1|Page

(b) 59
(c) 111.
8. The binary number 100010001 is
equivalent to the octal number:
1. The binary number 10101 is equivalent (a) 111
to the decimal number: (b) 273
(a) 19 (c) 421.
(b) 21 9. The hexadecimal number 111 is
(c) 35. equivalent to the octal number:
2. The decimal number 29 is equivalent to (a) 73
the binary number: (b) 273
(a) 10111 (c) 421.
(b) 11011 10. The hexadecimal number C9 is
(c) 11101. equivalent to the decimal number:
3. Which one of the following gives the (a) 21
two’s complement of the binary number (b) 129
10110? (c) 201.
(a) 01010 11. The binary number 10110011 is
(b) 01001 equivalent to the hexadecimal number:
(c) 10001. (a) 93
4. The binary coded decimal (BCD) (b) B3
number 10010001 is equivalent to the (c) 113.
decimal number: 12. The hexadecimal number AD is
(a) 19 equivalent to the binary number:
(b) 91 (a) 10101101
(c) 145. (b) 11011010
5. The decimal number 37 is equivalent to (c) 10001101.
the binary coded decimal (BCD) number: 13. The number 7068 is equivalent to:
(a) 00110111 (a) 1C616
(b) 00100101 (b) 1110011102
(c) 00101111 (c) 48410.
6. Which one of the following numbers 14. The number 1011100008 is equivalent
could NOT be an octal number? to:
(a) 11011 (a) 16016
(b) 771 (b) 5708
(c) 139. (c) 36810.
7. The octal number 73 is equivalent to 1. A DAC can produce 256 different
the decimal number: output voltages. This DAC has a
resolution of:
(a) 47 (a) 8 bits
2|Page

(b) 128 bits 9. The resolution of a DAC is stated in

(c) 256 bits. terms of:
2. In a bipolar ADC a logic 1 in the MSB (a) the accuracy of the voltage reference
position indicates: (b) the open-loop gain of the comparator
(a) zero input voltage (c) the number of bits used in the
(b) negative input voltage conversion.
(c) positive input voltage. 10. The conversion time of a flash ADC
3. Which one of the following types of is typically in the range:
ADC is the fastest? (a) 50 ns to 1 μs
(a) ramp type (b) 50 μs to 1 ms
(b) flash type (c) 50 ms to 1 s.
(c) successive approximation type. 11. The DAC used in a successive
4. Which one of the following ADC types approximation ADC is usually:
uses a large number of comparators? (a) ramp type
(a) ramp type (b) binary weighted type
(b) flash type (c) successive approximation type.
(c) successive approximation type. 12. In a successive approximation ADC,
5. The advantage of an R-2R ladder DAC the time interval between the SC and
is that: EOC signals is:
(a) it uses less resistors overall (a) the clock time
(b) it uses a smaller number of analogue (b) the cycle time
switches (c) the conversion time.
(c) it avoids having a large number of 13. An advantage of a dual-ramp ADC is:
different value resistors. (a) a fast conversion time
(b) an inherent ability to reject noise
6. A 10-bit DAC is capable of producing:
(c) the ability to operate without the need
(a) 10 different output levels
for a clock.
(b) 100 different output levels
1. A bus that supports the transfer of data
(c) 1,024 different output levels.
in both directions is referred to as:
7. The process of sampling approximating
(a) universal
an analogue signal to a series of discrete
(b) bidirectional
levels is referred to as:
(c) asynchronous.
(a) interfacing
2. The main advantage of using a serial
(b) quantizing
bus in an aircraft is:
(c) data conversion.
(a) there is no need for data conversion
8. In a binary weighted DAC the voltage
(b) it supports the highest possible data
gain for each digital input is determined
rates
by:
(c) reduction in the size and weight of
(a) a variable slope ramp
(b) a variable reference voltage cabling.
3. Which one of the following is used to
(c) resistors having different values.
3|Page

minimize reflections present in a bus (c) 1 Mbps.

