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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
GUWAHATI REGION

SPECIAL STUDY MODULE – ENGLISH

FOR
CLASS – XII (2015-16)

CHIEF PATRON:
SH. SANTOSH KUMAR MALL, IAS
(COMMISSIONER, KVS)

PATRON:
MR. C. NEELAP
(DEPUTY COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION)

GUIDE:
Sh. J. PRASAD, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION
Sh. D. PATLE, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION
Dr. S. BOSE, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHTI REGION

COORDINATOR
Mr. VISNU DUTT TAILOR, PRINCIPAL, K.V. CRPF GUWAHATI

SUBJECT EXPERT
Mr. SAPTARSHI MAJUMDER, PGT (Eng) KV CRPF, GUWAHATI
Mrs. PALLAVI GOGOI, PGT (Eng) KV CRPF, GUWAHATI

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Reading Section

Unseen Passage

Tip- Try to complete the exercise during the reading time. Go through the questions once and
then read the passage. Underline the answers if found in the passage. Underline using a
pencil. Then read the questions once again to ascertain whether the answers underlined are
the correct answers or not. If you are unable to locate an answer then don’t waste too much
time trying to find it out in the passage. Remember that the answers are in the passage.

Sample Question

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

1. In the passing away of former President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, India has lost not only a
visionary scientist and an institution-builder, but also a staunch nationalist who was an
inspirational figure for people across generations. Turning India into a developed country of
the first world, was his dream, and he set about making this a reality through words and
deeds, first as scientist, then as the President, and later, till the very end, as an ordinary
citizen. Kalam began as a civilian rocket engineer and metamorphosed into a missile
technologist, but it is as the “people’s president”, as the first citizen who was accessible and
who stopped to listen to the grievances of ordinary men and women that he won the love and
affection of his countrymen. In the fields of civilian space and military missile technologies,
Kalam put India on the world map by laying strong indigenous foundations for them. When
India joined the exclusive club of space faring nations comprising the U.S., Russia, France,
Japan and China on July 18, 1980, Kalam was the Project Director of the Satellite Launch
Vehicle-3 in the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Since then, India has joined the
world leaders in satellite launches and space research.

2. Kalam’s tenure in the Defence Research and Development Organisation and as the
director of the Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL) at Hyderabad
heralded immense achievements in missile technology; he was part of the team that
envisioned India’s Guided Missile Development Programme. Projects such as the
development of the Prithvi, Akash, Trishul and Nag missiles were undertaken. Kalam also
insisted on the development of a strategic missile with re-entry technology, resulting in the
Agni missile. He insisted that both ISRO and DRDO develop composites such as carbon-
carbon, fibre-reinforced plastic, etc to make motor casings lighter so that the vehicles can
carry a heavier payload. His consortium approach led to the indigenous development of phase
shifters, magnesium alloys, ram-rocket motors and servo-valves for missiles. As scientific
adviser to the Defence Minister, he helped conduct India’s nuclear tests at Pokhran in May
1998. But more than as a scientist and a technocrat, Kalam will be remembered for his tenure
as India’s 11th president, when he moved the institution away from being merely formal and
ceremonial in nature. He used the presidency as a platform to inspire youth, who were readily
impressed by his earthy demeanour and discursive approach to public speaking. The missile
man had his critics, but India’s most popular president leaves behind the legacy of more than
one generation of inspired Indians.

(Editorial of The Hindu)

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(a) On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.

1. Now Space faring nations comprises of

(a) U.S.A., Russia & France
(b) Russia, France, China & Japan
(c) Japan, Russia, France, the U.S and China
(d) India, China, Russia, Japan, U.S, and France
2. Kalam’s idea of making strategic missile with re-entry technology led to the
development of
(a) Prithvi (b) Trishul
(c) Agni (d) Nag
(b) Answer the following questions as briefly as possible.
(1) What was former President A P J Abdul Kalam’s dream?
(2) Why is he known as the ‘people’s president’?
(3) How did he put India on the world map in the fields of civilian space and
military missile technologies?
(4) How, according to the author, did President Kalam use the presidency?
(5) What remarkable things did President Kalam do as 11th President of India?
(6) Mention the contributions of Kalam as the director of DRDL.
(c) Find words from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following:
(1) loyal (Paragraph 1)
(2) behaviour (Paragraph 2)

Answers-
(a) 1. (d) India, China, Russia, Japan, U.S, and France 2. (c) Agni
(b) (1) Turning India into a developed country of the first world. (2) As the first citizen he
was accessible and he stopped to listen to the grievances of ordinary men and women. (3) In
the fields of civilian space and military missile technologies, Kalam put India on the world
map by laying strong indigenous foundations for them. (4) He used the presidency as a
platform to inspire youth, who were readily impressed by his earthy demeanour and
discursive approach to public speaking. (5) But more than as a scientist and a technocrat,
Kalam will be remembered for his tenure as India’s 11th president, when he moved the
institution away from being merely formal and ceremonial in nature. (6) Kalam’s tenure in
the Defence Research and Development Organisation and as the director of the Defence
Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL) at Hyderabad heralded immense
achievements in missile technology; he was part of the team that envisioned India’s Guided
Missile Development Programme. (c) (1) staunch (2) demeanour

Note Making

Points to Remember/ Tips to Do Better

Do the indentation properly
Use minimum four abbreviations
Clearly write the abbreviations inside a box after the completing the note
Give a title to the summary
Minimum three main points and three sub-points under each main point
should be there
Code – IABT3 (I = Indentation, A = Abbreviation, B = Box, T = Title, 3 =
Main Points & Sub-Points)

Note Making can done in relation to other subjects and textbooks and that way it will serve
two purposes 1. help in understanding that subject 2. make more proficient in making note

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Note Making Business Studies Book Class XI Page – 67-68

1. Global Enterprises
1.1. Multinational Corptns
1.2. Important role in
1.2.1. Indian Economy
1.2.2. World Economy
1.3. Operatns in many countries
2. Characteristics of MNCs
2.1. Huge size
2.2. Large no. of products
2.3. Advanced technology
2.4. Networking
2.5. Known as MOFA
3. Aims of MNCs
3.1. Not maximising profits
3.2. Spreading branches
3.3. Making multiple products
4. Impact of MNCs
4.1. Controls world economy
4.2. Able to sell any product
4.3. Has goodwill
4.4. Sometimes exploitative
4.4.1. Selling more
4.4.1.1. Consumer goods
4.4.1.2. Luxury items
4.4.2. Not good for developing countries

Abbreviations
1. Corptns – Corporations
2. Operatns – Operations
3. MOFA – Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates
4. MNCs – Multi National Corporations
Page | 4
Note Making Pluto – A Dwarf Planet Physics Book Class XI Page – 182

1. New definition of planets at Internt. Astro. Union

1.1. Held on 24 Aug 2006
1.2. Pluto not a planet
1.3. Solar System has 8 planets
2. Internt. Astro. Union def. of planet
2.1. Celestial body
2.2. Orbiting the Sun
2.3. Having self gravity
2.4. Of round shape
2.5. Clearing the neighbourhood around its orbit
3. Internt. Astro. Union def. of dwarf planet
3.1. Celestial body
3.2. Orbiting the sun
3.3. Having self gravity
3.4. Of round shape
3.5. Not a satellite
3.6. Not clearing the neighbourhood around its orbit
4. Internt. Astro. Uniondef of small solar system bodies
4.1. Not satalites
4.2. Orbiting the sun
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5. Pluto’s orbital path overlaps
5.1. With other objects
5.1.1. Trns Neptunian Objects
5.1.2. Asteroids
5.1.3. Comets
5.1.4. Other small bodies
5.2. Planet Neptune
6. The new name of Pluto
6.1. Pluto is a dwarf planet
6.2. Pluto is recognized as a Trns Neptunian Object

Abbreviation

1. Internt. - International
2. Astro. - Astronomical
3. Def. – Definition
4. Trns. - Trans

Questions for Practice

Read the Passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

Despite all the research, every one of us catches cold and most of us catch it frequently. Our
failure to control one of the commonest of all ailments sometimes seems ridiculous. Medical
science regularly practices transplant surgery and has rid whole countries of such killing
diseases as Typhus and the Plague. But the problem of common cold is unusually difficult
and much has yet to be done to solve it.

It is known that a cold is caused by one of a number of viral infections that affect the lining of
the nose and other passages leading to the lungs but the confusing variety of viruses makes
study and remedy difficult. It was shown in 1960 that many typical colds in adults are caused
by one or the other of a family of viruses known as rhinoviruses, yet there still remain many
colds for which no virus has as yet been isolated.

There is also the difficulty that because they are so much smaller than bacteria which cause
many other infections, viruses cannot be seen with ordinary microscopes. Nor can they be
cultivated easily in the bacteriologist’s laboratory, since they only grow within the living cells
of animals or plants. An important recent step forward, however, is the development of the
technique of tissue culture, in which bits animal tissue are enabled to go on living and to
multiply independently of the body. This has greatly aided virus research and has led to the
discovery of a large number of viruses. Their existence had previously been not only
unknown but even unsuspected.

The fact that we can catch cold repeatedly creates another difficulty. Usually a virus strikes
only once and leaves the victim immune to further attacks. Still we do not gain immunity
from colds. Why? It may possibly be due to the fact that while other viruses get into the
bloodstream where antibodies can oppose them – the viruses causing cold attack cells only on
the surface. Or it may be that immunity from one of the many different viruses does not
Page | 6
guarantee protection from all others. It seems, therefore, that we are likely to have to suffer
colds for some time yet.

(a) On the basis of your reading of the above passage, makes notes on it in points only,
using abbreviations wherever necessary. Supply a suitable title.

(b) Write a summary of the above passage in 80 words using the notes made..

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

The tests of life are its plus factors. Overcoming illness and suffering is a plus factor for it
moulds character. Steel is iron plus fire, soil is rock plus heat. So let’s include the plus factors
in our lives.

Sometimes the plus factor is more readily seen by the simple hearted. Myers tells the story of
a mother who brought into her home – as a companion to her own son – a little boy who
happened to have a hunchback. She had warned her son to be careful not to refer to his
disability, and to get right on playing with him as if he were like any other boy.

The boys were playing and after a few minutes she overheard her son say to his companion:
“Do you know what you have got on your back?” The little boy was embarrassed, but before
he could reply, his playtime continued: “It is the box in which your wings are and some day
God is going to cut it open and then you will fly away and be an angel.”

Often it takes a third eye, or a change in focus, to see the plus factor. Walking along the
corridors of a hospital recently where patients were struggling with fear of pain and tests, I
was perturbed. What gave me fresh perspective were the sayings put up everywhere, intended
to uplift. One saying made me conscious of the beauty of the universe in the midst of pain,
suffering and struggle. The other saying assured me that God was with me when I was in
deep water and that no troubles would overwhelm me.

The import of those sayings also made me aware of the nether springs that flow into people’s
lives when they touch rock-bottom or when they feel lonely, or even deserted. The nether
springs make recovery possible, and they bring peace and patience in the midst of pain and
distress.

The forces of death and destruction are not so much physical as they are psychic and
psychological. When malice, hate and hardheartedness prevail, they get channeled as forces
of destruction. Where openness, peace and good-heartedness prevail, the forces of life gush
forth to regenerate hope and joy.

The life force is triumphant when love overcomes fear. Both fear and love are deep
mysteries, but the effect of love is to build whereas fear tends to destroy. Love is often the
plus factor that helps build character. It helps us to accept and to overcome suffering. It
creates lasting bonds and its reach is infinite.

It is true that there is no shortage of destructive elements – forces and people who seek to
destroy others and in the process, destroy themselves – but at the same time there are signs of
love and life everywhere that are constantly enabling us to overcome setbacks. So let’s not
only at gloom and doom – let’s seeks out positivity and happiness. For it is when you seek
that you will find what is waiting to be discovered.
Page | 7
 (a) On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it using headings
and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations wherever necessary.

(b) Write a summary of the above passage in 80 words using the notes made and
also suggest a suitable title.

Writing Section

Notice/ Advertisement (Commercial/ Classified)/ Poster/ Invitation

Notice

Code – ANT DBND (A=Authority, N = Notice, T = Title, D = Date, B = Body, N =

Name, D= Designation)

This is the sample of a notice as given in the Main Course Book of Class X, Page 81

Questions for Practice

You are the Secretary of your school Literary Association. Write a notice in not more than 50
words for your school notice board, giving details of the proposed inauguration of the
Literary Association of your school. You are ‘XYZ’ of Jain Vidyashram, Cuddalore.

As Secretary of the ‘Eco Club’ of St. Anne’s School, Ahmedabad, draft a notice in not more
than 50 words informing the club members about the screening of Al Gore’s film,
‘Inconvenient Truth’ in the school’s audio visual room.

As Librarian of Crescent International School, Gwalior, draft a notice in not more than 50
words asking all students and teachers to return the library books they have borrowed, two
days before the commencement of the examination.

Commercial Advertisement

Tips for writing a commercial advertisement

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1. The message should be (a) short, (b) sweet and (c) eye catching
2. Simple diagrams and stick figures can be used.
3. Different fonts can be used.
4. The font sizes can also be changed.
5. Blue and black ink can be used to make the poster attractive
6. There is no rule for alignment of the lines except that the whole advertisement looks
aesthetic or beautiful
7. It should be put inside a box.

Example of a commercial advertisement

Classified Advertisement

For Sale

1. Begin with Sale/ Purchase or Wanted

2. Write about the type of accommodation or vehicle or household item
3. Give brief physical description
(a) Property
(i) Size, floor, number of rooms
(ii) Fixture and furnishing
(iii) Location and surrounding
(b) Vehicle
(i) Model and year of manufacturing
(ii) Colour and accessory
(iii) Condition and mileage
(c) Household goods
(i) Brand, model, year of manufacturing
(ii) colour and condition
4. Price expected/ offered
5. Contact address and phone number
6. Put the advertisement inside a box

Example

Page | 9
To Let

1. Begin with wanted or available

2. Write about the type of accommodation
3. Brief description of other details
4. Contact address and phone number
6. Put the advertisement inside a box.

Example
To Let

Available on rent in ABC Nagar

MIG Flat, 2nd floor, 2BHK, lobby,
balcony, semi furnished, well
ventilated, walking distance from
market and bus stand. Rent expected
Rs 15,000/- fixed. Company lease
preferred. Contact Mr. XYZ, Phone
********, email ****@gmail.com

Situation Vacant

1. Begin with wanted or required

2. Write the (a) Name of the Company (b) Post (c) Number of Vacancies (d) Age (e) Sex (f)
Qualification (g) Experience (h) Other Details (i) Pay Scale (j) Perks (k) Mode of Application
(l) Contact Address & Phone Number

Code – CPV-ASQ-ED-SP-MCP (C-Company, P-Post, V-Vacancy, A-Age, S-Sex, Q-

Qualification, E-Experience, D-Details, S-Scale, P-Perks, M-Mode, C-Contact, P-Phone)

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3. Put the advertisement inside a box.

Example
Situation Vacant

Wanted an experienced and qualified

English Teacher for a leading convent
School. Two vacancies. Age – 25-30
years. Sex – Male/ Female Qualification
M.A. in English. Preference to those who
can handle computers. Salary negotiable.
Semi furnished quarter will be provided.
Apply with complete Bia-Data. Last date
of submission – 25 Dec 2015. Apply to
Principal, ABC High School, XYZ Nagar,
Phone - *********

Questions for Practice

You are a businessman who wants to set up a small garment shop in your city. Draft an
advertisement seeking a suitable space for rent, to be published in the ‘Wanted
Accommodation’ column of a local newspaper. Write the advertisement in not more than 50
words.

You want to sell off your car as you are leaving the country. Draft a suitable advertisement to
be inserted in ‘The Hindu’. Write the advertisement in not more than 50 words.

The firm Bhatia & Bhatia, Industrial Area, Bangalore wants two engineers for their Chennai
office. Draft an advertisement for the ‘Situations Vacant’ column of a local newspaper giving
all the necessary details. Write the advertisement in not more than 50 words.

Poster

Tips for writing/ making a poster

1. The message should be (a) short, (b) sweet and (c) eye catching
2. Simple diagrams and stick figures can be used.
3. Different fonts can be used.
4. The font sizes can also be changed.
5. Blue and black ink can be used to make the poster attractive.
6. There is no rule for alignment of the lines except that the whole advertisement looks
aesthetic or beautiful.
7. It should be put inside a box.

Draft a poster on the theme of prevention of malaria.

Page | 11
Questions for practice

You were very upset about the reports on communal riots in various parts of the country. As a
concerned social worker, design a poster in not more than 50 words, highlighting the
importance of communal harmony. You are Vinay/Vineeta.

Public taps are always faulty and a lot of water is wasted. Design a poster in not more than 50
words to make people aware of the need for saving water. You are Rohan/Rohini.

As an educationist, you have noticed that the present generation has lost the habit of reading.
Design a poster in not more than 50 words highlighting the importance of reading and the
value of books.

Invitation

For declining and accepting invitation the format should be same as that of formal letter
unless it is specifically mentioned in the question that the reply to the invitation is to be
informal.

Example of the body of the Reply to an invitation

For acceptance

Thank you for your invitation. I am honoured by your invitation and I will be delighted to
attend the programme. It is a proud privilege for me and also an opportunity to witness the
programme which must be a wonderful experience to be cherished.

For declining

Thank you for your invitation. I am honoured by your invitation. However, it will not be
possible for me to attend the programme. I would have loved to join you on the auspicious
occasion but because of certain unavoidable obligations, I will not be able to join the
occasion.

Example of a formal invitation

Page | 12
Questions for practice

As the principal of a reputed college, you have been invited to inaugurate a Book Exhibition
in your neighbourhood. Draft a reply to the invitation in not more than 50 words, expressing
your inability to attend the function. You are Tarun/Tanvi.

You have received an invitation to be the judge for a literary competition in St. Ann’s School.
Send a reply in not more than 50 words, confirming your acceptance. You are Mohan/Mohini

Letter (Editor/ Enquiry/ Order/ Complain/ Job Application)

Code – FDTS1S2B(IMC)S3S4 (F=From, D = Date, T = To, S1 = Subject, S2 =

Salutation, B = Body, I = Introduction, M = Main Body, C = Conclusion, S3 =
Subscription, S4 = Signature Block)

The Bio Data/ Resume/ Curriculum Vitae should have the following

Name, Father’s Name, Mother’s Name, Address, Phone Number, E-Mail, Date of
Birth, Educational Qualifications, Other Qualifications, Experience (if any),
Reference, Signature of the Applicant

Job Application

Sample Question

You are Sankita/ Suraj, a resident of House No 03, B. R. Gogoi Road, Guwahati. You came
across an advertisement for the post of PHE teacher in Mahatma Gandhi High School, Kalita
Path, Guwahati. Write an application for the post.

House No. 03
B. R. Gogoi Road
Guwahati

15 Dec 2015

The Principal
Page | 13
Mahatma Gandhi High School
Kalita Path
Guwahati

Subject : Application for the post of PHE teacher

Sir/ Madam

With reference to your advertisement in XYZ Times, I would like to present myself as a
candidate for the post of PHE teacher in your school.

As regards my qualifications, I have completed Masters in Physical Education from ABC

National Institute of Physical Education in the year 2013. I have also completed a basic
computer course of 6 months duration and presently I am employed as a Physical Instructor
in a gym.

Hope earnestly that my humble application will be considered favourably and on my part I do
promise you that in case I am fortunate enough to be selected, I would try to work to your
entire satisfaction.

Thank you.

Yours faithfully

(SANKITA)

Enclosure – Bio – Data

1. Name Sankita
2. Father’s Name Mr. ABC
3. Mother’s Name Mrs. DEF
4. Address House No. 03, B. R. Gogoi Road, Guwahati
5. Phone No. **********
6. E-Mail address ***@gmail.com
7. Date of Birth 20 Feb 1990
8. Educational Qualification a) Class 10 – 8 CGPA- 2006
b) H.S. – 72% - 2008
c) Masters in PHE – 80% - 2013
9. Extra Qualification Certificate in basic computer use
10. Previous Experience Presently working as Physical Instructor in GHI Gym
11. Reference a) Doctor JKL, House No. #, MNO Road, Guwahati
b) Professor PQR, House No. #, STU Road, Guwahati
Date – 15 Dec 2015 Signature -
Place - Guwahati Name - SANKITA

Complaint Letter

Sample Question

You are Priyanka/ Praveen. You had bought a Micromax cell phone and after 10 days of use
it has stopped working. Write a letter to the Manager, Servicing Centre of Micromax,
complaining about the incident.

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House No. #
PQR Road
MNO Nagar

15 Dec 2015

Manager
Micromax Servicing Centre
MNO Nagar

Subject : Complaint about Micromax cell phone

Sir/ Madam

With reference to receipt number 12345 dated 19 Sep 2015, I bought a Micromax cell phone
having model number ABC 123. However, after only 10 days of use the cell phone has
stopped working. I am greatly disappointed by the quality of the product.

Here I must point out that the cell phone has not been physically damaged in anyway. I
expect that Micromax will take responsibility of selling me a defective product and replace it
with a new product. Do let me know your decision within the next 5 years, so that, I may plan
my further course of action.

Thank you

Yours faithfully

Priyanka/ Praveen

Tips to begin a letter to an Editor

1. I am an avid reader of your esteemed newspaper.

2. Every day I read your well circulated newspaper.

3. A day doesn’t go by without me going through your informative and relevant newspaper.

4. I will be highly obliged if you publish my humble views and suggestions in your
newspaper

Questions for Practice

The roads in your area are in a very bad shape. Write a letter to the Municipal Councillor of
your area giving him/her your suggestions on how he/she can help in improving the condition
of the locality. You are Jagriti / Jagan Mitra, resident of 42, Model Town, Faridabad.

You are Prem/Parul of 16, TT Nagar, Bhopal. You would like to apply for the post of
Marketing Manager in a reputed firm in Mumbai. Write a letter to the Public Relations
Officer, Chantac Enterprises, Mumbai, applying for the job. Write the letter in 125 – 150
words giving your biodata.

You are Arman/Arpita of 14, MG Road, Pune. You had bought the text book, ‘Vistas’ for
Class XII from a neighbourhood bookstore. After browsing through the book, you realized
that a few pages were missing and the print overlapped on a few pages. Write a complaint
Page | 15
letter in 125 – 150 words to the Manager, Dawn Books, Lawrence Road, Chennai requesting
him for a replacement or refund.

You are awaiting your class 12th results. Meanwhile, you would like to do a short term
course on personality development. Write a letter to the Director, Personal Care, Hyderabad,
enquiring about the course details. You are Kailash/Kusum of 148, Model Town, Delhi. (125
– 150 words)

Questions for Practice

You are Gopal/ Gopika, a social worker. You have observed that young boys and girls go on
increasing their academic qualification without proper direction. Most of them do not get any
employment creating the problem of the educated unemployed. Some of them drift into
unsocial activities. Write an article in 150 - 200 words on how this problem of the ‘educated
unemployed’ can be solved.

Cyclones often hit the coastal areas causing a lot of devastation in terms of life and property.
Helping the sufferers requires a lot of assistance from private and public sources. A scientific
mechanism is necessary to cope with the situation in time of emergency. Write an article in
150 - 200 words on how the victims of cyclones can be helped. You are Kamal/Kamala.

Last week as you were coming back from school you happened to see a huge plastic bag full
of leftovers of food being flung into the middle of the road from a speeding car. You
wondered how people can be so devoid of civic sense. Write an article in 125 – 150 words on
why we lack civic sense and how civic sense can be inculcated in children at a very young
age. You are Shiva/Shamini.

Speech

Tips for writing a better speech

1. Begin with a quotation

2. Greet the audience and the dignitaries
Examples – a) Today I stand before you to say a few words on/ about…
b) A very good morning to one and all present here…
c) Respected Principal Sir/ Madam, Esteemed Teachers and Dear
fellow Students…
d) Today I will throw light on…
e) Good morning to highly honourable Chief Guest and highly
respected Guest of Honour and to all the other ladies and gentlemen,
boys and girls…
f) It is my prod privilege to give a speech on…
3. Try to include an anecdote (story). The incident narrated should be connected to the topic
of the speech.
4. Try to include humour (fun and laughter) in the speech.
5. Talk or deliver the speech in such a way that the audience gets involved. Ask questions to
the audience.
6. Be sweet by being brief.

Sample question

You are Mamata/ Manash, the head girl/ head boy of your school. You are asked to give a
speech on the pollution caused by plastic bags. The speech is to be delivered in the morning
assembly. Write it in not more than 200 words.
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‘The environment is being slowly suffocated by plastic bags.’

Respected Principal Sir, Esteemed Teachers and dear fellow students, I wish you all a good
morning. Today I will throw light on the use of plastic bags and the abuse of environment.

We all use plastic bags. If not all, then at least many of us use plastic bags, don’t we? Do you
know that plastic bags can cause harm to the environment? May be you do. But still you use
plastic bags. Why? May be because plastic bags are very cheap and easily available and also
very easy to carry and use.

Well, do you know swimming? If you don’t, then please do learn and buy a boat. The plastic
bags in your garbage are going to clog the flow of water in the drains and that will cause
water logging and flood during the rainy season. That’s why I said that you should learn
swimming and buy a boat.

Plastic bags are not cheap but costly because the environment that it destroys is invaluable
and can’t be bought by money. Further, plastic is non-biodegradable, and therefore, destroys
the soil making it unsuitable for cultivation. So, if you want to kill the future of your progeny,
then please do keep using plastic bags. But if you want to live a healthy life, if you want
children to inherit a healthy planet, then stop using plastic bags. In place of plastic bags use
bags made of cloth, jute and paper.

Thank you. Have a wonderful plastic free day.

Mamata/ Manash

Question for Practice

You are Ajay/Anu, Head Boy/Girl of Kendriya Vidyalaya, Kanpur. You have seen some
students of junior classes littering the school compound and verandahs with tiffin left-overs.
It makes the school look unclean and untidy. Write a speech in 150 - 200 words to be
delivered in the morning assembly, advising such students to keep the school neat and clean.

Debate

Topics for practice

Can computers replace teachers?

Should boys learn to cook?

Should students be allowed to use cell phones and phablets in class?

The following points are taken from Main Course Book of Class X, Page 50-51

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Sample question

Write a debate on the following topic

“Dissection of animals is necessary”.

For the motion

Honourable Jury, Fellow Delegates and the Most Honourable Esteemed Guests, I thank you
all for this privilege given to me. In my opinion dissection is necessary because it gives
practical knowledge to the researchers and teaches them proper lab skills. Nothing could be
more illogical than to stop dissection as it is a very important part of hands on training in
anatomy. It is unrealistic to say that students and researchers can fully examine and describe
the different organs without having any training in dissection. I strongly support the view that
dissection is extremely necessary to teach students correct knowledge through practical
application.

Against the motion

Honourable Chair, Fellow Delegates and the Most Revered Audience, I firmly reject the idea
that dissection is necessary. I would like to draw attention to the fact that dissection teaches
cruelty and abuse of the animals. My next argument against the motion is that dissection is
unethical. I failed to understand how dissection can make us better researchers because
dissection makes us better monsters. May I ask my opponent whether dissection wont have a
negative impact on bio-diversity? I strongly believe that dissection would cause ecological

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imbalance; and therefore, I wholeheartedly support the use of virtual labs and models in place
of dissection because knowledge at the cost of kindness can never be justified.

Article

Tips

Writing the article try to achieve the 6 P’s – pleasant appearance, planning, perspicuity,
proportion, persuasiveness.

The four essential stages in the creation of an article are – thinking, arranging, writing, and
revising. Always have rough paper. Write your ideas down on this paper first. Always make a
plan (a general outline or scheme, a skeleton framework). Don’t sit thinking too long; get
your ideas down on paper quickly. Plan your time too and practice writing to time limits.
Spend 1/6 of time allowed on thinking about it and drawing up your outline, ¾ of the time on
writing it, and 1/12 of the time for revision and correction. It is important to keep enough
time for a final reading, but be careful not to have too much time left over or you will be
tempted to add on afterthoughts to an article already finished and revised. The article must
have: beginning, middle, end. Introduction should not be too lengthy. Follow up the
introduction and develop the subject. Round off with satisfactory conclusion – not ending
abruptly in mid-air, or tamely on a minor point. Vary the length of your paragraphs – a short
sandwich paragraph between two longer ones can be very effective. Be lucid and clear. Write
in direct and plain English. Write with economy and accuracy. Use concrete and specific
images, not abstract and general ones. If possible use similes, metaphors and other figures of
speech. Don’t use beginnings like : “ I take up my pen to write” or “ Although time allowed
is short”, or “ What can I say about...?” or stale and stereotyped endings like: “ In conclusion
we may say”, or “ Finally we see that the advantages outweigh the disadvantages”, or” Thus,
looking at the matter from both points of view, we may say that”, or “ summing up, we can
conclude that”. It is wiser to make a good opening with an anecdote, quotation, epigram or
definition, and to close with a brief summary, with comments, a striking sentence or epigram.

India of my dreams

By Sreshtha Barua

You may be just a pinprick in the sea of humanity that India represents. One may question
how one individual can envision and transform India into a country of his/her dreams- a
country where peace and happiness will reign supreme, where honesty and discipline will be
a way of life and corruption a barbaric custom of Ancient History, but I believe it is possible.
As it has been rightly said “Little drops of water, little grains of sand, Make the mighty ocean
And the pleasant land” (Julia Abigail Fletcher Carney). Every individual is important, every
action counts, every word matters as it sets a ripple effect- intangible yet very rewarding.

As a student one can start by being honest, caring and disciplined. Parents and teachers
should motivate students to believe in themselves. Not all children may excel academically
but their understanding of their hidden talents, their belief in themselves will surely bring
about a change in the fabric of society. I also believe that to attain peace and harmony in life
one has to be in harmony with nature. Nothing can be better than studying in a clean and
green environment, far from pollution, under the blue sky and the bright sun. Inculcating the

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right values: honesty, sincerity, kindness, sensitivity, respect for the elderly and women, will
surely make every individual a complete human being.

Let us break the barriers of caste, creed, language and religion, and instead embrace the
religion of humanity. If the rich help the poor, if there are no hungry mouths, no old age
homes and no corruption the day won’t be far when India will be a truly progressive country.
Like our late Ex-President Shri A P J Abdul Kalam I believe in my country, in the innate
goodness of man. As Noble Laureate Shri Rabindranath Tagore had envisioned, I too dream

“ Where the mind is without fear and the Head is held high/ Where Knowledge is free/
Where the world has not been broken up into fragments by narrow domestic walls…Into that
heaven of freedom, my Father let my country awake.”

Literature

Vistas (Supplementary Reader)

The Tiger King

The plot in short

A royal prince was born.

The astrologers predicted that in the future King would be killed by a tiger.
The child grew up to be a king.
The king started killing tigers.
The astrologer said that the king would be killed by the 100th tiger.
The king vowed to kill 100 tigers.
The king killed 99 tigers.
The king didn’t kill the 100 tiger because the bullet missed its target.
The 100th tiger was so old that it didn’t die of the bullet but fainted on hearing the shot.
The king thought he had killed 100 tigers.
The king gifted a wooden tiger to his son.
At last he was killed by a wooden tiger.

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each

1. How did the tiger king acquire his name?
2. How was the tiger king brought up?
3. What led the Maharaja to start out on tiger hunt?
4. What did the high ranking British officer wish to do? Was his wish fulfilled?
5. Even though the Maharaja lost Rs. 3 lac, he was still happy. Why?
6. Why did the Maharaja’s tiger killing mission come to a sudden standstill?
7. Why did the Maharaja decide to get married?
8. Why was the Maharaja so anxious to kill the 100th tiger?
9. Did the Tiger King shoot the hundredth tiger? Give reasons for your answer.
10. How did the tiger king celebrate his victory over the killing of the 100th tiger

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1 When did the Tiger King stand in danger of losing his kingdom? How was he able to
avert the danger?
2 The astrologer’s prediction about the death of the tiger king came to be true. Do you
agree with this statement?
3 How did the Tiger King meet his end? What is ironical about his fate?

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The Enemy

Some points from the story

Sadaos’ father was very strict about his study.

Sadao was sent to USA for further studies when he was twenty-two.
He came back to Japan after eight years when he was thirty years old.

The story and its dilemma simplified

Which nation did the doctor belong to? Japan

Which nation did the injured soldier belong to? USA
Were the two nations at war? No
Did the doctor save the life of the soldier? Yes
Was the doctor a traitor? Yes/ No
Did the doctor betray his country? Yes/ No
Was the doctor a good doctor? Yes
Why was the doctor a good doctor? He saved a human life.
Was the doctor a good human being? Yes
Which one is better – friendship or enmity? Friendship
In case of a conflict between humanity and nationality, what should a person choose and
why?
Humanity because humanity unites and nationality divides.

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each

1. Why was Dr. Sadao not sent to the battlefield?
2. Hana told Yumi to wash the soldier. How did Yumi react?
3. How did the gardener react when Dr. Sadao told him about the wounded American
soldier?
4. Why did the servant leave Dr. Sadao’s house?
5. Why does the General not want to be treated by a doctor trained in Germany?
6. What secret plan did the General have about the American sailor staying under the
care of Dr. Sadao?
7. How did Dr. Sadao get rid of the American soldier?
8. Why did Dr. Sadao treat the American soldier even though it was an unpatriotic act on
his part ?
9. Why did the General not order immediate arrest of Dr. Sadao who had sheltered a white
man ?
10. What was Sadao’s father’s dream for him?

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1. Describe the difficulties faced by Dr. Sadao when he decided to help the enemy soldier?
2. Why did Dr. Sadao let the wounded American soldier escape? Explain highlighting the
character of Dr. Sadao.
3. How did Dr. Sadao rise above narrow prejudices of race and country to help a human
being in need?

Should Wizard Hit Mommy

This lesson highlights the tussle between the adult and the child. The daughter rejects the
father’s conclusion of a story. The daughter challenges the authority of the father in
determining the conclusion of a fictitious story. The daughter wants to take over the control
over the story but the father is not willing to relinquish the control. It talks about the gap
between the point of view of the parent and the point of view of the child. The father’s
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unwillingness to let the daughter determine the end of the story tells us that the father is
possessive about his daughter and the daughter resents that control over her life or rather over
her point of view about the rights and wrongs of life.

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each

1. Why did Roger Skunk go in search of the Wizard?
2. How did the wizard help Roger Skunk?
3. How did the woodland creatures react to the Skunk’s new smell?
4. Why was roger skunk’s mommy angry with him? What did she finally tell him?
5. How did the Skunk’s mother get his old smell back?
7. How did Jo want the wizard to behave when mommy Skunk approached him?
8. How does Jo want the story to end?
9. What makes Jack feel caught in an ugly middle position?
10. What is the moral issue that the story Should Wizard Hit the Mommy raises? Textbook

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1. Why did Jo disapprove of the way Jack ended the story of Roger Skunk? How did Jack
react to her opinion? How did she want it to end?
2. How is an adult’s perspective on life different from that of a child? Explain with
reference to the lesson Should Wizard Hit the Mommy.
3. What impression do you form of Jack as a father?

On the Face of It

Characteristics of Derry and Lamb

Derry Lamb
Acid burn Lame
14 years old boy Old man, ex-soldier
Living with family Living without family
Alienated Friendly
Full of angst Warm and welcoming
Dejected and full of negativity Constructive and full of hope
No friend Everybody is a friend
Likes Nature Likes Nature and books
Victim of accident Victim of accident

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each

1. Why did Mr. Lamb help Derry?
2. How does Mr. Lamb keep himself busy when it is a bit cool? Delhi 2012
3. What peculiar things does Derry notice about the old man, Lamb? AI 2012
4. Why does Mr. Lamb leave his gate always open? AI 2011
5. What qualities of Mr. Lamb attracted Derry to him? AI 2009
6. How does Mr. Lamb try to remove the baseless fears of Derry? A2008

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1. Both Derry and Lamb are physically impaired and lonely. It is the responsibility of
society to understand and support people with infirmities so that they do not suffer
from a sense of alienation. As a responsible citizen, write in about 100 words what
you would do to bring about a change in the lives of such people.
2. The lesson, 'On The Face of It', is an apt depiction of the loneliness and sense of
alienation experienced by people on account of a disability. Explain.

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3. How did Mr. Lamb’s meeting with Derry become a turning point in Derry’s life

Evans Tries an O-level

Evans is – (a) a prisoner in Oxford Prison

(b) serving a sentence for stealing
(c) an examinee of o-level German examination
(d) known as ‘Evans the Break’ who tried to escape from prison thrice
(e) very clever and intelligent
(f) very good actor
(g) a good singer
(h) not violent
(i) friendly with the prison authorities
(j) good natured and lovable

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each

1. Who was Carter? What did the Governor ask him to do ?
2. How did the Governor react to the two phone calls he received in quick succession?
3. Why did Evans not take off his hat when Jackson ordered him to do so ?
4. What clues did the answer sheet of Evans provide to the Governor?
5. Who do you think has outwitted the other – Evans or the ‘Governor? How?

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1. What precautions were taken by the prison authorities for the smooth conduct of the
examination?
2. How did the negligence of the prison officers prove to be a boon for Evans? FOREIGN
2014
3. What precautions were taken by the prison authorities to ensure that the German exam
was conducted smoothly and also under strict security? Delhi 2011

Memories of Childhood

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each

1. Why did Zitkala-Sa resist the shingling of her hair?
2. What is common between Zitkala-Sa and Bama?
3. What comic incident did Bama narrate to her brother ? Why was he not amused ?
4. What advice did Annan offer Bama?
5. Why was Zitkala-Sa terrified when Judewin told her that her hair would be cut short?
6. When did Bama first come to know of the social discrimination faced by the people of her
community?

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1. What activities did Bama witness on her way back home from school?
2. What oppression and discrimination did Zitkala-Sa and Bama experience during their
childhood? How did they respond to their respective situations?

Flamingo (Text Book)

Prose

The Last Lesson

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Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each
1. What was Franz expected to be prepared with for school that day?
2. Why was Franz afraid when he was going to school that day?
3. For Franz, what was more tempting than going to school and why?
4. What did Franz notice that was unusual about the school that day?
5. What had been put up on the bulletin board?
6. Mention two things about M. Hamel that surprised Franz on his last day at school.
7. How was M.Hamel’s class different the day Franz went late to school?
8. Who were sitting on the back benches of the classroom?
9. ‘What a thunderclap these words were to me.’ Which were the words that shocked and
surprised Franz?
10. What were the subjects taken up by M. Hamel on the day of the last lesson?

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1. What changes did the narrator find in the school when the order from Berlin came?
2. Describe the effect, on life at school, produced by the passing of Alsace and Lorraine into
Prussian hands.
3. Franz’s attitude towards school as well as towards M. Hamel change when he comes to
know about the take over of his village by Prussians. Do you agree? Discuss with
reference to the lesson.

Lost Spring

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each

1. Who was Saheb? How did he earn his living?
2. What is Saheb looking for in the garbage? Where has he come from and why?
3. What story did a man from Udipi once tell the author Anees Jung?
4. Is Saheb happy working at the tea stall?
5. What makes the city of Firozabad famous?
6. Mention two hazards of working in the glass bangle industry.
7. How is Mukesh’s attitude different from that of his family?
8. Why are the people of Firozabad averse to co operative movement?
Is it possible for Mukesh to realize his dream? Justify your answer.
9. What does the title Lost Spring convey?
10. Why did Saheb’s parents leave Dhaka and migrate to India ?

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1. Lost Spring explains the grinding poverty and traditions that condemn thousands of
people to a life of abject poverty. Do you agree? Why / Why not?
2. The bangle makers of Firozabad make beautiful bangles and make everyone happy but
they live and die in squalor. Elaborate.
3. Give a brief account of the life and activities of the people like Saheb-e-Alam settled in
Seemapuri.

Deep Water

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each

1. Which factors led Douglas to decide in favour of Y.M.C.A. pool?
2. What created an aversion for water in William Douglas when he was three years old?
3. What sort of terror seized Douglas as he went down the water with a yellow glow? How
could he feel that he was still alive?
4. What is the misadventure that William Douglas speaks about?
5. Why was Douglas keen to overcome his fear of water?
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6. How did the instructor help Douglas to overcome his fear of water?
7. How did Douglas finally get rid of the fear he had of water?
8. What did Douglas learn from his experience of drowning?
9. What did Douglas feel and do when he was pushed into the swimming pool ?
10. How did his swimming instructor ―build a swimmer‖ out of Douglas ?

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1. What was William Douglas afraid of? How did he eventually overcome his fear?
2. Why does Douglas as an adult recount a childhood experience of terror and his
conquering of it? What larger meaning does he draw from his experience?
3. Douglas fully realized the truth of Roosevelt’s statement ‘All we have to fear is fear
itself’. How did this realization help him brush aside his fear and become an expert
swimmer ?

The Rattrap

This is a story about crime and punishment. The setting is Norway. But it speaks about
universal human predicaments and emotions. A poor tramp is tempted to steal and that
temptation proves to be a trap. It is the trust of a rich girl with a benevolent heart that sets him
free from the trap. She shows him the way out of the maze and it is her belief in his goodness
that makes him rediscover the good in him and work out of his angst and cynicism. The story
is about the victory of hope, trust and compassion.

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each

1. From where did the peddler get the idea of the world being a rattrap?
Textbook
2. Why was the peddler amused by the idea that the whole world is a big rattrap?
3. Why was the peddler surprised when he knocked on the door of the cottage?
4. Why was the crofter so talkative and friendly with the peddler?
5. Why did the crofter show the thirty kronor to the peddler?
6. The crofter can be called as a good host. Why?
7. Did the peddler respect the confidence reposed in him by the crofter?
8. Why did the peddler keep to the woods after leaving the crofter’s cottage?
9. What doubts did Edla have about the peddler?
10. Why did the peddler accept Edla’s invitation? How did he feel?

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1. The story The Rattrap focuses on human loneliness and the need to bond with others.
Explain.
2. How did the peddler get out of the rattrap he had fallen into?
3. Give examples from the story The Rattrap to show how the ironmaster is different from
his daughter.

Indigo

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each

1. Why did Rajkumar Shukla go to meet Gandhi?
2. Give an example from the lesson Indigo to show that Raj Kumar Shukla was
a resolute man?
3. What did the peasants pay the British landlords as rent? What did the British now want
instead and why?
4. How was Gandhiji able to influence the lawyers at Champaran?
5. “The battle of Champaran is won!” What led Gandhi to make this remark?
6. Why did Gandhi agree to the planter’s offer of a 25% refund to the farmers?
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7. How did the Champaran episode change the plight of the peasants?
8. How did Gandhi keep a distant watch on the Ashram?
9. Why did Gandhi object to C.F.Andrews’ stay in Champaran?
10. How did the Champaran peasants react when they heard that a Mahatma had come to
help them ?

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1. Why do you think Gandhiji considered the Champaran episode to be a turning point in
his life?
2. Gandhiji’s was not a loyalty to abstractions; it was a loyalty to living, human beings.
Why did Gandhiji continue his stay in Champaran even after indigo sharecropping
disappeared?
3. Give an account of Gandhiji's efforts to secure justice for the poor indigo sharecroppers
of Champaran.

Going Places

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each

1. Where was it most likely that the two girls would find work after school and why?
2. What were the options that Sophie was dreaming of? Why does Jansie discourage her
from having such dreams?
3. Why was Sophie jealous of Geoff’s silence?
4. What did Sophie tell Geoff about her meeting with Danny Cassey?
5. Why did Sophie like her brother Geoff more than any other person?
6. Where did Sophie meet Cassey and what did they talk about?
7. Why didn’t Sophie want Jansie to know about her story with Danny?
8. Write a character sketch of Jansie
9. Did Geoff keep his promise? How do you know?
10. What did Sophie imagine about her meeting with Danny Cassey?

Answer the following in 125 – 150 words

1 Jansie is just as old as Sophie but she is very different from her. Bring out the contrast
between the two friends citing relevant instances from the story, Going Places.
2. The story Going Places draws a beautiful contrast between fact and fiction. Comment.
3. Sophie was a dreamer. The lesson ‘Going Places’ reminds us that mere dreams will not
help us to accomplish anything. What qualities, do you think, would help Sophie to
realize her dreams?

Poetry

The name of the poet and the poem should be learnt by heart

Sl No Name of the Poem Name of the Poet

1 My Mother at Sixty-six Kamala Das
2 An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum Stephen Spender
3 Keeping Quiet Pablo Neruda
4 A Thing of Beauty John Keats
5 Aunt Jennifer’s Tiger Adrienne Rich

My Mother at Sixty-six

What is the poem about?

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It is about a daughter and her fear of losing her mother who is gradually becoming old and
moving towards death. The daughter doesn’t want to lose her mother. However, the daughter
knows that old age and subsequent death is inevitable.

Questions for practice

I looked again at her, wan, pale

as a late winter’s moon and felt that old
familiar ache, my childhood’s fear,
but all I said was see you soon Amma
all I did was smile and smile and smile ……
(a) What was the poet’s childhood fear ?
(b) What were the poet’s parting words ?
(c) What is the poetic device used in these lines ?

and looked out at young

trees sprinting, the merry children spilling
out of their homes, but after the airport’s
security check, standing a few yards
away, I looked again at her, wan
pale as a late winter’s moon and felt that old familiar ache,…….
(a) How can the trees sprint?
(b) Why did the poet look at her mother again?
(c) What did she observe?
(d) Identify the figure of speech used in these lines.

Driving from her parent’s

Home to Cochin last Friday
Morning, I saw my mother, beside me,
Doze, open mouthed, her face ashen like that
Of a corpse and realized with pain
That she was as old as she looked…
(a) Where was the poet driving to?
(b) Why was her mother’s face looking like that of a corpse?
(c) What did the poet notice about her mother?

my childhood’s fear
but all I said was, see you soon, Amma,
all I did was smile and smile and smile……
(a) Who is “I”?
(b) What was my childhood’s fear?
(c) Why did the narrator smile repeatedly?

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each:

What is the kind of ache and pain that the poet feels when she left for the airport?
Why are the young trees described as sprinting?
Why has the poet brought in the image of merry children spilling out of their homes?
Why has the mother been compared to the late winter’s moon?
What do the parting words of the poet and her smile signify?

An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum

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What is the poem about?

It is about underprivileged children who should be empowered by means of education and

who should be given an opportunity to a better life, so that, they can break the limitations of
the slum. It highlights that children are the future of humanity and the future of humanity
depends on how well we treat our children.

Questions for practice

Surely, Shakespeare is wicked, the map a bad example,

With ships and sun and love tempting them to steal-
For lives that slyly turn in their cramped holes
From fog to endless night?
(a) Why is Shakespeare referred to as wicked?
(b) Where do their lives ‘slyly’ turn?
(c) Explain – ‘ From fog to endless night?’

On their slag heap, these children

Wear skins peeped through by bones and spectacles of steel
With mended glass, like bottle bits on stones.
All of their time and space are foggy slums
So blot their maps with slums as big as doom.
(a) Which two images are used to describe these slums?
(b) What sort of life do these children lead?
(c) Which figure of speech is used in the last line?

Break O break till they break the town

And show the children to green fields, and make their world
Run azure on gold sands, and let their tongues
Run naked into books the white and green leaves open
History theirs whose language is the sun.
(a) To whom does ‘they’ refer to?
(b) What would they break?
(c) What other freedom should they enjoy?

And, yet for these

Children, these windows, not his map, their world,
Where all their future‖s painted with a fog,
(a) Which map is the poet talking about in the above lines ?
(b) To what do the words, ――these windows, their world‖‖, refer ? 2
(c) What sort of future do the slum children have ?

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each:

What does the poet want / wish for the children of the slums?
How does the poet describe the classroom walls?
How do the pictures and maps on the wall contrast with the world the slum children live in?
What does the poet mean by ‘let their tongues run naked into books’ in the poem An
Elementary School Classroom in a Slum?
What change does the poet hope for in the lives of the slum children?

Keeping Quiet

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What is the poem about?

It is about looking inside and finding the goodness locked inside us. It is about trying to listen
to the world around us without being assertive and aggressive and about trying to understand
each other; and thus construct a better world based on understanding and peace.

Questions for practice

Fisherman in the cold sea

would not harm whales
and the man gathering salt
would look at his hurt hands
(a) What does the poet expect from the fisherman and why?
(b) What will the man gathering salt do?
(c) What do the hurt hands imply?

Those who prepare green wars,

wars with gas, wars with fire,
victory with no survivors,
would put on clean clothes
and walk about with their brothers
in the shade, doing nothing.
(a) Whom does ‘those’ refer to here?
(b) What do ‘green wars, wars with gas, wars with fire’ signify?
(c) What does the poet mean by “victory with no survivors”

what I want should not be confused

with total inactivity.
Life is what it is about;
I want no truck with death.
(a) What does the poet want?
(b) What does ‘total inactivity’ imply?
(c) What is life ‘all about’?
(d) Explain: I want no truck with death.

Perhaps the Earth can teach us

as when everything seems dead
and later proves to be alive.
Now I’ll count up to twelve
And you keep quiet and I will go.
(a) What does the earth teach us?
(b) Why does the poet count up to twelve?
(c) What will keeping quiet help us to achieve?

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each:

Why do you think the poet has used the capital letter ‘E’ in ‘Earth’ in the poem?
What can the Earth teach us?
How will being quiet help us?
What significant lesson do we learn from the earth?
Why does the poet wish to count up to twelve?
How will the poet’s counting help us?

A Thing of Beauty

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What is the poem about?

It is about how an experience of a beautiful thing has a positive impact on our happiness. The
beauty of Nature and Mother Earth is equated with a beautiful thing that inspires a happy
memory.the happy memory gives us hope and helps us to fight depression.

Questions for practice

Therefore, on every morrow, are we wreathing

A flowery band to bind us to the earth
Spite of despondence, of the inhuman dearth
Of noble natures, of the gloomy days,
Of all the unhealthy and over darkened ways
Made for our searching:
(a) What are the flowery band that bind us to the earth?
(b) What message do the above lines convey?

And such too is the grandeur of the dooms

We have imagined for the mighty dead
All lovely tales that we have heard or read
An endless fountain of immortal drink
Pouring unto to us from heaven’s brink.
(a) Who are the mighty dead? How do we know about them?
(b) What images does the poet use to convey that beauty is everlasting?
(c) What lovely tales that we have heard pr dread?
(d) Identify the figure of speech used in the above lines.

Spite of despondence, of the inhuman dearth

Of noble natures, of the gloomy days,
Of all the unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways
Made for our searching: yes in spite of all,
Some shape of beauty moves away the pall
From our dark spirits.
(a) Name the poem and the poet.
(b) Why are we ‘despondent’?
(c) What removes ‘the pall from our dark spirits’?

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each:

Why does Keats associates ‘grandeur’ associated with death?

What is the source of endless fountain and what is its effect?
What spreads the pall of despondence over our dark spirits? How is it removed?
According to Keats, what makes man love life in spite of all its problems and miseries?

Aunt Jennifer’s Tiger

What is the poem about?

It is about a woman whose dreams and desires are crushed by a tyrannical husband and
whose freedom is destroyed by marital responsibilities. It highlights a perverted relationship
based on fear, dominance and cruelty rather than love, mutual respect and understanding

Questions for practice

Aunt Jennifer’s tigers prance across a screen,

Page | 30
Bright topaz denizens of a world of green
They do not fear the men beneath the tree
They pace in sleek chivalric certainty.
(a)How are Aunt Jennifer’s tigers described?
(b)Why are they described as denizens of a world of green?
(c) Why are they not afraid of men?

They do not fear the men beneath the tree

They pace in sleek chivalric certainty.
(a) Are Aunt Jennifer’s tiger’s real? Give reasons for your answer.
(b) Why do the tigers not fear the man beneath the tree?
(c) What do you understand by ‘chivalric certainty’?

Aunt Jennifer’s fingers fluttering through her wool

Find even the ivory needle hard to pull
The massive weight of Uncle’s weeding band
Sits heavily upon Aunt Jenifer’s hand.
(a) What is Aunt Jennifer doing?
(b) Why are Aunt Jennifer’s fingers fluttering through her wool?
(c) Why does Aunt Jennifer create animals which are so different?

Find even the ivory needle hard to pull

The massive weight of Uncle’s weeding band
Sits heavily upon Aunt Jenifer’s hand.
(a) Why are Aunt Jennifer’s fingers fluttering?
(b) What is suggested by the image ‘the massive weight of Uncle’s weeding band’?
(c) Why did Aunt Jennifer create animals which were so different from her own
character?

Answer the following in 30 – 40 words each:

What are the ordeals Aunt Jennifer is surrounded by?

Interpret the symbol found in the poem Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers.
How does Aunt Jennifer express her bitterness and anger against male dominance?
How are Aunt Jennifer’s tigers different from her?
Why did Aunt Jennifer choose to embroider tigers on the panel?
How do the words, 'denizens' and 'chivalric' add to our understanding of Aunt Jennifer's
tigers?

Long Reading Text/ Novel

Invisible Man

Links

Summary

http://www.shmoop.com/invisible-man-wells/summary.html

Audio Book

http://www.loyalbooks.com/book/invisible-man-by-h-g-wells

Two questions will be asked one based on characterisation and the other based on the plot.

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Character of

Dr Kemp

Thomas Marvel

Mrs Hall

Invisible Man

Plot

Meeting between Griffin and Marvel

Meeting between Griffin and Kemp

Incident of the dancing furniture

Death of Invisible Man

Describe the incident at Port Stowe.

What happened at the ‘Jolly Cricketer’s’ and who helped Marvel to escape from the
Invisible Man?

Describe the experiment conducted by Griffin to make things invisible.

What did Griffin do to get clothing and make himself comfortable?

Describe Invisible Man’s visit to Emporium.

What happened when Griffin entered the shop at Drury Lane?

Why did Kemp betray Griffin? Do you support his betrayal? Give reasons.

How did Griffin meet his tragic end?

Describe the first meeting between Griffin and Dr. Kemp.

Marvel is the only person who benefits from the Invisible Man’s death. Justify.

Example

1. How does the Invisible man meet his end?

After Col Adye was shot by Griffin as he was leaving Kemp’s house to go to the station
and get bloodhounds, two policemen and a girl came to Kemp’s house. Then Griffin
started smashing doors and windows with an axe. Kemp gave the policemen pokers to
defend themselves. Griffin gained entry and the policemen fought with him and one even
managed to hurt Griffin who escaped. Soon they found out that Kemp had also fled.
Kemp tried to take shelter in the house of his neighbour Mr. Heelas, who turned him
away. So, he took the road and started running towards the ‘Jolly Cricketers’. He saw a
tram driver, his assistant and the people of Jolly Cricketers started chasing Griffin. Kemp
took a sharp turn near a sweet shop where Griffin caught him. After a violent scuffle
Kemp managed to hold Griffin. Soon the navvies or the workmen knocked the Invisible

Page | 32
 man down with shovels. They kicked and beat him until he cried for mercy. Kemp tried to
stop the crowd but it was too late and his voice choked. Slowly his naked and dead body
started becoming visible. The people could make out his battered face. Thus, the Invisible
man met a pathetic end.

2. Character sketch of Marvel or Marvel is the only person to benefit from Griffin.
Explain.

Ans. When we meet Marvel, he appears to be unassuming, with no family, little money
and not very bright. He was the perfect tool for Griffin. Griffin used him as he used the
stray cat, his father or the Halls. He was forced by Griffin to go back to Coach and Horses
and get back his books. He had to keep all the money Griffin was stealing. At Port Stowe
when he tried to confide in a mariner he was attacked by Griffin. We feel sorry for him.
In terror of the Invisible man he fled to ‘The Jolly Cricketers’ where a barman, an
American cabman and a policeman try to help him. He was saved by the American who
shot and hurt Griffin who fled. For his own safety Marvel requested to be put into prison.
After Griffin’s death we find that Marvel was the owner of a small inn near Port Stowe
ironically called ‘The Invisible Man’. The lawyers could not identify the stolen money
which he had been able to keep. He also got some money for doing a one-man show to
tell about his experience with Griffin. He lied about Griffin’s books and said he did not
have them. Later we find out how the man we had considered foolish was trying to study
the ‘wonderful secrets’ in Griffin’s books though he claimed he would not use it for doing
evil. Thus the tramp is the only person who benefits from his association with Griffin.

Tips to do well in the Examination

1. Don’t forget to write P.T.O.

2. Number your answers properly
3. Write the name of the Section
4. Pay attention to alignment
5. Stick to the word limit
6. Use space for rough work
7. During reading time solve the unseen passage using a pencil
8. Prepare a general question from each lesson of literature
a) Theme and Summary
b) List of main characters
c) Brief description of characters
d) Name of the lesson & Name of the author
9. Learn by heart the formats of the writing section
10. Don’t use correction fluid
11. If you want to cross out a word, draw horizontal line across the word
12. Cross out the blank sheets

Tips to bust stress

REST

R-Rest/ Leisure/ Relaxation – Take adequate rest. Go to bed on time. Don’t stay
awake at night. Take a few minutes break in between studies. Spend time with people
with positive habits and constructive attitude.

Page | 33
 E-Exercise/ Yoga/ Control – Do mild exercise or yoga. Listen to soothing music.
Control your urge to spend too much time social networking. Do introspect but don’t
brood. Keep yourself clean. Keep your room and surroundings clean.

S- Sustenance/ Food/ Diet – Don’t eat unhealthy food. Don’t skip meals. Eat a healthy
breakfast. Eat fruits. Eat vegetables. Eat nutritious home cooked food. Drink a lot of
clean drinking water. Try to have a balanced diet.

T-Time-Table/ Planning – Plan properly. Don’t keep things pending till the last
moment. Make a time-table and try to follow that religiously. In the time-table
provide ample time for meals, rest and leisure.

Thoughts to Ponder

Do not dwell in the past, do not dream of the future, concentrate the mind on the present
moment. - Buddha
No one saves us but ourselves. No one can and no one may. We ourselves must walk the
path. - Buddha
Success is not the key to happiness. Happiness is the key to success. If you love what you are
doing, you will be successful. - Albert Schweitzer
Success is not final, failure is not fatal: it is the courage to continue that counts. - Winston
Churchill
The price of success is hard work, dedication to the job at hand, and the determination that
whether we win or lose, we have applied the best of ourselves to the task at hand. - Vince
Lombardi
Always be yourself, express yourself, have faith in yourself, do not go out and look for a
successful personality and duplicate it. - Bruce Lee

BEST OF LUCK
*****************

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 P a g e |1

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

GUWAHATI REGION

SPECIAL STUDY MODULE – PHYSICS

FOR
CLASS – XII (2015-16)

CHIEF PATRON:
SH. SANTOSH KUMAR MALL, IAS
(COMMISSIONER, KVS)

PATRON:
MR. C. NEELAP
(DEPUTY COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION)

GUIDE:
Sh. J. PRASAD, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION
Sh. D. PATLE, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION
Dr. S. BOSE, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHTI REGION

COORDINATOR & SUBJECT EXPERT

Mr. M. LAL, PRINCIPAL, K.V. JAGIROAD
 P a g e |2

ELECTROSTATICS (Chap. 1& 2)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

Q.1. Define electric flux.

Ans. The number of electric field lines passing through unit area normal to the given surface
are known as electric flux.

Q.2. Is the electric flux scalar or vector? What is the SI unit of electric flux?

Ans. Scalar. SI Unit is Nm2C-1

Q.3. What do you mean by quantization of electric charge?

Ans. The charge on a body is found in the form of integral multiple of fundamental charge
e. Where e = 1.6 x 10-19 C.

Q.4. Why the electric field inside a dielectric slab decreases when it is placed in an
external electric field?

Ans. Because dielectric gets polarized in opposite direction.

Q.5. Can two equi-potential surfaces intersect each other? Give reason to support
your answer.

Ans. No, because at the point of intersection, there will be two directions of electric field
which is not possible.

Q.6. The electric field is always perpendicular to equi-potential surface. Why?

Ans. Since work done in moving a charge between two points on equi-potential surface is
zero.

Q.7: In the figure, a charge ‘q’ is kept at point ‘o’.

The work done in carrying an electron from
AtoB is positive. What is the nature of charge
‘q’? Ans: −𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣

Q.8. A charge ‘q’ is placed at the center of a hollow metallic

spherical conductor as shown in figure. What is the work
done in carrying a charge of 5 µC from A to B via C.

Ans. 𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧, because the electrostatic field is conservative in

nature.

Q.9. What is the angle between the direction of electric fields at axial point and
equatorial point due to an electric dipole?

Ans. 1800

Q.10. The distance of the field point on the axis of a small dipole is doubled. By what
factor, will the electric field due to dipole change?

Ans. 1/8 times because Eaxial 𝛼𝛼 1/𝑟𝑟 3

 P a g e |3

Q.11. Why do we enclose the sensitive instruments in metal cage?

Ans. To protect them from outsider electric influence, electrostatic-shielding is needed.

Q.12. Force between two point electric charges kept at a distance d apart in air is F. if
these charges are kept at same distance in water (K=80) how does the force between
tem change?
1 𝑞𝑞1 𝑞𝑞2 1
Ans. F’=F/80, because F = 4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀 2
∴ 𝐹𝐹 ∝ 𝐾𝐾
𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑟𝑟

Q.13. What does q1 + q2 =0 signify in electrostatics?

Ans. The equation signifies that the electric charges are algebraically additive and here q1
and q2 are equal and opposite. Also this signifies an electric dipole.

Q.14. Electric force between two charged particles situated at a given distance is F
newton. What is the force if the distance is made half?
1 𝑞𝑞1 𝑞𝑞2 1
Ans. F’= 4F because 𝐹𝐹 = 4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀 2
, or F ∝ 𝑟𝑟 2
𝑜𝑜 𝑟𝑟

Q.15. Define dielectric constant of a medium in terms of electrostatic force?

𝐹𝐹
Ans. K =𝐹𝐹𝑜𝑜 . It is the ratio of force between two charges at certain distance in vacuum to
𝑚𝑚

force in that medium for same charges and same distance.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

Q.1. A point charge is placed at the center of spherical Gaussian surface. How will
electric flux φE change if:
(i) The sphere is replaced by a cube of same or different volume,
(ii) A second charge is placed near, and outside, the original sphere,
(iii) A second charge is placed inside the sphere, and
(iv) The original charge is replaced by an electric dipole?

Ans: (i) No change. φE independent of shape/size.

(ii) No change, according to Gauss’ law

(iii) Flux will increase.

(iv) Zero

Q.2. Is it possible to have zero flux through a surface encloses

charges? Justify your answer.

Ans. 𝑌𝑌𝑌𝑌𝑌𝑌, 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑐𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧. For example, electric dipole
inside the Gaussian surface.

Q.3. A point charge of +10 µC is at a distance of 5 cm directly

above the center of square of side 10 cm as shown. What is electric flux through the
square?
𝑞𝑞
Ans. 𝛷𝛷 = 6𝜖𝜖
𝑜𝑜
 P a g e |4

Q.4. A uniformly charged conducting sphere of diameter 2.4 m has surface charge
density 80 µC/m2.

(i) Find charge on the sphere,

(ii) What is the total electric flux leaving the surface?

𝑞𝑞
Ans. (i) q = 𝜎𝜎.A = 𝜎𝜎4𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋2, (ii) 𝛷𝛷 = 𝜖𝜖
𝑜𝑜

Q.5. An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 x 104 N/C at distance of 2 cm.
Calculate linear charge density.
𝜆𝜆
Ans. Formula: 𝐸𝐸 = 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀 , Ans: 1.0004 x 10-8 C/m
𝑜𝑜

Q.6. Define electric dipole moment. What is its direction?

Ans. The product of either charges of dipole and length of dipole. From positive to negative.

Q.7. For what value of angle between dipole moment and electric field the dipole
remain in (i) stable equilibrium, (ii) unstable equilibrium?

Ans. (i) 𝛳𝛳 = 00 (ii) 𝛳𝛳 = 1800

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

Q.1. Two metal plates form a parallel plate capacitor. The distance between the
plates is d. A metal sheet of thickness d/2 and of the same area is introduced between
the plates. What is the ratio of the capacitances in the two cases?
E A E A
Ans: use C' = 0 and C = 0
d −t d

C'
Get =2
C

Q.2. The graph shows the variation of voltage V across the plates of two capacitors. A
and B versus increase of charge Q stored on them. Which of the capacitors has higher
capacitance? Give reason for your answer.
V
B

𝑄𝑄 1
Ans. CA> CB, as C= 𝑉𝑉 ∴ 𝐶𝐶 = 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 (smaller the slope, greater the capacitance)

Q.3. The given graph shows the variation of charge q versus potential difference V for
two capacitors C1 and C2. The two capacitors have same plate separation but the plate
area of C2 is double than that of C1. Which of the lines in the graph correspond to C1
and C2 and why?
 P a g e |5

q A

Ans. Use C ∝ A , A for C2 , B for C1

Q.4. Two point charges +3µC and -3 µC are located at points are located at two points
A and B, 20 cm apart in vacuum.

(i) Find the electric field at mid-point of the line AB joining two charges.

(ii) If a negative test charge of magnitude 1.5 x 10-19 C, is placed at the center, find the
force experienced by the test charge.

Ans. Hint: E 1=2.7 x 106 NC-1 along AP, E 2=2.7 x 106 NC-1 along PB, E = E1+ E2 =5.4 x 106 NC-
1 along AB, F = q0E = 8.1 x 10-3 N

Q.5. Two point charges of 5 x 10-19C and +20x 10-19C are separated by a distance of 2
m. find the point on the line joining them, at which electric field intensity is zero.
𝑞𝑞 𝑞𝑞2
Ans. E 1=E2= 4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀1 𝑥𝑥 2 = or x = 2/3 m
𝑜𝑜 4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀𝑜𝑜 (2−𝑥𝑥)2

Q.6. An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges of magnitude 6x10-3

separated by a distance of 10 cm, placed at 300 w.r.t. uniform electric field E,
experiences a torque of magnitude 6√3 Nm. Calculate (i) magnitude of electric field
(ii) potential energy of electric dipole.

Ans. Hint: p = 2ql = 6x10-4 Cm, τ = pESinθ OR E = τ / pESinθ = 2√3 x 104 N C-1,
POTENTIAL ENERGY (U) = -pECosθ = - 18 J

Q.7. Sketch electric lines of force for point charges q1 and q2 for (i) q1 = q2And (ii) q1 ˃
q2
Ans:

Q.8. Define electric dipole moment. Is it a scalar or vector? Give its SI unit.

Ans. Its magnitude is given by the product of magnitude of

either charge and distance between them. It is represented by
‘p’.

p = q (2a). It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is Cm

 P a g e |6

Q.9. Draw electric lines of force due to a uniformly charged small spherical shell,
charge onthe shell is negative.

Q.10.Find expression for force and torque on an electric dipole when kept in an
uniform electric field.

Ans. There is a force qE on charge q and a force –qE on

charge –q. The net force on the dipole is zero, since E is
uniform.

Magnitude of torque = qE × 2a sinθ

= 2qaE sinθ = pEsinθ ------- (1)

Torque= p × E ,

Its direction is normal to the plane of the paper, coming out of it.

Q.11. The graph shows the variation of ‘V’ vs ‘q’ for two capacitors A and B. which of
the two capacitors has higher capacitance? Give reason in support of your answer.

Ans. Slope = V/Q, 1/slope = C, therefore, CA ˃ CB

Q.12. What is the nature of force between two point electric charges q1 & q2 kept at
some distance apart in air is attractive & repulsive when (a) q1 q2>0 (b)) q1 q2<0?

Ans. (a) Repulsive. As charges are of same sign (b) attractive. As charges are of opposite
sign

Q.13. Define coulomb and calculate charge carried by 12.5×1018electrons.

Ans. Definition of 1c n=q/e, q=ne=12.5x10 18=2C

Q.14. what do you understand by permittivity of free space? Write its numerical
value in S.I. unit.

Ans. Definition, εo=8.85x 10-12 C2m-2N-1

Q.15. Two fixed point charges +4e and +e are separated by a distance ‘a’, where
should the third point charge be placed for it to be in
equilibrium.
4𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 2 1
Ans. For equilibrium: (𝑎𝑎−𝑥𝑥)2 = 𝑥𝑥 2 or 𝑎𝑎−𝑥𝑥 = 𝑥𝑥 Ans: 𝑥𝑥 = 𝑎𝑎/3
 P a g e |7

Q.16. Two identical point charges Q are separated by a distance ‘a ’A third point
charge be placed on the line joining the above charges such that all three charges are
in equilibrium. Find location and magnitude of third charge.
𝑄𝑄𝑄𝑄 𝑄𝑄𝑄𝑄
Ans. For equilibrium: (𝑎𝑎−𝑥𝑥)2 = 𝑥𝑥 2

1 1 𝑎𝑎
= ⇒ 𝑥𝑥 =
𝑎𝑎 − 𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 2

∴ 𝑞𝑞 = − 4 σ2
𝑄𝑄𝑄𝑄 𝑄𝑄𝑄𝑄 𝑄𝑄
𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 4𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 + 4𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 =0
𝑜𝑜 𝑟𝑟 2 𝑜𝑜 (𝑟𝑟/2)2

�⃗=𝟓𝟓 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟑𝟑 𝒊𝒊̂ N/C. find the electric flux of this field
Q.17. Given a uniform electric field 𝑬𝑬
through a square of side 10 cm in y-z plane. What would be the flux through the same
square if the plane makes an angle of 300 with the x-axis?

Ans. ᶲ= E A cos 𝛳𝛳, 50 Nm2C-1. And 25 Nm2C-1

Q.18. Two infinitely long plane thin parallel sheets having surface charge densities σ1
and σ2 (σ1 >σ2) are shown in the figure. Write the magnitudes and directions of the
field lines in the regions marked II and III.

1
Ans. For region II 𝐸𝐸𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 = ( σ1 − σ2 ) towards right side / from sheet A to B.
2𝜀𝜀0

1
For region III 𝐸𝐸𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 = (σ1 + σ2 ) towards right side / away from two sheets.
2𝜀𝜀0

Questions for practice:

19. Calculate the work done in rotating an electric dipole in uniform electric field. (3 marks)

(5 MARKS)
Q.1.Derive an expression for capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor.
Q.2 A dipole is made up of two charges +q and –q separated by a distance 2a. Derive an
expression for the electric field → due to this dipole on the equatorial plane. Draw the shape
𝐸𝐸𝑒𝑒

of the graph between �→ � and r when r>>a.

𝐸𝐸𝑒𝑒
If this dipole were to be put in a uniform external electric
field → then obtain an expression for torque acting on the
𝐸𝐸𝑒𝑒
dipole.
1
Q.1.The electric field component in figure are 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = 𝛼𝛼𝑥𝑥 2 , Ey
= Ez = 0. In which α = 800 N/C m1/2. Calculate (a) electric
flux through cube, (b) Charge within the cube. Assume that
a = 0.1m. 𝑛𝑛�
 P a g e |8

Q.2. (i) If + 5 µC charges are placed at the center of a sphere of radius 5 cm. Calculate: (a)
Flux through the sphere, (b) If the radius of the sphere is doubled, finds new flux through
the sphere.

(ii) Find the ratio of flux passing through sphere S1 and S2 in respect of given figure.

Q.3. State Gauss’ law in electrostatics. Find electric field due to infinitely charged long
straight uniformly charged wire of linear charge density 𝜆𝜆 at a given point using Gauss’ law.
Draw ‘E’ vs distance.

Q.4. Using Gauss theorem, find electric field at a point due to uniformly charged infinite
plane sheet with surface charge density ‘σ’. Draw ‘E’ vs distance from sheet.

Q.5. Using Gauss theorem, find electric field at a point situated inside a uniformly charged
thin spherical shell surface charge density ‘σ’.

Q.6. Derive the expression for an electric field due to an electric dipole at a point on axial
line.
Q.7. Derive the expression for an electric field due to an electric dipole at a point on
equatorial line.
Q.8. Show that the energy stored in a parallel plate capacitor is ½ CV2. Hence derive the
expression for energy density.
Q.9. two point charges +q and -2q are placed at the vertices B and C of an equilateral
triangle ABC of side ‘a’ as given in the figure. Obtain the expression for (i) the magnitude
and (ii) the direction of the resultant electric field at the vertex A due to these two charges.
(Use Gauss law in electrostatics)

1 𝑎𝑎√3
(i) 𝐸𝐸𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 = 4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀 � 𝑎𝑎2 � A
0

(ii) 300 with side AC

B C

+ -

CURRENT ELECTRICITY (Chap. 3)

V S A TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1. Write SI unit of resistivity. Ans: Ω m

I
2. V- I graph of two metallic wires of same length and cross A sectional
area are given below. Which of these has higher resistance?
B

Ans: B has higher resistance.

V
 P a g e |9

3. Define mobility of electron and give its SI unit.

Ans: Mobility is defined as the magnitude of drift velocity per unit electric field.

µ = vd/E, Its SI unit is m2V-1s-1

4. A wire of resistivity ρ is stretched to twice its length. What will be its new
resistivity?

Ans: Resistivity will remain unchanged, because resistivity of a material is independent of

its dimensions.

5. A wire of resistance 8R is bent in the form of a circle. What is the effective

resistance between the ends of its diameter?

Ans: Resistance of each half of the circle= 4R

4𝑅𝑅 𝑋𝑋 4𝑅𝑅
The effective resistance between the ends of the diameter is Reff = 4𝑅𝑅+4𝑅𝑅
= 2R

6. If the temperature of a conductor increases how does the resistivity of the

conductor change?

Ans: ρ= m/(ne2τ)

With increase in temp, τ decreases hence, the resistivity of conductor increases.

7. Two wires of equal cross-sectional area, one of copper and the other of Manganin
have the same resistance. Which one will be longer?

Ans: The copper wire will be longer because for the same cross section area A and
resistance R, length of the wire l is inversely proportional to ρ. ρCu < ρmanganin

8. A toaster produces more heat than a light bulb when connected in parallel to the
220V mains. Which of the two has greater resistance?

Ans: From the relation P= V2/R, it is clear that the resistance of bulb is greater as it
produces less heat (i.e., its power is less) for constant potential difference.

9. What is the largest voltage you can safely put across a resistor marked 196 Ω -1W?

Ans: Vmax= √𝑃𝑃. 𝑅𝑅= (1x196)1/2 =14V.

10. For measuring small resistance with the help of a potentiometer, would you
prefer high potential gradient or a low potential gradient?

Ans: Low value of potential gradient is preferred.

1
As sensitivity of potentiometer ∝ 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. Define current density. Is it a scalar or vector? Give its SI unit.

Ans: It is the current flowing per unit area of the cross – section of the conductor.
 P a g e | 10

J = I/A, It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is Am-2

2. Write the principal of potentiometer and how will you increase its sensitivity?

Ans: When a constant current flows through a wire of uniform area of cross section then,
the potential drop across any portion of the wire is directly proportional to its length.

V α l, Sensitivity can be increased by (i) increasing the length of wire of potentiometer and
(ii) reducing current in the circuit (iii) reducing the least count of meter scale.

3. Identify the electrical devices X and Y in the given circuit:

E K
X

Rh

K G
E1 Y
K1
E2
Ans: X = Ammeter and Y = resistance box.

4. In an experiment on meter bridge the balancing length on wire is ‘l’. What would
be its value, if the radius of the meter bridge wire is doubled? Justify your answer.
𝑅𝑅 𝑙𝑙
Ans: The balancing length remains unchanged because as per relation 𝑥𝑥
= 100−𝑙𝑙
, the
balancing length is independent of radius of bridge wire provided that it is throughout
uniform.

5. Why is a potentiometer preferred over a voltmeter for measuring the emf of the
combination?

Ans: Because potentiometer gives reading when no current is being drawn from the cell i.e.,
the cell is in an open circuit.

6. Under what condition can terminal potential difference of a cell be greater than its
emf?

Ans: When current is being supplied to the cell by some external source e.g. At the time of
charging a secondary cell.

7. Explain how electron mobility changes for a good conductor when (i) the temp of
the conductor is decreased at constant potential difference, and (ii) applied potential
difference is doubled at constant temp?
𝑒𝑒
Ans: (i) We know that electron mobility μ=(vd/E)=�𝑚𝑚� . 𝜏𝜏, where τ is the relaxation time. If
temp of the conductor is decreased, then τ increases and hence electron mobility increases.
 P a g e | 11

(ii) If at constant temp applied potential difference is doubled, it will not affect mobility of
electrons.

8. Two bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio 1:2 are connected in parallel to a
source of constant voltage. What will be the ratio of power dissipation in these?

Ans: Here V= constant and R1/R2=1/2, hence P1/P2= (V2/R1)/(V2/R2)= R2/R1=2/1.

9. A carbon resistor is marked with rings of blue, black, brown and silver
colour.Write the value of resistance and tolerance. Ans: 600+10% Ω

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. A potential difference V is applied across the ends of copper wire of length l and
diameter D. What is the effect on drift velocity of electrons if (i) V is doubled (ii) I is
doubled (iii) D is doubled.
𝑙𝑙
𝑅𝑅 = 𝜌𝜌 𝐴𝐴
Ans: Drift velocity = I/neA = (V/R)/neA� � or 𝑉𝑉𝑑𝑑 = V/ 𝜌𝜌nel
𝜌𝜌 = 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟

(i) If V is doubled , drift velocity is doubled as vdα V

(ii) If l is doubled, drift velocity is halved as vdα 1/l
(iii) No change in drift velocity on changing the diameter of the wire as it is
independent of diameter.

2. Define drift velocity and derive its relation with (i)electric field E and (ii) potential
difference V.

Ans: (i) Drift velocity is the average constant velocity gained by free electrons under the
effect of electric field. (ii) for practice

4. Draw the circuit diagram for comparing the emf’s of two primary cell using
potentiometer and write the
formula used.

Ans: E1α l1 and E2α l2

E1/E2 =l1/l2

5. Draw the circuit diagram for determining the internal resistance of primary cell
using potentiometer. Write the formula used.

Ans: diagram Ref: NCETR Text Book page no.122 figure no. 3.28(b)

r = R (l1 –l2)/l2

Where r is the internal resistance

l1 = balanced length when k2 is OFF.

l2 = balanced when k2 is ON.

6. Deduce the relation connecting current density(J) and the conductivity(σ) of the
conductor when an electric field E is applied to it.
 P a g e | 12
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 𝑉𝑉 𝑙𝑙
Ans: According to Ohm’s Law, we know that V= R.I= 𝐴𝐴
. 𝐼𝐼 => 𝑙𝑙 = 𝜌𝜌. 𝐴𝐴

𝐼𝐼 𝑉𝑉
But 𝐴𝐴 = 𝐽𝐽and 𝑙𝑙 = 𝐸𝐸, hence we have

𝐽𝐽
E=ρ.J or 𝐸𝐸 = (1/𝜌𝜌)=σ, where σ is the electrical conductivity of given material.

𝐽𝐽
The relation 𝐸𝐸 = 𝜎𝜎 or J=σ.E is yet another form of Ohm’s Law.

7. A 10 m long potentiometer wire of resistance 20Ω is connected in series with 5V

battery & external resistance of 480Ω. If an unknown emf E is balanced at 600cm of
this wire find (a)potential gradient (b)value of unknown emf E ( H
O T S)

Ans: I = E/R + r = 5/(20+480) = 0.01 A

V1 = IR = 0.01×20 = 0.2 V
(i) K = V1/L = 0.2/10 =0.02 V/m or E = K.l = 0.02×6 = 0.12V
8. Two wires X, Y have the same resistivity, but their cross sectional areas are in the
ratio 2:3 and lengths in the ratio 1:2. They are first connected in series and then in
parallel to a DC source. Find out the ratio of the drift speeds of the electrons in the
two wires for(i) series connection and (ii) parallel connection.
𝐴𝐴 𝑙𝑙
Ans: given: 𝜌𝜌𝑥𝑥 =𝜌𝜌𝑦𝑦 but (𝐴𝐴𝑥𝑥 )=2/3 and (𝑙𝑙𝑥𝑥 )=1/2
𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦

𝑙𝑙 𝐴𝐴𝑦𝑦
Rx/Ry=( 𝜌𝜌𝑥𝑥 /𝜌𝜌𝑦𝑦 ).( 𝑙𝑙𝑥𝑥 ).( 𝐴𝐴 )=1×(1/2) × (3/2)=3/4
𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦

𝐼𝐼
We know, I=neA𝑉𝑉𝑑𝑑 or, 𝑉𝑉𝑑𝑑 =
𝑛𝑛.𝐴𝐴.𝑒𝑒

(i) X and Y in series, I is same in series combination and electron density n same.
𝐴𝐴𝑦𝑦
(𝑉𝑉𝑑𝑑 ) 𝑥𝑥 /(𝑉𝑉𝑑𝑑 ) 𝑦𝑦 =(𝐴𝐴 )= 3/2
𝑦𝑦

𝑉𝑉
(ii) X and Y parallel, V same. vd = 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅

or, (vd)X/(vd)Y=(RY//RX)(AY/Ax)=(4/3)(3/2)=2/1

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

Q1) In a metre bridge the null point is found at a distance of 33.7 meters from point
A. If now a resistance of 12Ω is connected in parallel with S the null point occurs at
51.9cm. Determine the values of R and S.

Ans From the first balance point,

𝑅𝑅 33.7
𝑆𝑆
= 66.3 ----------------- (1)

S is connected in parallel with a resistance of 12Ω .

12𝑆𝑆
Seq= 𝑆𝑆+12

New balance condition

 P a g e | 13

(51.9/48.1)=R/Seq=R(S+12)/12S

Using eq (1)

51.9/48.1=[(S+12)/12]x[33.7/66.3]

Which gives S=13.5Ω.

Using value of R/S above, we get R=6.86Ω.

Q2) A circuit using a potentiometer and a battery of negligible internal resistance is

set up as shown in figure below to develope a constant potential gradient along the
wire AB. The 2 cells of emfs E1 and E2 are connected in series as shown in
combinations (1) and (2). The balance points are obtained respectively at 400 cm
and 240cm from the point A.
Find (i) E1/E2

(iii) Balancing length

for E1 only.
Ans:- (ii) If ‘k’=potential gradient
along potentiometer wire then, E1
+ E2 = k.400cm
E2-E1 = k.240cm
 E1 = 80k & E2 =
320k
E1/E2 = ¼, If balancing length for cell E1 only be l cm,
then E1= lk, But E1 = 80k, Therefore, l = 80cm.

VALUE BASED QUESTIONS

1. While performing an experiment on determination of unknown resistance
using meter bridge, Rahul obtained deflection in the galvanometer in the same
direction even after repeated adjustments in the circuit and thus could not get any
results. In order to avoid getting noticed and scolded by the teacher, he pretended
having performed the experiment and copied the readings obtained by another
student.

Answer the following questions based on above information:

(i) Write the possible reasons for getting in the galvanometer in the
same direction.
(ii) Which two values is Rahul violating in copying the readings from
another student?
(iii) What, in your opinion, should have Rahul done in the given
circumstances?

Ans: (i)(a) The two resistances in the gaps (say P and Q) are not of comparable value.

(b) Current may not be flowing in both the arms due to loose connections.

(ii) Honesty, truthfulness, sincerity, desire to learn more and improve.

(iii)Rahul should have sought help from teacher to know the reasons for not able to get
desired results.
 P a g e | 14

2. On July, 30th 2012, North India plunged into darkness due to overdrawing of
power in some states. Vijay is disturbed by this and carries out a survey to
identify the causes of power loss in our country. He also educates his neighbors
on using electricity devices judiciously to save power.
(i) What values are reflected in Vijay’s behavior?
(ii) What measures have the Government taken to fulfill the energy
demands of the people?
(iii) How can the people help the Government in their efforts?

Ans: (1) Patriotism, taking initiative, responsible behavior, social concern, leadership, team
work/collaborative work.

(2) Initiated hydroelectricity projects, villages are supplied electricity.

(3) By saving electricity and not misusing it. Electrical appliances should be switched off
when not in use or when not required.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Deduce Ohm’s Law using concept of drift velocity.

2. Establish the relation between current and drift velocity.

3. Derive the condition for balanced wheat stone bridge.

Magnetic Effect of current and Magnetism (Chap. 4 & 5)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1. How does the angle of dip vary from equator to poles? Ans: 0 to 90 degree
2. What is the effect on the current measuring range of a galvanometer when it is
shunted? Ans: Increased
3. An electric current flows in a horizontal wire from east to west. What will be
the direction of magnetic field due to current at a point: (i) North of the wire and (ii)
Above the wire
Ans: i. Going into the plane of paper. ii. Towards north.
4. An electron is moving with velocity v along the axis of the long straight
solenoid carrying current I. What will be the force acting on the electron due to
magnetic field of solenoid? Ans: F = evBsin00 = 0
5. State two properties of material used in moving coil galvanometer?
Ans: (i) Small torsion constant makes the galvanometer highly sensitive.
(ii) High tensile strength. Thus thin wires do not break under the weight of suspension coil.
6. If a toroid uses bismuth as its core, will the field in the core be lesser or
greater than when it is empty?
Ans: Bismuth is diamagnetic; hence, the overall magnetic field will be slightly less than
original field.
 P a g e | 15

7. Answer the following questions:

(a) The earth’s magnetic field varies from point to point in space.
Does it also change with time? If so, on what time scale does it change appreciably?
(b) The earth’s core is known to contain iron. Yet geologists do not regard this as a
source of the earth’s magnetism. Why?
(c) The charged currents in the outer conducting regions of the earth’s core are thought
to be responsible for earth’s magnetism. What might be the ‘battery’ (i.e., the source
of energy) to sustain these currents?
(d) The earth may have even reversed the direction of its field several times during its
history of 4 to 5 billion years. How can geologists know about the earth’s field in such
distant past?
(e) The earth’s field departs from its dipole shape substantially at large distances
(greater than about 30,000 km). What agencies may be responsible for this distortion?

Ans: (a) Earth’s magnetic field changes with time. It takes a few hundred years to
change by an appreciable amount. The variation in earth’s magnetic field with the time
cannot be neglected.
(b) Earth’s core contains molten iron. This form of iron is not ferromagnetic. Hence, this
is not considered as a source of earth’s magnetism.
The charged currents in the outer conducting regions of the earth’s core are thought to
be responsible for earth’s magnetism. What might be the ‘battery’ (i.e., the source of
energy) to sustain these currents?
(c) The radioactivity in earth’s interior is the source of energy that sustains the currents
in the outer conducting regions of earth’s core. These charged currents are considered
to be responsible for earth’s magnetism.
(d) These magnetic fields got weakly recorded in rocks during their solidification. One
can get clues about the geomagnetic history from the analysis of this rock magnetism.
Because of the presence of the ionosphere. In this region, earth’s field gets modified
because of the field of single ions. While in motion, these ions produce the magnetic
field associated with them.
(e) An extremely weak magnetic field can bend charged particles moving in a circle.
This may not be noticeable for a large radius path. With reference to the gigantic
interstellar space, the deflection can affect the passage of charged particles.
 P a g e | 16

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. What is the main function of soft iron cylinder in the core of the coil of moving
coil galvanometer?
Ans: due to high permeability of soft iron, the magnetic lines of force crowd through
the soft iron core this increases magnetic field and sensitivity of galvanometer.
2. What is the importance of radial magnetic field in moving coil galvanometer?
Ans: radial magnetic field makes the arm of the couple fixed and hence the torque on
the coil is always same in all position of coil in magnetic field this provides linear
current scale.
Or
It makes torque independent upon the angle between magnetic field ‘B’ and axis of
coil and we get linear current scale.
3. Why is ammeter connected in series in a circuit?
Ans: An ammeter is connected in series in a circuit so that whole of the current
which is required to measure passes through it. Moreover, an ammeter has a low
resistance so its insertion in the series circuit doesn’t change main current.

