Mark Scheme (Results)

January 2019

Pearson Edexcel International

Advanced Subsidiary Level
In Chemistry (WCH01)
Paper 01 Core Principles in Chemistry
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January 2019
Publications Code WCH01_01_1901_MS
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2019
General Marking Guidance

 All candidates must receive the same treatment.

Examiners must mark the first candidate in exactly the
same way as they mark the last.

 Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates

must be rewarded for what they have shown they can
do rather than penalised for omissions.

 Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme

not according to their perception of where the grade
boundaries may lie.

 There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the

mark scheme should be used appropriately.

 All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be

awarded. Examiners should always award full marks if
deserved, i.e. if the answer matches the mark scheme.
Examiners should also be prepared to award zero marks
if the candidate’s response is not worthy of credit
according to the mark scheme.

 Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will

provide the principles by which marks will be awarded
and exemplification may be limited.

 When examiners are in doubt regarding the application

of the mark scheme to a candidate’s response, the team
leader must be consulted.

 Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the

candidate has replaced it with an alternative response.
Using the Mark Scheme

Examiners should look for qualities to reward rather than faults to penalise. This
does NOT mean giving credit for incorrect or inadequate answers, but it does
mean allowing candidates to be rewarded for answers showing correct
application of principles and knowledge. Examiners should therefore read
carefully and consider every response: even if it is not what is expected it may be
worthy of credit.

The mark scheme gives examiners:

 an idea of the types of response expected
 how individual marks are to be awarded
 the total mark for each question
 examples of responses that should NOT receive credit.

/ means that the responses are alternatives and either answer should receive
full credit.
( ) means that a phrase/word is not essential for the award of the mark, but
helps the examiner to get the sense of the expected answer.
Phrases/words in bold indicate that the meaning of the phrase or the actual
word is essential to the answer.
ecf/TE/cq (error carried forward) means that a wrong answer given in an earlier
part of a question is used correctly in answer to a later part of the same
question.

Candidates must make their meaning clear to the examiner to gain the mark.
Make sure that the answer makes sense. Do not give credit for correct
words/phrases which are put together in a meaningless manner. Answers must
be in the correct context.

Quality of Written Communication

Questions which involve the writing of continuous prose will expect candidates
to:
 write legibly, with accurate use of spelling, grammar and punctuation in order
to make the meaning clear
 select and use a form and style of writing appropriate to purpose and to
complex subject matter
 organise information clearly and coherently, using specialist vocabulary when
appropriate.
Full marks will be awarded if the candidate has demonstrated the above
abilities.
Questions where QWC is likely to be particularly important are indicated (QWC)
in the mark scheme, but this does not preclude others.
Section A (multiple choice)

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
1 The only correct answer is B 1

A is not correct because it is based on 1 m3 = 109 cm3

C is not correct because it is based on 1 m3 = 103 cm3

D is not correct because 0.0209 has just been multiplied by 106

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
2 The only correct answer is A 1

B is not correct because the mass in g has been divided by the

atomic number of Na

C is not correct because the mass in mg has been divided by the

molar mass of Na

D is not correct because the mass in mg has been divided by the

atomic number of Na

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
3 The only correct answer is C 1

A is not correct because displacement is a term sometimes used

for a redox reaction and this is not redox

B is not correct because the reaction produces hydrochloric acid

so no neutralisation occurs

D is not correct because this reaction is not redox

Question Correct Answer Mark
Number
4 The only correct answer is B 1

A is not correct because it does not take into account that there
are four atoms in a molecule of ammonia

C is not correct because it uses the formula NH4 for ammonia

and hence five atoms per molecule.

D is not correct because molar volume = 24 dm3 has been used

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
5 The only correct answer is C 1

A is not correct because the moles of silver chloride have been

halved not doubled

B is not correct because the moles of silver chloride have not been
doubled

D is not correct because the moles of silver chloride have been

doubled twice

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
6 The only correct answer is C 1

A is not correct because the mass of silver has not been doubled
B is not correct because this is the mass of copper doubled
D is not correct because the amount of Ag has been doubled twice

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
7 The only correct answer is C 1

A is not correct because this is the percentage of phosphorus

atoms in the molecule

B is not correct because this has been calculated using atomic

numbers rather than molar masses

D is not correct because this is the percentage by mass of oxygen

in the compound
Question Correct Answer Mark
Number
8 The only correct answer is D 1

