CAR

Series A-1
1. The frequency, scope and contents of periodical inspections may be altered (Ref,A-1)

a) In a manner as approved by Manufacturer

b) Shall not be altered
c) As in (b) except in a manner as approved by DGCA
d) With the approval of RAWO
2. The following is responsible to report all defects encountered during the flight (Ref,A-1)

a) QCM b) Manufacturer c) RAWO

d) Owner / Operator

series A-II
1. Promulgation and implementation of CAR is:

a) To meet the obligation of contracting state

b) To Harmonize requirements with other regulating authorities like FAA, JAA & CAA
c) To specify the detailed requirements for compliance and effective monitoring
d) All the above
2. Date of issue along the date of affectivity of CAR part is available in

a)First page of CAR Part b) The revision notice

c) All pages of CAR Part d) All the above

Series A-III
1. Insitu / Bench test of aircraft / aircraft component without having to dismantle them completely is:
(Ref,A-5)

a) Hard time maintenance

b) Condition monitoring
c) On condition Maintenance
d) All the above
 2. Work performed at predetermined intervals to maintain an aircraft in airworthy condition is (Ref,A-6)

a) Scheduled maintenance b) b) Preventive maintenance

c) Both A and B are correct d)None of the above

3. Preventive maintenance is (Ref,A-6)

a) Hard time
b) Work performed at pre-determined intervals to maintain an aircraft, aircraft component or
aircraft system in an airworthy condition.
c) On condition
d) a,b,c, are correct

4. The following information will give the parameters called dispatch reliability (Ref,A-7)

a) No. of hours flown during the period under review

b) No. of service cancelled/delayed - more than 15 min. because of engg. defects
c) No. of services planned and no. of services cancelled / delayed for more than 15 min.
because of engg. Defects.
d) a and b above

Series A-IV
1. No person shall operate any air transport service in India without (Ref,A-10)

a) Adequate maintenance support

b) Obtaining necessary permit
c) Satisfying DGCA that his maintenance support organization are to a satisfactory
standard
d) All the above

2. Mark the in-correct statement (Ref, A-10)

a) All maintenance work on aircraft engaged in public transport operation shall be

performed by approved organization
b) All work performed by approved organization shall be regulated by QC organization
c) The CAR is issued under the provision of Aircraft act 133 A of 1934
d) The Airworthiness oversight and safety regulation are applicable to schedule operator

5. The following are the recommendations to check negative trends of an operator: (Ref, A-7)

a) Investigation of defects
b) Additional preventive maintenance
c) Varying the frequency of maintenance and / or varying the process of maintenance
d) As in (B) & (C) and also modifications and review of qualifications, experience of
certifying personnel
6. The parameters called dispatch reliability is furnished to RAWO (Ref,A-7)

a)Every Month by schedule operators b) Every 3 Months c) Every Six Months

d) Every Six Months by schedule operator

Series B-1
1. Amendments to MEL based on revised MMEL shall be approved by (Ref, B-4)

a) RAWO b) DGCA headquarter c) QCM

d) Manufacturer

2. MEL shall be prepared by the operator (Ref,B-1)

a) Scheduled, Non scheduled operator

b) Scheduled, Non-Scheduled and General Aviation aircraft
c) For all aircraft where manufacturer has issued MMEL
d) none

3. Rectification of in-operative system/components covered under MEL shall be carried out: (Ref, B2)

a) As per MSM b) At Main station c) At parent base

d) At first place where time and spares permit

4. Operator shall obtain MMEL and frame MEL so as: (Ref,B3)

a)MEL is to be less restrictive, than MMEL

b)MEL can not be less restrictive, than MMEL
c)MEL does not differ in its format with MMEL
d)MEL shall be same that of MMEL

5. The following cannot be included in MEL?

a)Stand-by Radio Navigation equipment

b)One of the two engines of the aircraft
c)Rudder operating system
d)B and C

6. The following literature of the operator will describe as to when or where an in-operative item covered
under MEL shall be replaced: (Ref,B4)

a) MSM b) Preamble c) QC Manual d) A&B

7. The following shall exercise necessary control so that no aircraft is dispatched with multiple items
inoperative (Ref,B4)

a) RAWO b) Part –C c) QCM d) DGCA

9. AME shall take maintenance actions while releasing aircraft for flight after invoking MEL as per:

(Ref,B2 & B4)

a) Preamble b) Dispatch Deviation guide c) Procedural Manual

d) All the above

10. MEL is applicable to: (Ref,B1)

a) Transit station b) Terminal base c) Main base

d) All the above except parent base

11. MMEL is approved by: (Ref,B2)

a) Manufacturer b) RAWO c) DGCA d) None

12. MEL is approved by: (Ref,B4)

a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Manufactures d) QCM

13. Approval to MEL is given by (Ref,B4)

a) RAWO where the aircraft is mainly based

b) QC Manager along with authorized pilot
c) Representations from engineering operations and cabin crew
d) DGCA (HQs)

14. QCM is empowered to dispatch the aircraft under MEL (Ref,B5)

a) If the pilot or AME refuses to certify the aircraft if he thinks unsafe to do so

b) In case of multiple defects are encountered with regard to pilot objection
c) Can dispatch the aircraft if pilot agrees to accept the aircraft with multiple defects
d) QC manager has no role to play

15. Flight day as used in MEL shall mean a period (either UTC or local time). (Ref,B3)
A) 5am to 5pm
B) 8am to 8pm
C) sunrise to sunset.
D) Midnight to midnight

16. Deficiency list includes item like (Ref,B2)

A) Wings, Flight Controls & Landing Gear

B) Complete Engine and its accessories
C) Galley equipment and entertainment system
 D) None of the above

17. When an aircraft is flying on MEL: (Ref,B)

A) the operator has to inform the RAO in writing within 24 hrs

B) the operator has to inform the RAO and the DGCA in writing within 24 hrs.
C) the operator has to inform the RAO in writing within 24 hrs if aircraft is released under the preview of
MEL from the parent base.
D) None of the above

18. Cat B MEL items shall be repaired with in (Ref,B2)

a) 3 consecutive calendar days

b) 10 consecutive calendar days
c) 120 consecutive calendar days

19. MEL can be invoked by (Ref,B5)

a) Appropriately licensed AME

b) Person specifically approved
c) Approved BAMEL holder and approved Pilot
d) All are correct
Series B-II
1. Aircraft rule which requires carriage of CCL & ECL onboard: ( Ref,B7 )

a) 7/1937 b) 7/1934 c) 7B/1937 d) None

2. CCL & ECL for each type of aircraft is prepared by: ( Ref,B8 )

a) Operator b) Manufacturer c) QCM d) None

3. CCL & ECL is generally provided by: ( Ref,B7 )

a) Regulating authority of country of manufacture

b) By the manufacturer
c) As in (A), operator shall use it under intimation to RAWO
d) As in (B), operator shall use it under intimation to RAWO
2. Deviation/ amendment to CCL/ECL provided by the manufacturer shall be approved by:
( Ref,B8 )

a) RAWO b) DGCA HQ c) QCM d) Flt crew

5. This list contains items of inspection/action to be performed by the flight crew

In the order as listed (Ref,B7)

a)Emergencycheck list b)Cockpit check list

c) both d) a or b

6. Guidance material on the application of Human Factors Principles can be found

In the Human Factors Training Manual (Ref,B8)

a)ICAO Doc 9683 b)ICAO Doc 3986

c)ICAO Doc 6893 d)ICAO Doc 9638

7. Cockpit check system and the emergency procedures are given in

(Ref,B8)
a) Operation manual
b) Crew operating manual
c) Flight manual
d) All of these
Series C-I

1. Records, associated with defects and rectification shall be preserved for a period of: (Ref,C-8)

a) One year
b)May be required for consultation at the time of renewal of C of A
c)a & b are correct d) As decided by DGCA

3. All delays to scheduled service of 15 minutes duration or more on account of aircraft defect shall be
reported to (Ref,C-5)
a) QCM b) DGCA c) RAWO
d) Not required to be reported

3. Fleet performance, engineering statistics are prepared (Ref,C-7)

a) By all operators every moth

b) Every month by scheduled operators
c) Every three months by scheduled operators
d) None

4.What are the defects reported to RAWO (Ref,C-3,5)

a) Defects causing mechanical delay of 15 min or more

b) Major defect or defect requiring major repair of all operators
c) Defect whether major and minor on a public transport a/c
d) A&b

5.Following defects are included for computing reliability indices RAWO (Ref,C-4)

a) All major defects

b) All defects including repetitive ones
c) As in (a) for public transport a/c and as in (b) for other
d) All are correct

6. Defect may be defined as: (Ref,C-1)

a) Condition which preclude the item from its intended function

b) Condition arising due to any cause which would preclude it from its intended function
c) Condition arising due to any cause other than damage which would result in precluding it
from intended function and also reduce the service life
d) None of the above

7. Task / Work carried out to ensure continued airworthiness of aircraft? (Ref,C-2)

a) Servicing b) Inspection c) Overhaul d) Maintenance

8. Restoration of a component to its Airworthiness condition to ensure compliance of design specification
is: (Ref,C-2)

a) Rectification b) Repair c) Major repair

d) A & B are correct

9. A person, organization or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in aircraft operation:

(Ref,C-2)

a) Approved Organization b) Operator c) Scheduled operator d) None of the above

10. Organization approved by DGCA to carry out maintenance of aircraft and aircraft components is:

(Ref,C-2)

a) AMO b) A-O c) Agency d) (a) & (b) are correct

11. Aircraft Fleet (Ref,C-3)

a) Two or more aircraft of a particular type

b) Three or more aircraft of a particular type
c) No. of aircraft of a particular type / model
d) All the above
12. Defect reporting and investigation procedure as described in CAR Sec-2 Series “C” is applicable to
(Ref,C-3)

a) All AOS b) All AMO's c) All operators and AMO’s

d) All operators

13. The following are required to investigated (Ref,C-3)

a) All defects b) All major defects

c) All defects resulted in delay of service more 15 min.

d) All defects resulting in engineering incidents

14. Initial information shall be provided in case of (Ref,C-3)

a) All defects on scheduled flight

b) All major defects, defects requiring major repair or are of serious nature
c) As in B shall be intimated telephonically to RAWO
d) As in B shall be intimated with 24 hours
15. A written information shall follow “Initial information” with in: (Ref,C-4)

a) 7 days b) 24 hours c) Three working days

 d) B and C are correct for scheduled/ Non-Scheduled operator

16. Each repetitions of defect shall be considered as defect for the purpose of:

(Ref,C-4)

a) Computing reliability index b) As in (A) for scheduled operator

c) As in b provided rectification was attempted

d) All are true statements for all operators

17. All defects reported on aircraft shall be reviewed every after (Ref,C-4)

a) Daily reviewed by scheduled operator

b) Quarterly reviewed by scheduled operator
c) Six monthly by others operators
d) None of the above
18. Review of the defects reported on fleet of training aircraft to be carried out at: (Ref,C-4)

a) Period approved by DGCA

b) Period fixed by operator in consolation of RAWO
c) Daily review shall be carried out
d) Not specified
19. Mark correct statement (Ref,C-5)

a) All defects on scheduled operators aircraft shall be reported to RAWO

b) All major defects and all defects resulting in delay to scheduled service shall be reported to
RAWO

c) As in B by scheduled operator d) As in B by all operators

20. Supervision of investigation of defects on scheduled transport aircraft shall be by: (Ref,C-5)

a) Senior tech. Officer approved by RAWO

a) Technical Officer approved by QCM

b) Senior Tech. Officer approved by QCM
c) Senior Tech. Person approved by DGCA
21. Investigation of every major defect shall be completed with in (Ref,C-5)

a) Four months b) 30 days c) Three months d) Six months

22. Final investigation report shall be submitted to: (Ref,C-5)

a) RAWO/Duplicate b) DGCA / Duplicate c) RAWO / Triplicate

d) DGCA

23. Disciplinary action against erring person subsequent to investigation of defect shall be taken in
consultation with (Ref,C-6)
 a) QCM b) RAWO c) DGCA d) None

24. Corrective actions on final investigation report shall be intimated to: (Ref,C-6)

a) RAWO b) DGCA c) RAWO and DGCA HQ (DAW)

d) Manufacturer

25. Investigation results of all defects shall be analyzed once in: (Ref,C-7)

a) Six months b) 15 days c) Four months d) Three months

26. Corrective action against weakness detected after analyzing investigation results shall be initiated
under intimation to: (Ref,C-7)

a) DGCA b) Manufacturer c) QCM d) RAWO

27. All defects or occurrences causing service difficulties or resulting in adverse effect on

airworthiness shall be reported to: (Ref,C-7)

a) RAWO/Within 7 days b) DGCA / Three months

c) Manufactures / 15 days d) Manufactures / 7 days

28. The following AAC deal with fleet performance and Engineering statistics (Ref,C-7)

a) AAC 8/2001 b) AAC 5/2003 c) AAC 5/2000 d) None

29. Aerial work operator shall prepare fleet performance and engineering statistics once in:

(Ref,C-8)

a) Every Month b) Three Months c) Two Months

d) None

30. Components associated with major defect shall be preserved for (Ref,C-8)

a) Two weeks from the intimation of defects

b) One year from intimation of defect
c) Three months from intimation of defect
d) None of the above

31. A DESIGN CHANGE THAT IS INTENDED TO RESTORE ARE AERONAUTICAL PRODUCT TO AIRWORTHINESS

CONDITION (REF,C-2)

A) MAJOR REPAIR
B) MINER REPAIR
C) RESTORATION
 D) MODIFICATION

32. FOR COMPUTING STATISTICS FOR DETERMINING COMPONENT/SYSTEM RELIABILITY INDICES (REF,C-4)

A) MAJOR DEFECTS ONLY

B) ALL DEFECT INCLUDING REPETITIVE ONES

C) MAJOR OR MINOR DEFECTS

D) MECHANICAL DELAY FOR MORE THAN 15 MINUTES

33. ALERT VALUE FOR MAINTENANCE CONTROL BY RELIABILITY METHOD BE EQUAL TO

A) MEAN VALUE + ONE SD

B) MEAN VALUE + TWO SD

C) MEAN VALUE + OR – TWO SD

D) RELIABILITY INDEX GIVEN BY MANUFACTURER

34. Records, associated with defects and rectification shall be preserved for a period of:

(REF,C-8)
a) One year
b) May be required for consultation at the time of renewal of C of A
c) a & b are correct d) As decided by DGCA