4. Why voltmeter is always connected in parallel in the circuit?

Ans: voltmeter is highly resistive in nature, when it is connected parallel across any
element of a circuit it draws small amount of current from the circuit. Hence most of
the current passes through it and potential difference is measured effectively.
5. The magnetic susceptibility of a material is-4.2x.10-6. Identify the type of
material and find its state after heating?
Ans. As the susceptibility is negative, so the material is diamagnetic in nature.
ii. There will be no change in its magnetic behavior as diamagnetism is
independent of temperature.
Expression for the angle of dip: In the figure, for right-angled triangle ALP,

BH = Bcosδ… (i)

Also,
BV = Bsinδ… (ii)
Squaring and adding the equations (i) and (ii), we obtain
 P a g e | 17

Dividing equation (ii) by (i), we obtain

Equations (i) (ii) and (iii) are the different relations between elements of earth magnetic
field. By knowing the three elements, we can determine the magnitude and direction of
earth magnetic field at any place.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

1. State the Biot - Savart law for the magnetic field due to a current carrying
element. Use this law to obtain a formula for magnetic field at the centre of a
circular loop of radius R carrying a steady current I. Sketch the magnetic field
lines for a current loop clearly indicating the direction of the field. (for practice)

2. (i) Draw a schematic diagram of cyclotron and explain its underlying principle
and working.
ii) State the function of electric and magnetic field in cyclotron.
iii) Deduce the expression for period of revolution and show that it does not depend
on the speed of charged particle. Hence state any two limitations of cyclotron

Ans. Schematic diagram:

Principle: A charged particle can be accelerated to very high

energy by making it to pass through amoderate electric field a
no of times. This can be done with the help of a
perpendicular mag field which throws the charged particle
into a circular path, freq of which does not depend upon the
speed of the particle and radius of circular path.
Working &Theory: As a particle q of mass m follows a circular path under the
perpendicular magnetic field B, hence
qvBsinθ = mv2/r or r =mv/qB
Time period of revolution is given by T=2πr/v
 P a g e | 18

This frequency is called the cyclotron frequency. Cyclotron frequency is independent of

‘v’ and ‘r’.

2
Now as per the concept qBvmax = m𝑣𝑣𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 /r0

⇒ vmax =qBr/m

Hence, the maximum KE of the charged particle: K = B2q2r02/2m

Role of Electric field: Electric field accelerates when particle passes through the gap and
imparts energy to charged particle.

Role of Magnetic field: Magnetic field makes the charge particle to move in circular path.

Limitations of a Cyclotron

• It cannot accelerate uncharged particles like neutrons.

• There is a limit of speed beyond which a charged particle cannot be accelerated by a
cyclotron.
• It cannot accelerate electrons as their charge to mass ratio is very high due to which
they cannot remain in phase with the field.
• It cannot produce highly energetic particles with energy of the order of 500 MeV.
IMPORTANT NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
1. What will be the magnetic field at point O?

Ans- Hint: Use formula for B due to semicircular ring/arcs and Fleming’s left hand rule
which is: B= μ0IL/4πr2
µ0 𝐼𝐼 3πr µ0 1 1
You will get B = 4π 𝑟𝑟2 2
𝑇𝑇 for (ii) diagram and for (iii) diagram B = 4
( 𝑅𝑅1
+ 𝑅𝑅2
)
normally downward.
 P a g e | 19

2 A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30º with a uniform external magnetic
field of 0.25 T experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5 × 10−2 J. What is the
magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet?
Answer : Torque = τ = 𝟒𝟒. 𝟓𝟓 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏−𝟐𝟐 ,
𝜏𝜏
∴ 𝑀𝑀 = 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
𝟒𝟒.𝟓𝟓×𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏−𝟐𝟐
= 𝟎𝟎.𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐×𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟎𝟎 = 𝟎𝟎. 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 J/T

3: A short bar magnet of magnetic moment m = 0.32 J T−1 is placed in a uniform

magnetic field of 0.15 T. If the bar is free to rotate in the plane of the field, which
orientation would correspond to its (a) stable, and (b) unstable equilibrium? What is
the potential energy of the magnet in each case?
Answer : (a)In stable equilibrium. Θ(angle) is 0°.

Potential energy of the system

(b) In unstable equilibrium,θ = 180°

Potential energy = − MBcosθ

4: A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross section 2.5 × 10−4 m2
carries a current of 3.0 A. Explain the sense in which the solenoid acts like a bar
magnet. What is its associated magnetic moment?
Answer : A current-carrying solenoid behaves as a bar magnet because a magnetic field
develops along its axis, i.e., along its length.

M = nIA = 800 × 3 × 2.5 × 10−4 = 0.6 J T−1

5: A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic
meridian has its north tip pointing down at 22º with the horizontal. The horizontal
component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is known to be 0.35 G. Determine
the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at the place.

Answer : BH = 0.35 G,
6: At a certain location in Africa, a compass points 12º west of the geographic north.
The north tip of the magnetic needle of a dip circle placed in the plane of magnetic
meridian points 60º above the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s
 P a g e | 20

field is measured to be 0.16 G. Specify the direction and magnitude of the earth’s field
at the location.

Answer : θ = 12, , BH = 0.16 G

Earth’s magnetic field lies in the vertical plane, 12° West of the geographic meridian,
making an angle of 60° (upward) with the horizontal direction. Its magnitude is 0.32 G.

7: A Rowland ring of mean radius 15 cm has 3500 turns of wire wound on a

ferromagnetic core of relative permeability 800. What is the magnetic field B in the
core for a magnetising current of 1.2 A?
𝜇𝜇𝑟𝑟 𝜇𝜇0 𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼
Answer : 𝐵𝐵 = =4.48 T
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
8: A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 12 Ω and the metre shows full scale
deflection for a current of 3 mA. How will you convert the metre into a voltmeter of
range 0 to 18 V?
𝑉𝑉
Answer :𝑅𝑅 = 𝐼𝐼 − 𝐺𝐺 = 5988 Ω
𝑔𝑔

Q.9: A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15 Ω and the metre shows full scale
deflection for a current of 4 mA. How will you convert the metre into an ammeter of
range 0 to 6 A?
Answer:

10: A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries a
current of 0.40 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the center of the
coil?
Answer:
 P a g e | 21

11: A horizontal overhead power line carries a current of 90 A in east to west

direction. What is the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field due to the
current 1.5 m below the line?
Answer :

towards south
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. State Biot-Savart law .Using it derive an expression for the magnetic field due to a
current carrying circular loop of N turns and radius R, at a point distance x from its
centre on the axis of the loop
2. Derive an expression for the force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed
in uniform Magnetic Field.
3. (i)Derive an expression for the force experienced by any one of the two parallel wires
carrying current I1 and I2 separated by distance r.
(ii) Also mention the direction of force in each case.
4. Draw the hysteresis curve and mark the point of retentively and coerecivity on it.
5. Using Ampere’s circuital law, derive an expression for the magnetic field along the axis
of a current carrying toroidal solenoid of N number of turn having radius r.
6. Using Ampere’s circuital law, calculate the magnetic field due to an infinitely long wire
carrying current I.
7. A long solenoid with closely wound turns has n turns, per unit of its length. A steady
current ‘I’ flows through this solenoid. Use Ampere’s circular to obtain an expression for
the magnetic field at a point on its axis and closed to its mid-point.
8. Name and define the magnetic elements of earth’s magnetic field at a place. Derive an
expression for the angle of dip in terms of the horizontal component and the resultant
magnetic field of the earth at a given place.
9. Distinguish amongst Dia, Para and ferromagnetic substances.

EMI AND AC (Chap. 6& 7)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1MARK)

1. What is the unit and dimensional formula of magnetic flux?

Ans. weber [𝑀𝑀𝐿𝐿2 𝑇𝑇 −2 𝐴𝐴−1 ]

2. What is the direction of induced current in loop (1) and loop (2), if current
increases from A to B?
 P a g e | 22

A B
2

Ans- In loop (1), it will be clockwise and in loop (2) it will be anticlockwise.

3. A closed loop of wire is being moved with constant velocity without changing
its orientation inside a uniform magnetic field. Will this induce a current in the
loop?
Ans- No, there is no change in the magnetic flux.
4. A plot of magnetic flux (Φ) versus current (I) is shown in the figure for two
inductors A and B. Which of two has larger value of self inductance?

Φ B

Ans- [A]

5. The instantaneous value of e.m.f. is given by 𝑬𝑬 = 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 volt. What is the

peak and rms value of e.m.f.?
𝐸𝐸
Ans- 𝐸𝐸0 = 300 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣,𝐸𝐸𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 120 = 212.1 volt
6. Why a 220V AC is considered to be more dangerous than 220V DC?
Ans Peak value & AC (311 volt) is more than 220V DC which is constant.
7. A capacitor blocks D.C. Why?
1
Ans-𝑋𝑋𝐶𝐶 = 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 , for DC: f = 0. Therefore 𝑋𝑋𝐶𝐶 = ∞.
8. The instantaneous current and voltage of an AC circuit are given by
𝝅𝝅
𝑰𝑰 = 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔 and 𝑽𝑽 = 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬(𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 + 𝟐𝟐 ) volt. What is power dissipation in
the circuit? Ans- Zero.
9. In a seies LCR circuit, the voltage across an inductor, a capacitor and a resistor
are 30 V, 30 V and 60 V respectively. What is the phase difference between the
applied voltage and the current in the circuit? Ans- Zero.

10. What is meant by ‘Wattless current’?

Ans- the current in the circuit when average power is zero is called wattles current.
11. Why is the core of a transformer laminated?
Ans- To minimize the energy loss due to ‘Eddy current’.
12. Why can’t a transformer be used to step up D.C. voltage?
Ans – No change of magnetic flux, no mutual induction.
 P a g e | 23

13. The power factor of an AC circuit is 0.5. What will be the phase difference
between voltage and current in this circuit?
1 𝜋𝜋
Ans – cos𝛷𝛷 = 2 , 𝛷𝛷 = 3 radian
14. Why is choke coil needed in the use of fluorescent tubes with ac mains ?

Ans. Choke coil reduces the voltage across the fluorescent tube without wastage of power.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(2 MARKS)

1. Explain any two applications of eddy current.
Ans- 1. Speedometer , 2. Induction motor
2. Two coils P & S are arranged as shown in the figure
(a) What will be the direction of induced
current in loop S when the switch is
closed?
(b) What will be the direction of induced
current in loop S when the switch is
opened?
Ans- (a) anticlockwise (b) clockwise
3. A 12V battery is connected to a circuit of 6Ω reistance; 10H coil through a switch
drives a constant current in the circuit. The switch is suddenly opened. Assuming
that it takes 1ms to open the switch. Calculate the average e.m.f. induced across
the coil.
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
Ans:𝐼𝐼𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 2𝐴𝐴, 𝐼𝐼𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 0𝐴𝐴 , 𝐸𝐸 = −𝑙𝑙 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = 20,000V
4. A coil of mean area 500 𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝟐𝟐 having 1000 turns is held perpendicular to a uniform
𝟏𝟏
magnetic field of 0.4 Gauss. The coil is turned through 1800 in 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
seconds.
Calculate the average induced e.m.f.? Ans- 0.004 Volt.
5. Two identical co-axial coil carry equal currents. What will happen to the current
in each loop if the loops approach each other?
Ans- According to Lenz’s Law current in each coil will decrease.

6. (a) The graphs (i) and (ii) represent the variation of the opposition offered by the
circuit element to the flow of alternating current with the frequency of the
applied e.m.f.. Identify the current element corresponding to each graph
(i) (ii)

o frequency o frequency

(ii) Write the expression of the impedance offered by the series combination
of the above two elements connected across the AC which will be ahead in
phase in this circuit, voltage or current? Ans- R, L ;𝑍𝑍 = �𝑅𝑅 2 + 𝑋𝑋𝐿𝐿2

7. An alternating current is given by 𝑰𝑰 = 𝑰𝑰𝟏𝟏 𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄 + 𝑰𝑰𝟐𝟐 𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔. Find the rms current in
𝐼𝐼 2 +𝐼𝐼 2
the circuit. Ans- � 1 2 2
 P a g e | 24

8. An alternating current having a peak value of 14 A is used to heat a metal wire.

What is the value of steady current, which can produce the same heating as
produced by AC? Why? Ans -𝐼𝐼𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 10 𝐴𝐴

9. An LCR series circuit is connected to an AC source. Which of its components

dissipates power L,C or R? Justify your answer.
Ans- Resistance, Power in L and C is zero

10. The peak value if an AC is 5A and its frequency is 60 Hz. Find its rms value. How
long will the current take to reach the peak value starting from zero?
1
Ans- 𝐼𝐼𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 3.5 𝐴𝐴, 𝑡𝑡 = 240 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
11. An inductor of inductance 100 mH is connected in series with a resistance, a
variable capacitor and an AC source of frequency 2kHz. What should be the value
of capacitance of a capacitor so that maximum current may be drawn in the
circuit?
1 1
Ans: 𝑋𝑋𝐶𝐶 = 𝑋𝑋𝐿𝐿 𝐶𝐶 = 𝜔𝜔2𝐿𝐿 𝐶𝐶 = 4𝜋𝜋2 𝑓𝑓2 𝑙𝑙 = 63𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
12. 11kW of electric power can be transmitted to a distant station at (i)220 kV and
(ii) 22KV. Which of the two modes of transmission should be preferred and why?
Ans- 22 kV, Heating loss is minimum.
𝝅𝝅
13. In an AC circuit V and I are given by V=100 sin100t volts and 𝑰𝑰 = 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬(𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 + 𝟑𝟑) mA
respectively. What is the power dissipated in the circuit?
𝜋𝜋
Ans- 𝑉𝑉0 = 100 𝑉𝑉, 𝐼𝐼0 = 100 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚, 𝜑𝜑 = 3 , 𝑃𝑃 = 𝐼𝐼𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑉𝑉𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 2.5 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(3 MARKS)

1. The magnetic flux linked with a coil passing perpendicular to the plane of the coil
changes with time and given as: 𝝋𝝋 = 𝟒𝟒𝒕𝒕𝟐𝟐 + 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 + 𝟑𝟑 𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘,
where t is in seconds. What is the magnitude of e.m.f. induced at t=1s.
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
Ans-Formula: 𝐸𝐸 = 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
, E = (8t+2) V, Now when t = 1 s then E = 10 volts.
2. Two coils have mutual inductance of 0.005H. The current changes in the first coil
according to the equation𝑰𝑰 = 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔. Calculate the maximum value of
e.m.f. in the second coil. Ans- 5𝜋𝜋 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣.
3. How do R, 𝑿𝑿𝑪𝑪 𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝑿𝑿𝑳𝑳 get affected when the frequency of applied AC is doubled?
Ans- (i) R remains unaffected. (ii) 𝑋𝑋𝐿𝐿 becomes doubled (iii) 𝑋𝑋𝐶𝐶 becomes halved.

4. A 44mH inductor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz AC supply. Determine the rms value

of current in the circuit.
𝑉𝑉𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟
Ans- 𝐼𝐼𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = =15.9 A
𝑋𝑋𝐿𝐿
5. In an LCR series circuit is connected to an AC source having voltage
𝑽𝑽 = 𝑽𝑽𝟎𝟎 𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔 . Derive expression for the impedance, instantaneous current and
its phase relationship to the applied voltage.
𝑋𝑋𝐿𝐿 −𝑋𝑋𝐶𝐶
Ans: 𝑍𝑍 = �𝑅𝑅 2 + (𝑋𝑋𝐿𝐿 − 𝑋𝑋𝐶𝐶 )2 , if VL> VC , I = 𝑉𝑉0 sin(𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 − 𝛷𝛷)/Z, 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 𝑅𝑅

6. An AC source of voltage 𝑬𝑬 = 𝑬𝑬𝟎𝟎 𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔 is connected one by one to 3 circuit

elements X, Y and Z. It is observed that the current flowing in them.
(a) Is in phase with applied voltage for element X.
 P a g e | 25
𝝅𝝅
(b) Lags applied voltage in phase by 𝟐𝟐 for element Y.
𝝅𝝅
(c) Leads applied voltage in phase by 𝟐𝟐 for element Z.
Identify the three circuit elements. Ans: R, L, C.

7. Given below are two electric circuits A and B.

Calculate the ratio of power factor of the circuit B to the power factor of the circuit
𝑅𝑅
A. Ans: 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 =
𝑍𝑍
8. An AC generator consists of a coil of 100 turns and cross sectional area 3 m2 ,
rotating at an angular frequency of 60 rad/s in a uniform magnetic field of 0.04 T,
the resistance of the coil is 500 ohm.
(a) The maximum current drawn from the generator and
(b) The maximum power dissipated in the coil.
Ans: (a) 1.44 , (b)518.4

9. An AC voltage of 100 V, 50 Hz is connected across a 20 ohm resistor and 2 mH

inductor in series. Calculate (a) Impedance of the circuit. (b) rms current in
the circuit. Ans: (a) 𝑍𝑍 = �𝑅𝑅 2 + 𝑋𝑋𝐿𝐿2 = 20 ohm (approx.), (b) rms current = V/Z = 5 A

11. (a) A series LCR circuit is connected to an a.c. source of variable frequency.
Draw a suitable phasor diagram to deduce the expressions for the amplitude of the
current and phase angle.
(b) Obtain the condition at resonance. Draw a
plot showing the variation of current with the
frequency of a.c. source for two resistances R1 and R2
(R1> R2). Hence define the quality factor, Q and writw
its role in the tuning of the circuit.
𝑉𝑉
Ans. (a) 𝐼𝐼𝑚𝑚 = 2 𝑚𝑚 2
�𝑅𝑅 +(𝑋𝑋𝐶𝐶 −𝑋𝑋𝐿𝐿 )
And
𝑋𝑋𝐶𝐶 − 𝑋𝑋𝐿𝐿
ᶲ = 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡−1 � �
𝑅𝑅

(b)

0 𝜔𝜔
Quality factor of LCR circuit is defined as 2∆𝜔𝜔 ,
A larger value of quality factor corresponds to a sharper resonance.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
 P a g e | 26

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(5 MARKS)

(1) State the working of AC generator with the help of a labeled diagram.
The coil of an AC generator having N turns each of area A is rotated with a constant
angular velocity ω. Deduce the expression for alternating e.m.f. generated in the coil.
What is the source of energy generation in this device?

(2) Explain the term inductive reactance. Show graphically the variation of inductive
reactance with frequency of the applied alternating voltage.
An AC voltage 𝐸𝐸 = 𝐸𝐸0 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 is applied across a pure inductor of inductance L. show
mathematically that the current flowing through it lags behind the applied voltage
𝜋𝜋
by a phase angle of 2 .
(3) The figure shows a series LCR circuit with L= 5H C= 80 µF
and R = 40 ohm connected to a variable frequency 240 V
source.
Calculate
(a) The angular frequency of the source which drives the circuit at resonance.
(b) The current at resonating frequency.
(c) The rms potential drop across the capacitor at resonance.
Ans:
(a) ω = 1/ √𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿 = 15 rad/s
(b) Irms= Vrms/ R = 6 A
(c) Vrms= Irms. XC = 1500 V
(4) The primary coil of an ideal step- up transformer has 100 turns and transformation
ratio is also 100. The input voltage and power are 220 V and 1100 W respectively.
Calculate
(a) Number of turns in the secondary. The current in the primary.
(b) Voltage across the secondary. The current in the secondary.
(c) Power in secondary

Ans : (a) 10,000 ( N2/ N1 = 100)

(b)P1 = V1 .I1 , I1 = 5 A
(c) V2/V1 = N2/N1 , V2 = 22000 V
(d) 0.05 A
(e) P2 = P1 = 1100 W

EM Waves (Chap. 8)
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1. Why only microwaves are used in ovens?

Ans: The frequency of microwaves matches with the frequency of water molecules. So
water can absorb energy from microwaves by resonance.

2. Name the waves used in radar. Write the order of their wavelengths.
Ans: Microwaves, order of wavelength (λ) = 10-2 m.

3. What is the ratio of velocities of light rays of wavelength 4000𝑨𝑨𝟎𝟎 and 8000 𝑨𝑨𝟎𝟎 in
vacuum?
Ans: 1 since speed of all the EM waves in vacuum are same.

4. What is displacement current? Give its SI units.

Ans: Displacement current arises due to change in electric flux changing with time.
 P a g e | 27

5. Name the electromagnetic radiations used for viewing the objects through
haze and fog? Ans: IR
6. What did Maxwell prove about magnetic field?
Ans. Magnetic field is produced not only by a current, but also by a time varying
electric field.

7. What is the basic source of EM waves?

Ans: An accelerating charge is a basic source of electromagnetic waves.

8. How are electric and magnetic fields related to each other?

𝐸𝐸
Ans: c = 𝐵𝐵, where c is speed of light, E is electric field and B is magnetic field.

9. What is the basic difference between various types of EM waves?

Ans. The basic difference between various types of EM waves lies in their wavelengths and
frequencies.

10. In a plane e. m. wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidal at a frequency of 2 x

102 Hz and amplitude 48 V/m. What will be the amplitude of the magnetic field?
Ans. (1.6 x 10-7T) (Hint: B = E/c)

11. Why are microwaves used in RADAR?

Ans: because they have directional property

12. Radio waves and gamma rays both are transverse in nature and
electromagnetic in character and have the same speed in vacuum. In what
respects are they different?
Ans. Radio waves have atomic origin, while the gamma rays are nuclear origin. Further
owing to their very small wavelength, the gamma rays are highly penetrating in
comparison to radio waves.
13. What is the main difference between characteristic X-ray and α-rays?
Ans. X- rays are emitted when orbital electron jumps from some outer shell to the inner
shell in case of an atom of a heavy element. While α are emitted by radio-active
nuclei.

14. The wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is doubled? What will happen to

the energy of the photon?
Ans. The frequency and hence energy will become half.
15. Write the frequency limit of visible range of electromagnetic spectrum in kHz.
Ans. 4x1011 kHz– 8x1011 kHz.

16. Name the part of the electromagnetic spectrum that is used to keep plants warm
in green houses. Ans: IR

17. Optical and radio telescopes are built on the ground but X-ray astronomy is
possible only from satellite of the earth why?
Ans. X-rays are absorbed by the atmosphere. Also they are harmful for human beings, but
visible and radio waves can penetrate through it.

18. Out of microwaves, ultraviolet rays and infrared rays, which radiation will be
most effective for emission of electrons from a metallic surface?
Ans. Ultraviolet rays are most effective for photoelectric emission because they have
highest frequency and hence most energetic.

19. Give difference between the displacement current and conduction current?
 P a g e | 28

Ans: Conduction current arises due to flow of electrons in the conductor whereas
displacement current arises due to time varying electric field/flux.

20. The charging current for a capacitor is 0.25 A. What is the displacement current
across its plates? Ans: 0.25 A

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

Q.1 Give one use of each of the following--:

(i) Microwave, (ii) Infrared waves, (iii) UV radiations
(iv) Gamma Radiations
Ans. (i) Long distance or Satellite communication. (ii) To treat muscular strains.
(iii) Sterilizing surgical instruments, (iv) Radio Therapy
Q.2 Electromagnetic waves with wavelength
(i) λ , are used to treat muscular strain.
1
(ii) λ , are used by a FM radio station for broadcasting.
2
(iii) λ , are produced by bombarding metal target by high speed electrons.
3
(iv) λ , are absorbed by the ozone layer of the atmosphere.
4
Identify and name the part of electromagnetic spectrum to which these
radiation belong. Arrange these wave lengths, in decreasing order of
magnitude.
Ans: λ1 Infrared radiation. λ VHF/Radio waves.
2

λ X – rays, λ UV, λ > λ > λ > λ3

3 4 2 1 4
Q3: (a) Which of the following, if any, can act as a source of electromagnetic waves:
(i) A charge moving with constant velocity.
(ii) A charge moving in circular orbit. (iii)A charge at rest. Give reason
(b) Identify the part of electromagnetic spectrum to which the waves of frequency
(i)1020 Hz and (ii) 109 Hz belong.
Ans: (a) (i) Can’t produce em waves because no accelration.
(ii) It is accelrated motion - can produce em waves.
(iii) Can’t produce em waves because no accelration.
(b) (i) gamma rays (ii) Micro waves

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. What do electromagnetic waves consists of? Explain as what factors does its
velocity in vacuum depend?
Suppose that the electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is
E = [(3.1 x 104 N/C) cos {(1.8 rad /m) y + (5.4 × 106 rad /s) t}]ˆi.
(i) What is the frequency? (ii) What is the wavelength?
(iii) Write an expression for the magnetic field part of the wave.
(iv) In which direction is the wave travelling?

Ans: Comparing given equation with E = E0cos {(ky + ωt}], we get, 𝐄𝐄𝟎𝟎 = (3.1 x 104 ) N𝐶𝐶 −1

𝐤𝐤 = 1.8 rad𝑚𝑚−𝟏𝟏 And ω = 5.4 × 106 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑠𝑠 −1

𝜔𝜔 2𝜋𝜋 𝐸𝐸0
(i) 𝜗𝜗 = 2𝜋𝜋 = 8.6 × 105 Hz, (ii) 𝜆𝜆 = 𝑘𝑘
= 3.5𝑚𝑚, (iii) 𝐵𝐵0 = = 1.03 × 10−4 𝑇𝑇
𝐶𝐶
�
�⃗ = [(1.03 x 10−4 T) cos {(1.8 rad /m) 𝑦𝑦 + (5.4 × 106 rad /s) 𝑡𝑡}]𝒌𝒌
∴ 𝐵𝐵
(ii) Y-axis
 P a g e | 29

2. Find the wavelength of em wave of frequency 𝟓𝟓 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 Hz in free space. Give its
𝑐𝑐
two applications. Ans. 𝜆𝜆 = 𝑣𝑣 = 0.06 𝐴𝐴0 , This wavelength corresponds to x- rays. Uses: (i)
medical diagnosis, in astronomy.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. An electromagnetic wave exerts pressure on the surface on which it is incident. Justify.

2. Identify the part of the part of em spectrum:

(i) Used in air craft navigation, (ii) Adjacent to low frequency em spectrum, (iii) Produced
by bombarding a metal target by high speed electrons. (iv) For taking photograph of the
sky during night and foggy days. Arrange them in increasing order of their wavelengths.

3. Give one use of each of the following: (i) Microwaves (ii) infrared waves (iii)
ultraviolet radiation, (iv) Gamma rays (v) X-rays (vi) radio waves.

4. Show by going by simple example how electromagnetic waves carry energy and
momentum.

Ans. Consider a plane perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. An electric
charge, on the plane, will be set in motion by electric and magnetic fields of em wave,
incident on this plane. This illustrates that em waves carry energy and momentum.

5. If the earth did not have atmosphere, would its average surface temperature be
higher or lower than what it is now. Explain.

Ans. (a). Average surface temperature will be lower because there will no green-house
effect in absence of atmosphere.

(b). Since electromagnetic waves carry both energy and momentum, therefore they
exert pressure on the surface on which they are incident.

Ray Optics (Chap.9)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

Q1 A glass lens of refractive index 1.5 is placed in a thorough of liquid. What must be
the refractive index of the liquid in order to make the lens disappear?
Ans. The glass lens will disappear in the liquid if the refractive index of liquid is equal to
that of glass i.e., refractive index of liquid =1.5
Q2. How does the power of a convex lens vary, if the incident red light is replaced by
violet light?
Ans Power of a lens increases if red light is replaced by violet light
Q.3 An object is held at the principal focus of a concave lens of focal length f. Where is
the image formed?
Ans Image will be formed between optical centre and focus of lens; towards the side of the
object.
1 1 1
𝑓𝑓
= 𝑣𝑣 − 𝑢𝑢 , u = -f and f = -f , we get v = - f / 2
Q.4 At what angle of incidence should a light beam strike a glass slab of refractive
index 3, such that the reflected and the refracted rays are perpendicular to each
other?
 P a g e | 30

Ans The reflected and refracted rays are mutually perpendicular at polarizing angle; so
from Brewster’s law ip= tan-1 (n) = tan-1√3= 60° .
Q.5 Two thin lenses of power +6 D and – 2 D are in contact. What is the focal length of
the combination?
Ans Net power of lens combination P = + 6 D - 2 D = + 4 D
P = 1/f ⇒ f = 1/P = ¼ m = 25 cm
Q6 A converging lens is kept co-axially in contact with a diverging lens. Both the
lenses are being of equal focal lengths. What is the focal length of the combination?
Ans Let focal length of converging and diverging lenses be +f and -f respectively.
Power of combination P = P1+P2 =1/f – 1/f =0,
Now, focal length of the combination is: f=1/P or P=1/0= infinite.
Q7. Why does the sky appear blue?
Ans The light is scattered by air molecules. According to Lord Rayleigh the intensity of
scattered light Intensity of scattered light α 1/λ4
As λblue<λred, accordingly blue colour is scattered the most and red the least, so sky appears
blue.

Q8 I. What is the relation between critical angle and refractive index of a material?

II. Does critical angle is depend on the colour of colour of right? Explain.

Ans. I. reactive index (μ) =1/sinC, Where C is the critical angle

II. Since , refractive index on the depends upon the wavelength of the light, the critical angle
for a given pair of media for a different for a different wavelength (colors) of light.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

Q.1. (a) A mobile phone lines along the principal axis a concave mirror show, with
the help of a suitable diagram, the formation of its of its image. Explain why
magnification is not uniform.

(b) Suppose the lower half of the concave mirror’s reflecting surface is covered
with an opaque material. What effect this will have on the image of the object?

Ans. (a)

(b) Only intensity will reduce.

Q1. A ray of light incident on an equilateral glass prism

(µ=√3) moves parallel to the base line of the prism inside it.
Find the angle of incidence for this ray.
 P a g e | 31

Ans. Angle of refraction = 300

Refractive index µ= √3
Sini Sini
By Snell’s law µ = = = √3
Sinr Sin30
sin I = √3 sin30 = √3/2, So i=600
Fig.1
Q2 Two convex lenses of same focal length but of aperture A1 and A2 (A1<A2) are
used as the objective lenses in two astronomical telescopes having identical
eyepieces. What is the ratio of their resolving power? Which telescope will you
prefer and why?
Ans. We know that large the aperture of objective larger the resolving power.
Ratio of their resolving power = A1/A2
We will prefer telescope A2 as having large resolving power.

Q3. A convex lens made up of glass of refractive index 1.5 is dipped in turn in (i) a
medium of refractive index 1.65 (ii) a medium of refractive index 1.33.
a) Will it behave as a converging lens or a diverging lens in two cases?
b) How will its focal length change in two media?
1 𝑛𝑛2 –𝑛𝑛1 1 1
Ans. As per lens maker’s formula 𝑓𝑓 = ( ) (𝑅𝑅 – 𝑟𝑟 ) Where n2 is the refractive index of lens
𝑛𝑛1
and n1 is the refractive index of medium
(a) When lens is immersed in the medium of refractive index greater than that of
lens then converging lens behave as diverging.
(b) When it is immersed in the medium of refractive index 1.00 then its nature
remains same while focal length increases.
Q4 (a) The bluish color predominates in the clear sky.
(b) Violet colour is seen at the bottom of the spectrum when white light is
dispersed by a prism. State reasons to explain these observations.
Ans. (A) According to Rayleigh scattering, scattering of light is inversely proportional to
the fourth power of wave length, wave length of blue color is least so scatter in large
amount.
(b) As per Cauchy relation the deviation or bending of light is inversely proportional
to the wavelength and wavelength of violet is small so bending will be large.
Q5. An illuminated object and a screen are placed 90cm apart. Determine the focal length
and nature of the lens required to produce a clear image on the screen, twice the size of the
object. 𝑣𝑣
Ans. Magnification m = -2 =𝑢𝑢 =⇒ v= -2u
Given that v+u = 9 So: 2u+ u=90 ⇒3u = 90 ⇒ u= 30
Then v= 60
Use Lens formula: f =20cm ,
Nature of lens: Convex (Converging) lens.
Q6 How is the resolving power of a microscope affected when,
(i) The wavelength of illuminating radiations is decreased?
ii) The diameter of the objective lens is decreased? Justify your answer.

Ans Resolving power of microscope is 2µSinβ / 1.22λ

i) As wave length decreases resolving power increases.
ii) Resolving power is decreases as diameter of objective decreases.

Q7 A ray of light passing through a triangular glass prism from air under goes
minimum deviation when angle of incidence is ¾ th of the angle of prism.
Calculate the speed of light in the prism.
Ans We know that
r1+r2 =A=600
When light undergoes minimum deviation then r1 =r2 therefore r =300
 P a g e | 32

Given that i= ¾ (60) = 450

Now µ =c1/c2 =sin i/sin r ⇒ c1/c2 =1/√2/1/2 =√2 = 1.414
So c2 = 2.12x108 m/s.

Q8 Draw a labeled ray diagram of compound microscope in near point position.

Write the expression for its magnifying power.
Magnifying power m = (L/fo)(1+d/fe)

Q9 A convex lens and a concave

mirror of same focal length in
air are immersed in water of
refractive index 4/3.What will
be the effect on their focal
lengths. Justify your answer.

Ans: In lens refraction takes place so

focal length of convex lens increases as relative refractive index decreases while in
mirror reflection takes place so there will be no change in the focal length.
Q10: A beam of light converges to a point P. A lens is placed in the path of the
convergent beam 12 cm from P. At what point does the beam converges, if the
lens is a convex lens of focal length 20 cm.
Ans: u = 12 cm, f = 20 cm
1 1 1
Formula: 𝑓𝑓 = 𝑣𝑣 − 𝑢𝑢
1 1 1
20
= 𝑣𝑣 − 12
After simplifying v = +7.5 cm from the
lens. As v comes out to be positive so
image will be real.
Fig.3
Q11: What do you understand by the phenomena of total internal reflection. Give
two conditions for it to take place.

Ans: When a ray of light is allowed to incident on an interface from denser medium side
at an angle greater than critical angle then light suffer total internal reflection.
Two conditions:
i) Ray should go from denser medium to rarer medium.
ii) The angle of incidence should be greater than critical angle.

Q12: On what factors the critical angle for given media depends.
Ans: Nature of medium in contacts and wavelength of light used.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

Q2 i) Draw a neat labeled

ray diagram of an astronomical
telescope in normal adjustment.
Explain its working briefly.
 P a g e | 33

(ii) An astronomical telescope uses two lenses of powers 10D and 1D. What is its
magnifying power in normal adjustment?
Ans. Fig.4
Light from a distant object enters the objective and a real image is formed in the tube at its
second focal point. The eye piece magnifies this image producing a final inverted image at
infinity.
Calculation of magnifying power:

Given: Power of eyepiece = 10D

Power of objective = 1D
Magnifying power in normal adjustment: 𝑚𝑚 = 𝑓𝑓𝑜𝑜/𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒/𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜 = 10/1 = 10

Q3 The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10 cm and 15 cm. If
the focal length if the lens is 12 cm find the refractive index of the material of
lens.
Ans. By lens maker’s formula

1 1 1 1 1
12
= (𝑛𝑛 − 1) �10 − −15� or 12
= (𝑛𝑛 − 1) �6�

After simplification: n = 1.5

Q5 A compound microscope uses an objective lens of focal length 4 cm and eye

piece lens of focal length 10 cm. An object is placed at 6 cm from the objective lens.
Calculate the magnifying power of the compound microscope. Also calculate the
length of microscope.
1 1 1
Ans: Ans Formula used - =
v0 u0 f0
v0 = 12cm
m0= v0 /u0 = 2
𝐷𝐷
Magnification by eyepiece me = 1+ 𝑓𝑓 = 3.5 or 2.5
𝑒𝑒
m = me. mo= 7 or 5
Length of microscope L = v0 + u0 = 19.1 cm

Q7: A convex lens made up of glass of refractive index 1.5 is dipped in turn in (1) a
medium of refractive index 1.65 (ii) a medium of refractive index 1.33.
a) Will it behave as a converging lens or a diverging lens in two cases?
b) How will its focal length change in two media?
1
Ans. As per lens maker’s formula 𝑓𝑓
= (𝑛𝑛2 − 𝑛𝑛1 ) / 𝑛𝑛1 (1/R-1/r)
Where n2 is the refractive index of lens and n1 is the refractive index of medium
a) When lens is immersed in the medium of refractive index greater then that of lens
then converging lens behave as diverging. And and when it is immersed in the
medium of refractive index 1.00 then its nature remains same while focal length
increases.
Q11: The following data was recorded for the values of the object distance and the
corresponding values of image distance in the experiment on study of real
image formation by a convex lens of power 5D. One of these observations is
incorrect. Identify that observation and give the reason for your choice

S no. 1 2 3 4 5 6
Object distance 25 30 35 45 50 55
Image distance 97 61 37 35 32 30
 P a g e | 34

Ans: The power of lens is = 5 D, Focal length = 20 cm

Observation-3 is incorrect because if object is between f and 2f then image will be

formed beyond 2f.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

Q1 (a) A convex lens of focal length f1 is kept in contact with a concave lens of focal
length f2. Find the focal length of the combination. When will it be converging and
diverging.

(b) A parallel beam of light of 500nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting
diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that the first
minimum is at a distance of 2.5 mm from the centre of the screen Calculate the width
of the slit.

Ans(a) We know that when lenses are put in combination then their focal length comes out
to be
1 1 1
𝑓𝑓
= 𝑓𝑓1
+ 𝑓𝑓2
As focal length of concave lens is negative so
1 1 1
𝑓𝑓
= 𝑓𝑓1
− 𝑓𝑓2
If f1 is greater than f2 then combination will be converging and if f1 is less than
f2 it will be diverging. If f1 and f2 are equal then combination behave as a plane glass.

(b) wave length λ = 500x10-9 m

Separation between slit and screen D= 1 m
Distance of first min. x = 2.5x10-3 m
By using formula:
X = λ D/d, d = λ D/x = 500x10-9x1/2.5x10-3 = 2x10-4 m
Q4 Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation by a concave mirror when the
object is kept between its focus and pole. Using this diagram, derive the magnification
formula.

Ans.

ΔABP is similar to ΔA’B’P

𝐴𝐴′𝐵𝐵′ 𝐵𝐵′𝑃𝑃
SO 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
= 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵

Now A’B’= I, AB=O , B’P=+ve and BP=-u

𝐼𝐼 −𝑣𝑣
So magnification m = 𝑂𝑂= 𝑢𝑢

IMPORTANT NUMERICALS

1. A converging lens has a focal length of 20 cm in air. It is made of material of

refractive index 1.5 . If it is immersed in water of refractive index 4/3. What
will be the new focal length?
 P a g e | 35

Ans: Given 𝑓𝑓𝑎𝑎 = 20 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐, 𝑛𝑛𝑔𝑔 = 1.5 , 𝑛𝑛𝑙𝑙 = 4/3

𝑛𝑛𝑔𝑔 − 1 (1.5 − 1)
𝑓𝑓𝑙𝑙 = 𝑛𝑛𝑔𝑔 × 𝑓𝑓𝑎𝑎 = 1.5 × 20 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 80 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
− 1 ( 4 − 1)
𝑛𝑛
𝑙𝑙 3
2. An iluminated object and a screen are placed 90 cm apart. Detemine the focal
length and nature of the lens required to produce a clear image on the screen
twice the size of the object.
Ans: Given u+v =90 cm ………..(1)
I/O = v/u gives
∣v∣/∣u∣ = 2 or v = 2u ……..(2)
from eq 1 & 2 we get ∣ u∣ = 30 cm and ∣ v∣ = 60 cm
from sign convention, u = -30 cm and v = 60 cm
using lens formula we get f = 20 cm ( convex lens)

3. Two lenses of power 10D and -5D are placed in contact.

a. Calculate the power of lens combination.
b. Where should an object be placed from the lens so as to obtain a virtual
image of magnification 2?
Ans :
a. Given 𝑃𝑃1 = 10 𝐷𝐷, 𝑃𝑃2 = −5 𝐷𝐷
P=𝑃𝑃1 + 𝑃𝑃2 = 10𝐷𝐷 + (−5𝐷𝐷) = 5𝐷𝐷
b. Focal Length F=1/P =1/5 =20cm(convergent lens)
Magnification m=v/u=+2 => v=2u
From lens formula u=-10 cm.

VALUE BASED QUESTION

Q1 One day Chetan’s mother developed a severe stomach ache all of a sudden. She
was rushed to the doctor who suggested for an immediate endoscopy test and gave
an estimate of expenditure for the same. Chetan immediately contacted his class
teacher and shared the information with her. The class teacher arranged for the
money and rushed to the hospital. On realising that Chetan belonged to a below
average income group family, even the doctor offered concession for the test fee. The
test was conducted successfully. Answer the following questions based on the above
information:
(a) Which principle in optics is made use of in endoscopy?
(b) Briefly explain the values reflected in the action taken by the teacher.
(c) In what way do you appreciate the response of the doctor on the given situation?

Ans. (a) Total internal reflection: If a light ray enters at one end of an optic fibre coated with
a material of low refractive index, it refracted and strikes the walls at angle greater than
critical angle. Thus light rays shows multiple reflections, without being absorbed at the side
walls.
(b) The teacher knows that Chetan belongs to a below average income group family, so
he/she immediately arranged the money required to be paid as test fee. His/her caring and
helping attitude towards the others resulted in timely help to Chetan’s mother. Such
helping attitude on the part of the person living in the society makes it a better society to
live in.
(c) Seeing the situation of Chetan’s family and helping attitude of class teacher, doctor took
the sympathetic view of the situation, and give the reduction in fee, which is highly
appreciable. Such professional ethics of doctor in the society would be an immense help to
the person’s belonging to below average income groups.
 P a g e | 36

QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

n2 n1 n2− n1
Q1: Obtain lens maker’s formula using the expression: 𝑣𝑣′ - 𝑢𝑢
= 𝑅𝑅1

Here the ray of light propagating from a rarer medium of refractive index (n1) to a
denser medium of refractive index (n2) is incident on the convex side of spherical
refracting surface of radius of curvature R.

Q2: Draw a ray diagram to show refraction of ray of monochromatic light passing through
a glass prism. Deduce the expression for the refractive index of glass prism in terms of the
angle of prism and angle of minimum deviation.
Q3: You are given three lenses L1, L2, and L3, each of focal length 20 cm. An object is kept at
40 cm in front of L1 as shown. The final real image is formed at the focus ’I’ of L3 . Find the
separation between L1, L2, and L3.

Q.5: (a) A point object is placed in font of a double concave lens (of refractive index
𝑛𝑛 = 𝑛𝑛2 /𝑛𝑛1 with respect to air ) with the special face of radii of curvature 𝑅𝑅1 and 𝑅𝑅2
Show the path of rays due to refection at first and subsequently at the second surface
to obtain the formation of the real image of the object.

Hence obtain the lens- marker’s formula for a thin lens

(b) A double convex lens having both face of the same radius of curvature of the lens
required to get the focal length of 20 cm. (Ans. R = 22 cm)

WAVE OPTICS (Chap. 10)

Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
Q1. An object is seen first in red light & then in violet light through a simple microscope.
Inwhich case is magnifying power large?

Ans: It is larger when seen in violet light.

Q2. Name the wave phenomenon which is exhibited by light waves but not by sound waves.

Ans. Polarization

Q3. Define elliptically polarized light.

Ans: - Suppose we have plane polarized light with E inclined at an angle 450 with the direction
of propagation. Pass this light through the quarter wave plate. The resultant light obtained is
called elliptically polarized light.

Q4. How is a wavefront to the direction of corresponding rays?

Ans: The wavefront is always perpendicular to the direction of rays.

Q5. What is the phase difference between any two points on a wavefront?

Ans: Zero.

Q6. If a wavefront undergoes refraction, what happens to its phase?

Ans: There is no change in its phase.

Q7. What is the geometrical shape of the wave front in each of the following cases?
 P a g e | 37

(a) Light diverging from a point source.

(b) Light emerging out of a convex lens, when a point source is placed at its focus.

(c) The portion of the wave front of light from a distant star intercepted by the earth.

Ans. (a) Spherical in shape, (b) Plane wave front, (c) Plane wave front.

Q8. State two conditions, which must be satisfied for two light sources to be coherent.

Ans. (i) The two light waves should be of same wavelength.

(ii) The two light waves should either be in phase or should have a constant phase
difference.

Q9. What happens to the interference pattern, if the phase difference between the two
sources continuously varies?

Ans. The position of minima and maxima will also vary. Such an interference pattern will
not be a sustained one and it will not be observed.

Q10. The phase difference between two light waves from two slits of Young’s experiment is
‘3π’radian. What will be the nature of the central fringe in the fringe pattern?

Ans. It will be dark.

Q11. State the condition for diffraction of light to occur.

Ans. The size of the obstacle should be of the order of the wavelength of light used.

Q12. How does resolving power of a telescope change on decreasing the aperture of its
object lens? Justify your answer.

Ans. Resolving power of a telescope = D/1.22l. Therefore, on decreasing aperture (D) of the
objective lens, the resolving power of the telescope decreases.

Q13. Which phenomenon establishes that light waves are transverse in nature?

Ans. Only transverse waves can be polarized. Since light waves can be polarized, they must
be transverse in nature.

Q14. Can you detect by the naked eye, whether given light is polarized or not? Why?

Ans. No. because human eye is a lens and the slit or rectangular aperture.

Q15. A ray of light is incident on a medium at polarizing angle. What is the angle between
the reflected and refracted rays?

Ans. It is 90o.

Q16. What are the uses of Polaroid?

Ans. Polaroids are used in sunglasses, in wind shields of automobiles, in window panes, in
making three dimensional motion pictures.

Q17. Draw intensity distribution curve for

diffraction.

Ans:
 P a g e | 38

Short Answer Type Questions (2 MARKS)

Q1. Why no interference is observed, when two coherent sources are (i) infinitely

Close to each other (ii) far apart from each other?

Ans. We know that the fringe width is given by β = λ D/d.

(i) In case the two sources are infinitely close to each other means‘d’ is about to zero and β
will be very large so general illumination will take place.

(ii) When the two sources are moved far apart (d very large), the fringe width will be very
small and they will not be separately visible.

Q2. What is the effect on the interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment due
to each of the following operations?(a) The screen is moved away from the plane of
the slits. (b) The source is replaced by another source of shorter wavelength.

Ans. We know that the fringe width is given by β = λ D/d.

(a) Fringe width increases, since D increases.

(b) Fringe width decrease in λ decrease fringe.

Q3. What will be the effect on the interference fringes in a Young’s double slit if: (a) the
apparatus is immersed in water,(b) white light is used instead of monochromatic
light.

Ans. (a) for a medium of refractive index μ, the fringe width is given by: β = βo/μ.

Where β o is the fringe width in air. Hence, the fringe width decreases to1/μ times.

(b) The different colors of white light will produce different interference patterns but the
central bright fringes due to all colors are at the same position. Therefore, the central bright
fringe is white in color. Since the wavelength of the blue light is smallest, the fringe closest
on the either side of the central white fringe is blue and the farthest is red. Beyond a few
fringes, no clear fringe pattern is visible.

Q4. Draw the intensity pattern obtained in Young’s double slit experiment.

Ans: intensity distribution curve for interference.

Q5. How does the resolving power of a compound microscope change on

(i) Decreasing the wavelength of light used, and

 P a g e | 39

(ii) Decreasing the diameter of its object lens?

Ans. Resolving Power of a microscope = 2μ sinθ / λ

(i) On decreasing the wavelength of light, resolving power will increase.

(ii) On decreasing diameter of objective lens, semi vertical angle θ will decrease and hence resolving
power will decrease.

Q6. Define critical angle and polarizing angle. What is the relation between the two?

Ans. Critical Angle (C): It is the angle of incidence in denser medium, at which the ray of
light after undergoing refraction at the surface of separation of the two media,
becomesparallel to the surface of separation.Polarizing angle (p) : The angle of incidence, at
which when ordinary light is incident ontransparent refracting medium, the reflected light
becomes maximum rich in plane polarized light is called polarizing.

Q7. Write two points of difference between interference and diffractionon the basis of

(a) change in intensity of bright fringe ( b ) fringe width

Ans :-

S. No. Interference Diffraction

1 All the bright fringes are of same The intensity of bright fringes decreases
intensity. with increasing distance from the central
bright fringe.

The width of diffraction fringe is never

For monochromatic light the same.
2 fringe width is same

Q8. Light of wavelength 600 nm is incident on an aperture of size 2 mm. Calculate the
distance up to which the ray of light can travel such that its spread is less than the size of
aperture.

Ans :- Given: d = 2x10-3 m, λ = 6x10-7 m

𝐴𝐴2 (2 × 10−3 𝑚𝑚)2

𝑠𝑠 = = = 6.6𝑚𝑚
λ 6 × 10−7 𝑚𝑚
Q9. Consider interference between waves from two sources of intensities I and 4I . Find
the intensities at points where the phase difference is (a) 0 (b) π /2 and (c) π .

Solution:- The resultant intensity at a point where two waves of amplitude a12 and a22 meet with
a phase difference of Φ is given by -

IR = a12 + a22 + 2 a1 a2cos Φ

Here - a12 = I , SO IR = I + 4I + 2 √ I √ 4I Cos Φ

= 5I + 4I cos Φ = I ( 5 + 4 Cos Φ ). Now: (a) for Φ = 0, IR = 9 I

(b) for Φ = π /2, IR = 5I, (c) for Φ = π IR = I

 P a g e | 40

Q.10 (a) State and explain Huygen’s principle.

(b) Draw the wave front that corresponds to a beam of light; (i) coming from a very
far off source (ii) diverging radically from a point.

Ans:-(a) (i) Every point on primary wave front acts as a source of secondary wavelets.
These wavelets travel in the medium
with same velocity of the primary waves
in all the possible directions.

(ii) The forward envelope on the

secondary wavelets gives new wave
front.

(b) Wave fronts:

Short Answer Type Questions(3 Marks)

Q1. (a) Why are the coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained interference
pattern?

(b) In Young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the
intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ, is K units.
Find out the intensity of light at a point where path difference is 2λ/3.

Ans: Coherent sources mean the sources that produce light of constant phase difference
which is the essential condition for the sustained interference.
𝜃𝜃
I=4I0 Cos22 where θ is phase difference
If path diff. is λ then phase diff. will be 2π
2λ
If path diff. is 3 then phase diff. will be 4π/3
𝜃𝜃
So I = 4 I0Cos2 2 = 4 I0 x1/4= I0
I0= K/4
Q2. (a) Why is diffraction of sound waves easier to observe than diffraction of light
waves? (b) What two main changes in diffraction pattern of single slit will you observe when
the monochromatic source of light is replaced by a source of white light?

Ans;-(a) for diffraction to occur, the size of the obstacle should be comparable to the
wavelength. Wavelength of sound waves is comparable to the daily life objects while
wavelength of light is much smaller. Hence it is easier to observe than diffraction of light
waves.

(b) With white light diffraction pattern shows following changes:-

(i) the diffraction band is colored although the central maximum is white.

(ii) As bandwidth is proportional to the wavelength, so red band with higher wavelength is
wider than blue band with smaller wavelength.

Q3. Deduce the law of refraction on the basis of Huygen’s principle.

(Refer NCERT Text book topic number 10.3.1)

 P a g e | 41

Q4. (a) Sketch the graph showing the variation of intensity of transmitted light on the
angle of rotation between a polarizer and analyzer.

(b) A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence IP on the surface of separation

between air and a medium of refractive index μ, such that the angle between the
reflected and refracted ray is 90o. Obtain the relation between Ip and μ. (CBSE-1998,
2001, 2002.)

Ans :- (a) From Malus law: I = Io cos2θ

(b) According to the question - IP + r = 900

Or r = 900- IP

From Snell’s law, μ = sin IP/sin r = sin IP/sin(90o - IP)

= sin IP/cos IP Or μ = tan IP

This is the required relation & known as Brewster’s Law.

Q5.In Young’s double slit experiment, while using a source of light of wave length 5000 Aº,

The fringe width obtained is 0.6 cm. If the distance between the slits and the screen is

reduced to half, calculate the new fringe width.

Sol. β = 0.6 cm Since: β = λ D/d

Therefore, β2/ β1 = D2/ D1β2 = (D2/ D1) β1

but D2 = D1/2

Therefore,β2 = (D1/2D1) β1

= ½ β1 = ½ 0.6

= 0.3 cm

Q6. Red light of wave length 6500 Aº from a distant source falls on a slit 0.50 mm wide.
What is the distance between the two dark bands on each side of the central brightband
of diffraction pattern observed on a screen placed 1.8 from the slit?

Sol. Distance between the two dark bands on each side of the central maximum of diffraction pattern =
width of the central maximum , Therefore x = (2 λD)/d

λ = 6500 Aº = 6.5 x 10-7 m, D = 1.8 m, d = 0,5 mm = 0.5 x 10-3 m

2 × 6.5 × 10−7 × 1.8

𝑥𝑥 =
0.5 × 10−3

= 4.68 x 10-3 m

= 4.68 mm.

Q7. A slit of width ‘a’ is illuminated by light of wavelength 6000 A0. For what value
of ‘a’ will the first maximum fall at an angle of diffraction of 300? (ii) First
minimum fall at an angle of diffraction 300?
 P a g e | 42

Sol. λ = 6000 Aº = 6 x 10-7 m, θ = 300 , n = 1

For the first maximum of diffraction pattern

sinθn =(2n+1) λ/2d, sin θ1 = 3 λ/2d

or a = 3 λ/2 Sin θ = 3 x 6 x 10-7/ 2 sin 300 = 1.8 x 10-6 m

For first minimum of diffraction pattern.

Sin θn = n λ/d or Sin θ1 = λ /d

a = λ / Sinθ1 = 6 x 10-7/ 0.5 = 1.2 x 10-6 m

QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

Q.1. (a) Derive the expression for fringe width in Young’s double slit experiment.

(b) Explain the effect on fringe width when:

(i) The separation between the slits is increased

(ii) The screen is moved away from the slits

(ii) The monochromatic source is replaced by the monochromatic source of

smaller wavelength

(iv) The monochromatic source is replaced by white light.

Q.2. (i) Distinguish between un-polarized and linearly polarized light.

(ii) What does a Polaroid consist of? How does it produce linearly polarized light?

(iii) Explain briefly how sunlight is polarized by scattering through atmospheric particles.

Q3. Two polaroids ‘A’ and ‘B’ are kept in crossed position. How should a third polaroid ‘C’ be placed
between them so that the intensity of polarized light transmitted by polaroid B reduces to 1/8th of
the intensity of unpolarised light incident on A ?

Q.4 In young’s double slit experiment, derive the condition for

i. Constructive interface and

ii. Destructive interference at a point on the screen.
iii. Draw the graph showing the variation of intensity with distance from the centre.
 P a g e | 43

Dual Nature of Matter (Chap. 11)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

Q1. Express de Broglie wavelength associated with electron in terms of accelerated

voltage.
Ans.

Q2. An electron and a proton have the same kinetic energy. Which one of the two has
the larger wavelength and why?
Ans. According to de Broglie equation in terms of kinetic energy as electron has smaller
mass than a proton hence an electron has the larger wavelength because

Q3. Show graphically the variation of the de Broglie wavelength with the potential
difference the electron is accelerated?
Ans.: As de Broglie wavelength λ α 1/ V
So
Fig. 5
Q4. The maximum kinetic energy of a
photoelectron is 3 eV. What is its stopping
potential?
Ans.: Stopping potential, Vo = Kinetic energy/e =3 eV/ e = 3V
Q5. What is threshold frequency? Does it depend on the nature of emitter?
Ans.: The minimum value of the frequency of incident radiation below which the
photoelectric emission stops altogether is called threshold frequency. Yes threshold
frequency depends on the nature of photoelectric emitter.
Q6. Calculate the frequency associated with photon of energy 3.3x10-10 J?
Ans.: E = h ν ⇒ ν = E/h = 5x1023 Hz
Q7. If the intensity of the incident radiation in a photo cell is increased, how does the
stopping potential varies? Ans.: Stopping potential remains unaffected.
Q8. Do non-metals show photoelectric effect?
Ans.: Yes for higher value of frequency of em waves.
Q9. What determine the velocity of the photoelectrons?
Ans.: It depends on the frequency of incident radiation and work function of metal surface.
Q10. Can we use any substance as photoelectric emitter?
Ans.: Yes by exposing the surface by suitable electromagnetic radiations.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

Q1.An electron and a proton have the same de Broglie wavelength associated with
them. How is their K. E. related with each other?
ℎ ℎ ℎ
Ans.: de Broglie wavelength, 𝜆𝜆 = Given 𝜆𝜆𝑒𝑒 = 𝜆𝜆𝑝𝑝 ⇒ [ ]e=[ ]p
√2𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 √2𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 √2𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝐸𝐸𝑒𝑒 𝑚𝑚𝑝𝑝
⇒ = ≈ 1840, Hence K.E. of electron = 1840 × (K.E. of proton)
𝐸𝐸𝑝𝑝 𝑚𝑚𝑒𝑒
 P a g e | 44

Q2.What is the effect on the velocity of the photoelectrons if the wavelength of incident
light is decreased?
Ans.
:

Q3. Which parameters are kept as constant in the fig. 4 above? Give the relation
between frequencies of incident radiations.
Ans.: Intensity of incident radiation is kept as a constant.
ν1 ˂ ν2 ˂ ν3
Q4.The two lines A and B shown in the graph is the plot of de Broglie wavelength as a
𝟏𝟏
function of for two particles having the same charge. Which of the two represent the
√𝑽𝑽
particle of heavier mass?
Ans.

Q5.A radio transmitter at a frequency of 880 kHz and a power of 10 kW. Find the no.
of photons emitted per second.
energyemittedper sec ond
Ans.As n = = 1.716x1031
energyofonephoton
Q6.Two beams, one of red light and the other of blue light of the same intensity are
incident on a metallic surface to emit electrons. Which one of the two beams emits
electrons of greater kinetic energy?
Ans: Blue light emits electron of greater kinetic energy.
Q7. Light from bulb falls on a wooden table but no electrons are emitted Why?
 P a g e | 45

Ans: The work function of wooden table is very high than the energy of light available from
bulb. Hence no photoelectric emission takes place.

Q8.Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a

photosensitive material. If the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled then what
happens to photoelectric current.

Ans: Photoelectric current becomes zero as no photoelectrons emitted because frequency

of incident radiation decreases below the threshold.

Q9. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two particles of masses m1 and m2 having
non zero velocities. What is the ratio of the de Broglie wavelength of the two
particles?

Ans: By conservation of linear momentum,

Q10. The plot between the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons versus
frequency of incident radiations is shown below for
two surfaces A and B. Answer the followings:
a. Which of the metal has greater work function?
b. For which of the metals will stopping potential be
more for the same frequency of incident radiations?
Ans. a. Metal B has greater work function.
b. Metal A has more stopping potential.

Q11. The frequency of incident light on a metal surface is doubled. How will this
affect the value of kinetic energy emitted photoelectrons?
Ans.

Kinetic energy will become slightly more than double.

Q13. An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential. Which
one of these two has
(i) Greater value of de Broglie wavelength associated with it and (ii) less momentum
justify your answer.
 P a g e | 46

Q14 What is the significance or objective of Davisson and Germer experiment?

Ans.: To prove wave nature of particles experimentally.

Value Based Questions

Q1.In a multistoried building, once a fire broke out at midnight due to electrical short
circuit. Ravi along with others rushed to the spot, informed the fire service and put
off the fire. But by that time a huge amount of damage had already been done. Ravi
being Secretary of the building decided to fix fire alarms (using photo cell) in all the
floors: (a) What values were shown by Ravi in this situation?
(b) On what principal fire alarm work?
Ans.: Ravi is sincere, responsible, cooperative and social. He is having scientific
temperament also. Fire alarm works on the principle of photoelectric effect.
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS

Q1. What is the energy in joules associated with a photon of wavelength 4000 Å?

Ans. here λ = 4000 Å = 4 x 10-7m, h=6.6 x 10-34Js, c=3x108 ms-1

∴Energy of a photon E=hν=hc/λ = (6.6x10-34x3x108) / (4x10-7) = 4.95 x 10-19J

Q2. Calculate the longest wavelength of radiation that will be ejected by an

electron from the surface having work function 1.9 eV, Given that h = 6.625 x
10-34Js.

Ans. We know, work function φ = hc / λ0 or λ0 =hc/φ

Here h = 6.625 x 10-34Js, c = 3 x 108 ms-1, φ = 1.9 eV = 1.9 x 1.6 x 10-19 J

Then λ0 = (6.625 x 10-34 x 3 x 108) / (1.9 x 1.6 x 10-19)

= 6.538 x 10-7 m or 6538 Å

Q3. Calculate de-Broglie wavelength of an electron beam accelerated through a

potential difference of 60 V.

12.27 12.27
Ans. Here V=60 volt. For electron, λ = Å= = 1.58 Å
√V √ 60
 P a g e | 47

Q4. de-Broglie wavelength of a proton is 2Å. What is its (i) velocity and (ii) kinetic
energy? Given mass of proton = 1.67 x 10-27 kg.

Ans. Here λ=2Å = 2 x 10-10 m, m = 1.67 x 10-27 kg

(i) we know λ= h/m v ⇒ v = h/mλ = (6.625 x10-34)/ 1.67 x 10-27 x2 x10-10

= 1.98 x 103 ms-1

(ii) K.E. = ½ mv2 =1/2 x 1.67 x 10-27 x (1.98 x103) =3.27 x10-21 J

= (3.27 x10-21)/1.6 x10-19 = 0.02eV

Q5 Calculate the energy of an electron which has de-Broglie wavelength 1 A. Given

h= 6.6 x 10-34Js.

Ans. Here λ = 1 A = 10-10m, h = 6.6 x 10-34Js, m = 9.1 x 10-31 kg

Using λ = h / √2mE, we have

E = h2 / 2mλ2 = (6.6x10-34)2 / 2x9.1x10-31 x (10-10)2 = 2.39 x 10-17 J

=(2.39 x 10-17) / 1.6 x 10-19 eV = 149 eV

Q6. A source of light (1000 W) is emitting light of wavelength 6000 Å. Calculate the
number of photons emitted per second.

Ans. n = Eλ/hc = (100 x 6 x 10-7) / 6.62 x 10-34 x 3 x 108 = 3 x 1020 photons per second

Q7. The work function of a photosensitive material is 2eV. Calculate the

wavelength of the incident light that will just cause photoemission.

Ans. φ = hν0 = hc/λ0 ⇒ λ0 = hc / φ = (6.62 x10-34 x 3 x 108 )/ 2 x 1.6 x10-19 = 6206 Å

Q8. Light of wavelength 3500 A º is incident on two metals A & B. Which metal will
yield photo electrons if their work functions are 4.2 eV & 1.9 eV respectively?

Sol . Wave length of radiation is given as λ= 3500 Å = 3500 × 10-10 m

The energy of incident light E= hc/ λ = (6.62 × 10-34 × 3 × 108)/ 3500 × 10 -10

= 3.546 eV

The incident light will eject electrons from a metal surface if its energy is greater
than the work function of that metal , accordingly metal B will yield photo electrons
as the value of work function (1.9 V) of this metal is less than the energy of incident
light (3.546 eV).

QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

Q.1. The two lines A and B shown in the graph is the plot of de Broglie wavelength as a
1
function of for two particles having the same charge. Which of the two represent
√𝑉𝑉
the particle of heavier mass?
 P a g e | 48

2. The graph shows the variation of stopping potential with frequency of incident
radiation for two photosensitive metals A and B. Which one of the two has higher value
of work function? Justify your answer.

Atoms and Nuclei (Chap. 12&13)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

Q1.Plot a graph showing the variation

in scattered alpha particles with
scattering angle
Ans: given
Q2. Four nuclei of an element fuse
together to form a heavy nucleus. If
the process is accompanied by the
release of energy, which of the two,
the parent or the daughter nucleus
would have higher B. E./nucleon?
Ans: Daughter nucleus

Q3. Draw a graph showing the variation of decay rate with no. of active
nuceli.
Ans:
 P a g e | 49

Q4. Name the absorbing material used to control the reaction rate in a nuclear
reactor.
Ans: Cadmium rod.
Q5.Name the phenomena by which energy is produced in stars.
Ans: Uncontrolled nuclear fusion reaction.

Q6.What is the ratio of nuclear densities of two nuclei having mass numbers in the
ratio1:4?
Ans: 1:1

Q7.Why do alpha particles have high ionizing power?

Ans.Because of their large mass and large nuclear cross section.

Q8.Compare the radii of two nuclei with mass no. 1 and 27 respectively.
Ans:

Q9.If the total energy of an electron in an orbit is ‘–E’ then what will be the KE and
Potential energy of the electron in the same orbit?
Ans: P.E. = -2E and K.E. = E

Q10. How the radius(r) of an orbit varies with n? Ans: r α n2

Q11. What is Bohr’s quantization condition? Ans: Angular momentum = nh/2π
Q12. Define disintegration constant.
Ans: It is the reciprocal of that time in which 1/e times original concentration left un-
decayed.
Q13. Write down two characteristic features of nuclear force which distinguish it
from Coulomb force.
Ans: 1. Nuclear forces are saturated force. 2. Nuclear force are charge independent.
Q14. Define ionization energy and give its value for Hydrogen atom.
Ans: It is the minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom in
its gaseous state. Ionization energy for H atom is 13.6eV.
Q15. Why energy levels are not equispaced in atoms.
Ans: According to Bohr’s theory only those energy levels are allowed in which angular
momentum of electrons is quantized.
Q16. Calculate the energy equivalent of 1g of substance.
Ans: E = m c2 = 10-3 x (3x108)2 = 9x1013 J
Q17. Out of 3B4 and 3B7 which one is more stable?
Ans: For 3B7 neutron to proton ratio is more than the 3B4.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)
Q1. Why energy spectrum of β- particle is continuous?
Ans: Because emission of beta particle takes place along with antiparticles (neutrino). The
two share the energy with each other so the spectrum is continuous.
Q2. A radioactive nucleus ‘A’ undergoes a series of decays according to the
following scheme:
 P a g e | 50

The mass no. and atomic no. of A are 180 and 72 respectively. What are these
numbers for A4?
Ans:

Q3. a) The mass of a nucleus in its ground

state is always less than the total mass of its
constituents- neutrons and protons. Explain
b) Plot a graph showing the variation of
potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a
function of their separation.
Ans: a) Because this mass appears in terms of
its binding energy. (b) given graph
Q5. The energy of the electron in the ground
state of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV.
i) What do the negative sign signify?
ii) How much energy is required to take an electron in this atom from the
ground state to the first excited state?

Ans: Negative sign signify that electron is bound to nucleus by attractive forces.
Energy of ground state of H atom May be given as En = - 13.6/n2
Energy of first excited state = -13.6/22 = -3.4 eV
Energy required -3.4 – (-13.6) = 10.2 eV

Q4. a) What is meant by half-life of a radioactive element?

b)The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 s. Calculate the decay constant

and time taken for the sample to decay by ¾th of the initial value.

Ans: The time taken by the sample to reduce to half its original concentration.

Q5. The half-life of 38Sr90 is 28 years. What is the disintegration rate of 15 mg of

this isotope?

Ans: Given that T1/2 = 28 years mass of radioactive sample = 15 mg

Rate of disintegration of radioactive sample = dN/dt = λ N
Where N = no. of atoms left undecayed.
No. of atoms can be calculated by mole concept. (Ans: 7.877 ×1010Bq)

Q6. Select the pairs of isotopes & isotones from the followings:

6C137N1415P3015P316C12
 P a g e | 51

Ans: 6C13 and 6C12 ,15P30 and 15P31the two pairs are having the same number of protons so
these are Isotopes while :6C13 and 7N14 are Isotones as these are having same no. of
neutrons
Q7. 9. Tritium has a half-life of 12.5 years against beta decay. What fraction of a
sample of pure tritium will remain un-decayed after 25 years?

Ans: Half-life of Tritium = 12.5 years

If No is the initial concentration of Tritium
N no. of concentration left un- decayed then
N = No { }1 n
2
where n = t/T , t = total time taken, T = Half life
After substitution we get N= No/4

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

Q1. Plot binding energy per nucleon with mass no. and conclusion can be drawn?
Ans: Plot the graph as shown in text book.
Conclusions:
a. B E per nucleon is almost constant between mass no. 30-170
b. This conclude that force is attractive and produce energy of MeV.
c. In the region of 30-170 nuclear force is constant as force becomes saturated.
d. Nucleus above 170 and below 30 are unstable so to gain stability they tends to
acquire stable energy range that is 30-170.
Q2. The energy level diagram of an element is given below. Identify, by doing
necessary calculations,which transition corresponds to the emission of a spectral
line of wavelength 102.7 nm.
Ans.

Q3 State the law of radioactive decay.

Plot a graph showing the number (N) of un-
decayed nuclei as a function of time (t) for a
given radioactive sample having half-life T1/2 .
Depict in the plot the number of un-decayed
nuclei at (i) t = 3T1/2 and (ii) t = 5T1/2 .
Ans: Graph shown in figure
 P a g e | 52

Q4. Study the gamma beta decay of 27Co60 with the help of energy level diagram
and also give the energy of
emitted gamma
radiations.

Ans:

Q5. Explain how Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of alpha particles led to

the estimation of the size of nucleus. What are its drawbacks?
Ans. As most of the a-particle passed straight through gold foil and a very few scattered
back, it indicated that the central part of the atom must be positive and it should be a very
small part of the atom. As only 1 in about 8000 alpha particles retraced its path, the size
of nucleus was estimated to be about 1/10,000 th of the size of an atom.

Drawbacks :-

(i) Rutherford’s atom model cannot explain the stability of the atom.
(ii) If Rutherford atom model is true, the electron can remove in orbits of all
possible radii and hence it should emit continuous energy spectrum. The
atoms like hydrogen possess line Spectrum.
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS

Q1. The Isotope uranium 92U238 decays successively to form 90Th234, 91Pa234, 92U234,
90 Th230and 88Ra226. What are the radiations emitted in these five steps. ?

Ans. In the 1st step (92U238 to 90Th234) : when 92U238 decays to 90Th 234, mass
number decreases by 4 and atomic number decreases by 2. Therefore alpha-
particle
(2He4) is emitted. The decay takes place as below:
92U238 90Th234 + 2He4

In the 2nd step (90Th234 to 91Pa234) :- When 90Th234 decays to 91Pa234 , mass
number remain unchanged and the atomic number increase by 1. Therefore,β-
particle is emitted. The decay takes place as represented below:
90Th234 91Pa234+ -1 e0
In 3rd step (91Pa234 to 92U234) :- Here also the mass number remains same & the
atomic number increase by 1 . Therefore in 3rd step , β- decay takes place which is
represented as below
91Pa234 92U234 + -1 e0
In 4 step (92U to 90 Th ) and in 5th step (90 Th230to 88Ra 226) :- In each of these
th 234 230

two steps alpha decay takes place.

Q2. A neutron is absorbed by a 3Li 6 nucleus with subsequent emission of an alpha

particle, write the corresponding nuclear reaction. Calculate the energy
released in this reaction.
 P a g e | 53

Given that m (3Li 6 ) = 6.015126 a.m.u. ; m (2He4)=4.002604 a.m.u.; m(on1) =

1.008665 a.m.u. , m(1H3) = 3.016049 a.m.u.

Ans. The nuclear reaction may be expressed as

o n1 + 3Li 6 1H3 + 2He4 + Q

where Q is energy released.

Q = [m (on1)+ m (3Li 6 ) – m (1H3) – m (2He4)] x 931.5 MeV

= [1.008665 + 6.015126 – 3.16049 – 4.002604] x 931.5 MeV

= 4.786 MeV

Q.3The short wavelength limit for the Lyman series of hydrogen is 913.4𝑨𝑨̇.
calculate the short wavelength limit for Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum.

1 1 1 1 4
Ans. 𝜆𝜆 = �𝑛𝑛2 − 𝑛𝑛2 � ∴ 𝑅𝑅 = 913.4𝐴𝐴0 , 𝜆𝜆𝐵𝐵 = 𝑅𝑅 = 3653.6𝐴𝐴0
𝑓𝑓 𝑖𝑖

Q7. Define the activity of radio nucleus. Write its S.I. unit. Give a plot of the activity of
a radioactive substance versus time. How long will a radioactive isotope, whose half –
life is ‘T’ years for its activity to reduce to 1/8th of its initial value?

Ans. The activity of a radioactive element at any instant is equal to its decay at that instant.

S.I unit of activity is Becquerel (=1 disintegration /second). The plot is shown in figure.
𝑅𝑅 1
Numerical: 𝑅𝑅0
= �2�n or ‘t’ = 3T years

QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

Q1. Explain Bohr’s Second postulate of quantization of angular momentum by de
broglie theory.?
Q2. Draw the schematic arrangement of the Geiger Marsden experiment. How did the
scattering of alpha particles of a thin foil of gold provide an important way to
determine an upper limit on the size of the nucleus? Explain briefly.
Q3.State the law of radioactive decay. If No is the number of radioactive nuclei in the
sample at some initial time to, find the relation to determine the number of N present at
a subsequent time. Draw a plot of N as a function of time

Q4. Using Rutherford model of the atom, derive the expression for the total energy of
the electron in hydrogen atom. What is the significance of total negative energy
possessed by the electron.

Q5. Using Bohr’s postulate of the atomic model, derive the expression for radius of nth
electron orbit. Hence obtain the expression for Bohr’s radius.

Q6. Define the terms (i) half-life, (ii) average life. Find out their relationship with the
decay constant.
 P a g e | 54

Electronic Devices (Chap. 14)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1MARK)

1. What is the order of energy gap in an intrinsic semiconductor?
Ans: 0.2ev to 3ev.

2. How does the energy gap vary in a semiconductor when doped with pentavalent
element?
Ans: It decreases.

3. How does the conductivity of a semiconductor change with the rise in its
temperature?
Ans: It increases with the rise in its temperature.

4. Doping silicon with indium leads to which type of semiconductor?

Ans: p-type semiconductor.

5. Why is the conductivity of n-type semiconductor greater than that of the p-type
semiconductor even when both of them have same level of doping?
Ans: This is because under a given electric field, free electrons have higher mobility than
holes.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. The ratio of number of free electrons to holes ne/nh for two different materials A
and B are 1 and respectively. Name the type of semiconductor to which A and B
belongs.
Ans: A is an intrinsic semiconductor as ne = nh.
B is a p-type semiconductor as ne< nh.
2. Differentiate the electrical conductivity of both types of extrinsic semiconductors
in terms of the energy band diagram.
Ans.

3. Why photodiode usually operated in reverse biased mode?

Ans: In reverse biased mode, the reverse saturation current is directly proportional to the
intensity of incident light. Therefore it is usually operated in reversed biased mode.

4. State the factors which control wavelength and intensity of light emitted by LED.
Ans: (i) Nature of semiconductor&(ii) Forward current
125
 P a g e | 55

6. Pure silicon at 300K has equal electron and holes concentration 1.5x 1016 per m3.
Doping by indium increases hole concentration to 4.5 x 1022 per m3. Calculate new
electron concentration.
Ans: nenh = ni2 ⇒ ne = ni2 / nh = (1.5x1016)2/4.5x1022 = 5x109 m-3

7. Explain how the width of depletion layer in a p-n junction diode changes when the
junction is: (i) Forward biased (ii) reverse biased.
Ans: (i) The width of depletion layer in a p-n junction diode decreases when it is forward
biased. (ii) The width of depletion layer in a p-n junction diode increases when it is reverse
biased.

9. The output of an unregulated d.c. power supply is to be regulated. Name the device
that can be used for this purpose and draw the relevant circuit diagram.
Ans: The device is zener diode.

For relevant circuit diagram Refer NCERT Textbook Page No. 486 Fig. 14.22

10. Give the logical symbol for an AND gate. Draw the output wave form for input
wave forms A and B.

Ans:

11. Name the 2-input logic gate, whose truth table is given below:

If this logic gate is connected to a NOT gate, what will be the output when
(i) A= 1, B= 1 and (ii) A= 0, B= 1?

Ans: The given logic gate is a NOR gate.

(i) When NOR is connected to a NOT gate, the gate becomes OR gate.
For A = 1, B= 1, Y= 1, (ii) For A= 0, B= 1, Y= 1
12. In the following diagrams, write which of the diodes are forward biased and
which are reverse biased.
 P a g e | 56

Ans: (a) Diode is reverse biased.

(b) Diode is forward biased.
(c) Diode is reverse biased.
(d) Diode is forward biased.

13. The output of a 2-input NAND gate is fed to a

NOT gate. Write down the truth table for the output of the
combination for all inputs.
Ans: The resultant gate is AND gate. The truth table is:

14. If the emitter and base regions of a transistor have

same doping concentration, state how (i) collector
current and (ii) dc current gain of the transistor will
change.
Ans :(i) Here IE = IB, In a transistor, IE + IB = IC
So, IC = 0, β = IC/ IE = 0.

16. Identify the logic gates marked X, Y in the

following figure.
Write down the output at Z, when A = 1, B = 1 and A
= 0, B = 1.

Ans: X is NAND gate and Y is OR gate.

�����
Output Z = 𝐴𝐴. 𝐵𝐵+ A, For A = 1, B = 1, Z= 1,
For A = 0, B = 1, Z = 1

19. Draw the output waveform at X, using the given inputs A and B for the logic
circuit shown below. Also, identify the logic operation performed by this circuit.

Ans: The equivalent gate is OR gate. The output waveform is as follows:

20. Explain briefly why the output and input signals of a common-emitter amplifier differ in
phase by 1800.

Ans: The output of a CE amplifier is given by

VO = VCC – ICRC
VO = - CRC
Therefore, as the input voltage of the CE amplifier increases its output voltage decreases
and vice-versa.
 P a g e | 57

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. A semiconductor has equal electron and hole concentration of 2x108/m3. On

doping with a certain impurity, the hole concentration increases to 4x1010/m3.
(i) What type of semiconductor is obtained on doping?
(ii) Calculate the new electron hole concentration of the semiconductor.
(ii) How does the energy gap vary with doping?

Ans: (i) &(ii) nh = 4x1010/m3

ne = ni2/nh = (2x108)2/4x1010 = 106/m3
Since ne nh , so the semiconductor is p-type semiconductor.
(iii)The energy gap decreases with doping.

2. Explain (i) forward biasing, (ii) reverse biasing of a p-n junction diode.
With the help of a circuit diagram, explain the use of this device as a half wave
rectifier.

Ans: (i) When p-type of the p-n junction is more positive w.r.t n-type, then the diode is
forward biased.
(ii) When p-type of the p-n junction is more negative w.r.t n-type, then the diode is
reverse biased.

Half wave rectifier: for diagram Refer NCERT Textbook page No. 483 fig. 14.18 (a)(b)

Explanation: During the positive cycle of the input signal the diode is reverse biased and so
it does not conduct the current & hence no output voltage across R. During the negative
cycle of the input signal the diode is forward biased and so it conducts the current & hence
an output voltage across R.

3. Explain the formation (i) ‘potential barrier’ and (ii) ‘depletion region’ in a p-n
junction diode. How does the width of the depletion region vary with increase in
forward bias?

Ans. Electron and hole recombines in the depletion region to form the double layer of
charge and electric field called junction field. This junction field acting over the junction
width develops potential barrier.
The region at the junction is free from charge carrier called depletion region.

On increasing the forward biased voltage the width of depletion layer decreases.

Expression for voltage gain:

Vcc = Vce +IcRL

Vbb = Vbe +IbRb
 P a g e | 58

5. For a common emitter amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector
resistance of 2kΏ is 2V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100,
calculate (i) input signal voltage, (ii) base current, and (iii) power gain. Given that the
value of the base resistance is 1kΏ.
Ans:

6. Give reasons for the following :

(i) The zener diode is fabricated by heavily doping both the p and n sides of the
junction.

(ii) A photodiode, when used as a detector of optical signals is operated under

reverse bias.

(iii) the band gap of the semiconductor used for fabrication of visible LED’s must at
least be 1.8eV.

Ans. (i) heavily doping makes the depletion layer very thin. This makes the electric field of
the junction very high, even for a small reverse bias voltage. This in turn helps the zener
diode to act as a ‘voltage regulator’.

(ii) when operated under reverse bias, the photodiode can detect changes in current with
changes in light intensity more easily.

(iii) the photon energy, of visible light photons varies from about 1.8 eV to 3 eV . Hence for
visible LED’s, the semiconductor must have a band gap of 1.8 eV

VALUE BASED QUESTION(4 MARKS)

1. Prakash finds his friend Rakesh connecting his new television set directly to switch
board. Prakash advises Rakesh not to do so and to connect the television through a
voltage stabilizer.
a) Identify the diode used in voltage regulator and give its symbol.
b) What values did Prakash exhibit in the situation described?
• Helpful and concerned
• Practical application of theoretical knowledge.
 P a g e | 59

2. Pradyumna connected a series of solar cells to light up his house which he heated
the water.
Briefly describe the typical p-n junction solar cell. What are the values exhibited by
Pradyumna?
• Eco – friendly.
• Less consumption of electricity / saving of electrical energy.

3. Sekhar visited his grandparents who lived in a small village. He found the people of
the village uninformed about the internet. So he conducted awareness classes about
the advantages and applications of the internet. Mention the applications of internet.
State the values shown by Shekhar.

• Concern for the villages.

• Helping tendency.
• Contributing to the development of the country.

4. What types of circuits are used to get steady DC output from a pulsating voltage?
How does the working principle of the cicuit allow you to overcome hurdles in your
life?
• Unwanted habits / thoughts to be eliminated.
• To be steady in life.

5. Ashwin was given 3 semiconductors A, B and C with respective bandgaps of 3eV,

2eV and 1eV for use in a photodetctor to detect λ = 1400n m. He found that the
photodetector was not working with these semiconductors and did not know why.
His friend Akash found out the reason for it and explained it to him . Why did the
photodetector not work? What according to you are the values shown by Akash?

• Helping tendency.
• Presence of mind.
• High degree of awareness.
• Concern for his friend.

6. A student of class 12 was trying to understand the concepts of semiconductors and

insulators in terms of energy gaps. How would you explain these concepts to that
student? What values should we imbibe from this in our daily life?

• Ready to change with a little push.

• Ready / Eager to learn and move to a higher level.

7. Extrinsic semiconductors are preferred over intrinsic semiconductors in most of

the important electronic devices. Give reason. Name the 2 types of extrinsic
semiconductors. Mention some values that can be imbibed into our lives from the
properties of extrinsic semiconductor.
• Team work
• Accepting diversity.

QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. With the help of a diagram show the energy band diagram for conductor, semiconductor
and Insulator.
Ans: Refer NCERT Textbook Page No. 471 Fig. 14.2 (a),(b),(c)

2. Draw the circuit diagrams to show forward biasing and reverse biasing of a p-n junction
diode. Draw the corresponding characteristic curve.
Ans: Refer NCERT Textbook Page No. 481 Fig. 14.16 (a),(b),(c)
 P a g e | 60

3. Show the biasing of a photodiode with the help of a circuit diagram. Draw graphs to show
variations in reverse bias currents for different illumination intensities.
Ans :Refer NCERT Textbook Page No. 487 Fig. 14.23 (a),(b)

4. Draw a circuit diagram to study the input and output characteristics of a n-p-n transistor
in its CE configuration. Draw the typical input and output characteristics and explain how
these graphs are used to calculate (i) input resistance, (ii) output resistance and (iii)
current amplification factor of the transistor.
Ans: Refer NCERT Textbook page No. 493 & 494 & fig. 14.29& 14.30 (a)(b)

5. (a) Describe briefly, with the help of a diagram, the role of the two important processes
involved in the formation of a p-n junction.
(b) Name the device which is used as a voltage regulator. Draw the necessary circuit
diagram and explain its working.
Ans: Refer NCERT Textbook the relevant section.

6. Draw the circuit arrangement for studying the I-V characteristics of a p-n junction diode
in (i) forward and (ii) reverse bias. Briefly explain how the typical I-V characteristics of a
diode are obtained and draw these characteristics.

7. How photo diodes are used for detecting optical signals.

8. Draw a circuit diagram of an n-p-n transistor with proper basing .describe briefly its
working. Write the relation between currents in different branches of transistor circuit.
Why base is lightly doped and has smallest width.

9. Which device is used as a voltage regulator and why? With a neat circuit diagram explain
how it works.

COMMUNICATION SYSTEM (Chap. 15)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1. What frequency band is used for mobile phone?

Ans U.H.F. range of frequency about 800-950 MHz

2. What frequency bands are used for up linking and downlinking in satellite
communication?
Ans. For up-linking 5.925 to 6.425 GHz
For down-linking 3.7 to 4.2 GHz

3. Identify the parts X and Y in the following block diagram of a generalized

communication system.

X Transmitter Y Receiver

Ans. Part X is message signal or information source.

Part Y is a transmission channel.

4. Give two example of communication system which use space wave mode.
 P a g e | 61

Ans i. Line of right communication

ii. Satellite communication.

5. Why is the amplitude of modulating signal kept less than the amplitude of carrier
wave?

Ans. To avoid the distortion.

6. Why are the broadcast frequencies (carrier waves) sufficiently spaced in

amplitude modulated wave?

Ans. To avoid the mixing up of signals.

7. What type of modulation is required for radio broadcast?

Ans. Amplitude modulaton.

8. What type of modulation is required for television broadcast?

Ans. Frequency modulation.

9. Why is short wave band used for long distance radio broadcast?

Ans. Short waves are not absorbed by the earth’s atmosphere.

10. Name the type of radio wave propagation which involves TV signals, broadcast by
a tall antenna are intercepted directly by the receiver antenna?

Ans. Space wave propagation.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. Which of the following would produce analog signals and which would produce
digital signals?

i) A vibrating tuning fork.

ii) A musical sound due to a vibrating sitar string.
iii) A light pulse.
iv) Output of NAND gate.

Ans. i) analog ii) Analog iii) Digital iv) Digital

2. Two waves A and B of frequencies2 MHz and 3 MHz are beamed in the same
direction for communication via sky wave. Which one of these is likely to travel
longer distance in ionosphere before suffering total internal reflection?

Ans. The refractive index increases with increase in frequency which implies that for higher
frequency waves, angle of refraction is less, i.e., bending is less. Hence, the condition of total
internal reflection is attained after travelling larger distance (by 3 MHz wave).

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

Q1. What is the range of frequencies used for TV transmission? What is common
between this waves and light waves?

Ans 76 MHz-88MHz and 420MHz -890MHz, Speed of waves

 P a g e | 62

Q2. State two factors, by which the range of TV signal can be increased.

Ans i) By using repeaters

ii) By increasing height of transmitting or receiving antenna

iii) Using satellites

Q3. Which mode of propagation is used by short wave broadcast services having
frequencies range from a few MHz up to 30 MHz? Explain diagrammatically how long
distance communication can be achieved by this mode. Why is there an upper limit to
frequency of waves used in this mode?

Ans: Sky wave mode.

Q4. Why is communication using line of sight mode limited to frequencies above 40
MHz?

