Kech 201
Kech 201
B
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions M.M. : 360
for
JEE (MAIN)-2018
(Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry)
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
4. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of each
question. ¼ (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question (i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted for
indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response
is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
5. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction
No. 4 above.
6. For writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet use only Black Ball
Point Pen provided in the examination hall.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
1
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
PART–A : PHYSICS
1. It is found that if a neutron suffers an elastic collinear 3. A solid sphere of radius r made of a soft material of
collision with deuterium at rest, fractional loss of its bulk modulus K is surrounded by a liquid in a
energy is pd; while for its similar collision with carbon cylindrical container. A massless piston of area of a
nucleus at rest, fractional loss of energy is pc. The floats on the surface of the liquid, covering entire
values of pd and pc are respectively cross-section of cylindrical container. When a mass
(1) (0, 0) (2) (0, 1) m is placed on the surface of the piston to
compress the liquid, the fractional decrement in the
(3) (.89, .28) (4) (.28, .89)
⎛ dr ⎞
Answer (3) radius of the sphere, ⎜ ⎟ , is
⎝ r ⎠
Sol. mu = mv1 + 2m × v2 ...(i)
mg mg
u = (v2 – v1) ...(ii) (1) (2)
3Ka Ka
u
v1 Ka Ka
3 (3) (4)
mg 3mg
2
1 1 ⎛u ⎞
mu 2 m ⎜ ⎟ Answer (1)
E 2 2 ⎝3⎠
pd
E 1 dP
mu 2 Sol. K V
2 dV
8
0.89 dV dP mg
9 ⇒
V K Ka
And mu = mv1 + (12m) × v2 ...(iii)
u = (v2 – v1) ...(iv) 3dr mg
⇒
11 r Ka
v1 u
13
dr mg
2 ⇒
1 1 ⎛ 11 ⎞ r 3Ka
mu 2 m ⎜ u ⎟
E 2 2 ⎝ 13 ⎠ 48
pc 0.28 4. Two batteries with e.m.f 12 V and 13 V are
E 1 2 169
mu connected in parallel across a load resistor of
2
10 . The internal resistances of the two batteries
2. The mass of a hydrogen molecule is 3.32 × 10–27 kg. are 1 and 2 respectively. The voltage across
If 1023 hydrogen molecules strike, per second, a the load lies between
fixed wall of area 2 cm2 at an angle of 45° to the
normal, and rebound elastically with a speed of 103 (1) 11.4 V and 11.5 V
m/s, then the pressure on the wall is nearly
(2) 11.7 V and 11.8 V
(1) 2.35 × 102 N/m2 (2) 4.70 × 102 N/m2
(3) 2.35 × 103 N/m2 (4) 4.70 × 103 N/m2 (3) 11.6 V and 11.7 V
F 2.nmv cos y
P Sol. y
A A
13 V, 2
x
2 1023 3.32 10 27 103
4
N/m2 12 V, 1 x
2 2 10
x +y 10
= 2.35 × 103 N/m2
2
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
Eeq E1 E2 37 m1
⇒ Eeq V
req r1 r2 3
m1g
Eeq
V R 11.56 V (1) 43.3 kg
R req
(2) 10.3 kg
5. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius a
(3) 18.3 kg
k
under the action of an attractive potential U – . (4) 27.3 kg
2r 2
Its total energy is Answer (4)
0
Sol. Quality factor, Q 73 181
(2) (1) MR 2 (2) MR 2
2 2
0 L 19 55
Q (3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
R 2 2
5
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
Answer (2) E l
1
E ir l 2
MR 2 ⎛ MR 2 ⎞
Sol. I0 6⎜ M (2R )2 ⎟ E 52
2 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ E ⎞ 40
E ⎜ ⎟ r
IP = I0 + 7M(3R)2 ⎝r 5⎠
r 5 13
181
= MR 2 5 10
2
r = 1.5
17. Three concentric metal shells A, B and C of
19. An EM wave from air enters a medium. The electric
respective radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have surface
charge densities +, – and + respectively. The ⎡ ⎛z ⎞⎤
fields are E1 E01xˆ cos ⎢ 2 ⎜ – t ⎟ ⎥ in air and
potential of shell B is ⎣ ⎝c ⎠⎦
⎡ b2 – c 2 ⎤ ⎡ b2 – c 2 ⎤ E2 E02 xˆ cos[k (2z – ct )] in medium, where the
(1) ⎢ b a⎥ (2) ⎢ c a⎥
⎢
0 ⎣ ⎥⎦ ⎢
0 ⎣ ⎥⎦ wave number k and frequency refer to their values
Answer (1)
c
⎡ ⎛z ⎞⎤
⎡ 4a2 4b 2 4c 2 ⎤ Sol. E1 E01xˆ cos ⎢ 2 ⎜ – t ⎟ ⎥ air
VB ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎝ c ⎠⎦
⎢⎣ 40 b 40 b 40 c ⎥⎦
E2 E02 xˆ cos ⎡⎣ k 2z – ct ⎤⎦ medium
⎡ a2 b2 ⎤
VB ⎢ c⎥
0 ⎢⎣ b ⎥⎦ During refraction, frequency remains unchanged,
whereas wavelength gets changed.
18. In a potentiometer experiment, it is found that no
current passes through the galvanometer when the k' = 2k (From equations)
terminals of the cell are connected across 52 cm of
the potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted by a 2 ⎛ 2 ⎞
2⎜ ⎟
resistance of 5, a balance is found when the cell ' ⎝ 0 ⎠
is connected across 40 cm of the wire. Find the
internal resistance of the cell. 0
'
(1) 2 2
(2) 2.5 c
v
2
(3) 1
(4) 1.5 1 1 1
0 2 2 0 1
Answer (4)
Sol. ∵ E l1 1 1
and E – ir l2 2 4
6
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
d' = 25 × 10–6 m = 25 m 9M
21. A silver atom in a solid oscillates in simple harmonic
motion in some direction with a frequency of
1012/second. What is the force constant of the bonds
connecting one atom with the other? (Mole wt. of
silver = 108 and Avagadro number = 6.02 × 1023 gm (9M ) R 2
I1
mole–1) 2
(1) 2.2 N/m (2) 5.5 N/m 2
⎛R⎞
(3) 6.4 N/m (4) 7.1 N/m M ⎜ ⎟ 2 2
I2 ⎝ 3 ⎠ M ⎛ 2R ⎞ MR
2 ⎜ 3 ⎟ 2
Answer (4) ⎝ ⎠
x Ireq = I1 – I2
Sol.
9 MR 2
MR 2 –
2 2
Kx = ma a = (K/m)x
= 4MR2
7
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
m
Sol.
l3
v12 v 22
3 2
2
v0 ...(ii)
d dm dl
3
m l
(v1 v 2 )2 v12 v 22 2v1v 2
= (1.5 + 3 × 1)
= 4.5%
3v 02
v 02 2v1v 2 26. On interchanging the resistances, the balance point
2
of a meter bridge shifts to the left by 10 cm. The
resistance of their series combination is 1 k. How
v 02
2v1v 2 – ...(iii) much was the resistance on the left slot before
2 interchanging the resistances?