A is not correct because the number of moles of hydrogen

formed has been taken as 1 rather than 3

B is not correct because the amount of aluminium has been

multiplied by 2/3 rather than 3/2

C is not correct because a 1:1 reacting ratio has been used

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
9 The only correct answer is D 1

A is not correct because the volume of CO2 has not been doubled
and the excess oxygen has been omitted

B is not correct because the excess oxygen has been omitted

C is not correct because the volume of CO2 has not been doubled

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
10 The only correct answer is B 1

A is not correct because this is the difference between the

maximum measured temperature and the starting temperature

C is not correct because this is the maximum measured

temperature

D is not correct because this is the extrapolated temperature at

3½ min not the temperature difference
Question Correct Answer Mark
Number
11 The only correct answer is B 1

A is not correct because ∆Ho has been calculated for the reverse
reaction

C is not correct because ∆Ho has been calculated for the reverse
reaction and using only 1 mol of carbon

D is not correct because ∆Ho has been calculated using only 1 mol
of carbon

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
12 The only correct answer is A 1

B is not correct because atomisation is always endothermic

C is not correct because melting is always endothermic

D is not correct because ionisation is always endothermic

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
13 The only correct answer is A 1

B is not correct because the units of ∆H are kJ mol−1

C is not correct because the units of ∆H are kJ mol−1

D is not correct because the units of ∆H are kJ mol−1

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
14 The only correct answer is D 1

A is not correct because all three species have the electronic

structure 1s2 2s2 2p6

B is not correct because all three species have the electronic

structure 1s2 2s2 2p6

C is not correct because all three species have the electronic

structure 1s2 2s2 2p6
Question Correct Answer Mark
Number
15 The only correct answer is D 1

A is not correct because alkali metals have the lowest ionisation

energy in each period

B is not correct because alkaline earth metals never have the

highest ionisation energy in a period

C is not correct because halogens always have a lower ionisation

energy than the noble gas in the same period.

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
16 The only correct answer is B 1

A is not correct because electrons repel electrons, nuclei repel

nuclei and nuclei attract electrons

C is not correct because electrons repel electrons

D is not correct because nuclei repel nuclei

Question Correct Answer Mark
Number
17 The only correct answer is C 1

A is not correct because the longest carbon chain has four

carbon atoms so it is a butane

B is not correct because the longest carbon chain has four carbon
atoms so it is a butane. (Also the numbering of the methyl groups
would be incorrect.)

D is not correct because there is not an extra carbon atom

between the chlorine and the carbon chain

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
18 The only correct answer is C 1

A is not correct because methane is a greenhouse gas

B is not correct because methane is a fossil fuel

D is not correct because while true, this is also the case for other
fossil fuels

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
19 The only correct answer is D 1

A is not correct because this is the number of carbon-carbon

single bonds.

B is not correct because this is the number of carbon-carbon

bonds.

C is not correct because this omits the carbon-carbon σ bond in

the double bond

Question Correct Answer Mark

Number
20 The only correct answer is D 1

A, B and C are not correct because the double bond is oxidised

and therefore the OH groups bond to C2 and C3
Section B

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark

Number
21(a)(i) The (gaseous) atom is struck by a high molecule 2
energy electron (removing an electron
and forming a positive ion)

ALLOW
Nickel / vapour is bombarded / struck by
high energy / high speed electron(s)
(1)

IGNORE
Just ‘electron gun /beam’

Ni + e(−) → Ni+ + 2e(−) Ni → Ni+ + e(−)

ALLOW
Any symbol in place of Ni (1)

IGNORE
State symbols even if incorrect
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
21(a)(ii) S: Acceleration and by an electric field Electron /electronic 2
ALLOW field
Focusing / collimating the ion stream Electric charge
and by a series of slits (1) Potential difference

IGNORE
Charged plates
Reference to velocity of ions

T: Deflection and by a magnetic field

ALLOW
magnet / electromagnet (1)

If no other mark is scored

acceleration and deflection score (1)
OR
electric field and magnetic field /
magnet / electromagnet score (1)

IGNORE use of incorrect or general

symbols for the ion

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark

Number
21(a)(iii) Neutral atoms / molecules are not 1
affected by electric and magnetic fields
OR
Only charged particles are affected by
electric and magnetic fields

ALLOW
So that it can be accelerated /
deflected
OR
So that it is affected by the electric /
magnetic field