Ans 1) For these frequencies size of antenna is small and can be installed at large heights

2) These waves has directional property

Q5. What would be the modulation index for amplitude modulated wave for which
the maximum amplitude is ‘a’ while the minimum amplitude is ‘b’?

Ans: Ma = (a-b)/(a+b)

Q6. Calculate the length of a half wave dipole antenna at (a) 1MHz (b) 100MHz (c)
1000MHz. What conclusion can you draw from the results?

Ans: a) L=3*108/2*106=150 Similarly (b)=1.5m d)=.15m

Q7. A tower is 80m tall. Calculate the maximum distance up to which the signal
transmitted from the tower by this mode by this mode can be received. (Radius of the
earth is 6400km).

Ans. Maximum coverage distance: d = �2𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒 ℎ = 32 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘.

Q8. Which method is used to locate position of any person or earth by using
electromagnetic waves and a satellite system? Brief explain it.

Ans. GPS device is fitted in the system to locate its exact position on the Earth. It transmits
and receives the electromagnetic waves and gets link up with the satellite. The longitudes
of the GPS device is determined by measuring its distance from three satellites. This
information is used to identify the location of the GPS device.

QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

Q1. We do not choose audio signal to transmit just by directly converting it to an e.m. wave
of the same frequency. Give two reasons for the same.

Q2. For an amplitude modulated wave, the maximum amplitude is found to be 10V, while
the minimum amplitude is found to be 2V. Determine the modulation index. What will be
the value of modulation index (μ) if the minimum amplitude is zero volt?
 P a g e | 63

Q3. A carrier wave of peak voltage 12V is used to transmit a message signal. What should be
the peak voltage of the modulating signal, in order to have a modulation index of 75% ?

Q4. Draw a plot of variation of amplitude versus ω for an amplitude modulated wave.
Define modulation index. State its importance for effective amplitude modulation.

Q5. What does the term LOS communication mean? Name the types of waves that are used
for this communication. What is the range of their frequencies? Give typical example, with
help of suitable figure of communication system that use space wave mode propagation.

Q6. Draw a block diagram of a simple amplitude modulation; explain briefly how amplitude
modulation is achieved.

Q7. Draw the block diagram of a communication system. What is the function of a
transducer?

Q9. Which method is used to locate position of any person or earth by using
electromagnetic waves and a satellite system? Briefly explain it.

*******************
 P a g e |1

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

GUWAHATI REGION

SPECIAL STUDY MODULE – CHEMISTRY

FOR
CLASS – XII
(2015-16)

CHIEF PATRON:
SH. SANTOSH KUMAR MALL, IAS
(COMMISSIONER, KVS)

PATRON:
MR. C. NEELAP
(DEPUTY COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION)

GUIDE:
Sh. J. PRASAD, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION
Sh. D. PATLE, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION
Dr. S. BOSE, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHTI REGION

COORDINATOR
Shiva Kumar, Principal, KV Hasimara

RESOURCE PERSONS
1. Mr. S. K. Singh, PGT Chemistry- KV Hasimara
2. Dr. Subrata Pal, PGT Chemistry- KV2 Binnaguri
 P a g e |2

Unit-1
SOLID-STATE
1. No. of atom per unit cell(z)-
a. Simple cubic cell : 1 atoms per unit cell
b. F.C.C unit cell : 4 atoms per unit cell
c. B.C.C unit cell : 2 atoms per unit cell
2. Relation between radius of atom(r) and Edge-length of unit cell(a) -
a. Simple cubic cell(a) = 2.r
b. F.C.C cubic cell(a) = 2√2.r
4
c. B.C.C cubic cell(a) = .r
√3
3. Density of unit cell
𝑍.𝑀
Density (d) =
𝑎3 .𝑁𝐴

4. For cubic unit cell- 1) Face diagonal (b) = √2𝑎

2) Body diagonal (c) = √3𝑎

Where a= edge length or side of cube.

Unit-2
SOLUTIONS
Ideal Solutions: Which obeys Raoult’s Law at all temperature and concentration condition
For ideal solutions
(a) ∆H mixing=0, (b) ∆V mixing=0
Raoult’s Law:
(a) pA=p°A·xA & pB = p°B·xB
(b) ptotal = pA + pB
Collligative Properties Of Solution:- Which depend on no of particles in solution.
𝑃˚𝐴 − 𝑃𝑠𝑜𝑙
1. = XB (Mole fraction of solution)
𝑃˚𝐴
2. Elevation in B.P, ∆Tb= Kb·m (molality of solution)
3. Depression in F.P, ∆Tf= Kf·m (molality of solution)
4. Osmotic pressure, π = 𝐶𝑅𝑇, where C= molarity of solution

Unit-3
ELECTRO CHEMISTRY
1. Specific Conductivity (kv)= Conductance x Cell constant (G*)= 1/R.G
K x 1000
Molar conductivity (ᴧm) =
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑡𝑦
Limiting Molar Conductivity: It is a Molar conductivity at infinite dilution of solution.
2. Kohlrausch’s Law:
∧°m = ɳ+λ+o + ɳ- λ-o
 P a g e |3

Cell :
Function of salt Bridge:
1. Maintain electrical neutrality between two half cells
2. Completes the circuit b/w two half cells.
3. Nernst Equation for electrode: Mn+ + n e- M(S)
0.059 1
E= E° - log 𝑛+
𝑛 [𝑀 ]

For electro chemical cell, aA +b B n e- cC +dD

0.059 [𝐶]𝑐 [𝐷]𝑑
E.M.F or Ecell = E°cell – log where n is no of mol of e- used in
𝑛 [𝐴]𝑎 [𝐵]𝑏
cell reaction.
4. Relation between e.m.f and equilibrium constant
n
log Kc= · 𝐸°𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙
0.059

4. Faraday’s Law:
a. 1st law, W = Z·Q = Z.I.t where Q = I.t is charge

Unit-4
CHEMICAL KINETICS
Definitions:
a. Rate of reaction: Change in the concentration in unit time
Unit: mol l-1Sec-1
b. Order of reaction: Sum of powers of the concentration of the reactants in the rate
law
c. Rate law: Rate=K[A]x[B]y
K is a constant called rate constant
d. Elementary reaction: Reactions which occur in one step.
Complex reaction: Reaction which occur in many steps.
e. Pseudo First order: A bimolecular reaction whose order of reaction is unity
Ex: Sucrose Hydrolysis Glucose + Fructose
f. Integrated Rate-law:
[R ]−[R]
i. For zero-order reaction , K= 0
t
2.303 [R0 ]
ii. For first order reaction , K= log
t [R]
g. Half-life period: Time in which half of the concentration of reactant is consumed.
𝑅0
1. t1/2 for zero order, K =
𝑡/2
0.693
2. t1/2 for first order, K=
𝑡/2
h. Activation energy:
Energy required by the reactant to form activated complex
Relation b/w rate constants & Activation energy:-
𝑘2 𝐸𝑎 1 1
log( )= � − �, where K1 is rate constant at temp. T1
𝑘1 2.303𝑅 𝑇1 𝑇2
and K2 is rate constant at temp. T2
 P a g e |4

Unit-5
SURFACE CHEMISTRY
Adsorption:
A. Definition: Retention of the molecules of one substance on the surface of another.
Adsorbent: The surface of solid or liquid on which adsorption occurs.
Adsorbate: The substance which retained on the surface of adsorbent.
B. Type of Adsorption:
1. Physical adsorption- If force of attraction b/w adsorbate and adsorbent is Vander
Waals forces.
2. Chemical adsorption: If chemical-bond occurs b/w adsorbate & adsorbent.

Adsorption Isotherms -
𝑥
A Graph of ( ) verses P(Pressure) at constant temp.
𝑚
(x/m)= K.P 1/n ,Where x/m is extent of adsorption.

COLLOIDS:
A. Colloidal Solution= Dispersion medium + Dispersed phase
e.g. Smoke = Air + Carbon-particles
Fog = Air + Water-particles
B. Difference between any two:-
Dispersed
Sl No. Type of Colloids Dispersed Phase Example
Medium
1. Sols Solid Liquid Paint
2. Gel Liquid Solid Butter
3. Emulsion Liquid Liquid Milk
4. Aerosol Solid, liquid Air or gas Smoke
5. Foam Gas Liquid Lather

Sols- May be, hydrosols/ Aquasols – if water is D.M

Benzosols – if benzene is D.M
Alcosols – if alcohol is D.M
C. Classification of colloidal solution:
a. Lyophilic sols: C.S in which more affinity between D.M and D.P
e.g. Starch in water
b. Lyophobic sols: C.S in which no or less affinity between D.M and D.P.
c. Multi molecular colloidal: C.S in which smaller atoms or small molecules
aggregate to form colloids .e.g. Sols of Gold
d. Macromolecular: C.S. in which macromolecules act as D.P. e.g. Starch, Proteins
e. Associated molecular colloids: Some molecule at higher concentration behave
as C.S. e.g. Soap, detergents
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D. Definitions:
1. Peptisation: Conversion of fresh precipitate in colloidal solution by adding
any electrolyte.
E.g. Colloidal Solution of Fe(OH)3 by adding FeCl3.
2. Dialysis: Separation of crystalloids from colloidal solution by diffusing
through S.P.M.
If electro-field is applied, then this process is called electro dialysis.
3. Brownian movement: Zig-zag motion of colloidal particles.
E.g. Dust particles in air.
4. Tyndall effect: Scattering of light by colloidal particles.
5. Electrophoresis: Movement of colloidal particles towards oppositely charged
electrode in electric field.
This supports the presence of charge on colloidal-particles.
6. Coagulation: Aggregation or precipitation or settling down of colloidal-
particles.
Coagulation occurs due to 1. By adding electrolyte
2. by passing electricity
3. by boiling .
7. Emulsions: Colloidal solution in which both D.P. and D.M. are liquids
Type of emulsions:-
a. Oil in water (o/w) – e.g. milk
b. Water in oil (w/o) – e.g. Butter
8. Emulsifying-agent or emulsifier- Chemicals used to stabilize emulsions.
E.g. Soap-molecules.

CATALYSIS
A. Definition: Chemical reaction whose speed or rate is changed by adding a foreign
substance.
Catalyst: A foreign substance other than reactants which changes the speed of the
chemical reaction.
B. Type of catalysis or catalyst:
i. Homogeneous catalysis/catalyst:
When the used catalyst is in the same phase as that of reactants.
e.g. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) NO(g) 2 SO3(g)
Here, NO(g) act as Homogeneous catalyst.
ii. Heterogeneous catalysis/catalyst:
When the catalyst is in different phase from that of reactants.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) V2O5(s) 2SO3
Here V2O5 act as Heterogeneous catalyst
C. Features of catalyst:
i. Activity of a catalyst: Ability to increase the speed of a reaction.
e.g. 2H2 + O2 Pt 2 H2O
 P a g e |6

ii. Selectivity of a catalyst: Ability to direct a reaction to give a particular

product.
CH3-CH2-OH Cu CH3CHO + H2
iii. Shape - selective catalysis/catalyst:
A catalytic reaction which depends upon the pore-size of catalyst and
size of the reactants and product.
e.g. Zeolite, ZSM-5.

Unit-6
GENERAL PRINCIPLES & PROCESS OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS

Minerals: Natural occurring chemical substances found in the earth-crust.

Ore: The mineral from which a metal is extracted cheaply and easily.
Gangue: Earthly materials other than metal present in ore.
Concentration of Ore- Removal of gangue from ore.
Important methods for concentration of ore, and their principles-
a. Magnetic separation- Depends on difference in the magnetic properties of ore &
gangue.
e.g. Magnetite
b. Froth- floatation process: Depends on difference in wetting tendency of ore by oil
and gangue by water. Eg. Sulphide ore.
Froth- Stabiliser: Chemical used to stabilize the froth. Eg. Cresols, Aniline.
Depressant: A chemical which separates two sulphide ores selectively.
e.g. NaCN or KCN separates PbS & ZnS.
c. Leaching: Selective dissolution of ore in a particular solvent.
e.g. (i) Aluminium from bauxite-ore dissolve in NaOH.
(ii) Au /Ag from their ores by NaCN or KCN Solution.
Extraction of crude metal from concentrated-ore-
i. Calcination- Heating of concentrated-ore in absence or limited supply of air.
e.g. Cabonate ores.
ii. Roasting: Heating of ore in excess of air below the m.p of metal.
e.g. Sulphide ores.
iii. Smelting: Heating of metal-oxide in presence of carbon, or coke or CO as a
reducing-agent.
 P a g e |7

Iv . Pyro metallurgy: Extraction of metals by heating with any reducing-agents.

v. Hydro metallurgy : Extraction of metal by displacement reaction in aqueous
solutions.
vi. Electro metallurgy: Extraction of metal by electrolysis of fused-salt.

Refining: Purification of impure metals:

1. Zone-refining: Impurities are more soluble in the molten-state than in the solid-state
of the metal. Eg: Silicon, Germanium
2. Vapour-phase refining:
Principles:
Impure-metal + Reagent Δ Volatile compound
Δ High-temp.

Pure metal + Reagent generated

e.g. (i) Mond’s process:

350 K
Impure Nickel + 4CO(g) Ni(CO)4 (g)
Δ
Volatile
Δ
Ni(s) + 4CO(g)
Pure Nickel
(ii) Van Arkel Method:

Zr(s) 850K ZrI4(g) 1700K Zr(s)

Or + 2I2 or or + 2I2
Ti(s) Δ Ti T4(g) Δ Ti(s)
Impure Pure

Q. What is role of:-

1. Silica- in the metallurgy of iron or copper- As a flux
2. Cryolite- in the metallurgy of Aluminum-
a. To lower m.p. of mixure.
b. To enhance conductivity of molten alumina.
3. Zinc- in the metallurgy of Glod/Silver- As a reducing agent
4. NaCN- in the metallurgy of Gold/Silver- (i) As a solvent for leaching
(ii) to form complex.
5. Graphite rod- in the metallurgy of aluminum- As anode.
 P a g e |8

UNIT: 7
p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
Reasoning:
Group—15: Nitrogen Family
1. ‘N’ does not form pentahalide. Or NCl5 is not available.- due to lack of ‘d’ orbitals
2. NH3 act as a ligand, or a Lewis-base or a complexing-agent, easily protonated.- Due to
lone-pair.
3. NO2 makes dimer. Ans: due to one odd electron to N-atom in NO2.
4. Nitrogen does not show catenation, but ‘P’ shows. Ans: P—P bond is stronger.
5. All bonds in PCl5 are not equivalent. Or PCl5 breaks easily into PCl3 and Cl2.Ans: Due to
tbp shape, in which axial bonds are bigger than equatorial bonds.
6. PCl3 gives fumes with water. Ans: HCl forms with water.
7. PH3 has low B.P., is weaker base than NH3.- Due to bigger size of P
8. NCl3 is hydrolysed,but NF3 is not. Ans: due to‘d’ orbital of Cl-atom.
9. Nitic oxide becomes brown in air.Ans: reacts with O2 and forms NO2.
10. N2 gas is least reactive and used in food packing. --Ans :Less reactive due to triple
bond.
11. Yellow phosphorous is highly reactive, is kept under water.---Due to Low ignition-
temperature
12. CN – ion exists, but CP− ion does not.—Due to larger size of P, hence C – P bond is
weaker.
13. Pentahalides are more covalent. ----- Due to high polarising power P(V).
14. R3P = O exists, but R3N = O does not. ----- Due to absence of d orbital in N-atom.
15. Nitrogen exists as N2, but Phosphrous as P4.—small size of N, more electronegative
than P, P∏- P∏ multiple bonds.
16. BiCl5 is quite unstable, or acta as O.A. - due to inert pair effect.
17. NH3 reacts with both strong and weak acid, but PH3 only with strong acid.- more e− -
density in NH3
Chemical reactions:
1. Mg3N2 + 6 H2O  3 Mg(OH)2 + 2 NH3, (ii) Mg3N2 + 6 HCl  3 MgCl2 + 2 NH3
2. Ca3P2 + 6 H2O  3 Ca(OH)2 + 2 PH3, (ii) Ca3P2 + 6 HCl  3 CaCl2 + 2 PH3
3. 8 NH3 + 3Cl2  6 NH4Cl + N2 ; (ii) NH3+ 3Cl2 NCl3 + 3 HCl.
 P a g e |9

4. PH3 + HCl  PH4Cl (phosphonium Chloride) (ii) 2 PH3 + 3 HgCl2  Hg3P2 +6 HCl
5. 4 P + 3 NaOH + 3 H2O  PH3 + 3 NaH2PO2
Group—16, Oxygen family
1. Elements of group 16 are called ‘Chalcogens’. --- As they are ore forming.
2. Oxygen is gas, but sulphur is solid.-small size, high Electronegative, P∏- P∏ bond,
Vander Waal’s forces in O2.
3. Sulphur show catenation.-> Due to S—S bond Stronger.
4. H2O is liquid; H2S is gas.—Due to H- bond in water.
5. Sulphur in vapour phase is paramagnetic- Due to presence of unpaired electrons; like O2 gas.
6. Ozone is a powerful O.A.—gives most reactive atomic O-atom.
7. SF4 is hydrolysed, SF6 is not--- SF4 has vacant d- orbital, less hindered.
8. Bleaching action by SO2 gas is temporary—by nascent H- atom.
9. Sugar gets charred on adding conc. H2SO4.—absorbs water molecules from sugar.
10. H2S is less reactive (or weak acid) than H2Te. --- B.D.E. of H—S bond is more.
11. SF6 exists, but SCl6 does not.—bigger size of Cl-atom.
12. H2S can act as R.A. only, but SO2 as both R.A. and O.A.—
Ans: In H2S, O.N. of S atom is – 2, so it can lose electron and act as R.A. but in SO2, the O.N. of
S-atom is +4, so it can lose or gain electron, so it can act as both.
13. OF2 is called oxygen difluride, but not fluorine oxide.- F is most Electronegative.
14. HF is a weak acid in water, but stronger in ammonia.—Conjugate acid of weak-base is
stronger.
(i) HF + H2O  H3O+ + F− (ii) HF + NH3  NH4+ + F−

Group – 17; HALOGEN FAMILY

1. Halogens have negative electron-gain enthalpy—easily accept electron to gain stability.
2. Fluorine is a stronger O.A. -- B.D.E. of F is lower than all other.
3. Fluorine shows only – 1 O.S. whereas other halogens show +1, +3, +5 and +7 O.S.—
No d orbital in F.
 P a g e | 10

4.Bond dissociation energy of F2 is less than that of Cl2.—lone pair – lone pair repulsion of
in F due to small-size.
5.F does not show disproportionation reaction, but other show.—due to only one –1 O.S.
6.Nitric oxide and ClO2 both have odd electron, but – odd e─ of ClO2 is delocalised, but in
NO is localised.
7.HF has lower acidic property than other HX acid – B.D.E of HF is high due to small
size of both H and F.
8. Iodine is more soluble in KI solution than water.—due to the formation of KI3 ion .
9. Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogens—due to polarity, weaker
bond b/w XX’n.
10.HF acid is stored in wax coated glass-bottle—HF reacts with SiO2 of glass, but other HX not.
11.Addition of Cl2 to KI solution gives it a brown colour, but excess Cl2 makes it colourless—
KI is oxidised to I2 by Cl2 so it makes brown; 2KI + Cl2  2KCl + I2, Excess Cl2 further
oxidises I2 to HIO3. 5Cl2 + I2 + 6 H2O  2 HIO3 + 10HCl.
12. FCl3 does not exist, but ClF3 exist. ---Due to lack of ‘d’ orbital in F.
13. Halogens are coloured.—absorb some radiations from visible-region, other
radiations is transmitted.
14.Halogens are diatomic molecules. — Due to sharing of unpaired ‘e’ by both X-atoms.
15. F2 and Cl2 are gases, Br2 is liquid, but I2 is solid.-Due to increasing Vander Waal’s forces.
16.HI or HBr is not prepared by the reaction of KI orKBr with conc. H2SO4 acid.—HI or HBr
formed is oxidised by conc. H2SO4 to I2 or Br2.
17.Fluorine does not act as a central atom in its compounds - most Electronegative element
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Group 18: NOBLE-GASES

1. Inert gases are monoatomic.--- Stable Configuration
2. Electron gain enthalpy of noble- gases is positive.--Stable Configuration, ns2 np6.
3. Atomic radii of inert gases are larger in the period.—Show Vander waal radii.
4. M.P. /B.P. of noble gases are low.-Due to weak Vander waal forces.
5. Xenon forms true compounds.—Due to low Ionisation enthalpy among noble gases.
6. Xenon forms compounds only with F2 and O2.—Both are most Electronegative,
withdraw electros from Xe.
7. Xenon does not form XeF3, XeF5.—All the orbitals of Xe are paired .On promotion of
electron to vacant‘d’ orbitals gives 2,4,6, half-filled orbitals.
8. Helium is used for sea diver.—Due to low solubility in blood.
 P a g e | 11

Structures of Oxo-acids-
i. For phasphoras
1. H3PO2
Basicity/Proticity
= 01

2. H3PO3
Proticity=02

3. H3PO4
Proticity=03

4. H4P2O7
Proticity=04

ii. For Sulphor

1. H2SO3
Proticity=02

2. H2SO4
Proticity=02

3. H2SO5
Proticity=02
 P a g e | 12

4. H2S2O7(Oleum)
Proticity=02

5. H2S2O8(marshal acid)
Proticity=02

iii. For halogens

1. HOX
E.g- HOCl, HOBr, HOI
Proticity=01

2. HXO2
E.g- HClO2, HBrO2, HIO2
Proticity=01

3. HXO3
E.g- HClO3, HBrO3, HIO3
Proticity=01

4. HXO4
E.g- HClO4, HBrO4, HIO4
Proticity=01
 P a g e | 13

iv. Xenon
1. XeF2
Linear (sp3d)

2. XeF4
Square Planar (sp3d2)

3. XeF6
Distorted Octahedral (sp3d3)

4. XeOF2
T-Sharp (sp3d)

5. XeOF4
Square Pyramidal (sp3d2)
 P a g e | 14

6. XeO3
Trigonal Pyramidal sp3

7. XeO4
Tetrahedral (sp3)

UNIT: 8 d- & f - BLOCK ELEMENTS

d - Block elements
01. Definitions: - Elements whose last electron goes to d subshell.
General Outer electronic configuration: (n-1) d1-10 ns1-2
Transition Elements:-Elements of d block which have unpaired electron(s) in d
subshell of its atom/ ions in common Oxidation-States.
e.g. Zn is not a transition element due to d10 configuration , but d block element.
Classification of d block elements in Series:
1st Series (in the Fourth period)  Scandium (Z = 21) to Zinc (Z = 30), Electrons go to
3d Subshell.
2nd Series (in the Fifth period)  Yttrium (Z = 39) to Cadmium (Z = 48), Electrons go
to 4d Subshell.
3rd Series (in the Sixth period) Lathanum (Z = 57) to Mercury (Z = 80), Electrons go
to 5d Subshell.
In the Sixth period, Lanthanides (from Cerium (58) to Lutetium (71) are also present.
4th Series ( in the Seventh period)  starts from Actinium (Z = 89) and still
incomplete.
 P a g e | 15

02. Electronic Configuration of Elements/Ions; & Count the no. of unpaired electrons
in d orbitals: [ 1st Series]
Elements/Its Ions At. No. Electronic No. of Remarks Stability of
(Z) Configuration Unpaired in Ions
d orbitals
Sc 21 3d1 4s2 01
Sc3+ 21 3d0 4s0 Nil
Ti 22 3d2 4s2 02
Ti2+ 22 3d1 4s0 01
V 23 3d3 4s2 03
V2+ 23 3d3 4s0 03
V3+ 23 3d2 4s0 02
V5+ 23 3d0 4s0 Nil
Cr 24 3d5 4s1 05
Cr2+ 24 3d4 4s0 04
Cr3+ 24 3d3 4s0 03 (t2g)3 (eg)0 Most Stable
Mn 25 3d5 4s2 05
Mn2+ 25 3d5 4s0 05 Half-filled Most Stable
Mn3+ 25 3d4 4s0 04
Mn4+ 25 3d3 4s0 03
Mn7+ 25 3d0 4s0 Nil
Fe 26 3d6 4s2 04
Fe2+ 26 3d6 4s0 04
Fe3+ 26 3d5 4s0 05 Half-filled Most Stable
Cobalt , Co 27 3d7 4s2 03
Co2+ 27 3d7 4s0 03
Co3+ 27 3d6 4s0 04
Ni 28 3d8 4s2 02
Ni2+ 28 3d8 4s0 02
Ni4+ 28 3d6 4s0 04
Cu 29 3d10 4s1 Nil
Cu2+ 29 3d9 40 01
Zn 30 3d10 4s2 Nil Not a transition
Zn2+ 30 3d10 4s0 Nil Element.

03. Properties of Transition- Elements:-

S. N. Name of Properties Reasons
1. High enthalpy of atomization/ m.p. Due to strong metallic bonding.
2. Variable oxidation-states Due to (n-1)d and ns- electrons.
3. Paramagnetic Behavior Due to Unpaired electron in d- orbitals
4. Catalytic property
5. Coloured ions/ Compounds Due to d-d transition of unpaired
electrons.
6. Complex salt formed Due to vacant d- orbitals.
7. Interstitial compounds Due to presence of voids in the
elements.
 P a g e | 16

8. Alloy formation Due to same atomic size.

9. Oxides in lower O.S. is basic/ ionic Due to use of ns electrons or (+2) O.S.
10. Oxides in higher O.S. is Due to more polarizing power, or
acidic/covalent smaller size of cations and high charge
in higher O.S.
11. Zinc is a soft metal. Due to weak metallic bonding

04. Ions having same outer E.C:-

Outer Ions with same Properties
E.C. configuration
3d3 4s0 V2+ , Cr3+ , Same Paramagnetic ↑ ↑ ↑
Mn4+ Value
3d4 4s0 Cr2+ , Mn3+ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
3d5 4s0 Mn2+ , Fe3+ Same Stability ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑

3d6 4s0 Fe2+, Co3+, Ni4+ ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑

05. Potassium Dichromate, K2Cr2O7:-

Preparation: - from Chromite Ore,
4 FeO . Cr2O3 + 8 Na2CO3 + 7 O2  8 Na2CrO4 + 2 Fe2O3 + 8 CO2
2 Na2CrO4 + H2SO4  Na2Cr2O7 + Na2SO4 + H2O
Na2Cr2O7 + 2 KCl  K2Cr2O7 + 2 NaCl
Potassium permanganate, KMnO4
Preparation: - from Pyrolusite Ore,
MnO2 + 4 KOH + O2  2 K2MnO4 + 2 H2O
3 MnO4−− + 4 H+  2 MnO4− + MnO2 + H2O
Inner Transition Elements (f block elements):-
Definitions: - Elements whose last electron goes to f- subshell are called f-block elements.
General Outer electronic configuration: (n-2)f1-14 (n-1)d0-1 ns2 , where n = 6,7
Classification of ‘f’ blocks elements in Series
Lanthanides: 1st Series , 4f-Series (in the Sixth period) 4f1-14 5d0-1 6s2
Cerium (58) to Lutetium (71) are present.
Actinides: 2nd Series, 5f-Series (in the Seventh period) 5f1-14 6d0-1 7s2
Thorium (Z = 90) to Lawrencium (Z = 103) are present.
 P a g e | 17

Lanthanide Contraction:-
Definitions: - Decrease in atomic/ionic radii with increasing atomic number of lanthanoids.
Cause of Lanthanide Contraction: Due to poor shielding/screening effect of 4f-electrons.
Effects or Consequences of Lanthanide Contraction:
(i) Extraction or separation of individual element becomes difficult.
(ii) Atomic size of 5d series of transition elements and 4d series becomes nearly same.
(iii) Basicity of Oxides or Hydroxides of lanthanides decreases from La (58) to Lu (71).
Properties of Lanthanides and Actinides
Name of properties Lanthanides Actinides
Oxidation States Common +3 +3

Other +2, +4 +4, +5, +6

Colour compounds Yes, due to f-f transition
Reactivity Less More
Radio-active Elements No Yes, All
Uses In alloy making In medicines
Atomic reactors

UNIT-9
CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS
1. Co-ordination compound- These are compounds in which the central atom is linked to
atoms or ions by co-ordinate bonds.
2. Ligands- An atom, molecule or ion that is capable of donating a pair of electron to the
central metal atom or ion and forms a co-ordinate bond with it.

e.g. H2O, NH3, OH-, CN-, etc.

3. Denticity- is the number of sites through which ligand binds or linked with central
atoms/ ion.
4. Unidentate ligands- The liganad whose only one donor atom is bonded to metal atom
are called unidentate ligands.
 P a g e | 18

e.g. NH3, H2O, CN-.

--
5. Bidentate ligands- The ligands which contain two donor atoms or ions. Ex- en, C2O4

6. Ambident ligands- Monodentate ligands with more than one co-ordinating atoms are
-
called ambidentate ligands.Ex- NO2 .
7. Ionization isomers- They give different ions in solution.
e.g. [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4& [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Br.

8. Hydrate isomers- It is isomerism in which water (solvent) is involved as ligand.

e.g. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [CrCl(H2O)5]Cl2.H2O.

9. Linkage isomers- are those in which ambidentet ligand uses different atoms for ligation.
e.g. [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]Cl2.

10. Co-ordination isomers- Isomers, which involve inter change of ligands.

e.g. [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6].

11. Geometrical isomerism- It is observed only for square planar and octahedral
complexes.
12. Optical isomers- Optical isomers are those which are not super imposable on their
mirror images.
Important Question (Solved)
Co-ordination compounds
1. Write the IUPAC names of the following co-ordination compounds :
a) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
b) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
c) K3[Fe(CN)6]
d) [Co(NH3)4Cl(NO2)]Cl
Ans. a. Hexa ammine cobalt (III) chloride
b. Pent ammine chlorido cobalt (III) chloride
c. Potassium hexacyano ferrate (III)
d. Tetra ammine chlorido nitrito-N- cobalt (III) chloride
2. Write the IUPAC name for the linkage isomers of
[Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2
 P a g e | 19

Ans. Triammine nitrito-N-cobalt(III) chloride

3. Using IUPAC names write the formula for the following:
Potassium tris (oxalato) chromate (III).
Ans. K3[Cr(C2O4)3]

4. Specify the oxidation numbers of the metals in the following co-ordination entities:

a. [Co(H2O)(CN)(en)2]+2
Ans. a. x + 0 + (-1) + 2(0) = +2
=>x=+3
5. Name the metal present in
i. Chlorophyll
ii. Haemoglobin
iii. Vitamin B12
iv. Cis-platin
Ans. i. Mg ii. Fe iii. Co iv. Pt
6. Write the factors on which magnitude of 0 depend
Ans. i. Nature of ligand and
ii. Oxidation state of metal ion

7. Using the valance bond approach, predict the shape and magnetic character of [Fe(CN)6]-3
ion.
Ans. It has octahedral shape and is paramagnetic in nature due to presence of one unpaired
electron.
8.. Mention applications of co-ordination compounds
a. Analytical chemistry
b. Extraction of metals
c. Biological process
d. Photography
e. Medicines

UNIT- 10
HALOALKANES & HALOARENES

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS:

1.• Account for the following or explain why:
(a) Aryl cyanides cannot be formed by the reaction of aryl halides & sodium cyanide.
Ans: Aryl halides are less reactive than alkyl halides towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.
 P a g e | 20

(b) B.P. of an alkyl halide is higher than that of the corresponding alkenes.
Ans: Due to the polar nature of alkyl halides there is strong dipole interactions between the
molecules of alkyl halide. So their b.p. is higher than that of the corresponding alkenes.
(c) Chloroform (CHCl3) does not give white ppt. with AgNO3.
Ans: CHCl3 contains chlorine but it is bonded to carbon by covalent bond & therefore it is not in
ionic form. Hence it does not combine with AgNO3 solution.
(d) Although haloalkanes are polar in nature yet they are insoluble in water.
Ans: Haloalkanes are insoluble in water due to their inability to form hydrogen bonds with
water.
(e) Haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes.
Ans: Haloarenes show resonance .
(f) Tert.butyl chloride reacts with aqueous NaOH by SN1 mechanism, while n-butyl chloride
reacts by SN2 mechanism.
Ans: carbocation intermediate.is more stable..
(g) Grignard Reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions.
Ans: Grignard reagents are very reactive and they readily react with water,. to give
hydrocarbons.
(h) The p-isomer of dichloro benzene has higher m.p than o-isomer & m-isomer.
Ans: This is due to its symmetrical structure .

• Write notes on :

• Friedel Craft’s Reaction:

Ans: It is carried by treating the haloarenes with alkyl chloride or acyl chloride in presence of
anhyd. AlCl3.to give alkyl or acyl derivatives.
• Wurtz Reaction:
Ans: Alkyl halides react with Na-metal in presence of anhyd.ether to form higher alkanes.
• Markownikoff’s Rule:
Ans: It states that in case of the addition of the addition of a halogen acid to an unsymmetrical
alkenes will give that alkyl halide as the major product in which the halogen part of the
hydrogen halide is attached to the double bonded ‘C’ which has least no. of H-atoms attached
to it.

CH3-CH=CH2 + HCl organic peroxide CH3-CH-CH3 + CH3-CH2-CH2Br

(1-propene)
Br
(1 Bromo propane) (2-Bromo propane)
(Major Product)
 P a g e | 21

• Peroxide Effect (Kharsh Effect):

Ans: Addition of HBr to unsymmetrical alkenes in the presence of organic peroxides takes place
against the Markownikoff’s rule.This is known as peroxide effect.

CH3-CH=CH2 + HBr organic peroxide CH3-CH2-CH2Br + CH3-CH-CH3

Br
(Major Product) (Minor Product)

•Complete the following reactions:

• CH3 -CH=CH2 + HBr CH3-CH-CH3

Br
• CH3-CH=CH2 + HBr peroxide CH3-CH2-CH2-Br
• CH3-CH2-CH2Cl alc KOH CH3-CH2=CH2 + KCl + H20
• CH3Br + KCN CH3CN H3O+ CH3COOH
(Ethanoic acid)
• How will you distinguish between the following?
• Methanol & Ethanol:
Ans: By Iodoform test: Ethanol will give positive Iodoform test(yellow ppt) whereas Methanol
will not.
• Propan-1-ol & Propan-2-ol
Ans: By Iodoform test:Propan-2-ol will give positive Iodoform test whereas propan-1-ol will
not.
•Ethyl Chloride & Vinyl Chloride:
Ans: Ethyl Chloride reacts with alc AgNO3 solution to give white ppt. of AgCl while vinyl chloride
does not yield to this test.

Important Questions and Answers.

Q1. Arrange each of the following compounds in order of there increasing boiling point:
a) Bromomethane, Bromoform, chloromethane and dibromomethane.
b) Propane, 1-chloropropane, isopropyl chloride, 1-chlorobutane.
Ans: -
a) Chloromethane < Bromomethane < dibromomethane < Bromoform.
b) Propane <isopropyl chloride < 1-chloroporpane < 1-chlorobutane;
Q2. Arrange the halide ions in order of increasing basicity and nucleophility.
Ans: - i) Basisity: F->CL->Br->I-
II) Nucleophilicity : I->Br->Cl->F-
 P a g e | 22

Q3. Arrange the following halide characters in order of there increasing SN2 reactivity .
, CH3CH2Cl, (CH3)2CHCl
Ans: - The order is (CH3)2 CHCl < CH3CH2Cl
Q4. Out of C6H5CH2Cl and C6H5CHClC6H5 which is more readily hydrolyzed by aq. KOH?
Ans: C6H5CHClC6H5.
UNIT-11
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS & ETHERS
Short notes:
WILLIAMSON’S SYNTHESIS:-
It is used in the laboratory for the preparation of ether by the action of corresponding
alkoxides with alkyl halides.
REIMER – TIEMANN REACTION
Phenol on treatment with Chloroform in presence of an alkali at 340 k and the hydrolysis of
product formed yields O-hydroxy benzoldehyde (Salicyladehyde) & p-hydroxyl
benzaldehyde.
ACCOUNT FOR THE FOLLOWING
1. Phenol is more easily nitrated than benzene.
Ans: OH group activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution reaction.
2. Phenols are more acidic than alcohols.
The phenoxide ion is more resonance stabilized .
3. Phenols do not give protonation reactions readily but alcohols are easily protonated.
Ans:-Due to the presence of two lone pairs of electrons on oxygen in alcohols , they get
protonated very easily whereas phenol is resonance stabilized and does not contain two
lone pairs of electrons on O-atom,
4. Propanol has higher b.pt than butane.
Ans:- The higher b.pt of propanol as compared to that of butane is due to the presence of
H-bonding in propanol.
5. Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than the corresponding
hydrocarbon.
Ans:- Because of intermolecular H-bonding between alcohol & water molecules.
6. Ortho-Nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol.
Ans:- O-nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol because –NO2 group is an electron
withdrawing group
. How will you distinguish between the following pairs chemically.
2-Butanol and 2-methyl-2-propanol
Ans: - BY LUCAS REAGENT or iodoform test
 P a g e | 23

ETHANOL & PROPANOL:-

Ans:- BY IODOFORM TEST:-
ETHANOL & PHENOL
Ans:- BY FeCl3 SOLN:-
PHENOL AND BENZOIC ACID
Ans:- BY FeCl3 SOL or BY NaHCO3:- test
1-PROPANOL & 2-PROPANOL
Ans:- BY IODOFORM TEST:-
Alcohol, phenols and ethers:
Q1. Of the two hydroxyl organic compounds ROH and R’OH, the first one is basic and the
other is acidic in behavior. How is R different from R’?
Ans: R is alkyl group.
R’ is an aryl group.

Q2. O-nitro phenol has lower boiling point than p-nitophnol . Explain?
Ans: - O-nitro phenol has lower b.p. due to intramolecular H-bonding whereas the b.p. of
p-nitro phenol is more due to the presence of intermolecular H-bonding.

Q3. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their acidic character?

p-nitro phenol, p-methoxy phenol, phenol.
Ans: - p-nitro phenol > phenol > p-methoxy phenol.
Q4.Lower alcohols are soluble in water, higher alcohol are not why?
Ans:- Lower alcohols can form H-bonds with water and therefore are soluble in water Q5.
Explain how –OH group attached to a carbon in the bezene rings
activates the benzene towards elctrophilic reactions?
Ans :In phenol –OH group is attached to the benzene ring. The lone pairs of the oxygen is
involved in resonance with benzene ring .
Q6. Phenol is a very weak acid. What substitutions in the molecule can make it a stronger
acid and weaker acid why?
Ans: - An electron withdrawing group present at o- or p- position can make phenol a
stronger
An e- releasing group present at o- or p- position can make phenol a weaker
 P a g e | 24

Q7. How do you account for the miscibility of ethoxy ethane with water?
ANS: because it can form H- bond with water molecules.
Q8. Which is a stronger acid-Phenol or Cresol- explain.
ANS: Phenol is a stronger acid than cresol because phenoxide ion is more stable .
Q9. Why phenol doesn’t undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction?
Ans. It is stable due to resonance..
Q10. Sodium metal can be used for drying diethyl ether but not ethanol.
Ans: Ethanol reacts with Na-metal leading to the evolution of hydrogen gas.

UNIT – 12
ALDEHYDES, KETONES & CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
1. Short notes:
i) ROSENMUND REDUCTION: Acid chlorides are converted into aldeydes by catalytic
hydrogenation in the presence of Pd catalyst supported over BaSO4.
ii) CLEMENSEN REDUCTION: This involves the reduction of aldehydes or ketenos with Zn-Hg
amalgam and conc-Hcl to give hydrocarbons.
iii)CANNIZARO`S REACTION :Aldehydes which do not contain any α-H-atom such as HCHO
& C6H5CHO undergo self oxidation and reduction reaction on treatment with
cone.alkali.One molecule is oxidized to acid & another is reduced to alcohol.
iv) HELL – VOLHARD-ZELINSKY REACTION: carboxylic acid having an α –H atom are
halogenated at α- position on treatment with Cl2 or Br2 in presence of red ‘P’ to give α -
halo carboxylic acids.
v) HOFFMANN BROMAMIDE REACTION: when an amide is treated with liq,Br2 and aq.
NaOH, a primary amine containing one c-atom less is formed. This reaction is known as
Hoffman’s bromamide reaction.
2. Account for the following (i.e. give the reason) :
i) Chloroacetic acid stronger than acetic acid.
Ans.CH3 – COOH Cl-CH2COOH
Acetic acid Chloroacetic acid
Chloroacetic acid is stronger acid than acetic acid because Chloroacetate is more stable
than acetate ion due to e-withdrawing nature of Cl-atom.
ii)Formaldehyde gives Cannizaro’s reaction where as acetaldehyde does not.
 P a g e | 25

Ans. Cannizaro’s reaction are given by only those aldehydes which do not contain α-H
atoms. E.g. HCHO.Since CH3CHO (acetaldehyde) contain α- H atom, it does not
give Cannizaro’s reaction.
(iii) Carboxylic acids have higher boiling point than alcohols of comparable molecular
masses.
Ans. In carboxylic acids the intermolecular H-bonding results in the formation of dimeric
structure .
Which is as compared to alcohols so the b.pt of acids are higher than those of alcohols.
3. How will you chemically distinguish between the following pairs.
i) Propanal and propanone
Ans. By Iodoform test:
ii) Acetophenone and Benzophenone
Ans.Acetophenone will give Iodoform test while benzophenone (C6H5-Co C6H5 ) will not .
iii) Phenol and Benzoic acid
Ans. By FeCl3 test:
Phenol + FeCl3 Solution violet color
Benzoic acid + FeCl3 Solution No reaction
iv) Benzoic acid and Ethyl benzoate :
Ans. By NaHCO3 ( Sodium bicarbonate test):
Benzoic acid + NaHCO3 brisk effervescence.
Ethyl benzoate + NaHCO3 No reaction
(v) Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone
Ans. (a) Tollen’s test:
Benzaldehyde + tollens Reagent silver mirror is formed.
Acetophenone + tollen’s Reagent No Silver mirror is formed
(b) By Iodoform test ;
Benzaldehyde + I2 + NaOH No yellow ppt.
Acetophenone +I2 + NaOH Yellow ppt. is obtained.
v) Ethanal & Propanal
Ans By Iodform test:
Ethanal (CH3CHO) + I2 + NaOH Yellow ppt. of CHI3
Propanal(CH3CH2CHO) +I2+NaOH NoYellow ppt. is formed
 P a g e | 26

FEW IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & AND ANSWERS

Q1. Name an alkene which on reductive ozonolysis gives only acetone.
Ans: 2,3-di methyl but -2-ene.
Q2) what is LABH & what is its importance?
Ans) LABH is lithium tri-t-butoxy aluminum hydride. It is a less active reducing agent than
LiAlH4 & does not reduce aldehydes to alcohols.
Q3. Arrange the following in increasing order of reactivity.
HCHO, CH3CHO, C6H5CHO.
Ans: C6H5CHO < CH3CHO < HCHO.
Q4. Ketones containing bulky groups fail to react with NaHSO3. Why?
Ans: due to steric hindrance.
Q5. Which out of the following is weakest and the strongest acid:
i) C2H5OH ii) CH3COOH iii) C6H5OH iv) H2O
The weakest acid –C2H2OH
The strongest acid- CH3COOH
Q6. Arrange it in the order of there increasing order of acidic strength:
Flouro acetic acid ii) chloro acetic acid iii) Acetic acid iv) formic acid v)
propanoic acid
Ans: v < iii < iv < ii < i.
Q7. Even numbers of carboxylic acid have higher melting point then the odd number acids
immediately above and below it. Why?
Ans: it is because in the case off even number of acid the structure is more symmetrical.
Q8. Formic acid reduces tollen’s reagent. Why?
Ans: due to the presence of aldehyde group in the structure it gets easily oxidized.

Unit 13
NITROGEN-COMPOUND
Important Questions:

Arrange the following in the order of their increasing basic characters in solution.
NH3, EtNH2, Et2NH, Et3N
Ans. Et2NH>Et3N>EtNH2>NH3
Give a chemical test to distinguish between C6H5NH2 and C6H5CH2NH2.
Ans. Azo dye test.
 P a g e | 27

Name the nitrogen containing compound which has the smell of bitter almonds.
Ans. Nitrobenzene.
Give one important industrial use of phenyl isocyanide.
Ans. It is used for preparation of N-methylaniline.
Short answer type question (S.A.):
1. Describe a chemical test to distinguish between CH3CH2NH2 and (CH3)2NH.
Ans. Carbyl amine test
2. Why is methylamine stronger base than ammonia?
Ans.Due to presence of electron releasing –CH3 group, having +I effect.
3.Aniline is a water base than cyclohexylamine. Why?
Ans. In aniline the lone pair on nitrogen is engaged due to resonance in benzene.
4. Define Hoffmann bromide reaction:
Ans. When amide reacts with Br2 and KOH, we get primary amine with one carbon atom less
than the amide.
5. Give one chemical test to distinguish between ethyl amine and aniline.
Ans. Azo dye test.

Unit 14
BIOMOLECULES

VERY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

1) Why a carbohydrate generally optically active?

Ans:-:- Because they have one or more chiral carbon atoms.
2) Why is glucose given to patients under exhaustion?
Ans:- Glucose is an instant sources of energy and hence is given to patients under
exhaustion.
3) Name the water insoluble fraction of starch. Name the monomer of this.
Ans:- Amylopectin is a water insoluble fraction of starch. It is a polymer of ∝-glucose.
4) Write the structure of ∝-amino acid.

Ans:- The structure is

H
∝
R – C - COOH
NH2
5) Name any two products derived from cellulose.
Ans.- Rayon:- Used in textile industry.
Gun Cotton:- Used as an expt.
6) Name the enzyme that helps in dissolving blood clots?
Ans:- Streptokinase.
 P a g e | 28

7) Name two purine base.

Ans:- Adenine (A) and Guanine (G).
8) What are monosaccharaides? Give one example.
Ans:- The carbohydrates which cannot be hydrolyse to simpler compounds. e,g:- Glucose

SHORT ANSWER -TYPE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS:

1. Which carbohydrate is called grape sugar? Give its condensed structural formula.
Ans:- Glucose is called grape sugar. Its condensed structural formula is
CHO
|
(CHOH) 4
CH2OH
2. Differentiate between the nucleotide of DNA & RNA.
Ans:- Nucleotide of DNA contains deoxyribose sugar which RNA contains ribose sugar. In
RNA nitrogenous base urasil is present at the place of thiamine
Few more important questions with Answers:
Q1) What are the hydrolysis products of maltose?
Ans. 2 Molecules of Glucose.
Q2) Which reaction confirms the presence of five OH-groups in glucose molecule?
Ans.) The formation of pent acetate derivative confirms the presence of five OH-groups.
Q3) Define non reducing sugar with example?
Ans.) The monosaccharide which do not reduce tollen’s reagent are called non reducing
sugar. Example-Sucrose.
Q4) Name the enzyme that converts maltose into glucose?
Ans.) Maltase.
Q5) Which bonds are responsible for secondary structure of Proteins and which linkages are
responsible for primary structure of protein?
Ans.) H_- Bond. Peptide linkage.
Q6) Define (I) Isoelectric point.
Ans.) (I) At a certain pH, the dipolar ion exists as the neutral ion and does not migrate to
either electrode. This pH is known as isoelectric point of amino acid.
Q7) What do you mean by denaturation of protein?
 P a g e | 29

Ans) When a protein in its native form is subjected to physical change in temp or chemical
change like change in pH, the proteins lose its biological activity. This phenomenon is called
denaturation of proteins. Primary structure being unaltered. e g. Boiling of egg.

Unit-15
POLYMER CHEMISTRY
KEY NOTES
 CLASSIFICATION OF POLYMERS
 BASED ON SOURCE
 Natural polymers- e.g. protein, cellulose, starch, etc.
 Semi-synthetic polymer: e.g. cellulose acetate (rayon), cellulose nitrate, etc.
 Synthetic polymers- e.g. polythene, synthetic fibers (nylon 66), synthetic rubber
(Buna S) etc.
 BASED ON STRUCTURE OF POLYMERS
o Linear polymers- These polymers consists of long and straight chains. e.g. high
density polythene, PVC etc.
o Branched chain polymers- These polymers contain linear chains having some
branches. e.g. low density polythene, etc.
o Cross linked Polymer
These polymers are usually formed from bi-functional and tri-functional
monomers and contains strong covalent bonds between various linear polymer
chains. e.g. Bakelite, Melamine, etc.
 BASED ON SYNTHESIS:
o ADDITION POLYMERS: These are formed by the repeated addition of molecules
possessing double or triple bond.
o CONDENSATION POLYMERS: These polymers are formed by repeated
condensation reaction between two different bi-functional or tri-functional
monomeric units.

BASED ON MOLECULAR FORCES:

o ELASTOMERS: The polymer chains are held together by the weakest intermolecular
forces. e.g. Buna-S, Buna-N, etc.
o FIBRES: The polymers are held together by the intermolecular forces like H-
bonding.e.g. Polyamides, polyester etc.
o THERMOPLASTIC POLYMERS: these polymers possess intermolecular forces of
attraction intermediate between elastomers & fibres. e.g. Polythene, polystyrene etc.
o THERMOSETTING POLYMERS: these polymers are cross linked or heavily branched
molecules.e.g. Bakelite, urea-formaldehyde, resins etc.
 P a g e | 30

Important Questions and Answers:

1) What are biopolymers? Give two examples.
Ans. Naturally occurring polymers that control various life processes in plants and
animals are called bio polymers.
e.g. proteins, nucleic acid.
2) What are homopolymers and copolymers?
Ans. Polymers formed from one kind of monomers are called homo-polymers. Polymers
formed from more than one kind of monomers are called co-polymers.
2) Name the monomers of Buna-S?
Ans. Styrene & 1, 3-butadiene.
3) Name the monomeric unit of bakelite?
Ans. Formaldehyde & Phenol
4) Name the monomers of Terylene?
Ans. Terephthalic acid & ethylene glycol.
5) Which polymer is used to make T.V. Cabinets, toys, etc?
Ans. Polystyrene (Styrofoam or Styron).
6) What is a monomer of PVC?
Ans. Vinyl Chloride
7) Name a polymer used to make cups for hot drinks?
Ans. Melamine-formaldehyde resin.
8) Arrange the following polymers in the increasing order of their intermolecular forces:
Polythene, Buna-S, and Nylon-66.
Ans. Polythene<Buna-S<Nylon-66.
9) Name the polymer used for making medicinal capsules?
Ans. PHBV (Poly- hydroxyl butyrate-Co-β-hyroxy valerate).
10) Which artificial polymer is present in chewing gum and bubble gum?
Ans. It contains synthetic Styrene-butadiene rubber.
11) Give an example of step growth polymer?
Ans. Nylon-66.
12) What are fibres? Give one example.
Ans. Polymers which have quite strong interparticle forces like H-Bond. e.g. Nylon-66.
13) What is PHBV?
Ans. It is poly hydroxy butyrate-co-β-hydroxy valerate.. It is a biodegradable polymer ,.
 P a g e | 31

UNIT-16
CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE
1. Drug: It is defined as the chemical compound used for purpose of diagnosis, prevention,
relief or cure of a disease.
a) Antipyretics: used to lower the body temperature. e.g. Paracetamal
b) Analgesics : used to relieve pain .These are of two types :
i. Non-narcotics (e.g. Novalgin,anangasics)
ii. Narcotics (e.g. morphine)
c) Tranquillizers: used for treatment of stress, mild and severe mental disorder.
d) Antiseptics: used to kill or prevent the growth of micro organism.
e) Disinfectants: used to kill microorganisms but can not be applied on living
tissues. e.g. dettol.
f) Antimalarial:-used for the treatment of malaria e.g. chloroquine.
g) Antimicrobial: used to cure infections. E.g. sulphadiazine
h) Antibiotics: produced by micro organisms and can inhibit the growth of
microorganism.e.g. penicillin G, penicillin F, Ampicillin.
i) Antifertility drugs: used to control the pregnancy.
j) Antacids: Chemical substances which neutralises excess acid in the gastric
juices. For e.g. Aluminum hydroxide.
k) Antihistamines: used to diminish or abolish the main action of histamine and to
prevent allergic reactions.
(l) Anesthetics: Chemical substances which produce general or local insensibility
to pains.e.g chloroform, vinyl ether.
m) Artificial sweetening agents: The chemical compounds that have
sweetening effect to the food and enhance its odour and flavours .e.g. Saccharin.
n) Antioxidants: Chemical substances which prevent oxidation and subsequent
spoilage of food. e.g. butylated-p-hydroxy anisole (BHA), butylated-p-hydroxy toluene(BHT).
Cleansing Agents: Substance used for cleaning purpose are called cleansing agents.
E.g. soaps & detergents.
Limitation of use of soap:
(i) Can not be used in hard water.
(ii) Can not be used in acidic medicines
Synthetic detergents: These are better cleansing agents or they can be used in hard water
.e.g. sodium lauryl sulphate.
Advantage of synthetic detergents over soaps :
i) Detergents are used in hard water
ii) Synthetic detergents can be used in acidic solution
ii) More soluble in water than soaps
iv) Give foam even in ice cold water.
 P a g e | 32

Important Questions and Answers

Q1.What are detergents? Give their classification. Why are detergents preferred over
soaps?
Ans.
Three types (i) cationic (ii) Anionic (iii) Non-ionic
They preferred because they can be used in hard water and in acidic medium.
Q2. (a) Name one common antacid.
(b) Name a substance which can be used both as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant.
Ans.(a) Baking soda (b) phenol
Q3. (a)What are tranquilizers? Give example
(b) Define with example the antifertility drugs.
(c) ) Define with example about antihistamines
Ans. (a) chemical substance which reduce anxiety, stress by acting on nerves
e.g. Equanil, luminal, seconal
(b) The drugs which are used for birth control.
e.g Oral pil
(c) These are anti allergic drugs and used to treat allergy.
e.g. Chlorophenirammine, promethazine.
Q4) What is aspirin? Why should it not be taken in empty stomach?
Ans Aspirin is 2-acetoxy benzoic acid .It is used as an antipyretic and analgesic.
It should not be taken empty in stomach because it gets hydrolysed to form salicyclic
acid which causes bleeding in the stomach as well as ulcer formation.

********************
 BIOLOGY

STUDY MATERIAL

2015- 2016

CLASS – XII

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan

Regional Office
Guwahati
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CHIEF PATRON

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COMMISSIONER

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

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 CONVENOR

Mr. VISHNU DUTT TAILOR

PRINCIPAL

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA

C.R.P.F. (G.C.), AMERIGOG, GUWAHATI

PREPARED BY :

1. RAJIV KUMAR JHA, PGT(BIOLOGY), K.V.- C.R.P.F. (G.C.), AMERIGOG,

GUWAHATI , [email protected]

2. MRS. NG. SARJUBALA, PGT(BIOLOGY), KV- BORJHAR, [email protected]

3. MR. CHANDAN ROY, PGT (BIOLOGY), KV- KHANAPARA

4. MRS. M. BARMAN, PGT(BIOLOGY), K.V.- MALIGAON

 CONTENTS

Sl No Chapter Page No.

Introduction 1- 4
1 Reproduction in Organism 5
2 Sexual reproduction in flowering plants 6- 8
11- Human reproduction 9- 10
4 Reproductive health 11- 12
5 Principles of inheritance and variation 13- 14
6 Molecular basis of inheritance 15- 18
7 Evolution 19- 21
8 Human health and Disease 22- 26
9 Strategies for enhancement in food production 27- 28
10 Microbes in human welfare 29- 31
11 Biotechnology: principles and processes 32- 33
12 Biotechnology and its application 34
13 Organisms and populations 35- 36
14 Ecosystem 37- 38
15 Biodiversity and conservation 39- 40
16 Environmental issues 41- 42
17 Question- answers 43- 49
 Chapter – 1: - REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

 Life Span: Period from birth till natural death. Every organism live only for a certain period
of time.
Reproduction –Producing young-ones of their kind, generation after generation. Two types:
Vegetative Reproduction in plants
 Vegetative reproduction frequently used instead of asexual reproduction, units of vegetative
propagation called vegetative propagules. Eg.- runner (Grass, Oxalis), rhizome (ginger),
sucker (Mentha), tuber (Potato), offset (Eichhornia), bulb (Onion), Bulbil (Agave).
Sexual Reproduction: PHASES OF LIFE SPAN. :
Juvenile phase: The phase of growth before reproductive maturity. In plants- Vegetative
Phase.
Reproductive phase: Reproductive maturity.
 Senescent phase: Phase between reproductive maturity and death.
Special Flowering: Bamboo- once in life, generally after 50-100 years.
Strobilanthus kunthiana (Neelakuranji) – flowers once in 12 years.
 The main events of sexual cycle are: Prefertilization, Fertilization & Post Fertilization.
 Dioecious: Only one type of reproductive structure in a plant. Eg. Papaya
 Monoecious : Reproductive organs at different positions in same plant eg. Cucurbits,
Maize.
 Hermophrodite : Reproductive organs at different positions in same animal eg.
Earthworm.
Cell division during gamete formation:
Haploid-parent (n) produces haploid gametes (n) by mitotic division, eg. Monera, fungi, algae and
bryophytes.
Diploid parent (2n) produces haploid gametes (n) by meiosis division (possess only one set of
chromosomes) and such specialized parent cell is called meiocyte or gamete mother cell (2n).
 Example-
Name of organism Meiocyte (2n) gamete (n)
Human 46 23
Potato 48 24
Two type of Fertilization: external and internal.
EXTERNAL FERTILISATION INTERNAL FERTILISATION
Fertilisation takes place outside the body Fertilisation takes place inside the body
Large no. of gametes produced. Lesser no. of gametes produced.
Eg. Fish, amphibians Aves, Mammals.
C. Post -fertilization events- formation of zygote and embryo.
Embryogenesis: development of embryo from zygote by cell division (mitosis) and cell
differentiation.

 Parthenogenesis: Female gamete develops into new organism without fertilization . eg- Honey
bee, turkey, lizard, rotifers (Protozoans).
 Seedless fruits formed by parthenocarpy.
 Clone: A group of individuals of the same species that are morphologically and genetically
similar to each other & their parents.

CHAPTER - 2 Sexual Reproduction in flowering plants

FLOWERS : modified shoot, Site of sexual Reproduction. Male and female reproductive organs are
borne on flowers.
MICROSPOROGENESIS: The process of formation of micro spores from pollen mother cell (2n)
through meiosis.
Microsporangium is 4 layered:
Epidermis : single outer layer Microspore mother
Endothecium : dehiscence of cell (2n)
anther Meiosis
Middle layer: 2-4 layered, Microspore (n)
crushes when sporogenous Mitosis
tissue mature. Pollen grains (n)
Tapetum : dense cytoplasm &
multinucleate, Nourishes the
developing pollen grain &
formation of pollen wall,

Pollen grains: Male gametophyte. Two layered:-

 Exine : Exine is made of sporopollenin. (Hardest natural substance).
Intine : Intine is made of cellulose and pectin .

Gynoecium / carpel (the female reproduuctive organ)

(Structure of anatropous ovule) / Megasporangium
Wind Pollination (ANEMOPHILY) Water pollination (HYDROPHILY) Insect Pollination (ENTOMOPHILY)
Pollen grains – light, non- Pollen grains protected by Colorful & showy flower, high
sticky, colourless, well exposed mucilaginous covering, long fragrance, produce nectar, sticky
stamens, feathery stigma & stalk & long coiled style. pollen grains & stigma.
numerous flower.
POLLINATION– transfer of pollen from anther to stigma. Agents of pollination – air, water, insect.
bat,bird,man.

Megasporogenesis
 The formation of megaspore from the
megaspore mother cell –MMC (2n) is called
megasporogenesis.
 In megaspore tetrad, 3 degenerate & one
functional megaspore develops into female
gametophyte (embryo sac).
 Embryo sac (Polygonum type) -8 nucleate &
7 celled.
 Synergid cell have special cellular thickening
at the micropylar tip called filiform
apparatus,which play an imp. role in guiding
the pollen tube into the synergid.

MEGASPOROGENESIS

Out Breeding Devices: to promote cross pollination because self pollination results in inbreeding
depression.
Different size of style & stamens , Anatomical barrier , difference in time of maturation of
stamen and carpel, Pollens do not germinate on stigma of self flower .

Pollen Pistil Interaction: Stigma have the ability to recognize the right type of pollen it rejects the
pollen grains of other species & also the incompatible pollens of the species.

Artificial Hybridization: it is a major approach to crop improvement programme. It is achieved by -

i) Emasculation: Removal of anthers from the flower bud of a bisexual flower before the
anther dehisces using a pair of forceps.
ii) Bagging - covering the emasculated flowers with a bag of suitable size to protect them from
contamination with unwanted pollen.
Double fertilization :
First fertilization: Fusion of male gamete with egg is called SYNGAMY & develops embryo (2N)
Second fertilization: Fusion of polar nuclei with 2 nd male gamete is called TRIPLE FUSION &
develops PEN (3N).
Since two types of fusions, syngamy & triple fusion takes place in an embryo sac the phenomenon is
termed double fertilization.
Embryo development:
1. Zygote divides by mitosis into suspensor & embryo cells
2. Suspensor cell forms a globular basal cell which remains MONOCOT EMBRYO -
embedded in the endosperm & a multicellular suspensor bearing the GRASS
embryo
3.Globular embryo becomes heart-shaped & then mature embryo with
radicle, plumule & Cotyledons.

DICOT EMBRYO

Differentiate between:
COLEOPTILE COLEORHIZA
 Covering of plumule in monocots.  Covering of radicle in monocots.
 Coleoptile breaks grain covering and elongates.  It breaks grain covering but stop further
growth

PERISPERM PERICARP
It is Remnant of nucellus. It is ovary wall (epicarp, mesocarp & endocarp)

TRUE FRUITS FALSE FRUITS

True Fruit develops only from the ovary, from parts of the flower other than the ovary e.g.
e.g. mango, tomato apple, peach etc

Albuminous Seed Non albuminous seed

Seed retains endosperm as it is not completely Seeds do not retain endosperm as it is completely
used up during embryo development. Eg. Wheat, utilized during embryo development. Eg. Pea,
maize, barley, sunflower, castor. grountnut.
Importance of Apomixis :
Since apomictic seed are produced asexually so they maintain their agronomic characters. So they
are used in hybrid seed industry, floriculture, horticulture.

Chapter - 3 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

Events of Human Reproduction

Gametogenesis: formation of gametes.
Insemination: Transfer of sperm in female genital tract.
Fertilization: fusion of sperm and ovum.
Implantation: attachment of blastocyst with uterine wall for further development.
Gestation: Embryonic development
Parturition: Delivery of the
baby. SPERM SEMINIFEROUS TUBULES

MALE ACCESSORY GLANDS:

Prostate gland: Provides an
alkaline fluid that can protect sperm
from harsh vaginal acids.
Seminal Vesicles: Produce food
for sperm. Food "Fructose"
Cowper's gland: Produces clear
lubricating fluid

The Female Reproductive System:

Spermatogenesis and Oogenesis:

MENSTRUAL CYCLE:

Placenta : Chorionic villi & uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a
structural & functional unit between developing embryo & maternal body. It provide antibodies to
foetus (IgG).Function : supply of O2 & nutrients to embryo and removal of CO2 & excretory
products from embryo.
Act as a endocrine tissue & produce hormones like human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human
placental lactogen (hPL), estrogen.
Pregnancy hormone : RelaxinThese hormones essential for fetal growth and metabolic changes in
mother and maintenance of pregnancy.
Lactation : In the influence of hormone Prolactin (hPL) & progesterone, mammary glands starts
producing milk.
Colostrum : thick & yellowish milk consist of antibodies (IgA) & develops immunity to protect
from pathogens to infant.
 Chapter - 4: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
Reproductive Health: Acc. to WHO, reproductive health means a total well being in all aspects of
reproduction, i.e. physical, emotional, behavioural and social.

Objective of Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes :

 Creating awareness about reproduction related aspects.
 Introduction of sex education in schools to provide right information to the young .
 Awareness of problems due to uncontrolled population growth, social evils like sex-abuse and
sex-related crimes, etc.,
 Amniocentesis : a statutory ban on (a foetal sex determination test based on the chromosomal
pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo) for sex-determination to
legally check increasing female foeticides, massive child immunisation, etc., are some
programmes that merit mention in this connection.

Methods of birth control

Natural Method: Coitus Interruptus: Coitus interruptus means 'interrupted sex" (penis is
withdrawn from the vagina just before ejaculation).
Periodic Abstinence: couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
when ovulation could be expected.
Lactational Amenorrhea: During intense lactation, chance of conception are almost nil but
effective upto 6 month after parturition.
Barrier methods: In barrier methods of birth control, a barrier is placed between the penis and the
vagina during intercourse so that the sperm cannot meet the ovum for fertilization.
Condoms protect against pregnancy as well as sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), including
HIV/AIDS.
Hormonal Methods: Oral Contraceptive pills: They result in prevention of ovulation & disrupts
endometrium
Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs):
 IUDs are contraceptive devices which are placed inside the uterus.
 Copper T: T-shaped structure which stays inside the uterus , release cu++ hostile to sperm.
 Surgical Methods: These are more or less permanent methods of contraception.

 Tubectomy : Both the female tubes are tied off and usually cut during tubal ligation to prevent
the sperm from reaching the ovum during intercourse.
 Vasectomy:The two tubes which carry sperm from the testes to the penis are the vas deferens.
Tying them off and cut.
 MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY (MTP)
 Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called medical
termination of pregnancy(MTP) or induced abortion.

SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STDS)

Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called
sexually transmitted diseases (STD) or venereal diseases (VD) or reproductive tract infections (RTI).
Eg. Syphilis, Gonorrhea, Hepatitis-B, AIDS etc.
One could be free of these infections by following the simple principles given below:
(i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
(ii) Always use condoms during coitus.

Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART).

InVitro Fertilisation (IVF) : fertilization outside the body under controlled conditions. IVF–
fertilisation outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body) followed by embryo
transfer (ET) upto 8 celled blastomeres. This technique also called test tube baby programme.
Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT) : The zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres)
could then be transferred into the fallopian tube is called ZIFT.

Intra Uterine Transfer (IUT) : Transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres to 32 cells, into
the uterus is called IUT. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilization (fusion of gametes within the
female) also could be used for such transfer to assist those females who cannot conceive.

Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) : Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the
fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one, but can provide suitable environment for
fertilisation and further development.
Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection(ICSI) : It is another specialised procedure to form an embryo
in the laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum.

Artificial Insemination (AI) Technique: In this technique the semen collected either from the
husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI –
intra-uterine insemination) of the female.
 Chapter 5: PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCES AND VARIATION

MENDEL’S LAW OF INHERITANCE

He selected pea plant for following reasons:
 Pea is a self pollinated plant & cross pollination is CONTRASTING CHARACTERS
also possible.
 Many varieties were available with observable
alternate forms for a trait.
 Short life span.
 Can be easily grown in small place.
 Seeds easy to handle.
Mendel's first law (Law of dominance ) :
(i) Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors (genes).
(ii) Factors occur in pairs.
(iii) In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates (dominant) the other (recessive).
Mendel's Law of segregation (Purity of Gametes): The two alleles received, one from each parent,
segregate independently in gamete formation, so that each gamete receives one or the other with
equal probability. (Can be explained by monohybrid cross).
Mendel's law of Independent Assortment : Two characters determined by two unlinked genes are
recombined at random in gamete formation, so that they segregate independently of each other, each
according to the first law (note that recombination here is not used to mean crossing-over in
meiosis). (Can be explained by dihybrid cross).
(Refer NCERT text book for diagram.) Test Cross : Individual with dominant phenotype is crossed
with homozygous recessive individuals to find the homozygosity/heterozygosity .
Incomplete Dominance : Dominant gene is not fully expressed on recessive gene. So, the phenotype
of hybrid do not resemble with any of the parents. Eg- Antirrhinum majus (snapdragon), Mirabilis
jalapa (4 O’ clock plant).
Genotype & phenotype ratio : 1:2:1 . (REFER NCERT TEXT BOOK FOR DIAGRAM)
Co-dominance : Both parental genes expressed in F1 progeny so the offspring shows resemblance
with both the parents. Eg- ABO blood group types in human.
Blood group shows 3 different alleles (I A, IB, IO) and 6 different possible genotypes.
Cross between IA IO x IB IO, shows the law of dominance, co-dominance & multiple alleles.
(Refer Table. 5.2. page – 77, NCERT)
Sex determination :
 Sex chromosome : the chromosomes determine the sex of living organism.
 Autosomal chromosomes : they determine the characters other than sex of living organism.
Name of Living Organism Male Female
Human XY XX
Drosophila XY XX
Insect XO XX
Bird ZZ ZW
M M M
Honey Bee X (Drone), X X (Male) XX
 Male Heterogamety : Male produced two type of gametes. Eg. Human, Drosophila.
Female heterogamety : female produced two type of gametes. Eg.Birds.
Mutation : Sudden changes in DNA. Mutagens : Chemicals/agents that caused mutation.
Type of gene mutation Reason
Point mutation Change in single base eg sickle-cell anaemia
Frameshift mutation Deletion/insertion/duplication/addition of one or two
bases

Type of chromosomal mutation

Aneuploidy Addition/ deletion one or more chromosomes Trisomy 2n+1 monosomy 2n-1
Polyploidy Addition/ deletion one or set chromosomes 3n, 4n etc.

Pedigree Analysis
Pedigree is a chart of graphic representation of record of inheritance of a trait through several
generations in a family . Symbols used:- refer NCERT Text Book

GENETIC DISORDER
Chromosomal Disorder Mendelian Disorder
These are due to absence or excess of abnormal These are due to alteration or mutation of one
arrangement of one or more chromosomes. gene.
Eg. Down, Klinefelter’s, Turner’s syndrome. Eg. Sickle cell anaemia, haemophilia,
thalassaemia
Mendelian Disorder
Disorder Reason
Haemophilia Sex linked recessive disease (X). Females are unaffected carrier.
Sickle Cell Autosomal recessive trait on chromosome 11. Sickle shape RBC due to replace
Anaemia the glutamic acid by valine.
Phenylketonuria Autosomal recessive trait on chromosome 12. Mutation in phenyl alanine
hydroxylase enzyme results in accumulation of phenyl pyruvate.
Colour Blindness Sex linked recessive disorder (X).
CHROMOSOMAL DISORDER
Name of Disorder Reason Symptoms
Down’s Syndrome Trisomy of 21 Short statured with small round head, furrowed tongue &
Chromosome partially open mouth, flat back, broad flat face, slanting eyes,
broad palms with palm crease, many loops on finger,
congenital heart disease, physical, psychomotor & mental
retardation.
Klinefelter’s 47 (XXY) In male (XXY): tall stature, feminine physique, breast
Syndrome development (gynaecomastia), female type pubic hair pattern
& poor beard development and sterile.
Turner’s Syndrome 45 (XO) Short stature, rudimentary ovaries (sterile), breast poor
developed, lack of secondary sexual characters.
 Chapter 6: MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
DNA AS THE GENETIC MATERIAL
Transformation experiment or Griffith effect.
Griffith performed his experiments on Mice using Diplococcus pneumoniae.Two strains of bacteria
are S-type and R-type cells.
 Living S-strain Injected into mice→Mice
killed
 Living R-strain Injected into mice → Mice
lived
 Heat Killed S-strain Injected into mice
→Mice lived
 Living R-strain + Heat Killed S-strain
Injected into mice→Mice killed
# Griffith concluded that R type bacteria is
transformed into virulent form.
# Transformation - change in the genetic
constitution of an organism by picking up
genes present in the remains of its relatives.

HERSHEY & CHASE EXPERIMENT:

 DNA is a genetic material in viruses (bacteriophage)
was proved by Hershey and Chase (1952).
 They grew some viruses on a medium that contained
radioactive phosphorus and some others on medium
that contained radioactive sulfur.
 Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive
phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not
radioactive protein because DNA contains
phosphorus but protein does not.
 Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive sulfur
contained radioactive protein but not radioactive
DNA because DNA does not contain sulfur.
 Bacteria which was infected with viruses that had
radioactive DNA were radioactive, indicating that
DNA was the material that passed from the virus to
the bacteria. Hershey & Chase Experiment
 Bacteria that were infected with viruses that had
radioactive proteins were not radioactive. This
indicates that proteins did not enter the bacteria
from the viruses.
 DNA is therefore the genetic material that is passed
from virus to bacteria
Semi conservative nature of DNA Mathew Messelson and Franklin Stahl’s.
 8. 3 Replication of DNA :
Semi-conservative method of DNA replication
The various steps involved in this process are summarized as follows:
i. Mechanism of replication starts at a specific point of the
DNA molecule, called origin.
ii. At origin, DNA strand breaks because of an incision
(nick). This is made by an enzyme called incision enzyme
(endonuclease).
iii. The hydrogen bonds joining the two strands are broken
by the enzyme.
iv. The two strands start unwinding. This takes place with
the help of a DNA unwinding enzyme Helicases. Two
polynucleotide strands are thus separated.
v. The point where the two strands separate appears like a
fork or a Y-shape. This is described as a replicating fork.
vi. A new strand is constructed on each old strand. This
takes place with the help of a small RNA primer molecule
which is complimentary to the DNA at that point.
vii. Each old DNA strand acts as a template (site) for the
construction of new strand. The RNA primer attaches itself
to the old strand and attracts the enzymes (DNA
polymerase III) which add new nucleotides through base
complementation. The deoxyribose nucleotides are present
in the surrounding nucleoplasm. New DNA strand is thus
constructed opposite to each old strand.
viii. Formation of new complementary strand always begins at the 3' end of the template strand
(original strand) and progresses towards the 5' end (ie in 3' - 5' direction).
ix. Of the two, the replication of 3'-5' template begins first. Hence the new strand formed on it is
called the leading strand. The other template (5'-3') must begin replication at the fork and progress
back toward the previously transcribed fragment. The new strand formed on it is called the lagging
strand.
x. Replication of the lagging strand takes place in small fragments called Okazaki fragments. These
are then connected together by the enzyme ligase.
xi. At the end of the process, two double stranded DNA molecules are formed from the original
DNA molecule.
Transcription in Prokaryotes
 The mRNA provides the template, tRNA brings amino
acids and reads the genetic code, and rRNAs play
structural and catalytic role during translation.
 There is single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that
catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in bacteria.
RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates
transcription (Initiation).
 It uses nucleoside triphosphates as substrate and
polymerises in a template depended fashion following
the rule of complementarity. It somehow also facilitates
opening of the helix and continues elongation.
Only a short stretch of RNA remains bound to the enzyme. Once the polymerases reaches the
terminator region, the nascent RNA falls off, so also the RNA polymerase. This results in
termination of transcription. Initiation-factor(σ) , termination-factor(ρ) .
Transcription in Eukaryotes
RMT(Radhey Mohan tiwary)
RNA Pol I – Ribosomal RNA
RNA Pol II-Messanger RNA
RNA Pol III- Transfer RNA
Splicing : removal of introns
Capping : attachment of 5 methyl
guanosine at 5I
Tailing : Attachment of poly A
(polyadenylation)

GENETIC CODE

commaless Initiation
Codon AUG
Triplet
Universal
Linear

Genetic Code
Non
ambiguous

Nonsense
Degenerate
codon
Non (UAA,UAG,UGA
overlapping )
AA—Amino
Universal: Specific codons codes for the same amino acid in all organisms.
Degenerate : More than one codon may code for the same amino acid.
Non- ambiguous : Particular codon will always code for the same amino acid.
Translation steps : 1. Activation of amino acids 2. Initiation 3. Elongation 4. Termination
LAC OPERON
Application of Human genome project
-: Identification of defective genes, Opportunity to offer early treatment.
-: Identification of genes that confer susceptibility to certain disease.

TECHNIQUE FOR DNA FINGER PRINTING

 Process is also known as DNA typing/DNA profiling.
 CHAPTER - 7: EVOLUTION
Evolution: Process that results in heritable changes in a population spread over many generations
(change in allele frequencies over time) leading to diversity of organisms on earth.

Theory of Chemical Evolution:

 Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England proposed that the first form of life could have come
from pre-existing non-living organic molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.) and that formation
of life was preceded by chemical evolution.
 The conditions on earth were – high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
containing CH4, NH3, etc.
 Chemical evolution theory was
experimentally proved by S.L. Miller &
Urey (1953).
 They created electric discharge in a
closed flask containing CH4, H2, NH3
and water vapour at 8000 C.

 He observed formation of amino acids.

In similar experiments others observed,
formation of sugars, nitrogen bases,
pigment and fats.

Evolution of Life forms: Theory of Organic evolution

 Charles Darwin travelled around the world by a sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S.
Beagle.
 He observed the gradual evolution of life forms in Galapagos Island and Malay Archipelago.
 All the existing life forms share similarities and share common ancestors present at different
periods in the history of earth (epochs, periods and eras).
Evidences for Organic Evolution:
 Palaeontological evidences : fossils founds in rock and support the evolution.
 Embryological Evidences
Comparative anatomy & morphology :
Anthropogenic Action : Industrial Melanism
Before 1850 After 1920
 More white winged moth in urban areas  Less white winged moth in urban areas
than dark winged or melanised moth. than dark winged or melanised moth.
 No industrialization  Industrial revolution occur
 Tree trunk white color  Tree trunk colour- dark
 Predators attack on dark moth than white.  Predators attack on white moth than dark.
Moths are able to camouflage themselves, i.e. hide in the background, survived. This type of
evolution is due to anthropogenic action.
 Lichen act as a industrial pollution indicator.
 Excess use of herbicides, pesticides, antibiotics etc. develops resistant organisms / cells are
appearing in a time scale of months or years and not centuries.
Adaptive radiation
The evolutionary process which produces new species from single point origin and spread to other
geographical areas (habitat) is called adaptive radiation.
Eg. Darwin finches found in Galapagos Island and Australian Marsupials.
 MECHANISM OF EVOLUTION:
Darwinism Hugo de Vries
 Evolution is small.  Evolution is small.
 It is directional.  It is random / non directional.
 Mostly beneficial  Mostly harmful to organism.
 Slow process (many steps)  Single step large mutation (saltation)
Hardy-Weinberg principle:
 allele frequencies in a population are stable and is constant from generation to generation.
 The gene pool (total genes and their alleles in a population) remains a constant. This is called
genetic equilibrium.
 Sum total of all the allelic frequencies is 1. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 or, (p + q)2 = 1
Five factors are known to affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
 Gene migration or gene flow- emigration, immigration.
 Genetic drift : Sudden changes in polulation
 Mutation : sudden changes in DNA
 Genetic recombination : crossing over
 Natural selection.
Ref. Fig. 7.8.page 136, NCERT.
HUMAN EVOLUTION
Time period Name Brain capacity Remarks
10-15 Mya Dryopithecus (ape like) East Africa, Asia; closely related to
chimpanzee

Ramapithecus (man like) Shivalik Hills; erect posture, small

canine
2 mya Australopithecines ( cave 500cc African Ape Man ; height 1.5mts
dwellers)
Homo habilis 700cc Tool Maker, Community Life
1.2 mya Homo erectus 800cc to 1300cc Knew how to use fire, larger teeth
100,000- Neanderthal man 1450cc East and central Asia
40,000 mya
25000mya Homo sapiens 1650cc Modern man ; height1.5 to 1.8 mts; flat
face
 CHAPTER 8: HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE

Name of the Name of the Type Transmissio Symptoms

Disease pathogen n
Typhoid Salmonella typhi Bacterial Food & water Sustained high fever (39° to
(diagnosed by borne 40°C), weakness, stomach pain,
Widal test) constipation, headache and loss
of appetite
Pneumonia Streptococcus Bacterial Air, sharing the alveoli get filled with fluid
pneumonia and glasses and leading to severe problems in
Haemophilus utensils etc. respiration, fever, chills, cough
influenza and headache, lips and finger
nails may turn gray to bluish in
colour
Common Rhino Virus Viral Air & contact Nasal congestion and discharge,
cold with infected sore throat, hoarseness, cough,
person headache,
Tiredness.
Malaria Plasmodium Protozoan Female Periodic high fever, chilled &
Anopheles shivering.
mosquito
Amoebiasis Entamoeba Protozoan House fly, constipation, abdominal pain and
histolytica food & water. cramps, stools with excess
mucous and blood clots
Ascariasis Ascaris Roundworm Soil, water, internal bleeding, muscular pain,
lumbricoides (Helminthes plant fever, anemia and blockage of the
) intestinal passage
Elephantiasis Wuchereria filarial Culex female Lymphatic vessels of lower limbs
or Filariasis (W. bancrofti and worms mosquito are swollen. Genital organs are
W. malayi), also often affected, resulting in
gross deformities.
Ringworm Microsporum, Fungi Soil & direct Appearance of dry, scaly lesions
Trichophyton and contact on various parts of the body such
Epidermophyton as skin, nails and scalp
AIDS HIV Viral Transfusion Decrease immunity results to
of body attack other pathogens like
fluids, Toxoplasma, Mycobacterium,
unprotected fungal, viral etc.
sex etc.
LIFE CYCLE OF PLASMODIUM ON DUAL HOST (HUMAN & FEMALE ANOPHELES
MOSQUITO)

 Sprozoites are injected into the body by female

anopheles mosquito
 Sporozoite reach the liver through blood
 Parasite reproduces asexually in the liver and comes
out in the blood by bursting the liver cells
 They enter the RBC
 PARASITE REPRODUCE ASEXUALLY IN RBC
and by bursting them releases haemozoin which
causes cycles of fever
 Released parasite enter new RBC and infect them
 Parasite starts the sexual stage and forms
gametocytes in RBC
 Female anopheles mosquito takes up gametocytes
 Fertilization of gametes and development takes place
in the mosquitoes intestine
 Mature infective sporozoite escape from the intestine
and migrate to the salivary glands of mosquito
 Mosquito bites again and injects the sprozoites into
human body.
 ANTIBODY STRUCTURE

TYPES OF ACQUIRED IMMUNITY

ACTIVE IMMUNITY PASSIVE IMMUNITY

- Antibody produced within own - Antibodies transferred from

body another individual.
- it is long lasting - Not long lasting.
- Does not Cause allergy - Sometimes cause allergy
- Takes time to activate -Provides immediate relief.
-

Lymphoid Organs

Primary Lymphoid Secondary Lymphoid Organ

Organ 1. Spleen
1. Bone Marrow 2. Lymph Nodes
2.Thymus 3. Peyer’s Patch
4. Tonsils
5. Mucosal associated lymphoid
tissue (MALT)

Function: Function:
Provide 1. Spleen: Filter the microbes from blood
microenvironment
For the development and 2. Lymph Nodes: Trap the microorganisms
Maturation of
lymphocyte 3. Peyer’s Patch: Present in small intestine
and help In the formation of effector celles

4. Tonsils: Trap microbes entering through

Mouth

5. MALT: Traps Microbes

 Types of Immune Response

Primary Response Secondary Response

- Exposure of body to pathogen for - Subsequent exposure to same

first time pathogen
- Of Low Intensity - Response of body is hieghtened

Allergy

Common allergens
Symptoms Ways to reduce allergy
(Substances that cause
allergy Sneezing Antihistamine
Eg:- Dust,Pollen,Fur Running nose Adrenaline
Some foods, some Steriod
Watery eyes
Chemicals)
Itching

Auto-immunity Condition when structural & functional damage is caused due to the attack
of the self cells of the body by its own immune cells . Examples : Rheumatoid arthritis,
Insulin- dependent diabetes

CANCER

CAUSES DETECTION TREATMENT

SURGERY
RADIATION
SYSTEMIC :
IONISING RADIATION a] CHEMOTHERAPY, b] HORMONTHERAPY
CHEMICAL eg : TAR FROM, CIGARETTS BIOPSY AND c] MONOCLONAL ANTIBODY, SUPPORTIVE
VIRUS - PAPILLOMA HISTOPATHOLOGICAL STUDY CARE
HEREDITARY PREDISPOSITION C.T, M.R.I, X RAY d) α INTERFERON

Addiction and Dependence:

Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects –such as euphoria and a temporary
feelingof well-being – associated with drugs and alcohol.
 Withdrawal syndrome : if regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued. This is
characterised by anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating, which may be relieved when use is
resumed again.
Prevention and Control : Avoid undue peer pressure, Education and counseling, Seeking
professional and medical help.

Chapter 9: Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Animal Breeding-objectives:
 Improved growth rate.
 Increased production
 Improve desirable qualities.
BEE KEEPKING/ APICULTURE : Apis indica
 The following points are important for successful bee-keeping:
o (i) Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees,
o (ii) Selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives,
o (iii) Catching and hiving of swarms (group of bees),
o (iv) Management of beehives during different seasons, and
o (v) Handling and collection of honey and of beeswax.

METHODS OF ANIMAL BREEDING:

 Inbreeding:- Inbreeding refers to the mating of more closely related individuals within the
same breed for 4-6 generations.. Eg.- cows, buffaloes, poultry
 Outbreeding : crosses between different breeds are called outbreeding.
 In breeding depression- continued in breeding reduces fertility even productivity. A single
outcross often helps to overcome inbreeding depression
ii) Outbreeding- breeding between unrelated animals of two types –
1.) Out crossing- mating within the same breed but not having ancestors.
2.) Crossbreeding- superior males of one breed are mated with superior females of
another breed to get better progeny .e.g.- cows of inferior breed with superior bull.
Hisardale- is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri Eves
and Marano Rams.
 3) Interspecific hybridization- male and female animals of two different species are
mated. E.g.- mule is crossbreed of male donkey and female horse.
4) Control breeding-
(a) Artificial insemination- semen of superior male is collected and injected unto the
reproductive tract of selected female. The spread of certain diseases can be controlled
by this method.
(b) MOET (Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer )- Technique for herd improvement
by successful production of hybrids.
i) Hormone(FSH) are administered to the cow for inducing follicular maturation and
super ovulation. ii) Cow produces 6-8 eggs instead of one egg & is either mated
with elite bull or artificially inseminated. iii) Fertilised egg at 8-32 cell stage are
recovered non-surgically & transferred to surrogate mother. iv) IDone in cattle,
sheep, rabbits etc.
Steps in Plant breeding:-
1 Collection of variability-Collection and preservation of all different wild varieties, species,
relatives of cultivated species etc. are also called germplasm collection.
2. Evaluation and selection of parents-Germplasm is evaluated to identify plants with desirable
traits.
3. Cross hybridization among the selected parents-Two plants having two desired characters
are hybridized to get new hybrid having two desired characters.
4. Selection and testing of superior recombinants-Selection of the plants having desired
character combinations.
5. Testing, release and commercialization of new cultivars-Newly selected lines are evaluated
for their yield, agronomic traits, disease resistance etc. and released into the market.
Green revolution - Crop production.
White revolution - Milk production
Blue revolution - Fish production

Hidden Hunger: Deficiency of protein and vitamin is called hidden hunger because they cannot
afford to buy enough fruits, vegetables, legumes, fish and meat.

Biofortification - Breeding crops with higher levels of proteins, vitamins and minerals eg. Wheat
variety Atlas- high content of protein, Vitamin A rich golden rice, Vit C rich bitter gourd, mustard,
tomato; protein rich beans lablab etc.

