Audit MCQ For CA IPCC OldNew Syllabus by CA Nitin Gupta PDF

RATHORE INSTITUTE
M.C.Q.s
CA NITIN GUPTA
(M.Com, F.C.A.)
RATHORE INSTITUTE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
AUDITING & ASSURANCE
(CA-INTER, OLD & NEW SYLLABUS)
VOLUME-1
BY: CA. NITIN GUPTA
[M.COM, FCA]
800+
Question No.1 to 660 are for Both (New and Old)
Question No. 661 to 744 are for Only for Old Syllabus Students
Question 745- 856 are Only for New Syllabus Students
 Answers of 300 multiple choice questions are provided at

the end of booklet.
 To get answer of all the questions send a request “Answers
of MCQ” on whatsapp No. 8178701058 or Message your
email-id at this no.
 Volume 2 will be released at the end of January 2019. You
will get it on your whatsapp no. /email.
RATHORE INSTITUTE CA. NITIN GUPTA

1. The main objective of financial audit is________
a) Expression of opinion
b) Detection and prevention of fraud and error
c) Designing internal control system
d) All of these
2. Auditor gives ________ regarding the financial statements
a) True and fair view
b) Correct view
c) Fair view
d) Completely true
3. Auditing begins where__________ends.
a) Selling
b) Inventory valuation
c) Accounting
d) Purchase
4. Which type of organizations use auditing services?
a) Non-profit-organizations
b) Business
c) Governments
d) All of the above
5. Auditing should be
a) Independent
b) Compulsory
c) On the request of government
d) None of the above
6. Independence comprises
a) Independence by mind
b) Independence in appearance
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
7. If auditor maintains high degree of independence, it will result in
a) Attention of media
b) Reward by CG
c) Enhanced reliability on financial statements
d) Good relationship with the entity.
8. Auditor should have knowledge of
a) Accounting
b) Auditing
c) Law applicable on the entity
d) All of these
9. Auditor should have communication skills in following areas:
a) Oral skills
b) Written skills
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) He does not require any communication skills
10. Function of audit is to
a) Detect errors
b) Detect fraud
c) Safeguard the interest of stakeholders
d) All the above
11. Which is NOT the function of an auditor?
a) To give a true and fair view
b) To take care of all the statutory acts applicable
c) To do arithmetic checking
d) To prepare accounts
12. The basic requirement which is absent is auditing is
a) Exact accounts
b) Certainty in financial statements
c) Conclusive evidence
d) All of the above
13. Which of the following statement is not true
a) The auditor shall express an opinion on financial statements
b) Auditor’s opinion is not guarantee to future viability of business
c) Auditor is responsible for prevention and detection of fraud and error in financial statements
d) Auditor should examine whether recognized accounting principles have been followed
14. Auditor should be done by
a) A professional accountant
b) A certified management accountant
c) A competent and independent person
d) A chartered accountant
15. Which of the following is least likely to be required in an audit?
a) Test appropriateness of journal entries and adjustment
b) Review accounting estimates for biases
c) Evaluate the business rationale for significant, unusual transactions
d) Make a legal determination of whether fraud has occurred
16. It is not uncommon in auditing

a) Giving the satisfaction to the owner regarding the profits made
b) Protecting the rights of shareholders
c) Helping to give true and fair profits of the organization
d) All of the above
17. Auditing has all features except
a) Done every financial year
b) Based on conclusive evidence
c) Mandatory for companies
18. The primary objective of the ordinary examination of financial statement by an auditor is the
expression of an opinion on
a) The competence of management in accounting matters which is implied by whether the opinion is
qualified or not
b) The conformity of the statements with the book of account
c) The conformity of the financial statements with generally accepted auditing standards applied on a basis
consistent with that of the prior year
d) The fairness with which the financial statements present cash flows and results of operations
19. The principal objective of an audit is the examination of financial statements of an enterprise with a
view for the auditor to form and express an independent opinion on the truth and fairness for the benefit
of which one of the following?
a) The members
b) Corporate Governance
c) The Corporate Affairs Commission
d) Government authorities
20. The factor which distinguishes an error from fraud and other irregularity is
a) Whether it is a caused by officer of the entity or employee of the entity
b) Intention
c) Materiality
d) Whether it is caused by the auditor or the client
21. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a) An external auditor is required for all types of entity
b) External auditors are appointed by an entity’s management
c) Staff auditors make a report for the baseline employees
d) Staff auditors work is to identify potential risk areas for a company
22. Pick the odd one
a) Those Charged with Governance
b) Management
c) Employees
d) Auditor

a) Preparation of financial statements
b) Designing, implementation and maintenance of internal control system
c) Reporting on true and fair view of financial statements
d) Compliance with the applicable law and regulation
a) Balance Sheet
b) Audit Report
c) Profit & Loss Account
d) Cash Flow Statement
25. When the auditor is an employee of the organization being audited (Auditee), the audit is classified as
a) Internal audit
b) External audit
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
26. Professional skepticism requires the auditor assume that management is
a) Reasonably honest
b) Neither honest nor dishonest
c) Not necessarily honest
d) Dishonest unless proved otherwise
27. Professional skepticism requires that the auditor should be_____________ indicating _______________
a) Ignorant, Possible misstatements
b) Alert, Possible misstatements
c) Alert, Management bias
d) Ignorant, Possible misstatements.
28. Professional skepticism includes being alert to, for example
a) Audit evidence that contradicts other audit evidence obtained
b) Overlooking unusual circumstances
c) Conditions that may indicate possible fraud
d) All of above
29. Holding financial interest in a client and close business relationship with him give rise to____________
a) Self- review threat
b) Advocacy threat
c) Familiarity threat
d) Self-interest threat
30. If the professional becomes a witness where the part to litigation is his client, it will result in _________
b) Advocacy threat
31. If the auditor is having long association with client it will give rise to _____________
b) Advocacy threat
32. If the professional who is preparing the books of accounts is also auditing the financial statements, it
shall give rise to
a) Self-review threat
b) Advocacy threat
33. If the auditor is facing threat from the client to be dismissed if he refuses to act as per their wishes, it
shall give rise to___________
a) Familiarity threat
b) Intimidation threat
c) Advocacy threat
d) Self-review threat
34. Standards on Auditing are applicable on
a) Auditing Engagement
b) Review Engagement
c) Assurance Engagement
d) Related Service Engagement
35. Standards on Auditing are issued by
a) Accounting Standard Board
b) Quality Review Board
c) Auditing & Assurance Standard Board
d) Board of Studies
36. In the financial audit, the auditor expresses opinion on
a) True and Fair view of financial statements
b) True and Correct view of financial statements
c) Effective operation of internal control system
d) Business operation of the entity
37. Which of the following is not component of financial statement
a) Profit and Loss Account
b) Balance Sheet
c) Notes to Accounts
d) Board’s Report

a) Checking the vouchers
b) Preparation of vouchers
c) Evaluation of internal control
39. Which of the following is not type of engagement standard
a) Standards on Auditing
b) Standard on Quality Control
c) Standards on Review Engagement
d) Standards on Assurance Engagement
40. In which of the following engagement opinion is not expressed
a) Related Services Engagement
b) Auditing Engagement
c) Review Engagement
d) Assurance Engagement
41. In which of the following engagement an opinion is expressed on a subject matter other than the
historical financial information
a) Auditing Engagement
b) Review Engagement
c) Assurance Engagement
d) Related Services Engagement
42. Which of the following is not code of ethics
a) Objectivity
b) Integrity
c) Communication skills
d) Professional competence and due care
b) Standard on Quality Control
c) Standards on Review Engagement
d) Standards on Assurance Engagement
44. How many Standards on Auditing have been issued
a) 32
b) 34
c) 36
d) 38
45. Standards on Auditing are____________
a) Mandatory
b) Optional
c) Discretionary
d) All of these
46. General purpose financial statements are prepared as per
a) General purpose financial reporting framework
b) Special purpose financial reporting framework
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
47. Designing, implementation and maintenance of internal control system are the responsibilities of
a) Management of entity
b) External Auditor of entity
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Internal Auditor of entity
48. Auditing engagement can be performed w.r.t.
a) Profit making entity
b) Non-profit making entity
c) Corporate entity only
d) Any entity
49. Scope of financial audit is
a) Financial information
b) Non-financial information
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
50. ______________ along with other disciplines such as accounting and law equips you with all the
knowledge that is required to enter into auditing as a profession.
a) Auditing
b) Taxation
c) Finance
d) Taxation and Finance both
51. No business or institution can effectively carry on its activities without the help of proper________
a) Audit
b) Records and accounts
c) Neither (a) nor (b)
d) Both (a) and (b)
52. _______________ increases the revenue earning capacity of the business
a) Capital expenditure
b) Revenue expenditure
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Both (a) and (b) and deferred revenue expenditures
53. The purpose of providing depreciation is

a) Adherence to matching concept
b) Keeping the capital invested in fixed asset intact
c) Compliance with statutory requirement and presenting true and fair view
d) All of these
54. As per SA-200 “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor,” in conducting an audit of financial
statements, the overall objectives of the auditor are:
a) To obtain reasonable assurance
b) To report on the financial statements
c) Both (a) and (b) above
55. The auditor cannot obtain an absolute assurance due to_________
a) Lack of accounting knowledge
b) Lack of auditing knowledge
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Inherent limitations of auditing
56. The auditor’s __________ safeguard the auditor’s ability to form an audit opinion without being
affected by any influences.
a) Objectivity
b) Independence
c) Confidentiality
d) Integrity
57. SA Series 500-599 cover the aspects of_______
a) Introductory matters
b) General Principles and Responsibilities
c) Audit Evidence
d) Audit Conclusion and Reporting
58. SA Series 700-799 cover the aspects of ________
c) Audit Evidence
59. SA Series 200-299 cover the aspects of
c) Audit Evidence
60. SA Series 600-699 cover the aspects of
a) Using the work of others
b) Audit Evidence
c) Risk Assessment and Auditor’s Response
61. The______________ have been issued with a view to securing compliance by members on matters
which, in the opinion of the Council, are critical for proper discharging of their functions.
a) Statements
b) Guidance Notes
c) Standards on Audit
d) All of these
62. _____________ are designed to provide guidance to members on the matters which may arise in the
course of their professional work and on which they may desire assistance in resolving issues that may
pose difficulty.
a) Statements
b) Guidance notes
c) Standards on Audit
d) All of these
63. Guidance notes are
a) Mandatory
b) Recommendatory
c) None of these
64. Internal audit may cover the aspects_________
a) Financial
b) Non-Financial
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
65. Internal auditor is appointed by
a) Management
b) The shareholders
c) CG
d) External auditor
66. The area of work is determined by management
a) Insurance audit
b) Sole proprietorship audit
c) Internal audit
d) Bank audit
67. _________ audit assists the management in finding out new ideas for marketing and other business
areas.
a) Secretarial audit
b) Insurance audit
c) Internal audit
d) Tax audit
68. An audit which is compulsory by law is called as
a) Government Audit
b) Internal Audit
c) Cost Audit
d) Statutory Audit
69. For which of the following entities statutory audit of financial statement is not conducted
a) Banking Companies
b) Insurance Companies
c) Partnership Firm
d) One Person Company
70. Accounting and Internal Control system are the responsibilities of:
a) TCWG & Management of entity
c) Internal Auditor of the entity
d) All of above
71. Compliance with Laws and Regulations which are applicable of the entity, is the responsibility of _____
a) TCWG and Management of entity
c) Internal Auditor of entity
d) All of above
72. Which of the following is not basic principle of auditing
a) Integrity, Objectivity and Independency
b) Confidentiality
c) Written Representation
d) Audit Planning
73. Which of the following is basic principle of auditing
a) Audit Documentation
b) Audit Evidence
c) Skills and competence
d) All of above
74. Which of the following is exception of confidentiality by auditor
a) If permitted by client to disclose any information
b) If there is any legal professional duty of auditor to disclose any information
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
75. Auditor must have sound knowledge of
a) Accountancy
b) Auditing
c) Client’s Nature of Business
d) All of above
76. As per SA 200, which level of assurance the auditor shall obtain that financial statements are free from
material misstatements
a) Reasonable Assurance
b) Absolute Assurance
c) Moderate Assurance
d) None of these
77. Reasonable assurance is _______________ level of assurance but it is not ______________ assurance.
a) High, Absolute
b) Absolute, Guaranteed
c) Moderate, Absolute
d) None of these
78. The inherent limitations of an audit arise from
a) Involvement of judgement
b) Test Checking
c) Time Limitation
d) All of above
79. Which of the following statement is incorrect
a) Sampling is a major inherent limitation of audit.
b) Auditor is not an insurer
c) Auditor’s primary responsibility is to detect errors and frauds in financial statements
d) Auditor needs to be independent
80. Which of the following is responsibility of auditor
a) To ensure that financial statement comply with applicable financial reporting framework
b) To express an opinion on true and fair view of the financial statements.
c) To ensure compliance with laws and regulations applicable on the entity
d) To design, implement and maintain system of internal control.
81. Advantage of independent examination are
a) Credibility of financial statement is enhanced.
b) It is helpful in settling tax liability
c) It acts as moral check on the employees from committing fraud.
d) All of above
82. Accounting policy refers to
a) Specific accounting principle
b) Method of applying accounting principle
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
83. Under which of the following circumstances accounting policy can be changed
a) If it is required by law
b) For compliance with accounting standards
c) On the opinion of management for better presentation of financial statement
d) All of above
84. Fundamental accounting assumptions are
a) Going Concern
b) Consistency
c) Accrual
d) All of above
85. Which of the following section of Companies Act, 2013 deals with eligibility, qualification and
disqualification of auditor
a) Section 140
b) Section 141
c) Section 142
d) Section 143
86. Which of the following section of the Companies Act, 2013, defines meaning of Chartered accountant
a) 2(17)
b) 2(77)
c) 2(87)
d) 2(7)
87. Which of the following is eligible for appointment as auditor of company
a) Any Chartered Accountant
b) A Company whose all the directors are chartered accountants
c) Chartered Accountant holding valid certificate of practice
d) All of these
88. A partnership firm can be appointed as auditor of Company if
a) All the partners of partnership firm are chartered accountants
b) If at least one partner of partnership firm is chartered accountant
c) If majority of partners of the firm is of chartered accountants
d) If at least 2/3rd partners of the firm are chartered accountants
89. In case of partnership firm as auditor of company, audit report shall be signed by:
a) Any partner of the partnership firm
b) Any CA employee of the firm
c) All CA partner of the firm
d) Any CA partner of the firm
a) Limited liability partnership firm can be appointed as auditor of company
b) A Body corporate can be appointed as auditor of company
c) A person who is chartered accountant within the meaning of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and
holding valid certificate of practice can be appointed as auditor of company.
d) None of these.
91. Which of the following is disqualified for appointment as auditor of company
a) Any officer or employee of Co
b) Any officer or employee of holding co of the Co
c) Any officer or employee of subsidiary co of the Co
d) All of these
92. Which of the following is not covered within the meaning of relative u/s 2(77) of the Co Act, 2013
a) Step Father
b) Step Mother
c) Step Sister
d) Step Daughter
93. Which of the following is covered within the meaning of relative u/s 2(77) of the Co Act, 2013
a) Brother’s wife
b) Step brother
c) Sister’s husband
d) Step daughter
94. Which of the following is incorrect
a) Any partner of officer of company shall not be appointed as auditor of company
b) Any employee of officer of company shall not be appointed as auditor of company
c) Any partner of employee of company shall not be appointed as auditor of company
d) Any employee of employee of company can be appointed as auditor of company
95. An individual is disqualified for appointment as auditor of Co
a) If he is holding security of co having total face value exceeding Rs. 1 Lakh
b) If he is holding security of co having total face value exceeding Rs. 1,000/-
c) If he is holding any security of company, irrespective of face value of security
d) None of these
96. An individual is disqualified for appointment as auditor of co if
a) His father is holding security of co having total face value of Rs 1 Lakh
b) His father is holding security of co having total face value exceeding Rs. 1 Lakh
c) His sister’s husband is holding security of co having total face value exceeding Rs. 1 Lakh
d) His step daughter is holding security of co having total face value exceeding Rs. 1 Lakh
97. If a relative acquires security exceeding Rs 1 Lakh, then auditor shall take corrective action within
________ days of such acquisition so as to maintain the limit of Rs 1 Lakh.
a) 60
b) 30
c) 60
d) 120
98. An individual is disqualified for appointment as auditor of co if he is indebtedness to co

a) Rs. 5,00,000
b) Exceeding Rs. 5,00,000
c) Exceeding Rs. 1,00,000
d) Any amount
99. Which of the following transaction is not covered within the meaning of business relationship for the
purpose of disqualification of auditor
a) Commercial transactions which are in the nature of professional services permitted to be rendered by an
auditor under the Co Act, 2013 and Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 and rules or regulations made under
those Acts
b) Commercial transaction which are in the ordinary course of business of the company at arm’s length price
- like sale of product or services to the auditor, as customer, in the ordinary course of business.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
100. A person shall not be appointed as auditor of co, if
a) His relative is director of the company
b) His relative is in the employment of company as key managerial personnel
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) His relative is manager of subsidiary company of the company
101. Audit of which of the following companies is excluded from ceiling limit of audit
a) Government Companies
b) Private Limited Company having paid up share capital Rs 100 Crore or more
c) Audit of Public Companies
d) Dormant Companies
102. A person shall not be appointed as auditor of co if he has been convicted by court for an offence
involving fraud and a period of ___________ years has not been elapsed since such conviction
a) 10 Years
b) 7 Years
c) 8 Years
d) 5 Years
103. Which of the following is not disqualification of company’s auditor
a) Any person who is officer or employee of the company
b) Any person who is indebtedness to company exceeding Rs. 5,00,000
c) Any person who has been convicted by court for an offence involving fraud and a period of 10 years has
not been elapsed since the date of such conviction
d) Any person who is officer or employee of holding co or subsidiary company of the company.
104. Audit of private limited company is exempted from ceiling on number of audits if its
a) Paid up share capital is less than Rs. 10 crore
b) Paid up share capital is less than 20 crore
c) Paid up share capital is less than Rs. 50 crore
d) Paid up share capital is less than Rs. 100 crore

105. First auditor of non- government company is appointed
a) By BoD within 1 month of incorporation of Co
b) By BoD within 30 days of incorporation of Co
c) By Members within 90 days of incorporation of Co
d) By Members within 60 days of incorporation of Co
106. First auditor of government company is appointed
a) By BoD within 1 month of incorporation of co
b) By CAG within 1 month of incorporation of co
c) By CAG within 60 days of incorporation of Co
d) By Members within 90 days of incorporation of Co
107. Subsequent auditor of non-government company is a appointed
a) By Members in EGM by passing ordinary resolution
b) By Members in AGM by passing special resolution
c) By Members in AGM by passing ordinary resolution
d) By BoD in Board Meeting
108. Subsequent auditor of government company is appointed by CAG within_______ days from
commencement of FY which is subject to audit
a) 60 days
b) 180 days
c) 120 days
d) 150 days
109. The provision of section 139(1) are applicable to all companies except:
a) Government Companies
b) One person companies
c) Dormant companies
d) None of these
110. The auditor shall furnish his written consent and a certificate to the company
a) Before his appointment
b) Within 15 days of his appointment
c) Not required to furnish
d) None of these
111. Which of the following Form is filed by Co with RoC as intimation of appointment of subsequent
auditor
a) ADT-1
b) ADT-2
c) ADT-3
d) ADT-4
112. ADT-1 is filed with RoC within

a) Within 15 days of appointment of auditor
b) Within 30 days of appointment of auditor
c) Within 1 month of appointment of auditor
d) Within 60 days of appointment of auditor
113. Tenure of subsequent auditor of non-government company is
a) Till conclusion of next AGM
b) Till conclusion of 5th AGM
c) Till conclusion of 5 years.
d) Till conclusion of 6th AGM
114. Tenure of subsequent auditor of government company is
a) Till conclusion of next AGM
b) Till conclusion of 5th AGM
c) Till conclusion of 5 years
d) Till conclusion of 6th AGM
115. If at AGM no auditor is appointed or reappointed, the following consequence will be there
a) CG shall appoint the auditor
b) CAG shall appoint the auditor
c) Existing auditor shall continue to be auditor of company
d) Due to casual vacancy, BoD shall appoint the auditor
116. Which of the following company in required to constitute an audit committee
a) Listed Company
b) Small Company
c) One Person Company
d) All of these
117. Before making any appointment or reappointment of auditor also including filling of casual vacancy
recommendation of ________________ shall be considered if company falls under section 177(1).
a) Board of Director
b) Audit Committee
c) Tribunal
d) Company Law Board
118. Any casual vacancy in the office of auditor of non-government company is filled by
a) Members within 15 days
b) Members within 30 days
c) BoD within 15 days
d) BoD within 30 days
119. Any casual vacancy in the office of auditor of government company is filled by
a) BoD within 30 days
b) CAG within 30 days
c) CAG within 60 days

