Biology, 8e (Campbell)

Chapter 1 I ntroduction: Themes in the Study of Life

Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with living things?
A) evolutionary adaptations
B) energy processing
C) responding to the environment
D) growth and reproduction
E) all of the above
2) Which of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization from
the least to the most complex level?
A) organelle, tissue, biosphere, ecosystem, population, organism
B) cell, community, population, organ system, molecule, organelle
C) organism, community, biosphere, molecule, tissue, organ
D) ecosystem, cell, population, tissue, organism, organ system
E) molecule, cell, organ system, population, ecosystem, biosphere
3) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a
A) biosystem.
B) community.
C) population.
D) ecosystem.
E) family.
4) In terms of the hierarchical organization of life, a bacterium is at the __________ level of
organization, whereas a human is at the __________ level of organization.
A) single-celled organism; multicellular organism
B) single organelle; organism
C) organelle; organ system
D) single tissue; multicellular organism
E) tissue; organism
5) Which of these is a correct representation of the hierarchy of biological organization from
least to most complex?
A) organelle of a stomach cell, digestive system, large intestine, small intestine, intestinal
tissue, organism
B) organelle of an intestinal cell, digestive system, small intestine, large intestine,
intestinal tissue, organism
C) molecule, intestinal cell organelle, intestinal cell, intestinal tissue, digestive system,
organism
D) molecule, small intestine, large intestine, intestinal tissue, digestive system, organism
E) molecule, digestive system, digestive cell organelle, small intestine, large intestine,
intestinal cell, organism
6) The main source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is
A) light energy.
B) kinetic energy.
C) thermal energy.
D) chemical energy.
E) ATP.
7) The dynamics of any ecosystem include the following major processes:
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A) the flow of energy from sunlight to producers
B) the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers
C) the recycling of chemical nutrients
D) the flow of energy to producers and the recycling of nutrients
E) the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers, and the recycling
of chemical nutrients.
8) For most ecosystems __________ is (are) the ultimate source of energy, and energy leaves the
ecosystem in the form of __________.
A) sunlight; heat
B) heat; light
C) plants; animals
D) plants; heat
E) producers; consumers
9) The lowest level of biological organization that can perform all the activities required for life
is the
A) organelle–for example, a chloroplast.
B) cell–for example, a skin cell.
C) tissue–for example, nervous tissue.
D) organ system–for example, the reproductive system.
E) organism–for example, an amoeba, dog, human, or maple tree.
10) Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is not correct?
A) Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
B) Prokaryotic cells contain small membrane-enclosed organelles.
C) Eukaryotic cells contain a membrane-bound nucleus.
D) DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is present in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic
cells.
E) DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is present in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
11) Which of the following is reflective of the phrase ʺthe whole is greater than the sum of its
partsʺ?
A) high-throughput technology
B) emergent properties
C) natural selection
D) reductionism
E) feedback regulations
12) In order to understand the chemical basis of inheritance, one must understand the molecular
structure of DNA. This is an example of the application of __________ to the study of
biology.
A) evolution
B) emergent properties
C) reductionism
D) the cell theory
E) feedback regulation
13) A type of protein critical to all cells is organic catalysts called
A) feedback activators.
B) feedback inhibitors.
C) enzymes.
D) metabolites.
E) nutrients.
14) Once labor begins in childbirth, contractions increase in intensity and frequency until
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delivery. The increasing labor contractions of childbirth are an example of
A) a bioinformatic system.
B) positive feedback.
C) negative feedback.
D) feedback inhibition.
E) enzymatic catalysis.
15) When blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin, and as a result blood glucose
level declines. When blood glucose level is low, the pancreas secretes glucagon, and as a
result blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of blood glucose level is the result of
A) catalytic feedback.
B) positive feedback.
C) negative feedback.
D) bioinformatic regulation.
E) protein-protein interactions.
16) Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms?
A) informatics
B) schematic biology
C) taxonomy
D) genomics
E) evolution
17) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?
A) a membrane-bounded nucleus
B) a cell wall made of cellulose
C) ribosomes
D) flagella or cilia that contain microtubules
E) linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein
18) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?
A) Bacteria and Eukarya
B) Archaea and Monera
C) Eukarya and Monera
D) Bacteria and Protista
E) Bacteria and Archaea
19) Species that are in the same __________ are more closely related than species that are only in
the same __________.
A) phylum; class
B) family; order
C) class; order
D) family; genus
E) kingdom; phylum
20) Two species that belong to the same genus must also belong to the same
A) kingdom.
B) phylum.
C) class.
D) order.
E) all of the above
21) Which of these is reflective of the hierarchical organization of life from most to least
inclusive?
A) kingdom, order, family, phylum, class, genus, species
B) phylum, class, order, kingdom, family, genus, species
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C) kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
D) genus, species, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family
E) class, order, kingdom, phylum, family, genus, species
22) Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
A) the ubiquitous use of catalysts by living systems
B) the universality of the genetic code
C) the structure of the nucleus
D) the structure of cilia
E) the structure of chloroplasts
23) Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection?
A) requires genetic variation
B) results in descent with modification
C) involves differential reproductive success
D) B and C only
E) A, B, and C
24) Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification which stated that
organisms of a particular species are adapted to their environment when they possess
A) non-inheritable traits that enhance their survival in the local environment.
B) non-inheritable traits that enhance their reproductive success in the local environment.
C) non-inheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local
environment.
D) inheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local
environment.
E) inheritable traits that decrease their survival and reproductive success in the local
environment.
25) Evolution is biologyʹs core theme that ties together all the other themes. This is because
evolution explains
A) the unity and diversity of life.
B) how organisms become adapted to their environment through the differential
reproductive success of varying individuals.
C) why distantly related organisms sometimes resemble each other.
D) explains why some organisms have traits in common.
E) all of the above
26) The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately
as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as
A) hypothesis-based science.
B) discovery science.
C) experimental science.
D) quantitative science.
E) qualitative science.
27) Collecting data based on observation is an example of __________; analyzing this data to
reach a conclusion is an example of __________ reasoning.
A) hypothesis-based science; inductive
B) the process of science; deductive
C) discovery science; inductive
D) descriptive science; deductive
E) hypothesis-based science; deductive
28) What is a hypothesis?
A) the same thing as an unproven theory
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B) a tentative explanation that can be tested and is falsifiable
C) a verifiable observation sensed directly, or sensed indirectly with the aid of scientific
instrumentation
D) a fact based on qualitative data that is testable
E) a fact based on quantitative data that is falsifiable
29) A controlled experiment is one in which
A) the experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate.
B) the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully
observe all reactions and process all experimental data.
C) there are at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment.
D) there are at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables.
E) there is one group for which the scientist controls all variables.
30) Why is it important that an experiment include a control group?
A) The control group is the group that the researcher is in control of; it is the group in
which the researcher predetermines the nature of the results.
B) The control group provides a reserve of experimental subjects.
C) A control group is required for the development of an ʺif, thenʺ statement.
D) A control group assures that an experiment will be repeatable.
E) Without a control group, there is no basis for knowing if a particular result is due to the
variable being tested or to some other factor.
31) The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as
A) technology.
B) deductive science.
C) inductive science.
D) anthropologic science.
E) pure science.
