1. Which of the following would be a logical first step in troubleshooting a PC?

a. Check the computer CMOS

b. Define the circumstances of the problem

c. Call the vendor

d. Define what applications are being used

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2. Which would you do first when troubleshooting a faulty monitor?

a. Check its connections to the computer and power source

b. Use a meter to check the CRT and internal circuitry for continuity

c. Power down the monitor, then turn it on again to see if that corrects the problem

d. Power down the computer, then turn it on again to see if that corrects the problem

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3. You have a PC with no video* Which of the following is LEAST likely to be causing the problem?

a. defective RAM (bank zero)

b. defective microprocessor

c. crashed hard drive

d. loose video card

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4. When connecting a ribbon cable to a connector, how do you know which direction to plug it in?
a. The red line in the cable goes to the highest pin number

b. The colored line in the cable goes to pin #1

c. It does not matter

d. The blue or red line in the cable goes away from the power connector

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5. What is the first step in diagnosing a completely dead computer at the client site that was working
the day before.

a. Test the power supply

b. replace the CMOS battery

c. check the AC outlet

d. reseat the hard drive controller cable

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6. You see the message "invalid media device" after installing a new hard drive. What do you do
next?

a. Format

b. Fdisk

c. Partition

d. Add the OS

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7. A workstation has just been installed on an Ethernet LAN, but cannot communicate with the
network. What should you check first?
a. reinstall the network protocols

b. reinstall the network interface card driver

c. verify the ip configuration on the workstation

d. verify the link status on the computer's network card

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8. One of the major components of a PC is the Central Processing Unit (CPU) which can be best
described as:

a. The device that sends the monitor signals telling it what to display

b. The area that regulates all of the system power usage

c. The area where ail the of the Basic input/output routines are stored

d. The area where all of the processing takes place

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9. IDE cables have how many pins?

a. 25

b. 50

c. 100

d. 40

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10. An important first step in troubleshooting which component in a laser printer is causing a jam is to:

a. note where in the paper path the paper stops

b. check all voltages

c. look up error codes

d. turn the printer off, then on again

1. Which of the following would be a logical first step in troubleshooting a PC?

a. Check the computer CMOS

b. Define the circumstances of the problem

c. Call the vendor

d. Define what applications are being used

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2. Which would you do first when troubleshooting a faulty monitor?

a. Check its connections to the computer and power source

b. Use a meter to check the CRT and internal circuitry for continuity

c. Power down the monitor, then turn it on again to see if that corrects the problem

d. Power down the computer, then turn it on again to see if that corrects the problem

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3. You have a PC with no video* Which of the following is LEAST likely to be causing the problem?

a. defective RAM (bank zero)

b. defective microprocessor

c. crashed hard drive

d. loose video card

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4. When connecting a ribbon cable to a connector, how do you know which direction to plug it in?

a. The red line in the cable goes to the highest pin number

b. The colored line in the cable goes to pin #1

c. It does not matter

d. The blue or red line in the cable goes away from the power connector

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5. What is the first step in diagnosing a completely dead computer at the client site that was working
the day before.

a. Test the power supply

b. replace the CMOS battery

c. check the AC outlet

d. reseat the hard drive controller cable

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6. You see the message "invalid media device" after installing a new hard drive. What do you do
next?

a. Format

b. Fdisk

c. Partition

d. Add the OS

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7. A workstation has just been installed on an Ethernet LAN, but cannot communicate with the
network. What should you check first?

a. reinstall the network protocols

b. reinstall the network interface card driver

c. verify the ip configuration on the workstation

d. verify the link status on the computer's network card

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8. One of the major components of a PC is the Central Processing Unit (CPU) which can be best
described as:

a. The device that sends the monitor signals telling it what to display

b. The area that regulates all of the system power usage

c. The area where ail the of the Basic input/output routines are stored

d. The area where all of the processing takes place

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9. IDE cables have how many pins?

a. 25

b. 50

c. 100

d. 40

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10. An important first step in troubleshooting which component in a laser printer is causing a jam is to:

a. note where in the paper path the paper stops

b. check all voltages

c. look up error codes

d. turn the printer off, then on again

11. Which of the following items would require you t.o comply with EPA disposal guidelines?

a. Keyboard

b. System board

c. Power supply

d. Battery

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12. What should you replace if the brightness or contrast adjustments were malfunctioning on a
laptop?

