‫ﺑﺴﻢ اﷲ اﻟﺮﺣﻤﻦ اﻟﺮﺣﻴﻢ‬

‫اﺗﺤﺎد ﻃﻼب ﻃﺐ ﻋﻴﻦ ﺷﻤﺲ ﺑﺎﻟﺘﻌﺎون ﻣﻊ ﻓﺮﻳﻖ‬

‫ﻣﻠﺰﻣﺔ اﻣﺘﺤﺎﻧﺎت اﻟﻔﺮﻗﺔ اﻟﺜﺎﻧﻴﺔ ﻳﻘﺪﻣﺎن‬

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 Index
Anatomy: 1 Biochemistry : 81
Head 11 Signal transduction 82
Neck 15 Carbohydrates Metabolism 83
Neuroanatomy 18 Bioenergetics 87
Abdomen 19 Lipid Metabolism 88
Pelvis 22 Protein Metabolism 91
Special Embryology 28 Collective questions around metabolism 95
MCQ 2011 34 Integration of metabolism 96
MCQ 2012 40 Xenobiotics and Free radicals 97
MCQ June 2013 47 Vitamins , Minerals & Nutrition 97
MCQ Sept 2013 48 Essay June 2013 100
Essay June 2013 Essay Sept 2013 101
Essay Sept 2013 49 Essay June 2014
Essay June 2014 51 Essay Sept 2014
Answers : Head 53 Answers : Signal transduction 103
Ans : Neck 54 Ans : CHO Metabolism 104
Ans : Neuroanatomy 56 Ans : Bioenergetics-Lipid Metabolism 105
Ans : Abdomen 56 Ans : Protein Metabolism 107
Ans : Pelvis 57 Ans : Collected questions 107
Ans : Embryology 57 Ans : Integration-Xenobiotics 108
Ans : MCQ 2011 58 Ans : Vitamins-Essay June 2013 108
Ans : MCQ 2012 63 Histology : 111
Ans : Essay June 2013 64 Oral cavity – GIT 112
Physiology : 65 Gut associated glands-Endocrine 113
Sensory 66 Urinary system 114
Motor 67 Male&Female genital system 115
Higher brain functions 68 Eye 116
Special senses 69 Ear-Nerve endings&CNS 117
Endocrine 70 Essay June 2013 119
Reproductive 72 Essay Sept 2013 120
Renal 73 Essay June 2014
Digestive 74 Essay Sept 2014
Metabolism 74 Answers : Oral cavity 120
Essay June 2013 Ans : GIT 121
Essay Sept 2013 Ans : Gut associated glands 123
Essay June 2014 75 Ans : Endocrine 124
Essay Sept 2014 76 Ans : Urinary 125
Answers : Sensory 77 Ans : Reproductive system 126
Ans : Motor – HBF Ans : Eye 128
Ans : Senses-Endocrine- 78 Ans : Ear-Nerve endings&CNS 129
Reproductive 79 Ans : Essay June 2013 131
Ans : Renal-GIT 79 Pshycology : 132
Ans : Metabolism MCQ questions 133
Ans : Essay June 2013 MCQ 2013 149
Answers 155

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Anatomy

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 Head
1. Mention Significance of bregma (Skull Cap) in skull.
2. Give an account on the scalp.
3. Give an account on Muscles of the scalp and their nerve supply.
4. Give an account on Venous drainage of the face &scalp including its surgical
significance.
5. Describe venous drainage of face & its applied anatomy. (May 2009)
6. Mention Arteries behind the ear in the scalp.
7. Mention Sensory innervations of external nose
8. Give an account on: Lateral wall of nose. (88,91)
9. Give an account on Layers of scalp and its nerve supply
(September 2004)
10. Mention: Termination of retromandibular vein (posterior facial)
11. Give an account on Nerve supply of the face (September 2005,2007)
12. Give the course & distribution of the facial nerve after its exit from the skull,
Comment on its injury at that site . (May 2008)
13. Give an account on Branches of facial artery in the face.
14. Give an account on Facial nerve . (89)
15. muscles of mastication (origin,insertion,nerve supply,action) (May 2001)
16. Give an account on Lateral pterygoid muscle. (90)
17. Give an account on Muscles of mastication . (September 2002)
18. The anatomy and content of parotid gland. (79,94)
19. Relations of the parotid gland. (September 2006)
20. Give the relations& the structures inside & nerve supply &anatomy of parotid
gland. (86,94,Sep2000,May 2005,Sep2006)
21. Give an account on The emissary veins and their surgical significance. (80,88)
22. Give an account on cavernous sinus (site, tributaries, communications, drainage
& its applied anatomy). (78,79,80,84,93,97,Sep 2000,May 2006)
23. Give the anatomy of pituitary gland (position, relations, blood supply, &
development) (May 2004)
24. Enumerate intra& extra-ocular muscles. Mention action & nerve supply of each.
(May 2007)
25. Give an account on Short ciliary nerves. (90)
26. Mandibular nerve, course, relation and distribution
(93,September 1998,Sep 2006)
27. Give an account on Course & distribution of the maxillary division of the
trigeminal nerve.
28. Give an account on Submandibular salivary gland, its blood supply, its relation,
its anatomy and its nerve supply. (80,88,Sep1999,May 2002,May 2003)
29. Give an account on Maxillary artery origin, termination, course, relations and
branches . (89,92,May 1998)
30. Give an account on muscles of tongue. ( May2000)
31. Give an account on Hyoglossus muscle (attachment , nerve supply , action &
relation) . (September 2007)

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32. Give an account on nerve supply of tongue. (September 2001& May 2002)
33. Give an account on Lymphatic drainage of tip of tongue. (90,97)
34. Give an account on the nerve supply ,mucous membrane and muscles of:
a) tongue b) larynx
35. Nerve supply and action of the following muscles: Digastric muscle,
temporalis muscle, geniohyoid muscle, cricothyroid muscle. (September 2004)
36. Describe action & nerve supply of the following muscles: hyoglossus, lateral
pterygoid , inferior oblique of eyeball, and (September 2008)
37. Give the origin, insertion,nerve supply & action of the following FIVE muscles:
Genioglossus, buccinator, sternocleidomastoid ,medial pterygoid &tensor
palate. (May 2004)
38. (Case):
A 5 years old child fell off his bicycle and his head hit the pavement. A 2 cm
long wound in his scalp was seen, but soon he was sitting in a pool of blood.
a) Why does a scalp wound bleed profusely? (1 mark)
b) How can u stop the bleeding if u r away from a hospital? (0.5 Mark)
c) Name arteries supplying the scalp? (2.5 Marks)
d) Which is the dangerous layer of the scalp? Why is it dangerous?
(1 Mark) (May2008)
39. (Case ) (5 marks):
A young man, while sucking a piece of lemon, noticed painful swelling below
the mandible with a small nodule related to the swelling. Examination revealed
a stone in the right submandibular duct.
a) Where does the duct open in the mouth? (1 mark)
b) Which nerve is intimately related to the duct? (1 mark)
c) What is the nerve supply of the submandibular gland? (2 marks)
d) Name structure related to lateral surface of the superficial part of the gland
(1 mark) (May 2010)
40. (Case ) (3 marks):
A 20 year old student was playing baseball when the ball hit him on the side of
the head.He immediately fell to the ground unconsciousness, but after about 30
seconds he felt well and decided to sit and watch the match. An hour later, he
felt so sleepy then he became unconscious. He was taken to the hospital. A skull
X-ray showed a fracture in the region of the pterion.
a) Define the pterion (1 mark)
b) Why are fractures in this region extremely dangerous?
(2 marks) .(May 2010)
41. (Case) :
During surgical removal of a tumor in the infratemporal fossa, an intense
hemorrhage occurred. The surgeon clamped the main source of arterial supply
to the area.
1.Which artery did the surgeon clamp to stop the hemorrhage
2.Name the main nerve located in the fossa and its branches
3.this patient complained of loss of taste ,sensation from anterior part of the

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 tongue after the operation. Can you account for this? Name the nucleus that
receives taste sensation (2011)
The answer:
1. The main arterial supply is the maxillary artery. (1 mark)
2. The main nerve is the mandibular nerve (5 marks)
Branches:
From the trunk: Nervus spinosus, nerve to medial pterygoid which supplies
medial pterygoid, tensor palate and tensor tympani.
From anterior division: buccal nerve, nerve to lateral pterygoid, nerve to masseter
and nerve to temporalis.
From posterior division: auriculotemporal nerve, lingual nerve and inferior alveolar
nerve
3. 3. Loss of taste sensation due to affection of chorda tympani which joins
lingual n.
The nucleus that receives taste sensation is the nucleus solitarius . (2 marks)
42. (Case):
A patient opened his mouth widely while yawning, after which he could not
close his mouth. (5 Marks)
1. Name the joint affected and its type. (2 Marks)
2. List ligaments of the joint. Which ligament is importantRight functionally ?
3.Mention the nerve supply of the joint (June 2012)
43. (Case) :
Apatient developed a benging swelling of the parotid glad (superficial lobe) the
doctor decided to excise it. (5 marks)
1-what is the most important structure that would the doctor take care of?
(1 mark)
2-Mention the distribution of its upper two branches (2 marks)
3- mention the cranial nerve carrying parasympathetic supply to the gland and
the ganglion of relay (2 marks) (Sept. 2012)
44. (Case):
A patient presented with a red , swollen and painful right eye. The movements
of the right eye were painful and the pupil of that eye was fixed and dilated. CT
scan showed thrombosis of the cavernous sinus.
1-Define the venous sinus & its functions? (2marks)
2-Describe the site and contents of the cavernous sinus. (4marks)
3-Define the dangerous area of the face. Explain why this area is dangerous?
(2marks)
4-Name the veins terminate in the cavernous sinus. (3marks) (June 2013)
45. (Case):
A young inexperienced doctor opened a parotid abscess by making a vertical
incision , the patient became unable to raise the eyebrow on the operated side.
(a) Which nerve was injured? Specifically , mention the branch that was cut.
(2 mark)

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(b) What could the doctor do to avoid the lesion? (1 mark)
(c) What are the structures present within the substance of the parotid gland?
Mention how they enter and leave the gland. (3 marks)
(d) Mention the surface anatomy of the parotid duct. (1 mark) (sept 2013)

Neck
1. Give an account on The investing layer of deep facial of the neck . (90)
2. Give an account on posterior triangle. (may2005)
3. Give an account on Thyroid gland . (2001-2002-1005)
4. Give an account on contents &boundaries of posterior triangle of neck.
(May2005)
5. Extracranial course of hypoglossal nerve & its distribution (May 2001)
6. Describe the distribution of accessory nerve. How can you test for its injury.
(May 2010)
7. Give an account on The course, relations and distribution of the right phernic
nerve (88)
8. Enumerate branches of subclavian artery and the beginning , the end of its first
part . (May 2005)
9. Give an account on Carotid sheath . (May 2009)
10. Thyrocervical trunk . (90)
11. Give an account on internal jugular vein. (May 2000)
12. 12-List the jugular veins. Give their beginning, termination and tributaries of
each. Add note on their clinical significance . (May 2010)
13. Give an account on lymphatic drainage of the tongue . (90,97)
14. Give an account on:
a) Infrahyoid muscle. (May 1998)
b) Posterior belly of digastric muscle. (91-92)
c) Sternocleidomastoid muscle. (May 2004)
d) Genioglossus muscle. (May 2004)
e) Stylopharyngeus muscle. (Sep 2004)
f) Geniohyoid muscle. (Sep 2004)
g) Cricothyroid muscle. (Sep 2004)
h) Hyoglossus muscle. (May 2006, Sep 2007)
i) Sternohyoid. (Sep 2008)
15. Give an account on the nerve supply, mucous membrane and muscles of
a) tongue b) larynx
16. Motor nerve supply of tensor palati & thyrohyoid muscles . (90)
17. Give an account on nerve supply of pharynx &larynx. (May 2006-2014)
18. Give an account on Sensory innervations of external nose.
19. Describe Lateral wall of nose. (88-91)

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20. Mention boundaries and floor of carotid triangle of the neck.
(4marks) (June 2013)
21. Cases:
1) A 30 year-old woman complained of a swelling in the anterior part of her
neck،nervousness and loss of weight. The doctor examined her and found an
enlarged thyroidgland which moved up and down with swallowing. He
suggested that a subtotalthyroidectomy (partial removal of thyroid gland) had
to be performed.
a) Why do swellings of thyroid gland move up and down with swallowing?
(1 M)
b) What important structures could be injured in operations of thyroid
gland? (2 M)
c) Enumerate the main vessels supplying the thyroid gland. (2 M)
d) Give the course and distribution of the glossopharyngeal nerve. (10 M)
e) Describe action & nerve supply of the following muscles:
hyoglossus,sternohyoid,lateral pterygoid, inferior oblique of eyeball, and
sternocleidomastoid. (10 M)
2) A 2 years old boy was brought to the hospital ,his mother noticed abnormal
positionof his neck. The doctor noted that the neck was bent to the left side
while the facelooked to the right.
1 - Name this clinical condition. (1 mark)
2 - Which muscle is involved? Indicate the side affected? (2 marks)
3 - What is the nerve supply of this muscle? (1 mark)
4 - Name another muscle supplied by the same nerve. (1 mark)
3) A 65 year old man fell &lost his consciousness at the gate of a hospital. The
doctorrushed & felt for pulse in front of sternomastoid muscle.
1. Which artery's pulse did he feel? (1 mark)
2. From which aortic arch did this artery develop? (1 mark)
3. At which level in the neck does it divide into its terminal branches? (1 mark)
4. What is the relation of the vein to the artery in the neck? (1 mark)
5. Name one structure present at the bifurcation (termination) of the artery
&mention its significance. (1 mark)
4) A 42 year old woman came to the hospital with a swelling in the front of the
neck. The swelling extended till the thyroid cartilage. It moved up and down with
swallowing. This case was diagnosed as a thyroid swelling .Thyroidectomy was
performed and two months later the patient returned to her doctor complaining of
changes of her voice and frequently occurring cramps.
1.Why does the swelling move up and down with swallowing?
2.Explain why a thyroid swelling can not extend up beyond oblique line of thyroid
cartilage?
3.Explain the changes in voice and the muscle cramps that this patient had
following thyroidectomy?
4.list two anomalies related to the development of the thyroid gland (2011)

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The answer:
1) The thyroid swelling moves up and down with swallowing because it is invested
by pretracheal layer of the deep cervical fascia. (1 mark)
2) The thyroid swelling cannot extend up beyond the oblique line of the thyroid
cartilage due to attachment of infrahyoid (sternothyroid ) muscles. (1 mark)
3) Changes of voice occur due to injury of external laryngeal nerve (supplies
cricothyroid muscle) during ligation of superior thyroid artery. Injury of
recurrent laryngeal nerve which supplies other laryngeal muscles occurs during
ligation of inferior thyroid artery. Muscle cramps occur due to removal of the
parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy. (3 marks)
4) Two congenital anomalies of thyroid gland: any two (2 marks)
a. Agenesis of the gland.
b. Incomplete descent ; the gland may be found at any point between the base
of the tongue and the trachea (e.g. lingual thyroid).
c. Thyroglossal cyst
5) An athlete used to lift heavy weights, suddenly developed weakness and
coldness of his right upper limb. The condition diagnosed as hypertrophy of
scalenemuscles causing compression of anartery passing between these
muscles. (3 Marks )
1. Name the artery involved in that case. (1 Mark )
2.Mention structures passing between scalene muscles (June 2012)
6) An athlete that used to lift heavy weights suddenly developed severe pain in his
neck and turn of his face to the right side . (3marks)
1- Name the affected muscles . (1 mark)
2-Mention the nerve supply. (1 mark)
3-Name the fascia enclosing this muscles ? (1mark)(Sept 2012)
7) A female developed benign swelling of lower pole of left thyroid lobe. The
doctor decided to excise the swelling surgically. (5 Marks)
1. Name the artery that should be ligated during surgery. (1 Mark)
2. What is the nerve that accompanying the above artery? (1 Mark)
3. What is supplied by the above nerve. (2 Marks)
4. If the nerve is cut, what will happen? (1 Mark) (2012)
8) During surgical removal of the thyroid gland, a ligature slipped from the
superior thyroid artery. To stop the bleeding, the surgeon blindly compressed
the artery with a forceps. Later, the patient spoke with husky voice.
a. From your anatomical knowledge, explain the reason to the husky voice.
b. Enumerate the veins draining the thyroid gland & their termination.
(June 2014)
9) A 30 years old lady visited her doctor complaining of headache and unilateral
nasal discharge especially during the night. The doctor noticed tenderness over
the maxilla & after doing an X-ray to the head and neck, he told her she had
sinusitis.
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 a) Which Para nasal air sinus is affected? (1 Mark)
b) Why is it the most commonly infected Para nasal sinus? (2 Marks)
c) Why is the discharge more at night? (1 Mark)
d) What is the nerve supply of the sinus? (1 Mark)(May 2008)
10) Apatient when asked to protrude his tongue outside the mouth cavity the
doctor observed That the tip of tongue is directed to the left side the facial
muscles as well as the rest of body muscles where normal . (5marks)
1-what is the diagnosis? (1mark)
2-Name the muscles responsible for protrusion of the tongue . (1mark)
3-Mention the lymphatic drainage of the tongue ? (3marks)(sept 2012)
11) A 54 years old man presented with a tumor in the posterior cranial fossa. The
neurologist wanted to check the integrity of the 9th , 10th and 11th cranial nerves.
1-How can you test for integrity of vagus nerve? (1 mark)
2-Enumerate sensory branches of glossopharyngeal nerve. (2 marks)
3-Name the muscle(s) supplied by the accessory nerve. (3 marks)(June 2013)
12) A 50-year-old male started to complain from difficulty in swallowing few
weeks ago. He had a computerized tomography scan (CT scan) on the neck
done, it revealed the presence of a swelling (most likely cancer) near the jugular
foramen.
(a) In this patient, which nerves could be involved and led to dysphagia?
(3 marks)
(b) Which venous sinuses are endangered by the cancer? (1 mark)
(c) Describe the sensory and motor supply of the pharynx.
(3 marks)(Sept 2013)
NeuroAnatomy
 Spinal cord &Tracts :
1) Give an account on levels of termination of dura matter of the spinal cord.
2) Give an account on fourth ventricle (roof & floor & boundaries &foramina).
(May 2004)
3) Give an account on pathway of pain & temperature. (Sep 2004)
4) Give an account on pathway of pain from the face and body.
(Sep 2007-May2009)
5) Give an account on pathway of proprioception of lower limb. (Sep 2005)
6) Give an account on pyramidal tracts. (1988)
7) Give an account on pathway of deep sensation. (1991)
8) Give an account on tracts of deep sensation of right big toe in the spinal cord.
(1989)
9) Give an account on post. column of spinal cord.
10) Give an account on differences between upper&lower motor neuron lesions.
11) Give an account on two main tracts affected by hemisection of spinal cord.
(1989)

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12) Give an account on blood supply(cervical part) of the spinal cord.
(May 1998 -May 2000-May 2006-May 2007)
13) Give an account on lesions of spinal cord. (May 1998)
 Brain Stem :
1. Give an account on facial nerve nuclei . (May 1999)
2. Give an account on vagal nerve nuclei & its distribution. (May 2001,May 2005)
3. Give an account on trigeminal nerve nuclei. (May 2002)
4. Give an account on glossopharyngeal nerve nuclei . (May 2007)
5. Give an account on hypoglossal nerve nucleus (intracranial & extracranial &
distribution). (May 2009)
6. Give an account on nucleus solitarius. (1990)
7. Give an account on different lemnisci (beginning & termination & function).
(May 2004)
8. Give an account on blood supply of medulla oblongata & its applied anatomy.
(May 2002 - Sep 2008)
9. Describe the arterial supply of medulla oblongata. Give a brief note on medial
medullary syndrome
10. Name the tract(s) carrying touch sensations of the face. (3marks)(June 2013)
11. List the structures seen in the floor of the 4th ventricle. (June 2014)

 Cerebral Hemispheres :
1. Give an account on cranial subarachnoid space. (Sep 1998)
2. Give an account on sulci&gyri&functional areas&blood supply of temporal
lobe. (May 2000)
3. Give an account on site & effects of lesions of speech areas.
(Sep 2006- May 2010)
4. Give an account on somatomotor areas. (May 1998)
5. Give an account on functional areas of superolateral surface of frontal lobe & its
blood supply. (May 2007)
6. Give an account on site&blood supply&effects of lesion of cortical areas:
auditory & visual & ant. part of paracentral lobule . (May 2008)
7. Give an account on features of lateral ventricle. (May 2008)
8. Give an account on association fibers. (Sep 2008)
9. Give an account on internal capsule & its blood supply. (Sep 1999- May 2003)

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 Diencephalon:
1. Give an account on third ventricle. (Sep 2000 -Sep 2001 -May 2005)
2. Give an account on corpus callosum. (1997)
Describe the association fibers of the cerebral hemispheres. (10 M)
 Blood Supply of the brain :
1. Give an account on vertebro-basilar blood supply. (May 2010)
2. Give an account on Circle Of Willis (site & formation & branches).
(May 2001 - Sep 2005 -May 2008)
 Special Sense Pathways :
Give an account of visual pathway &effects of its lesion at different levels.
(Sep 2001-1989 )
Cases :
1. A teenager girl discovered loss of sensation of her right hand and on
examination the doctor discovered loss of pain and temperature of distal part of
the upper limb. Also, there was diminished pain and temperature on left hand.
The condition was diagnosed as cavitations of the spinal cord . (4 Marks)
a) What is your diagnosis? (1 Mark)
b) Why the pain and temperature fibers are only involved in this case?
(1 Mark)
c) Where is the most common site for such condition? (2 Marks)(2012)

2. A lady 55 years old, developed right sided hemiplegia mainly in the upper limb
due tocerebrovascular accident as proved by MRl. The lesion affects the frontal
and parietal lobes. (5 Marks )
1-Which vessel was affected in this case? (1 Mark)
2-list the name and location of the functional areas of the parietal lobe
3-if the patient is right handed , do you expect the affection of speech? State
why? (June2012)
3. An old man starts to develop headache and by MRI proved to have tumors of
the medialgeniculate body. (2 Marks )
a) Where is the medial geniculate body is located? (1 Mark)
b) Where do its efferent fibers project to? (1 Mark )(2012)
4. A mother brought her two month old baby to the doctor complaining that he has
a large head . MRI confirmed hydrocephalus with enlarged lateral ventricles.
a) Where do you expect the obstruction to the flow of CSF exists?
b) Describe the formation and flow of cerebro-spinal fluid (CSF)
c) Describe the flow of blood from the superior sagittal sinus to the outside of
the skull. (2011)
The answer:
1. The obstruction to the flow of CSF is at interventricular foramen of Monro.
(1 mark)

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2. The formation of CSF (5 marks)
a. Choroid plexuses of the ventricles
b. Little from ependyma lining the ventricles
The flow of CSF:
Lateral ventricle…..interventricular foramen of Monro…..3rd
ventricle….aqueduct of Sylvius…4th ventricle….foramen of Magendi and
foramina of Luscka….subarachnoid space around brain or around spinal cord
c. The flow of blood from superior sagittal sinus…..confluence of sinuses…right
transverse sinus….right sigmoid sinus….right internal jugular vein.
5. A 60 year old female complained of a sudden disturbance in gait , intension
tremors , ptosis of right eyelid , decreased sweating on right side of face,
decreased pain sensation on right side of face, a difficulty in swallowing.Pain
sensation was decreased on the left side of the body. A diagnosis of lateral
medullary syndrome was made.
1.What causes this syndrome?
2.Analyse each of the patient’s symptoms? (2011)

The answer:
1. Damage to the lateral part of the medulla due to occlusion of the posterior
inferior cerebellar artery. (1 mark)
2. Sudden disturbance in gait and intention tremors due to affection of
spinocerebellar tract and inferior cerebellar peduncle
Ptosis of the right eyelid due to affection of the descending sympathetic fibres
(ipsilateral horner’s syndrome)
Decreased sweating on the right side ( ipsilateral horner’s syndrome i.e
anhydrosis)
Decreased pain sensation on the right side of the face due to affection of spinal
nucleus and tract of trigeminal
Difficulty in swallowing due to affection of the nucleus ambiguis ( ipsilateral
paralysis of muscles of palate and pharynx)
Decreased pain sensation on the left side of the body due to affection of spinal
lemniscus or lat. Spinothalamic tract (loss of pain from opposite half of the body)

6. A teenager girl fell from a height . on examination the doctor discovered loss of
sensation of the whole lower limbs and up to level of umbilicus . also there was
paralysis of both lower limbs (4 marks)
1 - what is your diagnosis (1 mark)
2 - mention the level of spinal cord segment affected (1 mark)
3 - enumerate the arterial supply of the spinal cord (2 marks) (sept 2012)
7. A lady 55 years old developed right sided hemiplegia together with affection of
lower 7&12 cranial nerves due to cerebrovascular accident (5 marks)
1 - where is the site of lesion (1 mark)

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 2 - which vessel is most likely affected (l.5 mark)
3 - enumerate the different parts of the affected area (2.5 marks) (sept 2012)
8. An old man starts to develop headache and by MRI proved to have tumour at
the cerebellopontine angle (2 marks) (sept 2012)
st
1. What is the 1 cranial nerve to be effected by that tumor ? (1 mark)
2. Enumerate the symptoms resulting from compression of that nerve ? (1 mark)
9. An old man had right side hemiplegia sparing the distal part of lower limb
following a stroke.Neurological examination & investigation diagnosed
intracerebral hemorrhage that interrupted the blood supply to the frontal and
parietal lobes.
1-List the functional areas of the parietal lobe. (4 marks)
2-Would you expect the speech to be affected in this patient? State why?
(2marks)
3-Which cerebral artery was involved? (1 mark) (June 2013)
10. A 70-year-old man suddenly developed right sided hemiplegia with aphasia, he
could move his foot weakly but was unable to close his fist at all on the affected
side. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) proved the occurrence of cerebral
embolism.
(a) Which cerebral artery is likely occluded? Explain (3 marks)
(b) Locate the speech areas that you know.Mention their functions
(3marks)(sept2013)
11. A 25-year-old patient had an operation under spinal anesthesia. During recovery,
he could not feel the back of his lower limb with difficulty in climbing the stairs
by the right foot.
(a) If the site of lumbar puncture was correct and the spinal cord was not injured,
what else could have been injured? (1 mark)
(b) Where is the correct site for doing a lumbar puncture? (1 mark)
(c) Where does the spinal cord normally end in such a patient? (1 mark)
(d) What is the level of termination of the spinal meninges?
(2 marks) (Sept 2013)
12. A 50-year-old hypertensive woman suddenly developed loss of sensation and
weakness in her right hand.
a. Occlusion of which cerebral artery can cause this? Explain.
b. Where does this artery arise from?
c. What are the deep structures supplied by its central branches? (June 2014)

Abdomen

1. Give an account on Give the beginning , end , walls & structures passing
through inguinal canal. (2004)(2005)
2. Give an account onThe superior Mesenteric artery. (1996)
3. Give an account on Anatomy of the testis, Coverings, blood supply and
lymphatic drainage. (1999)
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4. Give an account onLesser sac of peritoneum. : Walls and openings. (1998,2008)
5. Give the relations, peritoneal covering and blood supply of the stomach.
“Enumerate structures in the stomach bed “ (2000)(2001)(2007)
6. Describe the peritoneal covering, relations and arterial supply of the first part of
duodenum. (May 2008) (relations:june 2013-4marks)
- Compare between the jejunum and the ileum. (June 2014)
7. Give an account on Anatomy of the spleen. “Mention position, relation,
ligaments, and blood supply “ (2000)(2005)
8. Give an account on Relations and blood supply of the rightkidney.
(2002.2003.2007)
9. List relations of left kidney. (2010)
10. Give an account on Anatomy of portal vein. Enumerate sites of porto-systemic
anastomosis. (2002)(2003)(2004)
11. Give origin, insertion, nerve supply, and action of: iliacus. (2005)
12. Case (2008):
A surgeon performing an appendicectomy (removal of the appendix ) found
many adhesions as he opened the patient's abdomen. He tried to find the base of
the appendix but it was difficult.
a) With your anatomical knowledge , can you recommend a way to find the
base of the appendix?
b) What is the most common position for the appendix?
c) Describe the surface anatomy of the vermiform appendix
d) While operating, the surgeon cut through muscle fibers directed downward,
forwards and medially . Name this muscle.
e) Why is appendicular pain felt first around the umbilicus then shifts to the
right iliac fossa
13. Case (2008)
In an operation for treatment of chronic gastric ulcer, it was found that the
posterior wall of the patient's stomach was stuck to his posterior abdominal wall.
a) Which structures lie behind the stomach and can be involved in the disease?
b) Name a large artery that runs behind the stomach and maybe eroded by the
chronic ulcer?
c) Enumerate the arteries which supply the stomach?
14. Case (2012)
A young man during a quarrel got a transverse cut wound of the anterior
abdominal wall justabove the umbilicus and to the left. He put his hand on the
wound and found port of his intestinecoming out of the wound. (6 Marks )
1- Which parts of the intestine can protrude through this wound (based on the
site of the wound)
2-what other structures(other than intestine) may protrude through this wound
3- How can the doctor identify the part of the intestine coming out of the
wound. ( 3 Marks)

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15. Case(2012)
An abscess of anterior abdominal wall just below the umbilicus was discovered
in a diabetes patient, causing pain and lymph node enlargement.
1- Which spinal cord segment receives pain from that area? ( 1 Mark )
2- Which group of lymph node is enlarged in that case( 1 Mark )
16. Case (2011)
A 75 year old man with chronic cough noticed that a bulge was developing in
his left groin. On examination ,an elongated swelling was seen above the medial
end of the left inguinal ligament. When the patient coughed,the swelling
enlarged but did not descend into the scrotum.
1.What is the possible diagnosis of this swelling
2.Give reasons for your diagnosis
3.Mention the borders of the inguinal triangle
4.Mention structures forming posterior wall of the inguinal canal
Answer:
1. The diagnosis is left direct inguinal hernia. (1 mark)
2. Old age and chronic cough. (1 mark)
3. The borders of inguinal triangle are: (1.5 marks)
a. Medially :lateral border of the rectus abdominis
b. laterally: inferior epigastric artery
c. Inferiorly: inguinal ligament
4. Structures forming posterior wall of the inguinal canal: (1.5 marks)
1. Fascia transversalis: along its whole length
2. Conjoint tendon: in its medial half
3. Reflected part of the inguinal ligament
17. 17 - Case (2011)
A 32 year old woman presented to the physician with increasing loss of weight
& vomiting.The physician noted that she was jaundiced and on examination a
mass was palpable below the edge in the right upper quadrant. The diagnosis of
cancer head of pancreas was made.
1.what is the reason for jaundice ?
2.enumerate anterior and posterior relations of neck of pancreas.
Answer:
1. The reason of jaundice is obstruction of the common bile duct. (1 mark)
2. The anterior and posterior relations of neck of pancreas : (2 marks)
Anteriorly: pylorus of the stomach. The gastroduodenal artery descends in front of
the junction between the head and neck
Posteriorly:Termination of superior mesenteric vein and splenic vein and the
beginning of the portal vein
18. Case (sept 2012) :
A young man developed severe abdominal colic especially around the umbilicus
that gradually shifts to the right iliac fossa . also there was fever and vomiting.
(6 marks)
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 1. What is your diagnosis ? (1 mark)
2. Describe the surface anatomy of the affected structure ? (2 mark)
3.mention four different sites of the different structure ? (2 mark)
4. What is the source of its blood supply ? (1 mark)
19. Case (sept 2012)
A male farmer patient 35 years old , presented severs bloody vomiting ?
(2 marks)
1. What is the possible reason of such case ? (1 mark)
2. Mention the anatomical base of this condition ? (1 mark)
20. Case (June 2013)
A 27 years old man was admitted to the surgical ward with hematemesis
(vomiting blood).After resuscitation , clinical investigations had diagnosed
portal hypertension.
1-Explain the cause of hematemesis in this case. (1 mark)
2-List other site(s) could be involved in such case. (2 marks)
3-Describe formation , course & termination of the portal vein. (4 marks)
21. Case (Sept 2013)
A 40-year old lady developed pain in the right shoulder. Her doctor noticed that
she feels pain when he touches a certain point in the upper right part of her
abdomen. She had ultrasonography that showed the presence of multiple small
gall bladder stones. After few months she developed obstructive jaundice.
(a) Explain the pain in the right shoulder. (1 mark)
(b) Locate the point of maximum pain in the abdomen in this patient. (1 mark)
(c) What is the length of the common bile duct? (1 mark)
(d) Describe the course and termination of the common bile duct. (4 marks)
22. Case (June 2014)
A 40-year-old man discovered a swelling in his right grion that bulges out on
coughing. His doctor noticed that the swelling did not reach the scrotum. He
also noticed an old appendicectomy scar. He told the patient that a fault in the
appendicectomy might have caused his grion swelling.
a. From your anatomical knowledge, which type of inguinal hernia the patient is
having? Explain the reason for your diagnosis.
b. What had probably been injured during the appendicectomy? How could it
lead to this hernia?
Pelvis

1. Describe the reflection of peritoneum in the male &female pelvis. (2003)

2. Give the peritoneal covering of the following organs :urinary bladder, rectum
and duodenum (September 2007 )
3. Enumerate branches of internal iliac artery (May 2005 ) (May 2008)

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4. Give an account on the anatomy of the rectum with is blood supply and
lymphatic drainage (1996) / Describe the anatomy of the anal sphincters.
(June 2014)
5. Give the relations of base of urinary bladder (may 2010)&in male (Sept 2007)
6. Name the surfaces of urinary bladder. Give the relations of its posterior surface.
(2000) & a note on its development. (2000) (Sept 2002)
7. Anatomy of urinary bladder (September 2002)
8. Prostate ( position , relations, lobes, blood supply and development (2002)
9. Give the position , relations , ligaments , blood supply and lymphatic drainage
of ovary (May 2004)
10. Give an account the anatomy(parts , dimensions and arterial supply) of the
uterine tube. (2000) (Sept 2008)
11. Mention parts , dimensions , position, peritoneal covering and blood supply of
the uterus (May 1998-2003- 2005, Sept 2004 - 2008)
12. Give the parts and content of broad ligament of uterus (May 2002- 2006)
13. Anatomy of the anal Canal (sphincters not required). Add a note on its
development. (1999)
14. Enumerate the contents of ischiorectal fossa (May 2007-2008) & the boundaries
(May 2007)
15. Describe the blood supply of urinary bladder. (4marks) (June 2013)
 Cases :

1. A 55 years old male presented with severe pain at anal orifice with mild
bleeding during defecation. The condition was diagnosed as anal fissure and
piles (5 marks)
a) Name the nerve that carries the pain sensation from the anal canal.
b) Which vessels are bleeding. (2 Marks)
c) Describe the beginning, direction and length of anal canal. (2 Marks) (2012)

2. A 16 year old boy was riding his bicycle when his foot slipped off the pedal and
his perineum hit the bar of the bicycle.an hour later, he was admitted to the
hospital unable to micturate. On examination , he had extensive swelling of his
penis and scrotum . a diagnosis of ruptured urethra was made
a) Which part of the urethra is more liable to injury?
b) Name the striated muscle surrounding the membranous urethra
c) describe the features of the mucosa of posterior wall of the prostatic urethra
d) Mention the lymph nodes that drain the different parts of the male urethra
(2011)
Answer:
1) The penile part at its junction with the membranous part of the urethra is more
liable to injury. (1 mark)

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 2) The sphincter urethrae muscle surrounds the membranous part of urethra.
(1 mark)
3) Features of the mucosa of posterior wall of the prostatic urethra. (2 marks)
a. Midline longitudinal ridge (urethral crest)
b. Shallow depression on either side of the crest (prostatic sinus)
c. Orifices of prostatic ducts
d. Colliculus seminalis in the middle of the urethral crest
e. Openings of the ejaculatory ducts
4) Lymph nodes that drain the different parts of the male urethra:
a. Prostatic and membranous urethra …..internal iliac lymph nodes (1 mark)
b. Spongy urethra……deep inguinal lymph nodes and few pass to
superficialinguinal lymph nodes & some to external iliac lymph nodes
( any LN=1 mark)
3. A 55 years old male presented with severe abdominal pain and absolute
constipation. On examination there was a tumour at lower part of rectum
(5 marks)
1. What is the length of the rectum ? (1 mark)
2. Describe different curves of the rectum ? (2 marks)
3. Explain the venous drainage of rectum ? (2 marks) (sept 2012)
4. A 60-year-old man observed fresh blood on passing stools. On rectal
examination , the doctor discovered cancer rectum. (Sept 2013)
(a) If the cancer spreads anteriorly , which structures may be invaded? (2 marks)
(b) Which artery causes bleeding of the cancer is limited to the mucosa?
(1 mark)
(c) If the cancer spreads along lymphatics , which groups may be involved?
(2 marks)
5. While riding a bicycle, a 24-year-old man fell and his perineum hit the bar of
the bicycle strongly. Later, he did not pass urine, few drops of blood passed out
from his external urethral meatus and painfull swelling of his lower part of the
anterior bdominal wall that did not extend into the thighs was noticed. A
diagnosis of ruptured urethra was made.
a. Which part of the urethra is likely injured?
b. What prevents extension of the swelling down the thighs?
c. Name three other sites where the swelling would extend to. (June 2014)

