U

Reasoning

Chapter 1 
Number and Letter Series 1.153

n
Chapter 2  Analogies1.158

Chapter 3  Odd Man Out 1.162

Chapter 4  Coding and Decoding 1.165

Chapter 5 
Blood Relations 1.170

Chapter 6  Venn Diagrams 1.175

i
Chapter 7  Seating Arrangements 1.183

Chapter 8  Puzzles1.190

Chapter 9  Clocks and Calenders 1.199

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Unit II_Chapter 1.indd 152 27/04/2017 14:23:45
 Chapter 1 Number and Letter Series
Hints/Solutions
Practice Problems 1 10. The given series can be written as
120 120 120
, , ,
Solutions for questions 1 to 25: 120 120 120 120 9 8 7
, , ; = 30.
1. The given numbers are consecutive prime numbers 6 5 4 4
in increasing order starting with 17. Hence, the next
­number in the series is 41. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 11. The given series can be written as product of two
­consecutive primes. 2 × 3, 3 × 5, 5 × 7, 7 × 11, 11 × 13,
2. The given numbers are squares of consecutive natural 13 × 17, 17 × 19
numbers in decreasing order starting with 15, i.e., the
numbers 225, 196, 169, _____, 100, 81 can be written ⇒ 6, 15, 35, 77, 173, 22, _____ 17 × 19 = 323.
as 152, 142, 132, _____, 112, 102, 92. Hence, the missing Hence, the correct option is (C).
number is 122, i.e., 144. 12. 29, 29, 27, 23, 25, 19, 23, 17, _____, _____
Hence, the correct option is (B). The given series is an alternate series. The numbers
3. The given numbers are cubes of consecutive natural in the alternate positions starting with 29 in the first
numbers, in increasing order starting with 4, i.e., 43 = 64. position form a series of consecutive odd numbers in
64, 125, 216, 343, _____ decreasing order. i.e. 29, 27, 25, 23, 21. The remaining
numbers form a series of prime numbers in decreasing
⇒ 43, 53, 63, 73, 83. Hence, 512 is the next number in order starting with 29 i.e. 29, 23, 19, 17, 13. Hence, the
the series. next two numbers in the series are 21 and 13 respectively.
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (C).
4. 54+12, 66+16, 82+20, 102+24, 126, _____ 13. 24, 625, 26, 729, 28, 841, _____
The difference is increasing by 4, starting with 12. ⇒ 24, 252, 26, 272, 28, 292, _____
So, the next difference is 24 + 4 = 28. The next number in the series is 30.
Hence, the next number is 126 + 28 = 154. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 14. 37 31, 29 23, 19 17, 13 11, _____
5. 7+4, 11+9, 20+16, 36+25, 61 _____, 146 The given number are pairs of prime numbers in
The differences are squares of consecutive natural decreasing order starting with 37. The next number in
numbers, in increasing order starting with 2, i.e., 22 = 4. the series is 75.
Hence, the next number in the series is 61 + 36 = 97. Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 15. 11, 28, 327, 464, _____
6. 8×2, 16×3, 48×2, 96×3, 288×2, 576, _____ ⇒ 113, 223, 333, 443, _____
The numbers in the series are alternately being multi- The next number in the series is 553 = 5125.
plied by two and three. Hence, the next number in the
series is 576 × 3 = 1728. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 16. 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, _____
7. 125×3, 375+2, 377×3, 1131+2, 1133, _____ ⇒ 23 – 2, 33 – 3, 43 – 4, 53 – 5, 63 – 6, _____
The numbers are being alternatively multiplied by three The next number in the series is 73 – 7 = 336.
and two is added. Hence, the next number in the series Hence, the correct option is (A).
in 1133 × 3 = 3399. 17. 132, 182, 306, 380, 552, 870, _____
Hence, the correct option is (A). ⇒ 112 + 11, 132 + 13 + 172 + 17, 192 + 19, 232 + 23,
8. 12×3 – 1, 35×3 + 1, 106,×3 – 1, 317,×3 + 1, 952, _____ 292 + 29, _____
The next number in the series is 952 × 3 – 1 = 2855. The given numbers are in n2 + n form of consecutive
Hence, the correct option is (B). prime numbers in increasing order, starting with 17.
Hence, the next number in the series is 312 + 31 = 992.
9. 2×2, 4+3, 7×5, 35+7, 42×11, 462
Hence, the correct option is (C).
The numbers are alternately multiplied by and added to
consecutive prime numbers in increasing order. Hence, 18. The given series is a mixed series.
the next number in the series is 462 + 13 = 475. Pattern for the first letter :
Hence, the correct option is (D). K+1, L+1, M+1, N+1, O

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 1.154  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

Pattern for the second letter : Pattern for the second letter :
P–1, O–1, N–1, M–1, L T+5, Y+5, D+5, I+5, N
Pattern for the third letter : Pattern for the third letter :
D+1, E+1, F+1, G+1, H B–6, V–6, P–6, J–6, D
Hence, the next group in the series is OLH. Hence, the missing group is UIJ.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (B).
19. The given series is a mixed series. 23. This question can be solved easily if the relation between
Pattern for the first letter : the letters within the group is observed. In this series the
first letter in all the groups form a series of consecutive
Consecutive consonants starting with B.
letters. Hence, the first letter in the next group is E. The
Next letter in that series is H other letters in each group are related as follows.
Pattern for the second letter : A×2 B×2 D×2 H
Consecutive vowels starting with E. The next letter in B×2 D×2 H×2 P
that series is E.
C×2 F×2 L×2 X
Pattern for the third letter :
D×2 H×2 P×2 F
Consecutive consonants starting with V.
Hence, the next group is obtained as follows.
Hence, the next group in the series is HEV.
E×2, J×2 T×2 N.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (C).
20. The given series is a mixed series.
24. The given series is a mixed series.
Pattern for the first letter :
Pattern for the first letter :
G+2, I+3, L+4, P+5, U+6, A
T–2, R–3, O–5, J–7, C
Pattern for the second letter :
Pattern for the second letter :
K+5, P+4, T+3, W+2, Y+1, Z
C–2, A–3, X–5, S–7, L
Pattern for the third letter :
Pattern for the third letter :
F–3, C–4, Y–5, T–6, N–7, G
F–2, D–3, A–5, V–7, O
Hence, the required group is AZG.
Pattern for the fourth letter :
Hence, the correct option is (D).
K–2, I–3, F–5, A–7, T
21. The alternate groups are in different series.
Hence, the next group in the series is CLOT.
QLR, RNU, SPX are in one series.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
The Pattern for the first letter :
25. The given series is a mixed series.
Q+1, R+1, S+1, T
Pattern for the first letter :
The Pattern for the second letter :
K–4, G–4, C–4, Y–4, U
L+2, N+2, P+2, R
Pattern for the second letter :
The Pattern for the third letter :
J–3, G–3, D–3, A–3, X
R+3, U+3, X+3, A
Pattern for the third letter :
Hence, the next group in the series is TRA.
A–4, W–4, S–4, O–4, K
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Pattern for the fourth letter :
22. The given series is a mixed series.
M–3, J–3, G–3, D–3, A
Pattern for the first letter :
Hence, the missing group is CDSG.
G–4, C–4, Y–4, U–4, Q
Hence, the correct option is (D).

Practice Problems 2 Sol. 12×0.5, 6×1, 6×1.5, 9×2, 18×2.5, 45×3, _____
Solutions for questions 1 to 23: The next number in the series is 45 × 3 = 135.
1. 12, 6, 6, 9, 18, 45, ______ Hence, the correct option is (A).
(A) 135 (B) 1475 (C) 1075 (D) 105

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 Chapter 1  •  Number and Letter Series  |  1.155

2. 25, 49, 121, 225, 529 ______

(A) 625 (B) 676 (C) 729 (D) 784 (A) 39 + 27 2 (B) 41 + 29 2
(C) 43 + 31 2 (D) None of these
Sol. The given series can be written as (2n + 1)2, where n is
prime. Sol. The given series can be written as n, n2, n3, n4,
5
(2 × 2 + 1)2, (2 × 3 + 1)2, (2 × 5 + 1)2, (2 × 7 + 1)2, n 5 . (1 + 2 ),(1 + 2 ) 2 ,(1 + 2 )3 ,(1 + 2 ) 4 , (1 + 2 ) ,
(2 × 11 + 1)2, _____ (1 + 2 )5 = 41 + 29 2 .
52, 72, 112, 152, 232, 272. Hence, the correct option is (B).
25, 49, 121, 225, 529, 729. 7. 9, 35, 91, 189, 341, ______
Hence, the correct option is (C). (A) 438 (B) 559 (C) 593 (D) 497
3. 5, 12, 13, 7, 14, 17, 9, 16, 19, 11, 18, 23, ______, Sol. The given series can be written as the sum of the cubes
______, ______ of two consecutive numbers.
(A) 25, 27, 25 (B) 20, 25, 27 13 + 23, 23 + 33, 33 + 43, 43 + 53, 53 + 63, 63 + 73
(C) 17, 23, 29 (D) 13, 20, 29
9, 35, 91, 189, 341, 559.
Sol. 5, 12, 13, 7, 14, 17, 9, 16, 19, 11, 18, 23, _____, _____,
Hence, the correct option is (B).
_____.
8. 8, 18, 50, 98, 242, ______
The given series is a mixture of three different series.
(A) 338 (B) 288 (C) 316 (D) 356
Every third number starting with 5 form a series of
Sol. The given series can be written as 2n , where n is prime.
2
consecutive odd numbers in increasing order.
2 × 22, 2 × 32, 2 × 52, 2 × 72, 2 × 112, 2 × 132
Every third number starting with 12 form a series of
2 × 169 = 338.
consecutive earn numbers. Similarly, every third num-
ber starting with 13 form a series of consecutive prime Hence, the correct option is (A).
numbers. 9. 4, 57, 104, 147, 188, 225, ______
5, 7, 9, 11, 13 (odd number series) (A) 257 (B) 254 (C) 256 (D) 255
12, 14, 16, 18, 20 (even numbers series) Sol. The series can be written as 4 , 57 , 104+43, 147+41,
+53 +47

188+37, 225+31, 256.

13, 17, 19, 23, 29 (prime numbers series)
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the next numbers in the series are 13, 20 and 29.
10. 4, 8, 24, 120, 840, ______
Hence, the correct option is (D).
(A) 5040 (B) 5880 (C) 7560 (D) 9240
4 2 1
4. 81, 64 , 54, 46 , 40 , ______ Sol. The given series can be written as:
5 7 2
4×2, 8×3, 24×5, 120×7, 840×11, 9240
2 1
(A) 38 (B) 34 (C) 32 (D) 36 9240 is the next number.
3 3
Hence, the correct option is (D).
324 324 324
Sol. The given series can be written as , , , 11. 100, 512, 1296, 1024, ______
324 324 324 4 5 6
, , . (A) 729 (B) 1331 (C) 64 (D) 2401
7 8 9 Sol. The given series can be expressed as:
324 102, 83, 64, 45, 26 .
= 36.
9 Here the powers are consecutive natural numbers and

Hence, the correct option is (D). the bases are consecutive even numbers in descending
order.
5. 14, 19, 35, 59, 131, 179, ______
(A) 299 (B) 279 (C) 381 (D) 344 Hence 26 = 64 is the next number.
Sol. The given series can be written as n2 + 10, where n is Hence, the correct option is (C).
prime.
12. 6 + 216 , 7 + 343 , 8 + 512 , 9 + 729 , ______
22 + 10, 32 + 10, 52 + 10, 72 + 10, 112 + 10, 132 + 10,
172 + 10 (A) 10 + 100 (B) 10 + 1000
172 + 10 = 299. (C) 100 + 1000 (D) 100 + 10
Hence, the correct option is (A). Sol. 6 + 216 , 7 + 343 , 8 + 512 , 9 + 729 , _____
6. 1 + 2 , 3 + 2 2 , 7 + 5 2 , 17 + 12 2 , ______ ⇒6+ 63 , 7 + 73 , 8 + 83 , 9 + 93 , _____

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 1.156  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

Sol. HPK, IOL, KMN, NJQ, _____

The next surd in the series is 10 + 103 = 10 + 1000.
The given series is a combination series.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
The pattern for the first letters of the series, is
13. 234, 6912, 182736, 5481108, 162243324, ______
(A) 486729972 (B) 486464972 H+1, I+2, K+3, N+4, R.
(C) 486729648 (D) 486672992 The pattern for the second letters of the series is
Sol. The given series can be split as: P–1, O–2, M–3, J–4, F.
2|3|4, 6|9|12, 18|27|36, 54|81|108, 162|243|324 The pattern for the third letters of the series is
The first numbers are 2×3, 6×3, 18×3, 54×3, 162×3, 486 K+1, L+2, N+3, Q+4, U.
The middle numbers are 3×3, 9×3, 27×3, 81×3, 243×3, 729 Hence, RFU is the next term.
The last numbers are 4×3, 12×3, 36×3, 108×3, 324×3, 972 Hence, the correct option is (A).
\ 486729972 is the required number. 19. CIP, DKS, FNW, IRB, MWH, ______
Hence, the correct option is (A). (A) RDN (B) PCN
(C) RCO (D) PDR
14. 4, 48, 180, 448, ______
(A) 648 (B) 900 (C) 1210 (D) 1584 Sol. CIP, DKS, FNW, IRB, MWH, _____
Sol. The given series can be expressed as n – n2 of even3 The given series is a combination series.
numbers. The pattern for the first letters of the series is
23 – 22, 43 – 42, 63 – 62, 83 – 82, 103 – 102 C+1, D+2, F+3, I+4, M+5, R.
103 – 102 = 900 is the next number. The pattern for the second letters of the series is
Hence, the correct option is (B). I+2, K+3, N+4, R+5, W+6, C.
15. 1024, 4096, 64, ______, 4 The pattern for the third letters of the series is
(A) 64 (B) 32 (C) 16 (D) 8 P+3, S+4, W+5, B+6, H+7, O.
Sol. The given series can be written as: Hence, RCO is the next term.
322, 163, 82, 43, 22 Hence, the correct option is (C).
The powers are alternate squares and cubes and the 20. CSL, FPP, LMT, XJX, VGB, ______
bases are halved in each term. (A) TFD (B) VDF
43 = 64 is the required number. (C) VFD (D) RDF
Hence, the correct option is (A). Sol. CSL, FPP, LMT, XJX, VGB, ____
16. 1, 8, 27, 16, 125, 36, 343, 64, ______, ______. The given series is combination series.
(A) 729, 1000 The pattern for the first letters of the series is
(B) 81, 1000
C×2, F×2, L×2, X×2, V×2, R.
(C) 729, 100
(D) 81, 100 The pattern for the second letters of the series is
Sol. 1, 8, 27, 16, 125, 36, 343, 64, _____ S–3, P–3, M–3, J–3, G–3, D.
⇒ 12, 23, 33, 42, 53, 62, 73, 82, _____ The pattern for the third letters of the series is
The given series consists of cubes of prime numbers L+4, P+4, T+4, X+4, B+4, F.
and squares of non-prime numbers. Hence, the next Hence, RDF is the next term.
two numbers in the series are 92 = 81, and 102 = 100. Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 21. HAP, JEQ, KIR, LOS, MUT, ______
17. 5, 12, 17, 29, 46, 75, 121, ______ (A) OAU (B) NAV
(A) 185 (B) 196 (C) NVU (D) NAW
(C) 192 (D) 188 Sol. HAP, JEQ, KIR, LOS, MUT, ____
Sol. The given series is a Fibonocci series The given series is a combination series.
5+. 12=.+ 17+, = 29=+, 46+, = 75=+, 121 = 196 The pattern for the first letters of the series is
Hence, the correct option is (B). H, J, K, L, M, N. These letters are consecutive
18. HPK, IOL, KMN, NJQ, ______ consonants.
(A) RFU (B) RHV The pattern for the second letters of the series is
(C) QFT (D) QFH A, E, I, O, U, A These are consecutive vowels.

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 Chapter 1  •  Number and Letter Series  |  1.157

The pattern for the third letters of the series is 23. BDCAG, DHFBN, HPLDB, PFXHD, FLVPH, ______
P, Q, R, S, T, V These letters are consecutive consonants. (A) LXRFP (B) LVTDN
(C) JTPDN (D) LZVRL
Hence, the correct option is (B).
22. MGBSP, WIKTL, NHCTQ, VHJSK, PJEVS, TFHQI, Sol. BDCAG, DHFBN, HPLDB, PFXHD, FLVPH, _______
SMHYV, ______ The given series is a combination series.
(A) UGIRJ (B) QDFMG The pattern for the first letters of each term is
(C) QCENF (D) QRLMT B×2, D×2, H×2, P×2, F×2, L.
Sol. MGBSP, WIKTL, NHCTQ, VHJSK, PJEVS, TFHQI, The pattern for the second letters of each term is
SMHYV, _____.
D×2, H×2, P×2, F×2, L×2, X.
The given series is an alternate series.
The pattern for the third letters of each term is
MGBSP, NHCTQ, PJEVS, SMHYV is one series.
C×2, F×2, L×2, X×2, V×2, R.
The pattern for the first letters of each term is
The pattern for the forth letters of each term is
M+1, N+2, P+3, S.
A×2, B×2, D×2, H×2, P×2, F.
The pattern for the second letters of each term is
The pattern for the fifth letter of each series is
G+1, H+2, J+3, M.
G×2, N×2, B×2, D×2, H×2, P.
The pattern for the third letters of each term is
Hence, LXRFP is the next term.
B+1, C+2, E+3, H.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
The pattern for the fourth letters of each term is
S+1, T+2, V+3, Y. Solutions for questions 24 and 25:
The pattern for the fifth letter of each term is When the letters are written from A to Z, from left to right,
as we move towards right from a given letter the place
P+1, Q+2, S+3, V. value increases and the place value decreases while moving
Similarly, towards its left.
WIKTL, VHJSK, TFHQI, _______ is the other series. 24. The letter which is fifth to the left of the letter, which is
The pattern for the first letters of each term is third to the right of K is ______.
(A) J (B) I (C) N (D) L
W–1, V–2, T–3, Q.
Sol. (K) 11 + 3 (right) – 5 (left) = 9
The pattern for the second letters of each term is
The ninth letter is I.
I–1, H–2, F–3, C.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
The pattern for the third letters of each term is
25. Find the letter which is second to the right of the letter,
K–1, J–2, H–3, E. which is fifth to the right of N.
The pattern for the fourth letters of each term is (A) U (B) T
T–1, S–2, Q–3, N. (C) R (D) S
The pattern for the fifth letters of each term is Sol. (N) 14 + 5 (right) + 2(right) = 21
L–1, K–2, I–3, F. The 21st letter is U.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, QCENF is the next term.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

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 Chapter 2 Analogies
Hints/Solutions
Practice Problems 1 Similarly,
1
= 0.25.
Solutions for questions 1 to 25: 4
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1. 97 : 89 : : 43 : ______
10. 11 : 143 : : 19 : ______
Previous prime number to 97 is 89. Similarly for 43 the
previous prime is 41. 11 × 13 = 143 (multiple of its next prime number).
Hence, the correct option is (D). Similarly, 19 × 23 = 437.
2. 196 : 256 : : 324 : ______ Hence, the correct option is (D).
(14)2 : (16)2 : : (18)2 : (20)2 11. 598 : 352 : : 732: ______
568 – 216 = 352
+2 +2 Similarly, 732 – 216 = 516.
(20) = 400 is the next number.
2
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 12. 6 : 222 : 9 : ______
3. 121 : 169 : : 361 : ______ 6 : (6)3 + 6 : : 9 : (9)3 + 9
(11)2 : (13)2 : : (19)2 : ______ (9)3 + 9 = 738 is the next number.
The given numbers are squares of consecutive prime Hence, the correct option is (A).
numbers. Hence, the prime number next to 19 is 23 and
13. 5 : 120: : 8 : ______
(23)2 = 529.
5 : (5)3 –5 : : 8 : (8)3 – 8
Hence, the correct option is (A).
(8)3 – 8 = 504 is the next number.
4. 125 : 343 : : 343 : ______
Hence, the correct option is (B).
(5)3 : (7)3 : : (7)3 : ______
14. 16 : 68 : : 36 : ______
The given numbers are the cubes of consecutive prime
numbers. Hence, the prime number to next 7 is 11 and (4)2 : (4)3 + 4 : : (6)2 : (6)3 + 6
(11)3 = 1331 is the next number. This is of the form n2 : n3 + n.
Hence, the correct option is (B). \ (6)3 + 6 = 222 is the next number.
5. 4 : 256 : : 5 : ______ Hence, the correct option is (C).
This is of the form n : (n)4 15. 10 : 95 : : 16 : ______
(4) : (4)4 : : (5) : (5)4 10
102 – = 95 .
(5)4 = 625 is the next number. 2
16
Hence, the correct option is (A). Similarly, 162 – = 248.
2
6. 12 : 144 : : 18 : ______ Hence, the correct option is (C).
12 +132 = 144. 16. 3829 : 3851 : : 2987 : ______
Similarly, 18 + 132 = 150. 3829 + (3 + 8 + 2 + 9) = 3851
Hence, the correct option is (D). Similarly 2987 + (2 + 9 + 8 + 7) = 3013.
7. 25 : 21 : : 59 : ______ Hence, the correct option is (A).
52 – 22 = 4 17. 47+ 74 : 121 : : 89+ 98 : ______
Similarly, 92 – 52 = 56. The number is reversed and is added to the number.
Hence, the correct option is (D). \ 89 + 98 = 187 is the next number.
8. 8 : 72 : : 10 : ______ Hence, the correct option is (B).
8 × 9 = 72. 18. NATURE : PEVASI : : ISOMERS : ______
Similarly, 10 × 9 = 90. In this, for vowels their next vowels and for consonants
Hence, the correct option is (D). their next consonants are given.
9. 8 : 0.125 : : 4 : Hence, OTUNIST are the required letters.
1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
= 0.125.
8

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 Chapter 2  •  Analogies  |  1.159

19. BAD : BBL : : IDFE : ______ T A P

Similarly, –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1
B A D J D F E S U Z B O Q
×1 ×2 ×3 ×1 ×2 ×3 ×4 Similarly R E D
B B L J H R T –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1
Hence, the correct option is (D). Q S D F C E
20. FIELD : LRJXH : : CRICKET : ______ Hence, the correct option is (C).
F I E L D 22. Train runs on tracks, similarly bus runs on road.
×2 ×2 ×2 ×2 ×2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
L R J X H 23. Earth is a planet and carrot is a vegetable.
Similarly, C  R  I  C  K  E  T Hence, the correct option is (A).
×2  ×2  ×2  ×2  ×2  ×2  ×2 24. Wood is raw material for carpenter and Iron is raw
F  J  R  F  V  J  N material for blacksmith.
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (D).
21. TAP : SUZBOQ : : RED : ______ 25. Pen is used to write and knife is used to cut.
The letters on either side of each letter were given. Hence, the correct option is (B).

