeroplane
altitudes below 18000
(above FT
18000 FT)
2983 40 1 0
Symptoms of decompression sickness are bends, are only can only are flatulence and pain
chokes, skin relevant develop at in the middle ear
manifestatio when diving altitudes of
ns, more than
neurological 40000 FT
symptoms
and
circulatory
shock

2984 40 1 0
Short term memory can already be affected when flying 15000 FT 20000 FT 8000 FT 12000 FT
2985 40 as low as: 0 0
After a decompression at high altitude temperature pressure nitrogen gas automatically oxygen is
in the differentials bubbles can deployed into the cabin
cockpit will will suck air be released
increase into the in the body
cabin fluids
causing gas
embolism,
bends and
chokes

2986 40 0 0
A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than higher than flatter than compensato compensatory glide path
normal may feel he is at a greater height than he normal normal ry glide path and stall out
actually is. To compensate he may fly a approach approach and land
with the with the long
tendency to tendency to
overshoot undershoot
2987 40 0 1
You suffered a rapid decompression without the 48 hours 12 hours 24 hours 36 hours
appearance of any decompression sickness
symptoms._x000D_
How long should you wait until your next flight?
2988 40 0 1
After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT 30 -90 10-15 3-4 minutes 5 minutes or more
the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be seconds seconds
approximately:
2989 40 1 0
Pain in the Joints ("bends"), which suddenly appear hypoxia decompressi barotrauma air-sickness
during a flight , are symptoms of on sickness
2990 40 0 1
Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed can be are allowed, should be are forbidden
gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m depth) performed if 38000 FT avoided
without any are not because
danger exceeded hypoxia may
develop

2991 40 0 0
After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of 45-60 60-90 5-15 30-45 seconds
Useful Consciousness) will be approximately: seconds seconds seconds
2992 40 0 0
 The time between inadequate oxygen supply and varies is the same is not varies individually and
incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful individually amount of dependent does not depend on
Consciousness). It and time for on physical altitude
depends on every or
cabin person psychologica
pressure l pressure
altitude
2993 40 1 0
The "Effective Performance Time" or "Time of Useful approximatel approximatel less than 20 between 30 and 60
Consciousness" after a decompression at 35 000 ft is: y 3 minutes y 5 minutes seconds seconds
2994 40 0 0
In airline operations decompression sickness symptoms may develop may develop appear only may affect people with
after a when being in air crew, defect tympanic
decompressi decompress previously membrane
on from ed from MSL engaged in
7000 FT to 15 000 FT diving
cabin activities
pressure
altitude to
30000 FT
flight altitude

2995 40 1 0
In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx):_x000D_ 2,4 1 3,4 3
- 1 : do not exist_x000D_
- 2 : have slight physiological consequences_x000D_
- 3 : may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of
consciousness_x000D_
- 4 : cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis
2996 40 1 0
Concerning the relation between performance and A moderate A student Domestic A well trained pilot is
stress, which of the following statement(s) is (are) level of will learn stress will able to eleminate any
correct? stress may faster and not affect the kind of stress completely
improve better under pilot's when he is scheduled to
performance severe performance fly.
. stress. because he
is able to
leave this
type of
stress on the
ground.

2997 40 1 0
Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under 1, 2 and 3 Only 1 is 1 and 2 are 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are
which of the following circumstances does it occur? are correct false correct, 3 is false
_x000D_ false
1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan
of action_x000D_
and does not immediately have a solution_x000D_
2. Stress occurs with unexperienced pilots when the
situational _x000D_
demands exceed their individual capabilities_x000D_
3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be
able to_x000D_
find a solution for the problem he just is confronted
with

2998 40 1 0
 The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are): the the data Data the quantity of data
instantaneou storage time retrieval as a which may be stored
s inputting in result from a
memory of loss of
all access to
information the stored
collected information
during the
day, which
comes to
saturate it

2999 40 0 0
What are the main limits of short-term memory ? 1,3 ,4 1,2 ,3 2 ,3 2,4
_x000D_
It is :_x000D_
-1 : very sensitive to interruptions and
interference_x000D_
-2 : difficult to access_x000D_
-3 : limited in size_x000D_
-4 : subject to a biochemical burn-in of information
3000 40 1 0
If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the the only way the sharing a person the only way of not
allocation of cognitive resources : of not seeing of resources reaches his seeing performance tail
performance causes limits as off is to switch to
tail off is to performance from knowledge-based mode
switch to on each task simultaneou for the two tasks
rules-based to be s tasks, and
mode for the reduced performance
two tasks will then tail
off

3001 40 0 1
Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must : only be only follow be shared be tailored to the
tailored to the by the individual pilot's needs in
the type of manufacture members of order to facilitate the
aircraft, rs proposals the crew and normal operation of the
regardless and not updated at aircraft
of current reflect each
MCC individual modification
procedures operators in order to
cockpit maintain
philosophies maximum
synergy

3002 40 0 0
With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it originate are caused are caused are mainly due to a
may be said that they: from a by the by a sensory conflict
conflict absence of conflictual concerning perception of
between internal disagreeme the vertical and the
instrument visual cues nt horizontal between the
readings exclusively concerning vestibular and the visual
and external attitudinal system
visual perception
perceptions between the
various
members of
a crew

3003 40 0 0
 A pilot is skilled when he :_x000D_ 1,2,4 1,2,3,4 1,2 2, 3,4
-1 : trains or practises regularly_x000D_
-2 : knows how to manage himself/herself_x000D_
-3 : possesses all the knowledge associated with his
aircraft_x000D_
-4 : knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping
with the_x000D_
unexpected
3004 40 1 0
How can man cope with low error tolerant situations? By By randomly By generally By constantly complying
increasing applying a avoiding with cross-over
error combination situations in verification procedures
detection in of optimum which (cross monitoring)
all detection, tolerance to
circumstanc warning and error is low
es monitoring
systems

3005 40 0 0
With regard to the humidity of air in current in a 2,3,4 1,4 2,3 1,3
pressurized cabin, we know that it :_x000D_
-1 : varies between 40 and 60%_x000D_
-2 : varies between 5 and 15%_x000D_
-3 : may cause dehydration effecting the performance of
the crew_x000D_
-4 : has no special effects on crew members
3006 40 0 0
The following occurs in man if the internal body impairment apathy considerable nothing signifiant
temperature increases to 38°C : of physical dehydration happens at this
and mental temperature. The first
performance clinical signs only start to
appear at 39°C

3007 40 1 0
Which of the following mechanisms regulate body 2,3 1 3,4 1,3,4
temperature when expored to extreme high
environmental temperatures?_x000D_
-1 : Shivering_x000D_
-2 : Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood
vessels_x000D_
-3 : Sweating_x000D_
-4 : Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
3008 40 0 0
The following can be observed when the internal body profuse shivering, the mental disorders, and
temperature falls below 35°C : sweating will tend to appearance even coma
cease, and of intense
be followed shivering
by the onset
of apathy

3009 40 0 1
We can observe the following in relation to a state of a rapid fall in greater reasoning a substantial increase in
hypothermia : ambient capacity for problems as internal body
temperature adaptation soon as temperature whereas
than in a hot body peripheral temperature
atmosphere temperature at the skin is stable
falls below
37°C
3010 40 0 0
 Which of the folllowing statements concerning more likely mainly due to caused by an increase in
barotrauma are correct? They are: to occur associated pressure the partial pressure of
during with a sink differentials oxygen associated with
ascent then rate which between a decrease in altitude
during a exceeds the gases in
rapid ability of the hollow
descent body to cavities of
balance its the body
internal and the
pressures ambient
pressure

3011 40 0 0
Workload essentially depends on: the current the pilot's the pilot's the task and the day's
situation, the experience knowledge parameters (weather
pilot's and the report, aircraft load, type
expertise ergonomics of flight, etc)
and the of the
ergonomics system
of the
system
3012 40 1 0
Which of the following statements fits best the concept are mainly rapidly may have been are rarely made by front-
of latent error?_x000D_ associated be detected present in line operators, and are
Latent errors: with the via their the system consequently readily
behaviour of immediate for a certain identified and detected
front-line consequenc lenght of by the monitoring,
operators es on the time and are detection and warning
and are only action in difficult to links
detected progress understand
after as a result of
advanced the time lag
problem- between the
solving generation
and the
occurence of
the error

3013 40 0 0
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Deciding Deciding Deciding Deciding means
decision making? means means means being imposing one's point of
applying an choosing able to come view.
automatic between up with
procedure. alternatives. original
solutions.

3014 40 0 1
Motivation is a quality wich is often considered vital in A high However, Motivation A high degree of
the pilot's work to maintain safety. degree of excessive reduces the motivation makes it
motivation motivation intensity of possible to make up for
lowers the leads to sensory insufficient knowledge in
level of stress wich illusions complete safety
vigilance adversly
affects
performance

3015 40 0 1
 Working memory : is unlimited is unlimited varies is sensitive to
in size in duration considerably interruptions which may
in size erase all or some of its
between an content
expert pilot
and a novice
pilot
3016 40 0 0
The acquisition of expertise comprises three stages automatic, cognitive, cognitive, associative, autonomous
( Anderson model): cognitive associative associative and expert
and and and
knowledge autonomous knowledge

3017 40 0 1
A pilot can be described as being proficient, when is able to knows how is capable of has automated a large
he/she: reduce to invest the maintaining part of the necessary
his/her maximum a high level flight deck routine
arousal to a resources in of arousal operations in order to
low level the during a free his/her cognitive
during the automation great bulk of resources
entire flight of tasks in the flight
real time

3018 40 0 0
With regard to the practice of English, which of the All pilots Be familiar It is The composition of
following statements is correct? should with normal necessary every crew should be
master it procedures and geared to a command of
because the in English sufficient to the official aeronautical
aeronautical since only have a language of the
world needs this allows command of destination country.
one for effective any of the
common managemen official
language. t of any languages of
flight's the ICAO.
communicati
on.

3019 40 1 0
What means can be used to combat human error? 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 2
_x000D_
-1 : Reducing error-prone mechanisms._x000D_
-2 : Improving the way in which error is taken into
account in training._x000D_
-3 : Sanctions against the initiators of error._x000D_
-4 : Improving recovery from errors and its
consequences._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

3020 40 0 1
What are the main consequences of latent errors? 1 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1,2 and 4 1 and 2
They:_x000D_
-1 : remain undetected in the system for a certain lenght
of time._x000D_
-2 : may only manifest themselves under certainl
conditions._x000D_
-3 : are quickly detectable by the front-line operator
whose mental_x000D_
schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out
formal errors._x000D_
-4 : lull the pilots into security._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

3021 40 0 0
 What are the various means which allow for better error 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1and 3 2, 3 and 4
detection?_x000D_
-1 : Improvement of the man-machine
interface._x000D_
-2 : Development of systems for checking the
consistency of _x000D_
situations._x000D_
-3 : Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures
by the_x000D_
crew._x000D_
-4 : Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):
3022 40 0 1
A system is all the more reliable if it offers good 3 and 4 2 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1 and 3
detectability. The latter is the result of:_x000D_
-1 : tolerance of the various systems to errors._x000D_
-2 : the sum of the automatic monitoring, detection and
warning facilities._x000D_
-3 : the reliability of the Man-Man and Man-Machine
links._x000D_
-4 : the alerting capability of the Man-Machine
interface._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

3023 40 0 1
To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system correct the tolerate the report its report the deviation
3024 40 should at least be able to deviation deviation malfunction 0 0
When can a system be said to be tolerant to error? the its safety its safety latent errors do not entail
_x000D_ consequenc system is system has serious consequences
When: es of an too taken for safety
error will not permeable account of
seriously to error all
jeopardise statistically
safety probable
errors
3025 40 1 0
Once detected, an error will result in cognitive have make it destabilize are prompted by
consequences which: virtually no possible to cognitive inductive factors
interaction modify progress
with behaviour and maintain
behaviour with a view the error
to
adaptation
3026 40 0 1
 Why must flight safety considerations consider the 2 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4
human error mechanism? _x000D_
-1 : It is analysis of an incident or accident which will
make it _x000D_
possible to identify what error has been committed
and by _x000D_
whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is
made_x000D_
responsible which may lead to elimination of the
error._x000D_
-2 : If we have a better understanding of the cognitive
error _x000D_
mechanism, it will be possible to adapt procedures,
aircraft _x000D_
interfaces, etc. _x000D_
-3 : It is error management procedure which enables us
to_x000D_
continuously adjust our actions. The better we
understand the_x000D_
underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be
our means_x000D_
for detecting and adapting future errors._x000D_
-4 : Since error is essentially human, once it has been
identified by_x000D_
the use of procedures, a person will be able to
anticipate and _x000D_
deal with it automatically in the future._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

3027 40 0 0
Improvement of human reliability should entail: in aviation, the the analysis an effort to understand
the elimination of modes of the causes and find
elimination of latent human means of recovery for
of errors on errors before failures errors committed
the part of they can
front-line effect
operators performance

3028 40 0 0
The procedure to be followed in the event of allow for the allow for a make it make it possible to
decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must : rapid supply rapid possible to eliminate the risk of
of oxygen in descent prevent fogging due to the
order to independent hyperventilat sudden pressure
prevent the from ion owing to changes
pilot sufficient the
becoming supply of inhalation of
hypoxic oxygen in 100 %
order to oxygen
prevent
disorders
due to
hypoxia

3029 40 1 0
 Which of the following statements best fits the definition produced essentially rare in front- produced by the
of an active error?_x000D_ either by a results from line actions operator and can be
Active error is: front-line the and difficult rapidly detected via the
operator or application to detect effects and
by a remote of a bad rule owing to the consequences which it
operator and or the poor fact that it induces on the overall
results in a application usually action
hidden or of a good occurs in a
latent rule by complex
consequenc airplane system of
e at a designers uncontrolled
specific and
moment of involuntary
the action deviations

3030 40 0 0
To optimise one's night-vision performance, it is 2,3,4 2 1,3,4 1,2,4
necessary :_x000D_
- 1 : to spend some time getting adapted to low levels of
_x000D_
illumination_x000D_
- 2 : to increase the instrument panel lighting by
reducing the _x000D_
cockpit lighting_x000D_
- 3 : not to focus on the point to be observed_x000D_
- 4 : to avoid blinding

3031 40 0 0
Decompression sickness may occur as from :_x000D_ 2,3 1,3,4 2,4 1,3
- 1: an altitude of more than 18,000 ft_x000D_
- 2 : an altitude of more than 5,500 ft_x000D_
- 3 : a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min exceeding
18,000 ft_x000D_
- 4 : a temperature of more than 24°C
3032 40 0 0
What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz) A pooling of An An increase Hyperoxygenation of the
accelerations? blood in the improvemen in blood blood which may lead to
lower t of pressure in sensory disorders
portions of peripheral the upper
the body, vision part of the
and hence body (above
less blood heart-level)
available

3033 40 1 0
What type of acceleration has the most significant Radial Linear Transverse Combined linear and
physiological effect upon the pilot? acceleration acceleration acceleration transverse acceleration
(+ Gz) (+ Gx) (+ Gy)
3034 40 1 0
Which of the following statements are correct ?_x000D_ 2,4 2,3,4 1,3,4 1,2,3
1 Hypothermia affects physical and mental
abilities._x000D_
2 Man has effective natural protection against intense
cold._x000D_
3 Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a
certain _x000D_
extent, but uses up a lot of energy_x000D_
4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a
body _x000D_
temperature of less than 35°C

3035 40 0 0
 Incapacitation caused by barotrauma from gaseous 1 1,2,3 2,3,4 2,4
expansion after decompression at high altitude may be
associated with the following part(s) of the
body:_x000D_
1 the digestive tract_x000D_
2 the ears_x000D_
3 the eyes_x000D_
4 the sinuses
3036 40 1 0
Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for : good night- good, precise red vision, both during
vision after virtually vision of the day and at night
adaptation instantaneou contours
to darkness s night- and colours
(30 min) vision
(scotopic
vision)
3037 40 1 0
CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is: is mainly of intended to not intended intended solely to alter
relevance to develop to change an individual's
pilots with effectivenes the personality;
personality s of crew individual's
disorders or performance attitude at all
inappropriat by improving
e attitudes attitudes
towards
flight safety
and human
relationship
managemen
t

3038 40 0 1
What is hypoxia ? A state Any The total The respiratory symptom
charcterised condition absence of associated with altitude
by an where the oxygen in decompression sickness
excessive oxygen the air
supply of concentratio
oxygen n of the
which may body is
be due to below
maladjustme normal limits
nt of the or where the
mask oxygen
available to
the body
cannot be
used due to
some
pathological
condition

3039 40 0 1
The effectiveness of the individual depends on: the ability to the total the ability to the ability to repress the
go beyond independenc balance the dictates of needs
one's own e with dictates of
capabilities respect to the
the individual's
environment needs and
the
demands of
reality

3040 40 0 0
 Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance the high binocular interactions peripheral vision
is primarily due to sensitivity of vision between
the retina cones and
rods
3041 40 0 1
Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be 1,2 and 3 2,3 and 4 1,3 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
affected by: _x000D_ are correct are correct are correct
1. anaemia _x000D_
2. smoking in the cockpit _x000D_
3. carbon monoxide poisoning _x000D_
4. hypoxia
3042 40 0 0
Which of the following characteristics apply to short- 3,4 2,3 1 1,3
term memory ?_x000D_
- 1 : It is limited in time and size_x000D_
- 2 : It is unlimited in time and limited in size_x000D_
- 3 : It is stable and insensitive to disturbances_x000D_
- 4 : It is limited in time and unlimited in size
3043 40 0 0
Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by: environment the condition the pressure a touch on the skin
al stressors of the body created on indicating the true
itself the vertical
correspondi
ng body
parts when
sitting,
standing or
lying down

3044 40 0 0
Autokinetic illusion is: the a conflict poor an illusion in which a
sensation between the interpretatio stationary point of light, if
during a visual n of the stared at for several
radial system and surrounding seconds in the dark,
acceleration bodily world may - without a frame of
of seeing a sensations reference - appear to
fixed move
reference
point moving
into the
opposite
direction of
the
acceleration

3045 40 0 0
Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are : due mainly due mainly solely associated with the task
to a conflict to a poor induced in of mental construction of
between the interpretatio the absence the environment
various n of of external
sensory instrumental reference
systems data points

3046 40 0 0
 Which of the following statements are correct ?_x000D_ 1,4 2,3 2,3,4 1,2,4
-1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 - 60% relative humidity
in the cabin _x000D_
air under any conditions of flight, which is
satisfactory for the _x000D_
body_x000D_
-2: Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration_x000D_
-3: Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such
as _x000D_
dizziness and fatigue_x000D_
-4: Drinking excessive quantities of water must be
avoided since _x000D_
resistance to periods of low hydration will otherwise
be lost

3047 40 0 1
Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are 1,3,4 2,3,4 1,2,3 1
due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?_x000D_
- 1: Decrease in heart rate_x000D_
- 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts of the
body_x000D_
- 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level_x000D_
- 4: Downward displacement or deformation of soft or
mobile organs
3048 40 0 1
1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia. _x000D_ 1 is correct, 1 is not 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are both correct
2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to 2 is not correct, 2 is both not
error. correct correct correct
3049 40 0 0
The resistance phase of stress reaction is characterized 1,2 and 3 2 , 3 and 4 3 and 4 are 1 and 4 are correct
by:_x000D_ are correct are correct correct
-1 : activation of the autonomic nervous system
(ANS)._x000D_
-2 : testosterone secretion which enables fats to be
converted into_x000D_
sugar._x000D_
-3 : a sudden fall in stress resistance._x000D_
-4 : the appearance of psychosomatic disorders when
lasting over _x000D_
a prolonged time._x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

3050 40 0 0
What is the "Time of Useful Consciousness" for a rapid About 30 Between 3 About 18 Between 25 seconds
decompression at 25,000 ft ? seconds and 5 seconds and 1 minute 30
minutes seconds
depending
on the
physical
activities of
the
subjected
pilot

3051 40 0 1
1. Lively information is easier to take into consideration 1 is correct, 1 is not 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are both correct
for creating_x000D_ 2 is not correct, 2 is both not
a mental picture than boring information._x000D_ correct correct correct
2.The sequence in which information is offered is also
important for_x000D_
the use the pilot makes of it.
3052 40 0 0
 Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they this has to this has to this is this has to be rejected
don't have to think up every time what they have to do. be advised be dangerous for the company draws
against for it posetively for every the rules and the
reduces appreciated situation is procedures they have to
flexibility at a for it different comply with
moment a increases
problem has consistency
to be solved in action
by
improvisatio
n.

3053 40 0 1
The development of procedures makes pilots more knowledge- procedural procedural mental model
effective and more reliable in their actions. This is based confusion consistency
called: behaviour
3054 40 0 0
You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a divert in any see what decide to continue and think about
certain destination for a meeting. The weather forcast at case to you can do divert if you the nice things you can
destination tends to be much worse than expected, so demonstrate and ask the think it is buy from the money
you consider to divert. The businessman offers you who' s the copilot to necessary.
money if you manage to land there at any man in tolerate any
case._x000D_ charge decision
What is your appropriate way of action? You will aboard
3055 40 0 0
The confirmation bias of decision making is a tendency a tendency a tendency a tendency to look for
to ignore not to seek not to look facts that confirm
that for for expectations before
information information information implementing one's
which which which would decision
indicates confirms a reassure
that a judgement oneself
decision is about a
poor; decision

3056 40 1 0
Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and Euphoria. Tingling Cyanosis Severe headache.
hyperventilation? sensations (blueing of
in arms or lips and
legs. finger-nails).

3057 40 0 1
With regard to decompression sickness associated with scuba diving sex is the physical age, obesity and scuba
flight, we know that : does not prime risk activity after diving are risk factors
pose any factor, with decompressi
problem for two out of on reduces
a every three the risks of
subsequent women decompressi
flight being on sickness
sensitive to symptoms to
it appear

3058 40 0 0
Please check the following statements:_x000D_ 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct, 1 is not correct, 2 is
1. A stressor causes activation _x000D_ both not both correct 2 is not correct
2. Activation stimulates a person to cope with it correct correct
3059 40 0 1
 The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according 4 1,3 1,2 3,4
to :_x000D_
1 : physical activity of the subjected crew_x000D_
2 : the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in
question_x000D_
3 : the strength and time of decompression_x000D_
4 : the cabin temperature
3060 40 0 1
During a climb, we can observe the following with an increase an increase an identical a decrease which is
regard to the partial oxygen pressure : up to 10,000 which is decrease to three times faster than
ft followed inversely that for the decrease in
by a sudden proportional atmospheric atmospheric pressure
pressure to the pressure
drop above decrease in
that altitude atmospheric
pressure
3061 40 0 0
The following may occur during gradual sudden a rapid a loss of a rapid decrease in
depressurisation between 12,000 and 18,000 ft : visual decrease in coordination blood pressure which
hyperacuity blood associated will lead to headache
associated pressure with fatigue and also to a loss of
with leading to and coordination
headache considerable headache
somnolence

3062 40 0 0
Safety is often improved by applying the principles of expression unquestione abstention the avoidance of any
CRM, e.g.: of one's d obedience from any conflict in order to
doubts or to all the suggestion preserve the crew's
different Captain's which might synergy
opinion for decisions be untimely
as long as
this doubt
can not be
rejected on
the base of
evidence

3063 40 1 0
An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be the plan of the Captain decisions do decisions are taken by
observed when: action is delegates not need to the Captain with the help
defined by the decision be and participation of the
the Captain making discussed other crew members
because of process to because of a
his other crew common
experience members synergy
level between the
crew
members

3064 40 0 0
An non-synergetic cockpit : is always is not very is characterised by
characterise results from dangerous withdrawn crewmembers
d by a highly an over- as each and unclear
efficient relaxed person communication
crew, atmosphere checks
communicati everything
ng personally
appropriatel
y with the
outside

3065 40 0 0
 If someone hyperventilates due to stress his blood will more acid more less satured more satured with
get: alkaline with oxygen carbon dioxide

3066 40 0 1
The purpose of action plans which are implemented initiate define allow activate a collective
during briefings is to: procedures general everyone to mental schema with
and planning of prepare their respect to non-
reactions for the flight own procedural actions to be
situations plan reactions in carried out
that are a difficult
most likely, situation
risky or
difficult
during the
flight

3067 40 1 0
Stress is a response which is prompted by the Noise, Noise, Heat, Temperature, hunger,
occurence of various stressors. Of these, which can be temperature hunger, humidity, thirst, divorce
called physiological ? (low or high), conflicts, a fatique,
humidity, death administrativ
sleep e problems
deprivation

3068 40 1 0
Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is skill based coping knowledge rule based behaviour
behaviour behaviour based
behaviour
3069 40 1 0
1. Psychosomatic means that a physiological problem is 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct 2 1 is not correct 2 is
followed _x000D_ both not both correct is not correct correct
by psychological stress. _x000D_ correct
2. Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in
professional _x000D_
aviation because of the strict selection for this
particular_x000D_
profession .
3070 40 1 0
Please check the following statements:_x000D_ 1 and 2 are 1 is correct, 1 and 2 are 1 is false, 2 is correct
1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or emotional both false 2 is false both correct
stressors_x000D_
can be manifested in organic stress
reactions._x000D_
2. Psychosomatic means that a physical problem is
always _x000D_
followed by psychological stress.
3071 40 0 1
An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot the arousal both pilots both pilots the pilot feeling
as exciting in a positive sense and by another pilot as level of both will loose will threatened, will be much
threatening. In both cases: pilots will be their motor- experience more relaxed, than the
raised coordination the same pilot looking forward to
amount of what may happen
stress
3072 40 1 0
According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the creative routine knowledge handling errors
3073 40 following type(s) in skill-based control mode: errors errors errors 0 1
The choice of the moment you select flaps depending rule based skill based knowledge pressure based
on situation and conditions of the landing is: behaviour behaviour based behaviour
behaviour
3074 40 0 1
 The planning and anticipation of future actions and 1, 2 and 4 1 and 2 are 2 and 4 are 3 and 4 are correct
situations makes it possible to:_x000D_ are correct correct correct
-1 : create a precise reference framework._x000D_
-2 : avoid saturation of the cognitive system._x000D_
-3 : automate planned actions._x000D_
-4 : activate knowledge which is considered necessary
for the _x000D_
period to come._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

3075 40 1 0
The readiness for tracing information which could is necessary is makes no is responsible for the
indicate the development of a critical situation to maintain dangerous, sense development of
good because it because the inadequate mental
situational distracts human models _x000D_
awareness attention information of the real world
from flying processing
the aircraft system is
limited
anyway

3076 40 1 0
Pre-thought action plans may be said to:_x000D_ 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 are 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 are correct
-1 : ease access to information which may be are correct correct are correct
necessary._x000D_
-2 : sensitize and prepare for a possible situation to
come._x000D_
-3 : be readily interchangeable and can therefore be
reformulated _x000D_
at any time during the flight._x000D_
-4 : define a framework and a probable strategy for the
_x000D_
encountered situation._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

3077 40 0 0
In order to overcome an overload of work during the 1 and 3 are 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 are 1, 2 and 4 are correct
flight, it is necessary to:_x000D_ correct are correct correct
-1 : know how to use one's own reserve of resources in
order to _x000D_
ease the burden on the crew._x000D_
-2 : divide up tasks among the crew._x000D_
-3 : abandon automatic mode and instead process as
much _x000D_
information as possible consciously._x000D_
-4 : drop certain tasks and stick to high-level
priorities._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

3078 40 0 0
Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal Homeostasi Heterostasis Isothermy Metastasis
equilibrium in the face of variations brought about by s
external stimulations._x000D_
This internal equilibrium is called :
3079 40 1 0
 Stress is above all : a the best a a response by man to
phenomeno adaptation psychosoma his problems, which
n which is phenomeno tic disease automatically leads to a
specific to n that man that one can reduction in his
modern man possesses learn to performance
for control
responding
to the
various
situation
which he
may have to
face

3080 40 0 1
Experiencing stress depends on: the fragility the the the individual
of individual's environment interpretation of the
individuals state of of the situation
to certain tiredness situation
types of which the
stimulation individual
will live
through or is
in the
process of
living
through

3081 40 0 0
Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific can only be is purely may include is always linked to
situation._x000D_ controlled by physiological various excessive fear
This reaction medical and psychologica
treatment automatic l and
physiological
elements
which one
can learn to
manage

3082 40 0 0
Human errors are frequent and may take several an error can an error of an violation representational errors
forms : be described intention is is an error in which the pilot has
as the an error of which is properly identified the
mismatch routine always situation and is familiar
between the involuntary with the procedure
pilots
intention and
the result of
his/her
actions

3083 40 1 0
In order to provide optimum human performance it is establish plan a avoid plan future actions and
advisable to strategies maximum of powerful decisions at least a
for planning, objectives behaviour couple of days in
automating and non- expedient of advance
and automated automating
managing actions tasks
resources
(in real time)

3084 40 1 0
 What are the communication qualities of a good 2,3 and 4 1 and 2 are 1, 2 and 4 1 and 4 are correct
briefing?_x000D_ are correct correct are correct
A good briefing must:_x000D_
-1 : contain as much information and be as
comprehensive as _x000D_
possible._x000D_
-2 : be of a standard type so that it can be reused for
another flight _x000D_
of the same type._x000D_
-3 : be short and precise._x000D_
-4 : be understandable to the other crew
member(s)._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

3085 40 1 0
The semicircular canals detect sound linear changes in angular accelerations
waves acceleration arterial
s pressure
3086 40 0 0
The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to grey-out loss of black-out red-vision
high positive radial accelerations is consciousne
ss
3087 40 1 0
Symptoms of decompression sickness always begin normally disappear sometimes can appear
immediately take 2 or 3 on landing with a delay after the
after the days to and never airplane is on the ground
decompressi appear after appear
on during exposure to again
the flight a hypobaric
atmosphere

3088 40 0 0
Anxiety and fear can cause spatial hypoglycemi hyperventilat hypoxia
disorientatio a ion
n
3089 40 0 0
Hyperventilation causes an excess of acidosis hypochondri a lack of carbon dioxide
carbon a in the blood
dioxide in
the blood
3090 40 0 0
Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, it disturbs it competes it prevents it prevents the excretion
is toxic because gaseous with oxygen the of catabolites in the
diffusion at in its union absorption kidneys
the alveoli with of food from
capillary haemoglobin the digestive
membrane tract

3091 40 0 1
If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, rule based rule and skill skill based knowledge based
exactly following the approach procedure, and you behaviour based behaviour behaviour
encounter no inexpected or new problems you show: behaviour
3092 40 0 0
The type of hypoxia, which occurs at altitude is a Boyle Henry´s law Graham´s Dalton´s law
explained by: Mariotte´s law
law
3093 40 0 0
General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the 2,3,4 1,2,4,5 2,3,4,5 1,3,4
following phases :_x000D_
-1 : alarm_x000D_
-2 : alert phase_x000D_
-3 : resistance phase_x000D_
-4 : exhaustion phase_x000D_
-5 : vigilance phase
3094 40 0 0
 Which of the following statements concerning check list The most The most The most All the items of a check
is correct? important important important list are equally
items should items must items must important; their
be placed at be placed at be placed in sequence is of no
the the end of the middle of importance
beginning of check list, check list so
a check list allowing that they
since them to be come to be
attention is kept near at examined
usually hand so that once
focused they are attention is
here quickly focused but
available for before
any concentratio
supplementa n starts to
ry check wane

3095 40 1 0
Which of the following statements are correct with 1, 4 and 5 1, 2 and 3 1, 2 and 5 1, 3 and 5 are correct
regard to the design of a check list?_x000D_ are correct are correct are correct
-1 : The longer a check list, the more it must be
subdivided into_x000D_
logical parts._x000D_
-2 : The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of
the check_x000D_
list._x000D_
-3 : Check lists must be designed in such a way that
they can be_x000D_
lumped together with other tasks._x000D_
-4 : Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should
be_x000D_
applied_x000D_
-5 : Critical points should have redundancies._x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

3096 40 1 0
The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way their it may be their their execution may be
that: execution is rejected execution done simultaneously
not lumped since must not be with other actions
together with redundancy done
important in the simultaneou
tasks following sly with
check list will other actions
serve as
verification

3097 40 0 0
In the initial phase of flight training the relationship the pilot is during this the pilot has the pilot is competent
between confidence and expertise can be described as: sufficiently learning a sphere of enough to fly the aircraft
competent stage, the expertise at this stage, but does
to fly and pilot is very wich is neither have a great deal
knows at this near to reduced to of confidence in his/her
stage what achieving daily use of abilities nor in the whole
he can and full potential his skills system
cannot do knowledge
of the
machine

3098 40 0 0
According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based creative errors of routine handling errors
control mode are of the following type(s) : errors technical errors
knowledge
3099 40 0 1
 In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently not decreasing increasing the same, no matter if
correct explanation for the problem. The chance that applicable he/she has already
he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant with old and made up his/her mind
information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is: experienced
pilots

3100 40 0 0
Check the following statements:_x000D_ 1, 2 and 3 1and 3 are 1 and 2 are 2 and 3 are correct
1. The first information received determines how are correct correct correct
subsequent _x000D_
information will be evaluated._x000D_
2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory
information may _x000D_
not get the attention it really needs._x000D_
3. With increasing stress, channelizing attention is
limiting the flow _x000D_
of information to the central decision maker (CNS).

3101 40 1 0
Gaseous exchange in the human body depends only 1 is 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 are false
on:_x000D_ correct are correct are correct,
1. diffusion gradients between the participating 4 is false
gases_x000D_
2. permeable membranes_x000D_
3. partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus air_x000D_
4. acid-base balance in the blood
3102 40 0 1
Of the following statements, select those which apply to 2,3 and 4 only 1 is 2 and 3 are 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
"information"._x000D_ are correct correct correct
-1 : It is said to be random when it is not intended for
receivers._x000D_
-2 : It is intended to reduce uncertainty for the
receiver._x000D_
-3 : It is measured in bits._x000D_
-4 : Each bit of information reduces uncertainty by a
quarter._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

3103 40 0 0
The individual's perception of stress depends on: the objectiv the pilot's the the subjectiv evaluation
evaluation of increasing conditions of of the situation and
the situation level of the current one's abilities to cope
and one's arousal situation with it
abilities to only
cope with it

3104 40 0 0
An increase in workload usually leads to: a shorter a longer and a shorter a longer and less
and more more and less frequent exchange of
frequent frequent frequent information
exchange of exchange of exchange of
information information information

3105 40 0 0
A study by NASA has examined the relationships Radio Mother Listening Errors in understanding
between incidents linked with ground-to-crew failure. tongue errors. clearance values.
communication. Which of the following factors is the differing
main reason for disturbances in the correct reception of from working
a message? language.

3106 40 0 0
 Professional languages have certain characteristics, for 2 and 3 are only 4 is 1 and 4 are 1 and 3 are correct
example: _x000D_ correct correct correct
-1 : They use a limited vocabulary ._x000D_
-2 : They are rich and adapted to the context, which
sometimes_x000D_
lead to ambiguities._x000D_
-3 : Their grammar is rather complicated and
complex._x000D_
-4 : Context provides meaning, therefor reduces the risk
of _x000D_
ambiguities._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

3107 40 0 0
Which of the following statements regarding 3 and 4 are 1 and 3 are 1 and 2 are 2 and 3 are correct
interpersonal interactions are correct?_x000D_ correct correct correct
-1 If the sender finds the receiver competent, he/she
tends to _x000D_
reduce verbal redundancy content of his
sentences_x000D_
-2 If the interlocuter is of non-native tongue, the sender
will reinforce _x000D_
what he is saying by using more complicated words
so as to _x000D_
optimize understanding_x000D_
-3 If he/she finds him incompetent, he tends to simplify
the content _x000D_
of sentences_x000D_
-4 Simplification of check list in a crew who know each
other _x000D_
essentially takes place in the case of interpersonal
conflict_x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

3108 40 0 1
In order to make communication effective, it is 1,2 and 3 3 and 4 are 2 and 4 are only 2 is correct
necessary to: _x000D_ are correct correct correct
-1 : avoid the synchronization of verbal and non-verbal
channels._x000D_
-2 : send information in line with the receiver's decoding
abilities._x000D_
-3 : always concentrate on the informational aspects of
the_x000D_
message only._x000D_
-4 : avoid increasing the number of communication
channels, in _x000D_
order to simplify communication._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

3109 40 0 0
 The intended recipient of a message must:_x000D_ 1 and 2 are 2 and 3 are 3 and 4 are 1,2 and 4 are correct
-1 : give priority and adapt to the sender's correct correct correct
situation._x000D_
-2 : acknowledge the receipt only in case of
doubt._x000D_
-3 : be able to reject or postpone a communication
attempt if _x000D_
the pilot is too busy._x000D_
-4 : stabilize or finish a challenging manoeuvre before
starting a _x000D_
discussion._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

3110 40 0 0
Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends: sustained the working working parallel to
cooperation application parallel to achieve individual
on actions of achieve one objectives
and the procedural common
formulation knowledge objective
of in the
commitment conduct of
s concerning specific
flight actions
situations

3111 40 0 0
Mental schemes correspond to: daily memorised the memorised procedures
planning of representati memorisatio which develop and
probable ons of the n of change rapidly during
dangerous various regulatory change-over to a new
situations procedures procedures machine
and associated
situations with a
which can particular
be situation
reactivated
by the pilot
at will

3112 40 0 1
What are the advantages of coordination? Interaction, Redundancy Redundancy Cooperation, cognition,
cognition, , exploration, , synergy, redundancy.
redundancy. risky shift. clarification
of
responsibility
.
3113 40 0 0
 Of the following statements, which apply to coordinated 1,2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3
cooperation?_x000D_
-1 : It allows for synergy in the actions between the
captain and the_x000D_
pilot._x000D_
-2 : It represents the simultaneous execution of a single
action by _x000D_
the various members of the crew._x000D_
-3 : Communication in this mode has the function of
synchronizing _x000D_
actions and distributing responsibilities._x000D_
-4 : Communication must be essentially focussed on
temporal and_x000D_
cognitive synchronisation._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):

3114 40 0 0
With regard to the average influence of age on pilot has little sharply has a major increases in impact as
performance, it may be said that age: impact when reduces impact speed of thought and
the pilot is performance owing to the memory deteriorate
able to without, impairment
compensate however, of memory
for it by affecting
his/her flight cognitive
experience capabilities

3115 40 1 0
What triggers stress in humans? Always the The Objective Only strong excitations
awareness subjective stimulation of the sensory organs: a
of an interpretatio from the flash of light, noise, the
emotion and n an environment smell of smoke
a individual regards of
physiological gives to a subjective
activation (e. situation perceptions
g. rapide experienced
heart rate)

3116 40 0 1
What is a stressor? A The An external All external stimulation
psychologica adaptation or internal are stressors since they
l problem response of stimulus modify the internal
developed in the which is equilibrium
a situation of individual to interpreted
danger his by an
environment individual as
beeing
stressful

3117 40 0 0
Stress may be defined as: a a human a normal a poorly controlled
psychologica reaction phenomeno emotion which leads to a
l which one n which reduction in capabilities
phenomeno must enables an
n which only manage to individual to
affects eliminate adapt to
fragile encountered
personalities situations

3118 40 0 0
 With regard to short-term memory, we can say that : it is made up it is made up it is a stable it mainly contains
of everyday of everyday form of procedural knowledge
information information working
for for memory, and
immediate immediate thus not very
use, and is use, and is sensitive to
limited in its limited in any
capacity for terms of the disturbance
storing and time for
retaining which it
data retains data
but not in its
storage
capacity

3119 40 1 0
Success in achieving the objectives of a message a form of the different the matching differences in contexts
requires: message, codes of verbal, for the sender and the
which between non-verbal receiver
should not form and and
match the meaning contextual
expectation meanings
of the
receiver

3120 40 0 0
In order to get colour vision, it is necessary :_x000D_ 1 1,2,3 2,4 3
-1 : for there to be considerable amount of light
(ambient luminosity)_x000D_
-2 : at night to look at the point to be observed at an
angle of 15°_x000D_
-3 : to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the
light_x000D_
-4 : to avoid white light
3121 40 1 0
If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that has more has less has less is relatively limited
man : effective effective effective compared with a
means of means of means of computer, that means of
action action data data collection or means
(output) and (output) than collection of action are referred to
is above all the than the
capable of computer computer
considerable
synergy

3122 40 1 0
The following course of action must be taken if 1,4 1,2,4 2,3 1,3
gastrointestinal or cardiopulmonary complaints or pain
arise before take-off :_x000D_
-1 : take the standard medicines and advise the doctor
on _x000D_
returning from the flight_x000D_
-2 : assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the
help of a _x000D_
doctor_x000D_
-3 : if in doubt about fitness to fly - do not fly!_x000D_
-4 : reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you
are thirsty _x000D_
so as to avoid dehydration

3123 40 0 0
 Which of the following systems are involved in the 2,3,4,5 1,2,5 2,3,4 1,2,3
appearance of motion sickness ?_x000D_
-1 : Hearing_x000D_
-2 : The vestibular system_x000D_
-3 : Vision_x000D_
-4 The proprioceptive senses "Seat-of-the-Pants-
Sense")_x000D_
-5 : The gastrointestinal system
3124 40 0 0
In the absence of external reference points, the somato- illusion of autokinetic cognitive illusion
sensation that the vehicle in which you sitting is moving gravic relative illusion
when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is illusion movement
moving is called :
3125 40 0 1
Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual 2,3,4 1,3 3,4 1,2,3,4
systems are :_x000D_
1 - classic and resistant when flying in IMC_x000D_
2 - sensed via impressions of rotation_x000D_
3 - sensed via distorted impressions of the attitude of
the aircraft_x000D_
4 - considerable during prolonged shallow turns under
IMC
3126 40 0 0
Which of the following illusions are brought about by 1,4 2,3,4 2 3,4
conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular
system ?_x000D_
-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the
aircraft_x000D_
-2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as
moving)_x000D_
-3: Illusions when estimating the size and distance of
objects_x000D_
-4 : Illusions of rotation

3127 40 1 0
With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say communicati communicati all the communication uses up
that: on is always on is only characteristi resources, thus limiting
sufficiently effective if cs of the resources allocated
automated messages communicati to work in progress
to enable an are kept on, namely
activity with short and output,
a high sufficiently duration,
workload precise to precision,
element to limit their clarity, etc.
be carried number are stable
out at the and are not
same time much
affected by
changes in
workload

3128 40 0 0
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? 4 1,3 1 2,3
_x000D_
- 1: The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and
cones on its _x000D_
central zone_x000D_
- 2: The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has
rods_x000D_
- 3: The rods allow for night-vision_x000D_
- 4: The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the
retina

3129 40 0 1
 Concentration is essential for pilots. It only takes Vigilance is All However, capacity of
a little all that is intellectual concentration is limited
willpower to required to processes,
increase be attentive including
one's very
capacity of routined
concentratio ones, make
n without demands on
limits resources
and
therefore on
one's
concentratio
n

3130 40 0 0
The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a rods located crystalline rods located cones located in its
result of the: in its central lens in its central part
part peripheral
zone

3131 40 0 0
The phenomenon of accommodation, which enables a The retina The The rods The cones
clear image to be obtained, is accomplished by which of crystalline
the following ? lens
3132 40 0 1
We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina the the binocular the analysis of visual
allows for : acquisition acquisition vision signals
of the visual of the visual
signal and signal and
its coding the
into accommodat
physiological ion process
data

3133 40 1 0
We know that transverse accelerations (Gy)_x000D_ 3 1,4 2,3 1,2,3
- 1 : are above all active in turns and pull-outs_x000D_
- 2 : are present during take-off and landing_x000D_
- 3 : are rare during routine flights_x000D_
- 4 : often lead to loss of consciousness
3134 40 1 0
The workload may be said to:_x000D_ 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1 and 3 are 2 and 4 are correct
-1 : be acceptable if it requires more than 90 % of the are correct are correct correct
crew _x000D_
resources._x000D_
-2 : be acceptable if it requires about 60 % of the crew
resources._x000D_
-3 : depend on the pilot's expertise._x000D_
-4 : correspond to the amount of resources
available_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

3135 40 1 0
 According to Wicken's theory, the human brain has: processing different unlimited cognitive resources
capabilities reservoirs of information- which are centered on
which resources processing action
function at depending resources
peak level on whether
when one is in the
different information-
tasks call for gathering,
the same information-
resources processing
or action
phase

3136 40 0 1
The available cognitive resources of the human brain: are limited are virtually allow for are limited and make it
but make it unlimited twin-tasks impossible to perform
possible to operation two attentional tasks at
easily without any the same time
perform loss of
several effectivenes
tasks at the s
same time
3137 40 0 0
The vestibular system is composed of_x000D_ 1,3,4 2,3,4 1,4 2,3
-1: two ventricles_x000D_
-2 : a saccule_x000D_
-3 : an utricle_x000D_
-4 : three semicircular channels
3138 40 0 1
The volume of air beeing exchanged during a normal 350 ml of air 150 ml of air 75 ml of air 500 ml of air
3139 40 breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about: 0 0
Changes in blood-pressure are measured by: arteriols adrenal pacemakers pressoreceptors
3140 40 glands 0 0
The pressoreceptors are located in the carotid the the heart the lungs
and aortic intestines
arterial
vessels
3141 40 1 0
When the pressoreceptors signal a lowering of the 2,3 and 4 1,3 and 4 1,2 and 4 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4
blood-pressure there are adaptation mechanisms which are correct, are correct, are correct, is false
result in:_x000D_ 1 is false 2 is false 3 is false
1. an increase of respiratory activity_x000D_
2. the arteriols to constrict_x000D_
3. an increase of cardiac output_x000D_
4. the heart rate to rise
3142 40 1 0
The physiological effects of accelerations to the human 2,3 and 4 1and 4 are 1,2,3 and 4 1,2,3 are correct, 4 is
body depend on:_x000D_ are correct, correct, 3 is are correct false
1. the duration of the G-forces _x000D_ 1 is false false
2. the onset rate of the G-forces_x000D_
3. the magnitude of the G-forces _x000D_
4. the direction of the G-forces.
3143 40 0 0
Inertia in the direction head => feet will cause the remain increase first decrease
blood-pressure in the brain to: constant increase,
then
decrease
3144 40 0 0
 During sustained positive G-forces the order of grey-out, grey-out, unconscious black-out, grey-out,
symptoms you can expect is: unconscious tunnel ness, black- tunnel vision and
ness, black- vision, out, tunnel unconsciousness.
out and black-out vision and
tunnel vision and grey out.
unconscious
ness.
3145 40 0 1
The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to: constant linear angular angular speed
speed only acceleration acceleration
and gravity
3146 40 0 1
The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is 72 cycles 16 cycles 4 cycles per 32 cycles per minute
3147 40 about: per minute per minute minute 0 1
Which of the following statements is correct?_x000D_ in all the in the in the veins in the artery of the upper
The blood-pressure which is measured during flight blood- mussles of of the upper arm (representing the
medical checks is the pressure vessels of the upper arm pressure at heart level)
the body arm
(representin
g the
pressure in
the whole
body)

3148 40 0 0
When exhaling, the expired air contains: more less water more more carbon dioxide
nitrogen vapour than oxygen than than the inspired air
than the the inhaled the inhaled
inhaled air air air
3149 40 0 0
The primary factor to control the rate and depth of partial partial total air pressure of carbon
breathing is the: pressure of pressure of pressure in dioxide in the blood
nitrogen oxygen in the blood
the blood
3150 40 0 0
The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can Dalton's Law Henry's Law the law of Boyle's Law
3151 40 be discribed by: diffusion 0 0
The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the Dalton's Law Henry's Law the law of Boyles Law
3152 40 alveoli can be described by: diffusion 0 0
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is: almost the higher than lower than lower than in the blood
same as in the pressure the pressure
the of carbon of carbon
atmospheric dioxide in dioxide in
air the blood the
atmospheric
air.

3153 40 0 0
The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by water oxygen in carbon nitrogen in the air
the concentration of: vapour in the cells dioxide in
the alveoli the blood
3154 40 0 0
Which of the following measures can reduce the chance Hyperventila A tilt back Breathing Sit in upright position
of a black-out during positive G-manoeuvres? tion. seat. oxygen. and keep relaxed.
3155 40 0 1
Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected stress and stress and stress is stress is medium
when : motivation motivation high
are medium are low
3156 40 0 0
Visual disturbances can be caused by:_x000D_ 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
1. hyperventilation_x000D_ are correct are correct are correct
2. hypoxia_x000D_
3. hypertension_x000D_
4. fatigue
3157 40 0 0
 Desorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 are correct
is:_x000D_ are correct are correct are correct
1. flying in IMC_x000D_
2. frequently changing between inside and outside
references_x000D_
3. flying from IMC into VMC_x000D_
4. having a cold
3158 40 0 0
Positive linear accelleration when flying in IMC may pitching apparent vertigo pitching up
cause a false sensation of: down sideward
movement
of objects in
the field of
vision
3159 40 0 0
Linear accelleration when flying straight and level in descending yawing spinning climbing
3160 40 IMC may give the illusion of: 0 0
With regard to central vision, which of the following 1,2,4 2,3,4 1,3 2,4
statements are correct ?_x000D_
-1: It is due to the functioning of rods_x000D_
-2: It enables details, colours and movement to be
seen_x000D_
-3: Its very active both during the day and at
night_x000D_
-4: It represents a zone where about 150.000 cones per
mm are _x000D_
located to give high resolution capacity

3161 40 0 0
When turning in IMC , head movements should be autokinesis oculogyral pressure coriolis illusion
avoided as much as possible. This is a prevention illusion vertigo
against:
3162 40 0 0
The blood-pressure depends on: _x000D_ 1,3 and 4 2,3 and 4 1,2,3 and 4 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4
1. the work of the heart _x000D_ are correct, are correct, are correct is false
2. the peripheral resistance _x000D_ 2 is false 1 is false
3. the elasticity of the arterial walls _x000D_
4. the bloode volume and viscosity
3163 40 0 0
Murphy's law states : Expectation Performance If equipment Response to a particular
has an is dependent is designed stressful influence varies
influence on on in such a from one person to
perception motivation way that it another
can be
operated
wrongly,
then sooner
or later, it will
be

3164 40 0 0
Blood-pressure depends on: _x000D_ 1 is false 2 1 and 2 are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct 2 is false
1. the cardiac output _x000D_ is correct both false correct
2. the resistance of the capillaries (peripheral
resistance)
3165 40 0 0
The most dangerous characteristic of the false mental will only can easily is frequently will mainly occur under
model is, that it occur under be changed extremely conditions of relaxation
conditions of resistant to
stress correction

3166 40 0 0
 Situations particularly vulnerable to "reversion to an 3. 2. and 3. 1. and 3. 1. and 2.
earlier behaviour pattern" are :_x000D_
1. when concentration on a particular task is
relaxed_x000D_
2. when situations are characterised by medium
workload_x000D_
3. when situations are characterised by stress
3167 40 0 0
The effect of experience and habit on performance can both be is always is never is always beneficial
beneficial negative negative
and negative
3168 40 1 0
The "gestalt laws "formulates : basic basic basic basic principles
principles principles principles regarding to the
governing governing governing relationship between
how objects the the effects of motivation and
are mentally relationship habit and performance
organized between experience
and stress and
perceived performance

3169 40 1 0
Which of the following provides the basis of all The The intensity The aural or The aural or visual
perceptions? seperation of the visual significance attributed in
of figure and stimuli. significance long term memory.
background. attributed in
short term
memory.

3170 40 0 1
The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Liveware
in an operations manual are related to an interface Software Hardware Environment
mismatch between
3171 40 1 0
Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a 15.000 feet 20.000 feet 25.000 feet 10.000 - 12.000feet
3172 40 lack of oxygen up to 0 0
What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying Euphoria, Trembling, Headache, Headache, thirst,
without oxygen) above 12,000 ft? headache, increase in fatigue, somnolence, collapse
improvemen body dizziness,
t in temperature, lack of
judgement, convulsions, coordination
loss of slowing of
consciousne the rate of
ss breathing

3173 40 0 0
Hyperventilation is: an an a reduction a normal compensatory
accellerated accellerated of partial physiological reaction to
heart heart oxygen a drop in partial oxygen
frequency frequency pressure in pressure (i.e. when
caused by caused by a the brain climbing a high
an decreasing mountain)
increasing blood-
blood pressure
pressure

3174 40 0 0
The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a: surplus of shortage of shortage of surplus of CO2 in the
O2 in the CO in the CO2 in the blood
blood blood blood
3175 40 0 0
 During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your closing one scanning dim the breathing extra oxygen
acuity of vision has decreased. In this case you can eye sectors of instrument through the oxygen
increase your acuity by: the field of lights mask.
vision
3176 40 0 0
During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the Glaucoma. Hypothermia Hypoglycae Hypoxia.
following symptoms: _x000D_ . mia.
1. blue lips _x000D_
2. mental disturbances _x000D_
3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs _x000D_
4. reduction of peripheral vision_x000D_
Which is the possible cause?
3177 40 0 0
Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia? 1, 2 and 3 only 1 is 1 and 2 are 1, 2 and 4 are correct
_x000D_ are correct correct correct, 3
1. Descend below 10 000 FT._x000D_ and 4 are
2. Breathe 100 % oxygen._x000D_ false
3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT._x000D_
4. Reduce physical activities.
3178 40 0 0
Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilot will not is using is relying on is swallowing, yawing
exceed 20 additional the body's and applying the
000 FT oxygen built in Valsalva method
cabin when flying warning
pressure above system
altitude 10.000 feet recognizing
any stage of
hypoxia
3179 40 0 1
Hypoxia can occur because: you inhale the you are you are getting toomuch
too much percentage hyperventilat solar radiation
nitrogen of oxygen is ing
lower at
altitude
3180 40 0 0
Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive Night vision. Motor Hearing. Speech.
to hypoxia? coordination.
3181 40 1 0
Hyperventilation is: a too high an increased a too high a decreased lung
percentage lung percentage ventilation
of oxygen in ventilation of nitrogen
the blood. in the blood

3182 40 0 1
What airplane equipment marked a subtantial decrease TCAS GPWS DME SSR
3183 40 in hull loss rates in the eighties? 0 1
If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without the blood the blood the blood the acid-base balance of
physiological need pressure in turns less turns more the blood will not change
the brain will more acid
rise alkaline
significantly
3184 40 0 1
During running your muscles are producing more CO2, hyperventilat cyanosis hypoxia vertigo
raising the CO2 level in the blood. The consequence is: ion (the rate
and depth of
breathing
will
increase)

3185 40 1 0
During a final approach under bad weather conditions, hypoxia carbon hyperventilat disorientation
you feel dizzy, get tingling sensations in your hands and monoxide ion
a rapid heart rate. _x000D_ poisoning
These symptoms could indicate:
3186 40 0 0
 During final approach under bad weather conditions you descend apply the use the control your rate and
are getting uneasy, feel dizzy and get tingling Valsalva oxygen depth of breathing
sensations in your hands. _x000D_ method mask
When hyperventilating you should
3187 40 0 0
A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by: controlling depending increasing the use of drugs
the rate and on the rate and stabilizing blood
depth of instruments depth of pressure
breathing, breathing to
breathing eliminate
into a bag or harmful
speaking carbon
with a loud dioxide
voice

3188 40 1 0
You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a to prevent to increase to reduce to raise the level of CO2
plastic or paper bag. The intention is: you from the amount blood in the blood as fast as
exhaling too of nitrogen pressure possible
much in the lung
oxygen
3189 40 0 0
Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ a lesser a greater a greater a lesser selectivity
3190 40 means: sensitivity sensitivity selectivity 1 0
You should not despense blood without prior information you are the chance your blood- your heart frequency is
from your flight surgeon. The most important reason for more you get the pressure is too low after blood-
this advise is: susceptible bends is too low after donation
to hypoxia higher after blood-
after a blood- donation
blood- donation
donation.
3191 40 1 0
Which of the following symptoms can indicate the 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
beginning of hypoxia?_x000D_ are correct. are correct. are correct.
1. Blue lips and finger nails._x000D_
2. Euphoria._x000D_
3. Flatulence._x000D_
4 .Unconsciousness..
3192 40 1 0
Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the normal simultaneou undergoing gazing in the direction of
result of: deterioration s head positive G a flashing light
of the movements
semicircular during
canals with aircraft
age manoeuvres

3193 40 0 1
When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because: the the the the partial oxygen
composition composition percentage pressure is lower than at
of the blood of the air is of oxygen is sea level.
changes different lower than at
from sea sea level
level
3194 40 0 0
Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3
This saturation decreases with:_x000D_ are correct, are correct, are correct, is false
1. decreasing air pressure_x000D_ 1 is false 2 is false 4 is false
2. carbon monoxide poisoning_x000D_
3. increasing altitude_x000D_
4. increasing air pressure
3195 40 0 0
Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells are have a have a are saturated with
saturated shortage of shortage of nitrogen
with oxygen carbon oxygen
dioxide
3196 40 0 0
 The severity of hypoxia depends on the:_x000D_ 2,3 and 4 1 and 3 are 1,2,3 and 4 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4
1. rate of decompression_x000D_ are correct, correct, 2 are correct is false
2. physical fitness_x000D_ 1 is false and 4 are
3. flight level_x000D_ false
4. individual tolerance
3197 40 0 0
Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is It activates It has little It is a It is never a problem at
correct? the senses effect on the potential altitudes below 25.000 ft.
and makes body, threat to
them because the safety.
function body can
better. always
compensate
for it.
3198 40 0 0
You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft the blood- you will get your the blood-pressure can
at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use the oxygen pressure the bends judgement get too high
mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because: can get too could be
low impaired
3199 40 0 0
One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia hyperventilat impaired reduced cyanosis, reducing then
concerning flight safety is: ion, causing judgement, coordination pilots ability to hear
emotional disabling the of limb
stress pilot to movements,
recognize causing the
the pilot to spin
symptoms
3200 40 0 1
A pressurized cabin helps to prevent:_x000D_ 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
1. decompression sickness_x000D_ are correct. are correct. are correct.
2 .the problem of expansion of gases in the
intestines_x000D_
3. hypoxia_x000D_
4. coronary desease
3201 40 0 0
Between which components is an interface mismatch Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Hardware
causing disturbance of the biological rhythm, thus Software Liveware Environment
leading to reduced human peformance?
3202 40 0 0
Between which components is an interface mismatch Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Software
responsible for deficiencies in conceptual aspects of Hardware Environment Liveware
warning systems?
3203 40 0 0
Between which components is an interface mismatch Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Liveware - Software
causing an error of interpretation by using an old three- Environment Liveware Hardware
point altimeter?
3204 40 0 0
Which of the following human error rates can be 1 in 100000 1 in 100 1 in 1000 1 in 10000 times
described as both realistic and pretty good, after times times times
methodical training
3205 40 0 1
Studies of human error rates during the performance of 1 in 100 1 in 250 1 in 10 times 1 in 50 times
simple repetitive task have shown, that errors can times times
normally be expected to occur about
3206 40 0 0
One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit less complacenc pilots constantly high crew
results in : experienced y among the disregarding overload with regard to
crews crewmembe the the monitoring tasks
because of rs automatic
more equipment
transparent
system
details
3207 40 0 1
3208 40 Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is : intense insinuating obvious sudden 0 1
 Early symptoms of hypoxia could be: _x000D_ 1,2,3 and 4 1,2 and 3 1,2 and 4 1,3 and 4 are correct
1. euphoria _x000D_ are correct are correct are correct
2. decreased rate and depth of breathing _x000D_
3. lack of concentration _x000D_
4. visual disturbances
3209 40 0 0
The circulatory system, among other things, allows both are 1 and 2 are 1 is correct 1 is false and 2 is correct
for :_x000D_ false correct and 2 is
1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide_x000D_ false
2. transportation of information by chemical substances

3210 40 0 1
Henry's Law explains the occurence of: hyperventilat hypoxia decompressi diffusion
ion on sickness
3211 40 0 0
Exchange of gasses between the body and the central lungs heart muscles
environment takes place at the: nervous
system
3212 40 0 1
Our body takes its energy from :_x000D_ 1,3 2,3 1,2,3,4 1,4
1: minerals_x000D_
2: protein_x000D_
3: carbonhydrates_x000D_
4: vitamines
3213 40 0 1
What is meant by metabolism ? Transfer of Exchange of The Information exchange
chemical substances transformati
messages between the on by which
lung and the energy is
blood made
available for
the uses of
the
organism

3214 40 0 0
One of the waste products of the metabolic process in protein sugar fat water
3215 40 the cell is : 0 0
The body loses water via:_x000D_ 1 is correct 1 is not both are 1 and 2 are correct
1. the skin and the lungs_x000D_ and 2 is not correct and false
2. the kidneys correct 2 is correct
3216 40 0 0
Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from nitrogen oxygen carbon carbon monoxide
3217 40 the blood to the alveoli: dioxide 0 0
During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which visual "Seat-of-the- vestibular visual sense by looking
should be used to overcome illusions is the: sense, pants- sense outside
interpreting Sense"
the attitude
indicator
3218 40 1 0
The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for : red blood gases platelets protein
3219 40 cells 0 1
Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ? 1,2 ,3 1, 2 ,4 2,3 ,4 3,4
_x000D_
1. Density_x000D_
2. Pressure_x000D_
3. Temperature_x000D_
4. Humidity
3220 40 1 0
3221 40 The part of blood without cell is called : serum water plasm lymph 0 0
Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is white blood red blood platelets blood plasma
3222 40 transported by cells cells 0 1
Haemoglobin is: in the white in the red in the dissolved in the plasma
3223 40 blood cells blood cells platelets 0 1
 Divided attention is the ability :_x000D_ Only 3 is 1 and 2 are 1,2 and 3 1 and 3 are correct, 2
1. to execute several mental activities at almost the false correct, 3 are correct, and 4 are false
_x000D_ and 4 are 4 is false
same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside false
the aircraft _x000D_
to the airspeed indicator on the instrument
panel)_x000D_
2. to monitor the progress of a motor programme
(i.e._x000D_
flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively
subconscious level, _x000D_
while making a radio call at the same time (requiring
a rather _x000D_
conscious level)_x000D_
3 .to select information and check if it is relevant to
the_x000D_
task in hand. At the same time no other operation can
be _x000D_
performed._x000D_
4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while concentrating
on_x000D_
the procedures

3224 40 0 1
The physiology of stress is now well known: the only stress stress slows stress promotes an
stress develops in down the increase in physical
hormone is 2 stages: production strength rather than
adrenaline sublimation of sugar by promoting mental
of the oerformance
performance organism
and then and thereby
acceleration slows down
of heart rate the heart
and increase rate
in vision

3225 40 0 0
An overstressed pilot may show the following 1and 3 are 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 are correct, 3
symptoms:_x000D_ correct, 2 are correct are correct, and 4 are false
1. mental blocks, confusion and channelized and 4 are 4 is false
attention_x000D_ false
2. resignation, frustration, rage_x000D_
3. deterioration in motor coordination_x000D_
4. high pitch voice and fast speaking
3226 40 0 1
 In relation to hypoxia, which of the following This is a This is a Hypoxia is This is a physical
paraphrase(s) is (are) correct? physical condition of often condition caused by a
condition lacking produced lack of oxygen saturation
caused by a oxygen in during steep in the blood while
lack of the brain turns when hyperventilating.
oxygen to causing the pilots turn
meet the circulatory their heads
needs of the system to in a direction
body compensate opposite to
tissues, by the direction
leading to decreasing in which the
mental and the heart aircraft is
muscular rate. turning
disturbances
, causing
impaired
thinking,
poor
judgement
and slow
reactions

3227 40 1 0
Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing blue finger- dizziness, reduced a state of
and can produce the following symptoms: nails and tingling heart rate overconfidence and
lips sensation in and increase reduced heart rate
the fingers in visual
and toes, acuity
nausea and
blurred
vision

3228 40 0 1
In the pulmonary artery there is : oxygen poor oxygen rich oxygen rich oxygen poor and carbon
and carbon and carbon and carbon dioxide rich blood
dioxide poor dioxide poor dioxide rich
blood blond blood

3229 40 0 0
The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric is governed is limited to is limited to is almost equally shared
information (piercing vision): by the foveal daytime by the entire retina
peripheral area of the using the
vision over retina rod cells
an area of
approximatel
y 20 degrees
of angle

3230 40 0 1
Which of the following statements is correct ? 70% of Hearing is 40% of The kinesthetic channel
information the sense information provides the most
processed which processed important information for
by man collects most by man flying
enters via information enters via
the visual in man the visual
channel channel
3231 40 1 0
 What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when Descend to Check the Don an First inform ATC
faced with explosive decompression? below cabin oxygen
10,000 ft altitude, don mask and
and signal an oxygen descend to
an mask and below
emergency maintain 10,000 ft
level flight

3232 40 0 0
What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness About 40 More than 1 About 12 Between 20 seconds
after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft ? secods minute seconds and 1 minute
3233 40 0 0
What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ? The length The time The pilot's The period of time
of time taken to reaction time between the start of
during which become when faced hypoxia and the moment
an aware of with hypoxia that the pilot becomes
individualca hypoxia due aware of it
n act with to gradual
both mental decompressi
and physical on
efficiency
and
alertness,
measured
from the
moment at
which he
loses his
available
oxygen
supply

3234 40 1 0
What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during Headaches, Increase in Headaches, Increase in heart rate,
explosive decompression ? articular heart and fatigue, decrease in body
pain, respiratory somnolence, temperature impairment
speeding-up rates, palpitations of judgement
of the euphoria,
respiratory impairment
rate, of
memory judgement,
disorders memory
disorders

3235 40 0 1
Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms Descend to Only medical Only the Descend to the lowest
of decompression sickness occur? the lowest treatment is prompt possible level and land
possible of use supply of as soon as possible
level and oxygen is
wait for the necessary
symptoms to
disappear
before
climbing
again

3236 40 0 0
 What is decompression sickness ? A frequent A disorder The An sickness resulting
disorder in which is formation of from the formation of
commercial solely air bubbles nitrogen bubbles in
aviation due encountered in bodily bodily tissues and fluids
to the below tissues, with after a cabin pressure
pressurisatio 18,000 ft no loss at high altitude
n curve of consequenc
modern es for
aircraft people's
capabilities

3237 40 0 0
Which of the following statements are correct:_x000D_ 1, 3 and 4 2 and 3 are 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 are correct
-1: Scuba diving may be practiced without are correct correct are correct
restriction_x000D_
-2: Many medicines have effects which are incompatible
with flight_x000D_
safety_x000D_
-3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when
flying_x000D_
-4: Diet has no repercussion on health

3238 40 0 1
Dalton's law explains the occurance of : altitude bends decompressi creeps
hypoxia on sickness
3239 40 1 0
Concerning the capacity of the human long-term its mode of its storage it is it is structurally limited in
memory storing capacity is structurally terms of storage time but
information unlimited limited in not in terms of capacity
is passive, terms of
making storage
memory capacity, but
searches unlimted in
effective terms of
storage time

3240 40 0 1
Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of: hyperventilat the the the occurance of
ion with expansion of occurance of hypoxia with increasing
increasing trapped decompressi altitude
altitude gasses in on sickness
the human at high
body with altitude
increasing
altitude
3241 40 0 1
Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is Vasodilation Evaporation Performance Complete adaption to
correct ? is the only is more is not the heat in a hot country
regulant effective impaired by takes about a fortnight.
which is when an increase
capable of ambient in body
reducing humidity is temperature
body high. to 40°C or
temperature. more.

3242 40 0 0
 The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half the partial the partial the oxygen the oxygen percentage
the atmospheric pressure at sea level._x000D_ oxygen oxygen saturation of of the air at that altitude
In accordance with this statement, pressure at pressure at the blood at will drop by one half also
that altitude that altitude that altitude
will be will also will drop by
doubled drop to 1/2 50 % too
of the
pressure of
oxygen at
sea level

3243 40 0 1
You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the decrease 10.000 and 45.000 and 0 and 5.000 5.000 and 10.000 feet
of the pressure per 5.000 ft. The absolute difference in 15.000 feet 50.000 feet feet
barometric pressure is greatest between :
3244 40 0 0
Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are disorientatio acceleration increased decreased
caused by : n s atmospheric atmospherical pressure
al pressure
3245 40 0 0
The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at increases by decreases decreases remains constant,
30.000 feet remains at 21 %; but the partial pressure of expansion significantly with independent from
oxygen : with lower decreasing altitude
temperature barometric
s pressure
3246 40 0 0
Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, 15% oxygen 10% oxygen 21% oxygen 5% oxygen
3247 40 approximately : 0 0
Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage 18% oxygen, 19% oxygen, 25% oxygen, 21% oxygen,78%
is about: 80% 80% 74% nitrogen, 1% other
nitrogen, 2% nitrogen, 1% nitrogen, 1% gases
other gases other gases other gases

3248 40 0 0
Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during if the brain when flying when flying when flying in bright
flight: receives in and out of in light rain sunlight above a cloud
conflicting clouds and below the layer
informations the pilot ceiling
and the pilot maintains
does not good
believe the instrument
instruments cross check

3249 40 1 0
To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access structure avoid to mentally learn and store data in a
information in long-term memory, it is helpful to: irrelevant rehearse rehearse logical and structured
information information information way
as much as which we before it is
possible know we will needed
before need soon
committing it
to memory

3250 40 0 0
 Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks making a they are part making they are not constrained
when: flight over of a group of decisions by time
unfamiliar pilots and independentl
territory they feel that y of others
they are
beeing
observed
and admired
(e.g. air
shows)

3251 40 0 1
Angular accelerations are perceived by: the otholits the the semi the cochlea
receptors in circular
the skin and canals
the joints

3252 40 0 0
In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba 3 hours after 36 hours 48 hours 24 hours
diving, subsequent flights should be delayed non after any after a
decompressi scuba diving continuous
on diving ascent in the
water has
been made

3253 40 0 0
Which of the following responses is an example of Turning and Incorrect habitually A pilot who has flown
"habit reversion" (negative habit transfer): aircraft to anticipation missing an many hours in an aircraft
the left when of an air item on the in which the fuel lever
intending to traffic checklist or points forward for the
turn it to the controller´s missing the ON position, may
right instructions second item unintentionally turn the
when two fuel lever into the false
items are on position, when flying a
the same different aircraft, where
line the fuel lever has to
point aft to be in the ON
position

3254 40 0 0
Although the anticipation of possible events is a good anticipating anticipating anticipating mishearing the contents
attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes lead to that the that the flight the of a reply from an air
hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, weather may will take sequence of traffic controller when a
select the response below which could lead to such a deteriorate longer time items on a non-standard procedure
hazard: than check list. was given but a
planned standard procedure was
anticipated

3255 40 0 0
In relation to the word ´stress´as it affects human ´Stress´is a All forms of Reactive Self imposed obligations
beings, which of the following responses is correct? term used to stress stressors will not create stress.
describe should be relate purely
how a avoided. to a pilot´s
person physical
reacts to condition.
demands
placed upon
him/her.

3256 40 1 0
 If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of in a prepared unprepared approaching a condition
"optimum arousal" he/she will be: confused best to cope to handle a of complacency or
mental state with a difficult fatigue
difficult task situation

3257 40 0 1
The relevance of check procedures during flight conducting a flying an flying an flying an aircraft which
becomes even more important when: longer flight aircraft unfamiliar you have flown recently
than you which you type of
would have flown aircraft and
normally many times experiencing
perform before mental
pressure
3258 40 0 0
Which of the following responses lists most of the Resignation, Anti- Invulnerabilit Machismo complex,
common hazardous thought patterns (attitudes) for confidence, authority, y, resignation, confidence,
pilots to develop? inattention impulsivene underconfid self critcism
ss, ence,
invulnerabilt avoidance of
y, making
resignation, decisions,
machismo lack of
complex situational
awareness

3259 40 0 1
Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust A short Carbon Carbon When exposed to
gases of engines. If a pilot is exposed to carbon exposure to monoxide is monoxide carbon monoxide for a
monoxide, which of the following responses is correct? relatively easily can only long period of time, the
high recognised affect pilots body will adapt to it and
concentratio by odour if they are no adverse physical
ns of carbon and taste. exposed to effects are experienced
monoxide them for a
can long period
seriously of time.
affect a pilot
´s ability to
operate an
aircraft.