Embryology
 Development of H & N :
1) Give an account on derivatives of the brachial arches (94,Sep2002)
2) Derivatives of the mesoderm of the first pharyngeal arch. (Sep2001,2002,2004)
3) Derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch (Sep2003,2006,2007)
4) Give an account on the derivatives of pharyngeal pouches .
5) Give the fate of pharyngeal clefts . (May2008)
6) Give an account on development of pituitary gland (90, 91, 98, 2000, 2007)
7) Development of the palate and its anomalies . (May 99)
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8) Development of the tongue. (Sep 2003,2006)
9) Describe development of the upper lip and its anomalies . (May 2012)
10) Development of the thyroid gland (Sept 2006)
11) Enumerate the derivatives of the pharyngeal arch supplied by the facial nerve.
(4 marks) (Sept 2013)
 Development of CNS: Development of the spinal cord. (Sept 1999)
 Development of Skeletal System: Development of the vertebra . (Sept 2005)
 Development of GIT:
1 - Development of the anal canal. (Sept 2007, May 2010)
2 - Give comment on the development of the Liver. (May 2008)
3 - Enumerate derivatives of cloaca. (5 M)
4 - List the derivatives of the dorsal and ventral mesogastria. (4 marks) (Sept 2013)
 Development of Urogenital System :
1. Describe descent of testis and ovaries.Enumerate anomalies of this descent.
(May 2005)
2. Enumerate the derivatives of mesonephric duct. (4marks) (June 2013)/ Discuss
the fate of the mesonephros in the male. (June 2014)
3. give the developmental origin of the urinary bladder & List anomalies of the
uterus (2011)

Answer:
The mucosa of the urinary bladder (except the trigone) is developed from the
endoderm of the vesicle part of the primitive urogenital sinus.
The trigone is developed from the absorbed lower ends of the mesonephric ducts.
List anomalies of the uterus .( any 6 = 3marks)
1. Double uterus (uterus didelphys)
2. Uterus arcuatus (indented fundus)
3. Uterus septatus (septate uterus)
4. Uterus bicornis (has 2 horns)
5. Uterus bicornis unicollis with one rudimentary horn (atresia of one
paramesonephric duct)
6. Uterus unicornis (aplasia of one paramesonephric duct)
7. Infantile uterus (hypoplastic uterus), normal ratio of body to cervix is 2:1,
hypoplstic uterus the ratio is 1:2
Cases :
1. A mother of a 3-year-old female child, discovered that her umbilicus is wet with
urineferous fluid. (4 Marks )
1. What is your diagnosis? (1 Mark)
2. Describe in short the embryological sources of urinary bladder. (2 Marks)
3. From where the female urethra develops? (1 Mark) (2012)
2. A 22-year-old female consulted a plastic surgeon about the presence of multiple
holes alonganterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle. (4 Marks)
a) Name this congenital anomaly? (1 Mark)
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 b) From where the external auditory meatus develops? (1 Mark)
c) From where the thymus gland develops? (2 Marks ) (2012)
3. Define rachischisis.give 3 anomalies arises through development of the spinal
cord
(2011)
Answer:
Rachischisis is failure of the neural tube to close. (1/2 mark)
Anomalies arising during development of the spinal cord: (1.5 marks)
a) Spina bifida occulta
b) Meningocele
c) Meningomyelocele
d) Rachischisis ( myelocele)
A mother of a 3-year-old female child. discover that her umbilicus is wet with
foecal fluid. (4 mark) (sept 2012)
a) describe in short this congenital anatomy (mention its embryological
development
b) Mention the dates of occurrence and reduction of physiological umbilical
hernia.
4. A 22-year-old female developed cystic swelling undercover of the anterior
border of sternocleidomastoid muscle . (4 marks)
1. Name this congenital anatomy . (1 mark)
2. Describe how it develops ? (2 mark)
3. From where the superior parathyroid gland develops? (1 mark)(sept 2012)
5. A married couple brought their one-year-old child to the doctor complaining
that his right scrotum was empty while the left side contained a testis. The
doctor searched several superficial sites that could probably contain the missing
testis.
a) If none of the examined sites contained the testis, what is the likely
diagnosis? What would the diagnosis be if the testis was found in any of
these sites (for example, in the root of the penis)?
b) What is the role of the gubernaculum in either case?
c) List two more sites that the doctor searched. (June 2014)

MCQ 2011
Choose one best answer & mark it on the computer sheet using 2B pencil
1. The superior cervical sympathetic ganglion gives branches:
a) To Pharynx
b) To all cranial nerves
c) To join 5th& 6th cervical nerves
d) That accompany vertebral artery
e) That accompany inferior thyroid artery

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2. A patient was diagnosed with a tumour pressing on the jugular foramen. He
could present with:
a) Loss of taste from anterior part of tongue
b) Inability to whistle
c) Dysphagia
d) Impaired hearing
e) Inability to clench teeth
3. Repeated middle ear infections in a child have destroyed the tympanic plexus in
the middle ear cavity. This leads to affection of secretion of which gland?
a) Lacrimal
b) Nasal
c) Palatine
d) Parotid
e) Submandibular
4. A 25 year old male was transferred to the hospital after a car accident. X-Ray &
MRI showed a fractured pterion & extradural haemorrhage. The bleeding vessel is:
A. Internal carotid artery
B. Middle meningeal artery
C. Middle cerebral artery
D. Superficial middle cerebral vein
E. Superior cerebral veins
5. Destruction of ciliary ganglion results in:
A. Severe ptosis
B. Paralysis of inferior oblique
C. Loss of lacrimation
D. Loss of pupillary light reflex
E. Constriction of pupil (miosis)
6. A tumour bulging into the orbit from its floor would be arising from :
A. Sphenoid sinus
B. Maxillary sinus
C. Nasal cavity
D. Oral cavity
E. Ethmoid sinus
7. A patient when asked to protrude his tongue , the tip deviated to the right and the
right side of the tongue showed wasting and fasciculations. This could indicate a
lesion in:
A. Right glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Left glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Right hypoglossal nerve
D. Left hypoglossal nerve
E. Internal capsule.

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Match nerves in right column with items in left column(use each item once only)
8. Greater petrosal……………… A. smiling
9. Ophthalmic ………………… B. mastication
10. Facial………………………… C. lacrimation
11. Infraorbital ………………… D. pain from maxillary sinusitis
12. Mandibular………………… E. sensory to cornea
Match structure on the right with the appropriate group of draining lymph nodes on
the left (each item may be used more than once or not at all)
13. Palatine tonsil A. deep parotid
14. Lower central incisors B. superficial cervical
15. Tip of tongue C. jugulo-digastric
D. jugulo-omohyoid
E. submental
16. A foreign body arrested at the pyriform fossa irritates which of the following
nerves?
A. superior laryngeal B. glossopharyngeal C. recurrent laryngeal
D. internal laryngeal E. external laryngeal

17. Wax in external auditory meatus can irritate which nerve causing vomiting?
A. facial B. auriculotemporal C. great auricular D. vagus E. lesser occipital
18. Scalenus anterior muscle lies anterior to all the following EXCEPT:
A. Suprapleural membrane B. Subclavian artery C. Subclavian vein
D. Lower trunk of brachial plexus E. Scalenus medius

19. Spasmodic torticollis was diagnosed in an infant whose head was tilted to the
right with the chin turned to the left. Which of the following nerves could be
involved?
A. right cranial accessory B. left cranial accessory C. right spinal accessory
D. left spinal accessory E. greater occipital
20. The maxillary nerve supplies :
A. upper eyelid B. skin of forehead C. lower lip
D. upper jaw teeth E. mucosa lining buccinators
21. Submandibular duct opens into:
A. vestibule of mouth opposite 2nd molar B. vestibule of mouth opposite 3rd molar
C. top of sublingual fold D. top of sublingual papilla E. oropharynx
22. Median atlanto-axial joint is of which type?
A. fibrous B. 2ry cartilaginous C. synovial plane
D. synovial hinge E. synovial pivot
23. The Eustachian tube gives attachment to which of these muscles?
A. levator palati B. stylopharyngeus C. palatopharyngeus
D. stylohyoid E. stapedius

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24. The facial colliculus is formed by :
A. Facial nerve B. Abducent nucleus
C. Facial motor nucleus D. Abducent nucleus & facial nerve fibers
E. Facial motor nucleus & abducent nerve fibers
25. The fornix connects:
A. Thalamus & hypothalamus
B. Hypothalamus & hippocampus
C. Hippocampus & substantia nigra
D. Septal areas to habenular nuclei
E. Amygdaloid nuclei to septal areas
26. The frontal lobe of the non-dominanthemisphere is concerned with which of the
following functions:
A. Production of speech
B. Understanding of speech
C. Reflex conjugate eye movement
D. Receiving auditory stimuli
E. Control of behavior
27. Arterial supply of Wernicke’s area is via:
A. anterior cerebral B. middle cerebral C. posterior cerebral
D. anterior & middle cerebral E. anterior & posterior cerebral
28. A 47- year old man complains of right arm weakness and difficulty speaking
(expressive aphasia). Which of the following arteries is most likely affected ?
A. central branches of anterior cerebral
B. cortical branches of anterior cerebral
C. central branches of middle cerebral
D. cortical branches of middle cerebral
E. cortical branches of posterior cerebral
29. Which of the following surfaces (aspects) of thalamus is related to posterior limb
of internal capsule?
A. superior B. inferior C. medial D. lateral E. posterior
30. The right trochlear nucleus :
A. lies at level of superior colliculus
B. receives contralateral cortico-nuclear fibers only
C. lies in the special visceral efferent column of nuclei
D. supplies the left superior oblique muscle
E. its lesion causes left lateral squint
31. The cuneate tract carries which of the following sensations?
A. Crude touch from upper limb
B. Fine touch from upper limb
C. Crude touch from upper & lower limbs
D. Fine touch from upper & lower limbs
E. Unconscious proprioception from upper & lower limbs

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32. Which of the following belongs to the limbic system:
A.Hippocampus B Cuneus C. Paracentral lobule
D.Lentiform nucleus E.Ventral posterior nucleus of thalamus
33. Which of the following is considered association fibers of cerebral hemispheres?
A.Cingulum B. Forceps major C. Internal capsule
D.Fornix E. Corona radiate
34. Which of the following is part of the auditory pathway?
A. Medial lemniscus B. Lateral lemniscus C. Lateral geniculate body
D. Inferior temporal gyrus E. Superior colliculus
35. Hemisectionof the spinal cordwould result in the following on the opposite side
below the level of lesion:
A. Loss of pain & temperature
B. Motor paralysis
C. Loss of joint sense
D. Loss of muscle sense
E. Loss of vibration sense
36. Nucleus ambiguous supplies all the following muscles EXCEPT:
A. Pharyngeal constrictors B. Stylopharyngeus C. Tensor palate
D. Levator palate E. Cricothyroid
37. Internal arcuate fibers are axons of :
A. Inferior olivary nucleus
B. Accessory olivary nucleus
C. Accessory cuneate nucleus
D. Gracile & cuneate nuclei
E. Arcuate nuclei
38. Syringomyelia affects selectively which segments of the spinal cord?
A. Cervical & upper thoracic B. Thoracic C. Lower thoracic & upper lumbar
D. Lumbar & upper sacral E. Sacral
39. The anterior spinal artery supplies:
A. Inferior olivary nucleus
B. Hypoglossal nucleus
C. Dorsal white column of spinal cord
D. Dorsal vagal nucleus
E. Vestibular nuclei
40. Bitemporal hemianopia results from a lesion of :
A. Optic nerve B. Optic chiasma C. Optic tract
D. Lateral geniculate body E. Visual area

41. An aneurysm of the posterior cerebral artery can affect which of the following
nerves?
A.Oculomotor B. Trigeminal C.Facial D.Vagus E. hypoglossal

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42. Which of the following nuclei receives pain & temperature from head area?
A. nucleus solitaries B. spinal nucleus of trigeminal
C. main sensory nucleus of trigeminal D. nucleus ambiguous
E. dorsal vagal nucleus
43. The facial nerve has all these nuclei of origin EXCEPT:
A.motor B.inferior salivatory C. superior salivatory
D. spinal nucleus of trigeminal E. solitaries
44 .The transpyloric plane cuts all the following structures EXCEPT:
A- Hilum of left kidney. B- Stem of superior mesenteric artery.
C- Termination of the spinal cord. D- Pylorus of stomach.
E. Body of gall bladder.
45. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the following areas EXCEPT:
A.Skin of scrotum. B. Infraumbilical part of anterior abdominal wall
C. Anal canal above the pectinate line D.Vaginal canal below the hymen.
E. Superolateral angles of the uterus.
46. In the female, the superficial inguinal ring gives passage to:
A. ovarian artery. B. iliohypogastric nerve.
C. ovarian gubernaculum. D. femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve.
E. round ligament of the uterus.
47. Omental bursa ( lesser sac) separates the back of the stomach from :
A. right crus of diaphragm. B. left crus of diaphragm
C. gastroduodenal artery. D. right kidney
E. inferior vena cava.
48. The fundus of the stomach gets its main arterial supply via:
A. right gastric artery. B. right gastro-epiploic artery.
C. short gastric arteries. D. left gastric artery.
E. posterior gastric artery.
49. All the following are branches from the ileocolic artery EXCEPT:
A. anterior caecal. B. posterior caecal. C. ileal.
D. jejunal E. appendicular
50. The arterial supply of the left colic flexure is via:
A.superior mesenteric artery. B. lower left colic artery. C. marginal artery .
D. middle colic artery E. inferior pancreaticoduodinal artery.
51. The common bile duct while passing behind the head of pancreas is related
posteriorly to:
A.Hepatic artery. B. Gastroduodenal artery. C. Inferior vena cava.
D. Aorta. E. The main pancreatic duct.
52. The notched border of the spleen is related to which rib?
A.7th B. 8th C. 9th D. 10th E. 11th

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53. Tributaries of the portal vein include:
A. gastric veins B. renal veins C. phrenic veins.
D. right suprarenal vein. E. hepatic veins.
54. All the following represent bare areas of the liver EXCEPT:
A. Fissure for ligamentum venosum. B. Fossa of gall bladder. C. Caudate lobe
D. Fissure for ligamentum teres. E. Porta hepatis.
55. Medial border of psoas major muscle is related to which nerve?
A.Genitofemoral nerve. B. Ilioinguinal nerve. C. Lumbosacral trunk.
D. Femoral nerve. E. Iliohypogastric.
56. To pass a needle into the cavity of the tunica vaginalis in the scrotum, the
following structures have to be pierced EXCEPT:
A. Skin B. Dartos muscle C. Internal spermatic fascia
D. Cremasteric fascia E. Tunica albuginea
57. Pudendal canal contains:
A. Systemic venous drainage of anal canal. B.Middle rectal artery.
C. Nerve supply to obturator internus muscle.
D.Terminal part of inferior hypogastric plexus. E.Lymph nodes.
58. Posterior division of internal iliac artery gives:
A. Iliolumbar artery. B. obturator artery C. Internal pudendal artery.
D. Median sacral artery E. Inferior gluteal artery
59. The apex of urinary bladder is connected to which ligament?
A.Pubovesical ligaments. B. Median umbilical ligament.
C. Medial umbilical ligaments. D. Lateral ligament of the bladder.
E. Lateral umbilical ligaments
60. One of the following ligaments is not a true ligament of the uterus:
A.Round ligament of the uterus. B. Broad ligament of uterus.
C. Uterosacral ligament. D. Transverse cervical ligament.
E. Pubocervical ligament.
61. All the following muscles are attached to the perineal body EXCEPT:
A. bulbospongiosus B. ischiocavernosus C. external anal sphincter
D. levator ani E. superficial transverse perinea
62. The anterior wall of the vagina is related to:
A. ureter B. uterine artery C. urethra D. rectum E. anal canal
63. The medial wall of the ischiorectal fossa is formed partly by:
A. obturator internus B. gluteus maximus C. skin
D. levator ani E. sacrotuberous ligament
64. The left ovarian vein drains into:
A. inferior vena cava B. left renal vein C. left suprarenal vein
D. inferior mesenteric vein E. left uterine vein

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65. A patient has an ulcer of the posterior wall of 1st part of duodenum. Which artery
is liable toerosion?
A. hepatic B. splenic C. gastroduodenal
D. celiac E. superior mesenteric
66. A patient with portal hypertension shows caput medusae. Which veins(belonging
to portal circulation) caused this appearance?
A. inferior rectal B. middle rectal C. esophageal
D. superior rectal E. paraumbilical
67. The anal sphincter that is formed by thickening of the rectal circular muscle
layer is:
A. superficial B. internal C.deep D. subcutaneous E. external
68. The lesser wing of sphenoid bone is derived from:
A.ala temporalis B. parachordal cartilage C.ala orbitalis
D. periotic capsule E. trabeculae crania
69. Each of the following cells is derived from neuroepithelial cells, Except:
A. Ependymal cells B. Microglial cells C. Astrocytes
D. Motor neurons E. Oligodendroglia
70. Which of the following bones of skull develop by cartilagenous ossification:
A.Squamous temporal B.Maxilla C. Frontal D. Parietal E.Sphenoid
71. When the palatal processes of maxilla fail to fuse with each other , the resulting
anomaly is a cleft of:
A. Uvula B.Primary palate C.Secondary palate
D.Primary and secondary palate E.Intermaxilllary segment
72. Regarding development of the tongue all the following are true Except:
A. The posterior third develops from hypobranchial eminence
B. The anterior two-third develops from 3swellings
C. All muscles of the tongue develop from mesoderm of pharyngeal arches
D. Failure of fusion of lingual swellings results in bifid tip of tongue
E. Valate papillae are supplied by glossopharyngeal nerve
73. A muscle that develops from 3rd pharyngeal arch:
A. Stapedius B. Stylohyoid C. Stylopharyngeus
D. Sternothyroid E. Sternomastoid
74. The structure arising from the 1st pharyngeal pouch is:
A. Eustachian tube B. Inferior parathyroid gland
C. Superior parathyroid gland D. Palatine tonsil E. Thymus gland
75. The third pharyngeal arch cartilage gives rise to which of the following
structures:
A.Stylohyoid ligamentB.Thyroid cartilageC.Styloid process
D.Sphenomandibular ligamentE.Greater cornu of hyoid bone

28
 
76. Meckel's diverticulum:
A. Is a remnant of the urachus
B. Is found in 10% of the population
C. Is most commonly situated adjacent to the vermiform appendix
D. Can give symptoms similar to an inflamed appendix
E. Is usually 6 inches long
77. A 3 –week- old infant has a history of vomiting . The vomitus did not contain
bile. He did not gain any weight. Which of the following would best account for
these symptoms?
A. Patent vitello-intestinal duct B. Esophageal atresia
C. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis D. Tracheo-esophageal fistula
E. Double gall bladder
78.Each of the following statements about the developing duodenum is true
EXCEPT:
A. Is a derivative of foregut and midgut
B. The vitello-intestinal duct is attached to the apex of the duodenal loop
C. Its dorsal mesentry is absorbed
D. It rotates with the stomach
E. Its lumen is temporarily obliterated by epithelial cells
79. Ectopia vesicae (Exstrophy of the urinary bladder) is often associated with:
A. Adrenal hyperplasia B. Urachal fistula C. Hypospadias
D. Epispadias E. Chromosomal abnormalities
80.The paramesonephric ducts in female embryos give rise to:
A. Paroophoron B. Uterine tubes
C. Inferior part of the vagina D. Round ligaments of the uterus
E. Ovarian ligaments

MCQ 2012 Anatomy Exam

1. Internal carotid blood is lost from a wound in the:

A- Forehead B-Temple C-Auricle D- Chin E- occiput
2. Which of the following structures is first liable to be injured in case of incision of
parotid abscess?
A-External carotid artery B-Facial nerve C-Auriculotemporal nerve
D-Retromandibular vein E-Facial artery
3. The nerve that runs along the floor of the cavernous sinus is:
A-The oculomotor nerve B-The trochlear nerve C-The ophthalmic nerve
D-The maxillary nerve E-The abducent nerve
4. Rupture of the middle meningeal artery causes what type of hemorrhage?
A-extraduraI hemorrhage B-Subdural hemorrhage
C-Subarachnoid hemorrhage D-cerebral hemorrhage
E-ventricular hemorrhage

29
 
5. The muscle that makes the eye look downwards and medially is:
A-The superior rectus B-The inferior rectus C-The inferior oblique
D-The medial rectus E-The superior oblique
6. Which of the following nerves appears above the upper border of lateral pterygoid?
A-The buccal nerve B-The masseteric nerve C-The lingual nerve
D-The inferior alveolar nerve E-The auriculotemporal nerve
7. The structure attached to the lingula of the mandible is the:
A-stylomandibular ligament B-pterygormandibular raphe
C-Tempromandibular ligament D-sphenomandibular ligament
E-Mylohyoid muscle
8. The sympathetic root to the submandibular ganglion is derived from the plexus
around the:
A- lingual a B- Occipital a C- Facial a
D- Maxillary a E- Ascending pharyngeal a
9. Which of the following arteries is a content of the posterior triangle of the neck?
A-1st part of subclavian artery B- 2nd part of subclavian artery
C-Ascending cervical artery D-Deep cervical artery
E-Transverse cervical artery
10. Related to the medial side of the thyroid lobe:
A- Sternomastoid B- Recurrent IaryngeaI n. C- Carotid sheath
D- Investing fascia E- Sternohyoid
11. Pain from the middle ear is carried on the following cranial nerve:
A-VII B-VIIl C-IX D-X E-Xl
12. The nerve that runs directly anterior to the scalenus anterior muscle is the:
A-Upper trunk of brachial plexus B-Suprascapular nerve C-Great auricular nerve
D-Transverse cervical nerve E-Phrenic nerve
13. The artery that runs along the upper border of post, belly of digastric is the:
A- Lingual a B-Facial a C- Posterior auricular artery
D- Occipital a E-Ascending pharyngeal a
14. Which of the following is a branch of facial artery?
A- lnf. thyroid a. B- Vertebral a. C-Tonsillar a.
D-Middle meningeal a. E. suprahyoid a.
15. The structure directly related to the back of the odontoid process of the atlas
vertebra is the:
A- Apical ligament B- Alar ligament
C- Horizontal band ofcruciate ligament D-Posterior atlantooccipital membrane
E-Tectorial membrane
16. The sphenoidal air sinus opens into the:
A- Superior nasal meatus B- Middle nasal meatus C- Hiatus semilunaris
D- Sphenoethmoidal recess E- Bulla ethmoidalis
17. Cancer in the tip of the tongue spreads to the following lymph nodes:
A- Submandibular B- Submental C- Parotid D- OccipitaI E- Pretracheal
30
 
18. The mucosa of laryngopharynx is supplied mainly by the following nerve:
A- Vagus (internal laryngeal branch) B- Vagus (pharyngeal branch)
C- Glossopharyngeal D-Cranial part of accessory
E- Trigeminal
19. The action of cricothyroid muscle is:
A-Shortens vocal cords B-Stretches vocal cords C-Adducts vocal cords
D-Abducts vocal cords E-Opens laryngeal inlet
20. Lies in the medial wall of middle ear cavity:
A- promontory B- tegmen tympani C- pyramid
D- carotid canal E- auditory tube
21. The branch of facial nerve that arises from the geniculate ganglion is the:
A-greater petrosal B- nerve to stapedius C- chorda tympani
D. posterior auricular E- cervical
22. Lymph drainage from the lobule of the ear passes to which group of lymph nodes:
A- jugulodigastric B- mastoid C- submental
D- submandibular E-superficial cervical
23. A patient developed painful spasm of the neck muscles. This is most likely due to
irritation of:
A-Spinal accessory n, B-great auricular n. C-lesser occipital n.
D-supraclavicular n. E-transverse cervical nerve
24. At birth, the conus medullaris ends at which vertebral level?
A- 1st lumbar B- 3rd lumbar C- 1st sacral
D- 3rd sacral E- 1st coccygeal
25. The ability to recognize an unseen familiar object placed in the hand depends on
integrity of which tract?
A-Lateral spinothalamic B-Ventral spinothalamic C-Spinocerebellar
D-cuneo-cerebellar E-Cuneate
26. The first order neuron in the pathway of pain from the face is:
A-dorsal root ganglion B-geniculate ganglion C-trigeminal ganglion
D-spinal nucleus of V E-substantia gelatinosa of Rolandi
27. The first order neuron in the pathway of taste sensation from the ant. 2/3 of the
tongue is:
A- dorsal root ganglion B- geniculate ganglion C- trigeminal ganglion
D. spinal nucleus of V E- substantia gelatinosa of Rolandi
28. Which of the following nuclei represent the somatic efferent column?
A- Abducent nucleus B- NucIeus solitarius C- Nucleus ambiguous
D- Dorsal vagal nucleus E- Motor nucleus of V
29. Nucleus in brain common to IX , X and XI cranial nerves:
A- Nucleus solitarius B- NucIeus Ambiguus C- Spinal nucleus of V
D- Salivatory nucleus E- Dorsal vagal nucleus

31
 
30. Which of the following cranial nerve nuclei is not connected to the medial
longitudinal bundle:
A-Oculomotor B-Trochlear C-Abducent D-Cochlear E-Facial
31. The superior cerebellar peduncle contains:
A- vestibulo -cerebellar tract B- Cuneo-cerebellar tract
C- Anterior spinocerebellar tract D- posterior spinocerebellar tract
E- Cortico-ponto-cerebellar fibers
32. 32-Which of the following thalamic nuclei relays motor impulses?
A-Anterior thalamic nuclei B-Intralaminar nuclei C-Dorsomedial nucleus
D-Lateral posterior nucleus E-ventral anterior nucleus
33. A patient presents with inability to understand words and speaks non
understandable words. Lesion is most likely in Brodmann areas number:
A-1,2,3 B-44, 45 C-17, 18 D-41,42 E-39,40
34. Changes in personality and judgment occur in lesion of:
A- Frontal lobe B- Parietal lobe C- Broca's area
D- Wernicke's area E- Temporal lobe
35. The fornix connects:
A-Thalamus & hypothalamus B-Hippocampus & hypothalamus
C-Hippocampus & substantia nigra D-Septal areas & habenular nuclei
E-Amygdaloid nuclei & septal areas
36. The caudate and lenticular nuclei form together what structure?
A-Stratum B-Pallidum C-Paleostriatum
D-Corpus striatum E-Neostriatum
37. Which of the following is a recess of fourth ventricle?
A-Optic recess B-Infundibular recess C-Lateral recess
D-Pineal recess E-Supraspinal recess
38. Arterial supply of Wernicke’s area is via:
A- anterior cerebral a. B-middle cerebral a. C-posterior cerebral a
D- anterior & middle cerebral a. E- anterior & posterior cerebral a.
39. A lesion in the anterior cerebral artery would most likely result in an inability to:
A- Smile B- Clench the fist C- Whistle
D- Swallow food E- Climb the stairs
40. A muscle derived from the second branchialarch ?
A- stapedius B- masseter C- stylopharyngeus
D- cricothyroid E- tensor palate
41. Innervation of the mucosa of post. 1/3 of tongue by glossopharyngeal n. indicates
its development from:
A-1st arch B-2nd arch C-3rd arch D-4th arch E-5th arch
42. The lateral part of the upper lip is derived from the:
A- maxillary prominence B- medial nasal prominence
C- lateral nasal prominence D- intermaxillary segment
E- frontal prominence
32
 
43. The posterior wall of Rathke's pouch gives the:
A- Pars distalis B- pars tuberalis C- pituitary cleft
D- pars intermedia E- pars nervosa
44. Bulging of the spinal cord and meninges through a defect in the back of vertebral
canal is called:
A- Rachischisis B- spina bifida occulta C- meningocele
D- meningomyelocele E- Anencephaly
45. Spongioblasts of the neural crest give rise to:
A- sensory ganglia B- sympathetic ganglia C- Schwann cells
D- melanocytes E- chromaffin cells
46. Which of the following is Not derived from the ventral mesogastrium?
A- greater omentum B-falciform lig. C- coronary lig.
D- right triangular lig. E- left triangular lig
47. The stem of liver bud gives rise to the:
A- Cords of hepatocytes B- Common bile duct C- Liver stroma
D- Liver sinusoids E- Gall bladder
48. During abdominal operation, the surgeon noticed that the transverse colon was
passing behind the second part of duodenum. This congenital anomaly is due to:
A- Persistence of vitellointestinal duct B-reversed rotation of midgut
C- failure of reduction of midgut D-failure of canalization of midgut
E- persistant mesentery of midgut
49. The first generation of division of the ureteric bud gives the:
A-The major calyces B-The collecting tubules C-The minor calyces
D-The loop of Henle E-The papillary duct of Bellini
50. The interstitial cells of Leydig are derived from this component of the indifferent
gonad:
A- coelomic epithelium B- sex cords C- endodermal germ cells
D- mesoderm between sex cords E- gubernaculum
51. The lower art of prostatic urethra as derived from:
A-absorbed mesonephric ducts B- Vesical part of urogenital sinus
C-pelvic part of urogenital sinus D- phallic part of urogenital sinus
E-ectodermal in growth in the genital tubercle
52. A septum in the uterus may develop due to a developmental fault in the:
A- Fusion of the two Mullerian ducts B- Fusion of the two sinovaginal bulbs
C- Canalization of the sinovaginal bulbs D- Aplasia of one Mullerian duct
E- Hypoplasia of the Mullerian duct
53. Which of the five muscles of the anterior abdominal wall arises only from the ribs?
A-External oblique B-Internal oblique C-Transversus abdominis
D-Rectus abdominis E-Pyramidalis

33
 
54. Which of the following structures is not a content of the spermatic cord?
A- Vas deferens B- Testicular artery C- Pampiniform plexus of veins
D- ilioinguinal nerve E- Cremasteric artery
55. Which of the following organs is retroperitoneal?
A- The liver B- The transverse colon C- The spleen
D- The ascending colon E- The stomach
56. 56-A gastric ulcer in the posterior wall of the stomach is dangerous because it may
erode the:
A-Splenic artery B-spleen C-transverse colon D-liver E-aorta
57. The impression just lateral to the hilum of the spleen is:
A- Colic B- gastric C- renal D- pancreatic E- jejunal
58. When compared with the Ileum, the upper part of the jejunum has:
A- more plicae circularis B- more peyer’s patches
c- more arterial arcades D- more mesenteric fat E- narrower lumen
59. Veins radiating from the umbilicus In portal hypertension involve anastomosis
between:
A-left gastric & azygos veins B- sup. rectal&inf.rectal veins
C- colic & lumbar veins D- paraumbilical&superficial epigastric veins
E- phrenic veins & veins of bare area of liver
60. Which of the following junctionsin theGlT has a valve made of two lips?
A- Gastroesophageal B- Pyloroduodenal C- Duodenojejunal
D- Ileocecal E- Rectoanal
61. Cancer in which of the following may spread to the inferior mesenteric lymph
nodes?
A- First part of duodenum B-Third part of duodenum C- ileum
D- Left colic flexure E- Lower part of anal canal
62. The common bile duct is located:
A- Behind head of pancreas B- Behind portal vein C- To the left of hepatic artery
D- Infront of first part of duodenum E- behind IVC
63. Which part of the duodenum is related to the neck of gall bladder?
A-1st inch of 1st part B- 2nd inch of 1st part C-2nd part
D-3rd part E- 4th part
64. The artery behind the right ureter is the:
A- Right gonadal a. B- Right colic a. C-Ileocolic a.
D- Superior mesenteric a. E-Bifurcation of right common iliac a.
65. The name "nervus furcalis" is given to the following lumbar nerve:
A-L1 B-L2 C-L3 D-L4 E-L5
66. The part of the levator ani muscle that is important for stool continence is the:
A- levator prostatae B- puborectalis C- pubococcygeus proper
D- iliococcygeus E- sphincter vaginae

34
 
67. Which of the following is a branch of the posterior division of internal iliac artery:
A-Superior gluteal a. B-Obturator a. C-Umbilical a.
D-Internal pudendal a. E-Uterine a.
68. Which of the following branches of the sacral plexus has the root value of S2,3,4:
A- superior gluteal n. B- Nerve to obturator internus C- Pudendal n.
D- Sciatic n. E- Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh
69. The sphincter urethrae is stimulated by:
A-Parasympathetic nerves B-Sympathetic nerves C- Pudendal nerve
D-Genitofemoral nerve E-Ilioinguinal nerve
70. Per rectal (P-R) examination in the male may not feel the following structure:
A- prostate B- ampulla of vas deferens C- seminal vesicles
D- base of urinary bladder E- urethra
71. The ejaculatory ducts pierce the following aspect of the prostate :
A- Apex B- Base C- Anterior surface
D- Posterior surface E- Inferolateral surface
72. The narrowest part of the uterine tube is the:
A- fimbria B- infundibulum C- ampulla D- isthmus E- intramural part
73. During vaginal examination, the external os was in the form of a transverse slit.
This woman is:
A- Had previous deliveries B-Virgin C- Menopausal
D- Menstruating E- Pregnant
74. Runs in the center of the corpus cavernosum of penis:
A- deep artery of penis B- artery of bulb C- dorsal artery of penis
D- Dorsal nerve of penis E- Deep dorsal vein of penis
75. The part of the musculature of the anal canal attached to the perineal body is the:
A-internal sphincter B-Subcutaneous external sphincter
C-Superficial external sphincter D-Deep external sphincter E-puborectalis sling
Match from 76 -80
76- Special visceral efferent A-Nucleus solitaries
77- General somatic efferent B-Mesencephalic nucleus
78- General visceral efferent C-Motor facial nucleus
79- Special visceral afferent D-Hypoglossal nucleus
80- General somatic afferent E-Dorsal motor nucleus of vagus

MCQ June 2013

1. The muscle supplied by two cranial nerves is the:
A- Trapezius B-Sternomastoid C-Omohyoid D- Digastric E-Thyrohyoid
2. The sensory nerve supply of the carotid body and sinus is the:
A-Glossopharyngeal B-Trigeminal C-Facial D-Hypoglossal E-Vagus

35
 
3. The inferior petrosal sinus connects the cavernous sinus to the:
A-Straight sinus B-Internal jugular vein C-Transverse sinus
D-Vertebral vein E-Inferior sagittal sinus
4. The nerve that contains sympathetic fibers to dilator papillae:
A- Oculomotor nerve B- Short ciliary nerve C- Lacrimal nerve
D- Frontal nerve E- Nasociliary nerve
5. Which of the following is present inside the parotid gland is?
A- Motor part of facial nerve B-Sensory part of facial nerve
C- Parasympathetic part of facial nerve
D- Motor and parasympathetic parts of facial nerve
E- Parasympathetic and sensory parts of facial nerve
6. The sublingual salivary gland is related medially to:
A- Mucosa of floor of mouth B- Geniohyoid C- Mandible
D- Mylohyoid muscle E- Lingual nerve
7. The inferior alveolar nerve supplies:
A- Hyoglossus muscle B- Stylohyoid C- Genioglossus
D- Geniohyoid muscle E- Mylohyoid
8. Deep to hyoglossus muscle is the:
A. First part of lingual artery B. Mylohyoid muscle C. Lingual nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Hypoglossal nerve
9. The first lymph node receiving lymphatic drainage from the most posterior portion
of the tongue is:
A. Submental B. Jugulodigastric C. Submandibular
D. Buccal E. Parotid
10. The anterior border of parotid gland Is related to
A. Cervical branch of facial nerve B. Temporal branch of facial nerve
C. Sternomastoid muscle D. Transverse facial artery
E. Superficial temporal vessels
11. The floor of digastric triangle is formed by:
A. Thyrohyoid and hyoglossus B. Thyrohyoid and mylohyoid
C. Superior and middle Constrictors D. Mylohyoid and hyoglossus
E. Middle arid inferior constrictors
12. The sensory nerve supply of oropharynx is the:
A. Cranial accessory nerve
B. pharyngeal branches of glossopharyngeal nerve
C. pharyngeal branches of pterygopalatine ganglia
D. pharyngeal branches of maxillary nerve
E. pharyngeal branches of vagus
13. Which of the following is a tributary if internal jugular vein?
A. Anterior jugular vein B. pharyngeal veins C. External jugular vein
D. Superior petrosal sinus E. Inferior thyroid veins

36
 
14. A 45-years-old woman is suffering from numbness over the tip of her nose. Which
of the following nerves is most likely to be damaged?
A. Trunk of mandibular nerve
B. Anterior division of mandibular nerve
C. Maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
D. Posterior division of mandibular nerve
E. Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
15. Tearing of the attachment of the falx cerebri from the tentorium cerebelli would
lead to the bleeding from which of the following venous sinuses?
A. Occipital sinus B. Sigmoid sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus
D. Straight sinus E. Transverse sinus
16. The muscle that abducts and depresses the eyeball is:
A. Superior rectus B. Inferior rectus C. lateral rectus
D.Superior oblique E. Inferior oblique
17. Difficulty in retraction of the mandible would Indicate damage to the:
A. Lateral pterygoid muscle. B. Temporalis muscle C. Masseter muscle.
D. Mylohyoid muscle. E. Medial pterygoid muscle.
18. All of the following nerves exit the middle cranial fossa except:
A. Abducent B. Facial C- Trochlear D. Oculomotor E. Trigeminal
19. The nerve that accompanies the superior thyroid artery is damaged during thyroid-
ectomy operation Which of the following muscle actions is affected
A. relaxing the vocal cords B. rotating the arytenoid cartilages
C. Widening the rima glottides D. Tensing the vocal cords
E. Abducting the vocal cords
20. The deep cervical artery is a branch of:
A. Costocervical trunk B. Thyrocervical trunk C. Inferior thyroid artery
D. Transverse Cervical artery E. Ascending cervical artery
21. A young girt complains of dryness of the nose and the palate. This would indicate a
lesion of which of the following ganglia?
A. Vagal ganglion B. Pterygopalatine ganglion C. Otic ganglion
D. Submandibular ganglion E. Ciliary ganglion
22. The middle ethmoidal air sinus drains Into the:
A. Superior meatus B. Bulla ethmoidalis C. Inferior meatus
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess E. Hiatus Semiliunaris
23. Which of the following arteries is a branch of maxillary artery?
A. Tonsillar B. Ascendig pharyngeal C. lingual
D. Middle meningeal E. Suprahyoid
24. A chain of successive neurons In the CNS having the same function as called:
A. lemniscus B. Commissure C. Tract D. Pathway E. Decussation
25. The crossed corticospinal tract occupies the:
A. Anterior limb of internal capsule B. Lateral white column of spinal cord
C. pyramid D. Basis pedunculi E. Basis pontis

