CH306 406 Exam3 s03

MCQ.
If acidified Potassium Dichromate(VI) (K2Cr2O7) acts as oxidizing

agent, color changes from
A. orange to red
B. orange to green
C. yellow to green
D. yellow to red
MCQ. In an acidified solution of Potassium Dichromate(VI)

(K2Cr2O7), Dichromate ion (Cr2O7-2) becomes reduced to
A. Chromate (V) ions
B. Chromium (III) ions
C. Chromium (II) ions
D. Chromium (VI) ions
Answer
MCQ. Oxidation involves
A. loss of hydrogen
B. loss of oxygen
C. gain in hydrogen
D. gain in electrons
Answer
MCQ. In a reaction between CuSO4(s) and Zn(s),
A. Zinc experiences an increase in the oxidation state
B. undergoes oxidation
1
C. Zinc undergoes oxidation
D. all of these
Answer
MCQ. Old paintings became discolourised due to
A. Lead Sulphide PbS
B. Lead Sulphate PbSO4
C. Lead Chloride PbCl2
D. Lead Oxide PbO
CQ. Old paintings can be restored through an oxidizing agent
A. H2S
B. H2O2
C. H2PO4
D. H3O
Answer
MCQ. Oxidizing agents
A. are mostly non-metals
B. are mostly metals
C. decrease in oxidation state
D. are mostly transition metals
Answer
2
MCQ. In Copper Oxide (CuO) and Carbon Monoxide (CO) reaction,
reducing agent is
A. CuO
B. CO
C. Cu
D. CO2
Answer
MCQ. Upon oxidation of acidified potassium manganate (VII), purple
color of Manganese
A. stays
B. changes to pink
C. becomes colorless
D. becomes blue
Answer
MCQ. In a reaction between CuSO4(s) and Zn(s),
A. copper gains electrons
B. copper is being reduced
C. copper experiences a decrease in oxidation state
D. all of these
MCQ. Systematic errors occur due to
A. overuse of instruments
B. careless usage of instruments
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C. both A and B
D. human sight
Answer
MCQ. Measurement which is close to true value is
A. accurate
B. average
C. precise
D. error
Answer
MCQ. Systematic errors can be removed by
A. buying new instrument
B. breaking the instrument
C. dusting the instrument
D. recalibrating the instrument
Answer
MCQ. A measurement which on repetition gives same or nearly
same result is called
A. accurate measurement
B. average measurement
C. precise measurement
D. estimated measurement
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MCQ. Hydrogen acts as a reducing agent,
A. by taking oxygen
B. by giving electrons
C. by taking hydrogen
D. Both A and B
Answer
MCQ. Reduction involves
A. loss of oxygen
B. gain in hydrogen
C. gain in oxygen
D. loss of electrons
Answer
MCQ. Oxidizing agents does not include
A. potassium iodide
B. potassium manganate
C. potassium dichromate
D. bromine solutions
Answer
MCQ. An oxidant
A. gives oxygen
B. accepts electrons
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C. gives hydrogen
D. Both A and B
Answer
MCQ. Activation energy can be lowered through use of
A. catalysts
B. inhibitors
C. enzymes
D. insulators
While Potassium Iodide (KI) is a powerful reducing agent,
A. the iodide ion is oxidized to iodine
B. the iodide ion is reduced to iodine
C. iodine is reduced to iodide ion
D. iodine is oxidized to iodide ion
Answer
MCQ. Upon adding sugar in hot drink, slow dissolution is of
A. sugar cubes dissolve slowly
B. granulated sugar cubes dissolve slowly
C. brown sugar doesn?t dissolve easily
D. all of the above
Answer
MCQ. In Copper Oxide (CuO) and Carbon Monoxide (CO) reaction
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A. CO is being oxidized
B. CuO is being oxidized
C. CO is being reduced
D. CuO is being reduced
Answer
MCQ. While Iodide ion (I-) oxidizes to Iodine (I2), a change in color
from colorless to
A. brown occurs
B. pink occurs
C. blue occurs
D. violet occurs
Answer
MCQ. Oxidation is also referred to as
A. combustion
B. respiration
C. transpiration
D. Both A and B
A' horizon of the soils also designated as:
E. 1.
A. Eluviated horizon B. Illuviated horizon
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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2. A' value is given by:
A. Marshall B. Stevenson
C. Fred and Dean D. Larsen
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
3. Crop logging' is a method of:
Plant analysis for assessing requirement