3260 40 1 0
Judgement is based upon: the the ability to a process a decision making
development interpret the involving a process involving
of skills from flight pilot´s physical sensations and
constant instruments attitude to their transfer to manually
practice of take and to operate the aircraft
flight evaluate controls
manoeuvres risks by
assessing
the situation
and making
decisions
based upon
knowledge,
skill and
experience

3261 40 0 0
Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of: good good physical interpersonal relations
maintenance judgement skills
of aircraft
3262 40 0 1
 Conscious perception relates to is a mental relies upon involves the transfer of
the correct process the information from the
recognition involving development receptor to the brain only
of colours experience of intuition
and
expectations

3263 40 0 1
Human behaviour is determined by: the social cultural biological biological characteristics
environment influences characteristi
cs, social
environment
and cultural
influences

3264 40 0 0
The cabin pressure in airline operation is always normally not normally not normally not exceeding
equivalent to exceeding 6 exceeding 2 4 000 to 5 000 feet
sea level 000 to 8 000 000 to 3 000
feet feet

3265 40 0 1
The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the Dalton´s law Graham´s Henry`s law Boyle Mariotte´s law
sum of the partial pressures of the gases which law
compose the mixture corresponds to:
3266 40 1 0
A large number of medical preparations can be bought The side They will A pilot using They have no side
without a doctor´s prescription. In relation to using these effects of cause a any of these effects which would give
preparations, which of the following is correct: these types condition of preparations problems to a pilot
of over-arousal should get during flight
preparations professional
are advice from
sufficiently a flight
negligible as surgeon if
to be he intends to
ignored by fly and self-
pilots medicate at
the same
time

3267 40 0 0
 It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The the tissue although the swollen because it will seriously
reason for this is: around the change in air tissue in the affect peripheral vision
nasal end of pressure inner ear will
the during a increase the
Eustachian climb at rate of
tube is likely lower metabolic
to be altitudes is production
swollen thus very small, it resulting in
causing increases hyperventilat
difficulty in rapidly at ion
equalising high
the pressure altitudes. If
within the the tissue in
middle ear the
and the Eustachian
nasal/throat tube of the
area. Pain ear is
and damage swollen,
to the gentle
eardrum can descents at
result, high alltitude
particularly would result
during fast in damage
descents to the ear
drum

3268 40 1 0
The inner ear is able to perceive: _x000D_ 1 and 2 are 2 is correct, 1 and 2 and 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is
1. angular acceleration _x000D_ correct, 3 is 1 and 3 are 3 are correct false
2. linear acceleration _x000D_ false both false
3. noise
3269 40 0 0
The chemical substance responsible for addiction to carbon tar the nicotine
tobacco is monoxide combination
of nicotine,
tar and
carbon
monoxide
3270 40 0 0
The person with overall responsibility for the flight is 1 1 and 2 2 and 3 4
the_x000D_
-1 Pilot in Command_x000D_
-2 Co-pilot_x000D_
-3 Navigator_x000D_
-4 Air traffic controller_x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statement(s) is (are):
3271 40 1 0
0 1

0 1

0 1

0 1

0 1

0 0
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0 0

0 0

1 0

0 0

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1 0

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0 1
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0 1

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1 0
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0 0

1 0

0 0
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1 0

0 1

0 1

0 0

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0 0
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1 0

1 0

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1 0

1 0
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0 0

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1 0

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1 0

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0 1
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0 0

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0 0

0 1
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0 1

1 0

1 0

0 1

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1 0
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1 0

0 1

0 1

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0 0
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1 0

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0 0
 (For this question use annex 033- 11066A or Route 800m 1500m 720m 600m
Manual chart ZURICH ILS Rwy 16 (11-2))_x000D_
The lowest published authorised RVR for an ILS
approach glide slope out, all other aids serviceable,
aeroplane category A is:
2086 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11215A)_x000D_ 105 86 NM/1000 71 NM/1000 105
A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following NM/1000 kg; kg; 6515 kg; 5330 NM/1000 kg;
data:_x000D_ 6515 kg/h kg/h kg/h 5330 kg/h
. optimum flight level, Mach 0.80, mass of 190 000
kg_x000D_
. temperature: ISA_x000D_
. tailwind component: 100 kt_x000D_
The fuel mileage and the fuel consumption per hour are:

2087 33 0 0 0 1
A descent is planned from 7500 ft MSL so as to arrive at 15,0 NM 11,7 NM 30,2 NM 27,1 NM
1000 ft MSL 6 NM from a VORTAC._x000D_
With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min.
The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started
is :
2088 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annexes 033-3308A or Flight 62 NAM; 59 59 NAM;62 67 NAM; 71 71 NAM;67
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_ NM NM NM NM
Given : brake release mass 57 500 kg_x000D_
temperature ISA -10°C; head wind component 16
kt_x000D_
initial FL 280_x000D_
Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM)
for the climb
2089 33 1 0 0 0
Given : true track 017; W/V 340/30; TAS 420 kt_x000D_ WCA -2° ; WCA +2° ; WCA -2° ; WCA +2° ;
Find : wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed GS 396 kt GS 396 kt GS 426 kt GS 416 kt
(GS)
2090 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11183A)_x000D_ FL350 FL380 FL400 FL340
In the vicinity of PARIS (49°N 003°E) the tropopause is
at about
2091 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11067A or Route 112.3 MUN 400 MSW 338 MNW 108.6 DMS
Manual chart MUNICH NDB DME Rwy 26L approach
(16-3))_x000D_
The frequency and identifier of the NDB for the
published approachs are:
2092 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3309A or Flight 1040 kg 1138 kg 1238 kg 1387 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_
Given : mass at brake release 57 500 kg;_x000D_
temperature ISA -10°C; average head wind component
16 kt_x000D_
initial cruise FL 280_x000D_
Find: climb fuel
2093 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-3307A or Flight 14 min 13 min 11 min 15 min
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_
Given: estimated take-off mass 57 500 kg;_x000D_
initial cruise FL 280;_x000D_
average temperature during climb ISA -10°C;_x000D_
average head wind component 18 kt_x000D_
Find: climb time
2094 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11216A)_x000D_ 445 NM 612 NM 841 NM 2031 NM
A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following
data:_x000D_
. flight level FL 250, Long Range (LR) cruise, mass of
150 000 kg_x000D_
. temperature: ISA_x000D_
. head wind component: 100 kt_x000D_
. remaining flight time: 1 h 40 min_x000D_
The ground distance that can be covered during the
cruise flight is:

2095 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3311A or Flight 420 kt 433 kt 431 kt 418 kt
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)_x000D_
Given :FL 330; long range cruise; OAT -63°C; gross
mass 50 500 kg._x000D_
Find: true airspeed (TAS)
2096 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annexes 033-11224A, 033- 359 minutes 304 minutes 288 minutes 298 minutes
11224B and 033-11224C)_x000D_
Given:_x000D_
. Take-off mass: 150 000 kg_x000D_
. Planned cruise at FL 350_x000D_
. Long range MACH_x000D_
. Standard Atmosphere (ISA)_x000D_
. CG: 37 %_x000D_
You have to cover an air distance of 2 000 NM._x000D_
Your flight time will be:

2097 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3306A or Flight 437 NAM; 345 NAM; 350 NAM; 345 NAM;
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)_x000D_ 2100 kg 2000 kg 2000 kg 2100 kg
Given: flight time from top of climb to the enroute point in
FL280 is 48 min. Cruise procedure is long range cruise
(LRC)._x000D_
Temp. ISA -5° C_x000D_
Take-off mass 56 000 kg_x000D_
Climb fuel 1 100 kg_x000D_
Find: distance in nautical air miles (NAM) for this leg and
fuel consumption:

2098 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11228A)_x000D_ 5 040 NM 4 900 NM 5 120 NM 4 630 NM
For a long distance flight at FL 390, "Long Range"
regime, divided into four flight legs with the following
characteristics:_x000D_
- segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. head wind
component: 50 kt _x000D_
- segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind
component: 30 kt _x000D_
- segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tail wind
component: 100 kt _x000D_
- segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind
component: 70 kt _x000D_
The air distance of the entire flight is approximately:

2099 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 031-11229A )_x000D_ 37400 ft 37800 ft 34600 ft 38600 ft
For a turbojet aeroplane flying with a mass of 190 000
kg, at Mach 0.82, and knowing that the temperature at
flight level FL 370 is - 35° C, the optimum flight altitude
calculated using the annex is:

2100 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 031-11231A)_x000D_ 4 580 NM 4 820 NM 4 800 NM 4 940 NM
For a long distance flight at FL 370, "Long Range"
regime, divided into four flight legs with the following
specifications:_x000D_
- segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. headwind
component: 50 kt_x000D_
- segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind
component: 30 kt_x000D_
- segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tailwind
component: 70 kt_x000D_
- segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind
component: 20 kt_x000D_
The total air distance is approximately:

2101 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12281A)_x000D_ the ICAO the number the the number
Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes "NUMBER AND type of aircraft registration of aircraft
TYPE OF AIRCRAFT". In this case "NUMBER" means : designator flying in a number of which will
number as group the aircraft separately
set out in be using a
ICAO Doc repetitive
8643 flight plan
(RPL)
2102 33 0 1 0 0
When completing an ATS flight plan, an elapsed time 1H55 115M 0115 0155
(Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as :
2103 33 0 0 0 1
When completing an ATS flight plan for a European Central UTC Local mean local
destination, clock times are to be expressed in : European time standard
Time time
2104 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11064A or Route 108.7 IMSW 108.3 IMNW 108.3 IMSW 108.7 IMNW
Manual chart MUNICH ILS Rwy 26R (11-4))_x000D_
The ILS frequency and identifier are:
2105 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annexes 033-11226A and 033- 0.82 0.84 0.80 the same as
11226B)_x000D_ for LRC
In standard atmosphere, assuming a mass of 197 000 (Long
kg, in order to fly at FL 370 and to be at the optimum Range
altitude, your Mach number should be: Cruise)
2106 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3312A or Route FL 320 FL 300 FL 310 FL 330
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N
001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). What is the
first FL above FL295 that can be flown on an IFR
flightplan ?
2107 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12280A)_x000D_ "NONE" "ZZZZ" "XXXX" the most
When completing Item 9 of the ATS flight plan, if there is followed by followed by descriptive
no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should an entry in an entry in abbreviation
be entered : Item 18 Item 18
2108 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annexes 033-11223A, 033- 20 260 kg 22 360 kg 19 660 kg 21 760 kg
11223B and 033-11223C)_x000D_
Given:_x000D_
. Take-off mass: 150 000 kg_x000D_
. Planned cruise at FL 350_x000D_
. Long range MACH_x000D_
. Standard Atmosphere (ISA)_x000D_
. CG: 37 %_x000D_
Covering an air distance of 2 000 NM, your trip fuel from
take-off to landing will be:

2109 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11063A or Route Cross at Cross at Cross at Cross at
Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 27 FL80 FL60 and FL60 FL70
(21-2))_x000D_ descend to maintain descend to descend to
The crossing altitude and descent instruction for a FL70 4000 ft 4000 ft
propeller aircraft at COULOMMIERS (CLM) are :
2110 33 0 0 1 0
"Integrated range" curves or tables are presented in the to determine to determine to determine to determine
Aeroplane Operations Manuals. Their purpose is the flight the still air the optimum the fuel
time for a distance for speed consumption
certain leg a wind considering for a certain
under components the fuel cost still air
consideratio varying with as well as distance
n of altitude. the time considering
temperature related cost the
deviations. of the decreasing
aeroplane. fuel flow with
decreasing
mass.

2111 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11065A or Route 268° 088° 100° 118°
Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 10
(21-8))_x000D_
The ILS localizer course is :
2112 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3315A or Route The airway The airway The airway The airway
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ UB5 is UB5 can be UB5 cannot UB5 is
An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N closed in used for be used, closed for
012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which this direction flights there is one southbound
statement is correct ? except to/from way traffic to traffic above
during the Klagenfurt the north. FL 200.
weekends. and
Salzburg.
2113 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3314A or Route The radial, The The The average
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ referenced magnetic magnetic true course
An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N to true north, great circle course to fly of the great
001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). At Biggin of Biggin to course from inbound to circle from
you can find : 141°. This is : fly inbound. Biggin to Biggin. Biggin to
Abbeville. Abbeville.

2114 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3313A or Route 64NM 62NM 100 NM 38 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N
001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 000°00.2'E). What is
the distance of this leg ?
2115 33 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following statements is (are) correct with Neither Statement 2 Both Statement 1
regard to computer flight plans _x000D_ statement only statements only
1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the
route and adds extra fuel._x000D_
2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a
missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach
and landing at the destination alternate.
2116 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11195A)_x000D_ 5 to 7 at 500 3 to 4 at 500 5 to 7 at 5 to 7 at
What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for 1200 2000
1900 UTC at HAMBURG (EDDH) ?
2117 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11181A)_x000D_ Engine Severe Reduced There is no
Which describes the worst hazard, if any, that could be flame out attenuation visibility hazard
associated with the type of feature at 38°N 015°E ? and in the HF
windscreen R/T band
damage
2118 33 1 0 0 0
An executive pilot is to carry out a flight to a French in the FAL in the AGA in the GEN by
aerodrome, spend the night there and return the next section of chapter of chapter of telephoning
day. Where will he find the information concerning the French the French the French the
parking and landing fees ? Aeronautical Aeronautical Aeronautical aerodrome's
Information Information Information local
Publication Publication Publication chamber of
(AIP) (AIP) (AIP) commerce,
this type of
information
not being
published_x
000D_

2119 33 1 0 0 0
An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, IAS 155kt. The 42 NM 40 45 48 NM
pilot intends to descend at 500 ft/min to arrive overhead NM_x000D_ NM_x000D_
the MAN VOR at 2 000 FT (QNH 1 030hPa). The TAS
remains constant in the descent, wind is negligeable,
temperature standard. At which distance from MAN
should the pilot commence the descent?

2120 33 0 0 0 1
The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary 14500 kg. 13370 kg. 13220 kg. 13000 kg.
for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome
to the destination aerodrome is 5352 kg. Fuel
consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. Alternate
fuel is 4380 kg. Contingency should be 5% of trip
fuel._x000D_
What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which
should be on board at take-off?
2121 33 0 0 0 1
The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet 74 800 kg 79 800 kg 77 200 kg 77 800 kg
aeroplane:_x000D_
-standard taxi fuel: 600 kg._x000D_
-average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h._x000D_
-holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate
airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h._x000D_
-flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours
_x000D_
-fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg._x000D_
The minimum ramp fuel load is:

2122 33 0 0 0 1
A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060 3500 kg. 8120 kg. 7380 kg. 1845 kg.
kg/h, and 3690 kg/h during holding. If the destination is
an isolated airfield, the aeroplane must carry, in addition
to contingency reserves, additionnal fuel of :

2123 33 0 1 0 0
 In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not TAS IAS CAS Groundspee
expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is d
expressed as :
2124 33 1 0 0 0
Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard magnetic magnetic true course true
2125 33 instrument departure the routes are given with: course headings headings 1 0 0 0
For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must 50 10 20 30
2126 33 take place on a regular basis on at least : occasions occasions occasions occasions 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11196A)_x000D_ 2200 5000 10,000 1500
What minimum visibility (m) is forecast for 0600 UTC at
LONDON LHR (EGLL) ?
2127 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-11197A)_x000D_ Haze Mist Smoke Dust
Which affects the visibility forecast for 0000 UTC at
LAHORE (OPLA) ?
2128 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11198A)_x000D_ 0800 0600 Nil forecast 1000
What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that
thunderstorms are forecast for DOHA (OTBD) ?
2129 33 0 0 0 1
A METAR reads : SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 day/month period of temperature/ runway in
QI024 =_x000D_ validity dewpoint use
Which of the following information is contained in this
METAR ?
2130 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11201A)_x000D_ -49 -50 -47 -46
What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a course of
360° (T) from 40°N to 50°N at 040°E ?
2131 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11202A)_x000D_ FL290 None FL250 FL 210
Which of the following flight levels, if any, is forecast to
be clear of significant cloud, icing and CAT along the
marked route from SHANNON (53°N 10°W) to BERLIN
(53°N 13°E) ?
2132 33 0 0 1 0
A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final 30 minutes 20 minutes 30 minutes 15 minutes
reserve fuel must allow for : hold at 1500 hold over hold at 1500 hold at 1500
ft above alternate ft above ft above
destination airfield. mean sea destination
aerodrome level. aerodrome
elevation, elevation.
when no
alternate is
required.

2133 33 1 0 0 0
An IFR flight is planned outside airways on a course of 85_x000D_ 80_x000D_ 100 90
235° magnetic. The minimum safe altitude is 7800 ft.
Knowing the QNH is 995 hPa, the minimum flight level
you must fly is:
2134 33 0 0 1 0
If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the ////_x000D_ ZZZZ AAAA XXXX_x000
2135 33 appropriate box of your flight plan, you write: D_ 0 1 0 0
A helicopter is on a 150 NM leg to an off-shore oil rig. Its 224.5 NM 158.6 222.1 160.3 NM
TAS is 130 kt with a 20 kt tailwind, its endurance is NM_x000D_ NM_x000D_
3h30min without reserve. Upon reaching destination, it is
asked to proceed outbound to locate a ship in distress,
on a track which gives a 15 kt tailwind. Maintaining zero
reserve on return to the oil rig, the helicopter can fly
outbound for distance of:

2136 33 0 0 0 1
 On a VFR flight plan, the total estimated time is:_x000D_ the the the the
estimated estimated estimated estimated
time from time from time from time from
engine start take-off to take-off to take-off to
to landing at overhead overhead landing at
the the the the alternate
destination destination destination airport
airport airport airport, plus
15 minutes

2137 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annexes 033-12302A and 033- 17 800 kg 17 500 kg 14 500 kg 14 200 kg
12302B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.1)_x000D_
Given : Distance C - D : 3200
NM_x000D_
Long Range Cruise at FL 340 _x000D_
Temperature Deviation from ISA :
+12°C_x000D_
Tailwind component : 50
kt_x000D_
Gross mass at C : 55 000
kg_x000D_
The fuel required from C - D is :

2138 33 0 0 1 0
For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as 27 kg trip 39 kg trip 30 kg trip 39 kg trip
follows:_x000D_ fuel and 12 fuel and no fuel and 9 kg fuel and 12
_x000D_ kg reserve reserve fuel. reserve fuel. kg reserve
Flight time: 3h06min_x000D_ fuel. fuel.
The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than
30% of the remaining trip fuel._x000D_
Taxi fuel: 8 kg_x000D_
Block fuel: 118 kg_x000D_
How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?

2139 33 0 0 1 0
The navigation plan reads:_x000D_ 2h49min 3h38min 3h34min 2h45min
Trip fuel: 136 kg_x000D_
Flight time: 2h45min_x000D_
Calculated reserve fuel: 30% of trip fuel_x000D_
Fuel in tank is minimum (no extra fuel on
board)_x000D_
Taxi fuel: 3 kg_x000D_
The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
2140 33 0 0 1 0
You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can 500 800 kg 1000 kg 700
be carried in the following conditions :_x000D_ kg_x000D_ kg_x000D_
_x000D_
- dry operating mass : 2800 kg_x000D_
- trip fuel : 300 kg_x000D_
- payload : 400 kg_x000D_
- maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg_x000D_
- maximum landing mass : 3700 kg
2141 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-4616A or Flight Still air Flight time, Distance Distance
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)_x000D_ distance, wind (NM), wind (NM), wind
In order to get alternate fuel and time, the twin -jet wind component, component, component,
aeroplane operations manual graph shall be entered component, landing zero fuel landing
with: zero fuel mass at mass. mass at
mass. alternate. alternate.
2142 33 0 0 0 1
 A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The At the At departure At The
fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate destination the reserve destination remaining
fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons. there will still fuel was 28 the required fuel is not
Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at be 30 US US gallons reserves sufficient to
departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel gallons in remain reach the
consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 US gallons the tanks intact. destination
and the distance flown is half of the total distance. with
Assume that fuel consumption doesn't change. Which reserves
statement is right ? intact

2143 33 0 0 0 1
On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector 15 10 25 NM 20 NM
altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation NM_x000D_ NM_x000D_
facility. Without any particular specification on distance,
this altitude is valid to:
2144 33 0 0 1 0
In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, start- pass the go off blocks take-off
corresponding to the estimated time of departure, the up_x000D_ departure
time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to : beacon_x00
0D_
2145 33 0 0 1 0
The planned departure time from the parking area is 1755 UTC 1715 UTC 1725 UTC 1745 UTC
1815 UTC_x000D_
The estimated take-off time is 1825 UTC_x000D_
The IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at:

2146 33 0 1 0 0
When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the estimated maximum actual take- maximum
wake turbulence category. This category is a function of take-off certified off mass certified
which mass? mass landing take-off
mass mass
2147 33 0 0 0 1
After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind 24 min 20 min 10 min 40 16 min
component, you have to return to the airfield of sec
departure. You will arrive after:
2148 33 1 0 0 0
In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to P C B A
indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder -
mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is :
2149 33 0 1 0 0
The navigation plan reads:_x000D_ 2h 04min 2h 52min 2h 49min 1h 35min
Trip fuel: 100 kg_x000D_
Flight time: 1h35min_x000D_
Taxi fuel: 3 kg_x000D_
Block fuel: 181 kg_x000D_
The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:

2150 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-3908A or Route 142°. 330°. 343°. 322°.
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49
00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow_x000D_
(N51 29.2 W000 27.9)._x000D_
Find the average true course from Paris to London.

2151 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9578A or Flight TAS 423 kt, TAS 433 kt, TAS 423 kt, TAS 433 kt,
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)_x000D_ 936 NAM 227 NAM 227 NAM 1163 NAM
Given: Long range cruise, OAT -45°C at FL 350, Gross
mass at the beginning of the leg 40000 kg, Gross mass
at the end of the leg 39000 kg_x000D_
Find: True air speed (TAS) and cruise distance (NAM)
for a twin jet aeroplane
2152 33 0 1 0 0
 Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air WCA -2°, WCA +2°, WCA -2°, WCA +2°,
speed (TAS) 420 kt_x000D_ GS 426 kt GS 416 kt GS 396 kt GS 396 kt
Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed
(GS)
2153 33 0 0 1 0
In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for neither SID both should SIDs should STARS
which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival nor STAR be entered be entered should be
(STAR) procedures exist : should be in the ATS but not entered but
entered plan where STARs not SIDs
appropriate
2154 33 0 1 0 0
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg; 4 000 kg 7 000 kg 5 600 kg 3 000 kg
maximum landing mass 56200 kg; maximum zero fuel
mass 53 000 kg; dry operating mass 35 500 kg;
estimated load 14 500 kg; estimated trip fuel 4 900 kg;
minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg._x000D_
Find: maximum additional load
2155 33 0 0 0 1
An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and EDDM 2H15 EDDM 0215 EDDM 1415 EDDM 1215
arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATS flight
plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with :
2156 33 0 1 0 0
In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position VOR ident, VOR ident, VOR ident, full name of
as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of magnetic true bearing magnetic VOR, true
figures should consist of : bearing and and distance bearing and bearing and
distance in in kilometres distance in distance in
nautical kilometres kilometres
miles
2157 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annexes 033-11204A, 033- 41 950 kg 51 860 kg 52 060 kg 46 340 kg
11204B and 033-11204C)_x000D_
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:_x000D_
Flight leg ground distance: 4 000 NM_x000D_
Flight level FL 370; "Long range" flight regime_x000D_
Effective wind at this level: head wind of 50 kt_x000D_
Temperature: ISA_x000D_
Centre of gravity (CG): 37 %_x000D_
Pack flow : LOW (LO)_x000D_
Anti ice: OFF_x000D_
Reference landing mass: 140 000 kg_x000D_
Taxi fuel: 500 kg_x000D_
Final reserve fuel: 2 400 kg_x000D_
The fuel quantity which must be loaded on board the
aircraft is:

2158 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3907A or Route 77 ft. 177 ft. 100 ft. 80 ft.
Manual chart STAR LONDON Heathrow (10-2))_x000D_
Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to
London (Heathrow)._x000D_
Find the elevation of the destination aerodrome.
2159 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-3321A or Flight 4 800 kg; 01 4 400 kg; 02 4 750 kg; 02 4 600 kg; 02
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1.B)_x000D_ : 45 : 05 : 00 : 05
Given : estimated zero fuel mass 50 t; estimated landing
mass at alternate 52 t; final reserve fuel 2 t; alternate
fuel 1 t; flight to destination, distance 720 NM, true
course (TC) 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: long range FL 330,
outside air temperature -30 ° C._x000D_
Find : estimated trip fuel and time
2160 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-3909A or Route 207 NM. 188 NM. 308 NM. 218 NM.
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49
00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow_x000D_
(N51 29.2 W000 27.9)._x000D_
Determine the preplanning distance by calculating the
direct distance plus 10%._x000D_
The preplanning distance is:
2161 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3910A or Flight 49 250 kg. 2 250 kg. 48 675 kg. 48 125 kg.
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)_x000D_
Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London
Heathrow for a twin - jet aeroplane._x000D_
Preplanning:_x000D_
Dry Operating Mass (DOM): 34 000 kg_x000D_
Traffic Load: 13 000 kg_x000D_
The holding is planned at 1 500 ft above alternate
elevation. The alternate elevation is 256 ft. The holding
is planned for 30 minutes with no reductions._x000D_
Determine the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate
Manchester.

2162 33 0 0 0 1
In the ATS flight plan Item 19, if the number of "TBN" (to be the plan an estimate the plan may
passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is notified) may should be may be not be filed
ready for filing : be entered filed with the entered but until the
in the relevant box that number information
relevant box blank may not is available
subsequentl
y be
exceeded
2163 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11213A and 033- 27 800 kg 27 000 kg 28 300 kg 29 200 kg
11213B)_x000D_
Assuming the following data:_x000D_
. Ground distance to be covered: 2 500 NM_x000D_
. Cruise flight level: FL 350_x000D_
. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470
kt)_x000D_
. Tailwind component: 40 kt_x000D_
. Planned destination landing mass: 150 000 kg_x000D_
. Temperature: ISA _x000D_
. CG: 37%_x000D_
. Total anti-ice: OFF_x000D_
. Air conditioning: normal_x000D_
Fuel consumption for such a flight is:

2164 33 1 0 0 0
When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight X Y N/S G
commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR,
the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be :
2165 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12289A)_x000D_ placing a tick listing the crossing out circling the
In the ATS flight plan Item 19, emergency and survival in the items carried the box relevant box
equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by : relevant box on the relevant to
"REMARKS" any
line equipment
not carried
2166 33 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 033-3906A or Route 217 ft. 2 ft. 387 ft. 268 ft.
Manual chart SID PARIS Charles-De-Gaulle (20-
3))_x000D_
Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to
London (Heathrow)._x000D_
Find the elevation of the departure aerodrome.
2167 33 0 0 1 0
In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 0470K N470 N0470 KN470
2168 33 knots will be entered as : 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11193A)_x000D_ +2 +9 +13 -2
What is the mean temperature deviation (°C) from the
ISA over 50°N 010°W ?
2169 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-11207A and 033- 12 000 kg 14 000 kg 30 000 kg 42 000 kg
11207B)_x000D_
A turbojet aeroplane is prepared for a 1300 NM flight at
FL 350, with a true airspeed of 460 kt and a head wind
of 160 kt. The take-off runway limitation is 174 000 kg,
the planned departure mass is 160 000 kg. The
departure fuel price is equal to 0.92 times the arrival fuel
price (fuel price ratio = 0.92). In order for the airline to
optimize its savings, the additional fuel quantity that must
be loaded on board is:

2170 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11208A)_x000D_ 193 800 kg 192 500 kg 193 000 kg 193 400 kg
A turbojet aeroplane, weighing 200 000 kg, initiates its
cruise at the optimum level at M 0.84 (ISA, CG=37%,
Total Anti Ice ON). A head wind of 30 kt is experienced
and, after a distance of 500 NM, severe icing is
encountered and this requires an immediate descent.
The aeroplane mass at start of descent is:

2171 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11209A and 033- 0 kg 3 000 kg 2 000 kg 4 000 kg
11209B)_x000D_
Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.91,
the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by
using the following data:_x000D_
. Cruise flight level: FL 350_x000D_
. Air distance to be covered: 2 500 NM_x000D_
. Planned take-off mass: 200 000 kg (with the minimum
prescribed fuel quantity of 38 000 kg that includes a trip
fuel of 29 000 kg)_x000D_
. Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg_x000D_
. Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg_x000D_
. Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg_x000D_
The additional fuel quantity will be:

2172 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-11210A and 033- 10 000 kg 20 000 kg 12 000 kg 15 000 kg
11210B)_x000D_
Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.92,
the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by
using the following data:_x000D_
. Cruise flight level: FL 350_x000D_
. Air distance to be covered: 1 830 NM_x000D_
. Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum
prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip
fuel of 22 000 kg)_x000D_
. Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg_x000D_
. Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg_x000D_
. Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg_x000D_
The additional fuel quantity will be:

2173 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11211A and 033- 4 h 26 min 5 h 02 min 4 h 10 min 4 h 43 min
11211B )_x000D_
Assuming the following data:_x000D_
. Ground distance to be covered: 2 000 NM_x000D_
. Cruise flight level: FL 330_x000D_
. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470
kt)_x000D_
. Head wind component: 30 kt_x000D_
. Planned destination landing mass: 160 000 kg_x000D_
. Temperature: ISA_x000D_
. CG: 37%_x000D_
. Total anti-ice: ON_x000D_
. Pack flow: HI_x000D_
Time needed to carry out such a flight is:

2174 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9579A, B,C,D or Flight 24000 ft, 33500 ft, 33900 ft, 25000 ft,
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2 and Figure 445 kt 430 kt 420 kt 435 kt
4.5.3.2)_x000D_
Given: Estimated take-off mass 57000 kg, Ground
distance 150 NM, Temperature ISA -10°C, Cruise at .74
Mach_x000D_
Find: Cruise altitude and expected true air speed
2175 33 0 0 0 1
In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted estimated allocated estimated estimated
before departure, the departure time entered is the : take-off time slot time off-block time over
time the first point
en route

2176 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annexes 033-3320A, 033-3320B 22 000 ft; 22 000 ft; 25 000 ft; 25 000 ft;
and 033-3320C or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 441 kt 451 kt 435 kt 445 kt
Figures 4.2.1, 4.2.2 and 4.5.3.2)_x000D_
Given: estimated take-off mass 57 000 kg; still air
distance 150 NAM; outside air temperature (OAT) ISA
-10K; cruise at 0.74 Mach._x000D_
Find : cruise altitude and expected true airspeed
2177 33 0 0 1 0
When an ATS flight plan is submitted for a flight outside 1 hour flying 30 minutes 20 minutes 15 minutes
designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15 (route) time or 500 flying time or flying time or flying time or
should not normally be at intervals of more than : km 370 km 150 km 100 km
2178 33 0 1 0 0
In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure FL320 S3200 32000 F320
altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as :
2179 33 0 0 0 1
In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude N04135E04 N4135 4135N00415 41°35' N 04°
and longitude, a significant point at 41°35' north 4°15' 15 E00415 E 15'E
east should be entered as :
2180 33 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 033-3324A or Flight 1 180 kg; 2 360 kg; 1 180 2 360
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)_x000D_ alternate alternate kg;destinatio kg;destinatio
Given: dry operating mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 12 elevation elevation n elevation n elevation
000 kg, contingency approach and landing fuel 2 500 kg;
elevation at departure aerodrome 500 ft; elevation at
alternate aerodrome 30 ft._x000D_
Find: final reserve fuel for a jet aeroplane (holding) and
give the elevation which is relevant.
2181 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3323A or Flight 11 400 kg. 12 400 kg. 11 400 kg. 12 400 kg.
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C)_x000D_ 04h 12 min 04h 12 min 03h 55 min 03h 55 min
Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1 600
NM; headwind component 50 kt; FL 330; cruise 0.78
Mach; ISA + 20 ° C; estimated landing weight 55000
kg ._x000D_
Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated
trip fuel and trip time.
2182 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-3322A or Flight 800 kg; 1 100 kg; 1 100 kg; 800 kg;
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)_x000D_ 40 min 25 min 44 min 24 min
Given: estimated dry operation mass 35 500 kg;
estimated load 14 500 kg; final reserve fuel 1200 kg;
distance to alternate 95 NM; average true track 219°;
head wind component 10 kt_x000D_
Find : fuel and time to alternate.
2183 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3327A or Flight 752 NM 852 NM 610 NM 602 NM
Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2)_x000D_
A flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane
(MEP1). The cruising level will be 11000ft. The outside
air temperature at FL is -15 ° C. The usable fuel is 123
US gallons. The power is set to economic cruise. Find
the range in NM with 45 min reserve fuel at 45 % power.

2184 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11212A and 033- 23 500 kg 21 500 kg 21 700 kg 19 900 kg
11212B)_x000D_
Assuming the following data:_x000D_
. Ground distance to be covered: 1 500 NM_x000D_
. Cruise flight level: FL 310_x000D_
. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470
kt)_x000D_
. Head wind component: 40 kt_x000D_
. Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg_x000D_
. Temperature: ISA + 15° C_x000D_
. CG: 37 %_x000D_
. Total anti-ice: ON_x000D_
. Pack flow: HI_x000D_
Fuel consumption for such a flight is:

2185 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11014A or Route NOT frequency NOT frequency
Manual chart E(LO)5)_x000D_ frequency paired, and frequency paired, and
The VOR and TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK paired, and have the paired, and have
(52°12'N 008°17'E) are: have the same have different
same identifier different identifiers
identifier identifiers
2186 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 10997A or Route 349°/42 NM 169°/42 NM 349°/26 NM 169°/68 NM
Manual chart E(LO)2)_x000D_
The magnetic course/distance from CAMBRAI CMB
112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) to TALUN (49°33'N 003°25'E)
on airway B3 is:
2187 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033- 10998A or Route 311°/85 NM 279°/85 NM 279°/114 311°/114 NM
Manual chart E(LO)1)_x000D_ NM
The magnetic course/distance from WALLASEY WAL
114.1 (53°23N 003°28'W° to LIFFY (53°29'N 005°30'W)
on airway B1 is:
2188 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 10999A or Route 297°/70 NM 117°/71 NM 297°/57 NM 117°/57 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
The magnetic course/distance from TRENT TNT 115.7
(53°03'N 001°40'W) to WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N
003°08W) on airway VR3 is:
2189 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11000A or Route 052°/50 NM 007°/60 NM 105°/105 132°/43 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ NM
The magnetic course/distance from TANGO TGO 112.5
(48°37'N 009°16'E) to DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8
(49°09'N 010°14E) on airway UR11 is:
2190 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11001A or Route 061°/28 NM 041°/78 NM 061°/37 NM 048°/46 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
The magnetic course/distance from ST PREX SPR 113.9
(46°28'N 006°27'E) to FRIBOURG FRI 115.1 (46°47'N
007°14'E) on airway UG60 is:
2191 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11002A or Route 346°/64 NM 166°/64 NM 346°/43 NM 346°/45 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
The magnetic course/distance from SALZBURG SBG
113.8 (48°00'N 012°54'E) to STAUB (48°44'N 012°38'E)
on airway UB5 is:
2192 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11021A or Route FL140 FL160 FL200 FL250
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
Aeroplanes intending to use airway UR14 should cross
GIBSO intersection (50°45'N 002°30'W) at or above:

2193 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11013A or Route an NDB, a TACAN, a VOR only, a VOR/DME,
Manual chart E(LO)1)_x000D_ frequency frequency frequency frequency
The radio navigation aid at SHANNON (52°43'N 352 kHz 113.3 kHz 113.3 MHz 113.3 MHz
008°53'W) is :
2194 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 10994A or Route 337°/31 NM 337°/58 NM 337°/46 NM 157°/58 NM
Manual chart E(LO)6 )_x000D_
The magnetic course/distance from GROSTENQUIN
GTQ 111.25 (49°00'N 006°43'E) to LINNA (49°41'N
006°15'E) on airway R7 is:
2195 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11015A or Route Channel Channel Frequency Frequency
Manual chart E(LO)5)_x000D_ 440, BFO on 440, BFO off 440 kHz, 440 kHz,
The NDB at DENKO (52°49'N 015°50'E) can be BFO off BFO on
identified on:
2196 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11016A or Route an NDB a TACAN a fan marker an NDB
Manual chart E(LO)5)_x000D_ callisign N callsign callsign LP callsign LF
The airway intersection at RONNEBY (56°18'N RON
015°16'E) is marked by:
2197 33 1 0 0 0
From which of the following would you expect to find AIP (Air SIGMET ATCC NOTAM
information regarding known short unserviceability of Information broadcasts
VOR, TACAN, and NDB ? Publication)
2198 33 0 0 0 1
From which of the following would you expect to find the NOTAM and Only AIP (Air SIGMET RAD/NAV
dates and times when temporary danger areas are AIP (Air Information charts
active Information Publication)
Publication)

2199 33 1 0 0 0
 From which of the following would you expect to find NOTAM SIGMET AIP (Air ATCC
details of the Search and Rescue organisation and Information broadcasts
procedures (SAR) ? Publication)
2200 33 0 0 1 0
On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as "H" for requires a is of the has a has a
"Heavy" _x000D_ runway highest certified certified
length of at wake landing take-off
least 2 000m turbulence mass mass
at maximum category greater than greater than
certified or equal to or equal to
take-off 136 000 kg 140 000 kg
mass

2201 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11003A or Route 332°/76 NM 152°/42 NM 322°/60 NM 332°/118
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ NM
The magnetic course/distance from ELBA ELB 114.7
(42°44'N 010°24'E) to SPEZI (43°49'N 009°34'E) on
airway UA35 is:
2202 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12285A)_x000D_ be the RTF include the include the include an
In the ATS flight plan item 7, for a radio equipped callsign to aircraft operating indication of
aircraft, the identifier must always : be used registration agency the aircraft
marking designator type

2203 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annexes 033-3912A and 033- 1 550 kg. 1 900 kg. 1 450 kg. 1 740 kg.
3912B or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and
Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.2A)_x000D_
Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9
E002 36.9) to London Heathrow_x000D_
(N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin - jet
aeroplane._x000D_
Preplanning:_x000D_
Powersetting: Mach= 0.74_x000D_
Planned flight level FL 280_x000D_
The Landing Mass in the fuel graph is 50 000
kg_x000D_
The trip distance used for calculation is 200 NM_x000D_
The wind from Paris to London is 280°/40 kt_x000D_
Find the estimated trip fuel.
2204 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annexes 033-3911A and 033- 1 300 kg 1 600 kg 1 200 kg 1 450 kg
3911B) or (Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and and 28 and 36 and 26 and 32
Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.6)_x000D_ minutes. minutes. minutes. minutes.
Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9
E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9)
for a twin - jet aeroplane. The alternate airport is
Manchester (N53 21.4 W002 15.7) _x000D_
Preplanning:_x000D_
The wind from London to Manchester is 250°/30
kt_x000D_
The distance from London to Manchester is 160
NM._x000D_
Assume the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate is
about 50 000 kg._x000D_
Find the alternate fuel and the according time.

2205 33 0 0 0 1
The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density 213 kg/h 188 kg/h 267 kg/h 200 kg/h
of 0,8. If the relative density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:
2206 33 0 0 0 1
 (For this question use annex 033-4737A or Flight 9 10 7 9
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)_x000D_ min._x000D min._x000D min._x000D min._x000D
Given:_x000D_ _ _ _ _
FL 75_x000D_ 3,3 USG 3,6 USG 2,6 USG 2,7 USG
OAT: +5°C_x000D_
During climb: average head wind component 20
kt_x000D_
Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650
lbs._x000D_
Find:_x000D_
Time and fuel to climb.

2207 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-4736A or Flight 11.6 71.1 68.5 11.6
Planning Manual SEP 1 Table 2.2.3)_x000D_ GPH_x000D GPH_x000D GPH_x000D GPH_x000D
Given:_x000D_ _ _ _ _
FL 75_x000D_ TAS: 143 kt TAS: 143 kt TAS: 160 kt TAS: 160 kt
OAT +10°C_x000D_
Lean mixture_x000D_
2300 RPM_x000D_
Find:_x000D_
Fuel flow in gallons per hour (GPH) and TAS.

2208 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-4735A or Flight 05:20 04:42 05:23 05:12
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.5)_x000D_
Given:_x000D_
FL 75_x000D_
Lean mixture_x000D_
Full throttle_x000D_
2300 RPM_x000D_
Take-off fuel: 444 lbs_x000D_
Take-off from MSL_x000D_
Find:_x000D_
Endurance in hours.

2209 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 10996A or Route 024°/ 20 NM 024°/ 47 NM 024°/ 73 NM 023°/ 73 NM
Manual chart E(LO)5)_x000D_
The initial magnetic course/distance from EELDE EEL
112.4 (53°10'N 006°40'E) to WELGO (54°18'N 007°25'E)
on airway A7 is:
2210 33 0 0 1 0
In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of X N N/S G
the following letters schould be entered in Item 8 (Type
of Flight) :
2211 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 10995A or Route 352°/72 NM 352°/96 NM 339°/80 NM 339°/125
Manual chart E(LO)5)_x000D_ NM
The magnetic course/distance from ELBE LBE 115.1
(53°39'N 009°36'E) to LUNUD (54°50'N 009°19'E) on
airway H12 is:
2212 33 1 0 0 0
In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any 10 % TAS or 20 km per 20 knots or 5% TAS or
point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. 0.05 Mach hour or 0.1 0.05 Mach 0.01 Mach
For this purpose a "change of speed" is defined as : or more Mach or or more or more
more
2213 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-10989A or Route UG108 SPI UR10 NTM UG1 UB69 DINKI
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ UG1 UB6 BUB UB6 BUB
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from ATS ATS
FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03' N008°38'E) to KOKSY
(51°06'N 002°39'E) above FL245, on a Wednesday is :

2214 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033- 10990A or Route UA6 LSA UB282 DGN UB284 UB28
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ UG52 UB46 VILAR UB28
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from
MARTIGUES MTG 117.3 (43°23'N 005°05'E) to ST
PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) above FL245 is :

2215 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-10991A or Route UA34 UB19 POI UH40 UB19 CGC
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ UB195 FOUCO UA25
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from UH20
AMBOISE AMB 113.7 (47°26'N 001°04'E) to AGEN AGN PERIC
(43°53°'N 000°52'E) above FL200 is: UA34
2216 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 10992A or Route UR12 MID UB29 LAM UB29 LAM UR12 MID
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ UR8 SAM UR1 MID UR1 ORTAC UA47 DPE
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from UB11 UA34 LILAN UR14 UA475
CLACTON CLN 114.55 (51°51'N 001°09'E) to DINARD BARLU UR9 SOKMU
DIN 114.3 (48°35'N 002°05'W) above FL245 is: UW115 UH111

2217 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 10993A or Route 050°/47 NM 230°/97NM 133°/85 NM 052°/97 NM
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
The magnetic course/distance from DINKELSBUHL DKB
117.8 (49°09'N010°14'E) to ERLANGEN ERL 114.9
(49°39'N011°09'E) on airway UR11 is;
2218 33 1 0 0 0
An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that: the airway the airway is the minimum the minimum
base is 3500 a low level obstruction enroute
ft MSL link route clearance altitude
2100 ft - altitude (MEA) is
3500 ft MSL (MOCA) is 3500 ft
3500 ft

2219 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11214A)_x000D_ 29 400kg 27 400 kg 31 500 kg 29 100 kg
Assuming the following data:_x000D_
. Ground distance to be covered: 2 600 NM_x000D_
. Cruise flight level: FL 370_x000D_
. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470
kt)_x000D_
. Wind: zero wind during flight_x000D_
. Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg_x000D_
. Temperature: ISA + 15° C_x000D_
. CG: 37 %_x000D_
. Total anti-ice: ON_x000D_
. Air conditioning: normal_x000D_
Fuel consumption for such a flight is:

2220 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11187A)_x000D_ Light Moderate Severe Nil
Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT, if
any, forecast for FL330 over BENGHAZI (32°N 020°E) ?
2221 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11062A or Route 405 ft 275 ft 200 ft 480 ft
Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09R
(11-1))_x000D_
The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) for an ILS glide
slope out, is:
2222 33 0 0 0 1
 (For this question use annexes 033-11073A, 033- 26 950 kg 22 860 kg 24 900 kg 30 117 kg
11073B, 033-11073C and 033-11073D)_x000D_
Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated
landing mass is 160 000 kg; the ground distance
is_x000D_
2 800 NM and the mean tailwind is 100 kt; ISA
conditions._x000D_
Fuel consumption will be:
2223 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annexes 033-11074A, 033- 30 371 kg 32 657 kg 30 117 kg 27 577 kg
11074B, 033-11074C and 033-11074D)_x000D_
Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated
landing mass is 160 000 kg._x000D_
The ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean wind is
equal to zero. ISA conditions._x000D_
Fuel consumption will be:
2224 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11182A)_x000D_ a warm front a cold front an occluded a depression
The surface weather system over England (53°N moving moving east front moving moving
002°W) is southeast east north

2225 33 0 0 1 0
In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and 30 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes 30 minutes
the alternate aerodrome is B, the final reserve fuel for a holding holding holding holding
turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to: 2,000 feet 2,000 feet 1,500 feeI 1,500 feet
above above above above
aerodrome aerodrome A aerodrome A aerodrome
B B
2226 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-11184A)_x000D_ Nil Severe Moderate Light
Which describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any,
at FL180 in the vicinity of CASABLANCA (33°N
008°W) ?
2227 33 0 1 0 0
From which of the following would you expect to find AIP (Air NAV/RAD ATCC NOTAM
facilitation information (FAL) regarding customs and Information charts
health formalities ? Publication)
2228 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11186A)_x000D_ Severe Nil Moderate Light
Which best describes be maximum intensity of icing, if
any, at FL150 in the vicinity of BUCHAREST (45°N
026°E) ?
2229 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11059A or Route (i) 2000 ft (i) 200 ft (ii) (i) 3000 ft (i) 3000 ft (ii)
Manual chart AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL ILS DME Rwy (ii) 160° 223° (ii) 160° 223°
22 (11-6))_x000D_
The Missed Approach procedure is to climb to an alitude
of (i)------------ on a track of (ii) ----------
2230 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11188A)_x000D_ 290/110 300/140 300/100 300/160
The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) shown in the vicinity of
MUNICH (48°N 012°E) is :
2231 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11189A)_x000D_ a maximum 130 kt at a maximum 110 kt at
The wind velocity over ITALY is of 110 kt at FL380 of 160 kt at FL380
FL380 maximum FL 380 maximum
velocity not velocity not
shown on shown on
chart chart
2232 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11190A)_x000D_ 200/70 020/80 020/70 350/70
The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 50°N 040°E is:
2233 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11191A)_x000D_ 290/155 320/155 110/155 290/185
The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 60°N 015°W is
2234 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-11192A)_x000D_ 55 kt 35 kt tailwind 25 kt tailwind 40 kt
The approximate mean wind component (kt) at Mach headwind component component headwind
0.78 along true course 270° at 50°N from 000° to component component
010°W is
2235 33 0 0 0 1
Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to 55 765 kg. 51 425 kg. 52 265 kg. 51 515 kg.
London (Heathrow) for a twin - jet aeroplane._x000D_
Preplanning:_x000D_
Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kg_x000D_
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kg_x000D_
Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg_x000D_
Maximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kg_x000D_
Assume the following preplanning results:_x000D_
Trip fuel: 1 800 kg_x000D_
Alternate fuel: 1 400 kg_x000D_
Holding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kg_x000D_
Dry Operating Mass: 34 000 kg_x000D_
Traffic Load: 13 000 kg_x000D_
Catering: 750 kg_x000D_
Baggage: 3 500 kg_x000D_
Find the Take-off Mass (TOM):

2236 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-11185A)_x000D_ 5 to 7 oktas 5 to 7 oktas 3 to 7 oktas Nil
Which best describes the significant cloud, if any, CU and CB CU and CB CU and CB
forecast for the area southwest of BODO (67°N 014°E) base below base base below
FL100, tops FL100, tops FL100, tops
FL180 FL180 FL180
2237 33 1 0 0 0
Given :_x000D_ 1 hour 42 1 hour 54 1 hour 39 2 hours 02
Course A to B 088° (T)_x000D_ minutes minutes minutes minutes
distance 1250 NM_x000D_
Mean TAS 330 kt_x000D_
Mean W/V 340°/60 kt_x000D_
The time from A to the PET between A and B is :
2238 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11043A or Route 96 NM 83 NM 88 NM 73 NM
Manual STAR charts for PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE
(20-2))_x000D_
The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to
BOURSONNE (BSN) is :
2239 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11044A or Route West sector West sector East sector East sector
Manual SID chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10- 2100 ft 2300 ft 2100 ft 2300 ft
3))_x000D_ within 25 NM within 25 NM within 50 NM within 50 NM
Which of the following is a correct Minimum Safe Altitude
(MSA) for the Airport?
2240 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11045A or Route CENTA MOTIL VTB CJN
Manual STAR chart for MADRID BARAJAS (10-
2A,B))_x000D_
For runway 33 arrivals from the east and south, the
Initial Approach Fix (IAF) inbound from airway UR10 is :

2241 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11046A or Route ALBIX 7S ALBIX 7A ALBIX 6H ALBIX 6E
Manual SID charts for ZURICH (10-3))_x000D_
Which is the correct ALBIX departure via AARAU for
runway 16?
2242 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11047A or Route 67 NM 35 NM 59 NM 52 NM
Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-
3B))_x000D_
The route distance from runway 27 to ARNEM is:
2243 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033- 11048A or Route Cross The distance Maximum Contact
Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10- ANDIK to ANDIK is IAS 250kt SCHIPOL
3))_x000D_ below FL60 25 NM turning left DEPARTUR
Which of the following statements is correct for ANDIK at SPL 3.1 E 119.05
departures from runway 19L? DME passing
2000 ft and
report
altitude
2244 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11061A or Route 100 ft 88 ft 300 ft 188 ft
Manual chart AMSTERDAM JAA MINIMUMS (10-
9X)_x000D_
The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS
DME approach to Rwy 01L is :
2245 33 1 0 0 0
Given :_x000D_ DxOx Dx Dx ExOx
X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A H_x000D_ H_x000D_ O_x000D_ H_x000D_
and B_x000D_ X= X= X= X=
E = Endurance_x000D_ _________x ______x000 ______x000 _________x
D = Distance A to B_x000D_ 000D_ D_ D_ 000D_
O = Groundspeed 'on'_x000D_ O+H O+H O+H O+H
H = Groundspeed 'back'_x000D_
The formula for calculating the distance X to point of
equal time (PET) is:

2246 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11060A or Route 3500 ft 2067 ft 1567 ft 4000 ft
Manual chart MADRID BARAJAS ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-
1))_x000D_
The minimum glide slope interception altitude for a full
ILS is:
2247 33 0 0 0 1
Given :_x000D_ 1350 NM 1313 NM 1425 NM 1386 NM
Distance X to Y 2700 NM_x000D_
Mach Number 0.75_x000D_
Temperature -45°C_x000D_
Mean wind component 'on' 10 kt
tailwind_x000D_
Mean wind compontent 'back' 35 kt tailwind_x000D_
The distance from X to the point of equal time (PET)
between X and Y is :
2248 33 0 0 0 1
Given :_x000D_ 1130 NM 1025 NM 920 NM 1153 NM
Distance A to B 2050 NM_x000D_
Mean groundspeed 'on' 440 kt_x000D_
Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt_x000D_
The distance to the point of equal time (PET) between A
and B is :
2249 33 1 0 0 0
Given :_x000D_ 5 hours 45 3 hours 55 5 hours 20 5 hours 30
Distance A to B 3060 NM_x000D_ minutes minutes minutes minutes
Mean groundspeed 'out' 440 kt_x000D_
Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt_x000D_
Safe Endurance 10
hours_x000D_
2250 33 The time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is: 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with Both Neither Statement 1 Statement 2
regard to the advantages of computer flight plans ? statements statement only only
_x000D_
1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan._x000D_
2. Wind data used by the computer is always more up-
to-date than that available to the pilot.
2251 33 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following statements is (are) correct with Statement 2 Both Neither Statement 1
regard to the operation of flight planning computers ? only statements statement only
_x000D_
1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan._x000D_
2. In the event of inflight re-routing the computer
produces a new plan.
2252 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11058A or Route 280 ft 200 ft 400 ft 480 ft
Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09L
(11-2))_x000D_
The Decision Altitude (DA) for a ILS straight-in landing is
:
2253 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11194A)_x000D_ 150/75 300/75 330/75 330/85
The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 40°N 040°E is
2254 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11049A or Route NDG 1T, IAF DKB 1T, IAF AALEN 1T, AALEN 1T,
Manual STAR charts for MUNICH (10-2A,B))_x000D_ ROKIL ROKIL IAF ROKIL IAF MBG
The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix (IAF)
for an arrival from the west via TANGO for runway 08
L/R is:

2255 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-3305A or Flight 1 680 kg 1 020 kg 1 200 kg 1 100 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)_x000D_
Given: long range cruise: temp. -63° C at FL
330_x000D_
initial gross mass enroute 54 100 kg; leg flight
time 29 min_x000D_
2256 33 Find: fuel consumption for this leg 0 1 0 0
The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine fuel to fly for fuel to fly for fuel to fly for fuel to fly for
engines is 45 minutes 45 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes
at holding at holding at holding at holding
speed at speed at speed at speed at
1500 ft (450 1000 ft (300 1500 ft (450 1500 ft (450
m) above m) above m) above m) above
aerodrome aerodrome aerodrome aerodrome
elevation in elevation in elevation in elevation in
standard standard standard standard
conditions. conditions. conditions. conditions.

2257 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9546A or Flight distance in distance in distance in distance in
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)_x000D_ nautical nautical nautical nautical air
In order to find ALTERNATE FUEL and TIME TO miles (NM), miles (NM), miles (NM), miles (NAM),
ALTERNATE, the AEROPLANE OPERATING MANUAL wind wind wind wind
shall be entered with: component, component, component, component,
zero fuel dry landing landing
mass operating mass at mass at
mass plus alternate alternate
holding fuel

2258 33 0 0 1 0
For flight planning purposes the landing mass at Zero Fuel Zero Fuel Landing Zero Fuel
alternate is taken as: Mass plus Mass plus Mass at Mass plus
Final Final destination Final
Reserve Reserve plus Reserve
Fuel and Fuel. Alternate Fuel and
Contingency Fuel. Alternate
Fuel. Fuel.
2259 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-9543A or Flight pressure pressure pressure pressure
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)_x000D_ altitude, altitude, altitude, altitude,
The final reserve fuel taken from the HOLDING aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
PLANNING table for the twin jet aeroplane is based on mass and mass and mass and mass and
the following parameters: flaps down flaps up with flaps down flaps up with
with minimum with maximum
minimum drag maximum range speed
drag airspeed range speed
airspeed

2260 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3301A or Flight 6 US gallon 9 US gallon 12 US gallon 3 US gallon
Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1)_x000D_
A flight is to be made from one airport (elevation 3000 ft)
to another in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1).
The cruising level will be FL 110. The temperature at FL
110 is ISA - 10° C. The temperature at the departure
aerodrome is -1° C. Calculate the fuel to climb with
mixture rich.
2261 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3302A or Flight 20 NM 29 NM 36 NM 25 NM
Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.6)_x000D_
A flight is to be made to an airport, pressure altitude
3000 ft, in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1). The
forecast OAT for the airport is -1° C. The cruising level
will be FL 110, where OAT is -10° C._x000D_
Calculate the still air descent distance for:_x000D_
145 KIAS_x000D_
Rate of descent 1000 ft/min_x000D_
Gears and flaps up

2262 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11245A and 033- 8 000 kg The fuel 22 000 kg 15 000 kg
11245B)_x000D_ transport
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight operation is
using the following data:_x000D_ not
- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM_x000D_ recommend
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt_x000D_ ed in this
- Headwind component at this level: 5 kt_x000D_ case.
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 180 000 kg_x000D_
- Fuel price: 0.35 $/l at departure; 0.315 $/l at
destination_x000D_
To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary._x000D_
Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel
which should be carried in addition to the prescribed
quantity is:

2263 33 0 1 0 0
Given:maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 11 100 kg 11 400 kg 14 400 kg 8 600 kg
kg_x000D_
maximum landing mass 56 200 kg_x000D_
maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg_x000D_
dry operating mass 35 500 kg_x000D_
estimated load 14 500 kg_x000D_
estimated trip fuel 4 900kg_x000D_
minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg_x000D_
Find the maximum allowable take-off fuel:

2264 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-9551A or Flight 30000 ft 25000 ft 21000 ft 27500 ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2)_x000D_
Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the
twin jet aeroplane._x000D_
Given: Brake release mass=40000 kg, Temperature=ISA
+ 20°C, Trip distance=150 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)

2265 33 1 0 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 16 300 kg 17 300 kg 15 900 kg 17 100 kg
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33500 kg_x000D_
Load= 7600 kg_x000D_
Maximum allowable take-off mass= 66200 kg_x000D_
Standard taxi fuel= 200 kg_x000D_
Tank capacity= 16 100 kg_x000D_
The maximum possible take-off fuel is:
2266 33 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ Estimated Estimated Estimated Estimated
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg_x000D_ take-off landing take-off landing
Load= 7600 kg_x000D_ mass= mass at mass= mass at
Trip fuel (TF)= 2040 kg_x000D_ 43295 kg. destination= 45233 kg. destination=
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg_x000D_ 43295 kg. 43193 kg.
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg_x000D_
Contingency fuel= 5% of trip fuel_x000D_
Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?
2267 33 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 42312 kg. 42195 kg. 41110 kg. 42210 kg.
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33000 kg_x000D_
Load= 8110 kg_x000D_
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg_x000D_
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg_x000D_
Contingency fuel 102 kg_x000D_
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be :

2268 33 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 42195 kg. 42093 kg. 42210 kg. 42312 kg.
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg_x000D_
Load= 7600 kg_x000D_
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg_x000D_
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg_x000D_
Contingency fuel 102 kg_x000D_
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be :

2269 33 1 0 0 0
The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet 60 min. Variable with 30 min. 45 min.
aeroplane is: wind
velocity.
2270 33 0 0 1 0
How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? 7800 ft. 6300 ft. 6000 ft. 6600 ft.
_x000D_
Given: FL 75; departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft;
QNH = 1023 hPa; temperature = ISA; 1 hPa = 30 ft

2271 33 0 1 0 0
((For this question use annex 033-9727A, 127.20 MHz 127.20 kHz 128.525 118.10 MHz
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 MHz
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
Give the frequency of ZÜRICH VOLMET.
2272 33 1 0 0 0
 A VFR flight planned for a Piper Seneca III. At a 21.3 US 30.3 US 33.0 US 37.9 US
navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in gallons/hour gallons/hour gallons/hour gallons/hour
tanks is 60 US gallons. The alternate fuel is 12 US
gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight
time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest rate of
consumption possible for the rest of the trip.

2273 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9558A)_x000D_ ATC ATC ATC ATC
Finish the ENDURANCE/FUEL CALCULATION and ENDURANC ENDURANC ENDURANC ENDURANC
determine ATC ENDURANCE for a twin jet aeroplane, E: 03:37 E: 04:12 E: 04:07 E: 03:52
with the help of the table provided. Contingency is 5% of
the planned trip fuel and fuel flow for extra fuel is 2400
kg/h.
2274 33 0 0 1 0
A twin-jet aeroplane carries out the WASHINGTON- BERMUDAS SANTA BERMUDAS Either
PARIS flight. When it reaches point K (35°N - 048°W) a or GANDER, MARIA GANDER or
non-mechanical event makes the Captain consider or SANTA BERMUDAS
rerouting to one of the three following fields. The flight MARIA
conditions are:_x000D_
- from K to BERMUDAS (distance 847NM, headwind
component=18 kt)_x000D_
- from K to SANTA MARIA (distance 1112 NM, tailwind
component=120 kt)_x000D_
- from K to GANDER (distance 883 NM, wind
component=0)._x000D_
_x000D_
With an aeroplane true airspeed of 460 kt, the field
selected will be that more rapidly reached:

2275 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12275A)_x000D_ VHF RTF, VHF RTF, VHF RTF, VHF RTF,
In the ATS flight plan Item 10, "standard equipment" is ADF, VOR ADF, VOR VOR, ILS VOR, ILS
considered to be : and ILS and and and
transponder transponder transponder

2276 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12276A)_x000D_ the letters it is the words it is not
In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a "DCT" necessary "as cleared" necessary to
designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not should be only to give should be indicate the
on or connected to that route : entered, the first entered point of
followed by reporting joining that
the point of point on that route as it
joining the route will be
ATS route obvious to
the ATS unit.

2277 33 1 0 0 0
An operator (turbojet engine) shall ensure that 30 minutes 30 minutes 2 hours at 45 minutes
calculation up of usable fuel for a flight for which no at holding at holding normal plus 15% of
destination alternate is required includes, taxi fuel, trip speed at speed at cruise the flight
fuel, contingency fuel and fuel to fly for: 450 m 450 m consumption time planned
above MSL above to be spent
in standard aerodrome at cruising
conditions elevation in level or two
standard hours
conditions whichever is
less

2278 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12277A)_x000D_ EQUIPMEN ROUTE AIRCRAFT OTHER
In the event that SELCAL, is prescribed by an T IDENTIFICA INFORMATI
appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight TION ON
plan will the SELCAL code be entered ?
2279 33 0 0 0 1
 An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of medium plus heavy "H" heavy/mediu medium "M"
137000 kg but is operating at take-off mass 135000 kg. "M+" m "H/M"
In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence
category is :
2280 33 0 1 0 0
For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) unclassified medium "M" heavy "H" light "L"
of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum "U"
certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is :
2281 33 0 1 0 0
Which of the following statements is relevant for forming No segment Each A small The distance
route portions in integrated range flight planning? shall be reporting change of from take-off
more than point temperature up to the top
30 minutes requires a (2 °C) can of climb has
of flight time. new divide a to be known.
segment. segment.

2282 33 0 0 0 1
A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. 511 Nautical 406 Nautical 499 Nautical 414 Nautical
The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still air Air Miles Air Miles Air Miles Air Miles
distance? (NAM) (NAM) (NAM) (NAM)
2283 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9550A or Flight 11000 ft 10000 ft 7500 ft 12500 ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2)_x000D_
Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the
twin jet aeroplane._x000D_
Given: Brake release mass=45000 kg, Temperature=ISA
+ 20°C, Trip distance=50 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)

2284 33 0 1 0 0
On a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box The The true The The
marked "speed" the planned speed for the first part of estimated airspeed equivalent indicated
the cruise or for the entire cruise._x000D_ ground airspeed airspeed
This speed is: speed
2285 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9557A or Flight 2300 kg/h 1150 kg/h 2994 kg/h 1497 kg/h
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2)_x000D_
Find the FUEL FLOW for the twin jet aeroplane with
regard to the following data. _x000D_
Given: MACH .74 cruise, Flight level 310, Gross mass
50000 kg, ISA conditions
2286 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9556A or Flight 2807 176 187 2994
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)_x000D_ NAM/1000 NAM/1000 NAM/1000 NAM/1000
Find the SPECIFIC RANGE for the twin jet aeroplane kg kg kg kg
flying below the optimum altitude (range loss = 6%) and
using the following data. _x000D_
Given: MACH .74 CRUISE, Flight level = 310, Gross
mass = 50000 kg, ISA conditions
2287 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annexes 033-9554A and 033- 0% 4% 1% 10 %
9554B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 2.1
and Figure 4.2.1)_x000D_
Find the FUEL MILEAGE PENALTY for the twin jet
aeroplane with regard to the given FLIGHT LEVEL .
_x000D_
Given: Long range cruise, Cruise mass=53000 kg, FL
310
2288 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9553A or Flight 36700 ft maximum 35500 ft 36200 ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1)_x000D_ operating
Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. altitude
_x000D_
Given: Cruise mass=50000 kg, .78 MACH
2289 33 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 033-9552A or Flight 33800 ft 35300 ft maximum 34500 ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1)_x000D_ operating
Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. altitude
_x000D_
Given: Cruise mass=54000 kg, Long range cruise or .74
MACH
2290 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-11244A and 033- The fuel 18 000 kg 32 000 kg 8 000 kg
11244B)_x000D_ transport
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight operation is
using the following data:_x000D_ not
- Flight leg distance: 4 000 NM_x000D_ recommend
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt_x000D_ ed in this
- Headwind component at this level: 50 kt_x000D_ case.
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 170 000 kg_x000D_
- Fuel price: 0.27 Euro/l at departure; 0.30 Euro/l at
destination_x000D_
To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary._x000D_
Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel
which should be carried in addition to the prescribed
quantity is:

2291 33 0 0 0 1
Find the distance to the POINT OF SAFE RETURN 1125 NM 1143 NM 1463 NM 1491 NM
(PSR). _x000D_
Given: maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, minimum
reserve fuel 3500 kg, Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind
component 30 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430
kt, tailwind component 20 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h

2292 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9712A and 033-9712 B OCK 115.3 BIG 115.1 BIG 115.1 EPM 316
or Route Manual STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach MHz kHz MHz kHz
chart 11-4 ILS/DME Rwy 27R for London
(Heathrow))_x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London
(Heathrow)._x000D_
Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach
fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route.
2293 33 0 0 1 0
An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is maximum minimum base of the minimum
the : authorised holding airway enroute
altitude altitude (AGL) altitude
(MAA) (MHA) (MEA)
2294 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11027A or Route 1000 ft MSL FL140 FL60 2800 ft MSL
Manual chart E(LO)2)_x000D_
The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) that can be
maintained continuously on airway G4 from JERSEY
JSY 112.2 (49°13'N 002°03'W) to LIZAD (49°35'N
004°20'W) is :
2295 33 0 1 0 0
An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that: the minimum the airway the airways 1500 ft MSL
enroute base is 1500 extends is the
altitude ft MSL. from 1500 ft minimum
(MEA) is FL MSL to FL radio
80. 80. reception
altitude
(MRA).
2296 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033- 11025A or Route 2900 ft MSL FL110 FL80 4100ft MSL
Manual chart E(LO)1)_x000D_
The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained
continuously on airway G1 from STRUMBLE STU 113.1
(52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN 117.45 (51°43'N
003°16'W) is :
2297 33 0 1 0 0
((For this question use annex 033- 11024A or Route FL245 FL250 FL330 FL290
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained
continuously on airway UA34 from WALLASEY WAL
114.1 (53°23'N 003°08'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0
(51°03'N 000°37'W) is :
2298 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11023A or Route FL250 FL200 FL210 FL260
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
The minimum enroute altitude available on airway
UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4 (43°46'N 007°15'E) to
BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is:
2299 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-3316A or Route The The The The
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ minimum minimum minimum minimum
An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N sector obstacle grid safe enroute
012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which altitude clearance altitude on altitude
statement is correct ? (MSA) is altitude this route is (MEA) is
13400 ft. (MOCA) on 13400 ft 13400 ft.
this route is above MSL.
10800 ft
above MSL.

2300 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-3317A or Route VOR/DME Only the VOR/DME ILS/DME
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ with DME with SBG will be 113.8 MHz
An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N identification identification deleted in of Salzburg
012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). At SBG SBG can be the future airport can
Salzburg there is stated on the chart D 113.8 SBG. That frequency used, for and cannot be used for
means : 113.8 MHz which be used for navigation.
can be used. frequency navigation.
113.8 MHz
should be
tuned, VOR
is not
available.

2301 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11031A or Route FL320 FL310 FL290 FL300
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG1 from
ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39°'N 011°09'E) to
FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is :
2302 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9715A or Flight 23 min, 7.7 22 min, 6.7 24 min, 7.7 16.5 min,
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)_x000D_ GAL, 50 GAL, 45 GAL, 47 4.9 GAL,
_x000D_ NAM NAM NAM 34.5 NAM
Given: Take-off mass 3500 lbs, departure aerodrome
pressure altitude 2500 ft,_x000D_
OAT +10°C,_x000D_
First cruising level: FL 140, OAT -5°C_x000D_
Find the time, fuel and still air distance to climb.
2303 33 0 1 0 0
During a flight at night a position has to be reported to 17286 kHz. 123.9 MHz. 5649 kHz. 11336 kHz.
ATC. The aeroplane is at a distance of 750 NM from the
groundstation and at flight level 350. The frequency to
be used is:
2304 33 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 033-9719A, 422 kHz 118.80 MHz 112.50 MHz 118.60 MHz
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
An aeroplane is flying VFR and approaching position
TANGO VORTAC (48°37'N, 009°16'E) at FL 055 and
magnetic course 090°, distance from VORTAC TANGO
20 NM._x000D_
Name the frequency of the TANGO VORTAC.

2305 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-9722A, Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 course 282°, course 102°, course 078°, course 102°,
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS distance 56 distance 82 distance 82 distance 56
chart ED-6)_x000D_ NM NM NM NM
Flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to
ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E). Find
magnetic course and the distance.
2306 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9723A, Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 course 287°, course 287°, course 252°, course 108°,
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS distance 60 distance 41 distance 41 distance 60
chart ED-6)_x000D_ NM NM NM NM
Flying from ERBACH airport (48°21'N, 009°55'E) to
POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N, 008°57'E). Find
magnetic course and the distance.
2307 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9724A, Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic Magnetic
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 course 093°, course 267°, course 086°, course 086°,
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS distance 41 distance 22 distance 32 distance 22
chart ED-6)_x000D_ NM NM NM NM
Flying from Position SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N, 009°13'E)
to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N, 009°46'E). Find magnetic
course and the distance.
2308 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9726A, 112.250 126.125 kHz 126.125 135.775
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 MHZ MHz MHz
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
Give the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS.
2309 33 0 0 1 0
VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas 1000 ft 2000 ft 500 ft above the heighest
of cities at a height less than above the above the the heighest obstacle.
heighest heighest obstacle.
obstacle obstacle
within a within a
radius of radius of
600 m from 600 ft from
the aircraft. the aircraft.
2310 33 1 0 0 0
An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance FL90 FL95 FL105 FL100
with semi-circular height rules on a course of 180° (M) is:
2311 33 0 0 0 1
 (For this question use annex 033-11243A and 033- 22 000 kg 15 000 kg 8 000 kg The fuel
11243B)_x000D_ transport
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight operation is
using the following data:_x000D_ not
- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM_x000D_ recommend
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt_x000D_ ed in this
- Headwind component at this level: - 55 kt_x000D_ case.
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 180 000 kg_x000D_
- Fuel price: 0.30 Euro/l at departure; 0.27 Euro/l at
destination_x000D_
To maximize savings, the commander decides to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary._x000D_
Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel
which should be carried in addition to the prescribed
quantity is:

2312 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-11241A)_x000D_ 30 440 kg 34 430 kg 32 480 kg 28 720 kg
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:_x000D_
- Flight level FL 370 at "Long Range" (LR) cruise
regime_x000D_
- Mass at brake release: 212 800 kg_x000D_
- Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM_x000D_
- Temperatures: ISA_x000D_
- CG: 37%_x000D_
- Headwind component: 30 kt_x000D_
- "Total anti-ice" set on "ON" for the entire flight_x000D_
- No requested climb and descent correction of the fuel
consumption_x000D_
The fuel consumption (from take-off to landing) is:

2313 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11240A and 033- 0.29 $/l 0.30 $/l 0.24 $/l 0.28 $/l
11240B)_x000D_
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:_x000D_
- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM_x000D_
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt_x000D_
- Headwind component at this level: 55 kt_x000D_
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 180 000 kg_x000D_
- Fuel price: 0.27 $/l at destination_x000D_
The commander may carry on board 8 000 kg more fuel
than that which is necessary._x000D_
For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the
maximum fuel price at departure must be:

2314 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-11239A and 031- 0.27 $/l 0.26 $/l 0.28 $/l 0.33 $/l
11239B)_x000D_
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:_x000D_
- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM_x000D_
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt_x000D_
- Headwind component at this level: 55 kt_x000D_
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 180 000 kg_x000D_
- Fuel price: 0.30 $/l at departure_x000D_
The commander may carry a fuel quantity of 8 000 kg in
addition to that which is necessary._x000D_
For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the
maximum fuel price at arrival must be:

2315 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11238A)_x000D_ 27 770 kg 20 900 kg 22 160 kg 29 440 kg
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:_x000D_
- Flight level FL 370 at "Long Range" (LR) cruise
regime_x000D_
- (Prescribed) mass at brake release: 204 500
kg_x000D_
- Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM_x000D_
- Temperatures: ISA_x000D_
- Headwind component: 70 kt_x000D_
- "Total anti-ice" set on "ON" for the entire flight_x000D_
- no requested climb and descent correction of the fuel
consumption_x000D_
The fuel required from take-off to landing is:

2316 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11042A or Route 7000ft and 9000ft and 7000 ft and 9000ft and
Manual STAR chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10- 250kt 250kt 220kt 220kt
2D))_x000D_
The minimum holding altitude (MHA) and maximum
holding speed (IAS) at MHA at OCKHAM OCK 115.3 are:

2317 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11041A or Route KEMPTEN KEMPTEN KEMPTEN KEMPTEN
Manual SID chart for MUNICH(10-3C,10-3D))_x000D_ FIVE THREE THREE THREE
Which is the correct departure via KEMPTEN from SIERRA ECHO QUEBEC NOVEMBER
runway 26L ?

2318 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11029A or Route FL100 FL60 1000ft 2500 ft
Manual chart E(LO)5)_x000D_
The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained
continuously on airway B65/H65 from DOXON (55°27'N
018°10'E) to RONNE ROE 112.0 (55°04'N 014°46'E) is :

2319 33 1 0 0 0
An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance FL300 FL310 FL320 FL290
with semi-circular height rules on a magnetic course of
200° is:
2320 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11030A or Route FL230 FL250 FL260 FL240
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR1 from
ORTAC (50°00'N 002°00'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0
(51°03'N 000°37'W) is:
2321 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033- 11037A or Route FL40 FL60 FL70 FL50
Manual chart E(LO)6)_x000D_
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10 from
MONTMEDY MMD 109.4 (49°24'N 005°08'E) to
CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) is :
2322 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11036A or Route FL80 FL40 FL50 FL70
Manual chart E(LO)6)_x000D_
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway W37 from
CHEB OKG 115.7 (50°04'N 012°24'E) to RODING RDG
114.7 (49°02'N 012°32'E) is :
2323 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11035A or Route FL50 FL170 FL80 FL60
Manual chart E(LO)2)_x000D_
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from
CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) to CAMBRAI
CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) is :
2324 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11034A or Route FL270 FL310 FL290 FL300
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR24 from
NANTES NTS 117.2 (47°09'N 001°37'W) to CAEN CAN
115.4 (49°10'N 000°27'W) is:
2325 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11033A or Route FL300 FL310 FL290 FL280
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)_x000D_
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG5 from
MENDE-NASBINALS MEN 115.3 (44°36'N 003°10'E) to
GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (43°57'N 001°50'E) is :

2326 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11032A or Route FL60 FL80 FL70 FL50
Manual chart E(LO)5)_x000D_
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway G9 from
SUBI SUI 116.7 (52°23'N 014°35'E) to CZEMPIN CZE
114.5 (52°08'N 016°44'E) is:
2327 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12313A or Flight 2900 kg 2650 kg 2800 kg 2550 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)_x000D_
Given : Distance to Alternate : 400 NM_x000D_
Landing mass at Alternate : 50
000kg_x000D_
Headwind component : 25 kt_x000D_
2328 33 The alternate fuel required is : 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11040A or Route TRA R247 WIL R018 HOC R067 BLM R111 to
Manual STAR charts for ZURICH (10-2,10-2A,10- outbound to outbound to via GOLKE GOLKE int
2B))_x000D_ EKRON int EKRON int to EKRON then TRA R-
Aeroplane arriving via route BLM 2Z only, should follow int 247 inbound
the following route to EKRON int: to EKRON
int
2329 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-12359A or Flight 14500ft 20000ft 26000ft 16000ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)_x000D_
Given:_x000D_
Diversion distance 720NM_x000D_
Tail wind component 25kt_x000D_
Mass at point of diversion 55000kg_x000D_
Temperature ISA_x000D_
Diversion fuel available 4250kg_x000D_
What is the minimum pressure altitude at which the
above conditions may be met ?

2330 33 0 1 0 0
 Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR). 2 h 43 min 2 h 51 min 3 h 43 min 2 h 59 min
_x000D_
Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum
reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind
component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind
component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h
2331 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9571A or Flight 1100 kg 1000 kg 1093 kg 1107 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)_x000D_
Find: Final fuel consumption for this leg_x000D_
Given: Long range cruise, Temperature -63°C, FL 330,
Initial gross mass enroute 54100 kg, Leg flight time 29
min
2332 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-9572A or Flight 345 NAM; 345 NAM; 345 NAM; 349 NAM;
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)_x000D_ 2000 kg 2006 kg 1994 kg 2000 kg
Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg
and fuel consumption_x000D_
Given: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the
enroute point is 48 minutes. Cruise procedure is long
range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5°C. The take-off
mass is 56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg.
2333 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-9573A or Flight 11 min 15 min 14 min 13 min
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_
Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Initial FL 280,
average temperature during climb ISA -10°C, average
head wind component 18 kt_x000D_
Find: Climb time for enroute climb 280/.74
2334 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9574A or Flight 71 NAM, 67 62 NAM, 59 59 NAM, 62 62 NAM, 71
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_ NM NM NM NM
Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA
-10°C, Headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL
280_x000D_
Find: Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM)
for the enroute climb 280/.74
2335 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9575A or Flight 1040 kg 1138 kg 1238 kg 1387 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_
Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA
-10°C, Average headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL
280_x000D_
Find: Climb fuel for enroute climb 280/.74
2336 33 0 1 0 0
On a given path, it is possible to chose between four FL270 FL290 FL330 FL370
flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory flight
Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air
temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are
given below:_x000D_
_x000D_
FL 370 - M = 0.80 Ts = -60°C HWC = -15
kt_x000D_
FL 330 - M = 0.78 Ts = -60°C HWC= - 5
kt_x000D_
FL 290 - M = 0.80 Ts = -55°C HWC = -15
kt_x000D_
FL 270 - M = 0.76 Ts = -43°C HWC = 0_x000D_
_x000D_
The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is:
2337 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-12360A or Flight (a) (a) (a) (a)
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)_x000D_ 4800kg_x00 3900kg_x00 6200kg_x00 4400kg_x00
Given:_x000D_ 0D_ 0D_ 0D_ 0D_
Diversion distance 650 NM_x000D_ (b) 2h 03min (b) 1h 45min (b) 2h 10min (b) 1h 35min
Diversion pressure altitude 16 000 ft_x000D_
Mass at point of diversion 57 000 kg_x000D_
Head wind component 20 kt_x000D_
Temperature ISA + 15°C_x000D_
The diversion (a) fuel required and (b) time, are
approximately :

2338 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9562A or Flight 2350 kg 2050 kg 2150 kg 2250 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)_x000D_
_x000D_
The aeroplane gross mass at top of climb is 61500 kg.
The distance to be flown is 385 NM at FL 350 and OAT
-54.3 °C. The wind component is 40 kt tailwind.Using
long range cruise procedure what fuel is required?

