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Kech 201

1. The document provides instructions for a JEE (Main) exam consisting of 3 parts on physics, mathematics, and chemistry. It details the exam format, duration, scoring, and prohibited items. 2. Important instructions include that the exam is 3 hours, consists of 90 questions worth a total of 360 marks, and each part has 30 questions of equal weightage worth 4 marks each for correct answers and deducting 1 mark for incorrect answers. 3. Candidates may only use the provided black ballpoint pen to fill answers and are not allowed other materials like books, papers, phones or electronic devices inside the exam hall.

Uploaded by

Akash Kadali
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© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
112 views24 pages

Kech 201

1. The document provides instructions for a JEE (Main) exam consisting of 3 parts on physics, mathematics, and chemistry. It details the exam format, duration, scoring, and prohibited items. 2. Important instructions include that the exam is 3 hours, consists of 90 questions worth a total of 360 marks, and each part has 30 questions of equal weightage worth 4 marks each for correct answers and deducting 1 mark for incorrect answers. 3. Candidates may only use the provided black ballpoint pen to fill answers and are not allowed other materials like books, papers, phones or electronic devices inside the exam hall.

Uploaded by

Akash Kadali
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Test Booklet Code

B
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions M.M. : 360

for
JEE (MAIN)-2018
(Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry)

Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.

2. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.

4. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of each
question. ¼ (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question (i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted for
indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response
is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

5. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction
No. 4 above.

6. For writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet use only Black Ball
Point Pen provided in the examination hall.

7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

1
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

PART–A : PHYSICS

1. It is found that if a neutron suffers an elastic collinear 3. A solid sphere of radius r made of a soft material of
collision with deuterium at rest, fractional loss of its bulk modulus K is surrounded by a liquid in a
energy is pd; while for its similar collision with carbon cylindrical container. A massless piston of area of a
nucleus at rest, fractional loss of energy is pc. The floats on the surface of the liquid, covering entire
values of pd and pc are respectively cross-section of cylindrical container. When a mass
(1) (0, 0) (2) (0, 1) m is placed on the surface of the piston to
compress the liquid, the fractional decrement in the
(3) (.89, .28) (4) (.28, .89)
⎛ dr ⎞
Answer (3) radius of the sphere, ⎜ ⎟ , is
⎝ r ⎠
Sol. mu = mv1 + 2m × v2 ...(i)
mg mg
u = (v2 – v1) ...(ii) (1) (2)
3Ka Ka
u
 v1   Ka Ka
3 (3) (4)
mg 3mg
2
1 1 ⎛u ⎞
mu 2  m ⎜ ⎟ Answer (1)
E 2 2 ⎝3⎠
  pd 
E 1 dP
mu 2 Sol. K  V
2 dV
8
  0.89 dV dP mg
9 ⇒  
V K Ka
And mu = mv1 + (12m) × v2 ...(iii)
u = (v2 – v1) ...(iv) 3dr mg
⇒ 
11 r Ka
 v1   u
13
dr mg
2 ⇒ 
1 1 ⎛ 11 ⎞ r 3Ka
mu 2  m ⎜ u ⎟
E 2 2 ⎝ 13 ⎠ 48
  pc    0.28 4. Two batteries with e.m.f 12 V and 13 V are
E 1 2 169
mu connected in parallel across a load resistor of
2
10 . The internal resistances of the two batteries
2. The mass of a hydrogen molecule is 3.32 × 10–27 kg. are 1  and 2  respectively. The voltage across
If 1023 hydrogen molecules strike, per second, a the load lies between
fixed wall of area 2 cm2 at an angle of 45° to the
normal, and rebound elastically with a speed of 103 (1) 11.4 V and 11.5 V
m/s, then the pressure on the wall is nearly
(2) 11.7 V and 11.8 V
(1) 2.35 × 102 N/m2 (2) 4.70 × 102 N/m2
(3) 2.35 × 103 N/m2 (4) 4.70 × 103 N/m2 (3) 11.6 V and 11.7 V

Answer (3) (4) 11.5 V and 11.6 V


Sol. F = nmvcos × 2 Answer (4)

F 2.nmv cos  y
P  Sol. y
A A
13 V, 2 
x
2  1023  3.32  10 27  103
 4
N/m2 12 V, 1  x
2  2  10
x +y 10 
= 2.35 × 103 N/m2
2
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

Applying KVL in loops 6. Two masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 10 kg, connected


12 – x – 10(x + y) = 0 by an inextensible string over a frictionless pulley,
are moving as shown in the figure. The coefficient of
 12 = 11x + 10y ...(i) friction of horizontal surface is 0.15. The minimum
13 = 10x + 12y ...(ii) weight m that should be put on top of m2 to stop the
motion is
7 23
Solving x  A, y  A
16 32
m T
V = 10(x + y) = 11.56 V
m2
2
Aliter : req   , R = 10 
3 T

Eeq E1 E2 37 m1
  ⇒ Eeq  V
req r1 r2 3
m1g

Eeq
V  R  11.56 V (1) 43.3 kg
R  req
(2) 10.3 kg
5. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius a
(3) 18.3 kg
k
under the action of an attractive potential U  – . (4) 27.3 kg
2r 2
Its total energy is Answer (4)

(1) Zero Sol. To stop the moving block m2, acceleration of m2


should be opposite to velocity of m2
3 k
(2) – m1g < (m + m2)g
2 a2
 5 < 0.15(10 + m2)
k
(3) –  m2 > 23.33 kg
4a 2
 Minimum mass = 27.3 kg (according to given
k
(4) options)
2a2
7. If the series limit frequency of the Lyman series is
Answer (1)
L, then the series limit frequency of the Pfund series
–dU is
⎡ k ⎤
Sol. F  ⎢U  – 2 ⎥
dr ⎣ 2r ⎦ (1) L/16
(2) L/25
mv 2 k
 3 [This force provides necessary (3) 25 L
r r
(4) 16 L
centripetal force]
Answer (2)
2 k
 mv 
r2 ⎡ 1 1⎤
Sol. hL  E ⎢ – ⎥  E
⎣12  ⎦
k
 K .E 
2r 2 ⎡ 1 1⎤ E
hP  E ⎢ 2 – ⎥ 
⎣5  ⎦ 25
k
 P .E  –
2r 2 L
 P 
Total energy = Zero 25
3
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

8. Unpolarized light of intensity I passes through an 2 2


h2 ⎛ n – g ⎞ hc
ideal polarizer A. Another identical polarizer B is ⎜ ⎟
2m ⎜  2g  2n ⎟ n
placed behind A. The intensity of light beyond B is ⎝ ⎠
2 2
I 2mc ⎛  g  n ⎞
found to be . Now another identical polarizer C is n  ⎜ ⎟
2 h ⎜  2n –  2g ⎟
⎝ ⎠
placed between A and B. The intensity beyond B is
2mc  2g  2n
I n 
now found to be . The angle between polarizer A h ⎛  2g ⎞
8  2n ⎜ 1– 2 ⎟
⎜  n ⎟⎠
and C is ⎝
(1) 45° (2) 60° –1
2mc  2g ⎡  2g ⎤
(3) 0° (4) 30°  ⎢1– 2 ⎥
h ⎢⎣  n ⎥⎦
Answer (1)
2mc  2g ⎡  2g ⎤
Sol. Polaroids A and B are oriented with parallel pass  ⎢1  2 ⎥
axis h ⎢⎣  n ⎥⎦
Let polaroid C is at angle  with A then it makes  2mc  2g ⎛ 2mc  g4 ⎞ 1
with B also.  ⎜ ⎟
h ⎜ h ⎟  2n
⎝ ⎠
I ⎛I ⎞
∵  ⎜  cos2  ⎟  cos2  B
8 ⎝2 ⎠  A
 2n
2 1
 cos  
2 2mc  2g 2mc  g4
A , B
  = 45° h h
9. An electron from various excited states of hydrogen 10. The reading of the ammeter for a silicon diode in the
atom emit radiation to come to the ground state. Let given circuit is
n, g be the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in 200 
the nth state and the ground state respectively. Let
n be the wavelength of the emitted photon in the
transition from the nth state to the ground state. For
large n, (A, B are constants)