35. In Service deterioration of engine or airframe performance are early indicated by;(no ref)
a) Inspection finding
b) Intelligently monitoring of in flight instrument reading
c) Monthly information submitted to RAWO
d) Defects reported by Flight crew

Series C-II

1. In-flight instrument reading of public transport aircraft is recorded in (Ref,C-15)

a) JLB b) Flight Report c) Aircraft Log Book d) Flight Book

2. In-flight instrument reading shall be recorded once in: (Ref,C-15)

a) Each Sector b) Each sector under cruise condition

c) In all emergency conditions and also during un-usual parameters observation

d) As in b and c

3. Defects observed by the Flight crew in a public transport aircraft is recorded in: (Ref,C-15)
 a) Defect Register b) Flight Report c) JLB d) None

4. PDR of public transport aircraft shall be examined before releasing aircraft for flight after

each Sector by: (Ref,C-15)

a) QCM b) Chief of inspection

c) AMEs certifying for release of aircraft for flight

d) As in A and C

Series C-III

1. Defects observed on aircraft other than public transport aircraft shall be recorded in: : (Ref,C-17)

a) JLB b) Flight Report c) PDR of approved Flight report

d) Defect Register

2. Defects observed on a/c other than public transport aircraft while flying away from the base may be
recorded in : (Ref,C-18)

a) Col X of JLB b) Col XI of JLB

c) As in B for ultimate transfer of defects to register

d) In flight report

Series C-IV

1. Analytical study of in-flight instrument reading of turbo-jet aircraft used for public transport
operation will give : (Ref,C-19)

a) In-Service deterioration of engine

b) IN-service deterioration of engine and aircraft system
c) As in (B) so that timely corrective action can be taken
d) As in (C) to ensure continued airworthiness of aircraft

2. Recorded in flight parameters of turbo-jet engine shall be evaluated? : (Ref,C-19)

a) Every month b) Every Quarter

c) Every Quarter against alert values

d) Every month against alert values

3. The relationship between fuel flow and TAS will determine : (Ref,C-19)

a) Performance of Air Frame

b) Performance of Power Plant
c) Deterioration of Engine
d) All the above

4. To determine performance of airframe: : (Ref,C-19)

a) Relationship between fuel flow and TAS shall be established
b) Relationship between N1 and N2 shall be established
c) Recorded value of TAS shall be compared to its alert value
d) None

4. Un-acceptable deviation observed during evaluation of instrument reading would call for
(Ref,C-19)

a) Replacement of item
b) Maintenance actions by the
operators
c) Reporting to manufacturers
d) Reporting to DGCA HQs

6. When deterioration is observed in engine (Ref,C-20 )

a) RAWO ask for such curative action as considered necessary

b) RAWO may ask for removal of engine
c) RAWO may ask for test flight except schedule operator
d) As in (A) or may even require replacement of deteriorated engine
Series C-V

1. Maintenance reliability control programme of scheduled operator is required to be approved by

(Ref,C-5)

a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Manufacturer d) QCM

2. Alert Notice is issued by: (Ref,C-22)

a) RMU b) DGCA c) RAWO d) QCM

3. Alert values will be formed by scheduled operator, which will be numerically equal to

(Ref,C-23)

a) Mean value b) Mean value plus two standard deviations

c)Mean values plus one standard deviation

d)As recommended by manufactures

4. Reliability displays are prepared by: (Ref,C-23)

a) Scheduled operators / every month

b) All operators / Quarterly
c) Schedule/Non schedule operators / monthly
d) None

5. Reliability display should summarize experience of (Ref,C-23)

a) One year b) Two years c) 2 to 3 years

d) None of these

6. Maintenance control reliability programme is applicable to: (Ref,C-21)

a) All operator b) all transport aircraft operator

c) All scheduled airline d) None

7. Colleting information from various sources to determine reliability trends of system/components/

structure of scheduled airlines is the responsibilities of (Ref,C-21)

a) RAWO b) AW Directorate c) RMU

d) Operator

8. Which one is the primary source of information for reliability control? (Ref,C-22)
 a) Un-scheduled removal
b) Pilot reports
c) Confirmed failure
d) All the above

9. Reliability displays are prepared for: (Ref,C-23)

a) Every Month
b) Every month covering the operating experience for last 3 months
c) Every Quarterly d) every previous month

10. Remedial measures to restore normal established trends within acceptable limits of
performance are developed by (Ref,C-22)

a) DGCA b)RAWO c) QCM d) RMU

11. Whenever scheduled operator is over alert, a report is submitted: (Ref,C-22,23)

a) In duplicate, to RAWO within 72 hours
b) In duplicate to DGCA with in 72 hours
c) In duplicate to DGCA
d) In duplicate to RAWO who in turn relay one copy of report to DGCA within 72 hours

12. Maintenance reliability control programme is useful in: (Ref,C-21)

a) In detecting problem area existing on a/c engine or accessories
b) As in (A) which will help in planning preventive action in time
c) Amend its existing system of maintenance if required in consultation with RAWO
d) All are correct

13. Corrective maintenance as a result of pilot reported defect is: (Ref C-)
a) Scheduled maintenance

b) Un-scheduled maintenance
c) May be either of the two

d) All are correct

14. A/C system reliability will be measured by: (Ref,C-22)

a) No of pilot reported defects
b) No of confirmed failure
c) No of pilot reports for 1000 flight hours
d) None

6. Reliability monitoring unit for its functioning will gather information from: (Ref,C-30)
 A. un-schedule maintenance & schedule maintenance.

B. un-schedule removals

C. sampling inspection

D. All the above are correct

7. Alert Notice will be issued by the R.M.U.: (Ref,C-30)

A. to all concerned persons of the organisation.

B. in duplicate to the RAO

C. in duplicate to the RAO on 25th of every month

D. Both a and c are correct

 1.Public transport aircraft can

A) Undertake aerial work.

B) Also be a private aircraft.
C) Carry passengers but not cargo.
D) Carry passenger or cargo for remuneration.

 A month wise record of all defects carried forward in terms of MEL is to be maintained and analyzed by:
A) Scheduled operator.
B) All operators.
C) Scheduled/Nonscheduled operators.
D) None of the above

 Work on aircraft may be carried out by trained technicians. However it must be certified only by:
A) AME
B) Authorized person
C) Approved person
D) Any one of the above

 Task resulting from in flight monitoring are:

A) part of scheduled maintenance
B) part of non scheduled maintenance
C) both A & B are correct
D) none of the above

SERIES D-I
1. WHEN THE OPERATOR IS IN THE ALERT AREA THE RAO WILL: : (REF,D-2)

A. MONITOR THE CORRECTIVE PROGRAMMES CLOSELY TO DETERMINE THEIR EFFECTIVENESS AND

INDICATE THE NECESSITY OF THE AMENDMENT

B. KEEP THE DGCA INFORMED OF THE PROGRESS AND EFFECTIVENESS OF THE CORRECTIVE PROGRAMME

C. INFORM THE MANUFACTURER OF THE AIRCRAFT FOR TAKING CORRECTIVE ACTION

D. BOTH A AND B IS CORRECT

2. RELIABILITY IS A FUNCTION OF: : (REF,D-2)

A. MAINTENANCE

B. BASIC DESIGN

C. PERSONAL TRAINING

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

3. WHEN OPERATORS RELIABILITY INDEX OF ENGINE IS ABOVE ALERT VALUE CORRECTIVE PROGRAM ME IS
SUBMITTED TO:

A. RAWO BY 25TH OF THE MONTH

B. DGCA BY 25TH OF THE MONTH

C .T O RAO

D. RAWO BY 10TH OF THE MONTH

4. The reliability of engines fitted to aircraft is measured in terms of:

(REF,D-1)

A. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in relation to number of engine flight hours.

B. the number and nature of all flameouts in relation to number of airframe flight hours.

C. the number and nature of all in-flight shut down in relation to number of airframe hours

D. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in relation to propeller flight hours.

81. A critical I.F.S.D means (REF,D-1)

A. engine failure in air beyond pilot's control

B. any IFSD associated with training flights/test flights

C. a "shut down" affected by pilot on observing abnormal indication

D. Both b & c are correct

 Critical shutdowns are those which:

A) adversely affect the controllability of aircraft
B) can not be shutdown or feathered
C) are shutdown for testing or training
D) both A & B are correct

SEries D-II
1. AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE PROGRAMME AND THEIR APPROVAL ARE COVERED UNDER
(REF,D-5)

A. IAF 60(2)

B. IAR 62

C. CAR SERIES D PART II

 D. BOTH A AND C ARE CORRECT

2.. IAR 60 (2) AUTHORISE DGCA TO: (REF,D-5)

A. SPECIFY THE STANDARD OF BALLOONS MAINTENANCE

B. SPECIFY THE STANDARD OF GLIDER MAINTENANCE

C. SPECIFY THE STANDARD OF AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE

D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

3. RESTORING AN AIRCRAFT UNIT TO IT ORIGINAL DESIGN PERFORMANCE LEVEL AFTER REPLACING/RE-

WORKING PARTS TO A GIVEN STANDARD IS TERMED AS: (REF,D-5)

A. MAINTENANCE

B. OVERHAUL

C. TOP OVERHAUL

D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

4. AN ITEM IS JUDGE DAMAGE-TOLERANT: (REF,D-5)

A. IF STRUCTURAL ELEMENT OR ASSEMBLY IS JUDGED SIGNIFICANT BECAUSE OF REDUCTION IN AIRCRAFT

RESIDUAL STRENGTH OR LOSS OF STRUCTURAL FUNCTION

B. IF IT CAN SUSTAIN DAMAGE & THE REMAINING STRUCTURE CAN WITHSTAND REASONABLE LOAD OR
EXCESSIVE STRUCTURAL DEFORMATION WHEN THE DAMAGE IS DETECTED

C. A AND B ARE CORRECT

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT

5. S.S.I. ARE: (REF,D-5)

A. SOLID STRUCTURE ITEMS

B. STRUCTUALLLY SIGNIFICANT INSTRUCTION
C. SIGNIFICANT SERVICE INSTRUCTION
D. STRUCTURAL SIGNIFICANT ITEM

6. S.S.I ARE: (REF,D-5)

A. STRUCTURAL ASSEMBLY

B. STRUCTURAL ASSEMBLY WHICH IS JUDGE SIGNIFICANT BECAUSE OF THE REDUCTION IN AIRCRAFT

RESIDUAL STRENGTH

C. DAMAGE TOLERANT ITEM

D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

7. ON-CONDITION MAINTENANCE IMPLIES THE PHILOSOPHY: (REF,D-6)

A. OF FIT AND FORGET IT

B. OF FIT UNTIL FAILURE

C. A AND B ARE CORRECT

D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

8. CONDITION MONITORING IMPLIES THE PHILOSOPHY: ( REF,D-6)

A. OF FIT AND FORGET IT

B. OF FIT UNTIL FAILURE

C. A AND B ARE CORRECT

D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

9. THE CONTINUING CAPABILITY OF THE AIRCRAFT TO PERFORM IN A SATISFACTORY MANNER THE FLIGHT
OPERATION FOR WHICH IT WAS DESIGNED IS TERMED AS: : (REF,D-5)

A. MAINTENANCE

B. CONDITION MONITORING

C. AIRWORTHINESS

D. ON-CONDITION

10. HARD TIME MAINTENANCE IS CARRIED OUT AT: ( REF,D-6)

A. CALENDAR TIME

B. NO. OF CYCLES

C. NO. OF LANDING

D. ANY ONE OF THE ABOVE IS CORRECT

11. S.S.I.D CONTAINS: (REF,D-5)

A. SIGNIFICANT STRUCTURAL ITEM, METHOD OF INSPECTION AND REQUIRED CORRECTIVE ACTION

B. SUPPLEMENTAL STRUCTURAL INSPECTION DOCUMENT

C. APPROVED PROGRAMME TO BE INCLUDED IN A.C. MANUAL

D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

12. IN AN APPROVED MAINTENANCE PROCESS, PILOT REPORT IS COMPUTED AS: : (REF,D-8)

A. RATE PER 1000 HRS OF OPERATION/PER 100 DEPARTURES

B. RATE PER 100 HRS OF OPERATION/PER 100 DEPARTURES

C. RATE PER 1000 HRS OF OPERATION/PER 500 DEPARTURES

D. ANY ONE OF THE ABOVE IS CORRECT

13. APPROVED MAINTENANCE PROCESS IS MONITORED BY: : (REF,D-8)

A. HARD TIME MAINTENANCE

B. ON-CONDITION MAINTENANCE

C. BOTH A AND B ARE CORRECT

D. AIRCRAFT MECHANICAL DELAY & PDR

14. Maintenance action such as overhaul, servicing carried out at pre-determined interval for the
purpose of limiting deterioration to acceptable level is known as: (REF,D-6)

a) Hard time

b) On condition

c) Condition monitoring
d) All the above

 Regular assessment of the structure during

maintenance as per CAR Series D Part II is
essential for all:
A) Transport aircraft
B) Pressurized transport aircraft
C) Scheduled aircraft
D) All the above are correct
15. Which one of the following can be called as on condition maintenance : (REF,D-7)
a) Bench test to determine level of in-service deterioration
b) Physical inspection without removing the item
c) Internal leak rate check
d) All the above

16. C.Mitemsaresuchthat (REF,D-7)

a) Havenooverhaulcontrol
b) Nomaintenance task is required to evaluate condition
c) No maintenance action can control the reliability
d) All are correct

17. MTBUR /MTBF are: (REF,D-20)

a) Computed values of expected reliability of a/c assumed in designing of aircraft
b) As in (a) which are used for setting alert values for latest aircraft
c) As in (b) since they are initial predictions, should be replaced after accumulating
sufficient experience
d) None

Series D-III
1. ALERT VALUE MEANS: (REF,D-23)

A. MAXIMUM RELIABILITY INDEX

B. MINIMUM RELIABILITY
C. MAXIMUM DEVIATION FROM THE NORMAL OPERATING LIMIT BUT WITHIN THE ALLOWABLE OPERATING
RANGE

D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

2. ON-CONDITION MAINTENANCE OF RECIPROCATING ENGINE IS COVERED UNDER:

(REF,D-23)

