Cracku Solved CAT 2007 Paper With Solutions PDF

CAT 2007
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Verbal
Instructions
The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to
each question.
Human Biology does nothing to structure human society. Age may enfeeble us all, but cultures vary
considerably in the prestige and power they accord to the elderly. Giving birth is a necessary condition for
being a mother, but it is not sufficient. We expect mothers to behave in maternal ways and to display
appropriately maternal sentiments. We prescribe a clutch of norms or rules that govern the role of a mother.
That the social role is independent of the biological base can be demonstrated by going back three
sentences. Giving birth is certainly not sufficient to be a mother but, as adoption and fostering show, it is not
even necessary!
The fine detail of what is expected of a mother or a father or a dutiful son differs from culture to culture, but
everywhere behaviour is coordinated by the reciprocal nature of roles. Husbands and wives, parents and
children, employers and employees, waiters and customers, teachers and pupils, warlords and followers;
each makes sense only in its relation to the other. The term ‘role’ is an appropriate one, because the metaphor
of an actor in a play neatly expresses the rule-governed nature or scripted nature of much of social life and
the sense that society is a joint production. Social life occurs only because people play their parts (and that is
as true for war and conflicts as for peace and love) and those parts make sense only in the context of the
overall show. The drama metaphor also reminds us of the artistic licence available to the players. We can
play a part straight or, as the following from J.P. Sartre conveys, we can ham it up.
Let us consider this waiter in the cafe. His movement is quick and forward, a little too precise, a little too
rapid. He comes towards the patrons with a step a little too quick. He bends forward a little too eagerly; his
voice, his eyes express an interest a little too solicitous for the order of the customer. Finally there he returns,
trying to imitate in his walk the inflexible stiffness of some kind of automaton while carrying his tray with the
recklessness of a tightrope-walker....All his behaviour seems to us a game....But what is he playing? We need
not watch long before we can explain it: he is playing at being a waiter in a cafe.
The American sociologist Erving Goffman built an influential body of social analysis on elaborations of the
metaphor of social life as drama. Perhaps his most telling point was that it is only through acting out a part
that we express character. It is not enough to be evil or virtuous; we have to be seen to be evil or virtuous.
There is distinction between the roles we play and some underlying self. Here we might note that some roles
are more absorbing than others. We would not be surprised by the waitress who plays the part in such a way
as to signal to us that she is much more than her occupation. We would be surprised and offended by the
father who played his part ‘tongue in cheek’. Some roles are broader and more far-reaching than others.
Describing someone as a clergyman or faith healer would say far more about that person than describing
someone as a bus driver.
Question 1
What is the thematic highlight of this passage?
In the absence of strong biological linkages, reciprocal roles provide the mechanism for coordinating
A
human behaviour.
In the absence of reciprocal roles, biological linkages provide the mechanism for coordinating human
B
behaviour.
C Human behaviour is independent of biological linkages and reciprocal roles.
D Human behaviour depends on biological linkages and reciprocal roles.
E Reciprocal roles determine normative human behavior in society.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The passage does not talk about "absence of strong biological linkages". Hence, option A is wrong.
The statement in option 2 does not agree with the passage.Hence, option B is wrong.
Option 3 is contrary to the passage.
The passage never stated that human behavior depends on biological linkages. Hence, option D is wrong.
Option E correctly captures the theme of the passage.
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Question 2
Which of the following would have been true if biological linkages structured human society?
A The role of mother would have been defined through her reciprocal relationship with her children.
B We would not have been offended by the father playing his role ‘tongue in cheek’.
C Women would have adopted and fostered children rather than giving birth to them.
D Even if warlords were physically weaker than their followers, they would still dominate them.
E Waiters would have stronger motivation to serve their customers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
We must look for an option that we do not consider as normal.
Except option B, all the options are normal.
For example, it is absolutely fine with us if a waiter serves more than that is expected from him.
But we are offended when a father behaves in a tongue in cheek manner. If biological linkages structured
human society, it should not matter to us how a father behaves. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Question 3
It has been claimed in the passage that “some roles are more absorbing than others”. According to
passage, which of the following seem(s) appropriate reason(s) for such a claim?
A. Some roles carry great expectations from the society preventing manifestation of the true self.
B. Society ascribes so much importance to some roles that the conception of self may get aligned with the
roles being performed.
C. Some roles require development of skill and expertise leaving little time for manifestation of self.
A A only
B B only
C C only
D A & B
E B & C
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement A has been discussed in the passage while giving the example of clergymen and waiter. Hence, it
is correct.
By the example of the father, we can say that statement B is true.
In the passage, the author has not mentioned that development of skill may result in denial of the self. So,
statement C is incorrect.
So, only statements A and B are correct. Option d) is the correct answer.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions:
In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the
sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the
most appropriate option.
Question 4
A. When I returned to home, I began to read
B. everything I could get my hand on about Israel.
C. That same year Israel’s Jewish Agency sent
D. a Shaliach a sort of recruiter to Minneapolis.
E. I became one of his most active devotees.
[CAT 2007]
A C & E
B C only
C E only
D B, C & E
E C, D & E
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statements C and E are correct.
There is no need of the word 'to' between 'returned' and 'home' in sentence A.
In statement B, the correct use of the phrase is 'hands on' and not 'hand on'.
In statement D, there should be a hyphen or comma after the word Shaliach ( a Shaliach - a sort of recruiter to
Minneapolis.).
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Question 5
A. So once an economy is actually in recession,
B. The authorities can, in principle, move the economy
C. Out of slump - assuming hypothetically
D. That they know how to - by a temporary stimuli.
E. In the longer term, however, such policies have no affect on the overall behaviour of the economy.
A A, B & E
B B, C & E
C C & D
D E only
E B only
Answer: E
Explanation:
The usage of the word "so" is inappropriate => A is wrong
"Assuming hypothetically" is redundant => Only one of the words can be used here.=> C is wrong.
"a temporary stimulus" is the correct phrase => D is wrong.
"long term" is the correct phrase and not "longer term" => E is wrong.
Hence, only B is correct
Question 6
A. It is sometimes told that democratic
B. government originated in the city-states
C. of ancient Greece. Democratic ideals have been handed to us from that time.
D. In truth, however, this is an unhelpful assertion.
E. The Greeks gave us the word, hence did not provide us with a model.
A A, B & D
B B, C & D
C B & D
D B only
E D only
Answer: C
Explanation:
In sentence A, the word "said" must be used instead of "told". Sentence B is correct.
In sentence C, 'handed to us' should be replaced with 'handed down to us'. Sentence D is correct.
In sentence E, 'hence' should be replaced with 'but' or some other conjunction that is similar in meaning to
'but'.
So, only B and D are correct.
Instructions
each question.
Every civilized society lives and thrives on a silent but profound agreement as to what is to be accepted as
the valid mould of experience. Civilization is a complex system of dams, dykes, and canals warding off,
directing, and articulating the influx of the surrounding fluid element; a fertile fenland, elaborately drained and
protected from the high tides of chaotic, unexercised, and inarticulate experience. In such a culture, stable
and sure of itself within the frontiers of 'naturalized' experience, the arts wield their creative power not so
much in width as in depth. They do not create new experience, but deepen and purify the old. Their works do
not differ from one another like a new horizon from a new horizon, but like a madonna from a madonna.
The periods of art which are most vigorous in creative passion seem to occur when the established pattern
of experience loosens its rigidity without as yet losing its force. Such a period was the Renaissance, and
Shakespeare its poetic consummation. Then it was as though the discipline of the old order gave depth to the
excitement of the breaking away, the depth of job and tragedy, of incomparable conquests and irredeemable
losses. Adventurers of experience set out as though in lifeboats to rescue and bring back to the shore
treasures of knowing and feeling which the old order had left floating on the high seas. The works of the early
Renaissance and the poetry of Shakespeare vibrate with the compassion for live experience in danger of
dying from exposure and neglect. In this compassion was the creative genius of the age. Yet, it was a genius
of courage, not of desperate audacity. For, however elusively, it still knew of harbours and anchors, of homes
to which to return, and of barns in which to store the harvest. The exploring spirit of art was in the depths of
its consciousness still aware of a scheme of things into which to fit its exploits and creations.
But the more this scheme of things loses its stability, the more boundless and uncharted appears the ocean
of potential exploration. In the blank confusion of infinite potentialities flotsam of significance gets attached
to jetsam of experience; for everything is sea, everything is at sea - ....
The sea is all about us;
The sea is the land's edge also, the granite
Into which it reaches, the beaches where it tosses
Its hints of earlier and other creation ...
- and Rilke tells a story in which, as in T.S. Eliot's poem, it is again the sea and the distance of 'other creation'
that becomes the image of the poet's reality. A rowing boat sets out on a difficult passage. The oarsmen
labour in exact rhythm. There is no sign yet of the destination. Suddenly a man, seemingly idle, breaks out
into song. And if the labour of the oarsmen meaninglessly defeats the real resistance of the real waves, it is
the idle single who magically conquers the despair of apparent aimlessness. While the people next to him try
to come to grips with the element that is next to them, his voice seems to bind the boat to the farthest
distance so that the farthest distance draws it towards itself. 'I don't know why and how,' is Rilke's conclusion,
'but suddenly I understood the situation of the poet, his place and function in this age. It does not matter if
one denies him every place - except this one. There one must tolerate him.'
Question 7
In the passage, the expression “like a madonna from a madonna” alludes to
A The difference arising as a consequence of artistic license.
B The difference between two artistic interpretations.