Practice Problems 2 Sol. 12 : 1732 : : 15 : ______

Solutions for questions 1 to 25: 12 15
12 : 123 + : : 15 : 153 +
1. 435 : 534 : : 678 : ______ 3 3
(A) 876 (B) 875 (C) 676 (D) 856 15
\ 15 + 3
= 3380.
3
Sol. 435 : 534 : : 678 : ______ Hence, the correct option is (B).
534 is the reverse of 435.Similarly, 5. 441 : 8000 : : 225 : ______
876 is the reverse of 678. (A) 3996 (B) 4194 (C) 3096 (D) 2744
Hence, the correct option is (A). Sol. 441 : 8000 : : 225 : ______
2. 18 : 964 : : 25216 : ______ 212 : 203 : : 152 : 143
(A) 49512 (B) 64729 143 = 2744.
(C) 1001728 (D) 16125 Hence, the correct option is (D).
Sol. 18 : 964 : : 25216 : ______ 6. 19 : 399 : : 21 : ______
12 23: 32 43 : : 52 63 : 72 83 (A) 324 (B) 402 (C) 473 (D) 483
\ The missing number is 49512. Sol. 19 : 399 : : 21 : ______
Hence, the correct option is (A). 19 : 202 – 1 : : 21 : 222 – 1
3. 60 : 95 : : 138 : : ______ \ 222 = 483.
(A) 189 (B) 192 (C) 248 (D) 315
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Sol. 60 : 95 : : 138 : ______
7. 97 : 8 : : 37 : ______
8
60 = 82 – (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
2
10 Sol. 97 : 8 : : 37 : ______
95 = 102 – . 89 is immediately preceding prime number of 97.
2
12 \ 97 – 89 = 8
Similarly, 138 = 122 –
2 Similarly, the prime numbers before 37 is 31 and hence,
14
\ The missing number is 142 – = 196 – 7 = 189 37 – 31 = 6.
2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (A).
8. 350 : 20 : : ______ : 42
4. 12 : 1732 : : 15 : ______
(A) 737 (B) 739
(A) 3080 (B) 3380 (C) 3764 (D) 4550 (C) 1342 (D) 1343

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 1.160  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

Sol. 350 : 20 : : ______ : 42 16. 758 : 400 : : ______ : 256

7 + 7 : 5 – 5 :: 113 + 11 : 7 – 7
3 2 2 (A) 286 (B) 285 (C) 232 (D) 284
\ 113 + 11 = 1342. Sol. 758 : 400 : : ______ : 256
Hence, the correct option is (C). 7 + 5 + 8 = 20 and 202 = 400
9. 2 : 4 : : 5 : ______ Similarly, 2 + 8 + 6 = 16 and 162 = 256.
(A) 30 (B) 355 (C) 3125 (D) 625 \ 286 is the required number.
Sol. 2 : 4 : : 5 : ______ Hence, the correct option is (A).
2 : 22 : : 5 : 55 17. 248 : 1090 : : ______ : 1029
\ 55 = 3125. (A) 366 (B) 377
Hence, the correct option is (C). (C) 562 (D) 287
10. 6 : 15 : : 143 : ______ Sol. 248 : 1090 : : ______ : 1029
(A) 195 (B) 323 (C) 221 (D) 287 248 + 842 = 1090. (reverse and added)
Sol. 6 : 15 : : 143 : ______ Similarly,
2 × 3 : 3 × 5 : : 11 × 13 : 13 × 17 366 + 663 = 1029.
The given numbers can be written as the product of two Hence, the correct option is (A).
consecutive primes. 18. AXDKYO : AZLOUU :: KWHBRZ : ______
Hence, the correct option is (C). (A) KXXHLF (B) XYXHDE
(C) KYXFLF (D) KYXHLE
11. 3864 : 5098 : : 4994 : ______
(A) 6228 (B) 6246 (C) 6194 (D) 6286 Sol. A X D K Y O
Sol. 3864 + 1234
: 5068 : : 4994 + 1234
: ______ ×1 +2 ×3 +4 ×5 +6
4994 + 1234 = 6228. A Z L O U U
Similarly,
Hence, the correct option is (A).
K W H B R Z
12. 68 : 82 : : 97 : ______
(A) 130 (B) 146 (C) 113 (D) 156 ×1 +2 ×3 +4 ×5 +6
Sol. 68 : 82 : : 97 : ______ K Y X F L F
(6 + 8) = 14 and 68 + 14 = 82 Hence, the correct option is (C).
Similarly, 9 + 7 = 16 and 97 + 16 = 113. 19. MNATFY : ZIDQLX :: JRCDWK : ______
Hence, the correct option is (C). (A) HLMATJ (B) HMLBTJ
(C) HMLATJ (D) HMLAUJ
13. 672 : 687 : : 752 : ______
(A) 832 (B) 766 (C) 822 (D) 850 Sol. M N A T F Y
Sol. 672 : 687 : : 752 : ______ ×6 –5 ×4 –3 ×2 –1
672 + (6 + 7 + 2) = 687. Z I D Q L X
Similarly, 752 + (7 + 5 + 2) = 766. Similarly,
Hence, the correct option is (B). J R C D W K
14. 112 : 448 : : 241 : ______ ×6 –5 ×4 –3 ×2 –1
(A) 1500 (B) 1687 (C) 1568 (D) 1600 H M L A T J
Sol. 112 : 448 : : 241 : ______ Hence, the correct option is (C).
112 × (1 + 1 + 2) = 448. 20. JCTRE : OEUUI :: TYSEL : ______
Similarly, 241 × (2 + 4 + 1) = 1687. (A) UAUIO (B) UUUIO
Hence, the correct option is (B). (C) UAAIO (D) UAUOO
15. 49 : 169 : : ______ : 100 Sol. For each letter, the next vowel in English alphabet is
(A) 25 (B) 85 (C) 64 (D) 36 taken. The next vowels for J, C, T, R, and E are O, E, U,
U, I respectively. Similarly, the next vowels for T, Y, S,
Sol. 49 : 169 : : ______ : 100
E and L are U, A, U, I and O respectively.
(4 + 9)2 = 169.
\ U A U I O is the required term.
Similarly, (6 + 4)2 = 100.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (C).

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 Chapter 2  •  Analogies  |  1.161

21. MAP : KOYCNR :: YEN : ______ 23. Day : Night : : Spendthrift : ______
(A) WACGLP (B) XACGLP (A) Rich (B) Miser
(C) WADFMO (D) WACGMO (C) Poor (D) Pauper
Sol. M A P Sol. Day is opposite of night and miser is opposite of spend
–2 +2 –2 +2 –2 +2 thrift.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
K O CN R
24. Hand : Fingers : : Leg : ______
Similarly (A) Knuckles (B) Knee
Y E N (C) Toes (D) Heel
–2 +2 –2 +2 –2 +2 Sol. Hand has fingers and leg has toes.
W A C GL P Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 25. Kangaroo : Hopping : : Snake : ______
22. Nut : Shell : : Seed : ______ (A) Crawling
(A) Plant (B) Tree (B) Mongoose
(C) Fruit (D) Sapling (C) Poisonous
(D) Bite
Sol. Nut is found inside a shell and seed is found inside a
fruit. Sol. Kangaroo moves by hopping and snake moves by
crawling.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (A).

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 Chapter 3 Odd Man Out (Classification)
Hints/Solutions
Practice Problems I 12. In the groups the numerator is the opposite letter
Solutions for questions 1 to 25: and the denominator is the corresponding letter. This
B
1. 16, 36 and 64 are perfect squares but not 28. ­pattern is not followed in the group O .
L
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (D).
2. 37, 47 and 67 are prime numbers but not 27. 13. A×2B+2D, B+2D×2H, C+2E×2J, D+2F×2L. Except ABD, all
Hence, the correct option is (A). other groups form similar pattern.
3. 8 = 23, 27 = 33, 64 = 43, 125 = 53. 8, 27 and 125 are Hence, the correct option is (A).
cubes of prime numbers but not 64. 14. Each of the groups BCDE, FGHI and RSTU ends with
Hence, the correct option is (C). a vowel, but not WXYZ.
4. 42624, 37573 and 93339 are palindromes but not 84284. Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 15. D+2F×3R+2T×3H, A×2B+3E×2J+3M, N×2B+3E×2J+3M,
×2 +3 ×2 +3
D H K V Y. Except DFRTH, all other groups
5. 30 = 33 + 3, 630 = 54 + 5,
­follow similar pattern.
10 = 23 + 2, 520 = 83 + 8.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
30, 10 and 520 can be expressed as n3 + n but not 630.
16. Cat, Dog and Tiger are carnivores while elephant is a
Hence, the correct option is (B). herbivore.
6. 8 : 9 ⇒ 23 : 32 Hence, the correct option is (D).
64 : 81 ⇒ 43 : 34 17. Crocodile, Turtle and Allegator are amphibians, while
16 : 16 ⇒ 24 : 42 Chemeleon is a terristrial animal.
Except 25 : 25, all other pairs are in xy : yx pattern. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 18. Trivandrum, Hyderabad and Bangalore are state
3 3 ­capitals while calicut is not a state capital.
7. =
4 + 25 2 + 52
2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
7 7 19. Part, Cart and Dart are rhyming words, but Trap does
= not sound similarly.
36 + 64 6 + 82
2

Hence, the correct option is (B).

11 11
= 20. Star, Moon and Comet are natural celestial bodies,
49 + 169 7 + 132
2
while rocket is man made.
5 5
= Hence, the correct option is (A).
9 + 49 3 + 72
2
21. Skin, Tongue and Nose are sensory organs while leg is
7 a limb.
Except in , in all other fractions all the
6 + 82
2
Hence, the correct option is (C).
­numbers are prime numbers. 22. In Boxing, Chess and Wrestling only two people
Hence, the correct option is (B). ­compete at a time, while Baseball is played by more
45 than two people.
8. Except in 41 , in all other mixed numerals, all the
49 Hence, the correct option is (A).
numbers are prime numbers.
23. Walk, Talk and Drink are verbs, but not plank.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (D).
9. Except 4242, all other numbers are divisible by 11.
24. Ganga, Yamuna and Sutlez are rivers, while Nagarjuna
Hence, the correct option is (C). sagar is a dam.
10. 350 = 73 + 7, 30 = 33 + 3, 520 = 83 + 8 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Except 70, all other numbers can be expressed in n3 + n 25. The letters in the word are jumbled. The words are
form. WHEAT, RICE, JOWAR AND CEREALS. WHEAT,
Hence, the correct option is (B). RICE and JOWAR are different entities of the class
11. N, B and K are consonants, while O is a vowel. CEREALS.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (D).

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 Chapter 2  •  Odd Man Out (Classification)  |  1.163

Practice Problems 2 9. (A) 525  (B) 39  (C) 24  (D) 426

Solutions for questions 1 to 25: Sol. 5 25 ⇒ 5 52, 3 9 ⇒ 3 32, 2 4 ⇒ 2 22
1. (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 9 The above pattern is not followed in 426.
Sol. 3, 5 and 9 are odd numbers, but not 4. Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 10. (A) 1320 (B) 2190
2. (A) 36 (B) 49 (C) 64 (D) 81 (C) 2730 (D) 3360
Sol. 36 = 62, 49 = 72, 64 = 82, 81 = 92. 36, 64 and 81 are Sol. 1320 = 11 – 11;
3
2190 = 133 – 7
squares of composite numbers, but not 49. 2730 = 14 – 14; 3
3360 = 153 – 15
Hence, the correct option is (B). Except 2190, all other numbers can be expressed in
2 4 1 3 n3 – n form.
3. (A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
22 44 1 333 Hence, the correct option is (B).
2 1 3 11. (A) HUSF (B) GTTG
Sol. In each of the fractions, , and , the numera- (C) LOYB (D) PCKX
22 1 333
tor is written in the denominator as many times as its Sol. In each of the groups HUSF, GTTG and PCKX, the
4 first and the second letters form a corresponding pair
value. This pattern is not followed in .
44 of letters. Similarly, the third and the fourth letters
Hence, the correct option is (B). form a pair of corresponding letters. This pattern is not
4. (A) 41 (B) 43 (C) 45 (D) 47 ­followed in LOYB.
Sol. 41, 43 and 47 are prime numbers, but not 45. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 12. (A) OQMS (B) UAWY
5. (A) 30 (B) 27 (C) 36 (D) 45 (C) NPLR (D) BDZF
Sol. 27, 36 and 45 are divisible by 9, but not 30. Sol. O Q M S, U A W Y, N+2P–4L+6R, B+2D–4Z+6F.
+2 –4 +6 +6 –4 +2

Hence, the correct option is (A). Except UAWY, all other groups follow similar pattern.
6. (A) 248 (B) 303 (C) 390 (D) 473 Hence, the correct option is (B).
16 13. (A)  B d (B)  c f
Sol. 248 = 162 – , 303 = 182 – 21 (C)  P  (D) 
f
T m
2
20 22 Sol. In Bd, C f and P f, the place value of the exponent is twice
390 = 202 – , 473 = 222 –
2 11 the place value of the base. This pattern is not followed
Except 303, all other numbers follow similar pattern. in T m.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (D).
7. (A)  125 : 117 (B)  216 : 206 14. (A)  (ABC, ZOX) (B)  (NOP, MLK)
(C) (GHI, TUR) (D) (TUV, GHE)
(C)  343 : 333 (D)  512 : 504
Sol. Each answer choice consists of two groups of letters.
Sol. 125 : 117 ⇒ 125 – (1 + 2 + 5) = 117
The first letter of the two groups form an opposite pair,
343 : 333 ⇒ 343 – (3 + 4 + 3) = 333 similarly the third letter of the two groups form an
512 : 504 ⇒ 512 – (5 + 1 + 2) = 504 opposite pair. While the second letter of both the groups
The above pattern is not followed in 216 : 206. form a corresponding pair of letters. This pattern is fol-
lowed in all the pairs of groups, except (NOP, MLK).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
13 37
8. (A) 
(B)  15. (A) HRJ (B) LXL
4 10
(C) FPH (D) FRL
23 19

(C)  (D)  Sol. In each group, the difference between place values of
6 10 first two letters is equal to the place value of the third
13 13 37 37 letter i.e.,
Sol. = , =
4 1 + 3 10 3+7 8 ~ 18 = 10 12 ~ 24 = 12 6 ~ 18 = 12
19 19 H R J L X L F R L
=
10 1 + 9 23 The pattern followed by the above three groups is not
The above pattern is not followed in . followed by FPH.
6
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (C).

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 1.164  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

16. (A) Carrot (B) Potato 21. (A) Pray (B) Plead

(C) Beetroot (D) Cabbage (C) Beg (D) Order
Sol. All except Cabbage grows under soil. Sol. Pray, Plead and Beg are requests, but Order is not a
Hence, the correct option is (D). request.
17. (A) Cow (B) Horse Hence, the correct option is (D).
(C) Goat (D) Dog 22. (A) Sculptor (B) Blacksmith
Sol. Except dog, all the others are herbivorous animals. (C) Carpenter (D) Profession
Hence, the correct option is (D). Sol. All except Architect are manufacturers.
18. (A) Baseball (B) Boxing Hence, the correct option is (D).
(C) Chess (D) Wrestling 23. (A) Trapezium (B) Square
Sol. Boxing, Chess and Wrestling are individual events, (C) Triangle (D) Cube
while Baseball is a team event. Sol. All are two dimensional objects except cube.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (D).
19. (A) Enclose (B) Cover 24. (A) Daughter-in-law (B) Mother
(C) Close (D) Envelope (C) Sister (D) Daughter
Sol. Cover, Close and Enclose are verbs, white Envelope is Sol. All are blood relation except Daughter in-law
a noun. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 25. (A) Lungs (B) Eyes
20. (A)  Success – Failure (B)  Win – Lose (C) Fingers (D) Ears
(C)  Gain – Profit (D)  Spend – Earn Sol. All are organs of our body which are in pairs except
Sol. Success – Failure, Win – Lose and Spend – Earn are fingers.
pairs of antonyms, while Gain – Profit is a pair of Hence, the correct option is (C).
Synonyms.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

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 Chapter 4  Coding and Decoding
Hints/Solutions
Practice Problems 1 8. For each word, the square the number of letters in it is
Solutions for questions 1 to 12: given as its value.
1. Word : CIRCUMSTANCE The word MENTION has seven letters in it and 72
(= 49) is its code.
Pattern : Alternate letters are written as group.
NEUROTIC has eight letters in it and 82 (= 84) is its
Code : CRUSACICMTNE
code.
Similarly, the code for HAPPINES is HPIESAPNS.
Similarly, MARVELLOUS has ten letters in it and
Hence, the correct option is (D). 102 = (100) is its code.
2. Word : REGISTRATION Hence, the correct option is (D).
Pattern : The word is divided into two equal halves and 9. The number of letters in the given word is multiplied
the letters in each half are reversed. with a constant number 10 to get its value.
Code : T S I G E R N O I T A R C A B I N E T has 7 letters and 7 × 10 = 70
Similarly, the code for ACCURATE is UCCAETAR. B E A U T Y has 7 letters and 6 × 10 = 60
Hence, the correct option is (A). Similarly, PRODUCTION has 10 letters and 10 ×
3. Word : L I B E R A L 10 = 100.
Pattern : +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Code : M J C F S B M 10. I M P E N D ⇒ 9 + 13 + 16 + 5 + 14 + 4 = 61
Similarly, the code for REDUCTION is SFEVDUJPO. The sum of the place values of letters in the word is
Hence, the correct option is (B). given as its value.
4. Word : S T R U C T U R E D I S H ⇒ 4 + 9 + 19 + 8 = 40
Pattern : +1 +2 +3 +4 +5 +6 +7 +8 +9 Similarly, FRUIT ⇒ 6 + 18 + 21 + 9 + 20 = 74
Code : T V U Y H Z B Z N Hence, the correct option is (C).
Similarly, the code for REMEDY is SGPIIE. 11. B U G ⇒ 2 + 21 + 7 = 30 and 30 × 3 = 90
Hence, the correct option is (D). In this the sum of the place values is multiplied with the
number of letters in the word.
5. Word : S E A R C H
A L M S ⇒ 1 + 12 + 13 + 19 = 45 and 45 × 4 = 180
Pattern : The letters is the word are reversed and for
these letters their next letters are given as Similarly, C A D E T ⇒ 3 + 1 + 4 + 5 + 20 = 33 and
their codes. 33 × 5 = 165.
H C R A E S Hence, the correct option is (B).
+1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 12. I N F E R ⇒ 9 + 14 + 6 + 5 + 18 = 52
I D S B F T In this the reverse of the sum of the place values of the
letters in the word is given as its code.
Similarly, the code for FURNISH is ITJOSVG.
J E R S E Y ⇒ 10 + 5 + 18 + 19+ 5 + 25 = 82 and the
Hence, the correct option is (C).
code is 28
6. It is given that in the given code ‘two’ is called ‘three’
Similarly, C H O I C E ⇒ 3 + 8 + 15 + 9 + 3 + 5 = 43
i.e., code for two is three. Similarly code for three is
four and so on. \ The code is 34.
Now, one + Three is Four and as per given codes for Hence, the correct option is (A).
four is ‘one’. Solutions for questions 13 to 15:
Hence the value is one. The coding is done as follows.
Hence, the correct option is (D). Word : R O U T I N E
7. It is given that in the given code ’pink’ means ‘black’ Pattern : ×2 –2 ×2 –2 ×2 –2 ×2
i.e. the code for ‘black’ is ‘pink’, similarly the code for Code : J M P R R L J
‘white’ is black and so on.
Word : F I D E L I T Y
The colour that stands for peace is ‘white’ which is Pattern : ×2 –2 ×2 –2 ×2 –2 ×2 –2
coded as ‘black’. Code : L G H C X G N W
Hence, the correct option is (B).