a. fuse

b. led display

c. adjustment switch

d. led display cable

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13. On a leased line installation a known good external modem shows no carrier detect light. Where is
the problem most likely to be?

a. In the modem

b. In the phone line

c. In the computer

d. In the DTC equipment

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14. The monitor power LED is 'on' but the monitor screen is completely dark. The least likely cause of
the problem is:

a. Defect in the computers video circuitry

b. Disconnected video cable

c. Defective monitor

d. System RAM problem

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15. What is your first action when windows reports that your hard drive is developing bad sectors?

a. replace the hard drive

b. run secclean from dos

c. run defrag on the hard drive

d. run scandisk with the "thorough" option

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16. Which controller would support an external CD-ROM drive?

a. ESDI

b. ARLL

c. MFM
d. SCSI

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17. What are the most likely conditions for ESD?

a. Hot and dry

b. Hot and wet

c. Cold and dry

d. Cold and wet

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18. How many DMA channels are there in an AT class PC?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 7

d. 8

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19. Every video card must have?

a. CMOS

b. RAM

c. CPU

d. All of the above

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20. Which best describes a fragmented hard drive:

a. The platters are bad

b. Data files are corrupted

c. Clusters of data are damaged

d. Files are not stored in consecutive clusters

21. Place where large amounts of data are stored outside central processing unit is called

a. backing store

b. peripherals

c. control unit

d. AL unit

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22. Devices that are under control of computer and are directly connected to it are said to be

a. off-line devices

b. on-line devices

c. IN gate device

d. IF gate device

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23. Devices that are not connected to computers central processing unit are classified as
a. IN gate device

b. IF gate device

c. off-line devices

d. on-line devices

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24. A silicon piece with a circuit on it is called

a. chip

b. circuit

c. logical gate

d. circuit network

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25. The digital multimeter is set for DC, Ohm and 20k. You will read _____ while measuring a good 2
amp fuse.

a. 0.00

b. 0.02

c. 0.20

d. 2.00

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26. An anti static strap uses a small _____ to make sure you do not become the least path of
resistance to the ground?
a. capacitor

b. diode

c. transistor

d. resistor

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27. For a Macintosh to print successfully, the System Folder must contain:

a. File sharing software

b. A printer enabler

c. The apple Garamond font set

d. A printer driver

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28. Which device uses a DMA channel?

a. Modem

b. Network Card

c. Sound Card

d. All of the above

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29. When is the risk for electrostatic discharge the greatest?

a. Day time
b. High humidity

c. Low humidity

d. Night time

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30. What's the best way to prevent damaging your PC with static electricity?

a. place your PC on a rubber mat

b. wear leather soled shoes

c. periodically touch a safe ground point on the PC to discharge yourself

d. wear an ESD wrist strap

31. Which is NOT typically a Field Replaceable Unit?

a. System ROM

b. Power supply

c. System chassis

d. Video controller

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32. You suspect a virus has entered your computer. What will not be affected by the virus?

a. CMOS

b. Boot sector

c. Floppy disks

d. Program files

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33. A brownout is defined as:

a. a slightly elevated voltage lasting from seconds to minutes or more

b. a slightly decreased voltage lasting from seconds to minutes or more

c. complete power out lasting a few minutes

d. alternating power out, power on lasting a few minutes

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34. Which component stores an electrical charge?

a. diode

b. rectifier

c. capacitor

d. resistor

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35. You should never put floppy drives, hard drives, or even VCR tapes or cassette tapes on top of
speakers (or near any other source of magnetism) because of:

a. RFI

b. EMI

c. EXE

d. FYI

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36. Which is the easiest component to environmentally recycle?

a. Motherboards

b. CMOS batteries

c. Toner cartridges

d. Cathode ray tubes

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37. The output voltages of a PC power supply are in the form of _____ current.

a. AC

b. DC

c. amperage

d. resistive

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38. What should he used to extinguish a computer fire?