C The difference between ‘life’ and ‘interpretation of life’.
D The difference between ‘width’ and ‘depth’ of creative power.
E The difference between the legendary character and the modern day singer.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The sentence "the arts wield their creative power not so much ............ a new horizon from a new horizon"
says that the art words do not differ in their "width" and "breadth" as well as "life" and "interpretation of life".
=> Options C and D are wrong.
Option A is irrelavent as it is not discussed in the passage.
The comparison between Madonna and modern day singer is not correct => option E wrong.
Option B is the answer.
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Question 8
The sea and ‘other creation’ leads Rilke to
A Define the place of the poet in his culture.
B Reflect on the role of the oarsman and the singer.
C Muse on artistic labour and its aim lessens.
D Understand the elements that one has to deal with.
E Delve into natural experience and real waves.
Answer: A
Explanation:
After giving the example of "sea" and "the other creation", Rilke says "I suddenly understood the situation of
the poet, his place and his function in this age".
Option a) captures this idea succinctly. None of the other options are applicable.
Option A is the correct answer.
Question 9
According to the passage, the term “adventurers of experience” refers to
A Poets and artists who are driven by courage.
B Poets and artists who create their own genre.

C Poets and artists of the Renaissance.
D Poets and artists who revitalize and enrich the past for us.
E Poets and artists who delve in flotsam and jetsam in sea.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Refer to the following lines of the paragraph: "Adventurers of experience set out as though in lifeboats to
rescue and bring back to the shore treasures of knowing and feeling which the old order had left floating on
the high seas. The works of the early Renaissance and the poetry of Shakespeare vibrate with the
compassion for live experience in danger of dying from exposure and neglect."
Here the author refers to the poets of renaissance as adventurers of experience.
Option c) is the correct answer.
Instructions
Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the
given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Question 10
Characters are also part of deep structure. Characters tie events in a story together and provide a thread of
continuity and meaning. Stories can be about individuals, groups, projects or whole organizations, so from
an organizational studies perspective, the focal actor(s) determine the level and unit of analysis used in a
study. Stories of mergers and acquisitions, for example, are common place. In these stories whole
organizations are personified as actors. But these macro-level stories usually are not told from the
perspective of the macro-level participants, because whole organizations cannot narrate their experiences
in the first person.
More generally, data concerning the identities and relationships of the characters in the story are required,
A
if one is to understand role structure and social networks in which that process is embedded.
Personification of a whole organization abstracts away from the particular actors and from traditional
B
notions of level of analysis.
The personification of a whole organization is important because stories differ depending on who is
C
enacting various events.
Every story is told from a particular point of view, with a particular narrative voice, which is not regarded
D
as part of the deep structure.
The personification of a whole organization is a textual device we use to make macro-level theories more
E
comprehensible.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The paragraph describes the role of the chracters in the whole story.Then the paragraph moves to the macro-
level stories where the organisation does not tell the whole narrative.Option 5 extends the idea about the
purpose of personification of whole organisation.Option 1 and 4 are incorrect because of the deviation from
the topic.Option 2 is incorrect as it talks abstracting away from the actors rather than explaining the reason
behind it.Option 3 is incorrect as there is no point of invoking the importance of personification of
organisation.
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Question 11
Nevertheless, photographs still retain some of the magical allure that the earliest daguerreotypes inspired.
As objects, our photographs have changed; they have become physically flimsier as they have become
more technologically sophisticated. Daguerre produced pictures on copper plates; today many of our
photographs never become tangible thins, but instead remain filed away on computers and cameras, part of
the digital ether that envelops the modern world. At the same time, our patience for the creation of images
has also eroded. Children today are used to being tracked from birth by digital cameras and video recorders
and they expect to see the results of their poses and performances instantly. The space between life as it is
being lived and life as it is being displayed shrinks to a mere second.
Yet, despite these technical developments, photographs still remain powerful because they are reminders
A
of the people and things we care about.
B Images, after all, are surrogates carried into battle by a soldier or by a traveller on holiday.
C Photographs, be they digital or traditional, exist to remind us of the absent, the beloved, and the dead.
In the new era of the digital image, the images also have a greater potential for fostering falsehood and
D
trickery, perpetuating fictions that seem so real we cannot tell the difference.
Anyway, human nature being what it is, little time has passed after photography’s inventions became
E
means of living life through images.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The paragarph starts by talking about the retaining of the allure of the photographs.It describes the new
digital age where the photos have become digital. Option A perfectly ends the paragraph by talking about the
positives of the photographs.
2,3,4 are deviations from the main idea. 5th is close but it introduces a new idea rather than closing the
paragraph.
Question 12
Mma Ramotswe had a detective agency in Africa, at the foot of Kgale Hill. These were its assets; a tiny
white van, two desks, two chairs, a telephone, and an old typewriter. Then there was a teapot, in which Mma
Ramotswe - the only private lady detective in Botswana - brewed red bush tea. And three mugs - one for
herself, one for her secretary and one for the client. What else does a detective agency really need?
Detective agencies rely on human intuition and intelligence, both of which Mma Ramotswe had in
abundance.
A But there was also the view, which again would appear on no inventory.
B No inventory would ever include those, of course.
C She had an intelligent secretary too.
D She was a good detective and a good woman.
E What she lacked in possessions was more than made up by a natural shrewdness.
Answer: B
Explanation:
No inventory would ever include those, ofcourse’. The para starts with listing out ‘the inventory’. The option
which says ‘what she lacked………..natural shrewdness’ is beyond the scope of the argument. All the options
can be easily eliminated. ‘Those’ in the option ‘No inventory would ever include those, ofcourse’, refers to
human intuition and intelligence of Mma Ramotswe.
Instructions
each question.
To discover the relation between rules, paradigms, and normal science, consider first how the historian
isolates the particular loci of commitment that have been described as accepted rules. Close historical
investigation of a given specialty at a given time discloses a set of recurrent and quasi-standard illustrations
of various theories in their conceptual, observational, and instrumental applications. These are the
community's paradigms, revealed in its textbooks, lectures, and laboratory exercises. By studying them and
by practicing with them, the members of the corresponding community learn their trade. The historian, of
course, will discover in addition a penumbral area occupied by achievements whose status is still in doubt,
but the core of solved problems and techniques will usually be clear. Despite occasional ambiguities, the
paradigms of a mature scientific community can be determined with relative ease.
That demands a second step and one of a somewhat different kind. When undertaking it, the historian must
compare the community's paradigms with each other and with its current research reports. In doing so, his
object is to discover what isolable elements, explicit or implicit, the members of that community may have
abstracted from their more global paradigms and deploy it as rules in their research. Anyone who has
attempted to describe or analyze the evolution of a particular scientific tradition will necessarily have sought
accepted principles and rules of this sort. Almost certainly, he will have met with at least partial success. But,
if his1 9 experience has been at all like my own, he will have found the search for rules both more difficult and
less satisfying than the search for paradigms. Some of the generalizations he employs to describe the
community's shared beliefs will present more problems. Others, however, will seem a shade too strong.
Phrased in just that way, or in any other way he can imagine, they would almost certainly have been rejected
by some members of the group he studies. Nevertheless, if the coherence of the research tradition is to be
understood in terms of rules, some specification of common ground in the corresponding area is needed. As
a result, the search for a body of rules competent to constitute a given normal research tradition becomes a
source of continual and deep frustration.
Recognizing that frustration, however, makes it possible to diagnose its source. Scientists can agree that a
Newton, Lavoisier, Maxwell, or Einstein has produced an apparently permanent solution to a group of
outstanding problems and still disagree, sometimes without being aware of it, about the particular abstract
characteristics that make those solutions permanent. They can, that is, agree in their identification of a
paradigm without agreeing on, or even attempting to produce, a full interpretation or rationalization of it. Lack
of a standard interpretation or of an agreed reduction to rules will not prevent a paradigm from guiding
research. Normal science can be determined in part by the direct inspection of paradigms, a process that is
often aided by but does not depend upon the formulation of rules and assumption. Indeed, the existence of a
paradigm need not even imply that any full set of rules exists.
Question 13
What is the author attempting to illustrate through this passage?
A Relationships between rules, paradigms, and normal science
B How a historian would isolate a particular ‘loci of commitment’
C How a set of shared beliefs evolve in to a paradigm.
D Ways of understanding a scientific tradition
E The frustrations of attempting to define a paradigm of a tradition
Answer: D
Explanation:
The main point of the first paragraph is to define what are accepted rules and how to identify them. In the
second paragraph, the author talks about comparing different sets of accepted rules or community
paradigms and analysing them. In the last paragraph, the author talks about how paradigm, even if they
cannot be distilled into rules, can yet guide research and be widely accepted. Thus, the main point of the
passage is how to understand scientific paradigms.
Option a) is an answer to how the author is attempting to illustrate his point through the passage. It does not
answer the 'what' part.
Options b), c) and e) give only partial answers to what the author is trying to illustrate through the passage.
Hence, Option d) is the correct answer.
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Question 14
The term ‘loci of commitment’ as used in the passage would most likely correspond with which of the
following?
A Loyalty between a group of scientists in a research laboratory
B Loyalty between groups of scientists across research laboratories
C Loyalty to a certain paradigm of scientific inquiry
D Loyalty to global patterns of scientific inquiry
E Loyalty to evolving trends of scientific inquiry
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the first line of the passage, the author describes loci of commitment as accepted rules. The passage talks
about the historian trying to isolate the particular loci of commitment, which he later concludes as the
community's paradigms.
Option c) succinctly captures this idea. None of the other options are applicable.
Question 15
The author of this passage is likely to agree with which of the following?
A Paradigms almost entirely define a scientific tradition.
B A group of scientists investigating a phenomenon would benefit by defining a set of rules.
C Acceptance by the giants of a tradition is a sine qua non for a paradigm to emerge.
D Choice of isolation mechanism determines the types of paradigm that may emerge from a tradition.
E Paradigms are a general representation of rules and beliefs of a scientific tradition.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Throughout the passage, the author highlights that "the paradigms" are "the general rules of science".
Rules are difficult to be defined. On the other hand, paradigms can follow without any rules. Option e)
accurately represents the idea.
Instructions
There are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are italicized and highlighted.
From the italicized and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form
correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.
Question 16
The cricket council that was [A] / were [B] elected last March is [A] / are [B] at sixes and sevens over new
rules.
The critics censored [A] / censured [B] the new movie because of its social inaccessibility.
Amit’s explanation for missing the meeting was credulous [A] / credible [B].
She coughed discreetly [A] / discretely [B] to announce her presence.
A BBAAA
B AAABA
C BBBBA
D AABBA
E BBBAA
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cricket Council is a collective noun so it takes a singular verb. The reference is made to a group as a whole
and not to an individual.
So correct option for 1st sentence is AA.
Censure implies harsh criticism.Censor means to put a ban on something objectionable.So Censure should
be the correct answer here.
Credible means capable of being believed.Credulous means tending to believe without evidence.So credible
should be used for 3rd sentence.
Discretely means distinct whereas discreetly means to carefully avoid social embarrassment or distress;
tactful. So use of ' discreetly' is correct here.
Hence option D.
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Question 17
The further [A] / farther [B] he pushed himself, the more disillusioned he grew.
For the crowds it was more of a historical [A] / historic [B] event; for their leader, it was just another day.
The old man has a healthy distrust [A] / mistrust [B] for all new technology.
This film is based on a real [A] / true [B] story.
One suspects that the compliment [A] / complement [B] was backhanded
A BABAB
B ABBBA
C BAABA
D BBAAB
E ABABA
Answer: E
Explanation:
Use “farther” for physical distance and “further” for metaphorical, or figurative, distance. So further should be
used here.
Correct usage for 2nd sentence is 'historic event', which means 'an event of great importance'.
In sentence 3, the word 'distrust', which means 'the feeling that someone or something cannot be relied upon'
should be used.
The correct usage is sentence 4 is 'true' story.