37
 
26. The internal arcuate fibers in the medulla are axons of:
A. Nucleus Solitarius

B. superior olivary nucleus C. Accessory cuneate nuclei

D. lnferior olivary nucleus E. Gracile & cuneate nuclei
27. The spinal dura mater ends at the vertebral level of:
A. S1 B. S2 C. L1 D. L2 E. L3
28. The spinal cord region that has the richest blood supply IS:
A. Cervical B. lumbar C. Sacral D. Lower thoracic E. Upper thoracic
29. A patient having paraplegia with loss of pain sensation in spite of preservation of
proprioception In both lower limbs most likely has:
A. Complete transection of the spinal cord B. Anterior spinal artery Occlusion
C. Hemisection of the spinal cord D. Tabes dorsalis E. Poliomyelitis
30. The pontine cranial nerve that is not attached to the lower border of pons is:
A. Abducent B. Facial C. Vestibular D. Cochlear E. Trigeminal
31. The medial eminence in the floor of the fourth ventricle overlies the nucleus of:
A. Hypoglossal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve
D. Vestibular nerve E. Abducent nerve
32. The parasympathetic nucleus of the ninth cranial nerve is the:
A. Lacrimatory B. Dorsal vagal C. inferior salivatory
D. Superior salivatory E. Ambiguus
33. The nucleus that projects neocerebellar efferent is the:
A. Dentate B. Globose C. Emboliform D. Fastigial E. Vestibular
34. The thalamic nucleus for pain and temperature sensations of the head is the
A. Ventral anterior B. Ventral lateral C. posterolateral
D. Ventral posteromedial E. Lateral dorsal
Match the cortical area in column (A) with its lesion In column (B)
35. Area 17 A. Return of grasp reflex
36. Broca's area B. loss of conjugate eye deviation
37. Area 6 C. Astereognosis
38. Frontal eye field D. Motor aphasia
39. Superior parietal lobule E. Homonymous hemianopia
40. In which part of the internal capsule descend the corticonuclear fibers?
A.Anterior limb B.Posterior limb C.Retrolentiform part
D.Sublentiform part E.Genu
41. The subarachnoid cistern that does not contain blood vessels is the:
A. Cistern of lateral cerebral fossa B. Cisterna pontis C. Cisterna ambiens
D. Interpeduncular cistern E. Cisterna magna
42. The fornix connects the hippocampus with the:
A. Amygdala B. Mammillary bodies C. Prefrontal cortex
D. Uncus E. Isthmus

38
 
43. Which of the central branches of the circulus arteriosus supply the geniculate
bodies?
A. Central set B. Anteromedial set C. Posteromedial set
D. Anterolateral set E. PosteroIateral set
44. The first order neurons of taste pathway from the posterior 1/3 of tongue are
located in the
A. Superior ganglion of glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Inferior ganglion of glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Superior ganglion of vagus nerve
D. Inferior ganglion of vagus nerve E. Geniculate ganglion
45. The vessels and nerves of the anterior abdominal wall are deep to
A. internal oblique muscle B. External oblique muscle C. Skin
D. Superficial fascia E. Transverses abdominis muscle
46. The anterior wall of rectus sheath between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus is
formed by the aponeurosis of:
A. External oblique muscle
B. External and internal oblique muscles
C. internal oblique muscle
D. Internal oblique and transverses abdominis muscles
E. Transverses abdominis muscle
47. A direct inguinal hernia
A. Lies inferior to the inguinal ligament
B. Enters the deep inguinal ring
C. Enters the femoral ring
D. ties lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels
E. Lies medial LO the inferior epigastric vessels
48. In front of hilum of right kidney is:
A. Right lobe of liver B. Ileum C. Duodenum
D. Colon E. Right suprarenal gland
49. The commonest site for the appendix is:
A. Antececal B. Paracecal C. Paracolic D. Retrocolic E. Retrocecal
50. The fundus of gall bladder lies opposite the tip of costal cartilage number:
A.7 B.9 C.8 D.10 E.11
51. When compared with ileum, the upper part of the jejunum has
A. More mesenteric fat B. More payer’s patches C. More arterial arcades
D. More clossed windows E. More plicae circularis
52. Which of the following forms the posterior boundary oh the epiploic foramen
A. liver B. Aorta C. Duodenum
D. Lesser omentum E. Inferior vena cava
53. The left kidney reaches upwards to the level of
A. 10th rib B. 10th space C. 11thrib D. 11th space E. 12th rib
54. Which of the following nerves is a terminal branch of the sacral plexus
A. Superior gluteal B. Pelvic splanchnic C. Pudendal
D. Nerve lo obturator internus E. Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh

39
 
55. The abdominal part of the ureter lies In front of
A. External 0blique muscle B. Quadratus lumborum muscle
C. Rectus abdominus muscle D. psoas major muscle E. Iliacus muscle
56. Regarding the abdomina1 aorta
A. It lies on the right side of the inferior vena cava
B. It bifurcates in front of the fourth lumbar vertebra
C. The first branch is the renal artery
D. It enters the abdomen in front of the 10th thoracic vertebra
E. The thoracic duct leaves the abdomen on its left side
57. Regarding the pelvic part of sympathetic trunk:
A. It lies anterior to common iliac vessels
B. it lies latereal to anterior sacral foramina
C. It has no gangliaD. it gives preganglionic fibers to blood vessels
E. The two trunks unite in front of coccyx to form the ganglion impar
58. The commonest position of the uterus is
A. In line with the cervix and vagina B. Retroverted anteflexed
C. Retroverted retroflexed D. Anteverted anteflexed E. Anteverted retroflexed
59. Which of the following arteries is a parietal branch of the anterior division of
internal iliac artery
A. Superior gluteal B. Uterine C. Obturator D. Middle rectal E. Iliolumbar
60. The commonest site involved in senile benign enlargement of prostate is the
A. Anterior lobe B. Posterior lobe C. Right lateral lobe
D. Left lateral lobe E. Median lobe
61. The structure that opens In the center of the seminal Colliculus is the
A. ducts of prostatic glands B. prostatic Utricle C. Ejaculatory duct
D. Neck of urinary bladder E. Membranous urethra
62. The rectum
A. The peritoneum covers it completely B. Its length is 40 cm
C. Begins opposite the 1st piece of sacrum
D. Begins opposite the 3rd piece of sacrum
E. Ends at the 5th sacral vertebra
63. The trigone of the urinary bladder In male is related posteriorly to the
A. prostate B. external iliac vessels C. Levator ani
D. anal canal E. Seminal vesicles
64. Regarding the male urethra
A. The ejaculatory ducts open in the membranous part
B. The spongy urethra is the shortest part C. The prostatic part is the narrowest one
D. The prostatic part is the widest part
E. The spongy part is surrounded by urethral sphincters
65. The narrowest part of the uterine tube is the
A. Isthmus. B. Fimbria C. Ampulla
D. Infundibulum E. Intramural part

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66. Which nerve supplies the pharyngeal arch that gives rise to the styloid process
A. Mandibular B. Glossopharyngeal C. Superior laryngeal
D. Facial E. Recurrent laryngeal
67. The pharyngeal pouch that gives lie to the palatine tonsil Is the
A. First B. Second C. Third D. fourth E. Fifth
Match the structure in column (A) with its embryonic source in column (B):
68. Parafollicular cells A. Infundibular process
69. Lower lip B. Hypobranchial eminence
70. Vallate papillae C. Ultimobranchial body
71. Secondary palate D. Maxillay prominences
72. Posterior pituitary E. Mandibular prominences
73. A new born baby had attack of vomiting after cacti suckling what is the most likely
anomaly?
A. Thoracic stomach B. Accessory pancreas C. Reversed rotation of the stomach
D. Pyloric stenosis E. Absence of gall bladder
74. Which of the following is a derivative of the dorsal mesentery?
A. Falciform ligament B. Coronary ligament C. Triangular ligaments
D. Lesser omentum E. Greater omentum
75. Which of the following events no role role during development of the duodenum
A. Obliteration B. Recanalization C. Shift of bile duct opening
D. Rotation 90o to the left E. Absorption of mesoduodenum
76. During appendectomy, the surgeon noticed that the appendix was not inflamed on
inspecting the ileum. he found a small blind pouch arising about 60 cm from the
ileocecal Junction. This anomaly is due to
A. Failure of obliteration of the vitellointestinal duct
B. Failure of absorption of the dorsal mesenteryC. Failure of descent of the caecum
D. Failure of rotation of the midgut loop
E. Failure of migration of the’ vermiform appendix
77. During abdominal operation, the surgeon was surprised to find that the small
intestine was located on the right side of the abdomen and the colon on the left side
This condition Is caused by:
A. Rotation of midgut only 90o clockwise
B. Rotation of midgut only 90o anticlockwise
C. Rotation of midgut 270o clockwise
D. Rotation of midgut 270o anticlockwise
E. Non-rotٍation of the midgut loop
78. A defect in the septum separating the cloaca results in:
A. Rectal atresia B. Ectopia vesicae C. imperforate anus
D. urorectal fistula E. Megacolon
79. The passage of stools from the umbilicus indicates
A. Patent vitellointestinal duct B. Persistant mesenterv of midgut
C. Reversed rotation of midgut D. Failure of reduction of midgut
E. Failure of canalization of midgu

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80. The ureteric bud is derived from
A. The vesicourethral canal B. The Mullerian duct C. The nephron
D. The mesonephric duct E. The urogenital sinus

MCQ Sept 2013

1. The medial surface of submandibular salivary gland is related to:
A- Mandible B- Facial vein C- Mylohyoid
D- Medial pterygoid E- Genioglossus
2. The muscle attached to medial surface of mastoid process is supplied by:
A- Mandibular nerve B- Facial n. C- Cranial accessory
D- Spinal accessory E- Hypoglossal n.
3. Pain from capsule of parotid gland is carried by:
A- Auriculotemporal nerve B- Lesser petrosal nerve C- Facial nerve
D- Maxillary nerve E- Great auricular nerve
4. Bleeding in which layer of scalp causes black eye?
A-Skin B-Connective tissue C-Aponeurosis
D-Loose connective tissue E-Pericranium
5. The floor of anterior part of carotid triangle is formed by:
A- Mylohyoid and hyoglossus B- Hyoglossus and thyrohyoid
C-Thyrohyoid and mylohyoid D-Thyrohyoid and middle constrictor
E- Middle and inferior constrictors
6. A muscle that produces depression and intorsion of eyeball:
A. Superior rectus B. Inferior rectus C. Superior oblique
D. Inferioroblique E. Lateral rectus
7. A tributary of cavernous sinus is the:
A-Central retinal vein B- Pterygoid venous plexus C-Superior petrosal sinus
D-Inferior petrosal sinus E- Great cerebral vein
8. A branch from cavernous part of internal carotid artery is the:
A-Caroticotympanic artery B-Pterygoid artery C-Hypophyseal artery
D-Ophthalmic artery E-Anterior choroidal artery
9. Parasympathetic fibers in the orbit supply:
A- Dilator Pupillae B- Ciliaris muscle C-Muller’s muscle
D- Lacrimal sac E- Inferior oblique
10. A structure that lies between scalenus anterior and scalenus medius:
A-Subclavian artery B-Subclavian vein C-Spinal accessory
D-Lesser occipital E-Suprascapular nerves
11. The inferior border of thyroid isthmus is related to:
A-Superior thyroid artery B-Inferior thyroid artery C-Inferior thyroid vein
D-Trachea E-Sternohyoid and sternothyroid
12. A tributary of brachiocephalic vein:
A-External jugular vein B-Anterior jugular vein C-Suprascapular veins
D-Superior thyroid vein E-Vertebral vein

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13. A patient suffers from infection at the site of earrings , which group of lymph
nodes is likely to be enlarged:
A-Submental lymph nodes B-Submandibular lymph nodes
C-Parotid lymph nodes D-Anterior cervical lymph nodes
E-Superficial cervical lymph nodes
14. The space above superior constrictor contains:
A-Stylopharyngeus muscle B-Glossopharyngeal nerve C-Auditory tube
D-Stylohyoid ligament E-Pharyngeal raphe
15. A patient lost sensation from the soft palate , the nerve affected is:
A-Vagus B-Glossopharyngeal C-Facial D-Maxillary E-Accessory
16. A muscle that protrudes the tongue is:
A-Styloglossus B-Hyoglossus C-Genioglossus
D-Palatoglossus E-Superior longitudinal muscle
17. A nerve that lies deep to hyoglossus:
A-Lingual nerve B-Hypoglossal nerve C-Chorda tympani
D-Glossopharyngeal nerve E-Mylohyoid nerve
18. Fibers of C1 that joins hypoglossal nerve supply:
A-Geniohyoid and stylohyoid B-Geniohyoid and thyrohyoid
C- Thyrohyoid and sternothyroid D-Thyrohyoid and mylohyoid
E-Geniohyoid and omohyoid
19. Squeezing a boil on skin of nose could cause:
A-Facial palsy B-Diplopia C-Loss of sensation from skin of nose
D-Nasal regurgitation E-Bleeding from nose
20. A tumor in pituitary gland could spread inferiorly to invade:
A- Diaphragma sellae B- Optic chiasma C- Cavernous sinus
D- Pons E- Sphenoidal air sinus
21. A patient has dry eye and reduced nasal secretions , the lesion might be in:
A-Otic ganglia B- Ciliary ganglia C- Submandibular ganglia
D-Sphenopalatine ganglia E- Superior cervical sympathetic ganglia
22. Extra dural hematoma occurs due to rupture of a vessel that passes in:
A- Foramen rotundum B-Foramen ovale C-Foramen spinosum
D- Carotid canal E-Inferior orbital fissure
23. Dislocation of temporomandibular joint occurs due to excessive movements of:
A-Lateral pterygoid B-Sternohyoid C-Mylohyoid
D-Masseter E-Medial pterygoid
24. The transpyloric plane lies:
A- Halfway between xiphoid and symphysis pubis
B- At the level of the hila of the kidney
C- At the level of the body of L2
D- At the level of L5
E-At the level of the L4\L5 disc

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25. The deep inguinal ring is a hole in the:
A- External oblique aponeurosis B- Internal oblique aponeurosis
C-Transversus abdominis aponeurosis D- Fascia transversalis
E-Extraperitoneal fatty tissue
26. Which of the following structures is not present in the rectus sheath:
A-Rectus abdominis muscle B-Superior epigastric artery
C-Inferior epigastric artery D-Terminal parts of lower five intercostals nerves
E-Ilioinguinal nerve
27. The cremasteric muscle:
A-Is formed from smooth muscle fibers
B-Is a derivative of the external oblique muscle
C-Is supplied by femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
D-Is covering the testis in male and the ovary in female
E-Lies between the external and internal spermatic fasciae
28. Posterior relation of epiploic foramen is the:
A- Aorta B- Inferior vena cava C- Common bile duct
D- Hepatic artery E- Gastroduodenal a.
29. Regarding the celiac trunk:
A- Arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of the 2nd lumbar vertebra
B- Is accompanied by the celiac vein
C- Gives off the right gastric artery as a direct branch
D- Supplies all parts of the duodenum
E- Gives indirect supply to the gall bladder
30. The upper part of the jejunum in comparison with ileum:
A- Has a thinner wall B- Has complicated arterial arcades
C- Has numerous plicae cirularis D- Has more aggregated lymph follicles
E- Is less vascular
31. During splenectomy (removal of spleen) the splenic artery and splenic vein are
ligated within the following peritoneal ligament:
A- Gastrocolic ligament B- Gastrosplenic ligament C- Phrenicocolic ligament
D- Lienorenal ligament E- Falciform ligament
32. Which statement best describes the blood supply of the stomach?
A- It’s derived entirely from the superior mesenteric artery
B- The gastroepiploic arteries supply the lesser curvature.
C- The right gastric artery supplies the cardiac end
D- The left gastroepiploic artery arises directly from the celiac trunk
E- The short gastric arteries arise from the splenic artery
33. In a 75-year-old man with long history of smoking and atherosclerosis , occlusion
of which arteries would result in insufficient perfusion (arterial supply) of urinary
bladder:
A- External iliac B- Inferior epigastric C- Internal pudendal
D- Internal iliac E- Lateral sacral

44
 
34. Which of the following structures is closely related to the right kidney and is
enlarged by adrenalectomy (removal of suprarenal gland)?
A- Aorta B- Inferior vena cava C- Left hepatic vein
D- Right crus of the diaphragm E- Right renal artery
35. 35-Which of the following vessels is behind the right kidney and may be
endangered during nephrectomy?
A-Obturator B-Superior mesenteric C-Renal D-Gonadal E-Subcostal
36. The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta immediately
posterior to the following organs:
A-First part of the duodenum B-Head of pancreas C-Neck of pancreas
D-Second part of duodenum E-Third part of duodenum
37. The commonest site of the vermiform appendix is:
A-Retrocecal B-Paracecal C-Pelvic D-Subhepatic E-Preileal
38. A sharp object penetrating the wall of posterior fornix of vagina will reach:
A-Deep perineal pouch B-Ischiorectal fossa C-Rectovaginal pouch
D-Rectovesical pouch E-Vesicouterine pouch
39. In prostatic hypertrophy , the following structure is enlarged:
A-Interureteric crest B- Prostatic utricle C- Seminal colliculus
D-Sphincter urethrae E-Uvula vesicae
40. The female ureters:
A-Run posterior to the bifurcation of common iliac arteries
B-Run anterior to the ovaries
C-Run forwards and medially above the root of the broad ligament
D-Run posterior to the internal iliac arteries
E-Are closely related to lateral fornices of the vagina
41. Regarding the pelvic part of sympathetic trunk:
A- It lies anterior to common iliac vessels
B- It lies lateral to anterior sacral foramina
C- It has 3 ganglia
D- The two trunks unite in front of coccyx to form the ganglion impar
E- Its ganglia gave white rami communicantes to sacral nerves
42. All are true about the trigone of the bladder except:
A- Mucosa is loosely attached to the underlying musculature
B- Mucosa is thin and smooth C-Mucosa is sensitive and vascular
D- Derived from absorbed part of mesonephric duct
E- Distance between two ureteric orifices is about 5 cm in the full bladder
43. All of the following drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes except:
A- Lower part of the urethra B- Lower part of the vagina C- Scrotum
D- Ovaries E- Lower part of the anal canal
44. 44-All the following ligaments are supporting mechanisms of uterus except:
A- Uterosacral ligament B- Broad ligament
C- Mackenrodts (transverse cervical) ligament D- Round ligament
E- Pubovesical ligament

45
 
45. The artery to the ductus deferens is a branch of:
A- Inferior epigastric B- Superior epigastric C- Superior vesical
D- Cremasteric a. E- Middle rectal
46. In an adult male , on rectal (per rectal-PR) examination , all of the following
structures can be felt anteriorly except:
A-Internal iliac lymph nodes B-Bulb of penis C-Prostate
D-Seminal vesicle when enlarged E-Base of bladder
47. A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools , the nerve
mediating this pain is:
A-Inferior hypogastric nerve B-Pudendal nerve C-Splanchnic visceral nerve
D-Sympathetic plexus E-Superior hypogastric nerve
48. The artery supplying the midgut region is the:
A- Superior mesenteric B- Inferior mesenteric C- Celiac trunk
D- Hepatic E- Splenic
49. What are the two structures that develop from the ventral aspect of the hepatic
bud?
A-Liver, Pancreas B-Liver, Gall bladder C-Pancreas, Gall bladder
D-Duodenum, Liver E-Duodenum , Pancreas
50. Between week 6 and week 10 , the midgut undergoes overall (total) rotation of:
A-90 degrees B-180 degrees C-270 degrees D-300 degrees E-360 degrees
51. To which of the following structures Meckel’s diverticulum is associated?
A-Duodenum B-jejunum C-Ileum D-Transverse colon E-Sigmoid colon
52. The urinary system develops mainly from:
A- Ectoderm B- Paraxial mesoderm C- Intermediate mesoderm
D- Lateral plate mesoderm E- Endoderm
53. In which of the following regions the first kidney develops?
A- Cervical B-Thoracic C- Lumbar D- Sacral E- Cloaca
54. The urorectal septum is in between:
A-Anorectal canal, Urogenital sinus B-Urogenital sinus, Mesonephric duct
C- Urinary bladder, Allantois D-Urachus, Allantois
E- Mesonephric duct , Ureteric bud
55. During the 4th week of development , in what region does the branchial apparatus
develop?
A- Head B- Neck C-Thorax D- Abdomen E- Pelvis
56. Which two bones develop from the first arch?
A- Malleus and Incus B- Malleus and Stapes C- Incus and Stapes
D- Incus and Styloid process E-Styloid process and malleus
57. Which pharyngeal pouch gives the structure that allows you to equalize the
pressure in your ears by blowing into a pinched nose?
A- First B- Second C- Third D- Fourth E- Sixth
58. The primary palate forms the premaxilla that holds:
A- Molars B- Premolars C- Incisors D- Canines E- Wisdom teeth

46
 
59. What type of facial anomaly would start at the lip and extend to the orbit?
A- Oblique facial cleft B- Median cleft C- Cleft lip
D- Anterior cleft E- Posterior cleft
60. The posterior wall of Rathke’s pouch gives:
A- Pars distalis B- Pars tuberalis C- Pars intermedia
D- Pars nervosa E- Infundibulum
61. A bundle of nerve fibers in the CNS having the same beginning , termination and
function is called:
A- Pathway B- Tract C- Lemniscus D- Commissure E- Decussation
62. The tube of spinal dura-arachnoid ends at the level of:
A-1st lumbar B- 3rd lumbar C- 1st sacral D- 2nd sacral E- 1st coccygeal
63. The ability to recognize an unseen familiar object placed in the hand depends on
integrity of which tract?
A- Lateral spinothalamic B- Ventral spinothalamic C- Spinocerebellar
D- Cuneo-cerebellar E- Dorsal column
64. Regarding the medulla oblongata , the medial zone containing the pyramid is
supplied by:
A- Posterior spinal artery B- Anterior spinal artery
C- Posterior inferior cerebellar artery D- Basilar artery
E- Posterior cerebral artery
65. Which of the following nuclei represent the somatic efferent column?
A-Abducent nucleus B- Nucleus solitaries C-Nucleus ambiguous
D- Dorsal vagal nucleus E- Motor nucleus of trigeminal
66. The inferior cerebellar peduncle contains:
A- Dentatothalamic tract B- Gracile tract C- Anterior spinocerebellar tract
D- Posterior spinocerebellar tract E- Cortico-ponto-cerebellar fibers
67. The flocculo-nodular lobe of the cerebellum is concerned with:
A-Voluntary movements B-Equilibrium C-Reflexes
D-Muscle tone E-Involuntary movements
68. Which of the following thalamic nuclei projects to the cingulated gyrus?
A-Anterior B-Ventral lateral C-Ventral posterior lateral
D-Pulvinar E-Lateral geniculate
69. Motor aphasia occurs in lesion of:
A-Frontal lobe B-Parietal lobe C-Temporal lobe D-Occipital lobe E-Insula
70. The caudate and putamen together form the:
A- Striatum (neostriatum) B- Pallidum (paleostriatum) C- Basal nuclei
D- Globus pallidus E- Corpus striatum
71. Which of the following is made by association fibers?
A- Internal capsule B- Cingulum C- Anterior commissure
D- Forceps minor E- Tapetum

47
 
72. The cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius connects:
A-Third and fourth ventricles B-Lateral and 3rd ventricles
C-Lateral and 4th ventricles D-Fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space
E-Fourth ventricle and central canal
73. A lesion in the anterior cerebral artery would most likely lead to inability to:
A- Smile B- Whistle C- Swallow food D- Clench the hands E- Climb the stairs
74. A patient who can’t see the lateral halves of the eye fields likely has a lesion in:
A- Optic nerve B- Optic chiasma C- Optic tract
D- Lateral geniculate body E- Primary visual cortex
75. The fornix ends in the:
A-Thalamus B- Mammillary bodies C- Substantia nigra
D- Lentiform nucleus E- Amygdaloid nulei
Choose the nucleus from column B that suits the statement in column A:
A B
76. Parotid A- Nucleus solitaries
77. Muscles of tongue B- Mesnecephalic nucleus
78. Heart C- Inferior salivatory nucleus
79. Taste D- Hypoglossal nucleus
80. Proprioception E- Dorsal motor nucleus of vagus
Essay June 2013
Cases
Case(1):- (11 marks)
A patient presented with a red , swollen and painful right eye. The movements of
the right eye were painful and the pupil of that eye was fixed and dilated. CT scan
showed thrombosis of the cavernous sinus.
1. Define the venous sinus & its functions? (2marks)
2. Describe the site and contents of the cavernous sinus. (4marks)
3. Define the dangerous area of the face. Explain why this area is dangerous?
(2marks)
4. Name the veins terminate in the cavernous sinus. (3marks)
Case(2):- (6marks)
A 54 years old man presented with a tumor in the posterior cranial fossa. The
neurologist wanted to check the integrity of the 9th , 10th and 11th cranial nerves.
1. How can you test for integrity of vagus nerve? (1mark)
2. Enumerate sensory branches of glossopharyngeal nerve. (2marks)
3. Name the muscle(s) supplied by the accessory nerve. (3marks)

48
 
Case(3):- (7marks)
An old man had right side hemiplegia sparing the distal part of lower limb follow-
ing a stroke.Neurological examination & investigation diagnosed intracerebral
hemorrhage that interrupted the blood supply to the frontal and parietal lobes.
1. List the functional areas of the parietal lobe. (4marks)
2. Would you expect the speech to be affected in this patient? State why? (2marks)
3. Which cerebral artery was involved? (1mark)
Case(4):- (7marks)
A 27 years old man was admitted to the surgical ward with hematemesis (vomiting
blood). After resuscitation, clinical investigations had diagnosed portal
hypertension.
1. Explain the cause of hematemesis in this case. (1 mark)
2. List other site(s) could be involved in such case. (2 marks)
3. Describe formation, course & termination of the portal vein. (4 marks)
Short Essay:
1. 1-Enumerate the derivatives of mesonephric duct. (4 marks)
2. 2-Mention boundaries and floor of carotid triangle of the neck. (4 marks)
3. 3-Name the tract(s) carrying touch sensations of the face. (3 marks)
4. 4-List structures related to the first part of duodenum. (4 marks)
5. 5-Describe the blood supply of urinary bladder. (4marks)
Essay Sept 2013
1. A young inexperienced doctor opened a parotid abscess by making a vertical
incision, the patient became unable to raise the eyebrow on the operated side.
a) Which nerve was injured? Specifically, mention the branch that was cut.
(2 mark)
b) What could the doctor do to avoid the lesion? (1 mark)
c) What are the structures present within the substance of the parotid gland?
Mention how they enter and leave the gland. (3 marks)
d) Mention the surface anatomy of the parotid duct. (1 mark)
2. A 50-year-old male started to complain from difficulty in swallowing few
weeks ago. He had a computerized tomography scan (CT scan) on the neck
done, it revealed the presence of a swelling (most likely cancer) near the jugular
foramen.
(a) In this patient, which nerves could be involved and led to dysphagia?
(3 marks)
(b) Which venous sinuses are endangered by the cancer? (1 mark)
(c) Describe the sensory and motor supply of the pharynx. (3 marks)
3. A 70-year-old man suddenly developed right sided hemiplegia with aphasia, he
could move his foot weakly but was unable to close his fist at all on the affected
side. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) proved the occurrence of cerebral
embolism.

49
 
 (a) Which cerebral artery is likely occluded? Explain (3 marks)
(b) Locate the speech areas that you know. Mention their functions. (3 marks)
4. A 25-year-old patient had an operation under spinal anesthesia. During recovery
, he could not feel the back of his lower limb with difficulty in climbing the
stairs by the right foot.
(a) If the site of lumbar puncture was correct and the spinal cord was not
injured, what else could have been injured? (1 mark)
(b) Where is the correct site for doing a lumbar puncture? (1 mark)
(c) Where does the spinal cord normally end in such a patient? (1 mark)
(d) What is the level of termination of the spinal meninges? (2 marks)
5. A 40-year old lady developed pain in the right shoulder. Her doctor noticed that
she feels pain when he touches a certain point in the upper right part of her
abdomen. She had ultrasonography that showed the presence of multiple small
gall bladder stones. After few months she developed obstructive jaundice.
(a) Explain the pain in the right shoulder. (1 mark)
(b) Locate the point of maximum pain in the abdomen in this patient. (1 mark)
(c) What is the length of the common bile duct? (1 mark)
(d) Describe the course and termination of the common bile duct. (4 marks)
6. A 60-year-old man observed fresh blood on passing stools. On rectal
examination, the doctor discovered cancer rectum.
(a) If the cancer spreads anteriorly, which structures may be invaded? (2 marks)
(b) Which artery causes bleeding of the cancer is limited to the mucosa (1 mark)
(c) If the cancer spreads along lymphatics, which groups may be involved?
(2 marks)
7. (a) Enumerate the derivatives of the pharyngeal arch supplied by the facial
nerve. (4 marks)
(b) List the derivatives of the dorsal and ventral mesogastria. (4 marks)
Essay June 2014
Answer All questions -please answer each question or case in a separate page & in
the same order as they are listed below:
short essay questions (5 marks each):
1. Describe the nerve supply of the larynx.
2. List the structures seen in the floor of the 4thventricle.
3. Compare between the jejunum and the ileum.
4. Describe the anatomy of the anal sphincters.
5. Discuss the fate of the mesonephros in the male.
Problem solving questions (5 marks each) :
6. During surgical removal of the thyroid gland, a ligature slipped from the
superior thyroid artery. To stop the bleeding, the surgeon blindly
compressed the artery with a forceps. Later, the patient spoke with husky
voice.
a. From your anatomical knowledge, explain the reason to the husky voice.
b. Enumerate the veins draining the thyroid gland & their termination.

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7. A 50-year-old hypertensive woman suddenly developed loss of sensation
and weakness in her right hand.
a. Occlusion of which cerebral artery can cause this? Explain.
b. Where does this artery arise from?
c. What are the deep structures supplied by its central branches?
8. A 40-year-old man discovered a swelling in his right grion that bulges out
on coughing. His doctor noticed that the swelling did not reach the
scrotum. He alsonoticed an old appendicectomy scar. He told the patient
that a fault in the appendicectomy might have caused his grion swelling.
a. From your anatomical knowledge, which type of inguinal hernia the patient is
having? Explain the reason for your diagnosis.
b. What had probably been injured during the appendicectomy? How could it
lead to this hernia?
9. A married couple brought their one-year-old child to the doctor
complaining that his right scrotum was empty while the left side contained
a testis. The doctor searched several superficial sites that could probably
contain the missing testis.
a. If none of the examined sites contained the testis, what is the likely
diagnosis? What would the diagnosis be if the testis was found in any of these
sites (for example, in the root of the penis)?
b. What is the role of the gubernaculum in either case?
c. List two more sites that the doctor searched.
10. While riding a bicycle, a 24-year-old man fell and his perineum hit the bar
of the bicycle strongly. Later, he did not pass urine, few drops of blood
passed out from his external urethral meatus and painfull swelling of his
lower part of the anterior bdominal wall that did not extend into the thighs
was noticed. A diagnosis of ruptured urethra was made.
a. Which part of the urethra is likely injured?
b. What prevents extension of the swelling down the thighs?
c. Name three other sites where the swelling would extend to.

Answers
Head
(1) pg 6 (bregma + clinical significance of fontanelles)
(3) pg 17( occipito-frontalis muscle)
(4) Venous drainage pg 19 (scalp) or pg 24 (face) , surgical significance: they
communicate with intracranial venous sinuses by emissary veins so they may be the
routes for spread of infection from outside to the cranial cavity ,,
Examples:
- Parietal emissary vein connects veins of scalp with superior sagittal sinus.
- Dep communications of anterior facial veins pg 24.
(5) pg 24 (6) Posterior auricular and occipital arteries
(7) Skin of external nose is supplied by:

51
 
-external nasal n. (branch of anterior ethmoidal of nasociliary of ophthalmic)
-infratrochlear n. (branch of nasociliary of ophthalmic) to the sides
-infraorbital n. (continuation of maxillary n.) to the ala
(9) Layers of scalp pg 16 , 17 , 18 ,,, nerve supply pg 21
(10) Leaves the lower end of parotid then divides into anterior & posterior divisions
; the anterior division + anterior facial vein form common facial v. which ends in
IJV & the posterior division + posterior auricular v. form EJV
(12) After it exits the skull through the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve gives
off the posterior auricular nerve which innervates the postauricular muscles and
occipital belly of occipito-frontalis , muscular branches which innervate the
stylohyoid muscle and posterior belly of the digastric muscle
- Then the facial nerve crosses lateral to the styloid process and penetrates the
parotid gland. In the parotid gland, it forms the pes anserinus then divides into 5
terminal branches: Temporal , Zygomatic , Buccal , Marginal mandibular &
Cervical , it innervates 14 of the 17 paired muscle groups of the face on their deep
side as orbicularis oris and buccinators.
-Injury at this site leads to motor paralysis of muscles of facial expression.
(13) Superior & inferior labial arteries to upper and lower lips , lateral nasal to ala
of nose , angular to medial angle of the eye , small muscular branches
(18,19,20) Parotid gland pg 29 , 30 ,31 ,32 , 33 is important…
(22) Cavernous sinus pg 42, 43 (door awal 2013)
(23) pg 46(28) pg 92,93,94(31) pg 90,91
(32) Motor nerve supply of tongue: all muscles of the tongue are supplied by
hypoglossal n. except palatoglossus which is supplied by cranial accessory n.
joining vagus through pharyngeal plexus.
Sensory: (general): anterior 2\3 via lingual n. , posterior 1\3 and vallate papillae via
glossopharyngeal n. , most posterior part via vagus via internal laryngeal n.
(special): anterior 2\3 via chorda tympani branch of facial n. , posterior 1\3 &
vallate via glossopharyngeal , most posterior part via vagus via internal laryngeal n.
38-(CASE):
a-Because the wall of arteries adhere to the connective tissue septa which prevent
them from contraction or retraction
b-By pressing on the wounded artery…c-pg 18
d-The loose connective tissue layer , as it allows spread of infection from the scalp
to the cranial cavity through emissary veins
39-(CASE):
a-On the summit of sublingual papilla at the side of frenulum of tongue
b- The lingual n. hooks around the duct from lateral to medial
c- pg 94 (via submandibular ganglion)
d-Submandibular fossa of mandible , insertion of medial pterygoid m. & facial a.
separating them from the gland
40-(CASE):
a- A weak area in the skull , lies 4 cm above the middle of zygomatic arch and 3
and 1\2 cm behind fronto-zygomatic suture , formed by frontal , parietal , temporal
and greater wing of sphenoid bones.
52
 
b- Because the middle meningeal artery enters the skull above the middle of
zygomatic arch , terminates into 2 terminal branches 2cm above the middle of
zygomatic arch so fracture in the area of pterion will lead to injury of a branch of
the middle meningeal a. (the frontal branch) which will lead to accumulation of
blood causing extradural hematoma which may lead to contralateral hemiplegia.
41-(CASE):
1-The main arterial supply is the maxillary artery.
2-The main nerve is the mandibular nerve
Branches: From the trunk: Nervus spinosus, nerve to medial pterygoid which
supplies medial pterygoid, tensor palate and tensor tympani.
From anterior division: buccal nerve, nerve to lateral pterygoid, nerve to masseter
andnerve to temporalis.
From posterior division: auriculotemporal nerve, lingual nerve and inferior
alveolar nerve
3-Loss of taste sensation due to affection of chorda tympani which joins lingual n.
The nucleus that receives taste sensation is the nucleus solitarius .
42-(CASE):
a-Temporomandibular joint , synovial condylar.
b-Ligaments pg 85 , the most important functionally is the lateral
temporomandibular ligament as it prevents posterior dislocation of head of
mandible.
c-Auriculotemporal and masseteric nerves.