Only ions register on the detector

OR
A neutral particle would not register on
the detector
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
21(b)(i) MP1 (Expression for Ar) 2

58 x 100 + 60 x 39.8
= 𝐴r
100 + 39.8
(1)

MP2 (evaluation to 1 dp)

= 58.569 = 58.6 58.7

81.9
TE on
58 x 60.2 + 60 x 39.8
= 𝐴r
100

= 58.8 (1)

Correct answer to 1 dp with no working

scores (2)
IGNORE
Units
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
21(b)(ii) The mass numbers do not need to be 2
linked to the percentages but if they are
used they must be correct

Algebraic method

58
Ni + 60Ni = 100

60
Ni/58Ni = 39.8/100 = 0.398 (1)

60
Ni = 0.398 x 58Ni

1.398 58Ni = 100; 58Ni = 71.53

58
Ni = 71.53(%)
60
Ni = 28.47(%) (1)

Simple method

139.8 is 100% So

39.8 x 100
39.8 𝑖𝑠 139.8
= 28.47% (1)

58
Ni = 71.53(%)
60
Ni = 28.47(%) (1)

Correct answers with no working scores(2)

ALLOW
Just the correct percentages without
identifying the isotopes

IGNORE SF except 1 SF

Use of Ar (instead of peak heights)

58𝑥 + 60(100 − 𝑥)
𝐴𝑟 = ⌊ ⌋
100
e.g.
Ar = 58.5694 gives 71.53 & 28.47 (2)
= 58.569 gives 71.55 & 28.45 (2)
= 58.6 gives 70 & 30 (1)
= 58.8 gives 60 & 40 (1)
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
58
21(b)(iii) Ni2+ (1) 2

(58)
Ni+ + e(−) → (58)Ni2+ + 2e(−)

ALLOW

(58)
Ni+ → (58)Ni2+ + e(−)
OR
(58)
Ni → (58)Ni2+ + 2e(−)
OR
(58)
Ni+ - e(−) → (58)Ni2+
OR
(58)
Ni - 2e(−) → (58)Ni2+ (1)

Any of these equations including the

mass number on the RHS scores (2)

IGNORE state symbols even if incorrect

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
21(c) In sport to detect the (illegal) use of measurement of 1
drugs isotope
concentrations
To measure blood alcohol levels
radio isotope
dating

In the pharmaceutical industry to pharmacists

EITHER
establish whether a desired compound
has been formed
OR
Test the purity of a sample

ALLOW
Any valid application of the
identification of chemical compounds

IGNORE
Just ‘to identify chemical compounds’
Generalisations e.g. ‘space research’
Drug testing

(Total for Question 21 = 12 marks)

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
22(a) This is (the enthalpy / heat / energy 2
change / produced / released) Required
when 1 mol of a substance is burned /
combusted

ALLOW atom
‘compound / reactant / element’ for
‘substance’ (1)

completely / in excess oxygen

and
under standard conditions
OR
1 atm / 1.0 x 105 Pa and a stated
temperature / 298 K / 25°C

ALLOW
‘air’ for ‘oxygen’ (1)

IGNORE
r.t.p / s.t.p.

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark

Number
22(b)(i) ∆E = 250 x 4.18 x 9.5 1
-1 -1
= 9927.5 (J) / 9.9275 kJ J mol / kJ mol

ALLOW
∆E = 250 x 4.2 x 9.5
= 9975 (J) / 9.975 kJ

IGNORE SF except 1 SF
IGNORE signs
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
22(b)(ii) ALLOW 3
Any value for ∆E

Molar mass of ethanol = 46 (1)

Amount of ethanol = 0.55/46
= 0.011957 mol
(1)
9927.5
Enthalpy of combustion = −
0.011957

= −830300 J mol−1
/ −830.3 kJ mol−1
(1)
IGNORE SF except 1 SF

Correct answer including sign & units

without working scores (3)

(+)830300 / (+)830.3 scores (2)

COMMENT
Do not penalise premature correct
rounding (e.g. 0.012 for 0.011957 which
gives −827 kJ mol−1)

Here and throughout the paper allow

kJ mol− for kJ mol−1

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark

Number
22(c)(i) 100 x (1367 − 840) 1
Percentage error =
1367

= 38.552 (%)
IGNORE SF except 1 SF
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
*22(c)(ii) Uncertainties in measurement result in 2
random variations above and below the
expected value
ALLOW
Just ‘uncertainties are random’ (1)

