Chapter 1

. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)
• Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer
• Network Layer
• Transport Layer
• Presentation Layer
• Application Layer

2. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)
• ATM switches
• core routers
• CSU/DSU
• Ethernet switches
• Frame Relay switches
• repeaters

3. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to
and from a network?
• core router
• access server
• Frame Relay switch
• ATM switch

4. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data,
voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?
• Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
• metro Ethernet
• Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
• Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)

5. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)
• CIR
• DLCI
• DSLAM

1
• PVC
• SPID
• 53-byte cells

6. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and
permanent virtual circuits?
• ATM
• ISDN
• Frame Relay
• metro Ethernet

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)
• low cost
• availability
• traffic encryption
• available bandwidth
• support for voice and video

8. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)
• DLCI
• circuit switching
• packet switching
• data bearer channels
• switched virtual circuits
• time-division multiplexing

9. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

• smaller cells
• number of subscribers
• committed information rate
• distance from the central office of the provider

10. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?
• PVCs
• DLCIs
• tunnels

2
• virtual circuits
• dedicated Layer 2 links

11. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the
home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is
estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
• ATM
• ISDN
• analog dialup
• T1 Leased Line

12. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer
equipment and the local loop?
• CSU/DSU
• Frame Relay switch
• ISDN switch
• modem
• PBX switch

13. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
• DLCI
• DTE
• DCE
• BRI
• PRI

14. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only
allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
• circuit-switched
• dedicated switched lines
• frame-switched
• packet-switched

15. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum
data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
• X.25

3
• DSL
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• ISDN PRI

16. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU
• ISDN switch
• Ethernet switch

17. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?
• The purpose of the access layer is to provide very high bandwidth communications between network devices.

• Most security screening to prevent unauthorized entry to the network happens at the core layer.
• Untrusted external connections are segmented from the rest of the network at all three levels.
• The core layer uses high speed equipment to provide policy-based connectivity.
• The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

18. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?
• Normally the CSU/DSU is the designated demarcation point for the service provider but not the customer.
• The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."
• The local loop is the segment between the CSU/DSU and the serial port on a router.
• Putting data on the local loop is the responsibility of the DTE.

19. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?
• WANs generally support higher bandwidth than LANs support.
• A WAN link typically traverses shorter geographic distances than a LAN link traverses.
• A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.
• All WAN implementations generally use the same Layer 2 protocol but there are many accepted LAN Layer 2
protocols in use.

20. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?
• Routing protocols are incompatible with this function.
• It restricts the communication sent to voice traffic only.

4
• A telephone must be used to initially start transferring data.
• Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

21. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

• ATM differs from other WAN protocols in that it uses variably sized packets.
• Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.
• The frame header consists of the frame check sequence and cyclic redundancy check.
• ISDN differs from Frame Relay, HDLC, and ATM in that it is packet-switched rather than circuit-switched
technology.

22. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

• Packet-switched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuit-switched networks are.
• Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.
• Packet-switched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint.
• Packet-switched networks usually experience lower latency than circuit-switched networks experience.

Chapter 2

1. Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.)

• uses only PVCs
• is useful for video transfers
• has data rates beyond 155 Mbps
• cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead
• mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection

2. Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data transfer?
(Choose two.)
• Each packet carries an identifier.
• Each packet carries full addressing information.
• Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send the packet.
• Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory.
• The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create a continuous
copper circuit.

3. A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for point-of-sale
card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation?

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• ATM
• X.25
• Frame Relay
• Leased lines

4. Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?

• ISDN
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU

5. A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time. The connection
does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company?
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• X.25
• analog dialup

6. Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links before choosing a WAN
technology?
• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
• to determine the WAN topology
• to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
• to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

7. On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based?

• IP
• PPP
• HDLC
• SLIP
• HSSI
• CSU

8. A company only requires a WAN connection to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office.
All transfers will occur after business hours. They estimate they will never need a connection faster than 56
kbps. Which type of connection is best for this company?

6
• ATM
• ISDN
• analog dialup
• T1 Leased Line

9. Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.)

• DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps.
• DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.
• DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.
• DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line.
• For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).
• DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network due to strong
security.

10. Which of the following are disadvantages of circuit-switched networks? (Choose two.)
• Data is subject to unpredictable delays while it waits for other subscribers to transmit data.
• The connection capacity is used inefficiently due to irregular traffic bursts.
• Data delivery is less reliable because only connectionless delivery methods are used.
• Circuit-switched networks are more expensive for data traffic.
• Circuit-switched networks are less expensive for 24/7 data traffic.

11. Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the company
WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN design?
• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
• to determine the WAN topology
• to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
• to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

12. Which of the following is true of WANs?

• Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less latency
and jitter than dedicated lines.
• ISDN is suitable for large enterprises.
• The more network devices that data has to pass
• WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM.

13. A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will have at least

7
five offices in every state in the United States and Mexico. Some states will have as many as 20 offices. The
branch offices will require constant contact with the services of the main office. Which design model is best for
WAN connectivity in this situation?
• a mesh network of all branch WANs
• a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces
• a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs
• a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs within a region,
and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN

14. Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies?

• Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or ATM.
• Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN.
• WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.
• WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic.

15. A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak business hours.
Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line temporarily fails. What type of
WAN connection is commonly used in this situation?
• X.25
• DSL
• ISDN
• cable modem
• 56 kbps

16. Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of the WAN
service provider?
• CPE
• CO
• local loop
• DCE
• DTE

17. Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is intended for
large businesses?
• BRI
• PRI

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• DLCI
• PSTN
• POTS

Chapter 3

1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?
• Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64
kbps.
• Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.
• Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
• Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or
adding additional
• hardware for leased service.

2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

• local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network
• locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
• logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch
• logical address used to identify the DCE

4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

• ISDN circuit
• limited access circuit
• switched parallel circuit
• virtual circuit

5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame
Relay network?

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• (Choose two.)
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Inverse ARP
• LMI status messages
• ICMP

6.

Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used
to send the ping?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)
• The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.
• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.

10
• DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
• Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.
• Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the
operation of the
• router?
• It helps to conserve IP addresses.
• It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.
• It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.
• It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.

9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in
its queue? (Choose three.)
• puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR
• drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
• reduces the number of frames it sends over the link
• re-negotiates flow control with the connected device
• sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
• sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.
• The local DLCI number is 401.
• Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.
• This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
• Multicast is not enabled on this connection.

11.

11
Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show
interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this
problem? (Choose two.)
• The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
• The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
• The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?
• It is currently not transmitting data.

12
• It is in the process of establishing the PVC.
• It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.
• It is experiencing congestion.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the
commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely
cause?
• The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.
• The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.
• The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.
• The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.

14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?

• Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than
point-to-point
• subinterfaces will consume.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.

13
• Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.
• Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay
topology that
• interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with
IP addresses of
• 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should
the serial interface
• on HQ be configured to complete the topology?
• one multipoint subinterface
• two point-to-point subinterfaces
• with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses
• one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface

16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?
• To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map
command
• coupled with the broadcast keyword.
• Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to
other Frame Relay
• nodes.
• Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.

14
• To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?
• Split horizon must be disabled.
• The LMI type must be specified.
• Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.
• The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

18.

15
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which
set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
   R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
   R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
   R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
   R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
   R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301
• R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
   R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
   R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
   R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
   R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
   R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
   R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
   R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
   R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

19.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?
• The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.
• The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.

16
• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
• The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?
• LMI updates are not being received properly.
• The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.
• Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.
• Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.

22.

17
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What
configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each
other successfully?
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast
   R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
   R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
   R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
   R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
   R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
   R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

18
Chapter 4

1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)
• Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low
security risk.
• Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals
who  download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
• Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server,
no further  security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being
hacked.
• Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their
default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.
• Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the
security  policy.

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
• Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
• Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
• Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.
• A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
• Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and
internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly
because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
• reconnaissance
• access
• DoS
• worm
• virus
• Trojan horse

4. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious
sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
• DoS
• DDoS

19
• virus
• access
• reconnaissance

5. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
• The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure
default security settings.
• Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in
progress without user intervention.
• Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable
runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
• Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
• Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects
of device hardening.

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

• securing
• monitoring
• testing
• improvement
• reconnaissance

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

• provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
• describe how the firewall must be configured
• document the resources to be protected
• identify the security objectives of the organization
• identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

8. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

• It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
• It communicates consensus and defines roles.
• It is developed by end users.
• It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
• It defines how to handle security incidents.
• It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

20
9. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose
two.)
• By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
• DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all
routers.
• Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all
routers in the network.
• The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
• The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

10. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
• It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
• It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.
• It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
• It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
• It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS
software features.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning
correctly. What could be the problem?
• The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
• The authentication method is not configured correctly.

21
• The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
• The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

12. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the
IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
• The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
• The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
• The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
• The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
• The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives
the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
• The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
• The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
• The TFTP server software has not been started.
• There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

14. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS
image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
• Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
• Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
• Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.