2339 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12358A or Flight (a) 760 NM (a) 1130 NM (a) 860 NM (a) 1000 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)_x000D_ _x000D_ _x000D_ _x000D_ _x000D_
Given:_x000D_ (b) 4h 30 (b) 3h 30 (b) 3h 20 (b) 3h 40
Diversion fuel available 8500kg_x000D_ min min min min
Diversion cruise altitude 10000ft_x000D_
Mass at point of diversion 62500kg_x000D_
Head wind component 50kt_x000D_
Temperature ISA -5°C_x000D_
The (a) maximum diversion distance, and_x000D_
(b) elapsed time alternate, are approximately :

2340 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12356A or Route 353° (G) 177° (G) 194° (G) 172° (G)
Manual chart 5 AT(HI))_x000D_
The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N
170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N 011°E) is 177° (G). The
final grid course at position B will be :

2341 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12355A or Route 080° 096° 066° 106°
Manual chart 5 AT(HI))_x000D_
The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N
022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E) measures 084°.
On a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with
the 000° meridian the initial grid course will be :

2342 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-12354A or Route a) (a) a) a)
Manual chart NAP)_x000D_ 281°_x000D 262°_x000D 281°_x000D 244°_x000D
On a direct great circle course from Shannon (52°43' N _ _ _ _
008°53'W) to Gander (48°54'N054°32'W), the _x000D_ (b) 1877 NM (b) 1720 NM (b) 2730 NM (b) 1520 NM
(a) average true course, and_x000D_
(b) distance, are :

2343 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12353A or Route 350 344 353 347
Manual chart 5 AT(HI))_x000D_
On airway PTS P from Vigra (62°334N 006°02'E), the
initial great circle grid course is :
2344 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-12352A or Flight (a) (a) (a) (a)
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) _x000D_ 13600kg_x0 12000kg_x0 14200kg_x0 16200kg_x0
For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following 00D_ 00D_ 00D_ 00D_
apply :_x000D_ (b) 6 hr 30 (b) 5 hr 15 (b) 5 hr 30 (b) 5 hr 45
Tail wind component 25 kt_x000D_ min min min min
Temperature ISA -10°C_x000D_
Cruise altitude 31000ft_x000D_
Landing mass 52000kg_x000D_
The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :

2345 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12351A or Flight (a) (a) (a) (a)
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) _x000D_ 14600kg_x0 15000kg_x0 14000kg_x0 15800kg_x0
For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following 00D_ 00D_ 00D_ 00D_
apply :_x000D_ (b) 5hr 45 (b) 6hr 00 (b) 5hr 35 (b)6hr 20
Tail wind 25kt_x000D_ min min min min
Temperature ISA - 10°C_x000D_
Brake release mass 66000kg_x000D_
The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :
2346 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-9576A or Route Direct route, D, 44 NM UG 21, 69 UG 21, 26
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ 69 NM NM NM
Given: Leg Moulins(N46 24.4 E003 38.0)/Dijon(N47
16.3 E005 05.9)._x000D_
Find: Route designator and total distance
2347 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12368A or Route 099° 118° 119° 109°
Manual chart NAP)_x000D_
The average magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is
2348 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12377A or Route 775 760 725 700
Manual chart NAP)_x000D_
The distance (NM) from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is
2349 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12376A or Route 271° 275° 267° 246°
Manual chart NAP)_x000D_
The initial true course from A (64°N006°E) to C
(62°N020°W) is
2350 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12375A or Route 271° 262° 275° 267°
Manual chart NAP)_x000D_
The initial magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C
(62°N020°W) is
2351 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12374A or Route 259° 247° 271° 079°
Manual chart NAP)_x000D_
The average true course from A (64°N006°E) to C
(62°N020°W) is
2352 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12373A or Route 259° 247° 279° 271°
Manual chart NAP)_x000D_
The average magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C
(62°N020°W) is
2353 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-12372A or Route 1440 720 690 1590
Manual chart NAP)_x000D_
The distance (NM) from A (64°N006°E) to C
(62°N020°W) is
2354 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12371A or Route 116° 080° 278° 098°
Manual chart NAP)_x000D_
The initial true course from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is
2355 33 0 0 0 1
 (For this question use annex 033-9564A or Flight 26 min, 26 min, 20 min, 25 min,
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_ 1975 kg, 2050 kg, 1750 kg, 117 1875 kg,
Find: Time, Fuel, Still Air Distance and TAS for an 157 Nautical 157 Nautical Nautical Air 148 Nautical
enroute climb 280/.74 to FL 350. _x000D_ Air Miles Air Miles Miles (NAM), Air Miles
Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg, ISA +10°C, airport (NAM), 399 (NAM), 399 288 kt (NAM), 391
elevation 3000 ft kt kt kt

2356 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12369A or Route 119° 099° 120° 109°
Manual chart NAP)_x000D_
The average true course from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is
2357 33 0 0 0 1
Find the distance from waypoint 3 (WP 3) to the critical 342 NM 375 NM 408 NM 403 NM
point. _x000D_
Given: distance from WP 3 to WP 4 = 750 NM, TAS out
430 kt, TAS return 425 kt, Tailwind component out 30 kt,
head wind component return 40 kt
2358 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12367A or Flight 140kg 150kg 290kg 278kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4)_x000D_
A descent is planned at .74/250KIAS from 35000ft to
5000ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this
descent?
2359 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12366A or Flight 735 NM 794 NM 810 NM 875 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2)_x000D_
An aircraft on an extended range operation is required
never to be more than 120 minutes from an alternate,
based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in ISA.
Using the above table and a given mass of 40000 kg at
the most critical point, the maximum air distance to the
relevant alternate is :

2360 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12365A or Flight 584 NM 563 NM 603 NM 608 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2)_x000D_
Using the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed
of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an
aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could
divert a distance of :
2361 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12364A or Flight LRC M/KIAS . M/KIAS . M/KIAS .
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2)_x000D_ 74/330 74/290 70/280
For the purpose of planning an extended range flight it is
required that with a start of diversion mass of 55000kg a
diversion of 600 nautical miles should be achieved in 90
minutes. Using the above table, the only listed cruise
technique to meet that requirement is :

2362 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12361A or Flight 18000ft 22000ft 20000ft 26000ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) _x000D_
Given:_x000D_
Distance to alternate 950 NM_x000D_
Head wind component 20 kt_x000D_
Mass at point of diversion
50000kg_x000D_
Diversion fuel available
5800kg_x000D_
The minimum pressure altitude at which the above
2363 33 conditions may be met is : 0 1 0 0
The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles 174 NM 203 NM 188 NM 193 NM
(NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance
would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
2364 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-12348A or Flight 13800kg 13500kg 13000kg 13200kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) _x000D_
The following apply:_x000D_
Temperature ISA +15°C_x000D_
Brake release mass 62000kg_x000D_
Trip time 5hr 20 min_x000D_
What is the trip fuel ?
2365 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12370A or Route 098° 113° 116° 080°
Manual chart NAP)_x000D_
The initial magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is
2366 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12320A )_x000D_ 5 to 7 oktas 3 to 4 oktas 5 to 7 oktas 3 to 4 oktas
Which best describes the significant cloud forecast for CU and AC CU and AC CU and AC CU and AC
the area east of Tunis (36°N010°E) ? base below base below base FL100 base FL100
FL100 tops FL100 tops tops FL180 tops FL160
FL180 FL180
2367 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12350A or Flight 3500 NM 3250 NM 3740 NM 3640 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) _x000D_
The following apply :_x000D_
Tail wind component 10kt_x000D_
Temperature ISA +10°C_x000D_
Brake release mass 63000kg_x000D_
Trip fuel available 20000kg_x000D_
What is the maximum possible trip distance ?
2368 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12328A )_x000D_ 270 310 360 230
Over LONDON (51°N000°E/W), the lowest FL listed
which is unaffected by CAT is:
2369 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-12327A )_x000D_ 250/85 180/105 190/95 280/110
The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) immediately north of
TUNIS (36°N010°E) is
2370 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12326A )_x000D_ light nil severe moderate
Which describes the maximum intensity of turbulence, if
any, forecast for FL260 over TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ?
2371 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12325A )_x000D_ broken well isolated CB 5 to 7 oktas
Which best describes the significant cloud forecast over AC/CU base separated embedded CU and AC
TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ? below FL100 CB base in layer base below
tops FL150, FL100 tops cloud, FL100 tops
embedded to FL 270 surface to to FL270
isolated CB FL270
base below
FL100 tops
FL270

2372 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12324A )_x000D_ 360 350 300 270
In the vicinity of SHANNON (52° N009°W) the
tropopause is at about FL
2373 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12323A )_x000D_ cold front warm front stationary cold front
The surface system over VIENNA (48°N016°E) is a moving east moving occlued front moving west
north
2374 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12330A )_x000D_ 27 9 18 20
The forecast period covered by the PARIS/CHARLES-
DE-GAULLE TAFs totals (hours)
2375 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex.033-12321A )_x000D_ moderate severe light nil
Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if
any, at FL160 in the vicinity of BERLIN (53° N013°E) ?
2376 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-12331A )_x000D_ 3 to 4 at 3 to 4 at 800 1 to 2 at 1 to 4 at
The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) at 2000 3000 3000
BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1330 UTC were
2377 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12319A)_x000D_ tail wind 55 tail wind 40 tail wind 70 headwind 55
The approximate mean wind component (kt) along true kt kt kt kt
course 180° from 50°N to 40°N at 005° W is
2378 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12318A)_x000D_ 320/60 115/60 300/60 300/70
2379 33 The W/V (°/kt) at 60° N015° W is 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12317A )_x000D_ +10 -10 -55 +2
What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over
50° N 010°E ?
2380 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12316A )_x000D_ 155/40 310/40 334/40 135/40
2381 33 The W/V (°/kt) at 40°N 020°W is 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12315A)_x000D_ -48 -52 -54 -50
What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a true course of
270° from 025° E to 010°E at 45°N ?
2382 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-12314A )_x000D_ 100/75 290/75 310/85 310/75
2383 33 The W/V (°/kt) at 50°N015°W is: 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9721A, MEMMINGE MÜNCHEN MÜNCHEN FRANKFUR
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 N INFORMATI INFORMATI T
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS INFORMATI ON 126.95 ON 120.65 INFORMATI
chart ED-6)_x000D_ ON 122.1 MHz MHz ON 128.95
Give the name and frequency of the Flight Information MHz MHz
Service for an aeroplane in position (47°59'N, 010°14'E).

2384 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12322A )_x000D_ moderate or moderate light nil
Which describes the intensity of icing, if any, at FL 150 in severe
the vicinity of TOULOUSE (44° N 01°E) ?
2385 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12339A or Flight (a) 17600 kg (a) 16200 kg (a) 17000 kg (a) 20000 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) _x000D_ _x000D_ _x000D_ _x000D_ _x000D_
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following (b) 6 hr 50 (b) 6 hr 20 (b) 6 hr 10 (b) 7hr 00
apply :_x000D_ min min min min
Head wind component 15 kt_x000D_
Temperature ISA + 15°C_x000D_
Cruise altitude 35000 ft_x000D_
Landing mass 50000 kg_x000D_
The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :

2386 33 1 0 0 0
An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static 0.80 0.78 0.76 0.72
air temperature is -48°C and the headwind component
52 Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to
cross the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the
distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH No. should
be:
2387 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12347A or Flight (a) 21800 (a) 19000 (a) 18100 (a) 15800
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)_x000D_ kg_x000D_ kg_x000D_ kg_x000D_ kg_x000D_
For a flight of 3500 ground nautical miles, the following (b) 9hr 25 (b) 7hr (b) 7hr 20 (b) 6hr 00
apply :_x000D_ min 45min min min
Tail wind component 50 kt_x000D_
Temperature ISA +10°C_x000D_
Brake release mass 65000kg_x000D_
The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :
2388 33 0 0 1 0
 (For the question use annex 033-12346A or Flight (a) (a) (a) (a)
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)_x000D_ 16000kg_x0 17100kg_x0 18000kg_x0 20000kg_x0
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following 00D_ 00D_ 00D_ 00D_
apply :_x000D_ (b) 6hr 25 (b) 6hr 07 (b)5hr 50 (b) 6hr 40
Tail wind component 45kt_x000D_ min min min min
Temperature ISA - 10°C_x000D_
Cruise altitude 29000ft_x000D_
Landing mass 55000kg_x000D_
The (a) trip fuel (b) trip time respectively are :

2389 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12345A or Flight -10% + 7% +3% -4%
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)_x000D_
Given a trip time of about 9 hours, within the limits of the
data given, a temperature decrease of 30°C will affect
the trip time by approximately :
2390 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12344A or Flight +5.3% +2.3% -3.6% +7.6%
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) _x000D_
For a flight of 2000 ground nautical miles, cruising at
30000 ft, within the limits of the data given, a headwind
component of 25 kt will affect the trip time by
approximately :
2391 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-12343A or Flight -7% -5% +5% +8%
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)_x000D_
Within the limits of the data given, a mean temperature
increase of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately
:
2392 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex.033-12342A or Flight 2540 NM 2740 NM 3100 NM 3480 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) _x000D_
Given the following :_x000D_
Head wind component 50 kt_x000D_
Temperature ISA + 10°C_x000D_
Brake release mass 65000kg_x000D_
Trip fuel available 18000kg_x000D_
What is the maximum possible trip distance ?
2393 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12329A )_x000D_ 5 to 7 at 800 3 to 4 at 400 5 to 7 at 400 3 to 4 at 800
What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for
JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0300 UTC?
2394 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12340A or Flight (a) 17000 (a) 15800 (a) 16200 (a) 18400
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)_x000D_ kg_x000D_ kg_x000D_ kg_x000D_ kg_x000D_
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following (b) 6hr 45 (b) 6hr 15 (b) 6hr 20 (b) 7hr 00
apply :_x000D_ min min min min
Head wind component 20 kt_x000D_
Temperature ISA + 15°C_x000D_
Brake release mass 64700 kg_x000D_
The (a) trip fuel, and (b) trip time respectively are :
2395 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12349A or Flight 35 kt 15kt 70kt 0
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) _x000D_
For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following
apply :_x000D_
Temperature ISA -10°C_x000D_
Cruise altitude 29000ft_x000D_
Landing mass 45000kg_x000D_
Trip fuel available 16000kg_x000D_
What is the maximum headwind component which may
be accepted ?

2396 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-12338A )_x000D_ CAVOK mist and/or patches of rain
Which best describes the weather, if any, forecast for fog fog associated
JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0400 UTC? with
thunderstor
ms
2397 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12337A )_x000D_ 2000m 6000m 10km 8000m
What minimum visibility is forecast for PARIS/CHARLES-
DE-GAULLE at 2100 UTC ?
2398 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12336A )_x000D_ 10 5 30 25
What maximum surface windspeed (kt) is forecast for
BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1600 UTC ?
2399 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12335A )_x000D_ nil light rain rain showers heavy rain
Which is the heaviest type of precipitation, if any, associated
forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1000 UTC ? with
thunderstor
ms
2400 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12334A )_x000D_ 1800 1300 0800 nil
What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that
thunderstorms are forecast for TUNIS/CARTHAGE ?
2401 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12333A )_x000D_ fog nil light rain frequent rain
Which best describes the weather, if any, at associated showers
LYON/SATOLAS at 1330 UTC ? with
thunderstor
ms
2402 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-12332A)_x000D_ 270/04 300/05 270/08 180/12
The surface wind velocity (°/kt) at PARIS/CHARLES-DE-
GAULLE at 1330 UTC was
2403 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12341A or Flight 22000 ft 14000 ft 10000 ft 17000 ft
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)_x000D_
For a flight of 1900 ground nautical miles the following
apply :_x000D_
Head wind component 10 kt_x000D_
Temperature ISA -5°C_x000D_
Trip fuel available 15000 kg_x000D_
Landing mass 50000kg_x000D_
What is the minimum cruise level (pressure altitude)
which may be planned ?

2404 33 0 0 0 1
The purpose of the decision point procedure is ? To reduce To increase To increase To reduce
the landing the safety of the amount the minimum
weight and the flight. of extra fuel. required fuel
thus reduce and
the therefore be
structural able to
stress on the increase the
aircraft. traffic load.

2405 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-12310A or Flight 1090 kg 1010 kg 1310 kg 2180 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)_x000D_
- HOLDING PLANNING _x000D_
The fuel required for 30 minutes holding, in a racetrack
pattern, at PA 1500 ft, mean gross mass 45 000 kg, is :

2406 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-11270A)_x000D_ 471 NM 518 NM 539 NM 493 NM
A turbojet aeroplane flies using the following
data:_x000D_
. flight level: FL 330, flight regime: "Long Range" (LR),
mass: 156 500 kg_x000D_
. tailwind component at this level: 40 kt_x000D_
With a remaining flight time of 1 h 10 min the ground
distance that can be covered by the aeroplane at
cruising speed is:

2407 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11271A)_x000D_ 31 840 kg 31 340 kg 30 200 kg 39 750 kg
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:_x000D_
. Take-off mass: 210 500 kg_x000D_
. Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM_x000D_
. Flight level FL 330; "Long Range" flight regime
_x000D_
. Tailwind component at this level: 70 kt_x000D_
. Total anti-ice set on "ON"_x000D_
. Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg; final reserve: 2 400 kg_x000D_
. Ignore alternate fuel._x000D_
The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for
consumption._x000D_
The quantity of fuel that must be loaded at the parking
area is:

2408 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11272A)_x000D_ 23 300 kg 20 500 kg 23 000 kg 22 500 kg
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:_x000D_
. Take-off mass: 168 500 kg_x000D_
. Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM_x000D_
. Flight level FL 370; "Long Range" flight regime
_x000D_
. Tailwind component at this level: 30 kt_x000D_
. Total anti-ice set on "ON"_x000D_
. Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg; final reserve: 2 000 kg_x000D_
. Ignore alternate fuel._x000D_
The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for
consumption._x000D_
The prescribed quantity of trip fuel for the flight leg is:

2409 33 0 1 0 0
According to the chart the minimum obstruction 8200 ft. 8800 ft. 8500 ft. 12800 ft.
clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The meteorological
data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85.
The QNH, given by a met. station at an elevation of
4000ft, is 1003 hPa._x000D_
What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be
flown according to the given MOCA?

2410 33 0 1 0 0
An aeroplane has the following masses:_x000D_ 6 400 kg. 4 300 kg. 6 185 kg. 9 000 kg.
ESTLWT= 50 000 kg_x000D_
Trip fuel= 4 300 kg_x000D_
Contingency fuel= 215 kg_x000D_
Alternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kg_x000D_
Taxi= 500 kg_x000D_
Block fuel= 7 115 kg_x000D_
Before departure the captain orders to make the block
fuel 9 000 kg._x000D_
The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read:

2411 33 0 1 0 0
 The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure 12 700 kg 10 000 kg 13 000 kg 13 050 kg
aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg.
Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. The
quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-
around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The
destination aerodrome has a single runway._x000D_
_x000D_
What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on
board at take-off?

2412 33 0 0 1 0
A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating 30 minutes 45 minutes 2 hours at 1 hour at
engines,is flying from PARlS to LYON. The final reserve at holding at holding cruise holding
corresponds to: speed speed consumption speed
2413 33 0 1 0 0
On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude the floor of the minimum the minimum the altitude
and latitude, appears the following information "80". This the airway is safe altitude flight level is of the
means that within this quadrant: at 8 000 is 8 000 ft FL 80 highest
ft_x000D_ obstacle is 8
000
ft_x000D_
2414 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-4623A or Flight 86 US 76 US 118 US 91 US
Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3)_x000D_ gallons. gallons. gallons. gallons.
A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston
aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US
gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at
cruise condition to account for climb and descent.
Calculated time overhead to overhead is 2h37min.
Powersetting is 65%, 2500 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel
is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 120. Temperature 1°C. Find
the minimum block fuel.

2415 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-4622A or Flight 47 US 37 US 60 US 470 US
Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3)_x000D_ gallons. gallons. gallons. gallons.
A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston
aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US
gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at
cruise condition to account for climb and descent.
Calculated time from overhead to overhead is 1h47min.
Powersetting is 45%, 2600 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel
is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 100. Temperature -5°C. Find
the minimum block fuel.

2416 33 1 0 0 0
Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total Diversion to Diversion to Diversion to Diversion to
reserve fuel is included). Assume the groundspeed on a nearby a nearby a nearby a nearby
this trip is constant. When the aeroplane has done half alternate is alternate is alternate is alternate is
the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a not necessary, necessary, not
nearby alternate necessary? necessary, unless the because the necessary,
because it is captain remaining because the
allowed to decides to fuel is not reserve fuel
calculate continue on sufficient. has not
without his own been used
reserve fuel. responsabilit completely.
y.

2417 33 0 0 1 0
 For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as 33 kg trip 25 kg trip 33 kg trip 23 kg trip
follows:_x000D_ fuel and no fuel and 8 kg fuel and 10 fuel and 10
_x000D_ reserve fuel. reserve fuel. kg reserve kg reserve
Flight time: 2h42min_x000D_ fuel. fuel.
The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than
30% of the remaining trip fuel._x000D_
Taxi fuel: 9 kg_x000D_
Block fuel: 136 kg_x000D_
How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?

2418 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11262A)_x000D_ taxiing until take-off until taxi-out prior take-off until
Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the IAF reaching the to take-off landing.
the time information which should be entered in box 16: (Initial IAF (Initial until taxiing
"Total estimated time" is the time elapsed from: Approach Approach completion
Fix) of the Fix) of the after
destination destination landing.
aerodrome. aerodrome.

2419 33 0 1 0 0
Following in-flight depressurisation, a turbine powered at least at least laid down by at least
aeroplane is forced to divert to an en-route alternate equivalent to equivalent to the operator, equivalent to
airfield. If actual flight conditions are as forecast, the 30 minutes the quantity with the 45 minutes
minimum quantity of fuel remaining on arrival at the flying time required to quantity flying time
airfield will be: fly to being
another specified in
aerodrome the
in the event operating
that weather manual
conditions
so require

2420 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annexes 033-12309A and 033- 1810 kg 1940 kg 2800 kg 2670 kg
12309B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.4)_x000D_
_x000D_
Given : Distance B - C : 350 NM_x000D_
Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210_x000D_
Temperature : - 40°C_x000D_
Tailwind component : 70 kt_x000D_
Gross mass at B : 53 200 kg_x000D_
The fuel required from B - C is :

2421 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annexes 033-12308A and 033- 4200 kg 3350 kg 3680 kg 4620 kg
12308B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.4)_x000D_
Given : Distance C - D : 540 NM_x000D_
Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210_x000D_
Temperature Deviation from ISA :
+20°C_x000D_
Headwind component : 50
kt_x000D_
Gross mass at C : 60 000
kg_x000D_
The fuel required from C to D is :
2422 33 0 0 0 1
 (For this question use annexes 033-12307A and 033- 7050 kg 6150 kg 5850 kg 7300 kg
12307B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.3)_x000D_
Given : Distance B - C : 1200 NM_x000D_
Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300_x000D_
Temperature Deviation from ISA :
-14°C_x000D_
Tailwind component : 40
kt_x000D_
Gross mass at B : 50 200
kg_x000D_
The fuel required from B - C is :
2423 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annexes 033-12306A and 033- 20 500 kg 20 800 kg 17 100 kg 16 800 kg
12306B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.3)_x000D_
Given : Distance B - C :_x000D_
Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300_x000D_
Temperature : - 52°C_x000D_
Headwind component : 50 kt_x000D_
Gross mass at B : 64 500 kg_x000D_
The fuel required from B - C is :

2424 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12305A or Flight 1750 kg 1800 kg 1700 kg 1650 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_
Given : Brake release mass : 62 000 kg_x000D_
Temperature : ISA + 15°C_x000D_
The fuel required for a climb from Sea Level to FL330
is :
2425 33 0 0 1 0
Flight planning chart for an aeroplane states, that the 128 NM 157 NM 228 NM 193 NM
time to reach the cruising level at a given gross mass is
36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM (zero-
wind). What will be the distance travelled with an
average tailwind component of 60kt ?

2426 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annexes 033-12303A and 033- 3100 kg 4000 kg 3700 kg 3400 kg
12303B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
and 4.5.3.1))_x000D_
Given : Distance C - D :
680NM_x000D_
Long Range Cruise at FL340_x000D_
Temperature Deviation from ISA : 0°
C_x000D_
Headwind component : 60
kt_x000D_
Gross mass at C : 44 700
kg_x000D_
The fuel required from C - D is :
2427 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-9716A or Flight 547.5 NM 633 NM 844 NM 730 NM
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)_x000D_
_x000D_
Given: Aeroplane mass at start-up 3663 lbs, Aviation
gasoline (density 6 lbs/gal)-fuel load 74 gal, Take-off
altitude sea level, Headwind 40 kt, Cruising altitude 8000
ft, Power setting full throttle 2300 RPM 20°C lean of
peak EGT_x000D_
Calculate the range.

2428 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-11717A)_x000D_ FL Either FL FL 180 FL 100
_x000D_ 050_x000D_ 050 or FL
The planned flight is over a distance of 440 NM_x000D_ 100_x000D_
Based on the wind charts at altitude the following
components are found;_x000D_
FL50: -30kt; FL100: -50kt; FL180: -70kt_x000D_
The Operations Manual in appendix details the aircraft's
performances_x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following flight levels (FL) gives the best
range performance:

2429 33 0 0 1 0
When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a 45 minutes 60 minutes 90 minutes 30 minutes
controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or or more or more or more or more
cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed
by :
2430 33 0 0 0 1
If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, 183 NM 167 NM 203 NM 147 NM
True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from
departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours
and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The distance
from departure to Point of Equal Time (PET) is :

2431 33 0 0 1 0
If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, 1213 UTC 1221 UTC 1233 UTC 1203 UTC
True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from
departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours,
and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The Point of
Equal Time (PET) is reached at :

2432 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9728A, NDB TACAN VOR VOR/DME
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N,
009°20'E ?
2433 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-11261A)_x000D_ the time of estimated planned planned
Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, flight plan off-block take-off time. engine start
the time information which should be entered in box 13: filing. time. time.
"Time" is:
2434 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12304A or Flight 1400 kg 1450 kg 1350 kg 1250 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_
Given : Brake release mass : 58 000 kg_x000D_
Temperature : ISA + 15_x000D_
The fuel required to climb from an aerodrome at
elevation 4000 ft to FL300 is :
2435 33 0 0 0 1
During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from TAS 5 kt and TAS 10 kt TAS 5% and TAS 3% and
the data in the flight plan. The minimum deviations, that time 5 and time 2 time 3 time 3
should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANS- minutes. minutes. minutes. minutes.
RAC, are:
2436 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11004A or Route 046°/ 70 NM 094°/ 90 NM 067°/ 122 113°/ 142
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ NM NM
The magnetic course/distance from LIMOGES LMG
114.5 (45°49'N 001°02'E) to CLERMONT FERRAND
CMF 117.5 (45°47'N 003°11'E) on airway UG22 is:
2437 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033- 11005A or Route TACAN only, TACAN, TACAN, VORTAC,
Manual chart E(LO)1 )_x000D_ channel 84, channel 84, channel 84, frequency
The radio navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE (54°12'N (frequency and a VOR and an NDB 113.7 MHz,
001°22'W) is a: 113.7 MHz) frequency frequency and an NDB
113.7 MHz 92 kHz only frequency
only 92 kHz
2438 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11006A or Route VOR only, DME only, TACAN only, VOR/TACAN
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ frequency channel frequency , frequency
The radio navigation aid serving STRASBOURG 115.6 MHz 115.6 115.6 MHz 115.6 MHz
(48°30'N 007°34'E) is a:
2439 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11007A or Route VOR, TACAN, TACAN, TACAN,
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ frequency channel channel 87, channel 87,
The radio navigation aid at ST DIZIER (48°38N 114.0 MHz, 114.0 and NDB frequency
004°53'E) is a: and TACAN frequency 114.0 MHz
channel 87 114.0 kHz
2440 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033- 11008A or Route a VOR only, a VOR/DME, an NDB a TACAN,
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ frequency frequency only, frequency
The radio navigation aid at ZURICH (47°36'N 008°49'E) 115.0 MHz 115.0MHz frequency 115.0 MHz
is : 115.0 kHz
2441 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11009A or Route a TACAN, an NDB, a VOR, a VOR/DME,
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ on channel frequency frequency on channel
The radio navigation aid STAD (51°45'N 004°15'E) is: 386 386 kHz 386 MHz 386
2442 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11010A or Route VOR/DME VOR/DME, VOR, VOR,
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ only, frequency frequency frequency
The radio navigation aid at CHIOGGIA (45°04'N frequency 114.1 MHz, 114.1 MHz, 114.1 MHz,
012°17'E) is a: 114.1 MHz and NDB and TACAN and TACAN
frequency channel 408 frequency
408 kHz 408 MHz
2443 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11011A or Route VOR/DME VOR/DME VOR only, VOR,
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)_x000D_ and NDB, only, identifier identifier
The radio navigation aid on airway UG4 at LUXEUIL identifier LXI identifier LUL LUL,
(47°41'N 006°18'E) is a: LUL frequency
paired with
TACAN
identifier LXI

2444 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033- 11012A or Route an NDB, an NDB, a TACAN, a fan
Manual chart E(LO)1)_x000D_ frequency frequency channel 420 marker,
The radio navigation aid at BELFAST CITY (54°37'N 420 kHz, 420 kHz, frequency
005°53'W) is : continuous NOT 420 kHz
operation continuous
operation
2445 33 0 1 0 0
Mark the correct statement:_x000D_ a destination the fuel the trip fuel the trip fuel
If a decision point procedure is applied for flight alternate is calculation is to the to the
planning, not required. based on a destination destination
contingency aerodrome aerodrome
fuel from is to be is to be
departure calculated calculated
aerodrome via the via the
to the decision suitable
decision point. enroute
point. alternate.

2446 33 0 0 1 0
 You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In You will get It is not The route The filed
the flight plan it is noted that you will deviate from the a separate allowed to according to deviation is
ATS route passing the FIR boundary clearance file such a the flight not
Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads: for the flight plan. plan is accepted.
Cleared to London via flight planned route._x000D_ deviation. accepted.
Which of the following statements is correct?

2447 33 0 0 1 0
An aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be Yes, the pilot No, you No, only Yes, but only
changed from IFR to VFR. Is it possible? in command have to ATC can with
must inform remain IFR order you to permission
ATC using in do this. from ATC.
the phrase accordance
"cancelling to the filed
my IFR flight plan.
flight".

2448 33 1 0 0 0
Which of the following statements regarding filing a A flying In case of Any flight A flight plan
flight plan is correct? college can flow control plan should should be
file repetitive the flight be filed at filed when a
flight plan for plan should least 10 national FIR
VFR flights. be filed at minutes boundary
least three before will be
hours in departure. crossed.
advance of
the time of
departure.

2449 33 0 1 0 0
For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given:_x000D_ 80 500 kg 79 200 kg 77 800 kg 76 100 kg
Taxi fuel 600 kg_x000D_
Fuel flow for cruise 10 000 kg/h_x000D_
Fuel flow for holding 8 000 kg/h_x000D_
Alternate fuel 10 200 kg_x000D_
Planned flight time to destination 6 h_x000D_
Forecast visibility at destination 2000 m_x000D_
The minimum ramp fuel required is:
2450 33 0 0 1 0
An aeroplane is flying from an airport to K0180 K0150 N0180 K0210
another._x000D_
_x000D_
In cruise, the calibrated airspeed is I50 kt, true airspeed
180 kt, average groundspeed 210 kt, the speed box on
the filed flight plan shall be filled as follows:
2451 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11260A and 033- 10 000 kg The fuel 5 000 kg 8 000 kg
11260B)_x000D_ transport
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight operation is
using the following data:_x000D_ not
- Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM_x000D_ recommend
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt_x000D_ ed in this
- Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt_x000D_ case
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 195 000 kg_x000D_
- Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure; 0.26 Euro/l at
destination_x000D_
To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary._x000D_
The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in
addition to the prescribed quantity is:

2452 33 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-11259A and 033- 4 000 kg 6 000 kg 10 000 kg The fuel
11259B)_x000D_ transport
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight operation is
using the following data:_x000D_ not
- Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM_x000D_ recommend
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt_x000D_ ed in this
- Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt_x000D_ case
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 180 000 kg_x000D_
- Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure; 0.26 Euro/l at
destination_x000D_
To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary._x000D_
The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in
addition to the prescribed quantity is:

2453 33 0 0 0 1
If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the 10 45 30 15
destination aerodrome specified in the flight plan, he
must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination
aerodrome is informed within a certain number of
minutes of his planned ETA at destination. This number
of minutes is:
2454 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, 172 300 kg 170 400 kg 171 300 kg 176 100 kg
and 033-11253C)_x000D_
Knowing that:_x000D_
. Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg_x000D_
. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach_x000D_
. Flight leg distance: 3 000 NM_x000D_
. Cruise level: optimum_x000D_
. Air conditioning: standard_x000D_
. Anti-icing: OFF_x000D_
. Temperature: ISA_x000D_
. CG: 37_x000D_
Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at
destination will be:

2455 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11254A, 033-11254B, 169 200 kg 170 200 kg 174 800 kg 171 200 kg
033-11254C and 033-11254D)_x000D_
Knowing that:_x000D_
. Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg_x000D_
. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach_x000D_
. Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM_x000D_
. Cruise level: optimum_x000D_
. Air conditioning: standard_x000D_
. Anti-icing: OFF_x000D_
. Temperature: ISA_x000D_
. CG: 37%_x000D_
Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at
destination will be:

2456 33 0 0 0 1
 A "current flight plan" is a : flight plan flight plan in filed flight filed flight
with the the course plan with plan.
correct time of which amendment
of departure. radio s and
communicati clearance
on should be included.
practised
between
aeroplane
and ATC.

2457 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11252A,033-11252B 394 minutes 389 minutes 400 minutes 383 minutes
and 033-11252C)_x000D_
Knowing that:_x000D_
. Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg_x000D_
. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach_x000D_
. Air distance: 3 000 NM_x000D_
. Cruise level: optimum_x000D_
. Air conditioning: standard_x000D_
. Anti-icing: OFF_x000D_
. Temperature: ISA_x000D_
. CG: 37%_x000D_
Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-off
to landing needed to complete this flight will be:

2458 33 0 0 1 0
How many hours in advance of departure time should a 0:30 hours. 0:10 hours. 3:00 hours. 1:00 hour.
flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject
to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
2459 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-3318A or Flight TAS 423 kt; TAS 431 kt; TAS 423 kt; TAS 431 kt;
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)_x000D_ 936 NAM 227 NAM 227 NAM 1163 NAM
Given: long range cruise; outside air temperature (OAT)
-45 ° C in FL 350; mass at the beginning of the leg 40
000 kg; mass at the end of the leg 39 000 kg._x000D_
Find: true airspeed (TAS) at the end of the leg and the
distance (NAM).

2460 33 0 1 0 0
A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled The pilot-in- The RPL The airline's It is not
flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme, Paris Orly as alternate. command must be "Operations possible to
Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be must advise cancelled for " plan another
closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline ATC of his that day and Department destination
decides before departure to plan a re-routing of intention to a specific has to and the
that_x000D_ divert to flight plan tansmit a fIight has to
flight to Limoges. Limoges at has to be change in be simply
least 15 filed. the RPL at cancelled
minutes the ATC that day
before the office, at (scheduled
planned time least half an flight and not
of arrival. hour before chartered).
the planned
time of
departure.

2461 33 0 1 0 0
 From the options given below select those flights which 3+4+5 2+4 1+5 1+2+3
require flight plan notification:_x000D_
_x000D_
I - Any Public Transport flight._x000D_
2 - Any IFR flight_x000D_
3 - Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which
are designated to ease the provision of the Alerting
Service or the operations of Search and
Rescue._x000D_
4 - Any cross-border flights_x000D_
5 - Any flight which involves overflying water

2462 33 0 1 0 0
An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. lt flies from A 2h 35min 3h 00min 2h 10min 2h 32min
to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480 NM. When going
from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60
kt. The wind remains constant._x000D_
The duration of the flight will be:

2463 33 1 0 0 0
During an IFR flight in a Beech Bonanza the fuel 44 minutes. 4 minutes. 12 minutes. 63 minutes.
indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100
lbs after 38 minutes. The total amount of fuel at
departure was 160 lbs. For the alternate fuel, 30 lbs is
necessary. The planned fuel for taxi is 13 lbs. Final
reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lbs. If the fuel flow
remains the same, how many minutes can be flown to
the destination with the remaining fuel?

2464 33 0 0 1 0
When using decision point procedure, you reduce the reserve fuel holding fuel contingency contingency
from 10% by 30%. fuel by fuel by
down to 5%. adding adding
contingency contingency
only from only from
the burnoff the burnoff
between between the
decision decision
point and airport and
destination. destination.

2465 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, 209 minutes 192 minutes 198 minutes 203 minutes
033-11253C and 033-11253D)_x000D_
Knowing that:_x000D_
. Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg_x000D_
. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach_x000D_
. Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM_x000D_
. Cruise level: optimum_x000D_
. Air conditioning: standard_x000D_
. Anti-icing: OFF_x000D_
. Temperature: ISA_x000D_
. CG: 37%_x000D_
Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-off
to landing needed to complete this flight will be:

2466 33 1 0 0 0
You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. 242° 262° 280° 224°
Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is
showing a drift of 9° right. True track is ?
2467 33 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 033-9705A or Flight 10 min 17 min 8 min 19 min
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )_x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane. _x000D_
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V
280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for
descent .74 M/250 KIAS _x000D_
Determine the time from the top of descent to London
(elevation 80 ft).

2468 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9706A or Flight 210 kg 320 kg 273 kg 263 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )_x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane. _x000D_
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V
280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for
descent .74 M/250 KIAS _x000D_
Determine the fuel consumption from the top of descent
to London (elevation 80 ft).

2469 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annexes 033-9707A, 033-9707B 60 NM 100 NM 55 NM 49 NM
or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, Instrument
approach chart ILS DME Rwy 27R)_x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow)
via initial approach fix (IAF) Biggin VOR . _x000D_
Given: distance from top of descent (TOD) to Rwy 27R is
76 NM_x000D_
Determine the distance from ABB 116.6 to TOD.

2470 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9708A or Flight 440 kt 427 kt 417 kt 430 kt
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2)_x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane. _x000D_
Given: Gross mass 50000 kg, FL 280, ISA Deviation
-10°C, Cruise procedure Mach 0.74_x000D_
Determine the TAS
2471 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9709A or SID chart MC 349°, MC 169°, MC 349°, MC 169°,
Paris Charles de Gaulle 20-3 )_x000D_ GS 414 kt, GS 414 kt, GS 414 kt, GS 450 kt,
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to WCA -5° WCA +5° WCA +5° WCA +4°
London. SID is ABB 8A. _x000D_
Assume Variation 3° W, TAS 430kts, W/V 280/40 and
distance to top of climb 50NM_x000D_
Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind
correction angle from top of climb to ABB 116.6.

2472 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annexes 033-9710A, 033-9710B MC 319°, MC 141°, MC 321°, MC 141°,
and 033-9710C or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA- GS 396 kt, GS 396 kt, GS 396 kt, GS 396 kt,
Edition, STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 WCA -3° WCA -3° WCA -3° WCA +3°
ILS DME Rwy 27R for London Heathrow ) _x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London
(Heathrow)._x000D_
Assume: STAR is BIG 2A, Variation 5° W, en-route TAS
430 kts, W/V 280/40, descent distance 76NM. _x000D_
Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind
correction angle from ABB 116.6(N50 08.1 E001 51.3) to
top of descent.

2473 33 0 0 1 0
 The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with 176 l/h 235 l/h 206 l/h 220 l/h
a fuel density of 0,80. If the density is 0,75, the fuel burn
will be:
2474 33 0 1 0 0
In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, the required the total the total the required
one must indicate the time corresponding to: fuel for the usable fuel usable fuel fuel for the
flight plus on board on board flight
the alternate minus
and 45 reserve fuel
minutes_x00
0D_

2475 33 0 0 1 0
The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of a indicated air ground calibrated air true air
2476 33 flight plan is: speed speed speed speed 0 0 0 1
For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time the the time at the time of the time
of departure is: estimated which the take-off. overhead
off-block flight plan is the first
time filed. reporting
point after
take-off.
2477 33 1 0 0 0
When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given 2- 1-2- 1-2-3-4 1-3
flight, one must take into account :_x000D_ 4_x000D_ 3_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - the wind_x000D_
2 - foreseeable airborne delays_x000D_
3 - other weather forecasts_x000D_
4 - any foreseeable conditions which may delay
landing_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which provides the correct statement is
:

2478 33 0 0 1 0
For a flight to an off-shore platform, an alternate 1-2-3 1-2 1- 2-
aerodrome is compulsory, except if :_x000D_ 3_x000D_ 3_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - flight duration does not exceed two hours_x000D_
2 - during the period from two hours before to two hours
after the estimated landing time, the forecast conditions
of ceiling and visibility are not less than one and a half
times the applicable minima_x000D_
3 - the platform is available and no other flight either
from or to the platform is expected between the
estimated time of departure and one half hour after the
estimated landing time_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct
statements is :

2479 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9704A or Flight 87 NM 97 NM 65 NM 76 NM
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )_x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane. _x000D_
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V
280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for
descent .74 M/250 KIAS _x000D_
Determine the distance from the top of descent to
London (elevation 80 ft).

2480 33 0 0 0 1
 Given the following:_x000D_ X = D x GSo X = (D/2) x X = (D/2) + X = D x
_x000D_ / (GSo + GSo / (GSo GSr / (GSo + GSr / (GSo +
D = flight distance _x000D_ GSr) + GSr) GSr) GSr)
X = distance to Point of Equal Time_x000D_
GSo = groundspeed out_x000D_
GSr = groundspeed return _x000D_
_x000D_
The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal
Time is :

2481 33 0 0 0 1
To carry out a VFR flight to an off-shore platform, the that defined identical to at least that defined
minimum fuel quantity on board is: for VFR that defined equal to that for VFR
flights over for VFR defined for flights over
land flights over IFR flights land
increased by land increased by
10 % 5%
2482 33 0 1 0 0
On an ATC flight plan, the letter "Y" is used to indicate VFR IFR VFR IFR followed
that the flight is carried out under the following flight followed by by VFR
rules. IFR
2483 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-4738A or Flight 14 18 16 18
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)_x000D_ NAM._x000 NAM._x000 NAM._x000 NAM._x000
Given:_x000D_ D_ D_ D_ D_
FL 75_x000D_ 18 NM. 15 NM. 18 NM. 13 NM.
OAT: +5°C_x000D_
During climb: average head wind component 20
kt_x000D_
Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650
lbs._x000D_
Find:_x000D_
Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) using
the graph "time, fuel, distance to climb".

2484 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9739A, 5500 ft 6600 ft 5300 ft 6900 ft
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to
IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E).Determine the
minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM
right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of
obstacles.

2485 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9738A, 32 NM 46 NM 58 NM 36 NM
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to
IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the
distance.
2486 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9737A, 063° 257° 077° 243°
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to
IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the
magnetic course.
2487 33 0 0 0 1
 (For this question use annex 033-9736A, 4200 ft 1500 ft 3900 ft 2900 ft
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to
FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E).Determine
the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM
right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of
obstacles.

2488 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-9735A, 24 NM 46 NM 28 NM 24 km
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to
FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine the
distance.
2489 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9734A, 356° 176° 004° 185°
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to
FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine the
magnetic course.
2490 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9733A or Flight 208 lbs 270 lbs 250 lbs 265 lbs
Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)_x000D_
A flight has to be made with the single engine sample
aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for
start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional
fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel
correction for the descent._x000D_
Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 02 hours
and 37 minutes._x000D_
Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel._x000D_
Power setting is 23 in.HG (or full throttle), 2300 RPM,
20°C lean._x000D_
Flight level is 50 and the OAT -5°C._x000D_
The minimum block fuel is:

2491 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9732A or Flight 283 lbs 268 lbs 252 lbs 215 lbs
Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.2)_x000D_
A flight has to be made with the single engine sample
aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for
start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional
fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel
correction for the descent._x000D_
Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 03 hours
and 12 minutes._x000D_
Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel._x000D_
Power setting is 25 in.HG (or full throttle), 2100 RPM,
20°C lean._x000D_
Flight level is 70 and the OAT 11°C._x000D_
The minimum block fuel is:

2492 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9730A, NDB VOR TACAN VOR/DME
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N,
007°34'E?
2493 33 0 0 0 1
 (For this question use annex 033-9729A, VOR NDB VOR/DME VORTAC
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS
chart ED-6)_x000D_
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°23'N,
008°39'E?
2494 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12311A or Flight 1125 kg 1635 kg 1090 kg 1690 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)_x000D_
- HOLDING PLANNING)_x000D_
The fuel required for 45 minutes holding, in a racetrack
pattern,_x000D_
at PA 5000 ft, mean gross mass 47 000 kg, is :
2495 33 0 1 0 0
An aircraft, following a 215° true track, must fly over a 10 120 130_x000D_ 150_x000D_ 140
600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1
500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close
by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the
temperature is ISA -15°C, the minimum flight level will
be:
2496 33 0 0 0 1
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, 7000 kg 5600 kg 3000 kg 4000 kg
Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel
mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic
load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Take-off fuel 7400
kg_x000D_
Find: Maximum additional load
2497 33 0 0 1 0
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, 11100 kg 11400 kg 14400 kg 8600 kg
Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel
mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic
load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Minimum Take-off Fuel
7400 kg_x000D_
Find: Maximum allowable take-off fuel
2498 33 1 0 0 0
On a ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the ROMEO / ROMEO / ROMEO / ROMEO /
way-point ROMEO at 120 kt at flight level 085, you will FL085 F085 N0120 N0120 F085 K0120
write : N0120 _x000D_ FL085
_x000D_
2499 33 0 0 1 0
The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft 2 700 kg 5 700 10 000 7 000 kg
for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is: kg_x000D_ kg_x000D_
2500 33 0 0 0 1
In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning P S A C
equipment, the letter to be used to indicate that the
aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes
transponder with altitude reporting capability is :

2501 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annexes 033-9494A and 033- 4750 kg, 02 4600 kg, 02 4800 kg, 01 4400 kg, 02
9694B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1 h 00 min h 05 min h 51 min h 05 min
and Figure 4.3.1B)_x000D_
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Zero fuel mass 50000 kg,
Landing mass at alternate 52000 kg, Final reserve fuel
2000 kg, Alternate fuel 1000 kg, Flight to destination:
Distance 720 NM, True course 030°, W/V 340°/30 kt,
Long range cruise, FL 330, Outside air temperature
-30°C_x000D_
Find: Estimated trip fuel and time with simplified flight
planning

2502 33 0 0 1 0
 It is possible, in flight, to:_x000D_ 1-2-3-4 1-2-4 1-2- 2-3-
_x000D_ 3_x000D_ 4_x000D_
1 - file an IFR flight plan_x000D_
2 - modify an active IFR or VFR flight plan_x000D_
3 - cancel an active VFR flight plan_x000D_
4 - close an active VFR flight plan_x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?

2503 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9691A or Flight 418 kt 420 kt 433 kt 431 kt
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)_x000D_
Given: twin jet aeroplane, FL 330, Long range cruise,
Outside air temperature -63°C, Gross mass 50500
kg_x000D_
Find: True air speed (TAS)
2504 33 0 1 0 0
You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic 80 75_x000D_ 70_x000D_ 90
with a MSA at 7 800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1 025 hPa
and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum flight
level you must fly at is:
2505 33 0 0 0 1
In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 130 120 NM 140 NM 110
500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR NM_x000D_ NM_x000D_
at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant
during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is
standard._x000D_
The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN
of:
2506 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-11704A)_x000D_ 1 545 litres 1 182 litres 1 326 1 600
_x000D_ litres_x000D litres_x000D
True Air speed: 170 kt_x000D_ _ _
Wind in the area: 270°/40 kt_x000D_
_x000D_
According to the attached the navigation log, an aircraft
performs a turn overhead BULEN to re-route to ARD via
TGJ._x000D_
The given wind conditions remaining constant._x000D_
The fuel consumption during the turn is 20
litres._x000D_
The total fuel consumption at position overhead ARD will
be:
2507 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9703A or Route 36.5 NM 31 NM 24.5 NM 33 NM
Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle)
_x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle)
RWY 27 to London. _x000D_
Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle to top of
climb 50 NM_x000D_
Determine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to
ABB 116.6.

2508 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033 11702 A)_x000D_ 040°_x000D 044°_x000D 052° 058°
The measured course 042° T._x000D_ _ _
The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is
calm._x000D_
The deviation card is reproduced in the annex._x000D_
_x000D_
In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a
compass heading of:
2509 33 0 0 1 0
 On an ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the TANGO / TANGO / TANGO / TANGO /
way-point TANGO at 350 kts at flight level 280, you write: KT350 F280 N0350 F280 K0350 FL280
FL280 N0350
_x000D_
2510 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-12312A or Flight 2750 kg 3050 kg 2900 kg 2500 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)_x000D_
Given: Distance to Alternate 450 NM_x000D_
Landing mass at Alternate : 45 000 kg_x000D_
Tailwind component : 50 kt_x000D_
The Alternate fuel required is :
2511 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9702A or Route 72.5 NM 56 NM 83 NM 74.5 NM
Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Carles-de-
Gaulle)_x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London. _x000D_
_x000D_
Determine the distance of the departure route ABB 8A.

2512 33 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 033-9695A or Flight 11600 kg, 04 12000 kg, 12400 kg, 11400 kg, 04
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C)_x000D_ h 15 min 03 h 51 min 04 h 00 min h 12 min
Given: Twin jet aeroplane, Ground distance to
destination aerodrome is 1600 NM, Headwind
component 50 kt, FL 330, Cruise .78 Mach, ISA
Deviation +20°C and Landing mass 55000 kg_x000D_
Find: Fuel required and trip time with simplified flight
planning
2513 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-9701A or Flight 1100 kg 1500 lbs 1000 kg 1000 lbs
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane. _x000D_
Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport
elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation
-10°C, Average True Course 340° _x000D_
Find: Fuel to the top of climb (TOC)
2514 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-9699A and 033- 53 NM 47 NM 50 NM 56 NM
9699B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph
5.1 and Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for a twin jet
aeroplane. _x000D_
Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport
elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA-Deviation
-10°C, Average True Course 340° _x000D_
Find: Ground distance to the top of climb (TOC)

2515 33 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 033-9698A or Flight 1180 kg 2360 kg 1150 kg 2300 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)_x000D_
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at
the alternate 50000 kg, Elevation at destination
aerodrome 3500 ft, Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30
ft_x000D_
Find: Final reserve fuel
2516 33 1 0 0 0
 (For this question use annex 033-9700A or Flight 15 min 11 min 3 min 12 min
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)_x000D_
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to
London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane. _x000D_
Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport
elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation
-10°C, Average True Course 340° _x000D_
Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)

2517 33 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9697A or Flight 1180 kg, 30 2360 kg, 30 2360 kg, 01 1180 kg, 45
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)_x000D_ min min h 00 min min
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at
the alternate 50000 kg, Estimated mass on arrival at the
destination 52525 kg, Alternate elevation MSL,
Destination elevation 1500 ft_x000D_
Find: Final reserve fuel and corresponding time
2518 33 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 033-9696A or Flight 800 kg, 24 800 kg, 0.4 1000 kg, 24 1000 kg, 40
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)_x000D_ min hr min min
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Dry operating mass 35500 kg,
Traffic load 14500 kg, Final reserve fuel 1200 kg,
Distance to alternate 95 NM, Tailwind component 10
kt_x000D_
Find: Fuel required and trip time to alternate with
simplified flight planning (ALTERNATE PLANNING)
2519 33 0 0 1 0
 RADIO NAVIGATION
In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted UHF SHF EHF VHF
Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position
information that is available to civil aircraft?
4604 62 1 0 0 0
The Doppler Navigation System is based on: doppler phase radar radio waves
VOR comparison principles refraction in
(DVOR) from ground using the
Navigation station frequency ionosphere
System transmission shift
s
4605 62 0 0 1 0
What is the maximum number of usable Secondary 760 4096 3600 1000
Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes?
4606 62 0 1 0 0
Which of the following is a complete list of airborne roll and yaw roll and pitch roll, pitch pitch and
weather radar antenna stabilisation axes? and yaw yaw
4607 62 0 1 0 0
In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode green to yellow to green to red yellow to
ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and yellow to red amber to to black orange to
turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour blue red
from:
4608 62 1 0 0 0
The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System + or - 30° of + or - 40° of + or - 50° of + or - 60° of
(MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone the runway the runway the runway the runway
which is usually: centre-line centre-line centre-line centre-line
4609 62 0 1 0 0
The two main design functions of Secondary air to ground collision continuous the
Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are: and ground avoidance automatic elimination
to air data using TCAS position of ground to
link II and reporting air
communicati improved using Global communicati
ons and long range Positioning ons and the
improved (HF) System introduction
ATC aircraft communicati (GPS) of automatic
surveillance on capability. satellites separation
capability and collision between
avoidance aircraft using
using TCAS TCAS II
II

4610 62 1 0 0 0
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, offsetting dithering the shutting off using a less
'Selective Availability' (SA) gives the option to artificially satellite satellite selected accurate
degrade the accuracy by : atomic clock satellites atomic clock
clocks by a in a satellite
predetermin for signal
ed constant processing
amount

4611 62 0 1 0 0
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a the aircraft's timing the the aircraft's timing the
position line is obtained by: receiver period that is receiver period that is
measuring taken for a measuring taken for a
the phase transmission the time satellite's
angle of the from the difference transmission
signal aircraft's between to reach the
received transmitter/r signals aircraft's
from a eceiver to received receiver
satellite in a reach and from a
known return from a minimum
position satellite in a number of
known satellites
position

4612 62 0 0 0 1
 On which of the following radar displays is it possible to Aerodrome Airborne Aerodrome Secondary
get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the Surveillance Weather Surface Surveillance
type, of the aircraft generating the return? (approach) Radar Movement Radar (SSR)
Radar (AWR) Radar
(ASMR)
4613 62 0 0 1 0
Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C It is a It is a It is a It is a
is correct? navigation hyperbolic navigation hyperbolic
system navigation system navigation
based on system that based on system that
secondary works on the simultaneou works on the
radar principle of s ranges principle of
principles; range being differential
position measureme received range by
lines are nt by phase from a pulse
obtained in comparison minimum of technique
sequence four ground
from up to stations
eight ground
stations

4614 62 0 0 0 1
What is the colour sequence when passing over an amber - white - blue - blue -
Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon? white - amber - green - amber -
green blue white white
4615 62 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statements concerning the The receiver The rotation The The
variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is adds 30 Hz of the transmitter transmitter
correct? to the variable varies the changes the
variable signal at a amplitude of frequency of
signal before rate of 30 the variable the variable
combining it times per signal by 30 signal by 30
with the second Hz each Hz either
reference gives it the time it side of the
signal characteristi rotates allocated
cs of a 30 frequency
Hz each time it
amplitude rotates
modulation

4616 62 0 1 0 0
What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS 5 24 3 4
satellites required to produce an accurate independent
3-D position fix?
4617 62 0 0 0 1
The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should on the upper inside the in the vicinity under the
be mounted: side of the tail fin to of the fuselage in
fuselage in minimise the receiver to order to
the vicinity influence of avoid long receive
of the centre reflections transmission correction
of gravity from the lines data
wing and transmitted
fuselage by D-GPS
stations

4618 62 1 0 0 0
When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance + or - 50 FT + or - 75 FT + or - 100 + or - 25 FT
Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation FT
gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight
level that is accurate to within:

4619 62 1 0 0 0
Which of the following correctly gives the principle of Differential Phase Differential Frequency
operation of the Loran C navigation system? range by comparison range by shift
phase between pulse between
comparison synchronise technique synchronise
d d
transmission transmission
s s
4620 62 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT snow; clear dry hail; clear air snow;
be detected by weather radar? air clear air turbulence; turbulence in
turbulence turbulence turbulence in clouds with
cloud with precipitation
precipitation

4621 62 1 0 0 0
Given:_x000D_ ahead of the ahead of the behind the behind the
Aircraft heading 160°(M),_x000D_ aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane aeroplane
Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,_x000D_ symbol with symbol with symbol with symbol with
Selected course on HSI is 250°._x000D_ the FROM the TO flag the FROM the TO flag
The HSI indications are deviation bar: flag showing showing flag showing showing

4622 62 0 0 1 0
A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum less power the larger greater static
for use in an airborne weather radar system because: output is water detail can be interference
required in droplets will obtained at is minimised
the mapping give good the more
mode echoes and distant
the antenna ranges of
can be kept the smaller
relatively water
small droplets

4623 62 0 1 0 0
When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a receiver is scanning of transmitter is scanner is
single very bright line appears on the screen._x000D_ faulty the cathode faulty not rotating
This means that the: ray tube is
faulty
4624 62 0 1 0 0
In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, delay after the number ratio of pulse number of
the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the: which the of cycles per period to pulses per
process re- second pulse width second
starts
4625 62 0 0 0 1
The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°._x000D_ right of centred with centred left of centre
Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle centre the 'fail' flag
will be: showing
4626 62 0 0 1 0
Which of the following gives the best information about ATA Elapsed ETO ETD
the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints time on
from a RNAV equipment? route.
4627 62 0 0 1 0
What is the minimum number of satellites required for a 5 2 3 4
Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to
carry out two dimensional operation?
4628 62 0 0 1 0
The frequency range of a VOR receiver is : 108 to 108 to 108 to 118 to
4629 62 135.95 MHz 117.95 MHz 111.95 MHz 135.95 MHz 0 1 0 0
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at 190 NM 230 NM 170 NM 151 NM
FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at
mean sea level is:
4630 62 1 0 0 0
A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence 27 NM 69 NM 135 NM 270 NM
Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a
maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
4631 62 0 1 0 0
Which of the following combinations is likely to result in NDB/VOR VOR/VOR DME/DME VOR/DME
the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
4632 62 0 0 1 0
 Which one of the following is an advantage of a It does not The There is no It is
Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an require a installation restriction on insensitive
Instrument Landing System (ILS)? separate does not the number to
azimuth require to of ground geographical
(localiser) have a installations site and can
and separate that can be be installed
elevation method operated at sites
(azimuth) (marker because where it is
transmitter beacons or there is an not possible
DME) to unlimited to use an
determine number of ILS
range frequency
channels
available

4633 62 0 0 0 1
In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode large areas iso-echo colour zones blank iso-
ray tube (CRT) the areas of greatest turbulence are of flashing areas which being echo areas
indicated on the screen by: red colour are coloured closest where there
black together is no colour

4634 62 0 0 1 0
The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is: 1120 +/- 0.6 1030 +/- 0.2 1050 +/- 0.5 1090 +/- 0.3
4635 62 Mhz Mhz Mhz Mhz 0 1 0 0
A VOR and DME are co-located._x000D_ DME DME DME VOR and
You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign is callsign was callsign is DME
callsign._x000D_ the one with not the one with callsigns
Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the higher transmitted, the lower were the
the: pitch that the distance pitch that same and
was information was broadcast
broadcast is sufficient broadcast with the
only once proof of several same pitch
correct times
operation

4636 62 1 0 0 0
How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite The data is It calculates The data is The data is
navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth determined it by using stored in the based on
data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna? by the Almanac receiver the direction
satellite and data together with to the
transmitted transmitted the Pseudo satellite
together with by the Random determined
the satellites Noise (PRN) at the
navigation code location of
message the antenna

4637 62 0 1 0 0
A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable the surface a maximum a maximum a maximum
guidance information down to: of the height of height of height of 50
runway 200 ft above 100 ft above ft above the
the runway the runway runway

4638 62 1 0 0 0
Which of the following equipments works on the Secondary Global Airborne Aerodrome
interrogator/transponder principle? Surveillance Positioning Weather Surface
Radar (SSR) System Radar Movement
(GPS) (AWR) Radar
4639 62 1 0 0 0
Which of the following equipments uses primary radar Distance Global Airborne Secondary
principles? Measuring Positioning weather Surveillance
Equipment System radar (AWR) Radar (SSR)
(DME) (GPS)
4640 62 0 0 1 0
What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of FL50 FL80 FL100 FL60
113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for
a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
4641 62 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR 130 NM 142 NM 135 NM 123 NM
groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate
maximum range of :
4642 62 0 0 1 0
 In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of Doppler drift True Inertial VOR/DME
the following is an Air Data input? airspeed Navigation radial/distan
System ce
(INS)
position
4643 62 0 1 0 0
In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and EHF VHF SHF UHF
ground based ATC, radar systems operate?
4644 62 0 0 1 0
Which one of the following correctly lists the major Separate Combined Combined Separate
ground based components of a Microwave Landing azimuth and azimuth and azimuth and azimuth and
System (MLS)? elevation elevation elevation elevation
transmitters, transmitter, transmitter, transmitters,
outer and DME facility outer and DME facility
middle inner marker
marker beacons
beacons

4645 62 0 0 0 1
An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR 100 NM 120 NM 110 NM 90 NM
groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate
maximum range of :
4646 62 0 0 1 0
If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a: line of constant great circle rhumbline
constant magnetic track track
bearing track
4647 62 0 0 1 0
Which one of the following methods is used by a A DME co- Timing the Measureme Timing the
Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance located with interval nt of the interval
from the runway threshold? the MLS between the frequency between the
transmitters transmission shift reception of
and between the sequential
reception of MLS secondary
primary azimuth and radar pulses
radar pulses elevation from the
from the transmission MLS station
aircraft to s to the
MLS station aircraft

4648 62 1 0 0 0
Which of the following geometric satellite constellations 3 satellites 4 satellites 4 satellites 3 satellites
provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix? with an with an with an with a low
azimuth of azimuth of azimuth of elevation
120° from 90° from 90° from above the
each other each other each other horizon and
and an and a low and an an azimuth
elevation of elevation elevation of of 120° from
45° above above the 45° above each other
the horizon horizon the horizon together with
a fourth
directly
overhead

4649 62 0 0 0 1
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne pulse transmission size of the transmission
Weather Radar is determined by the: recurrence power aerial frequency
frequency
4650 62 1 0 0 0
 Which of the following statements about the accuracy Only D-GPS The nearer a The A D-GPS
that can be obtained with the differential technique (D- allows receiver is increase in receiver can
GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS position situated to a accuracy of detect and
is correct? fixes D-GPS position correct for
accurate ground fixes is SA providing
enough for station, the independent a more
'Non more of the accurate
Precision accurate the receiver position fix
Approaches' position fix position in
relation to a
D-GPS
ground
station

4651 62 0 1 0 0
An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of left with left with 'TO' right with right with
300°, the track selector (OBS) reads : 330. The 'FROM' showing 'TO' showing 'FROM'
indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are showing showing
'fly':
4652 62 0 1 0 0
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation continuous procedure continuous procedure
system, 'Search the Sky' is a: procedure that starts process by performed
performed after the ground by the
by the switching on segment to receiver to
receiver that a receiver if monitor the recognise
searches the there is no GPS new
sky for stored satellites satellites
satellites satellite data becoming
rising above available operational
the horizon

4653 62 0 1 0 0
Which one of the following sensors/systems is self- VOR/DME Inertial Pressure Magnetic
contained and obtains no external information? radial/distan Navigation altitude heading
ce System
(INS)
position
4654 62 0 1 0 0
What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under The flight The flight The flight A constant
IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite may be may be has to be heading and
navigation system, the number of satellites required to continued as continued continued speed must
maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity planned if at using other under VFR be flown
Monitoring) function are not available? least 4 certificated conditions until the
satellites are navigation required
available systems number of
and the pilot satellites are
monitors the again
GPS-System available
manually

4655 62 0 1 0 0
An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has Radial 315°, Radial 135°, Radial Radial
gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of relative relative unknown, unknown,
090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The bearing bearing relative relative
available information from the VOR is: unknown unknown bearing 225° bearing 045°

4656 62 0 1 0 0
In general the operation of airborne weather radar unrestrictedl only permitted totally
equipment on the ground is: y permitted permitted anywhere prohibited
in with certain
aerodrome precautions,
maintenance to safeguard
areas health of
personnel
and to
protect
equipment

4657 62 0 1 0 0
 Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation Magnetic Inertial Pressure VOR/DME
System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, heading Navigation altitude radial/distan
system? System ce
(INS)
position
4658 62 0 0 0 1
The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer 1300 Hz, 400 Hz, 400 Hz, blue 3000 Hz,
4659 62 marker (OM) is: blue amber blue 0 0 1 0
An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI NDB: aircraft NDB: NDB: NDB: aircraft
bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct position_x00 beacon beacon
combination for the application of magnetic variation is: 0D_ position_x00 position_x00 position_x00
VOR: 0D_ 0D_ 0D_
beacon VOR: VOR: aircraft VOR: aircraft
position beacon position position
4660 62 position 1 0 0 0
An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a 262° 285° 255° 278°
VOR station located near the equator where the
magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft
position is 8°E._x000D_
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
4661 62 0 0 1 0
Given:_x000D_ 100° 090° 270° 280°
Magnetic heading 280°_x000D_
VOR radial 090°_x000D_
What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing
selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle
with a "TO" indication?
4662 62 0 0 1 0
A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the 208 360 180 212
magnetic variation equals 32°W._x000D_
An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W
where the magnetic variation equals 28°W._x000D_
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
4663 62 0 0 0 1
In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot at the half- at both the at the VOR at the
needs to know the magnetic variation: way point VOR and aircraft
between the aircraft location
aircraft and
the station

4664 62 0 0 1 0
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation The Receivers Signals from Fixed
system, what is involved in the differential technique (D- difference from various satellites are ground
GPS)? between manufacture received by stations
signals rs are 2 different compute
transmitted operated in antennas position
on the L1 parallel to which are errors and
and L2 reduce the located a transmit
frequencies characteristi fixed correction
are cal receiver distance data to a
processed noise error apart. This suitable
by the enables a receiver on
receiver to suitable the aircraft
determine receiver on
an error the aircraft
correction to recognise
and correct
for multipath
errors

4665 62 0 0 0 1
4666 62 A frequency of airborne weather radar is : 9375 GHz 9375 kHz 93.75 MHz 9375 MHz 0 0 0 1
 In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how It degrades It degrades It increases It has no
does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the accuracy by position because influence
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system ? reducing the accuracy by only signals because, by
number of manipulating from selecting of
available satellite satellites in the most
satellites signals the most suitable
suitable signals, the
geometric computing
constellation process in
are selected the receiver
by the is quicker
receiver

4667 62 0 1 0 0
Given:_x000D_ 160° 193° 167° 347°
VOR station position N61° E025°, variation
13°E;_x000D_
Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation
20°E._x000D_
4668 62 What VOR radial is the aircraft on? 0 0 1 0
DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately: 600 MHz 1000 MHz 300 MHz 110 MHz
4669 62 0 1 0 0
An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal a cardioid a beam omnidirectio bi-lobal
plane which is : balanced at rotating at nal circular
30 Hz 30 Hz
4670 62 0 0 1 0
The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to: hear the find the loop hear the stop loop
IDENT and 'null' position IDENT of rotation
must always some NDB
be switched stations
ON radiating a
continuous
wave signal

4671 62 0 0 1 0
The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to 1230 km 123 NM 123 km 12.3 NM
obtain weather information at the destination airfield
from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical
range will it be possible to obtain this information?

4672 62 0 1 0 0
Which of the following is the datum for altitude The average GPS altitude GPS altitude Barometric
information when conducting flights under IFR of GPS if 4 or more altitude
conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite altitude and satellites are
navigation system? barometric received
altitude otherwise
barometric
altitude

4673 62 0 0 0 1
What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude If using Radar GPS altitude Barometric
(MDA) on a non-precision approach when using the Differential- altitude altitude
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system? GPS (D-
GPS) the
altitude
obtained
from the D-
GPS,
otherwise
barometric
altitude

4674 62 0 0 0 1
 Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, The pilot It may be It may be It must be
on a flight under IFR conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS must continued continued continued
satellite navigation system receiver, the position fix determine using using under VFR
obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position the reason conventional NAVSTAR/G conditions
of conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable for the navigation PS; prior to
amount? deviation systems the next
and correct flight all
the error or systems
switch off must be
the faulty checked
system

4675 62 0 1 0 0
Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a Multi-sensor The The The RAIM-
receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system systems are prescribed prescribed function of
is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system? not IFR- IFR- the GPS
certificated equipment equipment receiver
for flights must be must be in must be able
under IFR installed and working to monitor all
conditions operational correctly and prescribed
the navigation
navigation systems
information
continuously
displayed

4676 62 0 1 0 0
The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR unlawful an transponder entry into
transponder indicates: interference emergency malfunction airspace
with the from an area
planned where SSR
operation of operation
the flight has not
been
required

4677 62 0 0 0 1
In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate? VHF UHF SHF EHF
4678 62 1 0 0 0
In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft 7600 7500 7000 7700
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder
should be set to:
4679 62 0 0 0 1
The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, four modes, two modes, two modes, four modes,
contains : each 4096 each 1024 each of each 1024
codes codes 4096 codes codes
4680 62 0 0 1 0
Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the Satellite Satellite Satellite Satellite to
accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted mutual clock; mutual ground time
Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)? interference; satellite interference; lag;
frequency ephemeris; satellite atmospheric
drift; satellite atmospheric ephemeris; propagation;
to ground propagation atmospheric satellite
time lag propagation clock

4681 62 0 1 0 0
The maximum range of primary radar depends on : pulse length pulse wave length frequency
recurrence
frequency
4682 62 0 1 0 0
Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency? 112.10 MHz 109.15 MHz 108.25 MHz 110.20 MHz
4683 62 0 1 0 0
If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable 030° 330° 210° 150°
phase the radial from the VOR station will be :
4684 62 1 0 0 0
 A DME that has difficulty obtaining a "lock-on":_x000D_ stays in stays in stays in alternates
(NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence frequency, _x000D_ search search search search
PPS = pulses per second) mode but mode mode but mode with
reduces without a reduces periods of
PRF to max. reduction in PRF to max. memory
60 PPS after PRF 60 PPS after mode lasting
15000 pulse 100 seconds 10 seconds
pairs have
been
transmitted

4685 62 1 0 0 0
Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil It is of no It can It can It can
aviation ? use to civil provide a provide a provide
aviation DME magnetic DME
distance and bearing distance
magnetic
bearing

4686 62 0 0 0 1
Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is 265 095 275 085
selected to 090°._x000D_
From/To indicator indicates "TO"._x000D_
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right._x000D_
On what radial is the aircraft?
4687 62 0 0 1 0
Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to Quadrantal Precipitation Local Coastal
cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings? error interference thunderstor effect
m activity
4688 62 0 0 1 0
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, can be is negligible is corrected is the
receiver clock error: minimised small by using biggest part
by because of signals from of the total
synchronisat the great four error; it
ion of the accuracy the satellites cannot be
receiver atomic corrected
clock with clocks
the satellite installed in
clocks the satellites

4689 62 0 0 1 0
The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the negligible minimised minimised only
satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is: by the by significant if
receiver computing the satellites
using a the average are located
model of the of all signals at a small
atmosphere elevation
and angle above
comparing the horizon
signals
transmitted
by the
satellites

4690 62 0 1 0 0
Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi- The GNSS The The average The only
sensor system using inputs from a global navigation can be used activation of position advantage
satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational to update a 'Selective calculated of coupling
system (INS)? drifting INS Availability' from data both
can be provided by systems is
recognised both double
by the INS systems redundancy
increases
overall
accuracy

4691 62 1 0 0 0
 What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the The signals It has no It may It causes
aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from will be influence prevent the multipath
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? distorted, because reception of propagation
however the high signals
error can be frequency
corrected for signals are
using an unaffected
algorithm
and
information
from
unaffected
signals

4692 62 0 0 1 0
A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a search standby signal memory
reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in mode mode controlled mode
the first instance to: search
4693 62 0 0 0 1
Which one of the following switch positions should be NORMAL OFF STBY IDENT
used when selecting a code on the Transponder? (Standby) (Identificatio
n)
4694 62 0 0 1 0
The reason why pre take-off holding areas are heavy to increase to increase aircraft
sometimes further from the active runway when ILS precipitation distance aircraft manoeuvrin
Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress may disturb from the separation in g near the
than during good weather operations is: guidance runway very runway may
signals during offset reduced disturb
approach visibility guidance
operations conditions signals

4695 62 0 0 0 1
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° 284° with 284° with 104° with 104° with
radial. Which of the following settings should be made the TO flag the FROM the TO flag the FROM
on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator? showing flag showing showing flag showing
4696 62 1 0 0 0
An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 280° 270° 090° 100°
090°(M) from a VOR. _x000D_
The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing
selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation
needle with a 'TO' indication is:
4697 62 0 1 0 0
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° with 244° with 064° with 064° with
244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the FROM the TO flag the TO flag the FROM
the deviation indicator should be set to: flag showing showing showing flag showing
4698 62 0 0 1 0
What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft 147 NM 156 NM 184 NM 220 NM
at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609
feet above MSL?
4699 62 0 0 1 0
A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring 100 MHz 100 GHz 1000 MHz 10 MHz
4700 62 Equipment (DME) is: 0 0 1 0
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the: UHF band VHF band UHF band SHF band
and is a and uses the and is a and uses
secondary principle of primary frequency
radar system phase radar system modulation
comparison techniques

4701 62 1 0 0 0
For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will 80 100 200 60
occur whenever the number of simultaneous
interrogations exceeds:
4702 62 0 1 0 0
On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their the airborne airborne ground the airborne
range indicates: receiver is equipment equipment equipment is
conducting a failure failure conducting a
range frequency
search search
4703 62 1 0 0 0
 The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its pulse pairs aircraft transmission pulse pairs
own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft are interrogation frequencies are discreet
interrogations because: amplitude signals and are 63 MHz to a
modulated transponder different for particular
with the responses each aircraft aircraft
aircraft are 63 MHz
registration removed
from each
other

4704 62 0 0 0 1
The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to DME pulse aircraft reflections DME
interrogation signals reflected from the ground because: recurrence transmitter are subject transmits
rates are and DME to doppler twin pulses
varied ground frequency
station are shift
transmitting
on different
frequencies

4705 62 0 1 0 0
The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a + or - 1.5 + or - 3 NM + or - 0.25 + or - 1.25
range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should NM NM NM
not exceed:
4706 62 1 0 0 0
In which situation will speed indications on an airborne When When When When
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely tracking passing overhead tracking
represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at directly abeam the the station, directly away
FL400? towards the station and with no from the
station at a within 5 NM change of station at a
range of 100 of it heading at range of 10
NM or more transit NM

4707 62 1 0 0 0
Which one of the following lists information given by a Aircraft Wind True Crosstrack
basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System? position in velocity airspeed; distance;
latitude and drift angle alongtrack
longitude distance;
angular
course
deviation
4708 62 0 0 0 1
A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground runway 200 feet 200 feet 50 feet
installation provides accurate guidance from coverage surface above the above the above ILS
limit down to: inner marker runway reference
threshold point
4709 62 0 0 1 0
If VOR bearing information is used beyond the sky wave interference noise from sky wave
published protection range, errors could be caused by: interference from other precipitation interference
from distant transmitters static from the
transmitters exceeding same
on the same the signal transmitter
frequency strength of
the
transmitter
4710 62 0 1 0 0
An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing may receive will not will receive can expect
System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, false course normally signals signals to
outside the published ILS coverage angle: indications receive without give correct
signals identification indications
coding
4711 62 1 0 0 0
The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing two dashes dots and a dashes and alternate
System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by per second white light an amber dots and
a series of: and a blue flashing light flashing dashes and
light flashing an amber
light flashing

4712 62 0 0 0 1
 The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System 75 MHz and 200 MHz 75 MHz and 300 MHz
(ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of: is modulated and is is modulated and is
by morse at modulated by alternate modulated
two dashes by alternate dot/dash in by morse at
per second dot/dash in morse two dashes
morse per second

4713 62 1 0 0 0
What approximate rate of descent is required in order to 950 FT/MIN 600 FT/MIN 550 FT/MIN 800 FT/MIN
maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
4714 62 0 1 0 0
The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is 1400 FT 1350 FT 1300 FT 1450 FT
located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide
slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the
approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer
marker is:
4715 62 0 0 0 1
Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of transmit at a obtain detect the detect the
approximately 3 cm in order to: higher pulse optimum use smaller larger water
repetition of the cloud droplets
frequency Cosecant formations
for extended squared as well as
range beam large

4716 62 0 0 0 1
The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is give an inhibit extend the detect areas
provided in order to: indication of unwanted mapping of possible
cloud tops ground range severe
returns turbulence in
cloud

4717 62 0 0 0 1
In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar fan shaped pencil beam pencil beam fan shaped
utilises a: beam to a effective beam
effective up maximum from zero to effective up
to a range of range of 60 150 NM to a
150 NM NM maximum of
50 NM to 60
NM range
4718 62 0 0 0 1
Which of the following cloud types is most readily altostratus cumulus cirrocumulus stratus
detected by airborne weather radar when using the
'weather beam'?
4719 62 0 1 0 0
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm A moving The The principle The
clutter? target frequencies of 'echo' frequencies
indicator employed return is not employed
facility are too low used in are too high
suppresses to give secondary to give
the display returns from radar returns from
of static or moisture moisture
near static sources sources
returns

4720 62 0 0 1 0
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR 7600 7700 7000 7500
4721 62 transponder should be selected to code: 1 0 0 0
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the 7700 7000 7500 7600
planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary
Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be
selected to:
4722 62 0 0 1 0
At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid 36000 km 19500 km 20200 km 10900 km
are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?
4723 62 0 0 1 0
 The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation 186 NM 296 NM 330 NM 165 NM
pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to
travel to the ground transponder and return to the
airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. _x000D_
The slant range from the ground transponder was:

4724 62 0 0 0 1
An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to 10° or more less than 1.5° or more 2.5 or more
the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. 10°
_x000D_
What angular deviation are you from the selected
radial?
4725 62 1 0 0 0
Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS decrease in increase in decrease in increase in
glidepath, will require an approximate: the aircraft's the aircraft's the aircraft's the aircraft's
rate of rate of rate of rate of
descent of descent of descent of descent of
100 FT/MIN 100 FT/MIN 50 FT/MIN 50 FT/MIN

4726 62 0 0 1 0
In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies UHF VHF EHF SHF
used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS
for transmission of the navigation message?
4727 62 1 0 0 0
In relation to the satellite navigation system PRN is a PRN is the PRN PRN occurs
NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements code used atmospheric describes in the
correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise for the jamming that the receiver. It is
(PRN)' signal? identification affects the continuous caused by
of the signals electro- the signal
satellites transmitted magnetical from one
and the by the background satellite
measureme satellites noise that being
nt of the exists in received
time taken space from
by the signal different
to reach the directions
receiver (multipath
effect)

4728 62 1 0 0 0
Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite C/A- and P P and Y C/A P
navigation system codes can be processed by
'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
4729 62 0 0 1 0
Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite assignment correction of fast recognition
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the: of received receiver identification wether
PRN-codes clock error of received Selective
(Pseudo signals Availability
Random coming from (SA) is
Noise) to the visible operative
appropriate satellites
satellite

4730 62 0 0 1 0
 How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system The receiver Each Each The Doppler
receiver recognise which of the received signals detects the satellite satellite shift is
belongs to which satellite? direction transmits its transmits its unique to
from which signal on a signal, on each
the signals separate common satellite
are received frequency frequencies,
and with an
compares individual
this Pseudo
information Random
with the Noise code
calculated
positions of
the satellites

4731 62 0 0 1 0
Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo data to time; almanac time; data to
Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called correct positions of data; impair the
'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS receiver the satellites satellite accuracy of
satellites? clock error; status the position
almanac information fix
data
4732 62 0 0 1 0
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what 12 hours (= 25 seconds 24 seconds 12.5 minutes
is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set period of the (= 1 second (= 1 second (= 30
of almanac data from all satellites? satellites per data per data seconds per
orbit) frame) frame) data frame)

4733 62 0 0 0 1
Which of the following statements concerning the L1 C/A and P The higher The lower The higher
and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes are frequency is frequency is frequency is
codes is correct? transmitted only used to used to used to
at different transmit the transmit transmit
times on P code both the C/A both the C/A
both and P codes and P codes
frequencies

4734 62 0 0 0 1
In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data Inertial Navigation Inertial Flight
relating primarily to navigation is provided by: Reference radios_x000 Reference Managemen
Systems_x0 D_ Systems_x0 t
00D_ Flight 00D_ Computer_x
Navigation Managemen Aircraft 000D_
radios_x000 t Mapping Aircraft
D_ Computer_x Radar_x000 Mapping
True 000D_ D_ Radar_x000
airspeed Inertial Navigation D_
and drift Reference radios Navigation
4735 62 inputs Systems radios 0 1 0 0
How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System The pointer The The pointer It removes
display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF rotates deviation bar flashes and the
navigation (VOR) receiver? around the and/or a VOR 1 or associated
display and pointer 2 failure magenta
a VOR 1 or change warning bar deviation bar
2 failure colour to red appears and/or
warning bar and flash pointer from
appears intermittently the display

4736 62 0 0 0 1
Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Flight Navigation Symbol Flight
Instrument System generates the visual displays on the Control database Generator Managemen
EADI and EHSI? Computer t Computer
4737 62 0 0 1 0
In which navigation system does the master station Doppler Loran C GPS Decca
transmit a continuous string of pulses on a frequency
close to 100 kHz?
4738 62 0 1 0 0
 An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs 165 NM 210 NM 105 NM 50 NM
each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or
minus 5.5°. _x000D_
In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the
airway limits the maximum distance apart for the
transmitter is approximately:
4739 62 0 0 1 0
A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By Six Eight Two Four
what factor should the transmitter power be increased in
order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
4740 62 0 0 0 1
Which of the following lists information required to input Magnetic Magnetic Radials from Radial and
a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME- track and track and a minimum distance
based Area Navigation System? distance distance to a of two VORs from a
from the VOR/DME to the VOR/DME to
aircraft to from the waypoint or the waypoint
the waypoint waypoint or 'Phantom or 'Phantom
or 'Phantom 'Phantom Station' Station'
Station' Station'

4741 62 0 0 0 1
Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely quadrantal uneven static night effect
affected by: error propagation interference
over
irregular
ground
surfaces
4742 62 0 1 0 0
Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions? VHF UHF SHF HF
4743 62 1 0 0 0
The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is: envelope beat difference in phase
matching frequency depth of comparison
discriminatio modulation
n
4744 62 0 0 0 1
Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on inland and near the inland and near the
bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB the bearing coast and the bearing coast and
is: crosses the the bearing crosses the the bearing
coast at right crosses the coast at an crosses the
angles coast at an acute angle coast at right
acute angle angles

4745 62 0 0 1 0
What is the minimum number of satellites required by a 6 4 3 5
GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
4746 62 0 1 0 0
'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, static activity the effect of skywave interference
resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is increasing at the Aurora distortion of from other
due to: night Borealis the null transmission
particularly position and s and is
in the lower is maximum maximum at
frequency at dawn and dusk when
band dusk east of the
NDB

4747 62 0 0 1 0
ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the +/-10° +/-2.5° +/-2° +/-5°
published protection range should be accurate to within
a maximum error of:
4748 62 0 0 0 1
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at 107 NM 114 NM 134 NM 158 NM
FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility
sited 325 FT above MSL is:
4749 62 0 0 1 0
What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at 150 NM 180 NM 220 NM 120 NM
which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information
from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?
4750 62 0 1 0 0
Which of the following types of radar systems are most primary centimetric millimetric secondary
suited for short range operation? continuous pulse pulse continuous
wave wave
4751 62 1 0 0 0
 The prime factor in determining the maximum pulse power size of height of the
unambiguous range of a primary radar is the: recurrence output parabolic transmitter
rate receiver above the
aerial ground

4752 62 1 0 0 0
For any given circumstances, in order to double the 16 2 4 8
effective range of a primary radar the power output must
be increased by a factor of:
4753 62 1 0 0 0
An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no 1.5 3.0 4.5 6.0
error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2°
deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line
of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway
boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)

4754 62 1 0 0 0
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic misalignmen skywave/gro signal signal
Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by: t of the loop undwave bending by bending
aerial contaminatio the aircraft caused by
n metallic electrical
surfaces interference
from aircraft
wiring

4755 62 0 0 1 0
The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR an unlawful transponder radio
transponder indicates: emergency interference malfunction communicati
with the on failure
planned
operation of
the flight
4756 62 0 0 0 1
Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide (i) 8 (ii) (i) 25 (i) 35 (i) 5
azimuth coverage (i) ..........° each side of the localiser 10 (ii) 17 (ii) 25 (ii) 8
centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the
threshold.
4757 62 1 0 0 0
The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide 670 FT/MIN 700 FT/MIN 800 FT/MIN 850 FT/MIN
slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is approximately:
4758 62 0 0 1 0
The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is beyond 100 beyond 150 when beyond 50
used in preference to the mapping mode for the NM because NM because approaching to 60 NM
determination of ground features: insufficient the wider coast-lines because
antenna tilt beam gives in polar more power
angle is better regions can be
available definition concentrate
with the d in the
mapping narrower
mode beam

4759 62 0 0 0 1
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system static height error - coastal static
performance and reliability include: interference station refraction - interference
- station interference lane slip - - night effect
interference - mountain mountain - absence of
- latitude effect effect failure
error warning
system

4760 62 0 0 0 1
An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR NE NW SW SE
OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and
FROM flag displayed. _x000D_
In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground
station?
4761 62 0 1 0 0
 In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR does not must be in has to be does not
into an RNAV, the VOR: have to be in range positively have to be in
range when identified by range when
entered or one of the entered but
used pilots must be
when used

4762 62 0 0 0 1
The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR south west north east
ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
4763 62 0 0 0 1
Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural 400 Hz 1300 Hz 2000 Hz 3000 Hz
4764 62 frequency of: 1 0 0 0
Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots 2.0 degrees 0.5 degrees 1.5 degrees 2.5 degrees
on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display
represent :
4765 62 0 1 0 0
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest Interference Frequency Interference Mutual
effect on ADF accuracy? from other drift at the from other interference
NDBs, ground NDBs, between
particularly station particularly aircraft
at night during the aerials
day

4766 62 1 0 0 0
In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope SHF EHF UHF VHF
4767 62 transmit? 0 0 1 0
What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 80 m 800 m 8000 m 8m
4768 62 kHZ? 0 1 0 0
An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which both the the the receiver
is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when: transmitter transmitter transmitter moves
and receiver moves moves away towards the
move towards the from the transmitter
towards receiver receiver
each other

4769 62 0 1 0 0
The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR unlawful an transponder radio
transponder indicates: interference emergency malfunction communicati
with the on failure
planned
operation of
the flight
4770 62 1 0 0 0
Which of the following will give the most accurate A VOR A DME A DME An ADF
calculation of aircraft ground speed? station sited station sited station sited sited on the
on the flight across the on the flight flight route
route flight route route

4771 62 0 0 1 0
The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR an radio transponder unlawful
transponder indicates: emergency communicati malfunction interference
on failure with the
planned
operation of
the flight
4772 62 1 0 0 0
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length target maximum beam width minimum
determines: discriminatio measurable measurable
n range range
4773 62 0 0 0 1
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse minimum beam width maximum target
recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate range theoretical discriminatio
(PRR) determines: range n
4774 62 0 0 1 0
In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to pulse length beam width aerial Pulse
discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of: rotation rate Recurrence
Rate (PRR)
4775 62 0 1 0 0
 The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can 713 pps 1620 pps 3240 pps 610 pps
be _x000D_
used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets
_x000D_
unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:_x000D_
(pps = pulses per second)
4776 62 0 1 0 0
A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An 185° 180° 190° 195°
aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E).
Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and
at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:

4777 62 0 0 1 0
A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. 17 NM 16 NM 14 NM 15 NM
_x000D_
An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME
4778 62
station, will have a DME reading of:
0 1 0 0
What is the maximum distance between VOR and 600 m 2000 m 60 m 300 m
DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the
same morse code identifier?
4779 62 1 0 0 0
Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility 330 3000 6000 167
designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50
km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
4780 62 0 1 0 0
Which combination of characteristics gives best screen long pulse short pulse short pulse long pulse
picture in a primary search radar? length and length and length and length and
narrow wide beam narrow wide beam
beam beam
4781 62 0 0 1 0
An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving Fly left and Fly right and Fly left and Fly right and
more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the fly up fly down fly down fly up
localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication
will show:
4782 62 0 1 0 0
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at 204 NM 245 NM 163 NM 183 NM
FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340
feet above mean sea level is approximately:
4783 62 1 0 0 0
Which of the following radar equipments operate by 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 2 and 4 only
means of the pulse technique?_x000D_ only only
1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar_x000D_
2. Airborne Weather Radar_x000D_
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)_x000D_
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
4784 62 1 0 0 0
A Primary radar operates on the principle of: continuous pulse transponder phase
wave technique interrogation comparison
transmission
4785 62 0 1 0 0
The geometric shape of the reference system for the a geoid an ellipsoid a a sphere
satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as mathematica
WGS 84, is: l model that
describes
the exact
shape of the
earth

4786 62 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-12409A)_x000D_ 11 NM 12 NM 21 NM 10 NM
Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a
basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment
when using a 'Phantom Station'?
4787 62 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-12410A)_x000D_ 11 NM 14 NM 8 NM 9 NM
Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a
basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment
when using a 'Phantom Station' at position 'X'?