(1) n2  A + Bn2 3V


(2) n2   (1) 11.5 mA
(2) 13.5 mA
B
(3) n A + (3) 0
 2n
(4) 15 mA
(4) n  A + Bn
Answer (1)
200 
Answer (3) V – Vdiode
Sol. I 
h h R
Sol. Pn  , Pg 
n g ⎡ 3 – 0.7 ⎤
⎢  1000 ⎥ mA
⎣ 200 ⎦
P2 h2 h2 3V
k  2 , E  –k  – = 11.5 mA
2m 2m 2m 2
11. An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having
h2 h 2 the same kinetic energy are moving in circular orbits
En  – , Eg  – of radii re, rp, r respectively in a uniform magnetic
2m n2 2m g2
field B. The relation between re, rp, r is
h2 ⎛ 1 1 ⎞ hc (1) re < rp < r (2) re < r < rp
En – Eg  ⎜ – 2⎟
2m ⎜  g  n ⎟  n
2 (3) re > rp = r (4) re < rp = r
⎝ ⎠
4
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

Answer (4) 14. A telephonic communication service is working at


carrier frequency of 10 GHz. Only 10% of it is
2mk
Sol. r  utilized for transmission. How many telephonic
qB channels can be transmitted simultaneously if each
r 2m qp ⎡m  4mp ⎤ channel requires a bandwidth of 5 kHz?
  ⎢ ⎥
rp q 2mp ⎣⎢q  2q p ⎦⎥ (1) 2 × 105 (2) 2 × 106

=1 (3) 2 × 103 (4) 2 × 104


Mass of electron is least and charge qe = e Answer (1)
So, re < rp = r Sol. Frequency of carrier = 10 × 109 Hz
12. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 90 pF is Available bandwidth = 10% of 10 × 109 Hz
connected to a battery of emf 20 V. If a dielectric
= 109 Hz
5
material of dielectric constant K  is inserted Bandwidth for each telephonic channel = 5 kHz
3
109
between the plates, the magnitude of the induced  Number of channels 
charge will be 5  103
(1) 2.4 nC (2) 0.9 nC = 2 × 105
(3) 1.2 nC (4) 0.3 nC 15. A granite rod of 60 cm length is clamped at its
middle point and is set into longitudinal vibrations.
Answer (3)
The density of granite is 2.7 × 103 kg/m3 and its
Sol. C' = KC0 Young's modulus is 9.27 × 1010 Pa. What will be
Q = KC0V the fundamental frequency of the longitudinal
vibrations?
⎛ 1⎞
Qinduced  Q ⎜ 1– ⎟ (1) 10 kHz (2) 7.5 kHz
⎝ K ⎠
(3) 5 kHz (4) 2.5 kHz
5 ⎛ 3⎞ Answer (3)
  90  10–12  20 ⎜ 1– ⎟
3 ⎝ 5⎠
V 1 Y
= 1.2 nC Sol. f0  
2L 2L 
13. For an RLC circuit driven with voltage of amplitude vm
1 1 9.27  1010
and frequency 0  the current exibits =  4.88 kHz  5 kHz
LC 2  0.6 2.7  103
resonance. The quality factor, Q is given by
16. Seven identical circular planar disks, each of mass
R M and radius R are welded symmetrically as shown.
(1)
(0C ) The moment of inertia of the arrangement about the
CR axis normal to the plane and passing through the
(2) point P is
0
0 L P
(3)
R
0 R O
(4)
L
Answer (3)

0
Sol. Quality factor, Q  73 181
(2) (1) MR 2 (2) MR 2
2 2
0 L 19 55
Q (3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
R 2 2
5
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

Answer (2) E l
  1
E  ir l 2
MR 2 ⎛ MR 2 ⎞
Sol. I0   6⎜  M (2R )2 ⎟ E 52
2 ⎜ ⎟  
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ E ⎞ 40
E ⎜ ⎟ r
IP = I0 + 7M(3R)2 ⎝r 5⎠
r  5 13
181  
= MR 2 5 10
2
 r = 1.5 
17. Three concentric metal shells A, B and C of
19. An EM wave from air enters a medium. The electric
respective radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have surface
charge densities +, – and + respectively. The  ⎡ ⎛z ⎞⎤
fields are E1  E01xˆ cos ⎢ 2 ⎜ – t ⎟ ⎥ in air and
potential of shell B is ⎣ ⎝c ⎠⎦

 ⎡ b2 – c 2 ⎤  ⎡ b2 – c 2 ⎤ E2  E02 xˆ cos[k (2z – ct )] in medium, where the
(1)  ⎢ b  a⎥ (2)  ⎢ c  a⎥

0 ⎣ ⎥⎦ ⎢
0 ⎣ ⎥⎦ wave number k and frequency  refer to their values

 ⎡ a2 – b2 ⎤  ⎡ a2 – b2 ⎤ in air. The medium is non-magnetic. If r1 and r2


(3)  ⎢  c⎥ (4)  ⎢  c⎥
0 ⎢⎣ a ⎥⎦ 0 ⎢⎣ b ⎥⎦ refer to relative permittivities of air and medium
respectively, which of the following options is
Answer (4) correct?
Sol. C
r1 1 r1 1
B (1)  (2) 
+ r2 4 r2 2
A –
+
a r1
r1
(3) 4 (4)   2
b r2 r2

Answer (1)
c
 ⎡ ⎛z ⎞⎤
⎡ 4a2 4b 2 4c 2 ⎤ Sol. E1  E01xˆ cos ⎢ 2 ⎜ – t ⎟ ⎥ air
VB  ⎢   ⎥ ⎣ ⎝ c ⎠⎦
⎢⎣ 40 b 40 b 40 c ⎥⎦

E2  E02 xˆ cos ⎡⎣ k  2z – ct  ⎤⎦ medium
 ⎡ a2  b2 ⎤
VB  ⎢  c⎥
0 ⎢⎣ b ⎥⎦ During refraction, frequency remains unchanged,
whereas wavelength gets changed.
18. In a potentiometer experiment, it is found that no
current passes through the galvanometer when the  k' = 2k (From equations)
terminals of the cell are connected across 52 cm of
the potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted by a 2 ⎛ 2 ⎞
  2⎜ ⎟
resistance of 5, a balance is found when the cell ' ⎝ 0 ⎠
is connected across 40 cm of the wire. Find the
internal resistance of the cell. 0
 ' 
(1) 2  2

(2) 2.5  c
 v
2
(3) 1 
(4) 1.5  1 1 1
  
0  2 2 0 1
Answer (4)
Sol. ∵ E  l1 1 1
 
and E – ir  l2 2 4

6
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

20. The angular width of the central maximum in a single


m
slit diffraction pattern is 60°. The width of the slit is T  2
1 m. The slit is illuminated by monochromatic plane K
waves. If another slit of same width is made near it,
Young's fringes can be observed on a screen placed 1 1 K
f    1012
at a distance 50 cm from the slits. If the observed T 2 m
fringe width is 1 cm, what is slit separation
distance? 1 K
   1024
(i.e. distance between the centres of each slit.) 42 m