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 1.166  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

13. The code for PREVAIL is FPJTBGX. Solutions for questions 21 to 25:
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Column I Column II
14. The code of LANGUAGE is XYBEPYNC.
(1) PRETEND 4396408
Hence, the correct option is (D).
(2) COMMON 615715
15. The code for TOBACCO is NMDYFAD.
(3) HOUSE 4*2&1
Hence, the correct option is (D).
(4) SUPPORT 3*21839
Solutions for questions 16 to 20: (5) DRUM 5*08

Column I Column II In the 1st word, the letter E is repeated and the code 4 is
(1) lit kit bit dit brpd repeated. Hence, the code for E is 4.
(2) fit git mit kit tdsv In the 4th word, the letter P is repeated and the code 3
(3) rit bit git tit xpvw repeated. Hence, the code for P is 3.
For the 2nd and the 3rd words the letter O and the code 1
(4) nit dit fit rit rsxj
are common. Hence the code for O is 1. From the 2nd word,
For the 1st and the 2nd statements, kit and the code d is now it can be concluded that the code for M is 5.
­common. Hence, the code for kit is d. For the 1st and the 2nd words, the letter N and the code 6
For the 2nd and the 3rd statements, git and the code v are are common. Hence, the code for N is 6.
common. Hence, the code for git is v. In the 2nd word, the letter C and the code 7 are left. Hence,
For the 3rd and the 4th statements, rit and the code x are the code for C is 7.
common. Hence, the code for rit is x. Similarly, the letters and their corresponding codes can
Similarly, the letters and their corresponding codes can be determined.
be determined. Letter E P O M N C U S R H T D
Word kit git rit bit tit fit mit Dit lit Nit Code 4 3 1 5 6 7 * 2 8 & 9 0
Code d v x p w s t r b J
21. The code for PROTECT is 3819479.
16. The code for lit is b. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 22. The code for HORMONE is &185164.
17. w is the code for tit. Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 23. The code for EMPEROR is 4534818.
18. The code for rit is x. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 24. The code for DETHRONE is 049&8164.
19. j is code for nit. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 25. The code for COMPOUND IS 71531*60.
20. The code for kit is d. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (D).

Practice Problems 2 The letters in the prime numbered positions are

Solutions for questions 1 to 25: arranged first followed by the remaining letters.
1. In a certain code language, if the word HYPERBOLA Similarly, the code for SENTIMENT is ENIESTMNT.
is coded as YPROHEBLA, then how is the word Hence, the correct option is (C).
SENTIMENT coded in that language?
2. In a certain code language, if the word DECORATE
(A) ENEISTMNT (B) ENIESMTNT
is coded as EDOCARET, then how is the word
(C) ENIESTMNT (D) ENIESTNTM
HYGROMETER coded in that language?
Sol. 1 2 3 4  5 6  7  8  9 (A) YHRMGOTERE (B) YHRGMTOERE
Word : H Y P E R B O L A (C) YHRGMOTERE (D) YHRGMOTREE
Sol. Word : D E C O R A T E
Code : Y P R O H E B L A
Pattern : Pair of letters reversed.
2 3  5  7 1 4  6  8  9
Code : E D O C A R E T

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 Chapter 4  •  Coding and Decoding  |  1.167

Similarly, the code for HYGROMETER is ol. Word : M

S I R A G E
YHRGMOTERE. Pattern : ×2 ×2 ×2 ×2 ×2 ×2
Hence, the correct option is (C). Code : Z R J B N J
3. In a certain code language, if the word CUSTOMER Similarly, the code for INTRUDE is RBNJPHJ.
is coded as RCEUMSOT, then how is the word
Hence, the correct option is (C).
IMMACULATE coded in that language?
(A) EITMMALAUC 7. In a certain code language, if the word GROUND is
(B) EITMAMLAUC coded as HPRQSX, then what is coded as NOURISH?
(C) ETEMAMALUC (A) OMXNNMO (B) MQRVDYA
(D) EITMMALUAC (C) MQRTFXA (D) OMVNMNO
Sol. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 Sol. Word : G R O U N D
Word : C U S T O M E R Pattern : +1 –2 +3 –4 +5 –6
Code : R C E U M S O T Code : H P R Q S X,
8 1 7 2 6 3 5 4 similarly
The letters in the word are rearranged as indicated N O U R I S H
above.
–1 +2 –3 +4 –5 +6 –7
Similarly, the code for IMMACULATE is
EITMAMLAUC. M Q R V D Y A
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (B).
4. In a certain code language, if the word MAJESTY 8. In a certain code language if the word SPLENDOR is
is coded as NZKDTSZ, then which word is coded as coded as UFNJPHQJ, then how is the word DISASTER
HKJLQRF in that language? coded in that language?
(A) GLORIFY (B) GLISTEN (A) FRUBUNGJ (B) HRUDNPJL
(C) GLOWING (D) GLIMPSE (C) FRUBNPLH (D) HRDLJNLJ
Sol. Word : M A J E S T Y Sol. Word : S P L E N D O R
Pattern : +1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1 Pattern : +2 ×2 +2 ×2 +2 ×2 +2 ×2
Code : N Z K D T S Z Code : U F N J P H Q J
The word which is coded as Similarly, the code for DISASTER is FRUBUNGJ.
H K J L Q R F is Hence, the correct option is (A).
–1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 9. In a certain code language, if the word CERTIFY is
coded as BURGIVX, then how is the word ADJACENT
G L I M P S E
coded in that language?
Hence, the correct option is (D). (A) ZWQZXVMG (B) GMVXZQWZ
5. In a certain code language if the word IMPORT is (C) RMVWYJWH (D) GMXVWRVZ
coded as KPUVCG, then what is coded as MISCHIEF? Sol. Word : C E R T I F Y
(A) KFNVWVNM (B) OLXYJSVVY
Pattern : The letters in the word are reversed and then
(C) OLXIRVWY (D) KFNWVWNM
their opposite pairs are given as their codes.
Sol. Word : I M P O R T
Code : B U R G I V X
Pattern : +2 +3 +5 +7 +11 +13
Similarly, the code for ADJACENT is GMVXZQWZ.
Code : K P U V C G, Hence, the correct option is (B).
similarly 10. In a certain code language, if the word PLATINUM
M I S C H I E F is coded as AIUPLTNM, then how is the word
–2 –3 –5 –7 –11 –13 –17 –19 ADVENTURE coded in that language?
K F N V W V N M (A) AEEUDNRTV (B) ADEENRTUV
(C) AEUEDNTVR (D) AEUEDVNTR
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Sol. Word : P L A T I N U M
6. In a certain code language if the word MIRAGE is
coded as ZRJBNJ, then how is the word INTRUDE Pattern : In the word the vowels are taken first in
coded in that language? the same order as they are in the word followed by
(A) RBPHNJL (B) RDPIPAJ consonants.
(C) RBNJPHJ (D) RBJLPHJ Code : A I U P L T N M

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Similarly, the code for ADVENTURE is AEUEDVNTR. ol. The code for M O T I V E is M1 E3 J2 C3 K2 E1.
S
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (B).
Solutions for questions 11 to 15: 15. MINUTE
The word INDUSTRY is coded as C3 G2 B2 C7 S1 D5 F3 E5 (A) M1H1N1S2J2E1 (B) M1C3G2G3E4E1
and the word CREDIT is coded as C1 F3 E1 B2 C3 D5. (C) M1C3G2K2D5E1 (D) M1H1G2S2D5E2
The coding is alone as follows. Sol. The code for M I N U T E is M1 C3 G2 G3 E4 E1.
I N D U S T R Y Hence, the correct option is (B).
C3 G2 B2 C7 S1 D5 F3 E5
Here I = 9 and C3 ⇒ C = 3 and 3 × 3 = 9 = I. Solutions for questions 16 to 20:
N = 14 and G2 ⇒ G = 7 and 7 × 2 = 14 = N.
Column I Column II
D = 4 and B2 ⇒ B = 2 and 2 × 2 = 4 = D and so on.
1. All people are not poet kak cac hah tat zaz
11. SANSKRIT
2. Great people are happy tat dad faf zaz
(A) S1A1D3S1K1F3D3E5 (B) S1A1D3S1K1F2C3D5
(C) S A G S I C H D (D) S AGSKCCE 3. Krishna is a god nan gag rar mam
1 2 2 1 2 6 1 5 1 1 2 1 1 6 3 4

Sol. The code for S A N S K R I T is S1 A1 G2 S1 K1 C6 C3 E4. 4. Tagore is a great poet mam kak dad nan lal

Hence, the correct option is (D). 5. God make people happy tat gag faf sas

12. BRIGHT 6. No person is happy xax pap faf mam

(A) B2C6C3E2B4D4 (B) A2F3C3G1H2D5
(C) A2F3C3G1D2J2 (D) A2F3C3E2H1E4 Comparing (4) and (6) ‘is’ is common in both and the code
‘mam’ is common, so, ‘mam’ is the code for ‘is’.
Sol. The code for B R I G H T is A2 F3 C3 G1 D2 J2.
Now, comparing (5) and (6) in the same way we get the
Hence, the correct option is (C). code for ‘happy’, i.e., ‘faf’.
13. INVENTOR Comparing (2) and (5) we get the code for ‘people’,
(A) C3G2T2E1L2D5C5FE (B) C3G2K2E1L2D5E5C5 i.e., ‘tat’.
(C) C3G2K2E1G2J2C5I2 (D) C3G2T2E1G2D5C5I3 From (2) and (4) we get the code for ‘great’, i.e., ‘dad’.
Sol. The code for I N V E N T O R is C3 G2 K2 E1 G2 J2 C5 I2 Now in (2) only one word is there, for which the code
is unknown, so the remaining code, ‘zaz’ must be the code
Hence, the correct option is (C).
for ‘are’.
14. MOTIVE
(A) M1C5D4C3K2E1 (B) M1E3J2C3K2E1
(C) M1E4D5C3T2E1 (D) M1E4J2C4K2E2

In the same way we will get the codes for the other words also. The codes and the words are written in the following
table.
word great poet happy is people are A Tagore God Krishna make No, person all, not
code dad kak faf mam tat zaz Nan Lal Gag rar sas pap, xax cac, hah

16. What is the code for the word ‘Tagore’ in that language? (A) mam gag nan cac
(A) kak (B) dad (B) pap gag nan mam tat
(C) lal (D) nan (C) lal mam gag cac tat
Sol. ‘lal’ is the code for the word ‘Tagore’. (D) xax mam gag nan pap
Hence, the correct option is (C). Sol. Code for “No god is a person” is ‘xax mam gag nan pap’.
17. What is the code for the word ‘not’ in that language? Hence, the correct option is (D).
(A) cac 19. Which of the following can be the code for ‘Tagore
(B) hah make great paintings’ in that language?
(C) tat (A) dad sas lal cac (B) lal kak zaz waw
(D) Cannot be determined (C) qaq lal gag sas (D) lal dad sas vav
Sol. ‘cac’ or ‘hah’ is the code for the word ‘not’. Sol. ‘lal dad sas’ is the code for “Tagore make great”.
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, from the given options Choice (D) can be the
code for “Tagore make great paintings”.
18. What is the code for ‘No god is a person’ in that
language? Hence, the correct option is (D).

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20. If the code for ‘Mahima is not a person’ is ‘nan xax In the similar way, we can find out the codes for the other
mam yay cac’, then what is the code for ‘Mahima make words also.
all people happy’? The codes for the respective words are given in the
(A) xax yah cac tat sas (B) faf yay sas cac tat ­following table.
(C) hah yay faf tat sas (D) tat xax yay tat sas
Word I do not cheat the gold am last Manav
Sol. Now by comparing the given word and the code with
Code 7 1 # 2 6 9 3 p 8
the known codes,
Mahima – yay
win,
not – cac loose person silver is, a
medal
person – xax % 4 q 5, * @, Y
all – hah
21. What is the code for ‘cheat’?
no – pap
(A) 7 (B) 1 (C) # (D) 2
\ The code for “Mahima make all people happy” is
Sol. ‘2’ is the code for ‘cheat’.
‘hah yay faf tat sas’.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (C).
22. What is the code for ‘gold’?
Solutions for questions 21 to 25: (A) 9 (B) @ (C) 7 (D) Y
Column I Column II Sol. Code for ‘gold’ is ‘9’.
(1) I do not cheat 1#27 Hence, the correct option is (A).
(2) I win the gold medal 9@76Y 23. Which word is coded as q?
(3) I am not the last 376p# (A) person (B) win (C) silver (D) medal
(4) Manav do not loose 18#% Sol. q is the code for ‘silver’.
Last person win the silver Hence, the correct option is (C).
(5) 4p6q@Y
medal 24. What is the code for ‘Manav is a cheat’?
(6) Manane is a person 458* (A) * 8 # 5 (B) 4 8 5 2 (C) 5 * 8 2 (D) 5 9 4 2
Comparing (1) and (2), we found that there is only one Sol. Code for ‘Manav is a cheat’ is ‘5 * 8 2’.
­common word ‘I’ and in the code ‘7’. Hence, the correct option is (C).
\ ‘7’ is the code for ‘I’. 25. What can be the code for ‘I loose the gold medal’?
In the same way (A) 7 9 @ % 6 (B) 6 8 9 y %
From (1) and (3) we get the code for ‘not’, i.e., #. (C) 7 9 5 % 6 (D) y 6 9 7 @
Now from (1) and (4), we get ‘do’ and ‘not’ common in
both the sentences, but as we know the code for ‘not’, we Sol. Code for “I loose the gold medal” can be 7 9 @ % 6.
can find out the code for ‘do’, i.e., ‘1’. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Now in (1) for the remaining word ‘cheat’ the code must
be ‘2’.

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 Chapter 5  Blood Relations
Hints/Solutions
Practice Problems 1 10. My mother’s sister’s son’s father is my mother’s sister’s
Solutions for questions 1 to 15: husband i.e., my mother’s brother-in-law. My mother’s
brother-in-law’s mother-in-law is my mother’s mother
Note: For all the diagram  represent males and  i.e., my grandmother.
­represent females
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1. My son’s sister is my daughter. My daughter’s husband
11. David’s father’s only daughter-in-law is David’s wife.
is my son-in-law.
David’s wife’s son is David’s son. David’s son’s wife is
Hence, the correct option is (B). David’s daughter-in-law.
2. X’s brother’s wife’s father-in-law is X’s brother’s father Hence, the correct option is (B).
i.e. X’s father. X’s father’s daughter is X’s sister.
12. Ravi’s mother’s father’s son is Ravi’s mother’s brother
Hence, the correct option is (C). i.e. Ravi’s uncle. Ravi’s uncle is Ravi’s father’s
3. P’s mother’s mother’s son is P’s uncle. P’s uncle’s brother-in-law.
daughter is P’s cousin. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 13. Divya’s father’s father’s only sibling is Divya’s father’s
4. My father’s mother’s only daughter-in-law is my father’s uncle/aunt. The brother of Divya’s father’s uncle/aunt is
wife i.e., my mother. My mother’s sister is my aunt. Divya’s father’s father i.e., Divya’s grandfather.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (D).
5. My grandmother’s only child is my mother. My 14. He is the father of Rinku’s Sister’s son means he is
Mother’s husband is my father. My father’s mother is Rinku’s Sister’s husband.
my grandmother. He is also Tinku’s mother’s husband means Tinku’s
Hence, the correct option is (B). mother is Rinku’s sister.
6. Ramu’s mother-in-law’s only daughter is Ramu’s wife. Now, Tinku’s father is Rinku’s brother-in-law.
Ramu’s wife son is Ramu’s son. That is Tinku’s father is Rinku’s mother’s son-in-law.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (C).
7. My son’s son’s mother is my son’s wife. My son’s wife’s 15. A is B’s father and B is C’s daughter means A is C’s
daughter is my granddaughter. husband and B is their daughter.
Hence, the correct option is (B). C is D’s only daughter and E is D’s only sibling means
8. My father’s brother’s only sibling is my father. My C is E’s only niece.
father’s mother is my grand mother. B is the daughter of C (E’s niece).
Hence, the correct option is (D). sibling
9. C is the son of D and E is the brother of C means C and D E
E are both son’s of D. It is also given that D is the sister daughter
of B means E is the nephew of B. A
C
But it is not given that B is either male or female.
father daughter
Therefore, B can be either aunt or uncle of E.
B
A
Hence, the correct option is (C).
father
Solutions for questions 16 to 20:
sister
B D 16. (1) P - R + Q means P is the sister of R, R is the
son mother of Q. P is the aunt of Q.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
C E 17. (1) T × M + S means T is the father of M and M is the
brother
mother of S. That is T’s daughter is S’s mother but
Hence, the correct option is (D). S can be male or female.

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(2) T × M + S = N means T is the father of M, M is the Solutions for questions 21 to 25:

mother of S and S is the brother of N. Given that A is the mother of B and B is the husband of D.
Therefore S is the son of T’s daughter. Therefore, D is the daughter-in-law of A. Also given that C
is the son of D and F is the brother of one of the parents of
Hence, the correct option is (B).
C. Hence F is the brother of either B or D. But given that D
18. (1) W × A - B + Z means W is the father of A, A is the has no siblings, F is the brother of B.
­sister of B and B is the mother of Z. Therefore W And D is the daughter-in-law of E means E is the ­husband
is the grandfather of Z. of A. The given data is represented as follows.
(2) W = A + B - Z means W is the brother of A, A is husband
the mother of B and B is the sister of Z. Therefore, A E
W is the uncle of Z.
mother
Hence, the correct option is (B).
husband
19. (1) C × A ÷ D - E means C is the father of A, A is the F B D
brother
son of D and D is the sister of E.
son
(2) C + A + D ≠ E means C is the mother of A. A is the
mother of D and D is the daughter of E. Therefore,
C
C is the grand father for D but not E.
(3) C ÷ A ≠ D = E means C is the son of A, A is the 21. C is the grandson of A.
daughter of D and D is the brother of E. Here D is Hence, the correct option is (C).
the grand father of C. 22. F is the brother-in-law of D.
(4) C × A × D - E means C is the father of A, A is the Hence, the correct option is (B).
father of D and D is the sister of E. Therefore, C is
23. E is the father of F.
the grand father of both D and E.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (D).
24. G will be the sister-in-law of B.
20. (1) I + B - C ≠ D × L means I is the mother of B, B is
the sister of C, C is the daughter of D and D is the Hence, the correct option is (B).
father of L. Therefore, B, C and L are children of I 25. E, F, B and C are males.
and D, where I is the mother. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (A).