(Almost) all the values obtained by the

students must have been below the
Data Book value indicating a systematic
error
ALLOW
Just ‘the error is systematic’ (1)

If no other mark is scored

‘Uncertainties are too small to account
for the difference’ scores (1)
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
*22(c)(iii) Any of these pairs 2

Heat loss (to the surroundings) (from

any part of the apparatus) (1)

This energy does not heat up the water

(1)

OR
Incomplete combustion (of ethanol)
(1)

The ethanol produces less energy

(1)

OR
Evaporation of ethanol (1)

The ethanol (apparently) produces less

energy (per g) (1)

OR
The calculation does not take into
account heating of the container /
apparatus (1)

This energy does not heat up the water

(1)
IGNORE
So the measured energy / temperature
change is too low

Explanations of cause, eg, ‘no

insulation’, ‘lack of stirring’
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
22(d)(i) ∆Hco 3
C3H8O(l) + 4½O2(g) 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)

∆Hfo(C3H8O(l)) [3x∆Hco(C(s))] 4x∆Hco(H2(g))

3C(s, graphite)) + 4H2(g) + 5O2(g)

All three substances in box

ALLOW
C(s) (1)

All three states and coefficients in box (1)

Enthalpy changes with arrows (species & states

not required but if given must be correct) Omission
of
ALLOW standard
symbol
∆Hfo (H2O(l)) for ∆Hco(H2(g)) (1)

IGNORE
∆Ho coefficients even if incorrect
omission of second arrow on RHS
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
22(d)(ii) ∆Hfo(C3H8O(l)) 2
= 3x∆Hco(C(s)) + 4x∆Hco(H2(g)) − ∆Hco(C3H8O(l))

= 3x−394 + 4x−286 –(−2021) (1)

= −305 (kJ mol−1) (1)

Incorrect
(+)305 scores (1) units

Omission of coefficient (3x and 4x) gives

(+)1341 scores (1)

IGNORE SF except 1 SF

Correct answer with no working scores (2)

COMMENT
Omission of any one term from the calculation
scores (0)

(Total for Question 22 = 16 marks)

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
23(a)(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 [Ne] 3s2 3p5 1
OR
1s2 2s2 2px2 2py2 2pz2 3px2 3py2 3pz1

ALLOW
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark

Number
23(a)(ii) x x 1

x x
H Cl
o x

x x
ALLOW
Any symbols for electrons
Bond pair side by side
Omission of circles
Inclusion of a horizontal line for the bond
Non-bonding electrons unpaired

IGNORE
Inner shell electrons even if incorrect
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
23(a)(iii) Any three from four: 3

MP1

The (half-filled) 1s orbital of hydrogen

(1)

MP2
and a (half-filled) 3p orbital of chlorine
(1)
In MP1 and MP2 penalise the omission of
principal quantum number (1/3) once only
Penalise the use of subshell for orbital
once only

MP3
overlap of the orbitals along the axis
between the atoms

ALLOW

Head-on overlap
OR
Bond formed is a σ bond
OR
A diagram
e.g.

H Cl

ALLOW
Diagram with one 3p lobe (1)

MP4
Producing a region of high electron
density (between the two nuclei) (1)
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
23(b)(i) _ 1
x o

o o
x x
o o x Cl x
Na
o o
o o x x

ALLOW
Any symbols for electrons
Na+ with no electrons
Brackets omitted
Any relative size for ions

IGNORE
Inner shell electrons even if incorrect
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
*23(b)(ii) 3
Sodium chloride is (almost) 100% ionic (1)
Silver chloride is partly / significantly
covalent (1)
EXPLANATION 1
silver ion / Ag+ is polarising
silver / Ag
ALLOW polarising
has a high(er) charge density
silver ion has a
OR high(er) charge
chloride ion / Cl− is polarised / distorted Ag2+ / Ag3+
(by Ag+)
IGNORE
Chlorine / Cl
Just ‘polarisation occurs’ polarised
OR
there is orbital overlap between silver and
chloride ions
EXPLANATION 2
large electronegativity difference between
Reference to
Na and Cl
electronegativit
and y differences
small(er) electronegativity difference between ions
between Ag and Cl (1)

ALLOW
Reverse arguments

IGNORE
Reference to radius of Ag+

(Total for Question 23 = 9 marks)