A backhanded compliment, also known as a left-handed compliment or asteism, is an insult that is disguised
as a compliment.
Option e) is the correct answer.
Question 18
Regrettably [A] / Regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation.
I am drawn to the poetic, sensual [A] / sensuous [B] quality of her paintings.
He was besides [A] / beside [B] himself with rage when I told him what I had done.
After brushing against a stationary [A] / stationery [B] truck my car turned turtle.
As the water began to rise over[A]/above[B] the danger mark, the signs of an imminent flood were clear.
A BAABA
B BBBAA
C AAABA
D BBAAB
E BBBAB
Answer: E
Explanation:
'Decline regretfully' is the correct usage. It means being sorry to decline.
Sensuous means taking delight in beauty. Hence is perfect for 2nd sentence.
Beside means next to. Besides means apart from or and another thing. So 'beside' should be used in given
context.
Stationary means 'stand still'. Hence is the correct for usage in 4th sentence.
5th statement can be correctly written as, ' As the water began to rise above the danger mark, the signs of an
imminent flood were clear.'
Option e) is the correct answer.
Instructions
each question.
The difficulties historians face in establishing cause-and-effect relations in the history of human societies are
broadly similar to the difficulties facing astronomers, climatologists, ecologists, evolutionary biologists,
geologists, and palaeontologists. To varying degrees each of these fields is plagued by the impossibility of
performing replicated, controlled experimental interventions, the complexity arising from enormous numbers
of variables, the resulting uniqueness of each system, the consequent impossibility of formulating universal
laws, and the difficulties of predicting emergent properties and future behaviour. Prediction in history, as in
other historical sciences, is most feasible on large spatial scales and over long times, when the unique
features of millions of small-scale brief events become averaged out. Just as I could predict the sex ratio of
the next 1,000 newborns but not the sexes of my own two children, the historian can recognize factors that
made2 1 inevitable the broad outcome of the collision between American and Eurasian societies after 13,000
years of separate developments, but not the outcome of the 1960 U.S. presidential election. The details of
which candidate said what during a single televised debate in October 1960 Could have given the electoral
victory to Nixon instead of to Kennedy, but no details of who said what could have blocked the European
conquest of Native Americans. How can students of human history profit from the experience of scientists in
other historical sciences? A methodology that has proved useful involves the comparative method and so-
called natural experiments. While neither astronomers studying galaxy formation nor human historians can
manipulate their systems in controlled laboratory experiments, they both can take advantage of natural
experiments, by comparing systems differing in the presence or absence (or in the strong or weak effect) of
some putative causative factor. For example, epidemiologists, forbidden to feed large amounts of salt to
people experimentally, have still been able to identify effects of high salt intake by comparing groups of
humans who already differ greatly in their salt intake; and cultural anthropologists, unable to provide human
groups experimentally with varying resource abundances for many centuries, still study long-term effects of
resource abundance on human societies by comparing recent Polynesian populations living on islands
differing naturally in resource abundance.
The student of human history can draw on many more natural experiments than just comparisons among the
five inhabited continents. Comparisons can also utilize large islands that have developed complex societies
in a considerable degree of isolation (such as Japan, Madagascar, Native American Hispaniola, New Guinea,
Hawaii, and many others), as well as societies on hundreds of smaller islands and regional societies within
each of the continents. Natural experiments in any field, whether in ecology or human history, are inherently
open to potential methodological criticisms. Those include confounding effects of natural variation in
additional variables besides the one of interest, as well as problems in inferring chains of causation from
observed correlations between variables. Such methodological problems have been discussed in great detail
for some of the historical sciences. In particular, epidemiology, the science of drawing inferences about
human diseases by comparing groups of people (often by retrospective historical studies), has for a long
time successfully employed formalized procedures for dealing with problems similar to those facing
historians of human societies. In short, I acknowledge that it is much more difficult to understand human
history than to understand problems in fields of science where history is unimportant and where fewer
individual variables operate. Nevertheless, successful methodologies for analyzing historical problems have
been worked out in several fields. As a result, the histories of dinosaurs, nebulae, and glaciers are generally
acknowledged to belong to fields of science rather than to the humanities.
Question 19
Why do islands with considerable degree of isolation provide valuable insights into human history?
A Isolated islands may evolve differently and this difference is of interest to us.
B Isolated islands increase the number of observations available to historians.
Isolated islands, differing in their endowments and size may evolve differently and this difference can be
C
attributed to their endowments and size.
Isolated islands, differing in their endowments and size, provide a good comparison to large islands such
D
as Eurasia, Africa, Americas and Australia.
E Isolated islands, in so far as they are inhabited, arouse curiosity about how human beings evolved there.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Consider the following lines from the passage: "Those include confounding effects of natural variation in
additional variables besides the one of interest, as well as problems in inferring chains of causation from
observed correlations between variables."
This explains the reason why islands with considerable degree of isolation provide valuable insights into
human history. Option c) is the correct answer.
CAT Syllabus (Download PDF)