Neck
(4) Boundaries and contents of any triangle (pg 16pg 25 , pg 30,31) are important
(carotid triangle door awal 2013)
(6) Distribution of any nerve and test of its injury (pg 39pg 45)
(vagus and glossopharyngeal door awal 2013) (8) Branches of subclavian a. pg 47

Beginning : sternoclavicular joint of both sides

End of its first part : medial to scalenus anterior muscle
(9) Carotid sheath pg 15
(10) Thyrocervical trunk is a branch of 1st part of subclavian a. , it gives : inferior
thyroid a. , transverse cervical a. , suprascapular a.
(12) Jugular veins pg 55 , 56 , 57 , 58 (relations ml3’eyya) (13) pg 72
(16) -Motor n. supply of tensor palati : nerve to medial pterygoid (a branch of
mandibular nerve trunk)
- Thyrohyoid : C1 fibers that accompany hypoglossal n.
(17) -Pharynx : pg 80 -Larynx : pg 91
CASES:
1-1-As thyroid gland is invested by the pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia
which attaches the gland to the trachea and larynx.
2-Parathyroid glands , during ligation of superior thyroid a. the superior laryngeal
branch of vagus could be injured , during ligation of inferior thyroid a. the recurrent
laryngeal branch of vagus could be injured.
53
 
3-pg 34 (arterial supply and venous drainage) 4-pg 39
5- - Hyoglossus: Action: depression of tongue during swallowing
Nerve supply: Hypoglossal nerve
-Sternohyoid: Action: depression of hyoid bone (after its elevation during
swallowing and vocal movements)
Nerve supply: ansa cervicalis
-Lateral pterygoid: Action: depression , protrusion and( side to side movement of
mandibletogether with medial pterygoid)
Nerve supply: pterygoid branch of anterior division of mandibular nerve
-Inferior oblique of eye: Action : Elevation , abduction and extorsion of eyeball
Nerve supply: inferior division of occulomotor n.
-Sternocleidomastoid: Action: acting on one side: tilting the head to its own side
and so rotating the face to the opposite side.
Acting on both sides: flex the head anteriorly , act during forced inspiration
Nerve supply: Motor : spinal accessory n.
Sensory(proprioceptive): ventral rami of C2&C3
2-1-Torticollis 2-Left sternocleidomastoid muscle
3- Nerve supply: Motor : spinal accessory n.
Sensory(proprioceptive): ventral rami of C2&C3 4-Trapezius muscle
3-1-Common carotid a.2- 3rd arch
3-Opposite disc between C3 and C4 , at the upper border of thyroid cartilage.
4-Internal jugular vein is lateral to it.
5- -Carotid sinus (contains baroreceptors for controlling ABP)
-Carotid body (acts as chemoreceptor controllint O2 and Co2 contents of the blood)
4-1-The thyroid swelling moves up and down with swallowing because it is
invested by pretracheal layer of the deep cervical fascia. ( 1 mark)
2-The thyroid swelling cannot extend up beyond the oblique line of the thyroid
cartilage due to attachment of infrahyoid (sternothyroid ) muscles. (1 mark)
3-Changes of voice occur due to injury of external laryngeal nerve (supplies
cricothyroid muscle) during ligation of superior thyroid artery .Injury of recurrent
laryngeal nerve which supplies other laryngeal muscles occurs during ligation of
inferior thyroid artery. Muscle cramps occur due to removal of the parathyroid
glands during thyroidectomy.(3 marks)
4-Two congenital anomalies of thyroid gland: any two (2 marks)
a. Agenesis of the gland.
b. Incomplete descent ; the gland may be found at any point between the base of
the tongue and the trachea (e.g. lingual thyroid). c. Thyroglossal cyst
nd
5-1-Subclavian artery (2 part) lies between scalenus anterior and medius.
2-The brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between the scalenus anterior and
medius. The subclavian vein and phrenic nerve pass anterior to the scalenus
anterior. (pg 64)
6-1-Inferior thyroid a.2-Recurrent laryngeal branch of vagus n.
3-Motor: All intrinsic muscles of larynx except cricothyroid (the muscles are:
Posterior and lateral crico-arytenoid , transverse and oblique arytenoids ,
thyroarytenoid , aryepiglottic and thyoepiglottic muscles)
54
 
Sensory: mucosa below vocal cords.
4-Paralysis of all the previous muscles causing changes in voice and muscle cramps
,, loss of sensation in mucosa below vocal cords.
7-a-Maxillary air sinus.
b-Because: drainage is difficult as its drainage orifice lies near the roof , discharge
from an infected frontal or anterior ethmoidal air sinus can reach it , also because
it’s closely related to teeth so spread of infections from teeth reach the sinus.
c- As during sleep (lying down) drainage will be more difficult
d-Infraorbital and superior alveolar ns.
Neuroanatomy 
Spinal cord:-
(3,4) From body , lateral spinothalamic t. pg 20 , from face trigemino-thalamic t. pg
21
(5) Gracile t. pg 18(6) pg 24,25
(9) Gracile & cuneate tracts pg 18 + cuneocerebellar t. pg 19(10) pg 26
(11) Hemisection of spinal cord pg 29 (Important MCQ)
(12) pg 28 (NB: cervical segements depend more on anterior and posterior spinal
arteries)
Brain stem:-
(pg 42pg 46) very important (type of fibers in each nerve , nuclei , distribution)
(8) pg 48 (very important)
Cerebral hemispheres:-
Each lobe and the functional areas in it (pg 66  pg 70) very important
(9) Blood supply of internal capsule pg 77
Blood supply of the brain (pg 8589) very important
Special sensory pathways (most important are taste and visual)
CASES:
1-1-Syringomyelia.
2-Due to degeneration of crossing fibers of lateral spinothalamic t. carrying pain
and temperature sensations.3-Cervical and upper thoracic segments.
2-(2012 , June 2013)
1-Left middle cerebral a.2- pg 68, 69
3-Yes , as the left hemisphere is the dominant and it contains the speech areas
broca’s and Wernicke’s.
3-1-In the posterior part of inferior surface of thalamus.
2-Auditory radiation to the auditory area of cortex.
4-1-Interventricular foramen of Monro.2-pg 84
3-Superior sagittal sinus  confluence of sinuses  right transverse sinus right
sigmoid sinusright internal jugular vein.
5-1-Occlusion of posterior inferior cerebellar a. which supplies the lateral part of
medulla oblongata.2-pg 48
Abdomen
(1) Inguinal canal pg 23,24,25,26(2) Pg 74,75(3) Pg 30,31,32(4) Pg 38,39
(5) Pg 44,45,46,47,48 (structures forming stomach bed = posterior relations of
stomach)
55
 
(6) Peritoneal coverings and relations in Pg 52,53 ,, blood supply: rt gastric a. , rt
gastroepiploic a. , supraduodenal a.
(7) Pg 82,83,84
(8) , (9) Pg 101,102,103 – blood supply pg 104
(10) Pg 77,78 – sites of porto-systemic anastomosis pg 81
(11) Pg 111,112
CASES:
12-a-In the rt iliac fossa ,the base of the appendix is represented on the anterior
abdominal wall by Mc Burney’s point which lies at the junction of the lateral 1\3
and medial 2\3 of a line extending from the rt ASIS to the umbilicus.It lies 2 cm
below the ileocaecal junction.
b-Retrocaecal
c- In the rt iliac fossa ,the base of the appendix is represented on the anterior
abdominal wall by Mc Burney’s point which lies at the junction of the lateral 1\3
and medial 2\3 of a line extending from the rt ASIS to the umbilicus. It lies 2 cm
below the ileocaecal junction.
d-External abdominal oblique muscle
e-Around the umbilicus: As the vermiform appendix is also supplied by T10
segement (in addition to sympathetic plexus around SMA) which supplies the skin
around the umbilicus.
In the rt iliac fossa: due to irritation of the parietal peritoneum.
13-a-Structures forming the stomach bed (posterior relations of stomach pg 44 , 45)
b-Splenic a.c-Pg 48
14-a- Jejunum (or descending colon.)
b-Parts of greater omentum , stomach
c- Comparison between jejunum and ileum pg 59 , comparison between small &
large intestine pg 61.
15-a-T10
b-External iliac lymph nodesCommon iliac lymph nodesLateral aortic lymph
nodesCisterna chili Thoracic duct
16-1-Direct inguinal hernia
2-Inguinal as it was seen above the medial end of inguinal ligament , direct as it
didn’t descend to the scrotum. It happened due toold age and chronic cough.
3-Medially: lateral border of rectus abdominis.
Laterally: inferior epigastric a.
Inferiorly: inguinal ligament
4-From behind forwards:
-Fascia transversalis along its whole length.
-Conjoint tendon in its medial 1\2
-Reflected part of inguinal ligament in its medial 1\4
17-1-As the bile duct is lodged or completely embedded within the substance of
head of pancreas so it’s obstructed by the head enlargement due to cancer.2-Pg 86
Pelvis
(1) Pg 13,14 (2) Pg 14 (3) Pg 19 (4) Pg 28,30,31
(5) Relations of the base of urinary bladder in female & male pg 32
56
 
(6) Surfaces and relations of urinary bladder pg 33 ,, development: special
embryology pg 87 (the summary)
(8) Abdomen: Pg 30,31,32 (9) Prostate pg 43,44,45
(10) Ovary pg 46,47,48 (11) Uterine tube pg 48,49
(12) Uterus pg 50,51,52,53,54,55,56,57
(13) Broad ligament of the uterus (Important) pg 53,54,55
CASES:
1-1-Inferior rectal (pudendal) n.
2-External rectal (perimuscular) venous plexus which lies outside the external anal
sphincter and communicates with the internal plexus.
3-It begins at the recto-anal junction one inch below and infront of tip of coccyx ,
It’s directed downwards and backwards from the recto-anal junction to the anus ,
It’s about 2.54 cm in length.
2-1-The penile part at its junction with the membranous part of the urethra.
2-External urethral sphincter (sphincter urethrae)
3-Mucosa of posterior wall of prostatic urethra presents:
- Urethral crest in the middle , on each side of it there’s a prostatic sinus containing
openings of ducts of prostate.
-At the middle of the urethral crest there’s an elevation called seminal colliculus
containing prostatic utricle in the middle and openings of ejaculatory ducts on each
side
4- Prostatic and membranous urethraeinternal iliac lymph nodes , penile urethra
to the deep inguinal lymph nodes and few vessels pass to the superficial lymph
nodes.
Embryology
*Development of Head and Neck:
(1,2,3) Pg 110 (4) Pg 114(5) Pg 112,113(6) Pg 125
(7) Pg 122 , anomalies: cleft palate pg 123(8) Pg 116
(9) -The 2 lateral parts are derived from the maxillary prominences , the philtrum is
derived from the frontonasal prominence (the fused medial nasal folds – the
intermaxillary segment)
-Anomalies: Cleft lip pg 123(10) Pg 117
*Development of spinal cord:
-Histogenesis of neural tube pg 128,129, the spinal cord pg 130,131
*Development of GIT:
(1) Cloaca pg 75, anal canal pg 76(2) Pg 66,67(3) pg 75 (partitioning of cloaca)
*Development of Urogenital system:
(2) Urinary bladder pg 86,87
* Enumerate derivatives of mesonephric duct pg 80 (June 2013)
CASES:
1-1- Patent urachus (urachal fistula)2-Summary pg 87
3- From the vesical portion of the primitive urogenital sinus
2-1-Branchial cyst2-From 1st pharyngeal cleft
3- Epithelium of thymus : from ventral part of 3rd pharyngeal pouch ,, also part of
thymus is derived from ventral part of 4th pharyngeal pouch
57
 
3-Rachischisis is failure of the neural tube to close
Anomalies of spinal cord pg 132
MCQ 2011
1-A / 2-C / 3-D / 4-B / 5-D / 6-B / 7-C / 8-C / 9-E / 10-A / 11-D / 12-B / 13-C / 14-E /
15-E / 16-D / 17-D / 18-C / 19-C / 20-D / 21-D / 22-E / 23-A / 24-D / 25-B / 26-E / 27-
B / 28-D / 29-D / 30-D / 31-B / 32-A / 33-A / 34-B / 35-A / 36-C / 37-D / 38-A / 39-B /
40-B / 41-A / 42-B / 43-B / 44-E / 45-C / 46-E / 47-B / 48-C / 49-D / 50-C / 51-C / 52-
C / 53-A / 54-C / 55-C / 56-E / 57-A / 58-A / 59-B / 60-B / 61-B / 62-C / 63-D / 64-B /
65-C / 66-E / 67-B / 68-C / 69-B / 70-E / 71-C / 72-C / 73-C / 74-A / 75-E / 76-D / 77-
C / 78-B / 79-D / 80-B
MCQ 2012
1-A / 2-B / 3-E / 4-A / 5-B / 6-B / 7-D / 8-C / 9-E / 10-B / 11-C / 12-E / 13-C / 14-D /
15-C / 16-D / 17-B / 18-A / 19-B / 20-A / 21-A / 22-E / 23-A / 24-B / 25-E / 26-C / 27-
B / 28-A / 29-B / 30-E / 31-C / 32-E / 33-E / 34-A / 35-B / 36-D / 37-C / 38-B / 39-E /
40-A / 41-C / 42-A / 43-D / 44-D / 45-C / 46-A / 47-B / 48-B / 49-A / 50-D/ 51-C / 52-
A / 53-A / 54-D / 55-D / 56-A / 57-D / 58-A / 59-D / 60-D / 61-D / 62-A / 63-B / 64-E /
65-D / 66-B / 67-A / 68-C / 69-C / 70-E / 71-D / 72-E / 73-A / 74-A / 75-C / 76-C / 77-
D / 78-E / 79-A / 80-B

June 2013
Case 1:-1-Venous sinuses are: venous channels lying between the 2 dural layers, they
are lined by endothelium , have no muscular walls and valveless.
Functions: drain brain , meninges , bones & CSF, connected to extracranial veins via
emissary veins that drain finally to the IJV (to neutralize the pressure inside the cranial
cavity).
2-Cavernous sinus:
*Site:-Anteriorly: extends to the medial end of the superior orbital fissure & the apex
of orbit.
-Posteriorly: extends to the apex of petrous temporal bone and crus cerebri of midbrain.
-Medially: pituitary gland and sphenoidal air sinus.
-Laterally: temporal bone.-Superiorly: optic tract and ICA.-Inferiorly: foramen
lacerum.
*Contents:-In the lateral wall from above downwards: oculomotor , trochlear ,
ophthalmic and maxillary nerves.
-In the centre: ICA with its sympathetic plexus and abducent nerve inferolateral to the
artery.
3-Dangerous area of the face is: the triangular area of skin including the upper lip ,
nose and medial angles of the eye.
-It’s dangerous because if this area is infected , the infection would spread to the
cavernous sinus causing its thrombosis.*Ex: squeezing a boil on the skin of the nose.
4-Veins terminate into the cavernous sinus:
-Superior ophthalmic , inferior ophthalmic veins and central vein of the retina from the
orbit.-Superficial middle cerebral vein and inferior cerebral vein from the brain.
-Sphenoparietal sinus and frontal trunk of the middle meningeal vein from the
meninges.

58
 
Case2:-
1-Test for integrity of vagus nerve: examining the palatal arches on both sides, on
paralysis there’s no arching and uvula is deviated to the normal side.
2-Sensory branches of glossopharyngeal nerve:
-SVA fibers (the middle part of nucleus soltarius) carrying taste sensation from the
posterior 1\3 of tongue and circumvallate papillae.
-GVA fibers (spinal nucleus of trigeminal) carrying general sensation from the
oropharynx , posterior 1\3 of tongue , palatine tonsils , auditory tube and middle ear.
3-Muscles supplied by cranial accessory nerve:
*Its Cranial part unites with vagus and supplies:
-Stylopharyngeus muscle & other muscles of pharynx through pharyngeal branch of
vagus.
-All muscles of the palate except tensor palati. (it supplies levator palati , musculus
uvulae , palatoglossus & palatopharyngeus)
-Muscles of larynx through recurrent laryngeal branch of vagus except cricothyroid. (it
supplies posterior & lateral crico-arytenoid , transverse & oblique arytenoids , thyro-
arytenoid , ary-epiglottic & thyro-epiglottic muscles)
*Its spinal part supplies: sternomastoid and trapezius muscles.
Case3:-
1-Functional areas of the parietal lobe:
-Somatosensory area I-Somatosensory area II-Taste(gustatory) area 43
-Stereognosis centre-Most of part of Wernicke’s area 40,39
2-The speech will be affected in this patient as the dominant hemisphere (which is
usually the left one) is damaged , which contains the sensory speech area of Wernicke
in the supramarginal and angular gyri of parietal lobe , the patient cannot understand
spoken or written words but speaks fluently (wrong words).
3-Middle cerebral artery.
Case4:-
1-Cause of hematemesis:
There’s a porto-systemic anastomosis in the wall of abdominal oesophagus between the
oesophageal tributaries of the left gastric vein(portal) and those of the azygos and
accessory hemi-azygos veins(systemic) , so portal hypertension leads to engorgement
of these veins which lead to hematemesis.
2-Other sites could be involved:
-Rectal and anal canal walls: anastomosis between superior rectal vein(portal) and
middle & inferior rectal veins(systemic)hemorrhoids.
-At the umbilicus: connections between the paraumbilical veins to the left branch of
portal vein(portal) and superficial epigastric veinthe caput medusae.
-At the bare area of the liver , the posterior abdominal wall or rarely in the liver due to
patent ductus venosus connected to the left branch of portal vein.
3-Portal vein:-
*Formation:Behind the neck of pancreas at the level of L1,L2 (pyloro-duodenal
junction) by union of superior mesenteric and splenic veins.
*Course:Ascends infront of IVC upwards & a little to the right first behind the neck of
the pancreas , next behind the 1st part of duodenum and lastly in the free margin of
lesser omentum.

59
 
*Termination:In the porta hepatis by dividing into right and left branches ending into
right and left lobes of liver.
Short Essay:-
1-Derivatives of mesonephric duct:-
*In male:-The blind upper end appendix of the epididymis.
-The caudal most part the ureteric bud , the trigone of urinary bladder and the back
of prostatic urethra above the ejaculatory ducts.
-The rest of the duct the body and tail of epididymis , vas deferens , seminal vesicles
and the ejaculatory ducts.
*In female:
-The caudal most part the ureteric bud , the trigone of urinary bladder.
-The rest of the duct Gartner’s duct.
2-Carotid triangle:-
*Boundaries:
-Superiorly: posterior belly of digastrics.
-Anteriorly: superior belly of omohyoid.
-Posteriorly: anterior border of sternomastoid.
-Roof: skin , superficial fascia and investing layer of deep cervical fascia.
*Floor:
-Anteriorly: hyoglossus and thyrohyoid muscles.
-Posteriorly: middle and inferior constrictors of pharynx.
3-Tracts carrying touch sensation from face:
Trigemino-thalamic tract: -1st order neuron: Trigeminal ganglion.
-2nd order neuron: Main sensory nucleus.
-3rd order neuron: VPMN of thalamus sensory cortex.
-The trigeminal nerve supplies the skin of face through its 3 divisions : ophthalmic ,
maxillary and mandibular except area over the angle of mandible and capsule of
parotid gland by great auricular nerve (C2 & 3).
4-Structures related to 1st part of duodenum:
*1st inch:-Anteriorly: quadrate lobe of liver.
-Posteriorly: neck of pancreas.-Superiorly: lesser omentum.
-Inferiorly: greater omentum and head of pancreas.
*2nd inch:-Anteriorly: quadrate lobe of liver and neck of gall bladder.
-Posteriorly:Bile duct to the right.-Gastroduodenal artery to the left.-Portal vein.-IVC.
-Superiorly: opening into the lesser sac.-Inferiorly: head of pancreas.
5-Blood supply of urinary bladder:
*Arterial: -In male: superior and inferior vesical arteries.
-In female: superior vesical and vaginal arteries.
-Other arteries: obturator , inferior gluteal and middle rectal.
*Venous:Vesical venous plexus , continuous with prostatic plexus in male and vaginal
plexus in female  Internal iliac veins.

60
 
Physiology

61
 
 Sensory Nervous System
1. Define synapse and describe its types (3 M) (June 2014)/Discuss the mechanism
and properties of synaptic transmission. (May 2001)
2. List four properties of synaptic transmission and explain 2 of them. (May 2011)/
Define convergence and divergenceand mention the significance of each during
signal transmission betweensynapses (Sept 2014)
3. Explain what is meant by postsynaptic inhibition, presynaptic inhibition, and
lateral inhibition. Give example for each. (May 2006) & Define inhibitory post
synaptic potential and explain its ionic bases (3 marks) (June 2013)
4. Mention the properties of the receptor potential. Describe the mechanism of
adaptability receptors and differentiate between adaptation and fatigue.
(May 2010)
5. Define "the generator (receptor) potential ".Describe its ionic bases and its
characteristics. (May 2003)-(Properties: Sept 2013)
6. State the general principles of coding sensory information in the nervous
system. (May 2006)
7. Classify the different sensations. Discuss briefly touch sensation.
(September 1999)
8. Compare and contrast the fast and slow pain (June 2014)/ and discuss the spinal
and supraspinal pain control mechanisms.
(May 1999-2001) (Sept 2004-2008-2012)
9. Describe the pain control mechanisms. (May 2000)
10. State and explain modulation of pain sensation (September 2006)
11. Describe the role of brain and spinal cord analgesic system in pain control.(Sept
2001) & Spinal gate control (June 2013)/ Explain mechanism of stress
analgesia. (Sept 2014)
12. Describe referred pain and give 2 examples. Explain the theories of referred
pain. (Sept2000)(May 2009)
13. Define referred pain and explain its mechanisms. (May 2012-Sept 2013)
14. Describe briefly types, pathway and center of perception of cutaneous pain.
Explain pain analgesic system. (May 2002)
15. Compare between somatic and visceral pain. (Sept 2004)
16. List the function of the cortical sensory areas. (May 2005)
17. Discuss the characters and functions of primary somatic sensory area (1).
Describe the effects of its lesion. (May 2004)
18. Compare the sensory manifestations of thalamic lesion with a lesion affecting
the sensory cortex .Discuss thalamic syndrome. (May2007)
19. List and explain the effects of syringomyelia cavity involving the cervical and
the thoracic segments of the spinal cord. (May 2005)
20. Define ataxia. What are the causes and characteristic features of its different
types? (May 2008)

62
 
 Motor Nervous System
1. Describe the properties of reflex arc. . (Sep 2000)
2. Indicate the function of stretch reflex. Describe how it is measured. (May 1999)
3. Describe briefly the stretch reflex and its function .List the supra spinal centers
affecting the stretch reflex. (May 2000-2014) (Sept 2012)
4. List the properties of stretch reflex. Mention the function of gamma (γ) efferent
fibers. (May 2009)
5. Describe the static stretch reflex and explain its value in differentiating various
neurological lesions. (May 2012)
6. Compare and contrast stretch and inverse stretch reflex .
(Sep 2004 - May 2001- May 2008)
7. Compare &contrast the flexor withdrawal reflex & crossed extensor reflex.
8. State the functions of gamma motor neurons and explain why they are
stimulated at the same time as alpha motor neurons during voluntary muscle
contractions. (Sep 2006)
9. Explain the significance of gamma motor neurons in the maintenance of muscle
tone. (Sep 2005)
10. Examination of a patient shows the following on the right lower limb: weakness
and flaccidity of calf muscles associated with the absence of knee jerk, ankle
jerk and planter reflex. What neurological structure may be affected to produce
these findings. (Sep 2006)
11. Mention the areas responsible for planning of the motor act and explain the
effect of lesion in the area 6 on the fine and gross movements(3m)(June
2013)&Compare and contrast functions and effects of lesions in area 4 and 6
(Sept 2008-2014) (May2006-2011)
12. Discuss the physiological role of cortical motor function.
13. Describe the control of body movements. (May 2003)/ describe the role of
cerebrocerebellum in controlling voluntary motor act (3 M) (June 2014)
14. Compare & contrast the function of pyramidal and non-pyramidal tracts.
15) Mention the different inputs on spinal lower motor neurons. Explain briefly
how these inputs affect motor function. (May 2007)
15. Differentiate between upper and lower motor neuron lesions as regards the
causes and extend of paralysis. (3 marks) (Sept 2013)
16. Discuss briefly the effect of complete transection of spinal cord at mid thoracic
level. (May2002)
17. Define spinal shock, and describe the initial and long-term changes in spinal
reflexes that follow transection of the spinal cord. (May 2004)
18. Predict the immediate and delayed effects of a lesion to the posterior limb of
internal capsule. (Sept 2005)
19. Describe the functions of the basal ganglia. Discuss briefly the effect of lesion
in Substantia Nigra. (May 2002)
20. Explain the role of the basal ganglia in regulation of muscle tone and
voluntary movementsand the effect of its lesions on it (3 marks)(Sept 2012-

63
 
 2014) (June 2013) +Outline the clinical features of the degenerative disease
affecting basal ganglia. (May 2010)
21. Describe briefly the cases and manifestations of Parkinson’s disease.
(Sept 99-2000)
22. List the physiological divisions of cerebellum and mention function of each.
(May 2012) & role of cerebrocerebellum in regulating voluntary motor act.
(Sept 2013)
23. Explain the role of cerebellum in coordination of voluntary movement
(May2005)
24. Discuss the different functions of neocerebellum related to its connections.
(Sep 2001- May 2000)
25. Define ataxia. What are the causes and characteristic features of its different
types? (May 2008)
26. Differentiate between clinical spasticity and rigidity. (May 2007)

Higher Brain Function

1) Summarize functions of the semicircular canals, the utricle, and the saccule?
(May 2008)
2) You cannot detect movement during traveling by a plane but you can detect the
start and end of movement in a car. Can you explain why? (May 2007)
3) Explain the basic mechanism which maintain the upright posture. (May 2005)
4) Define sleep, mention its types and compare between them regarding recorded
brain waves and threshold for arousal (June 2014)/Describe the mechanisms of
sleep. Compare and contrast between its types. (May 2003) (Sept 2008)
5) Mention the characteristics of rapid eye movement sleep and explain why it’s
called paradoxical sleep. (May 2011)
6) Define memory. Describe its declarative type and explain how memory can be
consolidated (Sept 2014)/ Compare between short term & long term memory.
List the factors affecting consolidation of memory. (May 2009)
7) Compare and contrast between short and long term memory. (May 2012)
8) Define learning and mention types of simple and associative learning. Explain
the underlying mechanism of each type. Outline the cause and the characters of
Alzheimer’s disease. (May 2010)
9) List the areas of the brain believed to be involved in the production of speech
and their function-describe the different types of aphasias produced by damage
to these areas. (May 2008-Sept 2012)
10) Outline the process of normal speech and differentiate between aphasia and
dysartheria. (Sept 2005)

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11) Speech is due to coordinate refined movements. Explain the change in speech
produced by the following lesions: (May 2006)
I –Lesion of neocerebellum .
II –Lesion of wernicke's area.
12) It is dangerous to swim or dive in water for patient with defective labyrinthine
function. Can you explain why? (May 2007)
13) List the functions of Limbic system (Sept 2013)

Special Senses
1. Describe the formation and drainage of aqueous humor. What is glaucoma?
(Sept 2004)
2. Describe the function of aqueous humor (May 2012) & formation and drainage
(Sept 2013)
3. Outline the function of the iris and list four causes of miosis. (May 2012)
4. What is the near response? Discuss the underlying mechanisms and mention its
neural pathway & function. (May2000, 2003.sep 2008)
5. Explain how visual accommodation is achieved and mention the defects
associated with myopia and hypermetropia and astigmatism. (May 2005)
6. List the function and the clinical significance of light reflex. Describe the
pathway of light reflex. (May 2008)
7. Compare photopic and scotopic vision.(May 2011-2014) Explain purkinje shift
phenomenon. (Sep 99, May 2002)
-Compare and contrast between rods and cones.(4marks) (Sept 2012-2014)
8. Explain briefly the changes in retinal sensitivity on exposure to dark & bright
light.(May2001,2009)&electrical changes in the retina on light exposure (4m)
(June 2013)
9. What is meant by “Binocular vision, double vision and monocular vision?
(May 2006)
10. State the functions of the outer and middle ear? (Sept 2005)
11. Describe the contents of middle ear and discuss the function of each. (May 99.
Sep2000)&Describe the function of the middle ear muscles.
(2marks) (Sept 2012)
12. Explain the role of middle ear in sound wave amplification (4 M)Explain the
role of bony ossicles and basilar membrane in sound transmission. (May 2011)
13. Explain the role of bony ossicles in hearing. (May 2012)
14. List the sequence of events that occur between entry of sound wave into the ear
and the firing of action potentials in the cochlear nerve.
(May 2004-2007) (Sept 2006-2008-2014)
15. List the steps involved in mechanisms of hearing. Discuss the cochlear
microphonic potential. (May 2009)
16. Discuss discrimination of sound by cochlea. (Sept 2001)

65
 
17. Describe cochlear microscopic potential. Explain how pitch, intensity, and
localization of sound are discriminated by the cerebral cortex. (May 2010)
18. Compare between function of primary auditory cortex and auditory association
(June 2013)&mention the effect of their lesion on sound perception (Sept 2013)
19. Describe the four basic taste modalities and explain the mechanism of
stimulation of the taste receptors in each one. (4marks) (Sept 2012)

Endocrine System
1. Describe hypothalamic- pituitary relationship (May 2012)/ hypothalamic
pituitary connection and mention its significance (June 2014)
2. List the hormones released by the posterior pituitary? State the origin of these
hormones and explain how the hypothalamus regulates their release (2005)
3. Compare the relationship between the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary with
the relationship between the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary. Describe how
anterior pituitary hormones’ secretion is regulated. (2002-2008)
4. List the different anterior pituitary hormones and explain how the hypothalamus
controls the secretion of each. (May 2011)
5. Describe factors affecting secretion of growth hormone. State the effects of
hypersecretion of this hormone in man of 25 years old
(1999-2000-2001-2008-Sept2013)
6. What are the typical signs and symptoms of acromegaly? (2007)
7. Describe the effects of prolactin during pregnancy and after labour (its function)
and mention the effects of hyperprolactinemia.(4 marks) (Sept 2012-June 2013)
8. Describe regulation of ADH secretion.Mention the effects of its deficiency.
(May 2011)
9. Discuss the actions of thyroid hormones on metabolism, what is the source of
most circulating T3? , C.V.S . (1999-2000-2001-2005-2008-2010)
10. Explain the role of thyroid hormone in growth. (May 2012)
11. Discuss function &control of secretion parathyroid hormones. (1999-2008)
12. Explain the action of PTH and the regulation of its secretion. What is the
characteristic feature of hypoparathyroidism? (2008-Sept 2013)
13. Outline the immediate and delayed actions of PTH on bone. (May 2012)
14. Compare the control of calcitonin release with parathyroid hormone. What
effects does calcitonin have on calcium metabolism? (2006)
15. What is tetany? What are its causes? What are the physiological basis in the
treatment of the tetanic state. (May 2005)
16. Describe the action &control of secretion of aldosterone
(1999-2002-2009) (June 2014)
17. Describe briefly the function and mechanisms of aldosterone hormone
secretion. Explain how the secretion of this hormone is regulated.
(2002)(May 2011)

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18. Discuss the functions of cortisol hormone. What are the manifestations of
hypercortisolism? (2003)&control of cortisol secretion. Explain Addisonian
crisis. (5marks) (Sept 2012) (June 2013)state the drawbacks of its prolonged use
in therapy (Sept 2013)
19. Where is ACTH produced? What does it do? Explain how its secretion is
regulated. Explain what is meant by congenital adrenal hyperplasia. (2006)
20. Describe the function of insulin hormone. And explain its mechanism of action.
(2001)
21. List the actions of insulin and glucagon and explain the regulation of their
secretion (2006) Compare the metabolic actions of insulin and glucagon
hormones. (May 2011)
22. Discuss briefly hormonal regulation of blood glucose level. (1999) (Sept 2014)
23. List the hormones needed for normal growth. What are the endocrinologic
causes of dwarfism? and how does each lead to short stature? (2004)/ Both
growth hormone and thyroid hormones are needed for growth. Mention their
actions on growth and the effect of deficiency of each before puberty
(Sept 2014)
24. List the hormones essential for life. Describe the mechanism of action and
regulation of secretion of each hormone. (2010)

Reproductive System
Male Reproductive System:
1. Discuss factors controlling spermatogenesis (May 1999) (Sept 2014)
2. Explain the hormonal control of spermatogenesis. Mention the effect of
undescended testes on testicular function (September 2004) &indicate the cause
of sterility in cryptorchidism (June 2013) & state the effects of androgens on the
male accessory sex organs (September 2006) &function of testosterone
(Sept 2013)
3. Discuss the functions of Sertoli cells. (May 2005-2009-2014) (Sept 2012)/
describe the control of testicular function (Sept 2001) \Explain feedback control
of testicular function (May 2012)
4. Describe the reproductive and non-reproductive functions of testosterone
hormone in adult male (May 2011)
Female Reproductive System:
1. Discuss briefly the female reproductive cycles. (May 2003)
2. Compare the phases of menstrual cycle according to uterine and ovarian events
(May 2004)
3. Mention the 3 phases of uterine cycle. Explain the underlying hormonal
mechanisms for each phase (May 2010),(May 2012)
4. Compare physiological function of Estrogen & progesterone (Sept 1999-2005)/
explain how estrogen and progesterone have both synergistic and antagonistic
effect on uterus (June 2014)

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5. Mention the sources of estrogen. Outline its main functions. (Sept 2008)
6. Illustrate with diagram how the LH surge is controlled and mention its effects.
(May 2011)
7. List the hormones secreted by the placenta. What is meant by fetoplacentalunit
(May 2008) & Function of placenta (Sept 2013-2014)
8. State the actions of human chorionic gonadotropin and mention its clinical
significance (4 marks) (June 2013)
9. What is menopause? state its causes ?List the hormonal and anatomical changes
that occur after menopause? Do men get a similar state?
(May 2007-Sept 2012)
Renal System
1. What are the distinguishing characteristics of a superficial nephron? (May 2007)
& Describe component of Juxtaglomerular apparatus, and mention its
importance (Sept 2012) (June 2014)
2. State and explain the most unique feature of renal circulation. (May 2006)
3. Discuss the regulation of renal blood flow. Describe how it’s measured.
(May 1999)
4. Explain the intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms that regulate renal blood flow.
(May 2010)
5. What is meant by " renal autoregulation"? Explain the mechanisms that lead to
autoregulation of renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate . (May 2005)
6. What are the preglomerular blood vessels? Which blood vessels in the kidney
provide for the greatest resistance to blood flow? How would selective changes
in preglomerular or postglomerular renal vascular resistance alter GFR?
(May 2008)
7. Explain forces determining glomerular filtration. Describe factors affecting
GFR (September 1999) (September 2000) +Define glomerular filtration
(May 2009)
8. What is the GFR in normal human? How can GFR be measured? Can GFR be
elevated clinically? (May 2005)(May 2008)
9. Explain regulation of glomerular filtration (September 2008)
10. What are the pressures favoring and opposing glomerular filtration? How can
GFR be measured? (May 2007)
11. Dicuss the forces involved in glomerular filtration. Explain why glomerular
filtration rate is normally high and list four conditions in which glomerular
filtration rate decreases (May 2002)
12. State the composition of the glomerular filtrate and explain how it is produced
(September 2006)
13. Discuss the renal plasma clearance concept (May 2003)&mention its equation
and explain how it is used to measure blood flow. (4marks) (Sept 2012)

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14. Define the term "renal plasma clearance " and explain why clearance of inulin is
equal to glomerular filtration rate.(May 2006) & explain why the clearance of
inulin is used for measuring the glomerular filtration rate (May 2010)
15. Explain how fluids and solutes reabsorbed by the renal tubules are taken up into
plasma (September 2005)
16. What are the pressures favoring and opposing renal tubular reabsorption. How
can reabsorption by the proximal tubule be modulated? (May 2007)
17. Compare Na reabsorption in the proximal and distal convoluted tubules of the
kidney (May 2011)
18. What is the distal nephron? compare and contrast the functions of the proximal
renal tubule and the distal nephron (May 2005)
19. Very Important : How does Na affect reabsorption of other elements in PCT?
20. State the transport and permeability characteristics of the descending and
ascending loop of Henle and the vasa recta (May 2005)
21. Explain how the countercurrent exchange occurs in the vasa recta and state the
functional significance of this mechanism (September 2006)
22. Explain how the countercurrent multiplier system works and discuss its
functional significance (May 2008)& its role in urine concentration (Sept 2013)
23. Describe the factors affecting the ability of the kidney to concentrate urine (May
2000) & ADH role (June 2013)
24. Describe the mechanisms by which the kidney produces concentrated urine.
(September 2008)
25. Explain the role of loop of henle and vasa recta in urine concentration.
(May 2012)
26. 26-Define diuresis and difference between water,osmotic and pressure diuresis.
(3marks)(Sept 2006-2012-2014)
27. Describe the details of the tests used in man for assessment of glomerular
function (May 2004)
28. Discuss briefly the methods used for testing the renal functions (May 2001)
29. Explain themain body defense systems against the change in hydrogen
concentration regarding rapidity of action and efficiency (Sept 2001) (May
2011-2014)/renal tubular buffering mechanisms of H ions secretion (June 2013)
30. Outline the different mechanisms regulating blood PH. Mention the factors
affecting H secretion. (May 2012)
31. Describe the role of the kidneys in the regulation of acid-base balance
(Sept 2004)
32. Suppose a person with diabetes mellitus had an arterial pH of 7.3, an
abnormally low arterial Pco2 , and an abnormally low bicarbonate
concentration. What type of acid –base disturbance would be this ? What might
have caused it?