a. fire hose

b. class a extinguisher

c. class c extinguisher

d. silver foam water

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39. You run a super wing-ding diagnostic program on your PC, and it reports that your hard drive,
microprocessor, RAM, and video card have seen better days. To resolve this problem you should:
a. replace each part one at a time, rerunning the diagnostic before replacing the next part

b. check to see if you have a software problem

c. replace everything at once and rerun the diagnostic

d. get another copy of the diagnostic program

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40. ESD damage can be caused by:

a. Placing an IC in a non-conductive plastic bag

b. Placing an IC on a grounded mat

c. Repeated sags in current supplied from outlets

d. Touching metal on the chassis

41. How can you totally protect a PC from damage during an electrical storm?

a. Disconnect the AC power cable

b. Disconnect all external cables and power cords

c. Use a surge protector

d. Turn off the AC power

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42. What resistance in ohms should be displayed when testing a speaker in a computer?

a. 0 Ohms

b. 16 Ohms

c. -200 Ohms

d. Unlimited Ohms
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43. To prevent the computer from overheating you should?

a. Remove the slot cover from the back

b. Keep the computer cover closed

c. Remove the CPU fan

d. All of the above

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44. You're on your PC at midnight and an electric storm pops up. What's the best way to protect your
PC.

a. you don't worry; you have a lightning rod on your house

b. you don't worry; you've got a surge protector on your PC

c. you don't worry; you've got a surge protector on your PC and phone line to your modem

d. unplug the PC and remove phone line from the modem

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45. Which technology is used in the processor of a computer to simulates a single processor into two
virtual processors to the operating system?

a. Hyper threading technology

b. Multi core technology

c. Simulation technology

d. Multi threading technology

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46. Which of the following is not a hardware?

a. Printer

b. Network card

c. Internet browser

d. Monitor

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47. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three?

a. MAC address

b. Hardware address

c. Physical address

d. IP address

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48. If one GigaByte is equal to 2^30 Bytes of data storage, then 1024 TeraBytes is equal to ..............
bits of data storage.

a. 2^50

b. 2^53

c. 2^40

d. 2^56

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49. Which of the following is not a computer hardware?

a. Mouse

b. Monitor

c. Antivirus

d. Printer

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50. The hardware device commonly referred to as the ‘brain’ of the Computer is the ……….…

a. RAM chip

b. data input

c. CPU

d. secondary storage

51. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer ?

a. Computer is a machine that can process information.

b. Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both qualitative and
quantitative data quickly and accurately.

c. Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly process only quantitative
data.

d. Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and accurately only qualitative
information.

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52. Power protection device that includes a battery and provides a few minutes of power.
a. surge suppressor

b. line conditioner

c. generator

d. UPS

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53. Devices that make up a computer system that you can see or touch.

a. menu

b. print

c. software

d. hardware

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54. The main component of a desktop PC is the ………….. which houses the computer’s critical parts.

a. system case

b. memory

c. keyboard

d. processor

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55. The term used to define all input and output devices in a computer system is …………..

a. Monitor
b. Software

c. Shared resources

d. Hardware

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56. The expression DSL stands for …………..

a. Digital Subscriber Line

b. Digital Signature Line

c. Digital Sending Line

d. Digital Subscriber Loop

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57. If a user needs Information instantly available to the CPU, it should be stored …………..

a. on a CD

b. in secondary storage

c. on removable media

d. on network drive

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58. Which one of the following is not a network device ?

a. Router

b. Switch
c. Hub

d. CPU

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59. Date and Time are available on the desktop at …………

a. Keyboard

b. Recycle Bin

c. My Computer

d. Task bar

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60. Printed information, called _________________ , exists physically and is a more permanent form
of output than that presented on a-display device.

a. soft copy

b. carbon copy

c. hard copy

d. desk copy

61. Which is the part of the computer system that one can physically touch?

a. data

b. operating systems

c. hardware

d. software

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62. The efficiency for turning 115,000-volt power into 208-volt power, which servers can use is,

a. 80%

b. 82%

c. 84%

d. 89%

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63. One of the feature keys for achieving the PUE of 1.23, was putting measurement devices such as,

a. Voltage divider

b. Current divider

c. Current transformers

d. Voltage transformers

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64. The no of uplink ports, that are being used per rack-switch can varies from a minimum of

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 6

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65. In Google terminology, the Array is also called as

a. Grid

b. Stack

c. Clusters

d. Queue

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66. A 1000 MB data transfer between the disks within the server, takes the time of

a. 2 seconds

b. 5 seconds

c. 8 seconds

d. 10 seconds

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67. In the case of dual-port, rack switches operating at oversubscription rate of

a. (1:2)

b. (20:1)

c. (3:4)

d. (10:2)

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68. Containers also reduce the distance of the air-circulation-loop, which reduces
a. Voltage

b. Current

c. Energy

d. Power

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69. The power-utilization effectiveness median is

a. 1.69

b. 1.54

c. 1.23

d. 1.42

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70. The leaving bandwidth of the rack is 6 to 24 times smaller

a. 48/8 to 48/4

b. 38/8 to 48/2

c. 48/4 to 48/2

d. 48/8 to 48/2

71. To the server 90% of accesses are local, 9% are being outside the server but in the rack, and 1%
are being outside the rack will be having average memory latency of

a. 12.09 microseconds

b. 12.09 nanoseconds

c. 11.09 microseconds

d. 11.09 nanoseconds
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72. Network interface card (NIC) in the baseline design is

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

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73. Every pair of racks, including one rack-switch and the other holds

a. 40 2U

b. 80 U

c. 80 2U

d. 40 U

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74. Every server containing 16 GBytes of memory along a 100-nanosecond access-time and the
transfers at

a. 20 Bytes/sec

b. 20 GBytes/sec

c. 20 MBytes/sec

d. 20 TBytes/sec

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75. Operating the servers at very higher temperature, means that air has to be chilled to

a. 51

b. 61

c. 71

d. 81

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76. The ratio of bandwidth leaving rack, is known as

a. Oversubscription

b. Flow chart

c. K-Map

d. Sequential consistency

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77. Warm water flowing over a large surface within the tower, for transfer of heat to the outside air
through evaporation, the technique is known as

a. Sharding

b. Airside economization

c. Outside economization

d. Both a and b

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78. Within a WSC most of the applications fit on a single-array. Those which need more than single
array use

a. Sharding

b. Partitioning

c. Weak scaling

d. Both a and b

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79. Increased time for next clicking (ms) for 200 server-delay (ms) is

a. 200

b. 500

c. 800

d. 900

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80. Networking infrastructure, which can be scaled to 100,000 ports or 1 petabit/sec of

a. Sharding

b. Power data unit

c. Power distribution unit

d. Bisection bandwidth

81. Networking infrastructure, which can be scaled to 100,000 ports or 1 petabit/sec ofIn addition to
the power-supply, Barroso and H

a. ShardingSharding
b. Power data unitAirside economization

c. Power distribution unitEnergy proportionality

d. Bisection bandwidthBisection bandwidth

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82. A 7-foot (213.36-cm) rack offers

a. 48 G

b. 47 G

c. 48 U

d. 47 U

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83. Power utility failures having no of events per year of

a. 1 or 2

b. 2 or 3

c. 3 or 4

d. 4 or 5

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84. A Google container has ability to handle up to

a. 250 kilowatts

b. 350 kilowatts
c. 270 kilowatts

d. 250 megawatts

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85. If Google container has ability of handling up to 250 kilowatts, it means it can handle up to

a. 1.09 square meters

b. 0.09 square meters

c. 0.05 square meters

d. 0.59 square meters

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86. If the 40,000 servers are divided into 3 arrays then arrays will have more than

a. 5,000 servers

b. 10,000 servers

c. 11,000 servers

d. 12,000 servers

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87. A widely used, metric for evaluating the efficiency of the data-center or a WSC, is called

a. Sharding

b. Air utilization effectiveness

c. Power utilization effectiveness

d. Data utilization effectiveness

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88. The temperature which matters in the data-centers for keeping them cool, is known as

a. Wet-bulb temperature

b. Cooling temperature

c. Net temperature

d. All above

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89. A server at 10% load is having 308 watts power and at 50% load is having 451 watts of power, the
saving is

a. 2.1

b. 2.4

c. 3.4

d. 5.4

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90. Unit converting to internal, low-voltage, three-phase power at 480V is

a. Power data rack

b. Power data unit

c. Power distribution unit

d. Data distribution unit

91. The power utilization effectiveness, would be calculated as

a. PUE = (Total facility power)*(IT equipment power)

b. PUE = (Total facility power)-(IT equipment power)

c. PUE = (Total facility power)+(IT equipment power)

d. PUE = (Total facility power)/(IT equipment power)

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92. Most PCs give a single beep on boot up to indicate they are OK hardware wise, if we boot PC and
doesn

a. system board

b. RAM

c. microprocessor

d. speaker

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93. With respect to computer network interface card, the term 10/100 refers to

a. protocol speed

b. a fiber speed

c. megabits per second

d. server speed

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94. First computer instruction is available on boot-up in

a. ROM BIOS

b. CPU

c. boot.in

d. CONFIG.SYS

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95. Fixed computer disk error occurs due to

a. no-CD installed

b. bad ram

c. slow processor

d. incorrect CMOS settings

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96. Missing slot covers on a computer can cause

a. over heat

b. power surges

c. EMI

d. incomplete path for ESD

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97. Data recording formats used by DAT drives are known to be

a. Parallel Data Storage

b. Digital Data Storage

c. Serial Data Storage

d. Scanned Data Storage

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98. Two read heads and two write heads are built into small wheel in a technique known to be

a. Helical scan

b. Vertical scan

c. Parallel scan

d. Compact scan

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99. DAT cartridges usually have storage capacity of

a. 4 to 14MBs

b. 4 to 14KBs

c. 4 to 14GBs

d. 4 to 14TBs

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100. DDS stands for

a. Digital Domain Storage

b. Domain Data Storage

c. Digital Data Storage

d. Domain Drive Storage

101. Digital audio tape uses helical scan technique for

a. Data recording

b. Data accessing

c. Data reading

d. Data updation

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102. Data recording density of a digital audio tape is said to be

a. Very low

b. Very high

c. Minimum than classified types

d. Average in the classified types

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103. Very high data recording density is obtained in DAT by use of

a. Tape drive

b. Hard drive

c. Disk drive

d. Flash drive

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104. A tape drive that uses helical scan technique for data recording is named to be

a. Tape reel

b. Streamer tape

c. Digital audio tape

d. Tape cartridge

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105. Levels of error-correcting codes provided by digital data storage can be classified into

a. Two levels

b. Three levels

c. Four levels

d. Five levels

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106. Digital data storage provides levels of

a. Error-generating codes

b. Error-correcting codes

c. Error-response codes

d. Error-identification codes

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107. Maps and drawings for storage in computers can be converted to digital form by means of
a. Digitizer devices

b. Point devices

c. Drawing devices

d. Recognition based devices

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108. An input device used to convert pictures into a digital form is known to be

a. Keyboard devices

b. Drawing devices

c. Vision based devices

d. Digitizer devices

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109. Digitizers are used in area of Geographical Information System for digitizing of

a. Robots

b. Maps

c. Medical devices

d. Drawings

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110. Digitizers are used in area of Computer Aided Design (CAD) to design

a. Medical devices
b. Robots

c. Mechanical parts

d. All of the Above

111. A digitizer comprises of a number of components that can be classified into

a. Two components

b. Three components

c. Four components

d. Five components

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112. Storage locations are selected and accessed at random in storage devices named to be

a. Packed access device

b. Sequential access device

c. Zoned access device

d. Direct access device

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113. In applications where processing of data records is one after another, suitable processing type
should be

a. Sequential access device

b. Direct access device

c. Iterative access device

d. Zoned access device

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114. Magnetic, optical and magneto-optical disks are typical examples of

a. Absolute access device

b. Packed access device

c. Sequential access device

d. Direct access device

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115. For application of online banking system, suitable type of processing is of

a. Sequential access device

b. Direct access device

c. Iterative access device

d. Packed access device

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116. Accessing information in a direct device from any location requires

a. High access time

b. Low access time

c. Equal access time

d. No time

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117. For application of online ticket booking system, suitable processing type should be of

a. Direct access device

b. Iterative access device

c. Linear access device

d. Absolute access device

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118. Access device enabling immediate access to individual information, is called

a. Direct access device

b. Zipped access device

c. Sequential access device

d. Disk access device

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119. For support and executing commands, disk controllers requires

a. Disk address

b. Physical address

c. Logical address

d. System address

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120. Parameters of a disk address includes

a. Surface and track number

b. Sector and track number

c. Surface, sector and column number

d. Surface, sector and track number

121. Different types of magnetic disk can be broadly classified into

a. Two types

b. Three types

c. Four types

d. Five types

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122. Commands for operations of disk drive can be interpreted by

a. Disk modulation

b. Disk commanding

c. Disk integrator

d. Disk controller

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123. Commands supported by disk controller is said to be