Question 20
According to the author, why is prediction difficult in history?
A Historical explanations are usually broad so that no prediction is possible.
Historical out comers depend upon a large number of factors and hence predictions is difficult for each
B
case.
Historical sciences, by their very nature, are not interested in a multitude of minor factors, which might be
C important in a specific historical outcome.
Historians are interested in evolution of human history and hence are only interested in log term
D
predictions.
Historical sciences suffer from the inability to conduct controlled experiments and therefore have
E
explanations based on a few long term factors.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Refer to the following lines "Prediction in history, as in other historical sciences, is most feasible on large
spatial scales and over long times, when the unique features of millions of small-scale brief events become
averaged out. Just as I could predict the sex ratio of the next 1,000 newborns but not the sexes of my own
two children. the historian can recognize factors that made inevitable the broad outcome of the collision
between American and Eurasian societies after 13,000 years of separate developments, but not the outcome
of the 1960 U.S. presidential election"
From this we can understand the reason why the author says prediction in history is difficult is because
historical sciences suffer from the inability to conduct controlled experiments. Option e) is the correct
answer.
Question 21
According to the author, which of the following statements would be true?
A Students of history are missing significant opportunities by not conducting any natural experiments.
B Complex societies inhabiting large islands provide great opportunities for natural experiments.
Students of history are missing significant opportunities by not studying an adequate variety of natural
C
experiments.
D A unique problem faced by historians is their inability to establish cause and effect relationships.
Cultural anthropologists have overcome the problem of confounding variables through natural
E
experiments.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Refer to the lines "The student of human history can draw on many more natural experiments than just
comparisons among the five inhabited continents. Comparisons can also utilize large islands that have
developed complex societies in a considerable degree of isolation (such as Japan, Madagascar. Native
American Hispaniola, New Guinea, Hawaii, and many others), as well as societies on hundreds of smaller
islands and regional societies within each of the continents."
From this, we can understand that the students of history are missing opportunities by not studying a
sufficient variety of natural experiments. Option c) is the correct answer.
Instructions
In each question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/ paragraph labelled A is in its correct
place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a
coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.
Question 22
A. In America, highly educated women, who are in stronger position in the labour market than less qualified
ones, have higher rates of marriage than other groups.
B. Some works supports the Becker thesis, and some appears to contradict it.
C. And, as with crime, it is equally inconclusive.
D. But regardless of the conclusion of any particular piece of work, it is hard to establish convincing
connections between family changes and economic factors using conventional approaches.
E. Indeed, just as with crime, an enormous academic literature exists on the validity of the pure economic
approach to the evolution of family structures.
A BCDE
B DBEC
C BDCE
D ECBD
E EBCD
Answer: D
Explanation:
E follows A because it creates an anology and explains the situation.
Then, C follows E because, it continues that anology.
Also statements BD is a pair as B talks about some support and contradiction of work and D talks about
conclusion of work and difficulty in connections.
Hence ECBD is the answer.
Verbal Ability for CAT Questions (download pdf)

Question 23
A. Personal experience of mothering and motherhood are largely framed in relation to two discernible or
“official” discourses; the “medical discourse and natural childbirth discourse”. Both of these tend to focus
on the “optimistic stories” of birth and mothering and underpin stereotypes of the “godmother”.
B. At the same time, the need for medical expert guidance is also a feature for contemporary reproduction
and motherhood. But constructions of good mothering have not always been so conceived and in different
contexts may exist in parallel to other equally dominant discourses.
C. Similarly, historical work has shown how what are now taken for granted aspects of reproduction and
mothering practices result from contemporary “pseudoscientific directives” and “managed constructs”.
These changes have led to a reframing of modern discourses that pattern pregnancy and motherhood
leading to an acceptance of the need for greater expert management.
D. The contrasting, overlapping and ambiguous strands with in these frameworks focus to varying degrees
on a woman’s biological tie to her child and predisposition to instinctively know and be able to care for her
child.
E. In addition, a third, “unofficial popular discourse” comprising “old wives” tales and based on maternal
experiences of childbirth has also been noted. These discourses have also been acknowledged in work
exploring the experiences of those who apparently do not “conform” to conventional stereotypes of the
“good mother”?
A EDBC
B BCED
C DBCE
D EDCB
E BCDE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Sentence A talks about 2 discernible fources. Sentence E starts with "in addition, a third .....". Hence, AE is a
mandatory pair.
"These frameworks" in sentence D is explained in E. So, it only makes sense for D to follow E.
Through the words "dominant discourse" in sentence B and "historical work" in sentence C, we can say that C
follows B.
=> EDBC is the answer.

Question 24
A. Indonesia has experienced dramatic shifts in its formal governance arrangements since the fall of
President Soeharto and the close of his centralized, authoritarian "New Order" regime in 1997.
B. The political system has taken its place in the nearly 10 years since Reformasi began. It has featured the
active contest for political office among a proliferation of parties at central, provincial and district levels;
direct elections for the presidency (since 2004); and radical changes in centre-local government relations
towards administrative, fiscal, and political decentralization.
C. The mass media, once tidily under Soeharto's thumb, has experienced significant liberalization, as has
the legal basis for non-governmental organizations, including many dedicated to such controversial issues
as corruption control and human rights.
D. Such developments are seen optimistically by a number of donors and some external analysts, who
interpret them as signs of Indonesia's political normalization.
E. A different group of analysts paint a picture in which the institutional forms have changed, but power
relations have not. Vedi Hadiz argues that Indonesia's "democratic transition" has been anything but linear.
A BDEC
B CBDE
C CEBD
D DEBC
E BCDE
Answer: E
Explanation:
The argument given by Vedi Hadiz in statement E is not discussed in any other sentence => sentence E is
last.
Out of B and C , B is appropriate statement which should follow A because the first sentence talks about
formal governance shifts and B correctly follows by talking abou the general political system in Indonesia.
After discussing about changes in political system, discussing about changes in mass media would be apt =>
C follows B
=> B - C - D - E is the answer

Question 25
A. I had six thousand acres of land, arid had thus got much spare land besides the coffee plantation. Part of
the farm was native forest, and about one thousand acres were squatters' land, what [the Kikuyu] called
their shambas.
B. The squatters' land was more intensely alive than the rest of the farm, and was changing with the
seasons the year round. The maize grew up higher than your head as you walked on the narrow hard-
trampled footpaths in between the tall green rustling regiments.
C. The squatters are Natives, who with their families hold a few acres on a white man's farm, and in return
have to work for him a certain number of days in the year. -My squatters, I think, saw the relationship in a
different light, for many of them were born on the farm, and their fathers before them, and they very likely
regarded me as a sort of superior squatter on their estates.
D. The Kikuyu also grew the sweet potatoes that have a vine like leaf and spread over the ground like a
dense entangled mat, and many varieties of big yellow and green speckled pumpkins.
E. The beans ripened in the fields, were gathered and thrashed by the women, and the maize stalks and
coffee pods were collected and burned, so that in certain seasons thin blue columns of smoke rose here
and there all over the farm.
A CBDE
B BCDE
C CBED
D DBCE
E EDBC
Answer: C
Explanation:
"Squatters" mentioned in sentence A is discussed in sentence C => C follows A.
After description of who squatters are, description of squatters' land would be apt => B follows C.
The sentence "The maize grew up ...... " in sentence B needs sentence E to follow it to make sense.
=> C - B - E - D is the answer.
Free CAT Exam Preparation App
Quant
Instructions
Directions for the following four questions: Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Indicate
your responses based on data sufficiency
Question 26
The average weight of a class of 100 students is 45 kg. The class consists of two sections, I and II, each
with 50 students. The average weight, WI , of Section I is smaller than the average weight, WII , of Section
II. If the heaviest student, say Deepak, of Section II is moved to Section I, and the lightest student, say
Poonam, of Section I is moved to Section II, then the average weights of the two sections are switched, i.e.,
the average weight of Section I becomes WII and that of Section II becomes WI . What is the weight of
Poonam?
A: WII − WI = 1.0
B: Moving Deepak from Section II to I (without any move from I to II) makes the average weights of the two
sections equal.
A The question can be answered using A alone but not using B alone.
B The question can be answered using B alone but not using A alone.
C The question can be answered using A and B together, but not using either A or B alone.
D The question cannot be answered even using A and B together.
E None of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let w1 and w2 be average of both the groups respectively.
Since average of whole class is 45. 50∗w1+50∗w2

100 = 45 => w1 + w2 = 90
And if we consider case A we have w2-w1 = 1. From the two equations average weight can be found out.
Further using the equations deduced from given condition which are : 50∗w1−l+h
50
= w2 and
50∗w2+l−h
50 = w1 where l and h is weight of poonam and deepak respectively. However, both of the above
equations are effectively the same. Hence we have two equations and 3 unknowns, thus we cannot find the
weights by using statement I alone.
If we consider statement B, then we can get another equation. So we will have 3 equations and then we can
solve them for the 3 variables.
So both the equations are required to answer the question.
Free CAT Study Material

Question 27
ABC Corporation is required to maintain at least 400 Kilolitres of water at all times in its factory, in order to
meet safety and regulatory requirements. ABC is considering the suitability of a spherical tank with uniform
wall thickness for the purpose. The outer diameter of the tank is 10 meters. Is the tank capacity adequate
to meet ABC’s requirements?
A: The inner diameter of the tank is at least 8 meters.
B: The tank weighs 30,000 kg when empty, and is made of a material with density of 3 gm/cc.
E None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
Using statement A alone, we can determine the inner volume of the tank to be at least 4/3 π (125-64) = 256
m3 .
But we do not know if it is more than 400 m3 . So, using statement A alone, we cannot determine the answer.
Using statement B alone, volume of tank = 30000 kg / 3gm/cc = 107 ∗ 10−6 = 10 m3
So, inner volume = 4/3 π 125 - 10 > 400 m3
So, using statement B alone, we can answer the question
Question 28
Consider integers x, y and z. What is the minimum possible value of x2 + y2 + z2 ?