A. CAR SERIES D PART I

B. AIRCRAFT RULE 70

C. AIRCRAFT RULE 72

D. CAR SERIES D PART III

3. EVERY OPERATOR SHALL MAINTAIN A CONTINUOUS RECORD OF THE ENGINE PARAMETER IN A: : (REF,D-
24)

A. TABULATED FORM

B. GRAPHICAL FORM
C. GRAPHICAL FORM IF FEASIBLE OR TABULATED FORM

D. GRAPHICAL & TABULATED FORM

4. THE ENGINE PARAMETERS ARE RECORDED UNDER STABILIZED CONDITION: : (REF,D-24)

A. DURING TAKE OFF

B. DURING LANDING

C. DURING GROUND RUN

D. DURING CRUISE LEVEL FLYING

5. THE LIFE RECORD OF ALL THE ENGINE ACCESSORIES IS AVAILABLE IN: (REF,D-24)

A. T.B.O CHARTS

B. J.L.B

C. ENGINE LOG BOOK

D. O/H PROCEDURE SHEET

6. EVERY ENGINE PARAMETER HAS AN ALERT VALUE WHICH IS FIXED BY: (REF,D-24)

A. OPERATOR

B. DGCA

C. RAO

D. OPERATOR IN CONSULTATION WITH RAO

7. ENGINE OVERHAUL RECORDS ARE PRESERVED FOR A PERIOD OF: (REF,D-25)

A. ONE YEAR

B. TWO YEARS

C. FIVE YEARS

D. TEN YEARS

8. ALERT VALUES ARE: (REF,D-24)

A. REFERENCE VALUES ONLY

B. ACCEPTING LIMITS ONLY

C. BOTH A AND B ARE CORRECT

D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

SERIES D-V
1. THE AVERAGE FUEL AND OIL CONSUMPTION OF ENGINE WILL BE RECORDED: (REF,D-31)

A. IN THE ENGINE LOG LOG BOOK

B. IN THE AIRCRAFT LOG BOOK

C. BY AN AME

D. BOTH A AND B ARE CORRECT

2. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine will be recorded: : (REF,D-31)

A. after post overhaul test of the engine.

B. after the partial/top overhaul or repair of the engine followed by a test run/test flight, as applicable.

C. At periods approved as per the approved maintenance schedule.

D. All the above are correct.

3. The daily upliftment of fuel and oil consumption in aircraft fuel and oil register is signed by: (REF,D-31)

A. licensed AME

B. QCM

C. Dy QCM

D. any authorized person

Series –E-I
39. Internal audit for renewal of Cat-“G” organization shall be (ref,E-19)

a) Carried out and submitted to RAWO by 31 st Dec

b) Carried out and submitted to Local Airworthiness Office at least two months before expire of
approval
c) As in (b) but not earlier than 60 days
d) None of the correct

48. Manager who has authority for ensuring that all the tasks of the approved organization
can be financed and carried out to the standard required by DGCA (ref,E-3)

a) QC Manager b) Accountable Manager

c) Finance Manager d) RAWO

49. A document issued to an organization approved by DGCA and defining the scope of
approval granted: (ref,E-3)

a) Scope of approval b) Terms of approval

c) Certificate of approval d) None

50. Document accompanying the sale of aircraft component certifying that they were
obtained from approval source (ref,E-4)

a) Certificate of approval b) Release Note

c) Rejection Note d) Certificate of Manufacture

51. The scope of approval for routine maintenance shall not be less than (ref,E-4)

a) Daily inspection
b) 600 Hrs inspection outside India
c) Daily inspection for Indian organization
d) 100 Hrs inspection with in India
52. NODAL OFFICER is the requirement of the following operator / owner: (ref,E-9)

a) Who maintain their fleet of aero planes under approved programme

b) Who have contracted maintenance of their aircraft to an a AMO
c) It is applicable to state government a/c only
d) It is applicable to private aircraft only
53. Certifying staff issuing certificate of maintenance shall have (ref,E-10)

a) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience

 b) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience in the preceding 12 months
c) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience in the preceding 15 months
d) Six months of actual a/c maintenance experience in preceding 24 months
54. Quality control manual of Indian Airlines will be approved by: (ref,E-12)

a) RAWO b) DGCA HQ c) QCM

d) RAWO/Sub RAWO

55. Maintenance systems manual of Cat “C” organization shall be approved by: (ref,E-14)

a) DGCA b) DGCA in case of Indian Air lines

c) RAWO in consultation with DGCA HQ

d) None
56. Vertical black line along the left hand margin of the text of the manuals is to identify:
(ref,E-15)

a) Identifying revisions and amendments

b) Identifying important points
c) Identifying items of inspection as per MPD
d) None
57. Special inspection checks like hard landing etc. shall be included in (ref,E-16)

a) QC manual b) Maintenance scheduler

c) Special inspection schedule

d) None
58. Inspection schedule of scheduled operator will be approved by: (ref,E-16)

a) QCM b) RAWO c) DGCA

d) QCM in case of operator with 3 years experience, others by RAWO

1. Special inspections mean inspections carried out due to : (ref,E-16)

a) Expiry to C of A b) Hard landing propeller strike

c) Visit of RAWO personnel to carry out checks

d) Both A and C are correct

27. Distribution of rejection note is such that (ref,E-22)

 a) Third copy is for record b) First copy is to supplier

c) Second copy is to RAWO d) First copy is to RAWO

14. CA-182C shall be submitted to: (ref,E-5)

a) RAWO b) RAWO/Sub-RAWO c) DGCA HQs

d) RAWO/DGCA in case of Indian / Foreign organization

17. Which one of the following is responsible to ensure regular receipt of specific aircraft literature,
amendments etc, and making them available to AMO? : (ref,E-9)

a) QCM b) Accountable Manager c) Nodal Officer d) DGCA/RAWO

18. Certifying staff involved in maintenance of aircraft shall undergo refresher course once in: (ref,E-10)

a) 12 months b) 24 months c) 3years d) As desired by DGCA

19. Internal audit by QA team shall be carried out: : (ref,E-11)

a) Once in every year

b) Twice in every year

a) 30 days before renewal of organization

b) 60 days before renewal of organization
20. How many copies of manuals are required to be submitted for approval of a firm? : (ref,E-12)

a) Two b) Three c) Four d) One

14. Approval of foreign organization located in India will be affected by : (ref,E-5)

a) RAWO b) DGCA Hq c)RAWO for Indian organization d) None

15. Scope of approval will be mentioned in : (ref,E-4,6)

a) Certificate of approval b) QC Manual c) Capabilities list

d) All the above

16. Storage and handling procedure of Electro-static device components shall be as specified in : (ref,E-6)

a) AAC 6/2000 b) AAC 5/2001 c) AAC 6/2003 d) None

17. Organization shall be approved initially for a period of : (ref,E-5,18)

a) Not exceeding one year b) For the calendar year

c) As in A&B since valid upto 31st December of that year

 d) As in C which may be renewed for another calender year

18. The form and manner of certificate issued by AO/AMO shall be approved by:

a) DGCA Hq. b) RAWO c) DGCA HQ or RAWO at the time of approval

d) QCM/Chief QCM

20. QCM/Dy.QCM of an approved organization shall be approved by : (ref,E-8)

a) Accountable Manager b) Managing Director c) DGCA

d) Manufacturer

22. Capabilities of Nodal officer appointed by General Aviation aircraft operators shall be accepted by
(ref,E-9)

a) RAWO b) RAWO/Sub RAWO c) DGCA d) QCM

23. Qualification and experience of NODAL OFFICER shall be : (ref,E-9)

c) Sufficiently senior person in Aviation Department with 10 years experience

d) As in (a) with 5 years experiencec) As in A with 2 years experience
e) None of the above

27. The programme of refresher courses for certifying staff shall be reflected in : (ref,E-10)

a) QC Manual b) MSM c) Training Manuald) A and C

28. The following shall ensure that there is no physical disability to any one of the certifying staff
(ref,E-10)

a) Operator through periodical medical check

b) RAWO through periodical medical check
c) DGCA through periodical medical check
d) QCM through periodical medical check
30. Internal audit report shall be submitted to : (ref,E-11)

a) Accountable Manager and QCM

b) QCM and RAWO
c) Accountable Manager & RAWO
d) Accountable Manager & DGCA
e)
31. Internal audit of maintenance facilities shall be carried out with a gap of
 a) Six months b) Four months c) Twice in a year with a gap of 4 months

d) As in C with a gap of 6 months

32. MSM of AMO shall be approved by : (ref,E-14)

a) DGCA HQ b) RAWO c) QCM d) Manufacturer

33. Methods of performing inspections and designations of personnel entitled to perform inspections is
given in : (ref,E-13,14)

a) QCM b) EOM c) MSM d) Both A&C

35. Inspection schedules including special inspections of scheduled operator shall be prepared and
approved by (ref,E-16)

a) QCM b) QCM of scheduled operator

c) QCM of the organization in case of scheduled operator with 3 years of experience

d) As in (C), however in case of scheduled operator with less than three years experience will be
approved by RAWO

36. Mark correct statement (ref,E-17)

a) Any additions to approved schedule shall be pre-approved by DGCA

b) Any additions to approved schedules shall be pre-approved by RAWO/Sub RAWO
c) Any additions to approved schedules on the basis of operational experience may be made with
out prior approval
d) As in C but shall be promptly reported to RAWO/DGCA

37. A document which gives details of rejection of certified aircraft goods is by (ref,E-4)

a) Rejection Note b) Release Note c) Defect Report d) None

38. Approval to an organization located outside the territories of India is subjected

a) Need to maintain Indian Registered Aircraft

b) Requirements of AAC 4/1998 are complied with
c) Requirements of CAR Sec-2 are complied with
d) All the above are correct

2. Inspection of materials by NDT methods is the scope of: (ref,E-2)

a) Category – A b) Category – B c) Category – D d) None

8. Psychoactive substances are: (ref,E-3)

a) Alcohol, Tabacco, Coffee b) Sedatives, cocain, Tobacco

 c)_ Alcohal, Cocain, Sedative d) Coffee, cocain, Sedative

9. An independent body with overall authority for supervision of quality standards and their enforcement
(ref,E-11)

a) Quality Control b) Quality Assurance c) Nodal Officer

d) RMU

10. Approval to AO/AMO is validity up to (ref,E-18)

a) 1 year b) 2 years c) Six months d) up to 31st Dec.

11. The component life list, being a part of maintenance system manual, can be revised (ref,E-18)

a) On manufacturer’s recommendation
b) As per requirements c) By QCM d) With the concurrence of DGCA

11. Quality Control manual for scheduled operators is approved by (ref,E-18)

a) DGCA b) RAWO c) DGCA is consultation with RAWO d) QCM

35. Programming and coordinating the ongoing quality and improvement efforts by various groups of AO
in accordance with requirement of DGCA is

a) Quality Control b) Quality assurance c) Inspection

d) Monitoring

36. The document/Manual which deals with practices / procedure so as to ensure compliance with
airworthiness and safety requirement: (ref,E-4)

a) Q.A Manual b) QC Manual c) A.O d) AAC

 Engineering Organization manual is approved by: (ref,E-12)

A) DGCA
B) RAO
C) DGCA in consultation with RAO
D) None of the above

 Quality Control Manual is a dynamic document and: (ref,E-13)

A) is issued by DGCA
B) once issued, no changes can be made by the operator
C) every page shall be approved and stamped by DGCA
D) master copy will be held in the office of DGCA

2. In house audit of an organization can be carried out:

a) 80 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval
b) 45 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval
c) 90 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval
d) 61 days prior to expiry of the validity of approval

3. Maintenance planning document is issued by:

a) DGCA b) FAA c) JAA d) None

4. Employment of foreign AME by Indian operator is subject to

a) Security clearance through DGCA

b) Oral check by DGCA
c) (1) and (2) are correct
d) Non

Q50) SUB CONTRACTORS WORK MEETS REQUIREMENT OF

DGCA STANDARDS IS THE RESPONSIBILITY OF

A) QCM OF THE ORGANIZATION

B) QCM UNDER INTIMATION TO RAO
C) LAO OF THAT SUB CONTRACTING STATE
Series –E-II
49. Type certificate means a certificate issued (ref,E-53)

a) By DGCA to specify the design of type of aircraft component/item of equipment

b) By RAWO to specify the design of type of aircraft component / item of equipment
c) To a particular type of aircraft / series of aircraft
d) None of the above
50. The approval of the “approval personnel” in Cat ‘A’ organization will be granted by: (ref,E-54)

a) RAWO b) DGCA c) QCM if delegated by RAWO d) a & c correct

3. Completed items in any category “A” organization shall be identified by: (ref,E-54)

a) Affixing part serial number

b) As in (a) or any other markings as per approved specification drawing
c) As in (b) and inspection stamps of final inspection shall also be affixed
d) As in (c) where these are not practicable, a tag or label shall be fixed.