cable? 11. An ARINC 429 NULL state is
(a) coupler panels represented by:
(b) bus terminators (a) a voltage of −5 V
(c) shielded twisted pair cables. (b) a voltage of 0 V
4. The data format in an ARINC 429 stub (c) a voltage of +5 V.
cable consists of: 12. The maximum data rate supported
(a) serial analogue doublets MIL-STD-1553 is:
(b) parallel data from the local bus (a) 12.5 Kbps
(c) Manchester encoded serial data. (b) 100 Kbps
5. In order to represent negative data (c) 1 Mbps.
values, BNR data uses: 13. A bus that is self-clocking is referred
(a) two’s complement binary to as:
(b) BCD data and a binary sign bit. (a) universal
(c) an extra parity bit to indicate the sign (b) bidirectional
6. The physical bus media specified in (c) asynchronous.
ARINC 629 is: 14. The physical bus media specified in
(a) fiber optic MILSTD-1773B is:
(b) coaxial cable (a) fiber optic
(c) shielded twisted pair. (b) coaxial cable
7. The validity of an ARINC 429 data (c) shielded twisted pair.
word is checked by using: 15. The length of an ARINC 429 word is:
(a) a parity bit (a) 16 bits
(b) a checksum (b) 20 bits
(c) multiple redundancy. (c) 32 bits.
8. The label field in an ARINC 429 data 16. ARINC 573 is designed for use with:
word consists of: (a) INS
(a) five bits (b) FDR
(b) three bits (c) Weather radar.
(c) eight bits. 17. The maximum data rate supported by
the FDDI bus is:
9. The voltages present on an ARINC 429
(a) 1 Mbps
d a t a bus cable are:
(b) 10 Mbps
(a) ±5 V
(c) 100 Mbps.
(b) ±15 V
(c) +5 V and +10V 2. The normal supply voltage for a TTL
10. The maximum bit rate supported by logic device is:
ARINC 429 is: (a) 2.5 V ±5%
(a) 12.5 Kbps (b) 5 V ±5%
(b) 100 Kbps (c) 12 V ±5%.
4|Page

3. A two-input NAND gate will produce (a) a two-input OR gate

a logic 0 output when: (b) a two input NOR gate
(a) both of the inputs are at logic 0 Figure 5.32 See Question 7.
(b) either one of the inputs is at logic 0
1. The feature marked Q in Figure 6.12 is:
(c) both of the inputs are at logic 1.
(a) RAM
4. In a binary counter, the clock input of
(b) ROM
each bistable stage is fed from:
(c) I/O.
(a) the same clock line
2. In Figure 6.12, the address is the
(b) the Q output of the previous stage
feature marked:
(c) the CLEAR line.
(a) T
5. The device shown in Figure 5.31 is:
(b) U
(a) a low-power Schottky TTL device
(c) V.
(b) a high density standard TTL device
3. In Figure 6.12, which feature is
(c) a buffered CMOS device.
responsible for providing read/write
6. The most appropriate logic family for memory?
use in a portable item of test equipment is: (a) Q
(a) CMOS (b) R
(b) TTL (c) S.
(c) Low-power Schottky TTL.
Figure 5.31 See Question 5.
7. The logic gate arrangement shown in
Figure 5.32 performs the same function
as:
(a) a NOR gate
(b) a NAND gate
(c) an exclusive-OR gate.
8. The noise margin for standard TTL 4. Which computer bus is used to specify
devices is: memory locations?
(a) 400 mV (a) address bus
(b) 800 mV (b) control bus
(c) 2 V. (c) data bus.
9. A CMOS logic gate is operated from a 5. What is the largest hexadecimal
12 V supply. If a voltage of 3 V is address that can appear on a 24-bit
measured at the input to the gate, this address bus?
would be considered equivalent to: (a) FFFF
(a) logic 0 (b) FFFFF
(b) indeterminate (c) FFFFFF.
(c) logic 1. 6. Bus arbitration is required in order to:
10. The truth table shown in Figure 5.33 (a) prevent memory loss
is for: (b) avoid bus contention
5|Page