(1) 75 m (2) 100 m


4  10  108  103
K  42 m  1024   1024
(3) 25 m (4) 50 m 6.02  1023
Answer (3) = 7.1 N/m
Sol. dsin =  22. From a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass
R
9M, a small disc of radius is removed as shown
3
 60° in the figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining
d
disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the
disc and passing through centre of disc is
(1) 10MR2
30°
d 37
(2) MR 2 2R
 9
3
d (3) 4MR2
 [d = 1 × 10–6 m]
2
R
  = 5000 Å 40
(4) MR 2
9
D
Fringe width, B  (d ' is slit separation) Answer (3)
d'
m
5000  10 –10  0.5 Sol. (9M )
10 –2
 m M
d' 9

 d' = 25 × 10–6 m = 25 m 9M
21. A silver atom in a solid oscillates in simple harmonic
motion in some direction with a frequency of
1012/second. What is the force constant of the bonds
connecting one atom with the other? (Mole wt. of
silver = 108 and Avagadro number = 6.02 × 1023 gm (9M )  R 2
I1 
mole–1) 2
(1) 2.2 N/m (2) 5.5 N/m 2
⎛R⎞
(3) 6.4 N/m (4) 7.1 N/m M ⎜ ⎟ 2 2
I2  ⎝ 3 ⎠  M  ⎛ 2R ⎞  MR
2 ⎜ 3 ⎟ 2
Answer (4) ⎝ ⎠

x  Ireq = I1 – I2
Sol.
9 MR 2
 MR 2 –
2 2
Kx = ma  a = (K/m)x
= 4MR2
7
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

23. In a collinear collision, a particle with an initial speed 0 I


v0 strikes a stationary particle of the same mass. If B1 
2R
the final total kinetic energy is 50% greater than the
original kinetic energy, the magnitude of the relative 0I
B2 
velocity between the two particles, after collision, is 2  2R 
v0 v0
(1) (2) B1
2 2   2
B2
v0
(3) (4) 2v 0 25. The density of a material in the shape of a cube is
4
determined by measuring three sides of the cube
Answer (4) and its mass. If the relative errors in measuring the
Sol. It is a case of superelastic collision mass and length are respectively 1.5% and 1%, the
maximum error in determining the density is
mv0 = mv1 + mv2 ...(i)
(1) 4.5% (2) 6%
 v1 + v2 = v0
(3) 2.5% (4) 3.5%
1
2
 3⎛1 ⎞
m v12  v 22  ⎜ mv 02 ⎟
2⎝2 ⎠
 Answer (1)

m
Sol.  
l3
  
v12  v 22 
3 2
2
v0 ...(ii)
d  dm dl
 3
 m l
 (v1  v 2 )2  v12  v 22  2v1v 2
= (1.5 + 3 × 1)
= 4.5%
3v 02
 v 02   2v1v 2 26. On interchanging the resistances, the balance point
2
of a meter bridge shifts to the left by 10 cm. The
resistance of their series combination is 1 k. How
v 02
 2v1v 2  – ...(iii) much was the resistance on the left slot before
2 interchanging the resistances?
2 2 (1) 550 
 (v1 – v2)2 = (v1 + v2)2 – 4v1v2 = v 0  v 0
(2) 910 
 v1 – v 2  2 v 0 (3) 990 
24. The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a (4) 505 
current I, is m and the magnetic field at the centre Answer (1)
of the loop is B 1. When the dipole moment is
doubled by keeping the current constant, the R1 l
magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B2. The Sol. R  (100 – l )
2

B1
ratio B is R2 (l – 10)
2 
R1 (110 – l )
1 (100 – l)(110 – l) = l(l – 10)
(1) 2 (2)
2
11000 + l2 – 210l = l2 – 10l
(3) 2 (4) 3  l = 55 cm

Answer (1) ⎛ 55 ⎞
R1  R2 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 45 ⎠
 
2
Sol. m = I(R2), m  2m  I   2R R1 + R2 = 1000 

 R   2R R1 = 550 

8
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

27. In an a.c. circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f. and Answer (4)


current are given by
Sol. Options (1), (2) and (3) correspond to uniformly
e = 100 sin30 t accelerated motion in a straight line with positive
initial velocity and constant negative acceleration,
⎛ ⎞
i  20 sin ⎜ 30t  ⎟ whereas option (4) does not correspond to this
⎝ 4 ⎠ motion.
In one cycle of a.c., the average power consumed by 29. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas occupies a
the circuit and the wattless current are, respectively volume V at 27°C. The gas expands adiabatically to
a volume 2 V. Calculate (a) the final temperature of
50
(1) ,0 the gas and (b) change in its internal energy.
2
(1) (a) 189 K (b) –2.7 kJ
(2) 50, 0
(2) (a) 195 K (b) 2.7 kJ
(3) 50, 10
(3) (a) 189 K (b) 2.7 kJ
1000
(4) , 10 (4) (a) 195 K (b) –2.7 kJ
2
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
Sol. TV  – 1 = Constant
Sol. Pav = Erms Irms cos
5
100 20 1 1000 ⎛ V ⎞3
–1
    Tf  300 ⎜  189 K
2 2 2 2 ⎟
⎝ 2V ⎠

20 1
iwattless = irms sin     10 3R
2 2 U  nCv T  2   [189 – 300]
2
28. All the graphs below are intended to represent the
= –2.7 kJ
same motion. One of them does it incorrectly. Pick
it up. 30. A particle is moving with a uniform speed in a
circular orbit of radius R in a central force inversely
Position
proportional to the nth power of R. If the period of
rotation of the particle is T, then
(1) Time
(1) T  R ( n 1)/2

(2) T  R n /2
Velocity

(3) T  R 3/2 for any n


(2) Time
n
1
(4) T  R2
Velocity Answer (1)

(3) Position 2 –n k
Sol. m R  k R 
Rn

Distance 1 1
 
T 2
R n 1
(4) Time
⎛ n 1 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
 T  R⎝ 2 ⎠

9
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

PART–B : MATHEMATICS

31. If the tangent at (1, 7) to the curve x2 = y – 6 ⎛5 8 ⎞


touches the circle x2 + y2 + 16x + 12y + c = 0 then Also, L2 passes through ⎜ , , 0 ⎟
⎝7 7 ⎠
the value of c is
5 8
(1) 85 x– y– z
7 7
(2) 95 So, required plane is 1 1 0 =0
(3) 195 3 –5 –7
(4) 185 ⇒ 7x – 7y + 8z + 3 = 0
Answer (2) 3 1
Now, perpendicular distance = =
Sol. Equation of tangent at (1, 7) to curve x2 = y – 6 is 162 3 2

1 33. If α, β ∈ C are the distinct roots, of the equation


x –1= ( y + 7) – 6 x2 – x + 1 = 0, then α101 + β107 is equal to
2
(1) 1 (2) 2
2x – y + 5 = 0 …(i)
(3) –1 (4) 0
Centre of circle = (–8, –6)
Answer (1)
Radius of circle = 64 + 36 – c = 100 – c Sol. x2 – x + 1 = 0
∵ Line (i) touches the circle Roots are –ω, –ω2
Let α = –ω, β = –ω2
2(–8) – (–6) + 5
∴ = 100 – c α101 + β107 = (–ω)101 + (–ω2)107
4 +1
= –(ω101 + ω214)
5 = 100 – c = –(ω2 + ω)
⇒ c = 95 =1

32. If L 1 is the line of intersection of the planes 34. Tangents are drawn to the hyperbola 4x2 – y2 = 36
2x – 2y + 3z – 2 = 0, x – y + z + 1 = 0 and L2 is at the points P and Q. If these tangents intersect at
the point T(0, 3) then the area (in sq. units) of ΔPTQ
the line of intersection of the planes
is
x + 2y – z – 3 = 0, 3x – y + 2z – 1 = 0, then the
distance of the origin from the plane containing the (1) 60 3 (2) 36 5
lines L1 and L2, is
(3) 45 5 (4) 54 3
1 1
(1) (2) Answer (3)
2 2 2
Sol. Clearly PQ is a chord of contact,
1 1 i.e., equation of PQ is T ≡ 0
(3) (4)
4 2 3 2
⇒ y = –12
Answer (4) Solving with the curve, 4x2 – y2 = 36
⇒ x = ±3 5, y = −12
iˆ jˆ kˆ
Sol. L1 is parallel to 2 –2 3 = iˆ + jˆ i.e., P (3 5, − 12); Q( −3 5, − 12); T (0,3)
1 –1 1
Area of ΔPQT is y
T (0, 3)
1
iˆ jˆ kˆ Δ = × 6 5 × 15
2 x
L2 is parallel to 1 2 –1 = 3iˆ – 5 jˆ – 7kˆ
3 –1 2 = 45 5 Q P