SCP (Single cell protein) - Protein rich cell biomass from microbes such as bacteria, yeast, algae are
used as alternative food. Eg-Spirulina can be grown in waste water (from potato processing plant)
to produce protein rich biomass treated as food.
Advantages: i) Provides protein rich food supplement in human diet ii) Reduces pressure of
conventional agricultural production iii) Use of Waste water reduces pollution level
iv) High rate of biomass production in large amount in short period.
Tissue culture - Technique of in vitro regeneration of whole plant by growing any plant part called
explant in culture medium under aseptic condition.
2. Micropropagation-
 Tissue culture technique used for rapid vegetative multiplication of ornamental plants and
fruit trees by using small explants.
 Micropopagation is done by shoot meristem culture & somatic embryogeny. It results in
genetically identical plants & used widely in forestry & floriculture.
 Chapter – 10: Microbes in Human Welfare
Microbes in household products
S. No Microbes Causative organism Action Product

1 Bacteria Lactobacillus Convert milk into Curd with increased

curd vitamin B-12
2 Yeast Saccharomyces Fermentation Baker’s yeast
cerevisiae
3 Bacteria Propionibacterium Production of carbon Swiss cheese
sharmanii di oxide

Microbes in industrial products-

S.No Microbes Causative organism Product
1 Fungi Penicillium notatum Antibiotics
2 Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae Alcohol
3 Fungus Aspergillus niger Citric acid
4 Bacteria Acetobacter Acetic acid
5 Bacteria Clostridium butylicum Butyric acid
6 Bacteria Lactobacillus Lactic acid

Enzymes and other bioactive molecules

S. No Microbes Products Uses
1 Streptococcus (bacterium) Streptokinase Clot buster
2 Trichoderma polysporum (fungi) Cyclosporin A Immunosuppressive agent
3 Monascus purpureus (yeast) Statins Blood cholesterol lowering
agents

Enzymes and their actions

S.No Enzymes Action
1 Lipase Removing oily strains
2 Pectinase Clarified bottled juices
Biogas plant:
 Concrete tank 10- 15 mts deep, slurry or
dung fed.
 Floating cover placed above rises as
biogas content rises.
 Connecting pipe for supply of biogas.
 Used for cooking and lighting.
 Development by IARI :- Indian
Agriculture Research institute & KVIC:-
Khadi and village Industries
Commission.
Microbes as Biocontrol Agents:
 Insecticides and Pesticides toxic, harmful & are pollutants.
 Natural predation better method.
 No of pests kept in check, not totally eradicated.
 Food chains not disturbed Eg. Ladybird and Dragon flies useful to get rid of aphids and
mosquitoes.
 Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) used to control butterfly caterpillar.
 Mode of spores operation.
 Available is sachets, mixed with water and sprayed on plants.
 Eaten by insect larva
 Toxin released in gut kills larvae.
 Now Bt toxin genes introduced into plants – resistant to insect pests. e.g. Bt cotton.
Advantages :-
 No negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fish or target insects.
 For overall IMP (Intergrated pest Management) programme.
 For ecologically sensitive areas.
As Biofertilizers:
 Main sources of biofertilizers. Bacteria, Fungi & Cyanobacteria. Eg Rhizobium present in
roots of leguminious plants fix atmospheric nitrogen into usable organic form. Azospirillium
and Azotobacter – free living bacteria – fix atmospheric Nitrogen.
 Symbiotic Associations Eg.Genus Glomus sp. form mycorrhiza
 Cynobacteria– autotrophic – fix atmospheric nitrogen Eg. e.g. Anabaena, Nostoc,
Oscillatoria.
 Blue green algae – increase fertility by adding organic matter.
 Chapter - 11: BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

Tools of r-DNA technology : Restriction enzyme, Polymerase enzyme, Ligase, Vectors and Host
organism
Steps in producing recombinant DNA
1. The required gene is cut from a DNA molecule using a restriction enzyme.
2. A bacterial plasmid is isolated and cut with the same restriction enzyme. This ensures cut
ends are complementary (same base sequence) to the ends of the required gene.
3. The required gene is joined to the plasmid using the enzyme DNA ligase in a process called
ligation.
4. The resulting recombinant plasmid is returned to the bacterial cell.
5. The bacteria reproduce and the required gene is cloned.

Recombinant DNA Technology

Procedure: Introduction of recombinant DNA into

- Isolation host cells:
- Digestion Some commonly used procedures:
- Fractionation 1. Transformation
- Purification of the TARGET 2. Transfection
fragment 3. Electroporation
- Cloning into vectors 4. Biolistics
- Transformation of host cell and Agrobacterium mediated gene
selection transfer
- Replication
- Analysis

Naming of Restriction enzymes:

 the first letter of the name comes from the genes and the second two letters come from the
species of the prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated.
 Like EcoRI comes from Escherichia coli RY 13. In EcoRI, the letter ‘R’ is derived from the
name of strain.
 Roman numbers following the names indicate the order in which the enzymes were isolated
from that strain of bacteria.

Types: a) Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA whereas,

b) Endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA.

Restriction enzymes recognise a specific short nucleotide sequence called Palindromic

sequence. For example, EcoRI recognises the sequence

Refer to NCERT text book fig. 11.1

Characteristics of a Cloning Vector

 Origin of replication (ORI)

 Selectable Marker

 Restriction sites

Vector for cloning Plant and Animal cells

Most commonly used plant cloning vector "Ti" plasmid, or tumor-inducing plasmid. Found
in cells of the bacterium known as Agrobacterium tumefaciens, normally lives in soil. Bacterium
has ability to infect plants and cause a crown gall, or tumorous lump, to form at the site of infection.

Ti plasmid - called T DNA - separates from the plasmid and incorporates into the host cell
genome. This aspect of Ti plasmid function has made it useful as a plant cloning vector (natural
genetic engineer).
Disarmed Retroviruses can be used to deliver desired genes into animal cells.

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction):

PCR is a technique for the in vitro amplification of a desired sequence of DNA. PCR allows
the generation of a large quantity of DNA product (up to several
It has been shown that PCR can be used to generate a detectable quantity of DNA from only one
starting target (or template) molecule.
Refer NCERT text book fig. 11.6

PCR is a cycle of three steps:

1. DENATURATION - the strands of the DNA are melted apart by heating to 95°C
2. ANNEALING - the temperature is reduced to ~ 55°C to allow the primers to anneal
to the target DNA
3. POLYMERISATION / EXTENSION - the temperature is changed to the optimum
temperature for the DNA polymerase to catalyse extension of the primers, i.e. to
copy the DNA between the primers.
The thermostable DNA polymerase Taq polymerase, is isolated from the thermophilic bacterium,
Thermus aquaticus, which lives in hot springs.
 Chapter – 12: BIOTECHNOLOGY & ITS APPLICATION
Application in agriculture : Genetically modified organisms (GMO)
Transgenic crops (GMO) -Crops contain or express one or more useful foreign genes.
Advantages -i) More tolerant to stresses (heat, cold, draught).
ii) Pest resistants GM crops, reduce the use of Chemical pesticides. Eg- BT-Cotton
iii) Reduced post harvest losses. iv) Enhance nutritional value of food.
PEST RESISTANT PLANTS : Bt- cotton --Bt stands for Bacillus thuringiensis (Soil Bacteria).
Bacterium produces proteins (Crystal Protein-cry I AC, cry II AB). A crystalline insecticidal protein
that kills the insects.Hence cry-Genes have been introduced in plants to produce crystal proteins as
Protoxin (inactive toxin), which is converted to toxins in alkaline medium (i.e. in the gut of insects)
and cause death of the insect larva.
Protection of plants against nematodes –Nematode, Meloidogyne incognita infects tobacco
plants & reduces yield. Specific genes (DNA) from nematodes introduced into the plants using
Agrobacterium tumifecians (soil bacteria). Genes produce sense and antisense complementary RNA.
Act as dsRNA and initiates RNAi ( RNA interference) and silences the specific mRNA.
Complementary RNA neutralizes the specific RNA of nematodes by a process called RNA
Interference and parasite cannot live in transgenic host.
In medicine- genetically engineered insulin— (Refer NCERT text book for diagram)
 r-DNA technology was applied in therapeutic application by generating genetically
engineered insulin for man. In 1983, Eli Lilly, an American company prepared 2 DNA
sequences coding for chains A & B.
 Human insulin consists of two short Polypeptide chains A & B being linked by disulphide
bridges. In man, Insulin secreted as Prohormone containing C peptides that is removed during
maturation.
 In r-DNA technique, insulin could be generated by preparing two separate DNA sequences
of A & B chain which are incorporated into plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains.
Gene therapy
 Gene therapy involves correction of the gene defects in child or embryo.
 Adenosine deaminase deficiency is a kind of immuno-disorder caused by deletion of gene
coding for ADA.
Molecular diagnosis --
 Early & accurate detection of diseases can be done through : PCR (Polymerase chain
reaction): Short stretches of pathogenic genome is amplified for detection of suspected AIDS,
Cancer or genetic disorder.
 ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay) used to detect AIDS based on detection of
antibodies produced against antigen of pathogen.
Transgenic Animals
They are useful-
1. To know how genes contribute to development of disease.
2. To get biologically useful products . Eg. The first transgenic cow Rosie produced
human protein enriched milk
3. To verify vaccine and chemical safety.

Biropiracy -- Some organizations and multinational companies exploit or patent bioresources of

other nations without proper authorization. Indian patent bill is there to prevent such unauthorized
exploitation.
GEAC- For validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM organism.
 Chapter – 13: ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
Ecology
It deals with the interaction among organisms between organisms & physical environment.

Biome: the largest ecological regions distinguishable by characteristic plants and animals.
There are six: tundra, conifer, deciduous forest, grassland, tropical, and desert.
Environment simply means the surrounding
Environment

Abiotic factors Biotic factors

Temperature, soil, Microorganisms, plants,
water, light Animal
Light
Temperature Photosynthesis and release of oxygen light
Eurythermal - wide range of temperature tolerance dependent.
Stenothermal-Narrow range of temperature tolerance
Soil
Water Response to environmental condition
Soil composition, grain size and aggregation
Euryhaline- Wide range of salinity tolerence
determine percolation and water holding capacity
Stenohaline- Narrow range of salinity tolerance.
Regulation of soil.

RESPONSE TO ABIOTIC FACTORS

Regulation
Organisms maintain homeostasis achieved by physiological and behavioral means Thermo
regulation and osmoregulation.
Conformation Cannot maintain constant internal Environment # Body temperature and osmotic
concentration of body changes with ambient temperature and concentration of medium.-Thermo
confirmer and osmo confirmer .

Migration : Organism moves away temporarily to another habitat in stressful condition

Suspension
Organisms suspend their metabolic activities during stressful condition
Resume their function at the return of favorable conditions.
E.g. Hibernation (winter sleep) of Frog, Reptiles, Polar Bear etc , Aestivation (summer sleep)
in Snail and Fish.
Adaptation
Morphological, physiological and behavioral changes that enable organisms to adjust to the ever
changing environment .
E.g. Kangaroo rat survives in desert conditions through internal oxidation of fat, removing
concentrated urine of limited quantity.
# Allen‘s rule-cold climate mammals have shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss.
# Polar mammals like seals have blubber to prevent heat loss.
# Burrowing habit to escape from heat
# Higher count of RBC, Hb(haemoglobin) at high altitudes.
Population attributes
*Birth Rate/ NATALITY – Number of individuals born per thousand per year.
*Death Rate/MORTALITY – Number of individuals die per thousand per year.
*Sex Ratio – Ratio of male-female in the population.
Population density. - the number of individual organisms per unit area (appropriate measure –
total number-sometimes difficult to determine or meaningless because 4 factors N+I-M+E are
concerned w.r.t habitat concerned

Age pyramids
# Three ecological ages: Pre-reproductive, Reproductive and Post-Reproductive , High
proportion pre-reproductive individuals occur in Expanding population , Pre-reproductive
and reproductive individuals are uniform in Stable population and Pre-reproductive
individuals are less in Declining population.

Population growth : Growth Models :

(i) Exponential growth: When resources in the habitat are unlimited.

(ii) Logistic growth: When resources are limited.

(REFER NCERT TEXT BOOK FIG. 13.5)

Density of population at any time at a given place depends on Natality, Mortality, Emigration
Immigration .

POPULATION INTERACTION

Type of Species A Species B Examples

interaction
Mutualism + + Lichen, Mycorrhiza
Predation + - Tiger & deer, Birds & seeds
Competition - - Abington tortoise & goats, flamingos & fishes
Parasitism + - Ascaris (endo), Lice(ecto), Koel (brood)
Commensalism + 0 Egrets & cattle, clown fish & sea anemone
Ammensalism - 0 Penicilium & Staphylococcus
 Chapter - 14: ECOSYSTEM
The components of the ecosystem are seen to function as a unit: Productivity, Decomposition, Energy
flow and Nutrient cycle.

PRODUCTIVITY:

 Primary productivity:
o The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by
plants during photosynthesis.
 Gross primary productivity: (GPP) is the rate of production of organic matter during
photosynthesis.
 Net primary productivity: GPP – R = NPP.
 Secondary productivity: is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by the
consumer.

DECOMPOSITION:The process of decomposition completed in following steps:

o Fragmentation : Break down of detritus into smaller particles by detritivore (e

arthworm).
o Leaching: Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get
precipitated as unavailable salts.
o Catabolism : Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simple inorga
nic substances.
o Humification: Accumulation of dark coloured amorphous substances called humus.
o Mineralization: The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release
of inorganic nutrients occur.

ENERGY FLOW IN ECOSYSTEM:

Only 10% of energy transferred from one trophic level to other.

Food chain:
 Grazing food chain (GFC): it extends from producers through herbivore to carnivore.
Grass---- Grass hopper---- Frog----- Snake------- Hawk
 Detritus food chain (DFC): Begins with dead organic matter (detritus) and pass through
detritus feeding organism in soil to organisms feeding on detritus-feeders.
Detritus--- Earthworm--- Bacteria/ Fungi ---- Plants--- Animals
 Standing crop: each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time
called as the standing crop.

ECOLOGICAL PYRAMID:
Three types : number, energy or biomass. In most ecosystems, all the pyramids, of number, of
energy and biomass are upright.

 The pyramid of number in a tree ecosystem is inverted.

 The pyramid of biomass in sea also inverted because the biomass of fishes is far exceeds
that of phytoplankton.
 Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows
from a particular trophic level to the next, some energy is always lost as heat at each step.

(REFER TO NCERT TEXT BOOK FIG. 14.4 (a) TO (d) )

ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION:

 The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is
called ecological succession.
 All the changes lead finally to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environment
and that is called climax community.
 Primary succession: succession that starts where no living organisms are there- these could
be areas where no living organism ever existed may be a bare rock or new water body.
 Secondary succession: succession that starts in areas that somehow, lost all the living
organisms that existed there.

TYPES : Based on the nature of habitat – whether it is water or it is on very dry areas-
succession of plants is called hydrarch or xerarch.

Xerarch succession: Succession in bare rock:

Lichen—Mosses—herbaceous plants--- shrubs--- trees

Hydrarch (succession in aquatic environment)

Phytoplankton--- Zooplanktons --- rooted hydrophytes---- Sub merged and free-floating plant stage-
---- Reed-swamp stage---- Marsh-meadow stage--- Shrub stage--- Trees--- the forest

NUTRIENT CYCLING: Of two types: Gaseous cycle & Sedimentary cycle.

Ecosystem – Carbon cycle (Refer NCERT text- book for diag.)

 Much carbon is fixed in the biosphere by photosynthesis, annually.

 Large amount of carbon returned to the atmosphere as CO2 through respiration of producers
and consumers.
 Decomposers also return CO2 to reservoir during decomposition process.
 Some amount of Carbon is lost to sediments and removed from circulation.
 Burning wood, forest fire, combustion of organic matter, fossil fuel, volcanic activities are
additional sources for releasing CO2 to atmosphere.

Ecosystem Phosphorus cycle:

 Reservoir pool of phosphorus is the rock, which contain phosphorus in the form
of phosphates.
Difference between Carbon and Phosphorus cycle:
1. No respiratory release of phosphorus
2. Reservoir for Carbon is atmosphere but for Phosporus is rocks.
 Chapter - 15: BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
 Types of biodiversity : Genetic diversity, Species diversity, Ecological diversity
Pattern of Biodiversity:
Latitudinal gradients:
 Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the pole.
Why tropical rain forest has greater biodiversity:
 Unlike temperate regions subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have
remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time
for species diversification.
 Tropical environments. Unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and
predictable, promotes niche specialization and lead to greater species diversity.
Species area relationship:
 Within a region species richness increased with increasing explored area but only up to a
limit. (REFER NCERT TEXT- BOOK FOR FIG.)
Loss of Biodiversity:
Causes of biodiversity loss:
 There are four major causes “The Evil Quartet” are as follows:
1) Habitat loss and fragmentation:
2) Over-exploitation:
3) Alien species invasion: Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in east Africa led to
extinction of 200 species of cichlid fish in the lake.
 Parthenium, (carrot grass), Lantana, and water hyacinth (Eichornia) posed a thread to
indigenous species.
 African cat fish Clarias gariepinus for aquaculture purposed is posing a threat to indigenous
catfishes in our rivers.
4) Co-extinction
BIODIVERSITY CONSERVATION:
Why should we conserve Biodiversity?
Reason for conservation is grouped into three categories: Narrowly utilitarian, Broadly utilitarian
and Ethical
How do we conserve biodiversity?
In situ conservation:
 When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem, its biodiversity at all level is protected –
we save the entire forest to save the tiger. This approach is called in situ (on site)
conservation.
  Biodiversity hot spot: regions with very high levels of species richness and high degree
of endemism.(species confined to that region and not found anywhere else)
 Sacred groves: tract of forest were set aside, and all the trees and wildlife within were
venerated and given total protection.
Ex situ conservation: threatened animals and plants are taken out from their natural habitat and
placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care.
 Zoological Park, Botanical garden, Wildlife safari, Conservation of gamete
by cryopreservation, Genetic strains are preserved in seed bank.
Convention on Biodiversity:
 “The earth Summit” held in Rio de Janeiro .
 World Summit on Sustainable development held in Johannesburg, South Africa.
 Chapter – 16: Environmental Issues
Pollution: Any undesirable change in physical, chemical or biological characteristics of air, land,
water or soil which harms the human beings.

POLLUTION

Water Pollution
Misc. Pollution
Air Pollution
Solid Wastes: Domestic
Water Act (Prevention &Control) & Industrial wastes.
Air Act (Prevention & -1974 E-Wastes: Electronic garbage,
Control) -1981 (Wornout Computer, mobiles,
Causes: Domestic Sewage, refrigerator, etc.)
Causes: Industries, Agricultural waste Radioactive Wastes:
Vehicles, Volcanic (Insecticide & Pesticide), Utilized radioactive fuels
Industrial Waste (PCBP, Noise Pollution
Erruption, and Household.
Pollutants: Metallic & Dust Heavy metals- Pb, Cd, &
particles, Aerosols, Gases Hg) Air Act was ammended in 1987 which
included noise pollution.
(CO, SO2, NO2) Effects: Harms health
of livings(Diarrhoea, Causes: Vehicles, Industries, Loud
Effects: Harms health speaker, Jet planes.
of livings(Asthma, Naru);Retarded growth
Bronchitis);Global of plants. Effects: Sleeplessness, Increased
heart beat, Stress & Anxiety. Permanant
Warming; Premature Control: Sewage treatment, hearing loss (150dB)
death of plants. Awareness among peoples, Control: Controlled utilisation of sound
Control: Electrostatic Proper utilisation of Media. producing instruments
Precipitator, Scruber,
Catalytic converter &
Fuel Policy

AIR POLLUTION AND ITS CONTROL:

Prevention of air pollution: ways to remove particulate matter:

 Electrostatic precipitator
Electrode wires that are maintained at several thousand volts, which produce a corona that release
electrons, Electron binds with particulate matter giving them a net negative charge, Positively
charged collecting plates attract the charged dust particle.
Scrubber: Removes gases like sulphur dioxide, The exhaust is passed through a spray of water or
lime. (REFER NCERT TEXT-BOOK FOR FIG.)
Methods to reduce vehicular pollution:
Catalytic converter: It reduce emission of poisonous gases. Motor vehicle equipped with catalytic
converter should use unleaded petrol because lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst.
Controlling Vehicular pollution: A case study of Delhi:
 Use of CNG (compressed natural gas):
Advantages of CNG
 CNG burns most efficiently, Cannot be siphoned, cheaper than petrol and diesel.
WATER POLLUTION AND ITS CONTROL:
 Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD): the amount of Oxygen required oxidizing all organic
matter present in one liter of water.
 Presence of large amount of nutrients in water also causes excessive growth
of Planktonic (free floating) algae, called algal bloom.
 The world’s most problematic aquatic weed is water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes)
called ‘Terror of Bengal’.
 Biomagnifications: increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic level is
called biological magnification or biomagnifications.
  Bio magnification of DDT in Aquatic food chain.

 Eutrophication: The process of nutrient enrichment of water and consequent loss of species
diversity is referred to as Eutrophication.
 Cultural or Accelerated Eutrophication:
o Pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from the industries and homes
can radically accelerate the aging process. This phenomenon is
called Cultural or Accelerated Eutrophication.
A case study of integrated waste water treatment:
 It has been done in town of Arcata, in the northern coast of California.
 A citizens group called Friends of the Arcata Marsh (FOAM) is responsible for the
upkeep and safeguarding of this project.
Ecological sanitation:
 Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system for handling human excreta, using dry
composting toilets. ‘EcoSan’ toilets are being used in Kerala and Srilanka.
SOLID WASTES:
 Solid wastes refer to everything that goes out in trash.
 Sanitary landfills were adopted as substitute for open-burning dumps.
Case study of Remedy for Plastic wastes: (Ahmed Khan)
 Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, was developed by his
company.
Electronic wastes (e-wastes):
 Irreparable computers and other electronic goods are known as electronic wastes (e-wastes).
 Recycling is the only solution for the treatment of e-wastes.
AGRO-CHEMICAL AND THEIR EFFECTS:
 Pesticides, herbicides, fungicides etc, are being increasingly used.These are toxic to non-
target organisms that are important components of the soil ecosystem.
Case study of organic farming: (Ramesh Chandra Dagar of Sonipat)
 He includes bee-keeping, diary management, water harvesting, composting and agriculture in
a chain of processes, which support each other and allow an extremely economical and
sustainable venture.
RADIOACTIVE WASTES:
 Radiation from radioactive waste causes mutation at very high rate.
Disposal of nuclear wastes:
 Storage of nuclear waste, after sufficient pre-treatment, should be done in suitably shielded
containers buried within the rocks about 500 m deep below the earth’s surface.

GREEN HOUSE EFFECT AND GLOBAL WARMING: The greenhouse effect is a naturally
occurring phenomenon that is responsible for heating of Earth’s surface and atmosphere.
 Increase in the level of greenhouse gases has led to considerable heating of Earth leading
to global warming or enhanced green house effect.

OZONE DEPLETION IN THE STRATOSPHERE: The thickness of ozone layer is measured in

terms of Dobson units (DU). The depletion is marked particularly over the Antarctic region. This
has resulted in formation of a large area of thinned ozone layer, commonly called as the ozone hole.
Effects of UV rays:
 Damage skin cells and causes skin cancers.
 In human eye cornea absorb UV – B radiation and high dose of UV – B causes inflammation
of cornea called snow-blindness, cataract etc.
Prevention:
 Montreal Protocol was signed at Montreal (Canada) in 1987 to control emission of ozone
depleting substances.

A case study of people‘s participation in forest conservation: Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wild Life
Protection Award is instituted for individuals of rural areas who take keen interest in protecting wild
life.
 QUESTION- ANSWERS
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1.In organisms like rotifers, honey bees, the female gamete undergoes development to form
new organism without fertilisation. What is this phenomena called?
Ans. Parthenogenesis.
2. What are alleles ?

Ans. The various forms of a gene, are called alleles.

3. Name the diagnostic test which confirms typhoid.

Ans. Widal test

4. Which enzyme is used to digest walls of bacteria and fungi in genetic engineering?
Ans: Lysozyme digests bacterial wall and chitinase digests fungal cell wall.
5. With which population growth model is the Verhulst Pearl equation associated?

Ans : Logistic Growth

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. Expand SNPs. What are they?

Ans. SNPs - Single nucleotide polymorphisms.
These are locations on DNA, where single base differences are observed.
2. What is filiform apparatus ? What is its function/significance ?
Ans. — Filiform apparatus refers to the special cellular thickenings of the synergids at the
micropylar end.
— Filiform apparatus guides the pollen tube to enter the synergid to release the male
gametes.
3. List any four important components of poultry farm management.

Ans: Four important components of poultry farm management are:

(a) Selection of a disease free and suitable breeds
(b) Proper and safe farm conditions
(c) Proper feed and water
(d) Hygiene and health care
4. The first transgenic cow produced human protein-enriched milk. Name the cow and the
protein found in the milk.

Ans: Rosie, alpha-lactalbumin.

5. Name the four functional aspects of an ecosystem.

Ans: Functional aspects of an ecosystem are:

(i) Productivity (ii) Decomposition

(iii)Energy flow (iv) Nutrient cycle

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. (i) Explain the role of ovarian hormones in inducing changes in the uterus during
menstrual cycle.
(ii) What triggers release of oxytocin at the time of parturition?

Ans. (i) — Estrogen influences the uterus in the follicular phase; the endometrium is regenerated
through proliferation.
Progesterone influences the uterus in the luteal phase; the endometrium becomes further thickened
and vascularised for implantation. (ii) Foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of oxytocin.

2. Figures given below are of Darwin's finches?

Variety of beaks of Darwin's finches.

(a)Mention the specific geographical area where these were found.

(b)Name and explain the phenomenon that has resulted in the evolution of such diverse species
in the region.

(c) How did Darwin visit the particular geographical area?

(a) Galapagos Island.

(b)Adaptive radiation —The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area
starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called adaptive
radiation.
(c )Through sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S. Beagle.
3. (a) why are the fruit juices brought from the market clear as compared to those made at
home?
(a) Name the bio active molecules produced by Trichoderma polysporum and Monascus
purpureus.

Ans: (a) The fruit juices brought from the market are clearer because they have been
clarified by pectinases and proteases.
(b) Trichoderma polysporum: Cyclosporin A
Monascus purpureus : Statins

4. How and why is the bacterium Thermus aquaticus employed in recombinant DNA
technology? Explain.

Ans: DNA polymerase is obtained from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus. DNA polymerase
from this organism (thermostable) remains active during the high temperature induced
denaturation of double stranded DNA. The amplified fragment if desired can now be used to
ligate with a vector for further cloning.

5. Mention the 3 important features that make a stable biological community.

Ans: Features that make a stable biological community are:

(i) Communities should have greater biodiversity for greater stability

(ii) It should be able to prevent invasion by alien species
(iii)It should be able to restore itself in a short period of time

VALUE BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

1. A Gynaecologist advised Hema to undergo MTP, as she diagnosed a certain problem in the
foetus, which may affect the mother too. Another patient Mrs. Rita, wanted the doctor to
confirm the sex of the foetus and remove the foetus, if it were a female. The doctor refused.

(a)Name the technique the doctor has used to detect a problem in the foetus.
(b)What is done in this technique?
(c)What values does the doctor promote in this case?
(d)How has the government been handling such problems?

Ans. (a) Amniocentesis.

(b)A small sample of the amniotic fluid, found around the foetus, is taken out, without
causing any harm to the foetus. The free cells in the fluid are cultured and then analysed for
chromosomal or metabolic abnormalities.
(c)Values of professionalism, ethics and honestly.
(d)Government has already enforced a ban on this technique with strict punishment.
2. In a survey conducted to find out the age group which was most affected by drug and alcohol
abuse it was found that the adolescents were the main goup.
(a)What is the possible reason for this report?
(b)What are the common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse among youth?
Ans: (a) (i) Curiousity, need for adventure and excitement, and experimentation constitute
common causes.
(ii) Examinations-related and competition-related stresses.

(iii)Unstable or unsupportive family structures and peer pressure.

(iv) Perception among adolescents that it is cool or progressive to use alcohol and drugs.

(b) Drop in academic performance, unexplained absence from school/college, lack of interest in
personal hygiene, aggressive and rebellious behavior, deteriorating relationships with family and
friends, fluctuations in weight, appetite, etc.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

1. Describe megasporogenesis in an angiosperm.

Ans. — Megasporogenesis is the process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore
mother cell.
— A single megaspore mother cell is differentiated at the micropylar region ofthe nucellus
of an ovule.
— This cell is large and possesses a dense cytoplasm and a prominent diploid nucleus.
— The megaspore mother cell undergoes a meiotic division forming a linear tetrad of
haploid megaspores.
— Later three of them degenerate while one remains functional.

2. What is meant by semi conservative replication? How did Meselson and Stahl prove it
experimentally?
Ans. the two strands of DNA would separate and act as a template for the synthesis of new
complementary strands. After the completion of replication, each DNA molecule would have one
parental and one newly synthesised strand. This scheme was termed as semiconservative DNA
replication.
Meselson and Stahl, performed an experiment using E.coIi to prove that DNA replication is semi
conservative.
 - They grew E. coli in a medium containing 15NH4Cl.
- Then separated heavy DNA from normal (14N) by centrifugation in CsCl2 density
gradient.
- The DNA extracted, after one generation of transfer from 15N medium to 14N medium,
had an intermediate density.

- The DNA extracted after two generations consisted of equal amounts of light and hybrid
DNA.
- They proved that DNA replicates in a semi- conservative manner.
(Refer figure 6.7, page 105, NCERT Biology Xll).

3. (i) Explain the role of the following in increasing the soil fertility and crop yield.

(a) Leguminous plants

(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Mycorrhizae

(ii) Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for integrated pest management in an ecological
Sensitive area. Explain giving two reasons.

Ans: (i) (a) Leguminous plants possess root nodules where nitrogen is fixed by the symbiotic
nitrogen fixing bacteria rhizobium and fertilize the soil.
(b)Cyanobacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen and increase the organic matter of the soil
through their photosynthetic activity. Example nostoc, anabaena, oscillatoria etc.
(c) Mycorrhizae as biofertilizer: Fungi from symbiotic association with the roots of
higher plants called Mycorrhizae, e.g., Glomus.

(ii) ) The reasons are:

(a) Baculoviruses are biological control agents which are excellent candidates for species
specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications.
(b)They have no negative impact on plants mammals and even on non target insects.

4. Enumerate the different steps which are involved when a biotechnologist wants to obtain a
recombinant protein.

Ans: Hints: (Explanation as per NCERT text book )

-Isolation of genetic material (DNA).
- Cutting of DNA at specific location
- Amplication of gene of inters using PCR
- Insertion of rDNA into the host cell/organism
- Obtaining foreign gene product
- Downstream processing.
5. Name and explain the interaction in each of the following:

i) Cuscuta growing in a shoe flower plant.

ii) Mycorrhizae living on the roots of higher plants
iii) Clown fish living among the tentacles of sea anemone
iv) Koel laying its eggs in crow’s nest.
v) Ascaris worms living in the intestine of human

Ans:

i) Parasitism as Cuscuta derives food from the shoe flower plant harming the plant.

ii) Mutualism as fungi helps in obtaining nutrients from the soil and plant gives food to fungi

iii) Commensalism as clown fish gets protected by stinging cells of sea anemone while the later gets
neither benefit nor harm from the fish

iv) Brood parasitism because koel does not prepare its nest but destroys the crow’s eggs and lay its
own.

v) Parasitism as ascaris derives food hrom human intestine while harming the human body

********************ALL THE BEST*******************************

 COMPUTER SCIENCE- XII

CHIEF PATRON:
SH. SANTOSH KUMAR MALL, IAS
(COMMISSIONER, KVS)

PATRON:
MR. C. NEELAP
(DEPUTY COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION)

GUIDE:
Sh. J. PRASAD, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION
Sh. D. PATLE, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION
Dr. S. BOSE, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHTI REGION

COORDINATOR:
MR. VISHNU DUTT TAILOR
PRINCIPAL KV CRPF (GC) AMERIGOG GHY

SUBJECT CONTRIBUTORS:-
1. Mr. VIJAY KUMAR, PGT (Comp. Sc.) K.V. CRPF AMERIGOG GHY
2. Dr. K K MOTLA, PGT (Comp. Sc.) K.V. NFR MALIGAON GHY

Page 1
How to use Study Material:
 It will be much beneficial to those students who need special care and
attention. I am sure, thorough study and practicing similar patterns of
questions of this material will help such students secure 60% and above.
 However it is not 100% substitute for Textbook.
 Minimum a set of five questions with answers from each questions of the
Board Pattern Question Paper are included, keeping in mind the needs and
interest of target group.
 Concepts in every unit have been explained using notes / solutions to
questions / guidelines in a simple language.
 Practice and peer group discussion on this study material will definitely
improve the confidence level of the students when they solve the questions.
 Now you are welcome to the ... content ...

Weightage to different topics/content units

S. UNIT VSA SA I SA II LA Total
No 1 Mark 2 Marks 3 Marks 4 Marks
1 Review of C++ covered in Class XI 1 (1) 8 (4) 3 (1) 12 (6)
2 Object Oriented Programming in C++
a) Introduction to OOP using C++ 2 (1) 4 (1) 6 (2)
b) Constructor & Destructor 2 (1) 2 (1)
c) Inheritance 4 (1) 4 (1)
3 Data Structure & Pointers
a) Address Calculation 3 (1) 3 (1)
b) Static Allocation of Objects 2 (1) 3 (1) 5 (2)
c) Dynamic Allocation of Objects 4 (1) 4 (1)
d) Infix & Postfix Expressions 2 (1) 2 (1)
4 Data File Handling in C++
a) Fundamentals of File Handling 1 (1) 1 (1)
b) Text File 2 (1) 2 (1)
c) Binary Files 3(1) 3 (1)
5 Databases and SQL
a) Database Concepts 2 (1) 2 (1)
b) Structured Query Language 2 (1) 4 (1) 6 (2)
6 Boolean Algebra
a) Introduction to Boolean Algebra & Laws 2 (1) 2 (1)
b) SOP & POS 1 (1) 1 (1)
c) Karnaugh Map 3 (1) 3 (1)
d) Basic Logic Gates 2 (1) 2 (1)
7 Communication & Open Source Concepts
a) Introduction to Networking 2 (2) 2 (2)
b) Media, Devices, Topologies & Protocols 4 (1) 4 (1)
c) Security 2 (2) 2 (2)
d) Webservers 1 (1) 1 (1)
e) Open Source Terminologies 1 (1) 1 (1)
TOTAL 9 (9) 26 (13) 15 (5) 20 (5) 70 (32)

Page 2
 Review of C++ covered in Class XI
Questions based on Header Files
Very Short Answer Questions ( 1 mark)
Q1. Write the names of the header files to which the following belong:
(i) isdigit() (ii) strcmp() (iii) fabs() (iv) gets() (v) eof()
(vi) setw() (vii) exit() (viii) tolower() (ix) ceil() (x) feof()
(xi) strupr() (xii) atoi() (xiii) setprecision() (xiv) floor() (xv) remove()
(xvi) strstr() (xvii) put() (xviii) puts() (xix) exp() (xx) free()
(xxi) fwrite() (xxii) write() (xxiii) setiosflags() (xxiv) sin() (xxv) abs()

Ans : (i) ctype.h (ii) string.h (iii) math.h (iv) stdio.h (v) iostream.h
(vi) iomanip.h (vii) process.h (viii) ctype.h (ix) math.h (x) stdio.h
(xi) string.h (xii) stdlib.h (xiii) iomanip.h (xiv) math.h (xv) stdio.h
(xvi) string.h (xvii) iostream.h (xviii) stdio.h (xix) math.h (xx) stdlib.h
(xxi) stdio.h (xxii) iostream.h (xxiii) iomanip.h (xxiv) math.h (xxv) stdlib.h /
math.h
Q2. Name the header file(s) that shall be needed for successful compilation of the following C++
code:
void main( )
{
char subject[30];
strcpy(subject, ”Computer Science”);
puts(subject);
}
Ans : string.h Note: Marks are not to be deducted if any additional header file is
stdio.h mentioned. But these header files must be written.

Q3. Name the header file(s) that shall be needed for successful compilation of the following C++
code:
void main( )
{
char name[20];
gets(name);
cout<<setw(20)<<name;
}
Ans : iomanip.h
stdio.h

Q4. Name the header file(s) that shall be needed for successful compilation of the following C++
code:
void main( )
{
char a, b;
a = getchar();
b = toupper(a)
cout<<”\nThe uppercase character of “<< a <<” is “ <<b;
}
Ans : ctype.h
stdio.h

Page 3
 Concept Questions based on C++ Review ( 2 marks)
Q1. What is the difference between a keyword and an identifier in C++? Give examples of both.
Ans : Keyword is a special word that has a special meaning and purpose. Keywords are reserved
and are few. For example: goto, for, while, if, else etc.
Identifiers are the user-defined name given to a part of a program. Identifiers are not
reserved. It should be the name of any keyword. For example: name, stud, _myfile, op etc.

Q2. What is a reference variable? What is its usage?

Ans : A reference variable is an alias name for a previously defined variable. The usage of it is
that the same data object can be referred to by two names and these names can be used
interchangeably.

Q3. Write two advantages of using include compiler directives.

Ans: (i) The #include compiler directive lets us include desired header files in our program which
enables us work with all declaration / definitions / macros inside the included header file(s).
(ii) It supports modularity.

Q4. Differentiate between a Logical Error and Syntax Error. Also give suitable examples of each
in C++.

Ans : Logical Error: Error occurred due to incorrect logic applied by the programmer.
Syntax Error: Error occurred due to not following the proper grammar/syntax of the
language OR the error occurred due to violating rules of the programming language
Example:
//Program to find area and perimeter of rectangle
void main()
{
int A=10, B=20, AR, P;
AR=2*(A*B); //Logical Error – Wrong Formula
P=2*(A+B);
cout<<A<<P >>endl; //Syntax Error – Use of >> with cout
}

Q5. What is the difference between Global Variable and Local Variable?
Global Variable Local Variable
Ans:
 It is a variable, which is declared  It is a variable, which is declared with in a
outside all the functions function or with in a compound statement
 It is accessible throughout the  It is accessible only within a function/
program. compound statement in which it is declared.
#include<iostream.h>
float NUM=900; //NUM is a global variable
void LOCAL(int T)
{
int Total=0; //Total is a local variable
for (int I=0;I<T;I++)
Total+=I;
cout<<NUM+Total;
}
void main()
{
LOCAL(45); }
Page 4
Q6. What is the difference between Object Oriented Programming and Procedural Programming?
Ans :
Object Oriented Programming Procedural Programming
 Emphasis on Data  Emphasis on doing things (functions)
 Follows Bottom-Up approach in  Follows Top-down approach in
program design program design
 Data hiding feature prevents accidental  Presence of Global variables increase
change in data chances of accidental change in data
 Features like data encapsulation,  Such features are not available
polymorphism, inheritance are present
Q7. Differentiate between a Call by Value and Call by Reference, giving suitable examples of
each?
Ans:
Call by Value Call by Reference
 The called function creates its own  The called function accesses and works with
copies of the original values sent to it. the original values using their references.
 Any changes that are made in the  Any changes that occur in the function run,
function run, changes in the original changes in the original values are reflected.
values are not reflected.
void change(int b) void change(int &b)
{ {
b = 10; b = 10;
} }
void main() void main()
{ {
int a = 5; int a = 5;
cout<<”\n a = “<<a; cout<<”\n a = “<<a;
change(a); change(a);
cout<<”\n a = “<<a; cout<<”\n a = “<<a;
} }
Output will be: a=5 Output will be: a=5
a=5 a = 10

Q8. What is a parameter? Differentiate between an actual and a formal parameter with an
example?
Ans : Parameter is the variable / value passed to a function or the variable that is used as the
incoming values in a function. The variables / values passed to a function are called actual
parameters. The variables that are used as the incoming values in a function are called formal
parameters. For Example:
void change(int b) // b is the formal parameter
{
b = 10;
}
void main()
{
int a = 5;
change(a); // a is the actual
parameter cout<<”\n a = “<<a;
}

Q9. Enlist any four jump statements with their uses.

Ans : (i) goto : A goto statement can transfer the program control anywhere in the program.

Page 5
 (ii) break : A break statement enables a program to terminate of the loop/block, skipping
any code in between.
(iii) continue : A break statement enables a program to force the next iteration to take
place, skipping any code in between.
(iv) return : A return statement is used to return from a function.

Q10. How are the following related to one another?

(i) array and structure (ii) structure and class
Ans: (i) Array is a group of items of the same data types whereas structure brings together a
group of related data items of any data types.
(ii) Structure is actually a class (in C++) declared with keyword struct. By default, all
members are public in a structure; on the other hand all members are private by default
in a class.
Questions based on Program Errors ( 2 marks)
Note : Errors are explained in the solutions. While solving such type of question, a student should
carefully go through correctness of each statement and the logic of the whole program.
Students are advised to practice various questions to develop the skill of finding the errors.

Q1. Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical errors (if any). Underline
each correction.
#include<iostream.h>
int func(int y =10, int &x)
{
if(x%y = 0) return ++x ; else return y-- ;
}
void main()
{
int p = 20, q =
23; r =
func(p,q);
cout>>p>>q>>r
;
}
Ans: #include<iostream.h>
int func(int y , int &x) // violating the rule of Default argument
{
if(x%y = = 0) return ++x ; else return y-- ; // = = relational operator
}
void main()
{
int p = 20, q = 23;
int r = func(p,q); // r should be declared
cout << p << q << r; // << operator for cout
}
Q2. . Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical errors (if any). Underline each
correction.
#include<iostream.h>
void main()
{
int X[ ]={60,50,30,40},Y; count=4;
cin>>Y;
for(i=count-1;i>=0;i--)
switch(i)

Page 6
 {
case 1;
case 2: cout<<Y * X; break;
case 3: cout<<Y+ Y;
}
}
Ans: #include<iostream.h>
void main()
{
int X[ ]={60,50,30,40},Y, count=4; // multiple declaration separated by comma
cin>>Y;
for(int i=count-1; i>=0; i--) // i should be declared
switch(i)
{
case 1:; // case should follow by :
case 2: cout<<Y*X[i]; break; // Lvalue required for X
case 3: cout<<Y + Y;
}
}

Q4. Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical errors (if any). Underline each
correction.
#include <iostream.h>
struct Pixels
{ int Color,Style;}
void ShowPoint(Pixels P)
{ cout<<P.Color,P.Style<<endl;}
void main()
{
Pixels Point1=(5,3);
ShowPoint(Point1);
Pixels Point2=Point1;
Color.Point1+=2;
ShowPoint(Point2);
}
Ans: #include <iostream.h>
struct Pixels
{ int Color,Style;} ; // Definition of structure Pixels must be ended with ;
void ShowPoint(Pixels P)
{ cout<<P.Color << P.Style<<endl;} // In cascading of cout, << to be used
void main()
{
Pixels Point1 = {5,3}; // { } to be used to initialise of members of the object
ShowPoint(Point1);
Pixels Point2=Point1;
Point1.Color+=2; // member to followed by the object using . operator
ShowPoint(Point2);
}
Questions based on Finding Outputs using random()
Short Answer Questions ( 2 marks)
Note: random(n) generates the numbers randomly from 0 to n–1. For example:
random(20) generates randomly from 0 to 19. Explanations are given at the end of each
solution.

Page 7
 Q1. In the following program, if the value of N given by the user is 50, what maximum
and minimum values the program could possibly display?
#include <iostream.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
void main()
{
int N,Guessme;
randomize();
cin>>N;
Guessme=random(N) + 5;
cout<<Guessme<<endl;
}

Ans : Minimum : 5 Maximum : 54

Explanation : Since random(50) gives a number randomly from 0 to 49. If it returns 0
i.e. minimum for random(50), the minimum value for Guessme will be 0 + 5 = 5. If it
returns 49 i.e. maximum for random(50), the maximum value for Guessme will be 49 + 5
= 54.

Q2. Study the following program and select the possible output from it:
#include<iostream.h>
#include<stdlib.h
> const int
Max=3; void
main( )
{
randomize();
int Number;
Number=50 + random(Max);
for(int P=Number; P >=50; P - -)
cout<<P<<”#”;
cout<<endl; Explanation : Since random(3) gives a number
} randomly from 0 to 2. So, the values of Number
(i) 53#52#51#50# ranges from 50 (50+0) to 52 (50+2) and the
(ii) 50#51#52# Number should be displayed in descending order
(iii) 50#51# according to the programme. 53 is not possible, so
(iv) 51#50# the answer is (iv).
Ans: 51#50#

Q3. In the following program, if the value of N given by the user is 20, what maximum
and minimum values the program could possibly display?
#include <iostream.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
void main()
{
int N,Guessnum;
randomize();
cin>>N;
Guessnum= random(N – 10)+10;
cout<<Guessnum<<endl;
}
Ans : Maximum Value: 19 Minimum Value: 10

Page 8
Q4. In the following program, if the value of Guess entered by the user is 65, what will be
the expected output(s) from the following options (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)?
#include <iostream.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
void main() Explanation : In first iteration I = 1 and random(I)
{ gives 0. So, New = 65 + 0, hence output is A. In
int Guess; first iteration I = 1, So, New = 65 + 0, hence
randomize(); output is A. In second iteration I = 2 and random(I)
cin>>Guess; gives 0 or
for (int I=1;I<=4;I++) 1. So, New = 65 or 66, hence output is A or B. In
{ New=Guess+random(I); third iteration I=3 and random(I) gives 0 to 2. So,
cout<<(char)New; New = 65 or 66 or 67, hence output is A or B or C.
In fourth iteration I=4 and random(I) gives 0 to 3.
} So, New = 65 or 66 or 67 or 68, hence output is A
} or B or C or D. Option
(i) ABBC (i) satisfies all the above only, so it is the answer.
(ii) ACBA
(iii) BCDA
(iv) CABD

Ans: (i) ABBC

Questions based on Finding Outputs

Short Answer Questions ( 2 marks)
Note : While solving such type of question, a student should carefully go through the logic of the
whole program and concepts used in it. Various patterns of questions are given below.
Students are advised to practice various questions to develop the skill of finding the output.

Page 9
 Q2. Find the output of the following
Q1. Find the output of the following program:
program: #include<iostream.h>
#include <iostream.h> void main()
struct Game {
{ int Numbers[] = {2,4,8,10};
char Magic[20];int Score; int *ptr = Numbers;
}; for (int C = 0; C<3; C++)
void main() {
{ cout<< *ptr << “@”;
Game M={“Tiger”,500}; ptr++;
char *Choice; }
Choice=M.Magic; cout<<endl;
Choice[4]=’P’; for(C = 0; C<4; C++)
Choice[2]=’L’; {
M.Score+=50; (*ptr)*=2;
cout<<M.Magic<<M.Score<<endl; --ptr;
Game N=M; }
N.Magic[0]=’A’;N.Magic[3]=’J’; for(C = 0; C<4; C++)
N.Score-=120; cout<< Numbers [C]<< “#”;
cout<<N.Magic<<N.Score<<endl; cout<<endl;
} }
Ans: TiLeP550 Ans : 2@4@8@
AiLJP430 4#8#16#20#

Q3. Find the output of the following Q4. Find the output of the following program:
program: #include <iostream.h>
#include <iostream.h> void main()
void fun( int p, int *q ) {
{ long NUM = 98534210;
p = *(q) += 2; int f=0,s=0;
} do
void main() {
{ int rem = NUM % 10;
int x, b = 5, a[2] = { 10, 20 }; if( rem % 2 == 0)
for( x = 1; x < 3 ; x++) f += rem;
{ else
fun( a[x – 1], &b); s += rem;
cout<< “\n” << a[x - 1] <<” : “ << b; NUM /= 10;
} }while(NUM > 0);
} cout<<“\n”<<f<<” – “<<s<<“ = ”<<f – s;
}
Ans: 10 : 7
20 : 9 Ans : 14 – 18 = – 4

Page 10
 Q5. Find the output of the following Q6. Find the output of the following program:
program: #include <iostream.h>
#include<iostream.h> #include<ctype.h>
int a=10; void main()
void main() {
{ char *name= "ThE bESt meN wIN";
void demo(int &, int , int * ); for ( int i =0; name[i]!='\0' ; i++)
int a=20,b=5; {
demo(::a,a,&b); if ( islower( name[i]) )
cout<<”\n”<<::a<<”*”<<a<<”*”<<b; name[i] = toupper(name[i]) ;
} else
void demo(int &x, int y, int *z) if( isupper(name[i]) )
{ if ( i%2 == 0)
a = a + x; name[i] – – ;
y = y * a; else
*z = a+y; name[i] = tolower(name[i–1]);
cout<<”\n”<<x<<”*”<<y<<”*”<<*z ; }
} cout<<name;
Ans: 20 * 400 * 420 }
20 * 20 * 420 Ans : SHD BbRT MEe WHh
Questions based on Finding Outputs
Short Answer Questions ( 3 marks)
Q1. Find the output of the following program:
#include <iostream.h>
#include<string.h>
struct KEY
{
char word[10];
int count;
};
void changekeyword(KEY somekey);
void main()
{
KEY aKEY;
strcpy(aKEY.word, “#define”);
aKEY.count=10;
cout<<aKEY.word<< “\t”<<aKEY.count<< “\n”;
changekeyword(aKEY);
cout<<aKEY.word<< “\t”<<aKEY.count<< “\n”;
}
void changekeyword(KEY somekey)
{
strcpy(somekey.word, “const”);
somekey.count += 1;
cout<<somekey.word<< “\t” <<somekey.count<< “\n”;
}

Ans : #define 10
#const 11
#define 10

Page 11
 Q2. Find the output of the following program: Q3. Find the output of the following
#include <iostream.h> program:
int modify(int temp = 2) #include <iostream.h>
{ void chang ( int &x, int y)
if(temp % 3 == 0) {
temp = temp + 1; int temp;
else temp=x;
temp = temp + 3; x=y;
return temp; y=temp;
} cout<<”\n”<<x<<” : “<<y;
void doupdation(int m, int &n) }
{ void main()
static int i; {
i++; int a=10, b;
m = n + i; b= a++ + ++a + ++a + a++ + 2;
if(n > 10) cout<<”\n”<< a <<” : “<<b;
n = modify(); chang( a , b );
else cout<<”\n”<< a++ <<” : ”<< ++b;
n = modify(n); }
cout<<m<<" ; "<<n<<endl;
} Ans : 14 : 50
void main() 50 : 14
{ 50 : 51
int x = 8, y = 20;
doupdation(x,y);
cout<<x<<" ; "<<y<<endl;
doupdation(y,x);
cout<<x<<" ; "<<y<<endl;
doupdation(y,x);
cout<<x<<" ; "<<y<<endl;
}
Ans: 21 ; 5
8;5
10 ; 11
11 ; 5
14 ; 5
5;5
Q4. Give the output of the following program:
#include<iostream.h> void
main()
{
int a, *b, **c, ***d;
a=12, b=&a, c=&b, d=&c; ***d*=5;
cout<<”\n”<<a<<”,”<< a + *b; (**c) +=
10;
cout<<”\n”<<**c + ***d;
(***d)+= 10; cout<<”\n”<< a +
*b;
}
Ans: 60 , 120
140
160

Page 12
Q5. Give the output of the following program:
#include <iostream.h>
#include <string.h>
#include <ctype.h>
void funnystr(char *s, int n = 2)
{
int i = n;
while(i < strlen(s))
{
s[i] = '-';
i = i + n;
}
i = 0;
while(s[i] != '\0') Ans : mic–oS–fT
{
if(s[i] > 'A' && s[i] < 'P')
s[i] = tolower(s[i]);
else if(s[i] > 'a' && s[i] < 'p')
{
if(i % 3 == 0)
s[i] = tolower(s[i-1]);
else
s[i] = tolower(s[i]);
}
i++;
}
}
void main()
{
char str[] = "MiCroSoFT";
funnystr(str,3); cout<<str;
}

Page 13
 Introduction to OOP using C++
Object Oriented Programming Concepts
Short Answer Questions
Q1. Define object.
Ans. Object is an identifiable entity with some characteristics and behaviour.

Q2. Define class.

Ans. A class is group of objects that share common properties and relationships.

Q3. Define data abstraction.

Ans. Abstraction refers to the act of representing essential features without including the
background details or explanations.

Q4. What is inheritance?

Ans. Inheritance is the capabilities of one class of things to inherit capabilities or properties from
another class.

Q5. Define modularity.

Ans. Modularity is the property of a system that has been decomposed into a set of cohesive and
loosely coupled modules.

Q6. Define encapsulation.

Ans. The wrapping up of data and operations / functions ( that operate on the data ) into a single
unit (called class ) is known as encapsulation .

Q7. What is polymorphism?

Ans. Polymorphism is the ability for a message or data to be processed in more than one form.

Q8. How polymorphism is implemented in C++?

Ans. Polymorphism is implemented in C++ through overloaded functions, overloaded operators
and virtual functions.

Q9. How inheritance is implemented in C++?

Ans. Inheritance is implemented in C++ by specifying the base class from which the derived class
of the base class is defined.

Q10. What is data hiding? How it is implemented in C++?

Ans. Data hiding is a property whereby the internal data structure of an object is hidden from the
rest of the program. Data hiding is implemented in C++ by private and protected members of
class.

Q11. How data abstraction can be implemented in C++?

Ans. Data abstraction can be implemented in C++ by using public members of class.

Q12. What is programming paradigm?

Ans. A programming paradigm defines the methodology of designing and implementing
programs using the key features and building blocks of a programming language.

Q13. What is procedural programming paradigm?

Ans. In procedural programming paradigm, data is shared among all the functions. Its emphasis is
on doing things rather than using the data.

Page 14
Q14. What are the advantages of OOP?
Ans : The advantages of OOP are Reusability of code, Ease of comprehension, ease of fabrication
and maintenance, ease of redesign and extension.
Q15. What do you understand by functional overloading? Give an example illustrating its use in a
C++ program.
Ans: A function name having several definitions that are differentiable by the number or types of
their arguments is known as functional overloading. For example:
float volume(float a )
{ return a * a * a; }
float volume(float a, float b )
{ return a * a * b; }
float volume(float a, float b, float c)
{ return a * b * c; }

CLASSES AND OBJECTS

SOME MPORTANT QUESTIONS TO REFRESH THE CONCEPT
Q1. Write four attributes associated with declaration of classes.
Ans. The attributes associated with declaration of classes are Data Members, Member Functions,
Program access levels and Class Tagname.
Q2. Define data members and member functions.
Ans. Data members are exactly like the variables in a structure. They are normally made Member
function is function defined within a class that acts on the data members in the class. They
are normally made public.
Q3. Write the scope rules of members of a class.
Ans. Scope rules of members of a class are:-
Private These members can be accessed only by the member functions &
friend functions of the class. It can not be inherited.
Protected These members can be accessed only by the member functions &
friend functions of the class. It can be inherited.
Public These members can be directly accessed by any function.

Q4. How many types of functions are used in a class?

Ans. 1. Accessor function 2. Mutator functions 3. Manager functions

Q5. When will you make a function inline?

Ans. A function is made inline when it is very small and does not return any value. Also it does
not contain any loop and static variables.
Q6. What is scope resolution operator?
Ans. This operator(::) is used in situations where a global variable exists with the same name as a
local variable. This is also used when the member functions are declared outside the class
definition; the function name is preceded by the class name and the binary scope resolution
operator( :: ).
Q7. Define static data members.
Ans. Static data members are initialized to zero when the first object of its class is created. No
other initialization is permitted. Only one copy of that member is created for the entire class
and is shared by all the objects for that class.
Q8. How is memory allocated to a class and its objects?
Ans. When a class is defined, memory is allocated for its member functions and they are stored in
the memory. When object is created, separate memory space is allocated for its data
members. All objects work with the same copy of member function shared by all.

Page 15
BOARD PATTERN QUESTIONS:
Long Answer Questions (4 marks)
Q1. Define a class employee with the following specifications;
Private members of class employee :
empno integer
ename 20 characters
basic,hra,da float
netpay float
calculate( ) A function to calculate basic + hra + da with float return type
Public member functions of class employee :
havedata( ) function to accept values for empno, sname, basic , hra ,da and invoke
calculate( ) to calculate netpay
dispdata( ) function to display all the data members on the screen .

Ans. class employee

{
int empno;
char ename[20];
float basic,da,hra;
float netpay;
float calculate( )
{
return (basic + da + hra);
}
public :
void havedata( )
{
cout << ”Enter employee no”;
cin >> empno;
cout << ”\n Enter name “;
cin >> ename;
cout << ”\n Enter basic salary”;
cin >> basic;
cout << ”\n Enter DA “;
cin >> da;
cout << “\n Enter HRA “;
cin >> hra;
netpay = calculate( );
}
void dispdata( )
{
cout << “\n Employee no is “<< empno << endl ;
cout << “\n Name is “ << ename << endl ;
cout << “\n Basic Salary is” << basic << endl ;
cout << “\n DA is “ << endl ;
cout << “\n HRA is “ << hra << endl ;
cout << “\n Netpay is “ << netpay << endl ;
}
};
Q2. Define a class Student for the following specifications :
Private members of the Student are :
roll _ no integer
name array of characters of size 20
Page 16
 class _ st array of characters of size 8
marks array of integers of size 5
percentage float
calculate that calculates the percentage marks
Public members of the Student are :
readmarks reads mark and invoke the calculate function
displaymarks prints the data.
Ans. class Student
{
int roll _ no ;
char name[20] ;
char class _ st[8] ;
int marks[5] ;
float percentage ;
void calculate( ) ;
public :
void readmarks( ) ;
void displaymarks( ) ;
};
void Student : : calculate( )
{
float total = 0 ;
for ( int I =0 ; I < 5; I ++ )
total + = marks[I] ;
percentage = total / 5 ;
}
void Student : : readmarks( )
{
cout << “ \n Enter 5 marks : “ ;
for ( int I =0 ; I < 5 ; I ++ )
cin >> marks[I] ;
calculate( ) ;
}
void Student : : displaymarks( )
{
cout << “\n The 5 marks are : “ ;
for ( int I = 0 ; I < 5 ; I ++ )
cout << marks[I] << endl ;
cout << “ \n Percentage = “ << percentage << endl ;
}
Q3. Define a class DONOR with the following specifications :
Private :
Donor number integer
Name 20 characters
Blood group 2 characters
Public :
Input( ) A function to accept all the information
Output( ) A function to display all the information
Checkgroup( ) A function with char * return to return Blood Group
Define both the number functions with their given description.
Ans. class DONOR
{ int d_no ;
char name[20] ;
char b_grp[2] ;
Page 17
 public :
void input( )
{
cout << “\n Enter the details as donor no, name and blood group : “ ;
cin >> d_no ; gets ( name ); gets ( b_grp ) ;
}
void output( )
{ cout << “\n The details are “ ;
cout << “\n Name : “ << name << “\n Donor No : << d_no ;
cout << “\n Blood Group : “ << b_grp ;
}
char * checkgroup ( )
{ return ( b_grp ) ;
}
};
Q4. Define a class TEST in C++ with following description:
Private Members
 TestCode of type integer
 Description of type string
 NoCandidate of type integer
 CenterReqd (number of centers required) of type integer
 A member function CALCNTR() to calculate and return the number of centers as
(NoCandidates/100+1)
Public Members
• A function SCHEDULE() to allow user to enter values for TestCode, Description,
NoCandidate & call function CALCNTR() to calculate the number of Centres
• A function DISPTEST() to allow user to view the content of all the data members
Ans: class TEST
{
int TestCode;
char Description[20];
int NoCandidate,CenterReqd;
void CALCNTR();
public:
void SCHEDULE();
void DISPTEST();
};
void TEST::CALCNTR()
{ CenterReqd=NoCandidate/100 + 1; }
void TEST::SCHEDULE()
{
cout<<”Test Code :”;cin>>TestCode;
cout<<”Description :”;gets(Description);
cout<<”Number :”;cin>>NoCandidate;
CALCNTR();
}
void TEST::DISPTEST()
{
cout<<”Test Code :”<<TestCode<<endl;
cout<<”Description :”<<Description<<endl;
cout<<”Number :”<<NoCandidate<<endl;;
cout<<”Centres :”<<CenterReqd<<endl;;
}

Page 18
 CONSTRUCTOR AND DESTRUCTOR
SOME MPORTANT QUESTIONS TO REFRESH THE CONCEPT
Q1. What is constructor?
Ans. A member function with the same name as its class is called constructor and it is used to
initialize the objects of that class type with a legal initial value.
Q2. What is destructor?
Ans. A destructor is a member function having same name as its class but preceded by ~ sign and
it deinitialises an object before it goes out of scope.
Q3. What are different types of constructors?
Ans. The different types of constructors are Default constructor, Parameterized constructor and
Copy constructor.
Q4. What is default constructor?
Ans. A constructor that accepts no parameter is called the default constructor.
Q5. What is parameterized constructor?
Ans. A constructor that accepts parameters for its invocation is known as parameterized
constructor.
Q6. What is copy constructor?
Ans. A copy constructor is a constructor that defines and initializes an object with another object.
It takes the form classname(classname). For a copy constructor there must be a default
constructor or a parameterized constructor.

BOARD PATTERN QUESTIONS - Short Answer Questions ( 2 marks)

Note : Two options with the following pattern are generally asked in the Board Exam. Various
optional questions are given below.

Q7. Answer the following questions after going through the following class:
class Seminar
{
int Time;
public:
Seminar(); //Function 1
void Lecture() //Function 2
{cout<<”Lectures in the seminar on”<<end1;}
Seminar(int); //Function 3
Seminar(Seminar &abc); //Function 4
~Seminar() //Function 5
{ cout<<”Vote of thanks”<<end1;
};
(i) In Object Oriented Programming, what is Function 5 referred as and when does it get
invoked/called?
Ans : Function 5 is referred as destructor and it is invoked as soon as the scope of the
object gets over.
(ii) In Object Oriented Programming, which concept is illustrated by Function 1, Function 3
and Function 4 all together?
Ans : Constructor Overloading (Polymorphism)

Page 19
 (iii) Which category of constructor - Function 1 belongs to? Write an example illustrating
the calls for Function 1.
Ans : Default Constructor. Example to invoke function 1  Seminar S;
(iv) Which category of constructor - Function 3 belongs to? Write an example illustrating
the calls for Function 3.
Ans : Parameterised Constructor. Example to invoke function 3 Seminar A(8);
(v) Which category of constructor - Function 4 belongs to? Write an example illustrating
the calls for Function 4.
Ans : Copy Constructor. Example to invoke function 4  Seminar S2(S);
Or Seminar S2 = S;
(vi) Write an example illustrating the calls for Function 3 explicitly.
Ans : Seminar A = Seminar(8);
(vii) Write an example illustrating the calls for Function 4 explicitly.
Ans : Seminar S2 = Seminar(S);
(viii) Write the complete definition for Function 1 to initialize Time as 30.
Ans : Seminar :: Seminar()
{ Time = 30; }
(ix) Write the complete definition for Function 3 to initialize Time with Mytime as
parameter to the Function 3.
Ans : Seminar :: Seminar(int Mytime)
{ Time = Mytime; }
(x) Write the complete definition for Function 4.
Ans : Seminar :: Seminar(Seminar &abc)
{ Time = abc.Time; }
Q8. Answer the following questions after going through the following class:
class Complex
{
int x;
int y;
public:
Complex(); //Function 1
void disp() //Function 2
{cout<<”The Complex number is : “<<x<<” + “<<y<<”i”<<end1;}
Complex(int, int); //Function 3
Complex(Complex &abc); //Function 4
};
(i) Which category of constructor - Function 1 belongs to? Write an example illustrating
the calls for Function 1.
Ans : Default Constructor. Example to invoke function 1 Complex C;
(ii) Which category of constructor - Function 3 belongs to? Write an example illustrating
the calls for Function 3.
Ans: Parameterised Constructor. Example to invoke function 3Complex C(6,8);
(iii) Which category of constructor - Function 4 belongs to? Write an example illustrating
the calls for Function 4.
Ans : Copy Constructor. Example to invoke function 4  Complex C2(C);
Or Complex C2 = C;
(iv) Write an example illustrating the calls for Function 3 explicitly.
Ans : Complex C = Complex(6,8);
(v) Write an example illustrating the calls for Function 4 explicitly.
Ans : Complex C2 = Complex(C);
(vi) Write the complete definition for Function 1 to initialize x as 10 and y as 20.
Ans : Complex :: Complex ()

Page 20
 { x = 10 ; y = 20; }
(vii) Write the complete definition for Function 3 to initialize the data members with p and
q as parameters to the Function 3.
Ans : Complex :: Complex(int p, int q)
{ x = p; y = q; }
(viii) Write the complete definition for Function 4.
Ans : Complex :: Complex (Complex &abc)
{ x = abc.x;
y = abc.y;
}

Inheritance
SOME MPORTANT QUESTIONS TO REFRESH THE CONCEPT
Q1. Write the reasons behind the introduction of inheritance in OOP.
Ans. The major reasons behind the introduction of inheritance in OOP are:(i) It ensures the
closeness with the real world models, (ii) idea of reusability, (iii) transitive nature of
inheritance.
Q2. What are the different forms of inheritance?
Ans. The different forms of inheritance are (i) Single Inheritance, (ii) Multiple Inheritance, (iii)
Hierarchical Inheritance, (iv) Multilevel Inheritance, (v) Hybrid Inheritance.
Q3. How does the access of inherited members depend upon their access specifiers and the
visibility modes of the base class?
Ans.
Access specifier public inheritance protected private inheritance
Visibility mode inheritance
public member in base class public in derived class protected in private in derived
derived class class
protected member in base protected in derived protected in private in derived
class class derived class class
private member in base hidden in derived class hidden in derived hidden in derived
class class class
Q4. Write the different ways of accessibility of base class members.
Ans.
Access Specifier Accessible from Accessible from derived Accessible from objects
own class class (Inheritable) outside class
public Yes Yes Yes
protected Yes Yes No
private Yes No No
Q5. How is the size of a derived class object calculated?
Ans. The size of a derived class object is equal to the sum of sizes of data members in base class
and the derived class.
Q6. In what order are class constructors and class destructors called when a derived class object is
created or destroyed?
Ans. When the object of a derived class is created, firstly the constructor of the base class is
invoked and then, the constructor of the derived class is invoked.
On the other hand, when the object of a derived class is destroyed, firstly the destructor of the
derived class is invoked and then, the destructor of the base class is invoked.
Note : Observe the following questions and their solutions. The above concepts are implemented.
Practice of such questions will definitely clear your doubts and improve your confidence
level. Discussion with your friends and distinguish the varieties of these questions.

Page 21
BOARD PATTERN QUESTIONS Long Answer Questions (4 Marks)
Q1. Answer the questions (i) to (iv) based on the following:
class bus : private heavyvehicle
class heavyvehicle : protected vehicle {
class vehicle
{ char make[20];
{
int diesel_petrol; public:
int wheels;
protected: void fetchdata( );
protected:
int load; void displaydata( );
int passenger;
public: public: };
void readdata(int, int);
void inputdata( );
void writedata( );
void outputdata( );
};
};
i) Write the member(s) that can be accessed from the object of bus.
ii) Write the data member(s) that can be accessed from the function displaydata( ).
iii) How many bytes are required by an object of bus and heavyvehicle classes respectively?
iv) Is the member function outputdata( ) accessible to the objects of the class heavyvehicle?
Ans : (i) fetchdata(), displaydata() (ii) make, load, passanger
(iii) for the object of bus – 28 bytes, for the object of heavyvehicle – 8 bytes (iv) No
Q2. Answer the questions (i) to (iv) based on the following:
class livingbeing class ape : private livingbeing class human : public ape
{ { {
char specification[20]; int no_of_organs; char race[20];
int averageage; int no_of_bones; char habitation[30];
public: protected: public:
void read(); int iq_level; void readhuman();
void show(); public: void showhuman();
}; void readape(); };
void showape();
};

(i) Write the members which can be accessed from the member functions of class human.
(ii) Write the members, which can be accessed by an object of class human.
(iii) What is the size of an object (in bytes) of class human?
(iv) Write the class(es) which objects can access read() declared in livingbeing class.
Ans : (i) race, habitation, iq_level, readhuman(), showhuman(), readape(), showape()
(ii) readhuman(), showhuman(), readape(), showape()
(iii) 78 bytes (iv) livingbeing
Q3. Answer the questions (i) to (iv) based on the following:
class parent class father : protected parent class mother : public father
{ { {
char name[20]; int daughter; int child;
protected: protected: public:
int son; int baby; void fetchdata();
public: public: void dispdata();
void inputdata(); void readdata(); };
void outputdata(); void writedata();
}; };

(i) In case of the class father, what is the base class of father and what is the derived class of father?
(ii) Write the data member(s) that can be accessed from function dispdata().
(iii) Write the member function(s), which can be accessed by an object of mother class.
(iv) Is the member function outputdata() accessible to the objects of father class?
Ans : (i) base class of father – parent, derived class of father – mother
(ii) child, baby, son
(iii) fetchdata(), dispdata(), readdata(), writedata() (iv) No

Page 22
 Data Structure & Pointers
Address Calculation
Short Answer Questions ( 3 marks)
Formulae of Row Major & Column Major are used in the given questions. Kindly go through it.
Q1. An array x[30][10] is stored in the memory with each element requiring 4 bytes of storage. If
the base address of x is 4500, find out memory locations of x[12][8] and x[2][4], if the
content is stored along the row.
Ans : Given, W = 4, N = 30, M = 10, Base(x) = 4500
Row Major Formula:
Loc(x[12][8]) = Base(x)+W*(M*I+J) Loc(x[2][4]) = Base(x)+W*(M*I+J)
= 4500 + 4 * (10 * 12 + 8) = 4500+ 4*( 10*2 + 4)
= 4500 + 4 * 128 = 4500 + 4 * 24
= 4500 + 512 = 4500 + 96
= 5012 = 4596

Q2. An array P[20][30] is stored in the memory along the column with each of the element
occupying 4 bytes, find out the Base Address of the array, if an element P[2][20] is stored at
the memory location 5000.
Ans : Given, W=4, N=20, M=30, Loc(P[2][20])=5000
Column Major Formula:
Loc(P[I][J]) =Base(P)+W*(N*J+I)
Loc(P[2][20]) =Base(P)+4*(20*20+2)
Base(P) =5000 – 4*(400+2)
=5000 – 1608
=3392

Q3. An array ARR[5][25] is stored in the memory with each element occupying 4 bytes of space.
Assuming the base address of ARR to be 1000, compute the address of ARR[5][7], when the
array is stored as : (i) Row wise (ii) Column wise.
Ans:
(i) Row wise : (ii) Column wise :
Given, W = 4, N = 5, M = 25, Given, W = 4, N = 5, M = 25,
Base(ARR) = 1000 Base(ARR) = 1000
Row Major Formula: Column Major Formula:
Loc(ARR[5][7])= Base(ARR)+W*(M*I+J) Loc(ARR[5][7])= Base(ARR)+W*(N*J+I)
= 1000 + 4*( 25*5 + 7) = 1000 + 4*( 5*7 + 5)
= 1000 + 4 * 132 = 1000 + 4 * 40
= 1000 + 528 = 1000 + 160
= 1528 = 1160

Page 23
 Static Allocation of Objects
Short Answer Questions ( 2 marks)
Note : Practice the way to write the function definition where array and its size are passed
as arguments. Practice with the concepts of accessing the elements of the one / two
dimensional array. Apply the suitable logic to solve the given problem and write the coding
of it.
Q1. Write a function in C++ to find sum of rows from a two dimensional
array. Ans : void MatAdd(int A[ ][ ],int N, int M)
{
for (int R=0;R<N;R++)
{
int SumR=0;
for (int C=0;C<M;C++)
SumR+=A[C][R];
cout<<SumR<<endl;
}
}
Q2. Write a function in C++ to find the sum of both left and right diagonal elements from a
two dimensional array (matrix).
Ans : void DiagSum(int A[ ][ ], int N)
{
int
SumD1=0,SumD2=0;
for (int I=0;I<N;I++)
{
SumD1+=A[I][I];
SumD2+=A[N-I-1][I];
}
cout<<”Sum of Diagonal 1:”<<SumD1<<endl;
cout<<”Sum of Diagonal 2:”<<SumD2<<endl;
}
Q3. Write a function in C++ which accepts an integer array and its size as arguments and replaces
elements having even values with its half and elements having odd values with twice its
value. eg:
if the array contains : 3, 4, 5, 16, 9
then the function should be rearranged as 6, 2,10,8, 18
Ans: void calc(int x[ ], int m)
{
for(int i=0; i<m; ++i)
{
if(x[i]%2==0)
x[i]=x[i]/2;
else
x[i]=x[i]*2;
}
}
Q4. Write a user defined function in C++ which intakes one dimensional array and size of array as
argument and display the elements which are prime.
If 1D array is 10 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 16 , 17 , 23
Then prime numbers in above array are: 2 , 3 , 5, 17, 23
Ans: void primedisp(int x[ ], int m)
{
Page 24
 int nf;
for(int i=0; i<m; ++i)
{
nf=0;
for(int j=1; j<=x[i]; j++)
if(x[i] % j == 0)
nf++;
if(nf == 2)
cout<<”\n”<<x[i];
}
}
Q5. Write a function in C++ which accepts an integer array and its size as arguments/parameters
and exchanges the values at alternate locations.
example : if the array is 8,10,1,3,17,90,13,60 then rearrange the array as 10,8,3,1,90,17,60,13
Ans : void exchange(int x[ ], int m)
{
int y;
for(int i=0; i<m; i= i+2)
{
if(m-i == 1) // if m (no. of element ) is odd last element
i = m; // should not alter its position.
else
{
y= x[i];
x[i] = x[i+1];
x[i+1] = y;
}
}
}
Short Answer Questions ( 3 marks)
Q1. Write a user defined function DispTen(int A[][4],int N,int M) In c++ to find and display all the
numbers, which are divisible by 10. For example if the content of array is:
12 20 13
2 10 30
The output should be
20 10 30
Ans: void DispTen(int A[ ][4], int N, int M)
{
int i, j ;
for(i=0 ; i<N ; i++)
{
for(j=0 ; i<M ; j++)
{
if(A[i][j]%10= =0)
cout<<A[i][j]<<” “ ;
}}}
Q2 Write a function ALTERNATE (int A[ ] [3], int N, int M) in C++ to display all alternate elements
from two-dimensional array A (staring from A [0] [0]). For example:
If the array is containing:
23 54 76
37 19 28

Page 25
62 13 19
The output will be
23 76 19 62 19
Ans: void ALTERNATE (int A [] [3], int N, int M)
{
int T=0;
for (int I=0 ; I<N; I++)
for (int J=0 ; J<M ; J++)
{
if (T%2= =0)
cout<<A[I] [J]<<" ";
T++ ;
}
}
Q3. Write a DSUMO function in C++ to find sum of Diagonal Elements from a
NxN Matrix. (Assuming that the N is a odd number)
Ans.
void DSUM (int A[] [100], int N)
{
int SUMR =0, SUML=0;
for (int i=0; i<N; i++)
{
SUMR = SUMR + A[i] [i] ;
SUML = SUML + A[i] [N-1-i] ;
}
cout<< "Sum of Right Diagonal Elements = "<<SUMR<<end1;
cout<< "Sum of Left Diagonal Elements = "<<SUML<<end1;
}

Page 26
Q5. Define a function SWAPCOL( ) in C++ to swap (interchange) the first column elements with the
last column elements, for a two dimensional integer array passed as the argument of the function.
Example: If the two dimensional array contains
2149
1377
5863
7212
After swapping of the content of 1st column and last column, it should be:
9142
7371
3865
2217
Ans: void SWAPCOL(int A[ ][100], int M, int N)
{
int Temp, I;
for (I=0;I<M;I++)
{
Temp = A[I][0];
A[I][0] = A[I][N-1];
A[I][N-1] = Temp;
}
}
Q6. Write a function in C++ which accepts an integer array and its size as arguments and assign
the elements into a two dimensional array of integers in the following format
If the array is 1,2,3,4,5,6 if the array is 1,2,3
The resultant 2D array is The resultant 2D array is
123456 123
012345 012
001234 001
000123
000012
000001
Ans: //Logic : Condition for putting the value is the position (i<=j) of 2D array otherwise put zero
void Change2Darray(int x[], int size)
{
for(i=0; i<size; i++)
{
int k=0;
for(int j=0; j< size; j++)
{
if(i<=j)
{
y[i][j]=x[k];
k++;
}
else

Page 27
 y[i][j]=0;
}
}
for(i=0; i< size; i++)
{
cout<<”\n”;
for(int j=0; j< size; j++)
cout<<y[i][j]<<" ";
}
}
Q7. Write a function in C++ which accepts an integer array of double dimensional with its size as
arguments and displays the total numbers of odd, even and prime numbers in the array.
Example : if the following integer array will be passed to the function, i.e.
6 4 13 19 5
7 3 8 11 51
9 12 23 4 6
21 29 18 9 10
28 5 12 2 6
Then the output should be : The total odd numbers are : 13
The total odd numbers are : 12
The total odd numbers are : 10
Ans : void numcheck( int arr[ ][ ], int m, int n)
{
int i, j, oddt=0, event=0, primet=0, nf, k;
for(i=0; i<m; i++)
{
for(j=0; j<n; j++)
{
if(arr[i][j] % 2 = = 0)
event++;
else
oddt++;
nf=0;
for(k=1; k<=arr[i][j]; k++)
{
if(arr[i][j] % k = = 0)
nf++;
}
if(nf = = 2)
primet++;
}
}
cout<<”\n The total odd numbers are : “<<oddt;
cout<<”\n The total even numbers are : “<<event;
cout<<”\n The total prime numbers are : “<<primet;
}

Page 28
Dynamic Allocation of Objects Long Answer Questions ( 4 marks )
Note : Insertion at the beginning of Linked List (Push operation in Stack), Insertion at the end of
Linked List (Insertion in a Queue), Deletion from the beginning of Linked List (Pop
operation in Stack as well as Deletion of node in a Queue) are in the syllabus. So, only the
logic of these three functions should be practiced. The logic and the way to solve these
functions are given below. Practice them.

Page 29
Page 30
1. Write a function QDELETE( ) in c++ to perform delete operation on a Linked Queue, which
contains passenger no and passenger name. Consider the following definition of node in the code
struct node
{
long int Pno ;
char Pname[20];
node *Link ;
}

Ans. class Queue

{
NODE *Front, *Rear;
public:
Queue ( ) {Front = NULL; Rear = NULL; }
void QueAdd ( );
void QueDel ( );
void QueDis ( );
~Queue();
};
void Queue: :QueDel ( )
{
if (Front!=NULL)
{
NODE *Temp=Front;
cout<<Front->Pno<< " " ;
cout<<Front->Pname<< "Deleted";
Front=Front->Link;
delete Temp;
if (Front==NULL) Rear=NULL;
}
else
cout<<"Underflow ! Queue is empty. .";
}
Infix & Postfix Expressions Short Answer Questions ( 2 marks)
Q1. Evaluate the following postfix notation of expression: 25
8 3 – / 6 * 10 +
Ans:
Operator Scanned Stack Content
25 25
8 25, 8
3 25, 8, 3
- 25, 5
/ 5
6 5, 6
* 30
10 30, 10
+ 40
So, the answer is 40.

Page 31
(Infix to Postfix)
Q2. Convert A + ( B * C – ( D / E )) * F into postfix form showing stack status after every step. Ans
:
Step No. Symbol Scanned Stack Expression
1 A ( A
2 + (+ A
3 ( (+( A
4 B (+( AB
5 * (+(* AB
6 C (+(* ABC
7 – (+(- ABC*
8 ( (+(-( ABC*
9 D (+(-( ABC*D
10 / (+(-(/ ABC*D
11 E (+(-( ABC*DE
12 ) (+( ABC*DE/–
13 ) ( ABC*DE/– +
14 * (* ABC*DE/– +
15 F (* ABC*DE/– +F
16 ) ABC*DE/– +F*
So, the postfix form is: A B C * D E / – + F *
Q3. Convert NOT A OR NOT B AND NOT C into postfix form. Ans :
Step No. Symbol Scanned Stack Expression
1 (
2 NOT ( NOT
3 A ( NOT A
4 OR ( OR A NOT
5 NOT ( OR NOT A NOT
6 B ( OR NOT A NOT B
7 AND ( OR AND A NOT B NOT
8 NOT ( OR AND NOT A NOT B NOT
9 C ( OR AND A NOT B NOT C NOT
10 ) A NOT B NOT C NOT AND OR
So, the postfix form is: A NOT B NOT C NOT AND OR

Q4. Evaluate the following POSTFIX notation. Show status of Stack after every step of evaluation
(i.e. after each operator): True, False, NOT, AND, False, True, OR, AND

Ans. Element Scanned Stack Status

True True
False True, False
NOT True, True
AND True
False True, False
True True, False, True
OR True, True
AND True
Final Answer: True

Page 32
 DATA FILE HANDLING
SOME MPORTANT POINTS TO REFRESH THE CONCEPT
1.
Type of Link Stream Class Example Declaration
File-to-Memory ifstream ifstream fin;
Memory-to-File ofstream ofstream fout;
File-to-Memory / Memory-to-File fstream fstream finout;
2. Syntax of open () - <stream type>.open(<data file>, <file modes>);
Example:- fin.open(“MARK.DAT”, ios::in | ios::binary);
fout.open(“MARK.DAT”, ios::out | ios::app | ios::binary);
3. Different file modes are : ios::in, ios::out, ios::ate, ios::app, ios::trunc, ios::binary,
ios::nocreate, ios::noreplace.
4. Syntax of read() - <stream type>.read((char *) & buffer, sizeof(buffer));
Example : fin.read((char *) & stud, sizeof(stud)); // stud is an object/class
5. Syntax of write() - <stream type>.write((char *) & buffer, sizeof(buffer));
Example : fout.write((char *) & stud, sizeof(stud)); // stud is an object/class
6. Detecting EOF : Example :- fin.eof()
7. Common forms of file pointer functions:
(a) seekg() – <istream object>.seekg(long, seek_dir);
Example : - fin.seekg(30 , ios::beg);
(b) seekp() – <ostream object>.seekp(long, seek_dir);
Example : - fout.seekp( –1 * sizeof(stud), ios::cur);
(c) tellg() / tellp() returns the position in bytes of get_pointer/put_pointer.
(d) Different definitions of seek_dir are ios::beg (refers to beginning of the file),
ios::cur(refers to current position in the file), ios::end (refers to end of the file).
8. Closing a file : stream_object.close(); Example : fin.close();

Page 33
Very Short Answer Questions ( 1 mark)
Q1. Observe the program segment given below carefully and fill the blanks marked as Statement
1 and Statement 2 using seekg()/seekp() functions for performing the required task.

#include <fstream.h>
class Item
{
int Ino;char Item[20];
public:
//Function to search and display the content of a particular record
void Search(int );
//Function to modify the content of a particular record number
void Modify(int);
};
void Item::Search(int RecNo)
{
fstream File;
File.open(“STOCK.DAT”,ios::binary|ios::in);

//Statement 1
File.read((char*)this,sizeof(Item));
cout<<Ino<<”==>”<<Item<<endl;
File.close();
}
void Item::Modify(int RecNo)
{
fstream File;
File.open(“STOCK.DAT”,ios::binary|ios::in|ios::out);
cout>>Ino;cin.getline(Item,20);

//Statement 2
File.write((char*)this,sizeof(Item));
File.close();
}
Ans : Statement 1 – File.seekg( (RecNo – 1) * sizeof(Item), ios::beg);
Statement 2 – File.seekp((RecNo – 1) * sizeof(Item), ios::beg);

Q2. Observe the program segment given below carefully and fill the blanks marked as
Statement 1 and Statement 2 using seekg() and tellg() functions for performing the
required task.
#include <fstream.h>
class Employee
{
int Eno;char Ename[20];
public:
//Function to count the total number of records
int Countrec();
};
int Item::Countrec()

Page 34
 {
fstream File;
File.open(“EMP.DAT”,ios::binary|ios::in);

//Statement 1

int Bytes = //Statement 2

int Count = Bytes / sizeof(Item);

File.close();
return Count;
}
Ans: Statement 1 – File.seekg(0,ios::end);
Statement 2 – File.tellg();

Q3. A file named as “STUDENT.DAT” contains the student records, i.e. objects of class student.
Assuming that the file is just opened through the object FILE of fstream class, in the required
file mode, write the command to position the put pointer to point to the beginning of the
second record from the last record.
Ans : FILE.seekp( – 2 * sizeof(student), ios::end);

Q4. A file named as “EMPLOYEE.DAT” contains the student records, i.e. objects of class
employee. Assuming that the file is just opened through the object FILE of fstream class, in
the required File mode, write the command to position the get pointer to point to eighth
record from the beginning.
Ans : File.seekg(8,ios::beg);

Short Answer Questions ( 2 marks)

Q1. Write a function in C++ to count the number of alphabets present in a text file “DATA.TXT”.
Ans: void count( )
{
ifstream file(“DATA.TXT”); char
ch; int total=0; while(file.get(ch))
{
if(isalpha(ch))
total++;
}
cout<<”\n The Total no of alphabets are”<<total; file.close( );
}
Q2. Write a function in C++ to count the number of vowels present in a text file
“STORY.TXT”.
Ans: void vowelcount( )
{
ifstream file(“STORY.TXT”);
int n=0;
while(file.get(ch))
{
if(ch==’a’|| ch==’A’|| ch==’e’|| ch==’E’|| ch==’i’|| ch==’I’|| ch==’o’||
ch==’O’|| ch==’u’||ch==’U’)
n++ ;
}
cout<<”\n Total no. of vowels are”<<n; file.close(); }
Page 35
Q3. Write a function in C++ to count the number of words in a text file NOTES.TXT.
Ans: void wordcount( )
{
ifstream f1(“NOTES.TXT”); char
ch;
int tot=0; f1.seekg(0);
while(f1.get(ch))
{
if( ch==’ ‘|| ch==’.’|| ch==’?’)
tot++;
}
cout<<”\n total no. of words are “<<tot;
f1.close();
}
Q4. Write a function in C++ to count the number of lines present in a text file “STORY.TXT”.
Ans : void CountLine()
{
ifstream FIL(“STORY.TXT”);
int LINES=0;
char STR[80];
while (FIL.getline(STR,80))
LINES++;
cout<<”No. of Lines:”<<LINES<<endl;
FIL.close();
}

Q5. Write a function CountYouMe( ) in c++ which reads the contents of a text file story.txt and
counts the words You and Me (not case senitive)
For example, if the file contains
You are my best friend.
You and me make a good team.
The function should display the output as
Count for you: 2
Count for me: 1
Ans: void COUNTYouMe ( )
{
ifstream Fil ("story.txt") ;
char STR [10] ;
int countyou = 0 ;
int countme = 0;
while (!Fil.eof ( ))
{
Fil>>STR;
if (strcmpi (STR, "Me") = =0 )
countme++ ;

if(strcmpi (STR, "You") = =0)

countyou++;
}
cout<<"Count for You : "<<countyou<<end1;
cout<<"Count for Me : "<<countme<<end1;

Page 36
 Fil.close( ) ; //Ignore
}

Q6. Writea function in C++ to read the content of a text file "DELHI.TXT' and display all those lines
on screen, which are either starting with 'D' or starting with 'M'.
Ans. void DispDorM()
{
if stream File("DELHI.TXT");
char Str[80];
while(File.getline(Str,80))
{
if(Str[0]='D' || Str[0]='M')
cout«Str«endl;
}
File.close(); //Ignore
}

Short Answer Questions ( 3 marks)

Q1. Write a function in C++ to read & display the details of all the members whose membership
type is ‘L’ or ‘M’ from a binary file “CLUB.DAT”. Assume the binary file contains object
of class CLUB.
class CLUB
{
int mno;
char mname[20];
char type;
public:
void register ( );
void dis();
char whattype( )
{ return type;}
};

Ans : void show( )

{
ifstream file;
CLUB c1;
char s;
file.open(“CLUB.DAT”, ios::in | ios::binary);
while( file.read((char*)&c1, sizeof (c1)))
{
s = c1.whattype( );
if((s==’L’) || (s==’M’))
c1.dis( );
}
File.close();
}
Q2. Write a function TRANSFER( ) in C++, that would copy all records which are having area as
”DEL” from PHONE.DAT to PHONBACK.DAT.