(c) reduce errors caused by noise and 13. How many 16K × 4 bit DRAM
EMI. devices will be required to provide 32 K
7. A memory device in which any item of bytes of storage?
data can be retrieved with equal ease is (a) 2
known as: (b) 4
(a) parallel access (c) 8.
(b) random access 14. A memory device has a pin marked
(c) sequential access. CAS. The function of this pin is:
8. Which one of the following memory (a) chip active select
devices can be erased and reprogrammed? (b) control address signal
(a) Mask programmed ROM (c) column address select.
(b) OTP EPROM 15. A semiconductor memory consists of
(c) EPROM. 256 rows and 256 columns. The capacity
9. The processor instruction HLT is of this memory will be:
classed as: (a) 256 bits
(a) a control instruction (b) 512 bits
(b) a data transfer instruction (c) 64K bits.
(c) a logical instruction. 16. In the assembly language instruction
10. The VME bus standard uses: MOV AX,07FEh the operation code is:
(a) a single 32-way DIN 41612 connector (a) MOV
(b) two 32-way DIN 41612 connectors (b) AX
(c) a 100-way PCB edge connector. (c) 07FE.
11. What type of memory uses the 17. A bus arbitration system based on the
principle of charge storage? physical location of cards is referred to as:
(a) bipolar static RAM (a) serial arbitration
(b) MOS static memory (b) parallel arbitration
(c) MOS dynamic memory. (c) sequential arbitration.
12. The memory cell shown in Figure
1. In an optical fibre, the refractive index
6.13 is:
of the core is:
(a) an MOS static cell
(a) the same as the cladding
(b) a MOS dynamic cell
(b) larger than the cladding
(c) a bipolar static cell.
(c) smaller than the cladding.
2. A suitable optical transmitter for use
with an optical fibre is:
(a) a photodiode
(b) a phototransistor
(c) a low-power laser diode.
3. The typical core diameter for a
monomode fibre is:
6|Page

(a) 5 μm (a) the connectors are correctly aligned

(b) 50 μm prior
(c) 125 μm. to mating the plug and the receptacle
4. In a multicore fibre optic cable: (b) none of the red band is covered when
(a) the cores are colour coded the coupling nut is tightened
(b) the cladding is colour coded (c) all of the red band is covered when the
(c) the buffers are colour coded. coupling nut is tightened.
5. The typical wavelength of light in a 11. In order to support a high data rate, a
fibre is: fibre optic cable should have:
(a) 1.3 μm (a) zero bandwidth
(b) 13 μm (b) limited bandwidth
(c) 130 μm. (c) wide bandwidth.
12. A significant advantage of fibre optic
6. What aircraft standard applies to fibre
networks in large passenger aircraft is:
optic networks?
(a) lower installation costs
(a) ARINC 429
(b) reduced weight
(b) ARINC 573
(c) ease of maintenance.
(c) ARINC 636.
7. If a launcher has an acceptance angle 13. A beam of light is directed towards a
of 45° the corresponding numerical boundary between two optical media
aperture will be: having different refractive indices. If the
(a) 0.5 beam is incident at the critical angle the
(b) 0.707 ray emerging from the boundary will
(c) 1. travel:
8. The typical cladding diameter for a (a) away from the boundary
monomode fibre is: (b) along the boundary
(a) 5 μm (c) back towards the light source.
(b) 50 μm 14. The bandwidth of an optical fibre is
(c) 125 μm. limited by:
9. If the numerical aperture of a fibre has (a) attenuation and cross-talk in the cable.
a value of 1, this indicates that: (b) modal dispersion occurring in the
(a) all of the light from the source is cable
captured by the fibre (c) the number and severity of bends in
(b) none of the light from a source is the cable.
captured by a fibre 15. Light propagates in a fibre optic by
(c) 50% of the light from a source is means of:
captured by a fibre. (a) modal dispersion
10. When replacing a length of multi-way (b) continuous refraction
fibre optic cable, it is essential to ensure (c) total internal reflection.
that:
7|Page

