Question

Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
A/C GENERAL

1. Max cross wind component for cargo door operations:

a. 25kts
b. 30kts
c. 45kts

2. Where is the electronics rack located in the cockpit:

a. Behind the first officer seat
b. In front of the first officer seat
c. Behind the captain seat
d. In front of the captain seat

3. On the cargo door operating panel located outside, the red light is on this
means:
a. All doors hooked and latched
b. The main battery is draining even the BAT toggle switch is off
c. The main battery is draining only when the BAT switch is ON
d. All doors are open

4. Which of the following statement is true regarding ATR-72 dimension at 25%

CG.
a. Length 89ft 1.5in width 89ft 9in
b. Prop clearance 3.97ft wheel track 13ft 5.5in
c. Fuselage clearance 2.16ft prop clearance 4.97ft
d. Width 88ft 9in fuselage clearance 1.16ft

5. Minimum width to turn ATR-72 is:

a. Turning angle 60o and no differential braking
b. Max steering angle and asymmetry braking
c.Turning angle 60o and asymmetry braking
d.Turning angle 60o and asymmetry braking associated with asymmetry power

6. When FWD COMPT UNLK light illuminates in the door panel it indicates that:
a. Type III emergency exit door is unlock
b. Pilot emergency hatch door is unlock
c. Service door is unlock
d. None of the above

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

7. The wing span of ATR 72 is:

a. 89ft 1.5 in
b. 88ft 9in
c. 89.15m
d. 27.166m

8. Min pavement width for 180 turn on ground is:

a. 64ft 9in
b. 45ft 9.5in
c. 70ft 2.5 in
d. 55ft 10,5in

9. Green light in the cockpit indicates:

a. Back up or alternate system selected
b. Temporarily required system in normal ops
c. Normal basic ops
d. Selection other than normal basic ops

10. To request entry into the cockpit from outside the cabin crew needs to:
a. Press the OPEN button
b. Select cockpit door locking system ON/OFF sw to ON position.
c. Press CALL button
d. Pull up the handle of right door panel

11. Once the flight crew denies access into the cockpit the DENIED lt remains
on for:
a. 2 min
b. 30sec
c. 3min
d. 10sec

12. Once the flt crew selects CLOSE position in cockpit door control panel:
a. Emergency access is possible for cabin crew
b. Access is not possible for cabin crew
c. Door call panel is inhibited for 3 min

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

13. The test pb on the door panel in the cockpit enables to test the micro sw
system of:
a. Cabin and Cargo door
b. Cabin and Emergency door
c. Service and Cargo door
d. Cabin and Svc door

14. When Emergency exit lt is selected to ARM position:

a. Emergency lts illuminate
b. Emergency lt system is deactivated
c. Emergency lights illuminate when 2 generators are lost
d. Emergency lights illuminate after an emergency landing

15. Storm lt sw in the cockpit controls the:

a. Flood lights
b. Glare shield lights
c. Dome lights
d. Pedestal panel flood lighting

Answers:
1c 2c 3b 4b 5a 6d 7b 8c 9a 10 c
11 c 12 a 13 d 14 c 15 a

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
MFC

1. For any single or dual MFC failure a single chime aural alert is produced
except MFC 1B+2B fault. This is because:
a. 1B+2B fault is not a safety concern
b. MW red light flashes as it is serious safety concern
c. MFC 1B+2B fault disables aural alerts
d. None of the above

2. A hard wired logic which is independent of MFC computation unit is

associated with.
a. 1A and 1B modules
b. 1A and 2A modules
c. 2A and 1B modules
d. 2A and 2B modules

3. The MFC fault lights flash during self-test of the modules, and the light
extinguish. The sequence of self-test is:
a. MFC 1A and MFC 2A then MFC 1B and MFC 2B
b. MFC 1A and MFC 1B then MFC 2A and MFC 2B
c. MFC 1A and MFC 2B then MFC 1B and MFC 2B
d. None is correct

4. Each MFC module is supplied by two separate electrical sources, primary and
alternate power supply switching is automatic in the following sequence:
a. From primary to alternate when Volt is <18 V and alternate volt is >20V
b. From primary to alternate when Volt is <18 V and alternate volt is >22V
c. From primary to alternate when Volt is <19 V and alternate volt is >20V
d. From primary to alternate when Volt is <19 V and alternate volt is >22V

Answers:
1c 2b 3a 4d

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
CCAS

1. The TO CONFIG TEST pushbutton does not check for:

a. CLs at max
b. Flaps
c. Pitch trim
d. PWR MGT selector

2. TO/INHI is cancelled:
a. By pressing CLR
b. At 80KTS
c. Automatically at nose wheel lift-off.
d. Automatically when any gear unlocks for retraction.