A. Soil fertility evaluation B.
of nutrients for crop production
C. Assessing crop damage D. Testing sitability of fertilizers
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
4. Hue' is the term, which is used for the determination of:
A. Relative thickness or whiteness B. Purity of the colour
C. Dominant spectral or rainbow D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
5. "Hidden hunger" means:
Deficiency symptoms are seen when the Severe yield reduction may occur without
A. B.
nutrient is deficient appearance of deficiency symptoms
The nutrient is not deficient but Visual deficiency symptoms are

C. D.
apparently seems to be deficient suppressed by other elements
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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6. 0.03 N, NH4 F + 0.025 N, NCl, is called:
A. Bray No. 1 extractant B. Olsen extractant
C. Bray No. 2 extractant D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
7. 0.5 N, NaH CO3 (pH 8.5) is:
A. Bray No. 1 extractant B. Bray No.2 extractant
C. Olsen extractant D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
8. 1.6 to 2.3 value of nutrient index indicates:
A. Average fertility of soil B. Adequate fertility of soil
C. Both of the above D. None of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
9. The neutralizing values of the following liming materials are such that:
A. CaO > Ca(OH)2 > CaCO > CaMg(CO3)2 B. CaO > Ca(OH)2 > CaMg(CO3)2 > CaCO3
Ca(OH)2 > CaO > CaMg(CO3)2 >

C. D. CaCO3 > aO > Ca(OH)2 > CaMg(CO3)2
CaCO3
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
10. 95 to 99.5% portion of plant tissues are made up of:
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A. N, P and K B. C, Hand O
C. Ca, Mg and C D. None of these
Answer: Option B
11. A combination of many taxonomic units like soil series, phase or types is called:
A. Soil variant B. Soil series
C. Soil complex D. Soil association
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
12. A complex mixture of brown amorphous and colloidal substances synthesized by various soil
organisms is referred to as:
A. Compost B. Humus
C. FYM D. Peat super compost
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
13. A man made epipedon in many characters except P2O5 content (more than 250 ppm) is:
A. Hisitic epipedon B. Ochric epipedon
C. Anthropic epipedon D. Umbric epipedon
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
14. A pH value of 6.0 indicates that the soil reaction is:
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A. Acidic B. Alkaline
C. Neutral D. Highly alkaline
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
15. A property of fluids by virtue of which it reduces the relative motion among different layers of
fluid, is termed as:
A. Soil consistency B. Soil specificity
C. Soil viscosity D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
16. A sequence of soil of about same age, derived from same parent material and occurring under
similar climatic conditions but has different characteristics due to variation in relief and drainage is
termed as:
A. Soil series B. Catina
C. Soil phase D. None of the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
17. A soil absorbs about _____ of incoming solar radiation:
A. 5% B. 10%
C. 15% D. 20%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
18. A soil which has pH less than 8.5, ESP less than 15 and EC more than 4 mmhos/cm at 25 ?C is
called:
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A. Saline soil B. Alkaline soil
C. Saline-alkali soil D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
19. A soil, which has pH more than 8.5, ESP more than 15 and EC less than 4 mmhos/cm at 25?C, is
called:
A. Saline soil B. Alkaline soil
C. Saline alkaline soil D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
21. A sub-surface horizon in which the accumulation of organic matter and clay occurs just below the
plough:
A. A horizon B. B horizon
C. C horizon D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
22. A sub-surface horizon with highly oxidized material and 1:1 type clay minerals is known as:
A. Cambic horizon B. Sodic horizon
C. Oxic horizon D. Agric horizon
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
23. A surface horizon, which has very high organic matter, is:
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A. Hisitic epipedon B. Ochric epipedon
C. Umbric epipedon D. None of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
24. A thick dark coloured horizon, which has high, base saturation (50% or more), high organic
matter content and with strong soil structure is called :
A. Umbric epipedon B. Mollie epipedon
C. Ochrie epipedon D. Histic epipedon
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
25. A unit of soil classification as well as soil mapping which is similar to soil series in most of the soil
properties except one or two but the area of such a unit is not enough to establish it as a separate
series and show on a soil map, is known as:
A. Soil association B. Soil phase
C. Soil variant D. None of them
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
26. A vertical section of soil body, which shows different layer, is known as:
A. Soil horizons B. Soil profile
C. Regolith D. Parent material
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
27. A vertical section of the soil through all its horizons are extending into the parent material is
known as:
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A. Soil horizons B. Solum
C. Profile D. None of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
28. A well developed soil has:
A. A horizon B. B horizon
C. C horizon D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
29. Quantity of single super phosphate needed for applying 80 kg P2O5/ha to sugarcane will be:
A. 250 kg B. 500 kg
C. 750 kg D. 1000 kg
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
30. A = B (1-y) denotes A-value in which A is equal to:
A. Amount of available nutrients in soil B. Amount of total nutrients in soil
C. Amount of unavailable nutrients in soil D. None of these
Answer: Option A
31. A = RKLSCP denote universal soil loss equation in which K is equal to:
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A. Soil credibility factor B. Soil productivity factor
C. Soil leaching factor D. Crop management factor
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
32. Absorbed hydrogen and aluminium are largely responsible for:
A. Soil acidity B. Soil alkalinity
C. Neutralinity D. None of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
33. Absorption of ions in plants occurring with the aid of metabolic energy is termed:
A. Passive absorption B. Active absorption
C. Metabolic absorption D. Mass flow absorption
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
34. According to "Universal Soils Loss equation" the factors on which ration of erosion depend are:
Rainfall, soil credibility, slope length,

