BY: Hassan Daher: Onderia DI Torino S P A Case Study
BY: Hassan Daher: Onderia DI Torino S P A Case Study
BY: Hassan Daher: Onderia DI Torino S P A Case Study
Faculty of Economics
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INDEX
The steps 3
WACC 4
Cash Flow 7
Investment Anlysis 9
Sesitvity Anlysis 9
Non-quantifiable Analysis 10
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1)The Company
2)The steps
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) (1)Postponement
(2) Best time for changing of old machinery
(3) Change in existing and running production methods for short term
improvements.
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into consideration for achieving complete picture of risk exposure with
the new investment will be contributed.
3)Machine comparison
3.1) Old machinery
Given:
Number of machines 6
Purchase price 415,807
Depreciation 130,682
Net book 285,125
Depreciation average 47,520
Maturity 6
Useful life 6
Depreciation p.a. 69,301
Sales offer 130,000
Calculation:
=12*8*2*210*7.33=295,545.6
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The foundry operated two shifts a day per workers
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Cost maintenance workers= worker*Hour* Shift3*Work day* Hourly rate=
=3*8*1*210*7.85=39,564
= 295,545.6+39,564+4.000+12,300=351,409.6
Number of machines 1
Purchase price 1,010,000
Net book value 1,010,000
Depreciation 126,250
Maturity 8
Useful life4 8
Depreciation 126,250
Depreciation = 1,010,000/8=126,250
Calculation:
Skilled operators 1
Hours per shift 8
Shifts 2
Working days 210
Hourly rate 11.36
Cost of workers 38,169.6
Contract maintenance 59.500
Savings -5.200
Power costs 26.850
Total recurring costs p.a. 119,319.6
=1*8*2*210*11.36=38,169.6
4)WACC
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Three maintenance workers per day no shifts
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Cerini assumed that the Vulcan Mold-Maker would need to be replaced after eight year.
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WACC= RE (E/D+E) + RD (D/D+V)* (1-Tc)
Where:
Re = cost of equity
Rd = cost of debt =6.8
E = market value of the firm's equity
D = market value of the firm's debt
V=E+D
E/V = percentage of financing that is equity
D/V = percentage of financing that is debt
Tc = corporate tax rate
Re=Rf+beta(E(Rm)-Rf)=5.3+1.25*6=12.8%
RD= 6.8%
T=0.43%
Rb=6.8 %*( 1-0.43%) =3.88%
WACC= (33%) (3.88%) + (67%)(12.8%)
WACC=9.86%
5)Cash Flow
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5.1) old machinery
t05 t1 t2 t3 t4 t5
old machinery 1 2 3 4 5 6
Wacc 9,86% 9,86% 9,86% 9,86% 9,86% 9,86%
Cash old machinery 351,409.6 351,409.6 351,409.6 351,409.6 351,409.6 351,409.6
Depreciation 47.520 47.520 47.520 47.520 47.520 47.520
Tax 171,539.7 171,539.7 171,539.7 171,539.7 171,539.7 171,539.7
Profit after tax before 227,389.8 227,389.8 227,389.8 227,389.87 227,389.8 227,389.8
depreciation
Cash Drain 179,869.8 179,869.8 179,869.8 179,869.8 179,869.8 179,869.8
Present value 163,726.3 149,031.8 135,656.08 123,480.8 112,398.4 102,310.9
operating cash drains
Total Present value 786,604.28
from cash drains
Tax= (Cash old machinery+ Depreciation)*0.43
=(351,409.6+47.520)*0.43=171,539.728
=227,389.8-47,520=179,869.8
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t0 this mean in 2001
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Profit after tax before depreciation= Cash out new machinery+ Depreciation-
Tax
=119,320+126.250-105.595=139,975
Profit after tax and depreciation = Profit after tax before depreciation-
Depreciation
=139,975-126,250=13,725
In the final of comparing we must explain what will happen after the
useful life. The both cases a reinvestment follows and after that another
and so it is an endless reinvestment chain. Because reinvestment of old
with the new project present value for reinvestment can be neglected and
the residual value of cash flows after the first of reinvesting 6 will be
disregarded due to the fact of fortuitous dominance. Hence only the cash
flows within the first 6 years will be compared. In the figure down the
present net value in A has become negative which are wealth-decreasing,
and in case B positive which is wealth increasing. A differs to B in
discounting the investment for the first year, which is often practiced but
seems to be indistinct procedure since the investment is the early
assumption for any change and has to be looked at as serving effort where
often a payment in advance has been remitted.
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The first 6 years
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A B
Net present value 726,582.14 726,582.14
Investment gross 1,010,000 724,009
Salvage value -130,000 -101,721.49
Tax saving (book – salvage value) -46.270 -42.119
Initial costs new investment 833.730 758,936
Delta NPV Invest -107,147.84 146,413.63
Salvage value = Cost X Default Percentage
=726,582.14*0.14=101,721.49
6 )Investment analysis
The result has been looked upon as ambiguous as it hinges to a certain
extent on the cash flow of the investment as to whether or not a positive
NPV can be realized. From a point of view case A the investment has to
be rejected since a negative NPV and less then case B, and has been
worked out and the postulate that NPV has to be positive could not be
fulfilled.
7) Sensitivity analysis
When above the calculation has returned 12.8% for cost of equity using
the IRR in terms of sensitivity should now show at which rate of discount
the project would need for zero NPV in order to accept the investment if
the IRR is in excess of the costs of capital. Calculation shows an IRR of
8.65%, which is below the opportunity cost of capital so that
consequently from an IRR point of view the investment has to be
rejected.
Also from the advantage that the new machine will decreases medical
claims and we see in the case that the injury has been increased the
double from 1998 due to the demand on employees to lift heavy objects.
Although it is unquantifiable at this point, there should be a decrease in
medical claims leading to a saving in insurance costs.
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also has lower raw material scrap rates, which will save raw material
costs. Another benefit is the company will employ twenty-five less
workers.
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