Page 37
Ans: void transfer( )
{ ifstream Fin;
Ofstream Fout;
Phonlist ph;
Fin.open(“PHONE.DAT”, ios::in | ios::binary);
Fout.open(“PHONBACK.DAT”, ios::out | ios:: binary);
while(Fin.read((char*)&ph, sizeof(ph)))
{ if(ph.check(“DEL”) == 0)
Fout.write((char*)&ph, sizeof(ph));
}
Fin.close();
Fout.close();
}

Q3. Write a function in C++ to modify the name of a student whose roll number is entered
during the execution of the program. Search the accepted roll number from a binary file
“STUDENT.DAT” and modify the name, assuming the binary file is containing the objects
of the following class.
class STUD
{
int Rno;
char Name[20];
public:
int srno(){ return Rno;}
void Enter(){gets(Name);}
void Display(){cout<<Rno<<Name<<endl;}
};

Ans : void Modifyname()

{ fstream File;
File.open(“STUDENT.DAT”, ios::binary | ios::in | ios::out);
STUD s;
int mrno;
cout<<”\nEnter the roll number to modify : “;
cin>>mrno;
while (File.read((char*)&s, sizeof(s)))
{
if(s.srno() = = mrno)
{
cout<<”\n Modify the name
“; s.Enter();
File.seekp( –1 * sizeof(s),
ios::cur); File.write((char
*)&s, sizeof(s));
}File.close() ; }

Page 38
 Databases and SQL Short Answer Questions
Q1. What is a database system? What are the advantages provided by a database system?
Ans : A database is a collection of interrelated data and a database system is basically a
computer based recordkeeping system. The advantages provided by a database system
are (i) reduced data redundancy (ii) Controlled data inconsistency (iii) Shared data (iv)
Standardized data
(i) Secured data (vi) Integrated data.
Q2. What are the various levels of database abstraction in a database system?
Ans : The various levels of database abstraction in a database system are (i) Internal
(Physical) Level (ii) Conceptual Level (iii) External (View) Level.
Q3. What is Data Independence? What are the levels of Data Independence?
Ans: Data Independence is the ability to modify a scheme definition in one level without
affecting a scheme definition in the next higher level. The two levels of Data
Independence are (i) Physical Data Independence (ii) Logical Data Independence.
Q4. What is a view? How is it useful?
Ans : A view is a virtual table that does not really exist in its own right but is instead derived
from one or more underlying base table(s). It provides an excellent way to give people
access to some but not all of the information in a table.
Q5. What is relation? Define the relational data model?
Ans : A relation is a table having atomic values, unique rows and unordered rows and
columns. The relational data model represents data and relationships among data by a
collection of tables known as relation, each of which has a number of columns with
unique names.

Q6. Define : (i) Tuple (ii) Attribute (iii) Degree (iv)

Cardinality. Ans : (i) Tuple – The rows of tables (relations) are
referred as tuples.
(ii) Attribute – The columns of tables (relations) are referred as attributes.
(iii) Degree – The number of attributes in a relation(table) is called degree of a relation.
(iv) Cardinality – The number of tuples in a relation(table) is called cardinality of a
relation. Q7. What do you understand by Primary Key & Candidate Keys?
Ans : An attribute or set attributes which are used to identify a tuple uniquely is known as
Primary Key. If a table has more than one such attributes which identify a tuple uniquely
than all such attributes are known as Candidate Keys.
Q8. Define alternate key. What do you understand by foreign key?
Ans : A candidate key that is not the primary key is called an alternate key. A non-key
attribute, whose values are derived from the primary key of some other table, is known
as foreign key in its current table.
Q9. What is Data Definition Language? Give examples of some DDL commands.
Ans : The SQL Data Definition Language provides commands for defining relation
schemas, deleting relations, creating indexes and modifying relation schemas. The
examples of some DDL commands are CREATE TABLE, ALTER TABLE, DROP
TABLE, DROP VIEW
commands etc.
Q10. What is Data Manipulation Language? Give examples of some DML commands.
Ans : The SQL Data Manipulation Language includes a query language to insert, delete
and modify tuples in the database. The examples of some DML commands are SELECT,
INSERT, DELETE, UPDATE commands etc.
Q11. What is SQL? Write the various processing capabilities of SQL.
Ans : SQL is a language that enables you to create and operate on relational databases. The
various processing capabilities of SQL are data definition language, data
manipulation language, view definition, authorization, integrity and transaction control.

Page 39
Page 40
SYNTAX of some SQL COMMANDS :
1. SELECT column list FROM <table name> WHERE <condition> GROUP BY
<column name(s)> HAVING <search condition> ORDER BY column name;
2. INSERT INTO <table name> [<column list>] VALUES ( <value>, <value>, ...);
3. DELETE FROM <table name> [WHERE <predicate>];
4. UPDATE <table name> SET <column name> = <new value> [WHERE <predicate>];
5. CREATE TABLE <table name> (<column name> <data type> [(size)] <column
constraint>, <column name> <data type> [(size)] <column constraint>, ... <table
constraint> (<column name> [<column name> ...]) ...);
6. CREATE VIEW <view name> [(<column name>, <column name>,...)] AS
<SELECT command>;
7. ALTER TABLE <table name> ADD / MODIFY <column name> <data type> <size>;
8. DROP TABLE <table name>;
9. DROP VIEW <view name>;

Long Answer Questions

Q1. Consider the following tables ACTIVITY and COACH. Write SQL commands for the
statements (i) to (iv) and give outputs for SQL queries (v) to (viii).
Table: ACTIVITY
ACode ActivityName ParticipantsNu PrizeMoney ScheduleDate
m
1001 Relay 100x4 16 10000 23-Jan-2004
1002 High jump 10 12000 12-Dec-2003
1003 Shot Put 12 8000 14-Feb-2004
1005 Long Jump 12 9000 01-Jan-2004
1008 Discuss Throw 10 15000 19-Mar-2004

Page 41
 Table: COACH
PCode Name ACode
1 Ahmad Hussain 1001
2 Ravinder 1008
3 Janila 1001
4 Naaz 1003

(i) To display the name of all activities with their Acodes in descending order.
(ii) To display sum of PrizeMoney for each of the Number of participants groupings
(as shown in column ParticipantsNum 10,12,16).
(iii) To display the coach’s name and ACodes in ascending order of ACode from the
table COACH.
(iv) To display the content of the GAMES table whose ScheduleDate earlier
than 01/01/2004 in ascending order of ParticipantNum.
(v) SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT ParticipantsNum) FROM ACTIVITY;
(vi) SELECT MAX(ScheduleDate),MIN(ScheduleDate) FROM ACTIVITY;
(vii) SELECT SUM(PrizeMoney) FROM ACTIVITY;
(viii) SELECT DISTINCT ParticipantNum FROM COACH;

Ans : (i) SELECT ActivityName, ACode FROM ACTIVITY ORDER BY Acode DESC;
(ii) SELECT SUM(PrizeMoney),ParticipantsNum FROM ACTIVITY GROUP
BY ParticipantsNum;
(iii) SELECT Name, ACode FROM COACH ORDER BY ACode;
(iv) SELECT * FROM ACTIVITY WHERE ScheduleDate<’01-Jan-2004’ ORDER
BY ParticipantsNum;
(v) 3
(vi) 19-Mar-2004 12-Dec-2003
(vii) 54000
(viii) 1
6

1
0

1
2
Q2. Consider the following tables GAMES and PLAYER. Write SQL commands for
the statements (i) to (iv) and give outputs for SQL queries (v) to (viii).
Table: GAMES
GCode GameName Number PrizeMoney ScheduleDate
101 Carom Board 2 5000 23-Jan-2004
102 Badminton 2 12000 12-Dec-2003
103 Table Tennis 4 8000 14-Feb-2004
105 Chess 2 9000 01-Jan-2004
108 Lawn Tennis 4 25000 19-Mar-2004
Table: PLAYER
PCode Name Gcode
1 Nabi Ahmad 101
2 Ravi Sahai 108
3 Jatin 101
4 Nazneen 103

(i) To display the name of all Games with their Gcodes.

Page 42
 (ii) To display details of those games which are having PrizeMoney more than
7000. (iii)To display the content of the GAMES table in ascending order of
ScheduleDate.
(iv) To display sum of PrizeMoney for each of the Number of participation groupings
(as shown in column Number 2 or 4).
(v) SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT Number) FROM GAMES;
(vi) SELECT MAX(ScheduleDate),MIN(ScheduleDate) FROM GAMES;
(vii) SELECT SUM(PrizeMoney) FROM GAMES;
(viii) SELECT DISTINCT Gcode FROM PLAYER;

Ans : (i) SELECT GameName,Gcode FROM GAMES;

(ii) SELECT * FROM GAMES WHERE PrizeMoney>7000;
(iii) SELECT * FROM GAMES ORDER BY ScheduleDate;
(iv) SELECT SUM(PrizeMoney),Number FROM GAMES GROUP BY Number;
(v) 2
(vi) 19-Mar-2004 12-Dec-2003
(vii) 59000
(viii) 1
0
1
1
0
3
1
0
8

Q3. Consider the following tables HOSPITAL. Give outputs for SQL queries (i) to (iv) and write
SQL commands for the statements (v) to (viii).
No Name Age Department Dateofadmin Charge Sex
1 Arpit 62 Surgery 21/01/06 300 M
2 Zayana 18 ENT 12/12/05 250 F
3 Kareem 68 Orthopedic 19/02/06 450 M
4 Abhilash 26 Surgery 24/11/06 300 M
5 Dhanya 24 ENT 20/10/06 350 F
6 Siju 23 Cardiology 10/10/06 800 M
7 Ankita 16 ENT 13/04/06 100 F
8 Divya 20 Cardiology 10/11/06 500 F
9 Nidhin 25 Orthopedic 12/05/06 700 M
10 Hari 28 Surgery 19/03/06 450 M

(i) Select SUM(Charge) from HOSPITAL where Sex=’F’;

(ii) Select COUNT(DISTINCT Department ) from HOSPITAL;
(iii) Select SUM(Charge) from HOSPITAL group by Department;
(iv) Select Name from HOSPITAL where Sex=’F’ AND Age > 20;
(v) To show all information about the patients whose names are having four characters only.
(vi) To reduce Rs 200 from the charge of female patients who are in Cardiology department.
(vii) To insert a new row in the above table with the following
data : 11, ‘Rakesh’, 45, ‘ENT’, {08/08/08}, 1200, ‘M’
(viii) To remove the rows from the above table where age of the patient > 60.

Ans : (i) 1200

(ii) 4

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 (iii) 1050
700
11
50
13
00
(iv) Dhanya
(v) SELECT * FROM HOSPITAL WHERE NAME LIKE “_ _ _ _”;
(vi) UPDATE HOSPITAL SET CHARGE = CHARGE – 200 WHERE (DEPARTMENT
= ‘CARDIOLOGY’ AND SEX = ‘F’);
(vii) INSERT INTO HOSPITAL VALUES(11,‘Rakesh’,45,‘ENT’,{08/08/08}, 1200, ‘M’);
(viii) DELETE FROM HOSPITAL WHERE AGE > 60;

Q4. Consider the following tables BOOKS. Write SQL commands for the statements (i) to (iv)
and give outputs for SQL queries (v) to (viii).
Table : BOOKS
B_Id Book_Name Author_Name Publisher Price Type Quantity
C01 Fast Cook Lata Kapoor EPB 355 Cookery 5
F01 The Tears William Hopkins First 650 Fiction 20
T01 My C++ Brain & Brooke FPB 350 Text 10
T02 C++ Brain A.W.Rossaine TDH 350 Text 15
F02 Thuderbolts Anna Roberts First 750 Fiction 50
i). To list the names from books of Text type.
ii). To display the names and price from books in ascending order of their
price. iii). To increase the price of all books of EPB publishers by 50.
iv). To display the Book_Name, Quantity and Price for all C++
books. v). Select max(price) from books;
vi). Select count(DISTINCT Publishers) from books where Price >=400;
vii). Select Book_Name, Author_Name from books where Publishers =
‘First’; viii). Select min(Price) from books where type = ‘Text’;

Ans : (i) SELECT Book_Name FROM BOOKS WHERE Type = ‘Text’;

(ii) SELECT Book_Name, Price FROM BOOKS ORDER BY Price;
(iii) UPDATE BOOKS SET Price = Price + 50 WHERE Publisher = ‘EPB’;
(iv) SELECT Book_Name, Quantity, Price FROM BOOKS WHERE Book_Name
LIKE ‘%C++%’;
(v) 750
(vi) 2
(vii) The Tears William
Hopkins Thuderbolts Anna
Roberts
(viii) 350

Q5. Consider the tables ITEMS & COMPANY. Write SQL commands for the statements (i) to
(iv) and give the outputs for SQL queries (v) to (viii).
Table : ITEMS
ID PNAME PRICE MDATE QTY
T001 Soap 12.00 11/03/2007 200
T002 Paste 39.50 23/12/2006 55
T003 Deodorant 125.00 12/06/2007 46
T004 Hair Oil 28.75 25/09/2007 325
T005 Cold Cream 66.00 09/10/2007 144
T006 Tooth Brush 25.00 17/02/2006 455

Page 44
 Table : COMPANY
ID COMP City
T001 HLL Mumbai
T008 Colgate Delhi
T003 HLL Mumbai
T004 Paras Haryana
T009 Ponds Noida
T006 Wipro Ahmedabad

i). To display PNAME, PRICE * QTY only for the city Mumbai.
ii). To display product name, company name & price for those items which IDs are
equal to the IDs of company.
iii). To delete the items produced before 2007.
iv). To increase the quantity by 20 for soap and paste.
v). SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ITEMS WHERE ITEMS.ID=COMPANY.ID;
vi). SELECT PNAME FROM ITEMS WHERE PRICE=SELECT MIN(PRICE)
FROM ITEMS;
vii). SELECT COUNT(*) FROM COMPANY WHERE COMP LIKE “P_ _ _ _”;
viii). SELECT PNAME FROM ITEMS WHERE QTY<100;

Ans : (i) SELECT PNAME, QTY*PRICE FROM ITEMS WHERE ITEMS.ID =

COMPANY.ID
AND COMPANY.City=’Mumbai’;
(ii) SELECT PNAME, COMP, PRICE FROM ITEMS, COMPANY WHERE
ITEMS.ID
= COMPANY.ID
(iii) DELETE FROM ITEMS WHERE MDATE < {01/01/2007};
(iv) UPDATE ITEMS SET QTY = QTY + 20 WHERE PNAME = ‘Soap’ OR
PNAME = ‘Paste’;
(v) 4
(vi) Soap
(vii) 2
(viii) Paste
Deodorant

Boolean Algebra
Introduction to Boolean Algebra & Laws
Boolean Algebra Rules
1 0+X=X Properties of 0
2 0.X=0
3 1+X=1 Properties of 1
4 1.X=X
5 X+X=X Idempotence Law
6 X.X=X
7 (X)= X Involution Law
8 X + X= 1 Complementarity Law
9 X . X= 0
10 X+Y=Y+X Commutative Law
11 X .Y = Y. X
12 X+(Y+Z)=(X+Y) +Z Associative Law
13 X (YZ) = (XY) Z

Page 45
 14 X (Y + Z) = XY + XZ Distributive Law
15 X + YZ = (X + Y) (X + Z)
16 X + XY = X Absorption Law
17 X . (X + Y) = X
18 X + XY = X +Y Third Distributive Law
19 (X + Y) = X. Y DeMorgan’s Theorem
20 (X.Y) = X+ Y
Short Answer Questions ( 2 marks)
Q1. State and verify Demorgan's Laws algebraically.
Ans : Demorgan's Laws are : (i) (X+Y)' = X'.Y' (i) (X.Y)' = X' + Y'
Verification
(X+Y)'.(X+Y) = X'.Y'.(X+Y) (X.Y)' + (X.Y) = (X' + Y') + (X.Y)
0 = X'.Y'.X + X'.Y'.Y 1 = (X' + Y' + X). (X' + Y' + Y)
0 = X'.X .Y'+ X'.0 1 = (X' + X + Y') . (X' + 1)
0 = 0 .Y'+ 0 1 = (1 + Y') . 1
0=0+0 1=1.1
0=0 1=1
L.H.S = R.H.S L.H.S = R.H.S
Q2. State and algebraically verify Absorption Laws.
Ans : Absorption Laws are : (i) X+X.Y = X (ii) X . (X + Y) = X
Verification:
L.H.S = X + X . Y L.H.S = X . ( X + Y )
= X.1 + X.Y = X.X + X.Y = X + X.Y
= X.(1 + Y) = X.(1 + Y)
= X.1 = X.1
=X =X
= R.H.S = R.H.S
Q3. State Distributive Laws. Write the dual of : X + XY = X + Y
Ans : Distributive laws are : (i) X . ( Y + Z ) = X.Y + X.Z (ii) X + Y.Z = (X + Y).(X + Z)
The dual form of X + XY = X + Y is X . ( X+ Y ) = X . Y
Q4. State any one form of Associative law and verify it using truth table.
Ans : Associative law states that : (i) X + (Y + Z) = (X + Y) + Z (ii) X.(Y.Z) = (X.Y).Z
Verification of X + (Y + Z) = (X + Y) + Z using truth table
X Y Z Y + Z X + Y X + (Y + Z) (X + Y) + Z
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 1 1 0 1 1
0 1 0 1 1 1 1
0 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1 1
1 0 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 0 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1

Q5. State the principle of duality in boolean algebra and give the dual of the following:
X.Y.Z + X.Y.Z+ X.Y.Z
Ans : Principle of duality states that from every boolean relation, another boolean relation can be
derived by : (i) changing each OR (+) sign to an AND (.) sign
(ii) changing each AND (.) sign to an OR (+) sign
(iii) replacing each 1 by 0 and each 0 by 1.
The dual form of X.Y.Z+ X.Y.Z+ X.Y.Z is (X+Y+Z) . (X+Y+Z) . (X+Y+Z)

Page 46
Q6. Explain about tautology and fallacy.
Ans : If result of any logical statement or expression is always TRUE or 1, it is called tautology.
If result of any logical statement or expression is always FALSE or 0, it is called fallacy.
For example, 1 + X = 1 is a tautology and 0 . X = 0 is a fallacy.

SOP & POS

Very Short Answer Questions ( 1 Mark)
Q1. Write the POS form of a Boolean function F, which is represented in a truth table as follows:
U V W F
Note: In POS, consider only the cases
0 0 0 1 those containing 0 in F column. For
0 0 1 0 the same rows, write sum of the
0 1 0 1 logical variables (Ex. U i.e. 0 in U
0 1 1 0 column, U' i.e. 1 for U column). Then
1 0 0 1 write the product form of all such
1 0 1 0 sum of logical terms.
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1
Ans : F(U,V,W) = ( U + V + W' ).( U + V' +W' ).( U' + V + W' )

Q2. Write the SOP form of a Boolean function G, which is represented in a truth table as follows:
X Y Z G
Note: In SOP, consider only the cases
0 0 0 0
those containing 1 in G column. For
0 0 1 1 the same rows, write product of the
0 1 0 1 logical variables (Ex. X' i.e. 0 in X
0 1 1 0 column, X i.e. 1 for X column). Then
1 0 0 0 write the sum form of all such
1 0 1 1 product of logical terms.
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0
Ans : G(X,Y,Z) = ( X' . Y' . Z ) + ( X' . Y .Z' ) + ( X . Y' . Z ) + ( X . Y . Z' )

Q3. Convert the following function into canonical SOP form.

F( A , B, C, D ) = ( 1, 4, 6, 8, 11, 13)
Ans : F( A , B, C, D ) = A' B' C' D + A' B C' D' + A' B C D' + A B' C' D' + A B' C D + A B C' D
(Note : Here 1 = 0001 A' B' C' D , 4 = 0100 A' B C' D' , 13 = 1101A B C' D ...)
Q4. Convert the following function into canonical SOP form.
F( A , B, C, D ) = ( 0, 3, 7, 9, 10, 14)
Ans : F( A , B, C, D ) = (A+ B+C+D) . (A+B+C'+D') . (A+B'+C'+D') . (A'+B+C+D') .
(A'+B+C'+D) . (A'+B'+C'+D)
(Note : Here 0 = 0000 A+ B+C+D , 3 = 0011 A+B+C'+D', 10 =
1010A'+B+C'+D...)
Q5. Convert the following function to its equivalent SOP shorthand notation.
F( A , B, C, D ) = ( 0, 3, 7, 9, 10, 14)
Ans : The equivalent SOP shorthand notation of F( A , B, C, D ) = ( 0, 3, 7, 9, 10, 14)
is F( A , B, C, D ) = ( 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 11, 12, 13, 15)
Q6. Convert the following function to its equivalent POS shorthand notation.
F( A , B, C, D ) = ( 1, 4, 6, 8, 11, 13)
Ans : The equivalent POS shorthand notation of F( A , B, C, D ) = ( 1, 4, 6, 8, 11, 13)
is F( A , B, C, D ) = ( 0, 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 10, 12, 14, 15)
 Karnaugh
Map Short Answer Questions ( 3 marks)
Q1. Reduce the following Boolean Expression using K-Map:
F( A, B, C, D ) = ( 0, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12, 13, 14 )
Ans :
CD
AB C'D' C'D CD CD'

A'B' 1 1 1
0 1 3 2

A'B 1 1 1
4 5 7 6

AB 1 1 1
12 13 14

AB' 1 1 1
8 9 10

There are 1 octet, 2 quads after eliminating the redundant

groups. Octet (m0, m2, m4, m6, m8, m10, m12, m14)
reduces to D' Quad (m2, m3, m6, m7) reduces to A'C
Quad ( m8, m9, m12, m13) reduces to
AC ' Hence, F( A, B, C, D ) = D' + A'C + AC '
Q2. Reduce the following Boolean Expression using K-
Map: F( A, B, C, D ) = ( 0, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 11, 15 )
Ans :
C+D
C+D C+D' C'+D' C'+D

A+B 0 0
0 1 3 2

A+B' 0 0 0
4 5 7 6

A'+B' 0
13 15 14

A'+B 0 0
8 9 11 10
There are 1 quad and 3 pairs after eliminating the redundant groups.
Quad (M3, M7, M11, M15) reduces to C' + D'
Pair ( M5, M7) reduces to A + B ' + D'
Pair ( M6, M7) reduces to A + B ' + C'
Pair ( M0, M8) reduces to B + C + D
Hence, F( A, B, C, D ) = (C' + D') . (A + B ' + D') . (A + B ' + C') . (B + C + D)
Q3. Reduce the following Boolean Expression using K-Map:
F( A, B, C, D ) = ( 2, 3, 4, 5, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15 )
Ans :
CD
AB C'D' C'D CD CD'

A'B' 1 1
0 1 3 2

A'B 1 1
4 5 7 6

AB 1 1 1
12 13 15 14

AB' 1 1
8 9 11 10

There are 2 quads and 2 pairs after eliminating the redundant groups.
Quad 1 (m2, m3, m10, m11) reduces to B'C
Quad 2 ( m10, m11, m14, m15) reduces to AC
Pair 1 (m4, m5) reduces to A' BC '
Pair 1 (m13, m15) reduces to ABD
Hence, F( A, B, C, D ) = B'C + AC + A'BC ' + ABD

Q4. Reduce the following Boolean Expression using K-Map: F(A,B,C,D)=(0,1,4,5,7,10,13,15)

Ans:
There are 2 quads and one block after eliminating the redundant groups.
Quad 1 (m0, m1, m4, m5) reduces to A' C '
Quad 2 ( m0, m2, m4, m6) reduces to B D
m10 = A B ' C D '
Hence, F( A, B, C, D ) = A' C ' + B D + A B ' C D '

C’D’ C’D CD CD’

A’B’ 1 1
1
A’B 1 1 1
5 7
AB 1 1
1
AB’ 3
1
 Basic Logic Gates
Note : A gate is simply an electronic circuit which operates on one or more signals to produce an
output signal. The three basic logic gates are NOT gate, OR gate, AND gate. NOR gate,
NAND gate, XOR gate, XNOR gate can be derived from these three basic gates. NOR and
NAND gates are called universal gates because any combinational circuit is possible using
NOR or NAND gates. Practice different questions based on logic gates.

Short Answer Questions ( 2 marks)

Q1. Write the equivalent Boolean Expression for the following Logic Circuit.

Ans : F ( P, Q ) = ( P’ + Q ) . ( P + Q’ )
Q2. Write the equivalent Boolean Expression for the following Logic Circuit.

Ans: F ( U , V ) = U’ . V + U . V’

Communication & Open Source Concepts

Very Short Answer Questions
Q1. What is a network?
Ans : A network is interconnected collection of autonomous computers that can share and
exchange information.
Q2. Mention the advantages of networking.
Ans : The advantages of networking are Resource sharing, Reliability, Reduced cost, Fast
communication.
Q3. Define server. Mention the types of servers.
Ans : A computer that facilitates the sharing of data, software, and hardware resources on the
network is termed as server. The two types of servers are non-dedicated & dedicated servers.
Q4. What is NIU? What does the MAC address refer to?
Ans : A Network Interface Unit is an interpreter that helps establish communication between the
server and workstations. The MAC address refers to the physical address assigned by NIC
manufacturer.
Q5. What are the different types of switching techniques?
Ans : The different types of switching techniques are circuit switching, Message switching and
packet switching.
Q6. What is a communication channel? Give examples of guided media & unguided media.
Ans : Communication channel means the connecting cables that link various workstations. The
examples of guided media are Twisted-pair cables, Coaxial cables, Fibre-optics cables. The
examples of unguided media are micro wave, radio wave, satellite, infrared wave etc.
Q7. Define the term Bandwidth. Give any one unit of Bandwidth.
Ans : Bandwidth is referred to the volume of information per unit of time that a transmission
medium (like an Internet connection) can handle.
OR
The amount of data that can be transmitted in a fixed amount of time is known as bandwidth.
For digital devices, the bandwidth is usually expressed in bits per second(bps) or bytes per
second. For analog devices, the bandwidth is expressed in cycles per second, or Hertz (Hz).
Q8. Expand : HTTP, FTP, TCP/IP, SLIP, PPP, NCP, GSM, TDMA, CDMA, WLL, PSTN.
Ans : HTTP : Hypertext Transfer Protocol, FTP : File Transfer Protocol
TCP/IP : Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol
SLIP : Serial Line Internet Protocol, PPP : Point to Point Protocol
NCP : Network Control Protocol, GSM : Global System for Mobile
TDMA : Time Division Multiple Access, CDMA : Code Division Multiple Access
WLL : Wireless Local Loop PSTN : Public Switched Telephone Network
Q9. What are the different types of networks?
Ans : The different types of networks are :
(a) Local Area Network (LAN): This computer network is confined to a localised area such
as an office or a campus.
(b) Metropolitan Area Network (MAN): This is the network that links computer facilities
within a city.
(c) Wide Area Network (WAN): This network spreads over large distances like across
countries or even continents.
Q10. What do you mean by network topology? What are the most popular topologies?
Ans : Topology refers to the way in which the workstations attached to the network are
interconnected. The most popular topologies are Bus Topology, Ring Topology, Star
Topology, Tree Topology.
Q11. What are the advantages of E-mail?
Ans : The advantages of E-mail are Low cost, Speed, Waste reduction, Ease of use, Record
maintenance, Patience.
Q12. What is WWW? What are the WWW attributes?
Ans : The World Wide Web (WWW) is a set of protocols that allow you to access any document
on the NET through a naming system based on URLs. The various WWW attributes are :
User-friendly, Multimedia documents, Hypertext and Hyperlinks, Interactive, Frames.
Q13. What is web browser? Give any two examples of web browsers.
Ans : A web browser is a WWW client that navigates through the WWW and displays web pages.
Examples of web browsers are Internet Explorer, Netscape Navigator and Mosaic.
Q14. Define the terms: Web site, Web page, Home page, Web portal.
Ans : Web site : A location on a net server is called a web site.
Web page: A document that uses Hypertext Transfer Protocol is called a Web page.
Home page : The top-level web page of a website is called Home page.
Web portal : The website which hosts other websites is called Web portal.
Q15. When do you prefer XML over HTML and why?
Ans : The first benefit of XML is that because you are writing your own markup language, you are
not restricted to a limited set of tags defined by proprietary vendors. Rather than waiting for
standards bodies to adopt tag set enhancements (a process which can take quite some time),
or for browser companies to adopt each other's standards, with XML, you can create your
own set of tags at your own pace.
Q16. Compare authorisation with authentication.
Ans : Authorisation determines whether the service provider has granted access to the web service
to the requestor. Authorisation is performed by asking the user a legal login id.
Authentication ensures that each entity involved in using a web service is what actually
claims to be. It is termed as password protection as the authorised user is asked to provide a
 valid password.
Q17. What is Firewall? How firewall protects our network?
Ans : The system designed to prevent unauthorised access to or from a private network is called
firewall. It is a device or set of devices configured to permit, deny, encrypt, decrypt, or proxy
all (in and out) computer traffic between different security domains based upon a set of rules
and other criteria.
Q18. What are cookies?
Ans : Cookies are messages that a Web server transmits to a Web browser so that the Web server
can keep track of the user’s activity on a specific Website.
Q19. How is a cracker different from a hacker? If someone has hacked your Website, to whom
you lodge the Complain?
Ans : A cracker is a malicious programmer who breaks into secure system whereas a hacker is
more interested in gaining knowledge about computer systems. If someone has hacked our
Website the complaint has to be lodged with the Police under IT Act.
Q20. What is Cyberlaw?
Ans : Cyberlaw is a generic term, which refers to all the legal and regulatory aspects of Internet
and the World Wide Web.
Q21. Expand : (i) FLOSS (ii) FSF (iii) OSI (iv) W3C
Ans : (i) FLOSS = Free Libre and Open Source Software
(ii) FSF = Free Software Foundation (iii) OSI = Open Source Initiative
(iv) W3C = World Wide Web Consortium
Q22. What is a computer virus? Write the basic types of viruses.
Ans : Computer virus is a malicious program that requires a host and is designed to make a system
sick. Broadly three types of viruses are File infectors, Boot Sector Viruses and Macro
viruses.
Q23. Define the terms : Trojan Horses, Worm, Spam.
Ans : Trojan Horses : It is code hidden in a program such as a game or spreadsheet that looks safe
to run but has hidden side effects.
Worm : A worm is a program designed to replicate.
Spam : It refers to electronic junk mail or junk newsgroup posting.
Q24. What is cloud computing? Write any two features of it.
Ans. The practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the Internet to store,
manage, and process data, rather than a local server or a personal computer
Features : 1. On demand self service 2. Broad network access
3. Resource pooling 4. Rapid elasticity
5. Measured service 6. Non dependence on local hardware
 Q1. Knowledge Supplement Organisation has set up its new centre at Mangalore for its office and
web based activities. It has 4 blocks of buildings as shown in the diagram below:

Block
C Block
Block D
A
Block
B
Centre to centre distances between various blocks Number of Computers
Black A to Block B 50 m Black A 25
Block B to Block C 150 m Block B 50
Block C to Block D 25 m Block C 125
Block A to Block D 170 m Block D 10
Block B to Block D 125 m
Block A to Block C 90Pmage 5

(a) Suggest a cable layout of connections between the blocks.

(b) Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. block) to house the server of this organisation with a
suitable reason.
(c) Suggest the placement of the following devices with justification
(i) Repeater (ii) Hub/Switch
(d) The organization is planning to link its front office situated in the city in a hilly region where
cable connection is not feasible, suggest an economic way to connect it with reasonably high
speed?
Ans : (a)
Layout 1
C
A
D

B
OR
Layout 2
Block Block Since the distance between Block
A C D A and Block B is quite short

B
(b) The most suitable place / block to house the server of this organisation would be Block C, as
this block contains the maximum number of computers, thus decreasing the cabling cost for
most of the computers as well as increasing the efficiency of the maximum computers in
the network.
(c) (i) For Layout 1, since the cabling distance between Blocks A and C, and that between B and
C are quite large, so a repeater each, would ideally be needed along their path to avoid loss
of signals during the course of data flow in these routes.
For layout 2, since the distance between Blocks A and C is large so a repeater would ideally
be placed in between this path
(ii) A hub/switch each would be needed in all the blocks, to interconnect the group of
cables from the different computers in each block.
(d) The most economic way to connect it with a reasonable high speed would be to use radio
wave transmission, as they are easy to install, can travel long distances, and penetrate
buildings easily, so they are widely used for communication, both indoors and outdoors. Radio
waves also have the advantage of being omni directional, which is they can travel in all the
directions from the source, so that the transmitter and receiver do not have to be carefully
aligned physically
 P a g e |1

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

GUWAHATI REGION

SPECIAL STUDY MODULE – MATHEMATICS

FOR
CLASS – XII (2015-16)

CHIEF PATRON:
SH. SANTOSH KUMAR MALL, IAS
(COMMISSIONER, KVS)

PATRON:
MR. C. NEELAP
(DEPUTY COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION)

GUIDE:
Sh. J. PRASAD, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION
Sh. D. PATLE, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHATI REGION
Dr. S. BOSE, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER, GUWAHTI REGION

COORDINATOR
Mr. SHESHANUJ SARKAR, PRINCIPAL, K.V. IOC NOOMATII

SUBJECT EXPERT
. Md. AMIR KHAN, PGT (Math) KV IOC NOONMATI
 P a g e |2

TARGET – 50

MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL

CLASS - XII

Topics Marks

1. Inverse trigonometric function 4

2. Properties of determinants 4
3. Solution of equations using matrix method 4
4. Continuity 4
5. Logarithmic differentiation 4
6. Word problems maxima/minima 6
7. Integral 4
8. Vector 4
9. . Three dimensional geometry 4
10. Linear programming 6
11. Probability (Baye’s Theorem) 6

Total Marks 50
 P a g e |3

MINIMUM LEARNING MATERIAL

TARGET – 50

1. Inverse trigonometric function (4 marks)

 x+ y 
Use tan −1 x + tan −1 y = tan −1  
 1 − xy 

 x− y 
tan −1 x − tan −1 y =
tan −1  
 1 + xy 

 2x 
2 tan −1 x = tan −1  2 
 1− x 

1 1 1 π

1. Prove that: tan -1  2  + tan -1  5  + tan -1  8  =
4

1 1 1  1 π

2. Prove that: tan -1  7  + tan -1  5  + tan -1  3  + tan -1  8  =
4

−1  1  −1  1   31 
tan −1  
3. Prove that: 2 tan  2  + tan  7  =  17 

x  x− y 
4. Find the value of tan −1   − tan −1  
 y  x+ y 
 1+ x − 1− x  π 1 −1
5. tan −1   = − cos x,
−1
≤ x ≤1
 1+ x + 1− x  4 2 2
 2x   3x − x3 
6. Prove the following: tan x + tan  1 − x 2  = tan  1 − 3 x 2  .
-1 -1  -1
 
4  12   33 
7. Prove that: cos −1   + cos −1   = cos −1  
5  13   65 

 8 3  36 
8. Prove that: sin −1   + sin −1   =
cos −1   .
 17  5  85 
π
9. Solve tan -1 2x + tan -1 3x =
4
 x −1   x +1  π
10. Find the value of x if tan -1  x − 2  + tan -1  x + 2  =
    4
 P a g e |4

 1 + sin x + 1 − sin x  x π
11. cot −1  =  , x ∈ (0, )
 1 + sin x − 1 − sin x  2 4
−1  1 − x  1
12. Solve tan =   tan −1 x, ( x > 0)
 1+ x  2
 1 + x2 −1 
13. Express in the simplest form tan −1  , x ≠ 0
 x 
 
-1 -1
14. Solve 2 tan (cos x) = tan (2 cosec x) .
1  1− x 
Prove tan −1 x
15. = cos −1   , x ∈ (0,1)
2  1+ x 

2. Properties of determinants(4 marks)

Using the properties of determinants, show that

1 x x2
1. 1 y y2 = (x – y)(y –z)(z – x) (C.B.S.E. 1991)
1 z z2

1 1 1
2. α β γ =( α − β )( β − γ )(γ − α ) C.B.S.E. 2006, 04)
βγ γα αβ

1 a a3
3. 1 b b3 = (a - b)(b - c)(c - a)(a + b + c) (C.B.S.E. 1997, 96 ,2000, 2003C)
1 c c3

x y z
2 2
4. x y z2 = xyz(x – y)(y – z)(z – x) (C.B.S.E. 2000)
3 3 3
x y z

α β γ
5. α2 β 2
γ2 = ( α − β )( β − γ )(γ − α ) ( α + β + γ ) ) (C.B.S.E. 2008, 05)
β +γ γ +α α + β

x + 4 2x 2x
6. 2x x + 4 2x = (5x + 4)(x – 4)2 (C.B.S.E. 1996)
2x 2x x + 4

a a+b a + 2b
7. a + 2b a a+b = 9 (a + b) b2 (C.B.S.E. 2008, 02)
a + b a + 2b a.
 P a g e |5

a−b−c 2a 2a
8. 2b b−c−a 2b = (a + b + c) 3 (C.B.S.E. 2007, 06, 04,2000C,1998,97)
2c 2c c−a−b

a + b + 2c a b
9. c b + c + 2a b = 2(a + b + c) 3 (C.B.S.E. 2006, 04, 1999)
c a c + a + 2b

a+x y z
10. x a+ y = a2 (a + x + y + z)
z (C.B.S.E. 2003)
x y a+z

11. Show that

1+ a 1 1
 1 1 1
1 1+ b =
1 abc 1 + + + 
 a b c
1 1 1+ c

12. Using the Properties of Determinants Prove that = 1 +a2+b2+c2

13. Using the properties of Determinants,show that = 2abc(a+ b + c)3

14. the Show that x = 2 is a root of equation = 0 and solve it Completely.

15. ) Using properties of determinants, solve the following for x:

=0

3. Matrix (4 marks)

1. Using matrices, solve the following system of equation:

2 x − 3 y + 5 z = 11 , 3 x + 2 y − 4 z = −5 , x + y − 2 z = −3

2. Using matrix method, solve the following system of equations :

3x-2y+3z=8. , 2x+y- z=1, 4x-3y+2z=4.

3. An amount of Rs 600 crores is spent by the government in three schemes. Scheme A is for saving girl
child from the cruel parents who don’t want girl child and get the abortion before her birth. Scheme B is
for saving of newlywed girls from death due to dowry. Scheme C is planning for good health for senior
citizen. Now twice the amount spent on Scheme C together with amount spent on Scheme A is Rs 700
 P a g e |6

crores. And three times the amount spent on Scheme A together with amount spent on Scheme B and
Scheme C is Rs 1200 crores. Find the amount spent on each Scheme using matrices? What is the
importance of saving girl child from the cruel parents who don’t want girl child and get the
abortion before her birth?

4. A school has to reward the students participating in co-curricular activities (Category I) ,with 100%
attendance (Category II) and class toppers (Category III) in a function. The sum of the numbers of all
the three category students is 6. If we multiply the number of students of category III by 2 and added to
the number of students of category I , we get 7. By adding the number of students of category II and III
with three times the number of students of category I we get 12.Form the matrix equation and solve it.
Do you think the school should add one more category to motivate the students for cleanliness? Give
your idea in brief.

1 2 3
5. if A =  3 − 2 1; Then show that A3-23A-40I=0
 
4 2 1

6. If
1 2 2 
A =  2 1 2  ; verify that A2 – 4A -5I = 0
 2 2 1 

 3 −2  0 1 
=
7. If , A =  and , I   Find ‘k’ so that A2=kA-2I. Ans : k=1
 4 −2  1 0 

0 1 2 
 
8. By using elementary operations find the inverse of the matrix 1 2 3
3 1 1 
9. There are three families. First family consists of 2 male members, 4 female members and 3 children.
Second family consists of 3 male members, 3 female members and 2 children. Third family consists of 2
male members, 2 female members and 5 children. Male member earns Rs 500 per day and spends Rs
300 per day. Female member earns Rs 400 per day and spends Rs 250 per day child member spends Rs
40 per day. Find the money each family saves per day using matrices? What is the necessity of saving in
the family?

4. Continuity (4 marks)

A function f is said to be continuous at x =a if LHL = RHL = f(a)

Find the unknown constant if the functions are continuous

k x 2 , x≤2
(1) f ( x ) = 
3, x>2
 P a g e |7

2 x − 1, if x < 2 
 
=
2. f ( x) =a, if x 2 
 x + 1, if x > 2 
 
2 x + 1, if x < 2 
 
=
(3) f ( x) =k, if x 2 
3 x − 1, if x > 2 
 

3ax + b, if x > 1 
 
=
(4) f ( x) =
11, if x 1 
5ax − 2b, if x < 1 
 
5, x ≤ 2

(5) f ( x )= ax + b, 2 < x < 10
21, x ≥ 10

 kx + 1, x ≤ π 
(6) f ( x) =  
cos x , if x > π 
 k ( x 2 + 2), if x ≤ 0 
(7) f ( x) =  
 3 x + 1, if x > 0 

λ ( x 2 − 2 x), if x ≤ 0 
(8) f ( x) =  
 4 x + 1, if x > 0 

ax + 1, x≤3
9. Find the relation between a and b so that f ( x ) =  is continues at x = 3.
bx + 3, x>3

 x 2 + ax + b, 0 ≤ x < 2

10. The function f (x) is defined as follows: f ( x) =  3 x + 2, 2 ≤ x ≤ 4
 2ax + 5b, 4 < x ≤ 8


If f is continuous on [0,8] find the values of a and b.

5. Logarithmic differentiation(4 marks)

Differentiate w.r. to x

dy
(1) If y =xcos x + (cos x)x, find .
dx
dy
(2) If y= x x + (cos x)sin x find
dx
(3) If x=a sin pt and y=b cospt, find the value of at t=0?
 P a g e |8

dy
(4) If x= a(cost+log tant/2) and y= asint find .
dx
d2y π
(5) If x = X = 4 sin3t & y = 4 cos3t, find 2
at t =
dx 3

( x − 3)( x 2 + 4)
(6) Differentiate with respect to x.
3x 2 + 4 x + 5

 cos x − sin x  dy
(7) ify= (sin x) x + tan −1   find .
 cos x + sin x  dx

(8) If xy = , then prove that =

(9) If xy + yx = ab
dy
(10) If ( cos x) y = ( cos y )x find
dx

7. Word problems maxima/minima (6 marks)

1. A given quantity of metal is to be cast into a half cylinder with a rectangular base and semicircular ends.
Show that in order that the total surface area is to be minimum, the ratio of the length of the cylinder to
the diameter of the its semicircular ends is π : ( π +2).

2. A window is in the form of a rectangle above which there is a semi-circle. If the perimeter of the
window is p cm, show that the window will allow the maximum possible light only when the radius of
p
the semi-circle is cm.
π +4
3. A window is in the form of a rectangle surmounted by a semi-circular opening. The total perimeter of
the window is 10 m. find the dimensions of the window so as to admit maximum light through the whole
opening.
4. An open box with a square base is to be made out of a given quantity of sheet of area a2. Show that
a3
the maximum volume of the box is .
6 3
5. If length of three sides of a trapezium other than base are equal to 10cm, then find the area of the
trapezium when it is maximum.
6. Show that the semi vertical angle of right circular cone of given surface area and maximum volume
1
is sin −1 .
3

(For self practice)

7. Prove that the radius of the right circular cylinder of greatest curved surface area which can be inscribed
in a given cone is half of that of the cone.
8. An open topped box is to be constructed by removing equal squares from each corner of a 3 metre by 8
metre rectangular sheet of aluminium and folding up the sides. Find the volume of the largest such box.
 P a g e |9

9. Show that the height of the cylinder of maximum volume that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius R is
2 R / 3.
10. Show that the volume of the largest cone that can be inscribed in a sphere is 8/27 of the volume of the
sphere.
11. Show that of all the rectangles of given area, the square has the smallest perimeter.
12. If the sum of the lengths of the hypotenuse and a side of a right angled triangle is given, show that the
area of the triangle is maximum when the angle between them is π / 3 .

Integral (4 marks)
1
∫ cos( x − a) cos( x − b) dx
1. Evaluate

x2 +1
∫e
x
2. Evaluate dx
( x + 1) 2

x +1
3. Evaluate ∫ ( x + 3) 3
e x dx

cos xdx
4. Evaluate  
(1 + sin x)(2 + sin x)

x 1 − sin x
5. Evaluate ( e ) dx.
1 − cos x

dx
6. Evaluate ∫ sin x + 3 cos x

cos x + sin x
7. ∫ 9 + 16sin 2 x dx
dx
8. Evaluate: ∫ x( x n
+ 1)
4
9. Evaluate the following: ∫ [x −1 + x − 2 + x − 3 ]dx
1

10. Evaluate:
 P a g e | 10

Three dimensional geometry

x −1 y − 2 z − 3 x−4 y −5 z −6
1. The eq. of the lines are = = and = = . Find the shortest distance
1 −3 2 2 3 1
between the above lines.

2. Find the shortest distance between the lines


r = iˆ + ˆj + λ (2iˆ - ˆj + kˆ) and

r = 2 î + ĵ - k̂ + µ (3î - 5ĵ + 2k̂)
3. Find the equation of the plane determined by the points A(3,-1,2), B(5,2,4) and C (-1,-1,6) .Also find
the distance of the point P( 6,5,9) from the plane .

4. Find the image of the point (1,3,4) in the plane x-y+z =5

5. Find the image of the point (1, 2, -1) in the plane 2x+y-z=2
6. By computing the shortest distance between the following lines, determine whether they intersect or
not?

( 
) (
r = iˆ − ˆj + λ 2iˆ + kˆ ; r = 2iˆ − ˆj + µ iˆ − ˆj − kˆ )

(
7. Find the equation of the plane which contains line of intersection of planes r . i + 2 j + 3k − 4 =
0, )

( )
r . 2i + j − k + 5 =
0 and which passes through the Point (1,0,-2).

8. Find the equation of the plane through 2iˆ + ˆj − kˆ and passing through the line of intersection of the
 
planes r ⋅ (iˆ + 3 ˆj − kˆ) = 0and r ⋅ ( ˆj + 2kˆ) = 0.
x + 1 3y + 5 3 − z
9. Find the angle between the line = = and the plane 10 x + 2 y − 11z = 3.
2 9 −6
10. Find the equation of planes passing through the point ( -1,-1,2) and perpendicular to the planes x + 2y -
3z =1 and 5x – 4y + 3z = 5

Vectors

1. Let = +4 +2 , = -2 +7 and =2 - + , find a vector which is

perpendicular to both vectors and = 15 .
2. If a and b are unit vectors and θ is the angle between them, then prove that cos θ/2 = ½ |a + b|
  
3. . If a , b , c be three mutually perpendicular vectors of equal magnitude ,then show
     
that ( a + b + c ) is equally inclined to the vectors a , b and c .
 P a g e | 11

4. If the sum of two unit vector aˆ and bˆ is a unit vector, find the magnitude of their difference.
        
5. Prove that [ a + b b + c c + a ]= 2[ a , b , c ]
   
( ) 
6. If vectors a, b, c satisfy the condition a + b + c =0and  a = 1,  b = 4,

 c = 2 than
  
find the value of a.b + b.c + c.a
     
7. If a = 3iˆ − ˆj and β = 2iˆ + ˆj − 3kˆ. Express β as a sum of two vectors β 1 and β 2 , where β 1 is
  
Parallel to α αnd β 2 is perpendiculαr to α .
Linear programming problems (6 marks)
1. Niharika wants to invest at most Rs.12000 in Saving certificate (SC) and National saving bonds
(NSB).She has to invest at least Rs.2000 in SC and at least Rs.4000 in NSB. If the rate of interest on SC is
8% pa. And the rate of interest on NSB 10% pa. How much money should she invest to earn maximum
yearly income? Also find the maximum income.
2. A dealer wishes to purchase number of fans and sewing machines . He has only Rs. 5760 to invest and
has a space for at most 20 items . A fan cost him Rs. 360 and sewing machine Rs. 240 . His expectation is
that .He can sell a fan at profit of Rs. 22and sewing machine at a profit of Rs. 18 . Assuming that he can
sell all the items that he can buy , how should invest his money in order to maximize the profit ?Formulate
this as a linear programming problem and solve it graphically .

3. A diet is to contain at least 80 units of vitamin A and 100 units of minerals. Two foods F1and F2 are
available. Food F1 costs Rs 4 per unit food and F2 costs Rs 6 per unit. One unit of food F1 contains 3 units
of vitamin A and 4 units of minerals. One unit of food F2 contains 6 units of vitamin A and 3 units of
minerals. Formulate this as a linear programming problem. Find the minimum cost for diet that consists of
mixture of these two foods and also meets the minimal nutritional requirements?
4. A dietician wishes to mix two types of foods in such a way that vitamin contents of the mixture contain at
least 8 units of vitamin A and 10 units of vitamin C. Food one ,contains 2 units/Kg of vitamin A and 1
unit/Kg of vitamin C .Food second contains 1 unit/Kg of vitamin A and 2 units/Kg of vitamin C. It costs
Rs.50 per kg to food one and Rs70 perKg to purchase food second. Formulate this problem as a linear
programming problem to minimise the cost of such a mixture.

5. An aero plane can carry a maximum of 200 passengers. A profit of Rs.400 is made on each first class ticket
and a profit of Rs. 300 is made on each second class ticket. The airline reserves at least 20 seats for first
class. However at least four times as many passengers prefer to travel by second class than by first class.
Determine how many tickets of each type must be sold to maximize profit for the airline. Form an L.P.P.
and solve it graphically. Do you think that in India people would like to travel by economy class than
executive class? Give reason.

Probability
1. In a bolt factory, three machines A, B, C manufacture 25%, 35% and 40% of the total production
respectively. Of their respective output, 5%, 4% and 2% are defective. A bolt is drawn at random from the
 P a g e | 12

total product and it is found to be defective. Find the probability that it was manufactured by the machine
C.

2. By examining the chest X-ray , the probability that TB is detected when a person actually suffering is
0.99 . The probability of incorrect diagnosis is 0.001. In a certain city one in thousand persons suffer from
TB . A person selected at random and is diagnosed to have TB. What is the chance that he actually has TB.

3. There are three coins.One is a two headed coin (having head on both faces) ; another a
biased coin that comes up with tail 25% of times. And third is an unbiased coin . One of the
three coins is chosen at random and tossed. If it shows head ,what is the probability that it
was a two headed coin?

4. In answering a question on a multiple choice test, a student either knows the answer or
guesses. Let ¾ be the probability that he knows the answer and ¼ be the probability that he
guesses. Assuming that a student who guesses at the answer will be correct with the
probability 1/4. What is the probability that the student knows the answer given that he
answered it correctly?
5. A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost , From the remaining cards of the pack, two card are
drawn and are found to be both diamonds. Find the probability of lost card being a diamond.

6. An insurance company insured 2000 scooter drivers, 4000 car drivers and 6000 truck drivers.
The probability of an accident involving a scooter ,a car and a truck are 0.01, 0.03 and 0.15
respectively. One of the insured person meets with an accident. What is the probability that
he is a scooter driver . Which mode of transport would you suggest to a student and why?

7. Suppose that the reliability of a HIV test is specified as follows: Of people having HIV, 90%
of the test detect the disease but 10% go undetected. Of people free of HIV, 99% of the test
are judged HIV–ive but 1% are diagnosed as showing HIV+ive. From a large population of
which only 0.1% have HIV, one person is selected at random, given the HIV test, and the
pathologist reports him/her as HIV+ive. What is the probability that the person actually has
HIV? What moral advice should you give to your peers so that they will not get infected by
HIV virus?

INVERSE TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTION

Ans. 1
 1 1 
 
1  
1  
1  2+5  1
-1   -1   -1  
tan  2  + tan  5  + tan  8  = tan -1   + tan −1
11 8
 1− 
 25
 P a g e | 13

 7 
  1 7 1 π
tan −1  10  + tan −1 =tan −1   + tan −1 =tan −1 1 =
 9 8 9 8 4
 
10

Ans. 2

Ans. 3

1 1 4 1  31 

2 tan −1   + tan −1   = tan −1   + tan −1   = tan −1  
2 7 3 7  17 

Ans. 4

x  x− y  x( x + y ) − y ( x − y )
tan −1   − tan −1  =tan −1
 y  x+ y  y ( x + y ) + x( x − y )

π
2
x 2 + xy − yx + y
−1
=
tan tan −1 1
yx + y + x − xy )
2 2
4

Ans. 5

Put x = cos2 ⇒ x

Thus,LHS = tan-1
 P a g e | 14

⇒ = tan-1 [ ]
⇒ = tan-1 [ ] = – = - =RHS
Ans. 6
 3x − x3 
LHS = tan x + tan 2x =3 tan 3x = tan  1 − 3 x 2 
-1 -1 -1 -1
 
Ans. 7
4 3  12   5
cos −1   = tan −1 +, cos −1   = tan −1  
5 4  13   12 
4  12  3  5
LHS = cos −1   + cos −1   = tan −1 + tan −1  
5  13  4  12 
 56  33
tan −1   = cos −1
=  33  65
Ans 8
Proceed as above
Ans 9
5x π
LHS = tan -1 =
1− 6x 2
4
5x
⇒ =1
1 − 6x2
⇒ 6x2 +5x -1 =0 solving we get

Ans. 10

Ans. 11
 P a g e | 15

 x x x x 
   (cos + sin ) 2 + (cos − sin ) 2 
1 + sin x + 1 − sin x 2 2 2 2
LHS = cot −1  −1
 
 1 + sin x − 1 − sin x  = cot  
  x x 2 x x 2
 (cos + sin ) − (cos − sin ) 
 2 2 2 2 

−1  x x
=
cot  co t 
 2 2

Ans. 12

Ans. 14

Ans. 14

2 tan-1(cos x) = tan-1(2 cosec x)

⇒tan-1 (2cosx/1-cos2 x) = tan-1(2 cosec x)

 P a g e | 16

⇒ 2cos x= 2 cosec x (1-cos2 x)

⇒ 2 sin x cos x= 2- 2 cos 2 x

Ans. 15

Determinant
Ans . 1

Applying R2→ R2 – R1 ,and R3 → R3 – R1

Taking (y-x) and (z-x) common and expanding

Ans . 3

Applying R2→ R2 – R1 ,and R3 → R3 – R1

Taking (b-a) and (c-a) common and expanding

Ans. 4

Taking x,y,z common from R1 , R2 , R3

applying C2→ C2 – C1 ,and C3 → C1 and taking (y-x) and (z-x) common then expanding

Ans. 5

R3 → R3 + R1 and taking common (α+β+ϒ)

Applying C2→ C2 – C1 ,and C3 → C1 and taking (β-α) and (ϒ-α) common and expanding

Ans. 6

C1 → C1 + C2 + C3 After taking common (5x + 4 ) from first column then apply R2→ R2- R1 and R3→ R3-
R1 and then expanding along first column

Ans7

Applying R1 → R1 + R2 +R3 taking 3(a + b) common and expanding

Ans 8
 P a g e | 17

Apply C1 → C1 + C2 + C3 After taking common 2(a+b+c) from first column then apply R2→ R2- R1 and
R3→ R3- R1 and then expanding along first column

Ans . 9

C1 → C1 + C2 + C3 After taking common (a+b+c) from first column then apply R2→ R2- R1 and R3→ R3-
R1 and then expanding along first column
Ans. 10
Apply C1 → C1 + C2 + C3 After taking common (a+x+y+z) from first column then apply R2→ R2- R1 and
R3→ R3- R1 and then expanding along first column
Ans. 11
1 1 1
+1
a b c
1 1 1
=∆ abc +1
a b c
1 1 1
+1
a b c
 1 1 1
ApplyC1 → C1 + C2 + C3 taking 1 + + +  common from C1 then expanding
 a b c
Ans.12
By performing R1→ aR1 , R2→ bR2 and R3→ cR3 and dividing the
Determinant by abc , By taking common a , b, c from C1 , C2 and C3 respectively.

Applying R1→ R1 + R2 + R3 and 1+a2 +b2 +c2 common and expanding

Ans . 13

i) By performing R1→ aR1 , R2→ bR2 and R3→ cR3 and dividing the

Determinant by abc

ii) By taking common a , b and c from C1 , C2 and C3 respectively

iii) Apply C1→ C1- C2 and C2→ C2- C3 and take common a+b+c from C1 and C2

iv) Apply R3→ R3 – ( R1 + R2 ) and Apply C1→ C1 +C2

v) Apply C1→ aC1 , C2→ bC2 anddividing the Det by abc

vi) Apply C1→ C1 + C3 and C2→ C2 + C3

Ans . 14

First apply R1→ R1- R2 and R2→ R2- R3 and take common 5 and ( x – 2 ) from R2 and R1

Then Apply C1→ C1 + C3Ans : x = 2 , 1 and -3.

Ans. 15

1) ApplyC1 → C1 + C2 + C3 and take common ( 3a – x ) from C1 then Apply R2→ R2- R1

andR3→ R3- R1 Ans : x = 0 , 0 and 3a.
 P a g e | 18

MATRIX
ANS. 1
2 − 3 5   11   x
A = 3 2 − 4 and , B = − 5, X =  y 
   
1 1 − 2 − 3  z 

A = 2(−4 + 4) + (−6 + 4) + 5(3 − 2) = −6 + 5 = −1 ≠ 0

∴ A−1exists

A11 = 0, A12 = 2, A13 = 1, A21 = −1, A22 = −9, A23 = −5

A31 = 2, A32 = 23, A33 = 13

0 − 1 2 
AdjA= 2 − 9 23
1 − 5 13 

0 − 1 2 
= (−1) 2 − 9 23
−1AdjA
A =
A
1 − 5 13 

Now X=A-1B

 x   0 1 − 2   11 
 y  = − 2 9 − 23 − 5
    
 z   − 1 5 − 13  − 3

 x   0 + 6 − 5  1 
 y  = − 22 − 45 + 69 = 2
     
 z   − 11 − 25 + 39  3

x = 1, y = 2, z = 3

Ans. 2

The given equation can be written in matrix form as

 3 − 2 3   x  8 
2 1 − 1  y  = 1 
    
4 − 3 2   z  4

or AX=B (say) ……….. (1)

 P a g e | 19

now A =3(2-3)+2(4+4)+3(-6-4)

=-17 ≠ 0

∴ A-1 exists.

Now,A11=+(2-3)=-1, A12=-(4+4)=-8, A13=+(-6-4)=-10

A21=-(-4+9)=-5, A22=+(6-12)=-6, A23=-(-9+8)=1

A31=+(2-3)=-1, A32=-(-3-6)=9, A33=+(3+4)=7A

 − 1 − 5 − 1

∴ Adj A =  − 8 − 6 9 
 ∴ A-1=
1
(Adj.A)
A
− 10 1 7 

 − 1 − 5 − 1
− 8 − 6 9 
1 
=
− 17 
− 10 1 7 

By (1), X=A-1B

 − 1 − 5 − 1 8 
− 8 − 6 9  1 
1 
= 
− 17
− 10 1 7  4

 −8−5− 4 
−1 
=  − 64 − 6 + 36
17
 − 80 + 1 + 28 

 x  − 17  1 
  −1 
⇒  y =  − 34 =  2
 
17
 z   − 51 3

∴ x=1, y=2 and z=3 (ans.)

Ans. 3

For finding equations x+y+z = 600,x+2z=700,3x+y+z=1200

For finding A X and B
For finding A-1 and x,y,z
For value
 P a g e | 20

Ans.4
For finding equations x+y+z = 6,x+2z=7,3x+y+z=12 finding A X and B

For finding A-1 and x,y,z

For value

Ans. 5

19 4 8   63 46 69
A = 1 12 8 ;.. A = 69 − 6 23
2   3
   
14 6 15 92 46 63

Ans. 6

K=1

Ans. 8

write A =IA , Apply R1<→ R2;R3→ R3-3R1;R1→ R1-2R2.;R3→ R3 +5R2.;R3→ 1/2R3;

R1→ R1+R3.; R2→ R2-R3.;
1 / 2 − 1 / 2 1 / 2
A = −4
−1
3 −1
 
5 / 2 − 3 / 2 1 / 2

Ans. 9

2 4 3  200 
A = 3 3 2  , B 150  find AB
 
 2 2 5   −40 

Continuity
Ans. 1

LHL = 5K

RHL = 3 and f(2) =5k ⇒ K =3/5

Ans. 2

LHL =3

RHL =3 , f(2) =a ⇒ a =3

Ans. 3

LHL =5
 P a g e | 21

RHL =5 , f(2) =k ⇒ k =5

Ans. 4

LHL = 5a -2b = f(1) = 11

RHL = 3a +b = f(1) = 11

Solving them we get a=2, b=5

Ans. 5

LHL = 5 , RHL = 2a+b, f(2) =5

LHL = 10 a+b , RHL = 21 , f(10)=21

2a+b =5 and 10a+b =21 solving a=2,b=1

Ans. 6

LHL = πk+1

RHL = -1, f(π)= πk+1 k =-2/π

Ans. 7

LHL = 2k

RHL = 1, f(0)=2k ⇒ k =1/2

Ans. 8

LHL =0 , RHL =1,f(0)=0 no value of λ for which it is continuous.

Ans. 9

LHL = 3a+1, RHL = 3b+3 , f(3)= 3a+1

3a+1=3b+3 ⇒ 3a-3b=2

Ans. 10

LHL =2a+b+4,RHL = 8,f(2)=8

LHL =14, RHL = 8a+5b,f(4) =14

Thus 2a+b=4, 8a+5b=14 solving we get b=-2,a=3

 P a g e | 22

Differentiation
Ans. 1
cos x sin x
Putting U = x and V = (cos x)
dU  cos x 
= x cos x  − sin x log x 
Finding dx  x 

= (cos x) sin x (cos x log cos x − sin x tan x )

dV
Finding dx

dy
Writing the value of
dx

Ans. 2

y = x x + (cos x)sin x

Let U = x,V = (cos x)sin x

dy dU dV
Y=U+V, so = +
dx dx dx

Now, U = x x ⇒ logU = x log x

1 dU 1
= x. + log x
U dx x

dU
= x x (1 + log x)
dx

dV
Similarly = (cos x)sin x (cos x log cos x − sin x tan x)
dx

dy
= x x (1 + log x) + (cos x)sin x (cos x log cos x − sin x tan x)
dx

Ans. 3

dx
= appt cos
dt
dy
= −bppt sin
dt
dy b
= − tan pt
dx a
2
d y b
= − 2 sec3 pt
dx 2 a
d2y b
= − 2
dx 2 at t = 0 a
 P a g e | 23

Ans.4

Ans. 5

X = 4 sin3t & y = 4 cos3t

dx dy
= 12 sin2t cost & = - 12 cos2t sint
dt dt
dy
dy
= dt = - cot t
dx dx
dt
2
d y d dt cos ec 4 t
= (− cot t ) =
dx 2 dt dx 12 cos t
 P a g e | 24

d2y
 2  =8/27
 dx  at t =π / 3
Ans. 6
( x − 3)( x 2 + 4)
Let , y =
3x 2 + 4 x + 5
Taking logarithm on both side, we have
log y =
1
2
{ }
log( x − 3) + log( x 2 + 4) − log(3 x 2 + 4 x + 5)

Differentiating b/s w.r.t. x

1 dy 1  1 2x 6x + 4 
=  + − 
y dx 2  x − 3 x 2 + 4 3 x 2 + 4 x + 5 

dy 1 ( x − 3)( x 2 + 4)  1 2x 6x + 4 
∴ =  + − 
dx 2 3x + 4 x + 5 
2 x − 3 x + 4 3x + 4 x + 5 
2 2

Ans.7
 cos x − sin x 
Let y = (sin x) x + tan −1  
 cos x + sin x 
1 − tan x
= e log(sin x ) + tan −1
x

1 + tan x
π
= e x log(sin x ) + tan −1 {tan( − x)}
4
π
= e x log(sin x ) + ( − x)}
4
dy
⇒ = e x log(sin x ) ( x cot x + log sin x) − 1
dx
Ans.8
Taking log both side
Ylogx = x-y differentiating w.r.t x

y
+ y / log x = 1− y/
x
x − y y log x
y / (1 + log x) = =
x x

x log x log x
y / (1 + log
= x) =
x(1 + log x) 1 + log x

Ans. 9

Put u=xy and v=yx and take log both side we get log u = y log x and log v=xlog y
 P a g e | 25

du y dv x /
= + y / log x, = y + log y
dx x dx y

du dv y x
+ = + y / log x + y / + log y =0
dx dx x y

Solving we get dy/dx

Ans. 10

Taking log both side ylog cosx = x log cos y Differentiating wrt x we get

y log cosx = x log cos y

y / log cos x − y tan x= log cos y − x tan yy /
y / (log cos x + x tan y ) = log cos y + y tan x
dy log cos y + y tan x
=
dx (log cos x + x tan y )

Maxima minima
Ans.1
Let r and h be the radius and the height of the solid
1
V = π r 2 h,...S = π rh + π r 2 + 2rh
2
V 2V (π + 2 )
S =(π + 2 ) r.2 2 + π r 2 = + π r2
πr πr
dS 2V (π + 2 ) h π
=0 ⇒ =2π r.... ⇒ =
dr πr 2
2r π + 2
2
d S
isnegative
dr 2

Ans. 2

For drawing the diagram

P − 2 y − πy
2x + 2y + π y = P ⇒ x =
2
 P a g e | 26

2 πy 2
Area = py -2y -
2

dA P
=0⇒ y =
dy π +4
d2A P
= −4 − π < 0 for y =
dy 2
π +4
p
∴ radius of the semi-circle is cm
π +4
Ans.3as above

Ans.4

l = b = x, height = y
a2 − x2
x2 + 4xy = a2 ⇒ y =
4x
Volume =
1 2
4
(
a x − x3 )
dV a
=0⇒ x=
dx 3
2
= (− 6 x ) d 2V 
d V 1
dx 2 4 <0

dx 2  x = a
3
3
a
Maximum Volume =
6 3

Ans 5

The required trapezium is as given in fig. Draw perpendiculars DP and CQ on AB.

Let AP = x cm. Note that APD ~ BQC. Therefore, QB = x cm. Also, by

Pythagoras theorem, DP = QC = .
 P a g e | 27

Let A be the area of the trapezium. Then

Ans.6

Let r, h, l ,S and V be the radius, hight, slant

hight. surface area and the volume of the cone.

α
h l

r
 P a g e | 28

S π rl + π r 2
=
S −π r2
l=
πr
1 2 1 2 4 2
and =
V π r h ⇒ V=
2
π r h
3 9

dv 2
=0
dr
1
(2rS 2 − 8Sπ r 3 ) =
0
9
r 1
min ⇒ =
l 3
d 2V 2
now 2
(at S 4π r 2 ) < o
=
dr
∴V is max imum.
2

∴V is max imum.

r 1
sin α= =
Now l 3
1
α = sin −1 ( ).
3

Ans. 7

Let OC = r be the radius of the cone and OA = h be its height. Let a cylinder with radius OE = x inscribed in the
given cone (Fig 6.20). The height QE of the cylinder is given by
 P a g e | 29

Ans.8

Let x metre be the length of a side of the removed squares. Then, the height
of the box is x, length is 8 – 2x and breadth is 3 – 2x (Fig 6.25). If V(x) is the volume
of the box, then

Integral

Ans.1
r r
Nr expressing sin(a – b) = sin [(x-b)-(x-a)]
Multiplying sin(a – b) in N & D . Apply In
Applying the formulae sin(A-B)

1 sin( x − b) cos( x − a ) − cos( x − b) sin( x − a )

I=
sin(a − b) ∫ cos( x − a ) cos( x − b)
dx
Simplification
1
sin(a − b) ∫
= I (tan( x − b) − tan( x − a ))dx

1  cos( x − a ) 
=
Getting the result I log +C
sin(a − b)  cos( x − b) 
 P a g e | 30

Ans.2

x2 +1 x  x −1 2 
∫ e ( x + 1) 2 dx = ∫ e  x + 1 + ( x + 1) 2  dx
x

x −1 2
= ∫ ex dx + ∫ e x dx
x +1 ( x + 1) 2

x −1 x  d x −1 x  2
= e −∫ ∫ e dx  dx + ∫ e
x
dx
x +1  dx x + 1  ( x + 1) 2

x −1 x 2 2
= e − ∫ ex dx + ∫ e x dx +C
x +1 ( x + 1) 2
( x + 1) 2

x −1 x
= e +C
x +1

Ans.3

x +1 x x +3− 2 x
I= ∫ e dx = ∫ e dx
( x + 3) 3
( x + 3) 3
 1 2  x
= ∫  −  e dx
3 
 ( x + 3) 2
( x + 3) 
= ∫ e x ( f ( x) + f ′( x) ) dx where f(x) =
1
( x + 3) 2
1
= ex f(x) + c = ex +c
( x + 3) 2

Ans.4

cos xdx
∫ (1 + sin x)(2 + sin x) ; put sin x =
I= t ⇒ cos xdx =
dt

dy 1 1 dt dt
I=∫ (1 + t )(2 + t )
=∫ ( −
1+ t 2 + t
)dt =∫ 1+ t
−∫
2+t

1+ t
=I log +c
2+t

1 + sin x
=
Putting t = sin x we obtain I log +c
2 + sin x
 P a g e | 31

Ans.5

 
 1 − sin x   1 − sin x 
∫=
ex  ∫ e  2 x dx
x
I dx
 1 − cos x   2sin 
 2

 

I == ∫ e x 
1
−
2sin ( x / 2 ) cos ( x / 2 ) 
x x 
 2sin 2 2sin 2 
 2 2 

1 
∫e  cos ec ( x / 2 ) − cot ( x / 2 ) 
x 2 2
I
2 

I = e x cot ( x / 2 ) + c Since ∫ e x ( f ′( x) + f ( x) )dx =e x f ( x) + c

Ans 6

1 dx 1  π
=I ∫
2 1
=
3 2 ∫ sec  x − dx
 6
sin x + cos x
2 2
1  π  π
=I log sec  x −  + tan  x −  + C
2  6  6

t ⇒ (cosx+sinx)dx=dt and 1-sin2x=t2 ⇒ sin2x =1-t2 putting inI we get

Ans .7 Put....(sin x − cos x) =

dt 1 5 + 4 ( sin x − cos x )
I ∫=
25 − 16t 2
40
log
5 − 4 ( sin x − cos x )
+c

Ans.8

dx
I= ∫ x( x n
+ 1)
1
Substitute xn = t ⇒ dx = dt
n x n −1
1 dt
⇒ I= ∫
n t (t + 1)
1 1 1
= ∫( − )dt
n t t +1
1 t
= log +c
n t +1
1 xn
= log n +c
n x +1
 P a g e | 32

Ans 9

Let f ( x) = [ x − 1 + x − 2 + x − 3 ] ,
 4 − x, if 1 < x < 2

f ( x ) = [ x − 1 + x − 2 + x − 3 ] =  x, if 2 < x < 3
3 x − 6, if 3 < x < 4

b c d b
We know that , ∫ f ( x)dx = ∫ f ( x)dx + ∫ f ( x)dx + ∫ f ( x)dx, where a < c < d < b
a a c d

∫ [ x − 1 + x − 2 + x − 3 ]dx =∫ [ x − 1 + x − 2 + x − 3 ]dx + ∫ [ x − 1 + x − 2 + x − 3 ]dx + ∫ [ x − 1 + x − 2 + x − 3 ]dx

4 2 3 4

1 1 2 3
2 3 4
= ∫ (4 − x)dx + ∫ xdx + ∫ (3 x − 6)dx
1 2 3

19
=
2

Ans.10

I= ------------ (1)

π (π − x) tan(π − x)
I= ∫ 0 sec(π − x) + tan(π − x)
dx

π (π − x) tan x
I= ∫ 0 sec x + tan x
dx ------------(2)

Adding (1) & (2)

π
π tan x
2I = ∫ sec x + tan x dx
0

π
tan x
= π∫ dx
0
sec x + tan x

π
= π ∫ (tan x sec x − tan 2 x)dx
0

π
= π ∫ (tan x sec x − sec 2 x + 1)dx
0
 P a g e | 33

I=
1
[ π (sec x − tan x + x ) ]π0
2

1
= π (π − 2)
2

THREE DIMENSIONAL GEOMETRY

Ans.1
→ ∧ ∧ ∧ → ∧ ∧ ∧
Here a1 = i + 2 j + 3 k , b1 = i − 3 j + 2 k

→ ∧ ∧ ∧ → ∧ ∧ ∧
a 2 = 4 i + 5 j + 6 k , b2 = 2 i + 3 j + k

 
shortest distance between lines = (a2 − a1 ).(b1 × b2 )
→
→
b1 × b2

→ → ∧ ∧ ∧ → → ∧ ∧ ∧
a 2 − a 1 = 3 i + 3 j + 3 k , b 1 × b2 = −9 i + 3 j + 9 k

→
→
b1 × b2 = 171 , putting the values, after cal. We get

3
shortest distance = units
19

Ans.2

Here
a1 = iˆ + ˆj , b1 = 2iˆ - ˆj + kˆ,
a 2 = 2 î + ĵ - k̂, b2 = 3iˆ - 5 ˆj + 2kˆ
î ĵ k̂
∴ a 2 - a1 = iˆ - k , b1× b2 = 2 - 1 1
ˆ
3 -5 2

= 3iˆ - ˆj - 7 kˆ

b1 × b 2 = 59
 P a g e | 34

(b1 × b2 ).(a 2 − a 2 ) 10
∴shortest distance = =
b1 × b2 59

Ans.3

Equation of the plane

x − 3 y +1 z − 2
2 3 2 =0
−4 0 4
i.e., 3 x − 4 y + 3 z − 19 =
0

Now the perp. Distance from (6,5,9)to this plane is

3.6 − 4.5 + 3.9 − 19

=
9 + 16 + 9
6
= units
34

Ans.4

Ans.5. Let Co-Ord. of A′ be (∝, β,γ), the image of A ( 1, 2, - 1 ) and R be the mid-point of AA’

α + 1 β + 2 γ −1
∴Coor.of R =  , , 
 2 2 2 

x −1 y − 2 z +1
Equn.of AA′ is = =
2 1 −1

Co.ord. of R on the line in terms of λ as general pt. (2λ+1, λ+2, -λ-1)

This pt. lies on the plane

⇒2(2λ+1)+(λ+2)-(-λ-1)=2
 P a g e | 35

⇒6λ=-3

⇒λ= - ½

α +1 −1
∴ . 2 + 1 ⇒ α = −1
=
2 2
β +2 1
∴ 2 = − 2 + 2 ⇒ β =1
γ −1  −1
= −  −1 ⇒ γ = 0
2  2 

∴The coord.of image is (-1, 1, 0)

Ans 6

( )
(
Given, r = iˆ − ˆj + l 2iˆ + kˆ ; r = 2iˆ − ˆj + µ iˆ − ˆj − kˆ )
( )
 
(a2 − a1 ) ⋅ b1 × b2 1
S .D. =   = unit ≠ 0
b1 × b2 14

hence the given line doesn' t int er sec t.

Ans. 7

The equations of the given planes are

The equation of the plane passing through the line intersection of the plane given in equation (1) and equation
(2) is

The plane in equation (3) is is passing through (1,0,-2)

2λ+1-6+2λ+5λ- 4=0 => 9λ=9 =>λ=1

Substituting in equation (3), we obtain

 P a g e | 36

r.(3i+3j+2k+1)=0 or 3x+3y+2z+1=0

Ans.8

Writing in cartesian form

Eqn of the plane passing through the line of intersection of
X + 3y – z =0 & y + 2z =0 is
X + 3y – z + λ ( y + 2z )=0
Passing through (2, 1, -1)
⇒λ=6

Eqn is x + 9y +11z = 0

Ans.9

x + 1 3y + 5 3 − z
Given line is = = .
2 9 −6
5
y − 
x − (−1)  3  z −3.
or , = =
2 3 6
Drs of the line is <2,3,6> Given equation of plane:10 x + 2 y − 11z =
3
Drs of normal to the plane is <10,2,-11>
Let θ be the angle between the line and plane,then
 
b . n (2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 6kˆ). (10iˆ + 2 ˆj − 11kˆ)
sin θ =
= 
b n 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 6kˆ 10iˆ + 2 ˆj − 11kˆ
8
= −
21
 8 
θ sin −1  − 
∴=
 21 

Ans.10

eq. of plane passing through one given point and perpendicular to planes

x − x1 y − y1 z − z1
a1 b1 c1 =0
a2 b2 c2

x +1 y +1 z − 2
⇒ 1 2 −3 = 0
5 −4 3

⇒ 3x + 9y + 7z – 2 = 0 , after simplification
 P a g e | 37

Probability
Ans.1

= 32 - - 14

= ( )

5
= (32 - - 14
3

Ans.2
2
. Consider a + b = 1 + 1 + 2 cos θ

=2(1+cos θ )

θ
=4 cos 2
2

θ 1
⇒ cos = a + b
2 2

Ans.3
           
a= b= c= λ ; a.b= b .c= c .a= 0 a= b= c= λ ; a.b= b .c= c .a= 0
  2         2      
( )(
a + b + c = a + b + c . a + b + c = 3λ 2 . ) ( )( )
a + b + c = a + b + c . a + b + c = 3λ 2
     
a + b + c =3λ a + b + c =3λ

   
    a.(a + b + c ) 1
Let θ be the angle between (a + b + c )anda=then cos θ =   
a a +b +c 3

  
Similarly we can prove that( a + b + c ) makes the same angle with the other two vectors
 P a g e | 38

Ans.4

Let cˆ = aˆ + bˆ
2
cˆ = aˆ + bˆ + 2 aˆ bˆ cos θ
2

Since aˆ , bˆ & cˆ are unit vectors.

2 aˆ bˆ cos θ = −1

Now, let dˆ = aˆ − bˆ
2
dˆ = aˆ + bˆ − 2 aˆ bˆ cos θ
2

dˆ = 3

Ans.5
           
We have [ a + b b + c c + a ] = [( a + b )X ( b + c )].( c + a )

=(axb + axc+ bxb + bxc).(c+a) = (axb +axc + bxc ). (c + a) (as bxb = 0 )

= (axb).c + (bxc).a =2 [abc] (expanding and using ( axb).a = 0 etc.

Ans.6
 2 2 2      
We have (
a +b +c)
  2 
  
= a + b + c + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca =12 + 42 + 22 + 2(ab + bc + ca )
(
Since a + b + c =0,)
         −21
we have 0 =21 + 2(a.b + b .c + c .a ) ⇒ a.b + b .c + c .a = ⇒.
2

Ans.7

α = 3iˆ − ˆj

β = 2iˆ + ˆj − 3kˆ.
   
β 1 is parallel to α ⇒ β 1 = k α
     
β = β1 + β 2 ⇒ β 2 = β - k α
 
β 2 ┴α
 
⇒ β 2 ⋅ α = 0 ⇒ k =1/2
 1 ˆ ˆ
β1 = (3i − j )
2
 1
β 2 = ( iˆ + 3 ˆj − 6kˆ. )
2
 P a g e | 39

LPP
Ans.1

Let she invests Rs. x in saving certificates and Rs. y in National saving bonds

Then LPP is

To maximize Z=0.08x+0.1y

Subject to constraints

x ≥ 2000, y ≥ 4000, x + y ≤ 12000

corner points of feasible region ABC are A(2000,4000), B(8000,4000),c(2000,10000)

at A, Z=160+400=560

at B, Z=640+400=1040

at C,Z=160+1000=1160

thusRs. 2000 should be invested in saving certificates and Rs.10000 in National saving bonds. Maximum
yearly income is Rs. 1160

Ans.2

Let x be the no. of fans and y be the no. of sewing machines

If p be the total profit ,

P= 22x+18y

360x+240y≤5760. For correct graph, ---------- (1)

i.e., 3x+2y≤48.

X+y≤20.

x≥0,y≥0 -------------------------------- (2)

 P a g e | 40

po int s valueof p
(0, 0) 0
(16, 0) 352
(8,12) 392
(0, 20) 360

the dealer gets a maximum profit of Rs. 392 when he purchase and sells 8 fans and 12 sewing machines.
Investment in fans =360.×8=2880.

Investment in sewing machines =240×12= 2880. -------------------(3)

Ans.3

Let the diet contain x units of food F1 and y units of food F2. Therefore,

x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0, The given information can be complied in a table as follows.

Vitamin Mineral Cost per unit (Rs)

A (units) (units)

Food F1 (x) 3 4 4

Foo F2 (y) 6 3 6

Requirement 80 100

The cost of food F1 is Rs 4 per unit and of Food F2 is Rs 6 per unit. Therefore, the constraints are

3x + 6y ≥ 80; 4x + 3y ≥ 100; x, y ≥ 0

Total cost of the diet, Z = 4x + 6y

The mathematical formulation of the given problem is

Minimise Z = 4x + 6y … (1)subject to the constraints,3x+ 6y ≥ 80 … (2),4x + 3y ≥ 100 … (3)

x, y ≥ 0 … (4)
 P a g e | 41

Corner point Z = 4x + 6y

104 → Minimum

200

As the feasible region is unbounded, therefore, 104 may or may not be the minimum value of Z.For this, we
draw a graph of the inequality, 4x + 6y< 104 or 2x + 3y< 52, and check whether the resulting half plane has
points in common with the feasible region or not.

It can be seen that the feasible region has no common point with 2x + 3y< 52

Therefore, the minimum cost of the mixture will be Rs 104.

Ans.4

Let the cottage industry manufacture x pedestal lamps and y wooden shades. Therefore,

x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0

The given information can be compiled in a table as follows.

Lamps Shades Availability

Grinding/Cutting Machine (h) 2 1 12

Sprayer (h) 3 2 20

The profit on a lamp is Rs 5 and on the shades is Rs 3. Therefore, the constraints are

Total profit, Z = 5x + 3y

The mathematical formulation of the given problem is

Maximize Z = 5x + 3y … (1)

subject to the constraints,

… (2)

… (3)
 P a g e | 42

x, y ≥ 0 … (4)

The feasible region determined by the system of constraints is as follows.

The corner points are A (6, 0), B (4, 4), and C (0, 10).

The values of Z at these corner points are as follows

The maximum value of Z is 32 at (4, 4).

Corner point Z = 5x + 3y

A(6, 0) 30 Thus, the manufacturer should produce 4 pedestal lamps and 4

wooden shades to maximize his profits
B(4, 4) 32 → Maximum

C(0, 10) 30

Ans. 5

Let the airline sell x tickets of executive class and y tickets of economy class.

The mathematical formulation of the given problem is as follows.

Maximize z = 1000x + 600y … (1)

subject to the constraints,

 P a g e | 43

The feasible region determined by the constraints is as follows.

The corner points of the feasible region are A (20, 80), B (40, 160), and

C (20, 180).

The values of z at these corner points are as follows.

Corner point z = 1000x + 600y

A (20, 80) 68000

B (40, 160) 136000 → Maximum

C (20, 180) 128000

The maximum value of z is 136000 at (40, 160).

Thus, 40 tickets of executive class and 160 tickets of economy class should be sold to maximize the profit and
the maximum profit is Rs 136000.
 P a g e | 44

Probability
Ans.1

P(A) = 1/4, P(B) = 35/100 & P(C) = 40/100

P(E/A) = 5/100, P(E/B) = 4/100, P(E/C) = 2/100

P(C/E) =16/19

Ans.2

Consider A1 : suffers from TB, P ( A1 ) = 0.001 )

A2 : person donot suffer fromTB, P ( A2 ) = 0.999

C: Doctor diagnoses correctly

= =
Then P (C / A1 ) 0.99 and P (C / A2 ) 0.001

P ( A1 ).P(C / A1 ) 110
=
By Baye ’s theorem P( A1 / C ) =
P ( A1 ).P(C / A1 ) + P( A2 ).P(C / A2 ) 221

Ans.3

Ans.4

Let E1 and E2 be the respective events that the student knows the answer and he guesses the answer.

Let A be the event that the answer is correct.

 P a g e | 45

The probability that the student answered correctly, given that he knows the answer, is 1.

∴ P (A|E1) = 1

Probability that the student answered correctly, given that he guessed, is .

The probability that the student knows the answer, given that he answered it correctly, is given by .

By using Bayes’ theorem, we obtain

Ans.5

Let E1 and E2 be the respective events of choosing a diamond card and a card which is not diamond.

Let A denote the lost card.

Out of 52 cards, 13 cards are diamond and 39 cards are not diamond.

Two cards can be drawn out of 12 diamond cards in ways.

 P a g e | 46

Similarly, 2 diamond cards can be drawn out of 51 cards in ways. The probability of getting two cards,
when one diamond card is lost, is given by P (A|E1).

When the lost card is not a diamond, there are 13 diamond cards out of 51 cards.

Two cards can be drawn out of 13 diamond cards in ways whereas 2 cards can be drawn out of 51 cards in
ways.

The probability of getting two cards, when one card is lost which is not diamond, is given by P (A|E2).

The probability that the lost card is diamond is given by P (E1|A).

Ans.6
Let A be the event that the insured person meets with an accident and E1, E2 and

E3 are the events that the person is a scooter, car and truck driver respectively.

Then we have to find P(E1/A) .

Total number of insured persons = 2000+4000+6000 = 12000.

P (E1) =2000/12000 =1/6; P (E2) = 4000/12000 = 1/3; P (E3) = 6000/12000 = ½

 P a g e | 47

Also P (A/E1) = 0.01; P (A/E2) = 0.03 and P (A/E3) = 0.15

Hence by Bye’s theorem we have

P ( A / E1 ) P ( E1 )
P ( E1 / A ) =
P ( A / E1 ) P ( E1 ) + P ( A / E 2 ) P ( E 2 ) + P ( A / E 3 ) P ( E 3 )

0.01×1/ 6
= = 1/52.
0.01×1/ 6 + 0.03 ×1/ 3 + 0.15 ×1/ 2

Ans7.

Let E denote the event that the person selected is actually having HIV and A

the event that the person's HIV test is diagnosed as +ive. We need to find P(E|A).