Practice Problems 2 (A) Son

(B) Nephew
Solutions for questions 1 to 10:
(C) Brother
1. My father’s brother’s only sibling’s father-in-law is my
(D) Cannot be determined
mother’s
(A) Uncle (B) Father Sol. My sister’s daughter’s grand mother may be my mother
(C) Cousin (D) Father-in-law or my sister’s mother-in-law. But she has only child.
Sol. My father’s brother’s only sibling is my father, whose Thus she cannot be our mother. She is my sister’s
father-in-law is the father of my mother. mother-in-law whose only child is my sister’s husband
and his only son is my nephew.
father
mother

brother
mother father
husband
Only sibling me sister

me
daughter Son
Hence, the correct option is (B).
2. My sister’s daughter’s grand mother’s only child’s only
Hence, the correct option is (B).
son is my

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 1.172  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

3. Madhuri’s daughter is playing caroms with the son (A) Cousin (B) Sister
of daughter-in-law of Krishna’s father. How Madhuri (C) Aunt (D) Mother
related to Krishna? ol. Ravi’s mother’s brother’s father is Ravi’s mother’s father
S
(A) Sister i.e. Ravi’s maternal grand-father. His only daughter is
(B) Cousin Ravi’s mother, whose daughter is Ravi’s sister.
(C) Wife
Hence, the correct option is (B).
(D) Cannot be determined
8. Pointing at a photograph Shyam told Ram, ‘She is the
Sol. The relation between Maduri and Krishna, is not
mother-in-law of your father’s wife and is my maternal
­mentioned. Hence, the relation cannot be determined.
grandmother’. How is Ram related to Shyam?
Hence, the correct option is (D). (A) Brother (B) Uncle
4. How is my mother’s father’s father-in-law’s son’s (C) Cousin (D) Father
daughter related to my mother? Sol. Ravi’s father’s wife is Ravi’s mother. Her mother-in-
(A) Sister law is Ravi’s father’s mother i.e. Ravi’s Paternal grand
(B) Sister-in-law mother. Ravi’s paternal grand mother is also Shyam’s
(C) Cousin maternal grand mother i.e., Ravi’s father and Shyam’s
(D) Cannot be determined mother are siblings. Hence, Ram is Shyam’s cousin.
Sol. My mother’s father’s father-in-law is the maternal Hence, the correct option is (C).
grand father of my mother whose son is my m ­ other’s 9. My father’s only sibling’s mother’s son-in-law’s son’s
maternal uncle and his daughter is my mother’s mother is my
cousin. (A) Sister (B) Sister-in-law
Hence, the correct option is (C). (C) Cousin (D) Aunt
5. My father is the brother-in-law of Usha’s husband, who Sol. My father’s only sibling is my aunt/uncle, whose ­mother’s
is the only child of Kousalya. How is Kousalya’s grand son-in-law is my father’s mother’s sister’s ­ husband.
daughter related to my sister? Hence, my father’s only sibling is his sister. Her husbands
(A) Sister (B) Aunt son’s mother is my father’s sister only, who is my aunt.
(C) Cousin (D) Grand mother Hence, the correct option is (D).
Sol. Usha’s husband is the only child of Kousalya. Hence, 10. Charan’s father’s father-in-law’s son’s only sister’s son
his brother-in-law will be Usha’s brother who is my is Bhavan. How is Bhavan related to Charan?
father. Thus Usha is my aunt. Kausalya’s grand daugh- (A) Son (B) Brother
ter is Usha’s daughter. Hence, she is the cousin of my (C) Uncle (D) Father
sister.
Sol. Charan’s father’s father-in-law is Charan’s maternal
Hence, the correct option is (C). grandfather, whose son’s only sister is Charan’s mother.
6. How is my mother’s brother’s wife’s son related to my Her son Bhavan is Charan’s brother.
brother’s father’s father-in-law? Hence, the correct option is (B).
(A) Grandson (B) Nephew
(C) Granddaughter (D) Son Solutions for questions 11 to 15:
P → Q means P is the husband of Q
Sol. My mother’s brother’s wife’s son is my maternal
P $ Q means P is the father of Q.
uncle’s son. My father’s father-in-law is father of my
P £ Q means P is the mother of Q.
maternal uncle, whose son is grandson of my father’s
P @ Q means P is the brother of Q.
father-in-law.
P 8 Q means P is the sister of Q.
Father P Δ Q means P is the son of Q.
P ⇒ Q means P is the daughter of Q.
P ↓ Q means P is the wife of Q.
Father Mother brother Wife
11. If A Δ B £ C $ D, then A is the ______ of D.
(A) father (B) uncle
Spouse (C) brother (D) son
Sol. A Δ B £ C $ D means A is the son of B, B is the mother
brother Me Son
of C and C is the father of D.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Here A and C are brothers, where C is the father of D.
7. How is Ravi’s mother’s brother’s father’s only daugh- \ A is the uncle of D.
ter’s daughter related to Ravi? Hence, the correct option is (B).

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 Chapter 5  •  Blood Relations  |  1.173

12. E @ F ↓ G $ H means Solutions for questions 16 to 20:

(A) H is the niece of E. Given that Helen is the daughter of Bob and Bob is the
(B) H is the nephew of E. brother of George. Also Diana is the only child of George
(C) E is the paternal uncle of H. and is the mother of Charles. Emma is the wife of Bob.
(D) Either (A) or (B) brother Wife
Sol. E @ F ↓ G $ H means E is the brother of F, F is the wife George Bob Emma
of G and G is the father of H. daughter
daughter
Here, H is the child of F and G and E is the brother of
F. Therefore, E is the maternal uncle of H.
Diana Helen
But, H can be either niece or nephew of E.
Hence, the correct option is (D). mother
13. I $ J ⇒ K ⇒ L ↓ M means
Charles
(A) I is the son of M.
(B) I is the nephew of M. Also given that Amelie is the grandmother of Charles and is
(C) M is the father-in-law of I. the mother-in-law of Floyd.
(D) I is the son-in-law of M. \ Floyd should be the husband of Diana and Amelie
Sol. I $ J ⇒ K ⇒ L ­ M means I is the father of J, J is the should be the wife of George.
daughter of K, K is the daughter of L and L is the (Names are represented by their corresponding first
­husband of M. letters)
wife brother Wife
J is the daughter of I and K and K is the daughter of L A G B E
and M. Therefore, I is the son-in-law of M.
daughter daughter
Hence, the correct option is (D).
14. If P 8 Q Δ R @ S and T ↓ S, then which among the F D H
following is a true statement? wife
(A) S is the aunt of P. mother
(B) Q is the niece of S.
C
(C) S is the father of P and Q.
(D) P is the niece of S. 16. How is George related to Helen?
Sol. P || Q Δ R @ S means P is the sister of Q, Q is the son (A) Uncle (B) Father
of R, R is the brother of S. (C) Brother (D) Cousin
Here S is either aunt/uncle of both P and Q. Sol. George is the uncle of Helen.
T↓ S means T is the wife of S i.e. S is the uncle of both Hence, the correct option is (A).
P and Q. 17. How is Helen related to Diana?
P is the niece of S and Q is the nephew of S. (A) Sister (B) Daughter
Hence, the correct option is (D). (C) Cousin (D) Mother
15. If W ⇒ X Δ Y £ Z, then which among the following is Sol. Helen is the cousin of Diana.
definitely true? Hence, the correct option is (C).
(A) Z is the uncle of W. 18. Diana’s mother is
(B) W is the niece of Z. (A) Emma (B) Amelie
(C) W is the daughter of Z. (C) Helen (D) Floyd
(D) W is the son of Z.
Sol. Amelie is Diana;s mother.
Sol. W ⇒ × Δ Y £ Z means W is the daughter of X, X is the
son of Y and Y is the mother of Z. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Here, W is the niece of Z but Z can be either aunt or 19. Who is the father of Floyd?
uncle of W. (A) George (B) Bob
(C) None of these (D) Data insufficient
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Sol. Nothing can be said about Floyd’s father.
A family of eight persons has three married couples. Amelie
Hence, the correct option is (D).
is the grandmother of Charles and is the mother-in-law of
Floyd. Helen is the daughter of Bob, who is the brother of 20. How is Charles father related to George’s daughter?
George. Diana is the only child of George and is the mother (A) Son (B) Uncle
of Charles. Emma is the wife of Bob. (C) Husband (D) Father-in-law

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 1.174  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

Sol. Charle’s father is Floyd and George’s daughter is Diana. But R can be the son of either M or N.
Flyod is the husband of Diana. R can be either brother or cousin of T.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (D).
In a family of three generations, there are eight members, 22. How is Q related to S?
M and N are brothers. R is the grandson of Q. T is the only (A) Grandfather (B) Uncle
niece of M, P is the sister-in-law of N. O is the m
­ other-in-law (C) Father-in-law (D) Father
of S. There are three married couples in the family. T is the Sol. Q is the father-in-law of S.
daughter of S.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Solutions for questions 21 to 25: 23. How is P related to O?
Given M and N are brothers, T is the only niece of M and P (A) Aunt (B) Mother
is the sister-in-law of N. (C) Daughter-in-law (D) Mother-in-law
wife brother Sol. P is the daughter-in-law of O.
P M N
Hence, the correct option is (C).
daughter 24. How is O related to R?
(A) Uncle
T (B) Grandmother
(C) Aunt
(As there are three married couples, it is the only relation (D) Grandfather
possible).
Sol. O is the grandmother of R.
21. How is R related to T?
(A) Cousin (B) Uncle Hence, the correct option is (B).
(C) Brother (D) Cannot be determined 25. In the family the ratio of number of male members to
Sol. Also given T is the daughter of S, O is the mother-in- that of female members
law of S and R is the grandson of Q. The relation is (A) 3 : 5 (B) 5 : 3
given below. (C) 1 : 1 (D) 3 : 1
Sol. O, P, S and T are females and M, N, Q and R are males.
wife
Q O Hence, the correct option is (C).
son

wife brother Wife

P M N S

daughter

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 Chapter 6 Venn Diagrams
Hints/Solutions
Practice Problems 1 Solutions for questions 6 to 10:
As per the given data, we get the following diagram.
Solutions for questions 1 to 5:
Total = 95
Let x, y, z be the unknown quantities in the figure.

P Q F = 50 C → Cricket
C = 40
a 10 b
F → Foot ball
240 20 z
10 n = None
x 30
y
n → those who play neither of the games.
R
C = a + b = 40 ⇒ a = 30
F = b + 10 = 50 ⇒ b = 40
Total students in P = 300
a + b + n + 10 = 95 ⇒ n = 15
⇒ 240 + 20 + 10 + x = 300.⇒ x = 30
The final diagram is as follows.
Total students in Q = 420
C = 40 F = 50
⇒ 20 + 10 + 30 + z = 420 ⇒ z = 360
Total students in R = 490 30 10 40
⇒ 10 + 30 + x + y = 490
⇒ y = 490 –10 – 30 – 30 = 420
n = 15
1. Number of students who are part of only community R
gives by the region within R which is not common to Q 6. The number of students who play only football =
or R = y = 420. b = 40.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (C).
2. Number of students who are not part of any community 7. The number of students who play at least one game
= m – (P ∪ Q ∪ R) = a + b + r = 40 + 30 + 10 = 80.
= 1500 – (240 + 360 + 420 +10 +20 +30 +30) Hence, the correct option is (A).
= 1500 – 1110 = 390 8. The number of students who play only cricket = a = 30.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (A).
3. Number of students who are part of at least two 9. The number of students who play exactly one game
communities = only cricket (a) + only football (b) = 30 + 40 = 70.
= Number of students part of two communities students Hence, the correct option is (C).
part of all three communities
10. The number of students who play neither football nor
= 20 + 30 + 30 + 10 = 90 cricket = n = 15.
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (B).
4. Number of students who are part of at least one
­community = P ∪ Q ∪ R Solutions for questions 11 to 15:
The given data can be represented in the following Venn
= 240 + 360 + 420 + 10 + 20 + 30 + 30 = 1110. diagram.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
GT
5. Number of students who are part of exactly two com-
munities = (only P ∩ Q + only Q ∩ R + only P ∩ R) = E = 37% I = 47%
E → EAMCET
20 + 30 + 30 = 80 a d b
I → IIT-JEE
Hence, the correct option is (B).
f r e A → AIEEE
c n

A = 50%

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 1.176  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

It is given that, 11% of the students write both E and I. 15. The ratio of the number of students who write only
AIEEE to that of who wrote only IIT-JEE
⇒ d + r = 11%(1)
=c:b
11% of the students write both E and A.
= 27 : 24 = 9 : 8.
⇒ f + r = 11%(2) Hence, the correct option is (D).
15% of the students write both I and A. Solutions for questions 16 to 20:
⇒ e + r = 15%(3)
S = 35 B = 45
15 student writes all the three exams.
a d b S → Sports
⇒ r = 15 (4)
r=3 B → Business
Each student writes at least one of the three exams. f e
c n
⇒ n = 0. CA → Current affairs

Let us take GT = 100%. = T + n CA = 15

\ T = 100%.
⇒ 14 books are on at least two of the subjects.
E + I + A = T + (d + r) + (e + r) + (f + r) – r
⇒ d + e + f + r = 14
37% + 47% + 50% = 100% + 11% + 15% + 11% – r
⇒ d + e + f = 11
\ r = 3% of GT =1 5. From the above figure
\ 3% of GT = 15, we can calculate all other values. 35 + 45 + 15 = a + b + c + 2(d + e + f) + 3r
From the above values we get the following diagram. ⇒ a + b + c = 95 – 22 – 9 = 64.
GT = 100% 16. The number of books on only one subject = a + b +
c = 64.
E = 37% I = 47%
Hence, the correct option is (B).
18% 8% 24%
17. The total number of books in the library
3%
8% 12% =d+e+f+a+b+c+r
27% = 11 + 64 + 3 = 78.
A = 50% Hence, the correct option is (A).
18. Total number of books on exactly two subjects
15
11. The number of students who write the exams = × = d + e + f = 11.
100 = 500. 3
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (C).
19. At most two subjects = (a + b + c) + (d + e + f)
12. The number of students who write exactly two exams =
= 64 + 11 = 75
d + e + f = (8% + 8% + 12%) of 500
28 Hence, the correct option is (D).
= × 500 = 140
100 20. The number of books on only sports = a = 26.
Hence, the correct option is (C). We know that a + d + r + f = 35
13. Required percentage is ⇒ 26 + d + r + f = 35
a 18 2 ⇒ d + f = 6
= × 100 = × 100 = 66 %
c 27 3 Also, we know that
Hence, the correct option is (B).
d + e + f = 11
14. The number of students who write exactly one exam =
⇒ e = 11 – 6 = 5
a + b + c = (18% + 24% + 27%) of 500
69 \ Number of books on both business and current
= × 500 = 345. affairs but not sports = 5.
100
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (A).

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 Chapter 6  •  Venn Diagrams  |  1.177

Solutions for questions 21 to 25: 23. The ten people referred to, are initially not using
*Motorola. Hence, the ten who stop using Nokia
N S are either from region ‘a’ in the diagram or from the
a d b region ‘d’.
N → Nokia If the ten people from ‘a’ i.e.; only Nokia, stop using
r=8 Nokia and start using Motorola, they go to region ‘c’,
f e
S → Sony Ericsson
i.e., only Motorola. Hence, those using exactly two
c brands, i.e., (d + e + f  ) remains unchanged.
M → Motorola
N
If the ten people from region ‘d’, i.e. only Nokia
M and Sony Ericsson, stop using Nokia and start using
Motorola, then the value of ‘e’, i.e. those using only
From the given data let us draw the following diagram.
Motorola and Sony Ericsson increases by ten. Hence,
Given that, 70 people use only one brand. (d + e + f  ) remains unchanged.
⇒ a + b + c = 70 (5) = d + e + f + 10 = 47 + 10 = 57.
47 people use exactly two brands. Hence, the correct option is (A).
⇒ d + e + f = 47 (6) 24. The ratio of the number of people who use exactly one
Each person uses at least one of the three brands. brand to that of people using at least one brand.
⇒ n = 0 = (a + b + c) : (a + b + c + d + e + f + r)
= 70 : 70 + 47 + 8 = 70 : 125 = 14 : 25
21. The total number of people in the colony
Hence, the correct option is (A).
=a+b+c+d+e+f+r
25. Number of people who do not use all the three brands =
= 70 + 47 + 8 = 125 total – people using all the three brands.
Hence, the correct option is (D). = 125 – 8 = 117.
22. The number of people who are using at least two Hence, the correct option is (B).
brands.
= d + e + f + r = 47 + 8 = 55
Hence, the correct option is (B).

Practice Problems 2 Further,

(i) The number of boys in the class is 40 more than the
The following table gives the statistics of 180 students in a
number of girls.
class in which each plays either carroms or chess or both.
Due to some problem while entering the data, some vital Let the number of girls be x.
information is lost. The following table shows the remain- ⇒ x + x + 40 = 180
ing data. ⇒ x = 70
⇒ The number of boys is 110 and the number of girls
Carroms Chess Both Total is 70.
Boys 70 (ii) The number of students playing both the games
Girls 200
= % of 180 = 40
Total 110 180 9
(iii) None of the girls play both the games.
The Information available is:
As per the available data, we get the following Venn
(i) The number of boys in the class is 40 more than the
diagrams.
number of girls.
(ii) 222/9% of the total number of students play both the Boys = 110 Girls = 70
games. Chess Carroms Chess Carroms
(iii) None of the girls plays both the games.
40 40 30 30 40
Solutions for questions 1 to 5:
Given that the total number of students = 180

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 1.178  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

Now we can complete the table as shown below. ⇒ The number of people who come for swimming and
85
Carroms Chess Both Total aerobics = × 7 = 35
17
Boys 70 80 40 110
For every 13 people who come for aerobics, there are 9
Girls 40 30 0 70 who come for tennis and swimming.
Total 110 110 40 180 The number of people who come for tennis and
65
­swimming = × 9 = 45
1. How many girls play only chess? 13
(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 17 (D) 18 The number of people who come for tennis, swimming
Sol. The number of girls who play only chess = 30. and aerobics = 20
Hence, the correct option is (B). The number of people who do not come for any of these
activities = 15
2. How many students play both chess and carroms?
From this we get the diagram shown below.
(A) 30 (B) 33 (C) 40 (D) 36
Sol. The number of students who play both chess and
S = 100 45 T = 85
­carroms = 40 + 0 = 40.
Hence, the correct option is (C). a S → Swimming
d b
3. How many boys play only chess? r=
T → Tennis
(A) 40 (B) 128 (C) 32 (D) 35 f 20 e
35 30
Sol. The number of boys who play only chess = 40. A → Aerobics
c
A = 65 None = 15
Hence, the correct option is (A).
4. How many students do not play both the games?
Now,
(A) 120 (B) 140 (C) 150 (D) 170
Sol. The number of students who do not play both the d = 45 – 20 = 25; f = 35 – 20 = 15; e = 30 – 20 = 10
games = Total – The number of students who play both Also,
the games
a = 100 – (d + f + r) = 40; b = 85 – (d + r + e) = 30;
= 180 – 40 = 140
Hence, the correct option is (B). c = 65 – ( f + r +e) = 20
5. How many students play carroms? Now from the above, we can draw the following diagram.
(A) 110 (B) 140 (C) 125 (D) 90
Sol. The number of students who play carroms = 70 + S = 100 T = 85
40 = 110. 40 25 30
Hence, the correct option is (A). 20
15 10
According to the data obtained from a club, 100 people 20
come for swimming, 85 come for tennis, and 65 come for
aerobics. For every 10 people who come for swimming, A = 65 None = 15
there are 3 people who come for aerobics and tennis. For
every 17 people who come for tennis, there are 7 people 6. The total number of persons who come to the club is
who come for swimming and aerobics. For every 13 people (A) 150 (B) 175 (C) 155 (D) 180
who come for aerobics, there are 9 people who come for Sol The total number of members in the club
tennis and swimming. 20 people come for tennis, swimming,
= a + b + c + d + e + f + r + none
and aerobics, while 15 people come for none of the three.
= 40 + 30 +20 + 25 + 15 + 10 + 20 + 15
Solutions for questions 6 to 10:
= 175
The number of people who come for swimming, tennis and
aerobics are 100, 85 and 65 respectively. Hence, the correct option is (B).
For every 10 people who came for swimming, there are 3 7. How many members come only for swimming?
who come for aerobics and tennis. (A) 20 (B) 30
⇒ The number of people who come for aerobics and (C) 40 (D) 45
100 Sol. The number of people who come only for swimming.
­tennis = × 3 = 30
10
= a = 40.
For every 17 people who come for tennis, there are 7
Hence, the correct option is (C).
who come for swimming and aerobics.

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 Chapter 6  •  Venn Diagrams  |  1.179
k + 2x 3
8. How many members come for both tennis and aerobics =
but not swimming? k 2
(A) 8 (B) 7 ⇒ k = 4x
(C) 9 (D) 10
Boys Girls
Sol. The number of people who come for both tennis and
aerobics but not swimming = e = 10. Total = 80 Total = 60
Hence, the correct option is (D). Rugby Baseball Rugby Baseball
9. How many members come for neither tennis nor
2x 4x 2x 2x
swimming?
(A) 35 (B) 40 x
(C) 36 (D) 59
Sol. The number of people who come for neither tennis nor Number of boys who play only Rugby = Number of girls
swimming = c + 15 = 20 + 15 = 35. who play only Baseball = Number of students who play
none of the games = y (say).
Hence, the correct option is (A).
10. The number of people who come for at least one activity Boys Girls
=a+b+c+d+e+f+r Total = 80 Total = 60
= 40 + 20 + 30 + 15 + 25 + 10 + 20 = 160. Rugby Baseball Rugby Baseball
Hence, the correct option is (A).
y 2x 4x 2x 2x y
Sol. How many members come for at least one of the three
given activities? y–x x
(A) 160 (B) 150
(C) 120 (D) 180 Now,
y + 2x + 4x + y – x = 80
In a class of 140 students, the ratio of the number of boys
to that of the girls is 4 : 3. The number of boys who play y + 2x + 2x + x = 60
___________________
only rugby is same as the number of girls who play only
baseball, which is same as the number of students who play ⇒2y + 5x = 80
none of the games. The number of boys who play baseball y + 5x = 60
___________
and the number of girls who play rugby is in the ratio 3 : 2.
y = 20; x = 8
The number of boys who play both the games is equal to
the number of girls who play both the games, which in turn Boys Girls
is twice the number of girls who play none of the games.
Total = 80 Total = 60
The number of boys who play only baseball is same as the
number of girls who play rugby. Rugby Baseball Rugby Baseball

Solutions for questions 11 to 13: 20 16 32 16 16 20

The ratio of boys to girls is 4 : 3.
12 8
\ Number of boys = 80
Number of girls = 60 11. How many boys do not play any of the games?
Given that, (A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 16
The number of boys who play both the games = The number Sol. 12 boys do not play any of the games.
of girls who play both the games = 2 (The number girls who Hence, the correct option is (B).
play none of the games) = 2x (say) 12. How many students play only rugby?
  Boys Girls (A) 18 (B) 20 (C) 24 (D) 36
Total = 80 Total = 60 Sol. 36 students play only Rugby.
Rugby Baseball Rugby Baseball Hence, the correct option is (D).
13. How many girls do not play rugby?
2x 2x (A) 20 (B) 32
x (C) 28 (D) 36
Sol. 28 girls do not play Rugby.
Number of boys who play only Baseball = Number of girls
who play Rugby = k (say) Hence, the correct option is (C).