A. Rainfall, soil credibility and slope B. slope gradient, crop management,
erosion control practice
Soil credibility, soil type, crop

C. Rainfall, wind velocity, crop management D.
management
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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35. According to land capability classification, the soils, which are not suitable for crop cultivation,
belong to:
A. Class I B. Class III
C. Class IV D. Class VIII
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
36. According to the carrier hypothesis the specific carriers are present on:
A. Plasma lemma B. Tonoplast
C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Mitochondria
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
37. According to U.S.D.A. soil classification, the size of fine sand should be in between:
A. 0.01-0.1 mm B. 0.1-0.25 mm
C. 0.25-0.5 mm D. 0.001-0.0001 mm
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
38. Acid soils can be reclaimed by:
A. CaCO3 B. H2SO4
C. Ca SO4.2H2O D. HNO3
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
39. Active soil forming factors would include:
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A. Vegetaion and topography B. Time, topography and climate
C. Time and vegetation D. Vegetation and climate
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
40. Addition of the following material makes it possible to take good crop in sodic soil:
A. FYM B. Gree manure
C. Gypsum D. All of these
Answer: Option C
41. Adsorbed Ca++, Mg++ or A1++ may encourage soil aggregate formation starting with a process
called:
A. Flocculation B. Exfoliation
C. Soil solrization D. None of above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
42. Aeolian deposit are formed by the transportation of materials through:
A. Running water B. Wind
C. Sea D. Ice
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
43. Alfisol soils are mostly ______ in respect of their fertility and are used either as crop land or forest
or range land:
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A. High B. Medium
C. Low D. Extremely low
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
44. Alkali soils are generally found in:
A. Sub-humid climate B. Arid and semi-arid climate
C. Temperate climate D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
45. Zinc deficiency occurs in crops growing in soils having high phosphorous:
A. Light soils B. Calcareous soils
C. Soils low in phosphorous D. Soil having pH 7.5
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
46. All potassium fertilizers are physiologically alkaline, there reactionwith soils is:
A. Acidic B. Alkaline
C. Neutral D. None of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
47. Wind laden with soil particles cembodies the abrasive action, which is:
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A. Greatly increased B. Greatly decreased
C. Absolutely unaffected D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
48. Alluvial soils are rich in:
A. K2O, P2O5 and Lime B. N
C. Fe, A1 D. Si, Cu
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
49. Ammonia lost through volatilization in significant quantities from:
A. Alkaline soils B. Acidic soils
C. Saline soils D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
50. Ammonium and potassium ions are apparently just the right size to fit into the cavities between
the crystal units of:
A. Kaolinite B. Montmorillonite
C. Vermiculite D. None of these
Answer: Option C
51. Ammonium sulphate contains:
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A. 20% sulphur B. 26% sulphur
C. 16% sulphur D. 24% sulphur
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
52. Ammonium sulphate is preferred for nitrogen application in groundnut because it also provides:
A. Calcium B. Magnesium
C. Sulphur D. Copper
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
53. Among the fruits, lemon, apple, plum have been placed in the _____ salt tolerance group.
A. High B. Low
C. Medium D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
54. Amount of heat required to raise temperature of 1 gm soil from 14 to 15 ?C is known as:
A. Heat capacity B. Specific heat
C. Thermal conductivity D. None of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
55. Amount of K in felspar and mica is about:
20
A. 60% B. 20%
C. 90% D. 10%
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
56. Amount of K in plants is:
A. 8.0 to 15.0% B. 10.0 to 8.9%
C. 0.1 to 0.5% D. 0.3 to 6.0%
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
57. Amount of K in soil plough layer is about:
A. 1,000-10,000 kg/ha B. 10,000-70,000 kg/ha
C. 5,000-6,000 kg/ha D. 8,000-10,000 kg/ha
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
58. An abrupt change in textural class or no continuity found between B and C horizon is termed as:
A. Textural change B. Lithological discontinuity
C. Regolith D. None of them
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
59. An argillic sub-surface horizon with high E.S.P. (more than 15) is called:
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A. Cambic horizon B. Natric horizon
C. Agric horizon D. Oxic horizon
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
60. An epipedon, which has dark colour low in base saturation, is called:
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A. Umbric epipedon B. Histic epipedon
C. Ochrie epipedon D. Anthropic epipedon
Answer: Option A
Lipids provide insulation against cold and hot weather to

exoskeleton of insects in form of
A. cutin
B. waxes
C. cholesterol
D. oil
Answer
MCQ. A large and important group of compound which can be
made by repetition of simple isoprenoid units, is called
A. Terpenoids
B. steroids
C. carotenoids
D. terpenses
Answer
MCQ. Greater number of carbon atoms in chain results in higher
A. melting point
B. boiling point
C. freezing point
D. stability
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Two polypeptide chains of insulin are linked together by
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Disulphide bond
C. Ester bond
D. Peptide bond
Answer
MCQ. Other name for mineralocorticoid is
A. Cortisol
B. Aldosterone
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Answer
MCQ. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are called as
A. Catecholamine Hormones
B. Growth hormones
C. Luteinizing hormones
D. Follicle stimulating hormones
Answer
MCQ. Precursor protein for synthesis of thyroid hormones is
A. Thyroglobulin
B. Valine
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C. Serine
D. Alanine
Answer
MCQ. Estradiol is normally called
A. Growth hormone
B. Leutinizing Hormone
C. Sex hormone
D. Follicle stimulating hormones
Answer
Answer Answer
This set of Analytical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy”.
1. Which of the following is the principle of Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy?

a) Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapour state and are excited to higher states
b) Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is measured
c) Colour is measured
d) Colour is simply observed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Atoms in gaseous state absorb the radiation and are excited to higher state. Since, the
higher state is unstable the atom returns the ground state with the emission of radiation which is
measured.
2. In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, which of the following is the generally used radiation source?
a) Tungsten lamp
b) Xenon mercury arc lamp
c) Hydrogen or deuterium discharge lamp
d) Hollow cathode lamp
View Answer
25
Answer: d
Explanation: Hollow cathode lamp is the source used in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy. It emits
stable and intense radiation.
3. In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, with what material is the cathode in Hollow cathode lamp
constructed?
a) Tungsten
b) Quartz
c) Element to be investigated
d) Aluminium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cathode in Hollow cathode lamp is constructed of the element to be investigated.
The anode is made of tungsten.
4. How can the intensity of radiation be increased in Hollow cathode lamp?
a) Addition of non-conductive protective shield of mica
b) Addition of nitrogen to neon or argon in the lamp
c) Increasing the pressure of the filling gas
d) Changing the metal of the anode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The intensity of radiation is increased in Hollow cathode lamp by the addition of non-
conductive protective shield of mica. The protective shield can be made of glass too.
5. Which of the following is the function of the chopper in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy?
a) To split the beam into two
b) To break the steady light into pulsating light
c) To filter unwanted components
d) To reduce the sample into atomic state
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of the chopper in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is to break the steady
light into pulsating light. It is a rotating wheel placed between the flame and the source.
6. Which of the following is the function of Flame or Emission system in Atomic Absorption
Spectroscopy?
c) To filter unwanted components
View Answer
26
Answer: d
Explanation: The function of Flame or Emission system in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is to
reduce the sample into atomic state. In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, the production of atomic
vapour by flame is the most important phase.
7. Atomic absorption spectroscopy is also called as Absorption Flame Photometry.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, sample is sprayed into the flame. Hence, it is called
Absorption Flame Photometry.
8. Which of the following is not a component of emission system in Flame photometer?
a) Burner
b) Atomiser
c) Fuel gases and their regulation
d) Chopper
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Chopper is not a component of emission system in Flame photometer. The parts of
flame photometer are burner, atomiser, fuel gases and their regulation and flame.
9. Which of the following is the function of atomiser in the emission system of Atomic Absorption
Spectroscopy?
c) To break large mass of liquid into small drops
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The function of atomiser in the emission system of Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is
to break large mass of liquid into small drops. It also introduces liquid sample into the flame at a
stable rate.
10. Which of the following is not a fuel used in flame photometry?
a) Acetylene
b) Propane
c) Hydrogen
d) Camphor oil
View Answer
27
Answer: d
Explanation: The commonly used fuel gases in flame photometry are acetylene, propane and
hydrogen. Oxygen supply is given to the fuel gases.
11. Which of the following is not the requirement of a good flame in flame photometer?
a) Liquid sample must be evaporated to form solid residue
b) Solid residue must decompose to form atoms
c) Atoms must be produced such that they have the ability to get excited to higher states
d) Atoms must be produced such that they are in stable state
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Atoms must be produced such that they have the ability to get excited to higher states.
These atoms in higher states return to ground state with the emission of photons.
12. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is used for the analysis of metals.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is used for the analysis of metals.
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13. Which of the following options explains the process of ‘sputtering’ that occurs in Hollow Cathode
Lamp?
a) Positive ions collide with cathode surface and metal atoms from cathode are ejected
b) Negative ions collide with cathode surface and metal atoms from anode are ejected
c) Positive ions collide with negative ions and metal atoms from anode are ejected
d) Positive ions collide with negative ions and photons are ejected
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When potential is applied across the electrode, the gas filled in tube ionises and flow of
current occurs. Positive ions collide with negatively charged cathode surface and metal atoms from
cathode are ejected.
14. At what pressure should the gases in the sealed tube be maintained in the Hollow cathode lamp?
a) 1 to 5 torr
b) 20 to 30 torr
c) 40 to 50 torr
d) 50 to 55 torr
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It consists of a cylindrical cathode and an anode made of tungsten. The tube is sealed
and neon and argon are filled at a pressure of 1 to 5 torr.
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15. The diagram show below is the picture of Hollow cathode lamp. Identify the unmarked
component.
a) Glass tube
b) Quartz window
c) Non- conducting glass
d) Mica shield
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The unmarked portion is Quartz window. The window can be made of quartz or
borosilicate glass.
Part I: Fill in the blank(s) with the most appropriate word(s). Spelling Counts. (2 pts. each)
1. The excited state occurs when one electron in a pair of valence electrons is
promoted to an excited state and has a spin in the same direction (i.e. parallel) as the other valence electron.
2. A line in an atomic spectrum results from the relaxation of an electron