Also E  denotes the event that the perso

We have

************
Total Pages =44 Page |1

केन्द्र�य �वद्यालय संगठन, गव

ु ाहाट� संभाग

�वशेष अध्ययन सामग्री, सत्र- 2015-16

�वषय- �हंद� (केिन्द्रक), क�ा – बारहवीं

मख्
ु य संर�क
श्री संतोष कुमार मल्ल, भा॰प्र॰से॰
आयक्
ु त, (के.�व.सं, नई �दल्ल�)

संर�क
श्री सी. नीलाप
उपायक्
ु त, (के.�व.सं, गव
ु ाहाट� संभाग)

सलाहकार
श्री जमुना प्रसाद (सहा.आयुक्त, के.�व.सं, गुवाहाट� संभाग)
श्री डी॰ पटले (सहा.आयक्
ु त, के.�व.सं, गव
ु ाहाट� संभाग)
डॉ. �सहरन बोस (सहा.आयुक्त, के.�व.सं, गुवाहाट� संभाग)

संयोजक
श्री धीरे न्द्र कुमार झा
प्राचायर् (केन्द्र�य �वद्यालय, वायुसेना स्थल, बोरझार )

�नमार्ण स�म�त
श्री �सद्धाथर् कुमार पाण्डेय (स्नातकोत्तर �श�क-�हंद�, के.�व. नारं गी )
श्री रणरं जय �संह (स्नातकोत्तर �श�क-�हंद�, के.�व., के.�र.पु.बल, अमे�रगोग )
श्रीमती सुनीता दे वी (स्नातकोत्तर �श��का –�हंद�, के.�व., वायुसेना स्थल, बोरझार )

क�द्र�य �वद्यालय संगठन, गव

ु ाहाट� संभाग संभाग
 Total Pages =44 Page |2

सत्रांत पर��ा 2015-16

�हन्द� (आधार-अ पाठ्यक्रम)
क�ा-बारहवीं
ब्लू �प्रंट
�नधार्�रत समय-3 घंटे अ�धकतम अंक-100

प्रश्न- प्रश्न� के अंक अप�ठत लेखन सा�हत्य �वशेष �टप्पणी

संख्या प्रकार �वभाजन बोध

1 .अ�त 1x5=5 अप�ठत पठन, भावबोध व

लघत्ु तरात्मक पद्यांश लेखन संबंधी

2 अ.ल.उ. एवं 2x7=14 अप�ठत पठन, भावबोध व

ल.उ. +1=15 गद्यांश लेखन संबंधी

3 �नबंधात्मक 5 �नबंध लेखन व अ�भव्यिक्त

4 पत्र-लेखन 5 पत्र-लेखन

5 अ.ल.उ. . 1X5 =5 जनसंचार एवं लेखन व अ�भव्यिक्त

पत्रका�रता

6 �नबंधात्मक 5 आलेख/पुस्तक लेखन व अ�भव्यिक्त

समी�ा

7 �नबंधात्मक 5 फ�चर, लेखन व अ�भव्यिक्त

8 लघु 2x4=8 काव्य-अथर् अवबोध पठन एवं

उत्तरात्मक ग्रहण लेखन
9 लघु 2x3=6 काव्य- अवबोध पठन एवं
उत्तरात्मक स�दयर्-बोध लेखन
10 �नबंधात्मक 3+3=6 काव्य �वषय- अवबोध पठन एवं
वस्तु लेखन
11 लघु 2X4=8 गद्य -अथर् अवबोधन , भावग्रहण
उत्तरात्मक ग्रहण एवं लेखन
12 �नबंधात्मक 3X4=12 गद्य- �वषय- अवबोधन , भावग्रहण
वस्तु एवं लेखन
13 लघु 5 पूरक- �वषय मूल्य आधा�रत प्रश्न
उत्तरात्मक वस्तु
14 द�घर्उत्तरात्मक 5+5=10 पूरक- �वषय अवबोधन , भावग्रहण
वस्तु एवं लेखन
Total Pages =44 Page |3

कुछ सामान्य सझ
ु ाव :
1- आप �हंद� �वषय क� तैयार� हे तु एक समय सारणी तैयार कर� |
2- समय सारणी इस प्रकार होनी चा�हए �क आपका अ�धकांश समय नष्ट होने के बजाए
अध्ययन के �लए सम�पर्त हो|
3- आप अपनी स�ु वधानस
ु ार �हंद� �वषय के प्रत्येक अंश के �लए ता�कर्क ढं ग से समय
�वभािजत कर� |
4- �कसी भी एक �वषय को आवश्यकता से अ�धक समय न द� और साथ ह� �कसी �वषय को
नज़रअंदाज न कर� |
5- �हंद� �वषय म� आप अपने कमजोर प� को रे खां�कत क�िजए एवं �श�क से बात क�िजए|
6- अभ्यास के द्वारा आप अपने कमज़ोर प� को दरू कर पाएंगे, इस�लए �नरं तर अभ्यास
क�िजए|
7- पर��ा भवन म� लेखन आरं भ करने से पहले �मलने वाले 15 �मनट के अ�त�रक्त समय म�
पूरे प्रश्न-पत्र को ध्यान से पढ़े |
8- प्रश्न� को हल करते समय उन प्रश्न� को पहले हल कर� जो आपके �लए आसान हो इससे
समय क� बचत भी होगी|
9- �लखते समय य�द आप �कसी प्रश्न या समस्या पर अटक जाते ह� तो उससे आगे बढ़कर
अगले प्रश्न को हल कर� |
10- प्रश्न� को हल करते समय संतोषजनक उत्तर एवं शब्द-सीमा का ध्यान र�खए-
क- य�द प्रश्न 1 अंक का हो तो उसका उतर एक या दो पंिक्तय� म� ह� �ल�खए|
ख- य�द प्रश्न 2 अंक का हो तो उसका उतर तीन या चार पंिक्तय� म� �ल�खए|
ग- य�द प्रश्न 3 अंक का हो तो उसका उत्तर अ�धकतम छह या आठ पंिक्तय� म� �ल�खए |
घ- �नबंध , फ�चर , आलेख या पुस्तक समी�ा एक पष्ृ ठ से अ�धक न �लख� |
Total Pages =44 Page |4

खंड-क
सझ
ु ाव- प्रश्न संख्या एक एवं दो अप�ठत गद्यांश या काव्यांश पर आधा�रत होगा, अथार्त यह अंश
आपके पाठ्यपस्
ु तक क �हस्सा नह�ं होगा| अत: इसका उत्तर �लखते समय �नम्न सझ
ु ाव आपके
�लए कारगर होगा |
1- �दए गए गद्यांश या काव्यांश को कम से दो बार पढ़कर उसके मल
ू भाव या अथर् को
समझने क� को�शश करनी चा�हए
2- दस
ू र� बार गद्यांश या काव्यांश पढ़ते समय प्रश्न� के उत्तर संकेत जहां प्राप्त होते हो उसे
प� �सल से अं�कत कर द� |
3- गद्यांश या काव्यांश के पंिक्तय� को ज्य� का त्य� उतारने के बजाए उसे अपने शब्द� म�
�लखने का प्रयास कर� |
4- एक अंक के प्रश्न को एक या दो पंिक्त म� तथा दो अंक के प्रश्न को तीन या चार पंिक्त से
अ�धक न �लखे|
5- गद्यांश या काव्यांश के मूलभाव को शीषर्क के रूप म� �लखना चा�हए|

प्रश्न संख्या-1

उदाहरण-1
इस संसार म� कुछ व्यिक्त भाग्यवाद� होते ह� और कुछ केवल अपने पुरुषाथर् पर भरोसा रखते ह� |
प्राय: ऐसा दे खा जाता है �क भाग्यवाद� व्यिक्त ईश्वर�य इच्छा को सव�प�र मानता ह� और अपने प्रयत्न�
को गौण मान बैठते ह� | वे �वधाता का ह� दस
ू रा नाम भाग्य को मान लेते है | भाग्यवाद� कभी-कभी
अकमर्ण्यता क� िस्थ�त म� भी आ जाते ह�| उनका कथन होता है �क कुछ नह�ं कर सकते सब कुछ ईश्वर
के अधीन है | हम� उसी प्रकार प�रणाम भुगतना पड़ेगा जैसा भगवान चाहे गा| भाग्योदय शब्द म� भाग्य
प्रधान है | एक अन्य शब्द है -सूय�दय| हम जानते ह� �क उदय सूरज का नह�ं होता सूरज तो अपनी
जगह पर रहता है , चलती घूमती तो धरती ह� है | �फर भी सूय�दय हम� बहुत शुभ और साथर्क मालूम
होता है | भाग्य भी इसी प्रकार है | हमारा मुख सह� भाग्य क� तरफ हो जाए तो इसे भाग्योदय ह�
मानना चा�हए|
पुरुषाथ� व्यिक्त अपने प�रश्रम के बल पर कायर् �सद्ध कर लेना चाहता है | पुरुषाथर् वह है जो पुरुष को
सप्रयास रखे| पुरुष का अथर् पशु से �भन्न है | बल-�वक्रम तो पशु म� अ�धक होता है , ले�कन पुरुषाथर् पशु
चेष्टा के अथर् से अ�धक �भन्न और श्रेष्ठ है | वासना से पी�ड़त होकर पशु म� अ�धक पराक्रम दे खा जाता
है , �कन्तु यह पुरुष से ह� संभव है �क वह आत्म�वसजर्न म� पराक्रम �दखाए|

पुरुषाथर् व्यिक्त को �क्रयाशील रखता है जब�क अकमर्ण्य व्यिक्त ह� भाग्य के भरोसे बैठता है | हम� भाग्य
और पुरुषाथर् का मेल साधना है | य�द सह� �दशा म� बढ़� गे तो सफलता अवश्य हमारे कदम चम
ू ेगी|
Total Pages =44 Page |5

प्रश्न- 1 कौन �कसक� इच्छा को सव�प�र मानता है और क्य�? 2

उत्तर- 1 भाग्यवाद� पुरुष ईश्वर�य इच्छा को सव�प�र मानते है | क्य��क वह भाग्य के भरोसे रहता है
और वह ऐसा मानता है �क सब कुछ ईश्वर के हाथ म� है|इस तरह वह अपने प्रयत्न� को गौण मान
बैठता है और काम से दरू भागने लगता है |
प्रश्न-2 पुरुषाथर् से क्या तात्पयर् है ? 2
उत्तर- 2 पुरुषाथर् से तात्पयर् है अपने इिच्छत वस्तु को प्राप्त करने क� उत्कट लालसा और उस हे तु
प्रयास करना| पुरुषाथ� व्यिक्त कभी श्रम से जी नह�ं चरु ाता है वह क�ठन प�रश्रम कर अपना ल�य प्राप्त
कर लेता है , परु
ु षाथर् व्यिक्त को �क्रयाशील रखता है |
प्रश्न- 3 कौनसी चीज पुरुष को सप्रयास रखता है ? 2
उत्तर- 3 परु
ु षाथर् परु
ु ष को सप्रयास रखता है |धमर्,अथर् काम और मो� यह चार परु
ु षाथर् है िजनके प्रािप्त
हे तु मनष्ु य कमर्रत रहता है | मनष्ु य के जीवन का प्राप्य यह� परु
ु षाथर् है उसे जीवन म� कमर्रत रखता है |
प्रश्न- 4 भाग्यवाद� होना या परु
ु षाथ� होना आपके �वचार से क्या उ�चत है ? 2
उत्तर- 4 छात्र इसका उत्तर स्वयं के �ववेक से द� गे|
प्रश्न-5 ‘आत्म�वसजर्न म� पराक्रम’ से क्या तात्पयर् है ? 2
उत्तर-5 व्यिक्त के अन्दर य�द पराक्रम है और वह उसका प्रयोग �बना सोचे समझे करे तो उसका यह
गुण �कसी पशु से अलग नह�ं होगा| ले�कन य�द वह अपने पराक्रम का प्रयोग सोच समझ कर करे तो
वह सच्चा मनुष्य कहलाएगा| बल के साथ �वनम्रता का होना सव�च्च मनुष्यता क� �नशानी है , य�द वह
अपने से कमजोर को दे खकर कर वह अपने पराक्रम को त्याग दे तो वह सच्चा बलशाल� होगा|
प्रश्न-6 सफलता कैसे हमारे कदम चम
ू ेगी? 2
उत्तर-6 य�द इंसान सह� समय पर ठ�क प्रकार से कमर् को महत्व दे ते हुए प्रयास करे तो सफलता
अवश्य ह� हमरे कदम चूमेगी| ले�कन य�द हम भाग्य के भरोसे बैठ गए तो हम �न:संदेह सफलता से दरू
रह� गे|
प्रश्न- 7 ‘सूय�दय’ का समास �वग्रह करते हुए प्रयुक्त समास का नाम �ल�खए| 1
उत्तर- 7 ‘सूयर् का उदय’ तत्पुरुष समास |
प्रश्न- 8 ‘ अकमर्ण्यता’ शब्द से उपसगर् एवं प्रत्यय अलग क�िजए| 1
उत्तर- 8 उपसगर् ‘अ’ एवं प्रत्यय ‘ता’ |
प्रश्न- 9 उपरोक्त गद्यांश का शीषर्क �ल�खए | 1
उत्तर- 9 भाग्य और पुरुषाथर्, या इस भाव से सम्बं�धत कोई भी शीषर्क |

अभ्यास कायर् -2
संस्कृ�त तब तक गूंगी रहती है ,जब तक राष्ट्र क� अपनी वाणी नह�ं होती|राजनी�तक पराधीनता
क� जंजीर जरूर कट� है ,�कन्तु अंग्रेजी और अंग्रेजीयत के रूप म� दासता के �चह्न आज भी मौजूद है |
भाषा प�रधान नह�ं, बिल्क �कसी राष्ट्र के व्यिक्तत्व क� द्योतक होती है | हमारे बहुभाषी दे श के सामान
ह� द�ु नया म� बहुत सी भाषाओं वाले दे श है | रूस म� 66 भाषाएँ बोल� और �लखी जाती ह�, ले�कन वहा क�
Total Pages =44 Page |6

राष्ट्र भाषा रूसी है |हमारे संस्कृत के गोमुख से �नकल� हुई सब भारतीय भाषाएँ हमार� अपनी है | उनमे
अपनी व्यापकता आरम्भ से ह� जन-�वद्रोह तथा जनवाणी को दे ते रहने के कारण ह� �हंद� भाषा को
राष्ट्रभाषा के रूप म� स्वीकार �कया गया है | केवल सं�वधान म� �लख दे ने मात्र से यह बात पूर� नह�ं हो
जाती बिल्क इसे राष्ट्र के जीवन म� प्र�तिष्ठत करना होगा अन्यथा इस स्वतंत्रता का क्या मल्
ू य है ? �वश्व
चेतना जगाने से पहले अपने दे श म� राष्ट्रभाषा चेतना जगाएँ | राष्ट्र भाषा क� आवश्यकता के अनेक
आधार है |राष्ट्रभाषा का महत्त्व अप�रहायर् है |राष्ट्र�य ध्वज, राष्ट्र�य गान, राष्ट्र�य पशु इत्या�द राष्ट्र�य
सम्मान के जीवंत प्रतीक होते है |�कसी शब्द क� भावात्मक एकता भी तभी संभव है , जब सम्पूणर् राष्ट्र म�
भाव तथा �वचार� के आदान-प्रदान का माध्यम एक भाषा हो|�वदे श� म� लगभग 6 करोड़ लोग �हंद� बोलते
है और समझते है |मार�शस म� 65% गय
ु ाना म� 65%�फजी म� 15%तथा द��ण अफ्र�का म� लगभग 32%
जनता �हंद�भाषी है | सूर�नाम म� लगभग 4 लाख लोग �हंद� को भल� प्रकार समझने क� सामथ्यर् रखते है |
भारत म� �हंद� बोलने वालो क� संख्या सवार्�धक है | अत: इसे राष्ट्रभाषा का गौरव प्रदान �कया गया है |

प्रश्न-

1- भारत एक बहुभाषी दे श है समझाइए| 2

2- भाषा के महत्त्व पर प्रकाश डा�लए | 2
3- भारत के अलावा अन्य �कन दे श� म� �हंद� बोल� जाती है | 2
4- प्रत्येक राष्ट्र क� एक राष्ट्रभाषा क्य� होनी चा�हए|` 2
5- भारत क� राष्ट्रभाषा �हंद� है क्य�? 2
6- राष्ट्रभाषा �कस प्रकार भावात्मक एकता स्था�पत कर सकती है | 2
7- उपरोक्त गद्यांश के �लए शीषर्क द�िजए| 1
8- ध्वज के दो समानाथ� शब्द �ल�खए| 1
9- ‘सं�वधान’ शब्द से उपसगर् और मूलशब्द को अलग क�िजए| 1

2-
सं�वधान सभा म� डॉ अम्बेडकर ने एक बार कहा था-‘सं�वधान सभा म� क्य� आया? केवल द�लत�
के �हत के �लए|’ सं�वधान क� महत्ता पर प्रकाश डालते हुए उन्ह�ने एक बार कहा था सं�वधान चाहे
�कतना ह� अच्छा हो, य�द उसको व्यवहार म� लाने वाले लोग अच्छे न हो तो सं�वधान �नश्चय ह� बुरा
सा�बत होगा| अच्छे लोग� के हाथ� म� बरु े सं�वधान के भी अच्छा सा�बत होने क� संभावना बनी रहती
है |भारत के लोग इसके साथ कैसा व्यवहार कर� गे यह कौन जान सकता है ’?
डॉ अम्बेडकर ने सं�वधान क� �व�भन्न धाराओं के अंतगर्त हमारे समाज म� व्याप्त सभी बुराइय� एवं
कुर��तय� का अंत कर �दया| जाती पां�त के कारण अछूत या द�लत लोग� को दक
ु ान�,धमर्शालाओं कुओं
Total Pages =44 Page |7

और सावर्ज�नक नल� का उपयोग करने क� मनाह� थी| डॉ अम्बेडकर नए भी सं�वधान के अनुच्छे द 15 म�

�कसी प्रकार के भेद भाव को समाप्त करने क� बात कह� है |
इस प्रकार सं�वधान के अनच्
ु छे द 19 के अंतगर्त डॉ अम्बेडकर ने भारत के सभी नाग�रक� को अपने
�वचार व्यक्त करने क� स्वतंत्रता द�, जब�क इससे पव
ू र् मजदरू � को जमींदार� के सामने, नौकर को अपने
मा�लक के समक� तथा िस्त्रय� का पुरूष� के सामने बोलना भी अपराध माना जाता था| सं�वधान के
अनुच्छे द 335 के अंतगर्त अनूसू�चत जा�त व जनजा�त के लोग� के �लए सरकार� सेवाओं और पद� म�
आर�ण क� व्यवस्था करके स�दय� से द�लत एवं शो�षत वगर् का सबसे बड़ा �हत �कया गया| जब तक
भारत म� लोकतंत्र रहे गा और सं�वधान का पालन होता रहे गा, तब तक डॉ अम्बेडकर का नाम सं�वधान
�नमार्ता के रूप म� जाना जाता रहे गा|

प्रश्न-
1-डॉ अम्बेडकर के सं�वधान सभा म� आने के मुख्य उद्देश्य पर प्रकाश डा�लए| 2
2- सं�वधान के सन्दभर् म� डॉ अम्बेडकर के क्या �वचार थे? 2
3- सं�वधान के अनुच्छे द 335 म� क्या प्रावधान है ? 2
4- सं�वधान के अनुच्छे द 19 म� क्या व्यवस्था क� गयी है ? 2
5- अनच्
ु छे द 15 �कस प्रकार से द�लतोत्थान म� सहायक �सद्ध हुआ है ? 2
6-लोकतंत्र क� स्थापना म� सं�वधान का �वशेष महत्त्व है . �सद्ध क�िजए| 2
7- कुर��तय� शब्द से उपसगर् और प्रत्यय को अलग क�िजए| 1
8- धमर्शाला पद का समास �वग्रह क�िजए | 1
9-उपरोक्त गद्यांश के �लए उपयुक्त शीषर्क द�िजए| 1

3-

अपने ल�य� क� प्रािप्त के �लए हम� उन वस्तुओं को छोड़ना पड़ता है ,जो हम� �प्रय तो ह� ले�कन
सफलता क� राह म� रूकावट है | इनम� से कुछ है , आलस्य, लोभ, मोह इत्या�द| सफलता के �लए व्यिक्त
के मन म� प�रश्रम और दृढ �नश्चय क� आवश्यकता होती है | मनुष्य मन क� �नबर्लता उसे सफलता से
दरू ले जाती है , िजसे प्रेरणा द्वारा समाप्त �कया जाना चा�हए| राजकुमार �सद्धाथर् के गौतम बुद्ध बनने से
पहले क� बात है - �सद्धाथर् गह
ृ त्याग कर �ान प्रािप्त के �लए चले गए थे| कई वष� तक भटकने के बाद
भी उन्ह� �ान क� प्रािप्त नह�ं हुई| आ�खरकार उनक� �हम्मत टूटने लगी | उनके मन म� बार बार �वचार
उठने लगा �क क्य� न राजमहल वापस चला जाए|

अंत म� अपने मन से हार कर वह क�पलवस्तु क� और लौटने लगे | चलते चलते राह म� उन्ह�
प्यास लगी| सामने ह� एक झील थी| जब वह जल पी रहे थे तब उन्ह�ने एक �गलहर� को दे खा| वह बार-
बार पानी के पास जाती, उसमे अपनी पूंछ डूबोती और बाहर �नकल कर उसे रे त पर झटक दे ती| �सद्धाथर्
Total Pages =44 Page |8

से न रहा गया| उन्ह�ने पूछा- नन्ह� �गलहर� यह क्या कर रह� हो? �गलहर� ने उत्तर �दया -इस झील
नए मेरे प�रवार को डुबोकर मार �दया है इस�लए मै झील को सुखा रह� हूँ| �सद्धाथर् बोले यह काम तो
तुमसे कभी नह�ं हो पाएगा| झील को सुखाना तुम्हारे बस क� बात नह�ं है | �गलहर� �नश्चयात्मक स्वर म�
बोल� -आप चाहे ऐसा मानते हो ले�कन मै ऐसा नह�ं मानती| मै तो बस इतना जानती हूँ �क मन ने
िजस कायर् को करने का �नश्चय �कया उस पर अटल रहने से वह वह हो ह� जाता है | मै तो अपना काम
करती रहूंगी| �गलहर� क� यह बात �सद्धाथर् के मन म� बस गई | उन्ह� अपने मन क� दब
ु ल
र् ता का एहसास
हो गया| वे वापस लौटे और ताप म� संलग्न हो गए|

प्रश्न-

1- सफल व्यिक्त बनाने के �लए मनष्ु य म� �कन गण

ु � का होना आवश्यक है ? 2
2- राजकुमार �सद्धाथर् ने �गलहर� को क्या करते दे खा? 2
3- राजकुमार �सद्धाथर् ने क�पलवस्तु लौटने का �नणर्य क्य� �कया? 2
4- �गलहर� झील क्य� सुखाना चाहती थी? 2
5- �गलहर� क� कौन सी बात �सद्धाथर् के मन म� बस गयी? 2
6- ल�य� क� प्रािप्त के �लए �कन वस्तओ
ु ं को छोड़ना पड़ता है ? 1
7- ‘जब वे जल पी रहे थे तब उन्ह�ने एक �गलहर� को दे खा’ सरल वाक्य म� बद�लए| 1
8- राजमहल कौन सा समास है ? 1
9- ‘�नबर्लता’ का �वपर�ताथर्क शब्द �ल�खए| 1
10- उपरोक्त गद्यांश के �लए शीषर्क �ल�खए| 1

4-

सुबह के शांत वातावरण म� अक्सर पाक� से हं सी क� ऊँची आवाज� सुनाई पड़ती है |पहले लगता था
�क कुछ पुराने �मत्र �मलकर हं सी मजाक कर रहे है , पर कौतुहलवश ध्यान से दे खने पर जाना �क वे सब
एक साथ एक ह� तरह से ऐसे हं स रहे हो जैसे कोई क्लास चल रह� हो| पूछने पर पता चला �क वे सब
हास्य क्लब के सदस्य ह�| यह क्या? अब हं सने के �लए क्लब का सहारा लेना पड़ता है ? दरअसल आज
के तनावपूणर् जीवन म� आजकल लोग हं सना भूल गए है | अ�तशय दबाव� के कारण स्वास्थ्य संबंधी
समस्याएं बढती जा रह� ह�| छोटे बच्चे हो या बुजुगर् दबाव के कारण वे आत्महत्या करने लगे ह�| इस
िस्थ�त म� �चं�तत डॉक्टर�, मनो�वश्लेषक� के नुस्खे म� हं सी को दवा के तौर पर सुझाना शुरू �कया �दया
है |नतीजा यह है �क अब सजग लोग इसे अपनाने क� होड़ म� लगे ह� | रे �डय�,ट�वी, पत्र,प�त्रकाएँ और
�फल्म� भी इस �दशा म� मदद कर रह� ह�| हं सी क� जरूरत सु�ख़र्य� म� होने कारण अब उस पर �कताब�
�लखी जा रह� ह�, वकर्शॉप हो रहे ह�| अब यह प्रमा�णत हो गया है �क खश
ु �मजाज लोग जीवन म� अ�धक
सफल होते ह�, वे ज्यादा कमाते है ,उनके �मत्र� क� संख्या ज्यादा होती है , उनक� शाद� ज्यादा �नभती है ,
Total Pages =44 Page |9

वे स्वस्थ रहते है और स्वभा�वक है �क अ�धक लम्बी उम्र जीते है | अत: जो सब पाने के �लए इंसान
भागदौड़ करता है , हं सी उस �दशा म� दवा का काम करती है |
प्रश्न-
1- हं सी का जीवन म� क्या महत्त्व है ? 2
2- लोग हं सना क्य� भूल गए ह�? 2
3- हं सी क� जरूरत क्य� महसूस क� जा रह� है ? 2
4- हं सी दवा के रूप म� �कस प्रकार काम करती है ? 2
5- लम्बी आयु के �लए मनुष्य को क्या करना चा�हए? 2
6- खश
ु �मजाज लोग जीवन म� अ�धक सफल क्य� होते ह�? 2
7- हमारे तनाव का मुख्य कारण क्या है ? 1
8- तनावपूणर् का समास �वग्रह कर समास का नाम �ल�खए| 1
9- उपरोक्त गद्यांश का शीषर्क द�िजए| 1

4
यद्य�प यह शाश्वत सत्य है , �फर भी मत्ृ यु से सबको भय लगता है | वास्तव म� भय �कसी वस्तु से
अलग हो जाने का है |जो छूटता है उसमे भय है | धन छूट जाने का भय, प�रवार छूट जाने का भय |
त्याग म� भय है | �कस त्याग म� भय है ? िजन वस्तुओं को प�रवारजन� को हम उपयोगी समझते है ,
उनके त्याग म� भय है | वहां भय नह�ं होता जहां त्याग अपनी इच्छा से �कया जाए| जैसे कपड़ा पुराना हो
जाए तो हम उसे अपनी इच्छा से त्याग दे ते है | ऐसे त्याग म� संतोष है | दःु ख: वहां होता है जहां कोई
वस्तु �छन या छूट जाती है |हम धन या कपड़ा दस
ू र� को दे सकते है , परन्तु एक वस्तु है ‘प्राण’ जो हम
नह�ं दे सकते ह� शर�र से प्राण �नकल जाए तो हम कहते ह� मत्ृ यु हो गयी| इसम� दःु ख होता है
क्य��क प्राण को इच्छा से नह�ं छोड़ते| पंचभत
ू � से बना यह शर�र पहले �वकास को प्राप्त होता है और
�फर ह्रास क� ओर उन्मुख होता है | पंच महाभत
ू � के साथ आत्मा का जड़
ु जाना जन्म है | पंच महाभत
ू � से
आत्मा का अलग हो जाना मत्ृ यु है |
हमारे मनीषी बताते ह� �क जो लोग मत्ृ यु से �नभर्य होकर जीवन को पूणत
र् ा के साथ और अथर्पूणर् जीते
ह�, वे ह� अपना जीवन आत्म�वश्वास से जी पाते ह�| परन्तु हमम� से अ�धकतर जीवन के प�रवतर्न और
उलटफेर म� इतने तटस्थ और उदासीन रहते ह� �क मत्ृ यु के बारे म� अ�ानी से बने रहते ह� | मत्ृ यु
अपने �शकार पर बाज प�ी क� तरह अचानक आक्रमण कर दे ती है | गुरु तेगबहादरु चेतावनी दे ते ह�; �प्रय
�मत्र मत्ृ यु स्वच्छं द है , वह कभी भी अपने �शकार के भ�ण को झपट सकती है | वह चप
ु चाप ह� आक्रमण
कर दे ती है ,अत: आनंद और प्रेम के साथ जीओ|
प्रश्न-
1- भय का कारण लेखक क्या मानता है ? 2
2- इच्छा �कस प्रकार भय उत्पन्न कराती है ? 2
3- जन्म तथा मत्ृ यु को गद्यांश म� �कस प्रका प�रभा�षत �कया गया है ? 2
4- जीवन म� �नभर्य होना क्य� जरूर� है ? 2
5- गुरु तेगबहादरु जी क� चेतावनी का क्या अ�भप्राय है ? 2
Total Pages =44 Page |
10

6- कैसे त्याग म� संतोष होता है ? 1

7- लेखक दःु ख क� िस्थ�त कब मानता है ? 1
8- जीवन कब अथर्पूणर् तथा पूणत
र् या माना जाता है ? 1
9- ‘जन्म’ का �वलोम शब्द �ल�खए| 1
10- उपरोक्त गद्यांश का शीषर्क �ल�खए| 1

प्रश्न संख्या-2

उदाहरण- 1

क्या तुमने कभी सुनी है

सपन� म� चमकती कुल्हा�ड़य� के भय से
पेड़� क� चीत्कार?
कुल्हा�ड़य� के वार सहते
�कसी पेड़ क� �हलती टह�नय� म�
�दखाई पड़े ह� तुम्ह�
मदद के �लए पुकारते हजार�- हज़ार� हाथ?
क्या, होती है तम्
ु हारे भीतर धमस
कटकर �गरता है जब कोई पेड़ धरती पर ?

प्रश्न- 1 कौन कुल्हा�ड़य� का वार सहता है ? 1x 5=5

उत्तर- 1 पेड़ कुल्हा�ड़य� क� वार सहता है |
प्रश्न-2 क�व क्या सुनने क� बात कहता है ?
उत्तर-2 सपन� म� पेड़ क� चीत्कार |
प्रश्न-3 उपरोक्त पंिक्तय� म� �कसक� व्यथा �दखाई गयी है ?
उत्तर- पेड़�-पौध� के कटने से उनक� व्यथा|
प्रश्न- 4 क�व �कससे सवाल पछ
ू ता है ?
उत्तर-4 क�व सभ्य समाज से सवाल पछ
ू ता है |
प्रश्न-5 हम� पेड़� के प्र�त कैसा रवैया अपनाना चा�हए?
उत्तर-5 हम� पेड़� के प्र�त संवेदनशील रवैया अपनाना चा�हए एवं उन्ह� काटने से रोकना चा�हए|
अभ्यास हे तु प्रश्न – 1

मन सम�पर्त,तन सम�पर्त
और यह जीवन सम�पर्त
चाहता हूँ,दे श क� धरती तुझे कुछ और दं |ू
माँ तुम्हारा ऋण बहुत है ,मै अ�कंचन,
�कन्तु इतना कर रहा �फर भी �नवेदन|
थाल म� लाऊं सजाकर भाल जब भी,
कर दया स्वीकार लेना वह समपर्ण |
गान अ�पर्त,प्राण अ�पर्त,
रक्त का कण-कण सम�पर्त |
चाहता हूँ, दे श क� धरती तुझे कुछ और दं |ू
कर रहा आराधना मै आज तेर�,
एक �वनती तो करो स्वीकार मेर�|
भाल पर मॉल डॉ चरण क� धल
ु थोड़ी,
शीश पर आशीष क� छाया घनेर�|
स्वप्न अ�पर्त, प्रश्न अ�पर्त
आयु का �ण-�ण सम�पर्त
चाहता हूँ, दे श क� धरती,तझ
ु े कुछ और भी दँ |ू
तोड़ता हूँ मोह का बंधन,�मा दो|
गाँव मेरे द्वार,घर,आँगन �मा दो|
दे श का जयगान अधर� पर सजा है
दे श का ध्वज हाथ म� केवल थमा डॉ|
ये सम
ु न लो ये चमन लो,
नीड़ का तण
ृ –तण
ृ सम�पर्त|
चाहता हूँ दे श क� धरती तुझे कुछ और दँ |ू

1- क�व दे श क� धरती को क्या-क्या सम�पर्त करना चाहता है ? 1x5=5

2- मातभ
ृ ू�म का हम पर क्या ऋण है ?
3- क�व दे श क� आराधना म� क्या �नवेदन करता है तथा क्य�?
4- दे श के प्र�त आयु का �ण-�ण सम�पर्त करने के बाद भी क�व क� संतिु ष्ट क्य� नह�ं है ?
5- क�व �कस-�कस से �मा मांगता है ?
3
एक फ़ाइल ने दस
ू र� फ़ाइल से कहा
बहन लगता है
साहब हम� छोड़कर जा रहे है
इसी�लए तो सारा काम जल्द�-जल्द� �नपटा रहे है |
मै बार-बार सामने जाती हूँ
रोती हूँ,�गड़�गड़ाती हूँ
करती हूँ �वनती हर बार
साहब जी ! इधर भी दे ख लो एक बार|
पर साहब है �क ..........
कभी मझ
ु े नीचे पटक दे ते ह� |
कभी पीछे सरका दे ते है
और कभी-कभी तो
फाइल� के ढे र तले
दबा दे ते ह� |
अ�धकार� बार-बार
अंदर झाँक जाता है
डरते डरते पूछ जाता है
साहब कहाँ गए......?
हस्ता�र हो गए.....?
दस
ू र� फ़ाइल न�
उसे प्यार से समझाया
जीवन का नया फलसफा �सखाया
बहन! हम यूं ह� रोते ह�
बेकार �गड़�गड़ाते ह�
लोग आते है जाते है
हस्ता�र कहाँ रूकते है
हो ह� जाते ह�|
पर कुछ बात� ऐसी होती ह�
जो �दखाई नह�ं दे ती
और कुछ आवाज�
सुनाई नह�ं दे ती
 जैसे फूल �खलते है
और अपनी महक छोड़ जाते ह�
वैसे ह� कुछ लोग
कागज़ पर नह�ं
�दल� पर हस्ता�र छोड़ जाते है |

1- साहब जल्द�-जल्द� काम क्य� �नपटा रहे है ? 1x5=5

2- फ़ाइल क� �वनती पर साहब क� क्या प्र�तक्रया होती है ?
3- दस
ू र� फ़ाइल ने पहल� फ़ाइल को क्या समझाया?
4- फूल� क� क्या �वशेषता उपरोक्त पंिक्तय� म� बताई गयी है ?
5- इस काव्यांश का भाव स्पष्ट कर� |

4
तुम नह�ं चाहते थे क्या –
फूल �खल�
भौर� गूंजे
�तत�लयाँ उड़�?
नह�ं चाहते थे तुम –
शरादाकाश
वसंत क� हवा
मंज�रय� का महोत्सव?
को�कल क� कुहू, �हरन� क� दौड़?
तुम्ह� तो पसंद थे भे�ड़एँ
भे�ड़एँ से धीरे धीरे जन्गालाते आदमी
समच
ू ी ह�रयाल� कू धआ
ंु बनाते �वस्फोट!
तुमने ह� बना �दया है सबको अंधा बहरा
आकाशगामी हो गए सब
कोलाहल म� डूबे, वाणी �वह�न!
अब भी समय है खड़े हो जाओ अंधेर� के �खलाफ
वेड मन्त्र� के ध्याता,
पहचानो अपनी धरती
अपना आकाश!
 1- क�व �कसक� तरफ संकेत कर रहा है ? 1x5=5
2- आतंक के रास्ते पर चलने वाले लोग� को कौन-कौन से रूप नह�ं सह
ु ाते?
3- आशय स्पष्ट क�िजए-
तुम्हे पसंद थे भे�ड़ए|
भे�ड़य� से धीरे -धीरे जंगलाते आदमी|
4- ‘अब भी समय है ’ कहकर क�व क्या अपे�ा करता है ?
5- वसंत ऋतु के सौन्दयर् का अपने शब्द� म� वणर्न क�िजए|

जन्म �दया माता सा िजसने , �कया सदा लालन-पालन

िजसके �मट्टी जल से ह� है रचा गया हम सब का तन |
�ग�रवर �नत र�ा करते है ,उच्च उठा के श्रंग-महान,
िजसके लता द्रम
ु ा�दक करते हम सबको अपनी छाया दान|
माता केवल बाल काल म� �नज अंक म� धरती है ,
हम अशक्त जब तलक तभी तक पालन पोषण कराती है |
मातभ
ृ ू�म करती है सबका लालन सदा मत्ृ यु पयर्न्त,
िजसके दया प्रवाहो का होता न कभी सपने म� अंत
मर जाने पर कण दे ह� के, इसमे ह� �मल जाते ह�,
�हन्द ू जलाते,यवन ईसाई शरण इसी म� पाते ह�|
ऐसी मातभ
ृ ू�म मेर� है , स्वणर्लोक से भी प्यार�,
उसके चरण-कमल पर मेरा, तन मन धन सब ब�लहार�|

1- �ग�रवर लता आ�द का हमारे जीवन म� क्या महत्त्व है ? 1x 5=5

2- माता क� अपे�ा मातभ
ृ ू�म का हमारे पालन-पोषण म� अ�धक महत्त्व क्य� है ?
3- मत्ृ यु के उपरांत मातभ
ृ �ू म का मानव के �लए क्या महत्त्व है ?
4- क�व कसके ऊपर अपना सब कुछ ब�लहार� करने क� बात कर रहा है ?
5- पद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीषर्क �ल�खए|
 खंड-ख
प्रश्न संख्या -3
�नबंध लेखन
सुझाव: प्रश्न संख्या 3 �नबंध लेखन होगा | �नबंध �लखते समय �नम्न सुझाव आपके �लए कारगर
होगा –
1- �दए गए �वकल्प म� िजस �वषय क� आपको समु�चत जानकार� हो उसे ह� चन ु े |
2- आप �नबंध के �हस्से को तीन भाग म� �वभािजत कर ल�| 1- �वषय का प�रचय 2- �वषय
का �वस्तार 3- �नष्कषर्
3- �वषय वस्तु को रोचक बनाने के �लए आवश्यकतानुसार महापुरुष� , लेखक� के कथन� या
सामान्य जीवन के अनुभव� को उदाहरण के रूप म� प्रस्तुत कर सकते है |
4- शब्द सीमा का ध्यान रख� एवं अनावश्यक बात� �लखने से बच� |

उदाहरण-
जीवन म� अनुशासन का महत्त्व
अनश
ु ासन का अथर् है ‘शासन के पीछे चलना’| अथार्त सामािजक,राजनी�तक तथा धा�मर्क सभी प्रकार के
आदे श� और �नयम� का पालन करना| अनुशासन का पालन पालन करना उन सब व्यिक्तय� के �लए
अ�नवायर् होता है िजनके �लए वे बनाएं गए ह�|
व्यवहा�रक जीवन म� अनुशासन का होना �नतांत आवश्यक है | य�द हम घर म� घर के �नयम� का
उल्लंघन कर� गे , बाज़ार म� बाज़ार के �नयम� का उल्लंघन कर� गे,स्कूल म� स्कूल के �नयम� का उल्लंघन
कर� गे तो सभी हमारे व्यवहार से असंतुष्ट हो जाएंगे हम� अ�शष्ट समझ �लया जाएगा| �कसी भी समाज
क� व्यवस्था तभी ठ�क रह सकती है जब उस समाज के सभी सदस्य अनुशा�सत तथा �नय�मत ह�| य�द
समाज म� अनुशासनह�नता आ जाए तो सारा समाज द�ू षत हो जाता है |
िजस दे श म� अनुशासन नह�ं, वहां शासक और शा�सत दोन� परे शान रहते ह�| राष्ट्र का वातावरण अशांत
रहता है और �वकास के मागर् म� बाधा उत्पन्न हो जाती है अनुशासनह�नता क� िस्थ�त म� सैन्य शिक्त
दब
ु ल
र् हो जाती है | अनुशासन सेना का प्राण है | �बना अनुशासन के एकता , संगठन चस्
ु ती और शिक्त
सब कुछ �छन्न �भन्न हो जाते ह�| िजस दे श क� सेना म� अनुशासन क� कमी हो वह दे श पतन के गतर्
म� �गरता है |
अनुशासन जीवन के प्रत्येक �ेत्र म� आवश्यक ह�| प्रश्न यह उठता है �क अनुशासन क� भावना जगाई
कैसे जाए| अनुशासन सख्ती से उत्पन्न करने क� वस्तु नह�ं है | यह वातावरण और अभ्यास पर �नभर्र
करती है | जन्म लेते ह� बच्चे को ऐसा वातावरण �मले िजसमे सब कायर् �नय�मत और अनुशा�सत ह�,
जहां सब लोग अनुशासन का पालन करते ह� तो उस बच्चे क� आयु बढ़ने के साथ-साथ उसे अनुशासन
का महत्त्व हो जाता है ||
अभ्यास कायर्-
1. व�
ृ लगाओं जीवन बचाओं
2. बदलते जीवन मल्
ू य
3. नई सद�: नया समाज
4. कामकाजी म�हलाओं क� समस्याएँ/ दे श क� प्रग�त म� म�हलाओं का योगदान
5. राष्ट्र-�नमार्ण म� युवा पीढ़� का योगदान
6. इंटरनेट : सकारात्मक और नकारात्मक प्रभाव
7. महानगर�य जीवन क� चन
ु ौ�तयां
8. लोकतंत्र म� मी�डया क� भू�मका

प्रश्न संख्या-4
पत्र-लेखन
सझ
ु ाव: प्रश्न संख्या 4 पत्र लेखन होगा | पत्र �लखते समय �नम्न सझ
ु ाव आपके �लए कारगर होगा –
1- पत्र का आरम्भ बायीं ओर से कर� एवं पत्र लेखन के प्रारूप का �वशेष ध्यान रख�|
2- सवर्प्रथम ‘ सेवा म� ’ �लखते ह� उसके बाद पत्र प्राप्त करने वाले का नाम,(पदनाम) �वभाग का नाम एवं
पता �लखते है |
3- तत्पश्चात �दनांक �लखते ह� | तदप
ु रांत पत्र के �वषय को �लखते ह�|
4- सम्बोधन के रूप मान्यवर या महोदय �लखते हुए पत्र का आरम्भ करते ह� |
अंत म� भवद�य �लखने के बाद प्रेषक का नाम �लखते ह�|
यथा-

सेवा म� ,
.................( अ�धकार� का पदनाम)
..................( कायार्लय का नाम)
..................( पता )

................... ( �दनांक)

�वषय: .............................

महोदय,
......................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
......................................................... |

भवद�य
.................(प्रेषक का नाम)
.................( पता)
 पत्र का प्रारूप
�शकायती पत्र
(आपके �ेत्र म� िस्थत एक औद्यो�गक संस्थान का गंदा पानी आपके नगर �क नद� को द�ू षत कर
रहा है | प्रदष
ू ण �नयंत्रण �वभाग के मुख्य अ�धकार� को पत्र द्वारा इस समस्या से अवगत कराइए
|)

सेवा म� ,
मुख्य अ�धकार�
प्रदष
ू ण-�नयंत्रण �वभाग,
वाराणसी, उत्तर-प्रदे श |

�दनांक: 26.11.2013

�वषय- औद्यो�गक संस्थान के गंदे पानी द्वारा फैल रहे प्रदष

ू ण को �नयं�त्रत करने के संदभर् म� |

महोदय,
मै नीरज कुमार रामनगर कालोनी, वाराणसी का रहने वाला हूँ |मै इस पत्र के माध्यम से
आपका ध्यान औद्यो�गक संस्थान के गंदे पानी द्वारा फैल रहे प्रदष
ू ण �वशेषकर द�ू षत हो रह�
प�वत्र नद� गंगा �क तरफ आक�षर्त कराना चाहता हूँ| �व�दत हो क� इस शहर म� अनेक उद्गयोग
धंधे है | वस्त्र-�नमार्ण एवं रसायन� से संबं�धत कारखान� से�नकलने वाला द�ू षत जल सीधे गंगा नद�
म� जाता है | यह जल इतना द�ू षत है �क इसे पशु तक भी पीना पसंद नह�ं करते, यह� नह�ं बिल्क
इसके प्रभाव से नद� �क मछ�लयाँ भी मरने लगी है | �व�दत हो �क गंगा नद� लोग� क� भावनाओं
से जड़
ु ी है | स्थानीय अ�धका�रय� से इस बारे म� अनेक बार �शकायत भी क� जा चक
ु � है पर कोई
कायर्वाह� नह�ं हुई|
महोदय आपसे �वनम्र �नवेदन है �क ऐसे उद्योग संस्थान� को प्रदष
ू ण संबंधी नो�टस भेजा
जाए और आवश्यक हो तो कठोर कायर्वाह� भी �क जाए िजससे प्रदष
ू ण �क समस्या से �नजात �मल
सक�| आशा है �क आप इस समस्या �क गंभीरता को समझ�गे तथा आवश्यक कदम उठाएंगे|

धन्यवाद स�हत|

भवद�य
नीरज कुमार
रामनगर कालोनी, वाराणसी|
 अभ्यास कायर्-

1-अ�नय�मत डाक-�वतरण क� �शकायत करते हुए पोस्टमास्टर को पत्र �ल�खए।

2-अपने �ेत्र म� �बजल�-संकट से उत्पन्न क�ठनाइय� का वणर्न करते हुए अ�धशासी अ�भयन्ता �वद्युत-
बोडर् को पत्र �ल�खए।
3-हड़ताल के कारण जनजीवन पर पड़ने वाले प्रभाव पर �वचार व्यक्त करते हुए �कसी समाचार पत्र के
सम्पादक को पत्र �ल�खए|
4-सड़क� क� ददु र् शा पर खेद प्रकट करते हुए नगरपा�लका के मुख्य अ�धकार� को पत्र �ल�खए |
5- �कसी सामाचार पत्र के सम्पादक को एक पत्र �ल�खए िजसमे चन ु ाव प्रचार को �नयं�त्रत करने का
सुझाव �दया गया हो

प्रश्न संख्या-5
जनसंचार
सुझाव: प्रश्न संख्या 5 जनसंचार पर आधा�रत अ�तलघुउत्तर�य प्रश्न होगा | इस प्रश्न का उत्तर
�लखते समय �नम्न सुझाव आपके �लए कारगर होगा –
1- पूछे गए प्रश्न� का उत्तर एक या दो पंिक्त म� �लख�|
2- यह अंश हमारे दै �नक जीवन से संबं�धत से संबं�धत है िजसे हम �नरं तर दे खते रहते है , �लखते
समय समस्या आने पर तथ्य� को स्मरण करने का प्रयास कर� पुन: �लख� |

प्रश्न-1 संचार �कसे कहते है ?

उत्तर- �ल�खत , मौ�खक और सांके�तक रूप से सच
ू ना को एक जगह से दस
ू रे जगह तक पहुचाना
संचार कहलाता है |
प्रश्न-2 जनसंचार �कसे कहते है ?
उत्तर- सूचना को �कसी यंत्र क� सहायता से एक स्थान से दस
ू रे स्थान तक पहुंचाना जनसंचार कहलाता
है |
प्रश्न-3 जनसंचार के महत्वपूणर् कायर् क्या है ?
उत्तर- जनसंचार के महत्वपूणर् कायर् �नम्न�ल�खत है -
1- सूचना दे ना
2- �श��त करना
3- मनोरं जन करना
4- �नगरानी करना
5- एज�डा तैयार करना
6- �वचार-�वमशर् करना
प्रश्न-4 जनसंचार को �कतने माध्यम म� �वभािजत �कया गया है ?
उत्तर- जनसंचार के दो महत्वपूणर् माध्यम है -
 1- �प्रंट(मुद्रण) माध्यम ( समाचार पत्र, प�त्रकाएँ)
2- इलेक्ट्रा�नक माध्यम ( रे �डय�, टे ल��वजन, इंटरनेट, फैक्स, �सनेमा, मोबाइल , )
प्रश्न-5 म�ु द्रत माध्यम के दो गण
ु एवं दो क�मयाँ बताइए?
उत्तर- गुण 1- समाचार को सहे जकर रख सकते है , 2- समाचार को बार-बार पढ़ सकते है |
कमी- 1- एक साथ एक ह� आदमी उसको पढ़ सकता है , 2- �नर�र आदमी समाचार नह�ं पा
सकता है |
प्रश्न-6 इलेक्ट्रा�नक माध्यम के दो गुण एवं दो क�मयाँ बताइए?
उत्तर- गुण-1- एक साथ अ�धक से अ�धक लोग समाचार ग्रहण कर सकते है |2- �नर�र भी समाचार पा
सकते है |
कमी-1- इसे सहे जकर नह�ं रख सकते है |2- बार-बार समाचार नह�ं सुन सकते |
प्रश्न-7 समाचार क� ( पत्रका�रता क� ) भाषा शैल� कैसी होनो चा�हए?
उत्तर- भाषा अत्यंत सरल होनी चा�हए| वाक्य छोटे ,सीधे,सरल एवं स्पष्ट होने चा�हए|अप्रच�लत भाषा ,
भ्रामक भाषा, आ�द के प्रयोग से बचना चा�हए|
प्रश्न-8 उल्टा �परा�मड शैल� क्या है ?
उत्तर- उलटा �परा�मड शैल� समाचार �लखने क� एक शैल� है | इसके अंतगर्त समाचार के महत्वपण
ू र् भाग
को सबसे पहले �लखते है तथा बाद म� कम महत्त्व क� बात� �लखी जाती है |
प्रश्न-9 पत्रकार �कतने प्रकार के होते है |
उत्तर- पत्रकार तीन प्रकार के होते है-
1- अंशका�लक पत्रकार
2- पूणक
र् ा�लक पत्रकार
3- स्वतंत्र पत्रकार ( फ्र�लांसर पत्रकार)

प्रश्न- 10 अंशका�लक पत्रकार �कसे कहते है -

उत्तर- जो पत्रकार �कसी समाचार संगठन म� कुछ समय के �लए काम करता है वह अंशका�लक पत्रकार
कहलाता है |
प्रश्न-11 पूणक
र् ा�लक पत्रकार �कसे कहते है ?
उत्तर- जो पत्रकार �कसी समाचार संगठन स्थायी रूप से काम करता है वह पूणक
र् ा�लक पत्रकार
कहलाता है |
प्रश्न-12 स्वतंत्र पत्रकार ( फ्र�लांसर पत्रकार) �कसे कहते है ?
उत्तर- जो पत्रकार स्वतंत्र रूप से पत्रका�रता करता है अथार्त वह �कसी समाचार संगठन के �लए कायर्
नह�ं करता है वह (फ्र�लांसर पत्रकार)स्वतंत्र पत्रकार कहलाता है |
प्रश्न-13 समाचार लेखन के �कतने ककार होते है |
उत्तर- समाचार लेखन के छः ककार होते है - क्या ,कौन ,कब , कहाँ ,कैसे, क्य�|
प्रश्न-14 समाचार म� ‘क्लाईमेक्स’ क्या होता है ?
उत्तर- समाचार के अंतगर्त �कसी घटना का नवीनतम एवं महत्वपूणर् प� ‘क्लाईमेक्स’ कहलाता है |
प्रश्न-15 फ्लैश या ब्रे�कंग न्यज
ू से क्या आशय है ?
उत्तर- जब कोई �वशेष समाचार सबसे पहले दशर्क� तक पहुंचाया जाता है तो उसे फ्लैश या ब्रे�कंग न्यूज
कहते है |
प्रश्न- 16 ड्राई एंकर क्या होता है ?
उत्तर- ड्राई एंकर वह होता है जो समाचार के दृश्य नज़र नह�ं आने तक दशर्क� को �रपोटर् र से �मल�
जानकार� के आधार पर समाचार से संबं�धत सच
ू ना दे ता है |
प्रश्न-17 फोन-इन से क्या तात्पयर् है ?
उत्तर- एंकर का घटना स्थल से उपिस्थत �रपोटर् र से फोन के माध्यम से घ�टत घटनाओं क� जानकार�
दशर्क� तक पहुंचाना फोन-इन कहलाता है |
प्रश्न-15 ‘लाइव’ से क्या तात्पयर् है |
उत्तर- �कसी समाचार का घटनास्थल से दरू दशर्न पर सीधा प्रसारण ‘लाइव’ कहलाता है |
प्रश्न-16 इंटरनेट क्या है ?
उत्तर- इंटरनेट एक अंतर �क्रयात्मक माध्यम है िजसमे �प्रंट मी�डया,रे �डय� ,टे ल��वजन, पुस्तक, �सनेमा
एवं पुस्तकालय के सभी गुण �वद्यमान है | इसके द्वारा �वश्वव्यापी जाल से कोई भी सामग्री खोजी जा
सकती है |
प्रश्न- 17 भारत म� इंटरनेट का आरम्भ कब हुआ था?
उत्तर- भारत म� इंटरनेट का आरम्भ सं 1993 म� था|
प्रश्न- 18 भारत म� वेबसाइट पर पत्रका�रता शुरू करने का श्रेय �कसे जाता है ?
उत्तर- ‘तहलका डॉट काम’ को |
प्रश्न-20 �वचारपरक लेखन म� क्या-क्या आता है ?
उत्तर- �वचारपरक लेखन के अंतगर्त लेख, �टप्प�णयाँ, सम्पादक�य तथा स्तंभ लेखन, आ�द आता है |
प्रश्न-21 फ�चर �कसे कहते है ?
उत्तर- �कसी सुव्यविस्थत , सज
ृ नात्मक और आत्म�नष्ठ लेखन को फ�चर कहते है िजसके अंतगर्त
सूचनाओं के साथ-साथ मनोरं जन पर भी ध्यान �दया जाता है |
प्रश्न-22 ‘संपादक�य’ �कसे कहते है ?
उत्तर- वह लेख िजसम� �कसी मुद्दे के प्र�त समाचार पत्र क� अपनी राय प्रकट होती है , सम्पादक�य
कहलाता है |
प्रश्न-23 पत्रका�रता का मूल तत्व क्या है ?
उत्तर- ‘लोग� क� िज�ासा’ ह� पत्रका�रता का मूल तत्व है |
प्रश्न-24 ‘बीट’ से क्या तात्पयर् है ?
उत्तर- ‘बीट’ का अथर् है समाचार का �ेत्र �वशेष | जैसे- खेल ,�व�ान, कृ�ष, मनोरं जन, �फल्म, राजनी�त,
अथर्व्यवस्था |
प्रश्न-25 समाचार लेखन के �लए सच
ू नाएं प्राप्त करने का स्रोत कौन-कौन से है ?
उत्तर- प्रेस-कान्फ�स, प्रेस-�व�िप्त , सा�ात्कार, सव� , जाँच आ�द|
प्रश्न-26 पयार्वरण से संब�ं धत प�त्रकाएँ कौन कौन सी है ?
उत्तर- पयार्वरण एबस्ट्रे क्ट , डाउन टू अथर्, नेशनल ज्याग्रफ� आ�द|
प्रश्न-27 भारत म� पहला छापाखाना कहाँ और कब खल
ु ा?
उत्तर- भारत म� पहला छापाखाना गोवा म� सन 1556 म� खल
ु ा|
प्रश्न- 28वतर्मान छापेखाने के आ�वष्कार का श्रेय �कसको है ?
उत्तर- जमर्नी के गुटेनबगर् को|
प्रश्न- 29 मुद्रण का आरं भ कहाँ माना जाता है ?
उत्तर- मुद्रण का आरम्भ चीन म� हुआ |
प्रश्न-30 डेडलाइन क्या होती है ?
उत्तर- समाचार को प्रका�शत या प्रसा�रत होने के �लए प्रेस या स्टू�डय� म� पहुँचने क� आ�खर� समय
सीमा डेडलाइन कहलाती है |
प्रश्न- 31 न्यूजपेग क्या होता है ?
उत्तर- िजस �वषय पर �लखा जा रहा हो और उसी �वषय से संबं�धत कोई नई ताजा खबर िजसके
कारण वह �वषय चचार् म� आ गया हो न्यज
ू पेग कहलाता है | जैसे IPL पर �लखा जा रहा हो और स्पॉट
�फिक्संग क� खबर आ जाए तो वह न्यूजपेग कहलाता है |
प्रश्न-32 पीत पत्रका�रता क्या है ?
उत्तर- पीत पत्रका�रता के अंतगर्त पाठक� को लुभाने और सनसनी फैलाने के �लए झूठ� अफवाह� ,
व्यिक्तगत आरोप-प्रत्यारोप , भंडाफोड़ से संबं�धत सूचनाओं को प्रका�शत �कया जाता है |
प्रश्न-33 पेज थ्री पत्रका�रता से क्या आशय है ?
उत्तर- पेज थ्री पत्रका�रता से आशय ऐसी पत्रका�रता से है िजसम� फ़ैशन, अमीर� क� पा�टर् य� ,
नामचीन हिस्तय� के �नजी जीवन एवं ग�त�व�धय� से संबं�धत समाचार प्रका�शत होते है |
प्रश्न- 34 एडवोकेसी पत्रका�रता क्या है ?
उत्तर- एडवोकेसी पत्रका�रता से तात्पयर् ऐसी पत्रका�रता से है जो �कसी ख़ास �वचारधारा, या उद्देश्य को
लेकर एक जनमत बनाने का कायर् करता है |
प्रश्न- 35 ‘वॉचडॉग’ पत्रका�रता क्या है ?
उत्तर- वह पत्रका�रता जो सरकार के कामकाज पर �नगाह रखती है तथा क�मय� और घोटाल� का
पदार्फ़ाश करती है वॉचडॉग पत्रका�रता कहलाती है |
प्रश्न-36 समाचार के कोई चार तत्व बताइए|
उत्तर- 1- नवीनता , 2- �नकटता, 3- प्रभाव, 4- जनरू�च |
प्रश्न-37 ‘ऑप-एड’ क्या होता है ?
उत्तर- सम्पादक�य पष्ृ ठ के सामने वाले पन्ने म� �वश्लेषण, फ�चर, स्तंभ एवं सा�ात्कार आ�द प्रका�शत
होते है , यह�ं ऑप-एड होता है |
प्रश्न-38 ‘डेस्क’ �कसे कहते है ?
उत्तर- मी�डया म� ‘डेस्क’से तात्पयर् सम्पादन से है |डेस्क पर समाचार� का सम्पादन करके उन्ह� छपने
योग्य बनाया जाता है |
प्रश्न-39 समाचार� के सम्पादन म� �कस बात का ध्यान रखा जाता है ?
उत्तर- समाचार� के सम्पादन म� तथ्यपरकता, वस्तुपरकता, �नष्प�ता, और संतुलन जैसे �सद्धांत� का
ध्यान रखना पड़ता है |
प्रश्न-40 ‘पत्रकार द�घार्’ क्या है ?
उत्तर- वह स्थान जो पत्रकार� को बैठन� के �लए सुर��त रहता है , पत्रकार द�घार् कहलाता है |
प्रश्न- 41 संपादन से क्या तात्पयर् है ?
उत्तर- सम्पादन से तात्पयर् है - �कसी सामग्री से उसक� अशु�द्धय� को को दरू करके उसे पठनीय बनाना|
प्रश्न-41 खोजी पत्रका�रता क्या है ?
उत्तर- खोजी पत्रका�रता के अंतगर्त पत्रकार खोजबीन के ज�रए ऐसी सूचना लोग� तक लाता है जो पहले
लोग� को मालूम नह�ं थी|
प्रश्न-42 ‘इन डेप्थ �रपोटर् ’ क्या होती है ?
उत्तर- इसके अंतगर्त सावर्ज�नक तौर पर उपलब्ध सूचनाओं, आंकड़�, और तथ्य� क� छानबीन करके
�कसी घटना, समस्या, या मुद्दे से जुड़े पहलुओं को सामने लाया जाता है |
प्रश्न- 43 ‘एंकर बाइट’ का क्या अथर् है ?
उत्तर- �कसी घटना को प्रसा�रत करते समय उससे जुड़े दृश्य, कथन या बातचीत को दशर्क� के सामने
प्रस्तत
ु कर उस घटना क� प्रमा�णकता को पष्ु ट करना ‘एंकर बाइट’ कहलाता है |
प्रश्न- 44 ‘स्तंभ लेखन’ से क्या तात्पयर् है ?
उत्तर- महत्वपूणर् लेखक� के �नय�मत लेखन क्रम को स्तंभ लेखन कहा जाता है |
प्रश्न-45 ‘इंट्रो’ से आप क्या समझते है ?
उत्तर- इंट्रो समाचार के प्रारम्भ का �हस्सा है | इसम� दो-तीन पंिक्तय�म� समाचार क� मुख्य बात� बताई
जाती है |
प्रश्न-46 इंटरनेट पत्रका�रता को अन्य �कन नाम� से जाना जाता है ?
उत्तर- ऑन लाइन पत्रका�रता , साइबर पत्रका�रता, वेब पत्रका�रता |
प्रश्न- 47 ‘सम्पादक के नाम पत्र’ से क्या तात्पयर् है ?
उत्तर- ‘सम्पादक के नाम पत्र’ म� पाठक �व�भन्न �वषय� पर अपनी राय व्यक्त करते है |
प्रश्न- 48 पत्रकार�य लेखन म� पत्रकार को �कन बात� का ध्यान रखना चा�हए ?
उत्तर- पत्रकार�य लेखन म� कभी भी पत्रकार को लम्बे-लम्बे वाक्य नह�ं �लखने चा�हए एवं अनावश्यक
उपमाओं और �वशेषण� के प्रयोग से बचना चा�हए |
प्रश्न-49 नयी वेब भाषा को क्या कहते है ?
उत्तर- नयी वेब भाषा को ‘एच.ट�.एम एल’ अथार्त हाइपर टे क्स्ट माक्डर्अप ल�ग्वेज कहते है |
प्रश्न-50 ‘ऑ�डएंस’ �कसे कहते है |
उत्तर- यह दशर्क�, श्रोताओं और पाठक� के �लए प्रयक्
ु त होने वाला शब्द है |

प्रश्न संख्या- 6
सुझाव: प्रश्न संख्या 6 आलेख या इसके �वकल्प के रूप म� पुस्तक समी�ा होगी| इस प्रश्न
का उत्तर �लखते समय �नम्न सुझाव आपके �लए कारगर होगा –
1- आलेख �लखते समय �वषय को तीन भाग� म� �वभािजत कर ल�| 1- प�रचय 2- तथ्य� एवं
आंकड़� का तकर्पूणर् �वश्लेषण 3- �नष्कषर् |
2- आलेख क� भाषा सरल सहज एवं रोचक होनी चा�हए|
3- आलेख �लखते समय भ्रामक एवं सं�दग्ध जानका�रय� का उल्लेख नह�ं करना चा�हए|

1
‘ गोदाम� म� सड़ता अनाज और भूख से तड़पते लोग’
भारत �वशाल जनसंख्या वाला दे श है , िजसम� �दन�-�दन बढ़ोत्तर� होती जा रह� है | व्यापार� वगर् अपनी
मनमानी म� लगा हुआ है | वह जब चाहे बाजार का ग्राफ ऊपर-नीचे कर दे और उसका प�रणाम आम
जनता को भुगतना पड़ता है | ऐसा नह�ं है �क उत्पादन म� आज ज्यादा कमी आई है बिल्क यह व्यवस्था
का ह� खेल है �क सरकार� गोदाम� म� अनाज भरा पडा है और उसे �वत�रत करने क� पयार्प्त व्यवस्था
नह�ं है , फलत: अनाज सड़ रहा है या खल
ु े आकाश के नीचे पड़ा-पड़ा बा�रश का इन्तजार कर रहा है |
लाख� बो�रयां पड़े-पड़े सड़ रह�ं है या चह
ू � क� �ुधाप�ू तर् का साधन बन रह� है और इधर लोग भख
ू से
बेहाल एक-एक दाने को तरस रहे है | सरकार अनाज को संभाल रखने म� असमथर् हो रह� है |
दे श �क बहुत बड़ी आबाद� भूखमर� का �शकार है | करोड़ो लोग अन्न के अभाव म� मरणासन्न हो
राजे है | �वश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन के अनुसार, आज २० करोड़ लोग� को भरपेट अन्न नह�ं �मलता| 99%
आ�दवा�सय� को केवल �दन म� एक बार ह� भोजन �मल पाटा है | �वश्व म� लगभग 7000 लोग रोज और
25 लाख लोग सालाना भख
ू से मर जाते है और सबसे बड़ी �वडम्बना यह है �क आज भी भख
ू से पी�ड़त
लोग� म� एक �तहाई लोग भारत म� रहते है |
भारत �क एक �वसंग�त यह भी है �क जो �कसान �दन-रात प�रश्रम कर अन्न उगाता है , वह�ँ भख
ू या
अधखाया रह जाता है | सरकार�-तंत्र को अनाज को गोदाम� म� सदाना ज्यादा नी�तयुक्त लगता है , बजाय
इसके �क भूखे क� भख
ू �मटे | यहाँ के कृ�षमंत्री यह गंवारा नह�ं करते �क सड़ रहा अनाज भूखे लोग� म�
बाँट �दया जाए| यह भारत का दभ
ु ार्ग्य ह� कहा जा सकता है |
अभ्यास कायर्-
1- समाज म� बढ़ते अपराध
2- म�हलाओं के प्र�त बढ़ते अपराध
3- वाहन� क� बढ़ती संख्या
4- बाल मजदरू � एक बड़ी समस्या
5- चेन्नई म� हुई वषार् से नक
ु सान
6- भारतीय �कसान� क� समस्या

अथवा
सझ
ु ाव: प्रश्न संख्या 6 आलेख के �वकल्प म� पुस्तक समी�ा होगी| पस्
ु तक समी�ा �लखते
समय �नम्न सझ
ु ाव आपके �लए कारगर होगा –
1- पस्
ु तक के लेखक के बार� म� जानकर� एकत्र कर ल� |
2- आपने जो हाल म� पुस्तक पढ़� हो उसके मूलभाव को सारांश रूप म� �लख ल� |
3- इस बात को अवश्य बताएं �क पाठक यह पुस्तक क्य� पढ़� |
4- पुस्तक का मूल्य, प्रकाशक का पता पता एवं उपलब्ध होने के स्थान के बार� म� भी
अवश्य बताएं|

1 पस्
ु तक समी�ा
पस्
ु तक: सत्य के साथ प्रयोग
लेखक: महात्मा गांधी

महात्मा गाँधी 20 वीं सद� के एक ऐसे महापुरुष ह� िजन्ह�ने द�ु नया को सत्य और अ�हंसा के रास्ते पर ले
चलते हुए मानवता का पाठ पढ़ाया| गांधी जी जैसे महापरु
ु ष के �वषय म� जानने क� उत्सक
ु ता मेरे अन्दर
बहुत �दन� से थी और यह परू � हुई मेरे �पछले जन्म�दन पर जब मेरे एक �मत्र ने उनक� आत्मकथा ‘
सत्य के साथ प्रयोग’’ पुस्तक उपहार स्वरूप द� | इस पस्
ु तक को पढ़ने के बाद यह प्रमा�णत हो जाता है
�क इंसान जा�त से, धमर् से या कुल से महान नह�ं बनता बिल्क वह अपने �वचार� और कम� से महान
बनाता है | गांधी जी ने अपनी इस आत्म कथा म� बड़े ह� ईमानदार� से जीवन के सभी प�� को रखा है |
जैसे बचपन क� गल�तयाँ, पा�रवा�रक दा�यत्व, वकालत पढ़ने के �लए इंग्ल�ड जाना, पन
ु : द��ण अफ्र�का
जाकर नौकर� करना एवं वहां शो�षत पी�ड़त भारतीय� के हक़ क� लड़ाई लड़ना| महात्मा गांधी क� यह
आत्मकथा भारतीय स्वतंत्रता आन्दोलन और भारतीय� के सामािजक, राजनी�तक, धा�मर्क आ�थर्क िस्थ�त
को बड़े मा�मर्क रूप म� प्रस्तुत करती है | यह पुस्तक हम� गांधी जी के व्यिक्तत्व और कृ�तत्व के अनेक
पहलुओं से प�रचय कराती है | गांधी जी सत्य एवं अ�हंसा के रास्ते पर चलते हुए कभी भी हार न मानने
वाले व्यिक्त थे| इस पुस्तक म� गांधीजी ने भारत के लोग� को स्वास्थ्य, �श�ा और स्वच्छता के �लए
भी प्रे�रत �कया साथ ह� �मलजुलकर रहने क� प्रेरणा द�|
इस पस्
ु तक क� सबसे महत्वपण
ू र् �वशेषता है इसक� भाषा-शैल� | वैसे तो यह �हंद� भाषा म� अनुवाद क�
गयी पस्
ु तक है �फर भी इसका इसम� सरल सहज एवं प्रभाशाल� शब्द� का प्रयोग �कया गया है जो
पाठक� को पढ़ने के �लए बहुत आक�षर्त करता है | अंत म� मै आपसे यह� कहना चाहूंगा �क �वश्व के इस
महान पुरुष के �वषय म� जानना हो तो आप इस पुस्तक को अवश्य पढ़े | नवजीवन प्रकाशन द्वारा
प्रका�शत यह पुस्तक आजकल सभी बुक स्टाल� पर उपलब्ध है |

2 पुस्तक समी�ा
पुस्तक: गोदान
लेखक: प्रेमचंद
पुस्तक� �ान का भंडार होती ह�| सच्चा �ान वह�ँ है जो हम� अपने आस-पास के प्र�त संवेदनशील बनाता
है | �पछले �दन� मुझे अपने �वद्यालय के पुस्तकालय म� प्रेमचंद का क� महान कृ�त ‘’गोदान’’ पुस्तक
पढ़ने का सौभाग्य �मला , िजसने मेरे मन को गहराई तक प्रभा�वत �कया और अपने दे श के �कसान� के
हालत के बारे म� सोचने के �लए मजबूर कर �दया| 20 वीं सद� के चौथे दशक म� �लखा गया यह
उपान्यास भारतीय �कसान के अनेक स्तर� पर �कए गए जीवन संघषर् क� कहानी है | इस उपन्यास का
प्रधान नायक होर� है िजसके इदर् -�गदर् पूर� कहानी घूमती है | उपन्यास के अन्य च�रत्र� के माध्यम से भी
प्रेमचंद ने समाज के अन्य आयाम� को प्र�त�बं�बत �कया है | कजर् एवं सूद, महाजन� सभ्यता एवं जा�त-
प्रथा जैसी �वषम चन
ु ौ�तय� से जूझता �कसान �कस तरह जीवन गुजारता है , इस उपान्यास का प्रमख
ु क�द्र
�बंद ु है | आज हम 21 वीं सद� म� जी रहे ह� जहां 1 अरब से अ�धक जनता का पेट दे श का �कसान कड़ी
मेहनत करके पालता है �फर भी हमारे दे श के �कसान� क� हालत बेहद �चंतनीय है | यह पुस्तक हम�
�कसान� के जीवन क� त्रासद� से प�र�चत कराकर एक संवेदना जागत
ृ करती है |
इस उपान्यास का सबसे महत्वपूणर् आकषर्ण है इसक� भाषा शैल�| प्रेमचंद ने बेहद सरल, सहज और
भावपूणर् भाषा के प्रयोग द्वारा जनता के एक बड़े वगर् को संवेदनशील बनाने म� सफलता प्राप्त क� है |
मुहावर� लोकोिक्तय� और व्यवहा�रक सूत्रवाक्य� का प्रभावशाल� प्रयोग इस उपान्यास को जनता के कर�ब
ले जाता है | आज यह पस्
ु तक लगभग सभी बुक स्टाल� पर उपलब्ध है | मै आपसे �नवेदन करूंगा �क इसे
एक बार अवश्य पढ़� |
प्रश्न संख्या- 7
सुझाव: प्रश्न संख्या 7 फ�चर लेखन है (वास्तव म� फ�चर �कसी,वस्तु घटना स्थान या व्यिक्त
�वशेष क� �वशेषताओं को उद्घा�टत करने वाला �व�शष्ट लेख है िजसमे काल्प�नकता,
सजर्नात्मकता, तथ्य, घटनाएं एवं भावनाएं एक ह� साथ उपिस्थत होते ह�) |फ�चर �लखते समय
�नम्न सझ
ु ाव आपके �लए कारगर होगा –
1- फ�चर का आरम्भ आकषर्क होना चा�हए ,िजससे पाठक पढ़ने के �लए उत्सा�हत हो जाए |
2- फ�चर म� पाठक क� उत्सक
ु ता, िज�ासा तथा भावनाओं को जागत ृ करने क� शिक्त होनी
चा�हए|
3- फ�चर को आकषर्क बनाने हे तु मुहावर�,लोकोिक्तय� और व्यिक्तगत जीवन अनुभव� क� चचार्
क� जा सकती ह�|
4- संवाद शैल� का प्रयोग कर आप फ�चर को रोचक बना सकते ह�|
 फ�चर
चन
ु ावी सभा म� नेताजी के वायदे
भारतीय लोकतंत्र �वश्व �क सव�त्तम शासन प्रणा�लय� म� से एक है | इसमे जनता द्वारा चन
ु े गए
प्र�त�न�ध , जनता क� इच्छाओं को पूरा करने के �लए जनता द्वारा ह� शासन चलाते है | जन
प्र�त�न�धय� को चन
ु ने �क यह प्रणाल� चन
ु ाव कहलाती है | आजकल भारत म� चन
ु ाव �कसी बड़े युद्ध से
कम नह�ं है |
इन जनयुद्ध म� चय�नत प्र�त�न�धय� को सीधे मतदान प्रणाल� से चन
ु ा जाता है | इस अवसर पर हर नेता
जनता के सामने हाथ जोड़कर उन्ह� �रझाने के �लए नए- नए वायदे करता है | ऐसी िस्थ�त म� हर नेता
को अपने कद एवं प्र�स�द्ध का पता लोग� �क प्र�त�क्रयाओं से ह� चलता है |
इस बार के �वधान सभा चन
ु ाव म� मुझे एक नेता के जन सभा दे खने का अवसर प्राप्त हुआ| यह जन
सभा नगर के एक राजक�य �वद्यालय म� आयोिजत �क गयी थी | इस अवसर पर �वद्यालय के लम्बे
चौड़े मैदान म� एक बड़ा पंडाल लगा था| िजसमे हजार� लोग� को एक साथ बैठने क� व्यवस्था क� गयी
थी| जब पंडाल म� भीड़ जट
ु गयी तब मंच पर नेताओं का आना शरू
ु हुआ | पहले मंच पर स्थानीय
नेताओं ने रं ग ज़माना शुरू �कया, �फर राष्ट्र�य स्तर के नेताओं ने लच्छे दार भाषण दे कर लोग� का
संबो�धत �कया| इन नेताओं ने �वप�ी पाट� के नेता को जमकर कोसा एवं अपने नेता को िजताने के
�लए जनता से वोट मांगते हुए वापस चल �दए साथ ह� जनता भी अपने घर� को लौट गयी| �वद्यालय
के मैदान म� बचा रह गया तो केवल ढे र सी गन्दगी एवं कूड़ा-करकट | चन
ु ाव म� नेता जीते या नह�ं
जीते, पर यह सभा मेरे ह्रदय पर नेताओं के �व�चत्र आचरण �क एक छाप छोड़ गयी|
अभ्यास कायर्-
1- बस्ते का बढ़ता बोझ / गुम होता बचपन
2- गाँव� से पलायन करते लोग
3- मोबाइल के सुख दःु ख
4- महँ गाई के बोझ तले मजदरू
5- वाहन� क� बढ़ती संख्या
6- व�रष्ठ नाग�रक� के प्र�त हमारा नज�रया
7- �कसान का एक �दन
 खंड- ग
प्रश्न-8
सझ
ु ाव: प्रश्न संख्या 8 पाठ्य पुस्तक ���तज के काव्यांश पर आधा�रत होगा | इस प्रश्न को हल
करते समय �नम्न�ल�खत सुझाव आपके �लए कारगर हो सकता
1- �दए गए काव्यांश को ध्यानपूवक
र् दो बार पढ़� एवं उसके मूल अथर् को समझने का प्रयास कर�
|
2- दस
ू र� बार काव्यांश को पढ़ने से पूवर् प्रश्न� को भी पढ़ ल�, तत्पश्चात प� �सल से उत्तर संकेत
अं�कत कर� |
3- प्रश्न� का उतर दे ते समय संतोष जनक उत्तर एवं शब्द सीमा का ध्यान रख� |
4- पूछे गए प्रश्न� के उत्तर अपने शब्द� म� �लखने का प्रयास कर� |

उदाहरण -1

“आ�खरकार वह� हुआ िजसका मुझे डर था 2+2+2+2=8

ज़ोर ज़बरदस्ती से
बात क� चड़
ू ी मर गई
और वह भाषा म� बेकार घूमने लगी !
हार कर म�ने उसे क�ल क� तरह ठ�क �दया !
ऊपर से ठ�कठाक
पर अंदर से
न तो उसम� कसाव था
न ताकत !
बात ने ,जो एक शरारती बच्चे क� तरह
मुझसे खेल रह� थी,
मुझे पसीना प�छते दे खकर पूछा –
क्या तुमने भाषा को
सहू�लयत से बरतना कभी नह�ं सीखा ?

प्रश्न-क -बात क� चड़
ू ी कब मर जाती है ? उसका क्या प�रणाम होता है?
प्रश्न-ख -क�ल क� तरह ठ�कने – का क्या आशय है ?
प्रश्न-ग बात क� तल
ु ना शरारती बच्चे से क्य� क� गई है ?
प्रश्न-घ भाषा को सहू�लयत से बरतने का क्या आशय है ?
उत्तर – नमन
ू ा
 क. भाषा के साथ जोर-जबरदस्ती करने और तोड़ने-मरोड़ने से उसक� चड़
ू ी मर जाती है
प�रणामस्वरूप उसका प्रभाव नष्ट हो जाता है ।
ख. सीधी-सरल बात को बड़े-बड़े शब्द� म� उलझाकर छोड़ दे ना।
ग. जैसे बच्चा शरारती अ�नयं�त्रत होता है वैसे ह� कई बार बात ठ�क ढं ग से समझ म� नह�ं
आती है ।
घ. भाषा को अनावश्यक ढं ग से रस, छं द, अलंकार� म� बाँधने के बजाय सहज, सरल और
स्वाभा�वक ढं ग से प्रयोग म� लाना ।

उदाहरण -2
“�तरती है समीर-सागर पर 2+2+2+2=8
अिस्थर सुख पर दःु ख क� छाया –
जग के दग्ध हृदय पर
�नदर् य �वप्लव क� प्ला�वत माया-
यह तेर� रण-तर�
भर� आकां�ाओं से ,
घन भेर� –गजर्न से सजग सप्ु त अंकुर
उर म� पथ्
ृ वी के, आशाओं से नवजीवन क� ,ऊंचा कर �सर,
ताक रहे ह� ,ऐ �वप्लव के बादल!
�फर –�फर
बार –बार गजर्न
वषर्ण है मस
ू लधार ,
हृदय थाम लेता संसार ,
सुन- सुन घोर वज्र हुंकार |
अश�न पात से शा�यत शत-शत वीर ,
�त –�व�त हत अचल शर�र,
गगन- स्पश� स्पद्धार् धीर |”

प्रश्न1 :- क�वता म� बादल �कस का प्रतीक है ?और क्य�?

प्रश्न 2 :-क�व ने ‘जग के दग्ध हृदय’– का प्रयोग �कस अथर् म� �कया है ?
प्रश्न3 :-�वप्लवी बादल क� युद्ध रूपी नौका क� क्या- क्या �वशेषताएं ह�?
प्रश्न4 :-बादल के बरसने का गर�ब एवं धनी वगर् से क्या संबंध जोड़ा गया है ?

उत्तर 1:-बादलराग क्रां�त का प्रतीक है । इन दोन� के आगमन के उपरांत �वश्व हरा- भरा. समद्ध
ृ और
स्वस्थ हो जाता है ।
2- क�व ने शोषण से पी�ड़त लोग� को ‘जग के दग्ध हृदय’कहा है क्य��क वे लोग अभाव और शोषण के
कारण पी�ड़त ह�। वे करुणा का जल चाहते ह�। इसके �लए बादल रूपी क्रां�त से बरतने क� प्रारथना क�
गई है ।
3- :-बादल� के अंदर आम आदमी क� इच्छाएँ भर� हुई ह�।िजस तरह से यु�ध नौका म� युद्ध क� सामग्री
भर� होती है ।युद्ध क� तरह बादल के आगमन पर रणभेर� बजती है । सामान्यजन क� आशाओं के अंकुर
एक साथ फूट पड़ते ह�।
4- बादल के बरसने से गर�ब वगर् आशा से भर जाता है एवं धनी वगर् अपने �वनाश क� आशंका से
भयभीत हो उठता है ।

उदाहरण-- 3

सत
ु �बत ना�र भवन प�रवारा। हो�हं जा�हं जग बार�हं बारा॥
अस �बचा�र िजयँ जागहु ताता। �मलइ न जगत सहोदर भ्राता॥
जथा पंख �बनु खग अ�त द�ना। म�न �बनु फ�न क�रबर कर ह�ना॥
अस मम िजवन बंधु �बनु तोह�। ज� जड़ दै व िजआवै मोह�॥
जैहउँ अवध कवन मह
ु ु लाई। ना�र हे तु �प्रय भाइ गँवाई॥
बरु अपजस सहतेउँ जग माह�ं। ना�र हा�न �बसेष छ�त नाह�ं॥

प्रश्न-1 राम के अनुसार कौन सी वस्तुओं क� हा�न बड़ी हा�न नह�ं है और क्य� ?
प्रश्न-2 पंख के �बना प�ी और सूंड के �बना हाथी क� क्या दशा होती है काव्य प्रसंग म� इनका उल्लेख
क्य� �कया गया है ?
प्रश्न-3 जैहउँ अवध कवन मुहु लाई– कथन के पीछे �न�हत भाव को स्पष्ट क�िजए।
प्रश्न-4 राम ने नार� के �वषयम� जो �टप्पणी क� है – उस पर �वचार क�िजए।
उत्तर- 1 - उत्तर :-राम के अनुसार धन ,पुत्र एवं नार� क� हा�न बड़ी हा�न नह�ं है क्य��क ये सब खो
जाने पर पुन: प्राप्त �कये जा सकते ह� पर एक बार सगे भाई के खो जाने पर उसे पुन: प्राप्त नह�ं
�कया जा सकता |
2- राम �वलाप करते हुए अपनी भावी िस्थ�त का वणर्न कर रहे ह� �क जैसे पंख के �बना प�ी और
सूंड के �बना हाथी पी�ड़त हो जाता है ,उनका अिस्तत्व नगण्य हो जाता है वैसा ह� असहनीय कष्ट राम
को ल�मण के न होने से होगा |

3. ल�मण अपने भाई को बहुत प्यार करते ह�। भाई राम �क सेवा के �लए राजमहल त्याग �दया। अब
उन्ह�ं के मूिच्छर् त होने पर राम को अत्यंत ग्ला�न हो रह� है ।

4- राम ने नार� के �वषय म� �टप्पणी क� है - ‘ना�र हा�न �वसेष छ�त नाह�ं’। यह �टप्पणी वास्तव म�
प्रलापवश क� है । यह अत्यंत दख
ु ी हृदय क� चीत्कार मात्र है । इसम� भ्रात-ृ शोक व्यक्त हुआ है । इसम� नार�
�वषयक नी�त-वचन खोजना व्यथर् है ।
अभ्यास हे तु प्रश्न

1.
“नौरस गुंचे पंख�ड़य� क� नाज़ुक �गरह� खोले ह�
या उड़ जाने को रं गो-बू गुलशन म� पर तौले ह� |”
तारे आँखे झपकाव� ह� जरार्-जरार् सोये ह�।
तुम भी सुनो हे यार� ! शब म� सन्नाटे कुछ बोले ह�।

प्रश्न1 :- ‘नौरस’ �वशेषण द्वारा क�व �कस अथर् क� व्यंजना करना चाहता है ?
प्रश्न2 :- पंख�ड़य� क� नाज़ुक �गरह� खोलने का क्या अ�भप्राय है ?
प्रश्न3 :- ‘रं गो- बू गल
ु शन म� पर तौले ह�’ – का अथर् स्पष्ट क�िजए|
प्रश्न4- ‘जरार्-जरार् सोये ह�’– का क्या आशय है ?

“िज़ंदगी म� जो कुछ भी है
सहषर् स्वीकारा है ;
इस�लए �क जो कुछ भी मेरा है
वह तुम्ह� प्यारा है|
गरबील� गर�बी यह, ये गंभीर अनुभव सबयह वैभव �वचार सब
दृढ़ता यह,भीतर क� स�रता यह अ�भनव सब
मौ�लक है , मौ�लक है
इस�लए �क पल-पल म�
जो कुछ भी जाग्रत है अपलक है -
संवेदन तुम्हारा है !”

प्रश्न 1:- क�व और क�वता का नाम �ल�खए|

प्रश्न2:- गरबील� गर�बी,भीतर क� स�रता आ�द प्रयोग� का अथर् स्पष्ट क�िजए |
प्रश्न 3 :- क�व अपने �प्रय को �कस बात का श्रेय दे रहा है ?
प्रश्न 4 – क�व को गर�बी कैसी लगती है और क्य�?

3
“म� जग-जीवन का भार �लए �फरता हूँ,
�फर भी जीवन म� प्यार �लए �फरता हूँ,
कर �दया �कसी ने झंकृत िजनको छूकर,
म� साँस� के दो तार �लए �फरता हूँ
म� स्नेह-सरु ा का पान �कया करता हूँ,
म� कभी न जग का ध्यान �कया करता हूँ”
प्रश्न १:-क�व अपने हृदय म� क्या - क्या �लए �फरता है?
प्रश्न २:- क�व का जग से कैसा �रश्ता है ?
प्रश्न३:- प�रवेश का व्यिक्त से क्या संबंध है ?म� साँस� के दो तार �लए �फरता हूँ’ - के माध्यमसे क�व
क्या कहना चाहता है ?
प्रश्न4- क�व जग का ध्यान क्य� नह� �कया करता है ?

प्रश्न-9

प्रश्न संख्या 9 के अंतगर्त प�ठत क�वता से 2 अंको के 3 प्रश्न सौन्दयर्बोध आधा�रत पूछे जाएंगे| इन
प्रश्न� का उत्तर दे ते समय �नम्न सुझाव आपके �लए कारगर हो सकता है
1- पूव�
र् ान (अलंकार,रस.छं द ,भाषा एवं �बंब आ�द से संबं�धत) क� पुनराविृ त्त कर ल� |
2- क�वता क� पंिक्तय�/ प्रयक्
ु त शब्द� को उद्धृत करते हुए प्रश्न� का उत्तर द� |

स�दयर्-बोध संबंधी प्रश्न

उदाहरण - 1.