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 1.180  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

In a class of 500 students, 37% of the students drink cof- Total = 500
fee, 55% of the students drink tea, 53% of the students Coffee
Tea
drink milk, and 12% of the students drink none of the three
drinks. The number of students who drink tea and exactly 6% 9% 20%
one of the other drinks is 25%. The number of students who 10%
drink milk but not tea is 27%. The number of students who 12% 16%
drink only tea is twice the number of students who drink all 15%
the three drinks.
h = 12%
Milk
Solutions for questions 14 to 17:
Let us write all the values in percentage terms.
14. How many of the students drink exactly two drinks?
Total = 100% = 500 (A) 235 (B) 140
Coffee (C) 185 (D) 125
37% Tea
55%
Sol. Number of persons who drink exactly two drinks
a e b
g = 9% + 12% + 16% = 37% = 185
d f
Hence, the correct option is (C).
c
h = 12% 15. How many students drink only milk?
Milk (A) 75 (B) 265
53% (C) 60 (D) 80
Sol. Number of students who drink only milk = 15% = 75.
Given, Hence, the correct option is (A).
h = 12% 16. How many students do drink neither milk nor coffee?
e + f = 25% (A) 60 (B) 160 (C) 100 (D) 135
c + d = 27% Sol. Number of students who do not drink any of milk and
coffee = 32% = 160.
b = 2g
Hence, the correct option is (B).
As the number of persons who drink Tea is 55%
17. How many students drink only coffee and tea?
a + d + c + h = 100% – 55% = 45% (A) 25 (B) 45 (C) 85 (D) 125
a + (27%) + (12%) = 45% Sol. The number of students who drink only coffee and tea
is 9% = 45.
a = 6%
Hence, the correct option is (B).
e + f + b + g = 55%
In a survey conducted, it was found that, of the 150 peo-
(25%) + 2g + g = 55% ple who were surveyed, 90 read sports magazines, 80 read
g = 10%; b = 20% business magazines, and 70 read political magazines. Each
of the surveyed persons reads at least one of these three
Now, magazines.
c + d + g + f = 53% Solutions for questions 18 to 20:
(27%) + (10%) + f = 53% 150

f = 16% S = 90 B = 80

e + f = 25% a d b
g
⇒ e = 9% f e

Now, c
a + e + g + d = 37% P = 70 n=0

6% + 9% + 10% + d = 37%
90 + 80 + 70 – (e + d + f ) - 2g = 150
d = 12%
⇒ e + d + f + 2g = 90
c + d = 27%; c = 15% And a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 150

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 Chapter 6  •  Venn Diagrams  |  1.181

18. What is the maximum possible number of people who Sol. Biology
read sports magazines only?
(A) 50 (B) 70 (C) 60 (D) 45
Sol. a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 150
⇒ a + (a + b) + (c + e + f + g) = 150
Physics
⇒ a + (80 – e – g) + 70 = 150 Chemistry

⇒ a + 150 – e – g = 150 Biology, Physics and Chemistry are three different sub-
⇒e+g=a jects having nothing in common. So the above d­ iagram
is the most appropriate representation of the give groups.
The maximum value of e + g can be 70 (when f + c = 0)
Hence, the correct option is (A).
\ The maximum possible value of a = 70
22. Numbers, Whole numbers, Natural numbers
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Sol. Numbers, Whole numbers, Natural numbers
19. What is the minimum possible number of people who
read exactly one type of magazine? Numbers
(A) 45 (B) 50 (C) 60 (D) 70 Whole numbers
Sol. e + d + f + 2g = 90 Natural numbers
a + c + b is the minimum when g = 0
⇒ e + d + f = 90
Now a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 150 We know that natural numbers is a subset of whole
a + c + b + 90 = 150 numbers, which inturn is a subset of numbers. So, the
⇒ a + c + b = 60 above diagram is the most appropriate representation
of the given groups.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
20. If the number of people who read exactly one type of
magazine is 80, then the number of people who read 23. India, Hyderabad, Mumbai
exactly two types of magazines is Sol. India
(A) 50 (B) 70
(C) 60 (D) None of these
Sol. given a + c + b = 80
⇒ 80 + g + d + f + e = 150 Hyderabad Mumbai
⇒ g + d + f + e = 70 (1)
But e + d + f + 2g = 90 (2)
(2) – (1) ⇒ g = 20
⇒ e + d + f = 50 Here, we can say that Hyderabad and Mumbai are two
different cities within the state of Andhra Pradesh. So,
Hence, the correct option is (A).
the above diagram is the most appropriate representa-
(A) (B) tion of the given groups.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
24. Social Sciences, History, Geography
Sol. Social Sciences
(C) (D)

History Geography

Solutions for questions 21 to 25:

21. Biology, Physics, Chemistry

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 1.182  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

We know that social sciences is a branch of science We know Asia is the continent in which India is one of
within which we study two different subjects namely the countries and in which Pune is one of the cities. So
history and geography. So the above diagram is the the above diagram is the most appropriate representa-
most appropriate representation of the given groups. tion of the given groups.
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (B).
25. Asia, India, Pune
Sol. Asia, India, Pune
Asia
India
Pune

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 Chapter 7 Seating Arrangements
Hints/Solutions
Practice Problems I D B C/G E F A G/C(1)

Solutions for questions 1 to 3: (or)

It is given John sits exactly in between Anil and David, John C/G D B E G/C F A(2)
sits exactly in between Charan and Kamal.
As John sits exactly between the two pairs of boys, he In (1), F sits in between A and E
has to sit exactly in the middle of the row. The possible In (2), F, C or G sits in between A and E.
arrangements are
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Kamal/Charan Anil/David John Anil/David Kamal/ 6. If F and G sit on either side of E then the possible
Charan arrangements are as follow.
Anil/David Kamal/Charan John Kamal/Charan Anil/ A/D B G E F D/A C
David
(or)
1. John sits exactly in the middle of the row.
Hence, the correct option is (A). C A/D F E G B D/A
2. If Kamal and Charan occupy the ends then in four Either C, A or D sits at the right end of the row.
different ways the boys can be seated and if Anil and Hence, the correct option is (D).
David occupy the extremes then they can be seated four
more ways, thus totally the five boys can be seated in Solutions for questions 7 to 9:
eight different ways. It is given that five persons P, Q, R, S and T sit in a row
Hence, the correct option is (C). ­facing towards North.
3. If Anil sits to the immediate left of John and there is a From (I), we have either P or S sits at the end of the row
boy who sits to the immediate right of Kamal then their P/S ___ ___ ___ ___
seating order is as follows
(or)
Kamal Anil John David Charan
Anil is to the immediate right of Kamal. ___ ___ ___ ___ P/S
Hence, the correct option is (B). From (II) we have Q/T P Q/T (or) S/T P S/T
Solutions for questions 4 to 6: As P has to be in between two persons he cannot be at
It is given that seven girls – A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in a any end of the row.
row. From (III) we have 4 people sit in between A and D. From (I), we have only S is at one of the ends of the row.
From (II) P is not at any end thus from (I) S is at one end
\ There are two possibilities as follow of the row but from (III) S can be at extreme right end. From
A/D ___ ___ ___ ___ A/D ___ (II) If S and T are on sides of P and R is on immediate left of
Case (i): Q then the arrangement is as follows
___ A/D ___ ___ ___ ___ A/D R Q T P S(3)
Case (ii):
From (II) If Q and T are on either sides P and R is on
From (II) we have 3 people sit in between C and G. ­immediate let T of Q the arrangement will be as follows:
From (I), we have 2 people sit in between B and F.
R Q P T S(4)
Combining (I), (II) and (III), we have two possibilities as
follow. 7. These five people can be seated in the two ways, as said
A/D B/F C/G E F/B D/A G/C(1) above.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
(or)
8. If Q sits to the immediate left of T i.e., case (1) then T
C/G A/D B/F E G/C F/B D/A(2)
sits exactly in the middle of the row.
4. In both ways E sits exactly in the middle of the row. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 9. If P is not sitting adjacent to S i.e., case (2) then P sits
5. It is given that, B sits to the immediate right of D then to the immediate right of Q.
the possible arrangements are as follow. Hence, the correct option is (B).

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 1.184  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

Solutions for questions 10 to 12: From (II), we have the shortest building is Red in colour
It is given that six persons A, B, C, D, E and F stay in a six
Combining (I) and (II), we have
floors building where each one of them stays in a different
floor. Blue Red Yellow/Green White Yellow/Green or in
reverse order which is not different from this and Red is the
From (I), we have Charan shortest:
Raman From (III) either yellow or green is the tallest. But from (II)
Kiran it should at extreme right thus Blue and white are 3rd and
fourth tallest buildings in any order.
From (II), we have Rajan
Combining (I), (II) and (III), we have
Pavan
Shravan Yellow Yellow
Blue Red Green White Green
Combining (I) and (II), we got either Kiran or Shravan stays 3rd Shortest 2 nd tallest 3rd Tallest
in the 1st floor. tallest tallest
4 th 4 th
From (III), we have Raman 13. The tallest building is definitely at one of the ends of
Kiran the row.
Pavan Hence, the correct option is (C).
And Rajan is below Raman and above Kiran 14. (1) may be true
Combining (I), (II) and (III), we get Shravan stays in (2) may be true
the first floor, and four people stay above Pavan. Kiran and (3) maybe true
Rajan are below Raman who is below Charan.
The order is as follows: (4) is definitely false
6 - Charan Hence, the correct option is (D).
5 - Raman 15. If the Yellow coloured building is to the immediate left
4 - Rajan / Kiran of the third tallest building then the order is as follows.
3 - Rajan / Kiran Blue Red Yellow White Green
2 - Pavan th nd rd
4 tallest Shortest 2 tallest 3 tallest Tallest
1 - Shravan
Then the order of the buildings in the descending order
10. Pavan stays in the 2nd floor. of their heights is as follows:
Hence, the correct option is (A). Green, Yellow, White, Blue, Red.
11. Either Rajan or Kiran stays in the 4th floor. Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Solutions for questions 16 to 18:
12. If one person stays in between Pawan and Kiran, then From the given information John is from china and is adja-
the order is as follows. cent to American who is not Humpty. But Humpty is oppo-
6 - Charan site the Indian who is not adjacent to Chinese but adjacent to
5 - Raman Japanese, thus the following two arrangements are possible.
4 - Kiran John John
3 - Rajan (China) (China)
2 - Pavan Humpty (American) (American) Humpty
1 - Shravan
Rajan stays in the 3rd floor.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
(India)
Solutions for questions 13 to 15: (India)
(Japan) (Japan)
It is given that there are five buildings in a row. Each of
these are painted with a different colour and they are of Case (i) Case (ii)
­different heights.
The English man is left to Australian thus in case (i) Humpty
From (I), We have
can be from England and in case (ii) Humpty can be from
Yellow/Green White Yellow/Green  England and in case (ii) Humpty can be from Australia. As
Australian is opposite the Dumpty

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 Chapter 7  •  Seating Arrangements  |  1.185

Case (i): Dumpty is the Anercian and From (III) and above arrangement Ramesh cannot be
Case (ii): Dumpty is the Indian. any one except Teacher Saloni is the Doctor, Mohan is the
Engineer and Sohan is the Accountant.
Thus the arrangements are as follows.
19. Saloni is the Doctor.
Case (i):
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Now among the remaining people i.e., Ted, Jill and Jack, as
Ted and Jack are not from India Jill is the Indian. Ted and 20. Mohan is the Engineer.
Jack are Australian and Japanese and are sitting adjacent Hence, the correct option is (C).
each other thus case (i) is not possible. 21. Saroj is sitting opposite Ramesh.
Case (ii): Hence, the correct option is (C).
Either Jack or Jill is from the Japan. If Jack is from Japan 22. Sakshi is opposite to Accountant.
Ted is the American and Jill is the English.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
If Jill is the Japanese then Ted is either from England or
American and jack is either from England or America. Solutions for questions 23 to 25:
It is given that Rohan is sitting adjacent to Pankaj who is
John sitting opposite Arun.
(China)
Ted/Jill/Jack Rohan
Humpty Pankaj
(American)
(Australia)

Arun Pankaj Rohan

Arun
Dumpty (England)
(India) Ted/Jill/Jack (Ι) (ΙΙ)
(Japan)
(Jack/Jill) Now, from the above arrangements and the remaining
­information, we get the following two arrangements.
16. Dumpty is from India.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Veda

17. Jill is sitting opposite the American. Shanu Rohan

Hence, the correct option is (A).

Arun Pankaj
18. Humpty belongs to Australia.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Pinky Dimple
Solutions for questions 19 to 22: Suman
From (II) and (V)
(Ι)
Seema, the Dancer is opposite Ram, who is the Lawyer
and Sakshi is not adjacent to anyone of these two.
Dimple
From (IV) Sakshi, who is the Singer is at one place to the
right of Saroj. And from (VI) Ramesh is sitting three places Suman Pankaj
to the right of Singer.
Shanu Rohan
Seema Seema
(Dancer) (Dancer)
Ramesh Saroj Arun Veda
Pinky
Sakshi Sakshi (ΙΙ)
(Singer) (Singer)
23. Either Pinky or Shanu sits opposite Dimple.
Saroj Engineer Ramesh Hence, the correct option is (D).
Ram (Ram) Ram
(Lawyer) (Lawyer) 24. Suman is sitting opposite Veda.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
From (I), pilot is sitting opposite Ramesh, thus Saroj is the 25. In case (i) Dimple is sitting opposite Shanu.
Pilot and from (III) Saloni is opposite the Engineer.
Hence, the correct option is (B).

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 1.186  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

Practice Problems 2 = 2 hrs 30 minutes.

Solutions for questions 1 to 5: Hence, b1 started at 10:40 – 2:30 = 8:10 at P.
1. P, Q, R, S, and T are five speakers who have to speak b2 reached Q, starting at U, through the city T, S and R.
on a particular day, not necessarily in the same order.
The time taken by it to reach S = 4 × 40 + 3 × 15
R is neither the first nor the last speaker. There are three
speakers after S and three speakers ahead of T. If P = 205 minutes = 3 hr 25 minutes.
speaks after Q, then who is the last speaker to speak? Hence, b2 started at, 10:35 – 3:25 = 7:10, at U.
(A) S (B) T (C) P (D) Q
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Sol. There are three speakers after S. So, S is the 2nd speaker.
5. In the previous problem, at which city do the two buses
There are three speakers before T. So, T is the 4th
meet?
speaker. R is neither the 1st nor the 5th. So, R is the 3rd
(A) Q (B) R
speaker. P speaks after Q, So P is the 5th and Q is the 1st
(C) S (D) T
speaker. So, P is the last speaker.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Sol. b1 reached S at 10:40, passing through Q and R.
2. 15 people entered a theatre before Sujit. 7 people b4 reached Q at 10:35, passing through T, S and R.
entered the theatre between Sujit and Suraj and 20 peo- Hence, there is possibility of meeting at R.
ple entered the theatre after Suraj. How many people
b1 reaches R at, (2 × 40 + 15) + 8:10 = 9:45
are there in the theatre?
(A) 28 b2 reaches R at, (3 × 40 + 2 × 15) + 7:10 = 9:40
(B) 36 As they stop for 15 minutes at R, they meet at 9:45 at R.
(C) 44
Hence, the correct option is (B).
(D) Cannot be determined
Sol. If Sujit entered before Suraj then the number of people B - 1, B - 2 and B - 3 are three buses that travel from
will be 15 + 1(Sujit) + 7 + 1(Suraj) + 20 = 44. Mumbai to Delhi. Each bus starts at a different time and
arrives at a different time. The digit in the bus number and
If Suraj entered before Sujit then number of people will
the order of their departure or arrival is not the same. The
be 7 + 1 (Suraj) + 7 + 1(Sujit) + 12 = 28.
first bus to leave Mumbai is the third bus to reach Delhi.
So, the number of people in the theater cannot be
determined. Solutions for questions 6 and 7:
Hence, the correct option is (D). As Bus number and the order of arrival or departure is not
the same. B - 1 has to depart and arrive at 2nd or 3rd posi-
3. In the above previous problem if Suraj entered the thea-
tions. Similarly, B - 2 at 1st or 3rd positions and B - 3 at 1st
tre before Sujit then how many people are there in the
or 2nd positions.
theatre?
The first bus to leave Mumbai is the third to reach Delhi.
(A) 28 (B) 36 (C) 44 (D) 40
So it has to be B - 2. The order of departure and arrival will
Sol. If Suraj entered before Sujit, then the number of people be as follow.
in the theater will be 28.
Mumbai (departure) Delhi (arrival)
Hence, the correct option is (A).
1. B2 B3
4. P through U are six cities which are in a row in the same
order. A bus b1 travels from P to U and another bus b2 2. B3 B1
travels from U to P. The bus b1 reaches S at 10:40 and 3. B1 B2
bus b2 reaches Q at 10 : 35. If the travel time between
any two adjacent cities is 40 minutes and the stoppage 6. Which is the first bus to leave Mumbai?
time at each city is 15 minutes, then at what time do (A) B-1 (B) B-2
they start at their respective destinations? (C) B-3 (D) B–1 or B–2
(A) 8:00, 7:00 (B) 8:00, 7:10 Sol. B- 2 is first to leave Mumbai.
(C) 8:10, 7:10 (D) 8:15, 7:25 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Sol. The bus b1, which started at P, reached S at 10:40, 7. Which is the second bus to reach Delhi?
­passing through the intermediary cities Q and R. The (A) B-1 (B) B-2
time taken to travel from P to S (C) B-3 (D) B–1 or B–3
= 3 × 40 + 2 × 15 = 150 minutes Sol. B - 1 is the second to reach Delhi.
(journey (stoppage) time) Hence, the correct option is (A).

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 Chapter 7  •  Seating Arrangements  |  1.187

A train travels from A to E, with intermediary stations Sol. 2 parcels are loaded at C.
being B, C, and D. Ten parcels with code numbers 101 Hence, the correct option is (B).
through 110 were transported between these stations. They
9. Which of the following two parcels travel through
are transported based on the following conditions.
the maximum number of intermediary stations in the
(i) Only four parcels, 101, 104, 105, and 107, were loaded journey?
at A. One among these was unloaded at B, one at C, (A) 101 and 104 (B) 101 and 107
and two at D. (C) 109 and 110 (D) 104 and 107
(ii) 102 and 106 were unloaded at C and 108, which was Sol. 104 and 107 travel through the maximum number of
loaded at B, was unloaded at E. intermediary stations.
(iii) Only one parcel was loaded at D, which was 103.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
(iv) Only two parcels were unloaded at D and 101 was
unloaded at C, the station immediately after the station 10. Which among the following combinations of stations
at which 105 is unloaded. and the parcels which are loaded and unloaded at that
(v) The number of parcels which were loaded at differ- station is true?
ent stations was different and the number of parcels (A) A - (loading) 101, 104, 105, 107 - (unloading) 105
which were unloaded at different stations was differ- (B) B - (loading) 102, - (unloading) 108, 106
ent. No parcel is loaded at E and no parcel is unloaded (C) C - (loading) 109, 110 - (unloading) 101, 102, 106
at A. (D) D - (loading) 103 - (unloading) 109, 110
Sol. C - (loading) 109, 110 – (unloading) 101, 102, 106 is
Solutions for questions 8 to 10: true.
As number of parcels which are loaded and unloaded at dif- Hence, the correct option is (C).
ferent stations are different. The number of parcels loaded
or unloaded at a station should be 1 or 2 or 3 or 4. In a parking area, eight cars of different companies are
According to the given conditions the loading and parked, with four cars adjacent to each other on one side of
unloading at different station is as follows. the walk way and the other four opposite to them. The fol-
lowing information is known about them.
Unloaded
Stations Loaded parcels
parcels
(i) Tata is parked between Mercedes and BMW.
(ii) Maruthi is parked to the immediate right of Fiat, on the
A 101, 104, 105, 107
same side.
B 108 105 (iii) Toyota is parked opposite to Fiat and both of them are
C 102, 106, 101 at one of the extreme ends.
D 103 (iv) Ford car is parked opposite to Tata.
E 108
(v) Hyundai is parked opposite to BMW and both of them
are at an extreme end.
Two of 101, 104, 105, 107 are unloaded at D. They are 104 (vi) Ford is parked exactly between Hyundai and Maruthi.
and 107. As 102 and 106 are unloaded at C. They must have
been loaded at B. Solutions for questions 11 to 15:
So, 109 and 110 should have been loaded at C. In the following explanation, Fi → Fiat, Ma → Maruti,
As one parcel is unloaded at B, three are unloaded at C, Ta → Tata, To → Toyota, Me → Mercedez, Fo → Ford and
two at D, four must have been unloaded at E. Hy → Hyundai.
So, they are 108, 103, 109 and 110. From conditions (ii) and (iii), we get the following
The final order of loading and unloading is as follows. arrangement.
To __ __ __
Unloaded
Stations Loaded parcels Fi Ma __ __
parcels
A 101, 104, 105, 107 _______ As BMW and Hyundai are parked opposite to each other
B 108, 102, 106 105
and at one end (from condition r) and Tata is between BMW
and Mercedez (from conditions i) and, we get the following
C 109, 110 102, 106, 101
final arrangement.
D 103 104, 107
Fi Me Ta BMW
E _______ 103, 108, 109, 110
To Ma Fo Hy
8. How many parcels are loaded at C? 11. Which of the following cars are parked diagonally
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 opposite to each other?

