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MIT18 01SCF10 Ses15b PDF

The derivative of the inverse tangent function arctan(x) is 1/(1+x^2). To find this, we first take the derivative of tan(y) which is sec^2(y). Then using implicit differentiation on the equation tan(y)=x, we get dy/dx = cos^2(y). Substituting y=arctan(x) gives the derivative as a function of x. Finally, using a right triangle with hypotenuse 1+x^2, we can simplify the derivative to 1/(1+x^2).

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89 views4 pages

MIT18 01SCF10 Ses15b PDF

The derivative of the inverse tangent function arctan(x) is 1/(1+x^2). To find this, we first take the derivative of tan(y) which is sec^2(y). Then using implicit differentiation on the equation tan(y)=x, we get dy/dx = cos^2(y). Substituting y=arctan(x) gives the derivative as a function of x. Finally, using a right triangle with hypotenuse 1+x^2, we can simplify the derivative to 1/(1+x^2).

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Ronald L
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Derivative of arctan(x)

Let’s use our formula for the derivative of an inverse function to find the deriva­
tive of the inverse of the tangent function: y = tan−1 x = arctan x.
We simplify the equation by taking the tangent of both sides:
y = tan−1 x
tan y = tan(tan−1 x)
tan y = x

To get an idea what to expect, we start by graphing the tangent function


(see Figure 1). The function tan(x) is defined for − π2 < x < π2 . It’s graph
extends from negative infinity to positive infinity.
If we reflect the graph of tan x across the line y = x we get the graph of
y = arctan x (Figure 2). Note that the function arctan x is defined for all values
of x from minus infinity to infinity, and limx→∞ tan−1 x = π2 .

− π2 π
2

Figure 1: Graph of the tangent function.

You may know that:


d d sin y
tan y =
dy dy cos y
..
.
1
=
cos2 y
= sec2 y

1
Figure 2: Graph of tan−1 x.

(If you haven’t seen this before, it’s good exercise to use the quotient rule to
verify it!)
We can now use implicit differentiation to take the derivative of both sides
of our original equation to get:

tan y = x
d d
(tan(y)) = x
dx dx
d dy
(Chain Rule) (tan(y)) = 1
dy dx
� �
1 dy
2
= 1
cos (y) dx
dy
= cos2 (y)
dx
Or equivalently, y � = cos2 y. Unfortunately, we want the derivative as a
function of x, not of y. We must now plug in the original formula for y, which
was y = tan−1 x, to get y � = cos2 (arctan(x)). This is a correct answer but it
can be simplified tremendously. We’ll use some geometry to simplify it.

y
(1+x2)1/2
1

Figure 3: Triangle with angles and lengths corresponding to those in the exam­
ple.

In this triangle, tan(y) = x so y = arctan(x). The Pythagorean theorem

2
tells us the length of the hypotenuse:
�
h= 1 + x2

and we can now compute:


1
cos(y) = √ .
1 + x2
From this, we get:
� �2
2 1 1
cos (y) = √ =
1 + x2 1 + x2
so:
dy 1
= .
dx 1 + x2
In other words,
d 1
arctan(x) = .
dx 1 + x2

3
MIT OpenCourseWare
http://ocw.mit.edu

18.01SC Single Variable Calculus��


Fall 2010 ��

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