2 2 (1) 550
(v1 – v2)2 = (v1 + v2)2 – 4v1v2 = v 0 v 0
(2) 910
v1 – v 2 2 v 0 (3) 990
24. The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a (4) 505
current I, is m and the magnetic field at the centre Answer (1)
of the loop is B 1. When the dipole moment is
doubled by keeping the current constant, the R1 l
magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B2. The Sol. R (100 – l )
2
B1
ratio B is R2 (l – 10)
2
R1 (110 – l )
1 (100 – l)(110 – l) = l(l – 10)
(1) 2 (2)
2
11000 + l2 – 210l = l2 – 10l
(3) 2 (4) 3 l = 55 cm
Answer (1) ⎛ 55 ⎞
R1 R2 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 45 ⎠
2
Sol. m = I(R2), m 2m I 2R R1 + R2 = 1000
R 2R R1 = 550
8
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
20 1
iwattless = irms sin 10 3R
2 2 U nCv T 2 [189 – 300]
2
28. All the graphs below are intended to represent the
= –2.7 kJ
same motion. One of them does it incorrectly. Pick
it up. 30. A particle is moving with a uniform speed in a
circular orbit of radius R in a central force inversely
Position
proportional to the nth power of R. If the period of
rotation of the particle is T, then
(1) Time
(1) T R ( n 1)/2
(2) T R n /2
Velocity
(3) Position 2 –n k
Sol. m R k R
Rn
Distance 1 1
T 2
R n 1
(4) Time
⎛ n 1 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
T R⎝ 2 ⎠
9
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
PART–B : MATHEMATICS
32. If L 1 is the line of intersection of the planes 34. Tangents are drawn to the hyperbola 4x2 – y2 = 36
2x – 2y + 3z – 2 = 0, x – y + z + 1 = 0 and L2 is at the points P and Q. If these tangents intersect at
the point T(0, 3) then the area (in sq. units) of ΔPTQ
the line of intersection of the planes
is
x + 2y – z – 3 = 0, 3x – y + 2z – 1 = 0, then the
distance of the origin from the plane containing the (1) 60 3 (2) 36 5
lines L1 and L2, is
(3) 45 5 (4) 54 3
1 1
(1) (2) Answer (3)
2 2 2
Sol. Clearly PQ is a chord of contact,
1 1 i.e., equation of PQ is T ≡ 0
(3) (4)
4 2 3 2
⇒ y = –12
Answer (4) Solving with the curve, 4x2 – y2 = 36
⇒ x = ±3 5, y = −12
iˆ jˆ kˆ
Sol. L1 is parallel to 2 –2 3 = iˆ + jˆ i.e., P (3 5, − 12); Q( −3 5, − 12); T (0,3)
1 –1 1
Area of ΔPQT is y
T (0, 3)
1
iˆ jˆ kˆ Δ = × 6 5 × 15
2 x
L2 is parallel to 1 2 –1 = 3iˆ – 5 jˆ – 7kˆ
3 –1 2 = 45 5 Q P
10
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
35. If the curves y2 = 6x, 9x2 + by2 = 16 intersect each 37. Let S = {x ∈ R : x ≥ 0 and
other at right angles, then the value of b is
9
2 x –3 + x ( )
x – 6 + 6 = 0 }. Then S :
(1) 4 (2)
2 (1) Contains exactly two elements