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 1.188  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

(A) Mercedes and Tata (B) Maruti and Hyundai S

(C) Fiat and BMW (D) Tata and Maruti U W
ol. BMW and Fiat are parked diagonally opposite to each
S
other.
Q R
Hence, the correct option is (C).
12. Which car is parked opposite to Maruthi?
V
(A) Mercedes (B) Tata T
(C) BMW (D) Hyundai P

Sol. Mercedes is parked opposite to Maruthi. V does not sit next to S. So V has to sit to the right of P. So
Hence, the correct option is (A). Q and U will be sitting between S and T. Therefore, the final
arrangement is as follows.
13. If the positions of Ford and Tata are swaped, then which
car is parked to the immediate left of Hyundai? 16. Q sits between _____.
(A) Fiat (B) Tata (A) U and V (B) T and U
(C) Ford (D) Maruti (C) U and S (D) W and T
Sol. When the positions of Tata and Ford swaped, then Tata Sol. Q sits between U and T.
is to the immediate left of Hyundai. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 17. Who sits to the right of W?
14. If the positions of Fiat and BMW are interchanged, (A) S (B) Q (C) R (D) P
then which car is parked opposite to Toyota? Sol. S is sitting to the right of W.
(A) Maruthi (B) Fiat Hence, the correct option is (A).
(C) BMW (D) Ford
18. If P interchanges his place with the person who sits
Sol. If the positions of BMW and Fiat are interchanged, opposite to R disregarding the condition that husband
then BMW is parked opposite to Toyota. and wife sit together, then who sits to the right of U?
Hence, the correct option is (C). (A) T (B) Q (C) P (D) R
15. Which car is parked opposite to Mercedes? Sol. If P interchanges his place with the person who is
(A) Maruthi (B) Ford ­sitting opposite to R, then P sits to the right of U.
(C) Tata (D) Toyota Hence, the correct option is (C).
Sol. Maruthi is parked opposite to Mercedes. 19. If every husband interchange his position with the person
Hence, the correct option is (A). sitting opposite to him, then who sits between S and R?
(A) T (B) U (C) V (D) W
Four couples sit around a circular table in a party. Every
husband sits to the right of his wife. P, Q, R, and S are hus- Sol. After effecting the changes, T sits between S and R.
bands and T, U, V, and W are wives. Q–U and R–V are two Hence, the correct option is (A).
married couples. S does not sit next to V. T sits to the left of 20. Who sits between P and Q?
P, who sits opposite S. (A) T (B) U (C) V (D) W
Solutions for questions 16 to 25: Sol. T sits between P and Q.
As T sits to the left of P who is sitting opposite S, we get the Hence, the correct option is (A).
following arrangement
A–W, B–X, C–Y, and D–Z are four married couples. In a
S
restaurant, they are sitting around a rectangular table, with
Hu
three persons along each of the longer sides of the table and
Wi Wi one person along each of the shorter sides. All the male per-
Hu → Husband sons (A, B, C, and D) are sitting along the longer sides and
Hu Hu
no male persons are sitting together. X is sitting to the right
Wi Wi Wi → Wife
of C. W and Z are sitting at the longer sides and neither of
Hu
them is sitting adjacent to their respective husbands. Y is
T
P sitting to the right of A.

From the above it is clear that P is T’s husband. Solutions for questions 21 to 25:
As no two husbands sit adjacent to each other and they sit at
⇒ S is W’s husband.
the longer side, we get the following arrangement.

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 Chapter 7  •  Seating Arrangements  |  1.189

Husband Wife Husband 21. Which pair of people are sitting at the shorter sides of
table?
(A) Z and X (B) B and Y
(C) X and C (D) X and Y
Wife Wife
Sol. X and Y are sitting at the shorter sides of table.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
22. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Y?
Husband Wife Husband (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
X is sitting to the right of C and Y is sitting to the right of A. Sol. D is sitting to the immediate right of Y.
X and Y are not sitting at the longer sides as W and Z are sit- Hence, the correct option is (D).
ting at the longer side of the table. The arrangement will be,
23. Who is sitting two places to the right of A?
C (A) B (B) X (C) D (D) W
Sol. D is sitting two places to the right of A.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
X Y
24. If A and D interchange their places and C and W inter-
change their places, then who sits to the left of C?
(A) A (B) Z (C) W (D) O
A Sol. When the places are interchanged as given, A will be
W and Z are sitting at the longer sides but not adjacent to sitting to the left of C.
their husbands. i.e. Z is adjacent to A and W is adjacent to Hence, the correct option is (A).
C. Since, neither of Z and W is adjacent to her husband.
Hence, D is adjacent to W and B is adjacent to Z. Thus we
get the following arrangement. 25. Which among the following is a pair of persons sitting
diagonally opposite to each other?
C W D (A) A and C (B) B and D
(C) C and D (D) Both (A) and (B)
Sol. A is sitting diagonally opposite to C and B is sitting
X Y diagonally opposite to D.
Hence, the correct option is (D).

B Z A

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 Chapter 8 Puzzles
Hints/Solutions
Practice Problems 1 Company Place
Solutions for questions 1 to 3: Bingo C4 l5
The given information is as follows. Pingo C1 l4
Tingo C2 l3
Asian Countries
Hingo C3 l1
Chi Jap Mal Eng Aus Ger Pol
Mingo C5 l2
A ✓ × × × ×
4. Hingo works for C3.
B × × × ×
Hence, the correct option is (A).
C ×
5. Pingo is from l4.
D × ×
Hence, the correct option is (D).
E × × × × ×
6. Bingo works for C4.
F × × × × × ×
Hence, the correct option is (A).
G
Solutions for questions 7 to 9:
Let each person be donated by the first letter of his name.
From the above table, 7. If D is selected, then some of the possibilities are:
F is from Germany and G is from England. DEF
⇒ C is from Australia and E is from Poland. CDE
\ B and D are from Japan and Malaysia in any order. ABD
Hence, the final arrangement is as follows. \Any one can be selected.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Chi Jap Mal Eng Aus Ger Pol
8. If A is selected, then C must not be selected. [from (i)]
A ✓ × × × × × ×
\ Now using condition (ii) the possibilities are:
B × × × × ×
ABE
C × × × × ✓ × ×
ABF
D × × × × × ADE
E × × × × × × ✓ ADF
F × × × × × ✓ × AEF
G × × × ✓ × × × \ There are 5 possibilities.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
1. F is from Germany. 9. As B is selected, then C must not be selected.
Hence, the correct option is (C). If D is selected, then E or F must be selected.
2. Either B or D is from Malaysia. \ If A is selected, then D must not be selected.
Hence, the correct option is (D). \ To select a team of 3. E or F must be selected.
3. G is from England. Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Solutions for questions 10 to 12:
Solutions for questions 4 to 6: Let each person be denoted by the first letter of his/her
From (i) the person working in C1 and C2 are from l3 and l4. name.
From (ii) Bingo is from l5 but not in C5. 10. K and C are in the same team.
From (iii) Tingo is in C2 and from l3. \ L must be in the other team. [from (iii)]
From (iv) and (v) Pingo is in C1 and from l4. If A and B are in the same team as L, then it violates
From (vi) Mingo is in C5 and from l2. (iv). [ from (ii)]
Bingo is in C4 and Hingo is in C3 and from l1. \Only one of A and B is in the same team as L.

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 Chapter 8  •  Puzzles  |  1.191

\ Using other conditions the possibilities are : Solutions for questions 16 to 19:
(a) K, C, A, M and L, B, N T 3 hours
(5:30 a.m.)
(b) K, C, B, M and L, A, N
(c) K, C, A and L, M, N, B
2 hours
(d) K, C, B and L, M, N, A 1 hour P Q (7:00 a.m.)
(8:00 a.m.)
(e) K, C, B, N and L, M, A
Hence, the correct option is (D).
11. M and B are not in the same team.
From (iii), either K or L is with B.
Now, if A is with B, then C and N must be with M, S R
2 hours 3 hours
which violates (iv).
(6:00 a.m.) (4:00 a.m.)
\ A is with M.
The time of departure of the first train and duration
Now, atleast one of C and N is with B.
between two successive trains are given adjacent to
\ The teams are: each station.
B, K/L, C, N and M, L/K, A 16. The root one has to follow to reach P from R is as
B, K/L, C and M, L/K, A, N follows.
B, K/L, N and M, L/K, A, C 1 hr 1 hr 1 hr
\ There are six possibilities. R S Q P
(4:00 (6:00 (7:00 (8:00
Hence, the correct option is (D).
a.m.) a.m.) a.m.) a.m.)
12. From (iii), M and N are in the same team.
1 hr wait
One of K and L is with them.
\ one takes 4 hours to reach P from R if he starts at
\ C cannot be with them as it violates (iv). 4 am.
\ From (ii), only one of A and B is with them. But if starts at 7 O’clock.
\ The possibilities are : He can reach P as follows
M, N, K/L, A/B and L/K, C, B/A. 1 hr 1 hr 1 hr
\ There are four possibilities. R S Q P
Hence, the correct option is (A). (7:00 (8:00 (9:00 (10:00
a.m.) a.m.) a.m.) a.m.)
Solutions for questions 13 to 15:
\ one takes 3 hours to travel to P from R.
From (i), P < R < S.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
From (ii), S is the third eldest.
17. The shortest route that a person can follow from R to Q
From (iii), Q is elder than fourth youngest [i.e., fourth eldest]
is R – S – Q
\Q is the second eldest.
R S Q
From (iv), T is the second youngest and U is the youngest.
(10:00 (11–12 (1:00
\V must be the eldest. a.m.) a.m.) p.m.)
Also, R is the fourth eldest and P is the fifth eldest. 1 hr wait
\We have, As he reached Q at 1 pm he should start from S at
U < T < P < R < S < Q < V. 12 noon but no train reaches from R at 12 noon thus he
must reach S at 11 a.m. only.
13. V is the oldest.
\ He would have started at 10:00 a.m. from R.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (A).
14. P is the third youngest.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 18. 1 hr 1 hr 1 hr 1hr
R S Q P T
15. R is the fourth oldest.
(4:00 (5:00–6:00 (7:00 (8:00 (9:00
Hence, the correct option is (A). a.m.) a.m.) a.m.) a.m.) a.m.)

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 1.192  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning
4x
\ He has to wait only at station S for 1 hour, because ⇒ (3n - x)3 =
he reaches there at 5:00 a.m. and first train departures 3
4x
at 6 O’clock. ⇒ 3n - x =
9
Hence, the correct option is (D). 13 x
19. The route is as follows: ⇒ 3n =
9
P T Q R S ⇒ 27n = 13x
(10:00 (11:00 (12:30 (2:00 (5:00 As n and x are natural numbers, x must be a multiple
a.m.) a.m.) p.m.) p.m.) p.m.) of 27.
Next train at Next train at Next train at Hence, the correct option is (C).
11:30 p.m. 11:30 p.m. 11:30 p.m.
Solutions for question 23:
\ He will reach ‘s’ at 5 O’clock. When a 3 digit number is multiplied by another three digit
Hence, the correct option is (C). number. The result obtained is a 5 digit number, Also the
first and last digits of the result are same ⇒ A must be equal
Solutions for question 20:
to 1. As D = 3C, C = 1 or 2 or 3.
20. Let us represent the given information in the form of a
But A = 1
diagram.
\ C = 2 or 3
Delhi
Indore If C = 2, then F cannot be equal to 4 times B.
\C = 3.
Ahmedabad
As F = 4B, B must be equal to 1 or 2.
But A = 1
\B=2
\ 1 2 3
Calicut Bangalore × 3 2 1
39483
The possible routes from Delhi to Indore are as follows:
 (i) Delhi - Ahmedabad - Indore \ D = 9, E = 4 and F = 8.
(ii) Delhi - Ahmedabad - Calicut - Indore 23. D = 9
(iii) Delhi - Calicut - Indore. Hence, the correct option is (C).
 (iv) Delhi – Ahmedabad – Bangalore – Calicut – Indore. Solutions for questions 24 and 25:
\ four different routes are possible. 24. From statement A
Hence, the correct option is (D). 2x > 3y + 6
Solutions for questions 21 and 22: 3
x > y + 3
2
21. In first weighing if we weigh 5 coins on each pan, we
3
can identify the set of 5 coins in which the counterfeit \x> y
coin is present. 2
x > y (1)
Now, from that set of 5 coins, weigh two coins on each
Since we donot know the relation between x and z. A is
pan, if they are equal, the fifth coin counterfeit light.
not sufficient to answer question.
If they are not equal, weigh the two coins which weighs.
Statement B
\ We will be able to identify the counterfeit coin in
5y > 3z + 1y
3 weightings.
Hence, the correct option is (A). 3 1
y> z +
22. Let n be the number of flowers he brought from the 5 5
garden. 3
y> z
\ We have 5
[[[n × 3] - x] (3) - x] (3) - x = 0 2
⇒y>z- z
x 5
⇒ (3n - x) 3 - x = Since we donot know the relation between x and y
3

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 Chapter 8  •  Puzzles  |  1.193

\ Statement B alone is not sufficient. women selected = 1 – P (no woman is selected)

By combining both the statements also we cannot 15 C2
=1– = 1 – 7/20
answer the question. 25 C2
Hence, the correct option is (D). 13
= = 0.65
25. Since we donot know the value of x statement A is 20
not sufficient. Using the statement B alone we cannot \ It is greater than 0.4
answer the question. Now combining both the state-
ments we get 15 men and we select atmost one women Combining both the statements we can answer the
from 10 women. question.
Probability of at most one. Hence, the correct option is (C).

Practice Problems 2 3. Who is the wife of C?

(A) R (B) T (C) S (D) Q
Each of the five couples are wearing a dress of different colour
Sol. S is the wife of C.
among violet, blue, green, red, and orange and each couple is
dressed in the same colour. Among the couples males are A, B, Hence, the correct option is (C).
C, D, and E and females are P, Q, R, S, and T. Each of the six friends A, B, C, D, E and F is of six different
(i) A is wearing red dress and T is wearing orange dress. profession—engineer, doctor, professor, architect, lawyer
(ii) Neither of P and Q is wearing violet or blue dress. and painter, and they belong to six different cities—Kolkata,
(iii) B is the husband of Q and D is wearing orange dress. Bangalore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Chennai, and Delhi, may
(iv) C is not the husband of R but is wearing violate dress. not be in the same order.

Solutions for questions 1 to 3: (i) The person from Bangalore is a doctor who is not B.
(ii) A is an architect and C who is from Chennai, is an
From (i) and (ii) A is husband of P or Q
engineer.
The colour of the dress of R and S are violet and blue (iii) The person from Delhi is a professor.
From (iii) A is the husband of P (iv) D is neither a professor nor the person from Bangalore
B and Q are wearing green dress (v) E is from Mumbai and the person from Kolkata is nei-
ther an architect nor a lawyer.
From (iv) C is the husband of S, who were wearing ­violet
dress
Solutions for questions 4 to 6:
E is husband of F who were wearing blue dress.
The given information is as follows.
The couples and their dresses are as follow
Name Profession Place
Couples
Place A Architect
Male Female
B Not Doctor Not Bangalore
A P Red
C Engineer Chennai
B Q Green
D Not Professorr Not Bangalore
C S Violet
E Mumbai
D T Orange
Not Architect
E R Blue Kolkata
Not Lawyer

1. Which of the following couple is dressed in green? The doctor from Bangalore cannot be any one among
(A) E, S (B) D, T A, B, C, D and E. Hence, it is F.
(C) B, Q (D) C, T
Since D is not a professor, he is not from Delhi.
Sol. B and Q wears green dress.
⇒ B is the professor from Delhi.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Since, the person from Kolkata is not an Architect, A is
2. Who is P’s husband? from Hyderabad and D is from Kolkata.
(A) D (B) E (C) A (D) C
⇒ D is the Painter and E is the Lawyer.
Sol. A is the husband of P.
The final distribution is as follows.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

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 1.194  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

Name Profession Place (f) A, B, G, E

A Architect Hyderabad (g) A, B, D, C
B Professor Delhi (h) A, B, D, E
C Engineer Chennai (i) A, B, D, G
D Painter Kolkata (j) A, D, C, E
E Lawyer Mumbai (k) A, D, C, G
F Doctor Bangalore (l) A, D, G, E
4. What is the profession of F? (m) B, D, C, E
(A) painter (B) lawyer (n) B, D, C, G
(C) professor (D) doctor (o) B, D, G, E
Sol. F is the doctor. 7. If Dheeraj is selected, then in how many ways can the
Hence, the correct option is (D). team be selected?
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 9 (D) 11
5. What is the profession of the person from Kolkata?
(A) Architect (B) Doctor Sol. Except possibilities (a), (d), (e) and (f) all other team
(C) Painter (D) Lawyer have D.
Sol. The painter is from Kolkata. Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 8. If atmost one of Farhaan and Ganesh can be selected,
6. What is the profession of E? then in how many ways can the team be selected?
(A) Professor (B) Lawyer (A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 14
(C) Doctor (D) Painter Sol. Except (a) and (c), all have at most one of F and G.
Sol. E is the laywer. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 9. If Eswar is not selected, then in how many ways can the
A team of four persons is to be selected from seven per- team be selected?
sons Anuj, Bindu, Chanti, Dheeraj, Eswar, Farhaan, and (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
Ganesh under the following constraints. Sol. (c), (e), (g), (i), (k) and (n) are the possibilities.
(i) At most two of Chanti, Eswar, and Ganesh can be Hence, the correct option is (A).
selected.
A team is to be selected from eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U,
(ii) Atleast one of Anuj and Bindu must be selected.
V, and W under the following constraints.
(iii) If Farhaan is selected, then neither Anuj nor Chanti can
be selected. (i) Atleast one of P, Q, and R must be selected.
(ii) At most two of S, T, and U can be selected.
Solutions for questions 7 to 9:
(iii) V and W cannot be selected together.
Let each person be denoted by the first letter of his/her
(iv) If one of Q, S, and V is selected, then the other two
name.
must not be selected.
From (iii), if F is selected, then A and C are not selected. (v) If one of R, U, and W is selected, then the other two
From (ii) One among A and B must be selected. must be selected.
\ The possibilities are:
If F is selected then, Solutions for questions 10 to 12:
(a) F, B, E, G From (ii), atleast one of S, T, U must not be selected.
(b) F, B, E, D From (iii), atleast one of V and W must not be selected.
(c) F, B, D, G From (iv), atleast two of Q, S, V must not be selected.
If F is not selected, then A or B or A, B must be selected From (v), either all of R, U and W are selected or none
in the team as we have to select 4, we have to reject 3 and of R, U and W is selected.
among C, E and G atleast one must be rejected. 10. What can be the maximum size of the team?
From (i), at most two of C, E and G can be selected. (A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
\ The possibilities are as follows. Sol. To maximize, we have to select R, U and W.
(d) A, B, C, E \ V is not selected.
(e) A, B, C, G \ S or T can be selected.