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
24(a) A is fractional distillation 4
or
fractionation (1)

IGNORE
Just ‘distillation’

B is cracking
OR
catalytic cracking
OR
thermal cracking (1)

C is reforming forming /
OR formation/
reformation deforming /
OR dehydrogenation/
catalytic reforming elimination
OR
catalytic reformation (1)

D is polymerisation
OR
addition polymerisation
OR
Polymerising (1)
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
24(b) The compounds evaporate / boil 2
and
condense
OR
evaporation / boiling and condensation

ALLOW
Liquefy for condensation (1)

The separation/process depends on melting

(differences in) boiling temperature / temperature /
boiling point / melting point
boiling temperature range
OR density
All the compounds in the naphtha
fraction boil at similar temperatures /
over a narrow range of temperature (1)
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
24(c) C10H22 → C8H18 + C2H4 2

OR
Displayed / skeletal / structural formulae or
any combination

LHS (1)

RHS (1)

Correct equations with an alkane reactant

with more than 10 carbons but forming
octane and more than one molecule of
ethene score (1)

e.g.
C12H26 → C8H18 + 2C2H4

Balanced correct equations with an alkane

reactant with more than 10 carbons and a
product other than octane score (0)

e.g.
C12H26 → C10H22 + C2H4

IGNORE
State symbols even if incorrect

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark

Number
24(d)(i) C8H18 → C8H16 + H2 1
OR
Displayed / skeletal / structural
formulae or any combination

IGNORE
State symbols even if incorrect
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
24(d)(ii) (because) it has a high(er) octane rating / 2
number (than octane)
OR
to increase the octane rating / number (of
petrol)
ALLOW RON (Research Octane Number)
for octane number (1)

(this gives) smoother / more efficient

combustion (of the petrol)
OR
reduces engine knocking
OR
prevents pre-ignition (1)

IGNORE
So petrol burns more easily / faster
prevents auto-ignition
Any reference to energy produced

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark

Number
24(e) Repeat unit 2
with C>2
n

Repeat unit of poly(ethene), ie, brackets and

n omitted (1)

Everything else (1)

suffix ‘n’ on
LHS of
equation

(Total for Question 24 = 13 marks)

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
25(a)(i) Ultraviolet / UV radiation 1

ALLOW
Ultraviolet / UV light
Ultraviolet / UV rays
Ultraviolet / UV
Sunlight sun
light

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark

Number
25(a)(ii) a single / one / an electron (1) 2

IGNORE
unpaired electron

transferring / moving from the bond to

one of the (chlorine) atoms joined by the to each chlorine
bond atom

ALLOW
transferring / moving from a bond to an
atom (1)

IGNORE
Reference to / description of homolytic /
heterolytic bond fission
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number

CH4 + Cl∙ → CH3∙ + HCl

25(a)(iii) 2
(1)

CH3∙ + Cl2 → CH3Cl + Cl∙ (1)

ALLOW

Equations in either order

Penalise omission of the unpaired

electron or extra unpaired electron once
only

Penalise use of Br once only

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
25(a)(iv) MP1 3
In propagation one (chlorine) radical
produces one molecule of
chloromethane and a new radical in each
sequence

ALLOW
In propagation free radical(s) are
regenerated (1)

MP2
So the propagation stage keeps
repeating (until radicals are removed in
the termination stage) (1)

IGNORE
Just ‘chain reaction occurs’

MP3
In termination two radicals / a methyl
radical and a chlorine radical form one
molecule of chloromethane and no other
product

ALLOW
In termination two radicals form one
product (1)

If no other mark is scored, ‘the

termination forming chloromethane is
one of three possible terminations’
scores (1)

IGNORE
Just ‘termination removes free radicals’
Reference to other terminations
Equations
Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark
Number
25(b)(i) Electrophilic addition (reaction) 1
OR
Heterolytic electrophilic addition

ALLOW
Electrophile addition

Question Acceptable Answer Reject Mark

Number
25(b)(ii) any bromoalcohol 1

ALLOW
Any correct formula that clearly shows
the Br atoms on C1 and C2

IGNORE
Names even if incorrect
Reaction equations
Mechanisms

(Total for Question 25 = 10 marks)

TOTAL FOR SECTION B = 60 MARKS

TOTAL FOR PAPER = 80 MARKS
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