7 (2) Contains exactly four elements
(3) 6 (4)
2
(3) Is an empty set
Answer (2)
(4) Contains exactly one element
3
Sol. y2 = 6x ; slope of tangent at (x1, y1) is m1 = Answer (1)
y1
−9x1
m2 = 2| x – 3| + ( x – 3 + 3)( x – 3 – 3) + 6 = 0
by1
As m1m2 = −1 2| x – 3| + ( x – 3)2 – 3 = 0
−27 x1
⇒ = −1 ( x – 3)2 + 2| x – 3| – 3 = 0
by12
9
⇒ b=
2
( as y12 = 6 x1 ) (| x – 3 | +3)(| x – 3 | –1) = 0
⇒ 44 – 4k = 0 ⎛ π 1⎞
Sol. 8cos x ⋅ ⎜ cos2 − sin2 x − ⎟ = 1
⎝ 6 2 ⎠
∴ k = 11
Let z = λ ⎛3 1 2 ⎞
⇒ 8cos x ⎜ − − 1 + cos x ⎟ = 1
⎝ 4 2 ⎠
∴ x + 11y = –3λ
⎛ −3 + 4cos2 x ⎞
and 3x + 11y = 2λ 8cos x ⎜ ⎟ =1
⇒ ⎜ 4 ⎟
5λ λ ⎝ ⎠
∴ x= ,y =– ,z=λ
2 2 ⇒ cos 3 x = 1
5λ 1
·λ ⇒ cos3 x =
xz 2
∴ = 2 = 10
y2 ⎛ λ⎞
2
π 5π 7π
⎜– 2⎟ ⇒ 3x = , ,
⎝ ⎠ 3 3 3
11
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
1 3 (a − 6)2 (b − 5)2
(1) (2) ⇒ 4 < a, b < 6 and + ≤1
5 4 9 4
3 2 Taking axes as a-axis and b-axis
(3) (4)
10 5 a=6 (a − 6)2 (b − 5)2
+ ≤1
Answer (4) 9 4
(6, 7)
b
Sol. E1 : Event that first ball drawn is red. P Q (6, 6) ε
⇑
E2 : Event that first ball drawn is black. (3, 5) (6, 5) (9, 5)
b=5
E : Event that second ball drawn is red. (4, 5) (6, 4)
S R
⎛E ⎞ ⎛ E ⎞
P (E ) = P (E1 ).P ⎜ ⎟ + P (E2 ).P ⎜ ⎟ (6, 3)
E
⎝ 1⎠ ⎝ E2 ⎠
(0, 0) a
4 6 6 4 2
= × + × =
10 12 10 12 5
1 By property, ( ∼ p ∧ ∼ q ) ∨ ( ∼ p ∧ q )
x2 +
2
x
Sol. h ( x ) = = ~p
x−1
x
43. Tangent and normal are drawn at P(16, 16) on the
(
= x−1 +
2
) parabola y2 = 16x, which intersect the axis of the
x x−1 ( x ) parabola at A and B, respectively. If C is the centre
of the circle through the points P, A and B and
∠CPB = θ, then a value of tan θ is
x−
1
> 0, ( x − 1x ) + 2
∈ (2 2 , ∞]
x ( x−1
x ) (1) 3 (2)
4
3
x−
1
< 0, ( x − 1x ) + 2
∈ ( −∞, −2 2] 1
x ( x−1
x)
(3)
2
(4) 2
12
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
Sol. y2 = 16x 45. The sum of the co-efficients of all odd degree terms
( ) + (x − ),
5 5
Tangent at P(16, 16) is 2y = x + 16 ... (1) in the expansion of x + x 3 − 1 x3 − 1
Normal at P(16, 16) is y = –2x + 48 ... (2)
(x > 1) is
i.e., A is (–16, 0); B is (24, 0)
(1) 1
Now, Centre of circle is (4, 0)
(2) 2
4 (3) –1
Now, mPC =
3
(4) 0
mPB = –2 Answer (2)
( ) ( )
4 5 5
+2 3 3
Sol. x + x − 1 + x − x − 1
i.e., tan θ = 3 =2
8
1−
3 = 2 ⎡⎣ 5C0 x 5 + 5C2 x 3 ( x 3 − 1) + 5C4 x ( x 3 − 1)2 ⎤⎦
P(16, 16)
= 2 ⎡⎣x 5 + 10( x 6 − x 3 ) + 5 x ( x 6 − 2 x 3 + 1)⎤⎦
θ
= 2 ⎡⎣x 5 + 10 x 6 − 10 x 3 + 5 x 7 − 10 x 4 + 5 x⎤⎦
A C(4, 0) B(24, 0)
= 2 ⎡⎣5 x 7 + 10 x 6 + x 5 − 10 x 4 − 10 x 3 + 5 x⎤⎦
x − 4 2x 2x = 2(5 + 1 – 10 + 5)
(1) (–4, 5)
∑ a4k +1 = 416 and a9 + a43 = 66 .