d) Members within 90 days
120. If vacancy in the office of auditor of other than government company is caused by resignation by
auditor, then appointment by BoD shall also be approved by company at general meeting within
_____________ months of the recommendation of BoD
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
121. Which of the following in not a case of casual vacancy in the office of auditor of company
a) Death of person appointed as auditor
b) Dissolution of partnership firm appointed as auditor
c) Refusal of appointment by auditor
d) If any disqualification is attracted to auditor after appointment of auditor
122. Any auditor appointed to fill a casual vacancy shall hold office of auditor of company
a) Till conclusion of 6th AGM
b) Till conclusion of next AGM
c) Till he submits his audit report
d) None of these
123. Pick the odd one out
a) Section 139(6)
b) Section 139 (1)
c) Section 139(8)
d) Section 139(10)
124. At any AGM, a retiring auditor may be re-appointed if
a) He is not disqualified for re-appointment
b) He has not given the company a notice in writing of his unwillingness to be re-appointed
c) A special resolution has not been passed at that AGM appointing some other auditor or providing
expressly that he shall not be re-appointed.
d) All of above
125. Remuneration of auditor of company is fixed
a) By company in general meeting
b) By BoD of Co
c) By CG
d) By CAG
126. Remuneration of auditor of government company is fixed
a) By company in general meeting
b) By BoD of Co
c) By CG
d) By CAG
127. At any AGM, a retiring auditor may be re-appointed if
a) He is not disqualified for re-appointment
b) He has not given the company a notice in writing of his unwillingness to be re-appointed
c) A special resolution has not been passed at AGM appointing some other auditor or providing expressly
that he shall not be reappointed.
d) All of the above
128. Rotation of auditor is not applicable on
a) Dormant Company
b) One Person Company
c) Small Company
d) Both (b) and (c)
129. Rotation of auditor is applicable on unlisted public company if
a) Its paid up share capital is more than Rs 10 Crore
b) Its paid up share capital is equal to or more than Rs 10 Crore
c) Its paid up share capital is more than Rs. 50 Crore
d) Its paid up share capital is equal to or more than Rs 50 Crore.
130. Rotation of auditor is applicable of private limited company if
a) Its paid up share capital is more than Rs 10 Crore
b) Its paid up share capital is equal to or more than Rs 10 Crore
c) Its paid up share capital is more than Rs 50 Crore
d) Its paid up share capital is equal to or more than Rs 50 Crore
131. Rotation of auditor is always applicable on
a) Listed Companies
b) Government Companies
c) Private Limited Companies
d) All of these
132. If rotation of auditor is applicable on company, term of an individual auditor will be
a) One term of 5 consecutive years
b) Two terms having 5 consecutive years in each term
c) Till conclusion of next AGM
d) None of these
133. If rotation of auditor is applicable on company, term of partnership firm as auditor will be
a) 10 Years
b) Two terms having 5 consecutive years in each term
c) Till conclusion of next AGM
d) None of these
134. A break in the term for continuous period of ____________ years shall be considered as fulfilling the
requirement of rotation
a) 1 Year
b) 5 Years
c) 10 Years
d) 20 Years
135. As on date of appointment no audit firm having a common partner or partners to audit firm, whose
tenure has expired in a company, shall be appointed as auditor of the same company for a period of
_____ years
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 10
136. Which of the following services is not prohibited for auditor of company
a) Internal Audit
b) Tax Audit
c) Book-keeping
d) Actuarial Service
137. Which of the following is prohibited service for auditor of company
a) Tax Audit
b) Income Tax Representative
c) Tax Consultant
d) None of these
138. Pick the odd one out w.r.t. auditor of company
a) Representing client before taxation authorities
b) Management Services
c) Internal Audit
d) Actuarial Service
139. Auditor shall not render prohibited services as specified u/s 144 of the Co Act, to
a) The Company
b) Holding Company of the Company
c) Subsidiary Company of the Company
d) All of the above
140. Auditor shall not render prohibited services to the company or its holding company or its subsidiary
company_________________
a) Directly
b) Indirectly
c) Directly or Indirectly
d) None of these
141. Which one of the following is incorrect

a) Auditor of company can be appointed as internal auditor of holding company of the company.
b) Auditor of company can be appointed as internal auditor of associate company of the company.
c) Any relative of auditor cannot be appointed as internal auditor of the company
d) Any partner of auditor cannot be appointed as internal auditor of the company.
142. Which of the following in not mentioned along with signing on audit report
a) Membership number of individual/partner
b) Firm’s registration number in case of partnership firm as auditor
c) Date
d) Time
143. In case of removal of auditor under section 140 (1), an application for obtaining approval of such
removal is made to
a) CG
b) CAG
c) ROC
d) NCLT
144. CG approval is required when auditor is to be removed
a) After expiry of term
b) Before expiry of term
c) By order of tribunal
d) All of the above
145. For removal of auditor before expiry of term of auditor, which of the following form is filed with CG
for getting approval of such removal
a) ADT-1
b) ADT-2
c) ADT-3
d) ADT-4
146. Which of the following form is filed by auditor in case of his resignation
a) ADT-1
b) ADT-2
c) ADT-3
d) ADT-4
147. In case of resignation by auditor, ADT-3 shall be filed by auditor within _________days of resignation
a) 7
b) 10
c) 15
d) 30
148. In case resigning auditor does not file ADT-3 as required, the minimum penalty shall be
a) Rs 50,000
b) Remuneration of auditor
c) Rs 50,000 or remuneration of auditor, which is less
d) Rs 50,000 or remuneration of auditor, whichever is higher
149. Under section 140(4), the retiring auditor is entitled to
a) Make a representation against his removal
b) Request the company to circulate the representation to members
c) Personally communicate the members on one to one basis
d) Both (a) and (b)
150. _________ may order that the representation received u/s 140(4) shall not be circulated and read out at
meeting
a) CAG
b) ROC
c) Tribunal
d) CG
151. Under section 140(5), the power of order to change of auditor has been given to
a) Tribunal
b) CAG
c) ROC
d) BOD
152. Any auditor removed under section 140(5) shall not be appointed as auditor of any company for a
period of __________ years from the date of order of Tribunal
a) 10
b) 8
c) 5
d) 3
153. Special notice is requires when auditor is to be removed
a) After expiry of term
b) Before expiry of term
c) By order of Tribunal
d) All of the above
154. If the branch office is situated in a country outside India, the accounts of the branch office shall be
audited by
a) The Company’s Auditor
b) By An Accountant
c) By any other person duly qualified to act as an auditor of the accounts of the branch office in accordance
with the laws of that country
d) Any of the above
a) Branch office in relation to company means any establishment described as branch by the company.
b) The provisions of regarding reporting of fraud by the auditor shall not be applicable to the branch auditor.
c) The duties and power of the company’s auditor with reference to the audit of the branch and branch
auditor, if any, shall be as contained u/s 143(1) to 143(4).
d) The branch auditor shall prepare a report on the accounts of the branch examined by him and sent it to the
auditor of the company who shall deal with it in his report in such manner as he considers necessary.
156. Auditor’s right to access to books of account and vouchers of company extends to all the books
a) Kept at registered office
b) Kept at any other place
c) Kept at registered office or at any other place
d) He is not entitled to such a right
157. The auditor should comply with Auditing Standards. It is ____________ of the auditor
a) Right
b) Duty
c) Moral responsibility
d) None of these
158. Under section 143(3), auditor has duty to report on internal financial controls of the company.
However, this requirement shall not apply to
a) A listed company
b) A foreign company
c) One Person Company
d) A Public Company
159. Reporting on fraud is made by auditor to CG
a) Within 2 days of his knowledge of fraud
b) Within 15 days of his knowledge of fraud
c) Within 45 days of his knowledge of fraud
d) Within 60 days of his knowledge of fraud
160. Reporting on fraud is made by auditor to CG when fraud amount is
a) Exceeding Rs. 10 Lakhs
b) Exceeding Rs. 50 Lakhs
c) Exceeding Rs. 1 Crore
d) Rs. 1Crore or above
161. Reporting on fraud is made by auditor to CG in statement in the form
a) ADT-1
b) ADT-2
c) ADT-3
d) ADT-4
162. For the purpose of reporting on fraud to CG, CG means
a) ROC
b) CBI
c) Director General
d) Secretary of Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
163. Which of the following in not right of auditor:
a) To attend general meetings
b) To receive all notices and other communications relating to any general meeting
c) To make a representation against his removal
d) To be heard at such meeting on any part of the business which concerns him as the auditor
164. CARO (2016) is applicable on which of the following companies
a) One Person Company
b) Small Company
c) Public Company
d) Banking Company
165. A Private Limited Company is exempted from applicability of CARO (2016) if which of following
conditions is satisfied
a) Paid up Share Capital and Reserve & Surplus is not more than Rs. 1 Crore
b) Borrowing from Bank/FI is not more than Rs. 1 Crore at any point of time during FY
c) Revenue as per Schedule III is not more than Rs. 10 Crore during FY
d) All of these
166. CARO (2016) is applicable from FY
a) FY 2014-15
b) FY 2015-16
c) FY 2016-17
d) FY 2017-18
a) CARO is applicable on reporting of consolidated financial statements
b) One Person Companies and Small Companies are exempted from applicability of CARO
c) If CARO is applicable of the company, it will also be applicable on audit of branch offices of the company
d) Insurance Companies are exempted from applicability of CARO.
168. Which of the following is not reporting requirement w.r.t fixed assets under CARO (2016)
a) Purchase and sale of fixed assets made during the FY
b) Maintenance of proper records
c) Physical verification by management at reasonable intervals
d) Title deeds of immovable properties
169. Which of the following is reporting requirement w.r.t inventories under CARO (2016)
a) Purchase and sale of inventories made during the FY
b) Maintenance of proper records
c) Physical verification by management at reasonable intervals
d) All of these
170. Outstanding statutory dues as at last day of financial year concerned for a period of more than
__________ months from the day they became payable, shall be indicated by the auditor.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 6
171. In respect of loans, investments, guarantees and security whether provisions of section 185 and 186 of
the Companies Act, 2013 have been complied with. If not, provide details thereof. This matter is to be
reported under which clause of para 3 of the CARO (2016)
a) Clause (i)
b) Clause (ii)
c) Clause (iii)
d) Clause (iv)
172. With respect of cost records, what is the reporting requirement under CARO (2016)
a) Whether such accounts and record are properly audited
b) Whether such accounts and records have been made and maintained
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
173. Reporting on fraud is made by auditor under which of the following clause of para 3 of CARO (2016)
a) Clause (x)
b) Clause (xii)
c) Clause (xiii)
d) Clause (xiv)
174. Which of the following frauds are reported by auditor under CARO (2016)
a) Any fraud on the company by vendor of the company
b) Any fraud by the company or any fraud on the company by its officers or employees
c) All types of frauds
d) None of these
175. Any default in the repayment of loans or borrowings to _______________________________ are
reported by auditor under CARO (2016)
a) Bank, Financial Institution
b) Government
c) Debenture holders
d) All of above
176. Application of money raised by way of public offer is reported under which clause of CARO (2016)
a) Clause (vii)
b) Clause (viii)
c) Clause (ix)
d) Clause (x)
177. Application of money raised by way of preferential allotment or private placement is reported under
which clause of CARO (2016)
a) Clause (xi)
b) Clause (xii)
c) Clause (xiii)
d) Clause (xiv)
178. Compliance with provision of section 192 of the Companies Act, 2013 w.r.t non cash transactions
entered by company with directors or persons connected with him, is reported under which of the
following clause of para 3 of CARO (2016)
a) Clause (xv)
b) Clause (xvi)
c) Clause (xi)
d) Clause (xii)
179. For the purpose of applicability of CARO(2016), status of company is considered
a) As on 1st day of FY
b) Though out the FY
c) As on Balance Sheet date of FY
d) As on Balance Sheet date of immediate preceding FY
180. How many matters are specified under CARO(2016) for reporting by Co’s auditor
a) 12
b) 13
c) 15
d) 16
181. The auditor shall address audit report on the financial statement of company
a) To BoD of Company
b) To the Members of Company
c) To CG
d) To RoC
182. The date on auditor’s report shall be
a) As on balance sheet date
b) Any date after balance sheet date
c) After balance sheet date but not earlier than the date of approval of financial statement of the entity
d) Date of AGM
183. Under section 148, the maintenance of cost accounting records are not required for
a) A micro enterprise or small enterprise
b) The company whose revenue from exports in Forex exceeds 75% of total revenue
c) Which is operating from SEZ
d) All of these
184. Cost audit will not be applicable to those companies

a) Whose revenue from exports in Forex exceeds 75% of total revenue
b) Which is operating from SEZ
c) Which is engaged in generation of electricity for captive consumption through captive generation plant.
d) All of these
185. Cost auditor of company is appointed by
a) CG
b) BoD
c) Members
d) CAG
186. Cost auditor of company shall be appointed by BoD within __________days from commencement of FY
a) 30
b) 60
c) 120
d) 180
187. Intimation of appointment of cost auditor is filed by Co to CG in the form
a) ADT-1
b) CRA-1
c) CRA-2
d) CRA-3
188. Any casual vacancy in the office of cost auditor of company is filed by
a) BoD within 1 month
b) BoD within 30 days
c) CG within 30 days
d) CAG within 60 days
189. Cost Auditor performs cost audit in accordance with
b) Basic principles of cost audit
c) Cost Audit Standards
d) Standards on Related Services
190. Cost audit report shall be submitted in Form
a) CRA-1
b) CRA-2
c) CRA-3
d) CRA-4
191. Cost audit report shall be submitted by Cost auditor to BoD within __________ days from closure of
FY
a) 90
b) 120
c) 150
d) 180
192. Company shall within __________days from receipt of cost audit report furnish the CG with such
report along with full information and explanation on every reservation or qualification contained
therein, in Form____________.
a) 30, CRA-4
b) 60, CRA-5
c) 120, CRA-6
d) 180, CRA-7
193. When credit purchases of Rs. 5100 is recorded on credit side and credit sales of Rs. 5100 is recorded on
debit side, this kind of error is called____________________.
a) Error of omission.
b) Compensating error.
c) Error of principle.
d) Error of commission.
194. If, as a result of s misstatement resulting from fraud, the auditor encounters exceptional circumstances
that bring into question his ability to continue performing the auditor shall-
a) Withdraw from the engagement immediately.
b) Report to audit team regarding withdrawal.
c) Determine the professional and legal responsibilities applicable in the circumstances.
d) Ask the management for his withdrawal.
195. Which of the following is an example of inflating cash payments?
a) Making payments against purchase vouchers.
b) Teeming and lading.
c) Not accounting for cash sales fully.
d) Making payments against inflated vouchers.
196. The type of errors, existence of which becomes apparent in the process of compilation of accounts is
known as-
a) Self-revealing errors.
b) Intentional errors.
c) Concealed errors.
d) Unconcealed errors.
197. Misappropriation of assets may occur because there is-
a) Adequate record keeping with respect to assets.
b) Know history of violations of securities laws.
c) Lack of complete and timely reconciliations of assets.
d) Dispute between shareholders in a closely held entity.
198. The risk of management fraud increases in the presence of :
a) Frequent changes in supplies
b) Improved internal control system

c) Substantial increases in sales
d) Management incentive system based on sale done in a quarter.
199. Which of the following is an example of fraudulent financial reporting
a) Defalcation of cash by cashier
b) Misappropriation of inventory by store keeper
c) Overvaluation of assets
d) All of these
200. Which of the following frauds is more difficult to detect
a) Fraud by employees
b) Fraud by management & TCWG
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
201. Primarily prevention and detection of fraud are the responsibilities of
a) TCWG and Management of entity
b) Internal Auditor of entity
c) External Auditor of entity
d) All of above
202. Which of the following in not a fraud through suppressing cash receipts:
a) Not accounting for cash sales fully
b) Not accounting for miscellaneous receipts
c) Not accounting for bad debt recovered
d) Making payment against fictitious vouchers.
203. Teeming and lading is a technique of fraud through
a) Inflating cash payment
b) Wrongs casting in cash book
c) Suppressing cash receipts
d) None of these
204. Which of the following error will affect the trial balance
a) Error of partial omission
b) Error of principles
c) Error of complete omission
d) Compensatory errors
205. Which of the following SAs deals with auditor’s responsibilities in agreeing the terms of audit
engagement
a) SA 210
b) SA 220
c) SA 230
d) SA 240
206. The primary purpose of establishing quality control policies and procedures for deciding on client
evaluation to
a) Ensure adherence to generally accepted auditing standards
b) Acceptance or continuance of client’s relationship
c) Ensure audit fees is charged according to the type of audit work assigned
d) All of above
207. The auditor shall establish existence of preconditions for an audit of financial statements
a) Before confirming common understanding between the auditor and management of the terms of audit
engagement.
b) After confirming common understanding between the auditor and management of the terms of audit
engagement.
c) Before appointment of auditor
d) After the date of auditor’s report.
208. Terms of auditing engagement are discussed through
a) Letter of appointment
b) Letter of acceptance
c) Engagement letter
d) Letter of weakness
209. Engagement letter is provided by
a) Management to auditor
b) Auditor to Management/TCWG
c) Internal auditor to External Auditor
d) CG to Auditor
210. Engagement letter is
a) Always required when auditor is appointed
b) Always required when auditor is reappointed
c) Not always required when auditor is reappointed but except for certain exceptions
d) (a) and (C)
211. Which of the following is not a term of engagement letter
a) Object and Scope of audit
b) Responsibilities of management and TCWG of the entity
c) Fact that audit process may be subject to peer review under Chartered Accountants Act, 1949
d) Audit Planning
212. The audit engagement letter generally should include to each of the following except
a) Limitation of auditing
b) Responsibilities of management with respect to audit work
c) Expectation of receiving a written representation letter
d) A description of the auditor’s method of sample selection.
213. In which of the following circumstances a new engagement letter is required in recurring audit
engagement
a) Any change in the senior management of the entity
b) Any change in the nature of business of the entity
c) Any change in legal requirement
d) All of the above
214. If auditor is requested by management to change the audit engagement to an engagement that conveys
a lower level of assurance, then the auditor shall
a) Reject the management’s request
b) Accept the management’s request
c) Determine that there is a reasonable justification for doing so
d) Shall not entertain any such request
215. SA 260 deals with auditor’s responsibilities w.r.t.
a) Communication with Those Charged with Governance of the entity
b) Communication with Owners of the entity
c) Communication with Management of the entity
d) All of these
216. The auditor shall communicate with TCWG a statement w.r.t. auditor’s independence in case of audit
of financial statements of
a) Any entity
b) Listed entities
c) Any entity except One Person Company and Small Company
d) None of these
217. Which of the following SAs deals with responsibilities of auditor regarding quality control procedures
for an audit of financial statements
a) SA 200
b) SA 210
c) SA 220
d) SA 260
218. The objective of SA 220 is to implement quality control procedures at the engagement level that provide
the auditor with reasonable assurance that
a) The audit complies with professional standards and regulatory requirements
b) The auditor’s report issued is appropriate in the circumstances
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
219. The partner who is responsible for the auditing engagement and its performance and for the report that
is issued on behalf of the firm is called as:
a) Active partner
b) Performing partner
c) Engagement Partner
d) Working Partner
220. Which of the following partner can act as engagement partner
a) Any Partner
b) Any CA Partner
c) Any CA Partner in full time or part time practice
d) Any CA Partner in full time practice
221. Who will take responsibility for overall quality in an audit of financial statements
a) All the partners of firm
b) All CA partners of firm
c) Engagement partner
d) Engagement team
222. Which of the following information assist the auditor in accepting and continuing of client relationship
a) The integrity of the principal owners, key management and TCWG of the entity
b) Whether the firm and the engagement partner can comply with the relevant ethical requirements
c) Whether the engagement team is competent to perform the audit engagement and has the necessary
capabilities, including time and resources
d) All of these
223. Appointment of engagement quality control reviewer is mandatory in case of audit of financial
statements of
a) Any entity
b) Any entity except One Person Company and Small Company
c) Listed Entity
d) None of these
224. Which of the following in not element of quality control in an audit of financial statements
a) Leadership Responsibilities
b) Assignment of Engagement Team
c) Acceptance and Continuance of Client Relationship and Audit Engagements
d) Signing on Audit Report
225. If any difference of opinion arise within engagement team or between engagement partner and quality
control reviewer, the engagement team follow
a) Engagement partner
b) Engagement quality control reviewer
c) Firm’s policies and procedures
d) Majority of members of engagement team
226. Auditing firms should establish quality control policies and procedures for personnel management in
order to provide reasonable assurance that
a) Employees promoted possess the appropriate characteristics to perform competently
b) Personnel will have the knowledge required to fulfill responsibilities assigned
c) The extent of supervision and review in a given instance will be appropriate
d) All of the above are reasons