4. Mark correct statements : (ref,E-55)

a) Certification records of completed work during manufacture shall be retained for five years
b) Manufacturer shall have obtained approval under Cat `F’ and comply with all requirements
c) Cat-“A” organization shall keep all manuals (QC Manual, MSM & EOM) up-date
d) All the statements are correct

5. Corrective actions, improvement in the product subsequent to receiving defects / in service problems
from operators / AMO shall be notified to: : (ref,E-55)

a) All users of the products b) DGCA

c) As in (a) & (b) and the procedure shall be included in QC Manual

d) As in C and the same may be included in MSM

6. After an aircraft component / item of equipment has been manufactured (ref,E-55)

a) QCM will issue certificate of manufacture

b) QCM or an authorized person will issue certificate of manufacture
c) QCM or an approved person will issue certificate of manufacture
d) (b) & (c) are in-correct

7. Heat treatment applied to airframe or engine parts or accessories is the scope of: (ref,E-59)

a) Category “F” organization b) Category “C” organization

c) Category “B” organization d) Category “D” organization

50. A firm seeking approval in category B for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA (ref,E-61)

a) Three samples b) Six samples c) Nine samples

d) Twelve sample

8 Mark correct statement (ref,E-60)

a) All changes / modifications in Category “B” organization will have DGCA concurrence
b) All changes / modifications effecting airworthiness / safety of aircraft shall be implemented
after concurrence by RAWO
c) All changes / modifications in an approved organization shall be promptly notified to RAWO
d) All are in-correct statements

9. Category “B” organization shall have (ref,E-60)

a) All three manual

b) QC & maintenance system manual
c) EOM & QC manual
d) EOM & MSM

10. Test specimen submitted by the firm for approval of cat B organization should have been (ref,E-61)

a) Processed in any DGCA approved organization

b) Processed in applicants workshop
c) As in (b) under the supervision of DGCA representative
d) As in (b) under the supervision of RAWO representative

11 Test specimen required to be submitted for approval of cadmium plating (ref,E-61)

a) Twelve specimen 8”X2”X16 Swg b) Twelve specimen 3”X3/4”X16 Swg

c) Three specimen 8”X2”X16 Swg d) None

12. The firm approved under Category “B” will issue the (ref,E-61)

a) Certificate of Maintenance b) Certificate of compliance

c) Certificate of inspection d) Test report & Release Note

 A process organization means an organization engaged in: (ref,E-59)

A) specialized process only
B) specialized process or inspection
C) specialized process and electroplating
Series –E-IV
13. The inspectors of Cat-“C” organization shall be approved by: (ref,E-64)

a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Local Airworthiness Office

d) QCM

14. Aircraft /Aircraft components released by Cat-“C” organization after the item has been serviced
/inspected or modified shall be accompanied by: (ref,E-65)

a) Certificate of maintenance b) Release Note c) Both A&B

d) As in C along with Test report

15. Certificate of maintenance by a Category “C” organization shall be signed by: (ref,E-65)

a) QCM b) Approved signatory c) AME

d) AME/Approved/Authorized person

Series –E-V
16. Firm asking for approval of Category “D” shall prepare and submit the following manuals (ref,E-68)

a) EOM b) EOM&QCM c) QCM & MSM

d) QCM & MSM

17. Test report issued by approved organization shall be signed by (ref,E-69)

a) Approved signatories b) QCM c) Authorized Person

d) Licensed Engineer

 As per category D test report is signed by: (ref,E-69)

A) Approved person
B) QCM
C) Authorized person
D) Both A & B are correct
Series –E-VI

19. Bulk storage / Bulk mobile equipment used by Category E organization shall be approved by (ref,E-71)

a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Local Airworthiness Office

d) Chief explosive inspector

20. Test laboratories of Category “E” firm will be approved by (ref,E-71)

a) RAWO b) QCM c) DGCA d) None of the above

21. Format of release note and sale vouchers of Category “E” organization shall be approved by: (ref,E-
72)

a) QCM b) RAWO c) DGCA d) None of the above

22. Release note and sale vouchers issued by Category “E” organization shall be preserved for (Ref, E-72)

a) 5 years b) 10 years c) 2 years d) 1 year

23. Release note signatory is (ref,E-72)

a) A person approved by QCM to Sign Release Note

b) A person approved by RAWO to Sign Release Note
c) A person approved by the organization to Sign Release Note
d) A person approved by DGCA to issue Release Note

 Refueling voucher shall be: (ref,E-72)

A) serially numbered with batch number, specification details and quantity
B) prepared in triplicate
C) both A & b are correct
D) None of the above

Series –E-VII
13. Stores where materials received from approved source with proper evidence are stocked: (ref,E-75)
a) Bonded stores b) Quarantine c) Approved stores

d) Category “F” organization

25. A certificate issued under approval granted by DGCA certifying that the materials / aircraft components
have been received from approved source and they are airworthy: (ref,E-75)

a) Release Note b) Certificate of maintenance

c) Type certification documents d) None of the above

26. A/c components drawn from bonded store but having been rejected after inspection are returned
along with

a) Release Note b) Rejection Note c) Log Card/Log Book

d) Inspection Report

28. Mark the person responsible to ensure that goods released to customers from cat-F organization have
not deteriorated during storage (ref,E-76)

a) QCM b) Accountable Manager c) Release note signatory

d) QCM & Release note signatory

29. In-coming as well as outgoing release note in case of cat-F organ. shall be preserved for: (ref,E-76)

a) Two years b) Five years c) Ten years d) None

15. Organization shall establish bonded store to keep: (ref,E-75)

a) A/c material and equipment

b) Serviceable material and equipment
c) All un-serviceable material/equipment
d) None of the above

Release note signatories: (ref,E-75)

A) approved by RAO
B) QCM is authorized to issue approval on behalf of RAO
C) Approved by DGCA
D) Both A & B are correct

30. Any deviations from approved design document of an a/c component supplied by Cat-F organization
will be mentioned in:

a) In-coming Release Noteb) Out-going Release Note

c) In-coming release note or any equivalent document and the same will be mentioned in out
going release note

d) None of the above

Series –E-VIII

31. Mark the correct statement (ref,E-81)

a) Candidates who have passed AME Course from DGCA approved institute will be given one year
relaxation in the total aeronautical experience required for grant of AME License
b) The training period in AME institute will be counted for computing total aeronautical
experience required to appear in AME license examination

c) Aircraft Rule 61 of 1937 gives the requirements for issue of AME License

d) All the above are correct

32. Chief instructor of Category “G” organization is approved by (ref,E-84)

a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Local AW Office

d) Examined for approval by a board chairman of which will be an officer not below the

rank of controller of Airworthiness

33. Instructors to teach various subjects in DGCA approved institute are approved by: (ref,E-85)

a) RAWO b) DGCA c) QCM d) Chief Instructor

34. Overall Ratio of whole time instructors to students shall be (ref,E-86)

a) About 1:30 b) Not less than 1:30 c) Not more than 1:30 d) About 1:25

35. Security clearance of foreign students is the responsibilities of (ref,E-87)

a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Min of Civil Aviation d) Chief Instructor

37. Total period of training in case of AME institute

a) 2 ½ years b) 3 ½ years c) 3 years d) None

38. Records of examination conducted in DGCA approved institute is required to be preserve for:

a) Six months b) Two years c) One year d) Five years

40. Application for approval of Category “G” organization (ref,E-114)

a) CA-182A b) CA-182C c) CA182 d) CA-182B

42. Separate approval in Cat-F is not required in case of

a) Category – A, B, D&E b) Category – A,B,C c) Category A,C,D&E

 d) Category – A,B,C & E

Changing component from one type of maintenance programme to another, operator shall

a) Take guidance of manufacturers recommendation

b) Produce statistical data to justify the change
c) Prepare graphs for failure rate
d) All the above
18. Operator shall identify and devise a method of inspecting them at regular interval as a part of
structural inspection program

a) Items likely to be corroded

b) Wing tanks c) S.S,Is d) None of them
19. Manufacturer would issue the following document for older aircraft giving details of structural
inspection

a) Structural repair Manual b) S.S.I.D

c) Weight & balance report d) All the above

20. S.S.I.D contains:

a) S.S.I.s b) Method of inspection

c) Corrective action for detected structural damage

d) All the above

21. Items of CPCP and S.S.ID which are non-terminating action shall be included in

a) S.S.I.P (Supplemental structural inspection Programme

b) QC Manual c) MSM d) Structural repair manual
22. Maintenance generated from in flight monitoring are:

a) Part of Non-scheduled maintenance b) Part of Condition Monitoring

c) On condition maintenance d) Hard time maintenance

23. A component whose reduction in failure resistance detectable by unit test shall be included in

a) Hard time maintenanceb) On condition maintenance

c) Condition Monitoring d) S.S.I.D

24. AIDS stands for

a) Aircraft integrated date system b) Aircraft instrument data system

c) Aircraft instrument date syndromes d) All the above

25. Function of Item which is normally active whenever system is used but there is no indication in cock-
pit is

a) Active function b) Hidden function c) Non-Significant item

 d) Active hidden function

Series F-I
 Nationality and registration mark should be affixed on aircraft in accordance with aircraft rule: (ref,F-1)
A) 37
B) 37A
C) 37B
D) 37C

 Aircraft registered in category B is owned by: (ref,F-2)

A) a citizen of India
B) a company or corporation registered in India
C) a company whose chairman and atleast two thirds of directors are citizens of India.
D) none of the above

 When an aircraft is sold to other person or company or ceases to be owned by the owner as indicated on
its certificate of registration. The registration is deemed to be cancelled in accordance with: (ref,F-4)
A) rule 28
B) rule 30
C) rule 30(appendix A)
D) rule 33

Series F-II
2. Type Certificate of a rotor craft imported in India can be revalidated by the DGCA if its design and
construction confirms with the (ref,F-14)

a) FAR 23 & 25 b) BCAR 23 & JAR 25 c) FAR 27 & 29

d) BCAR 27 & 29

 For revalidation of the type certificate of the aircraft imported into India which of the following
document are not required:
A) type certificate.
B) Type design data sheet
C) Noise certificate.
 The Aero Engine manufactured outside India can be type certified by the DGCA if it confirms to
airworthiness code: (ref,F-14)
A) FAR 33
 B) FAR 23
C) FAR 30
D) Both a & c are correct.

 Minor modifications is one which has appreciable effect on: (ref,F-19)

B) weight and balance
C) structural strength
D) flight characteristics
E) none of the above.

 Design submitted for type approval shall bear:

A) description title and drawing number.
B) as in a plus date of issue.
C) as in b plus issue number.
D) none of the above are correct.

2. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft / aircraft component(ref,F-18)

a) Approval of DGCA is must b) Written approval of manufacturer is

must

c) Approval of QCM / CEM is must d) All are correct

Series F-V
1.One of the following conditions does not result in automatic suspension of C of A(:ref,F-77)

A) Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing

B) Whenever an aircraft develops a defect, which effects primary structure.
C) Approved inspection schedules are not completed when due.
D) Whenever lifed components are not removed at their stipulated time.

Series F-III
 Export certificate of airworthiness shall be accompanied by the following documents: (ref,F-54)
A) aircraft log book
B) engine log book
C) both a &b are correct
D) as in c plus QC manual

 Application form for issue of noise certificate: (ref,F-64)

A) CA 206-1
B) CA 2006
C) CA 26
D) CA 2006-1
 Renewal of C of A of Indian registered aircraft abroad: (ref,F-46)
A) can not be carried out and shall be avoided.
B) can be carried out with full justification of such exigencies to the DGCA
C) C of A will be renewed in the normal manner
D) Both b & c are correct.

 C of A shall cease to be valid if: (ref,F-47)

A) approved inspection schedule is completed when due.
B) lifed components are replaced on expiry of stipulated life.
C) unapproved repairs/modifications are carried out.
D) all are correct.

 Qualification and experience requirements for carrying out the annual review of airworthiness: (ref,F-63)
A) rated aircraft maintenance requirements for carrying out the annual review of airworthiness:
B) as in a plus holding licence for atleast 60 months
C) as in b plus recent experience of 6 months in the preceding 24 months
D) none of the above.

 For issue of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy itself that the aircraft/rotorcraft manufactured/ imported meets
the approved airworthiness standards of: (ref,F-39)
A) JAR 23 and JAR 25
B) FAR 23 and FAR 25
C) FAR 27 and 29
D) All are correct
16.Short-term C of A issued for (ref,F-44)

a) Un-airworthy aircraft
b) Aircraft imported from outside the country under India registration marking
c) Aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking
d) Aircraft having service life of less than one year
15. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in normal category are between (ref,F-53)

a) +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g b) +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g

b) +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g d) +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & 3g

16.STATE GOVERNMENT AIRCRAFT SHOULD BE REGISTERED IN (ref,F-52)

A) NORMAL CATEGORY (PRIVATE AIRCRAFT)

B) PASSENGER AIRCRAFT
C) NORMAL CATEGORY (PASSENGER AIRCRAFT)

Q44) STATE GOVERNMENT AIRCRAFT ARE REGISTERED IN WHICH CATEGORY OF REGISTRATION. (ref,F-52)
 A) CAT A
B) CAT B
C) IS NOT REGISTERED IN ANY CATEGORY

Q45) MTOW IS MENTIONED IN

A) C OF A
B) C OF R
C) FLIGHT MANUAL
D) ALL OF THESE

21. An India registered aircraft having C of A as per IAR can fly

a) Passenger aircraft can fly as freight aircraft

b) Freight aircraft can fly as passenger aircraft provided seats are installed
c) Aerial work aircraft can be operated as public transport aircraft
d) None is correct

 Export Certificate of airworthiness:

A) valid for 50 days
B) valid for 60 days
C) should not be issued more than 60 days prior to the application for validation
D) none of the above are correct.

 For issuance of C of A partially filled Indian C of A will be forwarded by DGCA: (ref,F-41)

A) to the manufacturer for completion
B) to the owner/operator for completion
C) to the RAO/SubRAO for completion
D) all are correct.