4788 62 0 0 0 1
 Erratic indications may be experienced when flying because, when in the when the when
towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation under cone of Phantom operating at
System 'Phantom Station': adverse silence Station is out low altitudes
conditions overhead of range close to the
(relative the Phantom limit of
bearing to Station reception
the Phantom range from
Station other the
than reference
180°/360°) it station
takes the
computer
more time to
calculate the
necessary
information

4789 62 0 0 0 1
What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 5 NM 1 NM 2 NM 10 NM
2-dot basic RNAV system in the en-route mode?
4790 62 1 0 0 0
What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using an 10 NM 0.5° 10° 0.5 NM
2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode?
4791 62 0 1 0 0
Which of the following is one of the functions of the It checks the It It calculates It transfers
Course-Line-Computer in a basic Area Navigation ground automaticall cross track the
(RNAV) system? station y selects the information information
accuracy two for NDB given by a
using a built- strongest approaches VOR/DME
in test transmitters station into
programme for the Area- tracking and
Nav-Mode distance
and indications
continues to any
working by chosen
memory in Phantom
case one of Station/wayp
the two oint
necessary
station goes
off the air

4792 62 0 0 0 1
Which of the following combinations of satellite NAVSTAR/G NAVSTAR/G NNSS- GLONASS
navigation systems provide the most accurate position PS and PS and Transit and and
fixes in air navigation? GLONASS NNSS- GLONASS COSPAS-
Transit SARSAT
4793 62 1 0 0 0
The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites 4 orbital 6 orbital 6 orbital 3 orbital
are located on: planes with planes with planes with planes with
6 satellites 3 satellites 4 satellites 8 satellites
in each in each in each in each
plane plane plus 6 plane plane
reserve
satellites
positioned in
a
geostationar
y orbital
plane

4794 62 0 0 1 0
Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of It is greatest It is greatest It varies, It is the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct? at the at the poles depending same
equator on the time throughout
and the globe
observer's
location
4795 62 0 0 1 0
 How many operational satellites are required for Full 18 12 30 24
Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS?
4796 62 0 0 0 1
Which of the following satellite navigation systems has NAVSTAR/G NNSS- COSPAS- GLONASS
Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for PS Transit SARSAT
specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
4797 62 1 0 0 0
The basic elements of the satellite navigation system control, bbbbccbbbb antenna, the atomic clock,
NAVSTAR/GPS are the: space and bbbbcccbcc receiver and power
user cbbcbcbbbb the central supply and
segments b control unit transponder
(CDU)

4798 62 1 0 0 0
One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite manipulate grant and monitor the manufacture
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: the signals monitor user status of the and launch
of selected authorisation satellites the satellites
satellites to s
reduce the
precision of
the position
fix
4799 62 0 0 1 0
An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach 250 FT/MIN 50 FT/MIN 100 FT/MIN 150 FT/MIN
experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at
the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect
of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of
descent will be a decrease of approximately:

4800 62 0 0 0 1
Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser At the non- At the On the non- At the
transmitting aerial normally situated? approach approach approach approach
end about end about end of the end of the
150 m to 150 m to runway runway
one side of one side of about 300 m about 300 m
the runway the runway from the from
and 300 m and 300 m runway on touchdown
along the from the on the
extended touchdown extended centreline
centreline centreline

4801 62 0 0 1 0
The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) only read can modify read and insert
is organised in such a way that the pilot can: the the write at any navigation
database database time in data
every 28 database between two
days updates

4802 62 0 0 0 1
Which one of the following statements is correct It is less The It eliminates A smaller
concerning the use in primary radar of continuous wave effective in equipment the minimum common
transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions? short range required is target transmitter
radars but more reception and receiver
more complex in range aerial can be
effective in continuous used
long range wave radar
radars but this is
offset by
greater
reliability
and
accuracy

4803 62 0 0 1 0
Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the both the the the
transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter transmitter transmitter transmitter
transmitter's velocity, will occur when: and receiver moves away and receiver moves
move away from the move toward the
from each reciever towards reciever
other each other

4804 62 0 1 0 0
 Signal reception is required from a minimum number of 4 5 6 7
satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable
geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation
System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three
dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity
Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and
remove it from contributing to the navigation solution.
The number of satellites is:

4805 62 0 0 1 0
A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 27 NM 67 NM 135 NM 270 NM
pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous
range of approximately:
4806 62 0 1 0 0
The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the monitor the select transmit to monitor
satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: orbital appropriate signals the status of
planes of the satellites which, from the
satellites automaticall the time satellites,
y, to track taken, are determine
the signals used to their
and to determine positions
measure the the distance and to
time taken to the measure the
by signals satellite time
from the
satellites to
reach the
receiver

4807 62 0 1 0 0
Signal reception is required from a minimum number of 3 4 5 6
satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable
geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation
System (GPS) to carry out independent three
dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous
Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of
satellites is:
4808 62 0 1 0 0
One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite transmit transmit compute the monitor the
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: signals signals to user position satellites'
which can suitable from the orbits and
be used, by receivers received status
suitable and to user
receivers, to monitor the messages
determine orbital and to
time, planes transmit the
position and autonomousl computed
velocity y position
back to the
user
segment

4809 62 1 0 0 0
In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather MAPPING CONTOUR WEATHER MANUAL
4810 62 radar use a cosecant radiation pattern. 1 0 0 0
There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other the same greater from the same greater from
50 NM inland from the coast. _x000D_ from both the beacon from both the beacon
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is beacons that is 20 beacons that is 50
the same for both propagations, the extent of the error when the NM inland when the NM inland
in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water aircraft is on aircraft is on
will be: a relative a relative
bearing of bearing of
180° and 090° and
360° 270°

4811 62 0 0 0 1
 How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit 365 days Approximate Approximate 12 days
the earth? because the ly 12 hours ly 24 hours
satellites are (1/2 of a (one
located in a sidereal day) sidereal day)
geostationar
y orbit

4812 62 0 1 0 0
In relation to the satellite navigation system horizontal orbital plane horizontal orbital plane
NAVSTAR/GPS, _x000D_ plane at the and the plane at the and the
the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the: location of earth's axis location of equatorial
the receiver the receiver plane
and the and the
direct line to orbital plane
a satellite of a satellite

4813 62 0 0 0 1
In civil aviation, the height value computed by the geometric height above flight level height above
receiver of the satellite navigation system height above Mean Sea the WGS-84
NAVSTAR/GPS is the: ground Level (MSL) ellipsoid

4814 62 0 0 0 1
The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse (i) pulse (i) (i) pulse (i)
technique, is determined by the (i)........ ; the maximum length (ii) transmission length (ii) transmission
unambiguous range by the (ii)......... length of the frequency pulse frequency
timebase (ii) pulse recurrence (ii)
recurrence frequency transmitter
frequency power
output

4815 62 0 0 1 0
The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter (i) the same (i) the same (i) different (i) different
is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted (ii) (ii) (ii) (ii)
on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii).......... modulation phases modulation phases
frequencies frequencies

4816 62 1 0 0 0
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in engaged cautions, flight warnings
amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument System modes abnormal envelope
(EFIS), indicate: sources and system
limits
4817 62 0 1 0 0
ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from: spurious back- ground multiple
signals scattering of returns lobes of
reflected by antennas ahead of the radiation
nearby antennas patterns in
obstacles the vertical
plane
4818 62 0 0 0 1
What approximate rate of descent is required in order to 450 FT/MIN 400 FT/MIN 600 FT/MIN 700 FT/MIN
maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
4819 62 1 0 0 0
Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance 5000 7000 0000 2000
Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering
airspace from an area where SSR operation has not
been required?
4820 62 0 0 0 1
 ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a within the outside the within the outside the
method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on coverage of coverage of coverage of coverage of
any desired flight path: station- station- station- station-
referenced referenced referenced referenced
navigation navigation navigation navigation
aids or aids aids aids
within the provided provided provided
limits of the that it is that it is that it is
capability of equipped equipped equipped
self- with a with a with a
contained minimum of minimum of minimum of
aids, or a one one two
combination serviceable serviceable serviceable
of these self- self- self-
contained contained contained
navigation navigation navigation
aid aid aids

4821 62 1 0 0 0
Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping 1.0 NM 1.5 NM 0.5 NM 0.25 NM
accuracy of: standard standard standard standard
deviation or deviation or deviation or deviation or
better better better better
4822 62 0 0 1 0
Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of: +/- 5NM or +/- 5NM or +/- 3NM or +/- 2NM or
better better for better for better for
throughout 95% of the 90% of the 75% of the
the flight flight time flight time flight time
4823 62 0 1 0 0
The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is: the same as another the the actual
that given on source of computed position of
the No. 1 aircaft position the aircraft
IRS position; it is based on a at any point
independent number of in time
of other sources
position (IRS, Radio,
sources ILS, GPS
(IRS, Radio, etc)
ILS etc)

4824 62 0 0 1 0
The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation indicates indicates to represents corresponds
Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic that the pilot the pilot that the track of to the
Flight Instrument System: has made a a manually the aircraft calculated
manual track selected over the IRS TH and
selection heading is ground. is correct
being flown When it co- during turns
incides with
the desired
track, wind
influence is
compensate
d for

4825 62 0 0 1 0
In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at When the When the When the When the
destination calculated by the Flight Management FMC ETOs and actual winds FMC
Computer (FMC) be correct? positions ETA are match the computes
and GS are based on forecast each ETO
accurate the forecast winds, and and ETA
winds the actual using the
calculated cruising correct GS
from the Mach
actual take- number is
off time equal to the
FMC
calculated
Mach
number

4826 62 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following coordinate systems is used by EUREF 92 WGS 84 ED 87 ED 50
the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude,
longitude and altitude)?
4827 62 0 1 0 0
The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system inclined 55° inclined 55° inclined 90° parallel to
NAVSTAR/GPS are: to the to the earth to the the
equatorial axis equatorial equatorial
plane plane plane
4828 62 1 0 0 0
GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with L1-precise L2-for L1-coarse L2-coarse
different types of signals. _x000D_ (P) communicati acquisition acquisition
Which of these are generally available for use by civil ons purpose (C/A) with (C/A)
aviation? selected
availability
(S/A)
4829 62 0 0 1 0
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in cautions, the earth the ILS engaged
green on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), abnormal deviation modes
indicate: sources pointer
4830 62 0 0 0 1
Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in the sky engaged the flight flight
cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems modes director envelope
(EFIS), indicate: bar(s) and system
limits
4831 62 1 0 0 0
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight white cyan red magenta
Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and values are
coloured:
4832 62 1 0 0 0
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight green magenta amber/yello white
Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are coloured: w
4833 62 0 0 0 1
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight white yellow magenta green
Instrument Systems (EFIS), a selected heading is
coloured:
4834 62 0 0 1 0
Loran C coverage is: unrestricted unrestricted confined to global
between over the certain
latitudes oceans and limited areas
70°N and adjacent of the world
70°S coastlines
but limited
over the
major
continental
land masses

4835 62 0 0 1 0
Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum 666 km 1333 km 150 km 333 km
range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition
frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity
of light is 300 000 km/second)
4836 62 0 0 0 1
The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) 1090 MHz 1090 MHz 1030 MHz 1030 MHz
equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver 1030 MHz 1090 MHz 1030 MHz 1090 MHz
respectively operating in the following
frequencies:_x000D_
_x000D_
Transmitter Receiver
4837 62 0 0 0 1
When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR flight level altitude aircraft height based
transponder the additional information transmitted is: based on based on height based on QFE
1013.25 hPa regional on sub-scale
QNH setting

4838 62 1 0 0 0
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in warnings; cautions and warnings; flight
red on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), cautions and abnormal flight envelope
indicate: abnormal sources; envelope and system
sources engaged and system limits;
modes limits engaged
modes
4839 62 0 0 1 0
 In order to obtain an ADF bearing the: sense aerial mode BFO switch signal must
must be selector must be be received
tuned should be selected to by both the
separately switched to 'ON' sense and
'loop' loop aerials
4840 62 0 0 0 1
What type of satellite navigation system Sequential Multiplex Any hand Multichannel
NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on held type
board an aircraft?
4841 62 0 0 0 1
The reason why the measured distance between a calculated calculated measured movement
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and range is range distance is of satellite
a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the: based on an includes based on and receiver
idealised receiver the Pseudo during the
Keplerian clock error Random distance
orbit Noise code calculation is
not taken
into account

4842 62 0 1 0 0
In relation to the satellite navigation system is receiving is receiving requires the is tracking
NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term used when a the signals and tracking signals of all more than
receiver: of all visible the signals visible the required
satellites but of all 24 satellites for 4 satellites
tracking operational navigation and can
only those of satellites purposes instantly
the 4 with simultaneou replace any
the best sly lost signal
geometric with another
coverage already
being
monitored

4843 62 0 0 0 1
The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and calculated, determined determined calculated
receiver is: using the by the phase by the time from the
WGS-84 shift of the taken for the Doppler shift
reference Pseudo signal to of the known
system, from Random arrive from frequencies
the known Noise code the satellite
positions of multiplied by multiplied by
the satellite the speed of the speed of
and the light light
receiver

4844 62 0 0 1 0
Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation It is a It is a It is a It is the
system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver method technique technique by ability of the
Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)? whereby a whereby the which a GPS
receiver receivers of receiver satellites to
ensures the the world- ensures the check the
integrity of wide integrity of integrity of
the Pseudo distributed the the data
Random monitor navigation transmitted
Noise (PRN) stations information by the
code (ground monitoring
transmitted segment) stations of
by the automaticall the ground
satellites y determines segment
the integrity
of the
navigation
message

4845 62 0 0 1 0
 Which of the following statements is correct concerning The effect of The effect of The The path
the principle behind the correction of one of the receiver signal influence of delay of the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by the noise can be reflections shadowing signals in
transmission of the signals on two frequencies (L1 and reduced due (multipath on the GPS the earth
L2)? to the effect) can signals is atmosphere
interference be reduced proportional is
of both due to the to the proportional
frequencies interference inverse of to the
of both the carrier inverse of
frequencies frequency the carrier
squared frequency
squared

4846 62 0 0 0 1
Which one of the following errors can be compensated Multipath Tropospheri Receiver Ionospheric
for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 c noise
frequencies?
4847 62 0 0 0 1
The main factor which determines the minimum range repetition frequency length amplitude
that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse: rate
4848 62 0 0 1 0
Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition 405 pps 782 pps 308 pps 375 pps
frequency _x000D_
(PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to
detect targets _x000D_
unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:_x000D_
(pps = pulses per second)
4849 62 1 0 0 0
Which of the following lists all the parameters that can Latitude, Latitude, Latitude, Latitude and
be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from longitude longitude longitude, longitude
4 different satellites? and time and altitude altitude and
time
4850 62 0 0 1 0
ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by + or - 0.5 + or - 1.25 + or - 0.25 + or - 0.25
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not NM or 3% of NM plus NM plus 3% NM plus
exceed: the distance 0.25% of the of the 1.25% of the
measured distance distance distance
whichever is measured measured measured
the greater up to a
maximum of
5 NM
4851 62 0 0 0 1
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight cyan magenta green yellow
Instrument Systems (EFIS), the active route/flight plan is
coloured:
4852 62 0 1 0 0
The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern simultaneou have a wide eliminate the virtually
radar technology is to: sly transmit beam and need for eliminate
weather and as a azimuth lateral lobes
mapping consequenc slaving and as a
beams e better consequenc
target e
detection concentrate
more energy
in the main
beam

4853 62 0 0 0 1
MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise + or - 40° + or - 20° + or - 40° + or - 20°
stated, provide azimuth coverage of: about the about the about the about the
nominal nominal nominal nominal
courseline courseline courseline courseline
out to a out to a out to a out to a
range of 20 range of 20 range of 30 range of 10
NM NM NM NM
4854 62 1 0 0 0
 Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface (i) SHF (ii) (i) EHF (ii) (i) SHF (ii) (i) EHF (ii)
movement Radar operates on frequencies in the 60 (iii) 30 (iii) 10 (iii) 100 (iii)
(i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at sometimes never always never
approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute; it is
(iii) ......... possible to determine the type of aircraft from
the return on the radar screen.

4855 62 1 0 0 0
The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long 200 NM 100 NM 400 NM 300 NM
4856 62 Range Surveillance Radar is approximately: 0 0 0 1
In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors rotational size of the range from size of the
which determine whether a cloud will be detected are: speed of water cloud;_x000 water
radar drops;_x000 D_ drops;_x000
scanner;_x0 D_ wavelength/f D_
00D_ wavelength/f requency diameter of
range from requency used radar
4857 62 cloud used scanner 0 1 0 0
In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an 2.5° up 0° 2.5° down 5° up
Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height
of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: _x000D_
(Assume a beam width of 5°)

4858 62 1 0 0 0
Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar 7600 4096 9999 0000
(SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder
malfunction?
4859 62 0 0 0 1
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), the aircraft's measuring measuring measuring
a fix is obtained by: receiver the time the pulse the time
measuring taken for an lengths of taken for a
the phase aircraft's signals minimum
angle of transmission received number of
signals s to travel to from a satellites'
received a number of minimum transmission
from a satellites, in number of s, in known
number of known satellites positions, to
satellites in positions, received in a reach the
known and return to specific aircraft's
positions the aircraft's sequential receiver
receiver order

4860 62 0 0 0 1
Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the 90 - 110 kHz 1750 - 1950 10.2 - 13.6 978 - 1213
4861 62 Loran C navigation system? kHz kHz MHz 1 0 0 0
Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency 200 - 2000 200 - 1750 255 - 455 300 - 3000
4862 62 band for ADF receivers? kHz kHz kHz kHz 0 1 0 0
Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF It does not It only It is pilot It does not
(VDF) let-down? require any requires a interpreted require any
special VHF radio to and does special
equipment, be fitted to not require equipment
apart from a the aircraft the to be fitted
VHF radio, assistance to the
to be of ATC aircraft
installed in
the aircraft
or on the
ground

4863 62 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9915A)_x000D_ 20° Right 20° Left 12° Right 8° Left
4864 62 What drift is being experienced? 0 0 0 1
 What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable 3° above 1.35° above 0.45° above 0.7° above
navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a and below the the and below
distance of 10 NM? the glide horizontal to horizontal to the glide
path and 10° 5.25° above 1.75° above path and
each side of the the glide 2.5° each
the localiser horizontal path and 8° side of the
centreline and 8° each each side of localiser
side of the the localiser centreline
localiser centreline
centreline

4865 62 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9917A)_x000D_ 030°(M)/20K 255°(M)/20K 285°(M)/20K 105°(M)/20K
4866 62 What wind velocity is indicated? T T T T 0 0 0 1
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight green white magenta yellow
Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and values
are coloured:
4867 62 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9919A)_x000D_ 280°(M) 272°(M) 300°(M) 260°(M)
4868 62 What is the instantaneous aircraft track? 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9920A)_x000D_ VOR/DME TACAN VOR Airport
4869 62 The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a: 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9921A)_x000D_ the an off-route a designated an off-route
The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate: destination airport alternate VOR/DME
airport airport
4870 62 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9922A)_x000D_ 272°(M) 280°(M) 300°(M) 260°(M)
4871 62 What is the manually selected heading? 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 062-9923A)_x000D_ right of the left of the left of the right of the
The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the: localizer and localizer and localizer and localizer and
above the below the above the below the
glidepath glidepath glidepath glidepath

4872 62 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 062-9914A)_x000D_ Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 5 Figure 6
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS
mode with an ILS frequency selected?
4873 62 0 0 0 1
What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted VHF radio VOR none VOR/DME
4874 62 in order that a VDF let-down may be flown? 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9916A)_x000D_ 097°(T) 170°(M) 140°(M) 280°(T)
4875 62 What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB? 1 0 0 0
In which one of the following circumstances is ground When When When using On first
direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an contacting declaring an the contact with
aircraft's position? ATC to join emergency emergency ATC on
controlled on any VHF crossing an
airapace frequency frequency international
from the 121.5 MHz FIR
open FIR boundary

4876 62 0 0 1 0
In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing VHF UHF SHF EHF
4877 62 System (MLS) operate? 0 0 1 0
GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two only the 1 only the 1 the two only the 1
carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two 575 MHz 227 MHz carrier 575 MHz
possible codes accessible acording to user (civil or carrier wave carrier wave waves and carrier wave
military)._x000D_ and two and one one public and one
Commercial aviation uses: codes code code code
4878 62 0 0 0 1
A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a decrease in increase in increase in decrease in
squall at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the area and area and area and area but not
return on the radar screen should: move to the move to the appear change in
top of the top of the nearer to the position on
screen screen bottom of the screen
the screen

4879 62 0 1 0 0
A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different mode S all modes mode A only mode C only
codes._x000D_
These 4096 codes can be used in:
4880 62 0 1 0 0
 In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in higher scanning of better a greater
'Mapping' mode enables: definition a large reception of radar range
echoes to be ground zone echos on to be
produced producing contrasting achieved
giving a echos terrain such
clearer whose as ground to
picture signals are sea
practically
independent
of distance

4881 62 0 1 0 0
The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of: phase frequency amplitude pulses
4882 62 differences differences differences 0 0 0 1
The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One 3.0 NM 3.5 NM 2.0 NM 2.5 NM
degree at 200 NM represents a width of:
4883 62 0 1 0 0
An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst left drift zero drift a wind from right drift
maintaining a relative bearing of zero. _x000D_ the west
If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is
experiencing :
4884 62 0 0 0 1
Given : _x000D_ 226° 046° 224° 044°
Compass heading 270°_x000D_
Deviation 2°W_x000D_
Variation 30°E _x000D_
Relative bearing 316° _x000D_
What is the QDR?
4885 62 0 0 0 1
Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all FULL FULL NAV, EXP VOR/ FULL NAV,
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) screen VOR/ILS, FULL ILS, PLAN PLAN and
modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) EXP VOR/ILS and MAP MAP
WITH THE EXCEPTION OF: VOR/ILS and PLAN
and PLAN
4886 62 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9906A)_x000D_ Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 2
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
4887 62 0 0 0 1
During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any altitude is range of a aeroplane is aeroplane is
DME distance indication from a DME station located too high DME system below the circling
approximately 220 NM away._x000D_ is always 'line of sight' around the
The reason for this is that the: less than altitude station
200 NM

4888 62 0 0 1 0
A DME is located at MSL._x000D_ 8 NM 6 NM 7 NM 11 NM
An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight
level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
4889 62 0 1 0 0
The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates 329 to 335 962 to 1213 962 to 1213 108 to 118
4890 62 within the following frequencies: MHz kHz. MHz MHz 0 0 1 0
An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own the pulse DME uses they are not DME
transmissions reflected from the ground because: recurrence the UHF on the transmits
rates are band receiver twin pulses
varied frequency
4891 62 0 0 1 0
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight green, green, red, black, amber/yello
Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of amber/yello magenta, amber/yello w, magenta,
precipititation are coloured in the order: w, red, black w, magenta, black
magenta red

4892 62 1 0 0 0
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight black cyan white or red
Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured: magenta
4893 62 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 062-9918A)_x000D_ 280°(M) 299°(M) 272°(M) 260°(M)
4894 62 What is the value of the selected course? 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9905A)_x000D_ Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
4895 62 0 0 0 1
 (For this question use annex 062-9913A)_x000D_ Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 5 Figure 6
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?

4896 62 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 062-9907A)_x000D_ Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?

4897 62 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9910A)_x000D_ Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 6
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
4898 62 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9912A)_x000D_ Figure 4 Figure 5 Figure 6 Figure 1
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?

4899 62 1 0 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9911A)_x000D_ Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 5
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
4900 62 0 1 0 0
(For this question use annex 062-9909A)_x000D_ Figure 4 Figure 5 Figure 6 Figure 1
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS
mode with an VOR frequency selected?
4901 62 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 062-9908A)_x000D_ Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?

4902 62 0 0 0 1
 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES - AEROPLANES

On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all 12 000 ft 11 000 ft 10 000 ft 13 000 ft
the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the
flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater
than :
4903 71 0 0 0 1
The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is: 60 NM 60 NM 90 NM 90 NM
between between between between all
aircraft flying aircraft aircraft flying aircraft flying
above operating above in the NAT
FL285. below MNPS FL285. region.
airspace.

4904 71 1 0 0 0
Which errors in "estimates" minutes shall be reported by 3 or more. 5 or more. 10 or more. 2 or more.
4905 71 aircraft overflying the North Atlantic? 1 0 0 0
An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report 10° of 15° of 5° of 20° of
position when flying east-west north of 70°N between longitude. longitude. longitude. longitude.
10°W and 50°W, every:
4906 71 0 0 0 1
An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report 15° of 10° of 5° of 20° of
position when flying east-west south of 70°N between longitude. longitude. longitude. longitude.
5°W and 65°W, every:
4907 71 0 1 0 0
In the event of a contingency which required an en-route Start its Start its Descend Start its
diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction descent descent below descent
of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC while turning while turning FL275. while turning
clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to to acquire a to acquire a to acquire a
maintain its assigned flight level should: track track track
separated separated separated
by 60 NM by 90 NM by 30 NM
from its from its from its
assigned assigned assigned
route or route or route or
track. track. track.

4908 71 0 0 0 1
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the 10 000 ft 11 000 ft 11 000 ft 10 000 ft
passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout and 12 000 and 13 000 and 12 000 and 13 000
the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which ft ft ft ft
the pressure altitude is between :

4909 71 0 0 0 1
On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be 10 000 ft. 11 000 ft. 12 000 ft. 13 000 ft.
undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen
reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the
passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a
cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period,
during which the pressure altitude is greater than :

4910 71 1 0 0 0
 The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating 2,4,5 2,3,5 1,2,3,4,5 1,2,4,5
conditions must take the following into account
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. equipment available for navigation_x000D_
2. dimensions and characteristics of the
runways_x000D_
3. composition of the flight crew_x000D_
4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed
approach areas_x000D_
5. facilities for determining and communicating the
weather conditions_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

4911 71 0 0 1 0
For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit flight. 48 hours of 30 minutes 25 hours of
voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound operation. of operation. operation.
alarms recorded during the last :
4912 71 0 0 1 0
For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen 13 000 ft 29 000 ft 10 000 ft 25 000 ft
masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aircraft
flying at a pressure altitude greater than :
4913 71 0 0 0 1
A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data 14 000 kg 20 000 kg 27 000 kg 5 700 kg
recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is
greater than :
4914 71 0 0 0 1
The frequency designated for VHF air to air 121.5 MHz. 243 MHz. 118.5 MHz. 131.8 MHz.
communications when out of range of VHF ground
stations in NAT region is :
4915 71 0 0 0 1
In the event of a contingency which required an en-route If below If above If below If above
diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction FL410, climb FL410, climb FL410, climb FL410, climb
of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC or descend or descend 500 ft or 1000 ft or
clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to 1000 ft, 1000 ft, descend descend 500
maintain its assigned flight level should : while turning while turning 1000 ft, ft, while
towards the towards the while turning turning
alternate alternate towards the towards the
aerodrome. aerodrome. alternate alternate
aerodrome. aerodrome.

4916 71 0 1 0 0
A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment Prior As soon as When At or prior
during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised entering the possible crossing the entering the
Track System) must be done : NAT region. after oceanic NAT region.
entering the airspace
NAT region. boundary.
4917 71 0 0 0 1
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of using the inserting the inserting
one of the organised tracks, the intended organised abbreviation coordinates abbreviation coordinates
track should be defined in items of the FPL by : "OTS" defining "NAT" as detailed
followed by significant followed by in the NAT
the code points with the code track
letter intervals of letter message.
assigned to 10° of assigned to
the track. longitude. the track.
4918 71 0 0 1 0
 In the event of a contingency which required an en-route If at FL410, If at FL410, If at FL410, If at FL410,
diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction climb or descend climb 1000 ft climb 500 ft,
of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC descend 500 1000 ft, or descend while turning
clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to ft, while while turning 500 ft, while towards the
maintain its assigned flight level should: turning towards the turning alternate
towards the alternate towards the aerodrome.
alternate aerodrome. alternate
aerodrome. aerodrome.

4919 71 0 0 1 0
For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be Does not Does not Does not Does not
located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I) exceed the exceed the exceed the exceed the
equivalent of equivalent of equivalent of equivalent of
one hour of two hours of one hour of two hour of
flight time, at flight time, at flight time at flight time at
cruising cruising cruising cruising
speed with speed with speed all speed all
only one only one engines engines
engine engine operating. operating.
operative. operative.

4920 71 1 0 0 0
Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of The captain, The It is not The shipper
dangerous goods is not prohibited? always using operator. specified. when
the list of completing
prohibited the shipper's
aircraft declaration
items. for
dangerous
goods.

4921 71 0 0 0 1
We would know that the automatic pressurization 2,3. 1,2,3. 1,2. 1,3.
system has malfunctioned if :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. threre is a change in environnemental
sounds._x000D_
2. the cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise._x000D_
3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the
interior becomes equal._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:
4922 71 0 1 0 0
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action Determine Cut off all air Put on the Begin an
to take is to : which conditioning mask and emergency
system is units. goggles. descent.
causing the
smoke.
4923 71 0 0 1 0
 Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in 2,3. 1,2,3. 1,2. 1,3.
the designation of a runway, under the following
circumstances :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds
15 knots._x000D_
2. when the tail wind component, including gust,
exceeds 5 knots._x000D_
3. when the runway is not clear or dry._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

4924 71 0 1 0 0
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing: They Such They are Such
prohibit the procedures applied in procedures
use of do not exist. the case of will not
reverse an involve the
thrust . instrument prohibition of
approach using
only. reverse
thrust .
4925 71 0 0 0 1
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR Dependent Greater than Less than Equal to the
indications will be: on the the actual. the actual. actual.
temperature.
4926 71 0 1 0 0
Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace Only as is With more As is As is
shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I) necessary anti-icing necessary necessary
for aircraft and/or de- for aircraft for aircraft
that make icing devices that make that operate
VFR flights. (if one VFR flights, in
expects icy and such accordance
conditions). aircraft must with
also instrument
possess flight rules.
indicators of
attitude and
course,
along with a
precise
barometric
altimeter.

4927 71 0 0 0 1
Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is The The The The captain.
such that flight can be safely made, and that any operator. mechanic on company's
transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? board, or in cargo
(Annex 6, Part I) his absence technicians.
the co-pilot.

4928 71 0 0 0 1
Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical 90 NM 60 NM 90 NM 60 NM
Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in lateral and lateral and lateral and lateral and
MNPS airspace? 1000 ft 500 ft 500 ft 1000 ft
vertical. vertical. vertical. vertical.
4929 71 0 0 0 1
The abbreviation MNPS means : Minimum Main Maximum Magnetic
Navigation Navigation Navigation Navigation
Performance Performance Performance Performance
Specification Specification Specification Specification

4930 71 1 0 0 0
 During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum in random in a day in a night out of the
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you airspace. flight route flight route organised
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1000 UTC ; you system. system. route
will normally be : system.
4931 71 1 0 0 0
During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum in random in a day in a night out of the
Navigation Performance Spécification) airspace, you airspace flight route flight route organized
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 2330 UTC ; you system system route system
will normally be :
4932 71 1 0 0 0
The regulatory green navigation light is located on the 70°. 220°. 110°. 140°.
4933 71 starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of : 0 0 1 0
Flight data recorders must keep the data and 48 hours of 25 hours of 30 hours of flight.
4934 71 parameters recorded during at least the last : operation. operation. operation. 0 1 0 0
The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure frost freezing fog rain on a steady snow
being carried out will vary considerbly depending on the cold soaked
ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a wing
given ambient temperature, the longest protection will
be in weather conditions of :

4935 71 1 0 0 0
Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in Operating at Flying above Operating Operating
accordance with IFR when: or above FL 3000 ft. more than more than
60 or 2000 ft 100 NM 100 NM
whichever is seaward seaward
higher. from the from the
shoreline shoreline
within within
controlled uncontrolled
airspace. airspace.

4936 71 1 0 0 0
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Between Between Between Below
Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region? FL290 and FL275 and FL245 and FL290.
FL410. FL400. FL410.
4937 71 1 0 0 0
When refueling is being performed while passengers The aircraft's Refueling is All the flight Communicat
are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary stairs be prohibited crew be on ions be
that: (Annex 6, Part I) completely while board. maintained
extended. passengers between
are boarding ground
and/or personnel
disembarkin and qualified
g. personnel
on board.

4938 71 0 0 0 1
If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro rhumb line. curve of spherical great circle.
compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) some type or flight
and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which other. segment.
is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the
course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is
a:
4939 71 0 0 0 1
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance 285 and 280 and 280 and 275 and
Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight 420. 400. 390. 400.
levels:
4940 71 1 0 0 0
In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in 128.800 131.800 118.800 121.800
an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance MHz. MHz. MHz. MHz.
Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency
for air-air communications is :

4941 71 0 1 0 0
 In the event of communication failure in an MNPS change the continue his return to his join one of
(Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) flight level in flight flight plan the so-called
airspace, the pilot must: accordance compliance route if its "special"
with the with the last different routes.
predetermin oceanic from the last
ed clearance oceanic
instructions. received and clearance
acknowledg received and
e by him. acknowledg
e by him.

4942 71 0 1 0 0
A fast decompression is recognizable by the following 1, 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 1, 4
elements:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. mist in the cabin_x000D_
2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft_x000D_
3. expansion of body gases_x000D_
4. blast of air released violently from the lungs_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

4943 71 1 0 0 0
(For this question use appendix )_x000D_ a toxic a corpse an infectious an explosive
_x000D_ material or material material
If a packet is marked with the label shown in the gas
appendix it is :
4944 71 1 0 0 0
Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that: national government no the airline
aviation permission passenger is complies
administratio has been carried on with the
n permission granted the same Technical
has been flight Instructions
granted

4945 71 0 0 0 1
4946 71 In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is : 7600 7700 2000 7500 0 0 0 1
A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to 3-4 1-2-3 1-2-3-4 2-4
fight:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- class A fires_x000D_
2- class B fires_x000D_
3- electrical source fires_x000D_
4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicals_x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?

4947 71 0 0 1 0
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure leaving the it is rotating releasing the it is
must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when : icing zone. (before brakes in implementin
taking-off). order to g its own
take-off. anti-icing
devices.
4948 71 0 1 0 0
 The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class 3 - 4 2-3-4 1-2-3-4 2
B fires are:_x000D_
1 - H2O_x000D_
2 - CO2_x000D_
3 - dry-chemical_x000D_
4 - halogen_x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?_x000D_

4949 71 0 1 0 0
What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft 7500 7600 7700 7800
that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) is :
4950 71 1 0 0 0
An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft 500 ft/min 300ft/min 300 ft/min 500 ft/min
planned for the flight is a performance class B with one with all with one with all
aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its engine engines engine engines
alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to reach inoperative operating at inoperative operating at
a climb rate of at least : and all the maximum and all the maximum
others continuous others cruise
operating at power. operating at power.
maximum maximum
continuous continuous
power. power.

4951 71 0 1 0 0
You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a 2 3 3 and 4 1
fire of :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...)_x000D_
2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...)_x000D_
3 - gas_x000D_
4 - metals (sodium, ...)_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

4952 71 0 0 0 1
The braking efficiency is a piece of information combination percentage zero letter falling
presenting itself in the form of a : of the terms: varying from followed by between A
poor, 10 % to 100 two and E.
medium, %. decimals.
good.

bbbbb71 1 0 0 0
You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:_x000D_ 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,2,4 1,2,3
_x000D_
1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)_x000D_
2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)_x000D_
3 - gas_x000D_
4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

4954 71 0 0 0 1
An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire fire is no the fire shut- the fire- all the fire-
shut off-handle._x000D_ longer off handle extinguisher extinguisher
The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when: detected. has been has been s connected
pulled. triggered. to this
engine have
been
triggered.

4955 71 1 0 0 0
 The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by: the the the Civil the airline
manufacture aeronautical Aviation operator.
r. authority the Authority of
airline the
operator european
depends on. states.

4956 71 0 0 0 1
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be: flooded. damp. contaminate wet.
4957 71 d. 0 0 1 0
At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a is possible can occur, cannot occur can occur,
relative humidity as low as 40 %, in air free of cloud, fog at any but only at a but only at
and precipitation, serious carburettor icing : setting low power full power or
setting cruise
settings
4958 71 0 1 0 0
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class 1 3-4 1-2-3-4 2-3-4
A fires are:_x000D_
1 - H2O_x000D_
2 - CO2_x000D_
3 - dry-chemical_x000D_
4 - halogen_x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?_x000D_

4959 71 0 0 1 0
According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb 500 ft 1 500 ft 3 000 ft 1 000 ft
procedure B", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops
Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt,
until reaching :
4960 71 0 0 0 1
The captain is asked by the authority to present the can refuse can only do must do so, can request
documents of the aircraft. He to present so after within a a delay of 48
them. having reasonable hours.
consulted period of
the operator. time.

4961 71 0 0 1 0
During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a authorizes authorizes may must not
passenger is using a portable device suspected to its use its use authorize authorize
disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain: except during the the use of any person
during take- whole flight this device, to use such
off and phase. as an a device on
landing exception. board.
phases.
4962 71 0 0 0 1
After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped 90 days. 45 days. 60 days. 30 days.
with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings
for a minimum period of:
4963 71 0 0 1 0
An operator must ensure that for the duration of each the the aircraft a copy of the a copy of the
flight, be kept on the ground, if required: calculation equipment weight and calculated
of the report balance take-off
airborne fuel (logbook). sheet. performance
quantity. s.

4964 71 0 0 1 0
An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each operation ATC (Air flight plan flight route
flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the : flight plan. Traffic processing. sheet.
Control)
flight plan.
4965 71 1 0 0 0
In the hazardous materials transportation act, the sender. captain. station aerodrome
freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is manager. manager.
the responsibility of the :
4966 71 1 0 0 0
 The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to: the aircraft the aircraft the the
proceeding used by operation by operation by
from police, a state a state
European customs and member of member of
states or defense the JAA of the JAA of
flying over departments any civil any civil
them. . aircraft. commercial
transport
aircraft.

4967 71 0 0 0 1
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome MDH=400 ft MDH=600 ft MDH=700 ft MDH=500 ft
Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an and and and and
operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are : visibility=150 visibility=240 visibility=260 visibility=160
0m 0m 0m 0m
4968 71 0 0 0 1
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance 30° North to 27° North to 30° North to 27° North to
4969 71 Specification) airspace extends from : 70° North. 90° North. 90° North. 70° North. 0 1 0 0
In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome 250 m 230 m 300 m 200 m
Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a
precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or
MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR
(runway visual range) no less than :
4970 71 0 0 0 1
The wake turbulence is the most severe when the 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 1, 4 1, 2, 3, 4
aircraft is :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. slow_x000D_
2. heavy_x000D_
3. in a clean configuration_x000D_
4. flying with a high thrust_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statement is:

4971 71 0 1 0 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome NDB facility, ILS facility VOR facility, VOR/DME
Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that lowest without lowest facility,
system minima for "non-precision approach MDH=300 ft glidepath MDH=250 ft lowest
procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS (localizer) MDH=300 ft
without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF lowest
are no lower than MDH following value with: MDH=200 ft

4972 71 1 0 0 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall 24 months 3 months 12 months 15 months
ensure that all relevant operational and technical
information for a individual flight is preserved on ground
for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if
practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be
retained, during at least :

4973 71 0 1 0 0
According to the recommended noise abatement is procedure is procedure is either depends on
procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I B A procedure A the wind
part V, data available indicates that the procedure which or B, component
results in noise relief during the part of the procedure because
close to the airport : there is not
difference in
noise
distribution
4974 71 1 0 0 0
According to the recommended "noise abatement take- 1 000 ft 1 500 ft 3 000 ft 2 000 ft
off and climb procedure A" established in ICAO, DOC
8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to
climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft
reaches :
4975 71 0 1 0 0
 In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall he has he has he has he has
ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as carried out carried out carried out carried out
pilot-in-command unless : at least at least at least at least
three flights three take- three take- three take-
as pilot-in- off and three off and three off and three
command in landings as landings as landings as
an pilot flying in pilot flying in pilot flying in
aeroplane or any type of an an
an approved aeroplane or aeroplane or aeroplane or
flight an approved an approved an approved
simulator of simulator, flight flight
the type to under the simulator of simulator of
be used, in supervision the type to the type to
the of an be used, in be used, in
preceding examiner, in the the
90 days the preceding preceding
preceding 30 days 90 days
60 days

4976 71 0 0 0 1
JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned he has he has he has he has
to operate at the flight controls during take-off and carried out operated as carried out carried out
landing unless : at least pilot-in- as pilot-in- as-pilot-in-
three flights command or command or command or
as pilot-in- as co-pilot at as co-pilot at as co-pilot at
command or the controls least three lest three
as a co-pilot during take- take-off and take-off and
at the off and three three
controls of landing of landings in landings in
the type to the type to an an
be used, in be used in aeroplane or aeroplane or
the the an approved an approved
preceding preceding flight flight
90 days. 90 days. simulator of simulator of
the type the type
used, in the used, in the
preceding preceding
90 days. 30 days

4977 71 0 1 0 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required 5 IFR flights, 5 IFR flights, 5 IFR flights, 3 IFR flights,
recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot including 3 including 3 including 3 including 3
operation under IFR or at night shall be : take-off and take-off and instrument instrument
3 landings 3 landings approaches, approaches,
carried out carried out carried out carried out
during the during the during the during the
preceding preceding preceding preceding
90 days on 30 days on 90 days on 90 days on
the type or the type or the type the type
class of class of class of class of
aeroplane in aeroplane in aeroplane in aeroplane in
the single- the single- the single- the single-
pilot role. pilot role. pilot role. pilot role.

4978 71 0 0 1 0
 In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B 75 m 150 m 100 m 50 m
operations, is a precision instrument approach and
landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower
than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual
range lower than 200 m but no less than :

4979 71 1 0 0 0
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure need not to must only must must only
and having exceeded the protection time of the anti- undergo a undergo a undergo a undergo a
icing fluid: new anti- de-icing de-icing new anti-
icing procedure procedure icing
procedure for take-off. before a procedure
for take-off. new for take-off.
application
of anti-icing
fluid for
take-off.

4980 71 0 0 1 0
JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes for special VFR for for
that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that : conducted flights are conducted conducted
VFR flights not VFR flights VFR flights
in airspace commenced in airspace in airspace
E, flight when B, horizontal F, vertical
visibility at visibility is distance distance
and above 3 less than 3 from clouds from clouds
050 m. (10 km is 1 000 m at is 250 m at
000 ft) is 5 least least
km at least
(clear of
cloud)

4981 71 0 1 0 0
In icing conditions and after the application of an anti- 3, 4 2, 3 1, 4 1, 2
icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off
by:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of
the preceding aircraft_x000D_
2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash
of the preceding aircraft _x000D_
3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the
preceding aircraft _x000D_
4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the
preceding aircraft _x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

4982 71 0 0 0 1
The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 4, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 3, 5, 6
on:_x000D_ 6
_x000D_
1. the type and intensity of the showers_x000D_
2. the ambient temperature_x000D_
3. the relative humidity_x000D_
4. the direction and speed of the wind_x000D_
5. the temperature of the airplane skin_x000D_
6. the type of fluid, its concentration and
temperature_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

4983 71 0 0 1 0
 The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and when the when the during when the
reduce considerably the protection time: temperature airplane is strong winds outside
of the into the or as a temperature
airplane skin wind. result of the is close to 0
is close to 0 other aircraft °C.
°C. engines jet
wash.

4984 71 0 0 1 0
After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes apply the apply the release the release the
you: parking parking parking parking
brake and brake and brake and brake and
you approach you you
approach the wheels approach approach
the wheels sidewards. the wheels the wheels
either from either from sidewards.
fore or aft. aft or fore.
4985 71 0 0 1 0
In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you 1, 2 2, 3, 4 3, 4 1, 4
fight the fire using:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. a dry powder fire extinguisher_x000D_
2. a water spray atomizer_x000D_
3. a water fire-extinguisher_x000D_
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

4986 71 1 0 0 0
In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you : carry out a pull the fire fight the carry out a
damp shut off nozzle fire dry cranking.
cranking. handle and with a water
trigger the fire-
engines fire- extinguisher.
extinguisher
s.
4987 71 0 0 0 1
When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind different distinct from distinct from identical to
coming from the right side, you adopt a path, whenever from the the the the one of
possible : preceding preceding preceding the
airplane, by airplane, by airplane, by preceding
remaining remaining remaining airplane.
behind it and on the right on the left of
under its of and and under
path. above its its path.
path.

4988 71 0 1 0 0
When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind distinct from distinct from identical to distinct form
coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever the the the one of the
possible : preceding preceding the preceding
airplane, by airplane, by preceding airplane, by
remaining at remaining at airplane. remaining
the left of the right of behind it and
and above and under under its
its path. its path. path.

4989 71 1 0 0 0
The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake 30 seconds. 1 minute. 10 minutes. 3 minutes.
created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
4990 71 0 0 0 1
 The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the 2 and 3. 1, 2 and 3. 1. 3.
result of:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices)._x000D_
2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas
exhausts)._x000D_
3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the
landing gear, of the flaps, etc.)._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

4991 71 0 0 1 0
A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:_x000D_ 1, 2 2, 3 1 1, 2, 3
_x000D_
1. on himself/herself_x000D_
2. in his/her hand luggage_x000D_
3. in his/her checked luggage_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
4992 71 0 0 1 0
A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:_x000D_ 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 3, 5
_x000D_
1. a paper fire_x000D_
2. a hydrocarbon fire_x000D_
3. a fabric fire_x000D_
4. an electrical fire_x000D_
5. a wood fire_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

4993 71 0 0 1 0
Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at separate to separate to separate on stagnate on
take-off: the right the left side. each side of the runway.
side. the runway.
4994 71 0 0 1 0
When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti- You must you must First, you You can
icing procedure, must be protected again: operate the wait until the must de-ice apply
aircraft de- protection again the directly the
icing/anti- time of the surface of new layer of
icing devices anti-icing the airplane, anti-icing
before fluid is over then apply fluid without
applying the before the new previous de-
new layer of applying the layer of anti- icing.
anti-icing new layer of icing fluid.
fluid. anti-icing
fluid.

4995 71 0 0 1 0
 The wake turbulence: starts when starts during starts as starts when
pulling out the rotation soon as the the airplane
the drag and stops as aeroplane is reaches a
devices and soon as the running for height of
stops when airplane's take-off and 300 ft above
rectracting wheels stops as the ground
the drag touch the soon as it and stops
devices. ground. has come to when it
a stop at crosses this
landing. height
before
landing.

4996 71 0 1 0 0
In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds high altitude low altitude low altitude low altitude
at : converge on converge on diverge from diverge from
the center of the center of the center of the center of
the the the the
phenomeno phenomeno phenomeno phenomeno
n and the n and the n and the n and the
atmospheric atmospheric atmospheric atmospheric
pressure pressure pressure pressure
increases by decreases increases by decreases
a few by a few a few by a few
hectopascal hectopascal hectopascal hectopascal
s. s. s. s.

4997 71 0 0 1 0
You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :_x000D_ 1,2,3,4 3,4 1,2,3 2,3
_x000D_
1. a paper fire_x000D_
2. a plastic fire_x000D_
3. a hydrocarbon fire_x000D_
4. an electrical fire_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

4998 71 1 0 0 0
You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:_x000D_ 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 2, 3 1, 4
_x000D_
1. a paper fire_x000D_
2. a plastic fire_x000D_
3. a hydrocarbon fire_x000D_
4. an electrical fire_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

4999 71 1 0 0 0
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you 3, 5 1, 2, 4 1, 3, 5 2, 3
will:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. set the maximum take-off thrust_x000D_
2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating
the stick shaker_x000D_
3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)_x000D_
4. keep the airplane's current configuration_x000D_
5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5000 71 0 1 0 0
 A slow decompression may be caused by:_x000D_ 1, 2, 3 1, 2 1, 2, 3, 4 3, 4
_x000D_
1. a slight airtightness defect_x000D_
2. a bad functioning of the pressurization_x000D_
3. the loss of a window_x000D_
4. the loss of a door_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5001 71 0 1 0 0
To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:_x000D_ 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2 2, 3, 4
_x000D_
1. a water fire-extinguisher_x000D_
2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher_x000D_
3. a halon fire-extinguisher_x000D_
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5002 71 1 0 0 0
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence LIGHT LIGHT MEDIUM LIGHT
non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be aircraft aircraft aircraft aircraft
applied to : taking-off taking -off landing landing
behind a behind a behind a behind a
MEDIUM MEDIUM HEAVY MEDIUM
aircraft from aircraft when aircraft aircraft
a parallel aircraft are
runway using the
separated same
by less than runway
760 m.
(using whole
runway)

5003 71 0 0 0 1
The time of useful consciousness in case of an 5 minutes. 12 seconds. 30 seconds. 1 minute.
explosive decompression at an altitude of _x000D_
40 000 ft is:
5004 71 0 1 0 0
In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy 3, 5 2, 3, 4 1, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 4
rain :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. you increase your approach speed,_x000D_
2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the
wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose
gear,_x000D_
3. you decrease your approach speed,_x000D_
4. you use systematically all the lift dumper
devices,_x000D_
5. you land as smoothly as possible,_x000D_
6. you brake energically._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

5005 71 0 0 0 1
 In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a you dexcend you carry out you climb to you go down
bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding to the flight an the to the level
any fuel considerations: level emergency maximum correspondi
correspondi descent to flight level ng to the
ng to the reach the which does indicated
indicated safety not need the cabin
cabin altitude. use of altitude and
altitude or pressurizatio keep the
the safety n. airplane in a
altitude if clean
higher and configuration
take until the final
preventive approach.
steps by
putting
yourself in a
landing
approach
configuration
.

5006 71 1 0 0 0
The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5 1, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4
the travelling direction, in case of an emergency landing
are: _x000D_
_x000D_
1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,_x000D_
2. head resting against the back of the front
seat,_x000D_
3. forearms on the armrests,_x000D_
4. seat belt very tightly fastened,_x000D_
5. head resting on the forearms._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5007 71 0 0 1 0
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop a plastic fire. a fast a slow an electrical
characterize: depressuriza depressuriza fire.
tion. tion.
5008 71 0 1 0 0
In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will :_x000D_ 2, 3, 4 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 4
_x000D_
1. evacuate women and children first._x000D_
2. have the passengers embark directly in the
liferafts._x000D_
3. prevent passenger movements which may impede
the airplane's flotation ability._x000D_
4. ensure the complete evacuation of the
airplane._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5009 71 1 0 0 0
When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM 4 MIN 3 MIN 1 MIN 2 MIN
aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time
approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO),
shall be :
5010 71 0 1 0 0
 According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence to an Between a to LIGHT to a
non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be arriving LIGHT aircraft departing
applied : LIGHT aircraft and taking-off MEDIUM
aircraft a MEDIUM behind a aircraft
following a aircraft MEDIUM following a
MEDIUM making a aircraft from HEAVY
aircraft missed an aircraft
departure approach intermediate arrival when
when and the part of operating on
operating on LIGHT parallel a runway
a runway aircraft runway with a
with a utilizing an separated desplaced
desplaced opposite- by less 760 landing
landing direction m threshold
threshold, if runway for
the take-off
projected
flight paths
are
expected to
cross

5011 71 0 0 1 0
The information concerning dangerous products that aircraft's IATA JAR-OPS ICAO
passengers may carry, are listed in the : flight document documentati document
manual. "Dangerous on. named
products "Technical
transportatio safety
n". instructions
for the air
transportatio
n of
dangerous
products"

5012 71 0 0 0 1
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM 5 NM 4 NM 3 NM 2 NM
and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or
parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in
approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied
a wake turbulence radar separation minima of :

5013 71 1 0 0 0
A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
for:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. a paper fire_x000D_
2. a hydrocarbon fire_x000D_
3. a fabric fire_x000D_
4. an electrical fire_x000D_
5. a wood fire_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5014 71 0 0 1 0
 According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence MEDIUM LIGHT LIGHT HEAVY
radar separation minima of 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall be aircraft is aircraft is aircraft is aircraft is
applied when a : crossing crossing crossing crossing
behind a behind a behind a behind a
MEDIUM MEDIUM HEAVY HEAVY
aircraft, at aircraft, at aircraft, at aircraft, at
the same the same the same the same
altitude or altitude or altitude or altitude or
less than less than less than less than
300 n (1 000 300 m (1 300 m (1 300 m (1
ft) 000.ft) 000 ft) 000 ft)

5015 71 0 1 0 0
In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating E D B C
Minima - General), it is established, among other
considerations, that an Operator must take full account
of Aeroplane Categories._x000D_
The criteria taken into consideration for classification of
Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at
threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at
the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by
1,3._x000D_
Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from
141 kt to 165 kt is :

5016 71 0 1 0 0
In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical 500 ft 2000ft 1 500 ft 1 000 ft
separation that can be applied between FL 290 and
FL410 inclusive is :
5017 71 0 0 0 1
An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS climb or climb or climb or climb 500 ft
Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with descend 500 descent 1 descent 1 or descend
its air traffic control clearance (degradation of ft 000 ft 000 ft or 1 000 ft
navigational performance requirements, mechanics descend 500
troubles .... etc), but is able to maintain its assigned ft
level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of
communications capability, could not obtain a revised
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM
from its assigned route and :

5018 71 1 0 0 0
An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS climb or climb 1 000 climb 500 ft climb or
Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with descent 500 ft or descent or descend descend 1
its air traffic control clearance (degradation of ft 500 ft 1 000 ft 000 ft
navigational performance requirements, mechanics
troubles... etc), bus is able to maintain its assigned level,
and due to a total loss of communications capability,
could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The
aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by
turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this
is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to
acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally
separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :

5019 71 0 0 0 1
 During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two at the at the end of a the end of at the
stages, the waiting time starts: beginning of the second the first beginning of
the first stage (anti- stage (de- the second
stage (de- icing stage). icing stage). stage (anti-
icing stage). icing stage).

5020 71 0 0 0 1
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure: the de-icing the anti-icing the anti-icing the anti-icing
fluid is fluid is and de-icing and de-icing
applied applied fluids are fluids are
without without applied hot. applied cold.
heating and heating and
the anti-icing the de-icing
fluid is fluid is
applied hot. applied hot.
5021 71 0 1 0 0
A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:_x000D_ 1, 3, 5 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
_x000D_
1. a paper fire_x000D_
2. a fabric fire_x000D_
3. an electric fire_x000D_
4. a wood fire_x000D_
5. a hydrocarbon fire_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5022 71 0 0 0 1
If you encounter a "microburst" just after taking-off, at 2,4 1,4 4,5 1,3
the beginning you will have:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - a head wind_x000D_
2 - a strong rear wind_x000D_
3 - better climb performances_x000D_
4 - a diminution of climb gradient_x000D_
5 - an important thrust drop_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

5023 71 0 0 0 1
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non- LIGHT MEDIUM MEDIUM LIGHT
radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to aircraft aircraft aircraft aircraft
: landing landing taking-off taking-off
behind a behind a behind a behind a
MEDIUM HEAVY HEAVY MEDIUM
aircraft aircraft aircraft from aircraft from
an an
intermediate intermediate
part of a part of the
parallel same
separated runway
by less than
760 m

5024 71 0 1 0 0
 (For this question use annex 071-9199A)_x000D_ Hold 1 : EAT Hold 1 : EAT Hold 1 : Hold 1 :
Considering the two holds of an aircraft :_x000D_ - BAG - RRY - BAG - AVI - BAG - BAG - BAG - RHF -
Each one consists of 4 compartments to accommodate - AVI_x000D_ RRY - HUM -
freight pallets or luggage containers._x000D_ RHF_x000D Hold 2 : HUM_x000D RRY_x000D
You are asked to load :_x000D_ _ BAG - HUM _ _
2 pallets of live animals marked "AVI"_x000D_ Hold 2 : - RRY - RHF Hold 2 : AVI Hold 2 : AVI
2 luggage containers marked "BAG"_x000D_ BAG - AVI - - AVI - XXX - - AVI - BAG -
1 mortal remains marked "HUM"_x000D_ AVI - HUM EAT (RHF EAT
1 pallet of food product marked "EAT"_x000D_ disembarked
1 pallet of radioactive materials marked "RRY"_x000D_ )
1 pallet of toxic materials marked "RHF"_x000D_
The locations still vacant shall be marked
"XXX"_x000D_
According to the table of compatibility of special freight
and hazardous materials given in the appendix, the
most operational distribution in the holds shall be :

5025 71 0 0 0 1
If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are land at the take an descend return to
unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if nearest intermediate below the departure
you cannot establish communication with the air traffic airport flight level MNPS airport
control, you : space
5026 71 0 1 0 0
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a 20 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes
leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal
spacing must be at least :
5027 71 0 1 0 0
The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between 90 NM. 120 NM. 60 NM. 30 NM.
5028 71 aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is : 0 0 1 0
The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying 15 minutes. 20 minutes. 10 minutes. 5 minutes.
in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :
5029 71 0 0 1 0
The minimum navigation equipment required for an Three One inertial Two inertial Two inertial
aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can inertial navigation navigation navigation
be at the very least : navigation unit. units. units and a
units. DECCA.
5030 71 0 0 1 0
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum within the within the in a random out of the
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you organized organized space organized
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you daytime night-time flight track
will then normally be ; flight track flight track system
system system
5031 71 0 0 0 1
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum within the in a random out of the within the
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you organized space. organized organized
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you night-time flight track daytime
will then normally be : flight track system. flight track
system. system.
5032 71 0 0 1 0
The validity period of a flight track system organized in 00H00 UTC 11H30 UTC 10H30 UTC 01H00 UTC
MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) to 08H00 to 19H00 to 19H00 to 08H00
airspace during a Westbound flight normally is : UTC UTC UTC UTC
5033 71 0 1 0 0
The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft 24 hours certain time 3 hours certain time
on ground will provide a : protection of protection protection of protection
time. independent time. depending
of the on its
outside concentratio
temperature. n.

5034 71 0 0 0 1
 A polar track is a track part of which is included in an 10 micro- 6 micro-tesla 17 micro- 38 micro
area where the horizontal component of the earth tesla tesla tesla
magnetic field is less than :
5035 71 0 1 0 0
The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned 3 take-offs 6 take-offs 6 take-offs 3 take-offs
to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less and 3 and 6 and 6 and 3
than : landings as landings as landings as landings as
pilot in pilot in pilot in pilot in
command command command command
on this type on this type on this type on this type
of aircraft of aircraft of aircraft of aircraft
during the during the during the during the
last 90 days last 90 days last 6 last 6
months months

5036 71 1 0 0 0
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to Pitch angle. Vertical Groundspee Indicated
change its value when penetrating a windshear ? speed. d. airspeed.
5037 71 0 0 0 1
Wake turbulence risk is highest : following a when a when a if, just before
preceding preceeding heavy landing a
aircraft at aircraft has aircraft has much lighter
high speed. briefly just aircraft has
applied take- performed a landed at
off thrust just take-off at a the same
prior to take closely runway with
off. situated heavy
parallel crosswind.
runway with
a light
crosswind.

5038 71 0 0 1 0
Following an explosive decompression, if you are using 32000 ft 25000 ft 14000 ft 8000 ft
an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls
the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when
the supply selector is at the "normal" position. At what
approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the
mask become pure oxygen only ?

5039 71 1 0 0 0
Following an explosive decompression, the maximum 14000 ft 2500 ft 8000 ft 25000 ft
altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not
impaired is :
5040 71 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 071-10645A)_x000D_ 8600 ft 2900 ft 20750 ft 12000 ft
Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum
differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the
oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the
maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :

5041 71 0 0 1 0
Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum 27000 ft 29000 ft 24500 ft 22500 ft
differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the
oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the
maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :

5042 71 0 0 1 0
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the attains its decreases increases remains
differential pressure : maximum constant
permitted
operating
limit
5043 71 0 1 0 0
 When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for a rate of a rate of a rate of zero
some considerable time a small leak develops in the descent climb descent of
cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be dependent approximatel
seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will upon the y 300 fpm
indicate : cabin
differential
pressure
5044 71 0 1 0 0
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it : can occur at occurs only occurs only can occur at
any altitude at a low at a low any altitude
in both the altitude altitude and only in
vertical and ( 2000 ft) ( 2000 ft) the
horizontal and never in and never in horizontal
planes the vertical the plane
plane horizontal
plane
5045 71 1 0 0 0
When the weather conditions require an alternate 2 hours of 2 hours of 1 hour of 1 hour of
aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be flight at flight at flight at flight at
located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent cruising cruising cruising cruising
distance not exceeding : speed with speed with speed with a speed with
single two engines single two engines
engine engine
5046 71 0 0 1 0
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to above FL below FL at FL 430 at FL410
continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control 410 410
clearance (due to degradation of navigational
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its
assigned level,and due to a total loss of
communications capability, could not obtain a revised
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM
from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend
500 ft, if :

5047 71 0 0 0 1
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to above FL at FL 430 below FL at FL 410
continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control 410 410
clearance (due to degradation of navigational
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its
assigned level, and due to a total loss of
communications capability, could not obtain a revised
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM
from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if :

5048 71 0 0 1 0
DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence 135 000 Kg less than 146 000 Kg 136 000 Kg
separation minima shall be based on a grouping of or more 136 000 Kg or more or more
aircraft types into three categories according to the but more
maximum certificated take-off mass._x000D_ than 126
Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of : 000 Kg

5049 71 0 0 0 1
 To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a Above and Below and Below and Above and
larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver : downwind downwind upwind from upwind from
from the from the the larger the larger
larger larger aircraft aircraft
aircraft aircraft
5050 71 0 0 0 1
The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the Large, Large, Small, light, Small, light,
generating aircraft is : heavy, at low heavy, at at low speed at maximum
speed in maximum in clean speed in full
clean speed in full configuration flaps
configuration flaps configuration
configuration

5051 71 1 0 0 0
With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Aircraft is Track Error Track Error Aircraft is
Navigation System (INS), you can read the following diverging Angle (TKE) Angle (TKE) converging
information :_x000D_ from its ideal is right (R) is left (L) towards its
_x000D_ course ideal course
- Desired track (DTK) = 100°_x000D_
- Track (TK) = 120°_x000D_
_x000D_
You can conclude that the :
5052 71 0 1 0 0
A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an 150 m 250 m 200 m 75 m
approach which may be carried out with a runway visual
range of at least :
5053 71 0 0 0 1
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an 200 m 100 m 250 m 50 m
approach which may be carried out with a runway visual
range of at least :
5054 71 1 0 0 0
The minimum time track is a track defined for : a period of a period of aircraft flying a given
12 hours 24 hours in MNPS travel
airspace
5055 71 0 0 0 1
When the weather conditions require an alternate 2 hours of 2 hours of 1 hour of 1 hour of
aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be flight at flight at flight at flight at
located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an cruising cruising cruising cruising
equivalent distance not exceeding : speed with 1 speed with speed with speed with
engine all engines all engine all
inoperative operating inoperative enginesoper
ating
5056 71 1 0 0 0
The term decision height (DH) is used for : an indirect a a precision a
approach. conventional approach. conventional
approach approach.
followed by
a visual
maneuver.
5057 71 0 0 1 0
A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an a runway no runway a runway a runway
approach with : visual range visual range visual range visual range
of at least limits of at least 50 of at least
350 m m 200 m
5058 71 0 1 0 0
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach a decision a decision no decision a decision
with : height of at height of at height height of at
least 200 ft least 50 ft least 100 ft
5059 71 0 0 0 1
On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet 30 minutes 2 hours with 2 hours at 30 minutes
engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum with normal normal holding flight at holding
quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during : cruising cruising speed and flight speed
consumption consumption 1500 ft and 1500 ft

5060 71 0 1 0 0
 On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined 30 minutes 45 minutes 30 minutes 45 minutes
aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and at cruising at cruising at holding at holding
lubricant sufficient for flying during : speed speed flight speed flight speed
and 1500 ft and 1500 ft
5061 71 0 0 1 0
A minimum time track is a : rhumb line spherical track great circle
capable determined track
flight according to
segment weather
conditions
5062 71 0 0 1 0
On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an 300 NM or 200 NM or 100 NM or 400 NM or
aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is 90 minutes 45 minutes 30 minutes 120 minutes
suitable for making a emergency landing greater than at cruising at cruising at cruising at cruising
that corresponding to : speed. speed. speed. speed.

5063 71 0 0 0 1
A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an 400 NM 50 NM 100 NM 200 NM
aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :
5064 71 0 1 0 0
The standby power supply powering the standby 30 minutes. 60 minutes. 15 minutes. 2 hours.
artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft
of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during
at least :
5065 71 1 0 0 0
Which one of the following factors should prevent a It has a tail It has a tail It has no ILS Cross-wind
runway being chosen as the preferential landing runway wind wind or visual component,
for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological component component approach including
condition (VMC) ? of any value of 3 kts and slope gusts, is 10
a cross guidance kt
wind,
including
gusts, of 12
kt

5066 71 0 0 1 0
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach 800 m 500 m 550 m 350 m
which may be carried out with a runway visual range of
at least :
5067 71 0 0 1 0
During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 to put on the to set the to warn the to comfort
(FL 370), your first action will be : oxygen transponder ATC your
mask to 7700 passengers
5068 71 1 0 0 0
An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an to put on disconnect transmit a place the
altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the oxygen the autopilot MAYDAY seat belts
operating crew ? masks message sign to ON
5069 71 1 0 0 0
The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip : from the clockwise. counterclock from the
underwing wise. upper side
toward the of the wing
upper side toward the
of the wing. underwing.

5070 71 1 0 0 0
An airplane creates a wake turbulence when : generating flying at high using a high flying with its
lift. speed. engine gear and
R.P.M. flaps
extended.
5071 71 1 0 0 0
 For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 2. 1 and 4.
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
grooves._x000D_
2- speed is greater than 132 kt._x000D_
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves._x000D_
4- speed is greater than 117 kt._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5072 71 0 0 1 0
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 2. 1 and 4.
risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
grooves._x000D_
2- speed is greater than 96 kt._x000D_
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves._x000D_
4- speed is greater than 127 kt._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5073 71 0 0 1 0
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is 1 and 4. 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 2.
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
grooves._x000D_
2- speed is greater than 104 kt._x000D_
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves._x000D_
4- speed is greater than 96 kt._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements i :

5074 71 0 0 0 1
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 2. 1 and 4.
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
grooves._x000D_
2- speed is greater than 114 kt._x000D_
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves._x000D_
4- speed is greater than 83 kt._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

5075 71 0 0 1 0
 For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is 3 and 4. 2 and 3. 1 and 2. 1 and 4.
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
grooves._x000D_
2- speed is greater than 123 kt._x000D_
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves._x000D_
4- speed is greater than 95 kt._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5076 71 0 0 1 0
When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just in front of at the point at the point beyond the
landed, you should take-off : the point where the where the point where
where the aircraft's aircraft's the aircraft's
aircraft's wheels have wheels have wheels have
wheels have touched touched the touched
touched down and on ground and down.
down. the wind on the
side of the underwind
runway . side of the
runway .

5077 71 0 0 0 1
The observations and studies conducted on the about two about ten as soon as from the
behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft seconds seconds they hear beginning of
taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 beforehand beforehand the engines the takeoff
kt, show that birds fly away : noise roll
5078 71 1 0 0 0
An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while 20 kt. 80 kt. 40 kt. 60 kt.
making its way towards the centre of a microburst may
expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a
windshear of :
5079 71 0 1 0 0
As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's 2,5 1,2,5 1,2,3,4,5 1,3,4
means of information and prevention are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - ATIS._x000D_
2 - NOTAMs._x000D_
3 - BIRDTAMs._x000D_
4 - Weather radar._x000D_
5 - The report by another crew._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

5080 71 0 1 0 0
 Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a 1,3,5 2,4 2,3,4,5 1,2,3,4,5,6
certain amount of information. The operator will see that
this file is kept on ground. It contains more
particularly:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - the weather conditions for the day including the
weather forecast at destination,_x000D_
2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if
required, the weight and balance sheet,_x000D_
3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel
report,_x000D_
4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when
specifically issued by the operator,_x000D_
5 - notification for special loadings,_x000D_
6 - for each flight, details of the day's performances and
limitations with completed charts._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5081 71 0 0 1 0
Following an emergency landing which will need an 2,3. 2,4. 1,4. 1,3.
escape from the aircraft, you will:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - remain on the runway,_x000D_
2 - clear the runway using the first available
taxiway,_x000D_
3 - keep one engine or the APU running in order to
maintain the electrical power supply on,_x000D_
4 - turn off all systems._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5082 71 0 0 1 0
While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of take a level reduce maintain the reduce
a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in flight attitude rapidly the aircraft on rapidly the
the indicated airspeed without any change in the to reduce selected the glide selected
preselected engine and attitude parameters. The speed, then thrust in path, accept thrust,
preceding crews had reported the occurrence of come back order to a positive maintain on
windshears in final phase. you must : to glide path reach 1.2 Vs speed the glide
from above. and try a deviation, path.
precision monitor the
landing. speed
evolution.

5083 71 0 0 1 0
A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk from 200 to from 0 to from 500 to from 100 to
5084 71 is encountered in a layer from : 500 m. 150 m. 1200 m. 800 m. 0 1 0 0
90 % of bird strikes occur : above 1 000 between 500 between 500 under 500 m
m and 1 000 m and 1 500 m
5085 71 0 0 0 1
While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs supercooled convection windshears wake
you about the presence of a "microburst". You will water. motion of air (vertical and turbulence .
expect to encounter: mass. horizontal).
5086 71 0 0 1 0
If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be during final in a straight in a holding under flight
better to do so: phase of line and at a stack, after level 50
approach. relatively control (FL50).
high flight clearance.
level.
5087 71 0 1 0 0
 In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise no turns turns during turns during turns during
preferential routes are established to ensure that should be take-off and take-off and take-off and
departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying required climb should climb should climb should
noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as coincident not be not be not be
far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential with a required required required
routes : reduction of unless the unless the unless the
power aeroplane bank angle bank angle
associated has reached for turns is for turns is
with a noise and can limited to limited to
abatement maintain 20° 28°
procedure. throughout (climbing at (climbing at
the turn a V2 + 10 to V2 + 10 to
height of no 20 Kt) 20 Kt)
less than
100 m
above
terrain and
the highest
obstacle.