Biology, 8e (Campbell)
Chapter 12 T he Cell Cycle
Multiple-Choice Questions
1) The centromere is a region in which
A) chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase.
B) metaphase chromosomes become aligned at the metaphase plate.
C) chromosomes are grouped during telophase.
D) the nucleus is located prior to mitosis.
E) new spindle microtubules form at either end.
2) What is a chromatid?
A) a chromosome in G1 of the cell cycle
B) a replicate chromosome
C) a chromosome found outside the nucleus
D) a special region that holds two centromeres together
E) another name for the chromosomes found in genetics
3) How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent
cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?
A) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
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C) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of
DNA.
D) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of
DNA.
E) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of
DNA.
4) Which term describes two centrosomes arranged at opposite poles of the cell?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase
5) Which term describes centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase
6) Which term describes centromeres uncoupling, sister chromatids separating, and the two
new chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase
7) A cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce
two nuclei each containing how many chromosomes?
A) 12
B) 16
C) 23
D) 46
E) 92
8) Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal
cells?
A) centromere
B) centrosome
C) centriole
D) chromatid
E) kinetochore
9) Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not
cytokinesis, the result would be a cell with
A) a single large nucleus.
B) high concentrations of actin and myosin.
C) two abnormally small nuclei.
D) two nuclei.
E) two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA.
10) Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals is that
in plants
A) the spindles contain microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal spindles
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do not contain microfibrils.
B) sister chromatids are identical, but they differ from one another in animals.
C) a cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is
initiated at that stage.
D) chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals
chromosomes do not become attached until anaphase.
E) spindle poles contain centrioles, whereas spindle poles in animals do not.
11) The formation of a cell plate is beginning across the middle of a cell and nuclei are reforming
at opposite ends of the cell. What kind of cell is this?
A) an animal cell in metaphase
B) an animal cell in telophase
C) an animal cell undergoing cytokinesis
D) a plant cell in metaphase
E) a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis
12) Chromosomes first become visible during which phase of mitosis?
A) prometaphase
B) telophase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
E) anaphase
13) During which phases of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two chromatids?
A) from interphase through anaphase
B) from G1 of interphase through metaphase
C) from metaphase through telophase
D) from anaphase through telophase
E) from G2 of interphase through metaphase
14) The somatic cells derived from a single-celled zygote divide by which process?
A) meiosis
B) mitosis
C) replication
D) cytokinesis alone
E) binary fission
15) Imagine looking through a microscope at a squashed onion root tip. The chromosomes of
many of the cells are plainly visible. In some cells, replicated chromosomes are aligned along
the center (equator) of the cell. These particular cells are in which stage of mitosis?
A) telophase
B) prophase
C) anaphase
D) metaphase
E) prometaphase
16) Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?
A) to increase their potential energy
B) to allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking
C) to allow the chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope
D) to allow the sister chromatids to remain attached
E) to provide for the structure of the centromere
17) Which of the following best describes how chromosomes move toward the poles of the
spindle during mitosis?
A) The chromosomes are ʺreeled inʺ by the contraction of spindle microtubules.
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B) Motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle
microtubules.
C) Non-kinetochore spindle fibers serve to push chromosomes in the direction of the
poles.
D) both A and B
E) A, B, and C
18) Which of the following is a function of those spindle microtubules that do not attach to
kinetochores?
A) maintaining an appropriate spacing among the moving chromosomes
B) producing a cleavage furrow when telophase is complete
C) providing the ATP needed by the fibers attached to kinetochores
D) maintaining the region of overlap of fibers in the cellʹs center
E) pulling the poles of the spindles closer to one another
19) If mammalian cells receive a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, they will
A) move directly into telophase.
B) complete the cycle and divide.
C) exit the cycle and switch to a nondividing state.
D) show a drop in MPF concentration.
E) complete cytokinesis and form new cell walls.
20) Cells that are in a nondividing state are in which phase?
A) G0
B) G2
C) G1
D) S
E) M
21) Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle
that requires cyclin to become catalytically active?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
22) Which of the following triggers the cellʹs passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
23) This is the shortest part of the cell cycle:
A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M
24) DNA is replicated at this time of the cell cycle:
A) G0
B) G1
C) S
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D) G2
E) M
25) The ʺrestriction pointʺ occurs here:
A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M
26) Nerve and muscle cells are in this phase:
A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M
27) Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in
concentration during the cell cycle, are called
A) ATPases.
B) kinetochores.
C) centrioles.
D) proton pumps.
E) cyclins.
28) Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following?
A) As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting
their size and ability to produce control factors.
B) As cells become more numerous, the cell surface proteins of one cell contact the
adjoining cells and they stop dividing.
C) As cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce begin to compete
with each other, such that the proteins produced by one cell essentially cancel those
produced by its neighbor.
D) As cells become more numerous, more and more of them enter the S phase of the cell
cycle.
E) As cells become more numerous, the level of waste products increases, eventually
slowing down metabolism.
29) Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?
A) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
B) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
C) They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
D) B and C only
E) A, B, and C
30) One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells
A) are unable to synthesize DNA.
B) are arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle.
C) continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together.
D) cannot function properly because they are affected by density-dependent inhibition.
E) are always in the M phase of the cell cycle.
31) The decline of MPF activity at the end of mitosis is due to
A) the destruction of the protein kinase Cdk.
B) decreased synthesis of cyclin.
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C) the degradation of cyclin.
D) synthesis of DNA.
E) an increase in the cellʹs volume-to-genome ratio.
32) Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?
A) condensation of the chromosomes
B) replication of the DNA
C) separation of sister chromatids
D) spindle formation
E) separation of the spindle poles
Biology, 8e (Campbell)
Chapter 13 M eiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
Multiple-Choice Questions
1) What is a genome?
A) The complete complement of an organismʹs genes
B) A specific set of polypeptides within each cell
C) A specialized polymer of four different kinds of monomers
D) A specific segment of DNA that is found within a prokaryotic chromosome
E) An ordered display of chromosomes arranged from largest to smallest
2) Which of the following statements about genes is incorrect?
A) Genes correspond to segments of DNA.
B) Many genes contain the information needed for cells to synthesize enzymes and other
proteins.
C) During fertilization, both the sperm and the ovum contribute genes to the resulting
fertilized egg.
D) One gene only is used in a specific cell type.
E) Genetic differences can result from changes in the DNA called mutations.
3) Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction differ in all but which of the following ways?
A) Individuals reproducing asexually transmit 100% of their genes to their progeny,
whereas individuals reproducing sexually transmit only 50%.
B) Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically identical to the parents,
whereas sexual reproduction gives rise to genetically distinct offspring.
C) Asexual reproduction involves a single parent, whereas sexual reproduction involves
two.
D) Asexual reproduction requires only mitosis, whereas sexual reproduction always
involves meiosis.
E) Asexual reproduction is utilized only by fungi and protists, whereas sexual
reproduction is utilized only by plants and animals.
4) Asexual reproduction results in identical offspring unless which of the following occurs?
A) Natural selection
B) Cloning
C) Crossing over
D) Mutation
E) Environmental change
5) The human genome is minimally contained in which of the following?
A) Every human cell
B) Each human chromosome
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C) The entire DNA of a single human
D) The entire human population
E) Each human gene
6) A geneʹs location along a chromosome is known as which of the following?