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 Chapter 8  •  Puzzles  |  1.195

From (iv), we take Q is selected. N < C < S < R < A < K

\ T is also selected. 3 4 5 6 7 8
P can also be selected. 13. Who has 6 chocolates?
(A) Sumit (B) Ranjit
\ Violating none of the conditions, we can select,
(C) Amit (D) Charit
PQRTUW.
Sol. Ranjit has 6 chocolates.
\ There can be 6 people.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (A).
14. What is the number of chocolates with Sumit?
11. If W is selected, then at most how many more persons
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 4
can be selected along with him?
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3 Sol. Sumit has 5 chocolates.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Sol. From the above solution, we can say that at most five
can be selected with him. 15. What is the difference between the number of choco-
lates with Namit and Kamat?
Hence, the correct option is (B).
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
12. If S is not selected, then what can be the minimum size
Sol. The difference is = 8 – 3 = 5.
of the team?
(A) 3 (B) 2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
(C) 1 (D) None of these Six students Anand, Brijesh, Charan, Deepti, Gopal, and
Sol. To minimize, we select exactly one of P, Q and R, and Hriday are the top six rankers of a class. No two persons got
none of S, T, U. the same rank. We know the following information regard-
ing their ranks.
\ Only P or only Q can be in the team.
Hence, the correct option is (C). (i) Deepti got a better rank than atleast two students.
(ii) Gopal got a better rank than Brijesh.
Each of the six children Amit, Sumit, Kamat, Namit, Ranjit, (iii) The number of persons who got better rank than Anand
and Charit has a different number of chocolates among 3, is the same as the number of persons who got worst
4, 5, 6, 7, and 8, not necessarily in the same order. We know rank than Charan.
the following information. (iv) Anand got a better rank than Deepti.
I. The difference between the number of chocolates with (v) Only one person got a rank between the ranks of Hriday
Charit and Ranjit is the same as that between the num- and Brijesh.
ber of chocolates with Kamat and Ranjit.
II. The number of chocolates with Charit is less than that Solutions for questions 16 to 18:
with Sumit, which in turn, is less than that with Ranjit. From (i) and (iv), Anand got a better rank than atleast three
III. The number of chocolates with Sumit is more than that persons i.e., Anand’s rank can be 1 or 2 or 3.
with Namit. From (iii) Charan’s rank can be 6 or 5 or 4.
If Anand’s rank is 3 then Charan’s rank must be 4, in this
Solutions for questions 13 to 15:
case, condition (v) is violated.
Let the number of chocolates with each of them be
\ Anand’s rank is either 1 or 2.
denoted by the first letter of his name.
Here we have three possibilities:
From (ii), C < S < R.
(a)
From (iii), S > N
1 2 3 4 5 6
From (iv), R - C = K - R
Gopal Anand Deepti Hriday/ Charan Brihesh/
As R - C is atleast two, and no number has a difference
Brijesh Harish
of three with more than one of the given numbers,
(b)
R - C = 2
1 2 3 4 5 6
\K-R=2
Anand Gopal Hriday/ Deepti Brijesh/ Charan
From (ii) and (iii)
Brijesh Hriday
N < C < S < R (c)
As K - R = 2, 1 2 3 4 5 6
A must be greater than R. Anand Deepti Hriday Gopal Brijesh Charan
\ The final arrangement will be

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 1.196  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

16. If Hriday got the third rank, then the only person whose As H did not get the lowest score, either A or B got the
rank is between the ranks of Deepti and Charan is ­lowest score.
(A) Anand (B) Gopal From (i) and above results, A got the first rank and B got
(C) Hriday (D) Brijesh the eight rank.
Sol. It is possible in case (b) and (c). \ The final arrangement will be as follows.
But only in case (b), we have one person between A > E > C > D > F > G > H > B
Deepti and Charan i.e., Brijesh.
19. Who got the fourth highest score?
Hence, the correct option is (D). (A) Anurag (B) Eleena
17. Who got the sixth rank? (C) Chakri (D) Dayanand
(A) Charan Sol. D got the fourth highest score.
(B) Brijesh Hence, the correct option is (D).
(C) Hriday
(D) Cannot be determined In the city XYZ, P is a water source from where water flows
into the tanks—Q, R, S, T, and U. The following diagram
Sol. We have more than one possibility.
shows the network of the source, and all the five tanks con-
Hence, the correct option is (D). nected with pipes through which water flows.
18. If Deepti got the second rank, then who got the fifth
rank? Q S
(A) Brijesh
(B) Charan
P U
(C) Hriday
(D) Cannot be determined
R T
Sol. It is possibility (c), in which Brijesh got the fifth rank.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
For any pipe, flow is the number of units of water flowing
Eight persons—Anurag, Bhadri, Chakri, Dayanand, Eleena, through it. For any tank, requirement is the number of units
Firoz, Goutam, and Hemant who got different marks are of water that the tank holds. The moment the tanks meet the
comparing their marks. We know the following information requirement the tank starts overflowing.
regarding their marks. The following information is also known.
(A) Anurag got more marks than Bhadri and the number (i) The requirement (in units) of each of the five tanks
of persons who got less marks than Anurag is the same given as well as the flow (in units) in each of the nine
as the number of persons who got more marks than pipelines given is positive integral value less than 10.
Bhadri. (ii) The flow (in units) in of each of the pipelines con-
(B) Chakri got more marks than Dayanand but less marks nected to a particular tank is different and further, none
than Eleena. of them is equal to requirement (in units) of that tank.
(C) Firoz got the fifth highest marks. (iii) The difference in the requirements of R and T is 1 unit.
(D) Goutam got more marks than Hemant, who did not get (iv) The requirement of Q is more than that of exactly two
the lowest marks. tanks.
(E) Dayanand got more marks than Goutam. (v) The sum of the requirements of all the five tanks is
17 units.
Solutions for questions 19: (vi) The flow in the pipeline connecting Q and T is 4 units
Let the marks scored by each person be denoted by the first and the flow in the pipeline connecting T and U is
letter of his name. 2 units.
From (ii), E > C > D. (vii) U has the highest requirement.
From (iv), G > H Solutions for questions 20 and 21:
From (v) D > G The network can be represented as follows:
Combining the above, we get.
d
Q S
\ E > C > D > G > H a h

from (iii), P c e
g
b U
1  2  3  4  5  6  7  8
R T i
F f

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 Chapter 8  •  Puzzles  |  1.197

Given, the total capacities of all the five tanks is 17 units. (C) 3 units
This is to be supplied by the source. (D) Cannot be determined
\ a + b = 17 and a < 10, b < 10 ol. The flow from R to Q is c and c = 1 unit.
S
Hence, the correct option is (A).
⇒ a = 9, b = 8 or a = 8, b = 9 and 17 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 7
21. Find the flow in the pipeline connecting R to T.
(or) 17 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 5 + 6 (A) 5 units
(B) 6 units
\ The capacities of 3 tanks should be 1, 2 and 3 units.
(C) 7 units
As the capacity of Q is more than that of two tanks (D) Cannot be determined
Q = 3 units Sol. The flow from R to T is 6 units.
And also U = 6 or U = 7 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Now, the difference of capacities of R and T is 1 unit, which
Solutions for questions 22 and 23:
is possible only for the capacities 1 unit and 2 units.
22. Six adults and two children need to cross a river. The
(as Q = 3 units and U = 6 or 7 units)
river is too big to swim. They found a boat, but the boat
But given i = 2 units, the capacity of T cannot be 2 units. can only withstand an adult or two children at a time.
\ T = 1 unit, R = 2 units How many crossings of the boat are needed to take all
\ S = 17 – (1 + 2 + 3 + U) the eight persons across?
(A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 26
S = 11 – U
Sol. In the first crossing, two children go to the other side.
\ S = 5 (or) 4
In the second crossing, one child returns.
When b = 9 units
In the third crossing, one adult should go to the other side.
At tank T,
In the fourth crossing the second child should return.
e+f=T+g+i
Hence, for one adult to cross, four crossings are required.
4+f=1+2+g
\ For six adults 6 × 4 = 24 crossings are required.
⇒g=f+1
In the twenty fifth crossing, the two children cross the
i and f must be two consecutive numbers.
river.
The possible value of ( f, g) cannot be
\ A total of 25 crossings are required.
(1, 2) : As T = 1, f ≠1
Hence, the correct option is (C).
(2, 3) : As R = 2, f ≠ 2
23. There are two sets of clocks. At any instant, the dif-
(3, 4) : As e = 4, g ≠ 4 ference in time between any two clocks, each selected
(4, 5) : As e = 4, f ≠ 4 from a different set, is the same. The maximum differ-
(5, 6) : If g = 6, Q = d = 3, which is not possible. ent timings that the clocks can show is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(7, 8) : If f = 7, then c = 0, which is not possible.
Sol. Let ‘a’ be the time of a clock in set A and the difference
\ The only possible value for ( f, g) is (6, 7).
of time be x.
Now we can obtain the remaining values as follows.
\The different times possible for set B are a + x and
Hence, we get the following values. a - x.
For a + x, the times possible for set A are a and a + 2x
d=2
Q=3 S = 5/4 h=
=
8 4/5 But the difference in a - x and a + 2x is 3x.
a
\ a, a + x and a - x are 3 different times possible.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
e

P g=7
=

c=1 U = 6/7
4

Satyam, Shivam, and Sundaram are taken into police cus-

b tody in a theft case. The following are the statements made
=
9 2
i=
by each of them during interrogation.
R=2 T=1
f=6 Satyam: (a) I am not the thief.
(b) Shivam is not the thief.
20. Find the flow in the pipeline connecting R to Q.
Shivam : (a) I am the thief.
(A) 1 unit
(B) 2 units (b) Satyam or Sundaram is the thief.

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 1.198  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

Sundaram : (a) I am not the thief. 25. If the statements of only one person is a combination of
(b) Shivam is the thief. true and false, then who is the thief?
(A) Satyam
Answer the following questions if exactly one of them is
(B) Shivam
the thief.
(C) Sundaram
Solutions for questions 24 and 25: (D) Either (B) or (C)
24. If exactly one statement of each is true, then who is the Sol. The statements of only one person is a combination of
thief? true and false. The person has to be Shivam.
(A) Satyam (B) Shivam Both the statements of Satyam should be either true or
(C) Sundaram (D) Either (A) or (B) false. If the statements are false, then both satyam and
Sol. Exactly one statement of each should be true. If the first Shivam would be thieves (which is a contradiction).
statement of Sundaram is false, then his second state- Therefore both the statements of Satyam should be
ment should be true (which is a contradiction as there is true, in which case Sundaram would be the thief.
only one thief). Therefore his first statement is true and Hence, the correct option is (C).
second statement is false. Therefore Satyam is the thief.
Hence, the correct option is (A).

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 Chapter 9  Clocks and Calendars
Hints/Solutions
Practice Problems 1 7. Given q = 20° and h = 2
Solutions for questions 1 to 25: 11 11
q = m – 30h or 30h – m
1. The angle covered by the minute hand in 22 minutes is 2   2  
22 × 6 = 132°. 11 11
20 = m – 30 × 2; m = 80
Hence, the correct option is (C). 2   2  
160 6
2. The hour hand will move by 6° in 12 minutes. So, m= = 14 m
­minutes hand will move 12 × 6° = 72° in 12 minutes, as 11 11
the minute hand moves by 6° in one minute. 11 11
(or)  20 = 30 × 2 – m; m = 40
2   2  
Hence, the correct option is (C). 80 3
m= =7 m
⎛ 11 ⎞ 11 11  
3. Angle will be q = ⎜ m − 30 h⎟
⎝2 ⎠ Therefore, the angle between the hands will be 20° at
6 3
⎛ 11 ⎞ hours 14 minutes past 2 and 7 minutes past 2.
⎜ 2 × 20 − 30 × 6 ⎟ = 40°. 11 11
⎝ ⎠ Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 8. Given q = 60° and h = 4
4. Angle between two hands is given by 11 11
q= m – 30h or q = 30h – m
11 2   2
q= m − 30 h here, h = 7 and m = 25
2 11 11
60 = m – 30 × 4 or 60 = 120 – m
11 275 − 210 145

1
 2   2  
\q= × 25 − 30 × 7 = = = 72 . 11
2 2 2 2 m = 180
2  
Hence, the correct option is (C). 11
(or)  m = 60
5. When hands coincide with each other the angle 2
between them is 0. Therefore, angle between two hands 2 × 60 10
is given by ∴m= =10 m
⎛ 11 ⎞ 11 11
11
q = 30h – m  ⎜∵30 h > m ⎟ here, h = 9 360 8
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠ m= = 32 m.
11 11 11  
0 = 30 × 9 – m Hence, the angle between the hands will be 60° at
2
2 8
⇒ 270 × =m 32 min past 4.
11 11
1 Hence, the correct option is (C).
\ m = 49 minutes
11 9. In 12 hours the clock will be at 30° with each other for
1 22 times. So, they will be at 30° with each other for 44
So, the hands coincide at 49 minutes past 9 hours.
11 times in a day.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (C).
6. When hands of a clock are in opposite direction the 10. Mirror time = 12 – Actual time = 12 – 10 hour
angle between them is 180°. 40 ­minutes = 1 hour 20 minutes.
11 Hence, the correct option is (D).
Therefore q = m − 30 h where q = 180° and h = 4
2 11. After 5 hours, i.e. at 10:00 p.m. the clock, which loses
11 2 minutes, will lose 10 minutes and shows 9:50 p.m.
180 = m – 120
2 So, the other clock will lose 3 × 5 = 15 minutes and
11
⇒ m = 300 show 9:45 p.m.
2
Hence, the correct option is (C).
600 6
m= m = 54 minutes 12. From 8 a.m. to 6 p.m. i.e., in 10 hours the clock gained
11 11
6 2 minutes. So, it gains 1 minute in 5 hours.
So, at 54 minutes past 4 the hands are in opposite
direction. 11 So it shows correct time at 1 pm on the same day.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (B).

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 1.200  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

13. The watch which was 6 minutes slow at 9 a.m. on a 20. The total number of odd days from 12th March to 23rd
Tuesday and 3 minutes fast at 12 noon on Wednesday. September
\ The watch gained 9 minutes in 27 hours. Month: M+A+M+J+ J+A+S
6 × 27 Odd days: 5 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 = 20 days.
So, it gains 6 minutes in = 18 hours.
9
20
\ It shows correct time after 18 hours i.e. at 3 a.m. on = 6 odd days.
Wednesday. 7
Hence, 23rd September is 6 days to Sunday i.e., Saturday.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
So, 23rd September is not a holiday.
14. Total number of days in an ordinary year are 365.
365 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Number of odd days = = 52 weeks and 1 odd day.
7 21. The number of odd days upto 15th Jan, 1601:
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1600 + (1st Jan to 15th Jan 1601)
15. For a century year to be a leap year, it should be divis- 1600 years have zero odd days and there is one odd day
ible by 400. As 2100 is not divided by 400 it is not a in 15 days.
leap year. Hence, 15th Jan 1601 is a Monday.
The next leap year is 2104 Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 22. The number of odd days from 23rd November to 14th
16. 21st March, 2000 is Monday and the year is a leap year. March in that year.
So, none of the next 3 years is a leap year. Month : N+O+S+A+J+J+M+A+M
So, the day of the week will be 3 days beyond Monday Odd days : 1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 4
i.e., Thursday.
23 odd days
Hence, the correct option is (C).
23
17. Total number of odd days from 5th January, 2001 to 25th ⇒ = 2 odd days.
January, 2001 are 7
Months: Jan + Feb + Mar + April + May + June Hence, is two days before Friday i.e., Wednesday.
+ July + Aug + Sep + Oct + Nov + Dec Hence, the correct option is (B).
Odd days 26 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 23. The number of odd days from 2001 are
+ 2 + 3 + 2 + 25 = 74 Year : 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
74
= 10 weeks + 4 odd days Odd days : 1 1 1 2 1 1 =7
7 7
4 days from Friday is Tuesday. = 0 odd day. Calendar for 2001 is same as 2007.
7
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (C).
18. A century has 5 odd days.
24. 5 days after the first meet was the last exam.
\ 5 days beyond Wednesday.
3 days after the last exam they met.
Thursday
6 days after meeting they left for vacation.
Friday
\ A total of 14 or 0 odd days.
Saturday
\ Pankaj met his friend before the exam on a Saturday.
Sunday Today is three days after meeting his friend, i.e., a
Monday Tuesday.
Hence, 14th February, 2101 will be on Monday. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 25. 2 days after loosing her cell phone she filed a com-
19. 1994 is not a leap year. plaint. 6 days after that she bought a new phone, 4 days
after that she found her old phone.
\ It has only 1 odd day.
Thus a total of 12
\ 8th Feb 1995 is one day before Wednesday.
⇒ 5 (12 – 7) odd days. i.e., Saturday.
Hence, 8th Feb 1994 is a Tuesday.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (C).

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 Chapter 9  •  Clocks and Calendars  |  1.201

Practice Problems 2 Sol. Here, q = 50° and h = 5

Solutions for questions 1 to 25: 11
q= m − 30 h
1. How many times will the minute hand and the hour 2
hand of a clock point in opposite directions between
11 11
4:00 p.m. on Tuesday and 11:00 a.m. on the following q= m − 30 h and q = 30 h − m
Thursday? 2 2
(A) 35 (B) 39 (C) 24 (D) 38 11
50 = m - 30 × 5
Sol. The exception time for the condition q = 180° is 2  
6 O’clock. From 4:00 p.m. on Tuesday to 4:00 p.m. on 11 400 4 11
200 = m or m = = 36 or q = 30 h − m
Wednesday, it occurs 22 times. 2   11 11 2
From 4:00 p.m. Wednesday to 4:00 a.m. on Thursday it 11
50 = 30 × 5 -
occurs 11 times. 2
From 4:00 a.m. to 11:00 a.m., it occurs 6 times. Hence 11 200 2
both the hands will be opposite for (22 + 11 + 6) m = 100; m = ; 18
2   11 11
= 39 times.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
6. At what time between 6 and 7 O’clock the angle
2. For how many times the minute hand of a clock coin-
between the two hands of a clock is 70°?
cides with the hour hand between 2:00 p.m. on the 2nd
5
of a month and 1:00 a.m. on the 5th of the same month? (A) 45 minutes past 6 (B) 22 minutes past 6
(A) 55 (B) 54 (C) 68 (D) 74 11
(C) 20 minutes past 6 (D) Both (A) and (C)
Sol. From 2:00 p.m. on 2 of a month to 2:00 p.m. on the 4th
nd
Sol. Here, h = 6, q = 70°
of the same month, it occurs 44 times.
11
From 2:00 p.m. to 1:00 a.m. they coincide each other \ 30h – m = ±q
for 10 times. 2
11
\ Hence, they coincides for, 44 + 10 = 54 times. 30 × 6 – m = ±70
2
Hence, the correct option is (B). 11
3. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock ⇒ m = 180 ± 70 = 110 or 250
2
when the clock shows 5:35 p.m.?
5
(A) 42.5° (B) 40° (C) 45° (D) 46° \ m = 20 or 45
11
11 5
Sol. As we know that q = m − 30 h here, we have h = 5 Hence, the angle is 70° at 20 minutes past 6 and 45
and m = 35 2 11
minutes past 6
11 Hence, the correct option is (D).
× 35 − 5 × 30 = 5.5 × 35 - 150
2 7. At what time between 4 and 5 O’clock, the hour hand
= 192.5 - 150 = 42.5° and the minute the of a clock coincide?
Hence, the correct option is (A). 9
(A) 21 minutes past 4 (B) 20 minutes past 4
4. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock 11
when the time shown by the clock is 8:40 p.m.? 4
(A) 5° (B) 20° (C) 10° (D) 15° (C) 23 minutes past 4 (D) 23 minutes past 4
11
Sol. Here, we have h = 8 and m = 40 Sol. Here, we have h = 4, q = 0°
11 11
As we know that, q = 30h - m 0 = m - 4 × 30
2 2
11
= 30 × 8 - × 40 = 240 - 220 = 20° 9
2 ⇒ m = 21
11
Hence, the correct option is (B).
9
5. At what time between 5 and 6 O’clock, will the hands At 4:21 , the hand of the clock will coincide.
11
of a clock make an angle of 50° with each other?
4 2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
(A) 36 minutes past 5 (B) 18 minutes past 5
11 11 8. A watch which gains time uniformly was observed to be 7
(C) 20 minutes past 5 (D) Both (A) and (B) minutes slow at 4:00 a.m. on a Sunday. On the subsequent

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 1.202  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

Wednesday at 12:00 noon, the watch was 9 ­minutes fast. 11. The number of minutes from 10 O’ clock to now, is five
When did the watch show the correct time? times the number of minutes from now to 12 O’clock.
(A) 1:00 a.m. on Sunday Find the present time.
(B) 3:00 p.m. on Monday (A) 11 : 40
(C) 4:00 a.m. on Tuesday (B) 10 : 24
(D) 12:00 a.m. on Sunday (C) 10 : 16
Sol. The duration from 4:00 a.m. on Sunday to 12:00 p.m. (D) Cannot be determined
on Wednesday = 80 hours. Sol. Let the given information be represented as follows:
In 80 hours, the clock gained 7 + 9 = 16 minutes. But to
10 O’clock Present time 12 O’clock
show the correct time, the clock has to gain 7 minutes.
Hence, after
7 120 minutes
\ × 80 = 35 hours from Sunday 3 p.m. it shows the
16
correct time. Let the number of minutes from present time to
35 hours from 4 am on Sunday is 3:00 p.m. on Monday. 12 O’clock be x.
Hence, the correct option is (B). \ The number of minutes from 10 O’clock to now
= 5x.
9. A clock that loses time uniformly was observed to be
\ x + 5x = 120 or x = 20
11 minutes fast at 5:00 p.m. on a Tuesday. On the sub-
sequent Sunday at 2:00 a.m., the watch was 4 minutes \ The present time is 11 : 40.
slow. When did the watch show the correct time? Hence, the correct option is (A).
(A) 10:00 p.m. on Friday (B) 11:00 p.m. on ­Sunday 12. The number of minutes from this time to 5 O’clock is
(C) 8:00 a.m. on Saturday (D) None of these four times the number of minutes from 2 O’clock to the
Sol. The duration from 5:00 p.m. on Tuesday to 2:00 a.m. on time fifty minutes ago. Which among the following can
Sunday is 105 hours. be the time shown by the clock?
In 105 hours, the clock loses 11 + 4 = 15 minutes. (A) 3:16 (B) 4:00 (C) 5:16 (D) 4:25
But to show the correct time, the clock has to lose Sol. Let the given information be represented as follows:
11 minutes.
50 minutes ago
11 Present time
\ × 105 = 77 hours. x
15
77 hours from 5:00 p.m. on Tuesday is 10:00 p.m. on 2 O’clock 50 minutes 5 O’clock
4x
Friday. 180 minutes
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Let the number of minutes from 2 O’clock to fifty
10. A watch that gains time uniformly, was observed to be ­minutes ago be x.
9 minutes slow at 1:00 p.m. on a Wednesday. It was 8
minutes fast at 9:00 a.m. on the subsequent Saturday. \ The number of minutes from present time to
When did the watch show the correct time? 5 O’clock is 4x.
(A) 12 noon on Thursday \ x + 4x + 50 = 180
(B) 1:00 p.m. on Saturday Let the number of minutes from 2 O’clock to fifty
(C) 12:00 mid night on Friday ­minutes ago be x.
(D) 1:00 a.m. on Friday \ The number of minutes from the present time to
Sol. The number of hours from 1:00 p.m. on Wednesday to 5 O’clock is 4x.
9:00 a.m. on Saturday = 68 hours. \ x + 4x + 50 = 180
In 68 hours, the clock gained 9 + 8 = 17 minutes. ⇒ x = 26
But to show the correct time, the clock has to gain \ The present time is 3:16.
9 minutes.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
9
\ × 60 = 36 hours. 13. At a time between 5 O’clock and 6 O’clock, the number
17
of minutes taken by hour hand to reach 6 O’clock mark
36 hours from 1:00 p.m. on Wednesday is 1:00 a.m. on
is three times that of the number of minutes taken by the
Friday.
minute hand to reach 6 O’clock mark. Which among
Hence, the correct option is (D). the following can be the time shown by the clock?