‘‘जन्म से ह� लाते ह� अपने साथ कपास’-

‘�दशाओं को मद
ृ ं ग क� बजाते हुए’
‘और भी �नडर हो कर सुनहले सूरज के सामने आते ह�’।
‘छत� को और भी नरम बनाते हुए’।
‘जब वे प� ग भरते हुए चले आते ह�
डाल क� तरह लचीले वेग से अक्सर।‘
छत� के खतरनाक �कनार� तक
उस समय �गरने से बचाता है उन्ह�
�सफर् उनके ह� रोमां�चत शार�र का संगीत’’ |

क. प्रस्तुत काव्यांश क� भाषा संबंधी दो �वशेषताएँ बताइए।

ख. �बम्ब स�दयर् स्पष्ट क�िजए।
ग. �शल्प-सौदयर् स्पष्ट क�िजए।
उत्तर-
क. सा�हित्यक खड़ी बोल� के साथ-साथ तत्सम और उदर् ू शब्द� क� प्रमख
ु ता है ।
 ख. �दशाओं को मद
ृ ं ग क� तरह बजाना, डाल क� तरह लचीले वेग से, प� ग भरते हुए इत्या�द �बम्ब
नवीन और दशर्नीय ह�।
ग. बच्चे के उत्साह के �लए प� ग भरना, लचीले वेग, बेचन
ै पैर का प्रयोग दशर्नीय है । उपमाओं का
सू�म एवं मनोरम प्रयोग दृष्टव्य है । शैल� म� रोचकता है ।

“प्रात नभ था बहुत नीला शंख जैसे

भोर का नभ
राख से ल�पा चौका
(अभी गीला पड़ा है )
बहुत काल� �सल ज़रा से लाल केसर
से �क जैसे धल
ु गई हो
स्लेट पर या लाल ख�ड़या चाक
मल द� हो �कसी ने
नील जल म� या �कसी क�
गौर �झल�मल दे ह
जैसे �हल रह� हो |
और .....
जाद ू टूटता है इस उषा का अब
सूय�दय हो रहा है |”

प्रश्न 1- क�वता क� भाषा एवं अ�भव्यिक्त संबंधी �वशेषताएं �ल�खए।

प्रश्न 2- ं
क�वता म� आए दो अलंकार� को छॉटकर �ल�खए।
प्रश्न 3- काव्यांश म� प्रयुक्त �बंब योजना स्पष्ट क�िजए।

उत्तर 1- भाषा सहज और संस्कृत�नष्ठ �हंद� है । �बम्बात्मकता के साथ लघु शब्दावल�युक्त मुक्त छं द
का सुंदर प्रयोग हुआ है ।
2- उपमा अलंकार:- भोर का नभ, राख से ल�पा चौका
उत्प्रे�ा अलंकार:-“बहुत काल� �सल जरा से लाल केसर से �क जैसे धल
ु गई हो।
‘नील जल म� या �कसी क�गौर �झल�मल दे ह जैसे �हल रह� हो’
मानवीकरण अलंकार का प्रयोग।
3- नवीन और ग्रामीण उपमान� का सुंदर प्रयोग हुआ है । ग�तशील दृश्य �बम्ब� क� सुंदर छटा दशर्नीय है ।
3
“�कसबी, �कसान-कुल ,ब�नक, �भखार� ,भाट,
चाकर ,चपल नट ,चोर, चार ,चेटक�|
पेटको पढ्त,गन
ु गढ़त, चढ़त �ग�र,
अटत गहन –गन अहन अखेट्क�|
ऊंचे –नीचे करम ,धरम –अधरम क�र,
पेट ह� को पचत, बचत बेटा –बेटक� |
‘तल
ु सी’ बझ
ु ाई एक राम घनस्याम ह� त� ,
आ�ग बड़वा�गत� बड़ी है आ�ग पेटक�|”

प्रश्न१:- क�वतावल� �कस भाषा म� �लखी गई है ?

प्रश्न२:- क�वतावल� म� प्रयक्
ु त छं द एवं रस को स्पष्ट क�िजए |
प्रश्न३:- क�वत्त म� प्रयुक्त अलंकार� को छांट कर �ल�खए |

उत्तर 1- उत्तर :- चलती हुई ब्रज भाषा का सुंदर प्रयोग।

2- इस पद म� 31. 31 वण� का चार चरण� वाला समव�णर्क क�वत्त छं द है िजसम� 16 एवं 15 वण�
पर �वराम होता है । करुण रस क� अ�भव्यिक्त।
3- क- अनुप्रास अंलकार–
�कसबी, �कसान-कुल ,ब�नक, �भखार� ,भाट,
चाकर ,चपल नट ,चोर, चार ,चेटक�|
ख. रूपक अलंकार– राम– घनश्याम
ग. अ�तशयोिक्त अलंकार– आ�ग बड़वा�गत� ब�ड़ है आग पेट क�।

अभ्यास हे तु प्रश्न
1
“नहला के छलके-छलके �नमर्ल जल से
उलझे हुए गेसुओं म� कंघी करके
�कस प्यार से दे खता है बच्चा मँह
ु को
जब घुट�नय� म� लेके है �पन्हाती कपड़े”|
प्रश्न1- काव्यांश म� प्रयक्
ु त रस और छं द को स्पष्ट क�िजए।
2- भाषा स�दयर् स्पष्ट क�िजए।
3- �बम्ब और अलंकार स्पष्ट क�िजए।

2
“छोटा मेरा खेत चौकोना
कागज़ का एक पन्ना ,कोई अंधड़ कह�ं से आया
�ण का बीज वहाँ बोया गया|
कल्पना के रसायन� को पी
बीज गल गया �न:शेष ;शब्द के अंकुर फूटे ,
पल्लव –पुष्प� से न�मत हुआ �वशेष |”

प्रश्न 1- काव्यांश के भा�षक स�दयर् को स्पष्ट क�िजए।

2- काव्याँश म� प्रयुक्त अलंकार खोजकर �ल�खए।
3- ‘बीज गल गया �नःशेष’ के सौदयर् स्पष्ट क�िजए।

3
“जाने क्या �रश्ता है , जाने क्या नाता है
िजतना भी उं डेलता हूँ ,भर –भर �फर आता है
�दल म� क्या झरना है ?
मीठे पानी का सोता है
भीतर वह ,ऊपर तुम
मुस्काता चाँद ज्य� धरती पर रात- भर
मुझ पर त्य� तुम्हारा ह� �खलता वह चेहरा है |”
प्रश्न1 - क�वता क� भाषा संबंधी दो �वशेषताएँ �ल�खए |
प्रश्न-2 - काव्यांश म� प्रयुक्त अलंकार खोजकर बताइए।
प्रश्न-3 काव्यांश म� प्रयुक्त उपमान� का अथर् बताइए।

प्रश्न- संख्या 10
इसके अंतगर्त प�ठत क�वताओं के �वषय-वस्तु पर आधा�रत प्रश्न 3 अंक के 2 प्रश्न पूछे जाएंगे| इन
प्रश्न� का उत्तर दे ते समय �नम्न सुझाव पर ध्यान द� |
1- पाठ्य-पुस्तक ���तज म� द� गयी क�वताओं के मूलभाव / अथर् को बार बार अध्ययन कर समझने
का प्रयास कर� |
2- पूछे गए प्रश्न को कम से कम दो बार पढ़े एवं ता�कर्क ढं ग से उत्तर �लखे |
प्रश्न 10- क�वताओं क� �वषय-वस्तु से संबं�धत दो लघत्ू तरात्मक प्रश्न पछ
ू े जाएँगे। 3+3 =6
इन प्रश्न� के उत्तर के �लए सभी क�वताओं के सारांश\सार जानना आवश्यक होता है ।
नमूना 1- कैमरे म� अपा�हज’ करुणा के मुखौटे म� �छपी क्रूरता क� क�वता है ? �वचार क�िजए।

उत्तर- यह क�वता मानवीय करुणा को तो व्यक्त करती ह� है; साथ ह� इस क�वता म� ऐसे लोग� क�
बनावट� करुणा का भी वणर्न �मलता है जो दख
ु -ददर् ब�चकर प्र�स�द्ध एवं आ�थर्क लाभ प्राप्त करना चाहते
ह�। एक अपा�हज क� करुणा को पैसे के �लए टे ल�वीजन पर दशार्ना वास्तव म� क्रूरता क� चरम सीमा है ।
�कसी क� करुणा, अभाव, ह�नता कष्ट को बेचकर अपना �हत साधना �नतांत क्रूराता क� श्रेणी म� आता
है । क�वता म� इसी प्रकार क� क्रूरता व्यक्त हुई है ।

2- ‘सहषर् स्वीकारा है ’ क�वता म� क�व को अपने अनभ

ु व �व�शष्ट एवं मौ�लक लगते ह�। क्य�? स्पष्ट
क�िजए।

उत्तर:-क�व को अपनी स्वा�भमानयक्

ु त गर�बी, जीवन के गम्भीर अनभ
ु व �वचार� का वैभव, व्यिक्तत्व
क� दृढ़ता, मन क� भावनाओं क� नद�, यह सब नए रूप म� मौ�लक लगते ह� क्य� �क उसके जीवन म� जो
कुछ भी घटता है वह जाग्रत है , �वश्व उपयोगी है अत: उसक� उपलिब्ध है और वह उसक� �प्रया क�
प्रेरणा से ह� संभव हुआ है । उसके जीवन का प्रत्येक अभाव ऊजार् बनकर जीवन म� नई �दशा ह� दे ता रहा
है |

प्रश्न3:- क�वता के �कन उपमान� को दे ख कर कहा जा सकता है �क उषा गाँव क� सुबह का ग�तशील
शब्द �चत्र है ?

उत्तर :-क�वता म� नीले नभ को राख से �लपे गीले चौके के समान बताया गया है | दस
ू रे �बंब म� उसक�
तुलना काल� �सल से क� गई है | तीसरे म� स्लेट पर लाल ख�ड़या चाक का उपमान है |ल�पा हुआ आँगन
,काल� �सल या स्लेट गाँव के प�रवेश से ह� �लए गए ह� |प्रात: काल�न स�दयर् क्रमश: �वक�सत होता है ।
सवर्प्रथम राख से ल�पा चौका जो गील� राख के कारण गहरे स्लेट� रं ग का अहसास दे ता है और पौ
फटने के समय आकाश के गहरे स्लेट� रं ग से मेल खाता है ।उसके पश्चात त�नक ला�लमा के �मश्रण से
काल� �सल का जरा से लाल केसर से धल
ु ना सट�क उपमान है तथा सय
ू र् क� ला�लमा के रात क� काल�
स्याह� म� घुल जाने का सुंदर �बंब प्रस्तुत करता है | धीरे –धीरे ला�लमा भी समाप्त हो जाती है और सुबह
का नीला आकाश नील जल का आभास दे ता है व सूयर् क� स्व�णर्म आभा गौरवण� दे ह के नील जल म�
नहा कर �नकलने क� उपमा को साथर्क �सद्ध करती है |

प्रश्न 4- ‘अश�न-पात से शा�पत उन्नत शत-शत वीर’ पंिक्त म� �कसक� ओर संकेत�कया गया है?
उत्तर:- इस पंिक्त म� क�व ने क्रां�त के �वरोधी पंज
ू ीप�त-सामंती वगर् क� ओर संकेत �कया है । िजस
प्रकार बादल क� गजर्ना के साथ �बजल� �गरने से बड़े –बड़े व�
ृ जल कर राख हो जाते ह� | उसी प्रकार
क्रां�त क� आंधी आने से शोषक, धनी वगर् क� सत्ता समाप्त हो जाती है और वे खत्म हो जाते ह� |
प्रश्न 5- छोटे चौकोने खेत को कागज का पन्ना कहने म� क्या अथर् �न�हत है ? पाठ के आधार पर स्पष्ट
क�िजए।
उत्तर- कागज का पन्ना, िजस पर रचना शब्दबद्ध होती है , क�व को एक चौकोर खेतलगता है । इस खेत
म� �कसी अँधड़ (आशय भावनात्मक आँधी से होगा) के प्रभाव से �कसी �ण एक बीज बोया जाता है । यह
बीज-रचना �वचार और अ�भव्यिक्त का हो सकता है । यह मूल रूप कल्पना का सहारा लेकर �वक�सत
होता है और प्र�क्रया म� स्वयं �वग�लत हो जाता है । इसीप्रकार बीज भी खाद, पानी, सूयर् क� रोशनी,हवा
आ�द लेकर �वक�सत होता है | काव्य–रचना से शब्द� के अंकुर �नकलते ह� और अंततः कृ�त एक पूणर्
स्वरूप ग्रहण करती है , जो कृ�ष-कमर् के �लहाज से पल्ल�वत–पुिष्पत और फ�लत होने क� िस्थ�त है ।

अभ्यास हे तु प्रश्न-

1- जहाँ दाना रहते ह� वह�ं नादान भी रहते ह�। क�व ने ऐसा क्य� कहा है । पाठ के आधार पर उत्तर
द�िजए।
2- क�व के जीवन म� ऐसा क्या-क्या है िजसे उसने स्वीकार �कया है और क्य�?
3- अिस्थर सुख पर दख
ु क� छाया – पंिक्त म� दख
ु क� छया �कसे कहा गया है और क्य�?
4- शोक-ग्रस्त माहौल म� हनुमान के अवतरण को करुण रस के बीच वीर रस का आ�वभार्व क्य� कहा
गया है? पाठ के आधार पर स्पष्ट क�िजए।
5- खद
ु का परदा खोलने से क�व का क्या आशय है ? प�ठत पाठ के आधार पर �ल�खए।
6- ‘रस का अ�य-पात्र’ से क�व ने रचना-कमर् क� �कन �वशेषताओं को इं�गत गया है? छोटा मेरा
खेत- पाठ के आधार पर स्पष्ट क�िजए।

प्रश्न-11

इसके अंतगर्त प�ठत गद्यांश �दया जाएगा िजस पर 2 अंक� के 4 प्रश्न पूछे जाएंगे| इस प्रश्न का उत्तर
दे ते समय �नम्न सुझाव आपके �लए लाभदायक हो सकता है |
1- �दए गए गद्यांश को ध्यान से दो बार ध्यान से पढ़े |
2- दस
ू र� बार गद्यांश को पढ़ने से पूवर् प्रश्न� को पढ़े एवं गद्यांश म� उत्तर संकेत �मलने पर प� �सल
से अं�कत कर� |
3- प्रश्न� के उत्तर दे ते समय गद्यांश के पंिक्तय� को ज्य� का त्य� �लखने से बचे| |
उदाहरण-1

बाजार म� एक जाद ू है । वह जाद ू आँख क� तरह काम करता है । वह रूप का जाद ू है पर जैसे चब
ुं क का
जाद ू लोहे पर ह� चलता है , वैसे ह� इस जाद ू क� भी मयार्दा है जेब भर� हो, और मन खाल� हो, ऐसी
हालत म� जाद ू का असर खब
ू होता है । जेब खाल� पर मन भरा न हो तो भी जाद ू चल जाएगा। मन
खाल� है तो बाजार क� अनेकानेक चीज� का �नमंत्रण उस तक पहुँच जाएगा। कह�ं उस वक्त जेब भर�,
तब तो �फर वह मन �कसक� मानने वाला है । मालूम होता है यह भी लँ ,ू वह भी लँ ।ू सभी सामान जरूर�
और आराम को बढ़ाने वाला मालूम होता है पर यह सब जाद ू का असर है । जाद ू क� सवार� उतर� �क
पता चलता है �क फ�सी-चीज� क� बहुतायत आराम म� मदद नह�ं दे ती, बिल्क खलल ह� डालती है । थोड़ी
दे र को स्वा�भमान को जरूर स�क �मल जाता है पर इससे अ�भमान को �गल्ट� क� खरु ाक ह� �मलती है ।
जकड़ रे शमी डोर� क� हो तो रे शम के स्पशर् के मल
ु ायम के कारण क्या वह कम जकड़ दे गी ?

पर उस जाद ू क� जकड़ से बचने का एक सीधा उपाय है वह यह �क बाजार जाओ तो खाल� मन

न हो । मन खाल� हो तब बाजार न जाओ कहते ह�, लू म� जाना हो तो पानी पीकर जाना चा�हए पानी
भीतर हो, लू का लूपन व्यथर् हो जाता है । मन ल�य से भरा हो तो बाजार फैला का फैला ह� रह जाएगा।
तब वह घाव �बलकुल नह�ं दे सकेगा, बिल्क कुछ आनंद ह� दे गा। तब बाजार तुमसे कृताथर् होगा, क्य��क
तुम कुछ न कुछ सच्चा लाभ उसे दोगे। बाजार क� असल� कृताथर्ता है आवश्यकता के समय काम आना।

2+2+2+2=8

प्रश्न-1 बाजार का जाद ू हम� कैसे प्रभा�वत करता है ?

उत्तर- बाजार के रूप का जाद ू आँख� क� राह से काम करता हुआ हम� आक�षर्त करता है । बाजार का
जाद ू ऐसे चलता है जैसे लोहे के ऊपर चब
ुं क का जाद ू चलता है । चमचमाती रोशनी म� सजी फ�सी चींज�
ग्राहक को अपनी ओर आक�षर्त करती ह�| इसी चम्
ु बक�य शिक्त के कारण व्यिक्त �फजूल सामान को भी
खर�द लेता है |

प्रश्न-2 बाजारके जाद ू का असर कब होता है ?

उत्तर- जेब भर� हो और मन खाल� हो तो हमारे ऊपर बाजार का जाद ू खब

ू असर करता है । मन, खाल�
है तो बाजार क� अनेकानेक चीज� का �नमंत्रण मन तक पहुँच जाता है और उस समय य�द जेब भर� हो
तो मन हमारे �नयंत्रण म� नह�ं रहता।

प्रश्न-3 फ�सी चीज� क� बहुतायत का क्या प�रणाम होता है?

उत्तर- फ�सी चीज� आराम क� जगह आराम म� व्यवधान ह� डालती है । थोड़ी दे र को अ�भमान को जरूर
स�क �मल जाती है पर �दखावे क� प्रविृ त्त म� व�ृ द्ध होती है ।

प्रश्न-4लेखक ने जाद ू क� जकड़ से बचने का क्या उपाय बतायाहै ?

उत्तर- जाद ू क� जकड़ से बचने के �लए एक ह� उपाय है , वह यह है �क बाजार जाओ तो मन खाल� न
हो, मन खाल� हो तो बाजार मत जाओ।

उदाहरण- 2

अँधेर� रात चप
ु चाप आँसू बहा रह� थी | �नस्तब्धता करुण �सस�कय� और आह� को अपने हृदय म� ह�
बल पूवक
र् दबाने क� चेष्टा कर रह� थी | आकाश म� तारे चमक रहे थे | पथ्
ृ वी पर कह�ं प्रकाश का नाम
नह�ं| आकाश से टूट कर य�द कोई भावुक तारा पथ्
ृ वी पर आना भी चाहता तो उसक� ज्यो�त और शिक्त
रास्ते म� ह� शेष हो जाती थी | अन्य तारे उसक� भावुकता अथवा असफलता पर �खल�खलाकर हँ स पड़ते
थे | �सयार� का क्रंदन और पेचक क� डरावनी आवाज रात क� �नस्तब्धता को भंग करती थी | गाँव क�
झोप�डय� से कराहने और कै करने क� आवाज, हरे राम हे भगवान क� टे र सन
ु ाई पड़ती थी| बच्चे भी
�नबर्ल कंठ� से माँ –माँ पुकारकर रो पड़ते थे |

प्रश्न - 2+2+2+2=8
1. इस गद्यांश के लेखक और पाठ का नाम �ल�खए।
2- अँधेर� रात को आँसू बहाते हुए क्य� प्रतीत हो रह� है ?
3- तार� के माध्यम से लेखक क्या कहना चाहता है ?
4- झोप�ड़य� से कराहनेक� आवाज� क्य�आ रह� ह�?
उत्तर- 1- फणीश्वर नाथ रे णु – पहलवान क� ढोलक
2- गाँव म� है जा और मले�रया फैला हुआ था | महामार� क� चपेट म� आकार लोग मर रहे थे|चार� ओर
मौत का सनाटा छाया था इस�लए अँधेर� रात भी चप
ु चाप आँसू बहाती सी प्रतीत हो रह� थी|
3- तार� के माध्यम से लेखक कहना चाहता है �क अकाल और महामार� से त्रस्त गाँव वाल� क� पीड़ा को
दरू करने वाला कोई नह�ं था | प्रकृ�त भी गाँव वाल� के दःु ख से दख
ु ी थी| आकाश से टूट कर य�द कोई
भावुक तारा पथ्
ृ वी पर आना भी चाहता तो उसक� ज्यो�त और शिक्त रास्ते म� ह� शेष हो जाती थी |
4- झोप�ड़य� से रो�गय� के कराहने, कै करने और रोने क� आवाज� आ रह� ह� क्य��क गाँव के लोग
मले�रया और है जे से पी�ड़त थे | अकाल के कारण अन्न क� कमी हो गयी थी| औष�ध और पथ्य न
�मलने के कारण लोग� क� हालत इतनी बुर� थी �क कोई भगवान को पुकार लगाता था तो कोई दब
ु ल
र्
कंठ से माँ–माँ पुकारता था |

उदाहरण- 3
अब तक स�फया का गस्
ु सा उतर चक
ु ा था। भावना के स्थान पर ब�ु द्ध धीरे -धीरे उस स्थान पर हावी हो
रह� थीं नमक क� पु�ड़या तो ले जानी है , पर कैसे? अच्छा, अगर इसे हाथ म� ले ल� और कस्टम वाल� के
सामने सबसे पहले इसी को रख द� ?ले�कन अगर कस्टमवाल� ने न जाने �दया! तो मजबूर� है , छोड़ द� ग�।
ले�कन �फर उस वायदे का क्या होगा जो हमने अपनी माँ से �कया था?हम अपने को सैयद कहते ह�।
�फर वायदा करके झठ
ु लाने के क्या मायने? जान दे कर भी वायदा परू ा करना होगा। मगर कैसे?अच्छा!
अगर इसे क�नुओं क� टोकर� म� सबसे नीचे रख �लया जाए तो इतने क�नुओं के ढे र म� भला कौन इसे
दे खेगा? और अगर दे ख �लया? नह�ं जी,फल� क� टोक�रयाँ तो आते वक्त भी �कसी क� नह�ं दे खी जा रह�
थीं। इधर से केले, इधर से क�नू सब ह� ला रहे थे, ले जा रहे थे। यह� ठ�क है ,�फर दे खा जाएगा।
प्रश्न- 2+2+2+2=8
(क) स�फया का गस्
ु सा क्य� उतर गया था?
(ख) स�फया क� क्या भावना थी और वह उसक� बु�द्ध के सामने �कस प्रकार परास्त हो गई?
(ग) स�फया क� उधेड़बुन का क्या कारण है ?
(घ) स�फया ने �कस वायदे को पूरा करने क� बात क� है ?उसे उसने �कस प्रकार पूरा �कया।
उत्तर- 1 उसके भाई से नमक ले जाने के संबंध म� वाद-�ववाद हो गया था।
2- स�फया चाहती थी �क नमक खल
ु े-आम ले जाए ले�कन उसे अब डर सताने लगा था �क अगर न ले
जाने �दया जाएगा तो क्या होगा!
3- वह नमक ले जाना चाहती थी ले�कन कैसे ले जाए। वह छुपा कर ले जाए या �दखाकर; वह इसी
उधेड़बुन म� पड़ी थी।
4 –स�फया नमक ले जाने का वादा पूरा करना चाहती थी। उसने नमक क� पु�ड़या को क�नुओं क� टोकर�
म� रख �लया और सोचा �क क�नओ
ु ं के साथ नमक भी चला जाएगा और �कसी को कोई शक भी नह�ं
होगा।
अभ्यास हे तु प्रश्न-1

चाल� क� अ�धकांश �फल्म� भाषा का इस्तेमाल नह�ं करती इस�लए उन्ह� ज्यादा से ज्यादा मानवीय होना

पडा।सवाक् �चत्रपट पर कई बडे-बडे कॉमे�डयन हुए ह�, ले�कन वे चैिप्लन क� सावर्भौ�मकता तक क्य� नह�ं

पहुँच पाए इसक� पड़ताल अभी होने को है । चाल� का �चर-युवा होना या बच्च� जैसा �दखना एक �वशेषता

तो है ह�,सबसे बड़ी �वशेषता शायद यह है �क वे �कसी भी संस्कृ�त को �वदे शी नह�ं लगते। यानी उनके

आसपास जो भी चीज�,अड़ंग�, खलनायक, दष्ु ट औरत� आ�द रहते ह� वे एक सतत ‘�वदे श’ या ‘परदे श’ बन

जाते ह� और चैिप्लन ‘हम’ बन जाते ह�। चाल� के सारे संकट� म� हम� यह भी लगता है �क यह ‘मै’ भी हो

सकता हूँ, ले�कन ‘मै’ से ज्यादा चाल� हम� ‘हम’ लगतेह�। यह संभव है �क कुछ अथ� म� ‘बस्टर क�टन’

चाल� चैिप्लन से बड़ी हास्य-प्र�तभा हो ले�कन क�टन हास्य का काफ्का है जब�क चैिप्लन प्रेमचंद के

ज्यादा नजद�क ह�।

क -चाल� क� अ�धकांश �फल्म� म� भाषा का इस्तेमाल क्य� नह�ं होता था?

ख-चाल� चैिप्लन क� सावर्भौ�मकता का क्या कारण है ?
ग- चाल� क� �फल्म� क� �वशेषता क्या है ?
घ- चाल� के कारनाम� हम� ‘म�’ न लगकर ‘हम’ क्य� लगते ह� ?
अभ्यास हे तु प्रश्न-2
अवधत ू � के मुख से ह� संसार क� सबसे सरस रचनाएं �नकल� ह�। कबीर बहुत कुछ इस �शर�ष के समान
ह� थे, मस्त और बे परवा, पर सरस और मादक् । का�लदास भी ज़रूर अनासक्त योगी रहे ह�गे। �शर�ष
के फूल फक्कड़ाना मस्ती से ह� उपज सकते ह� और ‘मेघदत
ू ’का काव्य उसी प्रकार के अनासक्त अना�वल
उन्मक्
ु त हृदय म� उमड़ सकता है । जो क�व अनासक्त नह�ं रह सका, तो फक्कड़ नह�ं बन सका, जो
�कए-कराए का लेखा-जोखा �मलाने म� उलझ गया, वह भी क्या क�व है ?
क. संसार क� सबसे सरस रचनाएं कौन सी ह� ?
ख. लेखक ने �शर�ष क� तल
ु ना �कससे क� है और क्य� ?
ग. का�लदास को अनासक्त योगी क्य� कहा गया है ?
घ. इस गद्याँश का लेखक कौन है ? सच्चा क�व �कसे कहा गया है ?

प्रश्न संख्या -12

इसके अंतगर्त प�ठत पाठ्य-पुस्तक के गद्य भाग के �वषय वस्तु पर आधा�रत 3 अंक के 4 बोधात्मक
प्रश्न पूछे जाएंगे| इसका उत्तर दे ते समय �नम्न सुझाव आपके �लए कारगर हो सकता है-
1- प्रश्न� को ध्यान से पढ़� |
2- हल करते समय शब्द सीमा का ध्यान रखते हुए प्रश्न� को ता�कर्क ढं ग से �ल�खए |

उदाहरण- 1
1.भिक्तन पाठ के आधार पर �सद्ध क�िजए �क ग्रामीण समाज म� लड़के-लड़�कय� म� भेद-भाव �कया जाता
था।

2-लेखक ने बाजार का जाद ू �कसे कहा है ? बाद म� इसका क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है ?
3- आशय स्पष्ट क�िजए– ‘चैिप्लन ने �सफर् �फल्मकला को ह� लोकतां�त्रक नह� बनाया बिल्क दशर्क� क�
वगर् तथा वणर्-व्यवस्था को भी तोड़ा’।
4 - भीमराव अंबेडकर जा�तप्रथा को श्रम-�वभाजन का ह� एक रूप मानते थे। क्य�?
उत्तर-
1 - लड़के को सोने का �सक्का जब�क लड़क� को खोटा �सक्का माना जाता था। लड़के खेलेत-े कूदते,
लड़क� गोबर पाथती थी।इसी प्रकार खाने-पीने म� भी भेदभाव �कया जाता था। भिक्तन केवल बे�टय� क�
माँ थी और उसक� सास एवं दोन� जेठा�नयाँ बेट� क� माँ थी इसी�लए भिक्तन को प�रवार म� उपे�ा और
घण
ृ ा क� दृिष्ट से दे खा जाता था जब�क िजठा�नयाँ सारा �दन इधर-उधर क� बात� करती, गप्प� लड़ाती
दध
ू -भात खाती थी।

2- बाजार क� चमक-दमक के चब
ंु क�य आकषर्ण को बाजार का जाद ू कहा गया है , यह जाद ू आंख� क�
राह कायर् करता है । बाजार के इसी आकषर्ण के कारण ग्राहक सजी-धजी चीज� को आवश्यकता न होने
पर भी खर�दने को �ववश हो जाते ह�। उसे सभी वस्तुएँ अ�नवायर् और आराम बढ़ाने वाल� मालूम होती
ह�। यह� फ�सी चीज� बाजार के जाद ू के उतरने के बाद उसके आराम म� मदद नह�ं बिल्क खलल ह�
डालती ह�।
3- लोकतां�त्रक बनाने का अथर् है �क �कसी के साथ भेदभाव न करना बिल्क सभी के �लए लोक�प्रय
बनाना। चैिप्लन क� �फल्म� को हर वगर् के लोग पसंद करते थे। एक मजदरू से लेकर वै�ा�नक तक सभी
लोग� को उनक� �फ़ल्म� पसंद थी। वगर् और वणर् व्यवस्था को तोड़ने का अथर् है �क चाल� के अ�भनय को
प्रत्येक वगर्, प्रत्येक जा�त का व्यिक्त पसंद करता और सराहता है । हर व्यिक्त चाल� म� अपनी छ�व
दे खता है । म� इस बात से पूर� तरह से सहमत हूँ �क चाल� ने अपने अ�भनय से मनोरं जन क� द�ु नया का
हर अंतर �मटा �दया है ।
4. जा�त-प्रथा रु�च पर आधा�रत नह�ं ।
�मता और स्तर का ध्यान नह�ं रखा गया है ।
जीवन भर एक व्यवसाय म� बाँध दे ती है ।
�वपर�त प�रिस्थ�तय� म� भी पेशा बदलने क� अनुम�त नह�ं।
व्यिक्त के जन्म से पहले ह� श्रम-�वभाजन होना अनु�चत है ।

अभ्यास हे तु प्रश्न
1- डॉ० भीमराव अंबेडकर जा�तप्रथा को श्रम-�वभाजन का ह� एक रूप मानते थे। वे इसका �वरोध
करते थे। क्य�?
2- लेखक ने �शर�ष को कालजयी अवधत
ू क� तरह क्य� माना है ? पाठ के आधार पर स्पष्ट क�िजए।
3- ‘नमक ले जाने के बारे म� स�फया के मन म� उठे द्वंद्व� के आधार पर स�फया क� चा�र�त्रक
�वशेषताएँ बताइए |
4- चाल� चैिप्लन क� �फल्म� म� �न�हत त्रासद�/करुणा/हास्य का सामंजस्य भारतीय कला और
स�दयर्शास्त्र क� प�र�ध म� क्य� नह�ं आता?
5- गाँव म� महामार� फैलने और अपने बेट� के दे हांत के बावजद
ू लट्ट
ु न पहलवान ढोल क्य� बजाता
रहा?
6- जीजी ने इंदर सेना पर पानी फ�के जाने को �कस तरह सह� ठहराया?
7- बाजारूपन से क्या तात्पयर् है ? �कस प्रकार के व्यिक्त बाजार को साथर्कता प्रदान करते ह� अथवा
बाजार क� साथर्कता �कसम� है ?
8- भिक्तन अच्छ� है – यह कहना क�ठन होगा, क्य��क उसम� दग
ु ण
ुर् � का अभाव नह�ं है ,ले�खका ने
ऐसा क्य� कहा होगा?
 प्रश्न-संख्या 13
�वतान(पूरक पाठ्य-पुस्तक) भाग-2
इसके अंतगर्त पूरक पुस्तक �वतान से 5 अंक का एक मूल्य आधा�रत प्रश्न पूछा जाएगा| इस
प्रश्न का उत्तर दते समय आप �नम्न बात� का ध्यान रख� |
1- पूरक पुस्तक म� �दए गए पाठ� के मूलभाव को अच्छ� प्रकार समझ ल� |
2- प्रश्न को ध्यान से पढ़कर पूछे गए �न�हत मूल्य को समझने का प्रयास कर� एवं उ�चत
उत्तर द� |

प्रश्न 13 पाठ� क� �वषय-वस्तु पर आधा�रत एक मूल्यपरक प्रश्न पूछा जाएगा। - 5 अंक

1* �सन्धु सभ्यता से जुड़े इ�तहासकार� का मानना है �क यह सभ्यता �वश्व म� पहल� �ात संस्कृ�त
है जो कुएँ खोदकर भू-जल तक पहुँची। अकेले मुअनजो-दड़� नगर म� सात सौ कुएँ ह�। यहाँ का
महाकंु ड लगभग चाल�स फुट लम्बा ओर पच्चीस फुट चौड़ा है | इस प्रकार मअ
ु नजो-दड़� म� पानी क�
व्यवस्था सभ्य समाज क� पहचान है ।
प्रश्न–मुअनजो-दड़ो म� पानी क� उत्तम व्यवस्था थी। क्या पानी क� उत्तम व्यवस्था को सभ्य समाज
क� पहचान माना जा सकता है ? तकर् स�हत उत्तर द�िजए।
उत्तर- मुअनजो-दड़ो म� पानी के स्रोत क� अच्छ� व्यवस्था थी साथ ह� पानी के �नकासी क� भी
उत्तम व्यवस्था थी। जल ह� जीवन है । स्व्च्छ पेय-जल सब को प्राप्त हो ऐसा सभी का मानना है ।
आज भी बहुत सार� सरकार� चन
ु ाव के घोषणा पत्र म� स्वच्छ जल मुहैया कराने का वादा करती ह�।
उन्ह� मालूम है �क पानी हमारे जीवन का अ�भन्न अंग है । आजकल बोतल बंद पानी धड़ल्ले से
खर�दा और बेचा जा रहा है । सभी लोग स्वच्छ जल के प्र�त जागरूक हो चक
ु े ह�। स्वच्छ जल क�
आपू�तर् से न केवल प्यास बुझती है अ�पतु स्वास्थ्य भी ठ�क रहता है । अतः कहा जा सकता है �क
उ�चत जल का प्रबंध करना सभ्य समाज क� पहचान है ।
2* ‘प्रकृ�त-प्रदत्त जनन-शिक्त के उपयोग का अ�धकार बच्चे पैदा कर� या न कर� अथवा �कतने
बच्चे पैदा कर� - इसक� स्वतंत्रता स्त्री से छ�न कर हमार� �वश्व व्यवस्था ने न �सफर् स्त्री के
व्यिक्तत्व- �वकास के अनेक अवसर� से वं�चत �कया है बिल्क जना�धक्य क� समस्या भी पैदा क� है ।
प�ठत अंश के आधार पर ऐन फ्र�क के �वचार� से आप कहाँ तक सहमत ह�। सोचकर उत्तर द�िजए।
उत्तर- ऐन यह मानती ह� �क परु
ु ष अपनी शार��रक �मता के कारण ना�रय� पर शासन करते ह�। वह
यह भी मानती है �क �वश्व म� ना�रय� को उ�चत अ�धकार और सम्मान नह�ं �मल रहा है । उसका
मानना है �क नार� बच्चे को जन्म दे ते समय जो पीड़ा या कष्ट सहती है वह �कसी भी युद्ध म� लडने
वाले सै�नक� से कम नह�ं है । औरत� ने अपनी बेवकूफ� के कारण कष्ट, उपे�ा व असम्मान को सहन
�कया है । औरत� को उनके �हस्से का सम्मान �मलना चा�हए।
 ऐन का यह मानना �बल्कुल उ�चत है �क औरत� को बच्चा जनना बंद नह�ं करना चा�हए बिल्क
बच्चा जनने म� उसक� इच्छा और रजमंद� जरूर� होनी चा�हए। आज िस्थ�त बदल� है । िस्त्रयाँ
जागरूक हुई ह�। वे अपने अ�धकार और कतर्व्य के प्र�त सजग हुई ह�। मेरा मानना है �क िस्त्रय� के
संबंध म� ऐन के �वचार पूर� तरह आध�ु नक और उ�चत है ।
प्रश्न-अभ्यास
1. आप अगर भष
ू ण क� जगह होते तो अपने �पता जी का �सल्वर वै�डंग कैसे मनाते ? सोचकर
�ल�खए।
2. क�वता के प्र�त लगाव के बाद ‘जूझ’ कहानी के लेखक को अकेलापन अच्छा लगने लगा। आपको
अकेलापन कब अच्छा लगता है? सोचकर �ल�खए।
3. आनंदा के अध्यापक ने उसका आत्म�वश्वास बढ़ाने के �लए सदै व प्रयास �कया। क�ा म� बच्च�
के आत्म�वश्वास को �कस प्रकार बढ़ाया जा सकता है ? �वचार क�िजए।
4. क्या आप मानते ह� �क ऐन फ्रैक ने मजबूर� म� डायर� लेखन �कया? आप उसक� जगह होते/होती
तो क्या करते/करती।

प्रश्न संख्या -14

इसके अंतगर्त पूरक पुस्तक के पाठ� के �वषय वस्तु पर आधा�रत 5 अंक के 2 प्रश्न पूछे जाएंगे| इन
प्रश्न� का उत्तर दे ते समय �नम्न बात� का ध्यान द� |
1- प्रत्येक अध्याय� को ध्यानपव
ू क
र् पढ़कर उसके मल
ू भाव को समझ ल� |
2- प्रश्न� का उत्तर ता�कर्क ढं ग से समझाते हुए �वस्तार से �लखे |
3- शब्द सीमा एवं समय का ध्यान रख� |

उदाहरण-1

प्रश्न-1 ‘�संधु सभ्यता साधन संपन्न थी पर उसम� भव्यता का आडंबर नह�ं था’|प्रस्तुत कथन से आप
कहाँ तक सहमत ह�?

प्रश्न-2 ‘ऐन फ्र�क क� डायर� यहू�दय� पर हुए जल्

ु म� का जीवंत दस्तावेज है’ पाठ के आधार पर यहू�दय�
पर हुए अत्याचार� का �ववरण द� ।

उत्तर 1-सांस्कृ�तक धरातल पर यह तथ्य सामने आता है �क �संधु सभ्यता म� एक सु�नयोिजत

नगर व्यवस्था थी। पानी क� उत्तम व्यवस्था और आवा-गमन के �लए बैलगाड़ी थी। काँसे के बरतन,चाक
पर बने मद
ृ -भांड, उन पर बने �चत्र, चौपड़ क� गो�टयाँ, ताँबे का दपर्ण, कंघी, मनकेका हार, सोने के
गहने उनक� सम्पन्नता के सूचक ह�। उनके समाज म� एक रूपता थी। कला म� सुरु�च थी। ये मू�तर्याँ
बनाने म� द� थे। यह कला�स�द्ध संस्कृ�त थी।
 संपन्नता के बाद भी इस सभ्यता म� भव्यता के आडम्बर का अभाव था। यहाँ न भव्य प्रासाद है
न भव्य मं�दर्। यहाँ राजाओं या महं त� क� बड़ी समा�धयाँ भी प्राप्त नह�ं हुई ह�। छोट� नाव� , छोटे
औज़ार, छोटे घर यहाँ तक �क नरे श का मक ु ु ट भी छोटा है । मकान के कमरे भी बहुत छोटे छोटे ह�।
खाने-पीने, रहने, बड़े कोठार के बावज़ूद भव्यता का आडंबर नह�ं �दखाई दे ता है ।

उत्तर-2: डायर� लेखक जब अपनी डायर� �लखता है तो उसमे अपने आस-पास का वणर्न भी
स्वाभा�वकरूप से आ जाता है । ऐन ने जब डायर��लखी तो उस समय द्�वतीय �वश्व युद्ध चला रहा था।
जमर्नी ने हाल�ड पर अ�धकार कर �लया था। यहू�दय� पर भयंकर अत्याचार हो रहे थे िजसके कारण ऐन
का जीवन भी अ�तशय कष्टमय हो गया था। �हटलर क� नाजी सेना ने यहू�दय� को कैद कर यातना
�श�वर� म� डालकर यातनाएँ द�। उन्ह� गैस च�बर म� डालकर मौत के घाट उतार �दया जाता था। कई यहूद�
भयग्रस्त होकर अ�ातवास म� चले गए जहाँ उन्ह� अमानवीय प�रिस्थ�तय� म� जीना पड़ा| यद्ध
ु के समय
�बजल� राशन-पानी का अभाव था। अ�ातवास म� उन्ह� सेन्धमार� से भी �नबटना पड़ा।। उनक� यहूद�
संस्कृ�त को भी कुचल डाला गया।
प्रश्न अभ्यास
प्रश्न 1. यशोधर बाबू क� पत्नी समय के साथ ढल सकने म� सफल होती है ले�कन यशोधर बाबू
असफल रहते ह�। ऐसा क्य�?
2- ‘जझ
ू ’-शीषर्क के औ�चत्य पर �वचार करते हुए स्पष्ट क�िजए �क क्या यह शीषर्क कथा नायक
क� �कसी क�द्र�य चा�र�त्रक �वषेषता को उजागर करता है?
3-‘जूझ’-कहानी प्र�तकूल प�रिस्थ�तय� से संघषर् क� प्रेरक कथा है । पाठ के आधार पर कथा नायक
के व्यिक्तत्व को उजागर क�िजए।
4- श्री स�दलगेकर जी के अध्यापन क� उन �वशेषताओं को रे खां�कत कर� , िजन्ह�ने क�वताओं के
प्र�त लेखक के मन म� रु�च जगाई।
5-कथा नायक आनंदा के जीवन को सबसे अ�धक उनके मराठ� अध्यापक ने प्रभा�वत �कया। क्या
आप इस कथन से सहमत ह�? पाठ के आधारपर स्पष्ट क�िजए।
6- “�संधु सभ्यता क� खब
ू ी उसका स�दयर् है , जो राज-पो�षत या धमर्-पो�षत न होकर समाज
पो�षत था”। लेखक को ऐसा क्य� लगता है ?
7 – काश! कोई तो ऐसा होता जो मेर� भावनाओं को गंभीरता से समझ पाता। अफ़सोस ऐसा
व्यिक्त मुझे अब तक नह�ं �मला’। क्या आपको लगता है �क ऐन के इस कथन म� उसके
डायर�लेखन का कारण �छपा है ?
8-ऐन फ्र�क ने डायर� ‘�कट्टी’(एक �नज�व गु�ड़या) को सम्बो�धत करके �लखा है । इस लेखन के
पीछे क्या कारण रहा होगा? डायर� के पन्ने –पाठ के आधार पर स्पष्ट क�िजए।
9– ऐन क� डायर� उसके �नजी जीवन क� भावनात्मक उथल-पुथल के साथ उस दौर का जीवंत
दस्तावेज है ’। पाठ के आधार पर इस कथन क� �ववेचना क�िजए।

***************************************************************************
आगामी AISSCE-16 पर��ा के �लए अशेष शुभकामनाएँ !!!!!
1.LONG TYPE OF ANSWER.pdf
2.PRACTICE QUESTION PAPERS.pdf
3.SHORT ANSWER.pdf
4.Very short answer.pdf
 P a g e |1

KVS REGIOANAL OFFICE GUWAHATI Total Pages : 22

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER FOR C.B.S.E. EXAMINATION

(PHYSICAL EDUCATION)
LONG TYPE OF ANSWER (4 to 6 MARKS EACH)

Q. 1. Discuss about the environment and sports environment. Describe the need of sports
environment.
Ans. By environment we mean, all the external factors that affect our growth, development and
lives. Thus the place and surroundings in which we lives, our parents, family, the society in which
we grow and the institutions in which we study, constitute our environment. Our environment also
includes social, economic, geographical and political factors which influence our behaviour and shape
our lives. All factors or conditions that encourage participation in and promotion of sports constitute our
sports environment.

A good environment is essential for any physical education programme.

Sportspersons, sports and games will flourish only when there is a proper sports environment. For
the promotion and encouragement of sports and games appropriate sports environment is always
required. Sports and games cannot be ameliorated and flourished in the absence of
appropriate sports environment. Physical education programmes can be carried out and
implemented successfully if a person is healthy physically and mentally. A person needs to be well
developed in social and motor skills too, for maximum benefit from physical education programmes.

Q. 2. Differentiate between biotic and abiotic environment.

Ans. Differences between biotic and abiotic environment are :

Environment has mainly two components:
Biotic factors : All surrounding living species like plants, animals, worms, insect and human beings.
Abiotic factors : Light, temperature, water, atmospheric gases, attitude, climatic conditions.
Biotic and abiotic factors are interrelated. If one factor is changed or removed, it impacts the availability of
other resources within the system.

Q. 3. What are the essential elements of proper sports environment ?

Ans. As has been discussed earlier in the chapter a good environment is essential for promoting
games, sports and other physical education activities. On the basis of these discussions, we
can say that the essential elements of a healthy or positive sports environment are as follow:
(a) Infrastructural set-up: The infrastructural set-up for sports environment must be properly
planned. The architectural design of infrastructure should consider the following factors such as;
purpose and need of setting set-up must be made clear; for what activities to be played and how
much area required for those activities; site or location of infrastructure; natural or other sources
available; away from busy traffic, industrial pollution; age-group or category of players or level of
players; facilities to be provided for players or spectators capacity of players or spectators sitting
capacity; finances or funds available, etc.
(b) Protective Equipments: Essential protective equipments must be used by sportspersons.
These equipments must be of good quality and according to norms. Various protective equipments such
as mouthguards and teethguards should be made compulsory in a number of sports such as hockey,
cricket, boxing, rugby etc.
(c) Sports Equipments: The sports equipments, training equipment, sports kit, headgears and
shoes etc. should be safe to use, protective in nature and of ISI trademark. These should be as per the
recommendation of sports authority. There should not be any risk of injuiry, loss or harm. Players should
have proper knowledge about the use of sports equipments as per the item. Regular check and
maintenance of these sports equipments is mandatory to reduce the risk.
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Q. 4. What are the essential elements to create a positive sports environment ?

Ans. Essential elements to create a positive sports environment are as follow :
(a) Culture and tradition of society: Usually, it has been observed that people take directions established by the cultures
and traditions. The people excel in that specific sports which is preferred by the society. For example, Japan, South Korea,
China usually excel in Table Tennis. Hockey is preferred in Punjab and Football is preferred in West Bengal. This is merely
owing to the culture and tradition of the society. In fact, culture and tradition create a positive sports environment.
(b) Drugs, Tobacco and Alcohol Free Environment : The coaches, parents, spectators, players and other officials
should refrain from drugs, alcohol and tobacco. They should try to promote positive sports environment by refraining
themselves from such substances. It is an important as well as essential element of positive sports environment.
(c) Climatic conditions: Generally, sports are conducted under a wide range of climatic conditions, i.e., heat, cold, humidity
and polluted air, etc. It has been observed that a significant percentage of deaths in sports is related to climatic conditions
particularly from heat related problems. Following steps should be taken in
extreme conditions of heat, humidity, cold and polluted etc.:
(i) Enough fluids should be consumed after some interval.
(ii) During extreme environmental conditions when the temperature is above 95°F and there is high humidity, heavy exertion
should not be done. Practice can be done in early morning or in late evening.
(iii) Light clothes should be worn during extreme heat. So, uniform must be put on the basis of temperature or humidity.

Q. 5. Explain the role of Television and Media for creating positive sports environment.
Ans. Role of Media in creating sports environment : Media refers to all those ways that are used to bring us stories, news,
actions, knowledge and information. Media is of various types like magazines, books, newspapers, televisions, radio, cinema,
computer, internet etc. Media plays big role in popularising sports at the global level. It gives us knowledge about sports, it
guide us the changing trends in sports. Media promote new games and sports; it highlights the upcoming players and tells us
more about good players. It also gives information about government policies for sports promotion. It tells more about good
players and infrastructural developments for sports environment. It gives us information about current affairs in sports. It
gives us the feedback about games and sports. It provides us information about sports result. It provides publicity for
tournaments and competitions.
Electronic media provides live coverage of sports competition. It also provides great opportunity in jobs for sports person.
Role of Television in creating sports environment: 50 years ago, most fans would have to wait until the next days newspaper
to find out the scores of the games or might have access to radio. But live matches on the television have brought different
sport fans very close to the teams. People today can watch the live matches, listen commentary and know the score sitting at
home. Various T.V. channels like ESPN, Star Sports, Ten Sports, Star Cricket, Ten HD, DD Sports etc. not only give the
recorded and updated information of sports but also make the sportsman popular. We can also see the highlights,
documentaries and quiz shows about sports on T.V. All these create a positive sports environment.

Q. 6. Difference between the Physical Environment and Social Environment.

Ans. Difference between the Physical Environment and Social Environment:
(i) Physical Environment: Physical environment in sports includes natural and artificial or man-made environments, which
further consists of playgrounds, courts, gyms, climate, weather, altitude, mountains stadiums, sports
complexes, indoor halls, swimming pools, sports equipments and the surroundings of that area. The
natural environment of sports impacts playground to a greater degree. Undoubtedly, the plain area is
not suitable for mountaineering surbing depends on ocean. Skiing, ice skating and ice hockey are
the right choices in cold regions.
(ii) Social Environment: Traditional and cultural environment are the elements of social
environment. They include faith, assumptions, moral values and traditions in sports. The belief,
behaviour and attitude of the spectators, sports trainers and sports officials also contribute in social
environment.

Q. 7. Write six important ways to prevent injuries in the sports.

Ans. The six important ways to prevent injuries are-:
(i) For avoiding injuries: The proper sports environment is also needed for avoiding various sports
injuries to sportspersons during the practice and competitions.
(ii) For avoiding mental health risks: The proper sports environment in terms of social environment is
also needed for avoiding mental health risks. It may create stressful situations.
(iii) For raising the standard of sports:
Appropriate sports environment encourages sportspersons to take keen interest in their sports and
improve performance to higher levels. The improvement in their performance will lead to raising the standard
of sports to greater higher levels.
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(iv) For overall fitness: To develop the social, emotional and mental health along with physical fitness
a healthy sports environment contributes a lot. It also helps in proper body growth and wellness and
reduces various health hazards.
(v) For proper growth and development
: The proper sports environment is needed for proper growth and development of sportspersons who are
engaged in various sports.
(vi) For recreational atmosphere: Today people are suffering with number of physiological problems like
stress, tension, depression etc. The academic load also keeps the students under pressure.

Q. 8. Discuss the concept of women's participation in sports.

Ans. The desirability of women participating in sports has been debated very extensively during the
middle of the twentieth century. It had been claimed at that time that women's participation in sports
was not desirable on account of their frail constitution, feminine structure, child bearing
responsibilities and emotional qualities, etc. On account of such views, women's participation in games
and sports was discouraged, specially in sports which were thought to be injurious to their health or where
there could be the possibility of injuries.
As a matter of fact, women's participation in sports has long history. In the ancient
Olympics women were not allowed to watch the sports competition. Even in the first modern Olympic
games which were held in 1896 in Athens, there was no participation of women. In fact, women started to
participate in the modern Olympic games from 1900 onwards. They participated only in two sports
events. In this Olympics, only twenty-two women participated.
On the basis of above mentioned facts, we can safely conclude that opposition
to the participation of women in sports is not based on physiological facts. In spite of all sorts of opposing
views, the participation of women in sports is increasing day-by-day. Today we find women participating
and competing in large number in almost all games and sports. They are seen competing in sports like
boxing, weightlifting and athletic events like pole vault and Marathone race. Women are also taking part
in adventure sports like mountaineering, rock-climbing, surf-riding and sky diving etc.

Q. 9. What is trekking ? Mention the equipments for trekking.

Ans. Trekking : Trekking is a journey on foot, specially to hike through mountainous areas. Collins English Dictionary
defines trekking as "the act of making a long journey across difficult country on foot, usually for pleasure".Trekking gives
new experiences and excitement to explore the world. It is a part of adventure travel. It involves visits to remote areas,
lodging in tent and minimal accommodation. It is done for adventure and expedition. Famous trekking places in
India are Ladakh, Zankar Valley, Nubra Valley, Gunhill, Mussoorie, Dehradun, Dharainsala, Baijnath, Palampur,
Darjeeling, Kanchenjunga, etc.
Equipments for Trekking : The trekkers
require following equipments :
(i) Map, food, water (ii) Compass, sunglasses, sunscreen
(iii) First aid kit (iv) A fire starter, knief etc.
(v) Trekking boots (vi) Clothes, flash light
Q. 10. What is natural resources? Write two main categories of natural resources.
Ans. Natural Resources: Our natural resources are the materials that sustain life on
the earth, such as air, water, minerals and other raw materials. The earth has a limited amount of such
resources. But the demand of the resource materials is increasing day-by-day. If we continue to use
and destroy these natural resources at the current rate then we are going to put the future of humanity
at stake.We can classify our natural resources into two main categories :

A. Renewable resources :
(i) Food crops
(ii) Cotton
(iii) Cattle
(iv) Leather and wool
(v) Fish
(vi) Solar energy
(vii) Air power
(viii) Water
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B. Non-renewable resources :
(i) Fuels such as coal, oil, natural gas
(ii) Metal ores and minerals
(iii) Inorganic fertilizers
(iv) Materials obtained from rocks like
(a) Sand (b) Gravel
(c) Limestone (d) Silica

Q. 11. Write materials required and safety measures for river rafting.

Ans. (a) Materials or equipments required:

(i) A swim suit
(ii) Additional clothings (T-shirts, shorts)
(iii) Sunshade or cap
(iv) Sun glasses
(v) Plastic bags for wet things
(vi) Helmet
(vii) All kitchen and camping equipments
(viii) Tennis shoes and socks
(ix) Flash light
(x) Sunscreen lotion
(xi) Personal medication
(xii) Life jacket or vest
(xiii) First aid box
(xiv) Waterproof bags

(b) Safety measures :

(i) You should avoid to go for river rafting alone. In fact river rafting alone is a sign of just asking for
trouble.
(ii) You should have enough capabilities as a swimmer. Vein cgribliemawpropa IfavoaltAgt atizmk the
classification of the river. These are classified from grade I to VI (from easy level to dangerous level).
(iv) Whenever you go for river rafting always wear life vest and helmet.
(v) Before going for river rafting: check the equipment to make sure that everything is in place and
nothing has become defective. Taking a few minutes to check for cracks and the air levels of the rafts
will always be beneficial.
(vi) If it is going dark, don't raft. So end your trip before darkness falls.
(vii) Drink plenty of liquids before, during and after the rafting because rafters can easily
forget to stay hydrated.
(viii) When you feel tired during rafting it is significant to remember the rule of not dragging their paddle in
the water.

Q. 12. Write qualities of a student leader or captain.

Ans. (i) Example for others : Leader's behaviour should be so good that everybody is
impressed by him and should present an example for others.
(ii) Determination : Firm deciding capability and determination are expected from a good leader. Leader must
have the desire to improve further and solve problem on priority basis.
(iii) Self-discipline : Self-discipline, regularity, punctuality, adjusting, politeness, patience
audt.vderauck must. be possessed by him.This inspires others to do the same.
(iv) Good moral character : Leader must possess moral values with good character.
Leader's behaviour to everybody should be good and an example for others.
(v) Academically sound : He must be well-qualified with good command and should have
good experience to lead the group. He must be efficient to give comment and understand the needs of
the group.
(vi) Expressive and optimistic : Leader should be able to express his ideas in an easy way. He must
have an imaginative and optimistic attitude to guess problems and solve them.
(vii) Inculcate friendship : Leader should encourage cooperation, team spirit, brotherhood and inspire
group to do the same. Courageous quality and logical thinking enhance the leadership qualities.
(viii) Physical personality : Leader should have a handsome and attractive personality. Leader must be fit
and healthy along with good perfection in the activity.
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(ix) Loyal : Leader must be loyal to his group and do sincere efforts for progress of group, moreover, leader
should encourage others to do the same.
(x) Intelligent: Leader should be intelligent and creative. Leader must think logically with abstract thinking to solve the
problem. He must understand the needs of the group.
(xi) Master of physical skill: Leader should be able to demonstrate as well as explain the physical skill to others for better
understanding.

Q. 13. Mention the suggestions for conservation of environment to the persons related to adventure sports.
Ans. The persons, who are engaged in various adventure sports such as camping, rock climbing, trekking, mountaineering, hiking
and rafting etc. can play a vital role for conservation of environment (surrounding) by laying stress on the following
points/suggestions:

(i) Don't leave any eatables near the roadside for wild animals. Make sure that utensils are not washed in the stream but through
collection of water in bucket. Don't wash of the leftover food.

(ii) Don't wash your clothes in water streams.

(iii) Don't leave any non-biodegradable waste product while participating in adventure sports. Collect them
and bring them back or deposit them at waste collection centers.

(iv) Used plastics should not be littered in mountains, disposed off in valleys, buried or burnt or washed
away in rivers.
(v) Don't defecate or urinate near river banks.
(vi) Don't dispose of one time used raincoats, slippers and shoes in valleys or mountain slopes.
(vii) Don't litter mountains while trekking, hiking or mountaineering.
(viii) Don't leave burning embers or fire while camping.
(ix) Don't remove or cut trees, herbs, shrubs for the purpose of burning fire or cooking during expedition.
(x) Refrain from polluting waters with human and kitchen waste.
It can be concluded that the participants of various adventure sports can play a vital role in the
conservation of their environment or the surroundings by following the above mentioned points.

(x) Intelligent: Leader should be intelligent and creative. Leader must think logically with abstract thinking to solve the problem. He
must understand the needs of the group.

(xi) Master of physical skill: Leader should be able to demonstrate as well as explain the physical skill to others for better
understanding.

Q. 14. Mention the suggestions for conservation of environment to the persons related to adventure sports.

Ans. The persons, who are engaged in various adventure sports such as camping, rock
climbing, trekking, mountaineering, hiking and rafting etc. can play a vital role for conservation of environment (surrounding)
by laying stress on the following points/suggestions:
(i) Don't leave any eatables near the roadside for wild animals. Make sure that
utensils are not washed in the stream but through collection of water in bucket. Don't wash of the leftover food.

(ii) Don't wash your clothes in water streams.

15. What do you mean by balanced diet and nutritions ? Explain. (CBSE 2012)

Ans. (i) The food which we eat is known as diet and it is the basic requirement of every individual. Diet
is the daily intake of food by human body. It provides energy for workout along with growth and development
of body. Human beings take different types of food in their diet. It may be liquid food or solid (hard) food.
These things which we eat give us energy to our body for performing work in a proper way. The food
contains various types of nutrients in it.

(ii) It can be said that nutrition is the science of foods which deals with the dynamic process in which the
food consumed is digested, nutrients are absorbed, distributed to the tissues for utilization and
wastes are disposed off the body.
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Food is main basis for maintaining health. So, the knowledge of 'food and nutritions' is essential for every
individual. Generally, food and nutritions are considered synonyms to one another, whereas
nutrition is dynamic process in which body is made healthy by the consumption of food

Q. 16. What do you mean by non-nutritive components of diet? Explain any four non-nutritive
components in brief.
Ans. Non-Nutritive Components: Non-nutritive are those components of food, which don't give energy or
calories. They do not have nutritional value and are added to food and beverage products. They are
designed to make the food smell better, taste better, last longer and look better. Following are the non-
nutritive components of diet:

(i) Fibre or Roughage : Fibre or roughage has no nutrient value. Hence is included in non-nutritive
components of diet. It is undigested part of the food or it can be said that it cannot be digested by the
human.

Food Dyes : Food dyes are additives which are added intestinal tract.

(ii) to the food to give colour. A sensitive HPCL method can be used for quality control testing of the
dyes.

(iii) Flavour Compounds : The flavours are derived from both nutritive and non-nutritive components of
food. Sometimes it becomes very difficult to know the source of a specific flavour. An acidic food provides
sour taste while alkaline one provides a bitter taste.

(iv) Water : Water is also an essential component of diet. Even blood comprises 90 per cent of
water. With the help of water through blood the nutrients are carried to various cells of the body. It is
also significant in the excretion of waste products. It also regulates the body temperature. Our body
loses approximately 2% of our body weight as water per day. We recoup this loss of water by drinking
water and by intake of food substances. It also functions as a lubricant, keeps the skin moist and
protects the body from shock. Generally, about 20% of water intake comes from food and remaining
intake comes from drinking water. It is excreted from the body in various forms such as urine, faeces,
sweating and water vapours in the exhaled breath.

Q17. What do you mean by eating disorders? Explain its types in details.

Ans. Eating disorders are the conditions defined by abnormal eating habits that may involve
either insufficient or excessive food intake to detriment of an individual's physical and mental
health. Bulimia Nervosa and Anorexia Nervosa are common eating disorders.

Types of Eating Disorders : There are two main types of eating disorders as discussed below :

(a) Anorexia Nervosa and (b) Bulimia Nervosa

(a) Anorexia Nervosa : In this eating disorder, it is characterised by food restriction and irrational
fear of gaining weight as well as a distorted body self-perception. In this disorder, the person restricts the
amount of food because of fear of gaining weight. This eating disorder causes metabolic and
hormonal disorder. Prolonged Anorexia causes serious health problems like loss of appetite
nausea feeling dizziness, headache and lack of energy. This disorder is mostly common among girls and
they often hunger or starve to gain thin figure or reduce weight.

(b) Bulimia Nervosa : In bulimia nervosa, individuals eat excessive amount of food and then purge or vomit
it all out. Over eating involves a large amount of calorie-rich foods. Such individuals don't have a
control on their eating and then attempt to compensate it by vomitting or using laxatives to avoid weight
gain. People with bulimia eat a large amount of junk food like burger, pizza at once usually in secret.
Sometimes eat uncooked food or frozen food. They typically feel powerless to stop eating. They stop only
when they are too full to eat anymore. Most people with bulimia, then purge by vomitting, using
laxatives or over exercise. Such people may have a normal body weight or an over weight.
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Q18. Discuss the role of diet on the performance of a sportsperson. (CBSE 2010)
Ans. No doubt dedication, hard work and good genes are very essential to become a professional
athlete but a good nutritious plan can't be ignored. Inadequate or improper diet plan or unhealthy
eating habits may be responsible for poor results on the playing fields. A diet with all the necessary
constituents for the maintenance and growth of body in adequate amount is essential for every
individual. The requirement of diet varies from individual to individual. The daily requirement for an active
individual may vary from 3000 calories to 8000 calories depending upon the age, weight, size, physical
condition and the work done by the individual each day. The opinion of researchers is divided about
the role of diet on sports performance. Some hold the opinion that diet can improve sports performance
while others hold that it only relates to energy requirements of an individual depending on the sport but
diet has no profound effect on the performance. Allagree that an imbalanced and improper diet affects
the health of a sportsperson and the performance. The effect of various nutrients had been discussed
below.

(a) Carbohydrates : They provide more energy than the other forms of food. So, they are very
important to be added in athlete's diet. In the process of digestion of food, the body converts
carbohydrates into glucose and keeps it stored in the form of glycogen.The athletes get energy from this
stored glycogen which at the time of exercise, is changed back into glucose and provides energy.
Carbohydrates also enhance the endurance of the athletes.

(b) Fat : Fat is considered as a major source of fuel for light to moderate levels of activity. Various types
of sports require different proportions of fat to muscles, for maximum performance. A minimum
amount of fat is desirable for a distance runner, high jumper and a gymnast. These athletes require
nominal fat. If they add weight it will hinder their performance. Distance swimmers need a certain
amount of fat distributed near the skin surface to diminish the heat loss to the water.

(c) Protein : Protein is necessary for the growth and development of various tissues of the body. Now
it has been recognised that some amount of protein is consumed as fuel for muscular work. If fat
and carbohydrate are available, they are selected preferentially over protein as the source of energy.

Q. 19. Elucidate about the various pitfalls of dieting.

Ans. The dieting has harmful effects on our body systems. It is harmful for not only physical consideration
but also from the mental point of view. Some of the harmful effects of dieting are:

(i) Lack of proper nutrients: Dieting leads to limit major nutrients severely. You cut out the
carbohydrates, fats, proteins and other nutrients. Try to understand that your body needs all forms of
nutrients. To keep yourself healthy, understand how much amount of particular nutrients are required
by your body and follow accordingly.

(ii) Skipping meals: It is a fact that if you have good metabolic rate, you can maintain or lose weight. If
it is low you gain weight very easily. So, if you skip meals, it will lower your metabolism to conserve
energy.

So, skipping meals works against your weight loss plans. Research studies also show if you skip one
meal, you take more calories at the next meal.

(iii) Liquid calories: Are you drinking more calories than you are eating ? Alcohol, fizzy drinks,
squashes, cold drinks, packed juices etc. add a lot of calories. Research suggests that drinking calories
contribute a lot in weight gain. Be very careful by sticking to diet drinks.

(iv) Not performing exercise: If you go on dieting and do not perform exercise it will not work properly.
Instead of losing weight you are likely to gain weight. As a matter of fact, exercise has a positive effect
on metabolism and also helps to burn some extra calories. Exercise increases metabolic rate which
ultimately reduces body weight. So dieting is beneficial if you perform exercise along with it.
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Q. 20. What are the objectives of planning?

Ans. The objectives of planning :
(i) Aim of programme. (ii) Requirement of programme. (iii) Available resources.
(iv) Arranging resources. (v) Schedule of programme. (vi) Information to concerned.
(vii) Forming various committees. (viii) Directing committees. (ix) Managing and coordination.
(x) During programme needs. (xi) After programme works. (xii) Boarding and lodging needs.

Q. 21. Describe Run for 'Unity'.

Ans. 'Run for unity' is organised to celebrate their independence. It may be in the form of relay race of
long distance. Every participant runs some distance in the form of relay, they feel united. It may be in
the form of Marathon race as it is usually organised in Mumbai. A lot of people participate in this race
from corporate world, film stars and marathon runners from other countries.

Q. 22. Explain the meaning of Intramural and Extramural.

Ans. Intramural : The word 'Intramural' is combination of two Latin words Intra and Mural where
Intra means 'Inside' and Mural means 'Within the Walls'. Thus intra-mural means competition
within the walls of institution. In these activities the students of the institution are divided into
various groups known as houses. They compete for various activities of intramural in their houses
within the campus. The motive of intramural activities is to bring mass participation; developing the
interest towards physical activities and developing the calibre of organising programmes of intramural
by students.

Extramural : The word 'Extramural' means the activities performed outside the walls of institution.
Thus these are the competitions of various activities at inter-institutional level. Extramural activities
are played at various levels like Inter-School, Inter-District, Inter-State, Cluster, Regional, National
and International levels. The motive of extramural activities is to fnd the talented players and to give
exposure to good players at higher levels. Extramural activities are the index and image of the institution.

Q. 23. Write any two objectives of Intramurals. (CBSE 2013)

Ans. (i) To develop the feeling of cooperation : It is really very difficult to get success alone in
the field of sports and games. In fact, cooperation is essential to achieve an apex position in games
and sports. We cannot think about winning specially in team games if the players do not have good
cooperation. Intramural activities help in developing the feeling of cooperation among students.

(ii) To provide recreation : To provid recreation to the students is another vita objective of
intramurals. In fact, intramural activities provide a number of opportunities for recreation to the students.
Students participates in intramural activities according to the' interests. Hence, they get a lot of joy, fun
as pleasure by participating in such intramural activities/competitions.

Q.24. Describe 'Round Robin Tournament'.

Ans. League tournament is also call Round Robin Tournament'. Mr. Burger was first person, who
imagined about the lea tournament and owing to that, it is also c. `Burger System'. According to this
tournament each team plays with every other team once is a single league tournament. If it is a do league
tournament, each team plays with every other team twice. In these types of tournament every team plays with
every other to irrespective of victory or defeat.

Q. 25. What are the disadvantages Extramural ?

Ans. Disadvantages :
(i) Winning in competitions becomes important than participating in them.
(ii) Sometimes normal school activities disrupted.
(iii) Sometimes competitions do more h physically and emotionally to participants.
(iv) Due to extra importance give winning, the use of unfair means is increase'
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(v) These activities put an extra financial burden on some institutions.

(vi) Students who do not care much a' sports feel discouraged and neglected.
(vii) Star players often suffer in their stu due to missing classes.

Q. 26. Describe 'Run for Awareness'.

Ans. Run for Awareness : This kin run is organized to create awareness am masses related to
different issues and ca These may be awareness towards increa crime, pollution, conservation of
wild conservation of natural resources, can blindness, AIDS or any issue that concen masses.
The running distance may be 5 km and one mile. It is also organised to raise the funds for charitable
society. This run is pre-organized and T-shirts are given to participants displaying the cause of run.
Prizes are also given to three position holders. Efforts are done to increase thenumber of participants.
Different categories be made for participants such as 5 to 9 year to 19 years and so on. The main
purpose of run for awareness is to bring awareness an the masses about current problems or he
hazards.

Q. 27. What do you mean by planning? Explain the objectives of planning.

Ans. Planning is a specific result that a person or system aims to achieve within a time frame and
within available resources. In other words, it is a strategic and systematic arrangement for a
programme is called planning. Planning is pre-work and done before the programme.
Objectives of Planning:

(i) Aim of Programme: Planning is done considering the aim and objectives of programme along with
time and finances available for programme.

(ii) Requirement of Programme: Planning begins with requirements of the programme

based upon number of participants, type of activity, level of participants, etc.

(iii) Available Resources: Planning is made by listing down the available resources and resources to be
arranged for programme.

(iv) Arranging resources: A good planning guides us how to arrange resources i.e., which items or
things to be purchased, borrowed or hired.

(v) Schedule of programme : In a planning exact schedule is chalked out keeping in mind the time,
duration, venue, weather factors, etc.

(vi) Information to concerned: Planning needs to give attention related to information to concerned
ones, getting approvals and consent from authorities.

(vii) Forming various committees:

Planning needs to give special care in forming various committees and their team.

(xi) After programme works: Planning is also done after programme works i.e., over: report of
programme, returning of things, etc

(xii) Boarding and lodging needs: Special planning is required related to boarding and lodging
needs of programme.

Q. 28. Explain the seeding method. Give an example.

Ans. In seeding method strong teams a allotted proper place in fixtures to avoid the grouping in the
same half. For selecting stro teams the organisers must be well-aware oft past performances. If two teams
are to be upper to and second team is kept in the last of the l half. If 4 teams are to be seeded, the first
teams will be kept at the places mentioned aim The third seeded team will be kept on the top lower half and
the fourth seeded team will kept at the lowest place in the upper half
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Generally, the number of seeded team shall the power of two like 2, 4, 8, 16, etc. All teams except
seeded teams, are kept in fixture by lots.

Q.29. What is knock-out tournament. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of this
tournament. (CBSE 2014)

Ans. Knock-out : In this type of tournament, a team which is once defeated, automatically gets eliminated from
the tournament. Only the winning teams continue in the tournament. It means that second opportunity
is not given to the defeated team. Opportunities are given to the winning teams or players. For example,
if four teams participate in knock-out tournament, the winning team is declared in the following:
Advantages of Knock-out Tournament:
(i) The knock-out tournaments are less expensive because the team, which gets defeated, is eliminated
from the competition.
(ii) The knock-out tournament is helpful in enhancing the standard of sports, because each team tries to
present the best performance to avoid the defeat.

Disadvantages of Knock-outTournament :
(i) There may be many chances of elimination of good teams in 1st or IInd round. So, good teams
may not reach into the final round.
(ii) There are maximum chances of weak teams to enter into the final round.

Q. 30.What is Bye.
Ans. Bye : It is a sort of privilege to a team. A team who is given Bye does not play the first Round. Bye is
an opportunity to play the match in higher round without playing in the lower round. It is only given in
Knock-Out tournament. The number of Byes in a fixture are decided by subtracting the number of
teams from the nearest number in power of 2. Bye is also a necessity to complete the draw by the
nearest number in power of two's. While making fixture it is best to divide Byes to both upper and lower
halves in symmetry. But in case of odd number of teams the upper half will have one less Bye than lower
half.

Q. 31. What are the corrective exercises of Knock-Knees' and 'Bowlegs' deformities?

Ans. Corrective Measures :

i) Akaran Dhanurasana : In this asana the person stretches one leg near the ear whereas

other hand holds the opposite leg straight

(ii) Padmaasana : It is sitting with crossed legs in such a way that feet should touch the
opposite hip while hands are on the knees and back is straight.

(iii) Ardh Chakraasana : In this person starts bending sideward. One hand close to head while other
pushes the leg.

(iv) Garudasana : In this body balances over one leg while other leg is rolled over the other leg. Hands
are also rolled in front of face.

(v) Ardh Matasyendraasana : In the crossed leg sitting position one leg is placed over the other so that
the foot touches the opposite hip whereas one hand supports the leg and other rolls over the spine.

Q.32. Describe exercises related to Scoliosis.

Ans. Scoliosis exercises are designed to correct the rotatory curvature of the spine. I these exercises
help in a limited way to decrease curve angles. In fact, exercises do not have very, significant role in the
correction of scoliosis. The affected ones are advised to participate in physical education programmes,
organised sports and normal recreational activities. They may wear scoliosis braces. Some exercises,
which are described below, may be beneficial for some extent:
(i) Lie down in prone position, i.e., on the chest. Right arm should be upward and left arm at side. After that
move right arm towards the left over head, press down with left hand and then slide the left hip up.
(ii) Stand erect with feet few inches apart. After that raise the left heel and left hip. Extend right arm in an
arch overhead to the left. Press left hand against the ribs on the left side.
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(iii) Stand in erect position with feet several inches apart. Keep left hand's finger tips on left shoulder and
bend the upper body in right side if there is an opposite 'C' curve in the spine. But if there is not opposite 'C'
curve means if there is `C' curve, bend the upper body to left side. The tips of the fingers of right hand
should be on right shoulder. Repeat the exercise for some time as per the 'C' curve.

Q. 33. Explain exercises related to Lordosis.

Ans. (i) Sit on a chair with feet wide apart. Bend and position your shoulders between knees. Then
reach to the floor under back of chair. Hold this position for some duration.
(ii) Lie in prone position on the floor. Keep the palms of your hands on the floor according to shoulders'
width. Push torso up keeping pelvis on floor. Hold this position for some time.
(iii) Sit down with knees extended, feet together and hands at sides. After that bend forward,
touching the fingers to toes. Hold this position for some time. Then come back and repeat.

(iv) Bend knees forward while allowing hips to bend back behind, keeping back straight and knees pointed
in same direction as feet. Descend until thighs are just parallel to floor. Extend knees and hips until legs
are straight. Come back in starting position and then repeat the same.

(v) Lunge forward with knee on a mat. Take position of the foot beyond knee. Place both hands on knee.
Straighten hips of rear leg by pushing hips forward and hold stretch. Repeat with opposite side.

(vi)Lie down in prone position, with hands under abdomen. Then keep hips and shoulders down, press
hands up on abdomen and raise lower back.

Q. 34. Define correct posture of Lying. Write advantages of correct postures.

Ans. Normal size of pillow should be used by the children. Hard bed is beneficial for those, who have
spinal problems. We should sleep in such state that we should not feel any difficulty in respiration.

Advantages of correct postures : Correct posture enhances the personality of an individual.

Our walking efficiency and ability depends upon good posture. Having a correct posture can give you
many benefits and failing to do so, can invite loads of trouble as far as your health is concerned.
Maintaining a correct posture is not a difficult task and you can definitely feel the change in you, once
you follow this on a regular basis. A correct posture can give you the following advantages:

(i) Grace and efficiency of movement : Physical posture plays a vital role in the field of sports and
games. Sports and games involved various types of movements. Walking, running, jumping and throwing
depends upon the abilities of movement. An athlete requires a variety of efficient movements. The apex
marks can be achieved in the field of sports if movements of the sportsman are efficient and graceful.
The balance and coordination depends upon physical posture. Without correct posture grace as well
efficiency of movements cannot be attained.

(ii) Looks and Personality : Posture reflects the personality of a person. Correct body posture adds
to graceful movements and looks. Everyone wants to appear attractive and a good posture is a key to it. A
person's slouching and drooping shoulders cannot create a good impression as compared to a
person standing erect.

Q. 35. What do you mean by food supplement? Describe the precautions for taking food
supplement.
Ans. Food supplements are the products which intend to provide nutrients that otherwise not consumed in
sufficient quantity. These food supplements are generally Vitamins, Minerals, Fibres, Fatty acid, Amino acids, Herbal
products, Oils, Enzymes, Animal organs, Glandular extract, etc., all are dietary/food supplements.
Precautions :
(i) First of all ensure that thare-is a lack of essential nutrients in a child. So consult the doctor whether
the child needs to take food supplements or not.
(ii) Before purchasing an individual should ensure that it is free from preservatives, contains no fillers and
does not contain any added sugar.
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(iii) Food supplements may create harm if they are taken in excessive dosage specially the minerals and
fat soluble vitamins which can be accumulated in the body. Some of the food supplements may cause
harm due to their rapid absorption in a short period of time.
(iv) Don't pay heed to the words of salesmen or advertisements which claim that these supplements
will improve child's brain.

Q. 36. What is weight training ? Discuss its advantages and disadvantgages.

Ans. Weight training is defined as those exercises that are designed to strengthen specific muscles by
causing them to overcome a fixed resistance, usually in the form of bar-bells or dumb-bells. In fact,
weight training refers to the exercise phase of the activity where weight in the form of bar-bells and
dumb-bells are used to condition and alter the sizes of various segments of the body. This is,
undoubtedly, the most popular phase.
Advantage of Weight Training :
(i) Best means of providing fitness : Weight training has a major advantage over other
means of fitness. It takes less time, except for throwers and competitive weight lifters who need longer
sessions. Optimum gains can bemade by spending just one hour three times a
week in weight training gymnasium. It enhances all the components of health related fitness such as
muscular strength and body composition.
(ii) Helps in getting good shape : Weight training is an extraordinary training. This is full of magic
because it can shape up all people by using appropriate schedules (and sometimes appropriate diet).
Fatty people can become trim and slim, people can put on weight if so desired. The weak can become
strong and the strong can become stronger. The slower can become speedier and the ponderous
can become more dynamic. In fact, weight training helps individuals in getting the entire body
in good shape. It is beneficial not only for upper body but lower body also.

Disadvantage of Weight Training :

(i) Less flexibility : Weight training reduces the level of flexibility, if flexibility exercises are not done along
with weight training. However this is a mild or little disadvantage in comparison to many advantages. If
flexibility exercises are performed persistently it will be negligible.
(ii) Risk of injuries ": While performing weight training, there is always a risk of getting injuries
specially when performing exercise without any companion. Whenever you are not able to perform
the required repetitions of exercise, at that critical movement if you are alone you may be injured. So
you should always have a companion or supporter with you in case the worst happens. In addition you
should perform weight training under expert physical trainer.

Q. 37. Explain the need of food supplements for children in detail.

Ans. Food supplements play a vital role in proper growth and development of children. Though, it is
not essential to consume food supplements but it becomes necessary when there is a lack of proper
nutritious diet. In fact, it can be said that food supplements are unnecessary if a child takes a
balanced diet regularly. Moreover, there are various food supplements which have no practical effect.
For example, food supplement omega-3 fatty acids has been shown to be without benefit for healthy
children. It means that if child takes a balanced or nutritous diet regularly, there will not be any benefit of
taking food supplement on that child. Even some food supplements may be harmful. A research study
indicates that the individuals who consumed vitamin 'E' supplement had a higher rate of prostate cancer
than individuals who did not consume vitamin 'E'. In the same way, calcium supplement too found to put
individuals at a greater risk of heart attacks. In addition, the food supplements may not contain all the
nutrients that a child needs.

Q. 38. Elucidate any five physical and physiological benefits of exercise on children.
Ans. Physical benefits :

(i) The muscles of children increase in size as a result of regular exercise which is reflected in
their muscular appearances.
(ii )They gain in height due to increase in thelength and structure of bones. Their body weight
increases.
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(iii) Body assumes correct erect posture.

(iv) The texture (appearance) of their skinimproves.
(v) Their movements become well-coordinated and skillful.
Physiological benefits :
(i) The storage of nutrients (Glycogen) in muscles increase which can be utilizedwhen required.
(ii) Body weight increases.
(iii) Bones become well-calcified.
(iv) The stroke volume of heart increases.
(v) The capacity to do a physical activity for a longer period before exhaustion increases gradually.

Q. 39. Describe childhood period in the human life.

Ans. Childhood is the golden age in the human development process. It is an age free from worries
and tensions of life. It is the "Play age" which lays the foundation of health, fitness and motor ability. During
this period of growth and development, children are restless, untiring, exploring and have a wide range of
interests. It is an age of experimentation and multidirectional efforts that can lead to a future full of
achievements and hope for a healthy and successful life. Children who remain deficient in learning
motor skills are left behind in the race for development as compared to others and can develop inferiority
complex. As children move into the early childhood period (6 to 12 years) they move away from being self-
centered to being more social. They develop a strong urge to become members of teams or groups.
During this period they form clubs and
friends who may be sobre or mischievious. They develop well physically. The foundation of a good
personality is laid in this period. It is the period of transition from puberty to physical education
programmes and activities can play a very important role in improving the quality of lives
of adolescents, as such activities are an effective means of channelising their energies. Since
adolescents are full of energy, the best way to utilize their energy is to motivate them to participate
in vigorous physical activities such as swimming, athletics, games and sports like
mountaineering, hiking and trekking etc. Children are usually hungry for vigorous activities.

Q.40. Explain Chair Sit and Reach Test for Lower Body Flexibility.

Ans. Chair Sit and Reach Test for Lower Body Flexibility : The chair sit and reach test is conducted to
assess the lower body flexibility, particularly hamstring flexibility in senior citizens. Hamstring flexibility
is important for good posture and mobility tasks like walking, stair climbing, sitting, running etc.
Equipments required :
* A chair about 17 inches/44 cm high* Ruler
Method :
(i) Sit at the first edge of a straight back or folding chair placed against a wall for safety.
(ii) Keep on foot flat on the floor.
(iii) Extend the other leg forward, knee straight, heel on the floor, ankle bent at 90°.
(iv) Place one hand on top of the other with tips of the middle fingers even.
(v) Inhale and then exhale, reaching towards your toe and bending at your hip.
(vi) Keep your back straight and head up.
(vii) Avoid bouncing or quick movements and never stretch to the point of pain.
(viii) Keep the knee straight and hold the reach for two seconds.
(ix) The assistant measures the distance between the finger tips and toes to the nearest inch.
(x) If the finger tips touch the toes then the score is zero.
(xi) If they do not touch, measure the distance between the fingers and the toes as a negative
score.
(xii) If they overlap, measure the distance as positive score.
Scoring : The score is recorded to the nearest 1/2 inches or 1 cm as the distance reached; either
a positive or negative score record which leg is used for measurement.

Q. 41. Explain Minute Walk Test. Write Administration and Procedure of Test.

Ans. Minute Walk Test : This test is used to measure aerobic fitness. Equipments required are
measuring tape to mark track distance, stopwatch, chairs positioned for resting.
 P a g e | 14

Administration and Procedure of Test :

(i) The walking course/track is laid in rectangular area (45 x 5 m2) with cones marking the area
at regular interval.
(ii) The aim of test is to walk as quickly as possible for six minutes to cover maximum distance.
(iii) Persons set their own pace. They can take rest if desire.
(iv) Measure the distance covered by person in six minutes walk test in metre.
Evaluation
Age Below Average Average Above Average

Men Women Men Women Men Women

60 — 64 > 610 > 545 610 to 735 545 to 660 < 735 < 660
65 — 69 > 560 > 500 560 to 700 500 to 635 < 700 < 635
70 — 74 > 545 > 480 545 to 680 480 to 615 < 680 < 615
75 — 79 > 470 > 430 470 to 640 430 to 585 < 640 < 585
80 — 84 > 445 > 385 445 to 605 385 to 540 < 605 < 540
85 — 89 > 390 > 340 390 to 570 340 to 510 < 570 < 510

90 — 94 > 305 > 275 305 to 500 275 to 440 < 500 < 440

Q. 42. Explain the Arm Curl Test for measuring upper body strength.

Ans. Arm Curl Test : The arm curl test is a test for upper body strength. It is a part of the senior citizen
fitness test. It is designed to test the functional fitness of senior citizens.
Purpose : The main purpose of this test is to assess or measure the upper body strength and
endurance which is required for performing household and other activities involving lifting and carrying
things.
Equipments required : 5 pound weight for women and 8 pound weight for men, a chair without arms
and a stopwatch.
Procedure : To do the maximum number of arm curls that can be completed in 30 seconds is its aim.
Arm curl is performed with the dominant arm sides. The participant sits on the chair, holds the
weight in the hand using a suitcase grip. It means the palms should be facing towards the body. The
arm should be in a vertically downward position. The upper arm should not move but lower arm
should move freely. Curl the arm up through a complete range of motion gradually turning the palm up.
When the arm is lowered through the complete range of motion, gradually return to the starting
position. The arm should be completely bent and then completely straightened at the elbow. This
complete action should be repeated by the participant as many times as possible within 30 seconds.

Q.43. What do you mean by AAPHER fitness test? Explain administration of any two items
of this test.
Ans. In the beginning, its name was AAPHER i.e., American Alliance for Health, Physical
Education and Recreation but now it is known as AAPHERD i.e., American Alliance for Health, Physical
Education, Recreation and Dance. It is one of the oldest professional organisations in the U.S.A. Its
motor fitness tests have been the major instruments for measuring motor fitness in American school
children for over 50 years. The first version of this test was published in 1958 and then revised in 1965
and after that many changes in the test battery were made in 1975 in AAPHERD Youth Fitness Test. In
this test, the following items were included:
(a) Pull-ups (Boys), Flexed-arm hang (Girls)
(b) Flexed-leg sit-ups
(c) Shuttle run
(d) Standing long jump
(e) 50-yard dash
(f) 600-yard run-walk
(g) Soft ball throw for distance
In 1976, the final test manual was prepared. The following items were finalized in this test battery :
(a) Pull-ups (for boys) and Flexed-arm hang (for girls)
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(b) Flexed-leg sit-ups

(c) Shuttle Run
(d) Standing long jump
(e) 50-yard dash
(f) 600-yard run-walk

Administration of AAPHERD Youth

Fitness Test :
1. (a) Pull-ups (Boys) : This test measures the total number of repetitions performed without taking rest on
a horizontal bar. The total number of pull-ups are noted. In this test, the chin must reach above the bar
while doing pull-ups.
(b) Flexed-arm Hang (Girls) : This test is administered on an adjustable horizontal bar. The height of
the bar should be adjusted so that it is approximately equal to the standing height of the student. The
correct position of hands is shown in fig. With the help of two girls the student's body is lifted off the
ground until her chin is positioned above the bar. She is required to hold the bar in the same
position for maximum time. Her time is noted in seconds. She may be allowed for one trial.
2. Flexed-leg Sit-ups : The student lies on back with legs in flexed position i.e., in bent knee position.
His/her hands should be behind the neck. Elbows must touch the knees while performing sit-
ups. The total number of repetitions of sit-ups is noted in one minute only.