from an excited state to the ground state.
3. Spectral line widths due to uncertainty broadening usually of the magnitude of ~10-4 Å are commonly referred
to as __________________________ line widths.
4. _____________________________________________________ burners are the most common flame atomizer

which have a long path length flame and are ideal for atomic absorption spectroscopy.
5. A(n) lamp is a line source used in atomic

absorption constructed of a glass cylinder filled with Ar or Ne containing a cup shaped cathode coated with the
metal of interest and an anode constructed of tungsten.
6. are compounds added to the sample solution to

increase the residence time of the analyte atomic vapor in an electrothermal atomization furnace.
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7. A(n) is a compound, used in atomic absorption
spectroscopy, which is added to a sample matrix in order to react preferentially with a chemical interferent, so
the interferent will not react with the analyte.
8. A(n) __________________________________________ is a rotating disk with alternating opaque and open

sections that is placed in the radiation path of an absorption spectrophotometer to modulate the source radiation.
9. ______________________________________________ correction utilizes a deuterium lamp to remove

broadband background absorption from the analytical signal in flame atomic absorption spectroscopy.
10. ______________________________________________ correction utilizes an alternating magnetic field to

remove broadband background absorption from the analytical signal in electrothermal atomization atomic
absorption spectroscopy.
11. is the release of electromagnetic radiation (photons) due to

the relaxation of an atom or molecule that was excited by a high intensity lamp or laser.
12. A is a highly ionized, electrically neutral gaseous mixture of

cations and electrons that approach temperatures of 10,000 K and is commonly used as an excitation source in
atomic emission spectroscopy.
Part II: Multiple choice. Indicate the most appropriate answer in the blank provided. (3 pts. each)
1. What is the most common source and sample holder used in atomic emission spectroscopy?
A. Laminar flow burner
B. Direct current plasma
C. Electrothermal atomization furnace
D. Inductively coupled plasma
E. None of the above
2. The gas used for the formation of the plasma in an DCP is

A. acetylene.
B. oxygen.
C. nitrous oxide.
D. air.
E. argon.
3. Which of the following atomic spectroscopies is the best method for the analysis of an aqueous
metal that is not easily oxidized and sample size is not a limitation?
A. flame AAS
B. ICP-AES
C. ETA-AAS
D. flame AES
4. What type of background correction used in atomic absorption spectroscopy is based on the fact
that placing a high current on a hollow cathode lamp induces self absorption by the lamp which
results in broadening of the emission line?
A. Zeeman correction
B. Continuum source correction
C. Smith-Heiftje correction
D. Two-line correction
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5. Most of the elements that can be determined by atomic spectroscopy are
A. inert gases.
B. non-metals.
C. metals.