22
• Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
• Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection?
(Choose two.)
• ROM monitor
• boot ROM
• Cisco IOS
• direct connection through the console port
• network connection through the Ethernet port
• network connection through the serial port

16.

Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a
web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?
• The password is sent in plain text.
• A Telnet session is established with R1.
• The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
• The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
• SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.

23
• SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
• SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
• SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
• Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
• Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
• Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
• Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
• Schedule antivirus scans.
• Schedule antispyware scans .
• Schedule training for all users.
• Schedule operating systems updates.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on
the router.
• What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified

24
on the router?
• SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
• SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.
• SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.
• SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security
changes.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the
configuration?
• to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
• to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
• to enable SSH encryption of traffic
• to create an IPsec tunnel

22.

Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
• The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
• The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
• The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security
vulnerabilities.
• The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.

Chapter 5

1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

• blocked in and out of all interfaces

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• blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
• permitted in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
• packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
• source router interface
• destination router interface

3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

• by destination UDP port
• by protocol type
• by source IP address
• by source UDP port
• by destination IP address

4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

• close to the source
• close to the destination
• on an Ethernet port
• on a serial port

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.

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• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is
made.

7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7?
(Choose two.)
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator
attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
• Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
• The network administrator receives an error.
• Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

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10.

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for
the Web
• server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
• ISP Fa0/0 outbound
• R2 S0/0/1 inbound
• R3 Fa0/0 inbound
• R3 S0/0/1 outbound

11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
• Only named ACLs allow comments.
• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
• Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
• More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose
three.)
• extended ACL
• reflexive ACL
• console logging
• authentication
• Telnet connectivity
• user account with a privilege level of 15

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13.

Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a
destination of 192.168.10.13?
• It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
• It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
• It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from
within the
• company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of
the company.
• What type of ACL is most appropriate?
• dynamic
• port-based
• reflexive
• time-based

15.

Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?

• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24

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Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
• No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default
port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the
router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains
successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
• Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
• The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
• The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

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18.

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
• Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
• Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
• Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true

• Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
• They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
• When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the
outbound interface.

20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
• Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
• Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
• Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant
message.
• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port,
and source port.

21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
• the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol

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• the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
• the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-
creating the list

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which
combination of network
• address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
• 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
• 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
• Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
• The word "any" indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
• The word "host" corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
• A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.

24.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on
S0/0/0 of R1?
• It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
• It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.

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• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0
interface.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on
network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration,
what should be done to remedy the problem?
• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
• Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
• Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
• Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

26.

33
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately
after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have
intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the
configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
• The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
• The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network
172.22.0.0/16.
• The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from
any other sources is blocked.

Chapter 6

1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

• users are on a shared medium
• uses RF signal transmission
• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
• physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification
(DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
• channel widths

34
• access method
• maximum data rate
• modulation techniques
• compression techniques

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
• use higher RF frequencies
• allocate an additional channel
• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
• reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
• use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been
instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband
technology should be used?
• cable
• DSL
• ISDN
• POTS

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network
administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the
public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?
• A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is
increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN
clientsoftware.
• Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when
supporting asingle user environment.
• Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup
connections usingPOTS.

6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
• accounting
• authentication
• authorization

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• data availability
• data confidentiality
• data integrity

7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose
two.)
• digital certificates
• ESP
• hashing algorithms
• smart cards
• WPA

8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• encryption
• encapsulation
• hashing
• passwords

9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols?
(Choose three.)
• AES
• DES
• AH
• hash
• MPLS
• RSA

10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

• Diffie-Hellman
• digital certificate
• pre-shared key
• RSA signature

11. Which statement describes cable?

• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and

36
upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
• The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
• Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
• Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company
provide at theteleworker's site?
• a WiMAX tower
• a one-way multicast satellite
• a WiMAX receiver
• an access point connected to the company WLAN

13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access
(WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
• supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
• supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
• operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz.
Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?
• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
• Data is flowing downstream.
• Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
• The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

15.

37
Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate
network.
• Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate
network?
• Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall
appliance installedon the edge of the network.
• Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall
appliance installed on the edge of the network.
• Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge
of the network.
• All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
• AH
• L2TP
• ESP
• GRE
• PPTP

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
• ATM
• CHAP

38
• IPsec
• IPX
• MPLS
• PPTP

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure
connection can be  established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
• a GRE tunnel
• a site-to-site VPN
• a remote-access VPN
• the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

19.

Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the
public  Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect
the data from being  intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
• The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
• The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
• The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

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40