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33. Define anion gap, what is its normal value and the significance of its calculation
(Sept 2014)
34. Compare and contrast uncompensated and compensated respiratory acidosis.
(Sept 2008)/ Describe body correction of uremic acidosis (June 2014)
35. Explain the mechanism of micturation. (May 2010-Sept 2013)/ Discuss
voluntary control of micturition (Sept 2014)
36. What are the immediate and the delayed effects of complete transection of the
spinal cord in the thoracic region on micturation? (May 2005)
Digestive System
1. What are the major physiological functions of salivary secretion? How is
salivary secretion regulated physiologically? (Sep 2005) (May 2007) Compare
and contrast between simple and acquired reflexes controlling salivary secretion
(5m) (June 2013)
2. Describe the mechanism of deglutition.List the phases of swallowing reflex.
(Sept 2014)
3. Discuss pharyngeal esophageal stage of swallowing. (May 2012)
4. Outline the phases of gastric secretion. Explain the first two phases
(Sept 2000) (May 2008)
5. Describe the mechanisms concerned with the release of gastric hormones. What
are their functions?
6. Describe the regulation of gastric secretion. (May2002-2004-2013) (Sep 2002)
7. Discuss the mechanism of gastric secretion. (May 2002)
8. Enumerate the gastrointestinal hormones and describe the release and function
of one of them. (May 2000) (Sep 2003) (May 2005)
9. Discuss the mechanisms of secretion and formation of gastric HCl. Mention the
different stimuli that affect it.
10. State the mechanisms concerned with the release of gastrin hormone. What are
the major actions of this hormone? (May 2006)
11. Explain the effect of fatty meal on the gastric and intestinal secretions
12. What is the cause and mechanism of vomiting?
(Sept 2004) (May2005)(Sept 2013)
13. Describe the mechanism of exocrine pancreatic secretion and its control. What
is the role of pancreas in digestion? (1996) (Sep2005-2006) &With the help of a
diagram discuss the neural and hormonal regulation of pancreatic secretion
(Sept2012) (June 2014)
14. Write short notes on:
1 - Gastro-colic reflexes. 2 - Cholagogues.
15. Discuss the types and mechanisms of small intestinal secretions.
16. Discuss the function of gall bladder and its evacuation.
(May 2001-2003-2011-2014)

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17. Describe the role of bile salts in fat digestion and absorption.
(1996) (May 2001)
18. Describe the regulation of hepatic bile secretion (May 2012) & Describe
enterohepatic circulation of bile salts and its importance. (5marks) (Sept 2012)
19. Trace the pathway of formation, conjugation, and excretion of bilirubin and
explain how jaundice may be produced. (Sep2009)
20. Describe the functions of cholecystokin in. (Sept 2013)/ Compare between
secretin and cholecystokin in regarding their actions on the pancreas and biliary
system (Sept 2014)
Metabolism

1. Discuss the thermoregulatory mechanism on exposure to hot weather.

Summarize the sequence of events leading to fever.
(May 2002-2004-2014) (Sept 2001-2005-2006-2008)
2. Describe thermoregulatory activated by exposure to cold water or cold climate.
(1999 Sep ) (2000 May) (2005 May) (2008 May)
3. Define and locate thermoregulatory centers. Explain briefly thermoregulatory
mechanisms to cold exposure. (May 2011-Sept 2012)
4. Discuss the role of hypothalamus in temperature regulation. (May 2008)
5. rite short notes on the appestat centre &discuss the factors regulating its activity
(May 2003) (2009 May)
6. Define the specific dynamic action and explain its causes. (May 2012)
7. Define respiratory RQ and discuss its significance. (May 2001) (May 2006)
8. Discuss BMR &what its value in normal adult? Describe bases of calculating
caloric requirement of a person. (May 1999)
9. 9-Define basal metabolic BMR & describe factors affecting it. (Sept 2000-
2004) (May 2007-2010)/ mention its value. Enumerate three diseases
accompanied by increased (BMR) (Sept 2014)/ state the effect of pregnancy and
hot climate on it (Sept 2012)
10. Discuss the change in metabolism of organic substances during severe
starvation.
11. Mention the thermogenic hormones and explain the mechanism of fever
(4 marks) (June 2013)
June 2013
Answer the following questions : (65 marks)
1. a) Define inhibitory post synaptic potential and explain its ionic bases (3 marks)
b) Describe spinal gate controlling pain transmission (3 marks)
2. a) Mention the areas responsible for planning of the motor act and explain the
effect of lesion in the area 6 on the fine and gross movements (3 marks)
b) Explain the effect of basal ganglia on muscle tone and the effect of its lesions
on it (3 marks)
c) List sensory centers of speech and the function of each (3 marks)

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3. a) Explain the electrical changes in the retina on light exposure (4 marks)
b) Compare between function of primary auditory cortex and auditory
association area (4 marks)
4. a) Explain the role of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in urine concentration
(5 marls)
b) Describe renal tubular buffering mechanisms of hydrogen ions secretion
(5 marks)
5. a) Describe the functions of prolactin and indicate the effect of hyperprolactin-
aemia in female and in male (5 marks)
b) Describe factors controlling cortisol secretion (5 marks)
6. a) State the actions of human chorionic gonadotropin and mention its clinical
significance (4 marks)
b) Mention the hormonal factors affecting spermatogenesis . Indicate the cause
of sterility in cryptorchidism (4 marks)
7. a) Compare and contrast between simple and acquired reflexes controlling
salivary secretion (5 marks)
b) Describe regulation of hydrogen acid secretion by the gastric parietal cells
(5 marks)
8. Mention the thermogenic hormones and explain the mechanism of fever
(4 marks)
Sept 2013

1. a. Describe properties of receptor potential. (3 marks)

b. Define referred pain and explain its mechanisms. (3 marks)
2. a. Differentiate between upper and lower motor neuron lesions as regards the
causes and extend of paralysis. (3 marks)
b. Describe the role of cerebrocerebellum in regulating voluntary motor act.
(3 marks)
3. a. Enumerate functions of the limbic system. (3 marks)
b. Describe the formation, drainage and functions of aqueous humor.(3 marks)
c. Compare the functions of primary auditory cortex and auditory association
area and mention the effect of their lesion on sound perception. (3 marks)
4. a. Describe the mechanisms regulating growth hormone secretion and mention
the effects of its hypersecretion after puberty. (5 marks)
b. List the target organs for parathyroid hormone. Describe its effect on each
one and explain the effect of its deficient secretion. (5 marks)
c. Describe the physiological functions of cortisol hormone and state the
drawbacks of its prolonged use in therapy. (5 marks)
5. a. Describe the functions of testosterone at puberty. (3 marks)
b. Describe the functions of the placenta. (3 marks)

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6. a. Explain the role of the counter current multiplier system in urine
concentration. (5 marks)
b- Discuss the mechanism of micturition. (5 marks)
7. a. Define vomiting and describe briefly its mechanism. (5 marks)
b. Describe the functions of cholecystokinin. (5 marks)
8. Define basal metabolic rate and state the effect of pregnancy and hot climate on
it. (3 marks)
June 2014
Answer the following Questions: (65 marks )
1. a) Define synaps and describe its types (3 M)
b) Differentiate between fast pain and slow pain (3 M)
2. a) Describe supraspinal control of stretch reflex (3 M)
b) Describe the role of cerebrocerebellum in controlling voluntary motor act
(3 M)
c) Define sleep , mention its types and compare between them regarding
recorded brain waves and threshold for arousal (3 M)
3. a) Explain the role of middle ear in sound wave amplification (4 M)
b) compare between photopic and scotopic vision (4 M)
4. a) describe component of Juxtaglomerular apparatus , and mention its
importance (5 M)
b) compare between the three main body defense systems against the change in
hydrogen concentration regarding rapidity of action and efficiency . describe
body correction of uremic acidosis (5 M)
5. a) discuss hypothalamic pituitary connection and mention its significance
(5 M)
b) describe the function and control of secretion of aldosteron hormone (5 M)
6. a) discuss the function of sertoli cells (4 M)
b) explain how estrogen and progesterone have both synergistic and
antagonistic effect on uterus (4 M)
7. a) mention function of gall bladder (5 M)
b) Describe regulation of pancreatic secretion (5 M)
8. Describe thermoregulatory mechanism on exposure to hot weather (4 M)
Sept 2014
Answer all the following questions:
1. a) Define convergence and divergence and mention the significance of each
during signal transmission between synapses (3 marks )
b) Explain mechanism of stressanalgesia. (3 marks)
2. a) Describe function of motor area 4. (3 marks)
b) Describe the role of basal ganglia in controlling muscle tone. (3 marks)
c) Define memory. Describe its declarative type and explain howmemory can be
consolidated. (3 marks)

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3. a) Compare between rods and cones of retina. (4 marks)
b) Describe how sound waves aretransmitted from air tell reachingbasilar
membrane of the inner ear. (4 marks)
4. a) Define diuresis and compare betweenwater and osmotic diuresis. (5marks)
b) Define anion gap, what is its normal value and the significance of
itscalculation. (3 marks)
c) Discuss voluntary control of micturition. (2 marks)
5. a) Both growth hormone and thyroidhormones are needed for growth. Mention
their actions on growth and the effect of deficiency of each beforepuberty.
(5 marks)
b) Discuss hormonal regulation of blood glucose level. (5 marks)
6. a) Discuss the factors that influence spermatogenesis. (4 marks)
b) Describe the function of placenta. (4 marks)
7. a) List the phases of swallowing reflex. (5 marks)
b) Compare between secretin and cholecystokinin regarding their actionson the
pancreas and biliary system. (5 marks)
8. Define basal metabolic rat (BMR),mention its value. Enumerate threediseases
accompanied by increased (BMR). (4 marks)
Answers
Sensory
1-Mech.>>p.8 & properties: forward conduction ,synaptic delay, fatigue
,potentiation ,effect of hypoxia & acidosis & alkalosis
2->>> ans. Of 1
3-p.9,10
4-properties>>p.31 , adaptability >>p.33, comparison >>p.34
5-p30,31
6-p.35
7-p.38 (somatic ,visceral ,organic , special & emotional )
Touch sens. >>>p.41 (fine &crude +def.)
8-comparison >>p.57 &control >>p.63,64
9-pain control >> p.63
10-p.63
11-p.66( el rasma) ……p.65>>analgesia
12-p.61 +theories >> p.62
13-ans.of 12
14-p.58,59,60
15-p.60 +def., causes, receptors
16-sI>>p.71,,,sII>>p.72,,,association>>>p.72
17-p.71
18-thalamus p.77& p.71,72
19-p.76
20-ataxia :incoordination of voluntary movements in absence of ms paralysis

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Types :-sensory :lesion (D.C) ,,, +ve Romberg
-motor :neocerebellum ,,, -ve Romberg
Motor
1-p.83 2-p.87-88 3-p.80-87-88-93 4-p.83
5-p.84 6-p.95 7-p.95-96 8-p.92
9-p92 10-p.105(area 6) 11-p.104-105
12-p.104-105(areas 4-6&supplementary) 13-p.99-100-101
14-pyramidal(p.111)..non(p.115)
15-p.91:-nerve endings …-interneurons ….-projection from higher centers
16-above T12>>quadriplegia ….below>>paraplegia
17-p.120
18-Contralateral hemiplegia ,may be associated by sensory visual &audiatory signs
Higher Brain Function
1-p.166:-angular acceleration
p.163 :-orientation of z head in space-linear acceleration
2-during>>equal discharge / Start&end>>utricle &saccule
3-hair cells of both sides exposed 2 equal stretch >>equal discharge from both
macula reaching nervous system &rate of discharge in gamma efferent (p.160)
4-p.187 :-passive&active theories / p.191:-REM&non-REM
5-p.189:-rapid eye move/dreams/decrease ms tone/increase inpulse
……&paradoxical>>increase brain activity
6-p.193&194 7-as 68-p.195&196 ……..mech.(ca+2/k+) ….
Alzheimer >>-loss Ach…..-loss short-term memory …..-loss of synapse ….-
neurodegenerative disease
9-broca’s &Exner’s …..-sensory,motor&global(p.206/207)
10-mech.(p.205)……aphasia:no speech>>lesions of speeh
centers…….dysartheria:on speech >>defect of articulation (p.205-207)
11-I>>stactto speech …II>>general aphasia
12-yes.disorder to maintain body position&rotation
Special Senses
1-p.227,228& p230 2-(3)p.228 3-p.248 ,,p.249,250
4-p.235 5-p.236 6-p.248
7-p.265 8-ans. Of 7 >>(sr pc) ya3ny :s:scotpic>>(r)ods & (p)hotopic
>>©ones
9-p.276 ,,,, +monocular vision : maximum areas of space that can be seen by fixed
eyes
10-p.284,28511-p.284,25,28612-p.28513-p.28514-p.294,295
15-transmission ,stimulation ,transmission,stimulation p.293,294,295>>>299
16-frequency &intensity &locality 17-p.298
Endocrine
1-P.22 2-P.23 3-P.23 ,,, P.29 4-P.28,29
5-p.35 (na5od balna eno ely by affect 3leh mo4 el effect beta3o)…. Acromegaly
(p37)
6-p.37 7-p24,25 8- h2ol 3la cell &body …p.45,46,47
9-p.4710-p.56,57 11-p.56,57,58 12-p.56
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13-p.64,65 14-p.58 ,5915-p.68 16-zy 1517-p.70,71,72,73,75
18- mn ant.pitutary …+p.74 +hyperplasia :cells ba2et akter f el 3dd
19-p.84,85 20-p.84,85,86 …..p.89,90 21-p.91
22-GH/thyroid…p.38…..htkalem 3n deficiency f kol wa7ed
23-essential 4 lyf :parathyroid &aldosterone
Reproductive System
Male:
1-P.103 2-P.104……p.106(cryptorchidism)
3-P.104….Effects:formation/growth/maturation&Maintenance of body changes in
puberty
4-p.97…… 5-p.97…..p.103 6-p.97 7-p.101 8-p.99-
100
Female:
1-htklem 3n ovarian cycle@ uterine cycle w kol wa7da feha kam phase w h2ol 7aga
baseta 3n elly by7sal feha
2-zy 13-p.111-112-1134-zy 35-p.115-116
6-p.114-1157-zy 58-zy 5
9-p.118 ….. diagram>>p.112(awel rasma)10-p.123-12411-p.122…..no
Renal
1-p.135 2-p.133-134 3-p.151-152…p.149
4-p.149-152-yes(decrease of –ve charges) 5-153-154 6-p.151-152….
7-zy 6 8-p.155-156 9-zy 8 10-p.140-141
11-zy 10 12-p.141-154 13-p.149 14-p.139-153
15-p.138 16-p.145 17-p.145-147 18-p159 up to 169
19-p.171-159 20-p.159-p.168 21-p.166 22-p.177-178
23-p.174 up to p.178 24-p.181 25-p.182 26-p.181
27-p.184 28-p.213 29-p.205-206….. 30-p.210
31-respiratory alkalosis …p.217
32-compensated >> kidney increase H+ excretion …p.217
33-2 stages :filling&reflex …p.224….
34-p.224…p.226(automatic bladder)
Digestive System
1-function of saliva :-digestion –antibacterial action –solvant(buds) –neutralized
acids –speech –swallowing
Control: conditioned &unconditioned …p.250
2-intiated voluntarily then it cannot be stopped ,3 stages :oral , pharyngeal &
esophageal (vol. , duration &mechanism )
3-pharyngeal esophageal stage (2 stages)
4-cephalic ,gastric &intestinal (neural/hormonal/accounts/el rasma )
5-pepsin, gastrin , & intrinsic factor (Ach , histamine & somatostatin )
6-7->>> ans. Of 4
8-gastrointestinal hormones :3 gastric &enterokinase(trypsiongen)-disaccharidases
(3)-peptidases(amino&intracellular )
9-parietal cell &H+>>1ry active transport(k+) &cl->>2ry active transport (Hco3-)
*Ach &gastrin >>>>>++++ - *PGE2& somatostatin >>>>>----
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10-parietal /Ecl/chief cells
11-inhibition of gastric secretion (inhibitory to intestinal phase …p.273)/secretion
of pancreatic lipase
12-causes : inside &outside ……mech.:-deep inspiration –closure of glottis –
elevation of soft palate –downward contraction of diaphragm – contraction of all
abdominal ms –squeezing of stomach –duodenum contracts strongly
13-control: hormonal (secrtin &cholecystokinin )-neural (cephalic &gastric/vagal )-
proteolytic enz. :digest protein-pancreatic amylase :digest cHo- lipase: fat
14-arrival of new food to stomach mediated by gastrin &parasymp. mass
movements of ascending & transverse colon >>>>pushing colonic contents into
rectum >>> trigger defecation reflex
-cholagogues : subs. Cause contraction & emptying of gallbladder :cck
15-types : -aqueous salts (H2o & Hco3)-mucus >> protection & lubrication
-mech.: Local stimuli >>chyme >>stimulate receptors
Hormonal >> chyme >> release secrtin &cck
16-Empty by :hormonal :cck & neural : vagus into duodenum
17-fat digestion >>> detergent action\absorption >>formation of micelles
18-chemical /hormonal/ neural mechanisms (3)
19-p.291 & jaundice >>bilirubin > 2mg /dl plasma
Metabolism
1-p.346&348 2-zy 1 3-p.346&348 4-p.345 5-p.353(hypothalamic
center)
6-p.340 7-p.334 8-p.338-339 9-p.338-339 10-p.358
June 2013
1- a) page 10 in volume 4 book b) page 63 in volume 4 book
2- a) premotor cortex , supplementary motor areas , basal ganglia and cerebellum
the effect is paresis and motor apraxia
b) page 134 in volume 4 book
effect of lesion : rigidity and hypertonia (page 138) but in caudate nucleus lesion the
effect is hypotonia (Chorea)
c) page 203
3- a) page 261 in volume 4 book b) page 297 in volume 4 book
4- a) page 181 in volume 3 from the paragraph which begin with (2-ADH which .. )
b) page 213 (the title Buffering of H secreted by tubules)
5- a) page 40 and 41 in volume 3 book b) page 73
6- a) page 123 and 124 in volume 3 book b) page 104 . Cryptorchidism in
page 106
7- a) page 250 in volume 3 book b) page 270
8- page 349

77
 
 Biochemistry

78
 
 Signal transduction & hormones
Give short notes on:
1. Mechanism of action of insulin. (Sept 1998)
2. Protein and its role in cAMP dependant protein kinase. (May 2002)
3. cGMP as a 2nd messenger, its synthesis and function. (May 2005)
4. Phosphoinositides cascade. (Sept 2006)

Explain:
1. Role of G protein in hormonal action and mention 2 hormones that act by this
mechanism. (May 1998)
2. The mechanism of action of steroid hormones (Sept 2000,2003)
3. The role of cAMP as second messenger (May 2001,Sept 2003)
4. G proteins: structure, types, and their role in hormone action .Mention effect
ofcholera toxins on G proteins. (Sept 2004,May 2005, 2008)
5. The insulin receptor: structure and mechanism of action. (May 2006)
6. Mechanism of intracellular calcium release & its role as a 2nd messenger.
(Sept 2007)
7. Synthesis, mode of action and inactivation of cAMP. (Sept 2008)
Discuss :
1. Types and features of hormone receptors (May 2000)
2. Types and regulation of hormone receptors. (May 2006)
Enumerate
1. 4 different second messengers. Explain mechanism of formation of one of them.
(May 2003)
2. Different types of extra cellular receptors. Mention briefly themechanism of
action of insulin. (May 2004)

Compare between
The mechanisms of action of peptide & steroid hormones. (May 2009)

Carbohydrate Metabolism
Glycolysis:
1. Glycolysis occurs through an amplification cascade. Explain. (May 2005)
2. Mention the steps by which glucose is converted to lactose & What are the
regulatory enzymes? Explain how these enzymes are regulated (Sept 2001)
3. Explain how glceraldehyde 3-phosphate is formed from glucose by two
different pathways mention the regulation and enzymes defect of these two
pathways .. (May 1997)
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4. Explain metabolic fate of Pyruvate in starved state. Regulation is required.
(19 marks) (May 2008)
5. Explain each of the following:
a) Synthesis and regulatory role ofbifunctional enzyme phosphofructokinase 2 /
fructose 2,6 bisphosphate . (Sept 2004)(May 2011)
b) Important of pyruvate kinase and glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
enzymes in Red cell metabolism. (May1998)
c) Regulation & function of glycolysis in RBCs and adipose tissue. (May 2000)
6. Give the biochemical explanation of each of the following:
Deficiency of pyruvate Kinase and glucose-6-phosphatedehydrogenase in
RBCs results in hemolytic anemia. (Sept. 2004 )
7. For each of the following enzymes, illustrate the reaction, its regulation,
importance and consequence of defect in the enzyme :
a- pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (May 2006)
TCA Cycle and Glycogen Metabolism:
1. Explain (15 Marks)
-synthesis of citrate and its regulatory effect on TCA cycle and lipogenesis
(May 2004)
2. - Explain the amphibolic nature of TCA cycle (Sept.2000)(May 2004)
- Control of citric acid cycle and the interactions between the cycle and the
othersmetabolic pathways. (May 1998)
3. Give an account on:
1- synthesis and fate of each of the following in different metabolic pathway:
a- UDP Glucose . (10)(Sept 2006 – May 2011)
b- Citrate (9).( Sept 2006)
4. Show the differences between liver and muscle glycogenolysis as regards
functions and regulation. (15) (May 2005)
5. Explain synthesis of UDP glucose. Discuss how its converted to glycogen and
glucuronic acid. Mention the importance of each pathway. (Sept 2004)
6. Give two reactions (substrates, products and cofactors) for each of the
following: (6 Marks each) Anabolic role of uridine diphosphate glucose
(Sept 2008)
7. Mention biochemical explanation of the followings: (21)
High ATP/ADP ratio and product accumulation inhibit TCA cycle. (May 2008)

Gluconeogensis and HMP Pathway:

1. Metabolic importance of HMP pathway . (6 Marks)(Sept. 2003)
2. During starved state alanine is converted to glucose. Explain its sites, steps &
regulation of such metabolic biotransformation (May 2001)

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3. Illustrate diagrammatically synthesis of glucose from glutamate and
itsregulation What are the conditions associated with active gluconeogenesis?
(14 Marks)(Sept. 2003)
4. Give an account on: Significance of hexose monophospate pathway. (8 Marks)

The Rest of the chapter and Diseases :

1. Give short account on hormonal regulation of: blood glucose (Sept. 2001)
2. Illustrate diagrammatically the following metabolic interconversions and
mention enzyme and Cofactors (10 marks): Glucose to sorbitol
(2.5) (May 2008)
3. Types of glucosuria. (May 1997)
4. Give the biochemical explanation for each of the following: (15 Marks)
Glucosuria is not always an indication of diabetes (Sept. 2005)
5. Explain 2 examples of inborn errors in carbohydrate metabolism. (Sept. 2000)
6. Give the biochemical explanations of each of the followings: (16 marks)
Development of cataract in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus (May 2004)
7. Mention 3 errors in carbohydrate metabolism manifested by hypoglycemia
giving enzymatic defect in each “ 6 marks”
8. Mention the deficient enzyme in each of the followings: “ 7 marks” hemolytic
anemia- severe galactosemia (2007 may)
9. Hypoglycemia may be due to an inborn error in carbohydrate metabolism
orimpaired fatty acid oxidation. (6M) (Sept. 2007)
10. - On biochemical bases, Explain: (4 Marks each)
- Carnitine deficiency results in hypoglycemia.
- G-6-phosphatase deficiency may cause secondary gout6-P dehydrogenase
deficiency results in hemolytic anemia (Sept 2008)
11. Explain the metabolic role of each of the following during starvations:
Cori cycle - Glucose-Alanine cycle. (May 2005)
12. Discuss the following; malate shuttles (Sept 1998) (Sept 2008)
13. A diabetic patient was admitted to the hospital with high blood glucose and
glucosuria
a) Describe the normal hormonal control of blood glucose. (3 marks)
b) How would you estimate the average blood glucose in this patient in the last
two months? (1 mark)
c) list the causes of glucosuria. (3 marks) (2012)
14. Mention the name of the defective enzyme in the following :
i. Von Gierke's disease.
ii. Essential pentosuria.
iii. Galatosaemia.
iv. Fructose intolerance
v. Favism (May 2002)

81
 
15. A baby was brought to a specialized medical center in a bad condition. The
child was properly investigated and found to have deficiency of the enzyme
uridyl transferase needed for galactose metabolism: (Sept 2013)
(a) Illustrate the chemical reaction catalyzed by this enzyme. (2 marks)
(b) Describe the consequences of this deficiency. (1 mark)
(c) How should this baby be managed? (1 mark)
(d) How can this patient form the galactosides needed by the body? (1 mark)
16. Following an attack of enteritis , a 20 year old student suffered cramps and
diarrhea upon milk ingestion:
(a) What is the possible cause of this patient’s condition? (1 mark)
(b) Illustrate the chemical reaction defective in this patient. (1 mark)
(c) Describe other related chemical reactions that may also be defective in this
patient. (1 mark)
(d) Describe how glucose is absorbed from the intestinal lumen.
(2 marks) (Sept 2013)
17. A urine sample had a reducing sugar as tested by copper sulfate-based reagent
but was negative for glucose oxidase-based urine dipsticks.
a) If the patient was a breast-fed infant and after full investigation the parents
were warned against any milk feeding of this infant. Name the most
probable enzyme deficient in this case and illustrate the chemical reaction it
normally catalyzes. (2 marks)
b) List three other possible reducing sugars in this urine sample and indicate
the condition leading to each one. (3 marks)
c) From your study of carbohydrate metabolism, name another condition in
which patients avoid milk intake and illustrate the deficient reaction.
(2 marks)
d) With no milk intake, illustrate the biochemical reaction by which the patient
gets active galactose for synthetic purposes. (1 mark)
e) Illustrate another reaction, not involved in carbohydrate metabolism, that
when deficient leads to milk restriction. (2 marks) (June 2014)
18. A ten year old boy had repeated attacks of hemolysis that followed eating beans.
His condition was diagnosed as a hereditary enzyme deficiency.
a) What is the deficient enzyme? (1 mark)
b) Illustrate the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme. (1 mark)
c) Explain why hemolysis takes place in this patient. (3 marks) (Sept 2014)
Collective Questions around the chapter:
1. Enumerate different fates of glucose 6- phosphate. Illustrate diagrammatically
onepathway. Explain its regulation , importance, and one inborn error.
(14 marks)(May 2003)
2. Allosteric regulation play an important role in carbohydrate metabolism.
Explain this statement as regards TCA cycle and gluconeogenesis “ 10 m”

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3. Illustrate the oxidative steps in glycolysis , HMP pathway and glucuronic
acidpathway , explain their importance .
4. Mention regulation of glycolysis and HMP pathway “ 13 marks “ (May 2007)
Mention enzymes andcofactors: (10M)
B) Synthesis of Sorbitol from glucose.
C) One reaction of ATP formation by substrate level phosphorylation.
D) A citric acid cycle reaction inhibited by high NADH/NAD ratio.
E) A glycolytic reaction inhibited by fluoride. (Sept. 2007)
5. Mention the names of key regulatory enzymes for glycolysis, Krebs cycle
andgluconeogenesis. Explain how these enzymes are regulated . (May 2002)
6. Glycerol can be metabolized to pyruvate or converted to glucose. Explain
illustrating your answer diagrammatically. Regulation is required when present
(Sept 2005-2007)
7. ATP generation by substrate level phosphorylation (6 Marks)(2005 sept)
8. Compare: (20 marks)
a- Glycolysis and HMP pathways as regards: phases, end products of each
phase, metabolic importance and regulation. (15 marks)(2004 may)
9. Mention the consequence & name of disease resulting from the deficiency of
each of the following enzymes:
a) Glucose 6-phosphatase. (2 marks) (May 2009 – 2012)
b) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (May 2009 - 2012)
c) Hexokinase. (2 marks )(May 2012)
d) Aldolase (May 2012)
10. Give short notes on the sources and fate of oxaloacetate .Enzymes and
coenzymes in different reactions are required. (May 2003) (May 1996)
11. Discuss the following ; Formation and fate of succinylCoA
(6 marks) (Sept1998) (Sept 2004) (Sept. 2008) (Sept 2012)
12. A ten years old boy had repeated attacks of hemolysis that followed eating
beans his condition was diagnosed as a hereditary enzyme deficiency
a-What is the deficient enzyme
b-Illustrate the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme
c-Explain why hemolysis takes place in this patient (May 2011)
13. A 3-year-old male child developed fever, rapid pulse and weakness after eating
fava beans. After 4 days, his skin and eyes were yellow and his urine was
brownish. Blood analysis revealed low hemoglobin and high total bilirubin.
a) Name the enzyme defective in this child (1 mark)
b) Write the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme (2 marks)
c) Explain the biochemical basis for low hemoglobin in this child (4 marks)
d) Why is the urine brownish in this patient? (1 mark) (June 2013)
e) Describe the oxudation-reduction cycle of glutathione in red blood cells.
(4m)(June 2014)

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14. A diabetic patient was admitted to the hospital with high blood glucose and
glucosoria.
a) List the hormones that increase blood glucose. (2 marks)
b) How would you estimate the average blood glucose in this patient in the last
two months? (1 mark)
c) List the causes of glucosuria. (2 marks)

Bio Enrgetics
Give a short notes on :
1. Oxidative phosphorylation and its inhibitors. (May 1996)
2. Role of carnitine and the effect of its deficiency. (May 2003)
3. The effect of uncouplers on oxidative phosphorylation . Two examples are
required. (May 2003,Sept 2004)
4. ATP generation by substrate level phosphorylation. (Sept 2005)
Explain:
1) Explain metabolic importance of NADH+H. (Sept 2000)
2) Differences between inhibitors and uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation
giving ONE example for each. (May 2006)
3) Role of shuttle system in transport of reduced equivalents to mitochondria.
(Sept 2006)
4) Chemosmotic theory of ATP formation. (Sept 2006)
5) Carnitine deficiency results in hypoglycemia (Sept 2008)
-A patient was diagnosed as having mitochondrial myopathy with lactic acidosis
and inability to do aerobic exercise:
a. Explain why lactic acidosis develops in this patient. (2 marks)
b. Illustrate the mitochondrial electron transport chain reaction that involves
oxygen. (1 mark)
c. Describe the mechanism of ATP production by the mitochondria. (1 mark)
d. Describe the action of thermogenin on this mechanism.
(1 mark) (Sept 2013)

Lipid Metabolism
FA synthesis and oxidation:
1. Mention metabolic importance and regulation of Hormone sensitive lipase
(September 1998) (September 2003)(May 2011)
2. Explain synthesis of citrate andits regulatory effect on TCA cycle and
lipogenesis. (May 2004)
3. Give biochemical explanation for each of the following:
Insulin stimulates lipogenesis in well fed state. (May 2005)
4. Glycerol is a substrate for lipogenesis. Explain. (Regulation is required when
present). (Sept 2007)
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5. On biochemical bases, Explain:
a- Elevated cytoplasmic citrate is a green signal for lipogenesis. (Sept 2008)
6. Give short account on Metabolic importance and regulation of:
Acetyl CoA carboxylase (May 2003)(May 2011)
7. Illustrate diagrammatically the following metabolic interconversions and
mention enzyme and Cofactors :
- Acetyl CoA to Malonyl CoA (May 2008)
8. Give short account on:Role of carnitine and the effect of its deficiency
(May 2003)
9. On biochemical bases, Explain Carnitine deficiency results in hypoglycemia.
(Sept 2008)
10. Discuss the biological compounds derived from Transportation of palmitic acid
into mitochondria. (May 2009)
11. Discuss the steps of oxidation of palmitic acid &calculate the number of ATP
molecules generated (May 1996)
12. Explain each Regulation of fatty acid oxidation . What is the energy released
from oxidation of stearic acid? (Sept 2003)
13. Write the reactions catalyzed by the following enzymes and mention their
importance.
a) AcetylCoA carboxylase. b)Carnitine palmity transferase. (May 1998)
14. Compare: Mitochondrial and peroxisomal fatty acid oxidation.
(May 2003)(May 2004)(September 2007)(May 2008)
15. Explain Hypoglycemia may be due to an inborn error in carbohydrate
metabolism or impaired fatty acid oxidation. (Sept 2007)
16. You are given a five-carbon, straight chain, saturated fatty acid (5:0):
a. Diagrammatically, show the pathway of its oxidation. Write the names of the
enzymes and coenzyme involved.
b. What are the final products of this pathway, and how do they enter the citric
acid cycle. (May 2010)
17. Discuss adipose tissue lipolysis (May 2000)
18. Describe how acetyl CoA is shuttled outside the mitochondria.
(3 marks)(2012)
Ketogenesis :
19. Write the role of succinyl co A in ketone body utilization (May 1996)
20. Illustrate synthesis and fates of B-hydroxyB-methylglutaryl co-a (HMGCOA)
(May 1997) (May 2000)(May 2002)(September 2006)(May 2009)
21. Write the reactions catalyzed by the following enzymes and mention their
importance.
-Acyl CoA synthetase (Thiokinase)
-Thiophorase(succinyl coA acetoacetate transferase) (May 1998)

85
 
22. Explain :Formation and Fate of acetoacetate (Sept 2000)
23. Illustrate diagrammatically the following biotransformation . Mention enzymes
and co-factors for each:acetoacetate to acetyl Co A. (May 2003)
24. Explain the metabolic role of Ketone bodies during starvation
(May 2005)(September 2006)
25. Explain Formation and utilization of succinyl Co A in lipid metabolism
(May 2006)
Prostaglandins :
26. Illustrate the reactions catalyzed by Endoperoxide synthase Explain its
regulation and importance (Sept 2005)
27. Illustrate diagrammatically prostaglandins synthesis, inhibition and 3 clinical
applications (Sept 2006)
28. Discuss the biological compounds derived from: Arachidonic acid. (May 2009)
29. Give the biochemical explanations of Use of aspirin as an anti-inflammatory
drug. (May 2004)
Cholesterol :
30. a- Illustrate the steps of synthesis of mevalonate.
b- What is meant by feedback inhibition and its role in cholesterol synthesis.
(May 1996)
31. Write the reactions catalyzed by hydroxymethy coA reductase.(HMGCOA
reductase and mention its importance and regulation
(May 1998)(Sept 2003)(Sept 2005)
32. Explain: Regulation of cholesterol biosynthesis with reference to
atherosclerosis. (Sept 2000)
33. Explain how acetyl CoA is converted to HMG CoA. Mention how HMG CoA is
converted to mevalonate & acetoaetate . (Sept 2000)
34. Mention three causes of ketosis and three causes of hypercholesterolemia
(Sept 2001)
35. Explain Cholesterol esterification and its significance.(May 2002)(Sept 2008)
36. Explain Regulation of cholesterol synthesis and conditions associated with
hypercholesterolemia. (Sept 2004)
37. A hyper cholesterolemic patient was given a medication that acts in the key
enzymefor cholesterol synthesis.
a) what is the name of this enzyme, its substrate and product? (2 marks)
b) illustrate the fate of this substrate inside the mitochondria. (2 marks)
c) Give one genetic cause for hypercholesterolemia (1 marks ). (2012)
38. A child with homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia was given a new
medication to inhibit the synthesis of one of the apolipoproteins:
b) Describe the inherited defect in this child. (1 mark)
c) What is the apolipoprotein targeted by the new drug? (1 mark)

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 d) What is the accepted plasma cholesterol concentration? (1 mark)
e) Illustrate the regulated reaction of cholesterol synthesis.
(2 marks) (Sept 2013)
39. A 60 years old woman received her lab report that showed a plasma cholesterol
concentration of 300 mg/dl
a. What is the accepted cholesterol concentration in normal plasma
b. What is the benefits of cholesterol for the body
c. Describe how woman differ from men physiologically regarding their plasma
cholesterol and the consequences of this difference
d. If you were to give a drug that lowers the synthesis of cholesterol what
enzyme should this drug target
e. Describe the mechanism of cellular cholesterol uptake (May 2011)
40. A 40-year-old man recieved a lab report that showed a plasma cholesterol
concentration of 230 mg/dL.
a. Comment on this result. (1 mark)
b. What diet would you recommend for this patient? (2 marks)
c. List the benefits of cholesterol for the body. (2 marks)
d. If you were to give a drug that lowers cholesterol synthesis, what enzyme
should this drug target? (1 mark)
e. Explain what is meant by "good cholesterol" and "bad cholesterol".
(2m) (June 2014)
41. A hypercholesterolemic patient was given a medication that acts on the key
enzyme for cholesterol synthesis .
a) What is the name of this enzyme, its substrate and product? (2 marks)
b) Illustrate the fate of this substrate inside the mitochondria. (2 marks)
c)Give one genetic cause for hypercholesterolemia. (1 mark) (Sept 2014)

Lipoproteins:
42. Illustrate:
formation and fate of low and high-density lipoprotein (LDL'HDL) (May 1997)
43. Give an account on the low density lipoproteins. (Sept 2003)
44. Explain the role of lipoprotein lipase in lipid metabolism.(Sept1998)
(September 2003)(May 2006)
45. Mention metabolic importance and regulation of each of the following ;
a- Lipoproteinlipase .
b- Lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase. (May 2001)(May 2003)