 Research aircraft is a subdivision of: (ref,F-52)

A) normal category
B) aerobatic category
C) special category
D) experimental category

 In case of imported aircraft validity of Certificated of Airworthiness is: (ref,F-43)

A) 2 years from the date the aircraft lands in India.
B) 5 years from the date the aircraft lands in India.
C) From the date of issue of export certificate of airworthiness
D) Both a & c are correct

 The annual review of airworthiness shall be submitted: (ref,F-43)

A) to QC division of maintenance organization
B) to Regional Airworthiness Officer
 C) to DGCA
D) to Regional Airworthiness Officer through QC division

 For C of A renewal: (ref,F-45,46)

A) aircraft shall be made available 15 days prior to expiry of C of A
B) flight test report for avionics system
C) flight evaluation report of the aircraft
D) all are correct

 All aircraft owners and operators shall comply with the engineering inspection and
maintenance requirements and safety requirements in respect of air routes, aircraft and
aircrew specified by DGCA as per Aircraft rule:
A) 141
B) 140
C) 142
D) 133 C

1. Class II and class III aeronautical products should be accompanied by: (ref,F-54)

a) Export C of A
b) A/w approval tag
c) FAR/IASA part 21
d) Both (b) & (c)

51. Validity of C of A can be extended for

a) 3% of flight hours b) 10% of calender period

c) No extension is grantedd) Both a & b are correct

52. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAWO

a) All log books b) JLB c) Procedure sheets of past one year

d) All the above

Series F-VII
1.A special flight permit is permission (ref,F-84)

a) to ferry fly to a base without passengers on board where repairs, modifications and
maintenance required to remove the suspension of the C of A can be performed
b) For production flight testing new production aircraft
c) To authorize flight for special purposes
d) All are correct

2. A special flight authorization is a permission accorded (ref,F-84)

 a) By DGCA b) to ferry-fly an aircraft

c) To carry special persons (VIPs) d) Both A & B are correct

Series F-X
7. Damage tolerant contains: (ref,F-109)

a) Accidental damage
b) Fatigue damage
c) Environmental damage
d) All

Series F-XI
1.The procedure for duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls is listed in : (ref,F-110)

a) QC Manual b) MS Manual c) Both A and B are correct d) None

2.. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the base is carried out by (ref,F-110)

a) Persons approved for the purpose in an approved organization

b) A flight Engineer
c) A flight Engineer whose license is endorsed for the type of aircraft
d) Both A & C are correct

Series F-XII
1.Most common factors, which may cause deterioration of wooden aircraft, are (ref,F-114)

a) Geological growth when parked in dusty conditions near seabed

b) Mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage
c) Engine oil percolating in to the wooden structure
d) Both (B) and (C) are correct

2. Mark the correct statement(ref,F-114)

a) Glue deterioration may take place due to large cyclic changes of temperature
b) In most wooden aircraft of monoplane construction the main spars are I section shape to avoid
glue separation
c) In monoplane construction of wooden aircraft spar are of box formation
d) (a) and (c) answers are correct
3. While checking glue line of wooden aircraft (ref,F-117)

a) All protective coatings of paint should be carefully subjected to mild chemical etching

b) Thinnest possible feeler gauge should be used

 c) Only sharp wooden blade soaked in engine oil should be used
d) Both (a) and (c) are recommended technique

4. Dry rot and wood decay is indicated (ref,F-117)

a) By small patches of crumbling wood

b) Dark discoloration of the wood surface or grey streaks indicates penetration
c) If rich discoloration can not be removed by tight scrapping, the part should rejected
d) All the above correct

5. For reinforcing glued wooden members (ref,F-118)

a) Plain annealed aluminum alloy screws are used

b) Steel screws are some times used for hardwood like mahogany or ash
c) Replace the screws with new screws of identical diameter but higher length
d) Replace the screws of identical length with slightly lesser diameter

6. Glued joints of wooden aircraft (ref,F-120)

a) Generally designed to take fluxing

b) Generally designed to take torsion loads
c) Generally designed to take tensile loads
d) Generally designed to take shear loads

Series F-XIII
1.Mark the correct statement (ref,F-122)

a) Gliders like micro light aircraft need not have C of A

b) Gliders should have valid C of A is flown for hire
c) Gliders manufactured in a foreign country flown Indian need not have valid C of A
d) Gliders subjected to minor repairs can be flown with out valid C of A

2.All wooden gliders can continue in service (ref,F-122)

a) Up to 15 years unless aging aircraft inspection is carried

b) Up to 25 years TSN subjected to a satisfactory 20 years inspection schedule
c) C of A shall not be issued for glider having an age more than 25 years
d) Both B and C are correct

3.Glider having an age more than 20 years (ref,F-122)

a) C of A validity should be restricted 6 months

b) Should be permitted to only inverted flying with pilot having a parachute
c) All aerobatic manoeuver should be prohibited
 d) Both A and C are correct

4.Glider logbook should be pressured (ref,F-125)

a) Glider need not have log book except launch log book
b) Should be preserved till such time the glider is permanently withdrawn from use
c) As in (B) the C of R is cancelled by DGCA
d) Both (b) and (c) are correct

Series F-XIV
1.Single seater micro light aircraft means (ref,F-129)

a) Should have wing span more than 10 micrometers

b) Minimum All up weight should be 330 Kg and a wing area not less than 10 sq.meters
c) Maximum all up weight should be 330 Kg and wing area not less than 10 sq.meters
d) All up weight should not exceed 450 Kg.

2.Registration marking on micro light aircraft shall be printed (ref,F-129)

a) Port (Left) wing upper surface and on each side of fuselage

b) Lower surface of the wings and on each side of fuselage
c) Instead of each side of fuselage on the upper half of vertical tail surface
d) Both B and C are correct

3.Incase of micro light aircraft (ref,F-131)

a) Type certificate not necessary

b) C of R is required
c) Firms approved of DGCA is to sought
d) All the above are correct

4.Permit to fly the micro light aircraft (ref,F-131)

a) is in lieu of Type Certificate b) Is in lieu of C of A c) is valid for one year

d) All the above are correct

5. Certification of Micro light aircraft (ref,F-132)

a) Pilot can certify inspections beyond 15 hours schedule

b) Pilot can certify schedule up to 10 hours
c) Beyond 20 hours inspection schedule only by appropriately licensed AME or
DGCA authorized person
 d) Both B and C are correct

Series F-XV
1. Records / worksheet pertaining to lived components of balloons shall be preserved for (ref,F-151)

a) One b) Two c) Five d) Ten

5. Word envelope related to hot air balloon means (ref,F-145)

a) Place where all records and permit to fly is carried

b) Enclosure in which the lifting medium is contained
c) Is placed below the basket to keep occupants warm at higher altitudes
d) Both A and C are correct

8. Mark the correct statement in respect of balloon (ref,F-149)

a) Should not fly unless during 25 hours preceding lift off certified
b) Pilot is not empowered to certify up to 25 hours inspection schedule
c) Appropriately licensed AME can certify beyond 25 hours inspection schedule
d) Both A and C are correct

12 Flight release of balloon should be retained (ref,F-149)

a) One month b) 60 days from the date of flight release

c) 180 days since the balloon is permanently with drawn from service
d) Till the C of R is cancelled by DGCA

14. Balloon records are to be preserved as indicated (ref,F-150,151)

a) Log book to be preserved for two years after the accident

b) Procedure / work sheet for 5 years after the completion of work
c) Lifed components – one year after is permanently withdrawn
d) All the above are correct

19. Mark the correct statement (ref,F-152)

a) Operation of balloon flights can be under taken during day time under IFR
condition without might flying
b) Operation of flight during might under VRF conditions
c) Burner relighter
d) After burner heater at the rear of basket
Series F-XVII
68. During pooling of an a/c items the required document are to be insured is Responsibility
of (ref,F-160)

a) AME
b) QCM
c) Both are correct

Series F-XVIII
1. Amateur-built aircraft are limited to operation within an assigned test area for at least (ref,F-174)

a) 10 Hrs b) 25 Hrs c) 50 Hrs d) No such limitation

Series F-XX
43. Normal design economic life of a jet aircraft is (ref,F-214)

a) 20 years / 60,000 landings b) 20 years / 60 000 pressurization cycles

c) Both A and B are correct d) None of the above

Series F-XXII
14. Load & trim sheet of an operator is approved by(ref-F-225)

a) DGCA b) RAWO c) QCM d) DAW

Series-H-I
14. Unusable fuel shall be determined (ref, H-1)
a) during type certification of the a/c
b) after type certification of the a/c
c) both 1 & 2
d) either 1 or 2

15. Calibration of fuel quantity gauges to be carried out (ref, H-2)

a) Every time a fuel quantity gauge is installed
b) at every C of A inspection
c) nearest major check
d) all of the above

16. Unusable fuel to be considered at (ref, H-2)

 a) empty weight of the a/c
b) excluded from the empty weight of the a/c
c) either a or b
d) None

17. Calibrated dip stick to be carried in light a/c & H/C (ref, H-2)
a) to measure the correct quantity of unusable fuel at the time of refueling
b) to measure the actual quantity of a/c fuel
c) both a & b
d) either a or b

17.Quantity of unusable fuel or weight of the unusable fuel is included in: (ref, H-2)
a) Weight of the fuel b) Weight of the empty a/c

c) Not included in the EW of a/c d) None

3. It is a mandatory requirement that un-usable fuel shall be (ref, H-2)

a) Mentioned in flight Manual b) Play carded in cockpit

c) No mandatory requirements as such d) as at a) or b)

4. The unusable fuel for each tank must be established by (ref, H-2)

a) Conducting test flights

b) Jacking up to level flight condition & draining from lowest feed line
c) As in (a) during type certification
d) As in (c) and where such information is not available, procedure mentioned in (b) to be
followed in case of light aircraft only

5. To determine un-usable fuel by leveling and draining on ground, the following quality to be added to
each main tank so as to arrive zero-datum as fuel quantity gauge (ref, H-2)

a) 10 LTR b) 5 LTR c) 2 LTR d) 20 LTR

6. Calibration of fuel gauge shall be such that (ref, H-2)

a) Un-usable fuel as zero-datum b) Un-usable fuel will be indicated as red-arc

c) All the gages read full quantity d) As in (a) & (b)

7. Pilot will know the un-usable fuel from (ref, H-2)

a) Flight Manual b) Play carding in cockpit

c) A red arc from zero in the fuel gauge d) All above correct
10. Carriage of calibrated dip sticks are required to be carried to make sure correct quantity of fuel is
carried in case of (ref, H-2)

a) All Light Aircraft b) All helicopter

c) Incase of (a) and (b) whose fuel quantity gauges are not reliable

d) As in (a) and (b)

11. Fuel gauges shall be calibrated with zero datum at (ref, H-2)

a) Five litres b) Ten litres c) Zero litres d) unusable fuel

70. The fuel quantity should be delivered in terms of (ref, H-2)

a) Density b) Ltrs c) Tones d) Volume

8. Due to which of the following factors in most of the aircraft fuel system a certain quantity of fuel is not
available for use (ref, H-1)

a) Location of tank b) Location of Pump out lets

c)) Location of tank out lets

d) As in (c) and also routing of pipelines, Location of Pumps

Series-H-II

10. No photographic flash bulb & electronic flash equipments shall be permitted to be used within: (ref, H-8)

a) 6 meters from filling point or a/c fuelling equipment

b) 4 meters from filling point
c) 15 meters from filling point or a/c fuelling equipment

11.Fuelling zone means (ref, H-3)

a)6 mtrs. Radially from the a/c fuelling point, venting point and fuelling equipment
 b) 6 mtrs. Diagonally from the a/c fuelling point, venting point and refueling equipment
c)6 mtrs. Polygon from the a/c fuelling point, venting point and fuelling equipment
d) none of the above

12.Danger zone means

a) largest polygon by joining point 3 mtrs. From the wing and the fuelling vehicle inside
area.
b) largest polygon by joining point 3 mtrs. From the wing and the fuelling vehicle outside
area
c) both a & b
d) none

13.Fuelling places means (ref, H-4)

a)15 mtrs. away from the nearest building

b) within 15 mtrs. from the nearest building
c)either a or b
d) both a or b

18. Mark the incorrect statement

a) a/c shall not be fuelled with in 30 mtrs. of radar equipment under test.
b) a/c shall not be fuelled with in 30 mtrs. of radar equipment use in a/c
c) a/c shall not be fuelled with in 1500 mtrs.of ground installations of radar equipment.
d) a/c shall not be fuelled within 30 mtrs. of ground installation of radar equipment.

Danger of static electricity discharge during refueling is prevented by: (ref, H-6)

a) Providing fire extinguishers

b) Avoiding refueling during electrical storm
c) Providing proper bonding and earthing of a/c and refueling equipment
d) All are correct

40. Fueling operations shall be stopped whenever jet efflux of turbo propeller engine is with in (ref, H-8)

a) 30 m from the refueling point / refueling equip / vent point

b) As in (a) with in 15 m
c) As in (a) with in 43 m
d) None

41. In case of refueling fuel mixture? (ref, H-9)

a) Reduced ratio should be applied

b) Anti-static additives should be added
c) Both A and B
d) As in (A) if (B) not complied with

42. During refueling only the following can be switched on: (ref, H-9)
 a) Strobe lights
b) Strobe lights of not giving spark
c) Light required for refueling and also minimum required which do not cause danger of spark
d) A and B

43. Following a/c may be refueled with passenger on board if decided by the operator (ref, H-10)

a) With passenger> 20 b) With Passenger < 20

c) Fixed wing and H/C with seating capacity < 20

d) Fixed wing a/c with seating capacity > 20

14. Precautions and fuelling instructions are provided by (ref, H-4)

a) Manufacturers b) DGCA c) Fuelling company

d) Aircraft Operator

11. Which aircraft rule specifies procedure of fuelling aircraft? (Ref, H-3)

a) 25/1937 b) 25A/1937 c) 25B/1937 d) 25A/1934

15. Mark in-correct statement regarding fuelling place: (ref, H-4)

a) Fuelling of aircraft shall not be done in open place

b) Aircraft shall not be fuelled with in 30 m of radar operation
c) Refueling to be performed on level ground
d) Wheel chock shall be placed properly before refueling started

17. APU of a refueling aircraft, which have exhaust effluence discharging into the refueling zone, shall be
started (ref, H-6)

a) After opening fuel caps

b) Before opening fuel caps or fuel connection made
c) As in (a) or after fuel connection are made
d) None of the above

18. Earthling of fueling equipment as well as of aircraft shall be done so as to prevent fire risk due to static
electricity discharge (ref, H-6)

a) Through drag chain attached to fuelling equipment

b) Through conductive tires
 c) Apron earthling point
d) All are correct

19. Mark the correct statement (ref, H-6)

a) Refueling of a/c may be started immediately after landing / taxiing

b) Aerodrome fire service shall be called for refueling
c) Refueling operation shall be stopped when turbo-prop aircraft in within 30 m distance from the
refueling place
d) None of the above statement is correct

20. during heavy storm (ref, H-8)

a) Over wing refueling is only permitted

b) Refueling suspended
c) Pressure refueling is only permitted
d) None of the above statement is true

21. Use of photographic flash equipment during refueling (ref, H-8)

a) Not permitted to be used with in 6 m

b) Not permitted to be used within 15 m
c) Not permitted to be used within 6 m from refueling equipment / vent/ refueling point
d) Not permitted to be used within 6 ft from the refueling point

23. Maintenance and servicing of aircraft during fueling is such that (ref, H-9)

a)Strobe lighting not be operated b) Main engines shall not be operated

c) Plat forms, steps shall be clear of the aircraft d) all are correct

24. Fueling with passengers on board not permitted in case(ref, H-10)

a) Fixed wing aircraft with seating capacity of more than 20

b) Fixed wing aircraft rotary wing aircraft with seating capacity of 20
c) All helicopter and fixed wing aircraft with less than 20 seating capacity
d) None of the above

25. Fueling shall be stopped of spillage of fuel is (ref, H-11)

a) greater thanFive square meter b) Four square meter c) 15 square meter

d) 10 square meter
26. In case of spillage during fueling (ref, H-11)

a) Fuel must not be washed into drains

b) Vehicles shall not be started with in 15 m of spillage
c) Fuelling shall not be commenced till 30 min after cleaning the spilled fuel
d) Movement of persons and vehicles shall be avoided with 30 m from the spillage

51. Fuelling not carried out in case of –(ref, H-7)

a) When under carriage part of a/c extremely heated
b) When under carriage part of a/c normally heated
c) Tire condition does not matter

Q40) NO SMOKING SIGN IS DISPLAYED –(ref, H-5)

A) NEAR THE FUELLING EQUIPMENT

B) NOT LESS THAN 6 METER FROM FUELLING EQUIPMENT
C) NOT MORE THAN 15 METER FROM FUELLING EQUIPMENT

Series-H-III

11. During fuelling it is checked that fuel contains no impurity, of correct grade etc. is the duty of: (ref, H-13)

a) QCM
b) Representative of the vendors
c) RAO
d) Driver of the vehicle

52. Elements of filter separators should be replace after ( H – 16)

a) three years use
b) two years use
c) one year use
d) none

11. Mark the correct statement: (ref, H-16)

a) The fuel should be allowed to settle for horizontal at least for a period of 2 hrs., having floating suction
b) Without floating device ATF takes ½ hr. per floating suction
c) AVGAS input & output filters should be inspected weekly

53. Primary indicators colors for the grades of AVGAS and Jet A-1 are (ref, H-17)

a) a. red and black

b) b. black and red
c) c. blue and black
d) d. Red and blue
54.To avoid refueling errors, primary grade indicator should be painted on (ref, H-17)

a) delivery hoses or pipes

b) on the delivery nozzle
c) both a & b
d) either a or b

74. All filter separators, micro filters, Gouge filters and other drain points on static equipment or
pipelines should be purged to remove water. ( H – 18)
a) once daily
b) twice daily
c) thrice daily
d) none

55.Fuel in delivery hoses should be re circulated if no fuel has been dispensed from an installation for
a period of (ref, H-18)

a) two days
b) less than two days
c) more than two days
d) none

56.If any fuel is left in hoses for a longer period than 2 days then (ref, H-18)

a) it should be re circulated
b) it can be dispensed to a/c
c) As in b plus before dispensed sample check to be carried out.