10
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

35. If the curves y2 = 6x, 9x2 + by2 = 16 intersect each 37. Let S = {x ∈ R : x ≥ 0 and
other at right angles, then the value of b is
9
2 x –3 + x ( )
x – 6 + 6 = 0 }. Then S :
(1) 4 (2)
2 (1) Contains exactly two elements
7 (2) Contains exactly four elements
(3) 6 (4)
2
(3) Is an empty set
Answer (2)
(4) Contains exactly one element
3
Sol. y2 = 6x ; slope of tangent at (x1, y1) is m1 = Answer (1)
y1

also 9 x 2 + by 2 = 16; slope of tangent at (x1, y1) is Sol. 2| x – 3 | + x ( x – 6) + 6 = 0

−9x1
m2 = 2| x – 3| + ( x – 3 + 3)( x – 3 – 3) + 6 = 0
by1

As m1m2 = −1 2| x – 3| + ( x – 3)2 – 3 = 0
−27 x1
⇒ = −1 ( x – 3)2 + 2| x – 3| – 3 = 0
by12
9
⇒ b=
2
( as y12 = 6 x1 ) (| x – 3 | +3)(| x – 3 | –1) = 0

36. If the system of linear equations ⇒ | x – 3| = 1, | x – 3| + 3 ≠ 0


x + ky + 3z = 0
3x + ky – 2z = 0 ⇒ x – 3 = ±1
2x + 4y – 3z = 0
⇒ x = 4, 2
xz
has a non-zero solution (x, y, z), then is equal x = 16, 4
y2
to 38. If sum of all the solutions of the equation
(1) –30 (2) 30 ⎛ ⎛π ⎞ ⎛π ⎞ 1⎞
8 cos x ⋅ ⎜ cos ⎜ + x ⎟ ⋅ cos ⎜ − x ⎟ − ⎟ = 1 in [0, π]
(3) –10 (4) 10 ⎝ ⎝6 ⎠ ⎝6 ⎠ 2⎠
Answer (4) is kπ, then k is equal to :
Sol. ∵ System of equation has non-zero solution. 8 20
(1) (2)
9 9
1 k 3
2 13
∴ 3 k –2 = 0 (3) (4)
3 9
2 4 –3 Answer (4)

⇒ 44 – 4k = 0 ⎛ π 1⎞
Sol. 8cos x ⋅ ⎜ cos2 − sin2 x − ⎟ = 1
⎝ 6 2 ⎠
∴ k = 11
Let z = λ ⎛3 1 2 ⎞
⇒ 8cos x ⎜ − − 1 + cos x ⎟ = 1
⎝ 4 2 ⎠
∴ x + 11y = –3λ
⎛ −3 + 4cos2 x ⎞
and 3x + 11y = 2λ 8cos x ⎜ ⎟ =1
⇒ ⎜ 4 ⎟
5λ λ ⎝ ⎠
∴ x= ,y =– ,z=λ
2 2 ⇒ cos 3 x = 1
5λ 1
·λ ⇒ cos3 x =
xz 2
∴ = 2 = 10
y2 ⎛ λ⎞
2
π 5π 7π
⎜– 2⎟ ⇒ 3x = , ,
⎝ ⎠ 3 3 3
11
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

π 5π 7π 41. Two sets A and B are as under :


⇒ x= , ,
9 9 9 A = {(a, b) ∈ R × R : |a – 5| < 1 and |b – 5| < 1}
13π B = {(a, b) ∈ R × R : 4(a – 6)2 + 9(b – 5)2 ≤ 36},
⇒ Sum =
9 then
13 (1) A ∩ B = φ (an empty set)
⇒ k=
9
(2) Neither A ⊂ B nor B ⊂ A
39. A bag contains 4 red and 6 black balls. A ball is
drawn at random from the bag, its colour is observed (3) B ⊂ A
and this ball along with two additional balls of the (4) A ⊂ B
same colour are returned to the bag. If now a ball is
Answer (4)
drawn at random from the bag, then the probability
that this drawn ball is red, is: Sol. As, |a – 5| < 1 and |b – 5| < 1

1 3 (a − 6)2 (b − 5)2
(1) (2) ⇒ 4 < a, b < 6 and + ≤1
5 4 9 4
3 2 Taking axes as a-axis and b-axis
(3) (4)
10 5 a=6 (a − 6)2 (b − 5)2
+ ≤1
Answer (4) 9 4
(6, 7)
b
Sol. E1 : Event that first ball drawn is red. P Q (6, 6) ε


E2 : Event that first ball drawn is black. (3, 5) (6, 5) (9, 5)
b=5
E : Event that second ball drawn is red. (4, 5) (6, 4)
S R
⎛E ⎞ ⎛ E ⎞
P (E ) = P (E1 ).P ⎜ ⎟ + P (E2 ).P ⎜ ⎟ (6, 3)
E
⎝ 1⎠ ⎝ E2 ⎠
(0, 0) a
4 6 6 4 2
= × + × =
10 12 10 12 5

1 1 The set A represents square PQRS inside set B


40. Let f ( x ) = x 2 + and g ( x ) = x − , x ∈ R − {−1, 0,1} . representing ellipse and hence A ⊂ B.
2 x
x
42. The Boolean expression ~ ( p ∨ q ) ∨ (~ p ∧ q )
f (x)
If h ( x ) = , then the local minimum value of h(x) is equivalent to
g (x)
is: (1) q (2) ~q
(1) −2 2 (2) 2 2 (3) ~p (4) p

(3) 3 (4) –3 Answer (3)

Answer (2) Sol. ∼ ( p ∨ q ) ∨ ( ∼ p ∧ q )

1 By property, ( ∼ p ∧ ∼ q ) ∨ ( ∼ p ∧ q )
x2 +
2
x
Sol. h ( x ) = = ~p
x−1
x
43. Tangent and normal are drawn at P(16, 16) on the
(
= x−1 +
2
) parabola y2 = 16x, which intersect the axis of the
x x−1 ( x ) parabola at A and B, respectively. If C is the centre
of the circle through the points P, A and B and
∠CPB = θ, then a value of tan θ is
x−
1
> 0, ( x − 1x ) + 2
∈ (2 2 , ∞]
x ( x−1
x ) (1) 3 (2)
4
3
x−
1
< 0, ( x − 1x ) + 2
∈ ( −∞, −2 2] 1
x ( x−1
x)
(3)
2
(4) 2

Local minimum is 2 2 Answer (4)

12
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

Sol. y2 = 16x 45. The sum of the co-efficients of all odd degree terms

( ) + (x − ),
5 5
Tangent at P(16, 16) is 2y = x + 16 ... (1) in the expansion of x + x 3 − 1 x3 − 1
Normal at P(16, 16) is y = –2x + 48 ... (2)
(x > 1) is
i.e., A is (–16, 0); B is (24, 0)
(1) 1
Now, Centre of circle is (4, 0)
(2) 2
4 (3) –1
Now, mPC =
3
(4) 0
mPB = –2 Answer (2)

( ) ( )
4 5 5
+2 3 3
Sol. x + x − 1 + x − x − 1
i.e., tan θ = 3 =2
8
1−
3 = 2 ⎡⎣ 5C0 x 5 + 5C2 x 3 ( x 3 − 1) + 5C4 x ( x 3 − 1)2 ⎤⎦