227. The least important element in the evaluation of an audit firm’s system of quality control would relate
to
a) Assignment of audit assistants
b) Consultation with experts
c) System for determining audit fees
d) Confidentiality of client’s information
228. In pursuing its quality control objectives with respect to independence, an auditing firm may use
policies and procedures such as
a) Emphasizing independence of mental attitude in firm training programs and in supervision and review of
work
b) Prohibiting employees from owning stock of public companies
c) Suggesting that employees conduct their banking transactions with banks that do not maintain accounts
with client firms
d) Assigning employees who may lack independence to research positions that do not require participation in
field audit work
229. Policies and procedures w.r.t human resources address which of the following issues
a) Recruitment
b) Capabilities
c) Competence
d) All of above
230. Which of the following SAs deals with auditor’s responsibilities w.r.t. audit planning in an audit of
financial statements
a) SA 300
b) SA 315
c) SA 320
d) SA 330
231. The auditor shall
a) Establish audit strategy on the basis of overall audit plan.
b) Develop overall audit plan on the basis of audit strategy
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
232. The audit plan is ______________ detailed than the overall audit strategy.
a) Less
b) More
c) Equal
233. Planning is _______________ process of an audit that often begins shortly after (or in connection with)
the completion of the previous audit and continues until the completion of the current audit
engagement.
a) Continuous
b) Discreet
c) Neither continuous nor discreet.
234. The auditor shall develop an audit plan that include a description of:
a) The nature, timing and extent of planned risk assessment procedures.
b) The nature, timing and extent of planned further audit procedures at the assertion level.
c) Other planned audit procedures that are required to be carried out so that the engagement complies with
SAs.
d) All of the above
235. An auditor who accepts an audit but does not possess the industry expertise of the business entity
should
a) Engage experts
b) Obtain knowledge of matters that relate to the nature of entity’s business
c) Inform management about it
d) Take help of other auditors
236. Auditor can obtain knowledge of client’s business from
a) Discussion with people within client entity
b) Publication relating to industry
c) Previous experience
d) All of these
237. Benefit(s) of audit planning is
a) Helping auditor to devote appropriate attention on important areas of the audit
b) Better preparation of engagement letter
c) Effective communication with retiring auditor
d) It ensure compliance with applicable law and regulation
238. Planning should be made to cover, among other things:
a) acquiring knowledge of the client’s accounting system, policies and internal control procedures
b) establishing the expected degree of reliance to be placed on internal control
c) coordinating the work to be performed
d) all of above
a) In establishing the audit strategy the auditor shall identify characteristics of the engagement that define its
scope.
b) The auditor shall develop an audit plan that shall include a description of the nature, timing and extent of
risk assessment procedures and further audit procedures which are proposed to be performed.
c) The auditor shall establish audit strategy on the basis of overall audit plan.
d) The auditor shall update and change the audit strategy and audit plan as necessary during course of the
audit.
240. The overall audit strategy and the audit plan remain the _____________ responsibility.
a) Auditor’s
b) Management’s
c) Those charged with governance

d) All of the above
241. Prior to commencing field work, an auditor usually discusses the general audit strategy with the client’s
management. Which of the following details do management and the auditor usually agree upon at this
time?
a) The specific matters to be included in the communication with the audit committee
b) The minimum amount of misstatements that may be considered to be reportable conditions
c) The schedules and analyses that the client’s staff should prepare
d) The effects that inadequate controls may have over the safeguarding of assets
242. Which of the following is not a source of obtaining knowledge of client’s business
a) Annual reports circulated among the shareholders
b) Communication from previous auditor
c) Client’s policy and procedure manual
d) Discussion with client
243. The methodology of audit planning is
a) Not prescribed in any law
b) Prescribed in Companies Act, 2013
c) Prescribed in Chartered Accountants Act, 1949
d) Prescribed by the appointing authority.
244. _____________ shall be involved in the planning of audit
a) Engagement partner
b) Other key members of engagement team
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Either (a) or (b)
245. Which of the following in incorrect w.r.t audit programme
a) An audit programme consists of a series of verification procedures to be applied.
b) It is desirable in respect of each audit and more particularly for bigger audits an audit programme should
be drawn up.
c) An audit programme is a summarized plan
d) There should be periodic review of the audit programme to assess whether the same continues
246. While determining materiality of any item financial statements, the auditor considers
a) Quantity of item
b) Quality of item
c) Legal or Regulatory consideration of item
d) All of these
247. Materiality in terms of amount or amounts set by the auditor for particular classes of transactions,
account balances or disclosures is called as
a) Materiality for financial statement as a whole
b) Performance Materiality
c) Item Materiality
d) None of these
248. Determining a percentage to be applied to a chosen benchmark (in relation to materiality) involves the
exercise of ___________________
a) Independence
b) Professional judgement
c) Professional skepticism
d) All of the above
249. In determining the level of materiality for an audit, what should not be considered?
a) Prior year’s errors
b) The auditor’s remuneration
c) Adjusted interim financial statements
d) Prior year’s financial statements.
250. Which of the following is a type of audit procedure
a) Risk Assessment Procedures
b) Further Audit Procedures
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
251. Which of the following SAs deals with auditor’s responsibilities w.r.t. risk assessment
a) SA 315
b) SA 320
c) SA 330
d) SA 450
252. Risk assessment procedures are performed by auditor
a) To detect material misstatements in the financial statements
b) To identify and assess material misstatements in the financial statements
c) To identify and assess operational risk in the operations of the entity
d) All of these
253. Components of risk of material misstatements are
a) Inherent Risk and Control Risk
b) Inherent Risk and Detection Risk
c) Control Risk and Detection Risk
d) Inherent Risk, Control Risk and Detection Risk
254. Audit Risk refers to risk that
a) If financial statements are materially misstated then auditor may express an inappropriate opinion.
b) Audit sample may be inappropriate
c) Auditor may be unable to complete auditing engagement in timely manner
d) All of these
255. The risk for the company that an auditor may issue an unqualified report due to auditor’s failure to
detect some misstatement either due to fraud or error is
a) Financial accounting risk
b) Analytical risk
c) Taxation risk
d) Audit risk
256. Components of audit risk are
a) Inherent Risk, Control Risk and Sampling Risk
b) Inherent Risk, Control Risk and Detection Risk
c) Inherent Risk and Control Risk
d) None of these
257. An identified and assessed risk of material misstatement that, in the auditor’s professional judgement,
requires special audit consideration is called as
a) Inherent Risk
b) Audit Risk
c) Sampling Risk
d) Significant Risk
258. Inherent Risk refers to
a) Risk of an inappropriate opinion
b) Risk of failure of internal control in the prevention or detection of material misstatements
c) Susceptibility of account balances or class of transaction to be materially misstated, assuming there were
no internal controls
d) Risk of non-detection of material misstatements in financial statements
259. Control Risk refers to
260. If before considering the internal controls at the audited entity, there is a high probability of certain
errors in the financial statements, we particularly speak of
a) a high sampling risk.
b) a high inherent risk
c) a high control risk
d) a high detection risk
261. Detection Risk refers to

262. The risk that an auditor’s procedures will lead to the conclusion that a material misstatement does not
exist in an account balance when, in fact, such misstatement actually does exist is
a) Audit risk
b) Sampling risk
c) Control risk
d) Detection risk
263. There is inverse relationship between
a) Inherent risk and control risk
b) Combined risk of inherent and control risk with risk of material misstatements
c) Materiality and Audit Risk
d) Detection Risk and Audit Risk
264. There is inverse relationship between
a) Inherent Risk and Control Risk
b) Combined risk of inherent and control risk with risk of material misstatements
c) Combined risk of inherent and control risk with detection risk
d) Sampling Risk and Non-Sampling Risk
265. Which of the following in not an assertion about classes of transactions and events for the period under
audit:
a) Occurrence
b) Accuracy
c) Classification
d) Existence
266. Which of the following is not an assertion about classes account balances at the period end
a) Existence
b) Valuation
c) Accuracy
d) Rights and Obligations
267. XYZ Limited decided that it wanted to improve earnings. To do this, they understated their expenses
by omitting unpaid expenses from the accrued liabilities account at year end. Which management
assertion has been violated?
a) Rights and obligations
b) Completeness
c) Existence
d) Disclosure
a) Occurrence
b) Existence
c) Right and obligation
d) Valuation
a) Occurrence
b) Accuracy
c) Cut-off
d) Valuation
270. Which of the following are performed as risk assessment procedures
a) Observation
b) Inquiry
c) Analytical Review
d) All of these
271. Significant risk refers to
a) Audit Risk
b) Sampling Risk
c) Risk of material misstatements
d) Risk of material misstatements requiring special audit considerations
272. Which of the following is not a component of Internal Control
a) Information system
b) Control environment
c) Entity’s risk assessment procedures
d) Quality review
273. The auditor must have a thorough understanding of the entity, the client’s business strategies,
processes, and measurement indicators for critical success. This analysis helps the auditor
a) Decide if they want to accept the engagement
b) Identify risks associated with the client’s strategy that could affect the financial statements
c) Assess the level of materiality that is appropriate for the audit
d) Identify the potential for fraud in the financial reporting process
274. Which of the following SA deals with auditor’s responsibility to design and perform further audit
procedures as a response on assessed risk
a) SA 330
b) SA 315
c) SA 320
d) SA 450
275. Which of the following is a further audit procedure as per SA 330
a) Risk assessment procedure
b) Internal check
c) Substantive audit procedures
d) Internal audit
276. Test of controls is performed by auditor

a) To evaluate operating effectiveness of internal controls
b) To detect material misstatements in financial statements
c) To identify and assess risk of material misstatements in financial statements
d) All of above
277. The auditor shall test controls
a) For particular time
b) Throughout the period
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of these
278. The auditor shall design and perform tests of controls to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence as
to operating effectiveness of relevant controls when:
a) The auditor’s assessment of risks of material misstatements includes an expectation that controls are
operating effectively
b) Substantive procedures alone cannot provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of these
279. In case of recurring audit engagement, it is a matter of professional judgment of auditor to determine
whether it is appropriate to use audit evidence about the operating effectiveness of controls obtained in
previous audit but auditor shall test the controls at least once in every
a) Third audit
b) Fourth audit
c) Fifth audit
d) Sixth audit
280. Factors which may warrant re-testing of controls in recurring audit engagement are
a) Deficient general IT controls
b) Deficient monitoring controls
c) A deficient control environment
d) All of these
281. Substantive audit procedures are performed by auditor
a) To determine nature, timing and extent of test of controls
b) To determine nature, timing and extent of substantive analytical procedures
c) To detect material misstatements.
d) To identify and assess detection risk
282. Substantive audit procedure comprises:
a) Substantive analytical procedures
b) Test of details
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
283. Nature, timing and extent of substantive audit procedures are determined by auditor on the basis of
a) Test of controls performed
b) Understanding of entity and its related environment
c) Test of details
d) All of these
284. Substantive procedures related to the financial statements closing process are
a) Verification of assets and liabilities
b) Agreeing or reconciling the financial statements with the underlying records
c) Examining material journal entries and other adjustments made during the course of preparing the
d) Both (b) and (c)
285. Which statement best describes the interaction of the systems and substantive approaches in the audit
plan?
a) The systems approach focuses on testing controls to make sure they are effective, while the substantive
approach is the detailed testing of specific accounts for accuracy
b) The systems approach focuses on detailed testing of specific accounts for accuracy, while the substantive
approach is the testing controls to make sure they are effective
c) The systems approach focuses on the use of computer systems to aid in the audit while the substantive
approach focuses on more manual tests
d) A thoroughly designed systems approach to auditing can eliminate
286. After testing a client’s internal control activities, an auditor discovers a number of significant
deficiencies in the operation of a client’s internal controls. Under these circumstances the auditor most
likely would
a) Issue a disclaimer of opinion about the internal controls as part of the auditor’s report
b) Increase the assessment of control risk and increase the extent of substantive tests
c) Issue a qualified opinion of this finding as part of the auditor’s report
d) Withdraw from the audit because the internal controls are ineffective
287. What is not included under the audit term “substantive procedures”?
a) Test made to obtain evidence of material errors
b) A general strategy and detained concerning the nature, timing and extent of audit procedures to be
performed.
c) Analytical procedures to analyze trends and fluctuations
d) Test of the details of the transactions
288. The auditor shall apply procedures to examine overall presentation of financial statements and their
compliance with relevant FRF, these are called as
a) Audit procedures responsive to risk assessed at assertion level
b) Overall response
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Either (a) or (b)
289. Which of following SA deals with auditor’s responsibility to design and perform audit procedures in
such a way to enable the auditor to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence to be able to draw
reasonable conclusions on which to base the auditor’s opinion
a) SA 500
b) SA 501
c) SA 330
d) SA 315
290. Sufficient audit evidence is a measurement of
a) Quality of audit evidence
b) Quantity of audit evidence
c) Both of (a) and (b)
d) None of these
291. Appropriate audit evidence is a measurement of
a) Quality of audit evidence
b) Quantity of audit evidence
c) Both of (a) and (b)
d) None of these
292. The auditor must obtain following audit evidence to draw reasonable conclusion
a) Sufficient audit evidence
b) Appropriate audit evidence
c) Sufficient and appropriate audit evidence
d) None of these
293. Which of the following is the least persuasive type of audit evidence?
a) Bank statements obtained from the client
b) Documents obtained by auditor from third parties directly
c) Carbon copies of sales invoices inspected by the auditor
d) Computations made by the auditor.
294. Following audit procedures are performed by auditor to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence
a) Risk assessment procedures
b) Test of controls
c) Substantive audit procedures
d) Both (b) and (c)
295. Which of the following is not a factor to determine sufficient audit evidence
a) Reliability of information
b) Materiality of item
c) Risk of material misstatements
d) Size and characteristics of the population
296. Which of the following is a factor to determine sufficient audit evidence
a) Materiality of item involved
b) Risk of material misstatements

c) Size and characteristics of the population
d) All of these
297. Which of the following is a factor to determine appropriate audit evidence
a) Reliability of information
b) Relevancy of information
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
298. Depending upon nature audit evidence can be classified as
a) Visual evidence
b) Oral evidence
c) Documentary evidence
d) All of these
299. Depending upon source audit evidence can be classified as
a) Internal audit evidence
b) External audit evidence
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
300. Which of the following is not internal audit evidence
a) Bank Reconciliation Statement
b) Bank Statement
c) Copy of Sales Invoice
d) Voucher
301. Which of the following is not external audit evidence
a) Bank Statements
b) Purchase Invoice
c) External Confirmation
d) Salary Sheet
302. Techniques to obtain audit evidence are
a) Inspection
b) Recalculation
c) External confirmation
d) All of these
a) Confirmation
b) Inquiry
c) Re-computation
d) Ledger posting

a) Bank reconciliation statement
b) Copy of sales invoice
c) Purchase invoice
d) Minutes book
305. Which of following statement is incorrect
a) Recalculation consists checking reasonableness of appropriates of accounting policies
b) Inspection consists of examining records, documents whether internal or external in paper form or
electronic form and physical examination of assets
c) An external confirmation represents audit evidence obtained by auditor as direct written response to the
auditor from a third party.
d) Evaluating responses of inquiry is an integral part of inquiry process.
306. Observation consists
a) Review of financial statements
b) Looking at a process, procedure being performed by others
c) Independent execution of procedure or controls that were originally performed as part of entity’s internal
control.
d) All of these
307. Before using the work of an expert the auditor shall evaluate
a) Competency of expert.
b) Capability of expert
c) Objectivity of expert
d) All of above
308. Information regarding the competence, capabilities and objectivity of management’s expert may come
from a variety sources such as:
a) Discussion with expert
b) Personal experience with previous work of that expert
c) Published papers or books written by that expert
d) All of these
309. Pick the most appropriate. Auditing evidence is more reliable when
a) Received from third party
b) Received from reliable third party
c) Received from audited organization resources
d) Both a & b
310. Which is NOT a technique of obtaining evidence
a) Correction
b) Computation
c) Confirmation
d) Both a & b
311. Audit is usually conducted in three steps:

1. A pre-examination or opening meeting with the auditee marks the beginning of the process
2. Involves a suitability audit of the documented procedures against the selected reference standard
3. The auditor examines in depth the implementation of the quality system
a) True
b) False
c) Partially false
312. For better assessing the audit risk, auditor inquires different groups in the organizations EXCEPT:
a) Board of governance and top level management
b) Legal counsel
c) Middle level management
d) Stakeholders
313. Internal financial controls are policies and procedures adopted by company for
a) Ensuring the orderly and efficient conduct of its business, including adherence to company’s policies
b) The safeguarding of assets
c) The prevention and detection of frauds and errors
d) All of these
314. ________________ has been defined as the “checks on day to day transactions which operates
continuously as part of routine system whereby the work of one person is provided independently or is
complementary to the work of another, the object being the prevention or early detection of errors or
fraud”
a) Internal check
b) Internal audit
c) Surprise check
d) Internal control.
315. ________________ is a complete and exhausted description of the system as found in operation by the
auditors.
a) Check List
b) Flow Chart
c) Narrative Records
d) Internal Control Questionnaire
316. ________________is a series of instruction and questions which the auditor should follow and answer.
a) Narrative Records
b) Check List
c) Internal Control Questionnaire
d) Flow Chart
317. _______________is a graphic presentation of each part of the entity’s internal controls system.
b) Check List
d) Flow Chart
318. ______________ gives a bird’s eye view of the system and flow of transactions.
b) Check List
d) Flow Chart
319. _______________ is mainly intended to ascertain whether the system of internal control is operating
effective.
a) Surprise check
b) Analytical procedures
c) Test of details
d) None of these
320. Objectives of internal controls can only be reasonably achieved but not absolutely due to
a) Inherent limitation of audit
b) Inherent limitation of internal controls
c) Inherent risk
d) Detection risk
321. Which of the following in inherent limitation of internal controls
a) Role of human judgement
b) Ineffective operation of control
c) Collusion among employees
d) All of these
322. Internal control system provides reasonable assurance about the achievements of entity’s objectives,
except
a) Reliability of financial reporting
b) Safeguarding of assets
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
323. _______________ is sent by auditor to management and TCWG to communicate weakness in internal
control system
a) Letter of weakness
b) Engagement letter
c) Internal control questionnaire
d) Written representation
324. Which of the following SA deals with auditor’s responsibility to communicate appropriately to TCWG
and management deficiencies in internal control that the auditor has identified in an audit of financial
statements
a) SA 260
b) SA 330
c) SA 265
d) SA 580
325. Significant deficiency in internal control means
a) Deficiency or combination of deficiencies in internal control that, in the auditor’s professional judgement
is of sufficient importance of auditor
b) Deficiency or combination of deficiencies in internal control that, in the auditor’s professional judgement
is of sufficient importance of management.
c) Deficiency or combination of deficiencies in internal control that, in the auditor’s professional judgement
is of sufficient importance of entity’s owners.
d) Deficiency or combination of deficiencies in internal control that, in the auditor’s professional judgement
is of sufficient importance of TCWG
326. Which of the following section of Companies Act, 2013 deals with requirement of internal audit in
companies
a) Section 139
b) Section 138
c) Section 143
d) Section 148
327. Which of the following person can be appointed as internal auditor of Co
a) Chartered Accountant
b) Cost Accountant
c) Any Employee of Co
d) Any of above (a) (b) (c)
328. Section 138 of the Companies Act, 2013 shall apply to
a) Listed Company
b) Prescribed class of companies
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) All the companies
329. Company shall comply with requirement of section 138 of the Companies Act, 2013 w.r.t. internal audit
within ___________months from applicability of the section.
a) 6
b) 8
c) 3
d) 2
330. Which of the following is a routine audit procedure
a) Vouching of transactions
b) Analytical procedures
c) Risk assessment procedures
d) Verification of assets and liabilities
331. Which of the following statement is correct

a) Surprise check is a part of routine checking
b) Surprise check preferably done at least once during the audit
c) Surprise check cannot exercise good moral check on client’s staff
d) It is necessary in all cases for the result of surprise check to be included in the audit report.
332. Surprise check may be with respect to
a) Verification of cash
b) Verification of investment
c) Verification of inventory
d) All of above
333. The frequency of surprise check is
a) As prescribed under law
b) As mentioned under SA
c) To be determined by auditor
d) At least 5% of total time devoted to audit
334. The results of surprise checks
a) Are always to be included in audit report as these are always important
b) May or may not be included in audit report depending upon the quantitative nature of findings
c) Should be included in audit report if they are material and affecting the financial statements
d) All of these
335. Examination in depth refers to
a) Examining 100% items of a population
b) Examining all the assets and liabilities
c) Examination of a few selected transactions from the beginning to the end through the entire flow of
transaction
d) None of these
336. In continuous audit, audit work is commenced by auditor:
a) Immediately after acceptance of audit engagement
b) After closing of FY
c) At any point of time as per auditor’s judgement
d) None of these.
337. Which of following is advantage of continuous audit:
a) Earlier discovery of misstatements
b) Client’s accounts are always kept up to date
c) Routine checking is completed in advance
d) All of above
338. Which of following is disadvantage of continuous audit
a) The attendance of the audit staff acts a moral check on the client’s staff.
b) Less pressure at year end
c) The client’s staff may alter entries in the books after checking thereof.
d) All of above.
339. The first standard of field work recognizes that early appointment of the independent auditor has many
advantages to the auditor and the client. Which of the following advantages is least likely to occur as a
result of early appointment of the auditor?
a) The auditor will be able to complete the audit work in less time
b) The auditor will be able to perform the examination more efficiently
c) The auditor will be able to better plan for the observation of the physical inventories
d) The auditor will be able to plan the audit work so that it may be done expeditiously
340. In final audit, audit work is commenced by auditor:
a) Immediately after acceptance of audit engagement
b) After closing of FY
c) At any point of time as per auditor’s judgement
d) None of these.
341. The advantages of final audit are:
a) The possibility of figures being altered after work has been done is avoided
b) Allocation of work to staff become easier
c) There is no loss of link in the work as the entire audit work is completed in a single continuous basis.
d) All of above
342. Instructions to client before start of actual audit are:
a) Vouchers should be serially numbered.
b) The accounts should be total up and the trial balance and final accounts to be kept ready.
c) Schedule of deferred expenditures to be prepared.
d) All of these
343. Some of the important content recorded in the audit notebook are:
a) Name of business and its structure
b) Errors and fraud discovered
c) Date of commencement and completion of audit
d) All of above
344. An audit programme is:
a) List of examination and verification steps to be applied
b) Examination in depth
c) List of audit queries
d) All of these
345. Responsibility fixing is a feature of
a) Audit plan
b) Audit
c) Audit programme
d) All of the above

a) Audit programme helps in distribution of work amongst the people doing audit
b) Audit programme is mechanical
c) Audit program acts as a evidence against change of negligence
d) Audit programme helps in covering all the areas where audit is required
347. Audit programme is a failure if
a) Instructions are not followed property
b) Audit plan is not made correctly
c) The instructions are ambiguous
d) All of the above
a) A hard and fast audit programme may kill the initiative of efficient and enterprising assistants
b) An audit programme can make the audit exercise rigid and mechanical.
c) The principal can control the progress of the various audits in hand by examination of audit programme.
d) There is a risk that if any matter escaped attention of auditor at the time of audit programming may remain
unaudited during the entire audit.
349. _____________ refers to the record of audit procedures performed, relevant audit evidence obtained,
and conclusions the auditor reached.
a) Audit Techniques
b) Audit Evidence
c) Audit Documentation
350. ______________ may be defined as one or more folders or other storage media, in physical or electronic
form, containing the records that comprise the audit documentation for a specific engagement.
a) Audit File
b) Audit Evidence
c) Completion Memorandum
d) Both (a) and (b) above.
351. As per SQC-1 “An appropriate time limit within which to complete the assemble of the final audit file is
ordinarily not more than _____ days after the date of auditor’s report.
a) 30
b) 60
c) 90
d) 45
352. As per SQC-1, auditor should retain audit documentation for at least _________ years
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
353. Which of the following factors may affect the form, content and extent of audit documentation:
a) Size and complexity of the entity

b) Identified risk of material misstatements
c) Significance of audit evidence obtained
d) All of above
354. Audit documentation can be made by auditor:
a) Paper mode
b) Electronic mode
c) Both (a) and (b)
355. Who is the owner of audit working papers?
a) Auditee
b) Auditor
c) (a) and (b)
d) ICAI
356. Additional numbers of purposes served by audit documentation are:
a) Enabling the engagement team to plan and perform the audit
b) Enabling the engagement team to be accountable for its work
c) To enable the engagement partner for direction, supervision and review the work performed by
engagement team members.
d) All of above
357. If in exceptional circumstances the auditor departs from Standards on Auditing, he shall___________
a) Document the reason for departure
b) Perform alternative procedures
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Auditor is not allowed to depart from SAs.
358. Which of the following is not content of permanent audit file:
a) Record of study and evaluation of internal control
b) Audit planning and audit documentation
c) Memorandum and Article of Association
d) Notes relating to significant accounting policies
359. Which of the following is content of current audit file:
a) Correspondence relating to acceptance of annual reappointment
b) Copies of communication with experts or other auditors
c) Audit evidence obtained
d) All of above
360. Loan agreement are the integral parts of
a) Permanent audit file
b) Current audit file
c) Temporary audit file
361. Working on trial balance is the part of

a) Permanent audit
b) Current audit file
c) Temporary audit file
a) Written representations and confirmation from clients.
b) Audit planning and audit programme
c) Correspondence relating to annual reappointment
d) Memorandum and Article of Association of the Company.
363. From the initial client interview to the preparation of audit report an auditor must keep a record of all
the work you do in
a) Audit file
b) Audit report
c) Audit papers
364. Which of the following is not true of working papers?
a) They record the audit evidence to provide support for the auditor’s opinion
b) They assist in review of the audit work
c) They are a direct aid in the planning of the audit
d) They provide proof of the correctness of the financial statements.
365. The audit working papers should contain information on planning the audit work, the nature, timing
and extent of audit procedures performed, _______________________ and the conclusion drawn
leading to an opinion.
a) The results of the audit procedures
b) The auditor’s opinion of management
c) All gratuities received by auditor
d) Names of the employees who cooperated with the auditor.
366. The extent of what is included in working paper is
a) Thoroughly specified in SAs
b) Determined by each staff auditor
c) Thoroughly specified under law
d) A matter of professional judgement.
367. Which of the following factors would least likely affect the quantity and content of an auditor’s working
papers
a) The nature of auditor’s report
b) The assessed level of control risk
c) The possibility of peer review
d) The content of management representation letter.
368. A current audit file would always contain which of following?