A) Allele
B) Sequence
C) Locus
D) Variant
E) Trait
7) What is a karyotype?
A) The set of unique physical characteristics that define an individual
B) The collection of all the mutations present within the genome of an individual
C) The combination of chromosomes found in a gamete
D) A system of classifying cell nuclei
E) A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized
according to size and shape
8) The human X and Y chromosomes
A) are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
B) are of approximately equal size and number of genes.
C) are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
D) include genes that determine an individualʹs sex.
E) include only genes that govern sex determination.
9) Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C) Each cell has 8 homologous pairs.
D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
E) A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes.
10) Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which
do all sexual life cycles have in common?
I. Alternation of generations
II. Meiosis
III. Fertilization
IV. Gametes
V. Spores
A) I, IV, and V
B) I, II, and IV
C) II, III, and IV
D) II, IV, and V
E) All of the above
11) Which of these statements is false?
A) In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal
chromosome.
B) In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is
female (XX) or male (XY).
C) Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization,
forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.
D) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
E) Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization.
12
12) In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in
A) spores.
B) gametophytes.
C) zygotes.
D) sporophytes.
E) clones.
13) Which of the following is an example of alternation of generations?
A) A grandparent and grandchild each has dark hair, but the parent has blond hair.
B) A diploid plant (sporophyte) produces, by meiosis, a spore that gives rise to a
multicellular, haploid pollen grain (gametophyte).
C) A diploid animal produces gametes by meiosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization
to produce a diploid zygote.
D) A haploid mushroom produces gametes by mitosis, and the gametes undergo
fertilization, which is immediately followed by meiosis.
E) A diploid cell divides by mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells, which then
fuse to produce a tetraploid cell.
14) A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of
the following?
A) It must be human.
B) It must be a primate.
C) It must be an animal.
D) It must be sexually reproducing.
E) Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.
15) A karyotype results from which of the following?
A) A natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus
B) An inherited ability of chromosomes to arrange themselves
C) The ordering of human chromosome images
D) The cutting and pasting of parts of chromosomes to form the standard array
E) The separation of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I of meiosis
16) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is
A) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
B) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
C) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
D) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
E) tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
For the following questions, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.
I. Prophase IV. Prophase II
II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II
III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II
IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II
17) Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle; alignment determines
independent assortment.
A) I
B) II
C) IV
D) VII
E) VIII
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18) Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs; crossing over may occur.
A) I
B) II
C) IV
D) VI
E) VII
19) Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate.
A) II
B) III
C) IV
D) V
E) VII
20) Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?
A) Homologous chromosomes are separated.
B) The chromosome number per cell is conserved.
C) Sister chromatids are separated.
D) Four daughter cells are formed.
E) The sperm cells elongate to form a head and a tail end.
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14
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15
D) A synaptonemal complex
E) A cleavage furrow
The following questions refer to the essential steps in meiosis described below.
1. Formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus
2. Alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate
3. Separation of sister chromatids
4. Separation of the homologues; no uncoupling of the centromere
5. Synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs
27) From the descriptions above, which of the following is the order that most logically
illustrates a sequence of meiosis?
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
C) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
D) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
E) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
28) Which of the steps take place in both mitosis and meiosis?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 2 and 3 only
E) 2, 3, and 5
29) Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
A) Chromosome replication
B) Synapsis of chromosomes
C) Production of daughter cells
D) Alignment of chromosomes at the equator
E) Condensation of chromatin
30) A tetrad includes which of the following sets of DNA strands?
A) Two single-stranded chromosomes that have synapsed
B) Two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed
C) Four sets of sister chromatids
D) Four sets of unique chromosomes
E) Eight sets of sister chromatids
31) Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know which of the following is
occurring?
A) Asexual reproduction
B) Meiosis II
C) Anaphase II
D) Crossing over
E) Separation of homologs
32) How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species?
A) By allowing independent assortment of chromosomes
B) By allowing fertilization
C) By increasing gene stability
D) By conserving chromosomal gene order
E) By decreasing mutation frequency
33) Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of
16
A) the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes
lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I.
B) the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm.
C) the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during
anaphase II.
D) the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes.
E) All of the above
34) When pairs of homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I,
A) the maternal chromosomes all move to the same daughter cell.
B) the sister chromatids remain attached to one another.
C) recombination is not yet complete.
D) the synaptonemal complex is visible under the light microscope.
35) Natural selection and recombination due to crossing over during meiosis I are related in
which of the following ways?
A) Recombinants are usually selected against.
B) Non-recombinant organisms are usually favored by natural selection if there is
environmental change.
C) Most recombinants reproduce less frequently than do non-recombinants.
D) Recombinants may have combinations of traits that are favored by natural selection.
E) Recombination does not affect natural selection.
36) A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
A) a sperm.
B) an egg.
C) a zygote.
D) a somatic cell of a male.
E) a somatic cell of a female.
37) Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during
A) mitosis.
B) meiosis I.
C) meiosis II.
D) fertilization.
E) binary fission.
38) Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that
A) sister chromatids separate during anaphase.
B) DNA replicates before the division.
C) the daughter cells are diploid.
D) homologous chromosomes synapse.
E) the chromosome number is reduced.
39) If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA
content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be
A) 0.25x.
B) 0.5x.
C) x.
D) 2x.
E) 4x.
40) If we continued to follow the cell lineage from question 5, then the DNA content of a single
cell at metaphase of meiosis II would be
A) 0.25x.
B) 0.5x.
Use the dia
41)
42)
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18
E) fission.
5) Sexual reproduction
A) allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions.
B) can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a
changing environment.
C) yields more numerous offspring more rapidly than is possible with asexual
reproduction.
D) enables males and females to remain isolated from each other while rapidly colonizing
habitats.
E) guarantees that both parents will provide care for each offspring.
6) All individuals of a particular species of whiptail lizards are females. Their reproductive
efforts depend on
A) fertilization of their eggs by males of other lizard species.
B) gonadal structures that only undergo mitosis.
C) meiosis followed by a doubling of the chromosomes in eggs.
D) budding prior to the development of a sexual phenotype.
E) fragmentation via autolysis.
7) Evidence that parthenogenic whiptail lizards are derived from sexually reproducing
ancestors includes
A) the requirement for male-like behaviors in some females before their partners will
ovulate.
B) the development and then regression of testes prior to sexual maturation.
C) the observation that all of the offspring are haploid.
D) dependence on favorable weather conditions for ovulation to occur.
E) the persistence of a vestigial penis among some of the females.
8) Like many other fishes, bluehead wrasses utilize harem mating as they reproduce sexually,
but unlike most fish,
A) they are simultaneous hermaphrodites.
B) they function without any signaling by steroid hormones.
C) they undergo a prolonged diapause during low tide.
D) their offspring can be either haploid or diploid.
E) large females morph into reproductively competent males.
9) In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more offspring than does internal
fertilization, but internal fertilization offers the advantage that
A) it is the only way to ensure the survival of the species.
B) it requires less time and energy to be devoted to reproduction.
C) the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental
investment.
D) it permits the most rapid population increase.
E) it requires expression of fewer genes and maximizes genetic stability.
10) Internal and external fertilization both
A) produce zygotes.
B) occur only among invertebrates.
C) occur only among terrestrial animals.
D) depend on the use of intromittent copulatory organs.
E) occur only among birds.