P(16, 16)
= 2 ⎡⎣x 5 + 10( x 6 − x 3 ) + 5 x ( x 6 − 2 x 3 + 1)⎤⎦
θ
= 2 ⎡⎣x 5 + 10 x 6 − 10 x 3 + 5 x 7 − 10 x 4 + 5 x⎤⎦
A C(4, 0) B(24, 0)
= 2 ⎡⎣5 x 7 + 10 x 6 + x 5 − 10 x 4 − 10 x 3 + 5 x⎤⎦

Sum of odd degree terms coefficients

x − 4 2x 2x = 2(5 + 1 – 10 + 5)

44. If 2 x x − 4 2 x = ( A + Bx )( x − A)2 , then the =2


2x 2x x−4 46. Let a1, a2, a3, ...., a49 be in A.P. such that
ordered pair (A, B) is equal to 12

(1) (–4, 5)
∑ a4k +1 = 416 and a9 + a43 = 66 .
k =0

(2) (4, 5) If a12 + a22 + .... + a17


2
= 140m , then m is equal to
(3) (–4, –5) (1) 34 (2) 33
(4) (–4, 3) (3) 66 (4) 68
Answer (1) Answer (1)
x − 4 2x 2x Sol. Let a1 = a and common difference = d
Sol. Δ = 2 x x − 4 2x Given, a1 + a5 + a9 + ..... + a49 = 416
2x 2x x−4
⇒ a + 24d = 32 ...(i)
x = –4 makes all three row identical
Also, a9 + a43 = 66 ⇒ a + 25d = 33 ...(ii)
hence (x + 4)2 will be factor Solving (i) & (ii),
Also, C1 → C1 + C2 + C2 We get d = 1, a = 8

5 x − 4 2x 2x Now, a12 + a22 + ..... + a17


2
= 140m
Δ = 5x − 4 x − 4 2x
5x − 4 2x x−4 ⇒ 82 + 92 + ..... + 242 = 140m

⇒ 5x – 4 is a factor 24 × 25 × 49 7 × 8 × 15
⇒ − = 140m
6 6
Δ = λ (5 x − 4)( x + 4)2

∴ B = 5, A = –4 ⇒ m = 34

13
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

47. A straight line through a fixed point (2, 3) intersects π


the coordinate axes at distinct points P and Q. If O 2
2 x sin2 xdx
is the origin and the rectangle OPRQ is completed, Also, I =
∫ 1 + 2x
... (ii)
then the locus of R is π

2
(1) 3x + 2y = xy (2) 3x + 2y = 6xy
(3) 3x + 2y = 6 (4) 2x + 3y = xy Adding (i) and (ii)
Answer (1) π
2
x y 2
Sol. Let the equation of line be + =1 ...(i)
2I = ∫ sin xdx
a b −
π
2
(i) passes through the fixed point (2, 3)
π π
2 3 2 2
⇒ + =1 ...(ii) 2I = 2 ∫ sin2 xdx ⇒ I = ∫ sin2 xdx ... (iii)
a b
0 0
P(a, 0), Q(0, b), O(0, 0), Let R(h, k),
π
2
I = ∫ cos2 xdx ... (iv)
0
Adding (iii) & (iv)
π
2
⎛h k ⎞ π π
Midpoint of OR is ⎜ , ⎟
2I = ∫ dx = ⇒I =
⎝2 2⎠ 2 4
0
⎛a b⎞
Midpoint of PQ is ⎜ , ⎟ ⇒ h = a, k = b ... (iii) 49. Let g ( x ) = cos x 2 , f ( x ) = x , and α, β (α < β) be
⎝2 2⎠
the roots of the quadratic equation 18x2 – 9πx + π2
From (ii) & (iii), = 0. Then the area (in sq. units) bounded by the
2 3 curve y = (gof)(x) and the lines x = α, x = β and
+ =1 ⇒ locus of R(h, k) y = 0, is
h k
2 3 1 1
+ =1 ⇒ 3x + 2y = xy (1) ( 3 − 2) (2) ( 2 − 1)
x y 2 2
π 1 1
(3) ( 3 − 1) (4) ( 3 + 1)
2 2 2 2
sin x
48. Then value of ∫ x
dx is :
Answer (3)
π 1+ 2

2 Sol. 18 x 2 − 9πx + π2 = 0
(1) 4π
(6 x − π)(3 x − π) = 0
π
(2) π π
4 ∴ x= ,
6 3
π π π
(3) α= , β=
8 6 3
y = (gof )( x ) = cos x
π
(4) π π
2
Area =
3

π cos x dx = (sin x) 3π
Answer (2) 6 6

π 3 1
= −
2
sin2 xdx 2 2
Sol. I =
∫ 1 + 2x
... (i)
1

π
2
=
2
( )
3 − 1 sq. units

14
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

50. For each t ∈ R, let [t] be the greatest integer less 1 −1


than or equal to t. Then (1) +C (2) +C
1 + cot 3 x 1 + cot 3 x
⎛ ⎡ 1⎤ ⎡2⎤ ⎡ 15 ⎤ ⎞
lim x ⎜ ⎢ ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥ + ...... + ⎢ ⎥ ⎟
1 −1
x →0 + ⎝ ⎣ x ⎦ ⎣ x ⎦ ⎣ x ⎦⎠ +C +C
(3) (4)
3(1 + tan3 x ) 3(1 + tan3 x )
(1) Is equal to 120 (2) Does not exist (in R)
(3) Is equal to 0 (4) Is equal to 15 (where C is a constant of integration)
Answer (1) Answer (4)

1 ⎡ 1⎤ 1 sin2 x.cos2 x dx
−1 < ⎢ ⎥ ≤
Sol. As
x ⎣x⎦ x Sol. I = ∫
{(sin }
2
2
x + cos2 x ) (sin3 x + cos3 x )
2 ⎡2⎤ 2
−1 < ⎢ ⎥ ≤
x ⎣x⎦ x Dividing the numerator and denominator by cos6x

15
⎛r ⎞ 15 ⎛ r ⎞ 15
r tan2 x sec 2 x dx
∑ ⎜⎝ x − 1⎟⎠ < ∑ ⎜⎝ x ⎟⎠ ≤ ∑ x ⇒ I=∫
(1 + tan3 x )2
r =1 r =1 r =1

⎛ 15 ⎡ r ⎤ ⎞ Let, tan3x = z
120 < lim x ⎜ ∑ ⎢ ⎥ ⎟ ≤ 120 ⇒ 3tan2x.sec2xdx = dz
⎜ ⎟
x →0+ ⎝ r =1 ⎣ x ⎦ ⎠

1 dz −1
3 ∫ z 2 3z
⎛ ⎡ 1⎤ ⎡2⎤ I= = +C
⎡ 15 ⎤ ⎞
⇒ lim x ⎜ ⎢ ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥ + ...... + ⎢ ⎥ ⎟ = 120
x →0 + ⎝⎣x⎦ ⎣x⎦ ⎣ x ⎦⎠
−1
= +C
9 9 3(1 + tan3 x )
51. If ∑ ( xi − 5) = 9 and ∑ ( xi − 5)2 = 45 , then the
i =1 i =1
53. Let S = {t ∈ R : f ( x ) = x − π ·(e|x| − 1)sin | x | is not
standard deviation of the 9 items x1, x2, ...., x9 is
differentiable at t}. Then the set S is equal to
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) { π } (2) {0, π}
(3) 9 (4) 4
(3) φ (an empty set) (4) { 0 }
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
Sol. Standard deviation of xi – 5 is
Sol. f ( x ) = | x − π | (e|x| − 1)sin| x |
2
9 ⎛ 9 ⎞
∑ ( xi − 5)2 ⎜ ∑ ( xi − 5) ⎟ x = π, 0 are repeated roots and also continuous.
i =1 ⎜ i =1 ⎟
σ= −⎜ ⎟ Hence, 'f' is differentiable at all x.
9 9
⎜ ⎟
⎜ ⎟ 54. let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation
⎝ ⎠
dy ⎛π⎞
sin x + y cos x = 4 x , x ∈ (0, π). If y = ⎜ ⎟ = 0 ,
⇒ σ = 5 −1 = 2 dx ⎝2⎠
As, standard deviation remains constant if ⎛π⎞
observations are added/subtracted by a fixed then y ⎜ ⎟ is equal to :
⎝6⎠
quantity.
So, σ of xi is 2 8 2 4 2
(1) – π (2) – π
52. The integral 9 9

sin2 x cos2 x 4 –8
∫ (sin5 x + cos3 x sin2 x + sin3 x cos2 x + cos5 x )2 dx (3) π2 (4) π2
9 3 9 3
is equal to
Answer (1)