44. To prevent water remaining in the tanks, all the filters should be purged once in: (ref, H-18)

a) 2 Weeks b) Every Week c) Every month

d) Every day

46. Barreled fuel if remains for ___________ period should be lab tested before use: (ref, H-24)

a) Six months b) 3 months c) 1 year d) 2 years

13. The fuelling of aircraft shall be carried out by: (ref, H-14)

a) A trained technician b) AME

 c) Under the supervision of Airworthiness Officer

d) None

16. Mark the correct statement

a) The refueling equipment shall be marshaled while reversing towards aircraft

b) There shall be adequate restraint of the aircraft before refueling
c) Refueling aircraft shall be placed at least 10 m away from the other aircraft
d) All are correct statements

7. In case of storage of fuel in bulk storage tanks (ref, H-16)

a) Tanks for storing AVGAS shall be internally episcopate

b) Floating suction shall be inspected once a weak
c) Tank bottom sample of AVGA & ATF shall be tested for microbiological growth once in two
years
d) All are correct

44. If inlet to the tank are fitted with 10 micron, the internally inspection should be (ref, H-16)

a) once in 2 years
b) twice in 2 years
c) thrice in 2 years
d) none

Series I-I
1.Aircraft magnetic compass shall be calibrated and compensated: : (ref,I-2A)
A) at the time of initial installation
 B) as per aircraft flight manual
C) both A & B are correct
D) none of the above

2.The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed: (ref,I-5)

A) one year
B) two years
C) one year but bearing lubricated every six months
D) Two years but bearings lubricated every year

3.Circumstances during which DR compass is compensated & calibrated: : (ref,I-2A)

a) When engine changes
b) After heavy landing
c) New electrical system is placed near the DR compass
d) All

4.Magnetic compasses shall be inspected at the time of installation (ref,I-2)

a) There are sings of leakage of the liquid

b) Bubbles excessive sediments and discoluration are not present in the liquid
c) Compass is swung and correction card is in place in the aircraft
d) As “B” and “C” mounting is satisfactory

4.Pitot friction in compass (ref,I-2)

a) Does not exceed the manufacturer tolerance

b) Such tolerances are unknown the friction is determined by deflecting the compass needle 20
degrees and allowing to return to magnetic meridian the change in reading to the original
heading shall not exceed 4 degree
c) Deflecting the compass needle 10 degree and allowing it to return magnetic meridian. The
orange in indication from original heading shall not exceed 2 deg.
d) Both A & C correct

5. Calibration and compensation under how many circumstances carried out (ref,I-2A)

a) 10 b) 8 c) 9 d) 11

6. The compass shall be calibrated and compensated and entry to be made (ref, I-3)

a) 6 months propeller log book

b) 10 months and journey log book
c) 11 months and engine log book
d) aircraft long book

9. Inspection procedure (ref,I-4)

a) The accuracy of instruments shall be checked against an appropriate test instrument shall
conform to the requirements of the manufacturer / or DGCA
 b) Time pieces (clocks, watches) installed on aircraft having all up weight 3000 kgs and below can
be overhauled / repaired by any of the reputed commercial watch makers / repairing agency
c) Magnetic compasses, instruments overhauled / bench checked as per makers instructions /
DGCA requirement
d) All Correct

10. Storage conditions (ref,I-4)

5-60 degree C and humidity 80%

a) 5-20 degree C and humidity 70%

b) 5-22 degree C and humidity 70%
c) 5-25 degree C and humidity below 70% must be dust free .

11. Normally the storage / shelf life of instruments (ref,I-5)

a) Manufacturing / overhauling agencies recommendation

b) In the absence of “A” the shelf life of instruments (other than gyro instruments) should not
exceed 2 years
c) On completion of this period as “B” subjected to overhaul in accordance of approved schedules
d) As “C” the instruments which require periodic lubrication must be removed from storage and
lubricated by appropriately licensed and approved person and records maintain

12. The instruments considered unserviceable (ref,I-4)5

a) Storage conditions are not in accordance with accepted practice

b) Instruments history unknown
c) Instruments failure before their stipulated life
d) All the above

13. The shelf life of instruments (ref,I-5)

a) The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed 2 years at the end of first year in shelf
should be exercised as per approved test schedules and bearing lubricated as per makers
recommendation
b) The shelf life to be indicated on the serviceable tag
c) Instruments installed on aircraft which are not operated for a continuous period of six months
shall be subjected to bench check before use
d) All correct

Series I-II
Aircraft rule 57 requires that every aircraft shall be fitted and equipped with: (ref,I-7)
A) Instruments as required
B) Equipment as required
 C) Radio apparatus
D) All are correct

Time pieces can be overhauled/ repaired by any commercial watch maker of repute in respect of
aircraft with AUW less than: (ref,I-11)
A) 2000 kg
B) 3000 kg
C) 5000 kg
D) none of the above

All aircraft shall be fitted with ELTequipments as per requirements laid down in: (ref,I-15)
E) FAA TSO C91a
F) JAA TSH C91a
G) CAA TSO C91a
H) None is correct

All aircraft operating over water beyond a distance of 100 Nm from the seashore shall be equipped
with at least: (ref,I-15)
A) One water activated ELT
B) Two impact activated ELT
C) Three water activated ELT
D) None of the above

Which series lay down the minimum radio equipment which is required to be installed on an a/c:
(ref,I-11)
a) ‘I’ Part II
b) ‘R’ Part II
c) ‘C’ Part II
d) ‘R’ Part IV

Series I- III
The tolerance and the least count on the various test equipment must be: (ref,I-19)
a) Recommended by DGCA
b) Approved by DGCA
c) Recommended by manufacturer,
d) Recommended by DGCA/manufacturer in any case cannot be less than the equipment tested
60.Maintenance schedules of test equipment are approved by: (ref,I-19)
a) RAWO b) Manufacturer c) DGCA HQ d) None

Series I- IV
1.Standard & guidelines for clean rooms are given in: : (ref,I-21)
A) BS 5295
 B) BS 9255
C) AS 5295
D) None of the above
Suitable working temperature in a clean room should be: (ref,I-26)
A) 15° C
B) 20° C
C) 20 + 2° C
D) 5 - 25° C
3.Air velocity for horizontal flow clean room is normally: (ref,I-26)
A) 0.45 + 0.1 m/s
B) 0.30 + 0.05 m/s
C) both above are correct
d) none is correct

31. Environment for human comfort in a clean room is such that: (ref,I-26)

a) Temp. 20+2 deg. C b) RH 35 to 50%

c) Temp 5 to 25 deg C & 50% RH d) Both A & b

Series I- V

FDR calibration carried out at (ref,I-48)

a) every ‘5’ year

b) every 10 year

c) every 15 year

29. FDR installed on H/C should hold the recorded information for: (ref,I-46)

a) 25h b) 15h c) 10 h d) None

32. During C of A renewal, engine parameters are evaluated: (ref,I-48)

a) EPR, N1 N2 & EGT b) EPR, EFT & Fuel flow

c) EPR, EGT & RPM d) None

Series I-V I
2. CVR container shall be painted: (ref,I-60)
1. orange only
2. red
 3. black
4. orange or yellow

The CVR is to be installed so that: : (ref,I-61)

A) the CVR system should have bulkhead erase facility
B) there is no aural or visual means
C) the CVR system should have hot microphone to ensure clear recording of the aural
environment in the cockpit
D) none of the above

3.Pilot voice recorded : (ref,I-61)

a) IN CVR TRACK ‘2’
b) IN CVR TRACK ‘1’
c) IN CVR TRACK ‘4’

1. Regarding Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and Flight Data Recorder (FDR) an operator shall have,
A) Own facilities for replay of CVR as well as read out of FDR
B) Own facilities for readout of FDR and arrangement for replay of CVR.
C) Own facilities for replay of CVR and arrangement for read out of FDR
D) Outside arrangement for replay of CVR and read out of FDR

59. CVR container shall be: : (ref,I-60)

a) Painted bright yellow b) with under water locating device

c) Both d) None

Series I-V II
Q15) WHENEVER GPWS IS DE- ACTIVATED (ref,I=-65)
A) NO PLACARD IN COCKPIT IS REQUIRED
B) DATE & TIME SHALL BE MADE IN MAINTENANCE RECORD
C) FURTHER MAINTENANCE IS NOT REQUIRED
D) ALL OF THE ABOVE

2.AME certifying the maintenance of GPWS should possess license in (ref ,I=-65)
A) Category I
B) Category R
C) Either category I or R
D) None is correct

3.GPWS equipped in case of piston engine- (ref ,I=-63)

a) Seating capacity more than 9 & 5700 kg above weight
b) Seating capacity more than 8 & 5700 kg above weight
c) Seating capacity more than 9 & 15000 kg above weight
4.No person shall operate from 1st January 2007 piston engine aero plane if: (ref ,I=-64)
A) take off mass less than 5700 kg
B) take off mass more than 5700 kg or authorized to carry more than nine passengers
C) take off mass more than 5700 kg and authorized to carry more than nine passengers
D) none of the above

26. Equipment, which reduces the CFIT, is: (ref ,I=-63)

a) GPWS b) ACAS c) FDR d) None

Series I -V III
Q16) AN INDICATION GIVEN TO THE FLIGHT CREW RECOMMENDING A MANEUVER INTENDED TO PROVIDE SEPARATION FROM ALL
THREATS (ref,I=-68)
A) SSR
B) TA
C) RA
D) ACAS

ACAS can be maintained by AME licensed in (ref, I=-72)

A) Category R
B) Category V
C) Either A or B
D) Duly trained R/V

The correct statement is: (ref, I=-67)

A) There is no difference between ACAS I & ACAS II
B) There is no difference between ACAS II & TCAS II
C) TCAS II with change 7 is equivalent to ACAS II
D) None is correct

24. ACAS capable of generating Resolution advisory is (ref, I=-68)

a) ACAS I b) ACAS II c) Both d) None

d) None

Series- L-I
1) Minimum qualification and experience requirements for issue of AME license in (Ref,L-1)

Categories are covered by aircraft rule

a) 16 b) 56 c) 61 d) 65
2) Mechanical stream means the trades of (Ref,L-1)

a) Airframe and engine c) Radio autopilot

b) Electrical and instrument d) None of the above

3) Avionics stream means the trade of (Ref,L-1)

a) Radio NAV system c) Autopilot system

b) Electrical & instrument system d) All are correct

4) Concurrent experience means experience acquired simultaneously (Ref,L-1 )

a) In two or more allied categories of different streams

b) In two or more allied categories of same streams

c) On engine and instrument streams

d) Both A & B are correct

5) Recent experience means experience acquired in preceding _____ months (Ref, L-1)

a) Twenty –four b) Twelve c) Six d) Three

6) For AME examination paper III is conducted for (Ref,L-3)

a) Mechanical and avionics stream c) Both A and B are correct

b) Overhaul of propeller and autopilots d) None of the above

7) Paper IV of AME license exam is related to specifics type of (Ref,L-3)

a) Aircraft c) Electrical equipment

b) Engine d) All are correct

8) An AME desirous of an extension in category (LA) on aircraft of similar construction

 Shall have an additional experience of (Ref,L-4)

a) Three months c) Twelve months

b) Six months d) None of the above

9) For issue of AME license category R, the candidate must possess RTR(Aero) issued

By the ministry of communication at the time of operating (Ref,L-8)

a) Paper IV c) Both A & B are correct

b) Oral- cum- practical test d) None of the above

10) Possession of RTR (Aero) license issued by the ministry of communication

Is essential for issue of AME licence (Ref,L-8,9)

a) Category R c) Category X (Radio)

b) Category V ( Avionics) d) Both A& B are correct

11) An AME desirous of extension in category A(HA) on an aircraft of similar

Construction will have to show an additional experience of _____ months

a) Three b) Six c) Twenty d) Twenty-four

12) An applicant for license of helicopter of AUW below 3000kg category A &C Will have to show a total experience
of four year both on airframe and engine simultaneously out of which on type experience should be ____
month’s with___

Month’s recent experience (Ref,L-5)

a) 12, 3 b) 12, 6 c) 24, 6 d) 24, 12

13) AME license in category B is given to helicopter with AUW below : (Ref,L-5)

a) 2000 kg b) 3000 kg c) 5700 kg d) 15, 000 kg

14) A person having valid AME license covering aircraft below 57oo kg and desirous Of having an extension of
glider will have to show recent experience of___months.(Ref,L-6)

a) One b) Three c) Six d) Twelve

15) Aeronautical engineering experience required for gliders category A is___ year (s)