5088 71 1 0 0 0
The JAR-OPS is based on : ICAO The air The Federal A JAA
Appendix 6 transport Aviation guideline
rules Requirement
s (FAR)
5089 71 1 0 0 0
An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe reduce the maintain the carry out an increase its
approach, it is necessary to : approach normal approach approach
speed, approach with flaps speed,
because the speed up to up, in order because the
runway may landing to avoid rain affects
be very exposing too the lift by
slippery on much lifting deteriorating
landing surface to the
the rain boundary
layer

5090 71 0 0 0 1
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing 1, 3, 5 2, 4, 5 1, 2, 3 2, 3, 5
contamination by ice or frost will cause the following
effects:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - an increase in the take-off distance_x000D_
2 - a diminution of the take-off run_x000D_
3 - an increase in the stalling speed_x000D_
4 - a diminution of the stalling speed_x000D_
5 - a diminution of the climb gradient_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

5091 71 1 0 0 0
Who has the responsibility for establishing operating operator state of the state in commander
procedures for noise abatement purposes during operator which the
instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS aeroplane is
the : operating
5092 71 1 0 0 0
The most efficient bird scaring technique generally the use of broadcasting firing various
available is : model of recorded shellcracker visual
predators, distress calls s methods
scarecrows,
etc
5093 71 0 1 0 0
 Which one of the following sets of conditions is most a refuse tip mowing and a modern the
likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ? in close maintaining sewage tip extraction of
proximity the grass in close minerals
long proximity such as
sand and
gravel
5094 71 1 0 0 0
Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least short gang- long grass edible an area
likely to attract flocks of birds ? mown grass rubbish liable to
flooding
5095 71 0 1 0 0
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing Steady snow Freezing fog Frost Freezing
fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather rain
condition will the holdover (protection) time be
shortest ?
5096 71 0 0 0 1
If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure switch on all complete carry out a complete
inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct the departure further de- departure as
action is to : aeroplane provided icing soon as
anti-icing that the process possible to
and de-icing recommend reduce the
systems and ed anti-icing possibility of
leave on holdover further
until clear of (protection) freezing
icing time for the
conditions prevailing
when conditons
airborne and type of
fluid used
has not
been
exceeded

5097 71 0 0 1 0
One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with At the At the At the At the
instrument flight rules unless the available information predicted predicted predicted predicted
indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of time of time of take- time of time of
predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative arrival equal off equal to arrival, and arrival better
destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I) to or better or better for a than the
than the than the reasonable minimum
minimum minimum period conditions
conditions conditions before and required for
required for required for after such a aerodrome
aerodrome aerodrome predicted use.
use. use. time, equal
to or better
than the
minimum
conditions
required for
aerodrome
use.

5098 71 1 0 0 0
 Which of the following requirements should be met The aircraft A The aircraft The flight
when planning a flight with icing conditions: shall before meterologist shall be should be
flight be shall decide equipped planned so
sprayed with whether the with that a
anti-icing flight may be approved change of
fluid performed ice- cruising
without ice- protection level can be
protection systems initiated
systems rapidly

5099 71 0 0 1 0
The minimum flight crew for night transport of 1 pilot for 2 pilots for 2 pilots for 2 pilots for
passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules any aircraft any turbo- turbo-jet any aircraft
is : weighing prop aircraft aircraft and weighing
less than 5.7 weighing turbo-prop more than
tons, more than aircraft with 5.7 tons or
provided 5.7 tons or more than 9 having more
that the for any passenger than 9
maximum turbo-jet seats passenger
certified aircraft seats
number of
passenger
seats is less
than 9

5100 71 0 0 1 0
A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is CO2 (carbon foam dry powder water
required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use dioxide)
is :
5101 71 0 0 1 0
In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are State of the State of State of State of
known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the operator, the Registry of Registry of Registry of
country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of J.A.A. and the aircraft the aircraft, the aircraft
unlawful interference must immediately notify the : ICAO and the the State of and the
State of the the operator J.A.A.
operator and ICAO
only
5102 71 0 0 1 0
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight tuck under roll rate stalling value of the
induces an increase in the: speed stall angle of
attack
5103 71 0 0 1 0
The reference document dealing with air transport of the Instruction ICAO ICAO
hazardous materials is : Washington No. 300 of Appendix 18 Appendix 8
Convention June 3,
1957
5104 71 0 0 1 0
ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) the noise the technical the safety of the air
Appendix 18 is a document dealing with : pollution of operational the air transport of
aircraft use of transport of live animals
aircraft hazardous
materials
5105 71 0 0 1 0
Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum keeps flying carries out a returns to keeps flying
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace over deviating its holding base in
the North Atlantic and not having yet received the course by 30 pattern immediately accordance
oceanic clearance, the crew : nautical with the air-
miles from filed flight
that of the plan
air-filed flight
plan

5106 71 0 1 0 0
 Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) flight levels sea level flight levels flight levels
airspace of the North Atlantic is comprised within : 270 and 400 and FL660 280 and 475 285 and 420
from the from North from North from the
equator to parallel 27 to parallel 27 to North
the pole the pole the pole parallel 27 to
the pole
5107 71 0 0 0 1
Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is : subject to an not subject subject to a subject to a
optional to a clearance mandatory
clearance clearance, only if the clearance
depending since the flight route is
on the type flight is changed
of flight already
(scheduled controlled
or not)
5108 71 0 0 0 1
In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust 1,4 2,3 2,4 1,3
or strong down wind which forces you to go around.
You_x000D_
_x000D_
1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and
flaps)_x000D_
2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)_x000D_
3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick
shaker_x000D_
4- avoid excessive attitude change_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

5109 71 0 0 0 1
The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a : low weight low weight high weight high weight
and low and high and low and high
speed speed speed speed
5110 71 0 0 1 0
The validity period of a flight track system organized in 00H00 UTC 01H00 UTC 10H30 UTC 11H30 UTC
MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) to 08H00 to 08H00 to 19H00 to 19H00
airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is : UTC UTC UTC UTC
5111 71 0 1 0 0
Posit :_x000D_ 15°/h.sin Lm g.sin Lm g.(sin Lm-sin g/2.sin Lm
_x000D_ Lo)
g, the longitude difference_x000D_
Lm, the average latitude_x000D_
Lo, the latitude of the tangent_x000D_
_x000D_
The correct formula expressing the travel precession
applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is
equal to :

5112 71 1 0 0 0
You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B 080°. 066°. 085°. 076°.
(60°N 020°E)._x000D_
The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be
operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is
aligned with the true North of point A._x000D_
The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting
from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min
with a zero wind, is equal to :
5113 71 0 0 0 1
During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent 4 m (14 ft) 2 m (7 ft) 2 m (7 ft) 4 m (14 ft)
Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold above the below the above the below the
altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway airdrome airdrome airdrome airdrome
threshold is at more than : altitude altitude altitude altitude
5114 71 0 1 0 0
A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach 1600 m 3600 m 1500 m 2400 m
followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal
visibility is higher than or equal to :
5115 71 0 0 1 0
 A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach 3600 m 2400 m 1600 m 1500 m
followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal
visibility is higher than or equal to:
5116 71 0 0 1 0
A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach 1600 m 1500 m 2400 m 3600 m
followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal
visibility is higher than or equal to :
5117 71 0 0 1 0
A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach 1600 m 1500 m 3600 m 2400 m
followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal
visibility is higher than or equal to :
5118 71 0 0 1 0
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight 1 hour 2 hours 3 hours 3 hours
with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the before to at before to at before to at before to at
minimum weather conditions stipulated in the least 1 hour least 2 hours least 1 hour least 3 hours
regulations are effective for at least : after the after the after the after the
expected expected expected expected
time of time of time of time of
arrival arrival arrival arrival

5119 71 1 0 0 0
Astronomic precession : causes the causes the is zero at the is zero at the
gyro axis to gyro axis to North pole South pole
spin to the spin to the
left in the right in the
southern Southern
hemisphere hemisphere
5120 71 1 0 0 0
What transponder code should be used to provide code 7700 code 2000 code 7500 code 7600
recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to
unlawful interference :
5121 71 0 0 1 0
Astronomic precession is : depending zero when existing independent
on the chart the aircraft is whether the of the
used on the aircraft is on latitude
ground the ground
or flying

5122 71 0 0 1 0
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart grid North grid North true North true North
precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, for a given for any chart for a given for any chart
of the gyro North with respect to the : chart chart
5123 71 1 0 0 0
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport true North grid North magnetic compass
precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North North North
with respect to the:
5124 71 1 0 0 0
Posit :_x000D_ 15°/h.sin Lm g.sin Lm g.(sin Lm-sin g/2.sin Lm
_x000D_ Lo)
g, the longitude difference_x000D_
Lm, the average latitude_x000D_
Lo, the latitude of the tangent_x000D_
_x000D_
The correct formula of the conversion angle applied,
during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :

5125 71 0 0 0 1
Posit :_x000D_ 15°/h.sin Lm g.(sin Lm-sin g/2.sin Lm g.sin Lm
_x000D_ Lo)
g, the longitude difference_x000D_
Lm, the average latitude_x000D_
Lo, the latitude of the tangent_x000D_
_x000D_
The transport precession is equal to :
5126 71 0 0 0 1
In the absence of wind and without the astronomic spherical straight map great circle rhumb line
precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro flight line line
heading, follow a : segment
5127 71 0 0 1 0
 Astronomic precession : causes the is zero at the is zero at the causes the
gyro axis to North pole South pole gyro axis to
spin to the spin to the
left in the right in the
Northern Northern
hemisphere hemisphere
5128 71 0 0 0 1
The correct statement about extinguishing agents on Halon is an Water may A powder Burning
board aeroplanes is : effective only be used extinguisher cargo in a
extinguishin for minor is suitable cargo-
g agent for fires. for aeroplane is
use in extinguishin usually
aeroplanes. g a cockpit extinguished
fire. by using
carbon
dioxide.

5129 71 1 0 0 0
H2O extinguishers are fit to fight: Class A fires Class B fires electrical special fires:
source fires metals, gas,
chemical
products

5130 71 1 0 0 0
A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is -5°. +5°. -15°. +15°.
parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the
direction of the North geographic pole._x000D_
In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro
mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid
heading controlled by information from the inertial
navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to
"magnetic mode", the compass heading is 220°. The
INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The
magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E._x000D_
The compass shift on this heading at this point in time
is:

5131 71 1 0 0 0
An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true 345°. 003°. 334°. 328°.
heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass, which is
assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly
rate corrector unit, indicates 000°._x000D_
The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true
heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the
gyro compass remains in free gyro mode._x000D_
If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at
Q will be :

5132 71 0 0 0 1
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a good poor unreliable medium
5133 71 SNOWTAM is : 0 1 0 0
Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a it is not by a four as a in plain
runway in metres. If this is less than the published reported figure group percentage language at
length, how is this reported : added to of the total item T (the
item D, lenght of the final
which gives runway paragraph)
the lenght in available as of a
metres the final item SNOWTAM
of a
SNOWTAM

5134 71 0 0 0 1
 The operator will include in the operations manual a list The country The country The country It is not
of minimum required equipment approved by : (Annex 6, of the where the where the mandatory
Part I) operator. aircraft was aircraft is that such a
manufacture operated. book be
d. approved by
aviation
authorities.
5135 71 1 0 0 0
When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum 600 m (2000 300 m (1000 450 m (1500 150 m (500
height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is : ft) ft) ft) ft)
5136 71 0 1 0 0
After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with 1,3. 1,4. 2,4. 2,3.
a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action,
the aircraft :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- flies above the climb-out path_x000D_
2- flies below the climb-out path_x000D_
3- has an increasing true airspeed_x000D_
4- has a decreasing true airspeed_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

5137 71 0 0 1 0
Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures J.A.A. Commander aeroplane's contracting
for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft of the operator State in
which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until aircraft which the
their journey can be continued ? The : unlawful
interference
occurs
5138 71 0 0 0 1
In addition to the languages required by the State of English French Spanish English,
Origin, what language should be set for the markings French or
related to dangerous goods : Spanish
5139 71 1 0 0 0
From the following list :_x000D_ 1 and 4 2 and 3 1,2,3 and 4 1,3 and 4
1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from
fire hazard_x000D_
2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the
aeroplane_x000D_
3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the
aeroplane_x000D_
4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect
the controllability of the aeroplane._x000D_
Which of the above are requirements that must be
shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests :

5140 71 0 0 1 0
In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be 60 minutes 90 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes
capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the precise
climb and discontinued approach requirements :
5141 71 0 0 1 0
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 132 seconds 120 seconds 60 seconds 90 seconds
44 passengers, it must be shown by actual
demonstration that the maximum seating capacity,
including the required number of crew members, can be
evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :

5142 71 0 0 0 1
 The flight deck door should be capable of being : remotely locked from directly remotely
locked from within the locked from locked by
either inside compartmen outside the cabin crew
or outside t compartmen operation
the t from outside
compartmen the
t compartmen
t
5143 71 0 1 0 0
The system which must be switched off in case of a ventilation of pressurizatio total trim air
belly compartment fire is generally the : the cargo n airconditioni
compartmen ng
t

5144 71 1 0 0 0
5145 71 The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is : 24 hours 12 hours 6 hours 3 hours 1 0 0 0
For stable clouds:_x000D_ 2-3-5 1-4-6 1-3-5 2-4-6
_x000D_
1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are
between 0°C and -10°C_x000D_
2- the most favourable temperatures for icing are
between 0°C and -15°C_x000D_
3- icing becomes rare at t < -18°C_x000D_
4- icing becomes rare at t < -30°C_x000D_
5- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and
0.03mm_x000D_
6- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and
0.2mm_x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following combinations contains all the
correct statements?

5146 71 0 0 1 0
The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a No, visibility Yes, visibility Yes, if there No, the
cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by a being below being higher is an ceiling being
single pilot._x000D_ 1 200 than the accessible below the
The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity metres. horizontal airport within DH for the
runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold visibility for 75 NM. runway's
mid and end of runway._x000D_ the approach
The approach minimums for runway 06 are : _x000D_ approach procedure.
DH = 300 feet,_x000D_ procedure.
Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres._x000D_
The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV)
900 metres and ceiling 200 feet._x000D_
_x000D_
Is take-off possible?

5147 71 0 0 1 0
The file kept by an employer on its flight crews 3-4 1-2-3-4 1-2-3 2-3
records:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - the training_x000D_
2 - the test results_x000D_
3 - a log of flying hours_x000D_
4 - a summary of the training by reference
period_x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct answers?

5148 71 0 1 0 0
 The validity period of a "certificate of airworthiness" three years. three years three years three years
varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is for public for public if the aircraft
maintained._x000D_ transport transport has not
If the maintenance is carried out according to an aircraft and aircraft and undergone
approved programme and done in a maintenance shop one year for five years for major
approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity the others. the others. modification
period is: s.

5149 71 1 0 0 0
In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight if the flight never. if the aircraft if part or all
manual inidicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do lasts more is a twin- the flight is
the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ? than 3 engine. done at
hours. night.
5150 71 0 1 0 0
An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of authorized, forbidden. authorized, authorized,
eight occupants (including pilot)._x000D_ providing providing providing
The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two both children both children both children
children (5 and 6 years old)._x000D_ are of a are sitting on are sitting on
The boarding of all passengers is: similar the same the same
stature, seat and seat, using
sitting on the using the the same
same seat same seat seat belt
and using belt. No with an adult
the same other sitting on the
seat belt particular seat next to
with an adult precautions them, in
sitting on the are order to
seat next to necessary. release their
them in seat belt if
order to necessary.
relase thir
seat bel

5151 71 0 1 0 0
Supplemental oxygen is used to :_x000D_ assist a provide protect a provide with
passenger people on crew who oxygen
with board with fights a fire passengers
breathing oxygen who might
disorders during a require it,
cabin following a
depressurisa cabin
tion depressurisa
tion

5152 71 0 1 0 0
When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 1.15 1.3 1.45 1.5
aircraft categories according to their speed at the
threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to
the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the
maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor
of:
5153 71 0 1 0 0
 Wind shear is:_x000D_ a vertical a vertical or a vertical or a horizontal
wind velocity horizontal horizontal wind velocity
variation wind velocity wind velocity variation
over a short and / or wind and / or wind over a short
distance direction direction distance
over a large over a short
distance distance

5154 71 0 0 1 0
Products or materials are considered to be dangerous The UNO The The IATA The ICAO
goods if the products or materials in question are document directives of document document
defined as such by: entitled the entitled entitled
"Dangerous Community "Regulations "Technical
Goods Union. governing Instructions
Regulations" the for the safe
. transportatio transport of
n of dangerous
dangerous goods by
goods by air".
air".

5155 71 0 0 0 1
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment the operator, the the operator, the
which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and and it is manufacture and it is manufacture
the additonnal procedures to be observed accordingly. inserted in r, and it is appended to r, and it is
This list is prepared by: the inserted in the flight appended to
operations the manual the flight
manual operations manual
manual
5156 71 1 0 0 0
The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is the the operator the the operator
established by: manufacture of the manufacture of the
r of the aircraft, and r of the aircraft, and
aircraft, but accepted by aircraft, and accepted by
need not to the accepted by the authority
be accepted manufacture the authority
by the r
authority

5157 71 0 0 1 0
The correct definition of a safe forced landing a voluntary an inevitable an inevitable a landing on
is:_x000D_ landing on landing on landing on land or sea
land or sea land or sea land or sea from which it
carried out from which from which is
by the crew one may one may guaranteed
in order to reasonably reasonably no injuries
protect the expect no expect no will result to
aircraft and injuries on injuries on the
its board board or on occupants
occupants the surface

5158 71 0 0 1 0
A class B fire is a fire of: solid electrical special fire: liquid or
material source fire metal, gas, liquefiable
usually of chemical solid
organic product
nature
5159 71 0 0 0 1
 A class A fire is a fire of: metal or gas solid liquid or electrical
or chemical material, liquefiable origin
(special generally of solid
fires) organic
nature
5160 71 0 1 0 0
CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:_x000D_ 1-2-4 2-3-4 1-3-4 1-2-3
1 - class A fires_x000D_
2 - class B fires_x000D_
3 - electrical source fires_x000D_
4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical product_x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following combinations contains all the
correct statements:
5161 71 0 0 0 1
(For this question use appendix )_x000D_ corrosive corrosive infectious toxic
_x000D_ material, material, material, material,
For the two labels represented in the appendix, the toxic infectious corrosive corrosive
principal and secondary risks are respectively:_x000D_

5162 71 0 0 0 1
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the 9.3 km (5 9.3 km (5 11.1 km (6 7.4 km (4
ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum NM) and 3 NM) and 2 NM) and 3 NM) and 2
time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and minutes minutes minutes minutes
more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy
aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?

5163 71 0 1 0 0
When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one wind at K. mean wind mean wind wind at K'.
passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding up to the from the
ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a next ground preceding
vector KK' which is equal to: isochrone. ground
isochrone.
5164 71 0 0 1 0
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an the Autority the Authority both the the local
aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a of the State of the State local authority
report of the act to : of the within which authority only
operator the and the
only aeroplane is Authority of
operating at the State of
the time of the operator
the unlawful
interference

5165 71 0 0 1 0
When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the not to to climb or to descend to climb
aircraft tends : change its descend,
trajectory depending
on the gust
strength
5166 71 0 0 1 0
Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence lift drag spin up lift
appear as soon as the following is established : destruction
5167 71 1 0 0 0
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is 4 minutes 5 minutes 2 minutes 3 minutes
the minimum separation time that is permitted when a
light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an
intermediate part of the same runway ?

5168 71 0 0 0 1
 The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to : rules Canadian the ICAO rules issued
common to rules, document by the
the because this 7030 bordering
bordering country has (additional States
States, the greatest regional (document
grouped in surface area procedures) 6530)
document of territorial
7050 (North waters in
Atlantic this airspace
Ocean
Airspace)

5169 71 0 0 1 0
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends amount of depth of the aircraft's strength of
primarily on the : the lift off standing weight. the
speed. water on the headwind.
runway.

5170 71 0 1 0 0
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the 3 minutes 4 minutes 5 minutess 2 minutes
ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light
aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium
aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg)
on the approach to landing ?
5171 71 1 0 0 0
The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under Only the The aircraft The upper The upper
icing conditions, occurs on : pitot and front areas. and lower and lower
static wingsurface rudder
probes. s. surfaces.
5172 71 0 1 0 0
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is 11.1 km (6 3.7 km (2 7.4 km (4 9.3 km (5
the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy NM) NM) NM) NM)
aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy
aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?

5173 71 0 0 1 0
In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects slowly increase the climb away reduce
of a microburst, having increased to full go-around increase pitch angle at Vat + 20 speed to V2
power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be speed whilst until the stick kt and hold
necessary to : maintaining shaker is felt
a positive and hold at
rate of climb slightly
below this
angle

5174 71 0 1 0 0
Windshear may be described as a change in wind medium null substantial small
direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts
and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear
the amount of control action that is required is :

5175 71 0 0 1 0
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to 15000 ft 25000 ft 13000 ft 14000 ft
be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and
following an emergency descent are that for pilots it
shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin
pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That
minimum of X feet is :
5176 71 0 0 1 0
 To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold: Fire-fighting you turn off Extinguish Extinguish
is not the cargo fire and fire only.
necessary, hold reduce air
since the ventilation conditioning.
transport of and
combustible extinguish
goods in an fire.
air-
conditioned
cargo hold is
forbidden.

5177 71 0 1 0 0
If airworthiness documents do not shown any 15%. 20%. 10%. 5%.
additionnal correction factor for landing performance
determination on a wet runway, the landing distance
shall be increased by:
5178 71 1 0 0 0
Wake turbulence should be taken into account when : when just during cruise a preceding a much
before the the vertical aeroplane heavier
landing a separation is has aeroplane
much lighter reduced to performed has landed
aeroplane 1000 ft. low altitude just
has landed high roll rate previously
with a strong rolling on the same
crosswind manoeuvres runway, a
on a long over the light
runway. runway. crosswind
condition
exist and all
high-lift
devices are
being used.

5179 71 0 0 0 1
In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, M H L S
which letter should be entered into a flight plan to
denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than
136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg :

5180 71 1 0 0 0
A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported Annex 6 to the shipper's the technical Annex 18 to
by air, can be found in : the Chicago declaration instructions the Chicago
Convention. for for the safe convention.
dangerous transport of
goods. dangerous
goods by air.

5181 71 0 0 1 0
(For this question use annex 071-2070A)_x000D_ 4 1 2 3
_x000D_
On the diagram where :_x000D_
_x000D_
Nt = True North_x000D_
Nm = Magnetic North_x000D_
Ng = Grid North_x000D_
_x000D_
If the magnetic variation is equal to 65°W and if the grid
variation is equal to 4°E, the correct arrangement of the
different north is :

5182 71 0 0 0 1
 During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, white steady green red steady green steady
seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, will light flashing light light light
first see the :
5183 71 0 0 1 0
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, white steady green green steady red steady
seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see light flashing light light light
the :
5184 71 0 0 1 0
The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum forbidden in authorized authorized authorized
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a all cases when the only if the under radar
non MNPS certified aircraft is : aircraft has aircraft is in control if the
two radio contact aircraft is in
precision with the VHF contact
navigation aircraft with the
systems present in MNPS
this space controller

5185 71 0 0 0 1
The coverage angle of the regulatory white position 110° 70° 220° 140°
lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear of
the aircraft, is :
5186 71 0 0 0 1
For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the about the about the between the just below
optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The optimum lock-on lock-on the optimum
most cost-effective flight plan will consist of chosing altitude altitude altitude and altitude
cruising levels which increase during the flight in order the optimum
to fly : altitude
5187 71 1 0 0 0
For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the 0.6 0.7 0.5 0.8
landing distance at the scheduled destination
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing
distance multiplied by a factor of :

5188 71 1 0 0 0
A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude reduced increased increased increased
will have : range manoeuvrin flight Mach
g limits envelope number
stability
5189 71 1 0 0 0
For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation 0.6 0.5 0.8 0.7
stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome
shall be less than the available landing distance
multiplied by a factor of :

5190 71 0 0 0 1
The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the operator the operator the operator the
the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be and is and from a main manufacture
allowed and the conditions under which this allowance specified in approved by list drawn up r and
can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by : the the by the approved by
operation certification manufacture the
manual authority r certification
authority
5191 71 0 0 0 1
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the the the operator the the operator
equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be manufacture and may be manufacture and may be
allowed and the conditions under which this allowance r and may less r and may more
can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by : be less restrictive be more restrictive
restrictive than the restrictive than the
than the Master than the Master
Master Minimum Master Minimum
Minimum equipment Minimum Equipment
equipment List (MMEL) Equipment List (MMEL)
List (MMEL) List (MMEL)

5192 71 0 0 0 1
Information concerning evacuation procedures can be operational operation flight journey
5193 71 found in the : flight plan. manual. manual. logbook. 0 1 0 0
 According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin- 120 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes 90 minutes
engined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off at the cruise at the cruise at the cruise at the cruise
mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved speed, one speed, one speed, one speed, one
seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must engine engine engine engine
be planned in such a way that on one engine an inoperative. inoperative. inoperative. inoperative.
appropriate aerodrome can be reached within :

5194 71 0 1 0 0
The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge 300 m. 150 m if a 150 m. 200 m.
lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an threshold
accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is RVR is
IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility available.
required for take-off is:

5195 71 0 0 1 0
The information to consider for a standard straight-in 1-3 1-4 1-2-3 1-2-4
approach is :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - the horizontal visibility_x000D_
2 - the ceiling_x000D_
3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA)_x000D_
4 - the decision altitude (DA)_x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?

5196 71 1 0 0 0
A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel until the in order to in order to unless it is
jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight central tank reach the reduce the capable of
in an emergency : is empty in maximum landing meeting the
order to structural distance to climb
cope with landing 60% of the requirement
the wing and weight in effective s : 2.7% in
landing gear less than 15 runway approach
constraints minutes length configuration
at landing after with 1
touchdown activation of engine
the inoperative
jettisoning and 3.2% in
system landing
configuration
with all
engines
operative

5197 71 0 0 0 1
You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you draft a bird immediately inform the inform the
notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may present strike hazard inform the other aircraft appropriate
a bird strike hazard, you must: report upon appropriate by radio. ground
arrival and ground station within
within at station. a
most 48 reasonable
hours. period of
time.
5198 71 0 1 0 0
 In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry system to transport representati specialized
hazardous materials on board a public transport warn the document ve of the handling
airplane, they must be accompanied with a : crew in case for company employee.
of a leak or hazardous owning the
of an materials. materials.
abnormal
increase in
temperature.

5199 71 0 1 0 0
The general information, instructions and air carrier operation flight AIP
recommendations on the transport of hazardous certificate. manual. manual. (Aeronautica
materials are specified in the : l Information
Publication).

5200 71 0 1 0 0
Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you temperature pressure of pressure of temperature
should check the : of the the hydraulic the of the
hydraulic fluid. pneumatic brakes.
fluid. tyres.
5201 71 0 0 0 1
Following take-off, the noise abatement climb for the same for all different for different
procedures specified by the operator is : airplane airplane a same according to
type, the types, the airplane airports and
same for all same for a type, airplane
airports. specific according to types.
airport. airports.
5202 71 1 0 0 0
In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, external possible ice external external
the captain must check that: surfaces are accretions surfaces are surfaces are
still covered do not cause free from free from
with anti- to exceed any ice any ice
icing fluid. weight and accretion accretion
balance which may greater than
limits. impede the 5 mm.
airplane
performance
and
manoeuvrab
ility, except
within the
limits
specified by
the flight
manual.

5203 71 0 0 1 0
 In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet 1, 2 4 1, 3 1, 2, 3
when:_x000D_
1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or
slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3
mm of water._x000D_
2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify
its colour but does not give it a shiny
appearance._x000D_
3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it
reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of
water._x000D_
4. it bears stagnant sheets of water._x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5204 71 0 0 1 0
The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, 110° 140° 70° 220°
continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left
wing is :
5205 71 1 0 0 0
According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial a device distinctive a sealing a locking
transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in preventing red or yellow system system to
the flight crew compartment area, this door must the flight colored allowing the prevent any
include: crew from markings maintenance unauthorize
being locked indicating for as long d access.
in the the access as possible
cockpit. area (in of the
case of a pressure in
blocked the cockpit
door). in case of a
depressuriza
tion in the
compartmen
t area.

5206 71 0 0 0 1
The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision flying a non- the pilot may the pilot may the pilot may
direct IFR approach with the following operational precision start the final start the final start the final
minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR approach, approach if approach if approach if
for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the pilot may the the the three
the controller... start the final threshold threshold RVR are
approach RVR is and mid- higher than
only if he higher than runway RVR 750 metres.
has a 750 metres. are higher
meteorologic than 750
al visibility metres.
higher than
750 metres.
RVR are to
be taken into
account only
for precision
approaches.

5207 71 0 1 0 0
 Your flight manual does not include specific 18 % 20 % 17,6 % 15 %
supplementary information on landing distances on wet
runways and the service bulletins or weather reports
indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated
time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry
runway must be increased by:

5208 71 0 0 0 1
In the JAR OPS, a runway is refered to as contaminated 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4 1, 3, 4, 5
when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is
covered with the one of the following elements:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny
appearance to the runway._x000D_
2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to
more than 3 mm of water._x000D_
3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be
compacted further)._x000D_
4. ice, including wet ice._x000D_
5. moist grass._x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

5209 71 1 0 0 0
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane the JAR the flight the the minimum
fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference OPS. record. operation equipment
document you use in the first place to decide on the manual's list.
procedure to follow is: chapter
"Abnormal
and
Emergency
Procedures".

5210 71 0 0 1 0
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane the flight the minimum the the JAR
fails while you are still parked. The reference document manual. equipment operation OPS.
you use to decide on the procedure to follow is: list. manual's
chapter
"Abnormal
and
Emergency
procedures".

5211 71 0 1 0 0
The authorization for the transport of hazardous insurance air carrier registration airworthines
materials is specified on the: certificate. certificate. certificate. s certificate.
5212 71 0 1 0 0
The minimum equipment list of a public transport flight flight record. operation JAR OPS.
5213 71 airplane is to be found in the : manual. manual. 0 0 1 0
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when: it is covered its surface is surface it is covered
with a film of not dry, and moisture with a film of
water of less when gives it a water of less
than 1 mm. surface shiny than 3 mm.
moisture appearance.
does not
give it a
shiny
appearance.

5214 71 0 1 0 0
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the: indicated Mach ground true
5215 71 airspeed. number. speed. airspeed. 0 1 0 0
 In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar 340°. 240°. 060°. 110°.
stereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallel
with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of
geographic North along this meridian._x000D_
The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°,
the grid route at this moment is :

5216 71 0 1 0 0
On a polar stereographic chart where the earth 4.0 NM. 30 NM. 4.0 NM. 9.2 NM.
convergence between 2 points located on the parallel
60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track
difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is :

5217 71 0 1 0 0
The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type +32.5°. +13°. +73.5°. -32.5°.
with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North
in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro
does not comprise a rate correction device._x000D_
The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at
an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched
to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being
aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading
120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30
UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero,
was not reset prior to take off._x000D_
The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will
be :

5218 71 1 0 0 0
The touch down areas located at both ends of the dynamic rubber rubber viscous
runways are typical for the appearance of: hydroplaning reversion steaming hydroplaning
. hydroplaning hydroplaning .
. .
5219 71 0 0 0 1
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is is very is rough the tyre is very
covered with a thin film of water and: smooth and textured. treads are smooth and
clean. not in a dirty.
good state.
5220 71 0 0 0 1
(For this question use annex 071-2084A)_x000D_ 2 3 4 1
_x000D_
The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates:_x000D_
Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'W_x000D_
Drift: 6°L (left)_x000D_
The route followed in order to return to the VOR station
is the meridian of the VOR station used:_x000D_
RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has
North set on the local geographic meridian._x000D_
The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North
(chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to
zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic
North Pole)._x000D_
The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at
this moment:_x000D_
(the distance DME is in the box)

5221 71 1 0 0 0
For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational 60 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes 30 minutes
take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate at cruising at cruising at cruising at cruising
aerodrome is accessible at less than: speed all speed with speed with speed all
engines one engine one engine engines
running. unserviceabl unserviceabl running.
e. e.
5222 71 0 1 0 0
 The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather Outside Air Outside Air Outside Air Outside Air
data. When do you expect carburettor icing? Temperature Temperature Temperature Temperature
(OAT) : (OAT) : (OAT) : (OAT) :
-10°C_x000 +10°C_x000 +15°C_x000 +25°C_x000
D_ D_ D_ D_
Dew point Dew Point Dew Point Dew Point
(DEWP) : (DEWP) : (DEWP) : (DEWP) :
-15°C +7°C -5°C +5°C
5223 71 0 1 0 0
Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with: all available all available all available only the
extinguisher liquids. extinguisher extinguisher
s s in correspondi
simultaneou sequence. ng to the
sly. toilets.

5224 71 1 0 0 0
MNPS is the abbreviation for: Minimum Maximum Military Minimum
Navigation North- Network Navigation
Performance atlantic Performance Positioning
Specification Precision Structure. System.
. System.

5225 71 1 0 0 0
The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of 000°. 260°. 080°. 100°.
the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its aligned
with meridian 180°, the grid North in the direction of the
geographic North (non standard grid)._x000D_
The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280°, the
position is 80°S 100°E._x000D_
The true course followed at this moment is :

5226 71 1 0 0 0
On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel 295°. 298°. 301°. 292°.
with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true
North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle
linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°.
The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is :

5227 71 1 0 0 0
A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it 316°. 164°. 136°. 276°.
which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with Grid North
in the direction of the North geographic pole._x000D_
An aircraft is following a true course of 330°._x000D_
At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this
system will be :

5228 71 0 0 1 0
When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a take the maintain the take the take any
domestic controlled area, the pilot has to: Mach Mach Mach Mach
number number number number.
provided for previously specified in
this type of assigned up this initial
flight by his to the last flight plan.
airline. position
shown in the
oceanic
clearance.

5229 71 0 1 0 0
For a given aircraft and runway contamination, maintains maintains or increases decreases
increased pressure altitude will: the increases the the
hydroplaning the hydroplaning hydroplaning
speed. hydroplaning speed. speed.
speed.

5230 71 0 0 1 0
 (For this question use annex 071-2083A)_x000D_ Track C , Track A , Track D , Track B ,
In order to meet the "twin-engine" flight standards time 8 hours time 8 hours time 8 hours time 8 hours
authorised by the official departments of his company 15 minutes. 3 minutes. 20 minutes. 10 minutes.
(1hour 45 minutes flight on 1 engine at an air speed of
420 kt to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air
conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area,
while at the same time taking the shortest possible
time._x000D_
Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into
account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN
TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and
WASHINGTON will be:

5231 71 1 0 0 0
Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their while at their only during only during from take off
safety belt fastened: station. take off and take off and to landing.
landing. landing and
whenever
necessary
by the
commander
in the
interest of
safety.

5232 71 1 0 0 0
From the following list :_x000D_ 3,4 and 5 2,3 and 4 1,2 and 3 1,2 and 5
1. Fire extinguishers_x000D_ only only only only
2. Portable oxygen supplies_x000D_
3. First-aid kits_x000D_
4. Passenger meals_x000D_
5. Alcoholic beverages_x000D_
Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are
required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with
relevant JAR's for operating reasons :

5233 71 0 0 1 0
An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which if the ceiling whatever the if the ceiling if the ceiling
the operational minima are : MDH = 360 feet, horizontal transmitted ceiling given transmitted transmitted
visibility = 1 500 metres :_x000D_ by ATC and by ATC. by ATC and by ATC and
Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 received by received by received by
metres :_x000D_ the crew is the crew is the crew is
_x000D_ higher than higher than higher than
The pilot may start the final approach... 240 feet 360 feet. 240 feet.
during the
day and 360
feet at night.

5234 71 0 1 0 0
During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control is not must file a must file an must file a
vibrations a landing must be made immediately. obliged to Bird Strike AIR PROX airworthines
Following this incident the pilot : report this report report: the s report
incident Control
Tower
having given
no warning

5235 71 0 1 0 0
The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10,8 87 kt 145 kt 112 kt 56 kt
bars. The speed at which the hydroplaning phenomenon
will appear is approximately:
5236 71 0 0 1 0
 The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts head down head down cross the head placed
fastened, as far as as far as arm in front on a knee
possible, possible, of the face. cushion,
grasp the grasp the arms around
passenger in legs with the thigh.
front of you. your arms.

5237 71 0 0 0 1
In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off The runway The right The left The right
aircraft: will be clear wake wake and left
of any turbulence turbulence wake
hazard stays stays turbulence
turbulence. approximatel approximatel stays
y on the y on the approximatel
runway. runway. y on the
runway.
5238 71 0 1 0 0
At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial 035°. 180°. 000°. 325°.
systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON-
ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole
region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment
is 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to continue the
flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the failure
is :_x000D_
_x000D_
NOTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a
polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the
zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the
geographic North pole.

5239 71 0 0 0 1
Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a Owner of the ATS Aircraft Aircraft
operations manual and also issue the amendments to aircraft. authority of operator. producer.
keep it up to date? the state of
registry.
5240 71 0 0 1 0
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin useless useless useless possible and
smoke is: because the because the because recommend
toxical cabin oxygen units breathing ed.
smoke is do not oxygen
mixed with operate would
the under explode
breathing smoke under
oxygen. conditions. smoke
conditions.

5241 71 1 0 0 0
Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this 80% of the 50% of the 60% of the 70% of the
facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing landing landing landing
landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, distance distance distance distance
dry runway) within: available. available. available. available.
5242 71 0 0 1 0
Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for a big bunch crash axes water and all a hydraulic
fire fighting is on board: of fire or crowbars. type of winch and a
extinguishin beverage. big box of
g blankets. tools.
5243 71 0 1 0 0
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed only from left from any under no only from
conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The or right side. side. circumstanc front or rear
fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres: es. side.
5244 71 0 0 0 1
A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification at a constant at flight level outside at a Mach
has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The airspeed of FL 280 or scheduled number of
flight must be planned to take place : 480 kt. less. flight times. 0.70 or less.
5245 71 0 1 0 0
 In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance notify request set a immediately
Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the Control and authorization different climb or
following action in the event of a failure of the last wait for a from Control heading descent 1
inertial navigation system: reply within to track approximatel 000 ft.
a another y 45° from
reasonable aircraft. the previous
time. one.

5246 71 1 0 0 0
The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated : when during climb in each during take
oxygen is and descent. cabin off and
being section if landing.
supplied in oxygen is
the cabin. being
carried.
5247 71 1 0 0 0
During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted the start final the outer the FAF. the middle
by the appropriate services and received by the crew descent marker marker.
contains parameters below the crew's operational point (glide (OM).
minimums, the point beyond which the approach must slope
not be continued is: intersection).

5248 71 0 1 0 0
For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified One Inertial Two Inertial Two One Long
special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft Navigation Navigation independant Range
must be equipped with at least: System Systems Long Range Navigation
(INS). (INS). Navigation System
Systems (LNRS).
(LRNS).

5249 71 0 0 0 1
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to 2,3. 2,4. 1,3. 1,4.
windshear with an increasing head wind.In the absence
of a pilot action, the aircraft :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- flies above the glide path_x000D_
2- flies below theglide path_x000D_
3- has an increasing true airspeed_x000D_
4- has a decreasing true airspeed_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

5250 71 0 0 1 0
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has : a decision a decision no decision a decision
height equal height equal height. height equal
to at least to at least 50 to at least
100 ft. ft. 200 ft.
5251 71 0 0 0 1
The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : the aircraft the aircraft the operator the
manufacture state of manufacture
r's list registry r
5252 71 0 0 1 0
The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is the aircraft the the operator. the aircraft
drawn up by : state of manufacture manufacture'
registry. r. rs list.
5253 71 0 1 0 0
The dangerous goods transport document, if required, the captain. the handling the shipper. the operator.
shall be drawn up by : agent.
5254 71 0 0 1 0
 During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to 2,3 1,3 1,4 2,4
windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence
of a pilot action, the aircraft :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. flies above the glide path_x000D_
2. flies below the glide path_x000D_
3. has an increasing true airspeed_x000D_
4. has a decreasing true airspeed_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

5255 71 0 0 0 1
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to 2,4. 2,3. 1,3. 1,4.
windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of
a pilot action, the aircraft :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- flies above the glide path_x000D_
2- flies below the gilde path_x000D_
3- has an increasing true airspeed_x000D_
4- has a decreasing true airspeed_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

5256 71 1 0 0 0
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an 129 kt 114 kt 100 kt 80 kt
aeroplane's mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the
approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning
may occur in the event of applying brakes is :

5257 71 1 0 0 0
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to 1,3. 1,4. 2,3. 2,4.
windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of
a pilot action, the aircraft :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- flies above the glide path_x000D_
2- flies below the glide path_x000D_
3- has an increasing true airspeed_x000D_
4- has a decreasing true airspeed_x000D_
_x000D_
the combination of correct statements is :

5258 71 1 0 0 0
Domande banca dati europea esame ATPL

subjecwording
10 AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
21 AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT, EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT- AEROPLANES
22 INSTRUMENTATION - AEROPLANES
31 MASS AND BALANCE - AEROPLANES
32 PERFORMANCE OF AEROPLANES
33 FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING - AEROPLANES
40 HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS
50 METEOROLOGY
61 GENERAL NAVIGATION
62 RADIO NAVIGATION
71 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES - AEROPLANES
81 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT (AERODYNAMICS) - AEROPLANES
ccbb COMMUNICATION
 Domanda rispostaA rispostaB rispostaC rispostaD 1
AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an Two consecutive A single period of three Two consecutive A single period of six
area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be periods each of three month in the case of a periods each of six month in the case of a
deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such month in the case a flight crew member of month in the case of a flight crew member of
deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
an aircraft engaged in commercial operations. an aircraft engaged in non-commercial
non-commercial non-commercial operations.
operations. operations.

1 10 0
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a +/- 20 kt. +/- 10 kt. +/- 15 kt. +/- 8 kt.
radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their
speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This
speed adjustment should not be more than:

2 10 1
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed 4 NM from the threshold 2 NM from the threshold 3 NM from the threshold 5 NM from the threshold
where the aircraft has passed: on final approach. on final approach. on final approach. on final approach.
3 10 1
Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not need to file a flight plan may file a flight plan Shall nevertheless Shall nevertheless
electing to use the air traffic advisory service: under pilot's discretion. submit a flight plan and submit a flight plan but
notify changes made changes made thereto
thereto to the ATS unit are not necessary to be
providing that service. notified.

4 10 0
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and Red for medical Blue for blankets and Black for food and Yellow for
packages containing survival equipment should take the form of supplies and first aid protective clothing. water. miscellaneous
coloured streamers according to the following code: equipment. equipment.
5 10 1
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and Black for food and Yellow for blankets and Red for food and water. Blue for medical
packages containing survival equipment should take the form of water. protective clothing. supplies and first aid
coloured streamers according to the following code: equipment.
6 10 0
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, 20 NM. 10 NM. 5 NM. 20 NM when the leading
and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: aircraft maintains a true
airspeed of 20 kt or
more faster than the
succeding aircraft.

7 10 1
 The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and Red for food and water. Yellow for medical Black for miscellaneous Blue for blankets and
packages containing survival equipment should take the form of supplies and first aid equipment. protective clothing.
coloured streamers according to the following code: equipment.
8 10 0
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the 5 NM. 6 NM. 8 NM. 10 NM.
radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft
making a radar approach is approximately:
9 10 0
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another Shall not extend beyond Is only considered for Shall not extend beyond Depends on the
contracting state, the validity of the authorization: one year for ATPL and PPL. the period of validity of regulations of the
PCL. the licence. contracting sate which
renders valid the
licence.
10 10 0
The transition level: Is published on the Is calculated by the Will be distributed via Is calculated by ATS
approach and landing commander NOTAM
chart for each
aerodrome
11 10 0
The transition level: is calculated and shall be the lowest shall be the highest for the aerodrome is
decided by the available flight level available flight level published in the AGA
commander above the transition below the transition section of the AIP
altitude that has been altitude that has been
established established
12 10 0
Which information is not included in Instrument Appraoch Charts OCA or OCH DME-frequencies Any addition to minima Obstacles penetrating
(IAC) in the AIP when the aerodrome is the obstacle free area in
used as alternate the final approach
sector

13 10 0
According to international agreements wind direction shall be When the local variation In upper wind forecast When an aircraft on the Before landing and
adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic : exceeds 10° East or 10° for areas north of lat 60° request by a take-off
West. north or 60° south. meteorological watch
office (MWO) or at
specified points
transmits a PIREP
14 10 0
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference As soon as possible Continue at an altitude Fly the emergency Declare an emergency
('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising commence emergency that differs from the triangle
level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: descent in order semicircular rule with
minimize the difference 1000 feet when above
between cabin pressure FL 290 and 500 feet
and outside pressure when lower than FL 290

15 10 0
 The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and Red for miscellaneous Blue for food and water. Yellow for medical Black for food and
packages containing survival equipment should take the form of equipment. supplies and first aid water.
coloured streamers according to the following code: equipment.
16 10 0
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level +/- 250 ft. +/- 500 ft. +/- 300 ft. +/- 200 ft.
information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
17 10 0
The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent collisions with terrain. Except when an aircraft Correct, expect when an Prevent collisions with Do not prevent
is flying IFR in IMC. IFR flight is vectored by terrain collisions with terrain
radar.
18 10 0
A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the 60 NM. 50 NM. 20 NM. 80 NM.
time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its
distance to or from the same "on track" way-point. This minimum is:
19 10 0
A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when B, C, D and E. B. B and C. B, C and D.
20 10 operating in controlled airspaced classified as: 0
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if 45° immediately after 30° immediately after 15° immediately after 25° immediately after
21 10 they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: take-off. take-off. take-off. take-off. 1
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if The preceeding aircraft The preceeding aircraft The preceeding aircraft The preceeding aircraft
they are to fly on the same track, when: is 20 kt or more faster is 10 kt or more faster is 40 kt or more faster is 30 kt or more faster
than the following than the following than the following than the following
aircraft. aircraft. aircraft. aircraft.
22 10 0
When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final 20 degrees. 30 degrees. 25 degrees. 15 degrees.
vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept
the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
23 10 0
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller 2 NM from touchdown. 3 NM from touchdown. 2.5 NM from touchdown. 1 NM from touchdown.
shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as
determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
24 10 1
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established 2.0 NM between aircraft 5.0 NM between aircraft 3.0 NM between aircraft 3.0 NM between aircraft
on the localizer course shall be: on the same localizer on the same localizer on the same localizer on adjacent localizer
course. course. course. course.
25 10 0
An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider 3 NM. 1 NM. 4 NM. 2 NM.
executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the
aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the
aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during
the last:
26 10 0
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the 5.0 NM. 3.0 NM. 10.0 NM. 3.5 NM.
27 10 horizontal radar separation minimum shall be: 1
 The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is +/- 200 ft. +/- 150 ft. +/- 250 ft. +/- 300 ft.
occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS
authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
28 10 0
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long +/- 500 ft of the +/- 300 ft of the +/- 200 ft of the +/- 250 ft of the
as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is assigned level. assigned level. assigned level. assigned level.
within:
29 10 0
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level +/- 300 ft. More than 200 ft. More than 300 ft. 300 ft.
when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has
passed this level in the required direction by:
30 10 0
31 10 The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below: 1.5 NM. 3.0 NM. 5.0 NM. 2.0 NM. 0
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of 900 metres 420 metres 1000 metres 1200 metres
aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light
system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach
light system?
32 10 1
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between 2 NM. 5 NM. 2.5 NM. 3 NM.
aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation
as required for wake turbulence:
33 10 0
Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities the passenger is to the passenger is to the passenger is to the passenger is to
concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a leave that state within leave that state within leave that state within leave that state within
contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the one (1) day from the day 72 (seventy two) hours two (2) days from the two (2) weeks from the
next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the of his (her) arrival from the time of arrival day of his (her) arrival day of his (her) arrival
contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit of that passenger
such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas
prior to the arrival when

34 10 0
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? 250 kt only for IFR up to 250 kt for IFR and VFR 250 kt only for VFR up 250 kt VFR and IFR, all
35 10 FL 100 UP TO FL 100 to FL 195 levels 0
In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are at least 12 hours in at least 2 hours in at least 4 hours in at least 1 hour in
not engaged in schedule international services, and which are advance of the advance of arrival advance of arrival advance of arrival
making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping expected ETA
for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the
information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance
notification. This information is to be received :

36 10 0
An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air for a period of 12 hours For a period to be for a period of 24 hours for a period of 48 hours
services and which is making a flight to or through any designated established by that
airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty State
shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for
customs duty.
37 10 0
 Which one of the statements is correct : contracting states shall contracting states shall contracting states shall contracting states may
accept an oral accept an oral accept an oral not accept oral
declaration of baggage declaration of baggage declaration of baggage declaration of baggages
from passengers and only from crew only from passengers
crew

38 10 1
In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no may require him to in certain cases any none of the answers are shall not require him to
visa is required of him, contracting states obtain any other identity other identity may be applicable obtain any other identity
document prior to the required document from their
commencement of his consultates or operators
flight prior to initiate the flight

39 10 0
When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at shall not impose shall not impose shall not impose shall not impose
their intended destination but are unladen at another international penalties, fines and penalties, fines and penalties, fines, penalties and fines but
airport, the contracting state where the unlading takes place; if custom duties but taxes taxes but custom duties customs duties and customs duties and taes
satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or careless by the on the operator on the operator taxes on the operator on thexes on the
operator operator
40 10 0
A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a The air waybill number The air waybill number The air waybill number; The air waybill number
cargo manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the and the number of the number of packages and the nature of the
heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than packages related to the related to each air goods
the following item(s) : air way bill number waybill number and the
nature of the goods

41 10 0
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and in the Acts in force of by IATA and accepted by IATA and accepted by the Regional Postal
clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary the Universal Postal by the contracting states by ICAO Office
procedures as prescribed : Union
42 10 1
The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, GEN AD MAP ENR
43 10 are found in the following part of the AIP 0
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft : has to be typewritten or are accepted at the are accepted in has to be typewritten
produced by electronic contracting state handwritten block
data processing discretion lettering in ink
techniques

44 10 0
When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator is not responsible for and the state of the shall not be preclude shall not recover from
for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator : the person inadmissible operator are both from recovering from such person any
for entry in the receiving responsible for the such person any transportation costs
state person inadmissible transportation costs arising from his (her)
arising from his (her) inadmissibility
inadmissibility
45 10 0
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons annex 6 annex 15 annex 9 annex 8
46 10 and their baggage in international flights is : 0
 The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and annex 9 annex 8 annex 15 annex 16
47 10 other articles on international flights is : 1
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by 2 months following the 4 months following the 6 months following the 3 months following the
written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation date ICAO is informed date on which date on which date on which
shall take effect : notification is received notification is received notification is received
by the Depositary by the Depositary by the Depositary
Governements Governments Governments

48 10 0
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe may require the may not require or may deliver such person may request such
that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the assistance of authorise the assistance to the competent person to disembark
aircraft, an offense against penal law passengers to restrain of other crew members authorities
such person
49 10 0
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the cargo but is free from cargo but clearence accompanied baggage cargo and is covered by
procedure applicable to : any kind of declaration documents provided by or under another a traffic document
forms airlines shall be simplified customs
completed by the procedure distinct from
passenger prior to that normally applicable
shipment to other cargo

50 10 0
Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be published in AIP supplements and AIC procedures and AIRAC procedures and NOTAM procedures and
accordance with : shall be clearly identified by the identified by the identified by acronym
identifical acronym AIC followed acronym AIRAC NOTAM followed by a
by a number number
51 10 0
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the 20 minutes at the time 15 minutes at the time 10 minutes at the time 5 minutes at the time
same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be the level is crossed. the level is crossed. the level is crossed. the level is crossed.
provided:
52 10 0
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to : approve the ticket prices approve new approve new develop principles and
set by international internationel airlines international airlines techniqe for
airline companies with jet aircraft international aviation
53 10 0
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention binding for all air line binding for the member advice and guidance for binding for all member
are to be considered: companies with states that have not the aviation legislation states
international traffic notified ICAO about a within the member
national difference states

54 10 0
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: the regulation of operator¹s licence for the security system at limitation of the
transportation of international scheduled airports operator¹s responsibility
dangerous goods aviation vis-á-vis passenger and
goods transported

55 10 0
 An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the AIP, including AIP, including AIP, supplements to AIP; AIP including
following elements amendment service; amendment service; NOTAM and PIB; AIC amendment service;
supplements to AIP; supplements to AIP, and checklist supplements to AIP;
NOTAM and pre-flight NOTAM, AIC and summaries NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
information bulletin checklist summaries
(PIB); AIC; checklists
and summuries
56 10 1
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall The nationality letters The letters P The nationality letters The letters P
be composed by : for the location (Prohibited), R for location indicators (Prohibited), R
indicators assigned to (Restricted) and D assigned to the state or (Restricted) and D
the state, followed by P, (Dangerous) followed by territory, followed the (Dangerous) for the
R and D figures letters P. R and D and area concerned and
figures figures
57 10 0
Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in- 2 copies of General 2 copies of General 2 of each 3 of each
command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before Declarations and Cargo Declaration and of
departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Manifest and one copie Cargo Manifest and of a
Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the of a simple stores list. stores list
copies are :
58 10 0
Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long Three months or longer Six months or longer One year or longer Two months or longer
duration and information of short duration which contains extensive
text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is
considered a long duration.
59 10 1
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of 50 metres 45 metres 35 metres 40 metres
aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum
width of a runway with runway code 4?
60 10 0
A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at Not more than 2 months Not more than one Not more than three Not more than 28 days
61 10 intervals of : month months 0
A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN No more than 15 days Not more than 28 days Not more than 10 days Not more than one
62 10 at intervals of : month 0
The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a YELLOW GREEN ORANGE RED
volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of
operational significance. This information is provided using the
volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or
volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported
above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert
colour code is
63 10 0
The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are : GEN, ENR (en-route) GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, GEN, ENR, RAC, AD GEN, AGA, COM, ENR,
and AD (aerodromes) FAL, SAR, MET, MAP. FAL
64 10 1
65 10 The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part : ENR AGA MET GEN 0
 The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and FAL RAC AD GEN
Air Navigation Services are on the following part of the AIP
66 10 0
In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each At least 6 months after At least 3 months after At least 2 months after At least one year after
prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used cancellation of the area cancellation of the area cancellation of the area cancellation of the area
for a period of to which they refer to which they refer to which they refer to which they refer
67 10 0
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an The terrain surrounding ATC requirements. Navigation aids. Airspace restrictions.
instrument departure procedure? the airport.
68 10 1
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are Service provided : Service provided : Air Service provided : Service provided : Air
CORRECT? Traffic Information as far Traffic Control Service; Traffic Information as far Traffic Control Service;
as practical; ATC ATC Clearance : not as practical; ATC ATC Clearance :
Clearance : required ; required Clearance : not required required ;
;
69 10 0
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m No minima, VFR flights 8 km visibility, and clear 5 km visibility, 1500 m 8 km visibility, 1500 m
(10000 ft) AMSL, are : are not permitted of clouds ; horizontal and 1000 ft horizontal and 1000 ft
vertical distance from vertical distance from
clouds ; clouds ;
70 10 0
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a Select A7600 and Descend to the flight Land at the nearest Land at the nearest
two-way radio communication failure. You will : continue according level submitted for that suitable aerodrome and suitable aerodrome
currenct flight plan to portion of flight ; inform ATC maintaining VMC and
destination ; inform ATC ;
71 10 0
The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The 31th of December the 15th of October the 30th of October the 30th of April the
validity of the previous profeciency check was the 30th of June. The same year same year same year following year
period of the new profeciency check can be and can't exceed:
72 10 1
What does the abbreviation OIS mean? Obstacle identification Obstacle in surface. Obstacle identification Obstruction in surface.
73 10 surface. slope. 1
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft 10 NM provided that the 10 NM provided that the 20 NM provided that the 10 NM provided that the
"on track" uses DME stations, is: leading aircraft leading aircraft leading aircraft leading aircraft
maintains a true maintains a true maintains a true maintains a true
airspeed of 20 kt or airspeed of 40 kt or airspeed of 10 kt or airspeed of 10 kt or
more faster than the more faster than the more faster than the more faster than the
succeding aircraft. succeding aircraft. succeding aircraft. succeding aircraft.
74 10 1
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by To ignore the wind and To request clearance To correct for known To request from ATC
the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected: proceed on an heading from ATC for applying a wind to remain within different heading for
equal to the track. wind correction. the protected airspace. wind correction.
75 10 0
In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location AGA ENR AD GEN
76 10 indicators"? 0
 In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle 35 ft. 0.8 % gradient. 0 ft. 3.3 % gradient.
77 10 clearance at the departure end of runway equals: 0
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of 15°. 30°. 45°. 12.5°.
78 10 the runway centre line within: 1
In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the 1 minute. 2 minutes. 3 minutes. 1 minute 30 seconds.
79 10 time on the 30° offset track is limited to: 0
How many separate segments has an instrument approach 4. Up to 4. Up to 5. 3.
80 10 procedure. 0
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach At the FAF. At the final en-route fix. At the IAF. At the IF.
81 10 procedure commence? 0
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial At least 300m (984 ft). 150m (492 ft). 300m (984 ft). At least 150m (492 ft).
approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
82 10 1
What does the abbreviation DER mean? Depature end of runway. Distance end of route. Departure end of route. Distance end of runway.
83 10 1
Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an Code 2000. Code 7500. Code 7700. Code 7600.
84 10 aircraft subjected to unlawful interference? 0
Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide recognition of an Code 7000. Code 7700. Code 7500. Code 7600.
85 10 emergency aircraft? 0
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision To conduct surveillance To apply a reduced To apply a horizontal To provide instructions
of approach control service is: radar approaches. vertical separation of separation less than 5 in order to reduce
500 feet between IFR NM. separations minima, if
flights and VFR flights. accepted by the pilots.

86 10 1
The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: To provide radar To assist aircraft due to To assist aircraft on the To assist aircraft where
separation. failure of airborne location storms. navigation appears
equipment. unsatisfactory.
87 10 1
When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit not advise the aircraft Inform the aircraft only if Inform the aircraft prior Inform the aircraft only if
shall: before issuing radar identification has to issue any instructions communication's load
instructions. been achieved without or advice based on the permits it.
availability of SSR. use of radar.

88 10 0
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision To apply a reduced To provide instructions To conduct precision To apply a horizontal
of approach control service is: vertical separation of to reduce the separation radar approach (PAR). separation less than 5
500 feet between IFR minima. NM.
and VFR flights.
89 10 0
 Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a 3 NM. 2 NM. 4 NM. 5 NM.
Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance
from the touchdown of:
90 10 0
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the 70 degrees with the 50 degrees with the 60 degrees with the 80 degrees with the
other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than : plane of symmetry of plane of symmetry of plane of symmetry of plane of symmetry of
the latter the latter the latter the latter
91 10 1
Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, To instruct the pilot to To instruct the pilot to To instruct the pilot to To instruct the pilot to
radar identification may be achieved by one of the following execute one or more execute one or more execute one or more execute one or more
procedures: changes of 10°. changes of 45°. changes of 30° or more. changes of 20° or more.
92 10 0
93 10 The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is : 17 years 16 years 18 years 21 years 1
Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? Your aircraft has been You will be given traffic ATC is receiving your Your aircraft has been
identified and you will advisories until advised transponder and will identified on the radar
receive separation from that the service has furnish vectors and display and radar flight
all aircraft while in been terminated or that traffic advisories until instructions will be
contact with this radar radar contact has been you are advised that provided until radar
facility. lost. contact has been lost. identification is
terminated.

94 10 0
What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own Advisories will no longer You are still in radar You should maintain Radar Service is
navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway? be issued by ATC. contact, but must make that airway by use of terminated.
position reports. your navigation
equipment.
95 10 0
Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended the Regional Air the Air Navigation the Assembly the Council
Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption ? Navigation meeting Commission
96 10 0
You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the With a PPL plus flight With a CPL With a theorical CPL With an ATPL
issue of a PPL instructor rating examination plus flight
instructor rating
97 10 0
98 10 The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : 2 years 1 year 6 months 5 years 0
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding Based turn. Racetrack pattern. Procedure turn. Shuttle.
99 10 pattern is called: 0
When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by To request pilot to set To request pilot to Observation of To request pilot to set
one of the following procedures: transponder on position switch from "ON" to compliance with an transponder on position
"OFF". "STDBY". instruction to operate "ON".
transponder from "ON"
to "STBY" and back to
"ON".
100 10 0
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) Requested by ATC. They operate within They operate a They operate within non
feature unless: controlled airspace. transponder with Mode controlled airspace.
C.
101 10 1
 In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound 1 minute. 1 minute 15 seconds. 1minute 30 seconds. 2 minutes.
track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft
for:
102 10 1
103 10 The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: 1500 ft. 1000 ft. 3000 ft. 2500 ft. 0
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude as hlight level. according pilot's choice. as altitude. as height.
104 10 will be reported: 0
The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will as altitude. According to pilot's as flight level. as height.
105 10 be reported : choice. 0
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall At all times during flight, Only when the aircraft is Only when the aircraft is Only when directed by
operate the transponder: regardless of whether flying within airspace flying within controlled ATC.
the aircraft is within or where SSR is used for airspace.
outside airspace where ATS purposes.
SSR is used for ATS
purposes.

106 10 1
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot: Shall continuously Shall continuously Shall continuously Shall continuously
operate this mode only operate this mode operate this mode only operate this mode
when the aircraft is unless otherwise when directed by ATC. regardless of ATC
within controlled directed by ATC. instructions.
airspace.
107 10 0
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone 15°. 20°. 5°. 10°.
of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
108 10 0
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in- 7700. 7600. 7000. 7500.
command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
109 10 0
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern Track. Heading. Course. Bearing.
110 10 shall be according to: 0
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall: Read back only the Read back the mode Use only the word Use only the word
111 10 code to be set. and code to be set. ROGER. WILCO. 0
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at 10 minutes. 5 minutes. 15 minutes. 3 minutes.
same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed, is:
112 10 1
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at 10 minutes. 15 minutes. 5 minutes. 3 minutes.
same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft, is:
113 10 0
 The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at 5 minutes. 6 minutes. 10 minutes. 3 minutes.
same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft, is:
114 10 0
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from 10 minutes. 2 minutes. 5 minutes. 3 minutes.
the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the
preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more
faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
115 10 0
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from 8 minutes. 3 minutes. 5 minutes. 10 minutes.
the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the
preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more
faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
116 10 0
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the 7500. 7700. 7600. 2000.
117 10 transponder to Mode A Code: 0
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? Arrival, initial, Arrival, intermediate and Initial and final. Initial, intermediate and
118 10 intermediate and final. final. final. 0
The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to the Rome Convention the Warsaw Convention the Paris Convention the Tokyo Convention
endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage
caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is :
119 10 1
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure Intersect the localizer at Intersect the localizer at Intersect the localizer at Intersect the localizer at
may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The 30° and will not be more 45° and will not be more 30° and will not be more 45° and will not be more
DR track will: 10 NM in length. 10 NM in length. 5 NM in length. 5 NM in length.
120 10 0
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the 150m (492 ft). 300m (984 ft). 450m (1476 ft). 600m (1968 ft).
intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach
procedure?
121 10 1
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which Final approach Initial approach Intermediate approach Arrival segment.
122 10 alignment and descent for landing are made is called: segment. segment. segment. 1
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at IF. FAP. FAF. MAP.
123 10 the: 0
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs 300m (984 ft) to 600m 150m (492 ft) to 300m 150m (492 ft) to 900m 300m (984 ft) to 900m
124 10 at heights above runway elevation from: (1968 ft). (984 ft). (2955 ft). (2955 ft). 0
How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer 5 NM. 3 NM. 5 km. 3 km.
125 10 area? 1
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based 6m. 3m. 9m. 12m.
among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the
flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:
126 10 1
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound 1 minute 30 seconds. 2 minutes. 1 minute 15 seconds. 1 minute.
track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E
aircraft for:
127 10 0
 Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal 3.3%. 5%. 2.5%. 0.8%.
128 10 missed approach climb gradient of: 0
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? At the point where the At the missed approach At the first point where At the point where a
climb is established. point. 50m (164 ft) obstacle new approach, holding
clearance is obtained or return to en-route
and can be maintained. flight is initiated.

129 10 1
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing Aerodrome traffic Visual manoeuvring Visual approach. Contact approach.
an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing pattern. (circling).
on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
130 10 0
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector Prohibits circling within Permits circling only in Recommends not to Prohibits the circling
where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring the total sector in which VMC. perform circling within approach to the affected
(circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. the obstacle exists. the total sector in which runway.
When this option is exercised, the published procedure: the obstacle exists.

131 10 1
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption half scale deflection of full scale deflection of half scale deflection of full scale deflection of
that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than : the glidepath indicator the localizer indicator the localizer indicator. the localizer indicator.
and horizontal 35 ° off and half scale
the centerline. deflection of the
glidepath indicator.

132 10 0
A circling approach is: A flight manoeuvre to be A contact flight A visual flight A visual manoeuvre to
performed only under manoeuvre. manoeuvre keeping the be conducted only in
radar vectoring. runway in sight. IMC.
133 10 0
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume Half a scale deflection. One scale deflection. A quarter of scale One and a half of scale
that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after deflection. deflection.
being established on track, more than:
134 10 1
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: outside the daylight- while taxiing, but not outside the daylight- on the ground when the
period in flight, but not when it is being towed; period at engine-start. engines are running
on the ground when it is During the daylight-
being towed; period this is not
applicable;
135 10 0
Which statement is correct? The lower limit of an The lower limit of a TMA The lower limit of a CTA The upper limit of a
UIR may coincide with shall be established at a shall be established at a CTR shall be
an IFR cruising level height of at least 700ft height of at least 1500ft established at a height
AGL; AGL; of at least 3000ft AMSL;

136 10 0
 The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal Essential separation Composite separation Combined separation Reduced separation
separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard
criteria is called :
137 10 0
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be only in AIP NOTAM, AIP and MAL in NOTAM and AIP, only in NOTAM
138 10 published : inclusive Supplement. 0
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration : information signs; mandatory instruction information signs; yellow mandatory instruction
orange background with signs; black background or black background signs ; red background
black inscriptions. with red inscriptions. with black or yellow with black inscriptions.
inscriptions.

139 10 0
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current the TAS varies by plus of an emergency. the estimated time is in it is a deviation from the
flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case : or minus 5% of the TAS error by more than 10 track.
notified in the flightplan. minutes.
140 10 1
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by International Civile the other Contracting United Nations to all States Members of
141 10 notification addressed Aviation Organisation States United Nations 1
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the at least 2000 feet within at least 2000 feet within at least 1000 feet within at least 1000 feet within
minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high 5KM of the estimated 8 KM of the estimated 5KM of the estimated 8 KM of the estimated
terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight : position position position position
142 10 0
Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final 7%. 8%. 6,5%. 5%.
approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle
clearance, is :
143 10 0
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that : landing, take-off and this aerodrome is using taxiing need not be gliderflying is performed
taxiing is allowed on parallel runways confined to the taxiways outside the landing
runway and/or taxiway ; area;
only;
144 10 0
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft_x000D_ follow ATC instructions. request ATC for other select code A7500 on follow the instructions of
The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions. your transponder. the intercepting aircraft.
instructions_x000D_
You should :
145 10 0
The primary area of an instrument approach segment is : the outside part of the A defined are the most critical part of the first part of the
segment where the symmetrically disposed the segment where the segment ;
obstacle clearance about the nominal flight minimum altitude should
increases from o ft to track in which full be kept very carefully;
the appropriate obstacle clearance is
minimum provided.

146 10 0
In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach decreasing from 984 to 984 ft 1476 ft 492 ft
147 10 segment provides at least : 492 ft 0
 A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed : during IFR flights, if during IFR and VFR during IFR flights, if the as in above, but in
there is permanent sight flights in VMC; cloudbase is 1000 ft addition there should be
on the movement area more than the a visibility of 5,5 km or
and the underlying appropriate DA or MDA more
ground; for that procedure;

148 10 1
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if : the pilot has the field the aircraft gets radar the pilot is following the all mentioned answers
and the underlying vectors ; published approach are correct
terrain in sight and will procedure
keep it in sight;
149 10 0
When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure the flight can only you are not allowed to departure to the nearest you must indicate the
and restorage is impossible, than : continue in the most commence the flight suitable airport where failure in the fightplan,
direct manner; repair can be effected is after which the ATC will
allowed endeavour to provide
for continuation of the
flight;

150 10 0
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E / a clearance and/or two- two way a clearance is required. a clearance and two-
way radiocommunication is way
radiocommunication is not required. radiocommunication is
required. required.
151 10 0
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision- 900m 150m 300m 600m
152 10 approach runway CAT II : 1
What is a "barrette"? a frangible structure on three or more a highted obstacle near a CAT II or III holding
which approach lights groundlights closely the runway and/or position.
are fixed. spaced together to taxiway.
appear as a bar of
lights.
153 10 0
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served a RVR of 550 meters a RVR of 200 meters a RVR of 300-450 a RVR of 250 meters
by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to: and a DH of not less and a DH of not less meters and a DH of not and a DH of not less
than 200 ft. than 100 ft. less than 100 ft. than 200 ft.
154 10 0
155 10 Turning departures provide track guidance within : 10 Km 5 Km 15 Km 20 Km 1
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall 150 m from threshold 450 m from threshold 600 m from threshold 300 m from threshold
156 10 commence at : 0
In a standard holding pattern turns are made : in a direction depending to the right to the left in a direction depending
on the wind direction on the entry ;
157 10 0
 Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control Suspension of VFR ATC permission is An aircraft entering the The aerodrome control
service is correct? operations can not be required for entering the traffic circuit without service is a service
initiated by the apron with a vehicule permission of ATC, will provided for the purpose
aerodrome controller; be cleared to land if this of preventing collisions
is desirable ; between aircraft on the
movement area;

158 10 0
On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-approach" is 40 degrees or less 20 degrees or less 10 degrees or less 30 degrees or less
considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track
and the runway centreline is :
159 10 0
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is The Alert phase is The distress phase is Aircraft in the vicinity of Alerting Service and
correct? established when no established when an an aircraft known or Flight Information
communication has aircraft is known or believed to be the Service are often
been received from an believed th be the subject of unlawful provided by the same
aircraft within a period subject of unlawful interference, shall be ATS unit
of thirty minutes after interference informed about this;
the time a
communication should
have been received;

160 10 0
Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ? During a visual If it is anticipated that an Approach control have An approach sequence
approach an aircraft is aircraft has to hold for to advise the aircraft shall be established
maintaining its own 30 minutes or more, an operators about according to the
separation ; Expected Approach substantial delays in sequence of initial radio
Time will be transmitted departure in any event contact between aircraft
by the most expeditious when they are expected and approach control ;
means to the aircraft to exceed 45 minutes ;

161 10 0
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar 3NM 5NM 1NM 2NM
blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the
runway._x000D_
Identification has to be achieved within :
162 10 0
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist : of group of at least three always of a straight row of flashing lights only; of an arbitrary amount
white lights flashing in of lights towards the of green lights;
sequence towards the runway
runway ;

163 10 1
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in 30 NM 25 NM 10 NM 15 NM
164 10 general valid within a sector of : 0
 We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight 5° of the alignment of 10° of the alignment of 25° of the alignment of 15° of the alignment of
departure the initial departure track is within : the runway centre-line the runway centre-line the runway centre-line the runway centre-line
165 10 0
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by 2,5 NM 1,5 NM 3 NM 5 NM
agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer
to the boundary of controlled airspace than :
166 10 1
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for the operator the pilot-in-command ; the "flight-operations" of the state
167 10 an approavh procedure? the company 0
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be RCC LLL DDD PAN
used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
168 10 0
To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and 16 and 60 years 17 and 59 years 18 and 60 years 21 and 59 years
169 10 maximum age (with ATPL) is : 0
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed by regional air by states on the basis of by states but not on the by ICAO on the basis of
navigation agreements regional air navigation basis of regional air regional air navigation
agreements agreements agreements
170 10 0
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to C, D, E, F, and G F and G only A, B, C, D, E, F and G F only
avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes :
171 10 1
The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering the International Civil the state of registry and the International the state of registry
authority will be made by : Aviation Organisation accepted by the Telecommunication
International Union
Telecommunication
Union
172 10 1
The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols to state of the operator to the International Civil to the state of registry to the State of registry
included in the radio call signs allocated : Aviation Organisation by by the International Civil by the International
the International Aviation Organisation Telecommunication
Telecommunication Union
Union

173 10 0
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of the state of registry or the state of registry only the International Civil the Internationnal
letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by : common mark Aviation Organisation Telecommunication
registering authority Union
174 10 1
An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning An AIRMET information A SIGMET information A NOTAM An En-Route Meteo
the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather Report
phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft
operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued
for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-
area thereof is
175 10 1
 When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be LLL TTT FFF RCC
used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
176 10 0
Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall 30 seconds of UTC at 15 seconds of UTC at 10 seconds of UTC at 1 minute of UTC at all
be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or all times all times all times times
minus
177 10 1
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall RCC LLL XXX DDD
not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals
for example
178 10 0
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft at least between 40 at least 60 centimetres at least 75 centimetres at least 50 centimetres
shall be centimetres and 50
centimetres
179 10 0
The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and at least 30 centimetres at least 40 centimetres at least 20 centimetres at least between 20
on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be centimetres and 40
centimetres
180 10 1
The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing over 5.700 kg maximum up to 5.700 kg up to 5.700 kg over 5.700 kg maximum
structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the certificate take-off and maximum certificate maximum certificate certificate take-off mass
aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion landing mass take-off mass take-off and landing
prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes : mass
181 10 0
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed the state of registry, the the state of manufacture the state of design and the state of registry
to resume its flight, if state of design and the informs the state of the state of manufacture considers that the
state of manufacture registry that the damage inform the state of damage sustained is of
consider that the aircraft sustained is of a nature registry that the aircraft a nature such that the
is still airworthy such that the aircraft is is still airworthy aircraft is still airworthy
still airworthy

182 10 0
The loading limitations shall include : all limiting mass and all limiting mass, mass all limiting mass, centres all limiting mass, centres
centres of gravity distributions and centres of gravity position and of gravity position, mass
of gravity floor loadings distributions and floor
loadings

183 10 0
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall four letter combinations three letters letters used for ICAO five letter combinations
not be used which might be confused with the beginning with Q combinations used in identification documents used in the international
the international code of code of signals
signals
184 10 0
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns 25 NM on the route 15 NM on the route 15 NM on the route 22.5 NM on the route
shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between 30° and 90° at between 30° and 90° at between 30° and 90° at between 30° and 90° at
between the straight leg segments with a radius of : and below FL190 and below FL 190 and above FL 200 and above FL 250
185 10 0
 Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its only to passengers and to all international civil only to all international only to passengers and
administration to be responsible for the development implementation aircrew in international air transport including civil transport including aircrew in international
and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This civil transport flights and aircraft engaged solely aircraft engaged solely civil transport flights
programme should apply : domestic flights in the carriage of cargo in the carriage of cargo
and yet to domestic
flights at the discretion
of each member state

186 10 0
During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed- 1NM from touch-down; 3 NM from touch-down; 4 NM from touch-down; 2 NM from touch-down;
approach instruction, in case the "tower-controller" has not issued a
"landing-clearance" at the moment the aircraft is :
187 10 0
Which statement is correct ?_x000D_ ATC will apply ATC will apply ATC will apply the pilot to apply
During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Classe C): separation only with separation with other separation with other separation with other
other IFR-traffic arriving traffic traffic traffic;
188 10 0
"Cabotage" refers to: crop spraying domestic air services ; a national air carrier; a flight above territorial
189 10 waters; 0
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections._x000D_ flight identification and urgent messages a position report, weather noted ;
In section I the pilot fills in : weather noted ; including aircraft
identification, height,
position and time ;
190 10 0
When a member state allows police officers, security staff, Prior notification by the Notification of the pilot Agreement between the Agreement between the
bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their state of embarcation to in command of a state of embarcation state of embarcation
territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the the foreign state in decision to permit a and the state of and the airport of arrival
carriage of weapons should be conditional upon : which the weapons will weapon to be carried on destination
be carried on the airport board his aircraft only
of arrival and notification
of the pilot in command
of a decision to permit a
weapon to be carried on
board his aircraft

191 10 1
Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over 100 NM or more 60 NM or more 75 NM or more 50 NM or more
192 10 points should be limited to route segments of 0
For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some boarding after to all the boarding will be at the boarding has to be boarding prior to all
supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as : other passengers the pilot in command done at the state passengers
discretion discretion
193 10 0
The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in 5 minutes or more. 15 minutes or more 10 minutes 20 minutes
194 10 case the expected delay is : 1
 Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the plus or minus 4 NM on a plus or minus 4 NM on a plus or minus 4 miles on plus or minus 4 NM on a
indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of 90 per cent containment 98 per cent containment a 90 per cent 95 per cent containment
basis basis containment basis basis
195 10 0
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns 22.5 NM between 30° 20 NM on the route 22.5 NM between 30° 25.0 NM on the route
shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc and 90° at and above between 30° and 90° at and 90° at and above between 30° and 90° at
between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of : FL260 and above FL200 FL200 and above FL 250
196 10 0
The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not 1 minute 2 minutes 3 minutes 30 seconds
197 10 exceed 0
Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be immediately a significant at least every half an as prescribed by the as prescribed by the
updated change occurs hour independently of meteorological office state
any significant change
198 10 1
Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the both air traffic services the unit as prescribed the air traffic services the meteorological office
ATIS message shall be the responsability of and the meteorological the states serving the aerodrome
office (s)
199 10 0
ATIS broadcast shall not be transmitted Shall be transmitted on Shall not be transmitted Shall only be
on the voice channel of the voice channel of an on the voice of a VOR transmitted on a
an ILS ILS, on a discrete VHF discrete VHF frequency
frequency or on the
voice channel of a VOR

200 10 1
Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air None of the answers is Deportees, inadmissible Deportees and persons Deportees and
transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers correct persons and persons in in lawful custody only inadmissible persons
defined below : lawful custody only
201 10 0
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in 20 hours of instrument 15 hours of instrument 10 hours of instrument 20 hours of instrument
aeroplanes not less than : instruction time of which time of which not more instruction time of which instruction time of which
not more than 10 hours than 5 hours as pilot in not more than 5 hours not more than 5 hours
may be instrument command may be instrument may be instrument
ground time ground time ground time.