A: x + y + z = 89
B: Among x, y, z two are equal.
E None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
We know that the x2 + y 2 + z 2 will be minimum when x = y = z = 89/3
Since that is not an integer, we can consider integer values that are closest to 89/3
Let x = y = 30 and z = 29 => x2 + y 2 + z 2 = 2641
If x = y = 29 and z = 31,x2 + y 2 + z 2 = 2643
So, the minimum is 2641
So, the question can be answered using statment 1 alone
Using statement 2 alone, we cannot answer the question.
Option a)
Question 29
Rahim plans to draw a square JKLM with a point O on the side JK but is not successful. Why is Rahim
unable to draw the square?
A: The length of OM is twice that of OL.
B: The length of OM is 4 cm
E None of these
Answer: A
Explanation: If the side of the square is x cm, then the maximum length of OM is 2 x
The minimum length of OL is x.
So, OM can never be 2 times OL
So, using statement A alone, we can conclude that Rahim is unable to draw the square.
Using statement B alone, we cannot answer the question.
So, option a) is the correct answer.
CAT Percentile Predictor

Instructions
Directions for the following two questions: Cities A and B are in different time zones. A is located 3000 km
east of B. The table below describes the schedule of an airline operating non-stop flights between A and B. All
the times indicated are local and on the same day.
Assume that planes cruise at the same speed in both directions. However, the effective speed is influenced
by a steady wind blowing from east to west at 50 km per hour.
Question 30
What is the time difference between A and B?
A 1 hour and 30 minutes
B 2 hours
C 2 hours and 30 minutes
D 1 hour
E Cannot be determined
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the speed of the plane be p Kmph.
So the speed of plane from A to B will be 'p+50' and the speed from B to A will be 'p-50'.
We notice that the plane goes from B to A stays there for 1 hr and again come back to B with total time
duration 12 hrs.
3000 3000
So we have p−50 +1+ p+50 = 12.
We can clearly see that speed of the plane is 550 which satisfies the above equation.
3000
So from going to A from B the plane takes 550−50 = 6 hrs.
So time at B when plane reaches at A is 2 pm .
Hence the time difference between A and B is 1 hr.
Question 31
What is the plane’s cruising speed in km per hour?
A 700
B 550
C 600
D 500
E Cannot be determined.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the speed of the plane be p Kmph.
So the speed of plane from A to B will be 'p+50' and the speed from B to A will be 'p-50'.
We notice that the plane goes from B to A stays there for 1 hr and again come back to B with total time
duration 12 hrs.
3000 3000
So we have p−50 +1+ p+50
= 12.
On substituting the options, we can clearly see that speed of the plane is 550 which satisfies the above
equation.
Instructions
Directions for the following two questions: Shabnam is considering three alternatives to invest her surplus
cash for a week. She wishes to guarantee maximum returns on her investment. She has three options, each
of which can be utilized fully or partially in conjunction with others.
Option A: Invest in a public sector bank. It promises a return of +0.10%.
Option B: Invest in mutual funds of ABC Ltd. A rise in the stock market will result in a return of +5%, while a
fall will entail a return of – 3%.
Option C: Invest in mutual funds of CBA Ltd. A rise in the stock market will result in a return of – 2.5%, while a
fall will entail a return of + 2%.
Question 32
The maximum guaranteed return to Shabnam is
A 0.25%
B 0.10%
C 0.20%
D 0.15%
E 0.30%
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let a, b and c be the percentages of amount invested in options A, B and C respectively => a + b + c = 100
Return attained if there is a rise in the stock market => 0.001a + 0.05b - 0.025c
Return attained if there is a fall in the stock market => 0.001a - 0.03b + 0.02c
Maximum guaranteed return is attained when both are equal because it is indifferent to rise and fall in the
market.
0.001a + 0.05b - 0.025c = 0.001a - 0.03b + 0.02c
=> 0.08b = 0.045c => 16b = 9c
Let's put the values for a, b and c that satisfy the above equation.
b = 9, c = 16, a = 75 => return = 0.125
b = 18, c = 32, a = 50 => return = 0.15
b = 27, c = 48, a = 25 => return = 0.175
b = 36, c = 64, a = 0 => return = 0.2
Hence, the maximum guaranteed return is 0.2%
About CAT exam

Question 33
What strategy will maximize the guaranteed return to Shabnam?
A 100% in option A
B 36% in option B and 64% in option C
C 64% in option B and 36% in option C
D 1/3 in each of the three options
E 30% in option A, 32% in option B and 38% in option C
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let a, b and c be the percentages of amount invested in options A, B and C respectively => a + b + c = 100
Return attained if there is a rise in the stock market => 0.001a + 0.05b - 0.025c
Return attained if there is a fall in the stock market => 0.001a - 0.03b + 0.02c
Maximum guaranteed return is attained when both are equal because it is indifferent to rise and fall in the
market.
0.001a + 0.05b - 0.025c = 0.001a - 0.03b + 0.02c
=> 0.08b = 0.045c => 16b = 9c
Let's put the values for a, b and c that satisfy the above equation.
b = 9, c = 16, a = 75 => return = 0.125
b = 18, c = 32, a = 50 => return = 0.15
b = 27, c = 48, a = 25 => return = 0.175
b = 36, c = 64, a = 0 => return = 0.2
Hence, the maximum guaranteed return is 0.2% and it is attained when 36% is invested in option B and 64% is
invested in option C.
Instructions
Directions for the following two questions:
Let S be the set of all pairs (i, j) where 1 <= i < j <= n , and n >= 4. Any two distinct members of S are called
“friends” if they have one constituent of the pairs in common and “enemies” otherwise.
For example, if n = 4, then S = {(1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 4)}. Here, (1, 2) and (1, 3) are friends, (1,2)
and (2, 3) are also friends, but (1,4) and (2, 3) are enemies.
Question 34
For general n, how many enemies will each member of S have?
A n − 3
2
B (1/2)(n − 3n − 2)
C 2n − 7
D (1/2)(n2 − 5n + 6)
E (1/2)(n2 − 7n − 14)

Answer: D
Explanation:
Any ordered pair has 2 elements => There are n-2 elements that are not present in the ordered pair.
The number of enemies of any ordered pair is all the ordered pairs in the set formed using the numbers other
than these two elements = n−2 C2 = 1/2 ∗ (n2 − 5n + 6).
Question 35
For general n, consider any two members of S that are friends. How many other members of S will be
common friends of both these members?
2
A (n −5n+8)
2
B 2n − 6
n(n−3)
C 2
D n − 2
2
E (n −7n+16)
2
Answer: D
Explanation:
For n, the number of elements in set S is n C2 .
Tho friends have 3 numbers in total and 1 common element.
The number of common friends is the set formed by the non-common elements of the friends plus the
number of elements in the set which have the common element other than the two friends = 1 + n-1 - 2 = n-2.
Daily Test CAT Questions

Instructions
Mr. David manufactures and sells a single product at a fixed price in a niche market. The selling price of each
unit is Rs. 30. On the other hand, the cost, in rupees, of producing x units is 240 + bx + cx2 , where b and c
are some constants. Mr. David noticed that doubling the daily production from 20 to 40 units increases the
daily production cost by 66.67%. However, an increase in daily production from 40 to 60 units results in an
increase of only 50% in the daily production cost. Assume that demand is unlimited and that Mr. David can
sell as much as he can produce. His objective is to maximize the profit.
Question 36
How many units should Mr. David produce daily?
A 130
B 100
C 70
D 150
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cost of 20 units = 240+20b+400c
Cost of 40 units = 240+40b+1600c = 5/3 * (240+20b+400c) => 720+120b+4800c = 1200+100b+2000c
=> 480 = 20b + 2800c => 120 = 5b + 700c
Cost of 60 units = 240+60b+3600c = 3/2 (240+40b+1600c) => 480 + 120b + 7200c = 720 + 120b + 4800c
=> 240 = 2400c => c = 1/10 and b = 10
Let the number of items needed for max profit be k
CP = 240 + 10k + k2 /10
SP = 30k
Profit = SP - CP = 30k − 240 − 10k − k2 /10 = 20k − 240 − k2 /10

1
or Profit = 10 (−k2 + 200k − 2400)
1
or, Profit = 10 (−(k2 − 200k + 2400))
1
or, Profit = 10 (−(k 2 − 200k + 2400 + 7600 − 7600))
1
or, Profit = 10 (−(k2 − 200k + 10000) + 7600)
1
or, Profit = 10 (−(k − 100)2 + 7600)
To maximise the value of Profit, −(k − 100)2 must be 0.
So, k must be equal to 100.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Question 37
What is the maximum daily profit, in rupees, that Mr. David can realize from his business?
A 620
B 920
C 840
D 760
Answer: D
Explanation: Cost of 20 units = 240+20b+400c

Cost of 40 units = 240+40b+1600c = 5/3 * (240+20b+400c) => 720+120b+4800c = 1200+100b+2000c
=> 480 = 20b + 2800c => 120 = 5b + 700c
Cost of 60 units = 240+60b+3600c = 3/2 (240+40b+1600c) => 480 + 120b + 7200c = 720 + 120b + 4800c
=> 240 = 2400c => c = 1/10 and b = 10
Let the number of items needed for max profit be k
CP = 240 + 10k + k 2 /10
SP = 30k
Profit = SP - CP = 30k − 240 − 10k − k 2 /10 = 20k − 240 − k 2 /10
Maximum when 20 - k/5 = 0 or k = 100
Profit = 2000 - 240 - 1000 = 760
Instructions
Let a1 = p and b1 = q , where p and q are positive quantities.