16. The attenuation of an optical fibre is (b) white

typically: (c) magenta.
(a) less than 2 dB per km 4. The human eye is most sensitive to:
(b) between 2 dB and 20 dB per km (a) red light
(c) more than 20 dB per km. (b) blue light
17. The main advantage of monomode (c) green light.
fibres is: 5. A seven segment LED display has
(a) lower cost segments a,b, c, d, and g illuminated. The
(b) smaller data cables character displayed will be:
(c) faster data rates. (a) 2
18. A pulse of infrared light travelling (b) 3
down a multimode fibre optic becomes (c) 5.
stretched. This is due to: 6. The BCD input to a seven segment
(a) reflection display decoder is 1001. The digit
(b) refraction displayed will be:
(c) dispersion. (a) 7
19. Attenuation in an optical fibre is due (b) 8
to: (c) 9.
(a) absorption, dispersion, and radiation 7. The potential at the gird of a CRT is:
(b) absorption, scattering, and radiation (a) the same as the cathode
(c) absorption, cross-talk, and noise. (b) negative with respect to the cathode
20. Light waves in fibre optic cables are: (c) positive with respect to the cathode.
(a) in the infrared spectrum 8. The function of the final anode of a
(b) in the ultraviolet spectrum CRT is:
(c) in the visible spectrum. (a) accelerating the electron beam
(b) deflecting the electron beam
1. The peak wavelength of light emitted
(c) controlling the brightness of the
from a red LED is typically:
display.
(a) 475 nm
(b) 525 nm 9. Electromagnetic deflection of a CRT
(c) 635 nm. uses:
2. The spectral response of the human eye (a) coils inside the CRT
peaks at around: (b) X- and Y-plates inside the CRT
(a) 450 nm (c) coils around the neck of the CRT.
(b) 550 nm 10. The three beams in a colour CRT are
(c) 650 nm. associated with the colours:
3. Adjacent phosphors of blue and green (a) red, yellow and blue
are illuminated on the screen of a CRT. (b) red, green and blue
The resultant colour produced will be: (c) green, blue and yellow.
(a) cyan 11. When compared with CRT displays,
AMLCD displays have:
8|Page

(a) larger volume and lower reliability (c) remote.

(b) larger volume and greater reliability 3. A software Configuration
(c) smaller volume and greater Management Plan(CMP) must be created
reliability. and maintained by:
12. The final anode of a CRT display (a) the CAA or FAA
requires: (b) the aircraft operator
(a) a low voltage AC supply (c) the relevant DO.
(b) a high voltage AC supply 4. Weather radar is an example of:
(c) a high voltage DC supply. (a) Class B software
13. The deflecting waveform supplied to (b) Class C software
the plates of an electrostatic CRT will be: (c) Class D software.
(a) a sine wave 5. Electronic Engine Control (EEC)
(b) a ramp wave software is an example of:
(c) a square wave. (a) DFLD
14. The typical value of maximum (b) LSAP
forward current for an LED indicator is: (c) OSS.
(a) 0.03 A 6. OSS and UMS are specific classes of:
(b) 0.3 A (a) FLS
(c) 3 A. (b) LSAP
15. The patterns required to display (c) DFLD.
alphanumeric characters in a CRT 7. The final stage of loading EEC
controller are stored in: software is:
(a) static RAM (a) disconnecting the PDL
(b) dynamic RAM (b) verifying the loaded software
(c) character generator ROM. (c) switching on and testing the system.
16. When compared with passive matrix
1. Aperiodic noise is:
LCD, AMLCD are:
(a) regular but not continuous
(a) faster and sharper
(b) regular and continuous
(b) faster and less sharp
(c) entirely random in nature.
(c) slower and less sharp.
2. EMI can be conveyed from a source to
1. A Level C software classification is one a receiver by:
in which a failure could result in: (a) conduction only
(a) aircraft loss (b) radiation only
(b) fatal injuries to passengers or crew (c) conduction and radiation.
(c) minor injuries to passengers or crew. 3. The display produced by a spectrum
2. A Level B software classification is one analyser shows:
in which the probability of failure is: (a) frequency plotted against time
(a) extremely improbable (b) amplitude plotted against time
(b) extremely remote (c) amplitude plotted against frequency.
9|Page