Diseases :
46. Explain Biochemical aspects of diabetics complication (May 2000)
47. Give the biochemical explanation of Ketoacidosis is a complication of
uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. (September 2004)
48. Mention biochemical explanation of the following:
Diabetic coma is complication of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. (May 2008)
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49. Give the biochemical explanations of each of the followings:
a-Development of cataract in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
b-Prevention of atherosclerosis by supplementation of dietary fibers.(May 2004)
50. Explain:Leptin and its role in obesity. (May 2004) (September 2006)
51. Give the biochemical explanation of the following:
HDL is anti-atherogenic. (September 2004)
52. give the biochemical explanation of each of the followings:
A)familial hypercholesterolemia (September 2006)
53. A disease can result from deficiency of an enzyme. Describe the reaction
catalyzed by the followingenzymes and the effect of their deficiency:
Lipoprotein lipase (2012)
54. A patient had generalized weakness and a low tolerance to prolonged muscle
exercise. he was found to have carnitine deficiency.
a) Explain the physiological role of carnitine (4 marks)
b) Explain the cause of muscle weakness in this patient (1 mark)
c) Name the sources of carnitine (2 marks) (June 2013)
Protein Metabolism
1. Give one example of each of the following reactions
- Transamination (September 2000)- Transmethylation
- Oxidative deamination - Amino acid decarboxylation (September 2001)
2. Give short account on Transamination reactions and its medical
importance(September 2004)
3. Explain diagrammatically the metabolic origin of each of the following urinary
constituents:
a. ammonia b. creatinine c. urea (May 2010)
4. Give complete reactions (formulae are not necessary) for 3 cytosolic reactions
of urea synthesis. (May 2009)
5. Illustrate Synthesis of creatinine (May 2009)
6. Give an account on:
Synthesis of epinephrine. (Sept 2008)
7. Give two reactions (substrates, products and cofactors) for each of the
following:
-Metabolic reactions of glycine.
- Utilization of succinyl CoA. (Sept 2008)
8. Discuss metabolic importance of glycine (Sept 2006)
9. Illustrate diagrammatically the following metabolic interconversions and
mention enzyme and Cofactors:
-Serine to glycine
-Glutamic acid to glutamine (May 2008)

88
 
10. Enumerate important compounds derived from tyrosine and tryptophan.
Explain one inborn Error in each. (May 2008)
11. Illustrate diagrammatically the following reactions & mention the enzymes and
cofactors:
-Synthesis of nitric oxide from Arginine. (Sept 2007)
-Synthesis and importance of nitric oxide (May 2006) (May 2005)
12. Mention 2 important compounds derived from :
-Arginine
- glycine
- tryptophan (May 2007)(Sept 2001)
13. Give short notes on:
-reaction catalyzed by mitochondrial carbamoyl phosphate synthetase andits
regulation
-ammonia transport from peripheral tissues to liver (May 2007)
14. Illustrate the reaction , its regulation , importance and consequence of defect in
the enzyme :
-Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
15. Illustrate diagrammatically :
-activated methyl cycle giving 2 examples of transmethylation reactions
(May 2007)
16. Illustrate the reactions catalyzed by each of the following enzymes . Explain its
regulation and importance:
-L glutamate dehydrogenase (Sept 2005)
17. Illustrate diagrammatically the following biotransformations (enzymes &
coenzymesare required)
a- Methionine and Cystiene.
b- Glycine to creatine (Sept 2004)
18. Illustrate diagrammatically the following biotransformations:
-Tryptophan to melatonin.
-Norepinephrine to valinyl mandelic acid (VMA) form. (May 2004)
19. A-Illustrate diagrammatically the following biotransformation . Mention
enzymes and cofactors in each reaction
1-Cysteine to pyruvate
2-Phenylalanine to dopa .
3-Serotonin to melatonin
4- Glycine to hippuric
20. Illustrate diagrammatically the following biotransformation . Mention enzymes
and co-factors for each:
1-Tryptophan to serotonin.
2-glutamine to succinate
3-glycine to creatine phosphate
4-Dopa to epinephrine (May 2003)

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21. Illustrate, mentioning the enzyme and coenzymes for each of the following
biotransformation :
a) Glutamic to GABA.
b) DOPA to epinephrine.
c) Serotonin to melatonin. (Sept 2001)
d) Glycine to serine
e) Argnine to ornithine.
f) Aspartate to oxaloacetate (May 2002)
22. Explain the biological active component derived from glutamate (May 2001)
23. Give short notes on:
-Synthesis and importance of glutathione
-Regulation of urea synthesis (Sept 2005)
24. Explain Ammonia toxicity & hyperammonemia (Sept 2007)(Sept 2006)
25. Give biochemical explanation for each of the following:
-Glutamic acid is important in brain metabolism (May 2005)
26. Mention biochemical explanation of the followings:
-Hyperammonemia is toxic to brain
-Hyperammonemia may occur in patients with Von Gierk disease. (May 2008)
27. Explain each of the following:
-Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency (Sept 2008)
28. Mention thereaction catalyzed by the followingenzyme,consequence & name of
disease resulting from the deficiency Phenyl Alanine hydroxylase.
(May 2009) (May 2012)
29. mention the deficient enzyme in each of the followings:
- albinism
- phenylketonuria (May 2003) (May 2002)
- maple syrup urine disease (May 2003) (May 2007)
-Type 1 hyperammonemia (May 2003) (May 2002)
30. Give short notes on 2 inborn errors in amino acid metabolism (Sept 2003)
31. A patient was found to have hypercholesterolemia with elevated carbamoyl
phosphate .
a) Name the deficient mitochondrial enzyme in this case .(1 marks )
b) Describe the physiological sources of ammonia. (3 marks)
c) Illustrate how ammonia is eliminated by the brain . (2 marks ) (2012)
32. A newborn's urine was found on screening to contain phenyl-pyruvate.
a) What is the defective enzyme in this child ? (1 mark)
b) Illustrate the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme (2 marks)
c) What is the aminoacid elevated in this child's blood ? (1 mark)
d) Name the important nitrogenous compounds whose synthesis is defective in
this child (4 marks)
e) What are other compounds whose synthesis is deficient in case of cofactor
deficiency ? (2 marks) (June 2013)
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33. A patient with liver cell failure developed hyperammonemia and hepatic coma:
(a) List the sources of blood ammonia in this patient. (2 marks)
(b) Illustrate how the brain tissue gets rid of ammonia. (1 mark)
(c) Explain the possible mechanism of ammonia toxicity to the brain.
(2m) (Sept 2013)
34. A 12-year-old girl suffers drowsiness after high protein meals. She had a
brother who died of hyperammonemia at the age of 9 days. Deficiency of
ornithine transcarbamoylase (OTC) in family members is suspected.
(June 2014)
a. Illustrate the reaction normally catalyzed by this enzyme. (1 mark)
b. Explain why this enzyme deficiency is suspected. (1 mark)
c. Explain why there is increased uridine synthesis with this enzyme
deficiency. (1 mark)
d. In all cases of hyperammonemia, ther is high concentration of one
aminoacid in the plasma. Illustrate the reaction for synthesis of this
aminoacid. (3 marks)
e. Before the patient's brother died, he was given benzoate and phenylacetate
attempting to improve his condition. Illustrate the mechanism of action of
these two agents.
35. A patient was found to have hyperammonemia with elevated carbamoyl
phosphate.
a) Name the deficient mitochondrial enzyme in this case. (1 mark)
b) Illustrate two biochemical reactions that produce ammonia. (4 marks)
c) Illustrate how ammonia is eliminated by the brain. (2marks) (Sept 2014)
36. A newborn was screened for metabolic errors and was found to have high
phenylalanine concentration in the plasma:
(a) What is the possible enzyme deficient in this baby? (1 mark)
(b) Illustrate the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme , showing the cofactor
needed. (2 marks)
(c) List the important compounds derived from this aminoacid.
(2 marks) (Sept 2013)
37. A cancer patient was given the folate antagonist methotrexate:
(a) Illustrate the reaction directly inhibited by methotrexate. (2 marks)
(b) Explain the importance of folic acid for cancer cells. (2 marks)
(c) What is the food that antagonizes the given drug? (1 mark) (Sept 2013)
Collected Questions Around
Metabolism chapters

1. Two metabolic reaction utilizing nicotinic acid as co-enzyme (May 1996)

2. Explain: - metabolic importance of NADH+H (Sept. 2000)
- synthesis of citrate and its regulatory effect on TCA cycle and lipogenesis.
(May 2004)

91
 
3. mention the names of two enzymes utilizing each of the following:
(nadp - tpp - biotin - coash - fad) (2001 September)
4. Enumerate 3 NAD linked dehydrogenases having different functions as regards
carbohydrates, lipids, and protein metabolism respectively. Mention the reaction
catalyzed by each. (3 marks) (2003 may)
5. Give 3 different examples of FADH2 forming reactions . What are the fates of
FADH2 (8 Marks)
6. Give 3 examples of NADPH forming reactions . Explain its role in RBCs
andxenobiotic Metabolism
7. Explain: role of shuttle system in transport of reduced equivalent to
mitochondria
- Illustrate synthesis and fate of citrate in different metabolic pathways (2006
Sept)
8. Mention the deficient enzyme in each of the followings: “ 7 marks”
1- albinism
2- essential pentosuria
3- hemolytic anemia
4- phenylketonuria
5- alkaptonurea
6- maple syrup urine disease
7- severe galactosemia (2007 may)
9. A) Glycerol is a substrate for gluconeogenesis & lipogenesis.
Explain.(Regulation is required when present). (17M)
B) Decarboxylation reactions for can be oxidative or non oxidative. Give
examplesfor each. (Enzymes & Cofactors are required). (2007 Sept)
10. Hypoglycemia may be due to an inborn error in carbohydrate metabolism or
impaired fatty acid oxidation (2007 Sept)
11. Give two reactions (substrates, products and cofactors) for each of the
following:(6 Marks each) :
- Utilization of succinyl CoA
- Generation of reduced FAD. (2008 Sept)
12. Give complete reactions (formulae are not necessary) for each of the following:
a) 2 reactions generating oxaloacetate in mitochondria. (4 marks)
b) 2 reactions utilizing succinyl CoA.
(2009 may)
13. Give an example of one enzyme which is regulated by covalent modification
andanother which is regulated by non-covalent modification. For each of the
two enzymes:
a. Show the reactants, products, and cofactors that are needed for the reaction to
go.
b. Show how these modifications; negatively or positively affect the
relatedpathways (6 marks) (2010 may)

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14. A diabetic patient forgot to take his insulin injections for a few days and
developed ketoacidosis:
(a) List the functions of insulin in carbohydrate and lipid metabolism. (3 marks)
(b) Explain the cause of ketoacidosis in this patient. (2 marks) (Sept 2013)

Integration of Metabolism

1. Metabolic changes in liver during prolonged starvation (8 Marks)(2003 Sept)

2. Control of hepatic metabolism in the well fed and starved states by allosteric
effectors ( 8 Marks)(2005 sept)
3. Explain the metabolic changes in adipose tissue in response to low and
highinsulin/glucagon ratio with reference to their regulation( 18 MARKS)
(2006 may)
4. Metabolic changes in liver and skeletal muscle during starvation .(12)
5. Explain :- the regulation of hepatic metabolism during the well fed & starved
states bycovalent modification of enzymes. (12M) (2007 sept)
6. Mention the role of the liver in well fed state as regards CHO & lipid
metabolism.(10 marks) (2009 may)
7. Epinephrine and Cortisol can stimulate glucose output from liver cells by
different mechanisms. Show how each of them regulate the metabolic pathways
that increase blood glucose level. (6 marks) (2010)
Xenobiotics and Free radicals

1. Explaineach of thefollowing:
- Roleof cytochromep450inxenobioticmetabolism(may 2000)
- Characteristics of cytochrome P450 (sep. 2008)
- Cytochrome P450 & its metabolic role giving 2 examples.(Sep 2007)
2. Give short account on
- Cytochrome p450: properties, metabolic role and effect on drugs
interaction.(may 2008)
- functions of copper giving 3 examples of copper containing proteins
(September 2006)
- different types of antioxidants including antioxidant enzyme system. (Sep
2004)
- natural anti-oxidants. (May 1999)
- sources of free radicals and antioxidants. (Sep 2005)
- antioxidant enzymes and vitamins (Sep 2007)
- Four intracellular antioxidants (Sep 2008)

3. Define free radicals giving 3 examples. What are their sources and damaging
effects? (May 2004)
Explain briefly radicals scavenging enzymes system. (Sep 2006)

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 Vitamins & Minerals and Nutrition

1. Give the biochemical explanations of B6 deficiency may result in pellagra

(May 2004)
2. Mention the names and functions of 4 members of Vit B complex and the
names and functions of 4 co-enzymes derived from them.
(May 1998,Sep 1999,Sep 2002,{May 2003 :including deficiency})
-causes and manifestations of B12 deficiency (Sep 2007)
- B12 or Folate deficiency results in anemia (May 2008)
3. Explain Causes and deficiency manifestations of niacin (Sep 2004)
4. Discuss functions and deficiency of: Tetrahydrofolate.(May 2000)
5. Give the biochemical explanations of Night blindness in vitamin A deficiency.
(May 2004,May 2005)
6. Illustrate diagrammaticallyvisual cycle and explain briefly one deficiency
manifestation of vitaminA. (May 2007)
7. Explain the absorption, transport of vit A and is role in visual cycle (Sep 2000)
8. Discuss functions and deficiency of Retinoids (May 1998)
9. Discuss functions and deficiency of Retinol. (May 2000,May 2001,
function only :May 2002)
10. Give one main function and one deficiency manifestation for Retinol (Sep
2008)
11. Give the biochemical explanations of Deficiency of vitamin C may cause
anemia. (Sep 2004)
12. Discuss functions and deficiency of L-ascorbic acid.
(May 1998,Sep 2000,May 2001,function only: May 2002,May 2004,May 2006)

13. Discuss chemistry, sources, and deficiency of L-ascorbic acid. (Sep 2000)
14. Explain Four functions for vitamin C. (May 2004)
15. Physiological role and deficiency manifestations of vitamin C.(May 2009)
16. Give one main function and one deficiency manifestation for L-ascorbic acid
(Sep 2008)
17. Give one example and write the structural formulae of each of the following:
Ascorbic acid (structure only:Sep 2002)
18. Give the biochemical explanations of each of the followings Vitamin D is
considered as atypical vitamin and a hormone (Sep 2004)
19. Illustrate diagrammatically: Calciferol. (May 1998)
20. The activation and function of Vit D3.
(May 2000,Sep 2002,May 2003,function only:May 2006)
21. Give one main function and one deficiency manifestation for Cholecalciferol
(Sep 2008)
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22. Discuss functions and deficiency of Vitamin K. (May 2000,Sep 2006 : & causes
of deficiency)
23. Give short account on: functions of vitamin K. causes &manifestations of its
Deficiency (Sept 2003,May 2004,May 2008 :function only)
24. Give one main function and one deficiency manifestation for :
α-Tocopherol (Sep 2008)
25. Illustrate diagrammatically:3 biotin dependant reactions. Explain their
neurological importance and regulation. (May 2005)
26. Mention the name of deficient vitamin in the following conditions:
Or Give the name of the vitamin used in treatment of :
-Rickets. (Sept 1999, May 2002)
-Pellagra. (Sept 1999, May 2002,Sep 2003,Sep 2007)
-Pernicious anemia. (Sept 1999, May 2002,Sep 2003)
-Beri-beri. (Sept 1999, May 2002,Sep 2003,Sep 2007)
-Xeropthalmia. (May 2002, Sep 2007)
- Night blindness (Sep 2003)
- Osteomalacia (Sep 2003,Sep 2007)
- Scurvy (May 2002, Sep 2003,Sep 2007)
- megaloblastic anemia. (Sep 2007)
27. Enumerate:
A-2 vitamins containing sulfur. Mention their Co-enzymes and deficiency
symptoms (Sept 2000, Sept 2004)
B- 3 water-soluble vitamins. Give one enzyme derived from each one and its
function. Give one deficiency manifestation for each vitamin. (May 2005)
C-three hydrogen carriers derived from 3 different vitamins. Give the deficiency
symptoms of two of these vitamins. (Sept 2005)
D-antioxidant enzymes and vitamins (Sept 2007)
28. For each of the following vitamins give the Coenzyme(s) and deficiency
manifestations. (12 Marks)
- Vit. B1. (Sept 2001)
- Niacin. (Sept 2001)
- Vit. B12. (Sept 2001, May 2007)
- Folic acid. (Sept 2001, Sept 2006)
-Thiamine (Sept 2006, May 2007)
-vitamin B6 (Sept 2006)
-Biotion (May 2007)
-riboflaivn (May 2007)
-Niacin - Pantothenic acid – Biotin (May 2008: name and function)
-Thiamine,Riboflavin, Niacin, Pyridoxin, Folic acid (Sep 2008:only name)
29. Give one example and write the structural formulae of each of the following:
- Water soluble vitamins containing six carbon atoms. (May 2001)
- Fat soluble vitamin with antioxidant activity (Example only:May 2003)

95
 
30. Vitamins in the diet are important for synthesis of coenzymes .Name the
vitamin required for synthesis of coenzyme A. (1 marks) (2012)
31. A farm boy used to ingest raw eggs every day. he developed generalized
weakness and poor growth. laboratory investigations revealed lactic acidosis
with abnormally high plasma levels of pyruvate and alanine .
a) Name the vitamin defective in this patient (1 mark)
b) Name the enzymes affected in this patient (3 marks)
c) Illustrate the chemical reactions for inter-conversion of pyruvate, alanine and
lactate (4 marks)
d) Explain the failure of alanine to produce glucose in this patient
(2 m) (June 2013)
32. A pregnant woman was advised to take folic acid supplement . (June 2013)
a) Explain the biochemical importance of folic acid in this case (4 marks)
b) Describe the importance of vitamin B12 for the function of folic acid
(3 marks)
33. A 3 year old child developed rickets, was given a medication and the parents
were advised to expose their child to more sun: (Sept 2013)
(a) What vitamin and what mineral was this patient given? (1 mark)
(b) What is the beneficial effect of sunrays in this case? Give the names of the
substance produced and its precursor. (1 mark)
(c) Give other names of ergocalciferol and calcitriol. (1 mark)
(d) Describe the mechanism of action of the active form of the vitamin.
( 2 marks)
34. A man weighing 70kg lives a sedentary life style and has a typical daily dietary
intake of 250 gcarbohydrate , 10 g fats , 10 g proteins.(100 g proteins in Sept
2014 exam)
a) Calculate his daily caloric intake . (2 marks)
b) Calculate his daily caloric needs. (2 marks)
c) Describe his metabolic state : gaining weight , losing weight or in caloric
balance. (1 marks ) (May 2012)
35. A man has a typical daily dietary intake of: 500 g carbohydrates , 30 g fats and
100 g proteins . Calculate the daily caloric intake (June 2013)
36. (May 2011) (Sept 2014) A 2.5 years old boy showed signs of deficient bone
mineralization . the boy belonged to high social class parents who took good
care of his nutrition and exposed him to very little outside air and sun
a-What nutrients are necessary for normal bone mineralization
b-What is the defective nutrient in this patient
c-Explain the role of the parents' overprotection in developing the boy's
condition
d-Illustrate the normal activation of this intended nutrient
e-Describe the molecular mechanism of action of the activated nutrient
37. A 4-year-old child had swelling joints and bleeding gums. The child always
refused intake of vegetables and fruits.
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 a. What is the most probable deficient vitamin in this child and what is most
probable diagnosis? (1 mark)
b. What is the biochemical basis of the child's condition? (2 marks) (June 2014)
38. A 63-year-old female with arthritis on non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
medication developed bleeding gastric ulceration which led to iron deficiency
anemia.
a. Illustrate the pathway inhibited by this medication. (2 marks)
b. Describe the normal iron absorption and transport. (3 marks)
c. List the causes of iron deficiency anemia. (2 marks)
d. Describe the regulation of heme synthesis. (2 marks) (June 2014)
39. A 40 - year old woman developed obstruction of the common bile duct, with
yellow discoloration of skin. A blood analysis was ordered.
a) Name the metabolite that causes this abnormal skin color. (1 mark)
b) Outline the pathway for production of this metabolite. (2 marks)
c) What is the color of this patient‘s urine? why? (1 marks)
d) What is the color of this patient‘s stool? Why? (1 mark) (Sept 2014)
40. Health official have been studying a project for combating anemia in school
children by adding iron to the floor used for making bread. (Sept 2014)
a) Illustrate the chemical reaction in hemoglobin synthesis in which iron is
needed. (1 mark)
b) Describe the factors that affect iron absorption. (2 marks)
c) Name other compounds that contain the same prosthtic group of hemoglobin.
(2marks)
June 2013
1. A farm boy used to ingest raw eggs every day .he developed generalized
weakness and poor growth . laboratory investigations revealed lactic acidosis
with abnormally high plasma levels of pyruvate and alanine .
a) Name the vitamin defective in this patient (1 mark)
b) Name the enzymes affected in this patient (3 marks)
c) Illustrate the chemical reactions for inter-conversion of pyruvate , alanine and
lactate (4 marks)
d) Explain the failure of alanine to produce glucose in this patient (2 marks)
2. A 3-year-old male child developed fever, rapid pulse and weakness after eating
fava beans. After 4 days, his skin and eyes were yellow and his urine was
brownish . Blood analysis revealed low hemoglobin and high total bilirubin.
a) Name the enzyme defective in this child (1 mark)
b) Write the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme (2 marks)
c) Explain the biochemical basis for low hemoglobin in this child (4 marks)
d) Why is the urine brownish in this patient? (1 mark)
3. A newborn's urine was found on screening to contain phenyl-pyruvate.
a) What is the defective enzyme in this child ? (1 mark)
b) Illustrate the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme (2 marks)

97
 
 c) What is the aminoacid elevated in this child's blood ? (1 mark)
d) Name the important nitrogenous compounds whose synthesis is defective in
this child (4 marks)
e) What are other compounds whose synthesis is deficient in case of cofactor
deficiency ? (2 marks)
4. A patient had generalized weakness and a low tolerance to prolonged muscle
exercise .he was found to have carnitine deficiency.
a) Explain the physiological role of carnitine (4 marks)
b) Explain the cause of muscle weakness in this patient (1 mark)
c) Name the sources of carnitine (2 marks)
5. A pregnant woman was advised to take folic acid supplement.
a) Explain the biochemical importance of folic acid in this case (4 marks)
b) Describe the importance of vitamin B12 for the function of folic acid
(3 marks)
6. A man has a typical daily dietary intake of : 500 g carbohydrates , 30 g fats and
100 g proteins . Calculate the daily caloric intake
Sept 2013
1. A diabetic patient forgot to take his insulin injections for a few days and
developed ketoacidosis:
(a) List the functions of insulin in carbohydrate and lipid metabolism. (3 marks)
(b) Explain the cause of ketoacidosis in this patient. (2 marks)
2. Following an attack of enteritis , a 20 year old student suffered cramps and
diarrhea upon milk ingestion:
(a) What is the possible cause of this patient’s condition? (1 mark)
(b) Illustrate the chemical reaction defective in this patient. (1 mark)
(c) Describe other related chemical reactions that may also be defective in this
patient. (1 mark)
(d) Describe how glucose is absorbed from the intestinal lumen. (2 marks)
3. A baby was brought to a specialized medical center in a bad condition. The
child was properly investigated and found to have deficiency of the enzyme
uridyl transferase needed for galactose metabolism:
(a) Illustrate the chemical reaction catalyzed by this enzyme. (2 marks)
(b) Describe the consequences of this deficiency. (1 mark)
(c) How should this baby be managed? (1 mark)
(d) How can this patient form the galactosides needed by the body? (1 mark)
4. A child with homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia was given a new
medication to inhibit the synthesis of one of the apolipoproteins:
(a) Describe the inherited defect in this child. (1 mark)
(b) What is the apolipoprotein targeted by the new drug? (1 mark)
(c) What is the accepted plasma cholesterol concentration? (1 mark)
(d) Illustrate the regulated reaction of cholesterol synthesis. (2 marks)

98
 
5. A patient with liver cell failure developed hyperammonemia and hepatic coma:
(a) List the sources of blood ammonia in this patient. (2 marks)
(b) Illustrate how the brain tissue gets rid of ammonia. (1 mark)
(c) Explain the possible mechanism of ammonia toxicity to the brain. (2 marks)
6. A newborn was screened for metabolic errors and was found to have high
phenylalanine concentration in the plasma:
(a) What is the possible enzyme deficient in this baby? (1 mark)
(b) Illustrate the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme , showing the cofactor
needed. ( 2 marks)
(c) List the important compounds derived from this aminoacid. (2 marks)
7. A cancer patient was given the folate antagonist methotrexate:
(a) Illustrate the reaction directly inhibited by methotrexate. (2 marks)
(b) Explain the importance of folic acid for cancer cells. (2 marks)
(c) What is the food that antagonizes the given drug? (1 mark)
8. A 3 year old child developed rickets , was given a medication and the parents
were advised to expose their child to more sun:
(a) What vitamin and what mineral was this patient given? (1 mark)
(b) What is the beneficial effect of sunrays in this case? Give the names of the
substance produced and its precursor. (1 mark)
(c) Give other names of ergocalciferol and calcitriol. (1 mark)
(d) Describe the mechanism of action of the active form of the vitamin.
( 2 marks)
9. A patient was diagnosed as having mitochondrial myopathy with lactic acidosis
and inability to do aerobic exercise:
(a) Explain why lactic acidosis develops in this patient. (2 marks)
(b) Illustrate the mitochondrial electron transport chain reaction that involves
oxygen. (1 mark)
(c) Describe the mechanism of ATP production by the mitochondria. (1 mark)
(d) Describe the action of thermogenin on this mechanism. (1 mark)

June 2014
Answer all the following questions:
1. A 3-year-old male child developedfever, rapid pulse, and weakness after eating
fava beans. After 4 days, his skin and eyes were yellow and his urine was
brownish. Blood analysis revealed low hemoglobin and high total bilirubin.
a. Name the enzyme defective in this child. (1 mark)
b. Illustrate the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme. (2 marks)
c. Describe the oxudation-reduction cycle of glutathione in red blood cells.
(4 marks)
2. A 40-year-old man recieved a lab report that showed a plasma cholesterol
concentration of 230 mg/dL.
a. Comment on this result. (1 mark)
b. What diet would you recommend for this patient? (2 marks)

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 c. List the benefits of cholesterol for the body. (2 marks)
d. If you were to give a drug that lowers cholesterol synthesis, what enzyme
should this drug target? (1 mark)
e. Explain what is meant by "good cholesterol" and "bad cholesterol". (2 marks)
3. A 4-year-old child had sweliing joints and bleeding gums. The child always
refused intake of vegetables and fruits.
a. What is the most probable deficient vitamin in this child and what is most
probable diagnosis? (1 mark)
b. What is the biochemical basis of the child's condition? (2 marks)
4. A 63-year-old female with arthritis on non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
medication developed bleeding gastric ulceration which led to iron deficiency
anemia.
a. Illustrate the pathway inhibited by this medication. (2 marks)
b. Describe the normal iron absorption and transport. (3 marks)
c. List the causes of iron deficiency anemia. (2 marks)
d. Describe the regulation of heme synthesis. (2 marks)
5. A 12-year-old girl suffers drowsiness after high protein meals. She had a
brother who died of hyperammonemia at the age of 9 days. Deficiency of
ornithine transcarbamoylase (OTC) in family members is suspected.
a. Illustrate the reaction normally catalyzed by this enzyme. (1 mark)
b. Explain why this enzyme deficiency is suspected. (1 mark)
c. Explain why there is increased uridine synthesis with this enzyme deficiency.
(1 mark)
d. In all cases of hyperammonemia, ther is high concentration of one aminoacid
in the plasma. Illustrate the reaction for synthesis of this aminoacid. (3 marks)
e. Before the patient's brother died, he was given benzoate and phenylacetate
attempting to improve his condition. Illustrate the mechanism of action of these
two agents. (2 marks)
6. A urine sample had a reducing sugar as tested by copper sulfate-based reagent
but was negative for glucose oxidase-based urine dipsticks.
a. If the patient was a breast-fed infant and after full investigation the parents
were warned against any milk feeding of this infant. Name the most probable
enzyme deficient in this case and illustrate the chemical reaction it normally
catalyzes. (2 marks)
b. List three other possible reducing sugars in this urine sample and indicate the
condition leading to each one. (3 marks)
c. From your study of carbohydrate metabolism, name another condition in
which patients avoid milk intake and illustrate the deficient reaction. (2 marks)
d. With no milk intake, illustrate the biochemical reaction by which the patient
gets active galactose for synthetic purposes. (1 mark)
e. Illustrate another reaction, not involved in carbohydrate metabolism, that
when deficient leads to milk restriction. (2 marks)

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 Sept 2014
Answer the following question:
1. A hypercholesterolemic patient was given a medication that acts on the key
enzyme for cholesterol synthesis
a) What is the name of this enzyme, its substrate and product? (2 marks)
b) Illustrate the fate of this substrate inside the mitochondria. (2 marks)
c) Give one genetic cause for hypercholesterolemia. (1 mark)
2. A ten year old boy had repeated attacks of hemolysis that followed eating beans.
His condition was diagnosed as a hereditary enzyme deficiency.
a) What is the deficient enzyme? (1 mark)
b) Illustrate the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme. (1 mark)
c) Explain why hemolysis takes place in this patient. (3 marks)
3. A patient was found to have hyperammonemia with elevated carbamoyl
phosphate.
a) Name the deficient mitochondrial enzyme in this case. (1 mark)
b) Illustrate two biochemical reactions that produce ammonia. (4 marks)
c) Illustrate how ammonia is eliminated by the brain. (2 marks)
4. A 2.5 years old boy showed signs of deficient bone mineralization. The boy
belonged to high social class parents who took care of his nutrition, and exposed
him to very little air and sun.
a) What nutrients are necessary for normal bone mineralization? (1 mark)
b) What is the deficient nutrient in this patient? (1 mark)
c) Explain the role of the parents’ overprotection in developing the boy’s
condition. (2marks)
d) Illustrate the normal activation of this intended nutrient. (2 marks)
e) Describe the molecular mechanism of action of the activated nutrient.
(2 marks)
5. A diabetic patient was admitted to the hospital with high blood glucose and
glucosoria.
a) List the hormones that increase blood glucose. (2 marks)
b) How would you estimate the average blood glucose in this patient in the last
two months? (1 mark)
c) List the causes of glucosuria. (2 marks)
6. A man weighing 70 kg lives a sedentary life style and has a typical daily dietary
intake of: 250 g carbohydrates, 10 g fats and 100 g proteins.
a) Calculate his daily caloric intake. (2 marks)
b) Calculate his daily caloric needs. (2 marks)
c) Describe his metabolic state: gaining weight, losing weight or in caloric
balance. (1 mark)

101
 
7. A 40-year old woman developed obstruction of the common bile duct, with
yellow discoloration of skin. A blood analysis was ordered.
a) Name the metabolite that causes this abnormal skin color. (1 mark)
b) Outline the pathway for production of this metabolite. (2 marks)
c) What is the color of this patient’s urine? Why? (1 mark)
d) What is the color of this patient’s stool? Why? (1 mark)
8. Health official have been studying a project for combating anemia in school
children by adding iron to the floor used for making bread.
a) Illustrate the chemical reaction in hemoglobin synthesis in which iron is
needed. (1 m)
b) Describe the factors that affect iron absorption. (2 marks)
c) Name other compounds that contain the same prosthtic group of hemoglobin.
(2 marks)
Answers
Signal Transduction
-Give short notes on :
1- page 25 (second messanger of kinases) 2- page 18
3- page 24 (cGMP) 4- page 21
-Explain :
1- page 18 / glucagon , catecholamines 2- page 15
3&4&7- page 18 5- page 25
6- page 21
-Discuss :
1&2- page 9 (Hormonal receptors) / page 10 (types) / page 12 (regulation)
-Enumerate :
1- page 18 (different 2nd messanger + cAMP)
2- page 11 (cell membrane receptors) / page 25
-Compare between : Between page 15 and 18
CHO Metabolism
Glycolysis :
1- page 402- page 47 (anaerobic paragraph) 3- the box in page 111
nd
4- page 72 - 80 5&6- page 53 / page 51 (2 paragraph) / page 108
7- page 57 – 58
TCA cycle :
1- page 61 – 69 / page 174 2- page 67 – 69
3- UDP glucose : page 87-88-101-112 .. citrate as Q1
4- page 93 5&6- as Q3 7-page 69
Gluconeogenesis :
1&4- page 108 2- page 77-72
3- as Q2 + page 71 (last paragraph)
Rest of chapter :
1- page 116 2- page 98 3&4- page 118 5- page 51 – 95
7- page 84 – 95 8- G-6P DH / galactokinase or falactose-1P
9- as Q7 + page 198 10- b) page 84 / 110 11- page 76 – 77

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12- page 46 (last paragraph) 13- a)page 116 b)HbA1c c)page 118
14- G6Pase / L-xylulose reductase / galactokinase or falactose-1P / Aldolase B /
G6PDH
Collective Questions :
1- a)During well fed state;
1. Glycolysis : from which some intermediates or products can be used for other
aim
rather than energy production;
a. Pyruvate → Acetyl CoA → Kreb’s cycle.(NADH+H , ATP)
b. DHAP → Glyerol-3-P → TAGs synthesis (Lipogenesis).
c. Pyruvate → Acetyl CoA → Malonyl CoA → Fatty Acid synthesis .
d. Pyruvate → Acetyl CoA → Cholesterol synthesis.
e. Pyruvate →Lactate (anerobic glycolysis in RBCs and exercising muscles)
f. 2,3 BPG (anerobic glycolysis in RBCs during hypoxia)
2. Hexose Mono Phosphate pathway. 3. Glucuronic acid pathway.4. Glycogenesis.
b)During fasting ; 1. Glycogenolysis . 2. Gluconeogenesis
2- page 69 - 80 3- no.6 / no.1-3 / last step in glucuronic pathway
4- a) page 52-107 b)page 98 c)no10 in glycolysis d)page 69 e)Enolase
5- page 52-69-80 6- page 50 – 78 7- Glycolysis,steps7,10-succinate
thiokinase
8- page 39 – 103 9- Von Gierke's disease / congenital haemolytic anaemia /
haemolytic anaemia / fructose intolerance 10- page 70 – 56
11- Sources of Succinyl CoA:1.alpha keto-glutarate 2.propionyl CoA
Fates of Succinyl CoA:1. Kreb’s cycle; α KG → Succinyl CoA → Succinate →
Fumarate→…..
2. Ketolysis; (Thiophorase in Extra-hepatic Tissues)
3. Heme synthesis {ALA synthase (B6 ) }
12- a)G6PDH b)page 103 c)page 110
Bioenergetics
1- page 144 – 150 3- page 152 4- as Q7 in collected questions/ page 137
1- page 144 2- page 150 / 152 3-page 139 (last paragraph) 4- page 149
Lipid metabolism
FA synthesis and oxidation answers :
1&5- page 190 (process of mobilization of stored fats)
2- pages (174 – 175) / page 69 (allosteric regulation of citrate synthase)
3- page 186 (regulatory hormones - long term regulation) / the box in page 215
4- page 187 (from activation of glycerol till page 189)
6&7- page 176 (the synthesis of malonyl CoA) / page 184 (regulation of fatty acid
synthesis)
8&9- page 193 (transport of fatty acids across the mitochondrial membrane) / page
194 (carnitine deficiencies)
10&11- *page 192 (write briefly about activation of fatty acids)
*page 195 (Beta oxidation of fatty acids briefly and its end products)
12- page 200 (regulation of fatty acid oxidation) / the energy released is 146 ATP
and its calculation is in page 197
103
 
13- a)check the answer of 6&7 questions
b)check the answer of 8&9 questions
14- page 200 (alternative ways of fatty acid oxidation)
15- page 95 (Von Gierke's disease) / page 194 (carnitine deficiencies)
16- a)the pathway and steps are from page 195 (Beta oxidation)
b) 1acetyl CoA + 1propionyl CoA + 1NADH and 1FADH2
the amount of energy is 17 ATP then remove 2 ATP of activation so the net is 15
ATP / propionyl CoA for gluconeogenisis , then tell how acetyl CoA and cofactors
enter the TCA cycle and give energy as ATP
17- explain briefly the pross of mobilization of stored fats at page 190 , and beta
oxidation at page 195
18- check second question answer
Ketogenisis answers :
19- page 208 (steps of oxidation of ketone bodies)
20- page 206 (the first 3 steps ) / page 228 in cholesterol biosynthesis)
21- a)activation of fatty acids in TAG synthesis or FA oxidation (page 189 or 192)
b)page 208
22- page 206 (steps of ketogenesis) . it gives B-hydroxybutyrate or acetone or
acetoacetyl CoA by thiophorase (mention the reactions)
23- page 208
24- page 204 from (under normal physiological conditions …)
25- formation : page 62 , 4th reaction / utilization in page 208
26- page 220 and 221
27- page 220 and 221 / page 222 (inhibition by drugs)
28- page 220 (synthesis of prostaglandins)
29- the box in page 223 and page 224
Cholesterol answers :
30- a)page 228 (steps A and B)
b)page 230 (regulation of cholesterol level)
31- page 228 (synthesis of mevalonic) / page 230 (regulation of cholesterol level by
covalent and gene expression)
32- page 230 (regulation) / page 260 (cholesterol problem in atherosclerosis)
33- check the answer of Q.20
34- page 210 (causes of ketosis) / first topic in page 259 of increased cholesterol
levels conditions
35- page 248 the last paragraph
36- page 230 (regulation) / page 259 (first paragraph)
37- a)the full reaction in page 228 (synthesis of mevalonate)
b) ketogenesis in page 206
c) page 259 (first paragraph)
38- a) (140-200 mg%) page 230
b) page 226 , first paragraph
c) page 260 last paragraph / page 253
d) HMG CoA reductase in page 232 (inhibition by drugs)
e) page 248 , 249
104
 
39- page 248 , 25040- page 24841- page 242 (lipoprotein lipase)
42- b)page 242 c)page 25143- page 268 (complications)
44- page 210 (causes of ketosis)45- second box in page 269
46- a)page 269 (polyol pathway) b)page 261 (last paragraph)
48- page 250 / page 260 (3,4 points)49- page 255 (type 2a)
50- page 242 / page 255 (type 1)