11) Organisms with a reproductive pattern that produce shelled amniotic eggs generally
A) end up having a higher embryo mortality rate than do organisms with unprotected
embryos.
19
B) invest most of their reproductive energy in the embryonic and early postnatal
development of their offspring.
C) invest more energy in parenting than do placental animals.
D) produce more gametes than do those animals with external fertilization and
development.
E) lower their embryo mortality rate to less than one in a thousand.
12) Which statement is false concerning reproduction in invertebrate animals?
A) Separate sexes are not observed among any invertebrates.
B) Some have both sexes within one individual organism.
C) Some utilize external fertilization.
D) Some utilize internal fertilization.
E) None of the invertebrates have structures that store sperm.
13) Chemical signals exchanged between potential reproductive partners are called
A) hormones.
B) pheromones.
C) paracrine signals.
D) cytokines.
E) gametes.
14) Females of many insect species, including honeybee queens, can store gametes shed by their
mating partners in
A) their nests.
B) the abdominal tract.
C) the cloaca.
D) the uterus.
E) the spermatheca.
15) Most flatworms, including parasitic liver flukes, are hermaphrodites where zygotes form as
the result of
A) internal fertilization.
B) external fertilization.
C) parthenogenesis.
D) eggs and sperm mixing together in excreted feces.
E) eggs and sperm mixing together in wastewater.
16) The junction of the upper vagina and the uterus is called the
A) fallopian tube.
B) clitoris.
C) oviduct.
D) labia majora.
E) cervix.
17) In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation become
A) ovarian endometrium shed at the time of menses.
B) a steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum.
C) the thickened portion of the uterine wall.
D) swept into the fallopian tube.
E) the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus.
18) The male and female structures that consist mostly of erectile tissue include
A) penis and clitoris.
B) vas deferens and oviduct.
C) testes and ovaries.
D) seminiferous tubules and hymen.
20
E) prostate and ovaries.
19) Testosterone is synthesized primarily by the
A) sperm cells.
B) hypothalamus.
C) Leydig cells.
D) anterior pituitary gland.
E) seminiferous tubules.
20) Sperm cells are stored within human males in the
A) urethra.
B) prostate.
C) epididymis.
D) seminal vesicles.
E) bulbourethral gland.
21) Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the
A) vas deferens.
B) urinary bladder.
C) seminal vesicle.
D) urethra.
E) ureter.
22) Human sperm cells first arise in the
A) prostate gland.
B) vas deferens.
C) seminiferous tubules.
D) epididymis.
E) Sertoli cells.
23) The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely
A) cause sterility because sperm would not be produced.
B) cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body.
C) greatly reduce the volume of semen.
D) enhance the fertilization potency of sperm in the uterus.
E) cause the testes to migrate back into the abdominal cavity.
24) Most of the noncellular fluid in ejaculated human semen is composed of
A) the secretions of the seminiferous tubules.
B) the secretions of the bulbourethral glands.
C) the secretions of the seminal vesicles.
D) the secretions of the prostate gland.
E) anticoagulant enzymes.
25) Increasing and holding the temperature of the scrotum by 2°C, near the normal body-core
temperature, would
A) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing the production of gonadal steroid
hormones.
B) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing spermatogenesis.
C) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing by abolishing sexual interest.
D) increase the fertility of the affected man by enhancing the rate of spermatogenesis.
E) have no effect on male reproductive processes.
26) During human heterosexual (mutual) excitement, vasocongestion
A) occurs only in the penis.
B) occurs only in the testes.
C) occurs only in the clitoris.
21
D) occurs only in the upper vagina.
E) occurs in the clitoris, vagina, and penis.
27) The moment of orgasm is characterized by
A) the ovulation of the oocyte from the ovary.
B) the release of sperm from the seminiferous tubules.
C) rhythmic contraction of many parts of the reproductive system.
D) increased synthesis and release of ovarian steroid hormones.
E) increased synthesis and release of testicular steroid hormones.
28) At the time of fertilization, the complete maturation of each oogonium has resulted in
A) one secondary oocyte.
B) two primary oocytes.
C) four secondary oocytes.
D) four primary oocytes.
E) four zygotes.
29) In vertebrate animals, spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ, in that
A) oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity, whereas spermatogenesis happens in
embryonic development.
B) oogenesis produces four haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only one
functional spermatozoon.
C) cytokinesis is unequal in oogenesis, whereas it is equal in spermatogenesis.
D) oogenesis ends at menopause, whereas spermatogenesis is finished before birth.
E) spermatogenesis is not completed until after fertilization occurs, but oogenesis is
completed by the time a girl is born.
30) Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that
A) they both have the same number of chromosomes.
B) they are approximately the same size.
C) they each have a flagellum that provides motility.
D) they are produced from puberty until death.
E) they are formed before birth.
31) The primary difference between estrous and menstrual cycles is that
A) the endometrium shed by the uterus during the estrous cycle is reabsorbed but the
shed endometrium is excreted from the body during the menstrual cycle.
B) behavioral changes during estrous cycles are much less apparent than those of
menstrual cycles.
C) season and climate have less pronounced effects on estrous cycle than they do on
menstrual cycles.
D) copulation normally occurs across the estrous cycle, whereas in menstrual cycles
copulation only occurs during the period surrounding ovulation.
E) most estrous cycle are of much longer duration compared to menstrual cycles.
32) The breakdown and discharge of the soft uterine tissues that occurs if no egg is fertilized is
called
A) menstruation.
B) lactation.
C) fertilization.
D) menopause.
E) ovulation.
33) In correct chronological order, the three phases of the ovarian cycle are
A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal
B) follicular → luteal → secretory
22
C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory
D) follicular → ovulation → luteal
E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation
34) In correct chronological order, the three phases of the uterine cycle are
A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal
B) follicular → luteal → secretory
C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory
D) follicular → ovulation → luteal
E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation
35) A contraceptive pill that continuously inhibits the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus
will
A) increase the production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaries.
B) initiate ovulation.
C) reduce the secretion of gonadotropins from the anterior pituitary gland.
D) stimulate the secretion of LH and FSH from the posterior pituitary gland.
E) increase the flow phase of the menstrual cycle.
36) A primary response by the Leydig cells in the testes to the presence of luteinizing hormone
is an increase in the synthesis and secretion of
A) inhibin.
B) testosterone.
C) oxytocin.
D) prolactin.
E) progesterone.
37) This hormone is secreted directly from a structure in the brain:
A) testosterone
B) estradiol
C) progesterone
D) follicle stimulating hormone
E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone
38) The primary function of the corpus luteum is to
A) nourish and protect the egg cell.
B) produce prolactin in the alveoli.
C) maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation has occurred.
D) stimulate the development of the mammary glands.
E) support pregnancy in the second and third trimesters.
39) Ovulation is the follicular response to a burst of secretion of
A) LH.
B) progesterone.
C) inhibin.
D) prolactin.
E) estradiol.
40) Prior to ovulation, the steroid hormone secreted by the growing follicle is
A) LH.
B) FSH.
C) inhibin.
D) GnRH.
E) estradiol.
41) The hypothalamic hormone that stimulates hormone secretion by the anterior pituitary
gland is
23
A) LH.
B) FSH.
C) Inhibin.
D) GnRH.
E) estradiol.