4. EMI can be reduced by means of: (c) CDU.

(a) screening only 3. A basic IRS platform has:
(b) screening and filtering (a) three accelerometers and two laser
(c) screening, bonding and filtering. gyros
5. The effects of HIRF can be reduced by: (b) two accelerometers and three laser
(a) screening only gyros
(b) screening and filtering (c) three accelerometers and three laser
(c) screening, bonding and filtering. gyros.
6. The typical maximum value of bonding 4. The operational FMS database is:
resistance is: (a) updated once a month
(a) less than 0.005 M (b) is fed with information on aircraft
(b) between 0.005 M and 0.05 M weight before take off
(c) more than 0.05 M. (c) needs no update information.
7. Effective protection against lightning 5. The left and right cockpit displays:
and static discharge damage to an aircraft (a) are supplied from separate symbol
requires that: generators at all times
(a) all isolated conducting parts must (b) are supplied from the same symbol
have high resistance to ground generator
(b) all parts of the metal structure of the (c) will only be supplied from the same
aircraft must be bonded to ground symbol generator when all other symbol
(c) all power and bus cables must be well generators have failed.
insulated. 6. A single failure in a fly-by-wire system
8. Supply borne noise can be eliminated should:
by means of: (a) cause the system to revert to
(a) a low-pass filter mechanical
(b) a high-pass filter operation
(c) a band-pass filter. (b) result in immediate intervention by the
9. Noise generated by a switching circuit flight crew
is worse when: (c) not have any effect on the operation
(a) switching is fast and current is low of the system.
(b) switching is slow and current is high 7. On a flight deck EFIS system, if all of
(c) switching is fast and current is high. the displays were missing information
from a particular source, the most likely
1. The standard for ACARS is defined in:
cause would be:
(a) ARINC 429
(a) the symbol generator and display
(b) ARINC 573
(b) the sensor, input bus or display
(c) ARINC 724.
2. Engine parameters are displayed on: controller
(c) the display controller and symbol
(a) ECAM
generator.
(b) EHSI
10 | P a g e

8. A central maintenance computer (a) TCAS II

provides: (b) ACARS
(a) ground and in-flight monitoring and (c) GPS.
testing
(b) ground and BITE testing using a
portable control panel
(c) display of system warnings and
cautions.
9. The FMS navigation database is
updated:
(a) at the request of the flight crew
(b) during pre-flight checks
(c) every 28 days.
10. The sweep voltage waveform used on
an electromagnetic CRT is:
(a) trapezoidal
(b) sinusoidal
(c) sawtooth.
11. In an EFIS with three symbol
generators, what is the purpose of the
third symbol generator?
(a) Comparison with the pilot’s symbol
generator
(b) Standby in case of failure
(c) To provide outputs for ECAM.
12. The ACARS system uses channels in
the:
(a) HF spectrum
(b) VHF spectrum
(c) UHF spectrum.
13. If one EICAS CRT fails:
(a) the remaining CRT will display
primary EICAS data
(b) the FMS CDU will display the failed
CRT data
(c) the standby CRT will automatically
take over.
14. A method used in modern aircraft for
reporting in-flight faults to an engineering
and monitoring ground station is: