MADANAPALLE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND SCIENCE

NAME: K. SUDARSHAN
ROLL NO: 18691A04I5
CLASS: ECE-D
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
FACULTY IN CHARGE: Dr.KUVAR SATYA SINGH

SECTION 1:

𝝅/𝟐
1.Evaluate integral of ∫𝟎 𝐥𝐨𝐠(𝐬𝐢𝐧𝒙)𝒅𝒙. …………1

𝜋/2
Solution : Let I=∫0 log(sin𝜋/2 − 𝑥)𝑑𝑥

𝜋/2
I= ∫0 log cos𝑥 𝑑𝑥 …………….2

Adding 1 and 2,
𝜋/2 𝜋/2
2I=∫0 log cos𝑥𝑑𝑥 + ∫0 log sin𝑥𝑑𝑥

𝜋/2
=∫0 log sin𝑥. cos𝑥 𝑑𝑥

𝜋/2
=∫0 log (2sin𝑥. cos𝑥/2) 𝑑𝑥

𝜋/2
=∫0 log (sin2𝑥/2) 𝑑𝑥

𝜋/2 𝜋/2
=∫0 log (sin2𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 − log2 ∫0 d𝑥

𝜋/2 𝜋/2
=∫0 log (sin2𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 − log2[x]0

Let 2x=t x=π/2 , t=π

2dx=dt
𝜋
=∫0 log (sin𝑡) 𝑑𝑡 − (𝜋/2)log2

𝜋
=∫0 log sin(𝜋 − 𝑡) 𝑑𝑡 − (𝜋/2)log2

𝜋
=− ( 2 ) log2

𝜋/2
∫ log(sin𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 = −𝜋/2 log2
0
2.Find the surface area of the solid generated by the revolution of lemniscates of r2=a2cos2ѳ about
intial line.

Solution:

r=a√cos2𝜃

𝜃 R

0 a
𝜋/4 0
𝜋/2 imaginary
𝜋 A

-a 0 a

The limit of integration is 0 to 𝜋/4

𝜋⁄4
Surface of revolution =2 ∫0 2𝜋𝑦 𝑑𝑠/𝑑𝜃𝑑𝜃 ……………………..1
𝑑𝑠 𝑑𝑟
= √𝑟 2 + ( )2
𝑑𝜃 𝑑𝜃
 𝑑𝑟
2𝑟 𝑑𝜃 = −2𝑎2 sin2𝜃

𝑑𝑟
𝑑𝜃
= −𝑎2 sin2𝜃/𝑎√cos2𝜃

𝑑𝑠
𝑑𝜃
= √𝑎2 cos 2 2𝜃 + 𝑎2 sin2 2𝜃/cos2𝜃

𝑑𝑠 𝑎
𝑑𝜃
=
√cos2𝜃

From 1,
𝜋⁄4 𝑎
Surface of revolution = 4𝜋 ∫0 𝑟sin𝜃 𝑑𝜃
√cos2𝜃

𝜋⁄4
=4𝜋𝑎2 ∫0 sin𝜃𝑑𝜃

⁄4
=4𝜋𝑎2 [−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃]𝜋0

1
Surface area of revolution =4𝜋𝑎2 ( − 1)
√2

2. Find the volume obtained by revolving the one arch of the cycloid x=a(t-sint); y=a(1-cost), about its base.
Solution:
Given:
x=a(t-sint)
y=a(1-cost)
𝜃 X y
0 0 0
𝜋/2 𝑎(𝜋/2 − 1) a
3𝜋/2 𝑎(3𝜋/2 + 1) a
𝜋 𝑎𝜋 2a
2𝜋 2a𝜋 0

2𝑎
 0 𝑎𝜋 2𝑎𝜋 3𝜋𝑎

𝑑𝑥
= 𝑎(1 − cos𝜃)
𝑑𝜃
2𝜋
Volume obtained by revolving one arch of the cycloid is= 2 ∫0 𝜋𝑦 2 𝑑𝑥

2𝜋
= 2𝜋 ∫0 𝑎2 (1 − cos𝜃)2 𝑎(1 − cos𝜃)𝑑𝜃

2𝜋
= 2𝜋 ∫0 𝑎3 (1 − cos𝜃)3 𝑑𝜃

2𝜋
=2𝜋 ∫0 𝑎3 (sin2 𝜃⁄2)3 𝑑𝜃

2𝜋
=2𝜋𝑎3 ∫0 (sin6 𝜃⁄2)𝑑𝜃

Let 𝜃⁄2=t 𝜃=2 𝜋, t= 𝜋

D𝜃=2dt 𝜃=0, t=0

𝜋
= 2𝜋𝑎3 ∫0 (sin6 𝑡)𝑑𝑡

𝜋⁄2
= 4𝜋𝑎3 ∫0 (sin6 𝑡)𝑑𝑡

5
Volume of the one arch of cycloid is = 𝜋 2 𝑎3
8

SECTION-2

1.Verify Rolle`s theorem for (𝒙 − 𝒂)𝒎 (𝒙 − 𝒃)𝒏 where m,n are positive integers in [a,b].

Solution:

(i) f(x) is continuos in [a,b]

So, the conditions of the Rolle`s theorem are satisfied.

Then, there exists at c ∈ [a,b] ∋ f`©=0

F(x)= (𝑥 − 𝑎)𝑚 (𝑥 − 𝑏)𝑛

F`(x)= 𝑚(𝑥 − 𝑎)𝑚−1 (𝑥 − 𝑎)𝑛 + (𝑥 − 𝑎)𝑚 𝑛(𝑥 − 𝑏)𝑛−1

F`©=0

m(c-b)=-n(c-a)
𝑎𝑛+𝑚𝑏
c= 𝑚+𝑛

𝒃−𝒂 𝒃−𝒂 𝝅 𝟑 𝟒
2.Prove that (if 0<a<b<1), 𝟏+𝒃𝟐 < 𝐭𝐚𝐧−𝟏 𝒃 − 𝐭𝐚𝐧−𝟏 𝒂< 𝟏+𝒂𝟐 and hence show that 𝟒 + 𝟐𝟓 < 𝐭𝐚𝐧−𝟏 (𝟑) <
𝝅 𝟏
𝟒
+ 𝟔.

Solution:

Suppose, f(x)= tan−1 𝑥

By, Legranges Mean Value Theorem,

𝑓(𝑏)−𝑓(𝑎)
F`©= 𝑏−𝑎
………………………..(1)

Again, a<c<b

𝑎2 < 𝑐 2 < 𝑏 2

1 + 𝑎2 < 1 + 𝑐 2 < 1 + 𝑏 2
1 1 1
> >
1+𝑎2 1+𝑐 2 1+𝑏2

1 1 1
< < ………………………(2)
1+𝑏2 1+𝑐 2 1+𝑎2

From (1),
𝑓(𝑏)−𝑓(𝑎)
F`© = 𝑏−𝑎

1 tan−1 𝑏−tan−1 𝑎
=
1+𝑐 2 𝑏−𝑎
Substituting in (2),
𝑏−𝑎 𝑏−𝑎
1+𝑏2
< tan−1 𝑏 − tan−1 𝑎< 1+𝑎2

Let a=1,b=4/3

4 4
3 − 1 < tan−1 4 − tan−1 1 < 3 − 1
4 3 1+1
1 + (3)2

𝜋 3 4 𝜋 1
+ < tan−1 ( ) < + .
4 25 3 4 6