a) Loan agreements, pension plans, agreements with parent company and subsidiaries
b) Company documents such as corporate charter or articles of association and corporate bylaws.
c) A record of the nature, timing and extent of audit procedures performed and the results of such
procedures.
d) Prior year analysis of fixed assets, long term debt, and terms of stock and bond issues.
369. Which of the following SAs deals with auditor’s responsibilities w.r.t. audit documentation:
a) SA 580
b) SA 230
c) SA 505
d) SA 700
370. Audit documentation may be useful for
a) Engagement team
b) Quality control reviewer
c) External inspector
d) All of these
371. After assembly of audit file, the auditor_______________
a) May delete audit documentation if it is of no use
b) May delete audit documentation if it is occupying much of its space
c) Shall not delete audit documentation before its retention time period
d) May delete audit documentation before its retention period if it is required by any law.
372. Audit note book
a) Contains all details of work carried out
b) Cannot be defense for auditor
c) It is a record but not useful in formulating audit programme
d) All of these
373. Which of following SAs deals with auditor’s responsibilities w.r.t audit sampling:
a) SA 200
b) SA 580
c) SA 530
d) SA 500
374. When auditor decides to select less than 100% of the population for testing, the auditor is said using
a) Audit sampling
b) Representative sampling
c) Poor judgement
375. The entire set of data from which a sample is selected and about which the auditor wishes to draw
conclusions is called as________________
a) Population
b) Monitor
c) Data center
d) Source data
376. The individual items constituting a population is called as_______________
a) Transaction
b) Sampling unit
c) Sample
d) Data
377. ______________ is the risk that auditor’s conclusion based on a sample may be different from
conclusion if the entire population were subjected to the same audit procedure.
a) Audit Risk
b) Inherent Risk
c) Control Risk
d) Sampling Risk
378. Size of sample is affected by
a) Tolerable error
b) Expected error
c) Sampling risk
d) All of these
379. Type 1 sampling risk affects________________
a) Audit efficiency
b) Audit effectiveness
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of above
380. Type 2 sampling risk affects________________
a) Audit efficiency
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of above
381. _____________________ is the risk that the auditor reaches an erroneous conclusion for any reason not
related to sampling risk.
a) Inherent Risk
b) Control Risk
c) Sampling Risk
d) Non-Sampling Risk
382. Which of the following item is not suitable for test checking?
a) Purchase transactions
b) Sale transactions
c) Balance Sheet items
d) All of above
383. Precautions to be considered by auditor while performing audit engagement on the basis of test
checking are
a) Auditor should identify the items which are not suitable for test checking
b) There should be no personal bias
c) Examination in depth should be done
d) All of above
384. Approaches to sampling are
a) Non- Statistical Sampling
b) Statistical Sampling
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
385. In non-statistical sampling, the sample size and its composition are determined on the basis of
a) Personal experience of auditor
b) Knowledge of auditor
c) Judgement of auditor
d) All of above
386. ____________________ is a method of audit testing which is more scientific than testing based entirely
on the auditor’s own judgement because it involves use of mathematical laws of probability in
determining the appropriate sample size.
a) Statistical Sampling
b) Non statistical Sampling
c) Haphazard Sampling
d) Cluster Sampling
387. Judgmental sampling is
a) Based on probability theory
b) Not having any personal bias
c) Widely accepted way of sampling
d) None of these
388. The main advantage of using statistical sampling techniques is that such techniques:
a) Mathematically measure risk
b) Eliminate the need for judgmental sampling
c) Defines the values of tolerable error
d) All of them
389. Which of the following factor is (are) considered in determining the sample size for test of controls?
a) Projected error
b) Tolerable error
c) Expected error
d) Both (b) and (c)
390. Tolerable error, is the maximum monetary error that the auditor is prepared to accept in the
population and still concludes that audit objectives has been achieved, is directly related to
a) Sample size
b) Audit risk
c) Materiality
d) Expected error
391. Which of the following is source of Non Sampling risk
a) Human Mistakes
b) Applying audit procedures not appropriate to the objectives of audit
c) Misinterpreting the sample results
d) All of the above
392. Which of the following is more scientific
a) Statistical
b) Non-Statistical
c) Both (a) and (b)
393. In which of the following sampling, population is divided into number of groups
a) Block Sampling
b) Haphazard Sampling
c) Cluster Sampling
d) None of these
394. In which of the following sampling, sampling units are selected from population on the basis of random
number tables
a) Systematic Sampling
b) Random Sampling
c) Cluster Sampling
d) Both (b) and (c)
395. In which of the following sampling, sampling units are selected from population at fixed intervals
a) Random Sampling
b) Systematic Sampling
c) Block Sampling
d) Cluster Sampling
396. In which of the following sampling, sampling units are selected from population in a defined block of
consecutive items
a) Random Sampling
b) Systematic Sampling
c) Block Sampling
d) Haphazard sampling
397. In which of the following sampling, population is divided into number of groups
a) Random Sampling
b) Interval Sampling
c) Block Sampling
d) Cluster Sampling
398. Which of the following is a type of random sampling
a) Simple Random
b) Stratified Random
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Haphazard Random
399. In random sample, each item of population
a) Has equal chance of selection
b) Has varying chances of selection depending upon the placing of items
c) May have a chance of selection depends upon the auditor’s professional judgement
d) None of these
400. Simple random sample can be selected by
a) Random number bias
b) Help of computers
c) Just by picking up a number without any order
d) All of these
401. In stratified random sampling
a) Sample is taken from whole of the population
b) It requires special attention to judge contents of stratum
c) There is application of different concept and not an extension of simple random sampling
d) All of these
402. Tolerable error is _______________ in population that auditor is willing to _______________ for a
given sample size.
a) Minimum, Forego
b) Maximum, Forego
c) Minimum, Accept
d) Maximum, Accept
403. The kind of relationship between tolerable error and sample size is
a) Inverse
b) Direct
c) They both are same
d) There is no relationship as such
404. Which of the following SAs deals with auditor’s responsibilities to evaluate the effect of identified
misstatements
a) SA 330
b) SA 500
c) SA 505
d) SA 450
405. Misstatements may result from:
a) An inaccuracy in gathering or processing data from which financial statements are prepared
b) An omission of an amount or disclosure
c) An incorrect accounting estimate
d) All of above
406. SA 450 considers the mis-statements resulting from
a) Frauds
b) Errors
c) Frauds and errors both
d) Mistakes
407. Misstatements that the auditor has accumulated during the audit and have not been corrected are
called as
a) Uncorrected misstatements
b) Material misstatements
c) Immaterial misstatements
d) Tolerable errors
408. If aggregate of uncorrected misstatements is material, auditor shall express
a) Unmodified Opinion
b) Qualified /Adverse Opinion
c) Disclaimer of opinion
d) None of these
409. __________________ means audit evidence obtained as direct written response from a third party in
paper/electronic form.
a) Internal Confirmation
b) External Confirmation
d) All of above
410. Which of the following SAs deals with auditor’s responsibilities to design and perform external
confirmation procedures to obtain relevant and reliable audit evidence
a) SA 580
b) SA 330
c) SA 500
d) SA 505
411. A request that the confirming party respond directly to the auditor indicating whether the confirming
party agrees or disagrees with the information in the request, or providing the requested information, is
a) Negative Confirmation Request
b) Exception
c) Positive Confirmation Request
d) Non-Response
412. A request that the confirming party respond directly to the auditor only if the confirming party
disagrees with the information provided in the request, is
a) Negative Confirmation Request
b) Positive Confirmation Request
c) Exception
d) Non Response
413. A response that indicates a difference between information requested to be confirmed, or contained in
the entity’s records, and information provided by the confirming party, is
a) Error
b) Exception
c) Fraud
d) All of above
414. A failure of the confirming party to respond, or fully respond, to a positive confirmation request, or a
confirmation request returned undelivered is called
a) Disagreement
b) Confirmation failure
c) Restriction on auditor’s scope
d) Non-Response
415. The auditor should use negative confirmation request if
a) Population comprises a large number of small, homogeneous account balances or transactions
b) The auditor has assessed the risk of material misstatement as low
c) A very low exception rate is expected
d) All of above
416. Factors to be considered when designing confirmation request:
a) Prior experience of auditor
b) Assertions being addressed
c) Information to be confirmed
d) All of above
417. In case any exception is identified by auditor by conducting external confirmation, he shall perform
a) Alternative audit procedures
b) Additional audit procedures
c) Test of Controls
d) Both (a) and (b)
418. In case of non-response in the process of external confirmation, the auditor shall perform
a) Alternative audit procedures
b) Additional audit procedures
c) Test of Controls
d) Both (a) and (b)
419. _______________ should carefully plan and control external confirmation
a) Management
b) TCWG
c) Auditor
d) All of these in consultation with one another
420. ________________ means evaluation of financial information through analysis of plausible

relationships among both financial and non-financial data.
a) Risk assessment
b) Analytical Procedures
c) Substantive Procedures
d) Test of Controls
421. Which of the following SAs deals with auditor’s responsibilities to design and perform analytical
procedures as substantive analytical procedure?
a) SA 315
b) SA 330
c) SA 520
d) SA 500
422. What are analytical procedures?
a) Substantive tests designed to assess control risk.
b) Substantive tests designed to evaluate the validity of management’s representative letter.
c) Substantive tests designed to study relationship between financial and non-financial.
d) All of the above.
423. Analytical procedures used in the planning stage of an audit, generally
a) helps to determine the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures
b) Directs attention to potential risk areas
c) Indicate important aspects of business
d) All of above.
424. The basic assumption underlying the use of analytical procedures is
a) It helps the auditor to study relationship among elements of financial information
b) Relationship among data exist and continue in the absence of known condition to the contrary
c) Analytical procedures will not be able to detect unusual relationships
d) None of the above.
425. Which of the following is not an analytical procedure?
a) Tracing of purchases recurred in the purchase book to purchase invoices.
b) Comparing aggregate wages paid to number of employees.
c) Comparing the actual costs with standard costs.
d) All of them are analytical procedures.
426. Analytical procedures used in the planning stage of an audit, generally:

a) Helps to determine the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures
b) Directs attention to potential risk areas
c) Indicates important aspects of business
d) All of the above
427. The basic assumption underlying the use of analytical procedures is:
a) It helps the auditor to study relationship elements of financial information.
b) Relationship among data exist and continue in the absence of known conditions to the contrary
c) Analytical procedures will not be able to detect unusual relationships.
428. What is the primary objective of analytical procedures used in the overall review stage of an audit?
a) To help to corroborate the conclusions drawn from individual components of financial statements
b) To reduce specific detection risk
c) To direct attention to potential risk areas
d) To satisfy doubts when questions arise about a client’s ability to continue
429. Which of the following is a technique available as substantive analytical procedure?
a) External confirmation
b) Ratio Analysis
c) Trend Analysis
d) Both (b) and (c)
430. Timing of analytical procedure is
a) At Planning stage only
b) Throughout the audit engagement
c) At planning stage and in addition these are also required during completion phase.
d) None of these
431. Reliability of data is influenced by
a) Its source
b) Its nature
c) Circumstances under which it is obtained
d) All of these
432. Which of the following is not a typical analytical procedure?
a) Study of relationships of the financial information with relevant nonfinancial information
b) Comparison of the financial information with similar information regarding the industry in which the
entity operates
c) Comparison of recorded amounts of major disbursements with appropriate invoices
d) Comparison of the financial information with budgeted amounts
433. Which of the following SA deals with auditor’s responsibilities in relation to fraud in an audit of
a) SA 240
b) SA 250
c) SA 315
d) SA 330
434. Examples of fraudulent financial reporting
a) Inflating or suppressing purchases and expenses
b) Inflating or suppressing sales and other items of income
c) Overvaluation of assets
d) All of above
435. Which of the following is not an example of suppressing cash receipts
a) Teeming and Lading
b) Payment against fictitious vouchers
c) Not accounting for cash sales fully
d) Not accounting for miscellaneous receipts.
436. Which of the following is not self-revealing error
a) Wages paid for installation of machine debited in wages account.
b) Omission to post a part of a journal entry to ledger
c) A failure to record in the cash book, cash paid into or withdrawn from bank
d) Goods purchased from Mr. A omitted to be recorded.
437. Teeming and Lading is a technique for
a) Inflating cash payments
b) Wrong casting in the cash book
c) Suppressing cash receipts
d) None of these
438. Which of following is fraud risk factor
a) Incentive/Pressure
b) Opportunities
c) Attitude/Rationalization
d) All of above
439. Which of the following is an indicator of fraud due to problematic or unusual relationship between
auditor and management
a) Unsupported or unauthorized transaction
b) Unusual delays by the entity in providing requested information
c) Last minute adjustments that significantly affect financial results
d) All of above.
440. Which of the following is least likely to be included in an auditor’s inquiry of management while
obtaining information to identify the risks of material misstatement due to fraud?
a) Are financial reporting operations controlled by and limited to one location?
b) Does it have knowledge of fraud or suspect fraud?
c) Does it have programs to mitigate fraud risks?
d) Has it reported to the audit committee the nature of the company’s internal control?
441. Which of the following is most likely to be presumed to present a fraud risk on an audit?
a) Capitalization of repairs and maintenance expense into the property, plant and equipment asset account
b) Improper revenue recognition
c) Improper interest expense accrual
d) Introduction of significant new products
442. Degree of detection risk is generally high which respect to
a) Management’s Fraud
b) Employee’s Fraud
c) Error
d) All of above.
443. Due to inherent limitations of audit, there is ______________ that some mis-statements will __________
a) Reasonable assurance, not be detected
b) Unavoidable risk, not be detected
c) Avoidable risk, not be detected
d) Unavoidable risk , not be prevented
444. Fraud is an intentional act involving use of deception to obtain an unjust advantage and can be
committed by
a) TCWG
b) Employees
c) Third parties
d) Any of these
445. In order to form an opinion, the auditor shall take into account:
a) Whether sufficient appropriate audit evidence has been obtained
b) Whether uncorrected misstatements are material, individually or in aggregate
c) Evaluations
d) All of above
446. In order to form the opinion, the auditor shall conclude as to whether the auditor has obtained
______________ about whether the financial statements as a whole are free from material
misstatement, whether due to fraud or error.
a) Reasonable assurance
b) Absolute assurance
c) Limited assurance
447. Which of the following is a not a type of modified opinion
a) Qualified opinion
b) Adverse opinion
d) None of these
448. The auditor shall express________________ opinion when the auditor, having obtained sufficient
appropriate audit evidence, concludes that misstatements, individually or in the aggregate, are both
material and pervasive to the financial statements.
a) Adverse
b) Qualified
c) Disclaimer
449. When auditor concludes that financial statements as a whole are free from material misstatements and
he has no reservation for any material item of the financial statements, he shall express
b) Unmodified opinion
c) Adverse opinion
d) Disclaimer of opinion
450. When auditor concludes that financial statements are not free from material misstatements and effect
of material misstatements is not pervasive, he shall express
a) Unmodified opinion
b) Disclaimer of opinion
c) Qualified opinion
d) Adverse opinion
451. If auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence with respect to any material item(s)
of the financial statements and possible effect if material but not pervasive, he shall express
b) Adverse opinion
d) Qualified opinion
452. If auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence with respect to any material item(s)
of the financial statements and possible effect if pervasive, he shall express
b) Adverse opinion
d) Qualified opinion
453. Which of the following SAs deals with auditor’s responsibilities for forming an opinion and reporting
on financial statements
a) SA 700
b) SA 701
c) SA 705
d) SA 706
454. Which of the following is title of auditor’s report
a) Auditor’s Report
b) Independent Auditor’s Report
c) Audit Report on the Financial Statements

d) Reporting on the Financial statements
455. As per SA 700, which of the following is addressee of auditor’s report
a) Those Charged With Governance of the Entity
b) Members of the Entity
c) It depends upon circumstances of the engagement
d) Central Government
456. If auditor concludes an unmodified opinion, which heading will auditor use for opinion section
a) Opinion
b) Unmodified Opinion
c) Unqualified Opinion
d) Reporting on True and Fair View
457. Under which of the following section auditor shall mention in his report that he has conducted audit
engagement in accordance with SAs issued by ICAI and has complied with code of ethics and relevant
ethical requirements
a) Opinion
b) SA and Code of Ethics
c) Compliance with Standards
d) Basis for Opinion
458. Which of the following is not content of basis of opinion section
a) Name of the entity
b) Statement that audit was conducted in accordance with SAs
c) Statement that auditor believes that audit evidence the auditor has obtained is sufficient and appropriate to
provide a basis for the auditor’s opinion.
d) Reference to the section of auditor’s report that describes the auditor’s responsibilities under the SAs.
459. Under which of the following heading, auditor shall report those matters in his report which are
required to be reported by him as his duties as per the law and regulation basis upon which audit has
been conducted
a) Opinion
b) Basis for Opinion
c) Reporting on the Audit of Financial Statements
d) Reporting on Other Legal and Regulatory Requirements
460. The date in auditor’s report represent the date
a) Balance Sheet Date
b) Date when financial statements are approved by management of the entity
c) Date when audit report is signed by auditor
d) Date when audit report is submitted to management of the entity.
461. The place in auditor’s report represent
a) Address of auditor
b) Name of city, where audit report has been signed