Define an = pbn−1 , bn = qbn−1 , for even n > 1. and an = pan−1 , bn = qan−1 , for odd n > 1.
Question 38
Which of the following best describes an + bn for even n?
A q(pq)(n/2)−1 (p + q)n/2
B q(pq)(n/2)−1 (p + q)
C qpn/2 (p + q)
D q n/2 (p + q)
E q n/2 (p + q)n/2
Answer: B
Explanation:
an + bn for even n = p ∗ bn−1 + q ∗ bn−1
= (p + q) ∗ bn−1
bn−1 = q ∗ an−2 = qp ∗ bn−3
= q2 ∗ p ∗ an−4 = q 2 p2 ∗ bn−5
= (qp)n/2−1 ∗ b1 = (qp)n/2−1 ∗ q
So, an + bn = q(pq)(n/2)−1 (p + q)
Free CAT Doubt Solving Group

Question 39
If p = 1/3 and q = 2/3 , then what is the smallest odd n such that an + bn < 0.01?
A 7
B 13
C 11
D 9
E 15
Answer: D
Explanation:
n+1 n−1 n−1 n+1 n−1
an + bn (n is odd) = p 2 ∗q 2 +p 2 ∗q 2 = (p + q)pq 2
Substituting the values of p and q we get

n−1
an + bn = ( 29 ) 2
Now substitute the values of n and check.
We can see that the lowest value of n for which
an + bn < .01 is 9
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Question 40
Consider the set S = {2, 3, 4, ...., 2n+1}, where n is a positive integer larger than 2007. Define X as the
average of the odd integers in S and Y as the average of the even integers in S. What is the value of X - Y ?
A 0
B 1
C (1/2)*n
D (n+1)/2n
E 2008
Answer: B
Explanation:
The odd numbers in the set are 3, 5, 7, ...2n+1
Sum of the odd numbers = 3+5+7+...+(2n+1) = n2 + 2n

Average of odd numbers = n2 + 2n/n = n+2
Sum of even numbers = 2 + 4 + 6 + ... + 2n = 2(1+2+3+...+n) = 2*n*(n+1)/2 = n(n+1)
Average of even numbers = n(n+1)/n = n+1
So, difference between the averages of even and odd numbers = 1
Question 41
Ten years ago, the ages of the members of a joint family of eight people added up to 231 years. Three years
later, one member died at the age of 60 years and a child was born during the same year. After another
three years, one more member died, again at 60, and a child was born during the same year. The current
average age of this eight-member joint family is nearest to
[CAT 2007]
A 23 years
B 22 years
C 21 years
D 25 years
E 24 years
Answer: E
Explanation:
Ten years ago, the total age of the family is 231 years.
Seven years ago, (Just before the death of the first person), the total age of the family would have been
231+8*3 = 231+24 = 255.
After the death of one member and the birth of a child, the total age is 195 years.
Four years ago, after the death of one member and birth of another child, the total age of the family is
195+24-60 = 159 years.
The current total age of the family is = 8x4 + 159 = 191 years
The average age is 191/8 = 23.875 years = 24 years (approx)
Know the CAT Percentile Required for IIM Calls

Question 42
A function f (x) satisfies f (1) = 3600, and f (1) + f (2) + ... + f (n) = n2 f (n), for all positive
integers n > 1. What is the value of f (9) ?
A 80
B 240
C 200
D 100
E 120
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to given conditions we get f(2)=f(3)/3 , then f(3)=f(1)/6, then f(4)=f(1)/10 , then f(5)=f(1)/15 .
We can see the pattern here that the denominator goes on increasing from 3,3+3,6+4,10+5,15+6,.. so for the
f(9) the denominator will be same as 15+6+7+8+9=45 .
So f(9)=3600/45 = 80
Question 43
Suppose you have a currency, named Miso, in three denominations: 1 Miso, 10 Misos and 50 Misos. In how
many ways can you pay a bill of 107 Misos?
A 17
B 16
C 18
D 15
E 19
Answer: C
Explanation:
If two 50 Misos are used, the 107 can be paid in only 1 way.
If one 50 Miso is used, the number of ways of paying 107 is 6 - zero 10 Miso, one 10 Miso and so on till five
10 Misos.
If no 50 Miso is used, the number of ways of paying 107 is 11 - zero 10 Miso, one 10 Miso and so on till ten
10 Misos.
So, the total number of ways is 18
Question 44
A confused bank teller transposed the rupees and paise when he cashed a cheque for Shailaja, giving her
rupees instead of paise and paise instead of rupees. After buying a toffee for 50 paise, Shailaja noticed that
she was left with exactly three times as much as the amount on the cheque. Which of the following is a
valid statement about the cheque amount?
A Over Rupees 13 but less than Rupees 14
B Over Rupees 7 but less than Rupees 8
C Over Rupees 22 but less than Rupees 23
D Over Rupees 18 but less than Rupees 19
E Over Rupees 4 but less than Rupees 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the value of cheque be x Rs and y ps and the amount she received is y Rs and x ps.
After 50 ps is deducted she has the amount which is 3 times the amount on cheque so y Rs and x-50 ps = x
Rs and y ps.
Now using the options, and substituting the values, we see that only option D gives the correct value.
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Question 45
How many pairs of positive integers m, n satisfy 1/m + 4/n = 1/12 , where n is an odd integer less than 60?
A 6
B 4
C 7
D 5
E 3
Answer: E
Explanation: 1/m + 4/n = 1/12

So, 1/m = 1/12 - 4/n
So, m = 12n/(n-48)
Since m is positive, n should be greater than 48
Also, since n is an odd number, it can take only 49, 51, 53, 55, 57 and 59
If n = 49, 51, 57 then m is an integer, else it is not an integer
So, there are 3 pairs of values for which the equation is satisfied
Question 46
In a tournament, there are n teams T1 , T2 ....., Tn with n > 5. Each team consists of k players, k > 3. The
following pairs of teams have one player in common: T1 & T2 , T2 & T3 ,......, Tn−1 & Tn , and Tn & T1 . No
other pair of teams has any player in common. How many players are participating in the tournament,
considering all the n teams together?
A n (k - 1)
B k (n - 1)
C n (k - 2)
D k (k - 2)
E (n - 1)(k - 1)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The number of players in all the teams put together = k * n
The number of players that are common is 1*n = n
So, the number of players in the tournament = kn - n = n(k-1)
Question 47
Consider four digit numbers for which the first two digits are equal and the last two digits are also equal.
How many such numbers are perfect squares?
A 3
B 2
C 4
D 0
E 1
Answer: E
Explanation:
Let the number be xxyy
xxyy = 1000x + 100x + 10y +y = 1100x+11y = 11(100x+y)
Since xxyy is a perfect square, and 11 is one of the factors, it should be a multiple of 121
So, xxyy = 121k, where k is also a perfect square.
For k = 4, xxyy is a 3 digit number and for k > 82, xxyy is a five digit number
Between 4 and 82, only for k = 64, the number is of the form xxyy
121*64 = 7744
So, there is only 1 number 7744 which is of the form xxyy and a perfect square.
Alternatively:
The number should be definitely more than 32 and less than 100 as the square is a two digit number.
A number of such form can be written as (50 ± a) and 100 − a where 0 ≤ a ≤ 100
So, the square would be of form (50 ± a)2 = 2500 + a2 ± 100a or (100 − a)2 i.e. 10000 + a2 + 200a
In both cases, only a2 contributes to the tens and ones digit. Among squares from 0 to 25, only 12 square i.e.
144 has repeating tens and ones digit. So, the number can be 38, 62, or 88. Checking these squares only 88
square is in the form of xxyy i.e. 7744.
How to prepare for Data Interpretation for CAT

Question 48
The price of Darjeeling tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 100 + 0.10n, on the nth day of 2007 (n=1, 2, ..., 100),
and then remains constant. On the other hand, the price of Ooty tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 89 + 0.15n,
on the nth day of 2007 (n = 1, 2, ..., 365). On which date in 2007 will the prices of these two varieties of tea
be equal?
A May 21
B April 11
C May 20
D April 10
E June 30
Answer: C
Explanation:
Price of Darjeeling tea on 100th day= 100+(0.1*100)=110
Price of Ooty tea on nth day= 89+0.15n
Let us assume that the price of both varieties of tea would become equal on nth day where n<=100
So
89+0.15n=100+0.1n
n=220 which does not satisfy the condition of n<=100
So the price of two varieties would become equal after 100th day.
89+0.15n=110
n=140
140th day of 2007 is May 20 (Jan=31,Feb=28,March=31,April=30,May=20)
Question 49
Two circles with centres P and Q cut each other at two distinct points A and B. The circles have the same
radii and neither P nor Q falls within the intersection of the circles. What is the smallest range that includes
all possible values of the angle AQP in degrees?
A Between 0 and 90
B Between 0 and 30
C Between 0 and 60
D Between 0 and 75
E Between 0 and 45
Answer: C
Explanation:
To know the range, we have to take the limiting case.
The limiting case in this case is when the circles pass through each other's centers.
In this case, PQ = AP = AQ => They form an equilateral triangle => angle AQP = 60 degrees.
So, the maximum possible angle is 60 degrees.
Another limiting case is when the circles touch each other externally.
In this case, angle AQP = 0 degrees.
Hence, the range is 0 to 60.