D. metalloids.
6. Which of the following is not a common interference in AAS?
A. formation of molecules
B. scattering of source radiation
C. formation of ions
D. overlap by other atomic absorption or emission lines
E. none of the above
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7. Of all the atomization techniques used in atomic spectroscopy, which is most commonly used
for the analysis of solid metals and alloys?
A. flame atomization
B. inductively coupled plasma
C. arc or spark atomization
D. electrothermal atomization
8. Which fuel/oxidant mixture used in a flame atomizer provides the lowest temperature flame?
A. air/acetylene
B. O2/acetylene
C. air/propane
D. N2O/acetylene
9. Atomic line broadening resulting from frequency fluctuations due to the motion of atoms in the
flame or furnace is known as
A. Doppler broadening.
B. pressure broadening.
C. uncertainty broadening.
D. Zeeman broadening.
10. Which of the following atomizer/sources is not commonly used in atomic emission
spectroscopy?
A. Electrothermal furnace
B. Laminar flow burner
C. Inductively coupled plasma
D. Microwave induced plasma
E. Direct current plasma
11. A major advantage of atomic emission spectroscopy over atomic absorption spectroscopy is
A. the low cost of instrumentation.
B. absence of interferences when performing quantitative analysis.
C. lower temperature of the atomizer.
D. ability to perform simultaneous multielement analysis.
12. An element that is not easily oxidized and not easily atomized will have a flame absorption
profile that has its maximum absorbance in which part of the flame?
A. base
B. middle
C. top
32
Part III: Short Answer
1. Draw a schematic of a single beam flame atomic absorption spectrophotometer that utilizes continuum-source
background correction and include a detailed wavelength selector. Be sure to label all of the components and
show the light path through the instrument. (10 pts.)
2. List two major interferences that the continuum-source corrects for in the single-beam FAAS
spectrophotometer drawn above. (6 pts.)
33
3. Draw a schematic of a hollow cathode lamp and briefly describe how the lamp generates radiation. Be sure to
label the major components of the lamp. (10 pts.)
5. Identify the following atomizers and list the maximum temperature achieved by each. (4 pts)
Name:
Maximum
Temperature
34
5. The emission spectrum of a hollow cathode lamp for molybdenum was
found to have a sharp peak at 313.3 nm as long as the lamp current was
less than 50 mA. At high current however, the peak developed a cup-
like crater at its maximum. Explain. (5 pts.)
6. The concentration of strontium is being determined by atomic absorption using a N2O – acetylene flame and
measuring absorption at 460.7 nm. Analysis of the pure sample results in an absorbance reading of 0.662.
Analysis of the sample with the addition of 1000 ppm potassium results in an absorbance reading of 0.893.
Explain why the addition of K to the sample increased the absorbance of strontium in the sample. (5 pts.)
Bonus: What state is the home of Dr. Gerry Meyer (seminar speaker at the ACS meeting 3/12/03) and has the
largest coal reserves in the United States? (5 pts.)
35