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 Chapter 9  •  Clocks and Calendars  |  1.203

(A) 5:15 (B) 5:20 (A) Friday (B) Sunday

(C) 5:25 (D) 5:00 (C) Saturday (D) Monday
Sol. Let the time be 5 hours x minutes. ol. There are 6 odd days in 125 days.
S
Minute hand reaches 6 at 5 hours 30 minutes and hour Hence, the six days to Friday is Saturday.
hand 6 O’clock. Hence, the correct option is (C).
\ From the answer choices the present time which sat- 19. If the first day of the years 2012 and 2023 are Mondays,
isfied the given condition is 5 hours 15 minutes. which day of the week will the last days of these years
Hence, the correct option is (A). be respectively?
14. If a year starts with Monday, then what is the maximum (A) Tuesday, Tuesday (B) Tuesday, Monday
possible number of Mondays in that year? (C) Monday, Tuesday (D) Sunday, Monday
(A) 52 (B) 54 Sol. 2012 is leap year, so it will have two odd days.
(C) 53 (D) 51 Hence 1st Jan 2013 is two days after Monday i.e.,
Sol. Irrespective of the year whether it is a leap year or a Wednesday. So, 31st Dec 2012 is a Tuesday. 2023 is a
non leap year, if the year starts with Monday then at the non leap year and have 1 odd day.
maximum there can be 53 Mondays in that year. So, 1st Jan 2024 is Tuesday. Hence, 31st Dec 2023 is
Hence, the correct option is (C). Monday.
15. If a year starts with Friday, then what is the maximum Hence, the correct option is (B).
possible number of Sundays in that year? 20. In a leap year, which month will have the same calendar
(A) 52 (B) 54 as that of January in that year?
(C) 53 (D) 51 (A) April (B) July
(C) October (D) March
Sol. If a year starts with Friday, then that year will have 53
Fridays and 53 Saturdays. All the remaining days occur Sol. In order to have same calendar between these two
for only 52 times. months the number of odd days should be zero.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Month: Jan + Feb + Mar + Apr + May + Jun + Jul
16. How many odd days are there in 100 years? Odd days: 3 + 1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2
(A) 6 At the completion of June the number of odd days
(B) 5 is zero. Hence, January and July will have the same
(C) 4 calendar.
(D) Cannot be determined Hence, the correct option is (B).
Sol. The number of odd days in first 100 years i.e., 1 AD to 21. On which dates of October, 1994 did Monday fall?
100 AD, second 100 years i.e. 101 to 200 and 3rd 100 (A) 4, 11, 18, 25 (B) 2, 9, 16, 23
years i.e. 201 to 300 is 5 but in 4th 100 years i.e. 301 to (C) 1, 8, 15, 22 (D) 3, 10, 17, 24, 31
400 is 6.
Sol. 1600 years contain zero odd days.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
300 years contain 1 odd day.
17. If April in a year starts with a particular day then which
93 years = (23 leap + 70 non leap years)
among the following months in that year will start with
the same day? Total number of odd days in 93 years = (23 × 2 + 70 × 1)
(A) July (B) August = 116 odd days ⇒ 4 odd days.
(C) November (D) December Number of odd days from 1st January to 1st October in
Sol. The number of odd days from April is as follows. 1994
Month : Apr + May + Jun + Jul + Aug + Sep + Oct Month: J+F+M+A+M+J+J+A+S+O
+ Nov + Dec Odd days: 3 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 1
Odd days :  2  3  2  3  3  2   3  = 22 odd days ⇒ 1 odd day.
2  3
The total number odd days = 1 + 4 + 1 = 6 odd days
The number of Odd days from Apr to Jul is 0. Hence,
\ 1st October 1994 is Saturday.
Apr and Jul will start with the same day of the week.
Therefore, first Monday is on 3rd October.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
So, 3, 10, 17, 24 and 31 are Mondays in October.
18. If today is Friday, then what was the day of the week
125 days ago? Hence, the correct option is (D).

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 1.204  |  Unit 2  •  Reasoning

22. If our Independence day in 2002 happens to be a (A) 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th
Thursday, on what day of the week the Independence (B) 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th, 31st
day in 2006 celebrated? (C) 4th, 11th, 18th, 25th
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (D) 5th, 12th, 19th, 26th
(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday Sol. The number of odd days between April, 12 and 1st
Sol. If 15 August, 2002 is Thursday then the same day in
th
October is 18 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 1 ⇒ 4
2006 is on \ October 1st will be Wednesday.

Year 2003 2004 2005 2006 \ In October, the Saturdays are on 4, 11, 18, 25.
Odddays 1 2 1 1 \ The possible dates are 4th, 11th, 18th and 25th of
October.
i.e., 5 days beyond Thursday is Tuesday.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
25. Day before yesterday, which was a Monday, was
23. What is the next leap year after 2396?
Rajeev’s birthday. Vineet’s birthday is after three days
(A) 2398 (B) 2408 (C) 2404 (D) 2400
from today, which is a
Sol. A century year which is divisible by 400 is a leap year (A) Monday (B) Sunday
and a leap year comes for every 4 years. (C) Saturday (D) Friday
Hence, 2396 + 4 = 2400 is a leap year. Sol. If day before yesterday was Monday, then today will be
Hence, the correct option is (D). Wednesday and the day after three days from today will
24. I met my friend on 12th April, which was a Saturday and be Saturday.
I promised him to meet in October of the same year, Hence, the correct option is (C).
but only on a Saturday. What are the possible dates on
which I can meet my friend?

Previous Years’ Questions 4. A resident female whose income lies between 8 lakhs and 10
lakhs will come under the ‘Others’ category.
1. The given statements can be represented in the following
diagram. ∴ She should fill Form T.
Hence, The correct option is (B).
Women Doctors 5. The pattern followed in the given series is as follows:
1 1 1
x1 x2 x3

2 2 , 3x2, 6 2 , 15x3, 45 2 , 157.5x4, 630
Entrepreneurs ∴ The missing number is 45.
From the above, (D) i.e., ‘Some entrepreneurs are doctors’ 6. The pattern followed in the given groups is as follows:
can be inferred. Q+6, W+3, Z+2, B
Hence, The correct option is (D). B+6, H+3, K+2, M
2. 12 × 2 + 11 = 35 W+6, C+4, G+3, J
35 × 2 + 11 = 81 M+6, S+3, V+2, X
81 × 2 + 11 = 173 Except ‘W, C, G, J’, all the others follow a similar pattern.
173 × 2 + 11 = 357 Hence, The correct option is (C).
357 × 2 + 11 = 725 7. From the given answer choices, it is clear that the statement,
∴ 725 is the next number in the series. ‘If one of the lights is red, the other light on the step will
always be blue’ implies that, if there is no red light, then there
Hence, the correct answer is 725.
should not be blue’ (which does not conform to the logical
3. The pattern followed in the given groups is as follows: connection concept). Going by this assumption, the possi-
W+8, E+6, K+4, O ble combination of lights on any step is either Red - Blue
I+8, Q+6, W+4, A or Green - Yellow. In this senario A, B and C are necessarily
true, but not D.
F+8, N+6, T+4, X
Hence, The correct option is (D).
N+8, V+6, B+2, D
8. A country may comprise of many states and union territories
Except NVBD, all the other groups follow a similar pattern.
with a high population which may be homogenous. Choices
Hence, The correct option is (D). A, B and D do not convey anything which superports the idea

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 Chapter 9  •  Clocks and Calendars  |  1.205

of cultural diversity. Only choice C, where it is mentioned therefore, the content of the paragraph would be observa-
that: ‘India is a home to 22…….,’ best superports the claim tions or premises that lead to the understanding that the
made in the given sentence. author asserts. The use of the word ‘encouraged’ indicates
Hence, The correct option is (C). that Robert Bruce regained hope or self-belief that he had
lost. Therefore, the assertion would be that there is no
9. 81, 54, 36, 24 ________.
­reason to lose hope.
x
2
x
2
x
2
x
2
Hence, The correct option is (D).
81 3 , 54 3 , 36 3 , 24 3 ,16
16. The given series is AD, CG, FK, JP.
Hence, the correct answer is 16.
A+2, C+3, F+4, J+5, O
10. Choice (A): R > P and R > M
D+3, G+4, K+5, P+6, V
Choice (B): S < M and S < P
∴ The next term in the series is OV.
From this, we cannot find the relation between R and M.
Hence, The correct option is (A).
Choice (C): P = F > M ⇒ P > M
17. 15 play hockey. 10 play both.
Choice (D): P = A < M ⇒ P < M
∴ 5 play only hockey.
In (D), P < M is true.
17 play football. 10 play both.
Hence, The correct option is (D).
∴ 7 play only football.
11. The numbers are consecutive prime numbers and they repre-
sent the place value of the letter in the group.
H (15) F (17)
∴ The next term is 17Q.
Hence, The correct option is (B).
5 10 7
12. The given number may be considered as consecutive odd
number or consecutive prime number. These numbers repre- y
sent the place value of the letter in the terms.
If the numbers are considered as odd numbers, the next term
should be 21U, but this is not given. Number of persons who play at least one game = 15 + 7 = 22.
If they are considered as prime numbers, the next term would ∴ Number of persons who do not play either game = 25
be 23W. − 22 = 3.
Hence, The correct option is (C). Hence, The correct option is (D).
13. In coding, the consonants in the phrase are written in the 18. Let the ages of H, G, I, S be h, g, i and s, respectively. All were
reverse order. born on 1st January.
e.g. ∴The difference of any two ages is an integer number of
‘best of luck’ → KCLFTSB. years.
(i) h + g > i + s
Thus, ‘ace the exam’ is represented by MXHTC.
(ii) Difference (g, s) = 1. g is not the greatest and s is not the
Hence, The correct option is (B). smallest.
14. The given series is 44, 42, 40, ……….,4, 2, 0, –2, …… (iii) No two ages are equal.
This will have the maximum sum when the last term is 2 or 0. Hence, The correct option is (A).
This maximum sum = 2 + 4 + 6 + ……..42 + 44 i lies between s and q. If this is the case, as the difference
= 2(1 + 2 +. 3 + ……+ 21 + 22) (g, s) = 1, either i = r or j = i. But this conclusion violates (iii).
 ( 22)( 23)  Choice (C) and (D):
= 2  = 506.
 2 Choice C : i > g and s > h.
∴ i + s > g + h. This violates (i).
∵Sum of the N natural numbers = (
 N N + 1) 
 . ∴ Choice (C) is ruled out.
2 
Choice (D) : i > h and s > g.
Hence, The correct option is (C).
∴ i + s > h + g. ∴Choice (D) is ruled out.
15. An assertion is a statement of belief or opinion (conclu-
sion) that one presents, arrived at on the basis of one’s By elimination, choice B follows.
knowledge or observations (premises). In this question, Hence, The correct option is (B).

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 Test
Hints/Solutions
Solutions for questions 1 to 14: Hence, 98 – 361 is the odd one.
1. The given series is of the form 11×1, 13×2, 17×3, 19×4, Hence, The correct option is (D).
23×5. 9. B×2 D+3 G×4 C;  D×2 H+3 K×4 R; F×2 L+3 O×4 H;  E×2 J+3 M×4 Z
Hence, The correct option is (B). Hence, all the terms except BDGC follow a specific pattern.
2. It is a series formed by writing two consecutive primes, one Hence, The correct option is (A).
next to the other. The next number would be 2329.
10. 6 V 12 ⇒ 6 × 12 = 72 and 72nd letter is T but not V.
Hence, The correct option is (A).
2H4 ⇒ 2 × 4 = 8 and 8th letter is H.
3. VIQ, TAC, WJR, VCE, XKS, XEG, _____. 9F18 ⇒ 9 × 18 = 162 = F
The given series is an alternate series. 3R6 ⇒ 3 × 6 = 18 = R
V+1, W+1, X+1, Y Hence, 6V12 is the odd one.
I+1, J+1, K+1, L and Hence, The correct option is (A).
Q+1, R+1, S+1, T. 11. All except moon are planets, whereas moon is a satellite.
Hence, YLT is the next term. Hence, The correct option is (C).
Hence, The correct option is (C). 12. Word: P R I V A T E
4. 25 : 343 : : 49 : ______. Pattern: The letters in the word are arranged in the alphabeti-
cal order.
The given analogy is of the form
Code: A E I P R T V
(5)2 : (7)3 : : (7)2 : (11)3
Similarly, the code for PRESENT is E E N P R S T.
where 5, 7 and 11 are consecutive primes.
Hence, The correct option is (B).
Hence, the missing term is 113 i.e., 1331. 13. Word: C H L O R A T E
Hence, The correct option is (D). Pattern: +1 –2 +3 –4 +5 –6 +7 –8
5. BIDM : DLPR : : HSBC : ______. Code: D F O K W U A W
B I D M Similarly, QFROUBHLN is the code for the word
×2 +3 ×4 +5 PHOSPHATE.
D L P R Hence, The correct option is (D).
Similarly, 14. Word: P R E S S U R E
H S B C Pattern: To the letters in the word, their opposite pairs are
×2 +3 ×4 +5 given as the code.
P V H H Code: K I V H H F I V
Hence, PVHH is the missing term. Similarly, HLOFGRLM is the code to the word SOLUTION.
Hence, The correct option is (C). Hence, The correct option is (C).
6. 2Y5 : 4W9 : : 3J6 : ______
Solutions for questions 15 and 16:  From the given information, we
2Y5 ⇒ 25 = 52 and 25th letter is Y.
can clearly say that U is at the front of the queue.From (iii) and (iv), it
4W9 ⇒ 49 = 72 and 49th letter is W. is clear that Q is the tallest and P is second tallest, and S is the second
Similarly, 62 = 36 ⇒ 3J6 shortest. So, the arrangement in the ascending order of heights is

(6 + 2) = 8 and 82 = 64 Shortest --- U

64th letter is L. S
R
Hence, the missing term is 6L4.
T
Hence, The correct option is (B).
P
7. A Pilot drives an Aeroplane, similarly a Captain navigates a
Ship. Tallest ----  Q.
Hence, The correct option is (C). 15. P is the second tallest.
8. 38 - 121 ⇒ 3 + 8 = 11 and (11) = 121
2 Hence, The correct option is (D).
16. Only T is standing in between P and R.
48 - 144 ⇒ (4 + 8) = 12 and 122 = 144
Hence, The correct option is (A).
68 = 196 ⇒ (6 + 8) = 14 and 142 = 196
From the statement that each CEO made his assistant to sit
But, 98 – 361 ⇒ 9 + 8 = 17 and 172 = 289 to his right, we can say that the CEOs and their assistants are
but not 361. seated alternately.

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 Test | 1.207

From the above and (ii), 22. Number of students who failed in exactly two subjects
CEO = 10 + 10 = 20.
Asst Asst
F
Hence, The correct option is (B).
CEO CEO 23. Number of students who failed in only Mathematics, in only
Physics, and in only Chemistry are 40, 20 and 20 respectively.
E Hence, The correct option is (A).
Asst Asst
B
CEO 24. Number of students who failed in only Mathematics = 40.

Number of students who failed in only Physics and in only
From (i), we can say that C and A are CEOs and also that they
Chemistry = 20 + 20 = 40.
sat apposite to each other.
Hence, this is true.
From (iii),
Hence, The correct option is (B).
CEO
Asst Asst
F Solutions for questions 25 to 30:
25. Since N + N = 18, N = 4 or 9 F, which is in thousands, place
CEO A C CEO
after addition resulted in 5. Hence, F is either 5 or 4 (in case
1 is carried from the previous columns).
E
Asst Asst
B If F = 4, then N = 9. Then, there is a carry of 1 to the tens posi-
CEO tion where (A + F + 1) = 8. As F is taken as 4, A = 3. Hence,
there is no carry to the hundreds place. Hence, H = 2. In such
From (iv), the arrangement will be a case, there is no carry to the thousands place. But F is taken
CEO as 4 only.
G/D ∴ Addition will not be satisfied if F is 4.
Asst H Asst
F
∴ F must be 5, among the given option only (B) satisfied this.
CEO A C CEO Hence, The correct option is (B).
26. At 10 O’ clock, the hour hand is at 10 and the minutes hand is
E at 12. i.e., they are 50 minute spaces apart. To be together, the
Asst
Asst D/G B minutes hand must gain 50 minutes over the hour hand.
CEO
We know that 55 minutes are gained in 60 minutes.
17. F is to the left of A. 60
Therefore, 50 minutes are gained in × 50
Hence, The correct option is (C). 6 55
= 54 past 10 O’ clock.
18. H is the assistant of C. 11
Hence, The correct option is (D). Hence, The correct option is (A).
19. If H is opposite to G, then D is to the right of H. 27. In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times (because
Hence, The correct option is (D). two positions of 3 O’ clock and 9 O’ clock are common).
Therefore, in a day, they are at right angles for 44 times.
Solutions for questions 20 to 24:  Venn diagrams for the failed Hence, The correct option is (C).
candidates.
28. Given that the clock is gaining time uniformly.
M = 50 P = 40 C = 30 At 1:00 pm, it is showing 12:50 pm.
M = Mathematics
And at 6:00 pm, it is showing 6:05 pm.
P = Physics So, in a span of 5 hrs, the clock is gaining 15 minutes.
40 10 20 10 20
⇒ The clock is gaining 3 minutes per hour.
C = Chemistry
So at 4:20 pm, the clock had shown the correct time.
Hence, The correct option is (B).
The questions given are solved by using the figure given 29. 21st March, 2000 is a Monday and the year is a leap year.
above.
So, none of the next 3 years is a leap year.
20. Number of students who failed in atleast one subject
So, the day of the week will be 3 days beyond Monday i.e.,
= 40 + 10 + 20 + 10 + 20 = 100. Thursday.
Hence, The correct option is (B). Hence, The correct option is (C).
21. Number of students who failed in Mathematics and Physics = 10. 30. Day before yesterday (1) Today (3) Day of watching
Number of students who failed in Physics and Chemistry the movie (Wednesday)
= 10. The day on which the ticket was booked was the sixth day
Ratio = 10 : 10 = 1 : 1. before Wednesday i.e., Thursday.
Hence, The correct option is (C). Hence, The correct option is (B).

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