Question 50
A quadratic function f(x) attains a maximum of 3 at x = 1. The value of the function at x = 0 is 1. What is the
value of f (x) at x = 10?
A -119
B -159
C -110
D -180
E -105
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the function be ax2 + bx + c.
We know that x=0 value is 1 so c=1.
So equation is ax2 + bx + 1.
Now max value is 3 at x = 1.
So after substituting we get a + b = 2.
If f(x) attains a maximum at 'a' then the differential of f(x) at x=a, that is, f'(a)=0.
So in this question f'(1)=0
=> 2*(1)*a+b = 0
=> 2a+b = 0.
Solving the equations we get a=-2 and b=4.
−2x2 + 4x + 1 is the equation and on substituting x=10, we get -159.
How to prepare for CAT exam at Home
Data Interpretation
Instructions
Directions for the following four questions:
A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for
certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can
be used in different proportions in the formulations.
The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is
O: 150, P: 50, Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
Question 51
For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing 10% minerals and at least 30%
protein. In how many different ways can we prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients?
A One
B Two
C Three
D Four
E None
Answer: A
Explanation:
We want a diet with 10% minerals and at least 30% protien. The mixture of O and Q is suitable because both
contain 10% minerals.In required proportion we can get 10% minerals and at least 30% proteins.
Solution P and R contains minerals which are less than 10% and maximum mineral %age in any component is
10. So if we include P or R in any mixture,we can't get 10% mineral %age.
So only 1 solution of O and Q is possible.
How to prepare for Logical Reasoning for CAT

Question 52
Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat and
at least 30% protein? The diet has to be formed by mixing two ingredients.
A P and Q
B P and S
C P and R
D Q and S
E R and S
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option A: P and Q in 4:1 ratio gives fat 10% but the protein is 22%
Option B: P and S do not contain fat. Hence we wont analyse the option.
Option C: P and R in 3:1 ratio gives fat 10% but the protein is 27.5%
Option D: Q and S in 1:4 gives fat and protein as 10% and 46 %.
Cost of the mixture= [(1*200)+(4*100)]/5=120
Option E: R and S in 1:3 gives 10% fat and 50%protein.

Cost of the mixture= [(1*500)+(3*100)]/4=200
Question 53
In what proportion P, Q and S should be mixed to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest
per unit cost?
A 2 : 1 : 3
B 4 : 1 : 2
C 2 : 1 : 4
D 3 : 1: 2
E 4 : 1 : 1
Answer: E
Explanation:
P,Q,S contain 80%,10% and 45% carbohydrates respectively.
Option A,C and D does not contain 60% carbohydrates.
Option E: Carbohydrate %=[(4*80)+(1*10)+(1*45)]/6= 62.5%

Cost per unit=[(4*50)+(200)+100]/6=83.3
Option B: Carbohydrate %=[(4*80)+(1*20)+(2*45)]/7= 61.4%

Cost per unit=[(4*50)+(200)+(2*100)]/7=600/7=85.7
Question 54
The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children. This
diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5%
minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible?
A O and P
B R and S
C P and S
D Q and R
E O and S
Answer: E
Explanation:
Two ingredients are mixed in equal proportion. So, the minimum amount of protein and carbohydrate should
be 60 each, the minimum amount of minerals is 10 and the maximum amount of fat is 50. The combination
of O and S satisfies this requirement.
How to prepare for Quantitative aptitude for CAT

Instructions
Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following
instructions:
Question 55
In a particular school, sixty students were athletes. Ten among them were also among the top academic
performers. How many top academic performers were in the school?
A. Sixty per cent of the top academic performers were not athletes.
B. All the top academic performers were not necessarily athletes.
A The question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone.
B The question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A alone.
C The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone
The question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements
D
alone.
E The question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Answer: A
Explanation:
No. of athletes which are top academic performers: 10
According to statement a) Sixty per cent of the top academic performers were not athletes so 40% of top
academic performers are athletes which we know is 10. So total no. of top academic performers are 25.
Hence statement a is alone to answer the question.
while we cant deduce anything from statement b .
Question 56
Five students Atul, Bala, Chetan, Dev and Ernesto were the only ones who participated in a quiz contest.
They were ranked based on their scores in the contest. Dev got a higher rank as compared to Ernesto, while
Bala got a higher rank as compared to Chetan. Chetan’s rank was lower than the median. Who among the
five got the highest rank?
A. Atul was the last rank holder.
B. Bala was not among the top two rank holders.
C The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
D
alone.
Answer: D
Explanation:
From the information given in the question, D has a better rank than E and B has a better rank than C. Also, C
= 4 or 5.
From statement A, A = 5 => C = 4. But we do not know if D or B is number 1.
From statement B, B = 3 or 4. Again, we cannot determine the number 1 rank precisely.
By using both the statements together, we know C = 4, A = 5, B = 3 and D has a better rank than E.
So, D = 1 and E = 2. Therefore, the question can be answered by using both the statements together.
Hence, option D.
Question 57
Thirty per cent of the employees of a call centre are males. Ten per cent of the female employees have an
engineering background. What is the percentage of male employees with engineering background?
A. Twenty five per cent of the employees have engineering background.
B. Number of male employees having an engineering background is 20% more than the number of female
employees having an engineering background
D
alone.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the total number of employees be 100k.
Number of males = 30k. Number of females = 70k.
Number of female engineers = 7k.
From statement A, number of male engineers = 25k - 7k = 18k.
From statement B, number of male engineers = (6/5)*7k.
Therefore, percentage of male engineers can be calculated.
So, the question can be answered by either statement alone.
Data Interpretation for CAT Questions (download pdf)

Question 58
In a football match, at the half-time, Mahindra and Mahindra Club was trailing by three goals. Did it win the
match?
A. In the second-half Mahindra and Mahindra Club scored four goals.
B. The opponent scored four goals in the match.
D
alone.
Answer: E
Explanation:
From statement A, we know that the club scored four goals in the second half but we do not know the
number of goals scored by the opposition. So, we cannot answer the question.
From statement B, we know that the opposition scored 4 goals in the match but we do not know the number
of goals scored by Mahindra and Mahindra club. So, we cannot answer the question.
Using both the statements, we know that the opposition scored 4 goals in the match and Mahindra and
Mahindra scored 4 goals in the second half. But, we do not know if the score was 3-0 or 4-1 at the end of first
half. If it was 4-1, then Mahindra and Mahindra would win the match after the second half. But if the score
was 3-0 at the end of first half, the match would end in a draw after the second half.
Therefore, the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Instructions
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.

The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to
year 2006) to produce a particular product.
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per
unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do
not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered
fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year
2007, answer the following questions:
Question 59
What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company produces and sells 1400 units in the year
2007?
A 104
B 107
C 110
D 115
E 116
Answer: B
Explanation:
Fixed costs in 2006 are consumables, rent of building, rates and taxes, repair and maintenance expenses and
selling and marketing expenses. We can see this from the trend followed in the years 2002-2006.
Fixed costs in 2006 = 1400 + 1200 + 400 + 800 + 5800 = 9600
We can see that that material , labour and operation costs depend on no. of units.
If we take units = x .
Total cost of these 3 materials is 50x +20x+30x = 100x and remaining fixed cost taking same as in 2006 we
get , 9600+100x , but here x = 1400.
We have total cost per unir (9600+100*1400)/1400 = 107(approx).
Hence option B.