Protein metabolism
1- Transamination page 15 / Transmethylation page 32 / Oxid D.A page 11,12 / AA
D.C page 51
2- page 15,163- a)deamination page 11 / b)page 32 / c)page 22
4- page 21,22 steps 3,4,55- page 326- page 60,61
7- a)page 30,32 b)page 30 8- page 309- a)page 28-B b)page 50
10- tyrosine : page 60 and pheochromocyroma in page 61
tryptophan : page 55 and pellagra page 59
11- a)page 68 b) page 68,6912- a)page 68 b)page 30
13- a)page 20 / regulation in page 23 b)transdeamination and page 18
14- page 20 / deficiency in page2515- page 4816- page 13
17- a)page 48 b)page 3218- a)page 57,58 b)page 63
19- 1)page 44 2)page 60,61 3)page 57,58 4)page 31
20- 1)page 55,56 2)p14 to glutamate + p13 by DA + krebs cycle 3)page 32 4)page
60,61
21- a)p50 b)p60,61 c)p57,58 d)p40 e)p22 f)p16
22- page 5023- a)page 35 b)page 2324- page 24,25
25- page 51 26- page 25 27&28- phenylketonuria p66
29- a)tyrosinase p63 b)PhH p66 c)p55 d)p25
30- the same answer of 10 question
31- a)any enzyme of urea cycle except CPS1 b)sources p17 c) transamination +
page 25
Collected questions around metabolism
1- many examples as in (glycolysis , PDH , krebs cycle … )
3- p103 in part 1 / PDH + a KG DH + transketolase / in gluconeogenesis + ACC in
FA synthesis + CPS 1&2 / PDH + a KG DH + FA CoA synthetase
4- PDH / FA synthase / L-G DH
5- Succinate DH (Kreb’s cycle) / Acyl CoA DH(β- oxidation of FAs) / Xanthine
oxidase (purine catabolism) / D AA oxidase
6- p103,108 in part 1 + page 111 in part 2
8- tyrosinase / L-xylulose reducta / G-6P DH / PhH / homogentisate oxidase / a keto
DH / Galactokinase (mild disorder) ,Galactose-1-P uridyl transferase(severe
disorder)
*(remaining questions were answered before)

105
 
 Integration of metabolism

1- p104 2- allosteric in p95,104 3- p98,106 4- p104,107

5- covalent modifications in p95,104 6- p96,99
7- p104 (enzymatic changes in fasting)

Xenobiotics and Free radicals

1- p111 3- p187,190,193,196 2- a)p111
b)Ferroxidase / Cytochrome c oxidase / Dopamine beta-hydroxylase / Monoamino
oxidase / tyrosinase
c)p194 e)p190,194
Vitamins , Minerals and Nutrition

1- p59,150 2- p139 / p82,86

3- P147 4- p82 5&6&7- p158,154,155
8&9&10- p157 11=>17- p136,137,138
18=>21- p166,169,170 22&23- p163,166
24- p160,162 25- p151
26- D / B6 / B12 / B1 / A / A / D / C / folate
27- a)B1 + pantothenic acid
29- C / E 30- pantothenic acid
31- a) [250x4 + 10x9 + 10x4] = 1130 Kcal
b)70x30 = 2100 Kcal c)losing weight

June 2013

Case 1 :a) Biotin (vitamin H )

b) Pyruvate carboxylase – propionyl coA carboxylase (Gluconeogenesis)– Acetyl
coA carboxylase (Fatty acid synthesis) - CPS I (Urea cycle), CPS II (Pyrimidine
synthesis)
c) page 56 in part 1 book . the illustration in the end of the page ( write the reactions
completely )
d) to produce glucose from alanine , alanine is converted to pyruvate then to
oxaloacetate by pyruvate by pyruvate carboxylase enzyme then gluconeogenesis
occurs
in this case defect in biotin causes failure in function of pyruvate carboxylase
enzyme then failure to produce glucose from alanine (write the reactions )
Case 2 :a) glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme
b) page 103 in part 1 book
c) page 110 in part 1 book
d) haemolytic anaemia , destruction of RBCs and free hemoglobin in blood excreted
in urine

106
 
Case 3 :a) phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme
b) page 60 in part 2 book , the diagram in the page
c) phenylalanine
d) catecholamines (dopamine – epinephrine – norepinephrine ) – melanin – thyroid
hormones
e) serotonin – melatonin- nicotinic acid
Case 4 :a) page 193 in part 1 book , from the last paragraph of summary till the end
of the process
b) impaired tissue's ability to synthesize glucose during fasting state which lead to
hypoglycemia
c) page 194 in part 1 book
Case 5 :a) page 82 in part 2 book , the first paragraph
b) page 79 in part 2 book from the metyl THF topic + page 83 (Folate trap)
Case 6 : 1 gram of CHO give 4 Kcal /1 gram of fat give 9 Kcal/1 gram of protein
give 4 Kcal
His daily caloric intake = ( 500 x 4 + 30 x 9 + 100 x 4 ) = 2670 Kcal

107
 
 Histology

108
 
 Chapter 1: Oral Cavity

1. Give a detailed account of the histological structure of human tongue

(2004 May) (2005 May) & Give the reason for The free margin of the lip is red
(2011)
2. Enumerate Different types of lingual papillae and mention their site and
function. (June 2014) Describe the histological structurecorrelated to function of
circumvallate papillae (May 2008) (Sept 2012 )
3. give an account on the structure ,site and function of taste bud (May 2007)
Chapter 2 : Gastrointestinal tract

1. Give an account of the histological structure of the middle 1\3 of human

oesophagus in relation to its functions (2003 September)
- Mention the structural differences between Vagina & Oesophagus .
(Sept 2012)
2. Structure adapts function :Discuss in relation to the mucosa of the fundus of the
stomach . (May 1999)
3. Give an account/Describe structure (LM & EM) & correlated functions of
parietal cell (Sept 2006-2013) (May 2009-2014) & Mention the name &the site
of the cell responsible for pernicious anemia(May 2011)&role of Intracellular
canaliculi in parietal cells. [1 marks] (May 2012)
4. In a table, compare between the fundic and the pyloric glands. Describe
thehistological picture (LM & EM) and function(s) of the main cells present in
both glands. (May 2008)
5. Discuss the structure of intestinal villus in relation to its function (May 2000)
6. Enumerate cells covering the villi and lining the crypts of small intestine (Sept
2008) & Give the reason for The presence of paneth cells in the basement
membrane of intestinal crypts (May 2011)
7. Give a detailed account on the structure of the mucosa of the ileum.(Sept 2004)
8. Describe structure (LM & EM) & correlated functions of:
a) Cells lining the intestinal mucosa (June 2013) & describe the structure of the
most numerous one (Sept 2014)
b) Enterocytes (Columnar absorptive cells) of intestine.
(5m)(May 2009)(Sept 2008)
c) M (Microfold) cells. (1.5 marks) (May 2009)
9. Give a detailed account of the structure and function of large intestine
(May 2003-2010)
10. Evaluate the role of Frequent Goblet cells in the epithelial lining the large
intestine. (Sept 2012)
11. Give afull account on rectoanal canal . (May 1998)

109
 
12. Compare bet. a section of the large intestine and a section of the appendix.
(5 M) (Sep 2008)
13. Give an account on the glands and cells secreting mucous along the alimentary
canal. (Sep 2007)
14. Epithelial cells lining the gastric & intestinal mucosa related to protein digestion
& absorption (May 2001)(May 2006)
15. Describe in detail the cells involved in digestion & absorption of fat (May 2007)
Chapter 3 :Gut associated glands
1. Discuss the structure of different types of salivation acini in relation to function
where you can find each type (10 Marks) (Sept 2006)
2. Give an account on the following: the structure of parotid gland (May 2002) &
the duct system of parotid gland (different types & structure)
(June 2013) (Sept 2014)
3. Evaluate the role of Myoepithelial cells around mucous acini. (May 2012 )
4. Discuss in detail the pancreas (Sept 2004) & pancreatic acini (Sept 2013)/
Pancreatic acinar cells (June 2014)
5. Discuss the structure and function of the island of langerhans ( 2000 May ) &
Mention the name &the site of the cell responsible for diabetes mellitus
(2011 May)
6. Discuss in detail the histological structure of the exocrine part of pancreas
comparing it with the parotid gland (Sept 2003 – 2006 - 2012) (May 2009)
7. Give account on classic hepatic lobules with special reference to structure of
hepatocyte. (1998 – 2000 – 2001 - 2007Sept)(2004 - 2005 May)
8. Define the classical hepatic lobule, the portal lobule and the liver acinus.
(3 M) (Sept 2008 ) (May 2003)
9. Describe the structure and correlated functions of:
a. hepatic blood sinusoids ( May 2008 ) ( May 2012 ) (Sept 2013)
b. Perisinusoidal space of Disse. (3.5 marks)(May 2002 – 2008 – 2010 - 2011)
& role of Long microvilli on the surface of hepatocytes (Sept 2012)
10. Describe structure (LM & EM), surfaces and correlated functions of the
hepatocytes (7 M)( Sep 2008) (Sept 2006) (May 2009)
Chapter 4 :Endocrine
1. Discuss the structure of the pars distalis (chromophils – chromophobes) with
reference to its relation to hypothalamus (May 1998) (Sept 1998-2001) &With
reference to its blood supply (May 2010)
2. Discuss in detail the cells responsible for regulation of milk production and
secretion (September 2003)& Acidophils in anterior pituitary gland (Sept
2013)/ Compare between the structure of Acidophils and basophils of pars
distalis. (June 2014)

110
 
3. Discuss the histological structures involved in the milk secretion and ejection
(September 2004)
4. The structure of mammary gland is controlled by pituitary hormone, Discuss
(September 2006)
5. Mention the name and site of cell responsible for dwarfism (May 2011)
6. Discuss structure correlated to function Somatotrophs [3 marks] (May 2012)
7. Give account on Parsnervosa (neurohypophysis) & its relation to hypothalamus.
(May 2001)(May 2008)
8. Give an account on structure of adrenal cortex with reference to the control of
its function (May 1999) (September 2000) (May 2006) (September 2007)
9. Describe structure (LM & EM) and correlated functions of the zona fasciculata
of the suprarenal cortex (Sept 2008-2014)&spongiocytes (May 2012)
10. Mention TWO stains for identification of the medulla from the cortex
(May2008)
11. Give a detailed account of adrenal medulla (May 2004-2007)& Chromaffin
cells (June 2013)
12. Give an account of the structure of cells involved in regulation of calcium level
in blood (May 2003)& Chief cells (June 2013)
13. Describe structure (LM & EM) and correlated function of the follicular cells of
thyroid follicles (Sept 2008-2012) (May 2009-2014)
14. In a table form, mention 3 structural difference between: Thyroid and lactating
mammary gland (May 2011)
15. Describe the structure of the pineal body (Sept 2007) & pinealocytes
(June 2013)
Chapter 5 : Urinary
1. Discuss the histology of renal corpuscle with correlation to its function
(Sept 1998-2000-2001) (May 1999-2002-2006)
2. Discuss in detail: podocytes (Sept 2004) (May 2012)With reference to blood
renal barrier (May 2007-2008) (Sept 2008)
3. Describe the structure (LM&EM) and correlated function of Blood renal barrier.
(June 2014)
4. Describe the structure & correlated functions of the components of glomerular
filtration barrier (May 2009) (June 2013)
5. Give an account on mesangial cells (May 2008) (May 2011)
6. Discuss in detail the light microscopic structure of convoluted tubules of kidney
with reference to fine structure (May 2003)
7. Distal convoluted tubules (Sept 2007)

111
 
8. Proximal convoluted tubules (Sept 2008-2013-2014) & Asses the value of :
Apical canaliculi in cells of proximal convoluted tubules (PCT)
(1 mark) (June 2013)
9. In a table form, compare between the structure of the proximal and distal
convoluted tubules of the kidney (May 2010)(Sept 2012)
10. Give an account on loop of henle (September 2006)
11. Give a detailed account of juxta-glomerular apparatus (May 2004) (May 2005)
12. Give reason for: Macula densa cells lack basement membrane (May 2011)
13. Describe the blood supply of kidney (May 2001)
14. Write short note on the urinary bladder (May 2001)
15. Correlate structure (LM&EM) to function of: Facet cells (Umbrella-shaped
cells) of the urinary bladder. (June 2014)(3 marks)
16. In a table, compare between a section in the ureter and vas deferens
microscopically (September 2007)
17. Give an account of male urethra (May 2006-2007-2008)
Chapter 6: Male Reproductive system
1. Give full account on seminiferous tubule (May 2000) (May 2002)/ Enumerate
Different types of dividing germ cells of seminiferous tubules with reference to
type of division. (3 Marks) (June 2014)
2. Give an account of spermatogenic cells (September 2003)
3. Discuss in detail spermatogensis (May 2004) (May 2005)
4. Give an account on the primary spermatocytes (Sept2007)
5. Write an account on: Spermatogenic cells which undergo meiosis during
spermatogenesis. (May 2008)&proliferative cells of seminefrous tubules
(Sept 2013)
6. Describe the structure of the different spermatogenic cells present in the
adluminal compartment of the seminiferous tubules (May 2010)
7. Discuss spermiogensis (May 2010)
8. Discuss cells forming the blood testis barrier
(May 2001-Sept 2004-2006-2008)
9. Correlate structure (LM&EM) to function of Sertoli cells of testis. (Sept 2014)/
Asses the value of:Tight junctions between the lateral processes of adjacent
sertoli cells (1m) (June 2013) /myoid cells around seminefrous tubules
(1m) (Sept 2013)
10. Discuss structure correlated to function of Interstitial cells of leydig (Sept 2012)
11. Give an account of male urethra (May 2006) (May 2007) (May 2008)
12. In a table, compare between a section in the ureter and vas deferens micros-
copically (Sept 2007)(May 2012) & Epididymis and Vas deferens.3m
(June 2013)

112
 
13. Name the Extra testicular genital ducts. Mention the lining Epithelium and
function of each (May 2008)
14. Enumerate in order the pathway of mature sperms till ejaculated with reference
to the lining epithelium of each part (May 2011)
15. Discuss structure correlated to function of the hydrolytic enzymes in acrosomal
cap (May 2012)
16. Give account on male accessory glands of male reproductive system
(May 1998)
17. Describe the structure & function of the prostate gland (May 2009)
Chapter 7 : Female Reproductive System
1. Give account on oogenesis (May 2001)
2. Describe the structure of mature graffian follicle of ovary
(May 1998-2004-2012) (Sept 2014)
3. Discuss in detail origin,structure, types and fate of corpus luteum
(Sept 2001) (June 2013)
4. Discuss gonadotropes &their effect on ovarian follicles (May 2002)
5. Describe the microscopic picture of: Growing follicles (May 2008)
6. Give an account of the ovarian structures involved in ovulation
(Sept 2003)
7. Give an account on the structure and correlated functions of the cortex of the
ovary during luteal phase of the ovarian cycle (May 2010)
8. Give full account on the fallopian tube (May 2000) (May 2007) (May 2011)
9. Give an account on the histological structure of the ampullary part of fallopian
tube (September 2000)
10. Describe the structure of the endometrium during different phases of menstrual
cycle (May 2003) (Sept 1998-2007-2013)
11. Give an account of cyclic endometrial changes with reference of its hormonal
control (May 2006)
12. Describe the endometrium during the secretory phase of menstrual cycle
(Sept 2008-2012) (May 2009)/ Compare between the structure Endometrium of
proliferative and secretory phases of menstrual cycle (June 2014)
13. Give a detailed account on the structure of placenta with reference tostructure
correlated to function of the placental barrier (May 1999) (May 2012)
14. Describe the microscopic picture of lactating mammary gland (May 2008)/
Describe the structure (LM&EM) and correlated function of Mammary gland
alveoli. (June 2014)
15. The structure of mammary gland is controlled by pituitary hormone, Discuss
(September 2006)

113
 
16. In a table form , mention 3 structural difference between: Thyroid and lactating
mammary gland (May 2011) &Resting and lactating mammary gland
(June 2013)
17. Mention the structural differences between Vagina &Oesophagus . (Sep 2012)
18. Assess the value of Highly vascularized lamina propria in vagina.
(1m) (Sept 2013)
Chapter 8 : The Eye
1. Give an account on layers of the cornea. (May 1999-2009 / Sep 2000-2001-
2013) with causes of its transparency (May 2009) & Evaluate the role of
Microvilli on the surface cells of the corneal epithelium . (Sep 2012)
2. Draw a diagram about layer of the cornea. (May 1998 -Sep 1998 -Sep 2008)
3. Draw a diagram about corneoscleral junction . (Sep 2007 -May 2000)
4. Give an account on the ciliary body. (May 2006)
5. Discuss the structure of the iris . (Sep 2006)
6. Draw a diagram about layers of the retina . (May 2003)
7. Describe the structure correlated functions of the pigmented epithelium of the
retina .(May 2010-2013) (Sept 2014) &Assess the value of : tight junction
between pigmented epithelial cells of retina (Sept 2013)&Inner nuclear layer of
the retina . (Sept 2012)
8. Give an account on the rods. (May 2002 - May 2004 - May 2005)
9. Give an account on the inner nuclear layer of the cones. (Sept 2007)/ Enumerate
Types of cells in inner nuclear layer of retina with reference to synaptic
junctions (June 2014)
10. Mention the structural differences between Rod and cone cells [3m](May 2012)
11. Mention the refractive media of the eye . Describe the major one of them in
detail (May 2011)
Chapter 9 : The ear
1. Give an account on crista ampullaris. (May 2000- 2006-2008-2012 / Sep 2003-
2007) & Maculae of inner ear (Sept 2013)
2. Discuss the structure of organ of corti. (Sep 2004 - May 2005)
3. Give an account on Hair Cells of organ of corti . (Sep 2006)&supportingcells of
organ of corti. (Sep 2007) (May 2011)
4. Discuss structure correlated to function of
a) Eustachian tube. (Sept 2014) b) Semicircular canals . (Sept 2012)
Chapter 10 : Nerve Endings and CNS
1. a) Enumerate Different types of non-encapsulated receptors and describe the
structure of epidermal receptors. (Sept 2014)
b) Discuss the structure of pacinian corpuscle .(Sept 2000) (Sept 2007) &
Muscle spindle. [3 marks] (May 2012) & Meissner's corpuscle . (Sep 2012) &
In a table form , mention 3 structural differences between pacinian & meissner’s
114
 
 corpuscles (2011) & muscle spindle and golgi tendon organ
(Sept 2013)(June 2014)
2. Give an account on sensation carried by tracts of post. Column of white matter
of spinal cord. (Sept 1998)
3. Enumerate the extra pyramidal tract &Discuss in detail the structure of tracts
arising from midbrain. (May 1998)
4. Discuss the different lemnisci present in the brain stem ( origin, course,
termination &function) (Sept 2007)/ Describe the origin, course, termination
and function of gracile and cuneate tract (June 2014)
5. Describe tracts carrying touch sensation from the body (origin, course, and
termination) (Sept 2007)
6. Give an account on corticospinal tracts. (May 2001)(Sept 2008-2012). Describe
the origin, course, termination and function of Lateral corticospinal tract
(Sept 2014)
7. Give an account of the spinocerebellar tracts .(Sept 2001) (2003 Sept) & spino
cerebellar tract, with regards to the origin, course, termination &function
(4 mark )(May 2012)
8. Give an account of conscious propriception. (2006 May)(2009 May)
9. Discuss the unconscious proprioception. (2000 May)
10. Give an account on the pain pathway. (Sept 2000)
11. Discuss Extraceptivesensation of the face. (May 2002)
12. Discuss the auditory pathway (May 2004) (May 2005)
13. Give a full account on sensory nuclei of the trigeminal n. &their
connection.(1999 May) (2003 May) (2007 Sep) & mesencephalic nucleus of
trigeminal nerve (2011)
14. Give an account of
a) vestibular nuclei &their connection(2006 Sep)+ Clark's nucleus (June 2013)
b)Different nuclei of vagus nerve with reference to their fibers type.
c) Different components of inferior olivary nucleus with reference to their
connections (Sept 2014)
15. Give an account on Gracile nucleus with regards to the site, afferent & efferent.
(Sep 2012)
16. Give an account on contents of basis pontis . (2 marks ) (May 2012)
17. Discuss in detail cerebellar connections (Sept 2004)/ Enumerate Different
fibers of inferior cerebellar peduncles. (June 2014)
18. Give an account on:
A) The medial longitudinal fasciculus or bundle (MLF). (May 2008)
B) The main tracts or fibers that make crossing in the medulla. Give origin,
course , termination & function of one of them (2008 May) (2011 May)
C) The mesencephalic nucleus of the 5th trigeminal nerve.
(2008 May) (2011 May)
D) Different nuclei in posterior horn of spinal cord. (June 2014)

115
 
19. Mention the origin, pathway, termination and function of:
a. Lateral spinothalamic tract b. Medial lemniscus. (May 2010)
20. Mention types , structures and connections of : a) olivary nuclei (4 marks)
b) different cells of the cerebellar cortex (4 marks) (Sept 2013)
21. Drawing Questions:
1- Draw a label diagram to show the structure of spinal cord at the lower
thoracic region . (May 1999)
2- Draw & label diagram to show the structure at mid brain level on superior
colliculus . (May 2000)
3- Mark a labeled diagram of a section of a closed medulla at the level of motor
decussation. (Sept 2000) (May 2010)
4- Draw and label a diagram to show the structure of the pons at the level of
facial colliculus . (May 2001)
5- Draw a labeled diagram of the open medulla. (Sept 2001) (May 2002)
6- Draw a labeled diagram of the lower part of pons. (Sept 2003) (Sept 2004)
7- Draw a labeled diagram of the cerebellar cortex (May 2004) (May 2005)
8- Draw a labeled diagram of superior midbrain. (May 2006)
9- Draw labeled diagram of closed medulla at the level of sensory decussation
(Sept 2006)
10- Draw a labeled diagram of a section at the level of cervical region of spinal
cord (Sept 2007) (May 2009)
11- A section at the superior level of the pons. (Sept 2007)
June 2013
Illustrate your answers with diagrams :
1- Describe the structure (LM&EM) and the correlated function of :
a) Cells lining the intestinal mucosa (5 marks)
b) Duct system of the parotid gland (4 marks)
2- Describe the structure (LM&EM) and the function of :
a) Pinealocytes (3 marks)
b) Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla (3 marks)
c) Chief cells of parathyroid gland (3 marks)
3- Compare between the structure of :
a) Epididymis and Vas deferens (3 marks)
b) Intrapulmonary and extrapulmonary bronchi (3 marks)
c) Resting and lactating mammary gland (3 marks)
4- Correlate the structure (LM&EM) to the function of :
a) Blood renal barrier (3 marks)
b) Pigmented epithelium of retina (3 marks)
5- Discuss corpus luteum in terms of :
a) Origin (1 mark)
b) Structure (1 mark)
c) Types (1 mark)
d) Fate (1 mark)

116
 
6- Asses the value of :
a) Tight junctions between the lateral processes of adjacent sertoli cells (1 mark)
b) Bowman's glands in olfactory mucosa (1 mark)
c) Apical canaliculi in cells of proximal convoluted tubules (PCT) (1 mark)
7- Discuss the site, connections and function of :
a) Clark's nucleus (2 marks) b) Vestibular nuclei (3 marks)
Sept 2013
Illustrate your answers with diagrams
1. Describe the structure of :
a) inter alveolar septum (3 marks) b) pancreatic acini (3 marks)
2. Correlate the structure to the function of :
a) hepatic sinusoids (3 marks) b) parietal cells of stomach (3 marks)
c) acidophils of anterior pituitary gland (3 marks)
3. Describe the light microscopic structure of proliferative cells of seminefrous
tubules (4 marks)
4. Compare between :
a) proliferative phase and secretory phase of endmetrium (3 marks)
b) muscle spindle and golgi tendon organ (3 marks)
5. Describe the structure and correlated function of :
a) proximal convoluted tubules of kidney (3 marks)
b) Cornea (3 marks) c) Maculae of inner ear (3 marks)
6. Assess the value of :
a) Highly vascularized lamina propria in vagina (1 mark)
b) myoid cells around seminefrous tubules (1 mark)
c) tight junction between pigmented epithelial cells of retina (1 mark)
7. Mention types , structures and connections of:
a) olivary nuclei (4 marks)
b) different cells of the cerebellar cortex (4 marks)
June 2014
Answer all of the following: Illustrate your answers with diagrams:
1. Correlate structure (LM&EM) to function of: (3 marks each)
a. Parietal cells of Stomach.
b. Facet cells (Umbrella-shaped cells) of the urinary bladder.
c. Pancreatic acinar cells.
2. Describe the structure (LM&EM) and correlated function of: (3 marks each)
a. Thyroid follicular cells. b. Blood renal barrier. c. Mammary gland alveoli
3. Enumerate :
a. Different types of dividing germ cells of seminiferous tubules with reference
to type of division. (3 Marks)
b. Types of cells in inner nuclear layer of retina with reference to synaptic
junctions. (3 marks)
c. Different types of lingual papillae and mention their site and function.
(2 marks)

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4. Compare between the structure of the following items:
a. Endometrium of proliferative and secretory phases of menstrual cycle.
(4 marks)
b. Muscle spindle and golgi tendon organ. (3 marks)
c. Acidophils and basophils of pars distalis. (3 marks)
5. Enumerate:
a. Different nuclei in posterior horn of spinal cord. (2 marks)
b. Different fibers of inferior cerebellar peduncles. (3 marks)
6- Describe the origin, course, termination and function of gracile and cuneate tract.
(4 marks)
Sept 2014
Answer all of the following: Illustrate your answers with diagrams:
1. Correlate structure (LM&EM) to function of: (4 marks each)
a. Proximal convulated tubular cells.
b. Sertoli cells of testis.
c. Pigmented epithelial cells of retina.
2. Enumerate: (4 marks each)
a. Different types of duct system of parotid gland and describe their structure.
b. Different types of intestinal epithelial cells and describe the structure of the
most numerous one.
c. Different types of non-encapsulated receptors and describe the structure of
epidermal receptors.
3. Describe the histological structure and function of:
a. Zona fasiculata of suprarenal cortex. (5 marks)
b. Mature (Graffian) follicle of Ovary. (5 marks)
c. Eustachian tube. (2 marks)
4. Enumerate: (3 marks each)
a. Different nuclei of vagus nerve with reference to their fibers type.
b. Different components of inferior olivary nucleus with reference to their
connections.
5. Describe the origin, course, termination and function of Lateral corticospinal
tract. (3 marks)
Answers
Oral Cavity

1) Tounge ?-Skelatal Muscle : Bundles + 3 directions

-Mucous Membrane : Vent. Surface >>>epith: non keratinized
L.P : C.T + Lingual Glands -Dorsal Surface: V shaped >>>> Ant . + Post .
** Lip >> Free Red Zone : Transparent
No sweat or sebaceous glands , No follicles / Dermal Papillae + Highly Vascular
2)Circumvallate Papillae ?Site : / Shape : + Von Ebner's Gland/Numerous Taste Buds
3) Taste Buds?--Supporting -- Taste Receptors -- Basal Cells

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 GIT
1) Esophagus ?
-Mucosa>> Epith + L.P + Muscularis Mucosa
-Submucosa >> Esophageal Glands : Lubrication
-Musclaris Ext .>> inner + outer (Mixed)
-Adventitia>>
No rule in digestion
Vagina Esophagus
St. sq. non kerat. St. sq . non kerat Mucous: epith
C.T + extensive BVs C.T L.P
--------------- Inner + Outer Muscularis mucosa
--------------- C.T + esophageal glands Submucosa
Inner + Outer Inner + Outer Muscularis externa
C.T C.T Serosa
2)Mucosa of Fundus ?
-Epith:Columnar + EM -Lamina Propia: C.T + Glands -Muscularis Mucosa: Inner +
Outer
Cells in Epith >>> LM + EM /Stem : renwal/Mucous Columnar : secretion
Mucous Neck : acidic sec./ Peptic : pepsin + Renin + Lipase / Parietal : HCL + intinsic
factor/Enteroendocrine : .......
3) Parietal cells ?
LM : /EM :-intercellular canaliculi >>> function / intracellular """"">>> function
/Mitocondria + Golgi
4)
Pyloric Gland Fundic Gland
Wide.long . Half of mucosa Narrow. ¼ mucosa Pit
Branched . colied Narrow .staright Shape of gland
Half of mucosa Whole thickness od mucosa Its thickness
Parietal Mucous neck Peptic cells
5) Villi ?-C.T /Lacteals >> fat absorption /-Smooth muscle fibers>> movement /
plasma + macrophage / -Arterial Twigs >>tansport absorped food
6) Cells in Villi + Crypts ?
Villi >> (GEME) .....goblet +enteroendocrine +M cell +Enterocyte
Crypt >> (GEME+ B+P)...... Basal + Paneth
**Paneth cells : Secrete Lysozyme / Secrete antimicrobal peptides
7)Mucosa of ilum ?
* No Villi ... NO Paneth .... More Goblet / epith: simple columnar ..... goblet ......stem
..... enteroendocrien / L.P: Crypts + No Paneth / Muscularis : inner + outer
8)__Enterocyte : LM >> EM>>> / function : absorption /
M cell:LM >>>> EM >>>> / function : transport ......
9)Large Intestine ?cecum -Appendix-colon -rectum + anal canal
10) Goblet cell ?ts mucous secretion lubricate hard food after absorption of water
11) Recto-anal Junction ?
-Crypt >>> dissappear -pith >>> st. sq. kerat . & non - scularis Mucosa >>> disappear -
mucosa >>> Veins ...... (Piles) - er circular >>> thicker .... internal sphincter - er
circular >>>> dissappear
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12)
Appendix Large Intestine
Less Goblet No villi +more goblet Mucous: epith
C.T + very shory crypt C.T + No Paneth + Crypts L.p
Ill defined Inner + Outer Musularis mucosa
C.T + premanent C.T Submucosa
Lymphatic nodules
Inner + outer +No Inner + Outer (taenia Coli) Muscle layer
taenia Coli
C.T Very narrow lumen C.T + Appendices Epiplicae serosa
13)secrete mucous : Goblet cell / Surface epithelial / Mucous neck cell
14)Mucous columnar cell / Mucous neck cell / Peptic / Parietal / Enteroendocrine
Absorption: enterocyte
Gut association glands
1) Acini ?*Serous >>>secrete watery saliva rich in amylase / *Mucous>>>secrete
mucous secretion for lubrication + page 60
2)Parotid Gland?
*2 S ( Serous acini + Striated duct) /* 2 Thick ( thick capsule + thick septa)
*25% of total saliva
3)Myoepithelial cell ?
-its process contract >>press on acini >>release secretory enzymes into the duct
-prevent overdistention of acini during secretion
4)Pancreas?
*STROMA: C.T / *Pranchyma: Acini >>> serous ‫ & واﺷﺮﺣﻬﺎ‬Duct portion
5)Islets of langerhans?-endocrine portion of pancreas>>> (great numb. in tail of
pancreas)-LM: scattered pale staining clusters of cells + reticular fibers **(A & B &D)
6)Exocrine part of pancreas?
-centeroacinar cells >> cuboidal ..flat esq. /-intercalated>>> cuboidal >>> into
interlobular / -interlobular>>low columnar /-Main pancreatic duct >>> simple
columnar +common bile duct into duodenum
*** ‫اﻟﻔﺮق ﺑﻴﻨﻬﺎ وﺑﻴﻦ‬parotid ::::
centeroacinar >>> in pancreas ..... not in parotid
striated >>> not in pancreas ...... in parotid
main duct >>> columnar in pancreas .... st. columnar +st. sq. in parotid
7)Classic hepatic lobules ?
-hexagonal or pentagonal mass of liver + Central vein
-branching plates of hepatocytes separated by sinusoidal blood capillaries
-space od disse between hepatocytes and sinusoidal endothelium
-portal tract on its corner ( 4 structure) >>>show endocrine function
*** Hepatocyte :LM : ....... (acidophilic) / EM :cytoplasm contain ................ + 3
surfaces / Function :
8)Portal lobule ?-Triangular ..... 3 adjacent hepatic lobules ... portal tract .....central
veins at its angels-direction of bile
8)Liver acinus ?
-diamond.... 2 portal tract .. 2 nearest central veins ... 2 adjacent lobules
-blood supply + 3 zones

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9)Blood sinusoids?*Fenstrated endothelial cells
* Kupffer cells >>>> phagocytosis +breakdown RBCs
9) Space of Disse?
*Plasma * Non myelinated nerve fibers
*Microvilli * Pit cells
* collagen 3 * Ito cells>>> exchange between blood & hepatocytes

Endocrine
1)Chromophobes:50% of pars distalis /smaller than chromophilis + LM
*Chromophilis:50% / larger than chromophobes / specific granules
**Hypothalamic regulation >>Tuberohypophyseal Neurons ......
**Blood Supply :Sup Hypophyseal art. + .......
2)Regulation of milk production :(Mamotrophes in pars distalis)
Tuberohypophyseal neurons
*Regulation of milk ejection : (Herring bodies in pars nervosa)
hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract
3)Milk production : Mamotrophes LM /EM: / Milk secretion : Herring bodies in pars
nervosa
4)Structure of mammary gland controlled by pituitary hormones ?
*structure in Resting state / *Pituitary >> prolactin & oxytosin
*Structure in lactating state / *Effect of each hormone: prolactin , estrogen & oxytosin
* Myoepithelial cells around alvoli > by oxytoxin
5)Somatotrophes>> in pars distalis close to blood capillaries
6)Somatotrophes?-LM: EM:-Function:
7)Pars nervosa? (PRFHH) -Pituicytes -Reticular fibers-Fenestrated capillaries
-Herring bodies -Hypothalamo-hypophyseal tracts
**relation to hypothalamus: hypothalamo-hypophyseal tracts
8) Page 26 -27 ‫آﺘﺎﺑﺎﻟﻘﺴﻢ‬
9)Zona fasiculata?-LM: *acidophilic *Lipid droplets / -EM: sER , Mitocondria ,golgi
-Function: glucocorticoids
10) Chromaffin reaction-Ferric cloride>>> green -Iodine >> red
11)Adrenal Medulla ?-Chromaffine cells-ganglion cell
12)Regulation of Ca level in blood?*Parathyroid gland>> chief cell & oxiphil cell
13) Follicular cell ?LM : Normal & Hyperactive & Hypoactive
EM : rER , Golgi , mitocondria / Function : thyroid hormones
14) _Thyroid _ Lac.
Mamm. Gland
cells -Follicular&parafollic. -Secretory alvioli
lumen filled with -Colloid -Milk
*homogenous *Vaculated
(dissolved fat)
arrangement -Follicles -lobes + ill defined
septa
secretion -Thyroid hormones -Milk
15) Pineal body ?-Pinealocytes + discuss-Neuroglial cell + discuss
Urinary

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1)Renal Corpuscle?
*Bowman's capsule >>> External & Internal(Podocytes) & their Function
*Glomerulus>>> Glumerular capillaries & Mesangium & their function
2)Podocyte?M : Function:+ 3 layers of blood renal Barrier
3)Glumerular filtration barrier ?(3)*endoth. of capillaries +its function
*basement membrane +its function
*filtration slits of podocyte +its function
4)Mesangial Cells?
*Intraglomerular >>>> LM + EM + Function (SBC + MM +RR)
Support + basement membrane +chemical mediators +Macrophage+Matrix +Receptor
for 2
*Extraglumerular (Lacis) >>>> Juxta.glumerular apparatus
5)Convulated tubules?
LM : type of epith. + num of cells + acidiphilic cytoplasm +basal striation + Nucleus
EM : brush border + interdigitation + Miticondria + pinocytotic vesicles
- - - - - - compare between DCT & PCT page 51 ‫آﺘﺎﺑﺎﻟﻘﺴﻢ‬
9) Loop pf Henle?*Long & Short/*4 Portions/Function
10)Juxta-glumerular apparatus?
*Macula Densa * Lacis cells*Juxtaglumerular cells + Discuss each one
11)Macula Densa has no basement membrane?To be in a direct contact with
Juxtaglumerular cells and lacis cells
12)Blood supply of the kidney ?
Renal art > interlobar > arcuate> interlobular > aff > capillaries > eff > peritubular
capillaries > inter lobular V > arcuate V. > interlobar V.> Renal V.
13)Urinary Bladder ?*Mucosa : Transitional epith + ‫اﺷﺮﺣﻪ‬
*Musclosa : Sm. muscle run in every direction (IL + MC + OL )*Advititia : C.T
14) Ureter VAS Deferens
*Mucosa :epith *Transitional epith.
*pseudo.st.colum.+sterocilia
*Musclosa : * Upp.2/3 (IL+OC) *( IL + MC + OL)
*Low.1/3 (IL+MG+OL)
*Advintitia: *C.T *C. T
15) Male Urethra?*Prostatic *Membranous*Penile + Discuss each one

Male
1)Seminiferous tubules ?_Spermatogenic cells _Sertoli cell
_surounded by basement membrane
_enclosed by 2 layers of myoid cells >> movement of spermatozoa
2)Spermatogenic cells?*Spermatogonia : Dark A & Pale A & B
*Primary spermatocyte*Secondary spermatocyte
*Spermatids + Discuss each one
3)Spermatogensis?*Spermatogenesis>>>> Proliferation & Growth & Maturation
*Spermiogenesis>>>>>Golgi & Cap & Acrosomal & Maturation
4)Primary spermatocyte?*Origin *Structure
*Course *Its chromosomes
5)>>>>>>>>> (2)