k =0
⇒ 5x – 4 is a factor 24 × 25 × 49 7 × 8 × 15
⇒ − = 140m
6 6
Δ = λ (5 x − 4)( x + 4)2
∴ B = 5, A = –4 ⇒ m = 34
13
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
π 3 1
= −
2
sin2 xdx 2 2
Sol. I =
∫ 1 + 2x
... (i)
1
−
π
2
=
2
( )
3 − 1 sq. units
14
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
1 ⎡ 1⎤ 1 sin2 x.cos2 x dx
−1 < ⎢ ⎥ ≤
Sol. As
x ⎣x⎦ x Sol. I = ∫
{(sin }
2
2
x + cos2 x ) (sin3 x + cos3 x )
2 ⎡2⎤ 2
−1 < ⎢ ⎥ ≤
x ⎣x⎦ x Dividing the numerator and denominator by cos6x
15
⎛r ⎞ 15 ⎛ r ⎞ 15
r tan2 x sec 2 x dx
∑ ⎜⎝ x − 1⎟⎠ < ∑ ⎜⎝ x ⎟⎠ ≤ ∑ x ⇒ I=∫
(1 + tan3 x )2
r =1 r =1 r =1
⎛ 15 ⎡ r ⎤ ⎞ Let, tan3x = z
120 < lim x ⎜ ∑ ⎢ ⎥ ⎟ ≤ 120 ⇒ 3tan2x.sec2xdx = dz
⎜ ⎟
x →0+ ⎝ r =1 ⎣ x ⎦ ⎠
1 dz −1
3 ∫ z 2 3z
⎛ ⎡ 1⎤ ⎡2⎤ I= = +C
⎡ 15 ⎤ ⎞
⇒ lim x ⎜ ⎢ ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥ + ...... + ⎢ ⎥ ⎟ = 120
x →0 + ⎝⎣x⎦ ⎣x⎦ ⎣ x ⎦⎠
−1
= +C
9 9 3(1 + tan3 x )
51. If ∑ ( xi − 5) = 9 and ∑ ( xi − 5)2 = 45 , then the
i =1 i =1
53. Let S = {t ∈ R : f ( x ) = x − π ·(e|x| − 1)sin | x | is not
standard deviation of the 9 items x1, x2, ...., x9 is
differentiable at t}. Then the set S is equal to
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) { π } (2) {0, π}
(3) 9 (4) 4
(3) φ (an empty set) (4) { 0 }
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
Sol. Standard deviation of xi – 5 is
Sol. f ( x ) = | x − π | (e|x| − 1)sin| x |
2
9 ⎛ 9 ⎞
∑ ( xi − 5)2 ⎜ ∑ ( xi − 5) ⎟ x = π, 0 are repeated roots and also continuous.
i =1 ⎜ i =1 ⎟
σ= −⎜ ⎟ Hence, 'f' is differentiable at all x.
9 9
⎜ ⎟
⎜ ⎟ 54. let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation
⎝ ⎠
dy ⎛π⎞
sin x + y cos x = 4 x , x ∈ (0, π). If y = ⎜ ⎟ = 0 ,
⇒ σ = 5 −1 = 2 dx ⎝2⎠
As, standard deviation remains constant if ⎛π⎞
observations are added/subtracted by a fixed then y ⎜ ⎟ is equal to :
⎝6⎠
quantity.