202 10 0
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be the OCH 200 ft 350 ft_x000D_ 400 ft
below:_x000D_
203 10 1
The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall the licence is issued or the licence is issued or the licence is delivered the medical assessment
204 10 begin on the date : validated renewed to the pilot is issued 0
 When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another shall not extend more the Contracting state shall not extend beyond shall not extend beyond
contracting state the validity of the authorization than 15 days from the rendering a licence valid the period of validity of the period of validity of
date of the licence may extend the date of the licence other than the licence
the validity at its own for use in private flights
discretion
205 10 0
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and 12 months to 6 months 12 months to 3 months 24 months to 12 months none of the answers are
helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination correct
shall be reduced from :
206 10 1
Type ratings shall be established all the answers are for any type of aircraft only aircraft certificated only for aircraft
correct whenever considered for operation with a certificated for operation
necessary by the minimum crew of at with a minimum crew of
authority least two pilots at least two pilots and
each type of helicopter

207 10 0
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the flight time towards 50% of his flight time in full with his flight time in full with his flight but
the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a the total time required towards the total time towards the total time not more than 300
pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit : for higher grade of pilot required for higher required for higher hours towards the total
licence in accordance grade of pilot licence grade of pilot licence time required for a
with the requirements of higher grade of pilot
the licensing authority licence

208 10 0
An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane 50 hours and 10 hours 40 hours and 10 hours 40 hours and 15 hours 50 hours and 15 hours
for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours
of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in
categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less
than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are
respectively
209 10 1
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have 200 hours of flight time 150 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time
completed in aeroplanes not less than : and 70 hours as pilot in and 100 hours as pilot or 150 hours if and 80 hours as pilot in
command in command completed during a command
course of approved
training as a pilot of
aeroplanes
210 10 0
 The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot 100 hours of which not 75 hours of which not 100 hours, of which not 100 hours of which not
under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is more than 15 hours more than 20 hours more than 25 hours more than 20 hours
acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for shall have been shall have been shall have been shall have been
such experience shall be limited to a maximum of : acquired in a flight acquired in a flight acquired in a flight acquired in a basic
procedure trainer or procedure trainer or procedure trainer or instrument flight trainer
basic instrument flight basic instrument flight basic instrument flight
trainer trainer trainer

211 10 0
The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by ECAC ICAO and other Each contracting state ICAO
: organisations including
the contracting state
concerned

212 10 0
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within Shall be specified to Shall be specified to Should be specified to Shall be specified to
its administration to be responsible for the development, ICAO and to ECAC ICAO, ECAC and to ICAO and to ECAC ICAO
implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security other contracting states
programme. The said appropriate authority :

213 10 0
Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the The state above Correct. The aircraft operator These measures are of
aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel question in incomplete. and the pilot in the discretion of the
because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative The pilot in command command are only to be contracting state.
proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken and the aircraft operator informed when any
are to be informed. passenger is the subject
of judicial proceedings.

214 10 1
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC the airport controller. the pilot in command. the approach controller. the radar
215 10 conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of: controller._x000D_ 0
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert air traffic control and search and rescue air traffic coordination control centres only.
phase is the responsibility of: flight information coordination centres. centres._x000D_
centers.
216 10 1
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be 25 knots at any stage 20 knots and not within 10 knots and not within 15 knots at any stage
requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These 4 NM of threshold 5 NM of threshold
adjustments shall never be more than :
217 10 0
For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have 5 hours of night flight 5 hours of night flight 5 hours of night flight 5 hours of night flight
completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence time including 3 take time including 5 take time including 5 take time including 3 take-
are to be exercised at night offs and 5 landings as offs and 5 landings as offs and 5 landings offs and 3 landings as
pilot in command pilot in command either as pilot in pilot in command
command or as co-pilot

218 10 0
 The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane to act as pilot-in to act as pilot in to act as pilot in none of the answers are
shall be : command in any command in any command in any correct
aeroplane engaged in aeroplane engaged in aeroplane certificate for
operations other than commercial air single pilot operation
commercial air transportation other than in
transportation commercial air
transportation
219 10 1
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established Only for categories C, D For all categories of For each category of Only for categories A
the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined: and E aircraft. aircraft, and it is the aircraft, and it may be and B aircraft.
same for all of them. different for each one of
them.
220 10 0
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only the Chicago Convention the Warsaw Convention the Montreal the Rome Convention
that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or Convention
thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided
by :
221 10 0
The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board the convention of the convention of Tokyo the convention of Paris the convention of Rome
222 10 aircraft, is : Chicago 0
The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, is the convention of the convention of Tokyo the convention of the convention of Rome
223 10 Madrid Warsaw 0
The convention of Tokyo applies to damage : caused in the territory of the above convention caused in the territory of only caused in the
a contrating state by any does not deal with this a contracting state or in territory of a contracting
aircraft regardless the item a ship or aircraft state by an aircraft
registration registered there in , by registered in the territory
an aircraft registered in of another contracting
the territory of another state
contraction state

224 10 0
The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft 50 % of the co-pilot 40 % of the co-pilot 100 hours of flying time 60 % of the co-pilot
required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit flight time towards the flight time towards, the required for a higher flight time towards, the
with not more than : total flight time required total flight time required grade of a pilot licence total flight time required
for a higher grade of for a higher grade of a for a higher grade of a
pilot licence pilot licence pilot licence

225 10 1
 In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at A single period of six Two consecutive A single period of six in the case of a private
the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment months in the case of a periods each of three months in the case of a pilot, a single period of
shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed : flight crew member of months in the case of a flight crew member of 12 months
an aircraft engaged in flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
non commercial an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
operations. non commercial
operations

226 10 1
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold a current class I medical a current class II a current class III a current class medical
assessment medical assessment medical assessment assessment as
prescribed by the state
issuing the licence

227 10 1
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :_x000D_ ± 12.5 NM _x000D_ ± 2.5 NM ± 5 NM ± 10 NM
228 10 0
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have 15 hours and 540 km 20 hours and 270 km 20 hours and 540 km 10 hours and 270 km
completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as (300NM) (150NM) (300NM) (150 NM)
pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less
than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two
different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred
are :
229 10 0
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have 10 hours of cross 25 hours of cross 15 hours of cross 20 hours of cross
completed in aeroplanes not less than : country flight time as country flight time as country flight time as country flight time as
pilot-in-command pilot-in-command pilot-in-command pilot-in-command
including a cross including a cross including a cross including a cross
country flight not less country flight not less country flight not less country flight not less
than 540 km (300NM) than 540 km (300NM) than 540 km (300NM) than 540 km (300NM)
230 10 0
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall 150 hours and 75 hours 250 hours and 100 200 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 100
have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot hours hours
in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-
command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under
the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a
pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed
is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are
respectively :
231 10 0
 The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have 250 hours and 10 hours 150 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 100
completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country hours
flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in
command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in
command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided
that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the
licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively :

232 10 0
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have 75 hours of instrument 100 hours of instrument 150 hours of instrument 75 hours of instrument
completed in aeroplanes not less than : time, of which not more time, of which not more time, of which not more time, of which not more
than 30 hours may be than 30 hours of than 75 hours of than 20 hours of
instrument ground time. instrument ground time instrument ground time. instrument ground time.

233 10 1
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have 100 hours of night flight 100 hours of night flight 75 hours of night flight 75 hours of night time
completed in aeroplanes not less than : as pilot in command or only as pilot in as pilot in command or only as pilot in
as co-pilot command as co-pilot command
234 10 1
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be 17 years of age 16 years of age 18 years of age 21 years of age
235 10 less than : 0
The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing Annex 12 Annex 1 Annex 2 Annex 11_x000D_
standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is :
236 10 0
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be 200 ft 250 ft 150 ft_x000D_ 100 ft
lower than :_x000D_
237 10 1
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising true air speed at 65% true air speed (TAS). estimated ground speed indicated air speed
portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan power. (G/S). (IAS).
form. This speed is the:
238 10 0
Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute (1) until the completion (1), then by mutual (1), then by mutual (1), and then by mutual
intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident._x000D_ of operations. consent (2) and then consent (2) until the consent to (3)._x000D_
_x000D_ (3). completion of
-aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue operations.
Centre_x000D_
-aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre_x000D_
-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter_x000D_
_x000D_
The command of the situation is the responsibility of;

239 10 0
 At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To make at least one transmit, by luminous fly over the group of switch his landing lights
indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must : complete turn over the Morse signal, a series of people in difficulty as on and off twice or, if he
group of people in the letter "R" using low as possible. is not so equipped, his
difficulty. his_x000D_ navigation lights twice.
navigational lights.

240 10 0
The international convention defining rules relative to the Tokyo Convention. Hague Convention. Montreal Convention. Warsaw Convention.
responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of
passengers, baggage and freight is the :
241 10 0
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) standards and aeronautical standards proposals for standards and
establishes;_x000D_ recommended adopted by all states. aeronautical regulations recommended practices
international practices in the form of 18 applied without
for contracting member annexes. _x000D_ exception by all states,
states. signatory to the Chicago
convention.

242 10 1
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is only at transition level. at transition altitude at transition level during only at transition
done:_x000D_ during climb and climb and transition altitude.
transition level during altitude during descent.
descent.
243 10 0
The first freedom of the air is:_x000D_ The opportunity to The right to board The right to overfly The right to land for a
operate a commercial passengers from the without landing. technical stop.
flight with passengers state where the aircraft
on board_x000D_ is registered and to fly to
between two states. an other state.

244 10 0
An air traffic control unit :_x000D_ may not ask an aircraft may ask an aircraft to may require to change must not ask an aircraft
to change its call sign temporarily change its the call sign for safety to change its call
after accepting the flight call sign for safety reasons when there is a sign._x000D_
plan. reasons when there is a risk of confusion
risk of confusion between two or more
between two or more similar call signs
similar call signs. providing the aircraft is
on a repetitive flight
plan.

245 10 0
 The second freedom of the air is the : right to operate a right to land for a right to overfly without right to "cabotage"
commercial passenger technical stop landing traffic, (trans-border
flight with passengers traffic).
on board between two
states.
246 10 0
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was Montreal Chicago The Hague Warsaw_x000D_
247 10 established by the international convention of : 0
An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is "Need mechanical "Need medical "Landing impossible". "All occupants
being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot assistance". assistance". alive"._x000D_
sees a ground signal in the form of an "X"._x000D_
This indicates :

248 10 0
An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of give way to another return to land and that not land for the moment not land because the
red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft aircraft. clearance to land will be regardless of previous airport is not available
must : communicated in instructions. for landing.
due_x000D_
course.
249 10 0
When mixing or contact does take place between passengers the persons not the passengers only the passengers are only the passengers
subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such subjected to security concerned and their to be re screened cabin baggage are to be
control after the security screening points at airports serving control shall be cabin baggage shall be re screened
international civil aviation have been passed identified re screened before
boarding an aircraft

250 10 0
The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : Damage caused by Regulation of Damage caused by any offences and certain
foreign aircraft to third transportation of aircraft to third parties other acts committed on
parties on the surface dangerous goods on the surface board aircraft
251 10 1
 An AIRAC is :_x000D_ An Acronym for a A publication issued by A notice distributed by A package which
system aimed at or with the authority of a means of consists of the following
advance notification state containing telecommunication elements : AIP,
based on common aeronautical information containing supplements to the AIP,
effective dates, of of a lasting character information_x000D_ NOTAM, AIC, checklists
circumstances essential to air concerning the and summaries.
necessitating significant navigation. establishment, condition
changes in operating or change in any
procedures. aeronautical_x000D_
facility service,
procedure or hazard,
the timely knowledge of
which_x000D_
is essential to
personnel concerned
with flight operations.

252 10 1
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan 5 700 kg for airplanes 7 000 kg. 14 000 kg. 20 000 kg._x000D_
form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less and 2 700 kg for
than or equal to: helicopters.
253 10 0
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in 10 NM_x000D_ 5 NM 25 NM 20 NM
relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from
the IAF of:
254 10 0
Given:_x000D_ FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL. 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 FL 30 or 100 ft
_x000D_ AGL. ft AGL. AGL._x000D_
AGL = above ground level_x000D_
AMSL = above mean sea level_x000D_
FL = flight level_x000D_
_x000D_
within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide
a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:
255 10 0
For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated will stop on the parking will leave the initial will arrive overhead the will land.
time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft: area._x000D_ approach fix to start the initial approach fix.
final approach.
256 10 0
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures 2.5% 2% 5%_x000D_ 3.3%
published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient
of:
257 10 1
 A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach... _x000D_ using at least one using bearing, elevation carried out by a crew of using bearing, elevation
source of bearing and distance at least two pilots and distance
information and one information, providing trained with a specific information.
source of elevation or the pilot uses a flight working method.
distance information. director or an autopilot
certified to a height
below 200 ft.

258 10 0
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the is cleared for take-off. may continue to taxy must stop. must return to its point
following light signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means towards the take-off of departure._x000D_
that the aircraft : area.
259 10 0
The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the of endurance at cruising required by the aircraft required by the aircraft required by the aircraft
estimated time : _x000D_ power taking into from take-off to arrive from the moment it from brake release at
account pressure and overhead the moves by its own power take-off until
temperature on that day. destination airport. until it stops at the end landing._x000D_
of the flight (block time).

260 10 0
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box write XXXX in box 16 write XXXX in box 16 write ZZZZ in box 16 write ZZZZ in box 16
16) of a flight plan form..._x000D_ and indicate in box 18 and indicate in box 18 and indicate in box 18 and indicate in box 18
(additional information) (additional information) (additional information) (additional information)
ALTN/followed by the DEGT/followed by the DEGT/followed by the ALTN/followed by the
name of name of the airport name of name of
the_x000D_airport the_x000D_airport. the_x000D_airport.
261 10 0
An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a 1st freedom 3rd freedom 4th freedom 2nd freedom
neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ?
262 10 0
When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly 030° magnetic in still air 030° true_x000D_ 030° true, in still air 030° magnetic
heading 030", the pilot must fly heading: conditions (thereby conditions (thereby
flying the magnetic flying the true track)
track)
263 10 0
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320._x000D_ A 7620 Mode C A 0020 Mode C A 7600 Mode C A 5300 Mode C
In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk
code :_x000D_
264 10 0
Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) : it can only supply limited its purpose is to supply it has the same its only purpose is to
services to the users ATC services but it is privileges and relay ATC information to
and under no not a state organisation. prerogatives as an ATC the aircraft in flight or on
circumstances may it organisation but its the ground.
supply ATC services. activity is neither
continuous nor regular.

265 10 1
 The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done automatically at the with the pilot's through a central control by agreement with the
:_x000D_ control zone boundary. consent._x000D_ unit. receiving unit.
266 10 0
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a must give way to must come back to land is cleared to land. must land immediately
series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft : another aircraft. and the landing and clear the landing
clearance will be sent in area._x000D_
due time.
267 10 0
The pilot in command of an aircraft:_x000D_ 3-4-5 1 - 4_x000D_ 2-3-5 3-5
_x000D_
1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from
ATC._x000D_
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying"._x000D_
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons._x000D_
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC
instruction._x000D_
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory
clearance._x000D_
_x000D_
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct
statements?

268 10 0
While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the may continue to taxi to must vacate the landing must stop. must return to its point
control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the the take-off area. area in use. of departure._x000D_
aircraft :
269 10 0
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL Instructional flight time Instructional flight time Cross country flight time Cross country flight time
(A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed as studen-pilot-in- as student-pilot-in- as pilot-in-command in as pilot of aeroplanes or
at least 50 hours : command of command of aeroplanes aeroplanes or helicopters of which at
aeroplanes. or helicopters of which helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be
at least 10 hours shall least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
be in aeroplanes. in aeroplanes.

270 10 0
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and 20 degrees 15 degrees 30 degrees 25 degrees
vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach
track,the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to
intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an
angle not greater than :
271 10 0
 Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel the missed approach the missed approach the missed approach the missed approach
runways provided that : track for one approach track for one approach track for one approach track for one approach
diverges by at least 20° diverges by at least 25° diverges by at least 45° diverges by at least 30°
(degrees) from the (degrees) from the (degrees) from the (degrees) from the
missed approach track missed approach track missed approach track missed approach track
of the adjacent of the adjacent of the adjacent of the adjacent
approach approach approach approach

272 10 0
During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the 120 kt 125 kt 150 kt 135 kt
maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain
within the protection envelope, is:
273 10 0
A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where ceiling greater or equal VH (visibility horizontal) ceiling greater or equal VH (visibility horizontal)
poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible to DH or MDH, and VH greater or equal to VH to DH/MDH, and VH greater or equal to VH
aerodrome is three flying hours away._x000D_ (horizontal visibility) required for landing, and (horizontal visibility) required for landing on
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: greater or equal to VH ceiling greater or equal greater or equal to VH the runway to be used
required for landing, to ceiling required for required for landing,
with an available landing, with an with an available
instrument approach available instrument instrument approach
procedure to be approach procedure procedure
envisaged with one
engine out

274 10 0
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are 3.0 NM 5.0 NM 1.0 NM 2.0 NM
etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final
approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel
approaches are being conducted :
275 10 1
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM 5 minutes 3 minutes 1 minute 2 minutes
aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a
MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed
approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction
runway for take off, this minimum is :

276 10 0
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM 760 m Less than 730 m 730 m Less than 760 m
aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a
MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed
approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the
opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway
separated by :
277 10 0
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are 200 m (660 ft) 150 m (500 ft) 100 m (330 ft) 300 m (1000 ft)
etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final
approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel
approaches are being conducted :
278 10 0
 In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and medium aircraft behind medium aircraft other light aircraft behind medium aircraft behind
using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft heavy aircraft - 2 medium aircraft - 2 medium aircraft -4 heavy aircraft - 3
landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ? minutes minutes minutes minutes
279 10 1
Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a C, D and E airspaces E airspace D and E airspaces D airspace
control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres,
even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio
receiver within class :
280 10 0
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light 2 minutes 3 minutes 1 minute 5 minutes
aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the
same runway ?
281 10 1
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are Two years One year Two years up to age 40 Five years after licence
valid for : years then one year issuie.
thereafter.
282 10 1
According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine Of the skill test The application is Of the last medical Of issue
class ratings will be one year from the date : received by the certificate
Authority.
283 10 0
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses 4 KT 5 KT 3 KT 2 KT
wind information in the form of components, significant changes in
the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to
aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is :

284 10 0
Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated On at least 20 days On at least 20 On at least ten On at least ten
regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and : consecutively occasions occasions or every day occasions or every day
over a period of at least over a period of at least
ten consecutive days 20 consecutive days

285 10 0
A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in The aeroplane will not The aeroplane or a There is a serious and The aeroplane has
the first case: be able to reach a passenger's safety imminent danger suffered damages which
suitable aerodrome. require the flight requiring immediate impair its fitness to fly.
immediately interrupted. assistance.

286 10 0
Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and Setting the SSR Setting the SSR Setting the SSR Setting the SSR
where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code decoder to mode A code decoder to mode A 7500 decoder to mode A 7700 decoder to mode A code
7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this 7000 and thereafter to then to standby and then to standby and 7500 and thereafter to
suspicion by : code 7500 thereafter to code 7700 thereafter to code 7500 code 7700

287 10 0
 When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the 80 NM 100 NM 70 NM 60 NM
preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater
than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation
minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10
minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is :

288 10 1
Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for 40 NM 20 NM 10 NM 25 NM
aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each
aircraft utilizes "on Track" DME stations and separation is checked by
obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is :
289 10 0
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same 2 minutes 3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes
cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of
position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining
a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft
will be
290 10 0
According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for A certificate of A certificate of Handling characteristics Handling characteristics
aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of airworthiness issued by airworthiness issued by that require additional that require the use of
these three criteria is that the aeroplane has : a non-member state. the manufacturer. flying or simulator more than one crew
training member

291 10 0
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same 3 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes 5 minutes
cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of
position and speed will be
292 10 0
According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single Microlights having fixed Any other type of All self.-sustaining All types of single-pilot,
pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including : wings and moveable aeroplane if considered gliders. single-engine
aerodynamic control necessary. aeroplanes fitted with a
surfaces acting in all turbojet engine.
three dimensions.

293 10 0
According to JAR-FCL, a professionnal flight crew licence license At the diiscretion of the At the discretion of the At the discretion of the At the discretion of the
issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft Authority of the Member Authority of that Authority of that Authority of that
registered in a JAA Member State State concerned for a Member State Member State Member State
period not exceeding concerned for a period concerned for a period concerned for a period
the period validity of not exceeding one year not exceeding one year, not exceeding one year,
basic licence provided that the basic provided that the basic
licence remains valid. licence remains valid.

294 10 0
 According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges Any period More than 12 hours More than 12 days More than one week
of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when
they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might
render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall
without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when
becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:

295 10 0
According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots 24 months until age of 24 months until age of 60 months until age of 60 months until age of
will be valid for 40, 12 months 40, 12 months until age 30, 24 months until age 30, 24 months until age
thereafter of 60 and 6 months of 50, 12 months until of 40, 12 months
thereafter age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
thereafter
296 10 0
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has 150 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time 150 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time
satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training plus 10 hours of plus 10 hours of
course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a instrument ground time instrument ground time
certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member
State at least:
297 10 0
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for : two years The period of validity of Indefinitely one year
298 10 the licence. 0
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where continue flight onto descend to En-route land on the closest adopt a VFR flight level
the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it destination, complying Minimum Safe Altitude appropriate aerodrome, and continue flight onto
totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is: with last received and join closest airfield then advise Air Traffic destination
clearances then with open to IFR operations Services of landing
filed flight plan.

299 10 0
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same 3 minutes 10 minutes 2 minutes 5 minutes
cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of
position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining
a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft
will be
300 10 0
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all Airspace D Airspace B Airspace E Airspace A
flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are
separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in
respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in
respect of all other flights, is classified as :

301 10 1
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel 610 m is established 500 m is established 710 m is established 600 m is established
runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least : between extended between extended between extended between extended
runway centre lines and runway centre lines and runway centre lines and runway centre lines and
as is depicted on the as is depicted on the as is depicted on the as is depicted on the
radar display radar display radar display radar display
302 10 1
 Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the have to be as indicated have to be as agreed at need not to be identical has to be the same as
procedures applicable there in : by ICAO council the regional air with those applicable in the underlying flight
navigation meetings the underlying flight information region
information region

303 10 0
The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified 8 km visibility when at or 8 km visibility when at or 5 NM visibility below 5 NM visibility when
as B, is : above 3050 m (10.000 above 3050 m (10.000 3050 m (10.000 ft) below 3050 m (10.000
ft) AMSL and clear of ft) AMSL, and 1500 m AMSL, clear of clouds ft) AMSL, 1500 m
clouds horizontal and 300 m horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds vertical from cloud

304 10 1
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to 5 km visibility, 1500 m 5 km below 3050 m 5 km below 3050 m 8 km below 3050 m
maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from horizontal and 300 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500
clouds vertical from clouds clear of clouds horizontal and 300 m m horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds vertical from clouds

305 10 0
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to 5km at or above 3050 m 5 NM at or above 3050 8 km at or above 3050 8 km at or above 3050
maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and m (10.000 ft) AMSL
clouds m horizontal and 300 m 1500 m horizontal and clear of clouds 1500 m horizontal and
vertical from clouds 300 m vertical from 300 m vertical from
clouds clouds
306 10 0
Flight information service provided to flights shall include the C to G (inclusive) A to G (inclusive) A to E (inclusive) F and G
provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft
operating in airspace classes:
307 10 1
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights Airspace E Airspace B Airspace C Airspace D
are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each
other is classified as
308 10 0
A strayed aircraft is : only that aircraft which only that aircraft which an aircraft in a given An aircraft which has
has deviated reports that it is lost area but whose identity deviated significantly
significantly its intended has not been from its intended track
track established or which reports that it is
lost

309 10 0
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are Airspace B Airspace A Airspace E Airspace D
subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are separated from other IFR
flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is
classified as
310 10 0
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all Airspace D Airspace F Airspace G Airspace E
participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all
flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
311 10 0
 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight Airspace F Airspace C Airspace E Airspace G
312 10 information service if requested, is classified as 0
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains Annex 14 Annex 6 Annex 17 Annex 11
international standards and recommended practices for air traffic
services (ATS)?
313 10 0
What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding a non-standard holding it is permitted to deviate Follow the radio inform the ATC
pattern? pattern is permitted. from the prescribed communication failure immediately and request
holding pattern at pilots procedure. a revised clearance.
discretion.

314 10 0
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be 230 kt TAS. 240 kt IAS. 240 kt TAS. 230 kt IAS.
315 10 the maximum speed ? 0
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights Airspace C Airspace D Airspace E Airspace B
are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated
from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated
from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR
flights, is classified as :
316 10 1
Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel at least 30° (degrees) at least 45° (degrees) at least 25° (degrees) at least 15° (degrees)
runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach from the missed from the missed from the missed from the missed
diverges by : approach track of the approach track of the approach track of the approach track of the
adjacent approach adjacent approach adjacent approach adjacent approach
317 10 1
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses 5 KT 3 KT 10 KT 8 KT
wind information in the form of components, significant changes in
the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to
aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is :

318 10 1
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following Horizontally moving his Raise arm and hand, Arms down , palms Crossing arms extended
signals: hands, fingers with fingers extended, facing inwards, moving above his head
extended, palms toward horizontally in front of arms from extended
ground body , then clench fist position inwards.

319 10 0
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a The appropriate ATC Request an amended Submit a detailed report Squawk 7700
deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? unit shall be notified of clearance or cancel the to ATC within 24 hours
the action taken as soon IFR flight plan
as circumstances permit

320 10 1
 Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled Adjust the heading of Inform the ATC unit If VMC, maintain this Notify ATC of the new
flight deviates from the track? aircraft to regain track immediately condition, waiting for the track immediately and
as soon as practicable ATC instructions comply with instructions

321 10 1
Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a Aircraft "A" regardless of Aircraft "B" regardless of Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its
control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at the direction which "B" the direction "A" is left right
approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which is approaching approaching
has the right of way?
322 10 0
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival cumulonimbus below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) below 900 m (3.000 ft) below 2 000 m (600 ft)
information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are : or below the highest or below the highest or below the highest
minimum sector altitude, minimum sector altitude, minimum sector altitude,
whichever is the greater whichever is the greater whichever is the greater

323 10 0
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to at least 2.0 NM prior to at least 3.0 NM prior to at least 1.5 NM prior to at least 2.5 NM prior to
parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or intercepting the ILS intercepting the ILS intercepting the ILS intercepting the ILS
MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the glide path or specified glide path or specified glide path or specified glide path or specified
aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final MLS elevation angle MLS elevation angle MLS elevation angle MLS elevation angle
approach track in level flight for :
324 10 1
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means : Come back and land. Give way to another Dangerous airfield. Do Not with standing any
aircraft and hold the not land. previous instructions, do
circuit. not land for the time
being.
325 10 0
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum 1 minute 2 minutes 3 minutes 4 minutes
separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off
behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
326 10 0
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as 240 KT IAS Not applicable 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS
C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :
327 10 0
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as 250 KT TAS Not applicable 240 KT IAS 250 KT IAS
C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :
328 10 0
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS Not applicable 260 KT IAS
E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :
329 10 1
The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS 250 KT TAS 260 KT IAS Not applicable 250 KT IAS
airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS,
is :
330 10 0
 Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of Has a maximum mass Has a maximum mass Has a maximum mass Has a maximum mass
occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state of over 5 700 kg over 2 250 kg over 100.000 kg over 27.000 kg
manufacture shall in the case of an accident or serious incident
inform the state of occurence of the name of its representative to be
present at the investigation when the aircraft :

331 10 0
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be 2 000 feet above the 1 000 feet above the 2 000 feet above the 1 000 feet above the
maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? highest obstacle within 8 highest obstacle within 8 highest obstacle within 8 highest obstacle within 8
nautical miles of course kilometres of the kilometres of course nautical miles of course
estimated position of the
aircraft
332 10 0
333 10 A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is : Medium Poor Good Medium/poor 0
Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an GVATAM NAVTAM VULTAM ASHTAM
special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an
important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity,
a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.
334 10 0
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 10 km 6 NM 3 NM 2 km
335 10 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft 0
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track Reversal track. Procedure turn. Base turn. Race track.
followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to
intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is
called a :
336 10 0
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: Aerodrome elevation. Mean sea level. Aeredrome reference Relevant runway
337 10 point. threshold. 0
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a pass the fix at the rate leave the intermediate pass the fix not below follow approximately 50
descend shall be made so as to : of descent of 500 approach altitude, step the specified crossing feet above the nominal
feet/min, which is by step until reaching altitude. glide path.
obligatory. the MAPt.
338 10 0
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the Race track Base turn Procedure turn Reversal procedure
end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or
final approach track is a:
339 10 0
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR When seems possible When the aircraft is in When the aircraft has When the aircraft is in
approach continue its descend below the OCA? to land visual contact with the the control tower in sight contact with the ground
ground and with the but not with the runway
runway lights in sight in sight yet

340 10 0
 The protection areas associated with instrument approach 25° or the bank angle 25° or the bank angle The bank angle giving a 25° or the bank angle
procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are giving a 3°/s turn rate, giving a 3°/s turn rate, 3°/s turn rate for all giving a 3°/s turn rate,
performed at a bank angle of: whichever is lower, for whichever is lower, for procedures with whichever is lower, for
departure, approach or departure and approach airspeed limitation departure and approach
missed approach instrument procedures, related to aeroplane instrument procedures,
instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, categories. 25° for circling-to-land
as well as circling-to- and 15° for missed with prescribed flight
land (with or without approach procedures. tracks and 15° for
prescribed flight tracks). missed approach
procedures.

341 10 1
If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome The meteorological The air traffic controller Continued approach will The approach must be
will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be visibility must not be will provide separation be according to VFR passing the FAF
given under certain conditions less than 8 km to other controlled traffic
342 10 0
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an When the commander At the discretion of the If the commander of the Only if the air traffic
airport, separation minima may be reduced: in the following aircraft air traffic controller involved aircraft so controller has the
has the preceding requests involved aircraft in sight
aircraft in sight and is
able to maintain own
separation

343 10 1
Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible If the commander so If instructed by ATC so If instructed by ATCso Only when leaving
requests long as VMC is long as VMC is controlled airspace
forecasted during the forecasted during the
next 30 minutes next 60 minutes
344 10 1
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be When QNH is higher only in airspace class A if the obstacle clearance Above the transition
given as flight level (FL) than the standard is more than 2000 feet altitude when applicable
pressure 1013 hPa
345 10 0
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield When passing the Within the transition When passing 3000 FT When passing the
altimeter setting be set? transition altitude layer AMSL or 1000 FT AGL transition level
346 10 0
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses 8 KT 4 KT 10 KT 5 KT
wind information in the form of components, significant changes in
the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to
aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is :

347 10 0
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR 1000 feet 500 feet 1500 feet 2000 feet
348 10 below flight level 290? 1
 Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains Annex 14 Annex 6 Annex 11 Annex 10
minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
349 10 1
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains Annex 1 Annex 2 Annex 3 Annex 4
minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international
validity?
350 10 1
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference As soon as possible Continue at an altitude Fly the emergency Declare an emergency
('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising commence emergency that differs from the triangle
level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: descent in order semicircular rule with
minimize the difference 1000 feet when above
between cabin pressure FL 290 and 500 feet
and outside pressure when lower than FL 290

351 10 0
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ? ICAO must be informed ICAO must be informed ICAO must be informed ICAO shall approve the
about changes in the about new flight crew about differences from pricing of tickets on
national regulations licenses and any the standards in any of international airline
suspended validity of the Annexes to the connections
such licenses convention

352 10 0
What action should be taken if contact is los with the aerodrome on Maintain your circling Request an amended Initiate a missed Descend to OCL/ACH
the down wind leg ? altitude and turn clearance approach and in the hope that the
towards the aerodrome visibility is better at a
lower altitude
353 10 0
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP Visibility minima Obstacles penetrating OCH or OCA DME-frequencies
approach and landing charts the obstacle free area in
the final approach
sector

354 10 1
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place : when the aircraft is on the initiative of the at the clearance limit, as instructed by an air
leaving controlled aircraft commander irrespective of the traffic control unit
airspace during VMC weather conditions
355 10 0
Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for The law enforcement The government of the Operators of the same The aircraft
the initation of an accident investigation? authorities of the state state in which the aircraft type manufacturer
in which the aircraft is accident took place
registered
356 10 0
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that The pilot does not have The aircraft is subject to Position reports may be The radar identity of the
mean to the pilot? to follow up the position positive control omitted aircraft has been
of the aircraft established
357 10 0
 Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 3 crossbars, centre line 5 crossbars, centre line 4 crossbars, centre line 3 crossbars, centre line
('Calvert') type of approach light system? with 3 or 2 lamps per with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per with 3 or 2 lamps per with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per
light unit light unit light unit light unit
358 10 0
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the flight level during either altitude above altitude above mean altitude above mean
aircraft should be expressed as descent mean sea level or flight sea level during descent sea level during climb
level during climb
359 10 0
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft flight level on or below flight level on or below altitude above sea level altitude above sea level
the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in: the transition level the transition altitude on or below the on or above the
transition altitude transition altitude
360 10 0
An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another When the other aircraft When the other aircraft When the other aircraft When the other aircraft
aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. has reported that it has has reported that it has has reported that it has has reported that it has
It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a descended through FL left FL 140 reached FL 70 left FL 120
clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected ? 130

361 10 1
The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Amphibious/inactive or Single-engine/inactive. Multi-engine / Land/inactive.
Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, simulated inactive. inoperative or simulated
PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft inoperative.
only by instrumental rules and an engine _________.

362 10 0
If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling Turn 90 degrees If you have other visual Turn towards the inner Initiate a missed
manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ? towards the runway and cues, continue with marker for the runway in approach
wait for visual conctact ground contact use, maintaining circling
alitude

363 10 0
When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the 4 NM from the 2 NM from the 3 NM from the 1.5 NM from the
threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for touchdown touchdown touchdown touchdown
intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a
distance of :
364 10 1
The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring IFPS NOTAM EATCHIP AIRAC
important changes in the methods of operation, based on common
effective dates, is identified by the acronym:
365 10 0
Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ? 121.5 MHz 243.0 MHz 2.182 KHz 2430 KHz
366 10 0
The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any 30 60 90 21
illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to
undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a
period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is :

367 10 0
 If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument MAP. FAF. Final missed approach Landing runway.
approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn track.
towards the:
368 10 0
If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions if still not fit to fly when After 21 days of as soon as possible if after one calendar
appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be his/her current medical consecutive "illness" the illness is expected month of consecutive
informed : certificate expires to last more than illness
21days
369 10 0
(For this question use annex 010-9805A)_x000D_ 4 1 2 3
Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to the
symbol meanning "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is :
370 10 0
If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing until two minutes before until ten minutes before until five minutes before until three minutes
aircraft may take off in any direction the arriving aircraft is the arriving aircraft is the arriving aircraft is before the arriving
estimated to be over the estimated to be over the estimated to be over the aircraft is estimated to
instrument runway instrument runway instrument runway be over the instrument
runway
371 10 0
(For this question use annex 010-9804A)_x000D_ Proceding in the Require medical Require assistance Please indicate direction
372 10 The ground - air visual code illustrated means : direction shown assistance 0
The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of half NM 1 NM 1.5 NM half mile
2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the
appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment
permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the
touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given
at each
373 10 1
Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the non- 4 NM from touchdown 5 NM from touchdown 2 NM from touchdown 3 NM from touchdown
radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it
reaches a distance of :
374 10 0
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a 2 NM from the 4 NM from the 5 NM from the 1.5 NM from the
missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the touchdown touchdown touchdown touchdown
non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of :
375 10 1
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider Last 5 NM of the Last 2 NM of the Last 4 NM of the Last 3 NM of the
executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar approach approach approach approach
display for any significant interval during the :
376 10 0
What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be ± 10KT ± 25 KT ± 20KT ± 15 KT
requested to make when under radar control and established on
intermediate and final approach ?
377 10 0
Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, At least 15 minutes At least 5 minutes At least one hour before At least 30 minutes
provided that they can be again brought into operation : before the expected before the expected the expected arrival of before the expected
arrival of an aircraft arrival of an aircraft an aircraft arrival of an aircraft
378 10 0
 Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that You are still in radar Radar services are You are to contact the You are to assume
you are on the airway and to "resume own navigation". This phrase contact, but must make terminated and you will centre at the next responsability for your
means that: position reports. be responsable for reporting point. own navigation.
position reports.
379 10 0
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the 120 m (384 ft) 30 m (98 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 90 m (295 ft)
minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this
missed approach is :
380 10 0
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a : maximum bank angle of rate of 3°per second or rate of 3°per second or rate of 3°per second.
25°. at a bank angle of 20°, at a bank angle of 25°,
which ever requires the which ever requires the
lesser bank. lesser bank.

381 10 0
The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or Security program. Manoeuvring area. Terminal. Aeronautical part
382 10 the parts of them with controlled access is called: 0
Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure acts, it The contracting States The Annex 17 does not The contracting States The contracting States
can be said: will not assist with recognise the will make provisions to will make provisions to
navigation aids, air importance of ensure that an aircraft ensure that an aircraft
transit services, etc, to consusltations between affected by an unlawful affected by an unlawful
an aircraft affected by the State where an seizure act, which has seizure act, which has
an unlawful seizure act. aircraft affected by an landed in their territory, landed in their territory,
unlawful interference act world be retained, would be detained in all
has landed and the unless its departure is cases.
aircraft operator's State. justified to protect lives.

383 10 0
Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME- 12 NM 15 NM 20 NM 10 NM
distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft
have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-
distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend

384 10 0
The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the : Geneva convention Chicago convention Warzaw convention Geneva convention
385 10 1936 1944 1929 1948 0
(For this question use annex 010-9806A)_x000D_ operation completed we have found all we have found only we are returning to base
What is the meanning of the showed symbol in the ground-air visual personnel some personnel
signal code for use by rescue units ?
386 10 1
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the 30 m (98 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 90 m (295 ft) 120 m (384 ft)
minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this
missed approach is :
387 10 1
 The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the AIP Supplements AIP Amendments NOTAM Trigger NOTAM
short-term extensive or graphical information are published as
follows:
388 10 1
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the 90 m (295 ft) 120 m (384 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 30 m (98 ft)
minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed
approach is :
389 10 0
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to Distress 7700. Hijacking Distress 7500. Hijacking Distress 7600. Hijacking Distress 7700.
be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)? 7600. Communicaton 7700. Communication 7500. Communication Hijacking 7500.
failure 7500. failure 7600. failure 7700. Communication failure
7600.
390 10 0
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ? Right hand turns / 1 Right hand turns / 1.5 Left hand turns / 1 Left hand turns / 1.5
391 10 minute outbound minutes outbound minute outbound minutes outbound 1
(For this question use annex 010-9801A)_x000D_ 3 4 1 2
Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to the symbol
meaning "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (are) :
392 10 0
(For this question use annex 010-9802A)_x000D_ 2 3 4 1
Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning "we have
found all personnel" is :
393 10 0
(For this question use annex 010-9803A)_x000D_ Require assistance Landing here impossible Drop emergency Require medical
What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air visual supplies at this point assistance
signal code for use by survivors ?
394 10 0
During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance 150 m (492 ft) 300 m (984 ft) 210 m (690 ft) 120 m (394 ft)
(MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :
395 10 1
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on: The longuest aeroplane The over-all length of The over-all length of The over-all length of
maximum width only the longest aeroplane the longest aeroplane the longest aeroplane.
normally using the normally using the
aerodrome and its aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage maximum fuselage
width. weight.
396 10 0
If radio communication is established during an interception but Descend for landing Descend Let down You land
communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase
should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the
intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?

397 10 0
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following Raising arm and hand Arms down, palms Crossing arms extended Horizontally moving
signals: horizontally in front of facing inwards, moving above his head. hands, fingers
body, fingers extended arms from extended extended, palms toward
then clenching fist. position inwards. ground.

398 10 1
 In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan 60 minutes in excess of 60 minutes in excess of 30 minutes in excess of 30 minutes in excess of
should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted the estimated time off the estimated time of the estimated time off the estimated time of
when the delay is: blocks. departure. blocks. departure.
399 10 0
Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? Estimated time over FIR Estimated time of arrival Estimated elapse time Present position,
boundary, endurance. (ETA), endurance. (EET), endurance. estimated time of arrival
(ETA).
400 10 0
The position reports shall contain the following elements of Aircraft identification, Aircraft identification, Aircraft identification, Aircraft identification,
information in the order listed: position, time, flight position, flight level or position, time, true air position, time, flight
level or altitude, next altitude,time, next speed, flight level or level or altitude, next
position and time over position and time over altitude, next position position and time over.
and ensuing significant and ensuing significant and time over.
point. point.
401 10 1
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, Land on the nearest Try to get contact on Transmit blind indicating Try to get contact on
generally the pilot shall: suitable aerodrome and other frequencies either details required at least other frequencies either
report the termination of ground or aircraft 2 times. ground or aircraft
the flight to ATC. stations. stations - Transmit being
indicating important
details required 2 times.

402 10 0
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight Y Z I V
commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to
IFR?
403 10 0
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight 50 minutes prior to 60 minutes prior to 10 minutes prior to 30 minutes prior to
404 10 at least: leave the blocks. departure. departure. leave the blocks. 0
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight I V Z Y
commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to
VFR?
405 10 0
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means: Need special The aerodrome is being An area unit for the Special precautions
precautions while used by gliders and that movement of aircraft. must be observed due
approaching for landing. glider flights are being to bad state of the
performed. taxiways.
406 10 0
407 10 The runway edge lights shall be : red white blue green 0
On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an all vehicles moving on aircraft taking off or other vehicles and other converging aircraft
aerodrome shall give way to: the apron except the about to take off pedestrians
"follow me" vehicle
408 10 0
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land The airport is unsafe, do The airport is Give way to other Continue circling and
means: not land temporarily closed, aircraft in emergency wait for further
continue circling instructions
409 10 1
 Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: A controlled airspace A controlled airspace A controlled airspace A controlled airspace
extending upwards from extending upwards from extending upwards from extending upwards from
the surface of the earth a height of 1000 feet a specified limit above a height of 900 feet
to a specified limit. above the earth. the earth. above the earth.

410 10 0
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to The air traffic service The pilot in command. The aircraft operator. The ATC.
terrain clearance? reporting office when
accepting the flight plan.
411 10 0
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend 1, 2. 2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 2, 3.
below the MDA should not be made until :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight_x000D_
2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained
_x000D_
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing
can be made_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is :

412 10 0
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 15 miles from the centre 20 miles from the centre 5 nautical miles from the 10 miles from the centre
of the aerodrome or of the aerodrome or centre of the aerodrome of the aerodrome or
aerodromes concerned aerodromes concerned or aerodromes aerodromes concerned
in the direction from in the direction from concerned in the in the direction from
which approaches may which approaches may direction from which which approaches may
be made. be made. approaches may be be made.
made.

413 10 0
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above 200 metres. 300 metres. 150 metres. 500 metres.
414 10 the ground level or water of not less than: 1
The units providing Air Traffic Services are: Area Control Centre - Area Control Centre - Area Control Centre - Area Control Centre -
Approach Control Office Advisory Centre - Flight Flight Information Flight Information
and Aerodrome Control Information Centre - Region - Approach Centre - Approach
Tower. Approach Control Office Control Office and Control Office -
and Tower. Tower. Aerodrome Control
Tower and Air Traffic
Services reporting
office.
415 10 0
 The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service An air traffic control An air traffic control An air traffic control An air traffic control
service for IFR flights service provided for IFR service provided for IFR service provided for the
arriving and departing. and VFR flights within a traffic within a Control arriving and departing
Control Zone. Zone. controlled flights.

416 10 0
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: Preventing collisions Applying separation Preventing collisions Avoiding colisions
between aircraft, between aircraft and between controlled air between all aircraft and
between aircraft and expediting and traffic and expediting maintaining an orderly
obstacles on the maintaining an orderly and maintaining an flow of air traffic
manoeuvring area and flow of air traffic orderly flow of air traffic
expediting and
maintaining an orderly
flow of air traffic
417 10 1
When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of 1 and 4 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3
an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual
flight rules, until the destination is reached:_x000D_
1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")_x000D_
2 He must request and obtain clearance._x000D_
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight
plan._x000D_
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan._x000D_
The correct combination of statements is:

418 10 1
Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Providing advisory Providing alerting Achieving separation Providing flight
services services between controlled Information Service
flights
419 10 0
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an Switching on and off Switching on and off Switching on and off The repeated switching
aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which three times the landing four times the landing four times the on and off of the landing
compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? lights lights navigation lights lights
420 10 0
When are ATIS broadcasts updated ? Every 30 minutes if Only when weather Only when the ceiling Upon receipt of any
weather conditions are conditions change and/or visibility changes official weather,
below those for VFR ; enough to require a by a reportable value regardless of content
otherwise hourly change in the active change or reported
runway or instrument values
approach in use
421 10 0
When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision operational air traffic flight information or air traffic co-ordination search and rescue co-
422 10 to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: control centres control organisations services ordination centres 1
 Alert phase is defined as follows: A situation related to an A situation related to an A situation where an An emergency event in
aircraft and its aircraft which reports apprehension exists as which an aircraft and its
occupants are that the fuel on board is to the safety of an occupants are
considered to be in a exhausted. aircraft and its considered to be
state of emergency. occupants. threatened by a danger.

423 10 0
The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane limits flight to up to 10 limits flight to up to 8 limits such flight to a does not permit such
engaged in the public transport of passengers: minutes flying time from NM from the nearest height sufficient to land flight in any
the nearest shore. shore. safely if the engine fails. circumstances.
424 10 0
The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control is 5 minutes. is 15 minutes. depends on the type of is 10 minutes.
centre): flight (10 minutes for
international flights, 5
minutes for domestic
flights).
425 10 0
"ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision Controlled VFR flights All IFR flights. Only controlled IFR All IFR flight in
of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a and VFR flights. flights. controlled airspaces and
particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the controlled VFR.
appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima is not
applied. The following flights are considered essential traffic one to
each other.
426 10 0
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in uncertainty phase, uncertainty phase, uncertainty phase, alert uncertainty phase, alert
emergency are: urgency phase, distress distress phase, urgency phase, distress phase phase, distress phase.
phase. phase. and urgency phase.
427 10 0
Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft 3 000 feet. 1 500 feet. 4 000 feet. 2 000 feet.
428 10 on the same direction is: 0
If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but UNABLE TO COMPLY NOT POSSIBLE CAN NOT CAN NOT COMPLY
communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase
should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that
he is unable to comply with the instructions received ?

429 10 0
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft The airliner operator The commander The ATC controller if the The aircraft owner
during flight time is: aircraft is flying in a
controlled airspace
430 10 0
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight 1 500 feet or visibility is 1 000 feet or visibility is 2 000 feet or visibility is 1 000 feet or visibility is
can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than : less than 5 km less than 5 km less than 5 km less than 8 km
431 10 1
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a 2000 feet (600 m). 500 feet (150 m). 2500 feet (750 m). 1000 feet (300 m).
432 10 controlled airspace below FL 290 is: 0
 The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a 2000 feet (600 m). 1000 feet (300 m). 500 feet (150 m). 4000 feet (1200 m).
433 10 controlled airspace above FL 290 is: 1
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 Clear of clouds and in 2 000 feet horizontally, 1 500 m horizontally, 1500 m horizontally,
feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on sight of the surface; 8 1000 feet vertically from 1000 feet vertically from 1000 feet vertically from
principle at least: km visibility. clouds; 5 km visibility. clouds; 5 km visibility. clouds; 8 km visibility.
434 10 0
Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and With an intercept of 20° With an intercept of at With an intercept of at On the nearest way.
acknowledge the following instruction from the radar or more. least 45°. least 30°.
controller:_x000D_
"Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further
advised"._x000D_
Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that radio
communication cannot be stablished again and you have to return to
your current flight plan route:
435 10 0
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 000 feet 1 mile horizontaly and 1 2 000 metres 1 nautical mile clear of clouds; 8 km
MSL are : 000 feet verticaly from horizontaly, 1 000 feet horizontaly and 1 000 visibility
clouds; 5 km visibility verticaly from clouds; 8 feet verticaly from
km visibility clouds; 8 km visibility
436 10 0
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance 15 NM (28 km). 20 NM (37 km). 30 NM (55 km). 25 NM (46 km).
within how many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which
the instrument approach procedure is predicated:
437 10 0
"Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to expedite the To pass the specified To pass a specified To apply a step down To maintain a specified
approach of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained point inbound at the point. descent between speed during the
requesting aircraft: previously notified time. aircraft in the approach approach procedure.
sequence.
438 10 1
During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should When advised by Tower. Before penetrating the When clear of the After take-off.
contact departure control: clouds. airport and established
on the first heading
given in the clearance.

439 10 1
When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions 45 metres. 60 metres. 50 metres. 30 metres.
have not been established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the
runway in use more than:
440 10 0
Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are Known to the relevant Known to the relevant Provided with the air Provided with air traffic
likely to be affected by the information and which are: air traffic services units. air traffic services units traffic control services control services, only.
by a filed flight plan. and otherwise known to
the relevant air traffic
service units.

441 10 0
 Alerting service shall be provided: In so far as practicable For all controlled flight, For all aircraft provided To any aircraft known or
to all aircraft having filed to any aircraft known or with air traffic control believed to be subject of
a flight plan or otherwise believed to be subject of services, only. unlawful interference,
known by the ATS. unlawful interference, only.
and in so far as
practicable to all aircraft
having filed a flight plan
or otherwise known to
the ATS.

442 10 0
Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be At least 15° separated At least 30° separated At least 45° separated At least 15° separated
applied requiring the aircraft to fly: at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 miles
or more from the facility. or more from the facility. or more from the facility. or more from the facility.

443 10 1
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an The pilot should He may request and, if He may request another The pilot has to accept
aircraft: propose another practicable, obtain an clearance and the ATC the ATC clearance
clearance to the ATC amended clearance. concerned has to because it has been
concerned. accept the pilot request. based on the flight plan
filed with ATC.

444 10 0
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the Executing a climbing Rocking wings twice Circling the intercepted Rocking the wings and
pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY turn of 90 degrees or and crossing in front of aircraft in a clock-wise flashing the navigational
PROCEED" ? more without crossing the aircraft. pattern. lights.
the line of flight of the
intercepted aircraft.

445 10 1
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the
following frequencies:
446 10 1
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan The delay is more than The delay is more than The delay is more than The delay is more than
has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight 60 minutes of the 30 minutes of the 60 minutes of the 30 minutes of the
plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when: estimated time of estimated time off estimated time off- estimated time off-
departure. departure. blocks. blocks.
447 10 0
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should: Read back those parts Read back the initial Read back should be Read back the entire
containing level route clearance, level unsolicited. clearance as required
assignments, vectors or assignments and by regulation.
any part requiring transponder codes.
verification.
448 10 0
 Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have Continue the flight Continue the flight at the Maintain your assigned Return to the
two way communication failure? maintaining VMC and assigned level and level and route and land aerodrome of departure.
land as soon as route; start approach at at the nearest
practicable. your ETA. aerodrome that has
VMC conditions.

449 10 1
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ? Emergency aircraft Military aircraft VIP (Head of state) Hospital aircraft carrying
aircraft a very sick person
needing immediate
medical attention

450 10 1
Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be At least 45° separated At least 30° separated At least 30° separated At least 45° separated
applied requiring the aircraft to fly: at a distance of 15 miles at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 miles at a distance of 15 NM
or more from the FIX. or more from the FIX. or more from the FIX. or more from the fix.
451 10 0
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: Achieving separation Providing flight Providing advisory Achieving separation
between IFR flights Information Service service between controlled
flights
452 10 0
The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a This procedure is not Requested by the pilot, Requested by the pilot Requested by the pilot
controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight when: allowed. during the day light and and during the day light. and authorized by the
authorized by the state state overflown.
overflown.

453 10 0
Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to the weather permits. Standard rate turns if Decided on pilot's Prescribed by the
be executed as: not otherwise instructed discretion. aircraft operations.
by ATC.
454 10 0
What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC? Vertical, horizontal and Vertical, horizontal and Time separation and Composite separation.
composite separation. longitudinal separation. track separation.
455 10 1
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR 7 600 7 000 7 700 7 500
transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS
unit, select one of the following code on mode "A"
456 10 0
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit 5% 3% 2% 10 %
whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is
expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
457 10 1
 The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10 000 feet 1 nautical mile 1 nautical mile 1500 m horizontally and 1500 m horizontally and
MSL are : horizontally and 1 000 horizontally and 1000 1 000 feet vertically 1 000 feet verticaly from
feet vertically from feet vertically from from clouds; 8 km clouds; 5 km visibility
clouds; 5 km visibility clouds; 8 km visibility visibility.

458 10 0
Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be At least 45° separated At least 30° separated At least 30° separated At least 15° separated
applied requiring the aircraft to fly: at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 miles at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 NM
or more from the facility. or more from the facility. or more from the facility. or more from the facility.

459 10 0
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to AGA. ENR. MAP. GEN.
460 10 prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas? 0
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the A landing aircraft can be A landing aircraft can be An aircraft taking-off or An aircraft can be
end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: stopped if overcoming stopped only in landing can be stopped. stopped in the case of
the end of runway. emergency. an abandoned take-off.
461 10 0
Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the Flight Information Flight Information Flight Information Flight Information
following services are provided: Service, Alerting Service Service only. Service and Advisory Service and Alerting
and Advisory Service. Service. Service.
462 10 0
The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two 2B. 6D. 5E. 4F.
elements which are related to the aeroplane performance
characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of
a number and a letter as in the example under listed:

463 10 1
You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at If not airborne until Do not take off before The take off clearence After 0920 return to the
0920. What does it mean ? 0920, a new clearence 0920 is expected at 0920 ramp and file a new
has to be issued flight plan
464 10 1
According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" 36 m up to but not 24 m up to but not 15 m up to but not 52 m up to but not
465 10 shall identify an aircraft wing span of: including 52 m. including 36 m. including 24 m. including 65 m. 0
Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used Code letter "D". Code letter "E". Code letter "C". Code letter "B".
466 10 by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? 0
"Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to: Permit aircraft to make a Reduce the risk of Protect aircraft during Permit the aircraft to
portion of its initial climb damage to aircraft take-off or landing stop if it fails the take-
to a specific height. running off a runway. operations. off.
467 10 1
 "TODA" take-off distance available is: The length of the The length of the take- The length of the take- The length of the take-
runway available plus off run available plus the off run available plus the off run available plus the
the length of clearway length of the stopway length of the stopway. length of clearway
available (if provided). and clearway (if available (if provided).
provided).

468 10 0
"Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft 15 m. 23 m. 25 m. 18 m.
having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway
width shall be:
469 10 0
"Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the Non precision approach Precision approach Instrument approach Precision approach
operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures. runways, precision runways category I, II runways, precision runways in general.
approach runways and III. approach runways
category I, II and III. category I, II and III.

470 10 1
Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Only AIP and NOTAM's. AIP, NOTAM's, Circular Only NOTAM's and Integrated Aeronautical
Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is and AIRAC. Circulars. Information Package.
responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this
shall include the preparation and origination of:

471 10 0
"ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: The length of the take- The length of the take- The length of the take- The length of the
off run available plus the off run available plus the off run available plus the runway plus the length
length of stopway and length of the clearway. length of stopway (if of stopway available (if
clearway (if provided) . stopway provided) . stopway provided).

472 10 0
A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air Aeronautical Information NOTAM. AIRAC. Aeronautical Information
navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and Publication (AIP). Circular (AIC).
originated at the AIS of a state is called:
473 10 0
According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 1 500 m. 1 200 m. 1 800 m and over. 1 600 m.
474 10 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of: 0
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to AD. FAL. GEN. SAR.
refuelling facilities and limitations on refuelling services?
475 10 1
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to RAC. COM. MET. GEN.
areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
476 10 0
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio Mode B code 7600. Mode A code 7700. Mode A code 7600. Mode A code 7500.
477 10 communication failure? 0
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the Transition altitude. Transition layer. Transition level. The level specified by
altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when ATC.
passing:
478 10 1
 What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? 1 minute. 2 minutes. 2 minutes 30 seconds. 1 minute 30 seconds.
479 10 0
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published Direct. Either "off set" or Off set. Parallel.
holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, "parallel".
inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound
Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.

480 10 0
481 10 What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140? 2 minutes 1,5 minutes 30 secondes 1 minute 0
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial First right and then to Teardrop to the left and To the right. To the left.
entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction? the left. then to the right.
482 10 0
The units responsable for promoting efficient organization of search Area control centre, Rescue coordination Alerting centre and Flight information centre
and rescue service are: flight information centre centre and rescue sub- rescue coordination and rescue coordination
and rescue coordination centres. centre. centre.
centre.
483 10 0
Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a Since no physical injury This is an irregularity in This is an incident and This is an accident and
wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and has been noticed and the operation, the crew the pilot-in-command the crew must follow the
obliges the crew to delay the departure. the flight is over, the must inform the must report it to the procedure relevant to
actions to be taken are operator of the delay airport authority within this case.
related only to caused by necessary the next 48 hours.
insurance, to the repair repair.
man, the operator and
the persons in charge of
the runway and
taxiways.

484 10 0
The Alerting Service is provided by: The ATS unit The ATC unit Only by ATC units. The Area Control
responsible for the responsible for the Centres.
aircraft at that moment. aircraft at that moment,
when it is provided with
121.5 MHz.

485 10 1
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services An ATS NOTAM. An Advisory NOTAM. An AIRAC. A NOTAM RAC.
and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its
effective date is:
486 10 0
487 10 Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: Flashing yellow. Fixed orange. Fixed red. Flashing red. 0
The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the The stated above is The operator has no The obligation is for the The obligation of the
territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such correct. obligation. Contracting State of the operator terminates as
person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of operator. soon as the person
destination. leaves the aeroplane.

488 10 1
 Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold Fixed lights showing Fixed lights, white or Fixed lights showing Flashing white.
shall be: variable white. yellow colour. variable white or yellow.
489 10 1
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: Flashing green. Fixed white. Flashing white. Fixed green.
490 10 0
The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land Blue colour identification White and green colour White colour Green colour
aerodrome shall be: given by Morse Code. identification given by identification given by identification given by
Morse Code. Morse Code. Morse Code.
491 10 0
492 10 In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar? 2. 4. 5. 3. 0
How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final None. 1. 2. 3.
493 10 approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI? 0
Runway threshold lights shall be: Fixed lights showing Fixed unidirectional Fixed unidirectional Fixed lights green
green or white colours. lights showing green in lights showing white in colours.
the direction of the direction of
approach to the runway. approach to the runway.

494 10 0
In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall Only the aircraft wing The width of the aircraft The lenght of the aircraft The aircraft wing span
identify: span. wing. fuselage. and the outer main gear
wheel span.
495 10 0
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two 150 m. 200 m. 250 m. 300 m.
and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
496 10 0
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above Control area. Control zone. Advisory airspace. Flight Information
497 10 the earth is: Region. 1
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Control zone. Control area. Air traffic zone. Advisory airspace.
498 10 earth to a specified upper limit is: 1
ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are Class A. Class D. Class E. Class B.
subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other
is classified as:
499 10 0
Aerodrome traffic is: All traffic on the All traffic on the All traffic on the All traffic in the
manoeuvring area and manoeuvring area. movement area and aerodrome circuit.
flying in the vicinity of an flying in the vicinity of an
aerodrome. aerodrome.

500 10 1
When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public At least 30 minute prior At least one hour prior At least when the At least immediately
health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably to land. to land. aircraft enter that state before landing.
equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the airspace.
aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and:

501 10 1
 Air Traffic Service unit means: Air Traffic Control units, Air Traffic Control units Air Traffic Control units Flight Information
Flight Information and Flight Information and Air Services Centers and Air
Centers or Air Services Centers. reporting offices. Services reporting
reporting offices. offices.

502 10 1
Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be
considered controlled? provided with a Control located within a Control located within a located within a Control
Tower. Zone. controlled airspace. Zone (CTR) and
provided with a Control
Tower.
503 10 1
504 10 High intensity obstacle lights should be: Flashing white. Flashing red. Fixed red. Fixed orange. 1
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: Fixed lights showing Fixed lights showing Fixed lights showing Fixed lights showing
505 10 green. blue. yellow. white. 1
Taxiway edge lights shall be: Fixed showing blue. Fixed showing green. Fixed showing yellow. Flashing showing blue.
506 10 1
In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number By a letter - for example By a letter - for example By a number like "0" By a letter for 2 parallel
shall be supplemented: 3 parallel runways "L" 2 parallel runways "L" and "01" for 2 parallel runways.
and "R" and the central and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" runways.
has no letter. and "R".

507 10 0
In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two Only on the approach On or close to the Above the approach Below the approach
units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the slope. approach slope. slope. slope.
runway as white when:
508 10 0
The "PAPI" shall consist of: Two wing bars of 4 Two wing bars of 6 A wing bar of 2 sharp A wing bar of 4 sharp
sharp transition multi- sharp transition multi- transition multi-lamp transition multi-lamp or
lamp or paired units lamp or paired units equally spaced. paired units equally
equally spaced. equally spaced. spaced.
509 10 0
The abbreviation PAPI stands for: Precision Approach Precision Approach Precision Approach Precision Approach
510 10 Path Indicator. Path Index. Power Indicator. Power Index. 1
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and Fixed lights showing Flashing lights showing Fixed lights showing Flashing lights showing
crossbar lights shall be: variable white. variable white. variable green. variable green.
511 10 1
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: Fixed red or preferably Fixed red or preferably Flashing blue. Flashing red or
512 10 orange. blue. preferably yellow. 0
Runway end lights shall be: Fixed lights showing Fixed unidirectional Fixed unidirectional Fixed lights showing
variable white. lights showing red in the lights showing white in variable red.
direction of the runway. the direction of the
runway.
513 10 0
AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT, EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT- AEROPLANES
 The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger 1 3 0 2
cabin of an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration for
passenger seats is 31, is:
514 21 0
The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a 5 minutes 30 minutes 10 minutes 90 seconds
certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has been
cut off for at least:
515 21 0
The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurized 3,4 2,3 1,2,3,4 2
aircraft at a 240 flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers on
board._x000D_
As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. each crew member will have available a quick fitting inhaler
device._x000D_
2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that
the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m._x000D_
3 . the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for the supply of
100 % of the occupants during the whole flight time above the flight
level 150 after an eventual depressurization._x000D_
4. the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of
two passengers during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is
greater than 8 000 feet._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

516 21 0
vary the engine rpm drive the generator at a vary generator rpm in directly maintain a
(within limits) to constant speed. order to compensate for constant proportion
compensate for various various AC loads. between the rpm of an
AC loads. engine and a generator.

517 21 0
An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger one fire-extinguisher in three fire-extinguishers two fire-extinguishers in one fire-extinguisher in
seats is 10 seats must be equipped with: the cockpit and two fire- in the passenger cabin the cockpit and two fire- the cockpit and three
extinguishers in the only. extinguishers in the fire-extinguishers in the
passenger cabin. passenger cabin. passenger cabin.

518 21 0
The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum 4 2 1 3
approved configuration of passenger seats is 201, is :
519 21 0
 In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2 3, 4 2, 3
amphibians and hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person
on board is compulsory when the airplane is :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able
to return in the case of an engine failure._x000D_
2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off
shore._x000D_
3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a
ditching probability exists in the case of a problem._x000D_
4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM off
shore._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

520 21 0
In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated : once the passengers when leaving the immediately on the immediately on ditching.
521 21 are in the water. airplane. opening of the exits. 0
In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted of only one no megaphone. 1 megaphone. 2 megaphones. 2 megaphones if there
passenger deck, equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying are more than 31
passengers, must be equipped with : passengers on board.
522 21 0
The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to: provide some provide the cabin supply all the provide the flight crew
passengers with attendants with passengers in case of with respiratory
additional respiratory respiratory protection. depressurization. assistance after
assistance after an depressurization.
emergency descent
following a
depressurization.
523 21 1
The survival oxygen is: the oxygen supplied to a the oxygen used for a therapeutical oxygen the oxygen supplied to
passenger who needs protection against specifically carried for the airplane occupants
oxygen for pathological smoke and carbon certain passengers. in case of accidental
reasons. dioxide. depressurization.

524 21 0
The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path replace the overhead replace the overhead mark only the exits at to be used only at night.
marking system is to : emergency lighting emergency lighting in the floor level.
during an emergency case of failure.
evacuation with a thick
smoke.
525 21 1
In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained: within the combustion across the turbine. in the cooling airflow at the entry to the
chamber. around the flame tube. exhaust unit.
526 21 1
 (For this question use annex 021-9377A)_x000D_ the discharge of fire the discharge of fire the discharge of fire the discharge of fire
When fire is detected on engine n°2, the fire shutoff handle n°2 is extinguisher bottle n°2 extinguisher bottle n°1 extinguisher bottle n°1 extinguisher bottle n°1
pulled and the extinguishing agent n°1 is discharged. This results in : and illumination of the and illumination of the and illumination of the and illumination of the
DISCH indicator lamp of DISCH (discharge) DISCH indicator lamp of DISCH indicator lamp of
agent n°1 on engine n°1 indicator lamp agent n°1 on both agent n°1 on engine no.
and agent n°2 on engines and DISCH indicator
engine n°2 lamp of agent n°2 on
engine n°1

527 21 0
Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an 1,2,5,6 2,3,4,5 1,3,4 1,3,4,5
aircraft is pulled, the effects are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system_x000D_
2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine
concerned_x000D_
3. setting of extinguishing systems_x000D_
4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves_x000D_
5. isolation of the associated electric current generators_x000D_
6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

528 21 0
A passenger emergency mask is a : mask with flow on continuous flow mask mask with flow on continuous flow mask
request and cannot be and can be used if there request and can be and cannot be used if
used if there is smoke in is smoke in the cabin. used if there is smoke. there is smoke in the
the cabin. cabin.
529 21 0
In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire- special fluids. halon. powder. water.
530 21 extinguisher must be conveniently located containing : 0
An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger 7 manual-fire 4 manual fire- 3 manual fire- 5 manual-fire
seats is 200 seats must be equipped with: extinguishers in the extinguishers in the extinguishers in the extinguishers in the
passenger cabin. passenger cabin. passenger cabin. passenger cabin.
531 21 0
The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept the oxygen system these substances mixed these substances could these substances catch
absolutely free of oil or grease traces as: would be contaminated. with oxygen could catch plug the oxygen masks fire spontaneously in the
fire in the presence of a filters. presence of oxygen
spark. under pressure.

532 21 0
 An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 5, 6 2, 3, 4, 6
are inoperative the:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. external door opening mechanism_x000D_
2. internal door opening mechanism_x000D_
3. door opening aid device_x000D_
4. open door locking system_x000D_
5. auxiliary means of evacuation_x000D_
6. emergency lighting_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

533 21 0
The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the 1, 3 2, 3 2, 4 1, 2
passengers is :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,_x000D_
2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system,_x000D_
3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,_x000D_
4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

534 21 0
In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the 1,2,3,4,5 1,4,5 2,3 2,5
fire detectors are located in the highest risk compartments. Theses
compartments are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. the main landing gear wheel wells_x000D_
2. the fuel tanks_x000D_
3. the oil tanks_x000D_
4. the auxiliary power unit_x000D_
5. around the engines_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

535 21 0
Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type : optical or ionization chemical electrical magnetic
536 21 1
On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation only at an isolated point only in a uniform way on at least one loop at any isolated point of
type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature of the loops along the loops the loops or else
increase detected: generally on all the
loops
537 21 0
Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an a decrease in the a decrease in pressure a decrease in resistance an increase in
538 21 increase in temperature produces : reference current resistance 0
 (For this question use annex 021-6736A)_x000D_ a condition of hydraulic since pressures are the jack will move to the the jack will move to the
The schematic diagram annexed illustates a jack and selector valve lock exists and no equal, the jack is free to left due to pressure right due to equal
in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic pressure movement of the jack move in response to acting on differential pressure acting on
throughout : will take place. external forces. areas. differential areas.

539 21 1
In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve : regulates pump delivery allows two possible is a self-lapping non- allows two units to be
pressure. sources of pressure to return valve. operated by one
operate one unit. pressure source.
540 21 0
To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting auxiliary hydraulic a high pressure relief a stand-by hydraulic an accumulator.
541 21 control, a hydraulic system often incorporates motors. valve. pump. 0
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for : undercarriage selection flap extension only. flight controls in the nose wheel steering
and automatic brake event of loss of engine after the aeroplane has
system. driven hydraulic power. landed.
542 21 0
In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the increase by 10 %. remain the same. increase by 5 %. decrease by 5 %.
contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000
lb. If a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the
indicated fuel weight would :
543 21 0
Tyre "creep" may be described as the : circumferential the increase in inflation the decrease in inflation gradual circumferential
movement of the tyre in pressure due to drease pressure due to increase of tyre wear.
relation to the wheel in ambient temperature. increase in ambient
flange. temperature.
544 21 1
The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to : ensure the output signal invert the input signal ensure the input signal ensure the input signal
is of the same state as such that the output is is AC only. is DC only.
the input signal. always of the opposite
state.
545 21 0
In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units high TGT only. high turbine gas high TGT and loss of oil overspeed and high oil
(APUs) have automatic controls for stating, stopping and maintaining temperature (TGT), pressure only. temperature only.
operation within safe limits. These controls provide correct overspeed, loss of oil
sequencing of the starting cycle as well as protection against : pressure and high oil
temperature.
546 21 0
Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir increase as ambient fluctuate with jack always remain the initially increase with
will : temperature decreases. displacement and same. system pressurisation.
accumulator pressure.
547 21 0
The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement reduction gear crankshaft piston camshaft
548 21 into rotary motion is termed the : 0
 Which of the following factors would be likely to increase the slightly retarding the using too lean a fuel/air the use of a fuel with a using an engine with a
possibility of detonation occurring within a piston engine ? ignition timing mixture ratio high octane rating as low compression ratio
compared to the use of
one with a low octane
rating
549 21 0
In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately rich weak too weak to support normal
550 21 9:1, the mixture is said to be : combustion 1
To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume a diffuser a power jet an accelerator pump a mixture control
of air flowing through the choke, thus preventing the main jet
supplying excessive fuel as engine speed is increased, a carburettor
is fitted with :
551 21 1
The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is between the oil tank and after the pressure pump after the oil has passed in the return line to the
fitted : the pressure pump but before the oil through the engine and oil tank after the oil has
passes through the before it enters the passed through the
engine sump scavenge pump

552 21 0
When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, low cylinder head and high manifold pressure high cylinder head and high engine rpm
excessive leaning will cause : exhaust gas exhaust gas
temperature temperature
553 21 0
On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes : a single warning light both a warning light and a warning light for each a single warning light
and a single alarm bell an alarm bell unique to engine and a single but a separate alarm
each engine alarm bell common to all bell for each engine
engines

554 21 0
With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor : will only form at OAT's will only form at outside will only form at OAT's may form at OAT's
below +10°C. air temperatures below the freezing point higher than +10°C.
(OAT's) below the of fuel.
freezing point of water.

555 21 0
A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power air conditioning and air conditioning and either air conditioning or air conditioning and
for ground starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air electrical services. thrust in the event of electrical services, but electrical services (on
(subject to certification limitations) and on the ground : engine failure. never both at the same the ground) electrical
time. and hydraulic back-up
services (in the air).

556 21 1
The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the : stator. oscillator. slip ring. rotor.
557 21 0
A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by mass air flow into the position of the inward position of the duct relief position of the outflow
558 21 regulating the : cabin. relief valve. valve(s). valve(s). 0
 In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is the difference between the duct relief valve a rate of change the difference between
normally controlled by : the barometric pressure when operating at the selector. the altitude selected on
selected on the cabin maximum cabin the cabin pressure
pressure controller and differential pressure. controller and the
ambient barometric aeroplane altitude.
pressure.

559 21 0
(For this question use annex 021-6716A)_x000D_ 100 N. 1000 N. 20 N. 1 N.
In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing Force
would be acting on the right hand side ? (The diagram is not to scale)
560 21 1
Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the 1000 psi. 500 psi. 1500 psi. 2500 psi.
hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge
will read :
561 21 0
Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause : an increased fluid fluid loss. a decreased fluid an increased fluid
562 21 temperature. temperature. pressure. 1
On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of the aeroplane's the master cylinders. pressure to the rudder the brake actuators.
563 21 power is derived from : hydraulic system. pedals. 1
Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. 1000 psi. 4000 psi. 3000 psi. 2000 psi.
If the hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of
3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator
should be :
564 21 0
"Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as : aircraft vibration caused a possibly damaging the oscillatory the amount of free
by the nose wheel upon vibration of the nose movement of the nose movement of the nose
extension of the gear. wheel when moving on wheel when extended wheel before steering
the ground. prior to landing. takes effect.

565 21 0
An accumulator in a hydraulic system will : reduce fluid temperature reduce fluid temperature store fluid under increase pressure
and pressure. only. pressure. surges within the
system.
566 21 0
The term "Bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning charge air across the cold air unit (air cycle source of the charge air. means by which
and pressurisation system, refers to the : inter-cooler heat machine) arrangement. pressurisation is
exchanger. controlled.
567 21 0
In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first : used to increase the compressed, passed passed across an passed across an
cabin air supply through a secondary expansion turbine, then expansion turbine, then
pressure when the heat exchanger, and compressed and directly to the heat
charge pressure is too then across an passed through a exchanger.
low. expansion turbine. secondary heat
exchanger.
568 21 0
 The term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane : has the ability to has the means to is only pressurised in has the ability to
maintain a constant maintain cabin pressure the area of the control maintain a constant
cabin altitude at all flight higher than ambient cabin. cabin differential
altitudes. pressure. pressure at all flight
altitudes.
569 21 0
Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by : engine rpm. inward relief valve(s). regulating the discharge pressurisation duct relief
of air through the valve(s).
outflow valve(s).
570 21 0
Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value the pressurisation the outflow valves will the pressurisation a constant mass air flow
in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained : system ceases to move to the fully open system must be is permitted through the
function until leakage position. controlled manually. cabin.
reduces the pressure.

571 21 0
Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator a rate of climb. a rate of descent of zero. a rate of descent
should indicate : approximately 300 feet dependent upon the
per minutes. cabin differential
pressure.
572 21 1
Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the: faster the engine slower the engine faster the engine faster the engine
functions, the more the functions, the more the functions, the further functions, the more
spark is advanced spark is advanced past TDC the spark retarded the spark is.
occurs
573 21 1
Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are : All bonding and earthing Ground Power Units Passengers may be Aircraft must be more
connections between (GPU) are not to be boarded (traversing the than 10 metres from
ground equipment and operated. refuelling zone) radar or HF radio
the aircraft should be providing suitable fire equipment under test.
made before filler caps extinguishers are readily
are removed. available.