Question 60
What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss?
A 313
B 350
C 384
D 747
E 928
Answer: C
Explanation:
Fixed costs in 2006 = 1400 + 1200 + 400 + 800 + 5800 = 9600 => fixed costs in 2007 are same.
get , 9600+100x.
As the selling price is 125, we have 100x + 9600 < 125*x.
Solving this we get x = 384.
Hence option C.
Logical Reasoning for CAT Questions (download pdf)

Question 61
If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units
the company should produce to maximize its profit?
A 1400
B 1600
C 1800
D 1900
E 2000
Answer: E
Explanation:
get , 9600+100x.
Selling price is reduced by 5% => SP = 125 * 0.95 = Rs 118.75
Profit = 118.75x - 100x - 9600 = 18.75x - 9600
Profit will be maximum when x is maximum
=> 2000 units.
Question 62
Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all
units if it wants to sell more than 1400 units. What is the maximum profit that can be realized provided that
the company sells more than 1400 units?
A 25,400
B 24,400
C 31,400
D 32,900
E 32,000
Answer: B
Explanation:
get , 9600+100x.
Selling price = 125 - 5 = Rs 120.
Profit = 120x - 100x - 9600 = 20x - 9600
When x = 1700 => Profit = 20*1700 - 9600 = 34000 - 9600 = Rs 24400.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following four questions:
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below. The
school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided
between Class 11 and 12.
Question 63
What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?
A 40
B 45
C 50
D 55
E 60
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to given condition No of male students in 11,12 and in total are 44 , 48 and 380.
So No of males in secondary are 380-44-48=288.
288 students => 45% of total secondary students.
Quantitative Aptitude for CAT Questions (download pdf)

Question 64
In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of
female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?
A less than 8
B 10
C 12
D 14
E 16
Answer: E
Explanation:
There are 640 secondary section students, 80 11th class students and 80 12th class students.
If the fraction of vegetarians in 12th class is x, then
80x + 80*0.5 + 640*0.55 = 0.53*800
=> x + 0.5 + 4.4 = 5.3 => x = 0.4
=> There are 32 vegetarian students in class 12.
25% of class 12 i.e 8 are males.
So there are 24 vegetarian female students.
No. of non-veg males = 40 and veg females=24. Required answer 40 - 24 = 16.
Question 65
What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12?
A 40
B 45
C 50
D 55
E 60
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are 640 secondary section students, 80 11th class students and 80 12th class students.
If the fraction of vegetarians in 12th class is x, then
80x + 80*0.5 + 640*0.55 = 0.53*800
=> x + 0.5 + 4.4 = 5.3 => x = 0.4
=> 40% are vegetarians in class 12.
Question 66
In the Secondary Section, 50% of the males are vegetarian. Which of the following statements is correct?
A Except vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students.
B Except non-vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students.
C Except vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of students.
D Except non-vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of students.
E All of the above groups have the same number of students.
Answer: C
Explanation:
x is the fraction of male members in the secondary section.
0.6*80 + 0.55*80 + 640x = 800*0.475
=> 0.6 + 0.55 + 8x = 4.75
=> 8x = 3.6 => x = 0.45
=> 45% are males and 55% are females => 288 males and 352 females
=> There are 144 vegetarian males and 208 vegetarian females .
Also there are 144 non-vegetarian males and 144 non-vegetarian females.
So leaving vegetarian females all others are same in nos.
IIFT previous papers (download pdf)

Instructions
The Table I shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian
countries.
The equivalent of US Dollar in the local currencies is given in Table II.
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A
poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting
mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in Table III
Question 67
A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee replacement.
Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which
country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account?
A India
B Thailand
C Malaysia
D Singapore
E USA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Total cost incurred by the american citizen in various countries after taking cost of poor quality into account
is ( in '000 USD)
America - 57 + 43 + 40 = 140
India - 11 + 9 + 8.5 + 5 + 7 + 9 = 49.5
Thailand - 13 + 12 + 10 + 5 + 5 + 6 = 51
Singapore - 13 + 12 + 13 + 4 + 5 + 4 = 51
Malaysia - 11 + 10 + 8 + 6 + 8 + 4 = 47
Hence the cheapest country is Malaysia.
Question 68
Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for knee
replacement?
A India
B Thailand
C Malaysia
D Singapore
E India and Singapore
Answer: A
Explanation:
Knee replacement cost in the countries given in the options are :
India - 17.5
Thailand - 16
Malaysia - 17
Singapore - 12.
Hence the costliest treatment is in India.
Question 69
Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a
hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? It
costs 7500 Bahts for oneway travel between Thailand and India.
A 23500
B 40500
C 57500
D 67500
E 75000
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cost of treatment in India in USD ('000) 8 and in Thailand 10.5.
So she pays 2.5 more in Thailand.
Converting in Bahts we get 82500.
Subtracting the total travelling cost of 15000 Baht from the above.
So difference is 67500 Bahts.
XAT previous papers (download pdf)

Question 70
The rupee value increases to Rs.35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same.
What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion,
taking this change into account?
A 700
B 2500
C 4500
D 8000
E No difference
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cost for operation in India is around = 5500*41.
After Rupee value increases, increased cost in USD = 5500*41/35 which is arount 6500 USD.
Thus the requires difference in price is 9000(for singapore) - 6500 = 2500 USD.
Instructions
A low-cost airline company connects ten India cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a
pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a
departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more
than two intermediate airports.
Question 71
What is the lowest possible fare, in rupees, from A to J?
A 2275
B 2850
C 2890
D 2930
E 3340
Answer: A
Explanation:
From the table we can see that, the lowest price would be from A to H and H to J.
The cost of travel from A to H = Rs 1850
The cost of travel from H to J = Rs 425
Total cost = 1850 + 425 = Rs 2275.

Question 72
The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that
all its existing passengers travelling between A and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the
minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this
direct flight?
A 1991
B 2161
C 2707
D 2745
E 2783
Answer: B
Explanation:
From the table we can see that, the lowest price would be from A to H and H to J.
The cost of travel from A to H = Rs 1850
The cost of travel from H to J = Rs 425
Total cost = 1850 + 425 = Rs 2275
Lowest price = Rs 2275
95% of 2275 = Rs 2161
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Question 73
If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, what would be the minimum price, in
rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J?
A 2275
B 2615
C 2850
D 2945
E 3190
Answer: C
Explanation:
If the airports C, D and H are closed down the minimum price to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J
would be by first travelling to F and then from F to J.
The cost of travel from A to F = Rs 1700
The cost of travel from F to J = Rs 1150
Total cost = 1700 + 1150 = Rs 2850
Question 74
If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, what is the minimum cost
per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J?
A 0.77
B 0.88
C 0.99
D 1.06
E 1.08
Answer: B
Explanation:
The minimum cost from A to J we know is 2275.
Now actual cost after subtracting the margin is 2275 - 227.5 = Rs 2047.5
The total distance is 1950+1400=2350 Km.
Cost per Km = Rs 2047.5

2350 = Rs 0.88/Km
Question 75
If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, which among the
following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for
the company?
A 2170
B 2180
C 2315
D 2350
E 2390
Answer: D
Explanation:
Even if If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, the total cost
company incurs would be minimum for route AHJ i.e 2350 km. Hence option D.
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Quantitative Aptitude for CAT Questions (download pdf)
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CAT 2007

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced,

What is the thematic highlight of this passage?

D Human behaviour depends on biological linkages and reciprocal roles.

E Reciprocal roles determine normative human behavior in society.

Option 3 is contrary to the passage.

Option E correctly captures the theme of the passage.

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E Waiters would have stronger motivation to serve their customers.

Except option B, all the options are normal.

By the example of the father, we can say that statement B is true.

DIRECTIONS for the following three questions:

A. When I returned to home, I began to read

B. everything I could get my hand on about Israel.

C. That same year Israel’s Jewish Agency sent

D. a Shaliach a sort of recruiter to Minneapolis.

E. I became one of his most active devotees.

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A. So once an economy is actually in recession,

B. The authorities can, in principle, move the economy

C. Out of slump - assuming hypothetically

D. That they know how to - by a temporary stimuli.

"a temporary stimulus" is the correct phrase => D is wrong.

Hence, only B is correct

A. It is sometimes told that democratic

B. government originated in the city-states

D. In truth, however, this is an unhelpful assertion.

In the passage, the expression “like a madonna from a madonna” alludes to

A The difference arising as a consequence of artistic license.

B The difference between two artistic interpretations.

D The difference between ‘width’ and ‘depth’ of creative power.

Option A is irrelavent as it is not discussed in the passage.

Option B is the answer.

CAT previous papers (download pdf)

The sea and ‘other creation’ leads Rilke to

A Deﬁne the place of the poet in his culture.

B Reﬂect on the role of the oarsman and the singer.

C Muse on artistic labour and its aim lessens.

D Understand the elements that one has to deal with.

E Delve into natural experience and real waves.

Option A is the correct answer.

According to the passage, the term “adventurers of experience” refers to

A Poets and artists who are driven by courage.

B Poets and artists who create their own genre.

E Poets and artists who delve in ﬂotsam and jetsam in sea.

Here the author refers to the poets of renaissance as adventurers of experience.

Option c) is the correct answer.

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C She had an intelligent secretary too.

D She was a good detective and a good woman.

What is the author attempting to illustrate through this passage?

A Relationships between rules, paradigms, and normal science

B How a historian would isolate a particular ‘loci of commitment’

C How a set of shared beliefs evolve in to a paradigm.

D Ways of understanding a scientiﬁc tradition

E The frustrations of attempting to deﬁne a paradigm of a tradition

Hence, Option d) is the correct answer.

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A Loyalty between a group of scientists in a research laboratory