15
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

⇒ λ = –1
dy
Sol. sin x + y cos x = 4 x , x ∈ (0, π) 
dx So, u = −4(iˆ − 2 ˆj − 4kˆ )

dy 4x ⇒ | u |2 = 336
+ y cot x =
dx sin x
56. The length of the projection of the line segment
joining the points (5, –1, 4) and (4, –1, 3) on the
cot x dx
∴ I.F. = e ∫ = sin x plane, x + y + z = 7 is:
∴ Solution is given by 1
(1)
3
4x
y sin x = ∫ sin x ·sin x dx (2)
2
3
y·sinx = 2x2 + c 2
(3)
3
π π2
when x = ,y=0 ⇒ c=– 2
2 2 (4)
3
Answer (2)
π2 2
∴ Equation is : y sin x = 2 x – Sol. B (4, –1, 3)
2

π 1 π2 π 2 n=i+j+k
when x = then y · = 2· –
6 2 36 2

A C
8 π2
∴ y=– (5, –1, 4)
9 
Normal to the plane x + y + z = 7 is n = iˆ + ˆj + kˆ
  
55. Let u be a vector coplanar with the vectors
   AB = −iˆ − kˆ ⇒ | AB | = AB = 2
a = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj − kˆ and b = ˆj + kˆ . If u is perpendicular   
BC = Length of projection of AB on n = | AB ⋅ nˆ |
   2
to a and u ⋅ b = 24 , then u is equal to
( iˆ + ˆj + kˆ ) = 2
(1) 256 (
= −iˆ − kˆ ⋅) 3 3
(2) 84
Length of projection of the line segment on the plane
(3) 336 is AC
(4) 315 4 2
AC 2 = AB 2 − BC 2 = 2 − =
Answer (3) 3 3
    2
Sol. Clearly, u = λ(a × (a × b )) AC 2 =
3
     
⇒ u = λ((a . b )a − | a |2 b ) 57. PQR is a triangular park with PQ = PR = 200 m. A
T.V. tower stands at the mid-point of QR. If the
  
{ }
⇒ u = λ(2a − 14b ) = 2λ (2iˆ + 3 ˆj − kˆ ) − 7( ˆj + kˆ ) angles of elevation of the top of the tower at P, Q
and R are respectively 45º, 30º and 30º, then the
 height of the tower (in m) is
⇒ u = 2λ (2iˆ − 4 ˆj − 8kˆ )
(1) 100 3
 
as, u ⋅ b = 24
(2) 50 2
⇒ 4λ(iˆ − 2 jˆ − 4kˆ ) ⋅ ( jˆ + kˆ ) = 24 (3) 100
(4) 50
16
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

Answer (3) If B – 2A = 100λ, then λ is equal to


(1) 464
P (2) 496
Sol. (3) 232
(4) 248
Answer (4)
45º

T Sol. A = 12 + 2.22 + 32 + .... + 2.202

= (12 + 22 + 32 + .... + 202 ) + 4(12 + 22 + 32 + .... + 102 )


30º 30º
Q R
M 20 × 21× 41 4 × 10 × 11× 21
= +
6 6
Let height of tower TM be h = 2870 + 1540 = 4410

∴ PM = h B = 12 + 2.22 + 32 + .... + 2.402


h
In ΔTQM, tan30º = = (12 + 22 + 32 + .... + 402 ) + 4(12 + 22 + 32 + .... + 202 )
QM
40 × 41× 81 4 × 20 × 21× 41
QM = 3 h = +
6 6
In ΔPMQ, PM 2 + QM 2 = PQ 2 = 22140 + 11480 = 33620
⇒ B – 2A = 33620 – 8820 = 24800
h2 + ( 3h )2 = 2002 ⇒ 100λ = 24800

⇒ λ = 248
4h 2 = 2002
60. Let the orthocentre and centroid of a triangle be
⇒ h = 100 m A(–3, 5) and B(3, 3) respectively. If C is the
58. From 6 different novels and 3 different dictionaries, circumcentre of this triangle, then the radius of the
circle having line segment AC as diameter, is
4 novels and 1 dictionary are to be selected and
arranged in a row on a shelf so that the dictionary 5
(1) 3
is always in the middle. The number of such 2
arrangements is
3 5
(1) At least 500 but less than 750 (2)
2
(2) At least 750 but less than 1000 (3) 10
(3) At least 1000
(4) 2 10
(4) Less then 500 Answer (1)
Answer (3) Sol. A (–3, 5)

Sol. Number of ways of selecting 4 novels from 6 novels B (3, 3)


= 6C4
A
Number of ways of selecting 1 dictionary from B
3 dictionaries = 3C1 C

Required arrangements = 6C4 × 3C1 × 4! = 1080


So, AB = 2 10
⇒ Atleast 1000
3
Now, as, AC = AB
59. Let A be the sum of the first 20 terms and B be the 2
sum of the first 40 terms of the series
3 3 5
12 + 2.22 + 32 + 2.42 + 52 + 2.62 + ..... So, radius = AB = 10 = 3
4 2 2
17
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

PART–C : CHEMISTRY

61. Total number of lone pair of electrons in I3– ion is Answer (1)
(1) 9 (2) 12 O

(3) 3 (4) 6 OH3 O O – C – O – CH3
O

Answer (1) OH Cl – C – O – CH3
Sol.
Sol. Structure of I3–
Br2

I
O
O – C – O – CH3
I

I
Br
Number of lone pairs in I3 is 9. Hence, option (1) is correct.

62. Which of the following salts is the most basic in 64. The increasing order of basicity of the following
aqueous solution? compound is
(1) FeCl3 (2) Pb(CH3COO)2 (a) NH2
(3) Al(CN)3 (4) CH3COOK NH
(b)
Answer (4)
NH2
Sol. CH3COOK + H2O  CH3COOH + KOH
Basic (c)
NH
FeCl3 – Acidic solution
(d) NHCH3
Al(CN)3 – Salt of weak acid and weak base
Pb(CH3COO)2 – Salt of weak acid and weak base (1) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c) (2) (d) < (b) < (a) < (c)
CH3COOK is salt of weak acid and strong base. (3) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) (4) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
Hence solution of CH3COOK is basic. Answer (1)
63. Phenol reacts with methyl chloroformate in the
presence of NaOH to form product A. A reacts with NH2 Protonation NH3
Sol. (a) 3
Br2 to form product B. A and B are respectively 1° & sp

O O O O
Protonation
NH NH2
(1) and O (b)
O Br 2
sp
OH OH
(2) and +
OCH3 OCH3 NH2 NH2 NH2
Protonation

O O +
Br NH NH2 NH2
Br (c)
OH OH
(3) and [Equivalent resonance]
OCH3 OCH3
O O Protonation
O O O O (d) NHCH3 NH2–CH3
(4) O
and
O 2° & sp3

 Correct order of basicity : b < a < d < c.