42) The hormone progesterone is produced
A) in the pituitary and acts directly on the ovary.
B) in the uterus and acts directly on the pituitary.
C) in the ovary and acts directly on the uterus.
D) in the pituitary and acts directly on the uterus.
E) in the uterus and acts directly on the pituitary.
43) Menopause is caused by
A) reduced synthesis of ovarian steroids despite high levels of gonadotropin hormones.
B) a decline in production of the gonadotropin hormones by the anterior pituitary gland.
C) wearing away of the uterine endometrium.
D) an increase in the blood supply to the ovaries.
E) a halt in the synthesis of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the brain.
44) For normal human fertilization to occur,
A) many ova must be released.
B) the uterus must be enlarged.
C) only one sperm need penetrate one egg.
D) secretion of pituitary FSH and LH must decrease.
E) the secondary oocyte must implant in the uterus.
45) Fertilization of human eggs usually takes place in the
A) ovary.
B) uterus.
C) vagina.
D) oviduct.
E) cervix.
46) This embryonic hormone maintains progesterone and estrogen secretion by the corpus
luteum through the first trimester of pregnancy:
A) luteinizing hormone (LH)
B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C) progesterone
D) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
47) Which hypothalamic hormone triggers the secretion of FSH?
A) luteinizing hormone (LH)
B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C) progesterone
D) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
48) A reliable ʺmarkerʺ that a pregnancy has initiated, and that is detectable in excreted urine, is
A) progesterone.
B) estrogen.
C) follicle-stimulating hormone.
D) chorionic gonadotropin.
E) hypothalamus releasing factors.
49) Labor contractions would be increased by the use of a synthetic drug that mimics the action
24
of
A) inhibin.
B) luteinizing hormone.
C) oxytocin.
D) prolactin.
E) vasopressin.
50) A high rate of metabolic activity is maintained in the pregnant uterus by
A) inhibin.
B) testosterone.
C) oxytocin.
D) prolactin.
E) progesterone.
51) A thin layer of the developing embryo that secretes the hormone that keeps the corpus
luteum functioning is
A) cervix.
B) endometrium.
C) amnion.
D) plasma membrane.
E) chorion.
52) A woman in the final week of pregnancy who is given an injection of oxytocin would likely
A) undergo the loss of oxytocin receptors from her uterine smooth muscle cells.
B) stop secreting prostaglandins from the placenta.
C) undergo vigorous contractions of her uterine muscles.
D) increase the synthesis and secretion of progesterone.
E) be prevented from lactation.
53) Among these contraception methods, which has the highest risk of accidental pregnancy?
A) diaphragm
B) condom
C) coitus interruptus
D) vasectomy
E) rhythm method
54) The use of birth-control pills (oral contraceptives)
A) reduces the incidence of ovulation.
B) prevents fertilization by keeping sperm and egg physically separated by a mechanical
barrier.
C) prevents implantation of an embryo.
D) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra.
E) prevents oocytes from entering the uterus.
55) Which pair includes two contraceptive methods that are generally irreversible means to
block gametes from moving to a site where fertilization can occur?
A) male condom and female condom
B) male condom and oral contraceptives
C) vasectomy and tubal ligation
D) coitus interruptus and rhythm method
E) diaphragm and subcutaneous progesterone implant
56) Time-release progesterone implants function in contraception by
A) increasing the frequency of ovulation.
B) thickening the cervical and uterine mucus to impair sperm movement.
C) increasing gonadotropin secretion to abnormally high levels.
25
D) reducing libido.
E) activating inflammation responses in the uterus.
57) For lactation to take place, __________ stimulates the synthesis of breast milk and
__________ causes milk expulsion.
A) testosterone; dihydrotestosterone
B) estrogen; progesterone
C) cortisol; testosterone
D) prolactin; oxytocin
E) luteinizing hormone; follicle stimulating hormone
58) So-called ʺcombinationʺ birth-control pills function in contraception by
A) inhibiting the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH.
B) irritating the uterine lining so as to prevent implantation.
C) causing spontaneous abortions.
D) blocking progesterone receptors, so that pregnancy cannot be maintained.
E) binding to and inactivating any sperm that enter the oviduct.
59) Human fertility drugs increase the chance of multiple births, probably because they
A) enhance implantation.
B) stimulate follicle development.
C) mimic progesterone.
D) stimulate spermatogenesis.
E) prevent parturition.
60) Which of the following characterizes parthenogenesis?
A) An individual may change its sex during its lifetime.
B) Specialized groups of cells grow into new individuals.
C) An organism is first a male and then a female.
D) An egg develops without being fertilized.
E) Both mates have male and female reproductive organs.
61) In male mammals, excretory and reproductive systems share
A) the testes.
B) the urethra.
C) the urinary duct.
D) the vas deferens.
E) the prostate.
62) Peaks of LH and FSH production occur during
A) the menstrual flow phase of the uterine cycle.
B) the beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle.
C) the period just before ovulation.
D) the end of the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle.
E) the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle.
63) For which of the following is the number the same in spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
A) interruptions in meiotic divisions.
B) functional gametes produced by meiosis.
C) meiotic divisions required to produce each gamete.
D) gametes produced in a given time period.
E) different cell types produced by meiosis.
64) During human gestation, rudiments of all organs develop
A) in the first trimester.
B) in the second trimester.
C) in the third trimester.
26
D) while the embryo is in the oviduct.
E) during the blastocyst stage.
Biology, 8e (Campbell)
Chapter 47 A nimal Development
Multiple-Choice Questions
1) The proposal that a human sperm contained a miniature human being is consistent with the
now-discredited theory of development known as
A) epigenesis.
B) preformation.
C) cell differentiation.
D) morphogenesis.
E) cell theory.
2) A puppy is born with a malformed right leg. A veterinarian studies the animal and
determines that all of the correct types of cells are present, but that the leg simply took on
the wrong shape. This is most likely a problem of
A) morphogenesis.
B) cell differentiation.
C) histogenesis.
D) preformation.
E) fertilization.
3) As an embryo develops, new cells are produced as the result of
A) differentiation.
B) preformation.
C) cell division.
D) morphogenesis.
E) epigenesis.
4) Contact of a sperm with signal molecules in the coat of an egg causes the sperm to undergo
A) mitosis.
B) depolarization.
C) apoptosis.
D) vitellogenesis.
E) the acrosomal reaction.
5) Contact of an egg with signal molecules on sperm causes the egg to undergo a brief
A) mitosis.
B) membrane depolarization.
C) apoptosis.
D) vitellogenesis.
E) the acrosomal reaction.
6) During fertilization, the acrosomal contents
A) block polyspermy.
B) help propel more sperm toward the egg.
C) digest the protective coat on the surface of the egg.
D) nourish the mitochondria of the sperm.
E) trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm.
7) From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds as follows:
A) gastrulation → organogenesis → cleavage
27
B) ovulation → gastrulation → fertilization
C) cleavage → gastrulation → organogenesis
D) gastrulation → blastulation → neurulation
E) preformation → morphogenesis → neurulation
8) The cortical reaction functions directly in the
A) formation of a fertilization envelope.
B) production of a fast block to polyspermy.
C) release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell.
D) generation of a nerve-like impulse by the egg cell.
E) fusion of egg and sperm nuclei.
9) The ʺslow blockʺ to polyspermy is due to
A) a transient voltage change across the membrane.