CH306 406 Exam3 s03

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MCQ.

If acidified Potassium Dichromate(VI) (K2Cr2O7) acts as oxidizing

MCQ. In an acidified solution of Potassium Dichromate(VI)

C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

Answer & Explanation

C. Fred and Dean D. Larsen

Answer & Explanation

3. Crop logging' is a method of:

Plant analysis for assessing requirement

C. Assessing crop damage D. Testing sitability of fertilizers

Answer & Explanation

4. Hue' is the term, which is used for the determination of:

A. Relative thickness or whiteness B. Purity of the colour

C. Dominant spectral or rainbow D. All of the above

Answer & Explanation

5. "Hidden hunger" means:

The nutrient is not deficient but Visual deficiency symptoms are

Answer & Explanation

A. Bray No. 1 extractant B. Olsen extractant

C. Bray No. 2 extractant D. None of these

Answer & Explanation

7. 0.5 N, NaH CO3 (pH 8.5) is:

A. Bray No. 1 extractant B. Bray No.2 extractant

C. Olsen extractant D. None of these

Answer & Explanation

8. 1.6 to 2.3 value of nutrient index indicates:

A. Average fertility of soil B. Adequate fertility of soil

C. Both of the above D. None of the above

Answer & Explanation

Ca(OH)2 > CaO > CaMg(CO3)2 >

Answer & Explanation

10. 95 to 99.5% portion of plant tissues are made up of:

C. Ca, Mg and C D. None of these

Answer & Explanation

A. Soil variant B. Soil series

C. Soil complex D. Soil association

Answer & Explanation

C. FYM D. Peat super compost

Answer & Explanation

A. Hisitic epipedon B. Ochric epipedon

C. Anthropic epipedon D. Umbric epipedon

Answer & Explanation

14. A pH value of 6.0 indicates that the soil reaction is:

C. Neutral D. Highly alkaline

Answer & Explanation

A. Soil consistency B. Soil specificity

C. Soil viscosity D. None of these

Answer & Explanation

A. Soil series B. Catina

C. Soil phase D. None of the above

Answer & Explanation

17. A soil absorbs about _____ of incoming solar radiation:

Answer & Explanation

C. Saline-alkali soil D. None of these

Answer & Explanation

A. Saline soil B. Alkaline soil

C. Saline alkaline soil D. All of the above

Answer & Explanation