c) Name of city, where office of entity is situated
d) None of these
462. If partnership firm is appointed as auditor, audit report shall be signed by
a) Any partner of the firm
b) Any practicing chartered accountant partner of the firm
c) All the partners of the firm
d) Any partner or any CA employee of the firm.
463. Which of the following is not mentioned along with signing in auditor’s report
a) Membership number of individual/partner
b) Firm’s Registration Number
c) Date & Place
d) Time
464. The opinion section of the auditor’s report shall:
a) Identify the entity whose financial statements have been audited;
b) State that the financial statements have been audited;
c) Identify the title of each statement comprising the financial statements
d) All of the above
465. Which of the following SAs deals with auditor’s responsibility to communicate key audit matters in the
auditor’s report
a) SA 701
b) SA 705
c) SA 706
d) SA 700
466. _________________ are those matters that in the auditor’s professional judgement, were of most
significance in the audit of the financial statements of the current period.
a) Significant Matters
b) Key Audit Matters
c) Noteworthy Audit Matters
d) Remarkable Audit Matters
467. Key Audit Matters are selected from matters
a) Communicated to members of engagement team
b) Communicated to management of the entity
c) Communicated to TCWG of the entity
d) Communicated to CG.
468. In making determination of key audit matters, the auditor shall consider the following
a) Areas of higher assessed risk of material misstatements or significant risk identified in accordance with
SA 315
b) Significant auditor judgements relating to area in the financial statements that involved significant
management judgement, including accounting estimates that have been identified as having estimation
uncertainty.
c) The effect on audit of significant events or transaction that occurred during the period.
d) All of the above
469. The auditor shall describe each key audit matter, using an appropriate subheading, in a separate
section of the audit report under the heading_____________________
a) Audit Matters
b) Key Audit Matters
c) Any appropriate heading as per the auditor’s judgement
470. Which of following statement is incorrect’
a) Communicating key audit matters in the auditor’s report is not a separate opinion on individual matters.
b) SA 701 also applies when the auditor is required by law or regulation to communicate key audit matters in
the auditor’s report.
c) The purpose of communicating key audit matters to enhance the communicative value of the auditor’s
report by providing greater transparency about the audit that has been performed.
d) Key audit matter is a substitute for expressing a modified opinion.
471. The auditor shall describe each key audit matter in the auditor’s report unless
a) Law or regulation precludes public disclosure about the matter
b) In extremely rare circumstances, the auditor determines that the matter should not be communicated in the
auditor’s report because the adverse consequences of doing so would reasonably be expected outweigh the
public interest benefits of such communication
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of these
472. Which of the following SAs deals with auditor’s additional responsibilities w.r.t modified opinion
a) SA 700
b) SA 701
c) SA 705
d) SA 706
473. When auditor modifies the opinion the opinion the auditor shall give reason of modified opinion in a
section under the heading
a) Basis for Opinion
b) ‘Basis for Qualified Opinion’ or ‘Basis for Adverse Opinion’ or ‘Basis for Disclaimer of Opinion’ as
appropriate
c) Reason for Modified Opinion
d) None of these
474. The auditor’s report shall not include a Key Audit Matter section in accordance with SA 701, in case of
a) Disclaimer of Opinion
b) Adverse Opinion
c) Qualified Opinion
d) All of the above
475. Which of the following SA deals with auditor’s responsibility to communicate emphasis of matter and
other matter paragraph in independent auditor’s report
a) SA 700
b) SA 701
c) SA 705
d) SA 706
476. ________________ is a paragraph included in the auditor’s report that refers to a matter appropriately
presented or disclosed in the financial statements that, in the auditor’s judgement, is of such
importance that is fundamental to user’s understanding of the financial statements.
a) Emphasis of Matters Paragraph
b) Other Matters Paragraph
c) Key Audit Matter
477. ________________ is a paragraph included in the auditor’s report that refers to a matter other than
those presented or disclosed in the financial statements that, in the auditor’s judgement, is of such
importance that is fundamental to user’s understanding of audit, the auditor’s responsibilities or the
auditor’s report.
a) Emphasis of Matters Paragraph
b) Other Matters Paragraph
c) Key Audit Matter
478. To disclose the fact that financial statements of the prior period have been audited by predecessor
auditor, the auditor shall introduce _____________________ paragraph in his report.
a) Emphasis of Matter
b) Other Matter
c) Key Audit Matter
479. To disclose an early application by entity (where permitted) of a new accounting standards that has a
pervasive effect on the financial statements in advance of its effective date, auditor shall
introduce_________________ paragraph in his report.
a) Emphasis of Matter
b) Other Matter
c) Key Audit Matter
d) Basis for Modified Opinion
480. Emphasis of matter paragraph shall in auditor’s report
a) Immediately following opinion section
b) Immediately following Basis for opinion section
c) Immediately following management’s responsibility section
d) Immediately following auditor’s responsibility section

481. Which of the following sequence in audit report is correct
a) Title, Opinion section , Basis For Opinion section, Addressee, Key Audit Matter section
b) Title, Addressee, Basis For Opinion section, Opinion section, Key Audit Matter section
c) Title, Addressee, Key Audit Matter section, Opinion section, Basis For Opinion section
d) Title, Addressee, Opinion section, Basis for opinion section, Key Audit Matter section.
482. Which of the following SA deals with deals with special consideration by auditor in obtaining sufficient
appropriate audit evidence with respect to existence and condition of inventory, completeness of
litigation and claim and presentation and disclosure of segment information:
a) SA 500
b) SA 501
c) SA 505
d) SA 510
483. The responsibility for determining the quantity and value of inventory rests with
a) Management
b) Auditor
c) Auditor and Management both
d) None of these
484. The auditor shall obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the existence and condition of
inventory by attending physical inventory count, unless impracticable, to
a) Evaluate the management’s instruction and procedures for recording and controlling the results of the
entity’s physical inventory counting
b) Observe the performance of management’s count procedures
c) Inspect the inventory
d) All of above
485. If auditor is unable to attend physical inventory counting due to unforeseen circumstances the auditor
shall
a) Obtain a written representation from management of entity
b) Conduct external confirmation form third party
c) Make or observe some physical count on an alternative date, and perform audit procedures on intervening
transactions
d) All of these.
486. If attendance at physical inventory counting is impracticable, the auditor shall
a) Perform Alternative audit procedures
b) Perform Additional audit procedures
c) Obtain written representation from management of entity
487. The auditor shall design and perform audit procedures in order to identify litigation and claims
involving the entity which may give rise to a risk of material misstatement including:
a) Inquiry of management and others within the entity

b) Performing analytical procedures as are appropriate
c) Reviewing minutes of meetings of members
d) All of above
488. If management does not permit auditor to communicate with legal counsel or legal counsel refuses to
respond to auditor, the auditor shall
a) Express unmodified opinion
b) Modify opinion
c) Provide key audit matter section in his report
d) All of these
489. With respect to segment information, the auditor shall obtain evidences regarding ________ of segment
information as per___________.
a) Preparation, Standard on auditing
b) Disclosure, Standard on auditing
c) Preparation, Financial reporting framework
d) Presentation and Disclosure, Financial reporting framework.
490. Which of the following SA deals with the auditor’s responsibilities relating to Opening balances when
conducting an initial audit engagement:
a) SA 500
b) SA 510
c) SA 710
d) SA 540
491. An initial audit engagement in engagement in which :
a) The financial statements for the prior period were not audited
b) The financial statements for the prior period were audited by a predecessor auditor
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) None of (a) or (b)
492. Predecessor auditor is:
a) Joint auditor
b) Auditor of component’
c) Internal auditor
d) The auditor from a different audit firm, who audited the financial statements of an entity in the prior
period and who has been replaced by the current auditor.
493. To obtain information relevant to opening balances including disclosures, the auditor shall
a) Read the most recent financial statement, if any and auditor’s report thereon
b) Conduct written communication with predecessor auditor
c) Inquire with management
d) All of the above
494. Which of the following is true

a) If auditor concludes that opening balances contain misstatements that materially affects the current
period’s financial statements, the auditor shall express disclaimer of opinion.
b) If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the opening balances, the
auditor shall express a qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion, as appropriate, in accordance with SA
705.
c) If auditor concludes that the current period’s accounting policies are not consistently applied in relation to
opening balances, or a change in accounting policies is not properly accounted for , or not adequately
disclosed in accordance with applicable reporting framework, the auditor shall express a qualified opinion
or an adverse opinion as appropriate, in accordance with SA 705.
d) Both (b) and (c)
495. Which of the following SA deals with auditor’s responsibilities regarding accounting estimates
including fair value accounting estimates and related disclosure in an audit of financial statements
a) SA 501
b) SA 540
c) SA 510
d) SA 550
496. Accounting estimate is ____________ of a monetary amount in _______________ a precise means of
measurement.
a) Exact amount, in the absence of
b) Approximation, in the absence of
c) Exact amount, in the presence of
d) Approximation, in the presence of
497. Which of the following in not an example of accounting estimate that may have high estimation
uncertainty:
a) Accounting estimates that are highly dependent upon judgement.
b) Accounting estimates that are not calculated using recognized measurement techniques.
c) Accounting estimate for outstanding expenses
d) Accounting estimates where results of auditor’s views of similar accounting estimates made in prior
period financial statements indicate a substantial difference between original accounting estimate and
actual outcome.
498. The susceptibility of an accounting estimate and related disclosure to an inherent lack of precision in its
measurement is called as:
a) Risk of material misstatements
b) Estimate uncertainty
c) Significant risk
d) Inherent risk.
499. Which of the following is false
a) The auditor shall obtain an understanding of requirements of standards of auditing to identify and assess
risk of material misstatements for accounting estimates
b) The auditor shall obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence about whether the accounting estimate and
their disclosure in financial statements is appropriate.
c) For accounting estimates that give rise to significant risk, auditor shall examine adequacy of disclosure of
their estimation uncertainty in the financial statements.
d) The auditor shall obtain written representation from management whether management believes
significant assumptions used by it in making accounting estimates are reasonable.
500. A lack of neutrality by management in the preparation and presentation of information is called:
a) Management’s point estimate
b) Management’s range
c) Estimation uncertainty
d) Management bias
501. Which of the following is not as example of accounting estimate
a) Warranty obligation
b) Outcome of long term contracts
c) Selection of accounting policies
d) Financial obligations/cost arising from litigation settlements and judgements.
502. Matters that the auditor may consider in evaluating the reasonableness of the assumptions used by
management include:
a) Whether individual assumptions appear reasonable
b) Whether the assumptions are interdependent and internally consistent
c) In the case of fair value accounting estimates, whether the assumptions appropriately reflect observable
market place assumptions
d) All of above
503. In case of accounting estimates, the auditor shall perform the following if he faces any significant risk:
a) Examine alternative assumption
b) Develop a range
c) Consider whether management has been biased
d) All of above
504. If there is any material difference between the auditor’s range concluded by the auditor and the
estimate made by management in the financial statements, which client refuses to adjust, the auditor
shall express:
a) An unmodified opinion
b) A qualified opinion
c) Either a qualified opinion or adverse opinion
d) Either a qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion
505. Which of the following SA deals with auditor’s responsibilities regarding related party relationships
and transactions when performing an audit of financial statements
a) SA 540
b) SA 550
c) SA 560
d) SA 570
506. A transaction conducted on such terms and conditions as between a willing buyer and a willing seller
who are unrelated and are acting independently of each other and pursuing their own best interest is
called as:
a) Arm’s length transaction
b) Related party transaction
c) Significant transaction
d) None of these
507. Related party transaction may be conducted
a) In the normal course of business
b) Not under normal market terms and conditions
c) With no exchange consideration
d) All of these
508. A related party transaction may have the following features:
a) A person or entity under common control
b) Owners who are close family members
c) Common key management
d) All of these
509. Which of the following is not a record or document that may provide information about related party
relationships and transactions:
a) Entity income tax return
b) Internal auditor’s report
c) Memorandum of Association
d) Life insurance policies acquired by the entity.
510. To identify and assess risk of material misstatements due to fraud or error that could result the entity’s
related party relationships and transaction the auditor shall:
a) Inquiry with management and others within the entity
b) Perform other risk assessment procedures
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
511. If auditor identifies significant related party transactions, not conducted on the terms and conditions
like normal rate and market conditions then, he should evaluate-
a) Business rationale behind these transactions
b) Consistency of terms with management’s explanation
c) Accounting and disclosure of such transactions in financial statements
d) All of these
512. Statement(1)
As per SA-550, auditor should examine whether related party transactions have been appropriately
accounted for and disclosed in the financial statements as per financial reporting framework; though he
need not check authorization of such transactions by management.
Statement (2)
Auditor should consider whether management has appropriately accounted and disclosed the related
party transactions in their financial statements as per applicable financial framework as it might affect
his audit opinion.
a) Only Statement (1) is true
b) Only Statement (2) is true
c) Both the statements are true
d) None of the Statements is true
513. Statement(1)
Regarding related party relationships and transactions with them, auditor shall not obtain any written
representation; rather obtain extra evidences independently as he cannot rely on written
representations when it comes to related party transactions.
Statement (2)
As per SA-550, he should maintain documentation regarding name and nature of related party
relationships.
514. As per Accounting Standard 18, the facts to be disclosed in the financial statements by the auditor shall
include-
a) Related party name and nature of relationship
b) If there is a transaction between related parties, the nature of transaction, the price at which it has been
made and amount of transaction outstanding at the balance sheet date.
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
515. For identifying existence of related parties, apart from obtaining written representation from
management and TCWG, the auditor should also consider-
a) Keyman insurance policies
b) Income tax returns
c) Internal auditor’s reports
d) None of these
516. SA- ___________ pertains to management’s responsibilities to examine whether related party
transactions have been appropriately accounted for and disclosed in the financial statements.
a) SA-240
b) SA-550
c) SA-560
d) None of these
517. SA- ____________relates to auditor’s responsibilities regarding subsequent events
a) SA-550
b) SA-560
c) SA-570
d) None of these
518. Subsequent events as per SA 560 are-
a) Events occurring between the date of financial statements and the date of auditor’s report
b) Facts that become known to the auditor after the date of auditor’s report
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
519. The auditor shall obtain sufficient and appropriate evidence that all events after the balance sheet date
but before or up to the date of __________ that require adjustment or disclosure in _______ have been
identified.
a) Board’s approval; Board report
b) Board’s approval; financial statements
c) Auditor’s report; Board report
d) Auditor’s report; financial statements
520. Regarding subsequent events, auditor shall comply with the requirements given in SA-560. State which
of the following is not correct in this regard?
a) The auditor shall inquire the management and those charged with governance regarding the subsequent
events.
b) Auditor should read the entity’s subsequent interim financial statements, if any
c) The auditor may inquire entity’s lawyer regarding the pending cases and outcomes therefrom.
d) Auditor need not consider whether subsequent event may have an impact on going concern assumption.
521. Statement (1)
Generally, auditor has no obligation to perform any audit procedures regarding the financial
statements after the date of auditor’s report.
Statement (2)
In case auditor comes to know about a fact after the date of auditor’s report, he should not consider the
same.
522. In case facts become known to the auditor after the date of audit report but before the date financial
statements are issued, then auditor shall-
a) Discuss with management and TCWG the matter whether there is need to amend financial statements and
treatment in financial statements.
b) Should not ask the management and TCWG to amend the financial statements in any case because it may
give rise to many complications.
c) He should ask the management and TCWG to inform about the situation to everyone in receipt of
previously issued financial statements and amend the financial statements.
d) He need not provide a new report even if facts are such that had it been known to the auditor at the date of
audit report, it might have affected his audit report.
523. Statement (1)
If auditor comes to know about the facts which are of such nature that had those been known to the
auditor at the date of audit report, it might have affected his audit report, and he asks the management
and TCWG to amend the financial statements but management does not amend the financial
statements, then, he should provide a new report.
Statement (2)
If he comes to know about the facts after the date financial statements are issued, then, he does not have
any obligation because financial statements have already been issued to third parties. At the most he
can provide a public notice.
524. A limited company is having a pending case filed against it on 31th March, 2018. A decision has been
received from the court on 14th April, 2018. i.e. after the balance sheet date.
a) It is a subsequent event
b) It should be considered by the management while preparing the financial statements.
c) Auditor needs to check whether it has been dealt with in the financial statements as per applicable
financial reporting framework.
d) All of these
525. When after the financial statements have been issued, a fact becomes known to the auditor that, had it
been known to the auditor at the date of auditor’s report, may have caused the auditor to amend the
auditor’s report, the auditor shall
a) Discuss the matter with management and TCWG
b) Determine whether the financial statements need amendment
c) Inquire how management intends to address the matter in the financial statements
d) All of the above
526. Statement (1)
Under the going concern assumption, an entity is viewed as continuing in business forever.
Statement (2)
General purpose financial statements are prepared on a going concern basis if management neither
intends to liquidate the entity nor to cease the operations
527. In case financial statements have not been prepared on a going concern basis,-
a) The fact need not be appropriately disclosed
b) The auditor shall comply with SA-570
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
528. Statement (1)
As per SA-570, the auditor need not consider whether there is material uncertainty about the entity’s
ability to continue as a going concern because it is management’s responsibility to consider the same.
Statement (2)
The absence of any reference to going concern uncertainty in the auditor’s report may be viewed as a
guarantee as to the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern.
529. As per SA-570, the auditor shall
a) Consider the events or conditions that may cast significant doubt on the entity’s ability to continue as a
going concern.
b) Plan and perform his audit considering professional skepticism.
c) Remain alert throughout the audit
d) All of these
530. The following type of indicators may give rise to a doubt on going concern assumption adopted by
management:
a) Financial indicators
b) Operating indicators
c) Other indicators
d) All of these
531. If the management has prepared financial statements based on going concern assumption but auditor
concludes that use of going concern basis is inappropriate, then auditor shall-
a) Express a qualified opinion
b) Express an adverse opinion
c) Disclaim his opinion
d) Either option (a) or option (b)

532. If auditor concludes that use of going concern basis of accounting is appropriate but a material
uncertainty exists which is adequately disclosed in the financial statements, then auditor shall-
a) Express a qualified opinion
b) Express an adverse opinion
c) Either option (a) and option (b)
d) None of these
533. If going concern basis of accounting is appropriate, however, there is a material uncertainty which is
not disclosed in the financial statements, then auditor shall express-
b) Adverse opinion
c) (a) or (b)
d) Disclaimer of opinion
534. The auditor’s report shall include a separate section under the heading “material uncertainty relating
to going concern” in case-
a) Adequate disclosure of a material uncertainty has been made in the financial statements
b) Adequate disclosure of material uncertainty is not made in the financial statements
c) Management may be unwilling to make or extend his assessment
d) All of these
535. If auditor identifies events or conditions that may cast significant doubt on going concern, he shall
communicate the same to-
a) Management
b) TCWG
c) Option (a) and option (b) both
d) Either (a) or option (b)
536. The matters relating to going concern may-
a) Be a key audit matter as per SA 701
b) Should not be a key audit matter as per SA-701 because these are dealt only in SA-570
c) Key audit matters must not include going concern matters
d) None of these
537. While performing audit procedures to obtain audit evidence for management’s use of going concern
assumption, the auditor shall consider same time period as covered by management in its assessment,
but such period shall not be less than
a) 3 Months
b) 6 Months
c) 10 Months
d) 12 Months
538. Which of the following is financial event or condition which may cast significant doubt on the entity’s
ability to continue as going concern
a) Loss of franchise
b) Shortage of supplies
c) Negative operating cash flows
d) Non-compliance with statutory requirement
539. Which of the following is operating event or condition which may cast significant doubt on the entity’s
ability to continue as going concern
a) Loss of major market segment
b) Loss of key customer
c) Inability to pay creditors on due date
d) (a) and (b)
540. The auditor found that entity has recurring losses and has negative net worth, these are indicators of-
a) Operating nature
b) Financial nature
c) Other indicators
d) All of these
541. If auditor concludes that management’s use of going concern basis of accounting is appropriate but
material uncertainty exists which has been properly disclosed by management in financial statement,
the auditor shall
a) Introduce EOM para in his report in accordance with SA 706
b) Introduce separate section in his report under the heading ‘Material Uncertainty Related to Going
Concern’
c) Introduce OM para in his report in accordance with SA 706
d) Qualify his opinion in accordance with SA 705
542. In case of management’s unwillingness to make or extend its going concern assumption, the auditor
shall
a) Consider the implications for the auditor’s report
b) Withdraw from engagement
c) Introduce EOM para in his report in accordance with SA 706
d) Introduce OM para in his report in accordance with SA 706
543. When any event or condition is identified by auditor which may cast significant doubt on the entity’s
ability to continue as going concern, the auditor’s additional procedure shall include the following
a) Communicating the facts to the regulatory auditory of the entity
b) Communicate the matter to the Central Government
c) Request written representation from management or TCWG regarding their future action and feasibility of
these plan
d) All of the above
544. SA __________ deals with using the work of another auditor

a) 600
b) 610
c) 620
d) 500
545. SA 600 is applicable to
a) Component’s auditor
b) Joint auditors
c) Predecessor auditors
d) Option (a) and (c) both
546. Component includes
a) Branch
b) Subsidiary
c) Division
d) All of the above
547. ______ should advice __________ regarding use to made of his report, timetable for completion of his
work and significant accounting, auditing and reporting requirement----
a) Principal auditor, expert
b) Auditor, expert
c) Joint Auditor, other joint auditor
d) Principal auditor, another auditor
548. Principal auditor may require supplementary test to be performed by----
a) Another auditor
b) Himself
c) Either option (a) or option (b)
d) None of these as he cannot require conducting supplement test because audit has already been done by
another auditor
549. If there is modification in another auditor’s report, then principal auditor ---
a) Need not consider another auditor’s report
b) Should consider another auditor’s report but will not consider that while preparing his own audit report
c) Consider whether modification in his own audit report is required
d) Ask the management to discuss with another auditor why he modified his audit report
a) There should be sufficient liaison between principal auditor and the other auditor.
b) The other auditor, knowing the context in which his work is to be used by the principal auditor, should co-
ordinate with the principal auditor
c) Other auditor also includes internal auditor
d) The principal would not be responsible in respect of the work entrusted to the other auditor
551. Principal auditor should __________ his audit opinion if he cannot use another auditor’s work and is
not able to perform sufficient additional procedures-
a) Qualify
b) Disclaim
c) Adverse
d) Qualify or disclaim
552. Statement (1)
Principal auditor may use the work of another auditor in accordance with SA 600 and there is no need
to mention about division of responsibility in his audit report.
Statement (2)
SA 600 is applicable to all the components whether material or immaterial as components by their
very nature need to be considered by the principal auditors
a) Only statement 1 is true

b) Only statement 2 is true
d) None of the statement is true
553. Which of the following SA deals with auditor’s responsibilities for using the work of internal auditor
a) SA 600
b) SA 610
c) SA 620
d) SA 402
554. SA 610 deals with the external auditor’s responsibilities if using the work of internal auditors. This
includes
a) Using the work of internal audit function in obtaining audit evidence
b) Using internal auditors to provide direct assistance under the direction, supervision and review of external
auditor.
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
555. The external auditor shall determine whether work of internal audit function can be used for purpose
of audit by evaluating of following
a) The extent to which internal audit function’s organization status and relevant policies and procedures
support the objectivity of internal auditors
b) The level of competence of the internal audit function
c) Whether the internal audit function applies a systematic and disciplined approach including quality control
d) All of the above
556. The external auditor shall perform audit procedures on the body of work of internal auditor that the
external auditor plan to use to determine its adequacy for the purpose of audit, including evaluating
whether
a) The work of internal auditor had been properly planned, performed, supervised, reviewed and documented
b) Sufficient appropriate evidence had been obtained to draw reasonable conclusions

c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Internal auditor has necessary competency
557. If using internal auditor to provide direct assistance is not prohibited by law or regulation and external
auditor plans to use internal auditors to provide direct assistance on the audit, the external auditor
shall consider
a) The amount of judgement involved in planning and performing relevant audit procedures and evaluating
the audit evidence gathered
b) The risk of material misstatement assessed
c) Threats to the objectivity and level of competence to internal auditors
d) All of the above
558. Which of the following in incorrect
a) The external auditor may use internal auditor to provide direct assistance w.r.t. area that involve
significant judgements in audit
b) The external auditor shall not use internal auditor to provide direct assistance w.r.t. area where risk of
material misstatements is highly assessed by auditor
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
559. Statement (1)
Auditor’s expert is an individual and organization possessing expertise in a field including accounting
and auditing whose work is used by auditor in obtaining evidences.
Statement (2)
Auditor’s expert as per SA 620 needs to be an external expert so as to maintain his independence.