(Ref,L-6)

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

16) For extension on turbine engine in category C the candidate should have experience

On type of engine for ____ months out of which _____ months should be recent

(Ref,L-7)

a) 12, 3 b) 12, 6 c) 24, 6 d) 24, 3

17) AME license category D is issued for all piston engines below

(Ref,L-7)

a) 250 BHP b) 300 BHP c) 450 BHP d) 500 BHP

18) For issue of license in category V the candidate must possess (Ref,L-8)

a) Valid RTR (Aero) license c) Training certificate on integrated avionics

system
b) License in category E, I, R
d) All are correct

19) License in category X is issued for overhaul of

(Ref,L-9)

a) VP propeller c) Electrical system

b) Radio equipment d) All are correct

20) After passing all the papers, the applicant should submit an application to DGCA
 For issue of license along with the following certificates (Ref,L-10)

a) Medical / color vision c) Proof of age

b) License exam d) All are correct

21) AME license in the following categories will be endorsed according to the

Type of aircraft / engines (Ref,L-10)

a) A, B, C, D, b) A, B, C, D, E, I, c) A, B, C, D, E, R d) All are correct

22) License in category R (HA) will be endorsed as (Ref,L-11)

a) Valid for communication / navigation / Rader system installed on under mention aircraft

b) HF / VHF /ADF etc. on particular type of aircraft

c) Valid for heavy aircraft

d) Both A & B are correct

23) Airborne communication system includes (Ref,L-11)

a) VHF, HF, voice recorder c) As in B plus DME

b) As in A plus audio equipment d) As in C plus ADF

24) Airborne navigation system includes (Ref,L-11)

a) ADF, VOR, ILS c) b) + Hyperbolic equipment

b) a) + Omega/VLF d) c) + ATC transponder

25) Airborne ‘Radar system includes’ (Ref,L-11)

a) ADX weather radar c) Weather radar, DME, radio Altimeter

b) Weather radar DME d) None of the above

26. AME License in category “A” is equivalent to: (Ref,L-1)

 a) ICAO type –I license b) ICAO type II License

c) ICAO type-III license d) ICAO type IV License

26) For certification of ignition apparatus (LA) the AME should have his license in category

(Ref, L-12)

a) A b) B c) C d) Any one of the

above

27) Direct reading compass may be certified by person holding any category of AME license Provided the candidate
has passed the requisite paper and has _____number of Installations and experience of compensations :
(Ref,L-13)

a) four c) Eight d) None of the

b) Six above

28) Remote reading course pass can be certified by authorized person of category I or R

Who must have experience of _____ number of installations & compensations?

(Ref,L-11)

a) Two b) Four c) Six d) Eight

29) DGCA may grant license in category E & I for even light aircraft only if, (Ref,L-13)

a) Operator so demands

b) Personnel holding license in category A for that aircraft are not competent

c) Repeated defects are reported on electrical instrument system

d) Complexity and sophistication of aircraft system demands so

30) where evidence of approved training guided practical training and full time

ITT is produced experience requirements for issue / extension can be relaxed DGCA for

(Ref,L-13)

a) Individual AME c) None of the above

b) Individual operator d) Both A & B are correct
21. Light aircraft Category “A” experience required (Mark wrong Ans) (ref,L-4)

a) Four years aeronautical experience

b) Four years aeronautical engineering experience
c) 12 months must be on the type of aircraft
d) As “B” and ”C” 3 months must be the recent experience
22. For extension in Category “A” (ref,L-4)

a) 6 months b) 3 months

c) If the aircraft on which the extension desired of similar construction only three
months of total experience
d) None of the above
23. Category “A” heavy aircraft (ref,L-4)

a) 4 years aeronautical engineering experience

b) As “A” 12 months must be on the type of aircraft and out of 3 months must be
recent experience
c) 12 months only d) 3 months only
24. For helicopters Category “A” and “C” (ref,L-5)

a) Helicopters all up weight below 3000 Kgs will have total aeronautical experience
4 years
b) 4 years Engineering experience on Airframe and engines out of 12 months must
be particular type of helicopter
c) As “B” six months recent experience
d) As “C” for extension 3 months must be recent experience
25. Helicopter all up weight 3000 kgs above (ref,L-5)

a) Can apply separately “A” and “ C” after completing 4 years out of which 12
months must be particular type out of which 6 months recent on airframe or
engines
b) As “A” can have 4 years experience for both Category “A” and “C”
c) 4 years Aeronautical experience currently required
d) 4 years current aeronautical engineering experience
26. For Category “B” light helicopter (ref,L-5)

a) 4 years aero-engineering experience

b) !8 months for which the applicant is applying
c) As “B” 6 months experience on specific type
d) Only “A” is correct
27. On Category “B” below 3000 Kg all up weight (ref,L-5)

a) 6 months b) 3 months recent experience c) 12 months

experience
 d) As “A” 4 years aero-engineering experience in maintenance, repair, overhaul

helicopter / Light aircraft out of with in 18 months to be particular helicopter

type

28. Category “A” gliders (ref,L-6)

a) Aeronautical engineering experience 2 years

b) 6 months to be on practical type
c) Minimum 12 months experience on type glider
d) A and B are correct
29. Extension of category “A” gliders (ref,L-6)

a) Six months experience out of which 3 months recent experience

b) Persons having valid AME license below 5000 Kgs may have 3 months recent
experience on type of glider
c) Only “A” is correct
d) “A” only appropriate
30. Glider Category “B” (ref,L-6)

a) Total aeronautical engineering experience 3 years

b) 12 months on maintenance and overhaul gliders
c) 3 months recent experience
d) All correct

31. Extension in Category “B” (ref,L-6)

a) 6 months experience on type out of which 3 months recent

b) Persons having valid AME license in category “B” 3 months recent experience for

Applicant particular type

c) Both A&B d) All wrong

32. For Category “C” (ref,L-7)

a) 4 years engineering experience 12 months must be on the maintenance out of

which 6 months on the type and minimum 3 months recent experience
b) 6 months experience on the type of similar construction of valid license holder
on 3 months experience for extension required
c) Only “A” correct d) Both “A” and “B” correct
33. Category “C” (Gas turbines) (ref,L-7)

a) 4 years experience b) 24 months general maintenance and Inspection

c) 12months for the type out of which 6 months recent experience

d) All correct

34. Category “E and I R (ref,L-7,8)

a) 4 years general avionics experience

b) 12 months experience on the particular typed aircraft
c) 3 months must have current experience
d) All correct for extensions 6 months on type 3 months current experience

Series- L-II
Q.31) Flight engineer shall not exercise his privileges when

a) He is not carrying license with him c) Under the influence of drugs

b) Suffering from minor ailments d) All are correct

1) Application for appearing in AME license examination is submitted on: (Ref,L-20)

a) Form CA-9 b) Form CA- 9A c) Form CA- 9B d) Form CA- 109

2) Written papers of AME license examination comprise ______ papers (Ref,L-17)

a) General and basic c) General , basic and specific

b) General and specific d) Basic and specific

3) The basic paper consists of papers (Ref,L-17)

a) I, II b) II, III, IV c) A, II, III d) None of the

above

4) Exemption from paper IV (specific) can be granted to applicants who have (Ref,L-18)

a) Successfully completed DGCA – approved or manufacture course on particular

 Type of aircraft / engine system

b) Passed all the three basic paper in the first attempt

c) Secured more than 85% marks in each basic paper
d) None of the above

5) The pass percentage of a specific paper is (Ref,L-17)

a) 60% b) 70% c) 80% d) None of the above

6) After passing paper IV, an applicant can avail three chances of oral – cum – practical

Test within ________ months (Ref,L-19)

a) 12 c) 30 d) None of the
b) 24 above

7) a candidate declared failed in the oral –cum practical test can avail the subsequent

Chance, provided he has gained an additional experience of _________ months

(Ref,L-19)

a) Three c) Six d) None of the

b) Four above

8) Defense personnel appearing in AME license exam may be exempted from appearing in

Multiple choice question of

a) Papers I and II b) Papers II and III c) Papers I and III d) All the papers

9) Applicants who are not engaged in any organization but meets the requirements for Appearing in the AME
license exam (Ref,L-21)

a) Cannot appear in AME license exam

b) Can appear after obtaining permission from RAO

c) Can appear if application is forwarded by QCM previous organization

d) Can send application to director of Airworthiness directly

11) DGCA will recognize the approved course of a country provided it has been approve by the country and (Ref,L-
2)

a) Two months duration b) One month duration for light aircraft

 c) Two months duration for heavy aircraft d) None of the above

12) The results of all oral –cum – practical tests are decided by (Ref,L-23)

a) DGCA c) Sub – Regional airworthiness officer

b) Regional airworthiness officer d) None of the above

13) All applicants appearing for AME examination should submit on- the –job training

Record of last six months which should contain

a) Type of aircraft / engine / equipment

b) Registration number of aircraft / slab of engine equipment
c) Type of work in addition to A and B
d) Both A and B are correct

Series L-III
Q.45) Issue extension and renewal of AME license for maintenance and certification of (Ref,L-25)

Helicopter is covered _______ series part ________

a) L, II c) I, IV d) None of the
b) L, III above

Q.46) AME license for helicopter in category A and C is issued in combined form

Whose AUW is below? (Ref, L-25)

a) 2000 kg c) 5700 kg d) None of the

b) 3000 kg above

Q.47) For AME license for helicopter separate paper III for aircraft and engine is (Ref, L-25)

Required in cause of

a) Helicopter below 3000 kg AUW c) All helicopters

b) Helicopter above 3000 kg AUW d) None of the above

Q.48) A combined specific paper for airframe and engine is undertaken for helicopter

Whose AUW is below? (Ref, L-25)

a) 15 , 000 kg b) 5700 kg c) 3000 kg d) 2000 kg

Q.49) A helicopter engineer in category A can certify (Ref, L-26)

a) Main gearboxes c) Balancing / tracking of main /tail rotor

b) All parts of airframe for assembly and condition d) All are correct

Q.50) Certification of intermediate gear box and transmission shaft of helicopter for

Assembly condition and correct functioning falls under the purview of AME

License in category (Ref, L-26)

a) A b) B c) C d) E

Q.51) Certification of electrical system for condition proper functioning and rectification of

A minor defect of a small helicopter falls under the purview of AME licensed in category

(Ref, L-27)

a) A b) B c) E d) X

Q.52) an AME licensed in category C on helicopter can certify (Ref, L-27)

a) Balancing and tracking of rotor blades

b) Main and intermediate gearbox’s

c) Engine mounts / cowls for condition and security of attachment

d) All are correct

Q.53) Power check of engine is to be done by AME endorsed in category (Ref, L-27)

a) A c) A&C

b) B d) None of the above

Series L-IV
Q.54) Endorsement of AME licenses is contained in CAR series L part (Ref, L-29)

a) I b) II c) III d) IV
Q.55) CAR series L part IV deals with endorsement of AME license in view of

Revised grouping respect of (Ref, L-29)

a) Airframes c) Equipment
b) Airframes and engines d) All are correct

Q56) AMEs after introduction of revised grouping as per CAR series L part IV for

Extension of their AME license to cover addition airframe / engine in the

Same group would be exempted (Ref,L-29)

a) Paper III c) Both A & B are correct

b) Paper IV d) None of the above

Q.57) A candidate appearing for endorsement in category A will be exempted from (Ref,L-29)

Appearing in general paper III only if he has

a) experience of five year c) Endorsement in category C

b) Open rating in category D d) None of the above

Q.58) According to appendix A of CAR series L, part IV, group V contains (Ref,L-30)

a) Pressurized turbine engine (Jet) aircraft, AUW below 5700 kg

b) Pressurized turbine engine (piston) aircraft AUW below 5700 kg

c) Helicopter of AUW below 5700 kg

d) Both A & B are correct

Q.59) As per CAR series L part IV all turbine- engine helicopter with AUW less than 3000 kg come under group
(Ref,L-30)

a) IV b) V c) VI d) VII

Q.60) Turbofan / turbojet engines part L IV appendix B is in group (Ref, L-31)

a) IV b) V c) VI d) VII
Series L-V
1. Mandatory inspection is any inspection classified as mandatory by (Ref, L-33)

a) Operator c) Manufacture / DGCA

b) Operator / manufacture DGCA d) Operator / manufacture

2. The process of assembly includes operation like (Ref, L-33)

a) Connection c) As in B plus adjustment

b) As in A plus installation d) None of the above

3. Avionics system includes Electrical / instrument / Radio systems of (Ref, L-33)

a) Boeing 737 b) Boeing 747 c) Airbus 300 d) Airbus 320

4. The privileges of AME license shall be exercised in respect of such operation

Entered on his license, only in respect of (Ref, L-34)

a) Power plant / system c) Both A and B are correct

b) Aircraft d) None of the above

5. An AME exercise his privileges only when he has exercised appropriate privileges

For not less than ________ months during the preceding _______ months (Ref, L-35)

a) 6, 24 b) 3, 24 c) 3, 12 d) 6, 12

6. A rating in category A entities AME license holder for certification for (Ref,L-35)

a) Major repair c) Overhaul

b) Major modification d) None of the above

7. A rating in category ‘A’ entitles the AME license holder for certification of (Ref, L-35)

a) Minor repair b) Major repair c) Major modification d) All are correct

8. Holder of category A license (LA) is entitled to issue certificate of maintenance for: (Ref, L-36)

a) Instruments b) Electrical systems c) Autopilots d) All are correct

10. An AME licensed in category B can issue certificate of maintenance for overhaul

Repair and modification of (Ref, L-37)

a) Airframe c) Both A and B are correct

b) Engine controls d) None of the above

11. An AME license in category C undertake dismantling of (Ref, L-38)

a) Turbine casing c) Both A and B are correct

b) Piston engines d) None of the above

12. Certification of DR compass will be done by persons holding license in (Ref, L-40)

a) Category X c) Category D with note ‘valid for DR compass

b) Category A with note ‘valid for DR compasses d) Both b & c are correct

13. A person will be deemed to be engaged in aircraft maintenance only if (Ref, L-41)

a) He has under gone an approved refresher course

b) He is employed in production division of aircraft manufacturing

c) He is employed as an AME in an airline

d) All are correct

14. If an AME has certified the work on appropriate procedure sheets and is on outstation duty

Then the log book entry on his behalf can be made by (Ref, L-41)

a) Any other AME b) Chief engineer c) QCM d) All are correct

Series L-VI
1. Grant of open AME license is contained in CAR series L part (Ref, L-45)

a) IV b) V c) VI d) None of the above

16. Omnibus endorsement in respect of AME license in category A & B is given to (Ref, L-45)

Cover aircraft with _______ engine and AUW below ________

a) Single, 5700 kg b) Twin, 5700 kg c) Twin, 3000 kg d) Single 3000 kg

17. For obtaining open rating single –engine aircraft (all-metal construction) with AUW

Less than 3000 kg, an AME should have (Ref, L-45)

a) Held AME license for five years continuously c) Both A & B are correct
b) At least five types of aircraft endorsement on d) None of the above
his license