a. Read commands only

b. Write commands only

c. Surfacing and blocking commands

d. Write and Read commands

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124. Disk drives based on specifications can be broadly classified into

a. Two types

b. Three types

c. Four types

d. Five types

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125. A unit used for reading or writing of information on magnetic disk is said to be

a. Hard drive

b. Disk drive

c. Magnetic drive

d. Zip Disk

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126. Disks that are not removable from their disk drives is said to be

a. Disk drives with defined magnetic disks

b. Disk drives with fixed magnetic disks

c. Disk drives with framed magnetic disks

d. Disk drives with located magnetic disks

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127. Disks that allows loading and unloading of magnetic disks only when needed for data on them is
known to be

a. Disk drives with interchangeable magnetic disks

b. Disk drives with dependent magnetic disks

c. Disk drives with independent magnetic disks

d. Disk drives with fixed magnetic disks

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128. Disk drives vary greatly in

a. Shape and size

b. Disk formatting pattern

c. Access time and latency

d. Both a and b

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129. Scanning and marking bad sectors is responsibility of

a. Low-level formatting

b. Function-level formatting

c. High-level formatting

d. OS-level formatting

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130. Disk formatting is prepared by a computer system at

a. One level

b. Two levels

c. Three levels

d. Four levels

131. OS-level formatting creates a file known to be

a. File Allocation Table

b. File Access Table

c. File Index Table

d. File Transfer Table

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132. Low-level formatting allows drive to organize and store data in

a. Data definition

b. Data organization

c. Data declaration

d. Data modification

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133. A magnetic pattern on disk's surface is laid down by drive's read/write head in formatting level of

a. Low-level
b. High-level

c. OS-level

d. Function-level

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134. A table with sector and track locations of data is named as

a. File formatting table

b. File index table

c. File allocation table

d. File modulation table

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135. A new disk is prepared by a computer system in which disk is to be used, by a process known to
be

a. Disk generation

b. Disk formulation

c. Disk formatting

d. Disk transformation

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136. OS-level formatting leaves sufficient space for FAT to

a. Inquire

b. Grow
c. Allocate

d. Index

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137. Process of combining two or more sorted files into a single ordered file is called

a. Arranging

b. Sequencing

c. Merging

d. Collating

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138. Routines and generalized operations on data files are termed as

a. Data utilities

b. Functional utilities

c. File utilities

d. Operational utilities

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139. Process of arranging records of a file in some defined sequence is called

a. Justifying

b. Arranging

c. Aligning
d. Sorting

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140. For taking backup of copies of files, utility often used is named to be

a. File copying utilities

b. File backup utilities

c. File store utilities

d. File structure utilities

141. In a 3 1/2 inch floppy disk, minimum number of sectors of a track is defined to be

a. 18

b. 40

c. 88

d. 94

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142. Minimum number of tracks in a 3 1/2 inch floppy disk is defined to be

a. 15

b. 20

c. 35

d. 40

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143. An inexpensive secondary storage medium used in small computers is named to be

a. Mainframes

b. Minicomputers

c. Supercomputers

d. Microcomputers

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144. In a 5 1/4 inch floppy disk, minimum number of sectors, in which a track is divided to is said to be

a. 6

b. 9

c. 15

d. 36

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145. Floppy disks are available in diameters 3.5 inches and

a. 4 1/2 inches

b. 4 1/4 inches

c. 5 1/2 inches

d. 5 1/4 inches

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146. Floppy disks are also known as

a. Cassettes

b. Diskettes

c. Streamers

d. Cartridges

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147. Maximum number of tracks in a 5 1/4 inch floppy disk is said to be

a. 40

b. 60

c. 80

d. 100

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148. Number of bytes per sector comprised by a floppy disk is known to be

a. 128 bytes

b. 254 bytes

c. 512 bytes

d. 1026 bytes

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149. Maximum number of sectors of a track in a 3 1/2 inch floppy disk, tis defined to be

a. 16
b. 26

c. 36

d. 46

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150. VDT is abbreviation of

a. Virtual display tube

b. Video domain tube

c. Virtual device terminal

d. Video display terminal

151. Most popular output device named monitors are used for producing

a. Window display terminal

b. Video display terminal

c. Soft-copy output

d. Hard-copy output

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152. Monitors associated with a keyboard is called

a. Video display terminal

b. Window display terminal

c. Device display terminal

d. Computer display terminal