560. SA 620 deals with auditors responsibilities regarding using the work of –
a) Managements expert
b) Auditors expert
c) Option (a) or (b)
d) Both option (a) and option (b)
561. Statement 1
If auditor uses the work of auditor expert, his responsibility to express opinion is reduced to the extent
he has used expert’s work.
Statement 2
As per SA, the sole objective of auditor is to determine whether to use the work of auditor’s expert or
not.

562. Auditor’s expert may be
a) Auditor’s internal expert
b) Auditor’s external expert
c) (a) or (b)
d) Management’s expert
563. Auditor’s internal expert may be
a) Any partner of auditor’s firm
b) Any staff of auditor’s firm
c) (a) or (b)
d) Management’s expert
564. Which of the following is correct
a) An auditor’s internal expert is subject to quality control policies and procedures of firm in accordance
with SQC-1
b) An auditor’s internal expert is subject to quality control policies and procedures of firm in accordance
with SQC-1
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
565. Which of the following is source of information for evaluating competency, capability and objectivity of
auditor’s expert
a) Personal experience with previous work of that expert
b) Discussion with that expert
c) Expert’s qualification, membership of professional body
d) All of the above
566. Which of the following is not a content of written agreement which is entered with expert before
appointing him
a) The nature, scope and objectives of expert’s work
b) The Scope and objectives of audit
c) The nature, timing and extent of communication between auditor and expert
d) Form of any report to be provided by that expert
567. Auditor should be aware of ________ that may _________ expert’s independence----
a) Relationships, hamper
b) Education, increase
c) Education, decrease
d) Knowledge, enhance
568. The auditor should agree with auditor’s expert _____ before relying on him.
a) In writing
b) Orally
c) Either option (a) or option (b)
d) Option (a) and subsequently option (b)
569. If the auditor evaluates whether the auditors expert work is adequate, he shall consider----
a) Reasonableness of experts findings and consistency with other evidences
b) Reasonableness of assumptions used by expert
c) Reasonableness and accuracy of source data
d) All of these
570. Auditor shall not refer to the work of auditor’s expert in the report containing---
b) Modified opinion
c) Both option (a) and option (b)
571. SA _______ relates to comparative information.
a) 520
b) 705
c) 710
d) 720
572. ____________ financial statements include comparative information which are included for comparison
with current financial statements but if audited are referred to in the auditor’s opinion----
a) Comparative
b) Prior period
c) Corresponding
d) All of these
573. __________ framework means comparative information is included as an integral part of current
period financial statements---
a) Corresponding figures
b) Comparative financial statements
574. As per SA 710, the auditor shall also consider—
a) SA 510
b) SA 560
c) SA 720
d) Both (a) and (b)
575. In SA-710, if there is a doubt of material misstatement in comparative information, then auditor shall
not-
a) Apply professional skepticism
b) Perform additional audit procedures
c) Obtain sufficient appropriate evidences regarding existence of material misstatements
d) None of these
576. If the prior year’s financial statements were audited by another auditor, then current year auditor shall
as per SA 710, state in other matters paragraph---
a) That last year financial statements are audited by predecessor auditor
b) Type of opinion expressed by him
c) Date of that report
d) All of these
577. If last year financial statements are unaudited, then as per SA 710 the auditor shall state in ______
section of audit report that corresponding financial statements are unaudited---
a) Auditor’s responsibility
b) Opinion
c) Emphasis of matter
d) Other matters
578. Statement (1)
If client has disclosed comparative information as per corresponding figures framework, the auditor
shall not refer to corresponding figures in any case.
Statement (2)
In the case of comparative financial statements, the audit opinion shall refer to each period for which
financial statements are presented and on which opinion is expressed.
579. SA 720 deals with the auditor’s responsibility in relation to__________ in ________
a) Comparative information, financial statements
b) Other information, annual report
c) Financial information, financial statements
d) Other information, last year’s financial statements
580. As per SA 720, the documents containing audited financial statements refers to----
a) Agenda of general meeting
b) Annual reports
c) Audit reports
d) All of these
581. As per SA 720, other information can be ___________ information which is included in a document
containing audited financial statements and auditor’s report thereon---
a) Financial
b) Non-financial
c) Financial and Non-financial
d) None of these
582. Statement (1)

As per SA 720, inconsistency means other information that is unrelated to matters appearing in the
audited financial statements that is incorrectly stated or presented.
Statement (2)
As per SA 720, misstatement of fact refers to other information that contradicts information contained
in the audited financial statements.
583. If auditor concludes that revision of other information is necessary but management refuses to make
the revision, then auditor shall include this matter in---
a) Opinion paragraph
b) Other matter paragraph
c) Emphasis of matter paragraph
d) None of these
584. If auditor after reading the other information as per SA 720 becomes aware of an apparent material
misstatement of fact, the auditor shall---
a) Discuss the matter with management
b) Request the management to consult with a qualified third party
c) Shall consider the advice received from entity’s legal counsel
d) All of these
585. SA 580 relates to
a) External Confirmation
b) Audit Materiality
d) Going Concern
586. Written representation are obtained from
a) TCWG
b) Management
c) Third Parties
d) TCWG or Management
587. Written representation is a written statement by management provided to auditor

a) To confirm certain matters
b) To support other audit evidence
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of these
588. Statement 1
Written representation do not include financial statements and supporting records etc.
Statement 2
Written representation should be addressed to the management and TCWG
a) Only Statement 1 is true

b) Only Statement 2 is true
589. If auditor concludes that there is a sufficient doubt about the integrity of management such that written
representation are not reliable or management does not provide the necessary written representation,
he shall
a) Express unmodified opinion
b) Disclaim an opinion
c) Express adverse opinion
d) Withdraw from engagement.
590. Pick the odd one out
a) Written representation is a written statement by management or TCWG of the entity to the auditor
b) Written representation shall be dated before the date of auditor’s report
c) Written representations do not include financial statements or supporting books and records
d) Written representation is a substitution of audit procedures
591. Audit materiality is to be considered from
a) Qualitative angle
b) Quantitative angle
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
592. Which of the following SA prescribes auditor’s responsibilities for materiality in planning and
performing an audit
a) SA 320
b) SA 300
c) SA 330
d) SA 500
593. As per SA 320, materiality is to be applied

a) In planning the audit
b) In performing an audit
c) In planning and performing an audit
d) In planning, performing and concluding an audit
594. Materiality of item depends upon
a) Size of item
b) Nature of item
c) Statutory provision
d) All of these
595. Factors that may affect identification of an appropriate benchmark include
a) Elements of financial statements
b) Nature of entity
c) Entity’s ownership structure
d) All of these
596. Performance materiality means the amount or amounts set by the auditor at _______________ the
amount of materiality level for the financial statements as a whole.
a) Less than
b) More than
c) Equal to
d) Any of above
597. _________________ deals with principle for effective conduct of joint audit.
a) SA 220
b) SA 600
c) SA 299
d) SA 610
598. SA 299 does not deal with the relationship between
a) Principal auditor and component’s auditor
b) Auditor and expert
c) Auditor and internal auditor
d) All of these.
599. SA 299 deals with the auditor’s responsibilities regarding joint audits at following stages
a) Audit planning and risk assessment
b) Performance of work and coordination stage
c) Conclusion and reporting stage
d) All of these
600. When joint auditors are appointed, they should
a) Divide audit work among themselves on the basis of instruction of client
b) Divide the audit work among themselves by mutual discussion
c) Divide audit work among themselves as per law

d) None of these
601. Division of work among joint auditors should be
a) In writing
b) Properly documented
c) Communicated to client
d) All of above
602. If joint auditors are in disagreement with respect to the opinion to be covered by audit report, they
shall
a) Express their opinion in a separate audit report
b) Notify to the client
c) Express their opinion in a common audit report through a note
d) Notify ROC regarding disagreement in audit opinion.
603. In case separate audit reports are issued by joint auditors, the reference of audit reports separately
issued by others is made under the heading
a) Emphasis of matter
b) Basis for modified opinion
c) Other matter
d) Auditor’s responsibilities
604. All the joint auditors are jointly and severally responsible for
a) Examining that financial statements of the entity comply with requirements of relevant statutes
b) Presentation and disclosure of the financial statements as required by the applicable FRF
c) Ensuring that the audit report complies with requirements of relevant statutes, the applicable SA and other
pronouncement issued by the ICAI
d) All of above
605. Which of the following statements is incorrect
a) The joint auditors shall obtain common engagement letter and common management representation letter
b) Joint auditors are not entitled to rely on the work of other joint auditors
c) After identification and allocation of work among joint auditors, the work allocation document shall be
signed by all the joint auditors and the same shall be communicated to TCWG of the entity.
d) Before finalizing their audit report, the joint auditors shall discuss and communicate with each other their
respective conclusions.
606. SA 402 deals with responsibilities of
a) User Auditor
b) Service Auditor
c) User Auditor and Service Auditor
d) Service organization and user auditor both
607. In case client outsources some aspects of their business to other organization, SA _________ is to be
considered and applied by the auditor
a) 320
b) 500
c) 402
d) 450
608. As per SA 402, service auditor is an auditor who provides _______________ about ______________ of a
service organization.
a) Audit report, financial statements
b) Audit report, controls
c) Assurance report, financial statements
d) Assurance report, controls
609. As per SA 402, ___________ report shall provide better assurance than ___________ report to the user
auditor.
a) Type 2, Type 1
b) Type 1, Type 2
c) Type A, Type B
d) Type B, Type A
610. As per SA 402, user auditor is an auditor who audits and reports
a) On the internal controls of user entity
b) On the financial statements of user entity
c) On the controls of service organization
d) On the financial statements of a user entity and those of service organization both
611. The user auditor shall obtain un understanding about
a) The nature of service provided by SO
b) The materiality of transactions processed by SO
c) The degree of interaction between service organization and user entity
d) All of these
612. If user auditor is not able to obtain to obtain information from service organization or about the
transactions being processed by service organization, he shall
a) Modify his audit report
b) Express an unqualified opinion
c) Express an unqualified opinion but mentions the same in EOM section
d) Express his audit opinion and mention the same in OM section.
613. The report on description and design of controls at service organization is termed as
a) Type 1 Report
b) Type 2 Report
c) Type A Report
d) Type B Report
614. The report on description , design and operating effectiveness of controls at service organization is
termed as
a) Type 1 Report
b) Type 2 Report
c) Type A Report
d) Type B Report
615. Which of the following is a method of reporting in Type 1 or Type 2 Report by service auditor
a) Inclusive method
b) Carve out method
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
616. When Type1 or Type 2 Report of service auditor includes information of internal controls of sub
service organization, such method is called
a) Inclusive method
b) Carve out method
c) Combined method
d) Exclusive method
617. When Type1 or Type 2 Report of service auditor excludes information of internal controls of sub
service organization, such method is called
a) Inclusive method
b) Carve out method
c) Combined method
d) Exclusive method
618. Which of the following SA deals with auditor’s responsibility to consider law and regulation in an audit
of financial statements
a) SA 230
b) SA 240
c) SA 250
d) SA 260
619. With respect to examining the compliance with law and regulations that do not have direct effect on the
determination of amounts and disclosures in the financial statement
a) Auditor’s responsibility is to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence
b) Auditor’s responsibility is limited to undertake specified audit procedures
c) Auditor’s responsibility is to report on these non-compliances, no matter how immaterial these can be
d) Auditor’s responsibility is not there to report with respect to non-compliance with these laws
620. With respect to examining the compliance with law and regulations that have direct effect on the
determination of amounts and disclosures in the financial statement
a) Auditor’s responsibility is to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence
b) Auditor’s responsibility is limited to undertake specified audit procedures
c) Auditor’s responsibility is to report on these non-compliances, no matter how immaterial these can be
d) Auditor’s responsibility is not there to report with respect to non-compliance with these laws
621. Primary responsibility to ensure compliance with applicable law and regulation is of
a) External auditor
b) Internal auditor
c) TCWG and management
d) Legal expert
622. Which of the following is indicator of non-compliance with law and regulation
a) Unusual cash payment
b) Unauthorized transactions or improperly recorded transactions
c) Payments made in tax haven countries
d) All of above
623. If auditor becomes aware of information concerning an instance of non-compliance or suspected non-
compliance with law and regulations, the auditor shall
a) Obtain an understanding of nature of the act and circumstances in which it has occurred
b) Discuss the matter with management and TCWG
c) Evaluate the possible effect on the financial statements’
d) All of above
624. If non-compliance with law and regulation is material and affecting the financial statements, the
auditor shall express
b) Qualified/Adverse opinion
d) Qualified/Adverse opinion with EOM section in audit report
625. If auditor is unable to determine whether non-compliance has occurred because of limitation imposed
by circumstances rather than by management or TCWG, the auditor shall
a) Evaluate the effect on the auditor’s opinion in accordance with SA 705
b) Withdraw from engagement
c) Communicate the matter to ROC
d) Communicate the matter to ROC and CG.
626. If auditor identifies non-compliance with law and regulation, the auditor shall report such non-
compliance
a) To TCWG
b) In Audit Report
c) To Regulatory Authority and Enforcement Authorities
d) All of above
627. Local self –government means the administration of a locality, a village, town or any other area smaller
than
a) State
b) Country
c) City
d) Region
628. Municipal Government in India covers following

a) Municipal Corporation
b) Municipal Council
c) Cantonment Committee
d) All of these
629. Local bodies receive following grants from state administration
a) General Purpose Grants
b) Specific Purpose Grants
c) Statutory Grants
d) All of these
630. Which of the following is not objective of audit of local bodies
a) Reporting on the fairness of the content and presentation of financial statements
b) Reporting on office infrastructure and maintenance of local bodies
c) Reporting on the adherence to legal and/or administrative requirements
d) Detection and prevention of error, fraud and misuse of resources
631. _________________________ is generally in charge of the audit of municipal accounts.
a) CAG
b) CG
c) Local Fund Audit Wing of the State Government
d) ROC
632. In India, the function of government audit is discharged by the independent statutory authority of
______________ through the agency of ____________________________.
a) CG, ROC
b) CAG, Indian audit and Account Department
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
633. CAG of India is appointed by
a) Prime Minister of India
b) Parliament
c) President of India
d) CBI
634. CAG can resign any time through a resignation letter addressed to
a) Prime Minister of India
b) Parliament
c) CBI
d) President of India
635. The CAG shall be paid salary equivalent to
a) Judge of High Court
b) Judge of Supreme Court
c) Prime Minister
d) President of India
636. _________________ is competent to make laws to determine salary and other conditions of service
a) The Parliament
b) President of India
c) Prime Minister of India
d) CBI
637. The CAG shall hold office
a) For 6 Years
b) Up to the age of 65 Years
c) (a) or (b) whichever is earlier
d) (a) or (b) whichever is later
638. The CAG shall audit
a) Receipts of Union or State
b) Account of Store and Stock
c) Grants and Loans given from Consolidated Fund of
d) All of these
639. Which of the following is not power of CAG
a) To inspect any office of accounts under the control of the union or a State Government
b) To require that any account, book, paper and other documents which deal with or are otherwise relevant to
the transaction under audit, be sent to specified places
c) To attend Parliament Session
d) To put such questions or make such observations as he may consider necessary to the person in charge.
640. CAG has a right to order conduct of supplementary audit within ____________ days from the date of
receipt of audit report
a) 30
b) 60
c) 90
d) 120
641. Which of the following section of the Companies Act, 2013 provides right to the CAG to conduct test
audit of accounts of Government Companies
a) 143(5)
b) 143(6)
c) 143(7)
d) 143(12)
642. Which of the following is not a standard for audit of public expenditure
a) Audit of Rules and Orders
b) Audit of Sanction
c) Audit of Propriety
d) None of these
643. According to _____________, the auditor try to bring out cases of improper, avoidable, or infructuous
expenditure even though the expenditure has been incurred in conformity with the existing rules and
regulation.
a) Propriety Audit
b) Audit of Sanction
c) Audit of Performance
d) Audit against Provision of Funds
644. Public money should not be utilized for the benefit of a particular person or a section of the community
or for the person who is sanctioning the expenditure. These are the principles covered in
a) Performance Audit
b) Audit against rules and orders
c) Propriety Audit
d) Performance Audit
645. In the case of Government audits, performance audit covers the following
a) Efficiency Audit
b) Economy Audit
c) Effectiveness Audit
d) All of these
646. While auditing a cinema hall, the auditor needs to verify that
a) Entrance to the cinema hall during show is only through printed tickets
b) Tickets are serially numbered and bound into books
c) That for advance booking a separate series of tickets is issued
d) All of above
647. Reports of CAG relating to the accounts of the Union/State shall be submitted to the ___________ who
shall cause to be laid
a) President/Governor
b) Prime Minister/Chief Minister
c) Union Finance Minister/State Finance Minister
d) All of the above
648. ______________________aims at ascertaining that the expenditure incurred has been on the purpose
for which the grant and appropriation had been provided and that the amount of such expenditure
does not exceed the appropriation made
a) Audit against provision of funds
b) Propriety audit
c) Audit of sanction
d) Audit against rules and orders
649. Which assertion is common among income statement and balance sheet captions:
(a) Existence
(b) Valuation
(c) Completeness
(d) Measurement
650. Direct confirmation procedures are performed during audit of accounts receivable balances to address
the following balance sheet assertion:
(a) Rights and obligations
(b) Existence
(c) Valuation
(d) Completeness
651. Where no reply is received during the performance of direct confirmation procedures as part of audit
of accounts receivable balances, the auditor should perform:
(a) No additional testing
(b) Additional testing including agreeing the balance to cash received; agreeing the detail of the respective
balance to the customer’s remittance advice
(c) Additional testing including preparing a detailed analysis of the balance, ensuring it consists of
identifiable transactions and confirming that these revenue transactions actually occurred
(d) Both (b) and (c)
652. Obtaining trade receivables ageing report and analysis and identification of doubtful debts is
performed during audit of accounts receivable balances to address the following balance sheet
assertion:
(a) Valuation
(b) Rights and obligations
(c) Existence
(d) Completeness
653. Observing inventory being counted and personally performing test counts to verify counts is performed
during audit of inventory balances to address the following balance sheet assertion:
(a) Rights and obligations
(b) Valuation
(c) Completeness
(d) Existence
}
654. Wages paid to workers would always qualify as:

(a) Revenue expenditure
(b) Capital expenditure
(c) Revenue or capital expenditure depending upon facts and circumstances
(d) None of the above
655. During the course of audit of intangible assets, expenditure incurred during following phase is
generally not capitalized:
(a) Development phase
(b) Research phase
(c) None of the above

(d) Both (a) and (b)
656. Search for unrecorded liability is performed during audit of current liabilities to address the following
balance sheet assertion:
(a) Valuation
(b) Rights and obligations
(c) Existence
(d) Completeness
657. Cut-off testing is performed during audit of sales to address the following income statement assertion:
(a) Occurrence
(b) Measurement
(c) Completeness
(d) All of the above
658. ABC’s investee company-XYZ declares final dividend for financial year 2016-2017 in the meeting of
board of directors held on April 10, 2017. In which financial year should ABC account for the dividend
income:
(a) Proportionately i.e. considering 10 days of financial year 2017-18 and 355 days of financial year 2016-17
(b) Financial year 2016-17
(c) Financial year 2017-18
(d) Equally between financial year 2016-17 and financial year 2017-18
659. All inventory units held by the audit entity and that should have been recorded, has been recognized in
the financial statements. The assertion involved is:
(a) Existence
(b) Completeness
(c) Rights and obligations
(d) Valuation
660. Which of the following is not an example of revenue expenditure-
(a) Salaries and wages of employees engaged directly or in-directly in production
(b) Repairs, maintenance and renewals of fixed assets
(c) Legal and professional expenses
(d) Development expenditure on land
Only For Old Syllabus Students