574 21 1
There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop 60 life jackets and three 60 life jackets One 30-seat life boat 60 life jackets, two 30-
aircraft. Its speed is 240 kt. At a point along the course steered, 30-seat life boats and two 20-seat life seat life boats
above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable boats
for emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with
regulations is :
575 21 1
An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those centrifugal force engine oil pressure a coil spring electro-magnetic action
encountered in starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from of operating magneto.
operating at higher speeds by
576 21 1
 The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two To be able to use two To reduce the To prevent that both Because there are two
separate switches is different trim speeds, probability of a trim- pilots perform opposite trim motors.
slow trim rate at high runaway trim inputs.
speed and high trim rate
at low speed

577 21 0
Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the the air supply would the skin of the cabin the pressure differential the cabin pressure
outflow valve(s) would close. The result would be that: automatically be would be overstressed would go to the would become equal to
stopped maximum value the ambient outside air
pressure
578 21 0
The function of an air cycle machine is to : cool the bleed air. decrease the pressure remove the water from pump the conditioned
of the bleed air. the bleed air. air into the cabin.
579 21 1
The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised ensure sufficient pump prevent overheating of prevent vapour locking. prevent cavitation in the
580 21 to : output the pump. pump 0
A manual inflation handle: serves to actuate serves to inflate a life operates a hand pump is generally not applied
inflation of a slide when jacket when the normal for manual inflation of a on slides.
automatic inflation fails inflation function fails slide
581 21 1
The advantages of thermal anti-icing are :_x000D_ 1,2 3,4 1,3 2,4
1. Simple and reliable system_x000D_
2. Profiles maintained_x000D_
3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor_x000D_
4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without substantial
reduction in engine thrust_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:
582 21 1
The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger activate a radio survival settle an escalating obtain forced access to free exits in case of
aircraft. Its function is to : beacon by cutting off the conflict with a fire behind a panel evacuation via the
red coloured top unreasonable and a general purpose sides.
passengers, who tool during evacuation.
threaten flight safety.
583 21 0
The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker is: (1)not resettable, (2) not (1)not resettable, (1) suitable for high (1) not suitable for high
resettable. (2)resettable. currents, (2) not suitable currents, (2) suitable for
for high currents.fuse high currents.fuse circuit
circuit breaker breaker

584 21 0
The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion Braking with an Taxiing with a small Touch down with Gear down selection
link in a bogie gear is inoperative anti skid turning radius. crosswind
system.
585 21 0
 In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the the entire flight time the entire flight time 10 minutes or the entire 30 minutes.
survival oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during where the cabin where the cabin flight time where the
and following an emergency descend is: pressure altitude is pressure altitude is cabin pressure altitude
above 13000 ft. above 10000 ft minus is above 15000 ft,
30 minutes. whichever is the greater.

586 21 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of plus 30 %. in the case of a loss of in the case of a loss of plus 10 %.
liferafts to be found on board an aircraft must allow the transportation two rafts. one raft of the largest
of the entire aircraft occupants: rated capacity.
587 21 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the cockpit seats 12500 ft. 13000 ft. 14000 ft. 10000 ft.
on duty in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply
reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
588 21 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non- 13000 ft. 10000 ft. 14000 ft. 15000 ft.
pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the
entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
589 21 1
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of the passengers in a non- 10000 ft but not 13000 ft. 10000 ft. 10000 ft but not
pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the exceeding 13000 ft exceeding 13000 ft.
entire flight time when the cabin altitude pressure is greater than: minus 30 minutes.
590 21 1
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 seats by 30 %. passengers by 30%. seats by 10 %. passengers by 10 %.
ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals
must be at least greater than the number of:
591 21 0
The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, a pressure demand portable equipment only an air recycle system a continuous flow
592 21 is mostly : system system 0
On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the 1,2,4,6 1,3,5,6 2,3,4,5,6 1,2,4,5
following type:_x000D_
1. AC generator over-voltage_x000D_
2. AC generator under-voltage_x000D_
3. over-current_x000D_
4. over-speed_x000D_
5. under-frequency_x000D_
6. undue vibration of AC generators_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

593 21 0
An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the compressor outlet jet pipe pressure to jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber
ratio of: pressure to compressor compressor inlet combustion chamber pressure to compressor
inlet pressure. pressure. pressure. inlet pressure.
594 21 0
 Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often "all or nothing" gate. "any or all" gate. "state indicator" gate. "inhibited" or "negated"
595 21 referred to as the : gate. 1
A condenser in parallel with breaker points will permit arcing across assist in negative assist in collapse of intensify current in
points feedback to secondary secondary winding. secondary winding
coil
596 21 0
An impulse magneto coupling advances ignition timing gives an automatic gives a retarded spark reduces magneto speed
and gives a hotter spark spark increase during at starting during engine warm-up
at starting high speed operation.
597 21 0
If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the defective condenser fouled spark plugs excessive carbon switch wire grounded
cause may be : formation in cylinder
head.
598 21 0
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch cannot be started with cannot be shut down by will not operate at the will not operate at the
becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the the switch in the ON turning the switch to the left magneto right magneto
engine position OFF position.
599 21 0
An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for advancing ignition quick removal and absorbing starting loads providing a retarded
timing installation spark for engine
starting.
600 21 0
Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a worn oil pump too large oil pump restricted oil passage too small scavenger
601 21 pump. 1
Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the pushing the mask firmly pulling the mask activating the relevant firmly pulling the cover
passenger cabin, the system is activated by against the face and towards the face, after switch in the cockpit. behind which the
breath normally. the cover has opened. oxygen mask is stowed.
602 21 0
A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring that the electric that the starter-motor that the CSD remains at equal AC voltage from
generator produces a maintains a constant a constant RPM not all generators.
constant frequency. RPM not withstanding withstanding the
the acceleration of the generator RPM
engine.
603 21 1
An aircraft magneto is switched off by grounding the grounding the primary opening the primary opening the secondary
604 21 secondary circuit. circuit circuit circuit 0
The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances the lifetime of the the procedures and these aeroplanes often in that case some fuel
cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is fatigue sensitive parts checklists for this kind of consume too much fuel tanks remain empty
that has been based on a aeroplanes will take too on short haul flights. during the whole flight,
determined load much time which stresses the
spectrum aeroplane's structure in
an unacceptable way

605 21 1
The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing .. by pilot action automatically at a certain low speed the system is always
606 21 armed 1
 The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut the oil supplies the the oil supplies the the oil supplies the the oil supplies the
are : spring function and the sealing and lubrication damping and lubrication damping function and
nitrogen supplies the function, the nitrogen function, the nitrogen the nitrogen supplies
damping function. supplies the damping supplies the heat- the spring function
function. dissipation function.

607 21 0
A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid the oxygen masks are if the automatic mask manual override of the the oxygen masks are
decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to automatically presented presentation has been automatic presentation automatically presented
the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen to flight crew members activated, the oxygen of passenger oxygen to cabin crew members
system ? will flow within the first 3 masks is, generally and passengers
minutes speaking, not possible

608 21 0
Load shedding means .. To leave behind extra Reduction of airloads on A procedure used in Temporarily or
cargo if the centre of the flaps by means of control systems to permanent switching off
gravity moves outside the flap load relief value reduce the stick forces of certain electric users
limits to avoid overload of
electric generators

609 21 0
A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an Grease Water Halon Nitrogen
610 21 oxygen installation is : 1
The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to increase the fuel level at trap fuel sediments or distribute the fuel to the ventilate the tank during
the boost pump location sludge in the lower part various tanks during refuelling under high
of the tank refuelling pressure
611 21 1
A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is : an AC generator. a transformer rectifier a thermistor. an inverter.
612 21 unit. 0
Turbine blade stages may be classed as either "impulse" or the pressure rises the pressure remains the pressure remains the pressure drops
"reaction". In an impulse blade section : across the nozzle guide constant across the constant across the across the nozzle guide
vanes and remains nozzle guide vanes and nozzle guide vanes and vanes and remains
constant across the drops across the rotor rises constant across constant across the
rotor blades . blades . the rotor blades . rotor blades .

613 21 0
A turbocharger consists of a : compressor and turbine compressor driving a turbine driving a compressor and turbine
on individual shafts. turbine via a reduction compressor via a mounted on a common
gear. reduction gear. shaft.
614 21 0
In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is : the same as turbine independent of turbine greater than turbine less than turbine rpm.
615 21 rpm. rpm. rpm. 1
When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the : pressure drops. pressure rises. velocity decreases. temperature increases.
616 21 1
 For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the will run without any is designed to idle after operates most efficiently will enable the
speed at which the engine : external assistance. starting. in the cruise.. generators to supply
bus-bar voltage.
617 21 1
The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature prevent damage to the prevent overheating and ensure that the ensure that the
of gas flow is to : jet pipe from subsequent creep of the maximum acceptable maximum acceptable
overheating. nozzle guide vanes. temperature within the temperature at the
combustion chamber is turbine blades is not
not exceeded. exceeded.

618 21 0
In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly oil pressure. thermal expansion. blade creep. the resultant of
fixed in position when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position aerodynamic and
when the engine is running due to : centrifugal forces.
619 21 0
"Conditioned" air is air that has : had the oxygen content had the oxygen content been controlled in had any moisture
increased. reduced. respect of temperature removed from it.
and pressure.
620 21 0
The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow control the acceleration spill compressor air enable an external air reduce the likelihood of
compressors is to : time of the engine. should the engine supply to spin up the compressor stall.
overspeed thus compressor for engine
controlling the speed. starting.
621 21 0
The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil contact breaker points rotor turning past the contact breaker points distributor arm aligning
in a magneto are accomplished by the: closing. position of maximum opening. with one of the high
flux in the armature. tension segments.
622 21 0
An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a complete negative double pole circuit. semi-negative system. single pole circuit.
623 21 return path to earth, may be defined as a system. 0
624 21 The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of : ampere-hours. volts. watts. internal resistance. 1
A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would checking the discharge checking the battery comparing the "on-load" checking the level of the
involve : current of the battery voltage "off-load". and "off-load" battery electrolyte.
"on-load". voltages.
625 21 0
When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the : load as indicated by the loss of continuity will fuse or CB should component will operate
ammeter will increase. prevent its working isolate the circuit due to normally, but will not
components from excess current drawn. switch off.
functioning.
626 21 0
When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load an equalising circuit an equalising circuit carrying out systematic the synchronous bus-
sharing is achieved by : which, in conjunction which, in turn, controls load-shedding bar.
with the voltage the speed of the procedures.
regulators, varies the generators.
field excitation current of
the generators.

627 21 1
 The services connected to a supply bus-bar are normally in: series, so that isolation parallel, so that isolating series, so that isolating parallel, so that isolation
of loads increases the individual loads one load increases the of loads decreases the
bus-bar voltage. decreases the bus-bar bus-bar current bus-bar voltage.
current consumption. consumption.

628 21 0
In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that : generator voltages are only one generator can generator voltages are one generator comes
almost equal before the supply the bus-bar at a not equal, dependent on "on-line" before the
generators are time. load. other.
paralleled.

629 21 1
If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the EPR decreases and both EPR and EGT EPR decreases and EPR remains constant
engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) EGT increases. decrease. EGT remains constant. and EGT increases.
is that :
630 21 1
A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel the reverser doors are reverse has been the reverser doors have the reverser doors are
illuminates when: locked. selected but the doors moved to the reverse unlocked.
have remained locked. thrust position.
631 21 0
The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in pressure in the oxygen user breathes in diluter control is in user requires 100
normal mode, operates when the : reservoir is more than normal position percent oxygen
500 psi
632 21 0
Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor diffuser is a velocity rises and pressure rises and pressure rises at a velocity, pressure and
633 21 device in which the: pressure falls. velocity falls. constant velocity. temperature rise. 0
A "fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by: the high pressure the high pressure airflow drawn across it the low pressure
compressor through turbine. by the high pressure turbine.
reduction gearing. compressor.
634 21 0
In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by air entering the fuel supplied. air entering the air leaving the
controlling the amount of: compressor and fuel compressor. compressor by the
entering the combustion opening or closing of
chambers. bleed valves.

635 21 0
In a free turbine engine: the compressor and there is no mechanical its shaft may be the air enters the
power output shaft are connection between the connected to either a compressor via the
mechanically compressor and the compressor or another input turbine.
connected. power output shaft. turbine.

636 21 0
The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces: none of the thrust. the greater part of the half the thrust. the lesser part of the
637 21 thrust. thrust. 0
 At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine may rise or fall will fall. will rise. will be unchanged.
anti-icing or a similar system, the turbine temperature: depending on which
stage of the compressor
is used for the bleed
and the rpm of the
engine at the moment of
selection.

638 21 0
A turbocharger system is normally driven by: an electrically activated the exhaust system. an electric motor. an hydraulic motor.
hydraulically powered
clutch.
639 21 0
A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal an attempt to ignite the compressor surging. the starter cutting out failure of the fuel to
idle speed. It may be caused by: fuel before the engine early in the starting ignite in the starting
has been accelerated sequence before the sequence after the
sufficiently by the engine has accelerated engine has been
starter. to the required rpm for accelerated to the
ignition. required rpm by the
starter.
640 21 1
The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the: pressure in the oil tank pressure of the oil on pressure of the oil on difference between the
reservoir. the inlet side of the the outlet side of the pressure pump pressure
pressure pump. pressure pump. and the scavenge pump
pressure.

641 21 0
A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a: Fire detection system Smoke detection system Carbon dioxide warning Fire fighting system
642 21 system 1
The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the: area of the piston to the weight of the air induced volume of the cylinder diameter of the bore to
cylinder volume. to its weight after with the piston at bottom the piston stroke.
compression. dead centre to that with
the piston at top dead
centre.

643 21 0
Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the oil pump. fuel filter. sparking plugs. carburettor.
644 21 efficiency of the: 0
The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to: ensure complete create a rise in pressure create the depression prevent enrichment of
atomisation of the fuel at the throat before the necessary to cause fuel the mixture due to high
before entering the mixture enters the to flow through the air velocity through the
induction system. induction system. carburettor jets. carburettor.

645 21 0
 The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by: moving the butterfly altering the depression varying the air supply to varying the fuel supply
valve through a on the main discharge the main discharge to the main discharge
separate linkage to the tube. tube. tube.
main throttle control.

646 21 0
The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute: primary current to the secondary current to the primary current to the secondary current to the
647 21 sparking plugs. sparking plugs. condenser. condenser. 0
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the : number of individual number of pairs of poles number of individual field strength and the
poles only. and the speed of the poles and the field speed of the rotor.
rotor. strength.
648 21 0
The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a heat the fuel only. cool the oil and heat the cool the oil only. cool both the oil and the
649 21 recirculatory type oil system is to: fuel. fuel. 0
The true statement among the following in relation to the application current in a circuit is Current in a circuit is The current in a circuit power in the circuit is
of Ohm's law is : inversely proportional to directly proportional to is directly proportional to inversely proportional to
the electromotive force. the applied the resistance of the the square of the
electromotive force. circuit. current.

650 21 0
In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for a TRU. an inverter. a rectifier. a contactor.
651 21 instrument operation may be obtained from : 0
When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase must be 90° out of is unimportant. must be synchronous. must be in opposition.
652 21 relationship of each generator: synchronisation. 0
When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must be of the voltage and frequency. amperage and kVAR. voltage and amperage. frequency and
653 21 same: amperage. 1
The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC amperes and kilowatts. kVA and kVAR. volts and amperes. volts and kilowatts.
654 21 system are : 0
"Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the voltage regulator is out output frequency is too output frequency varies output frequency is too
generator : of adjustment. low. with engine speed. high.
655 21 0
If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is decrease. remain the same. increase. be zero.
656 21 increased, the current flowing in the circuit will : 0
Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by : automatic adjustment of controlling the generator carefully selecting the monitoring the kVAR of
the torque on each field current. number of loads on the each
generator rotor via the bus-bars at any one generator/alternator.
CSD unit. time.
657 21 1
An AC generator driven by a CSD unit : does not need a voltage requires a voltage requires a voltage does not need a voltage
controller since an AC controller to maintain controller to maintain controller since the CSD
generator voltage constant frequency. constant voltage under will ensure constant
cannot alter under load. load. voltage.

658 21 0
 On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries a Transformer Rectifier a static inverter. a DC transformer and the AC bus via current
659 21 are charged in flight from : Unit. rectifier. limiters. 1
On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with oil over-temperature oil temperature and output speed and oil low oil temperature and
660 21 means of monitoring the: and low oil pressure. synchronous speed. pressure. low oil quantity. 1
When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the : voltage to decrease voltage to increase due current produced to electrolyte to "boil".
under load. to the current available. increase due to the
reduced voltage.
661 21 1
Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services indicates a faulty would be normal and is indicates a battery indicates a generator
switched on, an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery : reverse current relay. only cause for concern if failure since there failure, thus requiring
the high charge rate should be no immediate the engine to be shut
persists. charge. down immediately.
662 21 0
Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be : used only in AC circuits. used only in DC circuits. reset at any time. used in AC and DC
663 21 circuits. 0
A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which : can be reset at any will allow the contacts to will not allow the is free from the normal
time. be held closed in order contacts to be held CB tripping
to clear a fault in the closed while a current characteristic.
circuit. fault exists in the circuit.

664 21 0
The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to: vary generator rpm in directly maintain a drive the generator at a vary the engine rpm
order to compensate for constant proportion constant speed. (within limits) to
various AC loads. between the rpm of compensate for various
engine and generator. AC loads.

665 21 0
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the : field strength and the number of individual number of pairs of poles number of individual
speed of the moving poles only. and the speed of the poles and the field
part. moving part. strength.
666 21 0
Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by : monitoring the kVAR of adjusting the torque on carefully secting the controlling the generator
each each generator rotor via number of loads on the field current.
generator/alternator. the CSD unit. bus-bars at any one
time.
667 21 0
In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC 3 phase current rotary converter. Transformer Rectifier static inverter.
668 21 power is obtained from a : transformer unit. Unit. 0
Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series 24 volts, 80 ampere- 12 volts, 80 ampere- 24 volts, 40 ampere- 12 volts, 40 ampere-
will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of : hours. hours. hours. hours.
669 21 0
The purpose of the "Pressure Relief Valve" in a high pressure oxygen act as a manual shut-off maximize the charging relieve overpressure if reduce pressure in the
system is to : valve pressure of the system the pressure reducing oxygen reservoir to a
valve malfunctions suitable manifold
pressure for the
regulator
670 21 0
 If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, must be 240° out of is unimportant. must be synchronised. must be 120° out of
671 21 then the phase relationship of each generator: phase. phase. 0
To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in only reactive loads need only real loads need to both real an reactive the matching of loads is
parallel : to be matched. be matched. loads must be matched. unimportant.
672 21 0
A bus-bar is : the stator of a moving a device which may only a distribution point for a device permitting
coil instrument. be used in DC circuits. electrical power. operation of two or more
switches together.
673 21 0
A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary slight variation about the low oil pressure and/or excessive variation of illumination of the CSD
reason(s) for disconnection are : normal operating high oil temperature of voltage and kVAR. disconnect warning
frequency. the generator drive. light.
674 21 0
A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight : automatically resets in automatically resets at may be reset on the may be reset in flight
flight providing engine engine shut-down. ground only, after using the reset
rpm is below a given engine shut-down. mechanism.
value.
675 21 0
(For this question use annex 021- 6660A)_x000D_ a NAND gate. a NOR gate. an EXCLUSIVE gate. an INVERT or NOT
The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic) : gate.
676 21 0
Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected : during engine operation at flight idle engine rpm. in accordance with the on the ground only.
only. regulated voltage level
of the AC generator.
677 21 1
When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's a load should be applied no load should be the battery should be the load condition is
voltmeter : to the battery in order to applied to the battery isolated. unimportant.
give a better indication because it would
of condition. depress the voltage.

678 21 1
If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a there will be no effect the intensity of the a force will be exerted the current will increase.
magnetic field : unless the conductor is magnetic field will on the conductor.
moved. decrease.
679 21 0
When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field : there will be no effect on the field will collapse. current will flow in an electromotive force
the conductor. accordance with (EMF) is induced in the
Flemings left hand rule. conductor.
680 21 0
In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when their voltages are the synchronising bus- equal loads are adequate voltage
operating in parallel, it is necessary to ensure that : almost equal. bar is disconnected connected to each differences exists.
from the busbar system. generator busbar before
paralleling.
681 21 1
 The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of batteries at varying generators at varying output of the TRU. generator at varying
the : loads. speeds and the loads and speeds.
batteries at varying
loads.
682 21 0
A circuit breaker : may be reset manually is self resetting after the can only be reset after can be reset on the
after the fault has been fault has been rectified. major maintenance. ground only.
rectified.
683 21 1
A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to : allow a short term limit the current in the instantaneously rupture limit the current in the
overload before field circuit. to limit the current in the armature.
rupturing. load.
684 21 1
The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to : provide a single earth prevent electrolytic isolate all components provide safe distribution
for electrical devices. corrosion between electrically and thus of electrical charges and
mating surfaces of make the static potential currents.
similar metals. constant.

685 21 0
A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at : 90°. 120°. 60°. 45°.
686 21 0
Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often "all or nothing" gate. "any or all" gate. "inhibited" or "negated" "state indicator" gate.
687 21 referred to as the : gate. 0
A static inverter is a: transistorized unit used device for reversing the static discharger. filter against radio
to convert DC into AC. polarity of the static interference.
charge.
688 21 1
On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by Airflow entering the RPM of the engine. Bleed air valve. Airflow leaving the
689 21 regulating the: cabin. cabin. 0
690 21 The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel: vent system. tank drains. top off unit. dump system. 1
In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to: allow a steady cool bleed air and allow a homogeneous cool bleed air.
compressor outlet compressor air from the temperature by mixing
temperature. turbo refrigerator. air flows from various air
conditioning groups in
operation.

691 21 0
If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery: is unserviceable. has 1/12 less voltage, has 1/12 less capacity, has 1/12 less voltage
but can still be used. but can still be used. and less capacity, but
can still be used.
692 21 1
When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads frequency. voltage. torque of the Constant energizing current.
are balanced by means of the: Speed Drive (CSD).
693 21 0
694 21 In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is: stator - stator - rotor rotor - stator stator - rotor rotor - rotor - stator 0
 The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller: is an electrically driven is intended to control controls the propeller, if is driven by the engine
oil pump, which supplies the pitch setting of the the speed governor and supplies pressure
the propeller with propeller during flight in fails. oil to the propeller in
pressure oil, when the order to obtain a case of engine
engine is inoperative. constant speed. problems.

695 21 1
The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine Water. CO2. Powder. Freon.
696 21 fire protection system is: 0
Fuel dump systems are required: on aircraft with a on all transport category on all transport category on all transport category
Maximum Take-Off aircraft where the aircraft. aircraft with more than
Weight (MTOW) higher Maximum Take-Off 150 seats.
than 5.7 tons. Weight (MTOW) is
significant higher than
the Maximum Landing
Weight (MLW).

697 21 0
In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):_x000D_ 1, 2, 5 2, 3, 4 1, 4, 5 1, 3, 6
_x000D_
1- may be disconnected from the engine shaft._x000D_
2- may be disconnected from the generator._x000D_
3- is a hydro-mechanical system._x000D_
4- is an electronic system._x000D_
5- may not be disconnected in flight._x000D_
6- may be disconnected in flight._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

698 21 0
The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to : close the vent lines in prevent positive prevent fuel movement damp out movement of
case of turbulence. pressure build up inside to the wing tip. the fuel in the tank.
the tank.
699 21 0
The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to: take part in the mechanically protect the take part in the voltage maintain a constant
balancing of reactive alternator drive shaft regulation. frequency.
loads. during coupling.
700 21 0
 When a continuous element of a fire detection system is 2, 3 1, 4 2, 4 1, 3
heated:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. its resistance decreases._x000D_
2. its resistance increases._x000D_
3. the leakage current increases._x000D_
4. the leakage current decreases._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

701 21 0
The chemical oxygen generator is a system:_x000D_ 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 6 1, 4, 6 2, 4, 5
_x000D_
1. which is inexpensive_x000D_
2. requiring no external input_x000D_
3. which is lightweight_x000D_
4. requiring no maintenance_x000D_
5. with adjustable flow rate_x000D_
6. which is unsafe_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

702 21 1
The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the : inlet guide vanes. surge bleed valves. variable setting type Fuel Control Unit
703 21 nozzle guide vanes. (F.C.U.). 0
In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd their electrolyte is they are cheaper than they weigh less than their output voltage is
because... neither corrosive nor lead-acid batteries. lead-acid batteries. more constant than
dangerous. lead-acid batteries.
704 21 0
The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is .. To avoid a short circuit. To change DC into AC. To change the DC To change AC into DC.
705 21 voltage. 0
The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC induced (output) induced windings of the alternators supply all of The alternators
generators (dynamos) is that the: windings of the alternators are rotating the output current generate much less
alternators are fixed (rotor), and the through the power than DC
(stator), and the dynamos have a rotary commutators and brush generators.
dynamos have a fixed inductor coil. assemblies.
inductor (field) coil.

706 21 1
707 21 In an alternator rotor coil you can find : AC. Three-phase AC. Only induced current. DC. 1
708 21 The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a : distribution valve. shutoff valve. check valve. flow control valve. 0
In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of 4 24 12 8
poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
709 21 1
Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on: Pitot tubes. Elevator leading edges. Slat leading edges. Fin leading edges.
710 21 1
 When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with is disarmed unfolds and becomes unfolds but does not becomes inflated in its
evacuation slides is controlled from the outside, the slide: automatically. inflated. become inflated. packboard thus
preventing its unfolding.
711 21 1
The "cabin differential pressure" is: the pressure differential cabin pressure minus approximately 5 psi at approximately 15 psi at
between the air entering ambient pressure. maximum. maximum.
and leaving the cabin.
712 21 0
The cabin rate of descent is: a cabin pressure always the same as the a cabin pressure is not possible at
increase. airplane's rate of decrease. constant airplane
descent. altitudes.
713 21 1
The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category 15.5 psi 9.0 psi 3.5 psi 13.5 psi
714 21 airplane is approximately: 0
715 21 The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for: engine intakes. wings. pitot tubes. propellers. 0
What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning Supplying the heat Supplying the Cooling of the APU Supplying the heat
system? exchangers with cooling Passenger Service Unit compartment. exchangers with cooling
air during cruise flight. (PSU) with fresh air. air during slow flights
and ground operation.

716 21 0
The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by: roots type compressors. single radial main engine piston compressors.
717 21 compressors. compressors. 0
Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from: the second fan stage. the low pressure the high pressure the low pressure
compressor. compressor. compressor and from
the high pressure
compressor if
necessary.
718 21 0
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system Diaphragm pumps. Centrifugal pumps. Gear type pumps. Piston pumps.
719 21 are: 0
On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against Vinyl coating. Anti-icing fluid. Rain repellent system. Electric heating.
720 21 icing by : 0
The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity density variation of the resistivity variation of electrical resistance dielectric change
721 21 by measuring the: fuel. the fuel. change. between fuel and air. 0
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system electro-mechanical mechanically driven by removable only after the centrifugal pumps,
are: wobble pumps, with the engine's accessory associated tank has driven by an electric
self-regulated pressure. gearbox. been emptied. motor.
722 21 0
The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, prevent, at low fuel maintain and improve ease low pressure prevent fuel from
upstream of the main fuel filter so as to: temperature, the risk of fuel heating power. pumps work by freezing in fuel pipes
ice formation from water increasing fuel fluidity. due to low temperatures
contained in the fuel. at high altitude.

723 21 1
 On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel 28 V DC 115 V DC 115 V AC 28 V AC
system are supplied with electric power of the following type:
724 21 0
The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel 5 to 10 psi 3000 to 5000 psi 300 to 500 psi 20 to 50 psi
725 21 supply system is within the following range: 0
In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows: fuel cooling so as to fuel heating as required automatic fuel heating jet engine oil cooling
prevent vapour creation whenever fuel filter by the engine oil so as through thermal
likely to unprime clogging is detected. to prevent icing in fuel exchange with fuel
nozzles. filter. flowing from tanks.
726 21 0
The fuel crossfeed system: allows feeding of any is only used to feed an is only used on the is only used in flight for
engine from any fuel engine from the tank of ground for fuel transfer fuel transfer from one
tank. the opposite wing. from one tank to tank to another.
another.
727 21 1
The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to: Prevent mixture of the Restrict the fuel from Prevent overpressure in Prevent the fuel from
fuel and hydraulic fluid. flowing to the wing tips the tank. flowing in the vent lines.
during abnormal
manoeuvre (side
slipping...).
728 21 0
On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through: Bleed air from the The return lines of the Ram air scoops on the A pressure regulator in
engines. fuel pumps. underside of the wing. the wing tip.
729 21 0
The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are: Integral tanks. Cell tanks. Combined fuel tanks. Fixed built-in tanks.
730 21 1
In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for: pressure. temperature. humidity. purity.
731 21 0
The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under compression, then in tension, then in tension. compression.
the wing, is subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading tension. compression.
edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in:
732 21 1
For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and (1) high (2) forward. (1) low (2) forward. (1) low (2) aft. (1) high (2) aft.
733 21 propeller lever position (2) at brake release is : 0
For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the : volume of fuel and mass of fuel and volume mass of fuel and mass volume of fuel and
volume of air entering of air entering the of air entering the volume of air entering
the carburettor. carburettor. cylinder. the cylinder.
734 21 0
On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios are obtained air flow. fuel flow and air flow. fuel flow, air flow and fuel flow.
735 21 by the adjustment of : temperature. 0
 To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, decrease the amount of increase the amount of increase the mixture decrease the fuel flow in
means to: fuel in the mixture in fuel in the mixture to ratio. order to compensate for
order to compensate for compensate for the the decreasing air
the increasing air decreasing air pressure density.
density. and density.

736 21 0
When applying carburettor heating : the mixture becomes a decrease in RPM the mixture becomes no change occurs in the
richer. results from the lean leaner. mixture ratio.
mixture.
737 21 1
When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a volume of air entering amount of fuel entering volume of air entering amount of fuel entering
lean position the : the carburettor is the combustion the carburettor is the combustion
reduced. chamber is increased. increased. chamber is reduced.
738 21 0
When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the increase of air density decrease of air density decrease of air density constant air density for a
piston engine performance is affected because of a : for smaller quantity of for a smaller quantity of for a constant quantity bigger quantity of fuel.
fuel. fuel. of fuel.
739 21 0
A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This lower cylinder head higher efficiency. slight loss of power. higher torque.
740 21 results in a temperature. 1
The cross-feed fuel system is used to : automatically fill every feed every engine from allow the fuel to be allow the unusable fuel
tank up to the desired any fuel tank. quickly thrown away in elimination.
level. case of emergency
741 21 0
742 21 For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the: oil temperature. outside pressure. oil pressure. quantity of oil. 1
The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a higher efficiency in all constant efficiency in all lower propeller blade higher efficiency in
743 21 fixed pitch propeller is a : operating ranges. operating ranges. stress. cruising range. 1
In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not power supply to the connection of the AC connection of the connection of the
paralleled mounted, the changover relay allows : faulty AC generators generator to its ground power truck to Auxiliary Power Unit
busbar. distribution busbar. its distribution busbar. (APU) to its main
busbar.
744 21 1
Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to exciter control relay, the exciter control relay and exciter control relay generator breaker
disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it can be said that the: generator breaker and the generator breaker opens. opens.
the tie breaker open. open.
745 21 0
 The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft 1, 2, 3 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 4
structure are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. Weight saving_x000D_
2. Easy fault detection_x000D_
3. Increase of short-circuit risk_x000D_
4. Reduction of short-circuit risk_x000D_
5. Circuits are not single-wired lines_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

746 21 0
The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 12000 revolutions per 6000 revolutions per 800 revolutions per 1600 revolutions per
747 21 400 Hertz is: minute. minute. minute. minute. 1
As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must 1, 3, 5 1, 4, 5 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4
be met for paralleling AC generators:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. Equal voltage_x000D_
2. Equal current_x000D_
3. Equal frequencies_x000D_
4. Same phase rotation_x000D_
5. Voltages of same phase_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

748 21 0
In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is reduce the axial speed reduce the axial speed, maintain a constant maintain a constant
tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to: in cruising flight. whatever the engine axial speed in cruising axial speed whatever
rating. flight. the engine rating.
749 21 0
In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as V decreases, Ps V increases, Ps V decreases, Ps V increases, Ps
750 21 follows: decreases. decreases. increases. increases. 0
Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. fire. overtemperature and smoke. overtemperature.
751 21 They detect : fire. 0
Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:_x000D_ 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 3, 4 2, 4
_x000D_
1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects._x000D_
2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value
approximating 0 volt_x000D_
3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication
systems_x000D_
4. set the aircraft to a single potential_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
752 21 1
Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with : Cruising mixture setting. Full rich setting. Mixture ratio very close Mass ratio of 1/15.
753 21 to idle cut-out. 0
 The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7. 2, 4, 5, 6. 4, 5, 6, 7. 1, 4, 5, 6, 7.
engine are the :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. tacho-generator N1_x000D_
2. tacho-generator N2_x000D_
3. thrust reverser pneumatic motors_x000D_
4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)_x000D_
5. oil pumps_x000D_
6. hydraulic pumps_x000D_
7. high pressure fuel pumps_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

754 21 0
On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin 7 - 9 psi 3 - 5 psi 13 - 15 psi 22 psi
755 21 differential pressure is approximately: 1
The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ... Through the refueling By means of the aircraft By means of the aircraft Through a unique point
cap of every tank suction pumps. suction pumps through (an underwing refueling
a unique point (an center).
underwing refueling
center).

756 21 0
The vapor lock is : A stoppage in a fuel The exhaust gases The effect of the water The abnormal mixture
feeding line caused by a obstructions caused by vapor bubbles in the enrichment caused by a
fuel vapor bubble. an engine overheating. induction manifold greater gasoline
caused by the vaporisation in the
condensation carburettor.
757 21 1
The fuel system boost pumps are used to : avoid the bubbles feed the lines with fuel feed the fuel control avoid the bubbles
accumulation. for directing it to the units, which inject the accumulation and feed
engine at a positive pressurized fuel into the the lines with fuel for
pressure. engine. directing it to the engine
at a positive pressure.

758 21 0
The pneumatic system accumulator is useful : in emergency cases. to eliminate the fluid to eliminate the fluid to offset for the starting
pressure variations. flow variations. of some devices.
759 21 0
The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service After the system has after pulling the oxygen immediately only above FL200
units. The oxygen flow starts : been switched on by a mask downwards
crew member
760 21 0
If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set Water type Dry and water type CO2 and water type BCF and CO2 type
on fire; the following extinguisher types should be used for fire extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
fighting:
761 21 0
 A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to FL 450. The 198 (110% of the 270 (150% of the 240 (one additional 210 (one additional
cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats seating capacity). seating capacity). mask per seat block). mask per seat row).
from each side of central aisle). The minimum number of cabin
oxygen masks for this aeroplane must be:
762 21 1
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, 30 minutes at cruising 120 minutes at cruising 90 minutes at cruising 60 minutes at cruising
across an area in which search and rescue would be especially speed. speed. speed. speed.
difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area
suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than :

763 21 0
In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant move in a certain pitch move in the highest move in the lowest pitch move in low pitch
speed propeller in a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with position depending on pitch position by the position by the position by oil pressure
feathering system windmilling RPM. aerodynamical force. centrifugal force. created by the
windmilling propeller.

764 21 0
The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 4. 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3.
are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparkes._x000D_
2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment._x000D_
3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves._x000D_
4. Avoid greasy matter._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

765 21 0
To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to : gain speed for gain speed so as to use use the electric manually release the
aerodynamic the engine unfeathering unfeathering pump. blade latch.
unfeathering. pump.
766 21 0
The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder engine cylinder length * cylinder piston area * piston piston area * piston cylinder volume *
displacement is : diameter stroke * number of stroke number of cylinders
cylinders
767 21 0
In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. lighter construction. lower fuel consumption. better piston cooling. cheaper construction
768 21 This permits a : 1
When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed reducing the RPM increasing the manifold increasing the RPM adjusting Fuel Flow
propeller, engine overload is avoided by : before reducing the pressure before before increasing the before the manifold
manifold pressure. increasing the RPM. manifold pressure. pressure.
769 21 0
The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller increases with only varies with engine decreases with is independent of the
increasing true air RPM. increasing true air true air speed.
speed. speed.
770 21 1
 A propeller blade is twisted, so as to avoid the appearance of decrease the blade allow a higher keep the local Angle of
sonic phenomena. tangential velocity from mechanical stress. Attack constant along
the blade root to the tip. the blade.
771 21 0
772 21 A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system during : Cruise. Take-off. Landing. Take-off and landing. 0
When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the reduces. increases. stays constant. stays constant because
angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller : it only varies with engine
RPM.
773 21 1
When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller stays constant. increases. reduces. first reduces and after a
(RPM and MAP levers are not moved) : short time increases to
its previous value.
774 21 0
The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel .. To cool the pumps. To prime the pumps. Because their efficiency To shorten the fuel lines,
is greater. so minimising the
pressure losses.
775 21 0
A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes The regulation does not Life jackets and rafts Life rafts must be Life jackets must be
it further than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency require life jackets or must be available for all available for all available for all
landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One rafts to be taken on occupants. occupants. occupants.
engine out airspeed is 155 kt. board in this particular
case.
776 21 0
When a wire type fire system is tested: the wire is totally the wiring and the Only the warning a part of the wire is
777 21 heated. warning are tested. function is tested. totally heated. 0
If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the Negative cabin Positive cabin Negative differential Positive cabin
pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum: differential pressure at differential pressure at pressure at maximum differential pressure at
maximum operating maximum cabin altitude. cabin altitude. maximum operating
ceiling. ceiling.
778 21 0
In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of Mechanical (pneumatic Thermal (use of hot air). Physical/chemical Electrical (electrical
modern commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is: source which acts by (glycol-based liquid). resistances).
deforming the profiles of
the leading edge).

779 21 0
With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford The pneumatic The pneumatic The pneumatic The inflatable de-ice
protection against the formation of ice, the only correct statement is: mechanical device can mechanical device is mechanical device can boots of the pneumatic
only be used as a de- used a lot on modern only be used as an anti- mechanical device are
icing device. aircraft as it is icing device. arranged perpendicular
inexpensive and easy to to the leading edges.
maintain.

780 21 1
 Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true on modern aeroplanes, on modern aeroplanes, on modern aeroplanes, on modern aeroplanes,
statement is: electrically powered electrical power supply electrically powered electrically powered
thermal devices are being available in thermal devices are thermal devices are
used to prevent icing on excess, this system is very efficient, therefore used as de-icing
small surfaces (pitot- very often used for large they only need little devices for pitot-tubes,
static, windshield...). surfaces de-icing. energy. static ports, windshield...

781 21 1
The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft 1, 2, 4, 5 1, 4, 5, 7 1, 2, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 8
are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1) engine air intake and pod._x000D_
2) front glass shield._x000D_
3) radome._x000D_
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts._x000D_
5) leading edge of wing._x000D_
6) cabin windows._x000D_
7) trailing edge of wings._x000D_
8) electronic equipment compartment._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

782 21 1
In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing gives medical protects all the protects the members of protects the members of
equipment: assistance to certain occupants against the the crew against the the crew against fumes
passengers with effects of accidental effects of accidental and noxious gases.
respiratory disorders. depressurization. depressurization.

783 21 0
When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is: only able to transmit. not able to do any radio able to radiotelephone. only able to receive.
784 21 communication. 0
Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help 8 ft, aeroplane on the 8 ft, aeroplane on the 6 ft, aeroplane on the 6 ft, aeroplane on the
the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a ground, one main gear ground, landing gear ground, landing gear ground, one main gear
height above the ground greater than: or nose gear collapse. extended. extended. or nose gear collapse.
785 21 0
The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained hot air coming from the hot air coming from the a fuel heater system. an electrical heater
from : engine's compressors. engine's turbines. system.
786 21 1
In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components there will be no effect on the engine fire the fire alarm is the power supply is cut
(with no fault protection), if the line is accidently grounded: the system extinguisher striker is triggered. off automatically.
automatically activated.
787 21 0
 A turbo-fan cold air unit will: not affect the charge air increase charge air decrease charge air cause a pressure drop
pressure. pressure whilst causing pressure whilst causing as well as an associated
hte temperature to drop hte temperature to rise temperature drop in the
in the heat exchanger. in the heat exchanger. charge air.

788 21 0
In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed protect the flight crew protect all the occupants protect certain give medical assistance
to: and cabin attendants against the effects of passengers, and is only to passengers with
against fumes and accidental carried on board for pathological respiratory
noxious gases. depressurisation. these people. disorders.

789 21 0
An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 220. 230. 200. 180.
and has the following characteristics:_x000D_
Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the
certificate of airworthiness= 230_x000D_
Number of seats on board= 200_x000D_
Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180_x000D_
The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in the aircraft
cabin should be:
790 21 1
From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning FL 300. FL 390. FL 100. FL 250.
type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?
791 21 0
What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask? Cabin air and oxygen or A mixture of oxygen and Cabin air and oxygen. 100% oxygen.
792 21 100% oxygen. freon gas. 0
In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used HF VHF UHF VLF
793 21 in the following frequencies: 1
The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is: 24.60 cm 2.46 cm 24.60 m 2.46 m
794 21 0
For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable Its penetration power is It is not absorbed by It allows greater It better detects clouds
to C Band because: higher. heavy precipitations. scanning rates. contour and range is
greater with the same
transmission power.

795 21 0
 DURALUMIN alloys :_x000D_ 1,4,5 2,4,5 1,3,6 2,3,6
_x000D_
1 have an aluminium-copper base._x000D_
2 have an aluminium-magnesium base._x000D_
3 are easy to weld._x000D_
4 are difficult to weld._x000D_
5 have a good thermal conductivity._x000D_
6 have a poor air corrosion resistance_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

796 21 1
For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts :_x000D_ 2,5,6 1,5,6 2,3,4 1,3,4
_x000D_
1 The mounting principle is parallel mounting._x000D_
2 No routine check is necessary._x000D_
3 The member is removed at the end of the calculated life
cycle._x000D_
4 Certain components may not be accessible._x000D_
5 The principle is the redundancy of components_x000D_
6 The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the
other system components._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

797 21 0
A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will: inhibit the fire detector activate the fire automatically initiate activate an alarm in the
when the detection line detection system when APU shutdown and fire cockpit and in the
is connected to ground. the detection line is extinguisher striker landing gear bay for
connected to ground. activation in the event of ground crew.
fire.
798 21 1
"Conditioned" air is air that has: oxygen content oxygen content been controled in oxygen content
increased. reduced. respect of temperature regulated to a preset
and pressure. value.
799 21 0
The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is: Used on a continual Harmful to the integrity Only used when hot-air Used only at low
basis as it reduces the of the windows in the demisting is insufficient. altitudes where there is
thermal gradients which event of a bird strike. a risk of ice formation.
adversely affect the
useful life of the
components.
800 21 1
On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are : Installed only in the not necessary at all. Located on the engines. Installed in each tank.
801 21 center tank. 0
 The automatic fuelling shut off valve: stops fuelling as soon stops fuelling as soon cuts off the fuel in case stops fuelling as soon
as a certain pressure is as a certain fuel level is of engine fire. as the fuel spills into the
reached. reached inside the tank. ventline.
802 21 0
During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the the surge vent tank is there is fire. the fuel has reached a fuelling system has
fuel supply system when: filled. predetermined volume reached a certain
or mass. pressure.
803 21 0
(For this question use annex 021-980A)_x000D_ after high pressure after low pressure valve after high pressure in the fuel control unit
The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel- pump first stage (item (item 1). valve (item 4). (item 3).
flow measurement is carried out : 2).
804 21 0
The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to: maintain the correct reduce the fuel-to-air increase the fuel-to-air maintain a constant fuel
weight fuel to air ratio ratio when altitude ratio when altitude metering whatever the
when the altitude increases. increases. altitude.
increases.
805 21 1
The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning All fuel until the All up to a defined 15 tons. All fuel.
system is: maximum landing reserve quantity.
weight is reached.
806 21 0
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin 14000 ft (approx. 4200 8000 ft (approx. 2400 12000 ft (approx. 3600 10000 ft (approx. 3000
altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following m) m) m) m)
altitude:
807 21 0
The pack cooling fan provides: cooling air to the cooling air to the cooling air to the pre- air to the eyeball outlets
primary and secondary primary and secondary cooler. at the Passenger
heat exchanger during heat exchanger during Service Unit (PSU).
cruise. slow flight and ground
operation.

808 21 0
The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several P: pre-cools the engine P: precools the engine P: warms up engine P: warms up engine
components: these include two heat exchangers; the primary bleed air_x000D_ bleed air_x000D_ bleed air_x000D_ bleed air_x000D_
exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S)._x000D_ S: increases the S: reduces the S: recirculates the cabin S: increases the
The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows: temperature of the air temperature of the air air, reducing its temperature of air
used for air-conditioning from the primary temperature. originating from the
of cargo compartment exchanger or from the compressor of the pack.
(animals). pack's compressor.

809 21 0
The trim tab : reduces hinge moment increases hinge increases hinge reduces hinge moment
and increases control moment and control moment and reduces and control surface
surface efficiency. surface efficiency. control surface efficiency.
efficiency.
810 21 0
 The term "cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane: has the ability to has the ability to has the means to is only pressurized in
maintain constant any maintain a constant maintain the cabin the area of the control
cabin differential cabin altitude at all flight pressure at a higher cabin.
pressure. altitudes. level than the ambient
pressure.
811 21 0
When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage increased. dependent on the unaffected. decreased.
oxygen content is: degree of
pressurisation.
812 21 0
The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning source of the charge air. means by which charge air across the cold air unit (air cycle
and pressurisation system, refers to the: pressurisation is inter-cooler heat machine) arrangement.
controlled. exchanger.
813 21 0
In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first: compressed, then goes passed across an passed across an compressed, then
through a heat expansion turbine, then expansion turbine, then passed across an
exchanger, and across compressed and directly to the heat expansion turbine
an expansion turbine. passed through a heat exchanger. through a heat
exchanger. exchanger.
814 21 1
In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the secondary heat secondary heat turbine outlet of the cold compressor outlet of the
mass air flow is routed via the: exchanger outlet to the exchanger outlet to the air unit to the primary cold air unit to the
turbine inlet of the cold compressor inlet of the heat exchanger inlet. primary heat exchanger
air unit. cold air unit. inlet.
815 21 1
Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo- compressor section. fan section. turbine section. by-pass ducting.
816 21 jet aeroplanes is usually taken from the: 1
The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine): drives the compressor increases the pressure drives the compressor drives the compressor
which provides of the air supply to the in the unit and causes a in the unit, creating a
pressurisation. cabin. pressure increase in the temperature drop in the
conditioning air. conditioning air.

817 21 0
In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of an expansion turbine. a compressor. a condenser. an evaporator.
818 21 air temperature and pressure is achieved by: 1
In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in ensure an adequate increase the cabin air ensure an adequate maintain a constant
the cold air unit to: pressure and supply pressure when charge air flow across cabin mass air flow.
temperature drop the charge pressure is the inter-cooler heat
across the cooling too low. exchanger.
turbine.
819 21 1
Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water before the cooling just after the heat after the cooling turbine. before the heat
820 21 separation unit is placed: turbine. exchangers. exchangers. 0
 The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization regulate cabin pressure Maintain a constant and regulate cabin pressure discharge cabin air to
system is to : at the maximum cabin sufficient mass air flow to the selected altitude. atmosphere if cabin
pressure differential. to ventilate the cabin pressure rises above
and minimise cabin the selected altitude.
pressure surges.

821 21 0
In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to: prevent pump cavitation seal the system keep the hydraulic fluid reduce fluid
at optimum temperature combustibility
822 21 1
The purpose of a shuttle valve is to: Protect a hydraulic Relieve excess Prevent overloading of Supply an operating unit
system from pressure in hydraulic the hydraulic pump. with the most
overpressure. systems. appropriate system
pressure.
823 21 0
Shuttle valves will automatically: Switch hydraulically Shut down systems Guard systems against Reduce pump loads.
operated units to the which are overloaded. overpressure.
most appropriate
pressure supply.
824 21 1
In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system as a pressure relief for damping pressure for fluid storage. for pressure storage.
825 21 is used : valve. surges in the system. 0
In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion: of Freon in a heat of Freon in the turbine. in the turbine. in a pressure relief
826 21 exchanger. valve. 0
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential increases remains constant may exceed the decreases
pressure: maximum permitted
differential unless
immediate preventative
action is taken.

827 21 0
The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, 2, 6, 4 5, 6, 1 4, 5, 3 1, 2, 3
is to perform the following functions:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. control of cabin altitude,_x000D_
2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change,_x000D_
3. limitation of differential pressure_x000D_
4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude_x000D_
5. cabin ventilation_x000D_
6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight
phases._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

828 21 0
 During a normal pressurised climb after take-off: the pressurisation the cabin differential absolute cabin pressure cabin pressure
system is inoperative pressure is maintained increases to decreases more slowly
until an altitude of 10 constant compensate for the fall than atmospheric
000 feet is reached in pressure outside the pressure
aircraft
829 21 0
In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical equal to the zero -fuel equal to half the weight lowest at the wing root highest at the wing root
loads that produce a bending moment which is: weight multiplied by the of the aircraft multiplied
span by the semi span
830 21 0
Main cabin temperature is: controlled automatically, controlled by individual not controllable at the Only controllable at
or by flight crew passenger. maximum cabin maximum cabin
selection. differential pressure. differential pressure.
831 21 1
In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the Water and glycol. Synthetic oil. Mineral oil. Vegetable oil.
832 21 fluids used are: 0
Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value a constant mass air flow the outflow valves will the pressurisation the outflow valves will
in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained: is permitted through the move to the fully open system ceases to move to the fully closed
cabin. position. function until leakage position.
reduces the pressure.

833 21 1
Cabin pressure is controlled by : the cabin air mass flow delivering a controlling the flow of air the cabin air re-
control inlet valve(s). substantially constant into the cabin with a circulation system.
flow of air into the cabin constant outflow.
and controlling the
outflow.
834 21 0
During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could Fully closed until the Partially open. fully closed until the At the pre-set position
be decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are: cabin descends to a cabin climbs to a for take-off.
selected altitude. selected altitude.
835 21 0
The purpose of a ditching control is to: achieve rapid open the outflow direct pressurisation air close the outflow
depressurisation. valve(s). to the flotation bags. valve(s).
836 21 0
The cabin pressure is regulated by the: Air cycle machine. Air conditioning pack. Cabin inlet airflow valve. Outflow valve.
837 21 0
The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by : The engine's bleed The cabin outflow valve. The cabin inlet airflow. The engine's RPM.
838 21 valves. 0
Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between: actual cabin pressure cabin pressure and cockpit and passenger cabin pressure and
and selected pressure. ambient air pressure. cabin. ambient air pressure at
MSL.
839 21 0
Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not 8000 ft 4000 ft 6000 ft 10000 ft
840 21 allowed to exceed: 1
 Cabin altitude means the: difference in height flight level the aircraft is flight level altitude at cabin pressure
between the cabin floor flying at. maximum differential expressed as altitude.
and ceiling. pressure.
841 21 0
(For this question use annex 021-786A)_x000D_ FL 230 FL 340 FL 280 FL 180
In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a
cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure
to 5 psi._x000D_
The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin
altitude is:
842 21 1
An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when: the elevators are the elevators are fitted there is a trimmable the elevators are
actuated by irreversible with servo-tabs or trim stabilizer. actuated by reversible
servo-control units. tabs. servo-control units.
843 21 1
On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for ground power unit, the ground power unit, the ground power unit, the ground power unit.
the: starting system, the air air conditioning unit. starting system.
conditioning unit.
844 21 1
The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to: lower manoeuvring reduce or to cancel trim the aeroplane trim the aeroplane at
845 21 control forces. control forces. during normal flight. low airspeed. 0
A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to : avoid rotation of the absorb the spring control the wheels. lock the landing gear.
piston rod relative to the tension.
gear oleo strut.
846 21 1
In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system Mechanically driven. Pneumatically driven. Electrically driven. Hydraulically driven.
847 21 is usually: 0
Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear Mechanically Electrically. Pneumatically. By hydraulic
be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure. accumulators.
848 21 1
If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the Used on the nose wheel Repaired several times. repaired once. Never repaired.
849 21 tyre can be: only. 0
The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the brake Increased on the faster Decreased on the faster Increased on the slower Decreased on the
pressure will be : turning wheels. turning wheels. turning wheels. slower turning wheels.
850 21 0
The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a: Belt brake. Multiple disk brake. Drum type brake. Single disk brake.
851 21 0
The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they : release air from the tyre release air from the tyre prevent the brakes from prevent heat transfer
in case of overpressure. in case of overheating. overheating. from the brake disks to
the tyres.
852 21 0
 In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their To switch to the To isolate a part of the To allow by-passing of a To prevent total system
function is : secondary system in system and protect it hydraulic pump in case loss in case of a leaking
case of a leak in the against accidental it is subject to excessive hydraulic line.
primary brake system. pollution. pressure, without further
damage to the system.

853 21 0
The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:_x000D_ 3 and 5 1 and 2 1 and 5 2 and 3
_x000D_
1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate
the control surfaces_x000D_
2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike_x000D_
3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of
systems_x000D_
4. immunity to different interfering signals_x000D_
5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight
envelope_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

854 21 1
The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is: mixture of mineral oil mineral oil synthetic oil vegetable oil
855 21 and alcohol 0
An artificial feel unit system: is mounted in parallel on must be mounted in must be mounted in is necessary on a
a spring tab. parallel on an series on an irreversible reversible servodyne
irreversible servo- servo-control unit. unit.
control unit.
856 21 0
Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:_x000D_ 1, 3, 4, 6 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 5, 7 2, 3, 4, 5
_x000D_
1. thermal stability_x000D_
2. low emulsifying characteristics_x000D_
3. corrosion resistance_x000D_
4. good resistance to combustion_x000D_
5. high compressibility_x000D_
6. high volatility_x000D_
7. high viscosity_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

857 21 0
 In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 1200 psi 4200 psi 1800 psi 3000 psi
psi._x000D_
An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a
system pressure of 3000 psi. _x000D_
The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section
of the accumulator, reads:
858 21 0
Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed? At the pumps. In the reservoirs. At actuators. At the coolers.
859 21 1
Hydraulic fluids : Cause high fire risk. Do not require special Are irritating to eyes and Are irritating to eyes and
care. skin and cause high fire skin.
risk.
860 21 0
Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are: Water base fluids. Vegetable base fluids. Mineral base fluids. Phosphate ester base
861 21 fluids. 0
Hydraulic power is a function of : Pump size and volume System pressure and Pump RPM only. System pressure and
862 21 flow. volume flow. tank capacity. 0
Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a 3000 psi 4000 psi 2000 psi 1000 psi
863 21 system pressure of approximately: 1
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass:_x000D_ 2,4 1,3,5 1,2,3 2,5
1 Is a limitation set by regulation._x000D_
2 Is designed for a maximum load factor._x000D_
3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root._x000D_
4 Requires to empty external tanks first._x000D_
5 Requires to empty internal tanks first._x000D_
The correct combination of true statements is :
864 21 0
Thermal plugs are installed in: cabin windows. cargo compartments. wheel rims. fire warning systems.
865 21 0
What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open The turbine shaft will The turbine blades will The manifold air The power of the motor
throttle if the waste gate is seized ? break. separate. pressure (MAP) value will decrease.
may exceed the
maximum allowed
value.
866 21 0
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of: the total turbine outlet the total turbine outlet the total turbine inlet the total turbine inlet
pressure to the total pressure to the total pressure to the total pressure to the total
compressor inlet compressor outlet compressor inlet compressor outlet
pressure. pressure. pressure. pressure.
867 21 1
The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke engine (TDC = before TDC at each behind TDC at each behind TDC at each before TDC at each
Top Dead Center) crankshaft revolution. crankshaft revolution. second crankshaft second crankshaft
revolution. revolution.
868 21 0
869 21 The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by : Torque times RPM. Work times velocity. Force times distance. Pressure times arm. 1
The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a Heat loss power. Indicated horse power. Brake horse power. Friction horse power.
870 21 friction brake is : 0
 The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the: propeller blades. accessory gear box. camshaft. gear box which is
located between the
engine and the
propeller.
871 21 0
The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant temperature. air density. engine temperature. humidity.
872 21 power lever setting, because of the decreasing : 0
The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are : cold and dry air at high warm and humid air at cold and humid air at warm and dry air at high
873 21 pressure. low pressure. high pressure. pressure. 1
The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases lower losses during the lower friction losses. leaner mixture at higher lower back pressure.
with increasing altitude at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and gas change. altitudes.
RPM because of the :
874 21 0
The passenger oxygen mask will supply : a mixture of oxygen and a mixture of cabin air 100 % oxygen. a mixture of
freon gas. and oxygen. compressed air and
oxygen or 100 %
oxygen.
875 21 0
876 21 The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is : a hybrid compressor. a piston compressor. a radial compressor. an axial compressor. 0
The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by : switching the diluter switching the passenger switching the diluter opening the oxygen-
demand regulator and oxygen ON. demand regulator ON. bottle valves.
the passenger oxygen
ON.
877 21 0
One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that : there is no danger of it uses the exhaust gas it has a better there is no torsion at the
knocking. energy which normally propulsive efficiency. crankshaft.
is lost.
878 21 0
With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an RPM and Fuel Flow RPM and MAP indicator. RPM and EGT indicator. RPM indicator.
879 21 aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller? indicator. 0
An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is control the fuel assist the pilot to settle control the cylinder control the carburator
880 21 used to : temperature. correct mixture. head temperature. inlet air flow. 0
During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture Manifold Air Pressure RPM decreases. Manifold Air Pressure RPM increases.
881 21 being constant) the : (MAP) decreases. (MAP) increases. 1
The conditions which can cause knocking are : High manifold pressure Low manifold pressure Low manifold pressure High manifold pressure
and high revolutions per and high revolutions per and high fuel flow. and low revolutions per
minute. minute. minute.
882 21 0
Which of the following qualitative statements about a fixed propeller blades reduces to zero. blade is relatively high. blade is relatively small. airfoil section is
optimized for cruise condition, is true for the take-off case? The angle negative.
of attack of the propeller :
883 21 0
 The 'constant speed propeller' has its best efficiency during only above and below in general a worse only at the design speed
climb. the design point a better efficiency than the fixed a better efficiency than
efficiency than the fixed propeller. the fixed propeller.
propeller with the same
design speed.

884 21 0
What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a "constant speed It will increase It will increase and after It will decrease so that It will remain the same
propeller" if the manifold pressure is increased ? a short time it will be the the engine can increase
same again
885 21 1
The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at: low airspeeds with low low airspeeds with high high airspeeds with low high airspeeds with high
886 21 power setting. power setting. power setting. power setting. 0
During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM stays constant. increases. decreases. only stays constant if
indication and constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston the speed control lever
engine : is pushed forward.
887 21 0
The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes pneumatically. with hot air. with anti-icing fluid. electrically.
888 21 works 0
If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside negative pressure relief outflow valve open air cycle machine will negative pressure relief
889 21 ambient air pressure the : valve will close completely. stop. valve will open. 0
Static dischargers :_x000D_ 2,4,5. 1,2,5. 1,3,4. 3,4,5.
_x000D_
1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical
potential_x000D_
2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical
discharge_x000D_
3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value
approximating 0 volts_x000D_
4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence with the on-
board radiocommunication systems to a minimum_x000D_
5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft
and the electrified clouds_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

890 21 1
The octane rating of a fuel characterises the : fuel volatility quantity of heat fuel electrical the anti-knock capability
generated by its conductivity
combustion
891 21 0
The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the fire point self ignition point flash point combustion point
vapour ignites in contact with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is
the:
892 21 0
 'Fail safe construction' is : A simple and cheap type A type of construction A construction which is A type of construction in
of construction. for small aircraft only. suitable for aerobatic which the load is carried
flight. by other components if
a part of the structure
fails.

893 21 0
The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against Synthetic fluid. Mineral oil based fluid. Vegetable oil based fluid Water and glycol based
894 21 cavitation is : (caster oil). fluid. 1
The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet Electrical de-icing Hot air system. Pneumatic system with Liquid de-icing system.
aeroplanes is the system. expandable boots.
895 21 0
During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect leading edges only. leading edges, slats and the whole upper wing slats and the leading
the leading edge flaps. surface and the flaps. edge flaps only.
896 21 0
The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is 2 adiabatic and 1 2 adiabatic and 2 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric 2 adiabatic and 2
enclosed by the following gas state change lines isothermic lines. isobaric lines. and 1 isobaric lines. isochoric lines.
897 21 0
The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of Thermal anti-icing. Fluid de-icing. Pneumatic boots. Electrical heating.
898 21 modern turboprop aeroplanes is : 0
In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller' the spring force turns the oil pressure turns the oil pressure turns the aerodynamic force
the propeller blades the propeller blades the propeller blades turns the propeller
towards smaller pitch towards higher pitch towards smaller pitch blades towards higher
angle. angle. angle. pitch angle.

899 21 0
A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated .. When there are Only at take-off and When there is When entering areas
approximately 5 cm of during approach. approximately 1,5 cm of with icing conditions.
ice on leading edges ice on leading edges.
900 21 0
A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by checking the wiring checking the sensor heating up the sensor checking the continuity
harness for faults but with pressurized gas. with test power of the system with a test
not the sensor. connection. switch.
901 21 0
Smoke detector systems are installed in the engine nacelles. fuel tanks. upper cargo wheel wells.
compartments (class E).
902 21 0
The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the water. carbon dioxide. freon. sand.
903 21 ground is : 0
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in seat rows in the cabin. passengers in the cabin. emergency exits in the seats in the cabin.
the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number cabin.
of :
904 21 0
 In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in tyres. landing gear bays / cabin. fuel tanks.
905 21 the: wheel wells. 0
The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes must be arranged to must be arranged to depends on the decision must be in accordance
allow all passengers allow at least 50 % of all of the manufacturer in with the number of
and all crew members to passengers to leave the agreement with the passengers on board.
leave the aeroplane aeroplane within 2 operator.
within 90 sec. through minutes.
50 % of the available
emergency exits.

906 21 1
If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen _x000D_ passenger oxygen oxygen bottles will oxygen is discharged oxygen becomes
system is exceeded the: masks will drop down. explode. overboard via a safety unusable for the
plug. passengers.
907 21 0
The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen _x000D_ deliver oxygen flow only is only recommended mix air and oxygen in a deliver oxygen flow
system is to : above FL 100. with smoke in the passenger oxygen when inhaling.
cockpit. mask.
908 21 0
In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied by turbo compressors. ram air, heated via a the APU. bleed air from the
909 21 heat exchanger. engines. 0
Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively : low barometric high barometric weak mixture. rich mixture.
910 21 pressure. pressure. 0
Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the: mass of fuel and mass volume of fuel and volume of fuel and mass of fuel and mass
of air entering the volume of air entering volume of air entering of air entering the
cylinder. the carburettor. the cylinder. carburettor
911 21 1
Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of it reduces the volume of it reduces the density of it reduces the volume of it reduces the density of
carburettor heat? air entering the air entering the air entering the air entering the
carburettor,thus leaning carburettor, thus leaning carburettor,thus carburettor, thus
the fuel/air mixture the fuel/air mixture enriching the fuel/air enriching the fuel/air
mixture mixture
912 21 0
The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine the higher the octane the lower the octane the higher the octane compression ratio is
have which of the following relations? rating is, the higher the rating is, the higher the rating is, the lower the independent of the
possible compression possible compression possible compression octane rating.
ratio is ratio is ratio is.
913 21 1
Vapour lock is : vaporizing of fuel in the the inability of a fuel to vaporizing of fuel prior the formation of water
carburettor vaporize in the to reaching the vapour in a fuel system
carburettor carburettor
914 21 0
Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most use only high octane keep tank vents plugged keep tanks topped off drain tanks at end of
practical way to minimize this when an aircraft is used every day or gasoline and filler cap tight when the aircraft is not each day's flight
so is to : in use
915 21 0
 In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be it drains the carburettor the gasoline dilutes the it washes the lubricant it fouls the spark plugs
avoided because : float chamber oil and necessitates of cylinder walls
changing oil
916 21 0
The primary purpose of a supercharger is to : provide leaner mixtures provide a richer mixture maintain power at increase quantity of fuel
at altitudes below 5000 at high altitudes altitude at metering jet
ft
917 21 0
An excessively rich mixture can be detected by : black smoke from high cylinder head white smoke from a long purple flame from
918 21 exhaust. temperatures exhaust. exhaust. 1
An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists .. Only for counterrotating Only if the 'constant If the aeroplane has a If there is an
propeller speed propeller' large angle of attack. unbalanced propeller.
mechanism is broken.
919 21 0
Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when : the mixture is ignited a rich mixture is ignited the sparking plug ignites the mixture is ignited by
before the piston has by the sparking plugs. the mixture too early. abnormal conditions
reached top dead within the cylinder
centre. before the spark occurs
at the plug

920 21 0
In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur? main air bleed and main venturi and the throttle float chamber and fuel accelerator pump and
discharge nozzle valve inlet filter main metering jet
921 21 0
The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an maximum power. take-off power. critical power. rated power.
engine when it is operated at specified rpm and manifold pressure
conditons established as safe for continuous operation is termed :
922 21 0
A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned : upstream of the needle between the needle between the metering downstream of th
valve. valve and the metering jet and the discharge discharge nozzle.
jet. nozzle.
923 21 1
The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is : compression induction, induction, compression, induction, compression, induction, power,
power, exhaust. expansion, power. power, exhaust. compression, exhaust.
924 21 0
Specific fuel consumption is defined as the : maximum fuel mass of fuel required to designed fuel quantity of fuel required
consumption of the produce unit power for consumption for a given to run the engine for
aircraft. unit time. rpm. one minute at maximum
operating conditions.

925 21 0
In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to : prevent a weak cut weaken the mixture enrich the mixture correct for variations in
when the throttle is strength because of strength due to the fuel/air ratio due to
opened rapidly at reduced exhaust back decreased air density at decreased air density at
altitude. pressure at altitude. altitude. altitude.

926 21 0
 The purpose of an ignition switch is to : control the primary connect the secondary connect the battery to connect the contact
circuit of the magneto coil to the distributor the magneto breaker and condenser
in series with the
primary coil
927 21 1
Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current : from the booster coil. directly from the aircraft from the aircraft from a self-contained
batteries. batteries via an inverter. electro-magnetic
induction system.
928 21 0
On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller in a descent at a fixed manifold pressure the propeller setting is in level flight, manifold
: throttle setting manifold decreases as the constant at all indicated pressure will remain
pressure will always aircraft climbs at a fixed airspeeds. constant when the rpm
remain constant. throttle setting. is increased by opening
the throttle.
929 21 0
The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal enters at the periphery enters at a tangent to enters the eye of the enters via the diffuser
compressor : and leaves via the eye the rotor and leaves via impeller and leaves at a and is fed to the
of the impeller. the stator. tangent to the periphery. impeller at the optimum
angle of attack.

930 21 0
A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the : swept volume to the total volume to the clearance volume to the total volume to the
931 21 clearance volume. clearance volume. swept volume. swept volume. 0
932 21 In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a: key board screen unit hard disk drive printer 0
The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5 2, 3, 4
are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. a greater autonomy,_x000D_
2. no risk of explosion,_x000D_
3. reversible functioning,_x000D_
4. easy storage and maintenance,_x000D_
5. possibility to regulate flow._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

933 21 1
In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by : pulling the RPM lever pushing the RPM lever pushing the power lever pulling the power levers
934 21 backwards. forward. forward. backwards. 1
The crank assembly consists of propeller, crankshaft, Crankcase, crankshaft, crankshaft, camshaft, crankshaft, connecting
pistons and connecting connecting rods and valves, valve springs rods and pistons.
rods. pistons. and push rods.
935 21 0
Ignition systems of piston engines are : dependant on the DC- dependant on the AC- independant from the dependant on the
Generator. Generator. electrical system of the battery.
aircraft.
936 21 0
 The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to: serve to increase the provide the engine with provide the engine with feed cooling air to the
relative velocity at the additional air at high additional air at high engine cowling.
first compressor stage. power settings and low power settings at
air speeds. cruising speed.
937 21 0
Skip distance is the: highest critical wavelength distance of thickness of the range from the
frequency distance a certain frequency ionosphere transmitter to the first
sky wave
938 21 0
A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter attenuation refraction propagation ducting
939 21 increases, this is called : 1
On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition compression ratio piston displacement engine r.p.m. overall efficiency
940 21 settings are readjusted in order to increase the: 0
941 21 In a four-stroke piston engine, the only "driving" stroke is : intake compression exhaust firing-expansion 0
In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low compression of air at low volatility of aviation vaporization of fuel and freezing temperature of
temperature that causes carburettor ice is normally the result of: the carburettor venturi fuel expansion of the air in the air entering the
the carburettor carburettor
942 21 0
943 21 In computer technology, an input peripheral is a: keyboard screen unit hard disk drive diskette drive 1
The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the: automatic metering of increase in air velocity measurement of the fuel difference in air
air at the venturi as the in the throat of a venturi flow into the induction pressure at the venturi
aircraft gains altitude causing an increase in system throat and the air inlet
air pressure

944 21 0
In computer technology, an EPROM is:_x000D_ 1,4 1,3 2,3 2,4
_x000D_
1. a read-only memory_x000D_
2. a write memory_x000D_
3. erases its content when power supply is cut off_x000D_
4. keeps its content when power supply is cut off_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
945 21 1
On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a: leading edge flap close leading edge flap close leading edge flap trailing edge flap
946 21 to the wing root to the wing tip 0
The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following Lower frequency ang Higher frequency and Lower frequency and Higher frequency and
change in circumstance occurs : higher position of the lower position of the lower position of the higher position of the
reflecting ionospheric reflecting ionospheric reflecting ionospheric reflecting ionospheric
layer layer layer layer
947 21 0
Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at cruising speed idling full throttle take-off
948 21 : 1
If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch the engine cannot be a still operating engine the engine cannot be the power developed by
becomes disconnected the most noticeable result will be that: shut down by turning the will run down started with the ignition the engine will be
ignition switch to the switch in the "ON" strongly reduced
"OFF" position position
949 21 1
 For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent a properly functioning a lean fuel/air mixture the circulation of a rich fuel/air mixture
950 21 on: thermostat lubricating oil 0
The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power exhaust valve closed intake valve closed and both valves open. both valves closed.
stroke are : and intake valve open. exhaust valve open.
951 21 0
The main purpose of the mixture control is to: adjust the fuel flow to decrease the air increase the oxygen decrease oxygen
obtain the proper fuel/air supplied to the engine supplied to the engine supplied to the engine
ratio
952 21 1
In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers the 'minimum control the right engine is the the left engine is the the left engine produces
speed' is determined by critical motor. critical motor. a higher yaw moment if
the failure of the right the right engine fails
engine. than vice versa.

953 21 0
954 21 In computer technology, an output peripheral is a: hard disk drive diskette drive screen unit keyboard 0
The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit results 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5
in:_x000D_
1. automatic disconnection of the generator from the aircraft AC
busbar_x000D_
2. opening of generator field current relay_x000D_
3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker_x000D_
4. opening of balancing circuit connecting two generators_x000D_
5. lighting of an indicator lamp_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

955 21 0
A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted 12000 ft. 14000 ft. 15000 ft. 13000 ft.
with individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of
depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before
the cabin pressure altitude exceeds:

956 21 0
Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all 490. 410. 300. 250.
957 21 times during commercial flight. 0
A diluter demand oxygen regulator : mixes air and oxygen in delivers oxygen flow delivers oxygen flow is only recommended
a passenger oxygen when inhaling. only above FL 100. for use with smoke in
mask. the cockpit.
958 21 0
A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 3 passengers for the 1 passenger for the no first aid required. 1 passenger for the
passenger are on board and the expected Flight Level on route entire flight after cabin entire flight after cabin entire flight after cabin
Paris-Alger is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at depressurization at depressurization at depressurization at
departure shall provide breathing supply for at least: cabin altitude between cabin altitude of more cabin altitude between
10000 and 14000 ft. than 8000 ft. 10000 and 14000 ft.

959 21 0
 As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information the aircraft reaches FL take-off. the aircraft reaches FL the aircraft reaches FL
must be given to passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to 250. 100. 140.
be carried out at Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be
completed before :
960 21 0
In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in gaseous. liquid. chemical. chemical or gaseous.
961 21 the following state: 1
The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 1, 4, 6 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
are:_x000D_
1. simple connection_x000D_
2. high starting torque_x000D_
3. flexibility in use_x000D_
4. lighter weight of equipment_x000D_
5. easy to convert into direct current_x000D_
6. easy maintenance of machines_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

962 21 0
On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium- 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 3, 4, 6, 7 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
Nickel. Their advantages are:_x000D_
1. low risk of thermal runaway_x000D_
2. high internal resistance, hence higher power_x000D_
3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating_x000D_
4. wider permissible temperature range_x000D_
5. good storage capability_x000D_
6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing_x000D_
7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during
charging._x000D_
The combination of correct statement is:

963 21 0
Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing 2, 4. 2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 4.
when:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the
ground_x000D_
2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions_x000D_
_x000D_
This effect is overcome by means of:_x000D_
_x000D_
3. the torque link_x000D_
4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:

964 21 0
A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance voltage coil and the voltage coil and the generator and the series shunt exciter and the
965 21 between the: series winding turn. series winding. winding turn. series winding turn. 1
 The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers assist the skin in withstand the shear provide sound and integrate the strains due
whose purpose is to: absorbing the stresses. thermal isolation. to pressurization to
longitudinal traction- which the skin is
compression stresses. subjected and convert
them into a tensile
stress.
966 21 1
When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator the exciter breaker, the the tie breaker. the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
connected to the mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation generator breaker and the generator breaker.
protection device opens: the tie breaker.
967 21 1
When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on only one AC tie breaker. generator breaker and exciter breaker and exciter breaker,
generator, the protection device opens the : tie breaker. generator breaker. generator breaker and
tie breaker.
968 21 0
When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected exciter breaker. exciter breaker and exciter breaker, generator breaker.
to the aircraft AC busbar, the protection device opens the: generator breaker. generator breaker and
tie breaker.
969 21 0
A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by : air tapped from the low air via a ram air intake. water at 8 degrees a fan located before the
pressure compressor. centrigade from the air- generator.
conditioning system.
970 21 0
The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in : series with the shunt series with the parallel with the shunt parallel with the
971 21 field coil. armature. field coil. armature. 1
On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the stabilizer winding the auxiliary winding. a set of permanent the main field winding.
the generator is activated by: jointly with the voltage magnets.
regulator.
972 21 0
An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place: fully in the rotor. in the stator and in the in order to produce a fully in the stator.
rotor. degree of jet propulsion
< 1/2.
973 21 0
Landing gear torque links are used to: maintain the compass prevent rotation of the take up the lateral prevent the extension of
heading throughout landing gear piston in stresses to which the the landing gear oleo
taxiing and take-off. the oleo strut. gear is subjected. strut rod.
974 21 0
The function of a fusible plug is to protect against protect the tyre against protect the brake function as a special
excessive pressure in explosion due to against brake disk circuit breaker in the
the pneumatic system. excessive temperature. fusion due to excessive electric system
temperature.

975 21 0
On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator the exciter breaker and the exciter breaker, the The generator breaker The generator breaker.
connected to the aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device the generator breaker. generator breaker and and tie breaker.
opens: tie breaker.
976 21 1
The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: metric. hectometric. myriametric. decimetric.
977 21 0
 In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by both a CHT gauge and both engine rpm a manifold pressure a cylinder head
: manifold pressure readings and a manifold gauge only. temperature gauge
gauge. pressure gauge. (CHT), a manifold
pressure gauge, and
engine rpm readings.
978 21 0
When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal 0.5 0 1 0.1
979 21 to: 0
The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF cathode-ray tube. VHF transmitter- VHF compass operating VHF receiver operating
direction finder is a: receiver operating in the in the 200 kHz to 1750 in the 118 MHz to 136
118 MHz to 136 MHz kHz range. MHz range.
range.
980 21 0
The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following decimetric. centimetric. hectometric. myriametric.
981 21 wavelengths: 1
982 21 The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths: centimetric. metric. hectometric. myriametric. 1
983 21 The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths: metric. hectometric. decimetric. centimetric. 1
The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following metric. hectometric. decimetric. centimetric.
984 21 wavelengths: 1
The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following hectometric. metric. centimetric. decimetric.
985 21 wavelengths: 0
986 21 The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths: hectometric. myriametric. metric. centimetric. 0
A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of seats exceeded by 10%. seats. passengers. passengers exceeded
oxygen dispensing units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the by 10%.
same as the total number of :
987 21 1
The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following myriametric. centimetric. metric. hectometric.
988 21 wavelengths: 0
Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the 2, 3, 4, 5 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4, 6
oxygen regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is
to:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to
about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)_x000D_
2. supply pure oxygen_x000D_
3. supply diluted oxygen_x000D_
4. supply oxygen at normal pressure_x000D_
5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure_x000D_
6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin
altitude_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

989 21 1
The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: decimetric. metric. centimetric. myriametric.
990 21 0
 The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths: decimetric. centimetric. hectometric or metric.
991 21 kilometric. 0
A thermal circuit breaker: forbids any overcurrent. can be reset without any protects the system in is a protection system
danger even if the fault the event of with a quick break
remains. overheating, even capacity of about one
without exceeding the hundredth of a second.
maximum permissible
current.
992 21 0
The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which: must have the same supplies the aircraft with is driven at constant is excited by its
characteristics as the three-phase 115-200 V, speed throught a Generator Control Unit
main AC generator so 400 Hz AC. Constant Speed Drive (GCU) as soon as the
that it can be easily (CSD), in the same way APU starts up.
coupled with the latter. as the main AC
generator.
993 21 0
As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it 2, 3 3, 4 2, 4 1, 3
can be said that:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage_x000D_
2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record
the failure_x000D_
3. All the commands originating from the control panel are applied via
the GCU, except dog clutch release_x000D_
4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC
generator as soon as the APU starts up_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

994 21 1
995 21 Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are: purple. pink. blue. red. 1
A magnetic circuit-breaker is: a protection system that permits an overcurrent can be reset without any is a system with a slow
has a quick tripping limited in time. danger even when fault response time.
response. remains.
996 21 1
 A tubeless tyre is a tyre:_x000D_ 1, 5, 6. 3, 4, 5. 1, 2, 5. 2, 3, 6.
_x000D_
1. which requires solid or branched wheels_x000D_
2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations_x000D_
3. whose mounting rim must be flawless_x000D_
4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire
removing device_x000D_
5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture_x000D_
6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the
tire_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

997 21 1
The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the locked-down. in the required position. locked-down and its not in the required
998 21 landing gear is : door is locked. position. 1
999 21 The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths: centimetric. metric. hectometric. decimetric. 0
Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in 1,4 1, 2, 4 3 2, 3
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. an emergency in the case of depressurization._x000D_
2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a
passenger._x000D_
3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin._x000D_
5. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1000 21 1
Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock Springs. Nitrogen and a viscous Nitrogen. Oxygen.
1001 21 absorber used on larger aircraft ? liquid. 0
In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing A bolt. A latch located in the An aural warning horn. A warning light which is
gear being inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of : landing gear lever. activated by the WOW
(Weight On Wheels)
sensor system.