So, σ of xi is 2 8 2 4 2
(1) – π (2) – π
52. The integral 9 9
sin2 x cos2 x 4 –8
∫ (sin5 x + cos3 x sin2 x + sin3 x cos2 x + cos5 x )2 dx (3) π2 (4) π2
9 3 9 3
is equal to
Answer (1)
15
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
⇒ λ = –1
dy
Sol. sin x + y cos x = 4 x , x ∈ (0, π)
dx So, u = −4(iˆ − 2 ˆj − 4kˆ )
dy 4x ⇒ | u |2 = 336
+ y cot x =
dx sin x
56. The length of the projection of the line segment
joining the points (5, –1, 4) and (4, –1, 3) on the
cot x dx
∴ I.F. = e ∫ = sin x plane, x + y + z = 7 is:
∴ Solution is given by 1
(1)
3
4x
y sin x = ∫ sin x ·sin x dx (2)
2
3
y·sinx = 2x2 + c 2
(3)
3
π π2
when x = ,y=0 ⇒ c=– 2
2 2 (4)
3
Answer (2)
π2 2
∴ Equation is : y sin x = 2 x – Sol. B (4, –1, 3)
2
π 1 π2 π 2 n=i+j+k
when x = then y · = 2· –
6 2 36 2
A C
8 π2
∴ y=– (5, –1, 4)
9
Normal to the plane x + y + z = 7 is n = iˆ + ˆj + kˆ
55. Let u be a vector coplanar with the vectors
AB = −iˆ − kˆ ⇒ | AB | = AB = 2
a = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj − kˆ and b = ˆj + kˆ . If u is perpendicular
BC = Length of projection of AB on n = | AB ⋅ nˆ |
2
to a and u ⋅ b = 24 , then u is equal to
( iˆ + ˆj + kˆ ) = 2
(1) 256 (
= −iˆ − kˆ ⋅) 3 3
(2) 84
Length of projection of the line segment on the plane
(3) 336 is AC
(4) 315 4 2
AC 2 = AB 2 − BC 2 = 2 − =
Answer (3) 3 3
2
Sol. Clearly, u = λ(a × (a × b )) AC 2 =
3
⇒ u = λ((a . b )a − | a |2 b ) 57. PQR is a triangular park with PQ = PR = 200 m. A
T.V. tower stands at the mid-point of QR. If the
{ }
⇒ u = λ(2a − 14b ) = 2λ (2iˆ + 3 ˆj − kˆ ) − 7( ˆj + kˆ ) angles of elevation of the top of the tower at P, Q
and R are respectively 45º, 30º and 30º, then the
height of the tower (in m) is
⇒ u = 2λ (2iˆ − 4 ˆj − 8kˆ )
(1) 100 3
as, u ⋅ b = 24
(2) 50 2
⇒ 4λ(iˆ − 2 jˆ − 4kˆ ) ⋅ ( jˆ + kˆ ) = 24 (3) 100
(4) 50
16
JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
⇒ λ = 248
4h 2 = 2002
60. Let the orthocentre and centroid of a triangle be
⇒ h = 100 m A(–3, 5) and B(3, 3) respectively. If C is the
58. From 6 different novels and 3 different dictionaries, circumcentre of this triangle, then the radius of the
circle having line segment AC as diameter, is
4 novels and 1 dictionary are to be selected and
arranged in a row on a shelf so that the dictionary 5
(1) 3
is always in the middle. The number of such 2
arrangements is
3 5
(1) At least 500 but less than 750 (2)
2
(2) At least 750 but less than 1000 (3) 10
(3) At least 1000
(4) 2 10
(4) Less then 500 Answer (1)
Answer (3) Sol. A (–3, 5)
PART–C : CHEMISTRY
61. Total number of lone pair of electrons in I3– ion is Answer (1)
(1) 9 (2) 12 O
–
(3) 3 (4) 6 OH3 O O – C – O – CH3
O
–
Answer (1) OH Cl – C – O – CH3
Sol.
Sol. Structure of I3–
Br2
–
I
O
O – C – O – CH3
I
I
Br
Number of lone pairs in I3 is 9. Hence, option (1) is correct.