661. As per section 128 of the Companies Act, 2013, ‘Book and paper’ and ‘Book or paper’ include
a) Books of account
b) Deeds and vouchers
c) Writings, documents, minutes and registers
d) All of these
662. The books of account etc, must give a true and fair view of the state of the affairs of the company,
including its branch office as per section:
a) 128
b) 129
c) 133
d) 143(2)
663. The company shall intimate to the Registrar on an annual basis at the time of filling of financial
statement:
a) The name and internet protocol of the service provider
b) The location of the service provider(wherever applicable)
c) Where the books of account and other books and papers are maintained on cloud, such address as
provided by the service provider
d) All of these
664. The books of account etc. of the company shall be kept at the _________ of the company.
a) Corporate office
b) Branch office
c) Registered office
d) Head office
665. All or any of the books of account and other relevant papers may be kept at such other place in India as
the Board of directors may decide. In such a case, the company shall within ___________ days of the
decision of the Board, file with the _________ a notice in writing----
a) 10, Registrar
b) 10, NCLT
c) 7, Registrar
d) 7, NCLT
666. Every company shall preserve in good order the books of account together with the relevant vouchers.
The time period of preservation shall be not less than______ financial years immediately preceding the
relevant financial year ----
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
667. The person responsible for compliance of section 128-----

a) Managing director
b) Whole-time director in charge of finance
c) Chief Financial officer
d) All of these
668. The books of account etc. maintained within India shall be open for inspection by___________ under
section 128.
a) Any director
b) Any member
c) Auditor
d) All of these
669. As per section ______________, the financial statements shall comply with the accounting stamdards.
a) 128
b) 129
c) 133
d) 143(2)
670. If the financial statements do not comply with the accounting standards, the company shall disclose in
its financial statements,
a) The deviation from the accounting standards
b) The reasons for such deviation, and
c) The financial effects, if any, arising out of such deviation
d) All of these
671. The financial statements shall be in the form or forms as may be provided for different class or classes
of companies in Schedule_____________
a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV
672. Sec. 129(1) shall apply to----
a) Insurance company and banking company
b) Company engaged in the generation or supply of electricity
c) Both a and b
d) None a and b
673. Under section 130, an application for reopening of accounts is made by----
a) CG or the Income-tax authorities
b) The securities and Exchange Board or any other statutory regulatory body or authority
c) Any person concerned
d) Any of these
674. Under section 130, an order for reopening of accounts is made by----
a) Account of competent jurisdiction
b) The tribunal
c) A court of competent jurisdiction or the tribunal
d) A court of competent jurisdiction and the tribunal both
675. No order shall be made in respect of re-opening of books of account relating to a period earlier than
_______ financial years immediately preceding the current financial year.
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 8
676. Under section 131, directors may prepare revised financial statement or a revised report in respect of
any of the _________ preceding FYs after obtaining approval of the _________.
a) 3, Tribunal
b) 3, CG
c) 8, tribunal
d) 8, CG
677. Under section 131, tribunal shall give notice to ___________ and shall take into consideration to the
representations, if any.
a) CG
b) The income tax authorities
c) Either a or b
d) CG and the Income Tax authorities
678. As per the requirements of section 131, detailed reasons for revision of financial statement or report
shall also be disclosed in
a) The Board’s report
b) The audit report
c) The annual report
d) All of these
679. Stages in prescribing accounting standards are performed in chronological order as follows:
a) ICAI-CG-NFRA
b) NFRA-ICAI-CG
c) CG-ICAI-NFRA
d) ICAI-NFRA-CG
680. The financial statement, including consolidated financial statement, if any, shall be submitted to the
____ after they have been approved or signed.
a) Managing director
b) Auditor
c) Members
d) ROC
681. The auditor’s report shall be attached to_________
a) Annual report
b) Board report
c) Cost audit report, if any
d) Every financial statement
682. Board report shall contain explanations or comments by the Board on every qualification, reservation
or adverse remark or disclaimer made---
a) By the auditor in his report
b) By the company secretary in practice in his secretarial audit report
c) Option (a) or (b)
d) Option (a) and (b)
683. The director’s responsibility statement shall disclose as to whether the directors had taken proper and
sufficient care—
a) For the maintenance of adequate accounting records in accordance with the provisions of this Act
b) For safeguarding the assets of the company
c) For preventing and detecting fraud and other irregularities
d) All of these
684. In the case of _______________, the director’s responsibility statement shall disclose as to whether the
directors, had laid down internal financial controls to be followed by the company and whether such
internal financial controls are adequate and were operating effectively
a) a listed company
b) Prescribed classes of companies
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) All companies
685. The Board’s Report shall contain the following information and details
a) Conservation of energy
b) Technology absorption
c) Foreign exchange and outgo
d) All of these
686. Authorized capital means ___________amount of capital, set out in ____________, which can be issued
by the company
a) Minimum, MoA
b) Minimum, AoA
c) Maximum, MoA
d) Maximum, AoA
687. ____________ is required in the ____________ to issue the shares at premium.
a) No provision, articles
b) Provision, articles
c) Provision, MOA
d) None of these
688. Where “Securities Premium Account” is used for any purpose other than the purposes permitted under
the Act, then, the provisions of the Act as are applicable to __________- shall apply.
a) Forfeiture of shares
b) Buy back of share capital
c) Alteration of share capital
d) Reduction of share capital
689. Issue of shares at a discount is prohibited in the case of
a) Public companies
b) Private companies
c) All companies, whether public or private
d) Listed companies
690. Issue of ___________ shares does not fall within the purview of Sec.53 of the Companies Act, 2013.
a) Sweat equity
b) Bonus
c) Option on
d) All of these
691. Issue of sweat equity shares must be authorized by________
a) Board Resolution
b) Articles
c) Passing SR
d) Passing OR
692. A company may buy-back its own shares or other specified securities out of---
a) Free reserves
b) Securities premium account
c) Proceeds of fresh issue of shares or other specified securities
d) Any of these
693. The ratio of debt (secured as well as unsecured debt) owed by the company must not be more than
______ the aggregate of paid up capital and free reserves after such buy-back.
a) Twice
b) Thrice
c) Four times of
d) Five times of
694. _________ is required to be passed in the ____________ for alteration of share capital.
a) OR, GM
b) SR, GM
c) OR, AGM
d) SR, AGM
695. Reduction of share capital requires passing of ____________ and confirmation of __________ also.
a) OR, TRIBUNAL
b) SR, TRIBUNAL
c) OR, COURT
d) SR, COURT
696. Reduction of share capital shall not be affected if the company has defaulted in----
a) Repayment of any deposits accepted by it
b) Payment of interest payable on such deposits
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Both (a) and (b)
697. Forfeiture must be
a) Bonafide
b) Authorized by SR
c) Approved by Court
d) All of these
698. An option on shares arises when a person has __________ under an agreement with the company.
a) Privilege
b) Obligation
c) A duty
d) A right
699. Issue of bonus share is authorized by-----
a) Passing an OR in the General Meeting
b) Passing SR in the General Meeting
c) Passing OR in the Annual General Meeting
d) Passing SR in the Annual General Meeting
700. Bonus share may be issued out of------
a) Free reserves
b) Securities premium account
c) Capital redemption reserve account
d) Any of these
701. Bonus shares_____- fully paid up----
a) Must be
b) May be
c) May or may not be
d) Should generally be
702. ________ shall carry voting right----
a) Debentures
b) No debenture
c) Convertible debenture
d) Redeemable debentures
703. __________ issuing the debentures shall create______________
a) Every company, debentures redemption reserve
b) Listed company, debenture redemption reserve
c) Public company, debentures redemption reserve

d) Private company, debentures redemption reserve
704. The company shall create debentures redemption reserve equivalent to ______ of the value of
debentures.
a) 25%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%
705. The duties and functions of debenture trustee-----
a) To protect the interest of debenture holders
b) To redress the grievances of debenture holders
d) None of these
706. Before allotment of debentures prospectus should have been duly filed with------
a) Central government
b) SEBI
c) Registrar
d) All of these
707. If debentures are issued at premium, the amount of premium should be credited to premium on
debentures account and the balance to the credit of this account should be subsequently transferred
to_______
a) Capital Reserve Account
b) General Reserve Account
c) P & L Appropriation Account
d) Any of these
708. The interest paid on debentures_____ disclosed as a separate item in_________.
a) Must be, balance sheet
b) Should be, notes to accounts
c) Must be, P & L account
d) Need not be in the P & L account
709. Debentures may be issued as a collateral security to-----
a) The creditors
b) Bankers
c) Other parties
d) Any of these
710. In the case of dividend, first of all dividend is ______ by __________ ---
a) Declared, Board
b) Declared, Members
c) Recommended, Board
d) Recommended, Members
711. The members__________ the rate or amounts recommended by the Board----
a) May reduce
b) May reduce but cannot increase
c) May increase
d) May reduce or may increase
712. Statement 1
Dividend can be paid out of moneys provided by Central Government or State Government in
pursuance of a guarantee given by it.
Statement 2
Depreciation may or may not be provided so as to compute the profits for the purpose of declaration of
dividend----
a) Only Statement 1 is true
b) Only Statement 2 is true
713. Dividend shall be declared or paid by the company from---
a) Free Reserves
b) Capital Reserves
c) Revaluation reserves
d) All of these
714. Dividend shall be payable----
a) Only in cash
b) In cash or in kind
c) Either in cash or in electronic mode
d) Option (c) or by issue of cheque
715. The dividend shall be deposited in a separate bank account within______ days of declaration of
dividend.
a) 5
b) 7
c) 30
d) 60
716. Any money transfer to unpaid dividend account of accompany which remains unpaid for _______ shall
be transferred with a company to a fund called Investor Education and Protection Fund.
a) 30 days
b) 1 year
c) 5 years
d) 7 years
717. The criminal liability for misstatements in prospectus is given u/s_______________ of the Companies
Act, 2013
a) 34
b) 35
c) 36
d) 37
718. If a prospectus include any statement which is misleading, every person who authorized the issue of
such prospectus shall be liable u/s
a) 147
b) 447
c) 35
d) None of these
719. Under section 35 of the companies Act, the person liable for misstatement means
a) The Company
b) Director of the Company
c) Promoter of the Company
d) All of these
720. Section 447 prescribes punishment for fraud, it is applicable on
a) Directors
b) Auditors
c) Members
d) Any Person
721. Under section 447 if fraud involves public interest, the minimum imprisonment is ___________ years
and maximum imprisonment is _________years.
a) 3,14
b) 3,10
c) 5,14
d) 5,10
722. If any person is found guilty of fraud, the maximum finr that can be imposed u/s 447 is ____________
the amount involved in the fraud.
a) Two times
b) Three times
c) Four times
d) Five times
723. The auditor should gather which of the following information about CIS environment of the entity
before developing audit plan
a) How CIS function is organized
b) The computer hardware and software used by the entity
c) Nature of processing
d) All of these
724. Which of the following is not specific risk relating to internal control in CIS environment
a) Unauthorized changes to system or program
b) Unauthorized changes to data in master file
c) Risk of non -recording of any transaction
d) Potential loss of data
725. The use of computer may result in the design of system that provides_____________evidence than those
using manual procedures.
a) Less visible
b) More visible
c) More persuasive
d) Conclusive
726. System characteristics that may result from nature of CIS processing include
a) Absence of input documents
b) Lack of visible transaction trail
c) Lack of visible output
d) All of these
727. Different design and procedural aspects of CIS are
a) Consistency of performance
b) Programmed control procedures
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
728. Which of the following is not general CIS control
a) Control over inputs
b) Organization and Management Controls
c) Computer Operation Control
d) System Software Control
729. Application System Development and Maintenance Controls are designed to control over
a) Inputs
b) Testing, implementation and documentation of new or revised system
c) Outputs
d) Processing
730. Computer Operation Controls are designed to control the operation of the system and to provide
reasonable assurance that
a) Only authorized programs are used
b) Processing errors are detected and corrected
c) System are used for authorized purpose by authorized personnel
d) All of these
731. _______________________are designed to establish an organizational framework over CIS activities.
a) Computer operation control
b) Data entry and program control

c) Organization and Management Controls
d) System software control.
732. Which of following is CIS application control
a) System Software Control
b) Control Over Processing
c) Data Entry and Program Control
d) None of these.
733. Control Over Output provide assurance that
a) Results of processing are accurate
b) Access to output is restricted to authorized personnel
c) Output is provided to appropriate authorized personnel on a timely basis
d) All of these
734. _______________ refers to a situation where it is possible to relate, the original input with the final
output on one to one basis.
a) Audit Trail
b) Input Output Ratio
c) Programmed control procedure
d) None of these
735. In CIS environment these is absence of audit trail due to factors such as
a) Direct data entry into the system
b) Direct posting of transactions to master file
c) Elimination of reports as information is supplied on-line
d) All of these
736. In the ________________ ,the auditor concentrate on input and ignores the procedures of how
computer process the data or transaction.
a) White box approach
b) Computer Assisted Audit Techniques
c) Black box approach
d) None of these
737. The auditor can usually audit around the computer when
a) The system id simple
b) The system is complex
c) System uses generalized software that is well tested and widely used by many institution
d) (a) or (c)
738. Situation where auditing through computer must be used
a) The computer processes a large volume of input and produces a large volume of output
b) The logic of system is complex
c) The significant parts of internal control system are embodied in the computer system itself
d) All of these
739. ____________________ are those techniques which undertake assistance of computer for being applied to
an audit in a computerized environment.
a) Computer Assisted Audit Techniques
b) Audit Trail
c) Compliance Test
d) None of these
740. The use of CAATs may be useful because of following reason
a) Appearance of audit trail
b) Absence of input documents
c) Visible output
d) None of these
741. Benefits of CAATs
a) Time saving
c) Lower sampling risk
d) All of these
742. Following are CAATs
a) Test Data
b) Programmes under the control of auditor
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
743. In auditing through computer, the computer is used as ___________ of audit
a) Tool
b) Target
c) Help
d) Any of these
744. Computer Assisted Audit Techniques are used by ___________ to check validity of __________used
by_________.
a) Client, Programmes, Client
b) Client, Programmes, Auditor
c) Auditor, Programme, Client
d) Auditor, Input, Client
Only For New Syllabus Students

745. Who can be appointed as auditor of Co-Operative Society
a) Chartered Accountant within the meaning of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949
b) Person holding a government diploma in co-operative accounts and accountancy
c) Person who has served as an auditor in the co-operative department of government to act as an auditor.
d) Any of the above
746. Auditor of Co-Operative Society is appointed by
a) Managing Committee of Co-Operative Society
b) Registrar of Co-Operative Society
c) Members of Co-Operative Society
d) None of these
747. The auditor of Co-Operative Society submits his audit report to
a) The Members of Co-Operative Society
b) The Registrar of Co-Operative Society
c) The Co-Operative Society
d) Both (b) and (c)
748. The audit fees to the auditor of Co-Operative Society are paid by ____________ on the basis of
____________.
a) Society, Statutory scale of fees prescribed by the Registrar
b) Registrar, Statutory scale of fees prescribed by the Registrar
c) Society, Decision of Managing Committee of Society
d) Society, Resolution passed by its Members.
749. In case of a society where the liability of a member of society is limited, no member of a society other
than a registered society can hold such portion of the share capital of the society as exceed a maximum
of
a) 20% of the total number of shares
b) Value of Shareholding to Rs. 1,000
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of these
750. Which of the following is correct
a) A registered society shall not make a loan to any person other than a member.
b) With the special sanction of the Registrar, a registered society may make a loan to another registered
society.
c) The State Government may further put such restrictions as it thinks fit on the loaning powers of the
society
d) All of these
751. A Society may invest its funds
a) In stock market through stock exchange
b) In the Central or Other Co-Operative Bank

c) In the shares, securities, bonds or debentures of any other society whether limited liability or unlimited
liability
d) None of these
752. A Society may invest its funds
a) In any of the securities specified in section 20 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882
b) In the shares, securities, bonds or debentures of any other society with limited liability
c) In any co-operative bank, other than a Central or State Co-Operative bank, as approved by the Registrar
on specified terms and conditions.
d) Any of the above
753. ________ % of the profits should be transferred to Reserve Fund, before distribution as dividend or
bonus to members.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 25
d) 30
754. A registered society may, with the sanction of the Registrar, contribute an amount not exceeding
______ of _______________ for any charitable purpose.
a) 10%, Net profits remaining after the compulsory transfer to the reserve fund
b) 10%, Net profits before compulsory transfer to the reserve fund
c) 5%, Net profits remaining after the compulsory transfer to the reserve fund
d) 5%, Net profits before compulsory transfer to the reserve fund
755. Society may use the Reserve Fund
a) In the business of a society, as working capital
b) May invest as per the provision of the Co-Operative Societies Act, 1912
c) May be used for some public purposes likely to promote the objective of the society
d) Any of the above
756. Special Report to the Registrar is required
a) If auditor detect fraud
b) Personal profiteering by members of the managing committee in transaction of the society
c) Mis-management
d) All of the above
757. Who can be appointed as auditor of Multi State Co-Operative Society
a) Chartered Accountant within the meaning of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949
b) Person holding a government diploma in co-operative accounts and accountancy
c) Person who has served as an auditor in the co-operative department of government to act as an auditor.
d) Any of the above
758. The First Auditor of Multi State Co-Operative Society shall be appointed by ____________
within_______________.
a) Registrar of Society, One month of date of registration of such society

b) Board, One month of date of registration of such society
c) Members, 90 days of date of registration of such society
d) Central Registrar, One month of date of registration of such society.
759. Subsequent Auditor of Multi State Co-Operative Society is appointed
a) At Board’s Meeting
b) By Central Registrar
c) At AGM
d) By Secretary of the Society
760. Subsequent Auditor of Multi State Co-Operative Society shall hole office of auditor until
a) Submission of audit report
b) Conclusion of 6th AGM
c) Conclusion of 5 Years
d) Conclusion of next AGM
761. The audit report on the financial statements of society shall contain schedule with particular of
a) All transactions which appears to be contrary to the provisions of the Act, Rules or Byelaws of society
b) All sums, which ought to have been, but have not brought into account by the society
c) Any material, or property belonging to society which appears to the auditor to be bad or doubtful of
recovery
d) All of the above
762. _______________ has power to direct Special Audit in certain cases of Multi-State Co-Operative
Society
a) Central Government
b) Central Registrar
c) Managing Committee
d) Members of Society
763. Under which of the following circumstances order of Special Audit is passed
a) The affairs of any MSCO are not being managed in accordance with self-help and mutual did and co-
operative principles or prudent commercial practices or with sound business principles; or
b) Any MSCO is being managed in a manner likely to cause serious injury or damage to the interests of the
trade industry or business to which it pertains; or
c) The financial position of any MSCO is such as to endanger its solvency.
d) Any of the above
764. The Special Auditor shall submit his report to
a) Managing Committee of Society
b) Members of Society
c) Central Government
d) Central Registrar
765. Which of the following may request to Central Registrar to conduct an inquiry
b) A Creditor
c) At least 10% of members of the Board
d) At least 15% of the total number of members.
766. Inquiry by Central Registrar may be conducted into the
a) Constitution
b) Working
c) Financial Condition
d) Any of the above
767. LLP, whose turnover does not exceed Rs. ________ or whose contribution does not exceed Rs.
_________, is not required to get its accounts audited.
a) 40 Lakhs, 25 Lakhs
b) 50 Lakhs, 25 Lakhs
c) 40 Lakhs, 20 Lakhs
d) 60 Lakhs, 30 Lakhs
768. Who of the following can be appointed as auditor of LLP
a) A Chartered Accountant
b) A Chartered Accountant in Practice
c) A Cost Accountant
d) A Chartered Accountant or A Cost Accountant
769. The auditor LLP is appointed by designated partner
a) At any time for the first FY but before the end of first FY
b) At least 30 days prior to the end of each FY (Other than first FY)
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Within 180 days from commencement of FY which is subject to audit
770. If designated partners of LLP have failed to appoint auditor then auditor of LLP is appointed by
a) Registrar
b) Central Government
c) Local Fund Audit Wing of State Government
d) Partner of LLP
771. The auditor of LLP shall hold office of auditor till the period
a) The new auditor is appointed
b) Auditor is reappointed
c) (a) or (b)
d) 180 days from closure of FY.
772. Every LLP shall file an annual return duly authenticated with the ___________ within ___________
days of closure of its FY
a) Registrar, 30
b) Registrar, 60
c) Central Government, 30
d) Local Fund Audit Wing of State Government, 60