1002 21 0
The function of the selector valve is to: select the system to automatically activate discharge some communicate system
which the hydraulic the hydraulic system. hydraulic fluid if the pressure to either side
pump should supply system pressure is too of an actuator.
pressure. high.
1003 21 0
The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear A hydraulic pump. An accumulator. A Pressure regulator. An actuator or jack.
1004 21 motion is called ... 0
The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce: small pressure and small pressure and high pressure and large high pressure and small
1005 21 large flow. small flow. flow. flow. 0
 A relay is : A switch specially An electrical energy An electromagnetically An electrical security
designed for AC circuits. conversion unit. operated switch. switch.
1006 21 0
1007 21 The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is : 50 Hz. 60 Hz. 400 Hz. 200 Hz. 0
Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output maintain the intensity of decrease the intensity of increase the intensity of change the direction of
voltage. If the electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will : the excitation current the excitation current. the excitation current. the excitation current.
constant.
1008 21 0
A main landing gear is said to be "locked down" when: the actuating cylinder is the corresponding the strut is locked by an it is in the down position.
at the end of it's travel. indicator lamp is amber. overcentre mechanism.
1009 21 0
In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in pilot must disconnect it pilot must disconnect it, pilot can disconnect it to pilot has to throttle back.
the red arc the: and manually control and the generator is not allow it to cool and use it
the alternator. available for the rest of again.
flight.
1010 21 0
Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning Angle of attack and Angle of attack, flaps Angle of attack, flaps Angle of attack and
computers? flaps and spoilers deflection and EPR. deflection, EPR and N1. flaps and slats
deflection. deflection.
1011 21 0
Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with : two oxygen systems only portable oxygen two independent oxygen only one oxygen system
both supplying the bottles. systems, one supplying supplying the whole
cockpit and the cabin. the cockpit, the other aircraft.
the cabin.
1012 21 0
When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen is constant whatever the is 100 %. increases when the decreases when the
mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator: altitude. altitude increases. altitude increases.
1013 21 0
In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the a mixture of oxygen and pure oxygen under pure oxygen at the cabin air under
1014 21 passenger breathes : cabin air. pressure. ambient pressure. pressure. 1
Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the : cockpit only. toilets only. cabin only. cockpit and the cabin.
1015 21 0
1016 21 The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about : 30 minutes. 2 hours. 5 minutes. 15 minutes. 0
The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 4, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
cabin are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. reduced weight and volume,_x000D_
2. easy storage and maintenance,_x000D_
3. greater autonomy,_x000D_
4. no risk of explosion,_x000D_
5. reversible functioning,_x000D_
6. no maintenance._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1017 21 0
 The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
cabin are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. a flow which cannot be modulated,_x000D_
2. a heavy and bulky system,_x000D_
3. non reversible functioning,_x000D_
4. risks of explosion,_x000D_
5. poor autonomy._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1018 21 0
The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet Gaseous or chemical Gaseous. Chemical compound. Liquid.
1019 21 transport aeroplanes is stored is : compound.. 0
The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 10 metres. 1 metre. 1000 metres. 100 metres.
1020 21 300 kHz is: 0
The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are: directly connected to the kept in operating automatically connected providing an alternative
battery. conditions by an to the battery if current.
electrical resistance in generators have failed.
the case of energy
failure.
1021 21 1
The purpose of static wick dischargers is to : be able to fly higher dissipate static charge dissipate static charge provide a path to ground
because of less of the aircraft inflight from the aircraft skin for static charges when
electrical friction. thus avoiding radio after landing. refuelling.
interference as a result
of static electricity.

1022 21 0
A tubeless tyre has :_x000D_ 2, 3. 1,3. 2, 4. 1, 4.
_x000D_
1- a built-in-air tube._x000D_
2- no built-in-air tube._x000D_
3- a crossed side casing._x000D_
4- a radial side casing._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is:
1023 21 0
(For this question use annex 021-4008A)_x000D_ impossible without possible with impossible because possible with
Reference should be made to the fuel sypply system shown in causing the APU stop. "CROSSFEED" open there is no fuel in center "CROSSFEED" open
annex._x000D_ and tank 2 pumps tank. and tank 1 pumps
In flight, with center tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance "OFF". "OFF" and tank 2
is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2)._x000D_ pumps "ON".
Rebalancing of the two tanks is:

1024 21 0
 An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise A descent must be The aircraft has to climb The crew has to DELTA P will rise up to
level._x000D_ initiated to prevent the to a higher flight level in intermittently cut off the its maximum value, thus
During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected oxygen masks dropping order to reduce Zc to its incoming air flow in causing the safety relief
by the crew and the cabin rate of climb indicator reads when Zc reaches initial value. order to maintain a zero valves to open.
-200ft/min._x000D_ 14000ft. Zc.
Given that :_x000D_
DELTA P: Differential pressure_x000D_
Zc: Cabin altitude
1025 21 0
In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is: an accumulator a damping type designed to take up the a buffer accumulator
designed to restore accumulator designed hydraulic energy filtered whose function is to
brake energy in the to take up the pressure by the anti-skid system assist the hydraulic
event of a hydraulic fluctuations of the in order to prevent system during high
failure. automatic braking wheel blocking. intensity braking.
system.

1026 21 1
An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310._x000D_ VZc increase_x000D_ VZc decrease_x000D_ VZc increase_x000D_ VZc decrease_x000D_
Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve Zc increase_x000D_ Zc increase_x000D_ Zc increase_x000D_ Zc decrease_x000D_
runs to the open position. Given :_x000D_ DELTA P decrease DELTA P decrease DELTA P increase DELTA P increase
_x000D_
VZc: Cabin rate of climb indication_x000D_
Zc: Cabin pressure altitude_x000D_
DELTA P: Differential pressure_x000D_
_x000D_
This will result in a:

1027 21 1
Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure 2, 3, 4. 3, 4, 5. 1, 5. 1, 3.
Ratio (EPR):_x000D_
_x000D_
1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude
increases_x000D_
2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach
number_x000D_
3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains
the thrust irrespective of engine wear due to ageing._x000D_
4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between
the turbine outlet and the compressor inlet_x000D_
5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the
indicated EPR is lower than the real EPR_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1028 21 0
 Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop._x000D_ when braking, the at zero power, the when feathered, the with propeller
During deceleration : propeller supplies propeller thrust is zero propeller produces windmilling, the thrust is
negative thrust and and the engine power thrust and absorbs no zero and the propeller
absorbs engine power. absorbed is nil. engine power. supplies engine power.

1029 21 1
The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the outlet and uses a inlet and uses a outlet and uses an inlet and uses an
1030 21 cooling unit : centrifugal process. centrifugal process. evaporation process. evaporation process. 1
Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 4 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 3
efficiently transmit the:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. normal bending stresses_x000D_
2. tangent bending stresses_x000D_
3. torsional moment_x000D_
4. shear stresses_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1031 21 0
In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ... The right aileron will The right aileron will The right aileron will The right aileron will
ascend, the left one will descend, the left one descend, the left one ascend, the left one will
descend, the right will ascend, the right will ascend, the right descend, the right
spoiler will retract and spoiler will retract and spoiler will extend and spoiler will extend and
the left one will extend. the left one will extend. the left one will retract. the left one will retract.

1032 21 0
The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer 1, 3. 1, 2, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. 2, 4.
whose input data is:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. idle wheel speed (measured)_x000D_
2. braked wheel speed (measured)_x000D_
3. brake temperature (measured)_x000D_
4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate_x000D_
5. tire pressure_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1033 21 0
A Yaw Damper is : A rudder damper An elevator augmentor. An elevator augmentor A roll trim tab.
designed to avoid the to avoid the nose-down
"Dutch roll". effect at speeds greater
than M=0.8.

1034 21 1
The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are : series wound. shunt wound. series shunt wound. compound wound.
1035 21 1
 The output of a generator is controlled by : varying the length of the reverse current relay varying the field varying the speed of the
wire in the armature circuit breaker. strength. engine.
windings.
1036 21 0
Fuses are rated to a value by : their wattage. their resistance the number of amperes the number of volts they
measured in ohms. they will carry. will pass.
1037 21 0
A relay is : a unit which is used to a device which is used a magnetically operated another name for a
convert electrical energy to increase electrical switch. solenoid valve.
to heat energy. power.
1038 21 0
1039 21 The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is : 1,8 volts. 1,2 volts. 2,2 volts. 1,4 volts. 0
1040 21 Batteries are rated in : Amperes.hours. Amperes/volts. Watts. Ohms. 1
It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if : there is heavy corrosion static noises can be a circuit breaker pops there is interference on
on the fuselage skin heard on the radio. out. the VOR receiver.
mountings.
1041 21 0
In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is: The frequency band The frequency band The frequency band The frequency band
corresponding to corresponding to corresponding to corresponding to
maximum gain less 20 maximum gain, maximum gain less 3 maximum gain.
decibels. increased by 10 kHz at decibels.
each end.
1042 21 0
A smoke mask is a : continuous flow mask mask with flow on continuous flow mask mask with flow on
and covers the whole request and covers only and covers only the request and covers the
face. the nose and the mouth. nose and the mouth. whole face.
1043 21 0
On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which the ribs. the webs. the skin. the spars.
1044 21 take up the vertical bending moments Mx are: 0
On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre: will have an increased will be more subject to will wear at the it's tread will deteriorate
critical hydroplanning viscosity aquaplaning on shoulders faster
speed dry runway
1045 21 0
When the magneto selector switch is set to "OFF" position, the piston A wire from the magneto There are local hot On a magneto, a There is a carbon
engine continues to run normally._x000D_ is in contact with a points in the engine grounding wire is deposit on the spark
The most probable cause of this failure is that: metallic part of the (probably due to broken. plugs electrodes.
engine. overheating of the
cylinder heads).
1046 21 0
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 6 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 7 hand fire- 8 hand fire-
configuration is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1047 21 0
 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 7 hand fire- 6 hand fire- 8 hand fire- 9 hand fire-
configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
least: conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1048 21 0
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 3 HALON 1211 fire- 2 HALON 1211 fire- 4 HALON 1211 fire- 1 HALON 1211 fire-
configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers. extinguishers. extinguishers. extinguisher.
1049 21 1
Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by :_x000D_ a pressurized gas the aircraft's general a manual pump, used pressurized air from the
canister combined with pneumatic circuit. when needed by the air conditioning system.
the slide itself. cabin crew.
1050 21 1
Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that the same circuit is used the seals must be the passenger circuit with setting on
:_x000D_ by the crew and the carefully greased to never uses chemically "NORMAL", the crew
passengers. avoid sparks. generated oxygen. breathes a mixture of
oxygen / cabin air.
1051 21 0
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 3 hand fire- 2 hand fire- 4 hand fire- 5 hand fire-
configuration is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1052 21 1
An oxygen regulator has 3 controls :_x000D_ the "O2" lever on ON with the EMERGENCY the power lever on ON, the EMERGENCY lever
_x000D_ enables breathing of the lever on OFF, in an and, the "O2" lever on on ON enables
- a power lever : ON/OFF_x000D_ over-pressure oxygen at emergency situation, NORMAL allows the breathing of pure
- an "O2" lever : NORMAL/100%_x000D_ a constant flow rate. one cannot use the oxygen to enter the oxygen at ambient
- an emergency lever : ON/OFF_x000D_ oxygen mask to regulator and enables pressure.
_x000D_ breathe. breathing of a mixture of
Among the following statements, the correct proposition is :_x000D_ air/oxygen according to
altitude.

1053 21 0
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 3 hand fire- 4 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 2 hand fire-
configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1054 21 0
In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ... compress the air in drive devices like drive the compressor clear the burnt gases,
order to provide a better pumps, regulator, by using part of the the expansion of which
charge of the generator. energy from the exhaust provide the thrust
combustion chamber gases

1055 21 0
 The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the : reference chord line propeller reference propeller reference propeller plane of
and the propeller plane chord line and the chord line and the rotation and the relative
of rotation. relative airflow. extremity of the airflow.
propeller.
1056 21 1
A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to : make the body gears prevent any rotation of create the wheel pitch transform the
pivot when the the oleo strut in the on bogie gears. translational movement
nosewheel is turned undercarriage shock of the rudder pedals into
through more than 20°. absorber. the rotational movement
of the nosewheel.

1057 21 0
For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is the regulation system the reservoir constitutes the security components the pumps are always
:_x000D_ deals only with a reserve of hydraulic comprise the filters, the electric due to the high
emergency operation fluid maintained under pressure relief valves, pressures which they
and is not applied to all pressure by a the by-passes, and the must deliver (140 to 210
hydraulic services but pneumatic back fire shut-off valve. kg/cm²).
only those considered pressure (air or
as essential. nitrogen) and destined
to serve as a fluid or
pressure reserve.

1058 21 0
When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade feathered. windmilling. transparent. at zero drag.
1059 21 pitch angle is near 90°, the propeller is said to be... 1
A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of 1 halon fire- 3 halon fire- no halon fire- 2 halon fire-
more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at extinguisher. extinguishers. extinguisher. extinguishers.
least 3 portable fire-extinguishers including:
1060 21 0
In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher is normal, if it decreases is abnormal and is abnormal but does requires an oil change.
than normal oil pressure._x000D_ after startup. requires the engine to not require the engine to
This higher pressure :_x000D_ be shut down. be shut down.
1061 21 1
On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from a hollow bolt screwed a pressure relief valve the "Emergency Burst" water injection triggered
overheating, due for example to prolonged braking during an aborted into the wheel which situated in the filler function of the anti-skid at a fixed temperature in
take-off, there is: melts at a given valve. system which adapts order to lower tyre
temperature (thermal braking to the tyre temperature.
fuse) and deflates the temperature.
tyre.
1062 21 1
The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a: warning light and a warning bell. warning light. gear warning.
warning bell (or aural
alert).
1063 21 1
 The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to isolate the 1 - 2 -3 1-2 1 - 2 - 3 -4 1
battery:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - from the bus when the battery charge is deemed
satisfactory_x000D_
2 - when there is a battery overheat condition_x000D_
3 - in case of an internal short circuit_x000D_
4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1064 21 1
On an aeroplane, spoilers are :_x000D_ upper wing surface lower wing surface upper wing surface lower wing surface
devices, their deflection devices, their deflection devices, their deflection devices, their deflection
is always asymmetrical. is always asymmetrical. is symmetrical or is symmetrical or
asymmetrical. asymmetrical.

1065 21 0
The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal 2 - 3 2-4 1-3 1-2
flow compressors are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - expensive to manufacture_x000D_
2 - limited airflow_x000D_
3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage_x000D_
4 - limited compression ratio_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct answers is :

1066 21 0
On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:_x000D_ leading edge flaps close leading edge flaps close trailing edge flaps close trailing edge flaps close
1067 21 to the wing tip to the wing root to the wing root to the wing tip 0
When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a delay the triggering of wait for the triggering of avoid false alarms in allow temperatures to
fire alarm is triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to: the fire extinguinshers the second fire case of vibrations equalise
and increase their detection loop in order
efficiency to confirm the fire

1068 21 0
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 6 hand fire- 3 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 4 hand fire-
configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1069 21 0
 Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents 2 - 3 2-4 1-2-3-4 3-4
the following characteristics :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - high heating_x000D_
2 - valve fragility_x000D_
3 - lower risk of bursting_x000D_
4 - better adjustment to wheels_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination containing all the correct statements is:

1070 21 0
On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold a value equal to the a lower value than a greater value than zero on the ground
pressure gauge always indicates... QFE when the engine is atmospheric pressure atmospheric pressure when the engine is
at full power on the when the engine is when the engine is stopped.
ground. running. running.
1071 21 0
A stage in an axial compressor: _x000D_ is made of row of stator has a compression is made of a rotor disc has a compression ratio
blades followed by a ration in the order of 0.8 followed by a row of in the order of 2.1
rotor disc stator blades
1072 21 0
For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the: external airflow mass internal airflow mass internal airflow mass fuelflow mass divided by
divided by the internal divided by the external divided by the fuelflow the internal airflow mass
airflow mass airflow mass mass
1073 21 1
The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if the pump output the reservoir level is at there is a leak in the the pump power
:_x000D_ pressure is insufficient. the normal operation reservoir return line. accumulator is deflated.
limit.
1074 21 1
(For this question use annex 021-10164A)_x000D_ the C2 and C4 sensors the C1 and C2 sensors the C1 and C3 sensors only one sensor detects
The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried out detect smoke. detect smoke. detect smoke. smoke.
by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4._x000D_
They are associated with the logic circuit as described in the
annex._x000D_
The repeating bell is activated when:
1075 21 0
Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain 2-4 1-3 1-4 2-3
leading edge de-icing devices, one can affirm that :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - They prevent ice formation._x000D_
2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become
visible._x000D_
3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds._x000D_
4 - There are more than ten cycles per second._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is :

1076 21 0
 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 2 hand fire- 3 hand fire- 4 hand fire- 1 hand fire-extinguisher
configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers conveniently located in
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in the passenger
the passenger the passenger the passenger compartment.
compartment. compartment. compartment.
1077 21 0
In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air intermediate pressure low pressure bleed air high pressure bleed air fan bleed air valve
pressure is regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the check-valve valve valve
manifold by the :
1078 21 0
Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft centrifugal high high pressure variable centrifugal low pressure low pressure variable
are:_x000D_ pressure pumps. swash plate pumps. type pumps. swash plate pumps.
1079 21 0
During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed high manifold pressure low manifold pressure high manifold pressure low manifold pressure
propeller, a wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values and high RPM. and low RPM. and low RPM. and high RPM.
results in excessive pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when
one simultaneously selects a ...

1080 21 0
The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power :_x000D_ 4 1-3 1-2 2-3
_x000D_
1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust
gas velocity_x000D_
2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient
air_x000D_
3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not
moving_x000D_
4 - is independant of the outside air temperature_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1081 21 0
The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet:_x000D_ 3-4-5-6 3 2-3-4 1
_x000D_
1 - throughout the operating range of the engine_x000D_
2 - for accelerations_x000D_
3 - for ground starts_x000D_
4 - for in-flight relights_x000D_
5 - during turbulence in flight_x000D_
6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1082 21 1
 Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if : the aircraft descends power is increased too the engine runs at the the aircraft climbs
without a mixture abruptly. authorized maximum without mixture
adjustment. continuous power for adjustment.
too long.
1083 21 0
"Vapor lock" is the phenomenon by which: abrupt and abnormal burnt gas plugs forming heat produces vapour water vapour plugs are
enrichment of the and remaining in the plugs in the fuel line. formed in the intake fuel
fuel/air mixture following exhaust manifold line following the
an inappropriate use of following an overheat condensation of water in
carburettor heat. and thereby disturbing fuel tanks which have
the exhaust. not been drained for
sometime.

1084 21 0
The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:_x000D_ in flight only. by the air conditioning by an auxiliary system. by bleed air coming
system. from the turbine-engine.
1085 21 0
The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such 2-3 2-4 1-3 1-4
that:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used_x000D_
2 - in case of accidental drop of the "continuous flow" passenger
masks, no crew action is required_x000D_
3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly_x000D_
4 - the system's filling adaptors must be greased with non freezable
or graphite grease_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1086 21 0
The cross-feed fuel system enables:_x000D_ the supply of any jet the supply of the jet the supply of the only the transfer of fuel
engine from any fuel engines mounted on a outboard jet engines from the centre tank to
tank. wing from any fuel tank from any outboard fuel the wing tanks.
within that wing. tank.
1087 21 1
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be emergency. on demand. 100% normal.
1088 21 set to: 0
(For this question use appendix )_x000D_ 1- cantilever 2- dual 1- half-fork 2- single 1- cantilever 2- fork 3- 1- half fork 2- fork 3-
_x000D_ wheels 3- half fork 4- trace 3- cantilever 4- half fork 4- dual wheels cantilever 4- tandem
Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams fork dual wheels
:_x000D_
_x000D_

1089 21 0
 In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an emergency 1,4. 1, 2, 3 et 4. 1, 2. 1, 2, 4.
descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have
access to a minimum amount of oxygen in:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where
the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft._x000D_
2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where
the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than
13000 ft minus 30 minutes._x000D_
3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to
25000 ft._x000D_
4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over
25000 ft._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1090 21 0
The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will 12 volt / 40 amp hours 24 volt / 80 amp hours 24 volt / 40 amp hours 12 volt / 80 amp hours
1091 21 create a unit with the following characteristics; 0
The global output of a piston engine is of:_x000D_ 0.50 0.75 0.90 0.30
(global output = Thermal energy corresponding to the available
shaft/power over the total thermal energy produced).
1092 21 0
For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a 1/9 th 1/10th 1/12th 1/15 th
richness of 1 is obtained for a weight ratio of:_x000D_
1093 21 0
(For this question use appendix )_x000D_ 1 2 3 4
_x000D_
On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston
engine as a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the point
marked:
1094 21 1
In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which accumulating in a creating a brief high breaking the primary obtaining a high amp
ignites the fuel/air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos condenser a low volt intensity magnetic field current in order to low volt current in order
consists in : current from the battery, which will be sent induce a low amp high to generate the spark.
reconstitute it as high through the distributor at volt current which is
voltage current at the the appropriate time. distributed to the spark
moment the spark is plugs.
generated.

1095 21 0
From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is remain the same increase or decrease, increase decrease
reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should: depending on the
engine type
1096 21 0
 The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the : mass of fuel relative to volume of fuel relative to volume of fuel relative to real mixture ratio
the volume of air. the volume of air. the mass of the volume relative to the
of air. theoretical ratio.
1097 21 0
The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on... its phase balance its rotation speed the strength of the its load
1098 21 excitation current 0
The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical to decrease fuel to withdraw it from the to a have greater that it does not require a
stabilizer is : consumption by creating influence of wing effectiveness at high de-icing system
a tail heavy situation turbulence speed
1099 21 0
The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the Req = R1 + R2 Req = R1 x R2 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2) 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2
equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following
formula:
1100 21 0
The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of battery is greater than generator is greater battery is greater than alternator is greater
the : the alternator voltage than battery voltage and the generator voltage than the battery voltage
and to open when the to open when the and to open when the and to open when the
opposite is true opposite is true opposite is true opposite is true

1101 21 0
Using compressor bleed air to power systems: has no influence on increases aircraft is limited to the phases decreases aircraft
aircraft performance performance of take-off and landing performance
1102 21 0
The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished 3-4-6 2-4-5 1-5-6 1-3-5
by:_x000D_
_x000D_
- a propeller control lever used to select:_x000D_
1 - propeller RPM_x000D_
2 - turbine temperature_x000D_
3 - turbine RPM_x000D_
_x000D_
- a fuel control lever used to select:_x000D_
4 - propeller RPM_x000D_
5 - torque_x000D_
6 - turbine temperature_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1103 21 0
With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you: Reduce manifold Reduce manifold Increase manifold Increase manifold
pressure and enrich the pressure and lean the pressure and enrich the pressure and lean the
mixture mixture mixture mixture
1104 21 1
 An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 3 hand fire- 5 hand fire- 6 hand fire- 4 hand fire-
configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1105 21 0
With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge: is automatic and is automatic after a does not need the is the pilot's task
immediate delay to allow the pilot engine to be stopped
to stop the engine
1106 21 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off crash axe in the cockpit crow-bar in the cockpit crash axe or a crow-bar crash axe and a crow-
mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger and a crow-bar in the and a crash axe in the in the pilot bar in the passenger
seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 passenger passenger compartment. compartment.
seats must be equipped with a: compartment. compartment.
1107 21 0
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be equipped with 1,86 m. 1,89 m. 1,83 m. 1,80 m.
equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the
ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the
passenger emergency exit is higher than:
1108 21 0
The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they : are highly corrosive act as flame inhibitors use the cooling effect are electrical
particularly for by absorbing the air's created by the venturi conductors.
aluminium alloys. oxygen. during discharge.
1109 21 0
In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is at night, due to the by day, due to the at night and when by day and when
particularly found :_x000D_ combination of the sky combination of sky and raining. raining.
and ground waves. ground waves.
1110 21 1
(Use the appendix to answer this question)_x000D_ free turbine and free turbine and axial single shaft turbine and single shaft turbine and
_x000D_ centrifugal compressor compressor centrifugal compressor axial compressor
The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type:_x000D_
1111 21 1
A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the provided that the grade never provided that it is an provided that the grade
1112 21 recommended: is lower aeronautical petrol is higher 0
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating 5 hand fire- 7 hand fire- 8 hand fire- 6 hand fire-
configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least: extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers
conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in conveniently located in
the passenger the passenger the passenger the passenger
compartment. compartment. compartment. compartment.
1113 21 0
The portable emergency beacons which are used after an emergency 12 h 72 h 48 h 24 h
1114 21 landing or ditching have a duration of : 0
 The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate and a smoke device which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used at night
your position to the emergency teams are a flare: which are only used at and a smoke device which are only used in and a smoke device
night. which is used at night. the daytime. which is used in the
daytime.
1115 21 0
The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is the alcohol de-icing rain repellent should wipers are sufficient the electric de-icing
that : system for cockpit never be sprayed onto under heavy rain system for cockpit
windows is also suitable the windshield unless conditions to provide windows is also suitable
for rain protection the rainfall is very heavy adequate view through for rain protection
the cockpit windows.

1116 21 0
INSTRUMENTATION - AEROPLANES
The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the EGT allows the display of the shows the vibration moves when the shows the limit value not
(Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicators: parameter value to be level of the engine corresponding value is to be exceeded.
adopted during take-off. under consideration. exceeded and remains
positioned at the
maximum value that
has been reached.

1117 22 0
A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI- 3, 4 and 5. 1 and 4. 2, 3 and 5. 1 and 2.
AUTOMATIC mode when:_x000D_
1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the
decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically._x000D_
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the decision
height is reached then is disengaged automatically._x000D_
3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the
flare._x000D_
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is
approximately 30 ft._x000D_
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically._x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1118 22 0
When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic 1 and 2. 1, 2 and 3. 3. 1 and 3.
trim is to:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- cancel the hinge moment of the elevator_x000D_
2- ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator _x000D_
3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the autopilot
disengagement _x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1119 22 0
 Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the 1, 3, 4 and 5. 3, 4 and 5. 1, 2, and 6. 1, 2, 3 and 6.
airplane guidance are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- pitch attitude holding_x000D_
2- horizontal wing holding_x000D_
3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding_x000D_
4- altitude holding_x000D_
5- VOR axis holding_x000D_
6- yaw damping_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1120 22 0
Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the 2, 4, and 5. 1, 2 and 5. 1, 2, 3 and 6. 3, 4, 5 and 6.
airplane stabilization are:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- pitch attitude holding_x000D_
2- horizontal wing holding_x000D_
3- displayed heading or inertial track holding_x000D_
4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding_x000D_
5- yaw damping_x000D_
6- VOR axis holding_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1121 22 0
A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the read a little high. read a little low. freeze at zero. react like an altimeter.
1122 22 static port open causes the airspeed indicator to : 0
A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect airspeed indicator, airspeed indicator only. altimeter only. vertical speed indicator
the following instrument (s) : altimeter and vertical only.
speed indicator.
1123 22 0
1124 22 The altimeter is fed by : differential pressure static pressure dynamic pressure total pressure 0
1125 22 The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by : differential pressure static pressure dynamic pressure total pressure 0
The float type fuel gauges provide information on: mass whose indication mass whose indication volume whose volume whose
varies with the is independent of the indication varies with indication is
temperature of the fuel. temperature of the fuel. the temperature of the independent of the
fuel. temperature of the fuel.

1126 22 0
Torque can be determined by measuring the : oil pressure at the fixed phase difference frequency of an impulse quantity of light passing
crown of an epicycloidal between 2 impulse tachometer attached to through a rack-wheel
reducer of the main tachometers attached to a transmission shaft. attached to a
engine gearbox. a transmission shaft. transmission shaft.

1127 22 1
A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display device of the a blue or white full a red full square. a blue or white empty an orange full circle.
1128 22 TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by : lozenge. lozenge. 0
 A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the display system of blue or white empty red full circle. red full square. blue or white full
the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a : lozenge. lozenge.
1129 22 0
An "intruding traffic advisory" is represented on the display system of a red full square. a yellow full circle. a blue or white empty a blue or white full
the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying : lozenge. lozenge.
1130 22 0
On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive that advises the pilot to asking the pilot to asking the pilot to asking the pilot to
"resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory": avoid certain deviations modify effectively the modify the heading of modify the speed of his
from the current vertical vertical speed of his his aircraft. aircraft.
rate but does not aircraft.
require any change to
be made to that rate.

1131 22 1
On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective asking the pilot to which does not require asking the pilot to asking the pilot to
"resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory": modify effectively the any action from the pilot modify the heading of modify the speed of his
vertical speed of his but on the contrary asks his aircraft. aircraft.
aircraft. him not to modify his
current vertical speed
rate.

1132 22 1
When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, "fail survival" or without "fail safe" with failure "fail soft" or with "fail passive" or without
the system is considered: failure effect with effect without minimized failure effect. failure effect but with
function always disconnection. disconnection.
ensured.
1133 22 0
The Altitude Select System: Disengages autopilot Is annunciated by light Illuminates a light when Engages autopilot Auto
Auto Trim at selected and/or sound when selected altitude is Trim at selected altitude
altitude airplane is approaching attained
selected altitude

1134 22 0
The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to : tell the pilot when trim throttles to obtain control elevator trim tab help Auto Pilot
elevator trimming is smooth engine power in order to relieve compensate for
required variation elevator load crosswind influence
1135 22 0
The purpose of Auto Throttle is: automatic shut down of to deactivate manual to synchronize engines to maintain constant
one engine at too high throttles and transfer to avoid "yawing" engine power or
temperature engine control to Auto airplane speed
Pilot
1136 22 0
The capacity fuel gauges provide information: on mass whose on mass whose which is independent of which varies with the
indication is indication varies with the temperature of the temperature of the fuel.
independent of the the temperature of the fuel.
temperature of the fuel. fuel.

1137 22 1
 The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro assemblies: A, B 1C, 2B, 3A 1B, 2A, 3C 1A, 2B, 3C 1B, 2C, 3A
and C. Among these gyros,_x000D_
-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)_x000D_
-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)_x000D_
-one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)_x000D_
The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:
1138 22 0
An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is for IFR or night flights on multipilot airplanes. for VFR and IFR flights on airplanes over 5.7 t.
compulsory: with only one pilot. with only one pilot.
1139 22 1
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent gradually indicate zero under-read indicate a height continue to display the
the instrument will: equivalent to the setting reading at which the
on the millibar subscale blockage occured
1140 22 0
The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more a sub-scale logarithmic an induction pick-off more effective combination of
accurate than the simple pressure altimeter is the use of: function device temperature counters/pointers
compensating leaf
springs
1141 22 0
If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, continue to indicate the under-read by an over-read gradually return to zero
the instrument will: reading at which the amount equivalent to
blockage occured the reading at the time
that the instrument
became blocked

1142 22 1
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked read zero continue to indicate the under-read over-read
during a descent the instrument will: speed applicable to that
at the time of the
blockage
1143 22 0
When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in decrease increase at a linear rate remain constant increase at an
ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will: exponential rate
1144 22 1
For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in lower True Airspeed lower True Airspeed higher True Airspeed higher True Airspeed
ambient temperature will result in a: (TAS) due to a decrease (TAS) due to an (TAS) due to a decrease (TAS) due to an
in air density increase in air density in air density increase in air density
1145 22 0
When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant decrease increase at a linear rate remain constant increase at an
1146 22 Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will: exponential rate 1
A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to under-read. over-read. over-read in a climb and under-read in a climb
an airspeed indicator would cause it to: under-read in a descent. and over-read in a
descent.
1147 22 1
 The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot the total pressure the static pressure the total pressure and the dynamic pressure
tube directly supplies: the static pressure
1148 22 1
An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a decreases. remains constant. decreases if the static increases.
constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains temperature is lower
constant, the Mach number : than the standard
temperature.

1149 22 0
The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are 2,3,5. 1,2,3,5. 3,4,5. 1,2,4,5.
subject to errors, due to:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- rotation of Earth._x000D_
2- aeroplane motion on Earth._x000D_
3- lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles._x000D_
4- north change._x000D_
5- mechanical defects._x000D_
_x000D_
Chose the combination with true statements only:

1150 22 0
For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the 005°S and depends only on the 0°/hour +5°/hour -5°/hour
005°N parallels, the precession error of the directional gyro due to aircraft's ground speed
apparent drift is equal to:
1151 22 0
While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is without damping and a with damping and a with damping and a without damping and a
necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order period of about 84 period of 84 seconds period of about 84 period of about 84
to keep the vertical line with a pendulous system: seconds minutes. minutes
1152 22 0
In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required to insert the Position the computing Check operation of laser Determine magnetic or Re-erect laser gyros.
local geographical coordinates. This is necessary to: trihedron with reference gyros. true heading.
to earth.
1153 22 1
An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the functions of: piloting from take-off to piloting and guidance of piloting only. navigation.
landing without any an aircraft in both the
action from the human horizontal and vertical
pilot. planes.
1154 22 0
An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with crosshair trend deviates to its right stop deviates to the right and deviates to the right and disappears, the new
bars), heading 270°, in HDG mode (heading hold). A new heading, of as long as the will be centred as soon remains in that position heading selection has
360°, is selected the vertical trend bar : aeroplane is more than as you roll the aircraft to until the aircraft has deactivated the HDG
10° off the new selected the bank angle reached heading 360°. mode.
heading. calculated by the flight
director.
1155 22 0
 Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those flashing red amber red green
requiring action but not immediately, are signalled by the colour:
1156 22 0
Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors: in North seeking, due to due to cross-wind gusts due to Schüler type of parallax, due to
bank angle and particularly on westerly oscillations oscillations of the
magnetic heading or easterly headings compass rose
1157 22 1
On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM control of power. selection of engine on a twin-engine control of the propeller
indicator enables :_x000D_ RPM. aeroplane, automatic regulator and the
engine synchronisation. display of propeller
RPM.
1158 22 0
A stall warning system is based on a measure of : groundspeed. aerodynamic incidence. airspeed. attitude.
1159 22 0
When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the automatic trim is to: relieve the pressure on react to altitude changes synchronize the relieve the A.P. servo
the control column and in Altitude Hold mode longitudinal loop motor and return the
return, the aircraft in- aircraft in-trim at A.P.
trim at A.P. disconnect disconnect

1160 22 0
The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the 2-3-4 1-2-5 1-2-3-5 3-5
holding of :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- vertical speed_x000D_
2- altitude_x000D_
3- attitude_x000D_
4- bank_x000D_
5- heading_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1161 22 0
Machmeter readings are subject to: temperature error. setting error. position pressure error density error.
1162 22 0
Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends temperature and the pressure. density. temperature.
1163 22 on : pressure. 0
 The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 3, 4, 5, 6
in the following cases :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- excessive rate of descent_x000D_
2- excessive ground proximity rate_x000D_
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around_x000D_
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration_x000D_
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath_x000D_
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1164 22 1
In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are engaged, the ND (Navigation TCC (Thrust Control throttles position. PFD (Primary Flight
1165 22 crew will check the : Display). Computer). Display) 0
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of 1,2,3,4,5,6 1 1,3,4,5 1,2,4,5,6
a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft having been granted the
airworthiness certificate after 1st April 1998 will record:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the radiotelephonic communications transmitted or received by the
cockpit crew_x000D_
2- the audio environment of the cockpit_x000D_
3- the cabin attendants communications in the cabin via the
interphone_x000D_
4- the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the
interphone_x000D_
5- the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the
public address system_x000D_
6- the audio signals identifiying the navigation or approach
aids_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1166 22 0
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of Automatically when the From the first radio When the pilot selects Automatically prior to
a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft, having been granted an wheels leave the ground contact with Air Traffic the "CVR: ON" during the aircraft moving
airworthiness certificate after 1st April 1998, shall start recording : until the moment when Control until radio engine start until the under its own power
the wheels touch the shutdown after the flight. pilot selects the "CVR: until flight completion
ground again. OFF" during the engine when the aircraft is no
shut down. longer able to move
under its own power.

1167 22 0
 The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides :_x000D_ 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3 1, 2
_x000D_
1- traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory)_x000D_
2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)_x000D_
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)_x000D_
4- ground proximity warning_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1168 22 0
The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot: allowing him to return to allowing him to return to allowing him to return to about his position with
a desired path a desired path a desired path in an regard to a radioelectric
according to a 45° according to a 30° optimal way. axis.
intercept angle. intercept angle.
1169 22 0
(For this question use annex 022-9768A)_x000D_ located to the leftside of located to the rightside experiencing rightside experiencing a leftside
An aircraft is under guidance mode following a VOR radial. From the the selected radial. of the selected radial. wind. wind.
ADI and HSI information represented in the enclosed annex, it is
possible to deduce that the aircraft is :
1170 22 0
The correction of the control surface deflection made by the 1,2. 1, 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3. 2, 3, 4.
automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude
will be all the more significant as the :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous
attitude is high._x000D_
2- rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and
the instantaneous attitude is high._x000D_
3- temperature is low._x000D_
4- pressure altitude is high._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1171 22 1
 The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto-pilot 1, 2, 3 and 4. 1 and 2. 3 and 4. 1, 2 and 3.
calculator in order to keep a given altitude will be all the more
significant when the :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or
reference altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high._x000D_
2 - variation speed of the difference between the attitude necessary
to maintain the altitude and the instantaneous attitude is
high._x000D_
3 - difference between the altitude of reference and the
instantaneous altitude is high._x000D_
4 - variation speed of the difference between the reference altitude
and the instantaneous altitude is high._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1172 22 1
(For this question use annex 022-9771A)_x000D_ 781.85 hPa. 942.13 hPa. 1 013.25 hPa. 644.41 hPa.
The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard + 10" atmosphere
is:
1173 22 1
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working 30 ft to 5 000 ft the ground to 500 ft 50 ft to 2 500 ft the ground to 1 000 ft
1174 22 according to a height span ranging from : 0
All the anemometers are calibrated according to: Bernouilli's limited St-Venant's formula Bernouilli's limited St-Venant' formula
formula which takes into which considers the air formula which considers which takes into account
account the air as an uncompressible the air as an the air compressibility.
compressibility. fluid. uncompressible fluid.

1175 22 0
In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained close to the axis and on the periphery and close to the axis and on the periphery and
through the concentration of the mass : with a low rotation with a high rotation with a high rotation with a low rotation
speed. speed. speed. speed.
1176 22 0
The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is: 644 kt. 332 kt. 661 kt. 1059 kt.
1177 22 0
In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated lower than the true equal to the true independent of the true higher than the true
1178 22 airspeed (CAS) is : airspeed (TAS). airspeed (TAS). airspeed (TAS). airspeed (TAS). 0
 The GPWS calculator receives the following signals :_x000D_ 2,3,4,6 1,2,4,5 1,3,4,5,6 1,2,5,6
_x000D_
1 - vertical speed_x000D_
2 - radio altimeter height_x000D_
3 - pressure altitude_x000D_
4 - glidepath deviation _x000D_
5 - gear and flaps position_x000D_
6 - angle of attack_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1179 22 0
The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes 1,2,4,6,7 3,4,5,6 2,3,5,7 1,2,5,6,7
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- excessive descent rate _x000D_
2- excessive rate of terrain closure_x000D_
3- excessive angle of attack_x000D_
4- too high descent attitude _x000D_
5- loss of altitude after take-off_x000D_
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration_x000D_
7- excessive glidepath deviation_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1180 22 0
The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height 50 ft to 5 000 ft 50 ft to 2 500 ft 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured
range from: measured by the radio measured by the radio by the radio altimeter. by the radio altimeter.
altimeter. altimeter.
1181 22 0
For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic heading, the flight 1,2,4 2,3,4 1,3,4 1,2,3
director computer takes into account:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- track deviation_x000D_
2- rate of track closure_x000D_
3- rate of change of track closure_x000D_
4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference unit_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1182 22 0
 The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides :_x000D_ 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1 1, 2
_x000D_
1- traffic information_x000D_
2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)_x000D_
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)_x000D_
4- ground proximity warning_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1183 22 0
The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric signal varying 1, 2 and 3. 1. 2 and 3. 1 and 3.
with:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the angular position of a wind vane_x000D_
2- the deviation between the airplane flight attitude and the path
calculated by the inertial unit_x000D_
3- a probe differential pressure depending on the variation of the
angle of attack_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1184 22 0
In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude proportional to the of a fixed value equal to of a fixed value equal to proportional to the
input : deviation between the 27°. 20°. aircraft true airspeed but
selected heading and not exceeding a given
the current heading but value.
not exceeding a given
value.

1185 22 1
In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally measured 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 5 2, 3 1, 2
with :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- resistance thermometers_x000D_
2- thermocouple thermometers_x000D_
3- reactance thermometers_x000D_
4- capacitance thermometers_x000D_
5- mercury thermometers_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1186 22 0
 The QNH is by definition the value of the: altimeter setting so that atmospheric pressure at altimeter setting so that atmospheric pressure at
the needles indicate the level of the ground the needles of the the sea level of the
zero when the aircraft is overflown by the altimeter indicate the location for which it is
on ground at the aircraft. altitude of the location given.
location for which it is for which it is given.
provided.

1187 22 0
A synchroscope is used on aircraft to: reduce the vibration of reduce the rpm of each achieve optimum control set several engines to
each engine. engine. of on-board voltages. the same speed.
1188 22 0
A landing will be considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC 1 and 2. 2, 3 and 5. 1 and 4. 3, 4 and 5.
mode when:_x000D_
1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the
decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically._x000D_
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the decision
height is reached then is disengaged automatically._x000D_
3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the
flare._x000D_
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is
approximately 30 ft._x000D_
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically._x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1189 22 0
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without "traffic advisory" and "traffic advisory", vertical "traffic advisory" only. "traffic advisory" and
altitude reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance horizontal "resolution and horizontal vertical "resolution
System) issues a : advisory". "resolution advisory". advisory".
1190 22 0
In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are used, the "fail survival" or without "fail soft" or with "fail passive" or without "fail hard" or with failure
system is considered: failure effect with minimized failure effect. failure effect but with effect and
function always disconnection. disconnection.
ensured.
1191 22 1
In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of the two "fail soft" with minimized "fail passive" or without "fail survival" or without "fail hard" or without
autopilots, the system is considered: failure effect. failure effect but with failure effect with failure effect and
disconnection. function always disconnection.
ensured.
1192 22 0
The flight director indicates the : optimum path at the path permitting reaching path permitting reaching optimum instantaneous
moment it is entered to a selected radial in a selected radial over a path to reach selected
reach a selected radial. minimum time. minimum distance. radial.
1193 22 0
 The stall warning system receives information about the :_x000D_ 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 4
_x000D_
1- airplane angle of attack_x000D_
2- airplane speed_x000D_
3- airplane bank angle_x000D_
4- airplane configuration_x000D_
5- load factor on the airplane_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1194 22 0
During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the: autopilot maintains a glideslope mode is autopilot maintains an Loc and Glideslope
vertical speed disconnected and the angle of attack modes are
depending on the radio airplane continues its depending on the radio disconnected and the
altimeter height. descent until landing. altimeter height. airplane carries on its
descent until landing.
1195 22 1
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives 1, 2, 4 1, 2 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4
information :_x000D_
_x000D_
1- about the pressure altitude through the mode S
transponder_x000D_
2- from the radio-altimeter_x000D_
3- specific to the airplane configuration_x000D_
4- from the inertial units_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1196 22 0
An autopilot is selected "ON" in mode "altitude hold," the pilot alters aircraft will remain at the aircraft will climb or mode altitude hold will aircraft will remain at the
the barometric pressure set on the sub-scale of his altimeter the: same altitude, the descend in the sense of disengage same altitude, the
autopilot takes its the change, the autopilot takes its
pressure information autopilot takes its pressure information
from the altimeter pressure information from the static source
corrected to standard from the altimeter
pressure, 1013.25 hPa

1197 22 0
The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to: an exceptional a forbidden operating a special operating a normal operating
1198 22 operating range. range. range. range. 0
On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the: control panel of the upper strip of the PFD upper strip of the ND upper strip of the ECAM
flight director only. (Primary Flight Display). (Navigation Display). (Electronic Centralized
A/C Management).
1199 22 0
All the last generation aircraft use flight control systems. The Flight management system global 2-D Flight global 3-D Flight management system
Management System (FMS) is the most advanced system ; it can be optimized in the Management System Management System optimized in the vertical
defined as a: horizontal plane plane
1200 22 0
 When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C "traffic advisory", vertical "traffic advisory" and "traffic advisory" and "traffic advisory" only.
transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) and horizontal vertical "resolution horizontal "resolution
generates a : "resolution advisory". advisory". advisory".
1201 22 0
The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red speed indicated on the speed indicated on the maximum speed in maximum speed in
and white hatched pointer. This pointer indicates the: autothrottle control box, autothrottle control box VMO operation versus VMO operation, versus
versus temperature versus altitude altitude temperature
1202 22 0
An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle decreases. increases if the outside remains constant. increases.
maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature temperature is higher
decreases, the Mach number : than the standard
temperature, decreases
if lower.

1203 22 0
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from +/-60 feet +/-75 feet +/-30 feet +/-70 feet
1204 22 indicated must not exceed : 1
The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature) temperature within the average temperature temperature of the temperature of the
probe is the : hottest cylinder, within the whole set of exhaust gases. carburator to be
depending on its cylinders. monitored when the
position in the engine outside air temperature
block. is between -5°C and
10°C.

1205 22 1
A transport airplane has to be equipped with an altitude warning 2 1,3,4 1,5 3,4
device. This system will warn the crew about :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during both climb and
descent._x000D_
2 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during climb
only._x000D_
3 - the loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach._x000D_
4 - a wrong landing configuration._x000D_
5 - a variation higher or lower than a preselected altitude._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

1206 22 0
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of height of the aircraft with altitude of the aircraft. height of the lowest height of the aircraft with
650 ft. This is an indication of the true: regard to the runway. wheels with regard to regard to the ground at
the ground at any time. any time.
1207 22 0
 A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground 2,5 2,3,4,5 2 1,3,4
Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew
in case of :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the
flight plan entered in the FMS._x000D_
2 - dangerous ground proximity._x000D_
3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach._x000D_
4 - wrong landing configuration._x000D_
5 - descent below glidepath, within limits._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1208 22 0
The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope:_x000D_ 1-3-4 2-5 1-6 1-3
_x000D_
1 - with one degree of freedom._x000D_
2 - with two degrees of freedom_x000D_
3 - the frame of which is supported by two return springs._x000D_
4 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch
axis._x000D_
5 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing
axis._x000D_
6 - the spinning wheel axis of which is horizontal._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1209 22 0
In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port underreads the altitude. overreads the altitude in overreads the altitude in keeps on providing
(rain, birds), the altimeter: case of a sideslip to the case of a side-slip to the reliable reading in all
left and displays the right and displays the situations
correct information correct information
during symmetric flight. during symmetric flight.

1210 22 0
An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in order to achieve 18°. 12°. 36°. 30°.
a rate 1 turn, the pilot will have to bank the aircraft at an angle of:
1211 22 1
The yellow sector of the temperature gauge corresponds to: a frequent operating a forbidden operating an exceptional a normal operating
1212 22 range. range. operating range. range. 0
The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds : a torque motor on the 2 torque motors a levelling erection a nozzle integral with
1213 22 sensitive axis arranged horizontally torque motor the outer gimbal ring 0
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere equal to the standard higher than the real the same as the real lower than the real
where all atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is: altitude. altitude. altitude. altitude.
1214 22 0
 Mach Trim is a device to compensate for : weight reduction backing of the the effects of fuel the effects of
resulting from fuel aerodynamic center at transfer between the temperature variation
consumption during the high Mach numbers by main tanks and the tank during a climb or
cruise moving the elevator to located in the horizontal descent at constant
nose-up tail Mach

1215 22 0
In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect the regulatory 10% 3% 7% 5%
margins between stall and natural buffet._x000D_
The warning system supplies the corresponding alarm. The required
margin related to the stall speed is:
1216 22 0
The Mach number is : the ratio of the aircraft a direct function of the ratio of the indicated the ratio of the aircraft
true airspeed to the temperature ; it varies in airspeed to the sonic conventionnal airspeed
sonic velocity at the proportion to the square velocity at the altitude to the sonic velocity at
altitude considered root of the absolute considered the altitude considered
temperature
1217 22 1
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for both the replies from the the replies from the the echos from the the echos of collision
avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its transponders of other transponders of other ground air traffic control avoidance radar system
operation : aircraft and the ground- aircraft radar system especially installed on
based radar echoes board

1218 22 0
Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the 2,1,3 3,1,2 1,2,3 3,2,1
pressure measured (low, medium or high)_x000D_
Classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for
which they are suitable :_x000D_
1- bellows type_x000D_
2- Bourdon tube type_x000D_
3- aneroid capsule type
1219 22 0
The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust combustion chamber combustion chamber high pressure chamber high pressure turbine
1220 22 Gas Temperature) is carried out at the : outlet. intake. intake. outlet. 0
The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an thermocouples. based on metallic parts based on metallic capacitors whose
aircraft equipped with turbojets are: whose conductors whose capacity varies
expansion/contraction is resistance increases proportionnally with
measured. linearly with temperature.
temperature.
1221 22 1
The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 weather radar. primary radar. radio altimeter. high altitude radio
1222 22 MHz is the : altimeter. 0
 A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in_x000D_ 1,4. 1,2,3,4,5. 2,3,5. 2,3,4.
1. An inertial attitude unit_x000D_
2. An automatic pilot_x000D_
3. A stabilizing servo system_x000D_
4. An inertial navigation system_x000D_
5. A rate-of-turn indicator_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1223 22 1
In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from: The difference between Measurement of outside Measurement of Measurement of
absolute and dynamic air temperature (OAT) elapsed time for a radio absolute barometric
pressure at the fuselage signal transmitted to the pressure from a static
ground surface and source on the fuselage
back

1224 22 0
The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the effect of : a bank or pitch attitude an apparent weight and too slow precession on the aircraft's track over
of the aircraft an apparent vertical the horizontal gimbal the earth
ring
1225 22 1
An Air Data Computer (ADC) : Measures position error Transforms air data Is an auxiliary system Converts air data
in the static system and measurements into that provides altitude measurements given by
transmits this electric impulses driving information in the event ATC from the ground in
information to ATC to servo motors in that the static source is order to provide correct
provide correct altitude instruments blocked altitude and speed
reporting information

1226 22 0
The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15°/hour : in the latitude 30° in the latitude 45° on the equator on the North pole
1227 22 0
The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local vertical when on the equator in the latitude 30° in the latitude 45° on the North pole
1228 22 it is located : 1
A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct an artificial horizon a directional gyro unit a turn indicator a gyromagnetic indicator
1229 22 errors on : 1
When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and too much nose-up and too much nose-up and too much nose-up and attitude and bank
bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon : bank correct bank too high bank too low correct
1230 22 0
When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and too much nose-up and too much nose-up and attitude and bank too much nose-up and
bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon : bank correct bank too high correct bank too low
1231 22 0
When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and too much nose-up and too much nose-up and attitude and bank too much nose-up and
bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon : bank too high. bank too low. correct. bank correct.
1232 22 1
 The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding : in standard atmosphere, in ambiant atmosphere, in standard atmosphere, in ambiant atmosphere,
to the reference to the pressure Ps to the pressure Ps to the reference
pressure Ps prevailing at this point prevailing at this point pressure Ps
1233 22 0
The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by correction based on an bimettalic strip return spring second calibrated port
adding a: accelerometer sensor.
1234 22 1
The density altitude is : the altitude of the the temperature altitude the pressure altitude the pressure altitude
standard atmosphere on corrected for the corrected for the relative corrected for the density
which the density is difference between the density prevailing at this of air at this point
equal to the actual real temperature and point
density of the the standard
atmosphere temperature
1235 22 1
The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static position pressure error. barometric error. instrument error. hysteresis effect.
1236 22 pressure near the source is known as: 1
Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked 3,4. 2,4. 1,3. 1,2.
turn, the rate-of-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control
instrument ; when it is associated with an attitude indicator it indicates
:_x000D_
_x000D_
1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis_x000D_
2. The bank of the aircraft_x000D_
3. The direction of the aircraft turn_x000D_
4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

1237 22 0
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, a three-phase voltage a DC voltage varying an AC voltage varying an AC voltage, the
connected to an RPM indicator is : frequency varies with with the RPM ; the with the RPM ; the frequency of which
the RPM; the indicator is indicator is a simple indicator rectifies the varies with the RPM; the
provided with a motor voltmeter with a rev/min. signal via a diode bridge indicator converts the
which drives a magnetic scale and is provided with a signal into square
tachometer voltmeter pulses which are then
counted
1238 22 0
 The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of:_x000D_ 1, 2 and 3. 3 and 4. 1 and 3. 1, 2, 3 and 4.
_x000D_
1- a specific dedicated screen _x000D_
2- a screen combined with the weather radar_x000D_
3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows
the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory
(RA)_x000D_
4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1239 22 0
In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports breaking the rate-of- slightly opening a descending as much as calculating the ambient
are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a climb indicator glass window to restore the possible in order to fly at static pressure, allowing
practically correct static pressure intake : window ambient pressure in the a pressure as close to for the altitude and QNH
cabin 1013.25 hPa as and adjusting the
possible instruments

1240 22 1
Today's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-Venant formula), The airspeed, whatever The equivalent The conventional The true airspeed
indicate, in the absence of static (and instrumental) error : the altitude airspeed, in all cases airspeed (CAS) in all
cases
1241 22 0
The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is F.M.S. (Flight air traffic control radar transponders fitted in airborne weather radar
1242 22 based on the use of : Management System) systems the aircraft system 0
In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance turn left/turn right too low terrain glide slope climb/descent
1243 22 System) will give information such as : 0
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance in horizontal and vertical based on speed control only in the vertical plane only in the horizontal
1244 22 resolutions : planes plane 0
Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) : Resolution Advisory No protection is In one of the system In one of the system
(RA) must not be available against aircraft modes, the warning : modes, the warning :
followed without not equipped with a "TOO LOW TERRAIN" "PULL UP" is generated
obtaining clearance serviceable SSR is generated
from ATC transponder
1245 22 0
The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is 2,3 1,3 1,2,4 2,4
governed by laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as
:_x000D_
1- the descent rate_x000D_
2- the climb rate_x000D_
3- the aircraft configuration_x000D_
4- the selected engine rpm_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1246 22 0
 The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with :_x000D_ 4 1,2 1,2,4 1,2,3,4
1- aircraft attitude_x000D_
2- accelerations_x000D_
3- atmospheric pressure_x000D_
4- temperature_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1247 22 0
The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of :_x000D_ 1,2,3 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,4
1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage_x000D_
2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage_x000D_
3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage_x000D_
4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase
voltage_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1248 22 0
The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information yaw damper action on rudder displacement by yaw damper action only rudder position
1249 22 regarding the: the rudder the rudder pedals on the ground 1
A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors vibration period vibration amplitude at a acceleration measured vibration frequency
(accelerometers). It indicates the : expressed in seconds given frequency by the sensors, expressed in Hz
expressed in g
1250 22 0
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere equal to the standard lower than the real the same as the real higher than the real
where all the atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is : altitude. altitude. altitude. altitude.
1251 22 0
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC a DC voltage varying an AC voltage, the an AC voltage varying a three-phase voltage,
generator, connected to RPM indicator, is : with the RPM; the frequency of which with the RPM; the the frequency of which
indicator is a plain varies with the RPM; the indicator rectifies the varies with the RPM; the
voltmeter with a rev/min. indicator converts the signal via a diode bridge indicator is provided
scale signal into square and is provided with a with a motor which
pulses which are then voltmeter drives a magnetic
counted tachometer

1252 22 0
Given :_x000D_ Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M²) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M²) Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M²) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M²)
- Ts the static temperature (SAT)_x000D_
- Tt the total temperature (TAT)_x000D_
- Kr the recovery coefficient_x000D_
- M the Mach number_x000D_
The total temperature can be expressed approximately by the
formula :
1253 22 0
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm serviceable SSR serviceable weather SELCAL system DME system
system which detects a "traffic" when the conflicting traffic is transponder radar
equipped with a :
1254 22 1
 When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an a constant speed on all aeroplane piloting aeroplane stabilisation aeroplane piloting and
automatic pilot enables : _x000D_ track, wings horizontal. and guidance functions with attitude hold or guidance functions.
except maintaining maintaining vertical
radio-navigation course speed and possibly
lines. automatic trim.

1255 22 0
On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode is engaged: by the pilot pushing a by the pilot selecting automatically in case of if the aircraft reaches
button located on the G.A. mode on the thrust an autopilot or flight the decision height
throttles. computer control panel. director alarm. selected on the radio
altimeter at a higher
speed than the one
selected.
1256 22 1
Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means: Localizer ALARM, Coupling has occurred Localizer is armed and System is armed for
making localizer and system provides coupling will occur when localizer approach and
approach not authorized control data to capture flag warning disappears coupling will occur upon
the centerline capturing center line

1257 22 0
A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: Is automatically Is fully independent of Only works of there is a Contains its own
connected to the external energy complete electrical separate gyro
primary vertical gyro if resources in an failure
the alternator fails emergency situation
1258 22 0
If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for At high speed the non- There will be no ATC will get an At high speed, the non-
position error and another altimeter which is not ; and all other factors compensated altimeter difference between erroneous altitude compensated altimeter
being equal... will indicate a lower them if the air data report SSR will indicate a higher
altitude computer (ADC) is altitude
functioning normally
1259 22 0
For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during Height indication is DH lamp flashes red DH lamp flashes red Audio warning signal
approach the .. removed and the audio signal sounds
sounds
1260 22 1
Indication of Mach number is obtained from: Indicated speed and An ordinary airspeed A kind of echo sound Indicated speed (IAS)
altitude using a speed indicator scaled for comparing velocity of compared with true air
indicator equipped with Mach numbers instead sound with indicated speed (TAS) from the air
an altimeter type of knots speed data computer
aneroid
1261 22 1
The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a (i) static pressure (ii) (i) vacuum (or a very (i) static pressure at (i) total pressure (ii)
sealed casing._x000D_ total pressure low pressure) (ii) static time t (ii) static pressure static pressure
The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are pressure at time t - t
respectively :
1262 22 0
 In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the a triangular amplitude a frequency modulation a pulse transmission, for a wave transmission, for
ground) is based upon: modulation wave, for wave, for which the which time between which the frequency
which modulation phase frequency variation transmission and shift by DOPPLER effect
shift between between the transmitted reception is measured after ground reflection is
transmitted and wave and the received on a circular scanning measured.
received waves after wave after ground screen.
ground reflection is reflection is measured.
measured.

1263 22 0
1264 22 On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the: standard altitude pressure altitude density altitude temperature altitude 0
The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are : VLO for the lower limit VLE for the lower limit VFE for the lower limit VNO for the lower limit
and VNE for the upper and VNE for the upper and VNE for the upper and VNE for the upper
limit limit limit limit
1265 22 0
During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant The Mach number The Mach number The Mach number is The Mach number is
calibrated airspeed (CAS) : increases and the true increases and the true constant and the true constant and the true
airspeed (TAS) airspeed (TAS) is airspeed (TAS) is airspeed (TAS)
increases. constant. constant. decreases.
1266 22 1
The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a rating is the minimum propeller efficency is propoller generates rating is the maximum
small red arc within the arc normally used (green arc)_x000D_ usable in cruise minimum at this rating vibration, continuous possible in continuous
In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the : rating is forbidden mode
1267 22 0
The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different maximum speed in optimum climbing speed speed not to be minimum control speed,
sectors and color marks. The blue line corresponds to the : operations, or VMO with one engine exceeded, or VNE or VMC
inoperative, or Vy
1268 22 0
The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot takes place : according to an according to an at a constant heading at a constant magnetic
interception versus interception versus course
radio deviation law range and angular
1269 22 0
The "heading hold" mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a cannot be centered is centered if the aircraft is centered if the aircraft is centered if the aircraft
course to steer of 180°. Your aircraft holds a heading of 160°. The is on optimum path to has a starboard drift of has a port drift of 20°
vertical bar of the FD: join heading 180° 20°
1270 22 0
 The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out 2 and 4. 1 and 3. 2 and 3. 1 and 4.
by:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant
calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number_x000D_
2- the autothrottles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated
airspeed (CAS) or Mach number_x000D_
3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path holding
mode_x000D_
4- the autothrottles in the altitude or glide path holding mode_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1271 22 0
A gyromagnetic compass or heading reference unit is an assembly 2,5 1,3,5 2,3,5 1,4
which always consists of :_x000D_
1- a directional gyro_x000D_
2- a vertical axis gyro_x000D_
3- an earth's magnetic field detector_x000D_
4- an azimuth control_x000D_
5- a synchronising control_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1272 22 0
A radio altimeter can be defined as a : ground radio aid used to ground radio aid used to self-contained on-board self-contained on-board
measure the true height measure the true aid used to measure the aid used to measure the
of the aircraft altitude of the aircraft true height of the aircraft true altitude of the
aircraft
1273 22 0
The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are : VSI for the lower limit VSO for the lower limit VSI for the lower limit VSO for the lower limit
and VFE for the upper and VLE for the upper and VLE for the upper and VFE for the upper
limit limit limit limit
1274 22 0
When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-around :_x000D_ 1, 3 and 4. 1, 2 and 3. 1, 2 and 5. 1, 4 and 5.
_x000D_
1- the autothrottle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the
TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around) switch in order to recover the maximum
thrust_x000D_
2- the autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the
airplane_x000D_
3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap
deflection in order to reduce the drag_x000D_
4- the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the
airplane_x000D_
5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in
order to reduce the drag_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1275 22 0
 The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed expressed in : true airspeed (TAS). computed airspeed calibrated airspeed equivalent airspeed
1276 22 (COAS). (CAS). (EAS). 0
A failed RMI rose is locked on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°. 135°. Impossible to read, due 315°.
1277 22 225°. The relative bearing to the station is : to failure RMI. 0
An airplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a remains constant. decreases if the static increases. decreases.
constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the temperature is lower
calibrated airspeed: than the standard
temperature, increases
if above.

1278 22 0
A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatorily a sound alarm or a a sound and visual a visual alarm to which at least one sound
installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate : visual alarm alarm a sound alarm can be alarm to which a visual
alarm can be added
1279 22 0
The essential components of a flight director are :_x000D_ 2,4 2,3 1,4 1,2
1- a computer_x000D_
2- an automatic pilot_x000D_
3- an autothrottle_x000D_
4- command bars_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1280 22 0
A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light twin-engined heading altitude heading, to hold the heading and to hold the
aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of the automatic pilot is at altitude and to have a altitude
least to hold the: radio axis tracking
function
1281 22 0
An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot : and the autothrottle ensures a correct final and the autothrottle and the autothrottle
ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ensure a correct final ensure a correct final
approach, at least up to ground roll while the approach, at least up to approach, at least up to
ground roll human pilot controls the flare-out flare-out while the
power human pilot controls the
power
1282 22 1
Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the initially by theVMO, then by the MMO by the VMO in still air initially by the MMO,
maximum operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized by the MMO below a then by the VMO below
aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to meet his certain flight level a certain flight level
scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground
speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited :

1283 22 0
The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is total pressure plus static dynamic pressure. total pressure. static pressure.
1284 22 the : pressure. 0
 An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle increases. decreases. decreases if the outside remains constant.
maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature temperature is lower
decreases, the calibrated airspeed: than the standard
temperature, increases
if higher.

1285 22 0
An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle decreases. increases if the static remains constant. increases.
maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature temperature is higher
increases, the calibrated airspeed: than the standard
temperature, decreases
if lower.
1286 22 0
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the WHOOP WHOOP PULL DON'T SINK always DON'T SINK followed by DON'T SINK repetitive
following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a UP repetitive only followed by WHOOP WHOOP WHOOP PULL only
take-off or a go-around : WHOOP PULL UP UP if the sink rate
overshoots a second
level
1287 22 0
The basis properties of a gyroscope are :_x000D_ 3,4 2,5 2,3,5 1,3,5
1. The gyro's weight._x000D_
2. The rigidity in space._x000D_
3. The inertia._x000D_
4. The high RPM._x000D_
5. The precession_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :
1288 22 0
The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is static temperature Mach number of the deformation of the aircraft altitude
1289 22 connected varies substantially with the: aircraft aneroid capsule 0
The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to: allow damping of the reduce the hysteresis reduce the effect of inform the crew of a
measurement in the unit effect friction in the linkages failure of the instrument
1290 22 0
The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the: time passed at a given mach number of the aircraft altitude. static temperature.
1291 22 altitude. aircraft. 1
VLE is the maximum : speed authorized in flight speed with landing speed at which the speed with flaps
flight gear down landing gear can be extended in a given
operated with full safety position
1292 22 0
VLO is the maximum : speed at which the flight speed with landing speed with flaps cruising speed not to be
landing gear can be gear down. extended in a given exceeded except in still
operated with full safety. position. air with caution.
1293 22 1
VNE is the maximum speed : at which the flight with flaps extended in which must never be not to be exceeded
controls can be fully landing position exceeded except in still air and
deflected with caution
1294 22 0
 VNO is the maximum speed : which must never be at which the flight with flaps extended in not to be exceeded
exceeded. controls can be fully landing position. except in still air and
deflected. with caution.
1295 22 0
The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of - 300 ft/min - 150 ft/min - 250 ft/min - 500 ft/min.
100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates :
1296 22 0
The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,2,3 1,3,4
altitude are :_x000D_
_x000D_
1. Position/pressure error correction_x000D_
2. Hysteresis error correction_x000D_
3. Remote data transmission capability_x000D_
4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the event of a
failure_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

1297 22 0
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the a compressibility and an instrument and an antenna and and instrument and
indicated airspeed (IAS) : density correction. position/pressure error compressibility density correction.
correction. correction.
1298 22 0
The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are : VS1 for the lower limit VS1 for the lower limit VS1 for the lower limit VS0 for the lower limit
and VNE for the upper and VLO for the upper and VNO for the upper and VNO for the upper
limit limit limit limit
1299 22 0
Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an two degrees of freedom, two degrees of freedom, one degree of freedom, one degree of freedom,
essential part. It uses a gyroscope with :_x000D_ whose axis is oriented whose horizontal axis whose horizontal axis is whose vertical axis
Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are and continously corresponding to a maintained in a oriented in the direction
determined by the number of gimbal rings it comprises. maintained to local reference direction is horizontal plane by an of the real vertical to the
vertical by an automatic maintained in a automatic erecting location is maintained in
erecting system. horizontal plane by an system this direction by an
automatic erecting automatic erecting
system system

1300 22 1
With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed increasing speed. fluctuating speed. decreasing speed. constant speed.
1301 22 indicator will indicate in descent a : 0
 The indication of the directional gyro as an on-board instrument are 1,3,4 1,2,3,4,5,6 2,5,6 1,3,4,6
valid only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are
:_x000D_
1. The earth's rotation_x000D_
2. The longitudinal acceleration_x000D_
3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the earth._x000D_
4. The mechanical defects of the gyro_x000D_
5. The gyro's weight_x000D_
6. The gimbal mount of the gyro rings_x000D_
The combination of correct statements is :

1302 22 0
With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft calibrated airspeed. ground speed. true airspeed. equivalent airspeed.
1303 22 always takes off at the same : 1
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total decreases abruptly increases steadily increases abruptly decreases stadily
pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds towards zero towards VNE
that indicated airspeed :
1304 22 0
The mach number is the: indicated airspeed (IAS) equivalent airspeed true airspeed (TAS) corrected airspeed
divided by the local (EAS) divided by the divided by the local (CAS) divided by the
speed of sound local speed of sound speed of sound local speed of sound
1305 22 0
The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of (Pt + Ps) to Ps (Pt - Ps) to Ps Pt to Ps (Pt - Ps) to Pt
1306 22 the ratio : 0
After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has increases steadily decreases abruptly decreases steadily increases abruptly
blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the towards zero towards VNE
pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated
airspeed :
1307 22 0
The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of : the outside temperature the static pressure the total pressure the differential pressure
measurement
1308 22 1
The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern 1, 2, 3 and 4. 1 and 3. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. 1 and 5.
transport airplane receives information about the: _x000D_
_x000D_
1- angle of attack_x000D_
2- engine R.P.M._x000D_
3- configuration_x000D_
4- pitch and bank attitude_x000D_
5- sideslip_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1309 22 0
 A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. 1,2 and 4. 3, 4, 5 and 6.
automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with aural and/or
light warning signals in the case of:_x000D_
_x000D_
1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain_x000D_
2- a dangerous proximity to the ground_x000D_
3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around_x000D_
4- an abnormal flight attitude_x000D_
5- an abnormal landing configuration_x000D_
6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slope_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1310 22 1
A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to : a barometric aneroid a barometric aneroid a barometric aneroid a barometic aneroid
capsule and an capsule and an capsule subjected to a capsule subjected to a
airspeed sensor airspeed sensor static pressure and an dynamic pressure and
subjected to dynamic subjected to a static airspeed sensor an airspeed sensor
pressure. pressure. subjected to a dynamic subjected to a static
pressure. pressure.
1311 22 0
The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro one degree of freedom, two degrees of freedom, two degrees of freedom, one degree of freedom,
stabilised compass system are : whose vertical axis, whose horizontal axis whose axis aligned with whose horizontal axis is
aligned with the real corresponding to the the vertical to the maintained in the
vertical to the location is reference direction is location is maintained in horizontal plane by an
maintained in this maintained in the this direction by an automatic erecting
direction by an horizontal plane by an erecting system. system.
automatic erecting automatic erecting
system. system.

1312 22 0
The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not modified if one or these metals are these metals are contact points are these metals are not the
several intermediate metals are inserted in the circuit provided that: maintained at a maintained at a maintained at equal same as those
temperature higher than temperature lower than temperature between constituting the
that of the cold source. that of the cold source. these different metals. thermocouple.

1313 22 0
An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a decreases if the static decreases. increases. remains constant.
constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the temperature is lower
calibrated airspeed : than the standard
temperature, increases
if higher.

1314 22 0
 A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides: the intruder relative the intruder relative the intruder relative a simple intruding
position and possibly an position and possibly an position and possibly an airplane proximity
indication of a collision indication of a collision indication of a collision warning.
avoidance manoeuvre avoidance manoeuvre avoidance manoeuvre
within both the vertical within the horizontal within the vertical plane
and horizontal planes. plane only. only.

1315 22 0
A "Bourdon Tube" is used in:_x000D_ pressure sensors vibration detectors smoke detectors turbine temperature
1316 22 probes 1
The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, is at its greatest value shows itself by an is dependent on the is, in spite of this,
one of which is due to the movement of the aircraft._x000D_ when the aircraft follows apparent rotation of the ground speed of the insignificant and may be
This error... a meridional track horizontal axis of the aircraft, its true track neglected
gyroscope which seems and the average latitude
to turn at 15° per hour to of the flight
the right in the northern
hemisphere

1317 22 0
A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a an amplifier. a feedback control an autopilot. a servomechanism.
much larger power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known circuit.
as :
1318 22 0
(Use the appendix to answer this question)_x000D_ 1 2 3 4
_x000D_
The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose down attitude
is n°
1319 22 1
The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based Kinetic pressure Static pressure Dynamic pressure Total pressure
1320 22 on the measurement of the rate of change of: 0
When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a magnetic 2, 3, and 4. 1 and 3. 2 and 3. 1, 2, and 4.
compass tends to "undershoot;" when turning onto a southerly
heading it tends to "overshoot":_x000D_
_x000D_
1)these compass indications are less reliable in the northern
hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere._x000D_
2)these compass oscillations following a lateral gust are not identical
if the aircraft is heading north or south._x000D_
3) this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction of the
compass. _x000D_
4) this behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung compass._x000D_
_x000D_
The correct statements are :

1321 22 0
 A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn._x000D_ 1, 2, and 3. 1 and 2. 1 and 3. 2 and 3.
Rate of turn depends upon :_x000D_
_x000D_
1 : bank angle_x000D_
2 : aeroplane speed_x000D_
3 : aeroplane weight_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping the correct statements is :
1322 22 0
The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a low pressure an aneroid capsule. a bellows sensor. a Bourdon tube. a differential capsule.
1323 22 fuel pump is: 1
The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine a differential capsule. a Bourdon tube. a bellows sensor. an aneroid capsule.
1324 22 engined powerplant is: 0
The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are:_x000D_ 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 4.
_x000D_
1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance_x000D_
2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power supply_x000D_
3- the measurement is independent of temperature
variations_x000D_
4- the option to use without restriction several indicators connected in
parallel to a single transmitter_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1325 22 0
A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the "hot cold junction is hot junction is cold junction is hot junction is
junction" and the "cold junction" of a thermocouple can be directly maintained constant. maintained constant. maintained at 15 °C. maintained at 15 °C.
graduated in temperature values provided that the temperature of
the:
1326 22 1
Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro : consumes a lot of power has a longer life cycle is influenced by has a fairly long starting
1327 22 temperature cycle 0
Among the following engine instruments, the one operating with an oil pressure gauge. fuel pressure gauge. oil thermometer. manifold pressure
1328 22 aneroid pressure diaphragm is the : gauge. 0
Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is amplifier. error detector. erecting system. heading indicator.
1329 22 transmitted to the : 0
The principle of capacitor gauges is based on: the variation of capacity the variation of flow and the variation in capacity the current variation in a
by volumetric torque exercised in a of a condensor with the Wheastone bridge
measurement exercised supply line nature of the dielectric
on the sensor

1330 22 0
 A paddle-wheel placed in a the fuel circuit of a gas turbine engine volumetric flow by a tally mass flow by a tally of volumetric flow by mass flow by measure
initially measures: of the impulses the impulses measure of a voltage of a voltage proportional
proportional to the to the rotational speed
rotational speed
1331 22 1
The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to coincide the compass north and the compass north and compass north and true true north and magnetic
indications of:_x000D_ lubber line. magnetic north. north. north.
1332 22 0
The position of a Flight Director command bars:_x000D_ indicates the repeats the ADI and HSI enables the only displays
manoeuvers to execute, information measurement of information relating to
to achieve or maintain a deviation from a given radio-electric deviation.
flight situation. position.

1333 22 1
In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on equal to 180° on a 090° none on a 270° heading none on a 090° heading equal to 180° on a 270°
the northern hemisphere is: heading in a right turn. in a left turn. in a right turn. heading in a right turn.
1334 22 1
(For this question use appendix )_x000D_ 2 3 4 1
_x000D_
The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder
is:_x000D_

1335 22 0
The advantages of an electric float gauge are:_x000D_ 1, 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 4
_x000D_
1- ease of manufacture_x000D_
2- independence of the indication relative to the variations of the
aircraft power system if the measurement is made by a
ratiometer_x000D_
3- independence of the indication relative to the variations of the
aircraft power system if the measurement is made by a
galvanometer_x000D_
4- independence of the indication relative to temperature
variations_x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1336 22 1
The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity twice that of air and the same as that of air twice that of air and the same as that of air
gauging system can be graduated directly in weight units because the varies directly with and varies directly with varies inversely with and varies inversely
dielectric constant of fuel is: density. density. density. with density.
1337 22 1
Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented ADI Attitude Display BDHI Bearing Distance RMI Radio Magnetic HSI Horizontal Situation
in the form of command bars on the following instrument: Indicator. Heading Indicator. Indicator. Indicator.
1338 22 1
 The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature indicator is that is simple. can operate without an is very accurate. carries out an
it: electrical power supply. independent
measurement of the
supply voltage.
1339 22 0
Given :_x000D_ Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M²) Ts = Tt.(0.2. M²) Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M²) Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M²)
M is the Mach number_x000D_
Ts is the static temperature_x000D_
Tt is the total temperature
1340 22 0
Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) :_x000D_ 1, 2. 2, 3. 3, 4. 1, 4.
_x000D_
1- the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director Bars._x000D_
2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight
Display)._x000D_
3- the PFD is the main flying instrument._x000D_
4- the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1341 22 0
The data supplied by a radio altimeter: indicates the distance concerns only the is used only by the radio is used by the automatic
between the ground and decision height. altimeter indicator. pilot in the altitude hold
the aircraft. mode.
1342 22 1
The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision 3, 5 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 5
approaches:_x000D_
_x000D_
1 operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range._x000D_
2 are of the pulsed type._x000D_
3 are of the frequency modulation type._x000D_
4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft._x000D_
5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft._x000D_
_x000D_
The combination of the correct statements is :

1343 22 1
In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing change the display compensate residual account for signal place the antennas on
gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to: scale in short final, in altitude due to antennas processing time in the the bottom of the
order to have a precise height above the ground unit and apply a aeroplane.
readout. and coaxial cables correction factor to the
length. reading.

1344 22 0
 (For this question use annex 022-10217A)_x000D_ increase the flight decrease the flight increase the flight decrease the flight
After having programmed your flight director, you see that the attitude until the attitude until the attitude until the attitude until the
indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are as command bars recentre command bars recentre command bars recentre command bars recentre
represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this on the symbolic on the symbolic on the horizon. on the horizon.
instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane. airplane.
airplane to the left and :
1345 22 1
During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly direction, the an apparent turn t