Q. 44. Explain any one test items of Rikli and Jones Test batter.

Ans. Rikli and Jones Test : Senior citizen fitness test was developed by Roberta Rikli and Dr. Jessie
Jones. It consists of six easy and simple tests that assess the functional fitness of senior citizen. The tests
are easy to understand and effective tests to measure aerobic fitness, strength and flexibility
using minimal and inexpensive equipments. This test has common activities such as getting up from
chair, walking, lifting, bending and stretching. The test involves following test items :
Chair Stand Test : This test checks the leg strength and endurance. Equipments required are
straight back chair without arms (approximately 45 cm high).
Administration and Procedure of Test :
(i) Place the chair against wall or stabilize it for safety.
(ii) The person sits on chair with feet apart (at shoulder width) on the floor. Arms crossed at the wrist and
held close to chest.
(iii) From sitting position the person stands completely up and then completely back down.
(iv) It is repeated for 30 seconds.
(v) The number of complete chair stand (up and down equals one stand).

Q. 45. Elucidate any five physiological changes due to ageing.

Ans. (i) Reduces the risk of age-related diseases : Regular exercise reduces the risk of a number of
health problems-many ageing persons face. Such health problems are type 2 diabetes, obesity,
hypertension and heart diseases etc. Regular exercise decreases blood sugar level, decreases LDL (bad
cholesterol), increases HDL (good cholesterol), decreases blood pressure and decreases blood vessel
stiffness. It can be alluded with physical exercise reduces the risk of diseases related with age.
(ii) Improves muscular strength : Ageing process does not hinder the individual'sability to enhance
muscle strength. Regular exercise increases the strength of muscles. As a matter of fact, exercises
increase the size of muscles which ultimately increases muscular strength.
iii) Reduces the loss of muscle mass : Muscle mass decreases with advancing age. Ageing has a
negative effect on metabolism. Regular exercise decreases the loss of lean body mass and drop in the
metabolic rate. Regular exercise also reduces the accumulation of fats.
(iv) Enhances the capacity of lungs : Regular exercise enhances the capacity of lungs. It reduces
the loss of elasticity of the lungs and chest wall. It also plays a key role in keeping the lungs strong.
Regular exercise increases oxygen uptake and oxygen exchange.
(v) Improves flexibility : Regular exercise improves the elasticity of tendons, ligaments and joint
capsules. Exercise decreases the stiffness of joints. In this way, there is improvement in fexibility.
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Q. 46. Discuss any five effects of exercise on respiratory system.

Ans. (i) Avoids second wind: For a beginner, the stage of second wind is, indeed, a crucial stage.
But for a regular exerciser, it is hardly felt. Sometimes, a well-experienced athlete does not feel it in
his course of activity.
(ii) Unused alveoles become active:
Regular exercise activates the unused alveoles, because much amount of 02 is required in vigorous
and prolonged exercise of daily routine. The passive alveoles become active.
(iii) Increase in endurance: If exercise is performed regularly and for a longer period, it increases
endurance. An activity can be done for a longer period without taking any rest. Those who do not perform
exercise, have less endurance, They cannot continue exercise for a long duration. Hence, it can be
alluded that exercise increases the endurance of an individual.
(iv)Increase in residual air volume Residual air is that amount of air, which is left
in the lungs after exhalation. If an individual performs regular exercise, his residual air capacity
increases in comparison to an individual who does not perform regular exercise.
(v) Increase in size of lungs and chest: When a person performs exercise regularly, he requires more
amount of 02. He inhales more amount of air during exercise. Consequently, his lungs and chest are
exercised. After some period, the size of his lungs and chest increases.

Q. 47. Discuss five long-term effects of exercise on cardiovascular system.

Ans. (i) Increase in the size of heart :

When we perform regular exercise the muscles of the heart increase in size and strength. In fact, the
left ventricle adapts to the greatest extent. The heart walls grow stronger and thicker. The recent
studies show that the myocardial wall thickness also increases.
(ii) Decrease in resting heart rate : Regular exercise decreases the resting heart rate. If a 10
week training programme is given to an individual whose initial resting heart rate is 72 beats per minute,
after this duration his resting heart rate may reduce up to 10 beats per minute. After regular exercise the
heart finally becomes more efficient. It does not require to beat as quickly to supply the body with blood
while at rest. It has been noted that highly conditioned athletes can have their resting heart rates in
the 30s.
(iii) Increase in cardiac output : Regular exercise tends to increase the cardiac output. The cardiac
output in untrained individuals may be 14-20 litre/minute and 25-35 litre/ minute in trained
individuals and elite athletes', cardiac output can be as high as 40 litre/minute at rest.
(iv) Increased blood flow : In response to the need to supply the muscles with more oxygen during exercise, the body
increases its number of capillaries. The existing capillaries also open wider. The blood redistribution becomes more
efficient and effective. As a result of above mentioned facts there is an increased blood circulation in the body.
(v) Reduced risk of heart diseases :Regular exercise gradually reduces stress-related hormones from
circulating in the blood. This increases the blood vessel path, which in turn lowers the risk for the build up of
plaque that can lead to coronary heart diseases. Hence, exercises reduce the risk of heart diseases.

Q. 48. Discuss physiological factors determining flexibility.

Ans. (i) Muscle Strength : The muscles should have a minimum level of strength to make the movement
possible specially against gravity or external force. In sprinting runnings the legs or knees cannot be lifted to the
required height or angle if the related muscles (abdominal muscles) are weak. In fact, weak muscles can become a
limiting factor for achieving the higher range of movement. Muscle strength is highly trainable therefore, it can enhance
the flexibility.
(ii) Joint Structure : There are several different types of joints in human body. Some of the joints intrinsically
have a greater range of motion than others. For example, the ball and socket joint of the shoulder has the
greatest range of motion in comparison to the knee joint.
(iii) Internal Environment : Internal environment of the athlete influences the fexibility. For example 10
minutes in a warm bath increases body temperature and flexibility whereas, 10 minutes stay outside in 10°C reduces
body temperature and flexibility.
(iv) Previous Injury : Injuries to connective tissues and muscles can lead to thickening or if bruising on the affected
area. Fibrous tissues are less elastic and can lead to limb shortening and ultimately lead to reduced flexibility.
(v) Age and Gender : It is a well known fact that flexibility decreases with the advancement of age.
However, it is trainable. It can be enhanced with the help of training as strength and endurance are enhanced.
Gender also determines the flexibility. Females tend to be more flexible than males.
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Q. 49. Discuss physiological factors determining speed.

Ans. (i) Mobility of the nervous system : Our muscles contract and relax at maximum possible speed such as in
sprinting events. This rapid contraction and relaxation of muscles is made possible by rapid excitation and inhibition
of the concerned motor centres.This is called the mobility of the nervous system. The nervous system can
maintain this rapid excitation and inhibition only for a few seconds after which the excitation spreads to the
neighbouring centres causing tension in the entire body.
(ii) Muscle composition : The muscles, which have more percentage of fast twitch fibres contract with more speed
in comparison to the muscles which have lower percentage of fast twitch ifbres. In fact, the muscle composition is genetically
determined and cannot be changed by training. Different muscles of the body havedifferent percentages of fast
twitch fibres. So, different parts of body have different speed performances.
(iii) Explosive strength : For every quick and explosive movement, explosive strength is indispensable. For
example, a quick punch in boxing cannot be delivered if the boxer lacks explosive strength. Explosive strength
further depends on muscle composition, muscle size and muscle coordination. It also depends on metabolic precess.
Except muscle composition, the remaining factors can be improved through training which ultimately
improve the speed up to limited extent.
(iv) Flexibility : Up to some extent, flexibility also determines the speed. In fact, good flexibility allows maximum range of
movement without much internal resistance. Flexibility also enables complete utilisation of explosive strength.
(v) Bio-chemical reserves and metabolic power : For maximum speed performance the muscles require more
amount of energy at a very high rate of consumption.

Q. 50. Dfine Projectile and explain the factors affecting projectile.

Ans. A body projected or propelled upwards that continues its motion due to its own inertia is called a
projectile.
Factors Affecting Projectile
(i) Air Resistance : As a projectile moves through the air it is slowed down by air resistance. Air
resistance will decrease the horizontal component of a projectile. The effect of air resistance is very small
but needs to consider surface area, volume ratio, speed of object, mass. For example, a badminton
shuttle will have much more air resistance than a golf ball.
(ii) Gravity : It is the force of attraction exerted by the earth towards its centre on a body or an
object. The greater the weight of an object, the greater the influence of gravity u on it. Gravity affects a
projectile as it ecreases the height of projectile can obtain. The force of gravity acts on the object to
stop its upward movement and pulls it back to earth, limiting vertical component of the projectile.
(iii) Initial Velocity : The distance covered by an object depends on the initial velocity of the projectile. If
the initial velocity is more, the object covers maximum distance. On the other hand, if initial velocity is
less, the object covers less distance
(iv) Angle of Release : The angle of release change the relationship between the horizontal and vertical
components of the projectile. The ideal 'angle of release is 45 degree. A golfer hitting a ball from the
top of hill would hit it further than a golfer at ground level. The ball will stay in air for longer time so it
will have greater chance to gain distance.
(v) Spin : The amount and direction of spin acting on a projectile will directly affect the distance
projectile while travel.

Q. 51. Explain Linear movement, Angular movement and their use in sports.
Ans. Linear Movement: Linear movement describes a situation in which movement
occurs in straight line. Linear motion can also be called translation movement, but only if all parts of the
object or the athlete move in the same distance, in the same direction and in the same time frame.
Angular Movement: The angular movement occurs around the axis. It is rotation of body
around its axis. The athletes produce angular movement around its joint. It occurs when all Points
on a body or object move in circles (or parts of circles) about the same fixed central line or axis. The
upper arm rotates at shoulder joint; the lower arm rotates at elbow joint; the hip joint acts as axis for
the leg; the knee joint for the lower leg. Movement like walking and running depends upon the rotatory
motion of each segment.
 P a g e | 18

Linear and Angular Movements in Sports:

Human movement is combination of linear and angular motions. In sport skills, the set position
involves various levels of linear motion. A gymnast balancing on a beam prior to take off is example of
linear motion. Actions of skills involve angular motion as it involves joints which rotate to provide
movement.

Q. 52. Discuss the mechanical analysis of walking in detail.

Ans. Mechanical analysis of walking can be studied in two phases:

1. Stance phase
2. Swing phase
1. Stance Phase: Stance phase is the time when the foot is on the ground. It is considered that it
consists of maximum percent walking cycle. For a part of the stance both feet have a contact to the
ground period of time. The stance phase of walking further be divided into the following stages:

(i) Heel strike : This stage begins the heel first touches the ground and con until the complete foot is on the
ground i.e. fat-foot stage.

(ii) Early flat-foot : The starting early flat-foot stage is that moment when complete foot is on the ground.
The end flat-foot stage occurs when the body's central gravity (COG) passes over the top of the centre of
gravity of the body is located approximately in the pelvic area of the 1 spine while walking. The main
purpose stage is to allow the foot to act as a absorber.

(iii) Late flat-foot : An athlete comes late flat-foot stage when his body's C.O.G. in front of the neutral position.
This stage when the heel lifts off the ground. Dun stage, the foot needs to go from being a absorber to
being a rigid lever which can to propel the body in forward direction.

(iv) Heel rise : This stage starts w heel begins to leave the ground. The functions as a rigid lever to
move the forward direction. During this stage of w the ground forces that go through the f very significant.

(v) Toe off : This stage begins w toes leave the ground completely. This continues until the beginning of
swing p

2. Swing Phase : Swing phase is with toe off of left foot and ends with contact stage with right foot. The
swing is longer in running in comparison to phase.

Q.53. Discuss the mechanical analysis of running in detail ?

Ans. RUNNING : Running is a toe action movement. For running the focus is on the three or producing
actions—Push off, Knee-drive and Paw-back. These three phases are done in a ential manner to provide
efficient running action.
(1) 'Push off is the primary toe action movement needed to supply the driving force in forward ction. The force
comes from the powerful contraction of Calf (Gastrocnemius) muscles by ion of ankle joint. The slight flexion of
knee joint provides horizontal force instead of verticale. Body is also bent forward.
ii) 'Knee-drive' is coordination and knee joint with push off. It provides additional forward momentum. In knee-
drive, the thigh is drivenforward from a position behind the body to the front of body. The knee is raised high to
generate maximum force by the contraction of hip flexor muscles. Hihger knee-drive causes longer strides and uses
less energy.
(iii) Paw-back' : In this action the leg is straightend and brought backward and downward action to
make contact with the ground. The opposite hands are alternately swinged up and down with half flexion.
Hands remain in relaxed position during this movement. It also provides sideward balance, moreover, provides
direction during running.
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Q. 54. What is energy ? Explain Kinetic energy and Potential energy.

Ans. Energy is the capacity to do work. However, there are various forms of energy but in the field
of games and sports our main concern is about mechanical energy. Mechanical energy is the combination of
kinetic and potential energy. These forms of energy are stated below :
(i) Kinetic Energy : The energy an object has because of its motion is called kinetic energy.
The kinetic energy of a moving object depends on its speed. The faster the object moves, the greater
thekinetic energy it has. For example, if a javelin travels with maximum speed then it has more kinetic energy.
When it slows down it loses its kinetic energy and when it touches the ground, it has no kinetic energy. Kinetic
energy also depends on the mass of the object. If' a shot of 16 Ibs and a shot of 8 Ibs travel at the same
speed, the 16 Ibs shot has more kinetic energy than the 8 Ibs shot.
(ii) Potential Energy : Potential energy is the energy stored in an object because of its position or
condition. For example, when you stretch a bow, it acquires the ability of releasing an arrow with speed. It
means that the stretched bow also has potential energy. The more it is stretched, the greater the speed
with which it can release the arrow. It has the potential en because of its stretched condition. Energy can be
changed from potenti kinetic and from kinetic to potential. example when a basketball bounces up, it g
height and loses speed i.e., it gains poten energy and loses kinetic energy. When it s for a fraction of a
second at a certain heigh kinetic energy reduces to zero and it only potential energy.

Q. 55. Explain the meaning and effects of stress.

Ans. Meaning : Stress consists of bodily changed produced by physiologicalconditions that tend to upset the
homeostatic balance.
Effects : The effect of stress depends on the intensity of stressor. In the same situation, one individual
may interpret a stressor as a non-stressor, another individual as a moderate stressor and yet another
individual as a major stressor. So the effect of the stressor depends on the perception and intensity of the
stressor. If the effect of a stressor is severe, it can cause severe health problems and in extreme cases it
can even cause death. Generally, it causes headaches, eating disorders, allergies, insomnia, backaches,
frequent cold, fatigue, hypertension, asthma, diabetes, heart ailments and cancer, etc. Today, with the
rapid diversification of human activity maximum number of adults are facing stress related problems.In the
situation of stress, the brain prepares the body to take defensive action (the fight or lfight response) by
releasing stress hormones which are called cortisone and adrenaline. These hormones raise the blood
pressure and the body prepares to react to the situation. This is called fight response. These hormones get
used up in blood and finally effects of stress are reduced.When we fail to face a stressful situation, the
hormones remain unused in the blood for a long time. It results in stress related physical symptoms, such
as tense muscles, anxiety, dizziness and fast heartbeats. This state of accumulated stress can
increase the risk of psychosomatic illness. It also weakens the immunity power of the body. It may lead
to the loss of potassium, white blood cells and body weight of the person.

Q. 56. What do you mean by anxiety? Discuss the management of anxiety in detail.
Ans. Meaning of Anxiety : The main aim of physical education teachers, trainer, coaches and sports
psychologists 'is to enhance an individual's performance at optimum level. To achieve this aim, they
must consider the effect of anxiety on performances. In fact, anxiety is a psychological and physiological
state of an individual. It icharacterised by cognitive emotional and behavioural components.These
components combine to create an unpleasent feeling, which is associated with uneasiness,fear or worry.
(i) Breathing Technique : Do deep breathing exercise. Breathing exercises contract the diaphram,
muscles, chest cavity and stomach cavity. It is the best and healthiest way to ingest oxygen, which gives body
relaxation and treat inanxiety disorders.
(ii) Meditation : Meditation is effective tool to concentrate. It is very helpful to remove all types of
stress, fear, pain and anxiety.
(iii) Goal Settings : Clearly defined goal help to measure success; whereas too lofty goal overwhelm you.
Always choose a possible challengeable and achievable goal. It keeps keeps you away from anxiety.
(iv) Five Breath Technique : This technique can be used in standing, lying or sitting position. First of all, take a
deep breath and allow your face and neck to relax as you breathe out. Then take a second deep breath and allow
you shoulders and arms to relax as you breathe out. After that take, third deep breath and allow your chest, stomach
and back to relax as you breath out.
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Q. 57. What is personality ? Discuss its dimensions. (CBSE 2012)"

Ans. Personality is defined as the enduring personal charateristics of individuals. In other words
personality is combination of characteristics or qualities that an individual distinctive character.
Dimensions of Personality :
(i) Emotionality : Emotional stability or control over emotions such as anger,fear, love, bate etc. is
another requirement of good personality. Emotionally unstable person can be a threat to himself and the
society. Man cannot be free of emotions but emotions of an individual getting out of control can create many
problems for the individual and society.In fact emotional control is a sign of good mental health of an
individual and is, therefore, an important indicator of personality.

(ii) Sociability : Sociability is a very important quality of an individual's personality. Since an

individual and society cannot be separated, an individual is looked upon in the context of society.
Moreover social dimensions of a personality such as good habits, attitudes, cooperation, helpfulness,
sportsmanship and relationship etc. are developed only in a social environment. Therefore to be
acceptable as a member of society, the sociabilityaspects of an individual personality cannot be ignored.

(iii) Intellect : Man is considered as the supreme creation of God due to his intelligence. His intelligence
adds charm to his personality. A good physique without mind and intellect has no meaning. Intellectual qualities
of individuals are appreciated by others and help them in becoming leaders in many fields. These qualities
enhance his personality.

Q. 58. Discuss the points to improve the body image and self-esteem.

Ans. Methods or points to improve the body image and self esteem are as follow :
(i) To change your life style : Changes in your lifestyle such as adopting a specific diet and well planned
exercise programme in order to lose weight, gain muscles or change in body shape and size can be a
healthy choice. Such practicewill definitely help in improving body image and self-esteem.
(ii) To have a positive and optimistic attitude : A positive and optimistic attitude can help individuals
to improve body image and self-esteem. So one should try to have a positive and optimistic attitude in
life. Participation in physical activities also enhance positive attitude which ultimately improve body image
as well as self-esteem.
(iii) Plastic surgery and using beautifying products : It can be a choice of some
individuals to have plastic surgery to change the body parts they don't like such as nose or chin etc.
Most of the celebrities go under plastic surgery for improving their body image. Some of the individuals use
beautifying products to change the appearance of their skin.
(iv) To think about your positive qualities : If you are having low self-esteem and unhealthy
body image you can turn yourself towards healthy body image and high self-esteem by thinking about
your positive or good qualities. For this purpose, prepare a list of your positive or good qualities that have
nothing to do with your appearance. Thinking about those precious and positive qualities will definitely
improve your body image and self-esteem.

Q. 59. Elucidate the factors influencing self-esteem and body image.

Ans. These factors are as follow :
(i) Media Images : During teenage, the teenagers become more aware of celebrities and media
images. They usually start to compare themselves with media images and celebrities. Print media as
well as electronic media can affect how the teenagers feel about themselves and their body images.
(ii) Life Experience and Natural Ageing Process : Body image and self-esteem are also significant
factors which influence the body image and self-esteem. When our body changes due to natural ageing
process we have different feelings about our body. Even our experience of life may influence our body
image and self-esteem. As a matter of fact, individuals may experience negative comments about the
way they look from any person. Such experience of life may influence the body image and self-
esteem.

(iii) Puberty and Development : A number of teenagers struggle with their self esteem and body
image when they begin puberty because during this period, the body goes on a number of changes. They compare their body
with others. They confront with the problem that not everyone develops at the same time or in the same way. Their
development takes place differently which may create a negative body image and low self-esteem for some of the teens.
 P a g e | 21

(iv) Family and School : We do not develop our body image all on our own. The family, school and other members of
society can influence self-esteem and body image.Sometimes, family members may criticize their children about their looks
and due to that children may develop a negative body image. In this way family school can influence children's self
esteem body image, specially if they are more sensitive.

Q. 61. Define Speed and discuss the types of speed in detail.

Ans. Ballow and Mcgee defines speed as the capacity of an individual to perform successive
movement of the some pattern at a fast rate. Speed plays a very uital role approximately in every
game and sport.
Types of Speed :
1. Movement Speed : It is the ability to do a movement in minimum time. It depends upon techniques,
explosive strength, flexibility and coordinative abilites.
2. Acceleration Ability : It is the ability to achieve maximum speed from a stationary position or
from low speed state. Generally, sprinters achieve their maximum speed after approximately six
seconds. This ability mainl depends upon explosive strength, technique an fexibility. This ability is important in
all gamed and sports in which maximum speeds are to be achieved in quickly such as sprint races,
swimming (short distance), hockey, football and gymnastics etc.
3. Starting Speed : It is the ability of an athlete to go from a stopped or non moving state to a moving or
mobile state. Starting speed is a crucial opponent of sports and it is always considered as the 'first step'.
For many sports, it is the first step to blow by your opponent. So, proper training for starting speed is very
important in sports.
4. Speed Endurance: It is the ability of athlete to maintain top levels of speed while performing
repeated bouts of your sports skill without becoming fatigued. Usually, it is dictated by the three energy
systems of the body.

Q. 62. Explain methods to improve fexibility ? (CBSE 2012)

Ans.1. If the exercises are performed with the help of a partner, the partner should have proper
knowledge about the exercise of flexibility.
2. Dynamic flexibility depends on static flexibility. Dynamic flexibility is more beneficial than static flexibility
in the field of games and sports
3. For effective improvement of flexibility, sufficient number of repetitions should be performed. It is
recommended that at least 10-15 repetitions of each exercise should be performed.
4. Jerky movements should be avoided while doing the exercises for improving flexibility.
5. The exercises for improving flexibility should be performed after a complete warm-up. lf proper warm-up
is not performed, there may be maximum chances of overstretching the muscles. There may be injury of
the muscles, ligaments or joint.
6. Exercises for the development of fexibility should be performed when the sportsperson is fresh.
Under the stage of fatigue, the muscles cannot be stretched to their maximum limit.
7. Exercises for the improvement of dynamic flexibility should be related to sports activity.

Q. 63. What do you mean by Dynamic Strength and Static Strength?

Ans. (a) Dynamic Strength: Dynamic strength can be called isotonic strength because itis related to the
movements. In pull-ups and push-ups we require dynamic strength. In performing such workout, there is
a diminishing tendency in dynamic strength and as a result, after some time, muscles refuse to do work.
At this juncture, man is not able to do even one extra pullup or push-up. Movements are clearly visible
when someone uses dynamic strength. In each sports movement, strength appears in a different form.

(b) Static Strength : Static strength is also called isometric strength. It is the ability of muscles to act
against resistance. Static strength can, be measured by dynamometer. This type of strength is not
seen directly. Static strength is not usually applied in sports but in weightlifting it is applied in phases.
 P a g e | 22

Q. 64. What is a continous Training method. Write its advantages.

Ans. Continuous training is one of the best methods for improving endurance. In this method of
training an exercise is performed for a long duration without any break. In this method, intensity
remains low because the exercise is done for a longer period. Cross-country race is the best
example of continuous method. In this method, the rate of heartbeat
remains in between 140-160 beats per minute. The total duration of the exercise should not be less than
30 minutes. This duration of exercise can be increased according to endurance ability of the sportsperson
or athelete.

Advantages :
1. It increases glycogen in muscles and liver.
2. It increases the number and size of mitochondria.
3. It also increases the efficiency of heart and lungs.
4. It improves willpower and makes the individual well-determined under the condition of fatigue.
5. For better results intensity can be increased.
6. It makes the individual self-desciplined and self-confident.

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KVS REGIOANAL OFFICE GUWAHATI Total Pages : 15

This section contains total 4 – Sets of Question paper and 11- Sets of
questions for practice related to Physical Education Class - XII.
____________________________________________________________________

C.B.S.E. EXAMINATION PAPER (1)

PHYSICAL EDUCATION
CLASS-XII
Time : 3 hrs. Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory .
(ii) Question paper carries A and B two parts.
(iii) Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should be in approximately 30 words.
(iv) Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should be in approximately 60 words.
(v) Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should be in approximately 100 words.
(vi) Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should be in approximately 150-200 words.

PART—A
1. What do you understand by wellness ? 1
2. Define fixture. 1
3. Explain the need for sports environment. 1
4. What do you understand by postural deformities ? 1
5. What do you mean by Samadhi ? 1
6. What are minerals ? 1
7. What are isometric exercises ? 1
8. "Extrinsic motivation may kill intrinsic motivation." Justify. 1
9. Explain differentiation and orientation ability. 2
10. Briefly explain the role of spectators for creating positive sports environment. 2
11. Explain any two elements of Yoga. 2
12. Explain Interval training method. 2
13. Explain reinforcement and knowledge of results as techniques of motivation. 2
14. Write in brief about the factors affecting wellness. 3
15. What are the essential elements of positive sports environment ? 3
16. How can Yoga contribute to enhance sports performance ? Write in brief. 3
17. Explain "role of ethics in sports". 3
18.Enlist the committees for organizing sports day in your school and enlist the responsibilities
of any three committees. 2+
3=5
19. Suggest physical activities as corrective measures for correcting round shoulders. 5
20. Explain any five factors affecting balanced diet. 5
21. Define strength and discuss means and methods for strength development. 1+
4=5

PART-B
Answer the question nos. 22-27 (except Q. No. 24) from any one game /sport of your choice
only.
22. Write about two fundamental skills of your game of choice. 2
23. Write about any six terminologies of your game of choice. 3
24. What is SGFI ? Explain its organizational set-up with functions. 5
25. Explain any four general rules of the game/sport of your choice. 2
26. Draw play field/court/table with the specifications of the game/sport of your choice. 3
27. Briefly write historical development of the game/sport of your choice. 5

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C.B.S.E. EXAMINATION PAPER (2)

PHYSICAL EDUCATION
CLASS-XII

Time : 3 hrs. Max. Mar 70 ,

General Instructions :
(i) The question paper is divided into two parts : Part -A and Part - B.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should be in approximately 30 words.
(iv) Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should be in approximately 60 words.
(v) Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should be in approximately 90 words.
(vi) Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should be in approximately 150-200 words.

PART—A
1. What do you understand by Recreation ?
2. Explain the objectives for Intramurals.
3. Explain sport environment.
4. Define flat foot.
5. What is Swadhyaya in Yogic Niyamas ?
6. What are vitamins ?
7. Define acceleration runs.
8. What is Goal setting ?
9. Explain any two factors affecting wellness.
10. Explain any two types of causative factors related to accidents in sports.
11. Mention any four points to show the importance of Yoga.
12. Explain any two methods for flexibility development.
13. Explain ethics in sports.
14. "Games and sports are the best means for attaining fitness." Justify.
15. Elucidate the role of media for improvement of positive sports environment.
16. Explain any three techniques of meditation.
17. Explain any three principles of training in brief.
18. Suggest the formation of various committees for systematic and smooth conduct of sports
in your school.
19. Explain in detail about any five advantages of correct posture.
20. What is the role of various elements of diet on performance of an athlete ?
21. What is endurance ? Explain the various methods for its development.
PART B
Answer the question nos. 22-24 and 26-27 from any one game/sport of your choice only.
22. Write about any four tournaments of the game/sport of your choice.
23. Explain any six terminologies from the game/sport of your choice.
24. Explain any five latest rules from the game/Sport of your choice.
25. Explain Arjuna Award.
26. Write about achievements of any three important sports personalities from the game/
your choice.
27. Explain any five common soft tissue injuries in the game/sport of your choice.

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C.B.S.E. EXAMINATION PAPER (3)

PHYSICAL EDUCATION
CLASS-XII

Time : 3 hrs. Max. Mar70

General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory .
(ii) Question paper carries A and B two parts.
(iii) Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should be in approximately 30 words.
(iv) Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should be in approximately 60 words.
(v) Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should be in approximately 100 words.
(vi) Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should be in approximately 150-200 words.

PART—A
1. Define Strength.
2. Explain the procedure for giving Bye.
3. Define Environment.
4. What is Scoliosis ?
5. What do you understand by Niyamas ?
6. What are Fats ?
7. What are Pace Races ?
8. Explain Reinforcement.
9. Recreational activities as means for fitness development. Justify.
10. Briefly explain about any two essential elements of positive sport environment.
11. What is the role of Yoga in Sports ? Explain in brief.
12. Explain any two causes of Anxiety.
13. What are the advantages of correct posture ?
14. Explain in detail any three factors that affect physical fitness.
15. Elucidate the role of spectators for improvement of positive sport environment.
16. Explain any three elements of Yoga.
17. Explain the developmental characteristics during infancy.
18. What do you mean by specific sports programmes ? Explain any three.
19. Explain the causes, precautions and remedies of Bow legs.
20. What is Balanced Diet ? Elucidate its any four constituents.
21. Define Flexibility and explain the methods for its development.

PART-B
Answer the questions from any one game /sport of your choice only.
22. Write about any two important tournaments of your game with their venues. 2
23. Write about any three sports personalities of your game who have made world class
achievements.
24. Explain about any five latest rules of your game. 5
25. Explain any two fundamental skills of the game and sport of your choice. 2
26. What are the preventive measures to avoid sports injuries ? 3
27. Name the important National Sport Awards and explain any one of them in details.

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C.B.S.E. EXAMINATION PAPER (4)

PHYSICAL EDUCATION
CLASS-XII

Time : 3 hrs. Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions :
(i) The question paper is divided into two parts : Part —A and Part — B.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) The answers to one mark question should be of 30 words, answers to two marks questions should be
of 60 words, three marks answers should be of 90 words, and five marks answers should be of 150-200
words.

PART—A
1. Define active flexibility. 1
2. What is a bye ? 1
3. What do you understand by social environment in sports ? 1
4. What is a correct posture ? 1
5. What is Pratyahara in Yoga ? 1
6. Define a balanced diet. 1
7. Explain Fartlek. 1
8. Define Sports Psychology. 1
9. Differentiate between fitness and wellness. 2
10. Mention any two essential elements of positive sports environment. 2
11. Write in brief about two elements of Yoga. 2
12. What are the two methods for flexibility development ? 2
13. Differentiate between State and Trait Anxiety. 2
14. Explain the role of Games and Sports as means of fitness development. 3
15. What is the role of spectators in creating a positive sports environment ? Explain. 3
16. What is the role of Yoga in Sports ? Explain. 3
17. Explain any two methods for speed development. 3
18. Prepare a fixture for 21 teams on a knock-out basis. 5
19. Suggest five exercises as corrective measures for Round Shoulders. 5
20. Explain any five essential elements of diet. 5
21. Explain in detail the developmental characteristics for childhood. 5

PART-B
Answer the question nos. 22 and 24-26 from any one game /sport of your choice only.
22. Write in brief about any four fundamental skills from game/sport of your choice. 2
23. Write a short note on S.G.F.I. 3
24. Draw a diagram of a field/court/table of the game/sport of your choice with all
specifications.
5
25. Mention any four latest rules of game/sport of your choice. 2
26. Briefly explain the historical development of game/sport of your choice. 3
27. Enlist the important National Sports Awards. Explain any one of them.
2+3=5

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PRACTICE SET OF QUESTIONS (TOTAL 11- Sets)

SET-1

✓ VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

1. Define environment.
2. Explain biotic components of environment.
3. What do you mean by sports environment ?
4. What is physical environment ?
5. What do you mean by social environment ?
6. Who is spectator ?

✓ SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)

1. Name some of the 'sports equipments'.

2. Name and explain one essential element of positive sports environment.

3. Write two points of spectators' response for improving sports environment.
4. Define women's participation in sports.

5. What do you mean by proper sports environment ? ✓

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS EACH)

1. \Nrite the meaning and definition of environment.
2. How does sports facilities contribute to create a sports environment ?
3. What do you understand by 'spectators' ?
4. Write the types of environment and explain them.

5. Discuss the role of climatic conditions in creating a sports environment. ✓

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS EACH)

1. Discuss about sports environment in details.
2. Differentiate between biotic and abiotic environment.
3. Explain the need of proper sports environment.
4. How can physical education be influenced by physical environment and social environment?
5. Discuss the concept of women's participation in sports.

✓ HOTS QUESTIONS
1. Discuss on prevention of injuries in sport.
2. Enlist the essential elements of a positive sports environment.

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SET-2

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

1. Give definition of rock climbing.

2. Name the types of mountaineering.

3. What do you mean by conservation of environment ?

4. State two safety principles for adventure sports.

5. List down the important equipments required for camping.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)

1. What is rock climbing ? Explain in brief.

2. Write a short note on camping.

3. Explain any four qualities of a good leader.

4. Draw a web chart of types of camping.

5. Differentiate between Aid and Solo climbing.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS EACH)

1.Discuss about mountaineering in detail.

2. Explain the process for creating or making leaders through physical education.
3. Elucidate about trekking in detail.

4. Define leader. Give importance of student leader.

5. What is difference between solo climbing and traditional climbing ? ✓ LONG

ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS EACH)

1. Write an essay on conservation of environment.

2. Elaborate mountaineering and its types. What safety measures and material are required
for mountaineering?

3. What do you mean by leadership? Discuss the process of creating or making leaders through
physical education.

4. Make a list of the equipment required for a mountaineering camp.

5. Make a list of opportunities for enhancing qualities of leadership. ✓ HOTS

QUESTIONS

1. Name some of the dangers the climbers have to face in mountaineering.

2. Describe rock climbing, river rafting, trekking.

3. Discuss about camping. What are its types? Elaborate the cheeklist and safety measures for
camping.

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SET-3

✓ VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

1. Enlist the macro nutrients.
2. Enlist the micro nutrients.
3. What is anorexia nervosa ?
4. What do you mean be bulimia nervosa ?
5. Define healthy weight.
6. What are fats ? (CBSE 2013, 2011)

✓ SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 AND 3 MARKS EACH)

1. What do you mean by macro and micro nutrients ?
2. Briefly explain the types of vitamins.
3. Explain in brief, the importance of water.
4. Briefly explain eating disorders.
5. Explain any two food myths.
6. Define balanced diet and mention the elements of diet. (CBSE 2011)

✓ LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS EACH)

1. What do you mean by macro nutrients ? Explain about any four macro nutrients.
2. What do you mean by micro nutrients ? Explain in brief about minerals as micro nutrients.
3. What do you mean by nutritive components of diet ? Explain about any three of them in
brief.
4. What do you mean by anorexia nervosa and bulimia nersova ?
5. What do you mean by food myths ? Explain any six food myths.
6. What is balanced diet ? Elucidate its any four constituents. (CBSE 2013)

HOTS QUESTIONS

1. Enlist complex group of vitamins.

2. Draw a chart of height and weight of women over 25 years and men over 25 years.

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SET-4

1 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

1. Make a league fixture of 7 teams.
2. Define the terms Bye and Seeding.
3. Name one essential element of positive sports environment.
4. What is a league tournament ?
5. What is meant by planning in sports ?
6. Give the name of Run organized for a cause. 1'

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)

1. Give an introduction of running for fun.
2. Make a simple draw for thirteen contestants in a knock-out tournament.
3. Draw a fixture for teams participating in league tournament by tabular method.
4. What points should we keep in mind before deciding schedule of matches ? ./

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS EACH)

1. Write two benefits of running.
2. What are the duties of publicity committee ?
3. How will you distribute the teams in quarters ?
4. What are the advantages and disadvantages of a knock-out tournament ? ✓

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS EACH)

1. Discuss the various specific sports programmes which are not true competitions.
2. Explain different methods of drawing fixtures for a league tournament giving examples.
3. What is the need, objectives and principles of extramurals ?
4. Highlight the advantages of extramural activities.
5. Describe the planning process for conducting specific programme for awareness agains
Global Warming.

✓ HOTS QUESTIONS
1. Prepare a fixture for 20 teams participating in the knock-out tournament.
2. Describe about the various committees for organising a sports event.

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SET-5

✓ VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

1. How Lordosis deformity can be cured ?
2. Describe the types of spinal curvature.
3. Describe Rock and Roll exercise.
4. What do you mean by correct posture ? (CBSE AI 2013)
5. What is Scoliosis ? (CBSE Delhi 2013)
6. What is Knock-Knees ? (CBSE Delhi 2012)i

✓ SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)

1. Explain the correct posture of sitting.
2. Discuss any two advantages of correct posture. (CBSE Delhi 2013)
3. Suggest four corrective exercises for flat foot. (CBSE Delhi 2012)
4. What are the remedial measures for the deformity of Bowlegs ?
5. Describe 'Ball Squeeze' and 'Side Plank' exercises to rectify 'Knock-Knees'.
6. What is Rickets ?

✓ SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS EACH)

1. Describe spinal postural deformities.
2. How can physical activities be corrective measures for common postural deformities ?
(CBSE Al 2011)
3. Express your views on correct lying posture.
4. Explain the deformity of 'Knock-Knees'.
5. Discuss the importance of an ideal posture in our life and sports.

6. Mention the corrective exercises related to Kyphosis.

✓ LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS EACH)

1. Mention the causes, precautions and remedies of Bowlegs. (CBSE Delhi 2013)
2. Suggest physical activities as corrective measures for Flat Foot and Lordosis.
(CBSE AI 2013)
3. Explain the causes, precautions and remedies of Knock-Knees. (CBSE Delhi 2012)
4. Discuss some exercises for the remedy of 'Rounded Shoulders'.
5. What factors cause postural deformities ?
6. Describe Good posture. What are the advantages of Good posture ?

✓ HOTS QUESTIONS
1. Discuss the physical exercises as corrective measures for Kyphosis, Lordosis and Scoliosis
2. Staying healthy and active is in direct proportion to the good or bad posture one adopts,
Comment.

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SET-6

✓ VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

1. What is weight training ?
2. What are the disadvantage of food supplement ?
3. How can physical activities play a positive role in tucking the problems of adolecents ?
4. Name some of the safety measure necessary during weight training.
5. Why do children require food supplements?

6. List down the benefits of Aerobic

activities. SHORT ANSWER TYPE

QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)

1. State the factor affecting motor develoment.
2. Give the physical benefits of exercise.
3. How yoga helps to improve quality life ?
4. Enlist the activities for quality life.
5. Define motor development.
6. List down the physiological benefits of exercises.

.1 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS EACH)

1. Write importance of games and sports. (CBSE 2010)

2. What is Aerobic activities ? Write importance of Aerobic activities.
3. Write any two advantage and disadvantage of weight training.
4. Discuss food supplement for children.

✓ LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS EACH)

1. Explain the importance of Aerobic activities.
2. Highlight the physiological importance of exercises.
3. Describe the risk factors in taking food supplement.
4. Define quality of life. How can the quality of life be maintained ?
5. Discuss in detail the activities for children.

✓ HOTS QUESTIONS
1. What are physical and physiological benefits of exercise on children ? (CBSE 2013)
2. What do you mean by food supplements ? Write the disadvantages of them to children.

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SET-7

✓ VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

1. What do you mean by Test ?
2. List down the test items performed in Kraus Weber Test.
3. What is Rockport one mile Test ?
4. What do you mean by '8 Feet Up and Go Test' ?
5. What is Kraus-Weber Test ?

✓ SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)

1. Briefly explain about muscular strength.

2. Define Test and enlist common test used in sport.

3. Briefly explain about spinped measurements.
4. Discuss the produce of administering Rockport Test.

5. How would the test of Arm Curl performed on senior citizen.

✓ SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS EACH)

1. What do you mean by AAPHER Fitness Test ? Explain administration of any three items of
this test.
2. Explain the three tests of Kraus-Weber Test.
3. Explain the Rockport One Mile Test.
4. Explain in brief the Harvard Step Test.
5. Explain Sit and Reach Test in brief.

✓ LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS EACH)

1. Explain any three test items of Kraus Weber Test.

2. Discuss the procedure of performing Harvard Step Test.

3. Define Test, Measurement and Evaluation. Enlist common test for fitness.

4. Define AAPHER. Explain any four tests used in AAPHER

Battery. ✓ HOTS QUESTIONS

1. How would you administer Rockport Walk Test ?
2. Describe Sit and Reach Test.

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SET-8

✓ VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

1. What is flexibility ?
2. What is cardiac output ?
3. Briefly explain about ageing.
4. Write a note on heart.
5. Discuss about the composition of blood.

✓ SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 AND 3 MARKS EACH)

1. Write a note on lungs.
2. Write the physiological changes on skin and hair due to ageing.
3. What is relation between physiology and anatomy ?
4. Describe bronchi.
5. What is trachea ?

✓ SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 AND 3 MARKS EACH)

1. Write a note on capillaries.
2. What is the impact of ageing on bones and kidney ?
3. How is exercise beneficial to slow down the ageing process ? Discuss any two
benefits.
4. How does exercise increase oxygen transportation ?
5. Describe pulmonary alveoli.

✓ LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS EACH)

1. Discuss circulatory system. What is the impact of exercise on circulatory system ?
Elaborate.
2. What is the role of exercise on ageing process ? Give your point of view.
3. Elaborate cardiovascular system. What are the short-term and long-term effects of
exercise
on cardiovascular system ?
4. Describe the benefits of regular exercise over respiratory system.
5. Discuss the physiological factors which determine the components of physical

fitness. ✓ HOTS QUESTIONS

1. Explain the physiological factors determining speed as a component of physical
fitness.
2. "No one can stop the clock of ageing but physical exercise can slow its tick." Give
your
comment on this statement.

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 P a g e | 13

SET-9

I VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

1. State static friction.
2. Define potential energy.
3. Define work.
4. Discuss various types of friction.
5. What do you mean by air resistance ?
6. What is a linear motion ?
7. Give the formula for calculating work done.
8. What do you understand by power ?
I SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)
1. What is a friction ? Give one example and its importance in life.
2. Describe the phases in which we devide the runing movement.
3. What do you understand by angular movement ?
4. How much is the work done in trying to push an immovable object or a wall ?
I SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS EACH)
1. Differentiate between running and walking.
2. Describe the five phases of walking.
3. What is defferent between power and energy ?
4. Explain Biomecharics.
✓ LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS EACH)
1. Describe briefly the walking cycle.
2. Write at least five principles of efficient running.
3. Explain the factors that affect the path of a projectile.
4. Explain two types of energy.
5. Discuss the angular and linear movements in detail. ✓
HOTS QUESTIONS
1. Discuss the mechanical analysis of running in detail.
2. What is the friction ? Explain it types. Is its advantageous or disadvantageous in the field
sports ? Give your views.

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 P a g e | 14

SET-10

/ VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

1. What do you mean by self-esteem ?
2. What do you mean by emotion focused coping strategies ?
3. List down the coping strategies.
4. List down the benefits of sports for personality development.
5. Give two motivating techniques used in sports.
6. What do you understand by body image ?
' 7. How is body image related with self-esteem ? /
8. Define personality. State its dimensions.
9. Discuss the motivation : Explain the various types of motivation.
10. Define motivating techniques used in sports.
/ SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS EACH)
1. Describe the techniques used to ruduce stress and anxiety.
2. Define stress. What are the symptoms of stress ?
3. Explain two basic divisions of forces of motivation. ✓
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS EACH)
1. Discuss the relationship between self-esteem and body image ?
2. How stress and anxiety can be reduced ?
3. State personality and give its dimensions. Explain the importance of sports in development
of personality.
4. What methods should be adopted to improve self-esteem ?
5. Explain briefly the factors that influence the formation of body image. ✓
HOTS QUESTIONS
1. Make a list of methods adopted for coping with anxiety.
2. What are the reasons to develop low-self esteem ? How can a positive self-esteem be
developed ?

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 P a g e | 15

SET-11

✓ VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

1. What are Isotonic exercises ?
2. Define Endurance.
3. What are Isokineti exercises ?
4. What is Adaptation ability ?
5. What is Balance ability ?
6. Define Orientation ability.
7. What do you mean by Coupling ability ?
8. What is Speed Endurance ?

✓ SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)

1. Define Continuous Method of training.
2. Discuss any three types of Coordinative abilities.
3. 'Explain iheMefhoas of improving Speed.
4. Discuss the Types of Strength.

✓ SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS EACH)

1. Discuss flexibility and explain the methods to improve flexibility.
2. Discuss any two methods of improving strength.
3. Elaborate Fartlek training.
4. Explain Ability of Reaction and Ability of Rhythm. ✓
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS EACH)
1. What is the concept of Co-ordinative abilities ? Elaborate in brief.
2. Elaborate Isometric and Isotonic exercises.
3. Elaborate continous training method of endurance development along with its advanl
and disadvantages.
4. Describe Interval training method.
5. Define Endurane, mention its types. Describe any one training method to develop end ✓
HOTS QUESTIONS
1. Explain coordinative ability. What are the various types of coordinative ability ?
2. State speed in sports. What are its types ? Explain the trainig methods for speed develop

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 P a g e |1

KVS REGIOANAL OFFICE GUWAHATI Total Pages : 12

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER FOR C.B.S.E. EXAMINATION

(PHYSICAL EDUCATION)
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 AND 3 MARKS EACH)

1. Explain briefly the role of educational institutions in improving sports environment.

Ans. Creation of proper environment for positive and appropriate, that may be a negative physical
education programmes in a state important for raising the standard of sports is role of spectators.

Q. 2. What is physical environment of sports? .

Ans. Physical environment of sports includes natural and artificial or man-made environments, which further consist of
playgrounds, courts, gyms, climate, weather, altitude, mountains, stadiums, sports complexes, indoor halls, swimmingpools,
sports equipments and the surroundings of that area.

Q. 3. Discuss the need of proper sports environment.

Ans. The proper sports environment is needed for proper growth and development of
sportspersons who are engaged in various sports. In the absence of proper sports environment,
the growth and development of sportspersons is impossible.

Q. 4. Briefly explain about any two essential elements of positive sports environment.
Ans. Playground/Courts : For the positive sports environment, playground/courts
should have enough open space. The playfields, court or track, etc. should be well-laid,
levelled and pleasing to encourage their use. They should be neat and clean. The
artificial playfields, courts and track must be of good quality and as per international
standards. They should be maintained properly.
Q. 5. What do you say about the presence of spectators ?
Ans. The presence of spectators is essential for creating positive sports environment. Thebehaviour and
attitude of spectators are not positive and appropriate, that may be a negativerole of spectators.

Q6. Discuss the role of climatic condition in creating a sports environment?

Ans. Normal climatic conditions for positive sports environment, there should be normal climatic
conditions. It differs sports to sports. They should do their practice in early morning or late evening
during hot seasons. During winter season, they should use indoor stadiums. Extreme heat and cold
conditions may cause the normal climatic conditions.

Q7. Describe the main reasons of sports injuries.

Ans. Different types of injuries may occur to sports persons if playgrounds, courts, sports equipments,
training equipments and protective equipments are not proper. So, proper sports environment in terms of
sports grounds, courts and equipments, etc. is needed for avoiding injuries to participants.

Q8. What is the role of media in creating positive sports environment?

Ans. The media, whether it is print media or electronic media, plays a significant and
effective role in creating positive sports environment. Media is providing its valuable contribution
for the encouragement and promotion of sports and games. Millions of people watch the various
tournaments like World Cups and Olympic games with the help of electronic media.
 P a g e |2

Q. 9. What are the main objectives of camping?

Ans. Objectives of camping :
(i) To develop self-confidence and satisfaction.

(ii) To develop skills of self-expression and communication.

(iii) To provide an opportunity to students or individuals to be independent and develop self-
discipline.
(iv) To provide a social environment on a small scale for learning social qualities.
(v) To develop team spirit and a sense of belonging to the group.
(vi) To develop healthy personal relationship with others.
(vii) To develop the qualities of responsibility and leadership.
(viii) To get the benefits of a clean, healthy and aesthetic environment.

Q. 10. What are the main objectives of adventure sports? (CBSE 2011)
Ans. Some of the objectives of participation in adventure sports are:
(i) To test one’s strength and other capabilities in difficult and dangerous situations.
(ii) To face and deal effectively with challenging situations.
(iii) To experience a sense of achievement.
(iv) To satisfy one's self-esteem.
(v) To accept the challenges posed by nature and natural surroundings.
(vi) To indulge in an activity that is exciting and satisfying.
(vii) To do something unique and daring in the field of sports.
(viii) To satisfy the strong desire for adventure.

Q. 11. Discuss value of a student leader or captain.

Ans. (i) Leader is the representative of the group. It expresses the ideas, thoughts and interests of
the group. He represents group in various delegations, occasions and meetings. Leader takes
decision on behalf of group.
(ii) It provides opportunity to improve his own command, class or team control and excel in every
sphere.
(iii) It enables a teacher or coach to spend more time for teaching or coaching or other important
works. Thus, acts as planner and organiser.
(iv) A student leader helps in better utilisation of class time as he assists the teacher or coach in
class discipline.
(v) A:leader develops good social qualities and encourages others, thus acts as role model.
(vi) Student leader inspires others to perform better, thus leader acts as example setter.
(vii) A student leader provides close relationship of a student with the teacher or coach.
(viii) A leader ensures better adjustment of a student with teacher.

Q. 12. Prepare a checklist for camping.

Ans. Camping Checklist: Preparation is very essential for any adventurous sports. Cheeklists are great tools to organise
the things. Your camping list may vary according to the types of camping. But the essential items for camping are
enlisted ahead :
(i) Shelter : Tent, ground cloth, extra stakes, Axe or hammer, Mat, Dust pan/brush.
 P a g e |3

(ii) Bedding: Sleeping bag, blanket, sheets, pillow, sleeping pad, air pump, utility bag for storage.
(iii) Cooking items: Jug, bucket, mug, thermos, stove with fuel, matches, burner, pan, cups, paper towels, utensils etc.
(iv) Clothes : Shirts, T-shirts, jeans, shoes, jacket, underwear, towel, rain gear, swimsuit, laundry bag etc.
(v) Personal items : Soap, shampoo, tooth brush, toothpaste, comb, oil, cream, lotion etc.
(vi) First aid kit: Personal medicines, bandages, anticeptics, adhesive tape, cotton, scissors, tissues etc.

Q.13. Briefly explain about the conservation of water.

Ans. Conservation of water :
(i) Lay stress on rain water harvesting.
(ii) Use the ground water in a fair way. The misuse can be prevented by drip irrigation and sprinkle agriculture.
(iii) Set up water purifying plants which purifies water flowing out of industries.
(iv) Efforts should be made to stop all the processes causing water pollution.
(v) Don't keep the water taps open while washing clothes, shaving and brushing teeth etc.
(vi) Check and stop any leakage in water taps/pipes.

Q.14. Briefly explain about the conservation of energy.

Ans. Conservation of energy:

(i) Switch off bulbs, tubelights, fans and other electric appliances when they are not in use.
(ii) Use the solar water heater, solar cooker and solar lights instead of coal, LPG and woods.
(iii) Try to use other sources of energy such as wind energy, hydro-electric energy, tidal energy, sea-thermal
energy, geothermal energy and biogas etc. instead of fossil fuels for various purposes.
(iv) Wear more warm clothes instead of using heater to keep you warm.
(v) If destination of members of a family is same, use only one vehicle.

Q. 15. Write the safety measures for rock climbing.

Ans. Safety measures for rock climbing:

(i) Prior to going on rock climbing, get a proper training from professional rock climber.
(ii) To prevent the sprains stretch and condition your body before beginning to climb.
(iii) When choosing a mountain, be careful not to choose a very steep mountain keeping the safety point
in view.
(iv) In case of slip or slide, be relaxed and grab your bangee cord then slowly slide down the mountain.
Do not create panic.
(v) Wear all safety equipments like elbow pads, knee pads, safety tape, chalk, climbing shoes, helmet,
harness etc.
vi) Do not take any daredevil step to impress the people, it may be dangerous for your life.
 P a g e |4

(vii) Don't throw loose rocks down.

(viii) Ensure to keep your handholds and foot holds safe.
(ix) Keep the first aid box with you.
(x) In case of any mishappening call for help.

Q. 16. Write the safety measures for rafting.

Ans. Safety measures for rafting :

(i) Accompany the trained and expert staff or guide during rafting.

(ii) The equipments required for rafting should be of highest quality.

(iii) Always attend a short training prior going on rafting on the spot.

(iv) Wear life jacket and safety helmet.

(v) Don't use alcohol during rafting because alcohol affects judgment and may lead to accident.

(vi) Children below10 years should accompany their parents or guardian

Q. 17. Clarify the meaning of balanced diet in brief.

Ans. Human beings take different types of food in their diet; it may be liquid food or solid (hard)
food. These matter which we eat give us energy to our body for performing work in a proper
way.
Q. 18. What is difference between macro and micro nutrients ? (CBSE 2011)
Ans. Macro nutrients constitute the majority of individuals' diets. It can be said that they are taken
in large amounts and micro nutrients are required in very small amounts. These nutrients are
extremely significant for normal functioning of the body.
Q. 19. Explain the role of carbohydrates in food.
Ans. These carbohydrates contain vitamins and minerals. They are also called quick energy food. They
are also good sources of vitamins and minerals. Carbohydrates are straches which contain various
types of sugar molecule combined chemically to form glycogen.

Q. 20. Discuss the role of fats in diet.

Ans. Fats contain carbon, oxygen an hydrogen in the percentage of 76, 12 and 1' respectively. Fats
are necessary for many body functions. Fats keep us warm and give protectioc. to organs. Fats also help in
the production al different harmones.

Q. 21. What are vitamins? Name two groups of vitamins.

Ans. Vitamins are chemicals which are required in very small amount to keep our body healthy. If a
particular vitamin is not taken is diet it may cause a deficiency disease. For example, if vitamin C is not
taken in diet, it will cause the scurvy disease. There are two groups of vitamins which are mentioned
below:
(i) Fat Soluble Vitamins
(ii) Water Soluble Vitamins
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Q. 22. Discuss the type of eating disorders.

Ans. Two types of eating disorders are :

(i) Anorexia Nervosa : Anorexia Nervosa is a type of eating disordet that affects women and men
of all ages.
(ii) Bulimia Nervosa : In this disorder a person eats excessive amount of food and then vomits it
in order not to gain weight.

Q.23. Discuss effect of diet on performance of a sportsperson.

Ans. A diet with all the necessary constituents for the maintenance and growth of body in
adequate amount is essential for every individual. The requirement of diet varies from individual to
individual. All agree that an imbalanced and improper diet affects the health and performance of a
sportsman.

Q. 24. Discuss any four pitfalls of dieting.

Ans. The dieting has harmful effects on our body system.

(i) What you can't eat: You have a long list of the items. You can't eat like rich calories, fats, fruits etc.

(ii) Lack of proper nutrients: Dieting leads to limit major nutrients severely.

(iii) Liquid calories: Alcohol, fizzy drinks, cold drinks, packed juices etc. add a let of caories. Be very careful
by sticking to diet drinks.

(iv) Not performing excercise : If you go on dieting and do not perform exercise it will not work properly.

Q. 25. Discuss the management of food intolerance.

Ans. Guidance can be provided by your general practitioner to assist in diagnosis and management.
For managing food intolerance fructose intolerance therapy, lactose intolerance therapy and histamine
intolerance can be applied.

Q. 26. Briefly explain any two food myths.

Ans. It is a traditional or legendary story about the food with or without a determinable basis of fact or
natural explanation.

These are two following myths about the food :

(i) Potatoes make you fat : Earlier, people used to think that carbohydrate rich foods such as rice and potato
etc., increase body weight. In fact potatoes do not automatically make you fat.

(ii) Drinking while eating makes you fat:

The actual fact behind this misconception is that enzymes and their digestive juices will be diluted by
drinking water while eating.

Q. 27. Explain the importance of play and recreation.

Ans. Play is the inborn tendency which motivates our behaviour to do enjoyable activity for growth and
development. In other words, it is the urge to perform joyful activity.Recreation is light playful activity
which gives us enjoyment, fun and pleasure. It recreates our lost energy. During recreation, the
effect of fatigue on various parts of body is minimised.
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Q. 28. What are the risks of food supplement ?

Ans. For proper growth and development of children there are wide range of food supplements. The markets
are flooded with various types of food supplements for children. These supplements provide essential
nutrients that the body requires. These food supplements may act as a blessing to such children who are
not taking balanced or healthy diet.

Q. 29. What do you mean by activities and quality of life ?

Ans. Activities mean physical activities such as running, jumping, walking, cycling, jogging, exercises, games
and sports etc. Quality of life means how you live your life, what type of health you are having. If you are
healthy and enjoying your life then it can be said that you have a good quality of life. In contrast, if you are
diseased or ill or in the hospital on life support system and can't function properly then you are said to have
a poor quality of life. Quality of life depends on how well an individual is living not existing.

Q. 30. What do you mean by gross motor development and fine motor development?

Ans. Gross Motor Development : It involves development of large or big muscles in body. These
big muscles help them to stand, sit, run, jump, etc.

Fine Motor Development : It involves development of small muscles (especially hands and fingers) in
body. These muscles help them to do fine works like catching, throwing, picking, kicking, dancing,
balancing, skill perfection writing, etc.

Q. 31. Explain the motor development in late childhood.

Ans. In this stage of childhood cross and fine motor development activities are performed. The activities like
Yoga asanas, Gymnastics, Athletic, Swimming are good sports activities for this agegroup. Ball games like
Football,Basketball, Handball, Volleyball, Kho-Kho, etc., are helpful. Racket games like Badminton,
TableTennis. Tennis also help to develop finemotor development skills. Calisthenicexercises, Rythemic
exercises also help to attain motor development along with physical fitness and team work.

Q. 32. Explain any two factors affecting motor development.

Ans. Nutrition : Nutrition is also liable to affect the motor development. Indeed, nutritious food promotes
good motor development. Sensory motor development is dependent upon nutrition. If children get
nutritious food they get stronger which ultimately leads to good motor development. On the
other hand, if children do not get proper nutrition they are found to be less energetic and owing to
that their motor development takes place slowly.
Physical Activities : Performing regular physical activities, enhances the motor development at
a faster rate. However, the physical activities must be according to the capabilities of children.
Those children, who do not perform or practise physical activities regularly their motor development
becomes slow. If they do not perform even minor activities, their motor development also becomes so
slow that they take a long time for motor development.

. Q 33 Define Arm Curl (Biscep) Test. Write procedure of Test.

Ans. This test measures upper body strength and endurance. Equipments required are 4 pound dumb-
bell/weight (or women) or 8 pound dumb-bell/weight (for men), a chair without armrest
and stopwatch.

Administration and Procedure of Test :

(i) The aim of test is to do as many arm curls as possible in 30 seconds. This test is conducted on
the stronger/dominant arm side.
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(ii) The person sits on the chair holding the dumb-bell/weight and arm is vertically down
position beside chair.

(iii) Brace the upper arm against the body so that only the lower arm is moving.

(iv) Curl the arm up through a full range of motion (flexion of arm) and afterward arm down (extension of
arm). Repeat this action as many times as possible within 30 seconds.

'(v) The number of complete curl actions (up and down considered as one) is score.

Q. 34. Discuss the method of calculation of VO2 max.

Ans. Calculation of VO2 max : Thu calculation of V02 max can be determined with the help of the
following formula := 132.853 - (0.0769 x body weight) - [0.3871 x Age + (6.135 x Gender) - 3.2649 x Time] -
(0.1565 x Heart Rate)where,Body weight is in pounds (lbs) Gender = Male = 1 and Female = 0 Time is in
minutes and 100ths of minute Heart Rate is in beats per minute Age is in yearsAfter calculating the
V02 max, the comparison of the individual can be done with the results of previous tests. It is expected
that with the appropriate training between each test the analysis would surely indicate the
improvement of the individual.

Q. 35. Discuss the method for Back Scratch Test for Upper Body Flexibility.

Ans. (i) Stand in a straight position.

(ii) Put one hand behind the head and back over the shoulder and reach as far as possible down the
middle of the back.

(iii) Palm should touch the body and the fingers be directed towards downward.

(iv) Place the other arm behind the back, palm facing outward and fingers upward.

(v) Reach up as far as possible attempting to touch or overlap the middle fmgers of both hands.

(vi) Practice twice and then test twice.

(vii) The assistant will measure the distance between the tips of the middle fingers to the nearest half
inch.

(viii) If fingers touch, the score is zero.

(ix) If they do not touch, measure the distance between the finger tips and give positive score.

(x) If they overlap, measure it is a negative score.

(xi) Stop the test, if the subject experiences a pain.

Q. 36. Discuss the Back Scratch Test for Upper Body Flexibility.

Ans. Procedure: This test is performed in standing position. Keep one hand behind the head and back over
the shoulder and reach as far as possible down middle of your back. Your palm should touch your body
and the fingers should be downwards. Then carry your other arm behind your back palm facing outward
and fingers upward and reach up as far as possible trying to touch or overlap the middle fingers of both
hands.
Fingers should be aligned. Measure the distance between the tips of the fingers. If the finger tips touch
then the score is zero. If they do not touch measure the distance between the fingertips (— ive score). If
they overlap measure by how much (+ive score). Practice two times and then test two times.
 P a g e |8

Q. 37. How would you perform Harvard Step Test on individual ?

Ans. This test was developed in1943 by Brouha to measure the cardiovascular fitness of the individual. Requirements

of Test : (i) Gym Bench (45 cm high), (ii) Stopwatch, (iii) Assistant/Helper.

Administration and Procedure of Test:

In this test the student step-up and step-down on to the gym bench for 5 minutes or until exhaustion
at a rate of 30 steps/minute.

(i) Firstly, the student performs warm-up and comes near the gym bench.

(ii) At the command of `GO' the student starts to step-up and step-down on to the gym bench whereas
assistant starts the stopwatch at same time.

(iii) This goes on for five minutes or until exhaustion.

(iv) The assistant measures the heart rate (beats per minute) after one minute of test finish as pulse 1.

(v) The assistant measures the heart rate (beats per minute) after two minutes of test finish as pulse 2.

(vi) The assistant again measures the heart rate (bpm) after three minutes of test finish as pulse 3.

Q. 38. Explain blood vessels.

Ans. The size of blood vessels depend upon the amount of blood that passes through them.All blood
vessels have a hollow area called the Lumen through which blood is able to flow. Around the lumen is
the wall of vessel, which may be thin in case of capillaries and very thick in the case of arteries.

Q. 39. What are Arteries ? (CBSE 2013)

Ans. Arteries and Arterioles : Arteries carry highly oxygenated blood from the heart to the various
body parts. They are more elastic and muscular with thick walls. Arterioles are narrower arteries that
branch off from the ends of arteries and carry blood to capillaries.

Q. 40. What are the effects of respiratory system ? (CBSE 2011)

Ans. (i) Increase in tidal air capacity:

Tidal air is the amount of air that flows in and out of the lungs in each quiet respiratory movement.
But tidal air capacity is the amount of air that can be breathed in and breathed out, over and above the
tidal air by the deepest
possible inspiration/expiration respectively. It is estimated at about 500 to 800 cc. After doing regular
exercise, it has been noted that this tidal air capacity can be increased.

(ii) Decrease in rate of respiration : It is certain that when a beginner starts exercise, his rate of
respiration increases. But when the same individual performs exercise daily, his rate of respiration
decreases in comparison to the beginning stage at rest.

Q. 41. Discuss any two effects of exercise on circulatory system.

(i) By diverting blood from plates where the need is less on the place of activity where there
is a greater demand of blood.

Q. 42. Discuss the circulatory system.

Ans. (i) By the quicker contractions of the heart or increase in pulse rate that enables the heart to pump
more blood into circulation. Circulatory system is a biological phenomenon which circulates the blood
and lymph through the body. It consists of heart, blood, lymph, lympathic vessels and glands.
 P a g e |9

Q. 43. Explain respiratory system.(CBSE 2012)

Ans. Respiratory system is a mechanism to take oxygen inside and throw away carbon dioxide. This
system consists of nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea or wind pipe and the lungs. Apart from the knowledge of
the process of respiration, the knowledge of some technical terms used in the explanation of the effects
this process is required.

Q. 44. What are the effects of Cardio-vascular system ?

Ans. (i) Heart muscles become strong and on account of this change the stroke volume of heart
increases.

(ii) As a result of regular exercise, new capillaries are formed in the body. On account of this change
the colour of skin improves. It becomes reddish.

(iii) The flexibility of blood vessels improves.

(iv) The risk of high blood pressure and other heart problems decreases.

(ii) By diverting blood from plates where the need is less on the place of activity where there
is a greater demand of blood.

Q. 45. Discuss the circulatory system.

Ans. Circulatory system is a biological phenomenon which circulates the blood and lymph through the
body. It consists of heart, blood, lymph, lympathic vessels and glands.

Q. 46. Explain respiratory system.(CBSE 2012)

Ans. Respiratory system is a mechanism to take oxygen inside and throw away carbon dioxide. This
system consists of nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea or wind pipe and the lungs. Apart from the knowledge of
the process of respiration, the knowledge of some technical terms used in the explanation of the effects
this process is required.

Q. 47. What are the effects of Cardio-vascular system?

Ans. (i) Heart muscles become strong and on account of this change the stroke volume of heart
increases.

(ii) As a result of regular exercise, new capillaries are formed in the body. On account of this change
the colour of skin improves. It becomes reddish.

(iii) The flexibility of blood vessels improves.

(iv) The risk of high blood pressure and other heart problems decreases.

Q. 49. Elucidate Kinetic energy and Potential energy.

Ans. (i) Kinetice energy : It is defined as the energy possessed by a body as a result of motion. The faster
a body moves greater is itskinetic energy.

(ii) Potential energy : It is the energy that is stored up in a body because as the position of the body. The
higher the body is the greater its potential.
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Q. 50. Elucidate energy types of friction.(CBSE 2010)

Ans. Generally there are two types of friction :

(1) Static friction : The opposing force that comes into play when one body tends to move over the surface
of another but the actual motion has yet started is called static friction.

(2) Dynamic friction : Dynamic friction is the opposing force that comes into play when one body is
actually moving over the surface of another body.

Q. 51. What is a Projectile ?

Ans. Projectile is a motion which an object is thrown/launched into air and a distinct path which looks like a
curve.

Q. 52. What is Angular motion ?

Ans. Angular or rotary movement consists of motion in a circle around a centre of rotation. For example
throwing of a discus, putting the shot, throwing a javelin and kicking a ball.

Q. 53. What is a Linear motion?

Ans. Linear motion means moving in astraight line from one point to the other. In linear movements,
there should not only be no change in the direction of movement of an athlete, but it is also important
that the movements of his body parts such as shoulders, arms or hips etc. should also be in coordination,
in order to prevent any sideward movement of the body.

Q. 54. Explain Potential energy.

Ans. Potential energy is the energy stored in an object because of its position or condition.

Q. 55. Define Power with example.

Ans. Power is the rate of doing work or the rate of using energy The above definition can
be expressed as an equation :

Power = Work done/time taken to do work

or

P = wrr

Where P = Power in watts (w)

W = Work done in jouls (J)

T = Time taken in seconds (S)

Q. 56. Write three ways to improve selfesteem.

Ans. Three ways to improve seft esteem are :

1. Welcome the frankness and truth telling of children.

2. Teach adolescents to maintain healthy self-esteem.

3. Encourage expressions of love into the family atmosphere and relations.

Q. 57. Write three types of coping strategies.

Ans. 1. Problem facused coping strategies.

2. Emotional facused coping strategies.

3. Appraisal facused coping strategies.

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Q.58. List down the symptoms of stress.

Ans. Symptoms of Stress : Memory problem; inability to concentrate; poor
judgement; anxious; constant worrying; irritability; short temper; agitation; unhappy;
aches and pain; rapid heartbeat; sleeping variation.

Q. 59. Briefly state about emotion focused coping strategies.

Ans. Emotional focused coping strategies involve releasing and controlling emotions like distracting
oneself, managing hostile feelings, meditating or using systematic relaxation procedures. These
strategies are oriented towards managing the emotions that accompany the perception of stress.
Emotional focused coping strategies are used to handle feeling of distress, rather than actual problem
situation. The main focus is on emotions like accept new task rather saying 'no' to new task; imagine or
dream about better situation; plan yourself for the situation avoid everything that is related to stress; get
social support to reduces stress.

Q. 60. State ony one dimension of personality in brief.

Ans. Conscientiousness : Common features of this dimension include high level of thoughtfulness,
with good impulse control. and goal directed behaviours. Those high in conscientiousness tend to be
organized and mindful of details. Such people are efficient, careful and vigilant. They exhibit a tendency
to show self-discipline, act dutifully and aim for achievement. They remain planned, systematic, neat,
through, self organized and think very carefully before act. Conscientious individuals are generally hard
working and reliable. Individuals with high conscientious are painstaking, motivated, workaholic, compulsive, punctual
and perfectionist.

Q. 61. What is Intrinsic Motivation ?(CBSE 2012)

Ans. Intrinsic Motivation: Intrinsic motivation is internal. It occurs when people are compelled to do
something out of pleasure, importance or desire. Motivation is always intrinsic when the force comes
from within oneself. For example, when a person indulges in any sports to have mastery, to display superiority
or to gain social approval, is an intrinsic motivation. He/she participates in sports for his/her own
sake.

Q. 62. What is extrinsic motivation?(CBSE 2011)

Ans. Extrinsic Motivation : Extrinsic motivation is external. It occurs when external factors compel
the person to do something. Motivation is always extrinsic, when external forces, positive or
negative produce a behavioural change. Reward, punishment, praise, blame or cash prize are
examples of extrinsic motivation. It has been found that such devices motivate some persons more
strongly than others. In fact, extrinsic motivation includes factors that motivate the individual in achieving the
goals.

Q. 63. What do you understand by Acceleration Running ?

Ans. This type of runs is employed to increase speed, specially in attaining maximum speed from a
stationary position. Before employing acceleration runs for training, it is very important to develop the
techniques involved in the event at a slower speed.
Q. 64. State the types of Coordinative Abilities.

Ans. Coordinate abilities in an individual can be of the following types : Reaction time.

(ii) Kinesthesis or Kinesthetic impressions formation.

(iii) Body balance.

(iv) Neuromuscular coordination.

(v) Eye muscle coordination

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Q. 65. Explain types of flexbility. (CBSE 2012)

Ans. Starting Speed : It is the ability of an athlete to go from a stopped or non moving state to a moving or
mobile state. Starting speed is a crucial opponent of sports and it is always considered as the 'first step'.
For many sports, it is the first step to blow by your opponent. So,
proper training for starting speed is very important in sports.

Speed Endurance : It is the ability of athlete to maintain top levels of speed while performing
repeated bouts of your-sports skill
without becoming fatigued. Usually, it is dictated by the three energy systems of the body.

Q. 66. Difference between Static flexibility and Dynamic flexibility.

Ans. Static Flexibility : Static flexibility is usually required by a sportsperson when he remains in static
position, e.g., in diving, sitting, lying and starting position in various sports.

Dynamic Flexibility : Dynamic flexibility is needed for doing movements with greater distance when
an individual is in motion. However, both types of flexibilities are essential for a general individual and
for a sportsperson.

Q. 67. What is short term endurance and long term endurance?

Ans. (1) Long-term/Aerobic/C ardio-Vascular Endurance: This endurance is helpful when the
activity is done for longer duration and the intensity or speed is slower. It is, in fact, the combination of
circulatory with respiratory system which provides continuo energy for work out. In other words, this type
of activity is of aerobic nature and speed is slow.It delays fatigue, thus it is required for long distance
races, road cycling, cross country, marathon race, football, etc.

(2) Short-term/Anaerobic/Muscul Endurance: This component of endurance helpful to perform

activity for longer duration with fast speed. This is the endurance where the anaerobic type of activity is
done, when intensity or speed is very fast. This endurance is for shorter duration and also known
muscular endurance as activity is performed' absence of oxygen with the help of stored enery in muscle
glycogen. It produces a lot of fatigue and tiredness as it causes oxygen-debt. It required for almost all
games and sports Tennis, Badminton, Handball, Basketbal Volleyball etc.

Q. 68. What is basic endurance?

Ans. Basic endurance is an ability perform movements in which large number body muscles are
involved and the activtiy (movements) is performed at slow pace for long duration such as digging, walking,
slow running and swimming at moderate speed for more the30 minutes.

Q. 69. Mention any two advantages of weight training.

Ans. (i) Helpful in enhancing athletic performance:

A perfect weight training programme is helpful in enhancing athletic performance. The

advantages of strength training to athletic performance are enormous. Weight training is one of the
most significant components of conditioning programme for runners, throwers, jumpers, wrestlers,
boxers
and players of football, basketball and other games.

(ii) Best means to develop strength :

Today weight training is considered as the best means of securing strength but it requires proper guidance
of coaches and expert physical trainers. The weight training exercises have value but have to be done
carefully and systematically. In fact, there is no other better means to improve strength, speed and
endurance for application to all sports and to all walks of life than by training with weights.

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KVS REGIOANAL OFFICE GUWAHATI Total Pages : 08

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER FOR C.B.S.E. EXAMINATION

(PHYSICAL EDUCATION)
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)

Q1. Define Environment.

Ans. Environment is surrounding around us. Healthy environment is the foundation of good health.
Q2. What do you mean by sports environment?
Ans. All the factors or conditions that encourage and promote sports called are sports environment.
Q.3. Explain biotic components of environment.
Ans. Biotic components consist of living species like plants, animals, worms, insects and human beings.
Q4. What is physical environment?
Ans. Physical environment of sports includes natural and artificial or man-made objects like houses, stadium, etc.
Q5. What do you mean by social environment?
Ans. Traditional and cultural environment are the elements of social environment.
Q6. Define 'positive sports environment.
Ans. The positive sports environment is the condition and circumstances which are favorable and
beneficial for the sports person.
Q7. What do you mean by women's participation?
Ans. Women's participation means women's participation in the field of sports.
Q8 Define Adventure Sports.
Ans. Adventure sports can be defined as outdoor sports or activities in which the
participant competes in a natural environment more against him/her than against others.
Q9. Write two objectives of Adventure Sports.
Ans. (i) Use of Natural Resources: Adventure activities create the sense of proper use of
forest resource and to avoid deforestation.
(ii) Understanding Nature: These activities help to understand the natural
phenomenon and guide us to conserve natural resources.
Q10. What is free climbing? (CBSE 2012)
Ans It is the most commonly used method of rock-climbing where the climber's own
Physical strength and skill are relied on to accomplish the climb. In this type of
climbing the climber use only hands, feet and other parts of the body to ascend. It
requires strength,ingenuity, skill and experience to be successful on the most
difficult route.
Q11 Write non-renewable resources.
Ans. (i) Fuels such as coal, oil, natural gas.
(ii) Metal ores and minerals.
(iii) Inorganic fertilizers.
(iv) Materials obtained from rocks —
(a) Sand, (b) Gravel, (c) Limestone, (d) Silica.
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Q12. What is easy trekking?

Ans. The individuals specially the beginners are offered easy treks. There no difficult
climbing. It means there is no-climbing on high altitudes. Such treks usually provide
colourful horizons of whole series of mountain ranges.
Q13. Define leadership.
Ans. According to Montgomery, "The capacity and will to rally men and women to a
common purpose is called leadership".
According to La-Pierre and Farnoworth, "Leadership is the behavior that
affects the behaviour of the people more than their behaviour affects that
of the leader".In simple words, 'leadership' may be defined as the quality of a person
to lead others in the various facets of life.
Q14. Mention some precautions required for mountaineering.
Ans. (i) Dehydration is common occurrence at higher mountains. So drink water frequently.
(ii) Before going for mountaineering ensure that you are in good physical condition.
Indeed you should have good physical fitness.
(iii) Be aware of your surroundings and be mindful of fellow mountaineers.
Q15. Define Noise pollution.
Ans. Noise pollution is a special problem of the modern times. The use of radios, televisions,
loudspeakers and music systems at high pitch is a common phenomenon now. Thus
it appears that noise has become a part of our life. The noise from increased road
traffic,engines and aeroplanes etc. has made our environment more noisy and has
become a health hazard.
Q.16. Define balanced diet.
Ans. A balanced diet means eating the right amount of foods from all food groups.
Q.17. What do you mean by 'Nutrition' ?
Ans. 'Nutrition' is defined as the science of food and its relationship to health.
Q.18. What do you mean by macro nutrients ?
Ans. They includes carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
Q.19. What do you mean by micro nutrients ?
Ans. They includes vitamins and minerals.
Q.20. Define nutritive components.
Ans. The food elements which are rich in nutrition value are called nutritive components.
Q.21 Define non-nutritive components.
Ans. Non-nutritive are those component which don't give energy and calories.
Q.22. Discuss eating disorders.
Ans. Eating disorders are the conditions defined by abnormal eating habits.
Q. 23. How many types of eating disorders
Ans. Eating disorders are of two types:
(i) Anorexia Nervosa, (ii) Bulimia Nervosr
Q. 24. What do you mean by health weight ?
Ans. A healthy weight is that weight at which an individual leads a healthy life without
any risk of diseases.
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Q. 25. What do you mean by food myths ?

Ans. It is a traditional or legendary story about the food with or without a determinable basis of fact or
natural explanation.

Q.26. What is a Sports Day?

Ans. Sports Day is a day (or days) assigned for conducting sports activities in a school or at place where
several schools meet for the playing activities.
Q. 27. What is seeding ?
Ans. Seeding is placing the good teams at privilege places in fixture so that they should not compete at
initial rounds.

Q. 28. Explain the meaning of planning.

Ans. Planning is a specific result that a person or syste,,rn aims to achieve within a time frame and within
available resources.
Q. 29. What are extramural sports?
Ans. Extramural sports refer to sporting activities carried out outside the school. These the activities in which the students
take part in their leisure hours.
Q. 30. What is health run?
Ans. Health run is such a great physical activity that offers a significant health benefits.

Q. 31. Explain the cyclic method of league tournament.

Ans. Cyclic method : If the number of teams is in even number, the team number 1 is fixed on the top of the

right hand and then other team number in ascending order consecutively.

Q.32. What is Knockout Tournament ?

Ans. Knockout Tournament : In this type of tournament a team which is once defeated, automatically gets
eliminated from the tournament

Q. 33.Describe Run for Fun ?

Ans. 'Run for fun' is a friendly race that involves either road running or cross country running taking part for their enjoyment.

Q. 34. What is Kyphosis ?

Ans. Kyphosis is caused by malnutrition, illness, crowd, deficiency of pure air, insufficient exercises,
rickets, carrying heavy loads on shoulders, unsuitable furniture, weak muscles, shyness
among girls and habit of doing work by leaning forward, etc.

Q. 35. Define posture.

Ans. The word 'Posture' derived from a Latin word Tonere', means place or put. The arrangement
or placement of body and its limbs is known as posture.

Q. 36. What are round shoulders ?

Ans. In this deformity the shoulders bent forward and droop and the upper back is rounded.
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Q. 37. Explain causes of Bowlegs.

Ans. (i) Muscles weakness,
(ii) Blount's
(iii) Abnormal development of bones.
Q.38. Write types of postural deformities.
Ans. Lordosis is excessive inward curvature of the lumber spine (just above the buttocks) and cervical
vertebral column. In Lordosis the back appears to be concave when viewed from the side.

Q. 39. What is Lordosis ?

Ans. (i) Spinal curvature, (ii) Flat Foot, (iii) Knock-knees, (iv) Bowlegs, (v) Round Shoulders.

Q. 40. Describe 'Arm behind Back Reach'.

Ans. Stand up, put your left hand behind It your back over your left shoulder and your right hand behind your back
against your lower back.Stretch by moving your hands towards each other, holding on to one another if you can
and hold the stretch for few seconds.

Q.41. Explain the correct standing posture.

Ans. Standing is one of the most common activities which has improved the human race from
quadruped (four legs) to biped (two legs). provides static and dynamic actions to human. The
correct standing posture is held without any sense of effort. Standing is a position in which the
body is held in upright position and supported

Q.42. What do you mean by motor development?

Ans. Motor development means the development of movement and various motor abilities from birth till death.

Q. 43. What are food supplements?

Ans. Food supplement means a nutrient that is added to your diet to nourish your body that you are not getting in
your regular diet.

Q. 44. What is weight training?

Ans. Weight training is designed as those exercises that are designed to strength specific muscles by causing them to
overcome a fixed resistance usually in the form of bar-bells and dumb-bells.

Q. 45. What are disadvantages of weight training?

Ans. (i) Weight training exercise can lead to injuries of muscles or joints if the exercises are not done
properly.
(ii) It can decrease flexibility, if flexibility exercises are not done along with such training.

Q. 46. What are the disadvantages of food supplement?

Ans. (i) Side effects: These dictary supplements pose adverse side effects over health of
individual.
(ii) Unknown risk: Prolonged usage and excessive taking of these food supplements often harmful
for body and develop unknown and unexpected risk over health of individual.
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Q. 47. Mention the type of motor development.

Ans. (i) Gross Motor Development.
(ii) Fine Motor Development.
Q. 48. Highlight the importance of anerobic activities.
Ans. It develops anerobic endurance which help to do work more a faster rate. Thus fast working
capicity improves.
Q. 49. What is evaluation ?
Ans. The evaluation tells the worth or progress of the individual or group. Test
andmeasurement are the pre-requisites for evaluation.

Q. 50. What do you mean by test ?

Ans. In scientific terms, test is an instrument or tool used to obtain data on specific Traits/
characteristics of an individual or a group. Test has to be administrated. It may be inform of
scales' measuring tape, thermometer etc.

Q. 51. What is cardiovascular fitness ?(CBSE 2013)

Ans. Before proceeding to various tests of cardiovascular fitness it will be essential for us to know
the clear-cut meaning of cardiovascular fitness. In fact, cardiovascular fitness is the ability of
the heart and lungs to supply oxygen-rich blood to the working muscle tissues and the ability of
the muscles to use oxygen to produce energy for movements. This type of fitness is required
to sustain physical activity or it can be said that cardiovascular fitness is essential for us to
perform aerobic activities.

Q. 52. What do you mean by AAPHER? (CBSE 2010)

Ans. AAPHER is "American Alliance for Health, Physical Education and Recreation". This test was
developed in 1947 to check, compare and evaluate the physical fitness standards of
American youth and school children. The test has six test items (test battery) which has to be
performed in two days. Students should warm-up before they participate in the test. They
should be medically fit.

Q. 53. What is Kraus Weber Test ?

Ans. This test of muscular fitness was developed by Dr. Kraus and Dr. S. Weber. It was
developed when the treatment (exercises) of low back pain was being evaluated. This test is
intended to measure the flexibility and strength of several large muscle groups. This test consists
of a battery of six tests.
Q. 54. Define formula for Rockport one mile test.
Ans. Formula :V02 max = 132.853 — (0.0769 x Weight) — (0.3877 x Age) + (6.315 x Gender) —
(3.2649 x Time) x (0.1565 x Heart Rate).The fitness of a subject can be tested by comparing
the VO2 max found with the standards of the subjects gender and age group. Those who. are fit
have higher V02 max values than those who are not so fit or conditioned.
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Q. 55. What do you mean by '8 Feet Up and Go Test' ?

Ans. This test is designed to measure speed, agility (coordinative ability) and balance while moving. The
equipments required are stopwatch, straight back chair, (approximately45 cm high), cone marker;
measuring tape, safe and clear area.

Q. 56. Explain Sit and Reach Test.

Ans. This test is used for measuring flexibility. It is very simple test to administer. After proper warming-up students sit with
their legs extended in front of them. The distance of the feet should be according to the width of shoulders. From this
position they reach forward with their palms facing downward flexing at their waist. The purpose is to reach as forward
as possible. Note down the distance they cover beyond their toes in centimeters.

Q 57. What do you mean by ageing ?

Ans. Ageing is a gradual and continuous irreversible process that results in structural and
functional alterations.

Q. 58. Define respiratory system. (CBSE 2010)

Ans. The respiratory system enables us to breathe. The act of breathing includes inhaling and exhaling of air in
the body. In the process of respiration, oxygen is absorbed and carbon dioxide is discharged.

Q. 59. Define physiology.

Ans. Physiological systems of the body, anatomical, muscular, circulatory, respiratory, nervous
and glandular etc., should function efficiently to perform different strenuous activities.

Q. 60. What do you mean by stroke volume ?

Ans. Stroke volume is defined as the amount of blood pumped out by the heart into the main artery,
i.e., Aorta, in one contraction or stroke of the left ventricle.

Q. 61. What is blood pressure?

Ans. Blood pressure is the pressure by the blood on the blood-vessel walls.

Q.62. Define physical fitness.

Ans. Physical fitness to perform various activities in life depends mainly on three under
mentioned components:
(i)Anatomic fitness (ii) Physiological fitness (iii) Psychological fitness.

Q. 63. Write two benefits in old age.

Ans. (i) Various organs and systems of the body remain healthy.
(ii) Blood cholesterol level remains normal.

Q. 64. What is gravity ?

Ans. Gravity acts on a body or object to give it mass. The greater the weight of an object the
greater the influence of gravity upon it.
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Q. 65. What is a friction ?

Ans. It is defined as the resistance to motion which is created by contact between two
surfaces. This resistance to motion is called the force of friction.

Q. 66. What is a projectile ?

Ans. An object thrown.into the space either horizontally or an acute angle under the action of
gravity is called a projectile.

Q. 67. What do you mean bi biomechanics?

Ans. Biomechanics is sub discipline of physical education.

Q.. 68. Define work .

Ans. Work is defined as an activity which involves mental or physical effort for achieving some objective.
Q. 69. Define power.
Ans. Power is the rate of doing work at the rate of using energy.
Q. 70. Define energy.
. Ans. Energy is the capacity to do work.
Q. 71. Define personality.
Ans. Personality is defined as the enduring personal characteristics.
Q. 72. Define stress.
Ans. Stress is defined as a state of mental, emotional or other stain.
Q. 73. What is self-esteem?
Ans. Self-esteem is the mental image we create of what we think, we look like!.
Q. 74. What do you understand by body image?
Ans. Body image of a person is the-scene of his own physical apparance and personality.
Q. 75. What do you mean by anxiety?
Ans. Anxiety has been defined as a disturb state of body.
Q.76. What do you mean by coping strategies?
Ans. Coping is expanding conscious effort to solve personal or interpersonal problems aseeking to
minimise or tolerate stress conflict
Q. 77. What is negative body image ?
Ans. Negative body image means being unhappy with the way you look.
Q. 78. What is positive body image ?
Ans. Positive body image means the way you look and feel good about your body.

Q. 79. Define Speed.

Ans. Speed plays a very vital role approximately in every game and sport.
Q. 80. Define Flexibility.
Ans. Flexibility is the range of movements of joints.
Q.81. Define Strength.
Ans. Strength is the ability of the muscles to overcome resistance.
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Q. 82. Define Isotonic Exercise.

Ans. Isotonic exercise muscle carries a static weight limit over a specific range of motion.
Q. 83. What is Pace running?
Ans. Pace running means, running the whole distance at a constant or steady rate.
Q. 84. What is Endurance?
Ans. Endurance is the ability of an individual to carry on a required activity. with a great
degree of efficiency, for a considerable period of time.
Q. 85. What is Fartlek training method?
Ans. This training method is based on cross country running with varying speed according to the
distance of the terrain and requirment of an athlete.
Q. 86. What is Speed ?(CBSE 2014)
Ans. Speed means the capacity of moving a body part or the whole body with the greatest
possible velocity.
Q. 87. Write the name of types of strength.
Ans. (a) Dynamic strenght
(b) Static strenght.
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