B) the consumption of yolk protein.
C) the jelly coat blocking sperm penetration.
D) formation of the fertilization envelope.
E) inactivation of the sperm acrosome.
10) Fertilization normally
A) reinstates diploidy.
B) follows gastrulation.
C) is required for parthenogenesis.
D) merges two dipoloid cells into one haploid cell.
E) precedes ovulation.
11) In mammalian eggs, the receptors for sperm are found in the
A) fertilization membrane.
B) zona pellucida.
C) cytosol of the egg.
D) nucleus of the egg.
E) mitochondria of the egg.
12) Compared to sea urchin eggs, those of mammals
A) complete the fertilization process more rapidly.
B) have not already completed meiosis at the time of ovulation.
C) have a more distinct animal pole.
D) have a more distinct vegetal pole.
E) have no requirement for the cortical reaction.
13) As cleavage continues during frog development, the size of the blastomeres
A) increases as the number of the blastomeres decreases.
B) increases as the number of the blastomeres increases.
C) decreases as the number of the blastomeres increases.
D) decreases as the number of the blastomeres decreases.
E) increases as the number of the blastomeres stays the same.
14) The vegetal pole of the zygote differs from the animal pole in that
A) the vegetal pole has a higher concentration of yolk.
B) the blastomeres originate only in the vegetal pole.
C) the posterior end of the embryo forms at the vegetal pole.
D) the vegetal pole cells undergo mitosis but not cytokinesis.
E) the polar bodies bud from this region.
15) The small portion of the embryo that will become its dorsal side develops from the
A) morula.
B) primitive streak.
28
C) archenteron.
D) gray crescent.
E) blastocoel.
16) An embryo with meroblastic cleavage, extra-embryonic membranes, and a primitive streak
must be that of
A) an insect.
B) a fish.
C) an amphibian.
D) a bird.
E) a sea urchin.
17) Meroblastic cleavage occurs in
A) sea urchins, but not humans or birds.
B) humans, but not sea urchins or birds.
C) birds, but not sea urchins or humans.
D) both sea urchins and birds, but not humans.
E) both humans and birds, but not sea urchins.
18) The sequence of developmental milestones proceeds as follows:
A) cleavage → blastula → gastrula → morula
B) cleavage → gastrula → morula → blastula
C) cleavage → morula → blastula → gastrula
D) gastrula → morula → blastula → cleavage
E) morula → cleavage → gastrula → blastula
19) Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ tissue layers during
A) determination.
B) cleavage.
C) fertilization.
D) induction.
E) gastrulation.
20) The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is
A) endoderm → ectoderm → mesoderm.
B) mesoderm → endoderm → ectoderm.
C) ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm.
D) ectoderm → endoderm → mesoderm.
E) endoderm → mesoderm → ectoderm.
21) If gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin, then
A) cleavage would not occur in the zygote.
B) embryonic germ layers would not form.
C) fertilization would be blocked.
D) the blastula would not be formed.
E) the blastopore would form above the gray crescent in the animal pole.
22) The archenteron of the developing frog eventually develops into the
A) reproductive organs.
B) the blastocoel.
C) heart and lungs.
D) digestive tract.
E) brain and spinal cord.
23) The vertebrate ectoderm is the origin of the
A) nervous system.
B) liver.
29
C) pancreas.
D) heart.
E) kidneys.
24) In frog embryos, the blastopore becomes the
A) anus.
B) ears.
C) eyes.
D) nose.
E) mouth.
25) In a frog embryo, gastrulation
A) produces a blastocoel displaced into the animal hemisphere.
B) occurs along the primitive streak in the animal hemisphere.
C) is impossible because of the large amount of yolk in the ovum.
D) proceeds by involution as cells roll over the lip of the blastopore.
E) occurs within the inner cell mass that is embedded in the large amount of yolk.
26) The earliest developmental stage among these choices is
A) germ layers.
B) morula.
C) blastopore.
D) gastrulation.
E) invagination.
27) A correct statement is:
A) The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord.
B) The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles.
C) The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
D) The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs.
E) The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
28) An open space within the gastrula is the
A) ectoderm.
B) mesoderm.
C) archenteron.
D) endoderm.
E) neural crest cells.
29) The primitive streak in a bird is the functional equivalent of
A) the lip of the blastopore in the frog.
B) the archenteron in a frog.
C) polar bodies in a sea urchin.
D) the notochord in a mammal.
E) neural crest cells in a mammal.
30) In all vertebrate animals, development requires
A) a large supply of yolk.
B) an aqueous environment.
C) extraembryonic membranes.
D) an amnion.
E) a primitive streak.
31) The least amount of yolk would be found in the egg of a
A) bird.
B) fish.
C) frog.
30
D) eutherian (placental) mammal.
E) reptile.
32) A primitive streak forms during the early embryonic development of
A) birds, but not frogs or humans.
B) frogs, but not birds or humans.
C) humans, but not birds or frogs.
D) birds and frogs, but not humans.
E) humans and birds, but not frogs.
33) Extraembryonic membranes develop in
A) mammals, but not birds or lizards.
B) birds, but not mammals or lizards.
C) lizards, but not mammals or birds.
D) mammals and birds, but not lizards.
E) mammals, birds, and lizards.
34) At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a
A) blastocyst.
B) gastrula.
C) fetus.
D) somite.
E) zygote.
35) Uterine implantation due to enzymatic digestion of the endometrium is initiated by
A) the inner cell mass.
B) the endoderm.
C) the chorion.
D) the mesoderm.
E) the trophoblast.
36) In placental mammals, the yolk sac
A) transfers nutrients from the yolk to the embryo.
B) differentiates into the placenta.
C) becomes a fluid-filled sac that surrounds and protects the embryo.
D) produces blood cells that then migrate into the embryo.
E) stores waste products from the embryo until the placenta develops.
37) Gases are exchanged in a mammalian embryo in the
A) amnion.
B) hypoblast.
C) chorion.
D) trophoblast.
E) yolk sac.
38) Changes in both cell shape and cell position occur extensively during
A) gastrulation, but not organogenesis or cleavage.
B) organogenesis, but not gastrulation or cleavage.
C) cleavage, but not gastrulation or organogenesis.
D) gastrulation and organogenesis but not cleavage.
E) gastrulation, organogenesis, and cleavage.
39) Changes in the shape of a cell usually involve a reorganization of the
A) nucleus.
B) cytoskeleton.
C) extracellular matrix.
D) transport proteins.
31
E) nucleolus.
40) Animal development compares to plant development in that
A) plant cells, but not animal cells, migrate during morphogenesis.
B) animal cells, but not plant cells, migrate during morphogenesis.
C) plant cells and animal cells migrate extensively during morphogenesis.
D) neither plant cells nor animal cells migrate during morphogenesis.
E) plant cells, but not animal cells, migrate undergo convergent extension.
41) Cadherins and other cell-adhesion molecules that guide cell migration are
A) steroid hormones.
B) glycoproteins.
C) fatty acids.
D) prostacyclins.
E) ribonucleic acids.
42) The term applied to a morphogenetic process whereby cells extend themselves, making the
mass of the cells narrower and longer, is
A) convergent extension.
B) induction.
C) elongational streaming.
D) bi-axial elongation.
E) blastomere formation.