Br
18
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

65. An alkali is titrated against an acid with methyl Equation for combustion of CXHY
orange as indicator, which of the following is a correct
⎛ Y⎞ Y
combination? C XHY  ⎜ X  ⎟ O2  XCO2  H2 O
⎝ 4⎠ 2
Base Acid End point
(1) Weak Strong Yellow to ⎛ Y⎞
Oxygen atoms required = 2 ⎜ X  ⎟
pinkish red ⎝ 4⎠
(2) Strong Strong Pink to As per information,
colourless
⎛ Y⎞
(3) Weak Strong Colourless to 2 ⎜ X  ⎟  2Z
⎝ 4⎠
pink
⎛ 2⎞
(4) Strong Strong Pinkish red  ⎜1  ⎟  Z
to yellow ⎝ 4⎠

Answer (1)  Z = 1.5

Sol. The pH range of methyl orange is Molecule can be written

3.9 4.5 CXHYOZ


Pinkish red Yellow
C1H2O3/2
Weak base is having pH greater than 7. When
methyl orange is added to weak base solution, the  C2H4O3
solution becomes yellow. This solution is titrated by 68. Hydrogen peroxide oxidises [Fe(CN) 6 ] 4– to
strong acid and at the end point pH will be less than [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3– in acidic medium but reduces
3.1. Therefore solution becomes pinkish red. [Fe(CN)6]3– to [Fe(CN)6]4– in alkaline medium. The
66. The trans-alkenes are formed by the reduction of other products formed are, respectively.
alkynes with (1) H2O and (H2O + O2)
(1) Na/liq. NH3 (2) Sn - HCl
(2) H2O and (H2O + OH–)
(3) H2 - Pd/C, BaSO4 (4) NaBH4
(3) (H2O + O2) and H2O
Answer (1)
(4) (H2O + O2) and (H2O + OH–)
Na/liq. NH3 CH3 H
Sol. CH3 – C  C – CH3 C=C Answer (1)
H CH3
Trans alkene 4– 1 3–
Sol. [Fe(CN) 6] + H O + H+ [Fe(CN)6] + H2O
So, option (1) is correct. 2 2 2

67. The ratio of mass percent of C and H of an organic 1


3–
compound (CXHYOZ) is 6 : 1. If one molecule of the [Fe(CN)6] + H O + OH
2 2 2 1
above compound (CXHYOZ) contains half as much 4–
[Fe(CN)6] + H2O + O 2
oxygen as required to burn one molecule of 2
compound CXHY completely to CO2 and H2O. The
69. The major product formed in the following reaction is
empirical formula of compound CXHYOZ is
(1) C3H4O2 (2) C2H4O3
O HI
(3) C3H6O3 (4) C2H4O
Heat
Answer (2) O

Sol. Element Relative Relative Simplest whole


mass mole number ratio OH I
(1) (2)
6 I OH
C 6 = 0.5 1
12
1
H 1 =1 2 OH I
1
(3) (4)
So, X = 1, Y = 2 OH I
19
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

Answer (2) Answer (3)


H
O I ⎛A ⎞  RT
HI Sol. Equilibrium constant K  ⎜ f ⎟e
Sol.
Heat
+ I ⎝ Ab ⎠
O OH
+ ⎛A ⎞ H ⎛ 1 ⎞
OH ln K  ln ⎜ f ⎟  R ⎜⎝ T ⎟⎠
Hence, option (2) is correct. ⎝ Ab ⎠

70. How long (approximate) should water be electrolysed y = C+ m x


by passing through 100 amperes current so that the Comparing with equation of straight line,
oxygen released can completely burn 27.66 g of
diborane? (Atomic weight of B = 10.8 u) H
Slope =
(1) 3.2 hours R

(2) 1.6 hours Since, reaction is exothermic, H° = –ve, therefore,


slope = +ve.
(3) 6.4 hours
ln K
(4) 0.8 hours A

Answer (1)
B 1
(0, 0) T(K)
Sol. B2H6 + 3O2  B2O3 + 3H2O
27.66 of B2H6 = 1 mole of B2H6 which requires three
moles of oxygen (O2) for complete burning
Hence, option (4) is correct.
6H2O  6H2+ 3O2 (On electrolysis)
72. At 518°C, the rate of decomposition of a sample of
Number of faradays = 12 = Amount of charge
gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of
12 × 96500 = i × t 363 torr, was 1.00 torr s–1 when 5% had reacted and
0.5 torr s–1 when 33% had reacted. The order of the
12 × 96500 = 100 × t
reaction is
12  96500
t second (1) 1 (2) 0
100
(3) 2 (4) 3
12  96500
t hour Answer (3)
100  3600
Sol. Assume the order of reaction with respect to
t = 3.2 hours acetaldehyde is x.
71. Which of the following lines correctly show the Condition-1 :
temperature dependence of equilibrium constant K,
for an exothermic reaction? Rate = k[CH3CHO]x

ln K A 1 = k[363 × 0.95]x
B 1 1 = k[344.85]x ...(i)
(0, 0) T(K)
Condition-2 :

C 0.5 = k[363 × 0.67]x

D 0.5 = k[243.21]x ...(ii)


(1) C and D Divide equation (i) by (ii),
(2) A and D x
1 ⎛ 344.85 ⎞
⎜ ⎟ ⇒ 2  (1.414)x
(3) A and B 0.5 ⎝ 243.21 ⎠

(4) B and C  x=2

20
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

73. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives 75. The major product of the following reaction is
(1) Hexanoic acid (2) 6-iodohexanal
(3) n-Hexane (4) 1-Hexene Br
NaOMe
Answer (3) MeOH
CHO
Sol. (CH–OH)4 HI, 
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3
n-Hexane
(1)
CH2–OH
74. Consider the following reaction and statements OMe
[Co(NH3)4Br2]+ + Br–  [Co(NH3)3Br3] + NH3 (2)
(I) Two isomers are produced if the reactant
complex ion is a cis-isomer OMe
(II) Two isomers are produced if the reactant (3)
complex ion is a trans-isomer.
(III) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant
complex ion is a trans-isomer. (4)
(IV) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant
complex ion is a cis-isomer. Answer (4)
The correct statements are: Sol. CH3O– is a strong base and strong nucleophile, so
favourable condition is SN2/E2.
(1) (III) and (IV) (2) (II) and (IV)
Given alkyl halide is 2° and C's are 4° and 2°, so
(3) (I) and (II) (4) (I) and (III)
sufficiently hindered, therefore, E2 dominates over
Answer (4) SN2.
Sol. Br Also, polarity of CH3OH (solvent) is not as high as
NH3 Br H2O, so E1 is also dominated by E2.

 Br
 CH3O–
NH3 NH3 E2
 H
NH3 (Major product)
(2°)
cis-isomer

76. Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence of
+Br
NaOH followed by acidification produces compound
X as the major product. X on treatment with
Br Br
NH3 NH3 (CH3CO)2O in the presence of catalytic amount of
Br Br
H2SO4 produces
+ O O CH3 CO2H
NH3 Br NH3 NH3 C
O
NH3 Br (1) OH (2)
fac- mer-
(2 isomer) CO2H
O CH3
Br Br
NH3 NH3 NH3 NH3 O
O
O O CH3
NH 3 NH3 NH3 Br
O CH3
Br Br (3) (4)
trans Mer (1 isomer)
CO2H
So option (4) is correct. CO2H

21
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

Answer (3) Answer (4)