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6)adluminal part?pry. & sec. spermatocytes & Spermatids
7)Spemiogensis?*Golgi *Cap *Acrosomal *Maturation
8)Cells forming barrier ?_Tight junction of adjacent Sertoli cells
9)Blood testis barrier ?*Junction between sertoli cells + 2 compartements/Function
10)Lydig ?-secrete tesosterone ..........
11)Male urethra ?*Prostatic *Membranous*Penile + Discuss each one
12) Ureter VAS Deferens
*Mucosa :epith *Transitional epith.
*pseudo.st.colum.+sterocilia
*Musclosa : * Upp.2/3 (IL+OC) *( IL + MC + OL)
*Low.1/3 (IL+MG+OL)
*Advintitia: *C.T *C. T
13)Extra-testicular ducts?
*Epididymis *Vas *Ejaculatory duct *spermatic cord + Epith . + Function
14)Pathway of mature sperms ?
*Testis >> Tubuli Recti >> Rete testis >> Vasa efferentia >> Epididymis >> Vas >>
Ejaculatory duct >> Prostatic urethra >> Mem. >> Penile urethra+ Epith of each
15)Hydrolytic enzymes ?
*structure:Hyaluronidase & neuroaminidase & acid phosphstase & Protease
*Function :Facilitate penteration ........
16)Accessory glands ?*Seminale vesicle *Prostate gland *Cowper's glands
17)Prostate gland?*Stroma : Capsule & Septa
* Pranchyma : Mucosal & Submucosal & Main acini *Function :........
Female
1)Oogenesis?*Proliferation*Growth *Maturation +Discuss each one
2)Mature graffian follicle?*Theca folliculi : theca interna & externa
*Follicular cavity:...................*Follicular cells:Membrana granulosa..........
& cumulus oophorous ......................& corona radiata.............................
3)Corpus Luteum ?*Origin: after ovulation, granulosa cells & theca interna *Structure:
granulosa cell >> granulosa lutein + (LM , EM)/theca interna >> theca lutein +
(LM , EM )+ 3 Types
*Fate: Corpus albicans
4)Gonadotrophes?*Pars distalis of pituitary >*LM :fusiform in shape*Stain : +ve &
-ve/ EM: granules (200-400nm)-Function: FSH ..... & LH .......
5) Growing follicles?*Primordial *Primary >> Unilaminar & multilaminar *Secondary
*Mature grafian follicle + Discuss each other
6)Ovarian structures involved in ovulation ?
*stages >> MatureGraffian follicle >> Ovulation >> sec. oocyte >> after ovulation :
corpus luteum ...................
7)Cortex of the ovary during luteal phase ?
_LH increases blood flow to the ovary >> edema and increase in intrafollicular fluid
>> increase in intrafollicular pressure
_ The corpus luteum is formed >> secrete estrogen & Progesterone
8)Fallopian Tube ?*Mucosa : Epith >> Peg cell & ciliated columnar cell/ L.P >> C.T
*Muscle layer : IC & OL*Serosa : C.T+ Function
+ Cyclic changes in it under the effect of :_ Esrtogen /After Ovulation

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9) >>>>>> (8)
10)Cyclic changes in endometrium ?*Menstrual phase :.....
*Proliferative :................*Secretory : Early period & Ischemic period:..................
11)>>>>> (10)
13) Placenta ?*Fetal Part : Chorionic villi >>> cyto-trophoblast & syncytio-trophoblast
*Maternal Part: Decidua basalis .........---- Palcental barrier >>> 6 layers :..............
14)Lactating Mammary gland ?
*Stroma : thin septa + lobes + lobules & No fat
*Pranchyma : Secretory alvoli :...........//Duct system :...................
16) _Thyroid _ Lac. Mamm.
Gland
cells -Follicular&parafollic. -Secretory alvioli
lumen filled with -Colloid -Milk
*homogenous *Vaculated
(dissolved fat)
arrangement -Follicles -lobes + ill
defined
septa
secretion -Thyroid hormones -Milk
17) was answered in GIT
Eye
1)Layers of the cornea?*Corneal epith.*Bowman's mem.(Struc. + Func.)
*Substantia propria (3 struc.)*Descement's mem.
*Descement's endoth. (EM )-- Its transparency :*Avascular *Regular arrangement
*Same refractive index of all components *withdrawal fluida from stroma
--Microvilli : retaining film of tears to keep the cornea weet
4)Ciliary Body ?*3 surfaces *2 Zones*Struc : *C.T
* 2 layers of cuboidal cells>>> outer + inner
5)Iris ? (A V D E )*Ant. surface*Vessel layer*Dilator pupillae muscle
*Epith. + Discuss each one
7) Pigmented epith of retina?
*LM : basophilic cytoplasm + nucleus*EM : -apical surface>>......- basal mem
infolding>>....-lat. borders >>......-cytoplasm >>........
*Function : Absorption & Nutrition & Estrification & Phagocytosis & Barrier
Inner nuclar layer of retina?*Bipolar *Horizontal*Amacrine *Muller
8) Rods?*Outer segment : LM & EM
*Inner segment :Outer & Inner portion*Cell body :.........
9) Inner nuclear layer of Cones?
10) Rods Cones
*Outer seg. *Rod in shape *Conical
*Memb. disks &Memb *not cont. with it *continous with it
*The pigment *Rhodopsin *Iodopsin
*Types one *3 Types >>colour vision
11) Refractive media of the eye?*Cornea >> Major one
*Aqueous humor *Lens*Vitreous body

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 Ear
1)Crista Ampullaris?*Hair cells : Type 1 & 2*Supporting cells
--Hair cells donot rest on the basal lamina--glycoprotein>> cupula not otolith
*Function : angular acceleration ...............
2)Organ of corti ?*Hair cells >> Inner & Outer (+ differences )
*Supporting >> Inner&Outer pillar ,Inner&Outer Phalengeal ,Border ,Hensen
&Claudius
3)>>> (2)
4)Semicircular canals?*3 canals *5 openings
*Rec: crista ampullaris + structure + function

Free Nerve Endings & CNS

1)Pacinian corpuscle?*Sites :............
*Struc. : myelinated >> loses sheath(first ranvier)>>opp. Pole
-Schwan cells >> inner .............&Outer ........
Meissner's?*Site:*Struc. : prependicular >>thin capsule >>flattened schwann cell
- aff. run in spiral course >> branches
Muscle spindle ?*Site:........................*Struc. :parallel , C.T capsule
- 2_12 intrafusal muscle fibers >>> Nuclear bag & Nuclear chain- Aff. & Eff,
innervation 2)Post column of white matter ?
**Gracile &Cuneate >> Fine touch + propioception*First order >>*Sec. order
>>*Third order>>
3)Extra-pyramidal tracts?*Rubro -spinal *Tecto-spinal
*Vestibulo-spinal *Reticulo-spinal>> Medullary &Pontine*MLB
4)Different Lemisci?*Spinal >> Vent &lat spino-thalamic*Medial >> Gracile &
Cuneate
5)Touch sensation ?
*Fine >> dorsal column : gracile & cuneate
*Crude >> Vent. spino-thalamic +Discuss each one
6)Corticospinal tract?*Origin : cortex .............
*Pathway : corona radiata >>> internal capsule -in Mid brain :...-in Pons: -in medulla:
.>>> Lat &Vent & anterolateral
7)Spinocerebellar ?
Dorsal Ventral
*Origin *Clark's * lamina 5,6,7
*Termination *ICP *SCP
*Crossing *Uncrossed *double crossed
*Function *infor. individual *infor. whole limb
limb muscle
8)Concious propioception ?
*Gracile & Cuneate .....................
9)Unconcious propioception ?*C1_C7 >>> cuneo-cerebellar
*C8_L3 >> Clark's >> dorsal spinocerebellar*Below L3 >> eith gracile till clark's
*Lumber,sacral ,coccyreal >> ventral spinocerebellar
10)Pain pathway ?*Fast Pain >> Lat spinothalamic First & Second &Third order
neuron

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11)Extraceptive sensation of the face?
12)Auditory pathway ?
*1st order neuron: receptor>>spiral ganglion>> vestib.nerve>Dorsal&vent. choclear
nuclei*2nd order neuron:................*3rd order neuron:....................
13)Sensory nuclei of trigeminal?*Spinal nucleus of trig.>>Pain +Tem.
*Main sensory nucleus>>Touch
*Mesencephalic nucleus>>Propioception + Connection of each one
14)Vestibular nuclei &connection?*Site:*Nuclear grp:*Connection:
-Cerebellum.........-Spinal cord...........-MLB...........
15)Gracile nucleus?*Site: closed medulla*Aff:fibers carrying fine touch+propioception
*Eff:sensory decussation > medial leminiscus>>>>>>
16)Contents of basis pontis?*Longitudinal fibers *Transverse fibers*Pontine nuclei
17)Cerebellar connection?*Aff: Climbing &Mossy*Eff: from deep cerebellar nuclei
-connection of deep cerebellar nuclei>> corticonuclear &Nucleocortical extracerebellar
inputs/SCP/ICP
18)MLB?*Definition:*Position:*Structure:*Connection :Ascending & Descending
*Function:
Crossing in medulla?*Motor decussation *Sensory decussation
Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal?
*Propioceptive sensation of the face*its connection..............
19)Lat. spinothalamic tract ?*Origin: lamina 1,4,5*Pathway:1st , 2nd , 3rd order
neuron*Termination:*Function: fast pain &Temperature
Media leminiscus?
*Origin: gracile &cuneate tract > nucleus in medulla
*Pathway: lemisci in brain stem > internal capsule > crona radiata > cotex
*Termination: cortex*Function: fine touch &propioception

June 2013
1- a) page 34 in part 1 book / b) page 60 (the duct portion)
2- a) page 29 in part 2 book b) page 27 c) page 21
3- a) page 87,88 in part 2 book b) page 238,244 in first year book
c) page 123,124 in part 2 book
4- a) page 41 in part 2 bookb) page 10 in part 3 book
5- page 108 in part 2 book
6- a) protect the developing sperms from the immunological attack
b) their secretion allow perception of new odorous substances
c) to absorb macromolecules
7- a) page 58 in part 3 book (number 5) / dorsal spinocerebellar tract in page 64
b) page 101 and 102 in part 3 book

126
 
Psychology

127
 
 MCQ Questions
1. Methods of learning:
a- imitation b- Trial & error
c- Insight learning d- all of the above
2. Function of the right hemisphere:
a- language b- global thinking
c- simple calculation d- all of the above
3. Functions of the limbic lobe:
a-emotions b-motivation
c-memory d-all of the above
4. Function of the reticular activating system :
a-sleep-wake cycle b-attention
c-control level of arousal d-all of the above
5. Autonomic movement is:
a-Agitation
b-relaxation of the triceps during biceps muscle contraction
c-hand movement while walking
d-all of the above
6. Function of the parietal lobe:
a-management of the body b-knowledge of the numbers and their relations
c-visual association d-auditory association
7. Function of temporal lobe:
a-somatic sensation b-visual sensation
c-comprehensive speech d-none of the above
8. Core communication skills include:
a-information gathering skills b-information giving skills
c-all of the above d-doctor patient interpersonal skills
9. Mature defensive mechanisms include all of the following except:
a-sublimation b-altruism
c-suppression d-repression
10. The following are known characteristics of REM sleep except:
a-rapid eye movement
b-desynchronized EEG activity
c-penile nocturnal tumescence
d-increased muscle tone
11. The importance of effective doctor-patient communication are:
a-accurate diagnosis b-enhancing patient compliance to treatment plan
c-patient satisfaction d-all of the above
12. The direct coping with illness is:
a-problem focused b-emotional focused
c-denial d-none of the above
13. Medical students need to acquire the following skills :
a-information skills b-psychoanalysis
c-hypnosis d-none of the above
14. Fields of psychology includes:
a-developmental psychology b-experimental psychology
c-social psychology d-forensic psychology
e all of the above

128
 
15. Perception depends on:
a-selectivity b-expectation
c-organization d-all of the above
16. Factors affecting perception:
a-cognition b-compliance
c-emotional state d-none of the above
17. Imaginative thinking is:
a-uncontrolled b-not goal directed
c-sometimes unrealistic d-all of the above
18. Examples of imaginative thinking:
a-creation b-scientific innovation
c-day dreams d-problem solving
19. Function of language is:
a-learning b-interpersonal communication
c-thinking d-all of the above
20. Enviromental determinants of aggression include:
a-air pollution b-noise
c-crowding d-all of the above
21. Chromosomal aberration leads to aggression is:
a-XXX b-XX
c-XYY d-all of the above
22. Basic psychology include:
a-forensic psychology b-experimental psychology
c-commercialpsychology d-sport psychology
23. Parameters of development include:
a-physical development b-cognitive development
c-psychosocial development d-all of the above
24. The IQ average intelligence ranges:
a-less than 60 b-90-110
c-130-140 d-more than 130
25. Factors affecting intelligence include:
a-personality b-frustration
c-heredity and environmental factors d-all of the above
26. The state of arrested development of mind is:
a-delirium b-mental retardation
c-delusion d-apathy
27. Freud view personality is composed of:
a-ID,ego,superego b-extraversion,neuroticism and impulsivity
c-introversion and psychoticism d-16 basic factors
28. Characteristics of schizoid personality include:
a-shy b-introverted
c-withdrawn d-all of the above
29. Characteristics of paranoid personality disorder include the following except:
a-Repeated lying. b-Suspiciousness.
c-Oversensitive. d-Excessive self importance with inability to accept criticism.
30. Motivation:
a-Is the force that directs the behavior towards a goal.
b-Leads to illusion.
c-Include expression and experience components.
d-None of the above.
129
 
31. Which of the following fields of psychology has\have vocational (job) goals:
a-Industrial psychology. b-counselingpsychology.
c-Forensic psychology. d-A+B. e-A+B+C.
32. Inter-group conflicts are studied through:
a-Clinical psychology. b-Social psychology.
c-Forensic psychology. d-Experimental psychology.
e-Educational psychology.
33. Clinical psychology apply psychological principles to diagnosis and treatment of:
a-Criminal behavior. b-Mental retardation.
c-Juvenile delinquency. d-Drug addiction.
e-All of the above.
34. Which of the following personality disorders is characterized by exhibitionism:
a-Histrionic P.D b-Avoidant P.D
c-Borderline P.D d-Narcissistic P.D
e-Compulsive P.D
35. Passive aggression P.D is characterized by:
a-Resistance for adequate performance both socially and occupationally.
b-Dependant and lack of self confidence.
c-Stubbornness as passive resistant behavior.
d-Resistance is expressed indirectly instead of inefficiency
e-All of the above.
36. Personality traits of personality disorders are characterized by:
a-Inflexible. b-Maladaptive.
c-Significant impairment of social or occupational functioning.
d-Subjective stress. e-All of the above.
37. Dramatic personality disorders include:
a-Histrionic P.D b-Narcissistic P.D
c-Antisocial P.D d-Borderline P.D
e-All of the above.
38. Which of the following personality disorders may has\have substance abuse
problem:
a-Antisocial P.D b-Borderline P.D
c-Compulsive P.D d-A+B. e-A+B+C.
39. 39-Personality disorder with lack of self confidence (low self esteem) include:
a-Passive aggressive P.D b-Avoidant P.D
c-Narcissistic P.D d-A+B. e-A+B+C.
40. Perfectionism is criteria of which of the following personality disorders:
a-Compulsive P.D b-Histrionic P.D
c-Antisocial P.D d-Schizoid P.D e-None of the above.
41. Which of the following disturbances of emotion is associated with guilt feelings:
a-Anxiety b-Depression
c-Euphoria d-Elation e-Grief
42. Schizophrenia may be associated with emotional disturbances as :
a-Euphoria b-exaltation
c-depersonalization d-Ecstasy e-all of the above
43. If a patient has intact emotion experience without reflection of emotional
expression, he said to be:
a-Apathetic b-blunted
c-indifference d-euphoric e-incongruent

130
 
44. Anhedonia which occurs in some psychiatric disorders means:
a-Loss of pleasure b-Apprehension
c-Subjective feeling of well-being d-Unpleasant subjective awareness
e-Sense of enjoyment and self confidence radiating to the others
45. Psychoanalytic concept of motivation (Freud) includes:
a-Instinct model (Eron & Thanatos) b-Conscious & unconscious model
c-repression model d-complex model
e-all of the above
46. Vicarious learning in social learning theory of motivation means:
a-thinking and representing situations symbolically
b-Learning by observation
c-our actions are governed by anticipated consequences
d-Self regulatory processes (internal reinforcement)
e-all of the above
47. Unconscious motives according to Freud theory can be expressed in:
a-Dreams b-Slips of speech
c-Symptoms of mental illness d-A+B e-A+B+C
48. Cause(s) of hallucinations includes:
a-schizophrenia b-organic brain disease
c-physiological before we fall asleep d-sensory deprivation
e-all of the above
49. Micropsia is one of the:
a-perceptual loss b-perceptual deception
c-perceptual distortion d-A+B e-A+B+C
50. Borderline I.Q.:
a-I.Q. ranges between 70 – 79 b-represent 5% of normal distribution of bell curve
c-considered superior I.Q. d-A+B e-A+B+C
51. In operant conditioning:
a-involves cranio-spinal nervous system b-stimulus determines the behavior
c-the animal is passive d-response depend on the stimulus
e-responses are involuntary
52. Organic amnesia:
a-may occur due to transient ischemic cerebral attacks (TICA)
b-may occur due to head injuries
c-characterized by anterograde or retrograde amnesia
d-dementia is considered a subtype
e-All of the above
53. Confabulation :
a-is a type of paramnesia
b-completely false description of past events
c-unconscious feeling of gaps in memory
d-usually associated with organic pathology ( organic brain syndrome )
e-all of the above
54. Dissociated or hysterical amnesia :
a-there is a loss memory & identity
b-personality remains intact
c-often accompanied by fugue state & usually circumscribed
d-related to conflicting situations
e-all of the above

131
 
55. Delusion in manic patients include :
a-Delusion of references b-Delusion of grandiosity
c-persecutory delusions d-Delusion of infidelity
e-Delusion of nihilism
56. Disorders of form of thinking include :
a-thought broadcasting b-bizarre delusions
c-lack of association & incoherent thinking d-thought block
e-overvalued ideas
57. Delusion of Hypochondriasis means:
a-delusion concerning body function
b-patient believe that he has serious illness
c-patient believe that part of all his body does not exists
d-strange false belief ( invaders from the space implant electrode inside his brain )
e-patient believe that his partner is unfaithful
58. Disorders of the content of thinking include :
a-preoccupation with obsessions b-overvalued ideas
c-delusions d-A+B e-A+B+C
59. Persecatory delusions means :
a-patient believes that he is being harassed or cheated
b-patient believes that his partner is unfaithful
c-patient believes that others refers to him
d-patient believes that invaders from the space implant electrodes inside his brain
e-patient believes that he is important & powerful
60. Delusions in schizophrenic patients includes :
a-Delusion of references b-Delusion of grandiosity
c-persecutory delusions d-Delusion of infidelity
e-all of the above
61. Delta waves in EEG seen more in :
a-stage I of NREEM sleep b-stage II of NREEM sleep
c-stage III of NREEM sleep d-stage IV of NREEM sleep
e-during REM sleep
62. Which of the following concerning functions of REM sleep is / are true :
a-memory consolidation takes place b-catecholamines are synthesized
c-it prevent lethargy d-A+B e-A+B+C
63. Following are characteristics of REM sleep except:
a-Increased parasympathetic activity.
b-Increased sympathetic activity.
c-EOG (electro occulogram) shows rapid eye movement.
d-All of the above.
64. Normal intelligence, IQ ranges from:
a-↓ 60 b-80-89 c-90-110 d-↑130
65. Characteristics of paranoid personality disorder include the following except:
a-Repeated lying b-Suspiciousness
c-Restricted emotions d-Inability to accept criticism
66. Disorders of thinking include:
a-Delusion b-Hallucination
c-illusion d-All of the above
67. Disorders of memory include all of the following except:
a-Amnesia b-Paramnesia
c-Confabulation d-Apathy

132
 
68. All of the following are functions of temporal lobe except:
a-Audition b-Emotion
c-Memory. d-Thinking.
69. According to operant conditioning:
a-The behavior followed by a reward will be repeated.
b-The behavior followed by noxious consequences will be repeated.
c-Reinforcement is associated with apparent conditioning.
d-All of the above.
70. The area of the brain involved aggression is:
a-Hypothalamus. b- Amygdala.
c-Cerebral cortex. d-All of the following.
71. Hallucination is:
a-Sensory perception without stimulus.
b-May be auditory, visual or tactile.
c-All of the above.
d-None of the above.
72. Euphoria is:
a-Subjective feeling of well being and confidence
b-Happiness.
c-Unconcerned of his physical or mental illness
d-All of the above
73. Defense mechanisms are:
a-Only used by persons with neurosis b-Conscious mechanism
c-Important to deal with frustration d-All of the above
74. Psychology has a direct relation to medicine in the following areas except:
a-Behavioral manifestation of medical illness.
b-Understanding doctor-patient relations
c-Patient’s response and coping to illness and treatment
d-Laboratory and radiological
75. All of the following are stages of cognitive development describe by piaget except:
a-Sensory-motor stage b-Preoperational stage
c-Oral stage d-Concrete operational stage
76. Theories of interpersonal attraction include:
a-Reinforcement model b-Social exchange model
c-All of the above d-None of the above
77. Compliance of patients may be improved by :
a-Rejecting and unfriendly doctor b-Complex treatment
c-Verbal instruction given to the patient d-Good doctor patient relationship
78. An introvert person is:
a-Sociable b-Seeks company of others
c-Always shy and works alone d-Can talk in public
79. Psychology is defined as :
a-the study of mind and behavior b-the study of mind
c-the scientific study of behavior d-the scientific study of mind and behavior
80. 80-The following are known functions of REM sleep except :
a-catecholamine synthesis b-memory consolidation
c-restoration of body functions after fatigue d-dreaming

133
 
81. The following is true about profile of sleep in infants :
a-REM represents 20% of total sleep b-total sleep time is the same as in adults
c-no changes in sleep with age d-none of the above
82. Psychology has a direct relation to medicine in the following areas .Except :
a-behavioral manifestation of medical illness
b-understanding doctor-patient relationship
c-patient response and coping with illness &treatment
d-laboratory &radiological
83. The direct coping with illness is:
a-problem focused b-emotional focused
c-denial d-none of the above
84. Medical students need to acquire the following skills :
a-information gathering skills b-psychoanalysis
c-hypnosis d-none of the above
85. Types of attention including all the following .Except:
a-voluntary b-motivation
c-involuntary d-spontaneous
86. The following factors make the person more attentive to certain objects . Except :
a-a steady stimulus b-motivation
c-expectation d-threatening stimuli
87. Congnitive process by which sensory stimuli are translated into meaningful
information is:
a-attention b-thinking
c-perception d-memory
88. Disorders of memory include all the following except:
a-Amnesia b-Hypermnesia
c-Illusion d-Confabulation
89. Concept formation is a method of:
a-Attention b-Thinking
c-Memory d-Perception
90. Examples of imaginative thinking include :
a-Creation b-Scientific innovation
c-Day dreaming d-Problem solving
91. Alarm reaction (physiological response to stress) includes:
a-Increase heart rate b-Decrease heart rate
c-Decrease blood pressure d- Muscle relaxation
92. Environmental determination of aggression include:
a-Air pollution b-Noise
c-Crowding d-All of the above
93. Social determinants of aggression include:
a-Relaxation b-Frustration
c-Social skills d-All of the above
94. The chromosomal aberration that may lead to aggression is:
a-XXX b-XX c-XYY d-All of the above
95. Basic psychology include:
a-Forensic psychology b-Experimental psychology
c-Commercial psychology d-Sport psychology

134
 
96. Developmental psychology is a branch of psychology concerned with:
a-Factors that shape behavior from birth to old age b-Social relation
c-Frustration d-Aggression
MCQ June 2013
Select the most correct answer:
1. All the following are factors affecting bystander intervantion EXCEPT:
a)the risk of physical injury b)the fear of legal consequences
c)the diffusion of responsibility d)the reciprocal liking
2. Types of coping strategies used in the stress mangement techniques are:
a)information seeking type b)emotion focused type
c)behavioural type d)all of the above
3. The barriers of communiction includes all of the followinh EXCEPT:
a)synfax and language barrier b)enviromental barrier
c)proper body language d)emotional barrier
4. Antisocial personality disorder is charactarized by:
a)being emotionally callous and impulsive b)grandiosity
c)seduction and attention seeking d)shyness
5. Core communication skills in an effective doctor patient relationship are:
a) information gathering and information giving skills
b) doctor patient interpersonal skills
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
6. Perception differs from sensation in :
a)being controlled by the primary cortical area
b)it is the interpretion,giving meaning and recognition of a sensory input
c)the role of the brain is passive in preception
d)it depends on physiological basis
7. The ego functions for:
a)pleasure seeking
b)inhibiting the personality to sustain the morals and social values
c)dealing retionally with the requirements of the reality
d)immediate gratification
8. Knowing the attitude of the people is useful in the following:
a)it can predict their behavior b)it indecates their beliefs
c)both a and b d)neither a nor b
9. The following is true about pcsychological approaches:
a)the cognitive approach explains how the behavior is determined by processing of
information
b)the biological approach explains how the bahavior is controlled by external
stimuli of the environment
c)the psychoanalytical approach explains how the behavior is related to biological
change
d)the behavior approach explains how the behavior is controlled by unconscious
motivation
10. Narcissistic personality disorder is charactarized by:
a)empathy
b)grandiosity and need for admiration
c)sense of insecurity
d)rigidity

135
 
11. The following is true about emotions :
a)the limbic system is responsible for apprising the danger and the emotion
b)it has both affective and cognetive components
c)the autonomic system is responsible for the subjective experience of feeling
d)they don't enhance creativity or prouctivity
12. Psychological approches in treatment of physical illness include all the following
except:
a)information provision b)not allowing the patient to talk about his worries
c)modeling d)skill training intervention
13. Personal factors that increase perception are :
a)proximity of stimulus b)symmetry of stimulus
c)past experience d)percieving incomplete figures as whole
14. What is true about types of attentin :
a) habitual attention is like an engineer looking at a machine
b) voluntary attention is like a reflex resopnse to a flsh light
c) involuntary attention is like listening to an interesting story
d) spontanous attention is like listening to a lecture
15. Inforamtion giving skills in a good doctor patient relationship is in the following:
a) not allowing the patients to ask questions to understand his illness
b) silence of doctor during whole interview
c) they are communication skills aiming to decrease patient compliance to treatment
d) using clear and easy language while explaining the illness to the patient
16. All the following about stereotypes are true EXCEPT :
a)they are defined as perceptions and beliefs a person has about members of some
groups
b)they lead to prejudice
c)they are a form of social relation
d)they involve a false assumption that all members of a group share the same
charachteristics
17. Methods of learing are the following
a) trial and error b) operant and classical conditioning
c) imitation and modeling d) all of the above
18. Psychological responses of dying patients include :
a)denial b)rage and anger
c)bargaining d)all of the above
19. Neurotic defensive mechanism include ONE OF the following:
a)reaction formation b)denial
c)humor d)altruism
20. Characteristics of short term memory include all the following EXCEPT :
a)this type of memory depend on attention
b)it takes seconds to minutes in duration
c)retrieval of stored memory is aided by cues
d)memory storage occurs through strucural changes within the synapse
21. Considering operant conditioning of a learned behaviour , one of the following is
true :
a)the response is involuntary
b)it is established by Pavlov
c)behavior is repeated if followed by a reward and eliminated if followed by
noxious stimuli
d)there is pairing of conditioned and non-conditioned stimuli

136
 
22. Envirnomental determinants of aggression are :
a)air pollution and heat above 32C b)lack of social skills
c)chromosomal aberrations d)pain and anxiety
23. The functions od Non Rapid eye movement (NREM)) include:
a)dreaming b)catecholamine synthesis
c)protein synthesis d)memory consolidation
24. In defensive mechanisms while coping with stress,displacement is defined as:
a)expressing the motive in a form that is directly opposite to its original intent
b)the temporary separation from conscious awareness to escape an emotional
distress
c)transferring the emotion from its actual object to a substitute
d)concealing the real motive and giving a false rational explanation instead
25. The following is true about intelligence quotient (IQ) :
a)it is defined as giving meaning to sensations
b)it cannot classify students in educational grades
c)it indicates a person’s mental abilities relative to others of approximately the
same age
d)it does not help in problem solving
26. Factors affecting attraction are :
a)reciprocal disliking b)unsuccessfulness
c)competency d)difference
27. According to Jean Piaget , stages of cognitive development are of the following
EXCEPT:
a) the sensorimotor stage b) the premoral stage
c) the preoperational stage d)the concrete operational stage
28. The following is true about the immediate response to emergency situations:
a)it is sometimes called”fight or flight” response
b)it is mediated by release of corticotropin releasing factor and arguinine-
vasopressin
c)the immune system is suppressed by cortisol in this stage
d)it leads to psychosomatic disorders like hypertension and peptic ulcer
29. All of the following are true about emotions EXCEPT:
a)it is carried out by the Papez-Maclean circuit
b)emotions are defined as the process of selecting some stimuli for further
processing while ignoring other stimuli
c)serotonin is one of the neurotransmitters responsible for emotions
d)past experiences,values and motivation can affect interpretation of emotions
30. The structure of an attitude includes the following:
a) affective component b) behavioural component
c) cognitive component d) all of the following
31. Superego is responsible for :
a)reality testing b)reality principle
c)supervising the ego and id d)immediate gratification
32. Stimulus factors that increase perception are:
a)proximity
b)similarity
c)good form
d)all of the above

137
 
33. Prevention and control of aggretion are by:
a)giving amphetamine as pharmacotherapy
b)allowing the person to express what is inside his mind through an injurious
behavior
c)social skills training
d)using humor and disrespect on addressing the aggressive person
34. In defensive mechanisms while coping with stress , projection is defined as :
a)behaving the same way as another
b)avoidance of awareness of some painful aspects by abolishing
c)deviding external aspects into "all good" or "all bad"
d)distrubiting unacceptable motives to others
35. The following is true about fields of pshycology :
a)psychometry seeks the relationship between physiological process and behavior
b)developmental psycology is concerned with the factors that shape the behavior
from birth to old age
c)social psycology depends on experiment to study the behavior
d)physiological psycology is the measurement of psychological function
36. Functions of Rapid Eye Movements (REM) sleep include :
a)memory consolidation
b)protein synthesis
c)restoration of body functions
d)growth hormone secretion
37. Motivation is defined as:
a)the ability to mentally represent objects and events as concept formation
b)the behavior that is directed and intended toward harming or injuring a person
c)the process of initiating , guiding and maintaining behavior towards a goal
d)the cognitive process by which sensory stimuli are translated into psychological
information
38. Long term memory can be improved by all the following except:
a)using mnemonics
b)organization
c)repression
d)elaboration by adding details
39. Phases of concept Formation:
a)generalization
b)differentiation
c)abstraction
d)all of the following
40. Information gathering skills in a good doctor patient relationship is in the
following:
a)open ended questions only should be used throughout the interview
b)letting the patient direct the flow of information
c)clarification of what the patient has said to ensure that the doctor understood the
patient
d)closed ended questions only should be used throughout the interview

138
 
 Answers of MCQ Questions

1-D / 2-B / 3-D / 4-D / 5-C / 6-B / 7-C / 8-C / 9-D / 10-D / 11-D / 12-A / 13-A / 14-E /
15-D / 16-C / 17-D / 18-C / 19-B / 20-D / 21-C / 22-B / 23-D / 24-B / 25-C / 26-B / 27-
A / 28-D / 29-A / 30-A / 31-D / 32-B / 33-E / 34-D / 35-E / 36-E / 37-E / 38-D / 39-D /
40-A / 41-B / 42-E / 43-C / 44-A / 45-E / 46-B / 47-E / 48-E / 49-C / 50-D / 51-A / 52-
E / 53-E / 54-E / 55-B / 56-C / 57-B / 58-E / 59-A / 60-E / 61-D / 62-D / 63-A / 64-C /
65-A / 66-A / 67-D / 68-D / 69-A / 70-D / 71-C / 72-D / 73-C / 74-D / 75-C / 76-C /
77-D or E / 78-C / 79-D / 80-C / 81-D / 82-D / 83-A / 84-A / 85-B / 86-A / 87-C / 88-C
/ 89-B / 90-C / 91-A / 92-D / 93-B / 94-C / 95-B / 96-A

Answers of MCQ June 2013

1-D / 2-D / 3-C / 4-A / 5-C / 6-B / 7-C / 8-C / 9-A / 10-B / 11-B / 12-B / 13-C / 14-A /
15-D / 16-C / 17-D / 18-D / 19-A / 20-D / 21-C / 22-A / 23-C / 24-C / 25-C / 26-C / 27-
B / 28-A / 29-B / 30-D / 31-C / 32-D / 33-C / 34-D / 35-B / 36-A / 37-C / 38-C / 39-D /
40-C

‫ﻣﻊ ﺗﺤﻴﺎت أﻋﻀﺎء اﻟﻠﺠﻨﺔ اﻟﻌﻠﻤﻴﺔ ﺑﺎﺗﺤﺎد اﻟﻄﻼب‬

139
 
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relatively dixm ligBat. E-ahqlrafory s€udies revealed vitaimln A deflcien-nay"
The patient was advised to stop this strict fat-free e{iet. Slae was
prescribed vitarnim A supplermemts" (''I xnarks)
a. List active forms of vitamin A. (One inark)
b. What is the precursor of vitamin A? Illustrate how it is converl.ed to the
active form. (2 marks)
c. Enumerate other eye manifbstation that could occur if this patient was left
untreated. (2 rnarks)
d. Describe the role of vitamin A in regulating gene expression" (2 marks)

2" A 16-yean" old chriet acendemta[ny umgested a cEaemaiaaE anaeB hc]s presemteei
with tiigh fever. T'he chenalcal ls foumd to he am rux$cfiwpEer amd affec'us
AT'F pnoductiora im tiae rces6llratory c[sairx" (7 maanH<s)

a" List the different components of the electron transport chain. (2 rrarks)
b. Describe the rnechanism of ATF production through the eiee ,Lron
transport chain. (2- rnarks,)

c. Explain the biochemical mechanism of action of uncor.ii:lers. (2 marks)

d. I.'lalne two exampies of unctluplers. (One mark)

3. A 46-year-otrd ohese ctnahetic ffilam was p:resemrted 'to tnae cBlxtlc

aormplaflmia'ag of shontxress of hneatBa whi]e wal&eimg. T&ae ctoctor nequestec{
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ffiffiyears-ord boy fell-frorn a tree and suffered injury
o.n
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the boy ruu. nrJugi;f;*ou t" the trospital
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1) Why do scalp rvouncls bleed prolhsely?

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4) Locate other cortical areas con':erned
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Page 1 ofT
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Sape ii*A 2-uaonth-ol<tr nreale ehitrd was admritted to the hospital hecause his naother noticed
thaf thr: lef,t scnotum was ennpty" On examination, it was noticed fhaf the right testis was
present in the scrotuam" .A srn etrnlng of X..5 cm c$iameten was noted ial the left inguinal negioll"
€)uestIoms:*

$ t, Mention the name;of the anomaly

,u
2) Describe the procrlss of the descent of testis.

f,;\
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Give the Jbte of the structures responsible for the descent of testis.
l]nurnerate other testir;ular anomalies

Case {[: A young rnan dleveloped severe abdominal colic espccially around the urnbilicus thaf
gradually sltifted to the right iliac fossa" .He suff'enect frona f,ever and vomiting. He was
cliagnosed as a case of acute' appendicites

f\
l. Why the abdomin,al pain is felt around the umbilicus?
).'Y 2. Describe the surface ernatomy of the affected structure?
J]
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3. lvlention four diffbrent sites of the affected structure.
- 4..

4. What is the sourcer of its blood sr.rpply?

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Page 2 cfi
 Secomd Yean ]Firaal Examn.
;^i:.- Si:anas Urnlverstlrft
Facal$'of l\4eclncnne Time alllovvedl; 2 houns inacBudimg 1WCQ
IIis toio gy a n d C enli JE o o' g5r ep eu"tilrn enf
fi ll
jD Courrse CodB: H{n 3CrB

(Sotat fl!-arfr,: 4A tular&S)

Attsw er t fie fa {kw ing qwe stto'res :
I{tustrate )tour arus'wers witfr fiisgratrcs

i i Correlate the s'cructuro to the function of each of the foilowing:

(4 lvfarks)
a) ParietaX oell (3 \4arks)
b) Paneth oell.
2) Describe the structure and the correlated function of each
of the fbllowing:
a) The hePatocYte !1
(3 Marks)
Y-|tl
b) Blood renal barrier
3) Describe the structure and the function of:
(4 Marks)
a) The prostate gland.
(4 Marks)
b) The placenta. '

4) Compare in a table form, between:

(3 Marks)
a) Organ of corti and crista ampullaris'
(4 Marks)
b) Acidophils and basophils of pituitary gland'

year- old patient complained from gradual decrease in the

visual acuity'
5) A sixty -
He was diagnosed as a case of cataract'
Describe the histological structure and the correlated function
of the affected organ'
(3 Marks)

6) Describe: " rconnections)'

-:_,-_\ //\r^-r,-\
(4 l\{arks7
a) T'he inferior olivary nuelear complex (Site, structure and
(4 N'4arks)
b) The Purkinje cell of the cerebellurn'
@est wisfres

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