43) During gastrulation in frog embryos, fibronectin provides
A) an extracellular anchorage for migrating cells.
B) regulates actin-myosin interactions in the cytosol of migrating cells.
C) reduces the entry of calcium ions into migrating cells.
D) regulates mRNA movement out of the nucleus of a moving cell.
E) the pigment that accumulates in the primitive streak.
44) If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane fails to divide the gray
crescent, then
A) the daughter cell with the entire gray crescent will die.
B) both daughter cells will develop normally because amphibians are totipotent at this
stage.
C) only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally.
D) both daughter cells will develop abnormally.
E) both daughter cells will die immediately.
45) In humans, identical twins are possible because
A) of the heterogeneous distribution of cytoplasmic determinants in unfertilized eggs.
B) of interactions between extraembryonic cells and the zygote nucleus.
C) of convergent extension.
D) early blastomeres can form a complete embryo if isolated.
E) the gray crescent divides the dorsal-ventral axis into new cells.
46) Hans Spemann and colleagues developed the concept of the primary organizer in amphibian
embryos while studying the
A) medial cells between the optic cups.
B) anterior terminus of the notochord.
C) lateral margins of the neural tube.
D) posterior edge of the dorsal ectoderm.
E) dorsal lip of the blastopore.
47) Two primary factors in shaping the polarity of the body axes in chick embryos are
A) light and temperature.
32
B) salt gradients and membrane potentials.
C) gravity and pH.
D) moisture and mucus.
E) location of sperm penetration and cortical reaction.
48) The arrangement of organs and tissues in their characteristic places in three-dimensional
space defines
A) pattern formation.
B) induction.
C) differentiation.
D) determination.
E) organogenesis.
49) If the apical ectodermal ridge is surgically removed from an embryo, it will lose
A) positional information for limb-bud pattern formation.
B) guidance signals needed for correct gastrulation.
C) unequal cytokinesis of blastomeres.
D) the developmental substrate for the gonads.
E) the developmental substrate for the kidneys.
50) The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in the
A) formation of a fertilization envelope.
B) production of a fast block to polyspermy.
C) release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm.
D) generation of an electrical impulse by the egg.
E) fusion of egg and sperm nuclei.
51) Which of the following is common to the development of both birds and mammals?
A) holoblastic cleavage
B) epiblast and hypoblast
C) trophoblast
D) yolk plug
E) gray crescent
52) The archenteron develops into the
A) mesoderm.
B) blastocoel.
C) endoderm.
D) placenta.
E) lumen of the digestive tract.
53) In a frog embryo, the blastocoel is
A) completely obliterated by yolk.
B) lined with endoderm during gastrulation.
C) located in the animal hemisphere.
D) the cavity that becomes the coelom.
E) the cavity that later forms the archenteron.
54) What structural adaptation in chickens allows them to lay their eggs in arid environments,
rather than in water?
A) extraembryonic membranes
B) yolk
C) cleavage
D) gastrulation
E) development of the brain from ectoderm
55) In the early development of an amphibian embryo, Spemannʹs ʺorganizerʺ is located in the
56)
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34
5) Which of the following are true of most angiosperms?
A) a triploid endosperm within the seed
B) an ovary that becomes a fruit
C) a small (reduced) sporophyte
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
6) Based on studies of plant evolution, which flower part is not a modified leaf?
A) stamen
B) carpel
C) petals
D) sepals
E) receptacle
7) All of the following floral parts are directly involved in pollination or fertilization except the
A) stamen.
B) carpel.
C) petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.
8) Location of the ovary:
A) stamen
B) carpel
C) petals
D) sepals
E) receptacle
9) Location of the microsporangia:
A) stamen
B) carpel
C) petals
D) sepals
E) receptacle
10) Which of the following is the correct order of floral organs from the outside to the inside of a
complete flower?
A) petals-sepals-stamens-carpels
B) sepals-stamens-petals-carpels
C) spores-gametes-zygote-embryo
D) sepals-petals-stamens-carpels
E) male gametophyte-female gametophyte-sepals-petals
11) All of the following are primary functions of flowers except
A) pollen production.
B) photosynthesis.
C) meiosis.
D) egg production.
E) sexual reproduction.
12) Meiosis occurs within all of the following flower parts except the
A) ovule.
B) style.
C) megasporangium.
D) anther.
E) ovary.
35
13) A perfect flower is fertile, but may be either complete or incomplete. Which of the following
correctly describes a perfect flower?
A) It has no sepals.
B) It has fused carpels.
C) It is on a dioecious plant.
D) It has no endosperm.
E) It has both stamens and carpels.
14) Carpellate flowers
A) are perfect.
B) are complete.
C) produce pollen.
D) are found only on dioecious plants.
E) develop into fruits.
15) Which of the following statements regarding flowering plants is false?
A) The sporophyte is the dominant generation.
B) Female gametophytes develop from megaspores within the anthers.
C) Pollination is the placing of pollen on the stigma of a carpel.
D) The food-storing endosperm is derived from the cell that contains two polar nuclei and
one sperm nucleus.
E) Flowers produce fruits within the ovules.
16) Which of the following types of plants is not able to self-pollinate?
A) dioecious
B) monoecious
C) complete
D) wind-pollinated
E) insect-pollinated
17) In flowering plants, pollen is released from the
A) anther.
B) stigma.
C) carpel.
D) filament.
E) pollen tube.
18) In the life cycle of an angiosperm, which of the following stages is diploid?
A) megaspore
B) generative nucleus of a pollen grain
C) polar nuclei of the embryo sac
D) microsporocyte
E) both megaspore and polar nuclei
19) Where does meiosis occur in flowering plants?
A) megasporocyte
B) microsporocyte
C) endosperm
D) pollen tube
E) megasporocyte and microsporocyte
21) Which of the following is a correct sequence of processes that takes place when a flowering
plant reproduces?
A) meiosis-fertilization-ovulation-germination
B) fertilization-meiosis-nuclear fusion-formation of embryo and endosperm
C) meiosis-pollination-nuclear fusion-formation of embryo and endosperm
36
D) growth of pollen tube-pollination-germination-fertilization
E) meiosis-mitosis-nuclear fusion-pollen
22) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in a pollen sac?
A) Sporangia􀃆meiosis􀃆two haploid cells􀃆meiosis􀃆two pollen grains per cell
B) pollen grain􀃆meiosis􀃆two generative cells􀃆two tube cells per pollen grain
C) two haploid cells􀃆meiosis􀃆generative cell-tube cell􀃆fertilization􀃆pollen grain
D) pollen grain􀃆mitosis􀃆microspores􀃆meiosis􀃆generative cell plus tube cell
E) microsporocyte􀃆meiosis􀃆microspores􀃆mitosis􀃆two haploid cells per pollen grain
23) Which of the following occurs in an angiosperm ovule?
A) An antheridium forms from the megasporophyte.
B) A megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis.
C) The egg nucleus is usually diploid.
D) A pollen tube emerges to accept pollen after pollination.
E) The endosperm surrounds the megaspore mother cell.
24) Where and by which process are sperm cells formed in plants?
A) meiosis in pollen grains
B) meiosis in anthers
C) mitosis in male gametophyte pollen tube.
D) mitosis in the micropyle
E) mitosis in the embryo sac
25) Which of the following is the male gametophyte of a flowering plant?