62. Which of the following salts is the most basic in 64. The increasing order of basicity of the following
aqueous solution? compound is
(1) FeCl3 (2) Pb(CH3COO)2 (a) NH2
(3) Al(CN)3 (4) CH3COOK NH
(b)
Answer (4)
NH2
Sol. CH3COOK + H2O CH3COOH + KOH
Basic (c)
NH
FeCl3 – Acidic solution
(d) NHCH3
Al(CN)3 – Salt of weak acid and weak base
Pb(CH3COO)2 – Salt of weak acid and weak base (1) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c) (2) (d) < (b) < (a) < (c)
CH3COOK is salt of weak acid and strong base. (3) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) (4) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
Hence solution of CH3COOK is basic. Answer (1)
63. Phenol reacts with methyl chloroformate in the
presence of NaOH to form product A. A reacts with NH2 Protonation NH3
Sol. (a) 3
Br2 to form product B. A and B are respectively 1° & sp
O O O O
Protonation
NH NH2
(1) and O (b)
O Br 2
sp
OH OH
(2) and +
OCH3 OCH3 NH2 NH2 NH2
Protonation
O O +
Br NH NH2 NH2
Br (c)
OH OH
(3) and [Equivalent resonance]
OCH3 OCH3
O O Protonation
O O O O (d) NHCH3 NH2–CH3
(4) O
and
O 2° & sp3
65. An alkali is titrated against an acid with methyl Equation for combustion of CXHY
orange as indicator, which of the following is a correct
⎛ Y⎞ Y
combination? C XHY ⎜ X ⎟ O2 XCO2 H2 O
⎝ 4⎠ 2
Base Acid End point
(1) Weak Strong Yellow to ⎛ Y⎞
Oxygen atoms required = 2 ⎜ X ⎟
pinkish red ⎝ 4⎠
(2) Strong Strong Pink to As per information,
colourless
⎛ Y⎞
(3) Weak Strong Colourless to 2 ⎜ X ⎟ 2Z
⎝ 4⎠
pink
⎛ 2⎞
(4) Strong Strong Pinkish red ⎜1 ⎟ Z
to yellow ⎝ 4⎠
Answer (1)
B 1
(0, 0) T(K)
Sol. B2H6 + 3O2 B2O3 + 3H2O
27.66 of B2H6 = 1 mole of B2H6 which requires three
moles of oxygen (O2) for complete burning
Hence, option (4) is correct.
6H2O 6H2+ 3O2 (On electrolysis)
72. At 518°C, the rate of decomposition of a sample of
Number of faradays = 12 = Amount of charge
gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of
12 × 96500 = i × t 363 torr, was 1.00 torr s–1 when 5% had reacted and
0.5 torr s–1 when 33% had reacted. The order of the
12 × 96500 = 100 × t
reaction is
12 96500
t second (1) 1 (2) 0
100
(3) 2 (4) 3
12 96500
t hour Answer (3)
100 3600
Sol. Assume the order of reaction with respect to
t = 3.2 hours acetaldehyde is x.
71. Which of the following lines correctly show the Condition-1 :
temperature dependence of equilibrium constant K,
for an exothermic reaction? Rate = k[CH3CHO]x
ln K A 1 = k[363 × 0.95]x
B 1 1 = k[344.85]x ...(i)
(0, 0) T(K)
Condition-2 :
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JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
73. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives 75. The major product of the following reaction is
(1) Hexanoic acid (2) 6-iodohexanal
(3) n-Hexane (4) 1-Hexene Br
NaOMe
Answer (3) MeOH
CHO
Sol. (CH–OH)4 HI,
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3
n-Hexane
(1)
CH2–OH
74. Consider the following reaction and statements OMe
[Co(NH3)4Br2]+ + Br– [Co(NH3)3Br3] + NH3 (2)
(I) Two isomers are produced if the reactant
complex ion is a cis-isomer OMe
(II) Two isomers are produced if the reactant (3)
complex ion is a trans-isomer.
(III) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant
complex ion is a trans-isomer. (4)
(IV) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant
complex ion is a cis-isomer. Answer (4)
The correct statements are: Sol. CH3O– is a strong base and strong nucleophile, so
favourable condition is SN2/E2.
(1) (III) and (IV) (2) (II) and (IV)
Given alkyl halide is 2° and C's are 4° and 2°, so
(3) (I) and (II) (4) (I) and (III)
sufficiently hindered, therefore, E2 dominates over
Answer (4) SN2.
Sol. Br Also, polarity of CH3OH (solvent) is not as high as
NH3 Br H2O, so E1 is also dominated by E2.