18. Obtaining open rating on single –engine aircraft (composite construction with

AUW not exceeding 3000 kg, an AME should have (Ref, L-45)

a) Held AME license in category A /B for five years continuously

b) At least three types of composite construction aircraft endorsement
c) Both A & b are correct
d) Held AME license in category A / B for three years

Q.78) Open rating in category D is given for piston engines not exceeding (Ref, L-46)

a) 500 BHP b) 400 BHP c) 300 BHP d) 250 BHP

Q.79) Open rating in category R is given for aircraft with AUW below (Ref, L-46)

a) 3000 kg b) 5700 kg c) 15,000 kg d) None of the

above

Q.80) An applicant desirous of having an open rating in category R for aircraft below (Ref, L-46)
 5700 kg AUW, must have held license for at least ______ years

a) Three b) Five c) Six d) None of the above

Q.81) Open AME license in category X (Radio equipment) is given for aircraft

With AUW less than (Ref, L-48)

a) 30W kg b) 5700 kg c) 15,000 kg d)None of the above

Q.82) a composite construction aero plan means its skin covering is of (Ref, L-49)

a) One materials c) Two or more different materials

b) Two materials d) At least three different materials

Q.83) a person holding open rating endorsement on his AME license can exercise his

Privileges after familiarizing him self with the new aircraft for a minimum

Period of ____________ months (Ref, L-49)

a) One b) Three c) Six d) Eight

Q.84) In case a person holding ‘open’ rating endorsement has not worked on the associated

Equipment for a minimum specified period he should (Ref, L-49)

a) Work for three months under the supervision c) Both A &B

of an appropriately licensed AME d) Either A or B
b) Undergo an oral check

Series L-VII

Q.85) AME’S license will be renewed only if in the preceding 24 months he has been

Engaged in aeronautical engineering duties for a period of ___________ months. (Ref, L-51)

a) Six b) Twelve c) Eighteen d) Twenty

Q.86) for renewal of AME licenses the applicant has to apply on form (Ref, L-51)
 a) CA-29 b) CA- 29(rev) c ) CA- 68A d) CA- 68B

Q.87) An AME will be considered to have been employed in AME activity for renewal of

License if he has been (Ref, L-51)

a) A member of flying crew

b) Refueling operator of approved fuel vendors
c) On active duty in organization stocking aircraft components
d) All are correct

Q.88) Application for renewal of AME license in respect of chief engineer has to

Be countersigned by (Ref, L-52)

a) QCM c) Pilot in charge d) None of the

b) RAO of flying above

Q.89) to keep his license valid an AME will have to submit a medical certificate ____ months

a) 12 b) 24 c) 36 d) 48

Q.90) When an AME license has remained lapsed for more than one year but less than

Two years, it can be renewed after (Ref, L-52)

a) An oral check by RAO c) A written test in paper IV

b) A warning to the AME d) All are correct

Q.91) An AME license that has remained lapsed for more than two years can be renewed after

(Ref, L-52)

a) Issue of warning c) Appearing for the specific paper

b) An oral check by the RAO d) Appearing for the specific paper and oral check

Q.92) AMES shall submit license for renewal at least ______ days before expiry (Ref, L-52)

a) 7 b) 15 c) 30 d) None of the above

Q.93) If an AME submit his license between 15-30 days after expiry it will be renewed (Ref, L-52)

a) Form the date of last validity c) With warning

b) Form the date of receipt d) Both A & B are correct

Q.94) License of AME working abroad will be renewed by (Ref, L-52)

a) DGCA HQ c) Airworthiness authority of that country

b) Indian embassy in that country d) As in C but in consultation with DGCA

1. Requirement for Renewal of AME License (Ref, L-51)

a) Should have continuous 6 months experience within proceeding 24 months

from the date of application
b) Within proceeding 24 months, applicant should have a total 6 months
experience
c) Experience should be on aircraft having AUW 3000 Kgs
d) All the above are correct

3. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. AME license renewal (Ref, L-52)

a) application should be submitted at least 15 days in advance to RAWO

b) If AME worked abroad for six months and another 6 months in India within the
preceding 24 months, only DGCA, Hqs. Can renew the license
c) If the requisite experience is shown in a foreign country, only DGCA Hqr. Can
renew the license
d) Both (a) and (c) are correct

Series L-VIII
Q.95) AME basic license is issued under the provision of CAR series L part (Ref, L-55)

a) V b) VI c) VII d) VIII

Q.96) Aeronautical engineering experience includes experience (Ref, L-55)

 a) In maintenance of aircraft / engines system c) Instructors in approved institution

b) Personnel under training in approved institute d) All of the above

Q.97) AME basic license is issued in (Ref, L-56)

a) Four categories b) Five categories c) Six categories d) Eight categories

Q.98) privileges for holder of AME basic license are that he can (Ref, L-56)

a) Certify an aircraft c) Seek approval by passing oral exam

b) Appear for paper IV d) Both B & C are correct

Q.99) The candidate for issue of AME basic license must have completed_____ years of age (Ref, L-56)

a) 17 c) 19

b) 18 d) 20

Series M-I

Who is responsible for compliance of SB’s and modifications? (ref,M-4)

a) Operator b) RAWO c) Manufacturer

d) Regulating authority of Manufacturer

Series I-I
1.Aircraft magnetic compass shall be calibrated and compensated: : (ref,I-2A)
E) at the time of initial installation
F) as per aircraft flight manual
G) both A & B are correct
H) none of the above
2.The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed: (ref,I-5)
E) one year
F) two years
G) one year but bearing lubricated every six months
H) Two years but bearings lubricated every year
3.Circumstances during which DR compass is compensated & calibrated: : (ref,I-2A)
e) When engine changes
f) After heavy landing
g) New electrical system is placed near the DR compass
h) All
4.Magnetic compasses shall be inspected at the time of installation (ref,I-2)

e) There are sings of leakage of the liquid

f) Bubbles excessive sediments and discoluration are not present in the liquid
g) Compass is swung and correction card is in place in the aircraft
h) As “B” and “C” mounting is satisfactory
4.Pitot friction in compass (ref,I-2)

e) Does not exceed the manufacturer tolerance

f) Such tolerances are unknown the friction is determined by deflecting the compass needle 20
degrees and allowing to return to magnetic meridian the change in reading to the original
heading shall not exceed 4 degree
g) Deflecting the compass needle 10 degree and allowing it to return magnetic meridian. The
orange in indication from original heading shall not exceed 2 deg.
h) Both A & C correct
5. Calibration and compensation under how many circumstances carried out (ref,I-2A) a) 10
b) 8 c) 9 d) 11

6. The compass shall be calibrated and compensated and entry to be made (ref, I-3)

e) 6 months propeller log book

f) 10 months and journey log book
g) 11 months and engine log book
h) aircraft long book
9. Inspection procedure (ref,I-4)

e) The accuracy of instruments shall be checked against an appropriate test instrument shall
conform to the requirements of the manufacturer / or DGCA
f) Time pieces (clocks, watches) installed on aircraft having all up weight 3000 kgs and below can
be overhauled / repaired by any of the reputed commercial watch makers / repairing agency
g) Magnetic compasses, instruments overhauled / bench checked as per makers instructions /
DGCA requirement
h) All Correct
10. Storage conditions (ref,I-4)
 1) 5-60 degree C and humidity 80%

d) 5-20 degree C and humidity 70%

e) 5-22 degree C and humidity 70%
f) 5-25 degree C and humidity below 70% must be dust free .
11. Normally the storage / shelf life of instruments (ref,I-5)

e) Manufacturing / overhauling agencies recommendation

f) In the absence of “A” the shelf life of instruments (other than gyro instruments) should not
exceed 2 years
g) On completion of this period as “B” subjected to overhaul in accordance of approved schedules
h) As “C” the instruments which require periodic lubrication must be removed from storage and
lubricated by appropriately licensed and approved person and records maintain
12. The instruments considered unserviceable (ref,I-4)5

e) Storage conditions are not in accordance with accepted practice

f) Instruments history unknown
g) Instruments failure before their stipulated life
h) All the above
13. The shelf life of instruments (ref,I-5)

e) The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed 2 years at the end of first year in shelf
should be exercised as per approved test schedules and bearing lubricated as per makers
recommendation
f) The shelf life to be indicated on the serviceable tag
g) Instruments installed on aircraft which are not operated for a continuous period of six months
shall be subjected to bench check before use
h) All correct
Series I-II
Aircraft rule 57 requires that every aircraft shall be fitted and equipped with: (ref,I-7)

A) Instruments as required b) Equipment as required c) Radio apparatus d)All are correct

Time pieces can be overhauled/ repaired by any commercial watch maker of repute in respect of
aircraft with AUW less than: (ref,I-11)
A) 2000 kg b) 3000 kg c) 5000 kg d)none of the above
All aircraft shall be fitted with ELTequipments as per requirements laid down in: (ref,I-15)
a) FAA TSO C91a b) JAA TSH C91a c) CAA TSO C91a d) None is correct
All aircraft operating over water beyond a distance of 100 Nm from the seashore shall be equipped
with at least: (ref,I-15)
1. One water activated ELT b) Two impact activated
ELT c) Three water activated ELT
2. None of the above
Which series lay down the minimum radio equipment which is required to be installed on an a/c:
(ref,I-11)
a)‘I’ Part II b)‘R’ Part II c) ‘C’ Part II d) ‘R’ Part IV
Series I- III
The tolerance and the least count on the various test equipment must be: (ref,I-19)

b) Recommended by DGCA b) Approved by DGCA c) Recommended by manufacturer,

d) Recommended by DGCA/manufacturer in any case cannot be less than the equipment tested
60.Maintenance schedules of test equipment are approved by: (ref,I-19)
a) RAWO b) Manufacturer c) DGCA HQ d) None
Series I- IV
1.Standard & guidelines for clean rooms are given in: : (ref,I-21)
1. BS 5295 b)BS 9255 c) AS 5295
d) None of the above
Suitable working temperature in a clean room should be: (ref,I-26)
a. 15° C b)20° C c) 20 + 2° d) 5 - 25° C
3.Air velocity for horizontal flow clean room is normally: (ref,I-26)
i. 0.45 + 0.1 m/s b) 0.30 + 0.05 m/s c) both above are
correct d) none is correct
31. Environment for human comfort in a clean room is
such that: (ref,I-26)
a) Temp. 20+2 deg. C b) RH 35 to 50% c) Temp 5 to 25 deg C & 50% RH d) Both
A&b
Series I- V
FDR calibration carried out at (ref,I-48)
a) every ‘5’ year b) every 10 year c) every 15 year
29. FDR installed on H/C should hold the recorded information for: (ref,I-46)

a) 25h b) 15h c) 10 h d) None

32. During C of A renewal, engine parameters are evaluated: (ref,I-48)

a) EPR, N1 N2 & EGT b) EPR, EFT & Fuel flow

c) EPR, EGT & RPM d) None

Series I-V I
2. CVR container shall be painted: (ref,I-60)
b. orange only b) red c) black c) orange or yellow
The CVR is to be installed so that: : (ref,I-61)
E) the CVR system should have bulkhead erase facility
F) there is no aural or visual means
G) the CVR system should have hot microphone to ensure clear recording of the aural
environment in the cockpit
H) none of the above
3.Pilot voice recorded : (ref,I-61)
a) IN CVR TRACK ‘2’ b) IN CVR TRACK ‘1’ c) IN CVR TRACK ‘4’
1. Regarding Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and Flight Data Recorder (FDR) an operator shall have,

E) Own facilities for replay of CVR as well as read out of FDR

F) Own facilities for readout of FDR and arrangement for replay of CVR.
G) Own facilities for replay of CVR and arrangement for read out of FDR
H) Outside arrangement for replay of CVR and read out of FDR

59. CVR container shall be: : (ref,I-60)

a) Painted bright yellow b) with under water locating device

c) Both d) None

Series I-V II
Q15) WHENEVER GPWS IS DE- ACTIVATED (ref,I=-65)
E) NO PLACARD IN COCKPIT IS REQUIRED
F) DATE & TIME SHALL BE MADE IN MAINTENANCE RECORD
G) FURTHER MAINTENANCE IS NOT REQUIRED
H) ALL OF THE ABOVE

2.AME certifying the maintenance of GPWS should possess license in (ref ,I=-65)
E) Category I
F) Category R
G) Either category I or R
H) None is correct
3.GPWS equipped in case of piston engine- (ref ,I=-63)
d) Seating capacity more than 9 & 5700 kg above weight
e) Seating capacity more than 8 & 5700 kg above weight
f) Seating capacity more than 9 & 15000 kg above weight
4.No person shall operate from 1st January 2007 piston engine aero plane if: (ref ,I=-64)
E) take off mass less than 5700 kg
F) take off mass more than 5700 kg or authorized to carry more than nine passengers
G) take off mass more than 5700 kg and authorized to carry more than nine passengers
H) none of the above
26. Equipment, which reduces the CFIT, is: (ref ,I=-63)

a) GPWS b) ACAS c) FDR d) None

Series I -V III
Q16) AN INDICATION GIVEN TO THE FLIGHT CREW RECOMMENDING A MANEUVER INTENDED TO PROVIDE SEPARATION FROM ALL
THREATS (ref,I=-68)
E) SSR
F) TA
G) RA
H) ACAS
ACAS can be maintained by AME licensed in (ref, I=-72)
E) Category R
F) Category V
G) Either A or B
H) Duly trained R/V
The correct statement is: (ref, I=-67)
E) There is no difference between ACAS I & ACAS II
F) There is no difference between ACAS II & TCAS II
G) TCAS II with change 7 is equivalent to ACAS II
H) None is correct
24. ACAS capable of generating Resolution advisory is (ref, I=-68)
a) ACAS I b) ACAS II c) Both d) None d) None