OH OH Sol. Kjeldahl method is not applicable for compounds
COOH containing nitrogen in nitro, and azo groups and
CO2, NaOH
Sol. nitrogen in ring, as N of these compounds does not
Acidification
change to ammonium sulphate under these
(Major) conditions. Hence only aniline can be used for
estimation of nitrogen by Kjeldahl’s method.
O
79. When metal ‘M’ is treated with NaOH, a white
OH O–C–CH3
COOH gelatinous precipitate ‘X’ is obtained, which is soluble
(CH3CO)2O COOH
in excess of NaOH. Compound ‘X’ when heated
H2SO4 strongly gives an oxide which is used in
Acetyl salicylic acid chromatography as an adsorbent. The metal ‘M’ is
(Aspirin)
(1) Al (2) Fe
77. An aqueous solution contains an unknown (3) Zn (4) Ca
concentration of Ba 2+ . When 50 mL of a 1 M
solution of Na2SO4 is added, BaSO4 just begins to Answer (1)
precipitate. The final volume is 500 mL. The Excess

solubility product of BaSO4 is 1 × 10–10. What is Sol. Al3  


NaOH
 Al  OH 3  
NaOH
 NaAlO2
White gelatinous ppt. Sodium meta
original concentration of Ba2+? alu minate
(so lub le)
(1) 1.1 × 10–9 M
2Al  OH3 
Strong heating
 Al2O3  3H2O
(2) 1.0 × 10–10 M
Al2O3 is used in column chromatography.
(3) 5 × 10–9 M
80. An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M H 2S and
(4) 2 × 10–9 M 0.20 M HCl. If the equilibrium constant for the
Answer (1) formation of HS– from H2S is 1.0 × 10–7 and that of
S 2– from HS – ions is 1.2 × 10 –13 then the
[50  1] concentration of S2– ions in aqueous solution is
Sol. Final concentration of [SO4– –] = = 0.1 M
[500] (1) 6 × 10–21 (2) 5 × 10–19
Ksp of BaSO4, (3) 5 × 10–8 (4) 3 × 10–20
[Ba2+][SO42–] = 1 × 10–10 Answer (4)
Sol. In presence of external H+,
10 10
[Ba2+][0.1] = = 10–9 M 
  2
0.1  2H  S , K a 1  K a2  K eq
H2S 

Concentration of Ba2+ in final solution = 10–9 M H 2 S2 


  1 10 7  1.2  1013
Concentration of Ba2+ in the original solution. H2S
M1V1 = M2V2 0.22 S2 
 1.2  10 20
M1 (500 – 50) = 10–9 (500) 0.1
M1 = 1.11 × 10–9 M [S2–] = 3 × 10–20
So, option (1) is correct. 81. The recommended concentration of fluoride ion in
drinking water is up to 1 ppm as fluoride ion is
78. Which of the following compounds will be suitable
required to make teeth enamel harder by converting
for Kjeldahl's method for nitrogen estimation?
[3Ca3(PO4)2.Ca(OH)2] to
+ –
NO2 N2 Cl (1) [3Ca3(PO4)2.CaF2] (2) [3{Ca(OH)2}.CaF2]
(1) (2) (3) [CaF2] (4) [3(CaF2).Ca(OH)2]
Answer (1)
NH2 Sol. F– ions make the teeth enamel harder by converting
(3) (4) [3Ca3 (PO4 )2 .Ca(OH)2 ] to [3Ca3 (PO4 )2 .CaF2 ]
N Hydroxyapatite Fluorapatite

22
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

82. The compound that does not produce nitrogen gas 84. The oxidation states of
by the thermal decomposition is
Cr in ⎡⎣Cr H2O 6 ⎤⎦ Cl3 , ⎣⎡Cr  C6H6 2 ⎦⎤ , and
(1) NH4NO2 (2) (NH4)2SO4
(3) Ba(N3)2 (4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 K 2 ⎡⎣Cr  CN2  O 2  O2  NH3  ⎤⎦ respectively are
Answer (2) (1) +3, 0 and +6 (2) +3, 0 and +4

Sol. NH4 2 Cr2O7  N2 + 4H2O + Cr2O3


Δ (3) +3, +4 and +6 (4) +3, +2 and +4
Answer (1)
Δ
NH4NO2  N2 + 2H2O Sol. ⎣⎡Cr H2 O 6 ⎦⎤ Cl3 ⇒ x  0  6 – 1 3  0

 x  3
NH4 2SO4 
Δ
 2NH3 + H2SO4
⎡⎣Cr  C6H6 2 ⎤⎦ ⇒ x  2  0  0
Ba N3 2  Ba  3N2
Δ
x0
Among all the given compounds, only (NH4)2SO4 do K 2 ⎡⎣Cr  CN2  O2  O2  NH3 ⎤⎦
not form dinitrogen on heating, it produces ammonia
gas. ⇒ 1  2  x – 1 2 – 2  2 – 2  1  0

83. The predominant form of histamine present in human ⇒x – 6  0


blood is (pKa, Histidine = 6.0) x  6
H 85. Which type of ‘defect’ has the presence of cations
N in the interstitial sites?
(1) (1) Frenkel defect

N NH2
H (2) Metal deficiency defect
(3) Schottky defect
(4) Vacancy defect
(2)
Answer (1)
Sol. In Frenkel defect, cation is dislocated from its normal
H
N lattice site to an interstitial site.
NH2
(3) 86. The combustion of benzene (l) gives CO2(g) and
H2O(l). Given that heat of combustion of benzene at
N
constant volume is –3263.9 kJ mol–1 at 25° C; heat
H
N 
of combustion (in kJ mol–1) of benzene at constant
NH3 pressure will be
(4)  (R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
N
H (1) 3260 (2) –3267.6
Answer (2)
(3) 4152.6 (4) –452.46
H Answer (2)
N
Sol. Histamine 15
Sol. C6H6 (l)  O2 (g)  6CO2 (g)  3H2O(l)
2
H NH2 15 3
n g  6  
At pH (7.4) major form of histamine is protonated at 2 2
primary amine. H = U + ngRT

H ⎛ 3⎞ 3
N = 3263.9  ⎜  ⎟  8.314  298  10
⎝ 2⎠
= –3263.9 + (–3.71)
N NH
+
= –3267.6 kJ mol–1
3

23
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)

87. Which of the following are Lewis acids? 89. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following
compounds, which one will show the highest
(1) PH3 and SiCl4
freezing point?
(2) BCl3 and AlCl3
(1) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl  2H2O
(3) PH3 and BCl3
(2) [Co(H2O)3Cl3]  3H2O
(4) AlCl3 and SiCl4
(3) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
Answer (2)*
(4) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2  H2O
Sol. BCl3 – electron deficient, incomplete octet
Answer (2)
AlCl3 – electron deficient, incomplete octet
Ans-(2) BCl3 and AlCl3 Sol. The solution which shows maximum freezing point
must have minimum number of solute particles.
SiCl4 can accept lone pair of electron in d-orbital of
silicon hence it can act as Lewis acid. (1) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl  2H2O  [Co(H2O)4Cl2]+ + Cl–,

* Although the most suitable answer is (2). However, i=2


both option (2) & (4) can be considered as correct (2) [Co(H2O)3Cl3]  3H2O  [Co(H2O)3Cl3], i = 1
answers.
(3) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3  [Co(H2O)6]3+ + 3Cl–, i = 4
e.g. hydrolysis of SiCl4
(4) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2  H2O  [Co(H2O)5Cl]2+ + 2Cl–,
Cl Cl
H i=3
Si + H2O Si O
Cl Cl Cl H So, solution of 1 molal [Co(H2O)3Cl3]  3H2O will have
Cl
Cl Cl minimum number of particles in aqueous state.
Hence, option (2) is correct.
Cl 90. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the
Cl Si OH + HCl following will not be a viable molecule?

Cl (1) H2–
Hence option (4), AlCl3 and SiCl4 is also correct.
(2) H2–
2
88. Which of the following compounds contain(s) no
covalent bond(s)? (3) He22
KCl, PH3, O2, B2H6, H2SO4 (4) He2
(1) KCl
Answer (2)
(2) KCl, B2H6
Sol.
(3) KCl, B2H6, PH3
(4) KCl, H2SO4 Electronic configuration Bond order
2–1
Answer (1) He2  *  0.5
1s2 1s1 2
Sol. KCl – Ionic bond between K+ and Cl– 2–1
H2–  *  0.5
1s2 1s1 2
PH3 – Covalent bond between P and H
2–2
O2 – Covalent bond between O atoms H2–
2  * 0
1s2 1s2 2
B2H6–Covalent bond between B and H atoms 2–0
He22  1
1s2 2
H2SO4 – Covalent bond between S and O and also
between O and H.
Molecule having zero bond order will not be a viable
Compound having no covalent bonds is KCl only. molecule.

  

24

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