4°
Br
CH3O–
NH3 NH3 E2
H
NH3 (Major product)
(2°)
cis-isomer
–
76. Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence of
+Br
NaOH followed by acidification produces compound
X as the major product. X on treatment with
Br Br
NH3 NH3 (CH3CO)2O in the presence of catalytic amount of
Br Br
H2SO4 produces
+ O O CH3 CO2H
NH3 Br NH3 NH3 C
O
NH3 Br (1) OH (2)
fac- mer-
(2 isomer) CO2H
O CH3
Br Br
NH3 NH3 NH3 NH3 O
O
O O CH3
NH 3 NH3 NH3 Br
O CH3
Br Br (3) (4)
trans Mer (1 isomer)
CO2H
So option (4) is correct. CO2H
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JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
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JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
82. The compound that does not produce nitrogen gas 84. The oxidation states of
by the thermal decomposition is
Cr in ⎡⎣Cr H2O 6 ⎤⎦ Cl3 , ⎣⎡Cr C6H6 2 ⎦⎤ , and
(1) NH4NO2 (2) (NH4)2SO4
(3) Ba(N3)2 (4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 K 2 ⎡⎣Cr CN2 O 2 O2 NH3 ⎤⎦ respectively are
Answer (2) (1) +3, 0 and +6 (2) +3, 0 and +4
x 3
NH4 2SO4
Δ
2NH3 + H2SO4
⎡⎣Cr C6H6 2 ⎤⎦ ⇒ x 2 0 0
Ba N3 2 Ba 3N2
Δ
x0
Among all the given compounds, only (NH4)2SO4 do K 2 ⎡⎣Cr CN2 O2 O2 NH3 ⎤⎦
not form dinitrogen on heating, it produces ammonia
gas. ⇒ 1 2 x – 1 2 – 2 2 – 2 1 0
H ⎛ 3⎞ 3
N = 3263.9 ⎜ ⎟ 8.314 298 10
⎝ 2⎠
= –3263.9 + (–3.71)
N NH
+
= –3267.6 kJ mol–1
3
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JEE (MAIN)-2018 (Code-B)
87. Which of the following are Lewis acids? 89. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following
compounds, which one will show the highest
(1) PH3 and SiCl4
freezing point?
(2) BCl3 and AlCl3
(1) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl 2H2O
(3) PH3 and BCl3
(2) [Co(H2O)3Cl3] 3H2O
(4) AlCl3 and SiCl4
(3) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
Answer (2)*
(4) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 H2O
Sol. BCl3 – electron deficient, incomplete octet
Answer (2)
AlCl3 – electron deficient, incomplete octet
Ans-(2) BCl3 and AlCl3 Sol. The solution which shows maximum freezing point
must have minimum number of solute particles.
SiCl4 can accept lone pair of electron in d-orbital of
silicon hence it can act as Lewis acid. (1) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl 2H2O [Co(H2O)4Cl2]+ + Cl–,
Cl (1) H2–
Hence option (4), AlCl3 and SiCl4 is also correct.
(2) H2–
2
88. Which of the following compounds contain(s) no
covalent bond(s)? (3) He22
KCl, PH3, O2, B2H6, H2SO4 (4) He2
(1) KCl
Answer (2)
(2) KCl, B2H6
Sol.
(3) KCl, B2H6, PH3
(4) KCl, H2SO4 Electronic configuration Bond order
2–1
Answer (1) He2 * 0.5
1s2 1s1 2
Sol. KCl – Ionic bond between K+ and Cl– 2–1
H2– * 0.5
1s2 1s1 2
PH3 – Covalent bond between P and H
2–2
O2 – Covalent bond between O atoms H2–
2 * 0
1s2 1s2 2
B2H6–Covalent bond between B and H atoms 2–0
He22 1
1s2 2
H2SO4 – Covalent bond between S and O and also
between O and H.
Molecule having zero bond order will not be a viable
Compound having no covalent bonds is KCl only. molecule.
24