773. LLP shall file Annual return with Registrar in _________
a) Form 11
b) Form 12
c) Form 13
d) Form 14
774. LLP are required to maintain books of accounts which shall contain
a) Particulars of all sums of money received and expended by the LLP and the matters in respect of which
the receipt and expenditure take place
b) A record of the assets and liabilities of the LLP
c) Statements of cost of goods purchased , inventories, work-in progress, finished goods and costs of goods
sold
d) All of these
775. LLP is required to submit Statement of Account and Solvency with the ____________ within a
period_______________
a) Central Government, 6 Months of FY to which the Statement of Account and Solvency relates
b) Registrar, 6 Months of FY to which the Statement of Account and Solvency relates
c) Registrar, 30 Days from end of 6 months of the FY of FY to which the Statement of Account and
Solvency relates.
d) Local Fund Audit Wing of State Government, 6 Months of FY to which the Statement of Account and
Solvency relates
776. Which of the following document of LLP is not available for inspection by any person
a) Agreements entered by LLP
b) Incorporation Document
c) Statement of Account and Solvency
d) Annual Return
777. The fees for inspection of document of LLP is
a) Rs 100 and Rs 10 per page for certified copy or extract of any document
b) Rs 50 and Rs 5 per page for certified copy or extract of any document
c) Rs 50 and Rs 10 per page for certified copy or extract of any document
d) Rs 100 and Rs 5 per page for certified copy or extract of any document
778. Which of the following is not type of bank
a) Commercial Banks
b) Regional Rural Bank
c) Payment Bank
d) None of these
779. ________________ are the most wide spread banking in India
a) Small Finance Banks
b) Co-Operative Banks
c) Commercial Banks
d) Development Banks
780. Main functions of Commercial banks are
a) Accepting Deposits
b) Granting Advances
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
781. The functioning of banking industry in India is regulated by the _______________
a) Finance Ministry
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) President of India
d) CAG
782. _______________ acts as Central Bank of India
a) Reserve Bank of India
b) State Bank of India
c) Central Bank of India
d) Union Bank of India
783. Important functions of RBI are
a) Issuance of currency
b) Regulation of currency issue
c) Acting as banker to Central and State Governments
d) All of the above
784. No bank can commence business of banking or open new branches without obtaining license from
a) President of India
b) Finance Ministry
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) State Bank of India
785. Which of the following are principal enactments which govern the functioning of various types of banks
a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
b) Companies Act, 2013
c) Information Technology Act, 2000
d) All of these
786. Which of the following section of the banking Regulation Act, 1949 deal with from and content of
financial statements of banking company
a) Section 128
b) Section 129
c) Section 29
d) Section 28
787. Auditor of nationalized bank is appointed by
a) BoD of the Bank

b) Reserve Bank of India
c) CAG
788. Auditor of the State Bank of India is appointed by
a) BoD of the SBI
b) CAG
c) Reserve Bank of India
789. The auditors of Subsidiaries of SBI are to be appointed by
a) Reserve Bank of India
b) CAG
d) SBI
790. The auditor of regional rural banks is appointed by
a) Bank concerned with the approval of the Central Government
b) Bank concerned without any previous approval of the Central Government
c) RBI
d) CAG
791. The matters which the banks require their auditors to deal with in the Long Form Audit Report is to be
specified by
a) CAG
b) RBI
d) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
792. The LFAR is to be submitted before _____________ every year
a) 30th September
b) 31st July
c) 30th June
d) 31st May
793. Advances comprises of funded amounts by way of
a) Term loans
b) Cash Credits, Overdrafts, Demand Loans
c) Bills Discounted and Purchased
d) All of the above
794. In case of banking companies, Accounts showing stress signals are classified as
a) SMA 0
b) SMA 1
c) SMA 2
d) None of these
795. In case of banking companies, Accounts overdue between 31 to 60 days, are classified as
a) SMA 0
b) SMA 1
c) SMA 2
d) None of these
796. In case of banking companies, Accounts overdue between 31 to 60 days, are classified as
a) SMA 0
b) SMA 1
c) SMA 2
d) None of these
797. NPA Loans of Banking Companies are classifies as
a) Substandard
b) Doubtful
c) Loss
d) Any of the above, depending upon circumstances
798. Assets which does not disclose any problem and does not carry more than normal risk attached to the
business, are classifies as
a) Standard Assets
b) Substandard Assets
c) Good Assets
d) Genuine Assets
799. Assets which has been classifies as NPA for a period not exceeding 12 months, are classified as
a) Standard Assets
c) Doubtful Assets
d) Loss Assets
800. Assets which has been classifies as NPA for a period exceeding 12 months, are classified as
a) Standard Assets
c) Doubtful Assets
d) Loss Assets
801. Asset in respect of which loss has been identified by the bank or internal auditor/external auditor or the
RBI inspection, but the amount has not been written off, wholly or partly, is classifies as
a) Substandard Asset
b) Doubtful Asset
c) Written off Asset
d) Loss Asset
802. Which of the following is not classified as NPA
a) Impaired
b) Sub-standard
c) Doubtful
d) Loss
803. Erosion in the value of security can be reckoned as significant when the realizable value of the security
is less than ________% of the value assessed by the bank or accepted by RBI at the time of last
inspection, as the case may be
a) 20
b) 50
c) 60
d) 75
804. In case of classification of advance as standard assets, provision is required by the bank
a) .40%
b) .50%
c) .75%
d) .80%
805. In case of classification of commercial real estate advance, as standard assets provision is required by
the bank
a) .40%
b) .50%
c) .75%
d) 1.00%
806. In case of classification of advance as sub-standard assets, provision is required by the bank for secured
portion
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
807. In case of classification of advance as sub-standard assets, provision is required by the bank for
unsecured portion
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
808. In case of classification of advance as doubtful assets, provision is required by the bank for unsecured
portion
a) 100%
b) 75%
c) 60%
d) 50%
809. In case of classification of advance as doubtful assets (up to one year), provision is required by the bank
for secured portion
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 40%
d) 100%
810. In case of classification of advance as doubtful assets (more than one year but up to 3 year), provision is
required by the bank for secured portion
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 40%
d) 100%
811. In case of classification of advance as doubtful assets (more than 3 years), provision is required by the
bank for secured portion
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 40%
d) 100%
812. In case of classification of advance as loss assets, provision is required by the bank
a) 100%
b) 75%
c) 60%
d) 50%
813. _______________ refers to the security offered by the borrower for bank finance or the one against
which credit has been extended by the bank.
a) Primary Security
b) Collateral Security
c) Healthy Security
d) None of these
814. _________________ is an additional security. Security can be in any form i.e. tangible or intangible
asset, movable or immovable asset
a) Primary Security
b) Collateral Security
c) Healthy Security
d) None of these
815. Most common types of securities accepted by banks are the following
a) Personal Security of Guarantor
b) Immovable Property
c) Life Insurance Policies
d) All of these
816. Which of the following is not a type of mortgage
a) Registered Mortgage
b) Equitable Mortgage
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
817. _________________ can be effected by a registered instrument called the “Mortgage Deed” signed by
the mortgagor.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
818. __________________ is effected by a mere delivery of title deeds or other documents of title with intent
to create security thereof
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
819. _______________ involves bailment or delivery of goods by the borrower to the lending bank, with the
intention of creating a charge thereon as security for the advance
a) Mortgage
b) Pledge
c) Hypothecation
d) Assignment
820. ________________ is the creation of an equitable charge, which is created in favour of the lending bank
by execution of agreement in respect of movable securities belonging to the borrower
a) Mortgage
b) Pledge
c) Hypothecation
d) Assignment
821. ______________ is a transfer of an existing or future debt, right or property belonging to a person in
favour of another person.
a) Mortgage
b) Pledge
c) Hypothecation
d) Assignment
822. ____________ is a statutory right of a creditor to adjust, wholly or partly, the debit balance in the
debtor’s account against any credit balance lying in another account of the debtor.
a) Adjustment
b) Agreement
c) Set-off
d) Deduction
823. ___________ is creation of legal charge with consent of the owner, which gives lender a legal right to
seize and dispose /liquidate the asset under lease.
a) Set-off
b) Lien
c) Disposal
d) Release
824. An advance will be classified as NPA, if
a) It ceases to generate income for a bank
b) Interest and/or installment of principal in respect of such an advance have been remain overdue or out of
order for a specified period of time (exceeding 90 days as on balance sheet date)
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of these
825. An account should be treated as ‘Out-of-Order’ if
a) Outstanding balance remains continuously in excess of the sanctioned limit/drawing power
b) There are no credits continuously for 90 days as on the balance sheet date or the credits are not enough to
cover the interest debited during the same period
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of these
826. Where it appears that an account has inherent weakness and few credits near balance sheet tries to
make it regular, the account should be classified as _________
a) Standard Asset
b) Non-Performing Asset
c) Loss Asset
d) None of these
827. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t classification of advance as NPA
a) All the facilities granted by bank to borrower will have to be treated as NPA and not the particular facility
or part thereof.
b) In case of consortium advance, asset classification should be based on the record of recovery of individual
member of banks.
c) In case of advance with moratorium period for payment of interest, payment of interest becomes due only
after the expiry of moratorium period, therefore such interests do not become overdue and hence do not
become NPA with reference to date of debit of interest.
d) The credit facilities backed by State Government though overdue, will be classified as NPA only when the
State Government repudiates its guarantee when invoked.
828. The credit facilities backed by__________though overdue, will be classified as NPA only when the
___________ repudiates its guarantee when invoked
b) State Government
c) RBI
d) Any Guarantor
829. Loan granted for short duration crop shall be classified as NPA if interest and/or instalments of
principal is overdue for
a) One crop season
b) Two crop season
c) Exceeding 90 days
d) Exceeding 120 days
830. Loan granted for long duration crop shall be classified as NPA if interest and/or instalments of
principal is overdue for
a) One crop season
b) Two crop season
c) Exceeding 90 days
d) Exceeding 120 days
831. Credit card account shall be classified as NPA, if ___________ amount due, as mentioned in the credit
card statement is not paid fully within ___________ days from next statement date
a) Total, 90
b) Minimum, 30
c) Minimum, 90
d) None of these
832. Which of the following is not exception to norms for classification of assets as NPA
a) Temporary Deficiencies
b) Natural Calamities w.r.t. short term agricultural advance
c) Advances against Term Deposits, NSC, KVP, IVP
d) Facilities Backed by State Government
833. Banks should recognize income from NPA
a) On cash basis
b) On accrual basis
c) As the policy of the Bank
d) Substandard assets on accrual basis, and other NPAs on cash basis.
834. Interest income from advances though overdue but not classifies as NPA as secured against Term
Deposits, NSC, KVP, IVP may be recognize
a) On cash basis
b) On accrual basis
c) Substandard assets on accrual basis, and other NPAs on cash basis.
d) On Secured portion accrual basis and on secured portion on cash basis.
835. Interest income from advances though overdue but not classifies as NPA as secured against guarantee
of the Central Government, recognized as
a) On cash basis
b) On accrual basis
c) Substandard assets on accrual basis, and other NPAs on cash basis
d) On Secured portion accrual basis and on secured portion on cash basis
836. The auditor can obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence about advances by study and evaluation of
the internal controls relating to advances, and by:
a) Examining loan documents
b) Examining the existence, enforceability and valuation of the security
c) Checking compliance with RBI norms including classification and provisioning
d) All of the above
837. If a loan/advance is treated as NPA for the first time, interest accrued which had not been realized but
credited to the income account should be reversed by transfer to a separate account called ___________
a) Suspense Account
b) Income Reversal Account
c) Interest Suspense Account
d) Account Suspense
838. In carrying out audit of advance, the auditor is primarily concerned with obtaining evidence about the
following
a) Amounts included in balance sheet in respect of advances are outstanding at the date of the balance sheet
b) Advances represents amount due to bank
c) There are no unrecorded advances
d) All of the above
839. _____________ basically refers to a business environment where the processes, operations, accounting
and even decisions are carried by using computer system.
a) Automated environment
b) Computer environment
c) IT environment
d) None of these
840. Some of the key features of an automated environment are
a) Enables faster business operations
b) Better security and controls
c) Provide latest information
d) All of above
841. Which of the following is not IT related risk
a) Unauthorized access to data
b) Unauthorized changes to system of program
c) Sampling Risk
d) Lack of adequate segregation of duties
842. Types of Controls in an Automated Environment
a) General IT Controls
b) Application Controls
c) IT Dependent Manual Controls
d) All of above
843. __________________ are policies and procedures that relates to many applications and support the
effective functioning application controls
a) General IT Controls
b) IT Dependent Manual Controls
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
844. Which of the following the auditor should consider to obtain an understanding of the company’s
automated environment
a) Information system being used
b) Key Persons
c) Outsourced activities
d) All of the above
845. General IT Controls that maintain integrity of information and security of data commonly include
controls over following
a) Inputs
b) Access Security
c) Processing
d) Output
846. Which of the following is not method for testing of controls in automated environment
a) Inspect the configuration defined in an application
b) Inspect technical manual/user manual of system and application
c) Analytical Review
d) Observe how a user processes transactions under different scenarios.
847. Which of the following is an automated control?
a) Program change
b) System generated report
c) Application control
d) Configuration
848. General IT control that ensure backups, performance monitoring, recovery from failures commonly
include controls over
a) Program Change
b) Access Security
c) Data Center and Network Operations
d) Application System acquisition, development and maintenance
849. The objective of which of the following is to ensure that modified system continue to meet financial
reporting objectives
a) Data Center and Network Operation
b) Program Change
c) Access Security
d) Application system, acquisition, development and maintenance
850. The objective of which of the following is to ensure that access to programs and data is authenticated
and authorized to meet financial reporting objectives
a) Data Center and Network Operations
b) Program Change
c) Access Security
d) Application system, acquisition, development and maintenance
851. The objectives of which of the following is to ensure that system are developed, configured and
implemented to meet financial reporting objectives
a) Data Center and Network Operations
b) Program Change
c) Access Security
d) Application system, acquisition, development and maintenance.
852. The combination of processes, tools and techniques that are used to tap vast amounts of electronic data
to obtain meaningful information is called_________
a) Data Analytics
b) Data base
c) Information system
d) None of these
853. Edit checks and validation of input data, sequence number checks, user limit checks, reasonableness
checks, mandatory data fields, these are examples of
a) General IT Control
b) Manual Application Controls
c) Automated Application Controls
d) None of these
854. IT dependent controls are basically__________
a) Manual Control
b) Automated Control
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
855. Which of the following is General IT control?
a) IT Environment
b) Application Control
c) Access Security
d) IT Department Control
856. _________________ can be used in testing of electronic records and data residing in IT systems using
spreadsheets and specialized audit tools to perform fraud investigation analysis of journal entries as
required by SA 240 and selection of audit sample.
a) Data base
b) Data analytics
c) Information system
d) None of these
ALL THE VERY BEST
CA. NITIN GUPTA

Answers of Multiple Choice Questions
1 a 51 b 101 d 151 c 201 a 251 a
2 a 52 a 102 a 152 c 202 d 252 b
3 c 53 d 103 d 153 a 203 c 253 a
4 d 54 c 104 d 154 d 204 a 254 a
5 a 55 d 105 b 155 b 205 a 255 d
6 c 56 b 106 c 156 c 206 b 256 b
7 c 57 c 107 c 157 b 207 a 257 d
8 d 58 d 108 b 158 c 208 c 258 c
9 c 59 b 109 a 159 d 209 b 259 b
10 d 60 a 110 a 160 d 210 d 260 c
11 d 61 a 111 a 161 d 211 d 261 d
12 d 62 b 112 a 162 d 212 d 262 d
13 c 63 b 113 d 163 a 213 d 263 c
14 c 64 c 114 a 164 c 214 c 264 c
15 d 65 a 115 c 165 d 215 a 265 d
16 d 66 c 116 a 166 b 216 b 266 c
17 b 67 c 117 b 167 a 217 c 267 b
18 d 68 d 118 d 168 a 218 c 268 a
19 a 69 c 119 b 169 c 219 c 269 d
20 b 70 a 120 b 170 d 220 d 270 d
21 d 71 a 121 c 171 d 221 c 271 d
22 d 72 c 122 b 172 b 222 d 272 d
23 c 73 d 123 d 173 a 223 c 273 b
24 b 74 c 124 d 174 b 224 d 274 a
25 a 75 d 125 a 175 d 225 c 275 c
26 b 76 a 126 a 176 c 226 b 276 a
27 b 77 a 127 d 177 d 227 c 277 c
28 d 78 d 128 d 178 a 228 a 278 c
29 d 79 c 129 b 179 c 229 d 279 a
30 b 80 b 130 d 180 d 230 a 280 d
31 c 81 d 131 a 181 b 231 b 281 c
32 a 82 c 132 a 182 c 232 b 282 c
33 b 83 d 133 b 183 a 233 a 283 a
34 a 84 d 134 b 184 d 234 d 284 d
35 c 85 b 135 c 185 b 235 b 285 a
36 a 86 136 b 186 d 236 d 286 b
37 d 87 c 137 d 187 c 237 a 287 b
38 b 88 c 138 a 188 b 238 d 288 b
39 b 89 d 139 d 189 c 239 c 289 a
40 a 90 b 140 c 190 c 240 a 290 b
41 c 91 a 141 a 191 d 241 c 291 a
42 c 92 d 142 d 192 a 242 b 292 c
43 b 93 b 143 a 193 b 243 a 293 c
44 d 94 d 144 b 194 c 244 c 294 d
45 a 95 c 145 b 195 d 245 c 295 a
46 a 96 b 146 c 196 a 246 d 296 d
47 a 97 a 147 d 197 c 247 b 297 c
48 d 98 b 148 c 198 d 248 b 298 d
49 a 99 c 149 d 199 c 249 b 299 c
50 a 100 c 150 c 200 b 250 c 300 b
AUDITING & ASSURANCE
By
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Batch Start Date End Date Timings Fee
1st 28th Jan. 19 18th Mar. 19 5.30 PM - 8:45 AM Rs. 6,500/-
2nd 18th Feb. 19 31st Mar. 19 7.00 AM-11.00 AM Rs. 6,500/-
3rd 25th Feb. 19 31st Mar. 19 12.00 - 4:30 PM Rs. 6,500/-
4th
Crash 1st Apr. 19 15th Apr. 19 7:00 AM -11.30 AM Rs. 3,000/-
Course
 Full class notes will be prepared in class with a system of daily test.
 Coverage of entire SM, PM, RTP & MTP issued by ICAI.
 Special focus on content writing & presentation of answer in exams.
 Learn with practical life and business examples. Fully examination oriented.
Package Fee
SM & EIS/IT – Rs. 6000/-
SM, EIS/IT and Audit – Rs. 12,000/-
SM, EIS/IT, Audit and Account- Rs. 18,000/-
Classes at: Rathore Institute, 1/50, Lalita Park, Laxmi Nagar.
Help Desk: 8527-33-66-00, 011-43073355. www.rathoreinstitute.com
YouTube Channel: Anytime Classes PS Rathore’s Learning App
STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT
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IN 8 DAYS WITH 100% SYLLABUS
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1st 10th Jan. 19 17th Jan. 19 12.00 – 8.00 PM Rs. 3,200/-
2nd 14th Feb. 19 21st Feb. 19 7.15 AM-2.00 PM Rs. 3,200/-
3rd
1st Apr. 19 8st Apr. 19 12.00 - 8:00 PM Rs. 3,200/-
 Notes will be prepared in class.

 Daily test through whats app.
 Coverage of entire SM, PM, RTP & MTP issued by ICAI.
 Special focus on content writing & presentation of answer in exams.
 Learn with practical life and business examples. Fully exam oriented
Package Fee
SM & EIS/IT – Rs. 6000/-
SM, EIS/IT and Audit – Rs. 12,000/-
SM, EIS/IT, Audit and Account- Rs. 18,000/-
Classes at: Rathore Institute, 1/50, Lalita Park, Laxmi Nagar.
Help Desk: 8527-33-66-00, 011-43073355. www.rathoreinstitute.com
YouTube Channel: Anytime Classes PS Rathore’s Learning App
ADVANCED AUDITING &
PROFESSIONAL ETHICS
By
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1st
28th Jan. 19 17th Feb. 19 7.00 AM – 11.00 AM Rs. 6,000
(T-20)
2nd
22th Mar. 19 10th Apr. 19 5.00 PM - 9.00 PM Rs. 6,000
(T-20)
Class Features
 It is batch of 20 classes up to 90% Syllabus. Only least important topics will
not be covered but guidance and class notes will be provided for it.
 Special focus on engagement standards which cover apprx. 30-40 Marks.
 In regular batch class notes are prepared but in T-20 batch class notes will
not be prepared but students will get copies of such class written notes.
 Coverage of study material and practice mannual issued by ICAI.
 Special Focus on Content Writing & Presentation of answer in Exams.

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1st 1st Feb, 19 17th Mar, 19 7:00 to 10:30 AM Rs.6,000/-
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(15 Days)
3rd 1st Apr, 19 10th Apr, 19 12:00 to 07:30 PM* Rs.3,500/-

(10 Days)
*Daily Classes (other batches will be from Mon to Sat)
Venue- 1/50, Lalita Park, Laxmi Nagar, Delhi. 8527-33-66-00, 011-43073355
Class Features-
 Full Coverage in 40 Days Course & 80+ Marks Coverage in 10 Days Course.
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 Coverage of Entire SM, PM, RTP, MTP & Case Studies issued by ICAI.
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RATHORE INSTITUTE

 Answers of 300 multiple choice questions are provided at

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

16. It is not uncommon in auditing

23. Pick the odd one

38. Pick the odd one

53. The purpose of providing depreciation is

98. An individual is disqualified for appointment as auditor of co if he is indebtedness to co

d) Paid up share capital is less than Rs. 100 crore

112. ADT-1 is filed with RoC within

c) CAG within 60 days

141. Which one of the following is incorrect

184. Cost audit will not be applicable to those companies

b) Improved internal control system

d) All of the above are reasons

c) Those charged with governance

d) Risk of non-detection of material misstatements in financial statements

276. Test of controls is performed by auditor

b) Risk of material misstatements

304. Pick the odd one

311. Audit is usually conducted in three steps:

331. Which of the following statement is correct

346. Pick the odd one

a) Size and complexity of the entity

361. Working on trial balance is the part of

368. A current audit file would always contain which of following?

420. ________________ means evaluation of financial information through analysis of plausible

426. Analytical procedures used in the planning stage of an audit, generally:

c) Audit Report on the Financial Statements

b) Name of city, where audit report has been signed

d) Immediately following auditor’s responsibility section

a) Inquiry of management and others within the entity

494. Which of the following is true

d) Either option (a) or option (b)

544. SA __________ deals with using the work of another auditor

a) Only statement 1 is true

b) Sufficient appropriate evidence had been obtained to draw reasonable conclusions

a) Only statement 1 is true

a) Only statement 1 is true

582. Statement (1)

587. Written representation is a written statement by management provided to auditor

a) Only Statement 1 is true

593. As per SA 320, materiality is to be applied

c) Divide audit work among themselves as per law

628. Municipal Government in India covers following

654. Wages paid to workers would always qualify as:

(c) None of the above

Only For Old Syllabus Students

667. The person responsible for compliance of section 128-----

c) Public company, debentures redemption reserve

b) Data entry and program control

Only For New Syllabus Students

b) In the Central or Other Co-Operative Bank

a) Registrar of Society, One month of date of registration of such society

d) Local Fund Audit Wing of State Government, 60