A) ovule
B) microsporocyte
C) pollen grain
D) embryo sac
E) stamen
26) Which of the following would be considered to be a multiple fruit?
A) apple
B) strawberry
C) raspberry
D) pineapple
E) corn on the cob
27) In flowering plants, a mature male gametophyte contains
A) two haploid gametes and a diploid pollen grain.
B) a generative cell and a tube cell.
C) two sperm nuclei and one tube cell nucleus.
D) two haploid microspores.
E) a haploid nucleus and a diploid pollen wall.
28) What is the difference between pollination and fertilization in flowering plants?
A) Fertilization precedes pollination.
B) Pollination easily occurs between plants of different species, fertilization is within a
species.
C) Pollen is formed within megasporangia so that male and female gametes are near each
other.
D) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma. Fertilization is the
fusion of haploid nuclei
E) If fertilization occurs, pollination is unnecessary.
29) What is the function of the integument of an ovule?
A) protect against animal predation
37
B) ensure double fertilization
C) form a seed coat
D) direct development of the endosperm
E) produce hormones that ensure successful pollination
30) Which of the following events suggests there is a change in the egg cell membrane after
penetration by a sperm?
A) The pollen tube grows away from the egg toward the polar nuclei.
B) CA2+ builds up in the cytoplasm of the egg.
C) The egg cell plasmolyzes.
D) Double fertilization occurs.
E) All of the above are correct.
31) A fruit includes
A) one or more seeds.
B) the ovary wall.
C) fleshy cells rich in sugars.
D) brightly colored pigments to attract animal dispersers.
E) both A and B
32) What is typically the result of double fertilization in angiosperms?
A) The endosperm develops into a diploid nutrient tissue.
B) A triploid zygote is formed.
C) Both a diploid embryo and triploid endosperm are formed.
D) Two embryos develop in every seed.
E) The fertilized antipodal cells develop into the seed coat.
33) What is the first organ to emerge from a germinating eudicot seed?
A) plumule
B) hypocotyl
C) epicotyl
D) radicle
E) shoot
34) Which of the following ʺvegetablesʺ is botanically a fruit?
A) potato
B) lettuce
C) radish
D) celery
E) green beans
35) The embryo of a grass seed is enclosed by two protective sheaths, a(n) __________, which
covers the young shoot, and a(n) __________, which covers the young root.
A) cotyledon; radicle
B) hypocotyls; epicotyl
C) coleoptile; coleorhiza
D) scutellum; coleoptile
E) epicotyl; radicle
36) Which of the following statements about fruits is false?
A) Fruits form from microsporangia and integuments.
B) All normal fruits have seeds inside them.
C) Green beans, corn, tomatoes, and wheat are all fruits.
D) Fruits aid in the dispersal of seeds.
E) During fruit development, the wall of the ovary becomes the pericarp.
37) Fruits develop from
38
A) microsporangia.
B) receptacles.
C) fertilized eggs.
D) ovaries.
E) ovules.
38) What is the first step in the germination of a seed?
A) pollination
B) fertilization
C) imbibition of water
D) hydrolysis of starch and other food reserves
E) emergence of the radicle
39) In plants, which of the following could be an advantage of sexual reproduction as opposed
to asexual reproduction?
A) genetic variation
B) mitosis
C) stable populations
D) rapid population increase
E) greater longevity
40) A disadvantage of monoculture is that
A) the whole crop ripens at one time.
B) genetic uniformity makes a crop vulnerable to a new pest or disease.
C) it predominantly uses vegetative propagation.
D) most grain crops self-pollinate.
E) it allows for the cultivation of large areas of land.
41) Which of the following is true about vegetative reproduction?
A) It involves both meiosis and mitosis to produce haploid and diploid cells.
B) It produces vegetables.
C) It involves meiosis only.
D) It can lead to genetically altered forms of the species.
E) It produces clones.
42) Which of the following statements is true of protoplast fusion?
A) It occurs when the second sperm nucleus fuses with the polar nuclei in the embryo sac.
B) It can be used to form new plant varieties by combining genomes from two plants.
C) It is used to develop gene banks to preserve genetic variability.
D) It is the method of test-tube cloning that produces whole plants from explants.
E) It occurs within a callus that is developing in tissue culture.
43) Which of the following statements is correct about protoplast fusion?
A) It is used to develop gene banks to maintain genetic variability.
B) It is the method of test-tube cloning thousands of copies.
C) It can be used to form new plant species.
D) It occurs within a callus.
E) It requires that the cell wall remain intact during the fusion process.
44) The most immediate potential benefits of introducing genetically modified crops include
A) increasing the amount of land suitable for agriculture.
B) overcoming genetic incompatibility.
C) increasing the frequency of self-pollination.
D) increasing crop yield.
E) decreasing the mutation rate of certain genes.
45) All of the following strategies are being pursued with the goal of preventing transgene
39
escape from genetically modified crops except
A) the engineering of male sterility into plants.
B) the genetic engineering of apomixis into transgenic crops.
C) the genetic engineering of trangenes into the chloroplast DNA .
D) the genetic engineering of flowers that develop normally, but fail to open.
E) hybridize transgenic crop genes with related wild weeds.
46) All of the following are commercial uses of transgenic crops except
A) inserting Bt toxin genes into cotton, maize, and potato.
B) developing plants that tolerate herbicides.
C) producing plants that resist attack by certain viruses.
D) developing plants that produce increasing quantities of Vitamin A.
E) producing plants that contain genes for making human insulin.
47) A seed develops from
A) an ovum.
B) a pollen grain.
C) an ovule.
D) an ovary.
E) an embryo.
48) A fruit is a(an)
A) mature ovary.
B) mature ovule.
C) seed plus its integuments.
D) fused carpel.
E) enlarged embryo sac.
49) Double fertilization means that
A) flowers must be pollinated twice in order to produce fruits and seeds.
B) every egg must receive two sperm to produce an embryo.
C) one sperm is needed to fertilize the egg, and a second sperm is needed to fertilize the
polar nuclei.
D) the egg of the embryo sac is diploid.
E) every sperm has two nuclei.
50) Sources of genetic variability in an asexually propagated species may involve all of the
following processes except
A) protoplast fusion.
B) mutation.
C) hybridization.
D) genetic engineering.
E) apomixis.
51) Plant biotechnologists use protoplast fusion mainly to
A) culture plant cells in vitro.
B) asexually propagate desirable plant varieties.
C) introduce bacterial genes into a plant genome.
D) study the early events following fertilization.
E) produce new hybrid species.
52) The development of Bt crops raises concerns because
A) Bt crops have been shown to be toxic to humans.
B) pollen from these crops is harmful to monarch butterfly larvae in the field.
C) if genes for Bt toxin ʺescapeʺ to related weed species, the hybrid weeds could have
harmful ecological effects.
40
D) Bacillus thuringiensis is a pathogen of humans.
E) Bt toxin reduces the nutritional quality of crops.
53) ʺGolden Riceʺ is a transgenic variety that
A) is resistant to various herbicides, making it practical to weed rice fields with those
herbicides.
B) is resistant to a virus that commonly attacks rice fields.
C) includes bacterial genes that produce a toxin that reduces damage from insect pests.
D) produces much larger, golden grains that increase crop yields.
E) contains daffodil genes that increase vitamin A content.