3. When TO/INHI is selected:

a. All amber CAP lights or associated aural are inhibited.
b. All the warnings except level 1 inhabited
c. All the warnings except level 3 inhabited
d. All the amber lights, smoke, and oil except EFIS COMP inhibited

4. Level 2 Alert is:

a. Is triggered by abnormal system situation
b. Has an immediate impact on safety
c. Is triggered by normal system situation
d. Requires immediate crew action

5.Which of the following red CAP lights can be extinguished with the CLR
pushbutton:
a. All
b. All except SMK lights
c. All except FIRE lights
d. None of the above.

6. CCAS gives aural and visual warning:

a. When a normal situation occurs.
b. When a non-normal situation occurs.
c. When there is a malfunction in the cabin crew alerting system.
d. Both b & c are correct.
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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

7. Local alerts are usually found in:

a. Centre instrument panel.
b. Overhead panel.
c. Left maintenance panel.
d. Crew alerting panel.

8. At normal condition stick shaker actuates:

a. At 12.1º
b. At 8.5º
c. At 7.5º
d. At 9.5º

9. When is the Stick pusher inhibited:

a. Up to 10 sec after lift-off
b. On ground
c. 20 sec after lift-off
d. a and b

10. Which level of alert triggers a continuous repetitive chime:

a. Level 2 .
b. Level 0 .
c. Level 3 .
d. Level 1

11. When depressed the TO INHIBIT , ‘INHI’ illuminates blue and:

a. All Warning lights are inhibited
b. All Caution and Advisory lights are inhibited
c. Engine Oil and Smoke Warning are inhibited
d. Engine Oil Warning, Smoke Warnings, Pitch Disconnect Warning and all amber lights
except MAINT PNL,PRKG BRK,GPWS FAULT,FLT CTL, EFIS COMP and ENG are inhibited

12. Which of the following red CAP lights can be extinguished with the CLR
pushbutton:
a. All
b. All except SMK lights
c. All except FIRE lights
d. None of the above

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

13. Zone 3 amber lights can be extinguished:
a. By depressing CLR Pb
b. By depressing TO INHI Pb
c. By depressing TO CONFIG Pb
d. Only by removing the fault

14. Emergency audio switch is used to silence nuisance aural signal, which can
be reactivated by:
a. At the next a/c configuration
b. After resetting MFC 1B and 2B
c. After depressing PCL Pb
d. Following TO CONFIG test and all the above

15. Stick pusher activation is prohibited after lift off for:

a. 10m b. 10s c. 5m d. 10m

16. “TO INHI” can be cancelled by:

a. Only as soon as one landing gear is not locked down
b. Only by pressing RCL Pb
c. Both a and b are correct
d. None is correct

17. Whenever a failure occurs, the detection sequence comprises three different
phases. These are:
a. Alert, Isolation and Identification
b. Identification, Alert and Isolation
c. Alert, Identification and isolation
d. Identification, isolation, and Alert

18. The alerts are classified in 4 levels according to their seriousness. Level 3
corresponds to an emergency situation requiring immediate crew action, the
warning is identified by:
a. MW light steady red associated with continuous repetitive chime and a red warning light
on the CAP
b. MW light flashing red associated with continuous repetitive chime and a red warning on
the CAP
c. MW light flashing red associated with continuous repetitive chime and a red or amber
warning on CAP
d. MW light flashing amber or red associated with continuous or single chime and red or
amber warning on CAP
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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

19. CCAS continuously monitor all aircraft systems in order to provide the
following functions:
a. Alert crew on the existence of a system malfunction
b. Identify the malfunction
c. Direct appropriate corrective action
d. All are correct

20. There are warnings which are not processed by MFC and the corresponding
warning lights on the CAP are directly illuminated by respective system. Few of
these are:
a. Engine fire, Excess cab ΔP, smoke and flight cont
b. Excess cab ΔP, smoke, NAC OVHT and MFC failure
c. Smoke, NAC OVHT, Excess Cab Alt and landing Gear not down
d. NAC OVHT, Excess Cab Alt, Smoke and Eng fire

Answers:
1a 2d 3d 4a 5d 6b 7b 8a 9d 10 c
11 d 12 d 13 d 14 d 15 b 16 c 17 c 18 b 19 d 20 d

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
AIR

1. The cross-feed bleed valve opens automatically:

a. On ground, when BLEED AIR is supplied from a single engine
b. On ground, both engines running.
c. In flight single engine operation.

2. Illumination of the avionics vent panel exhausts mode push-button OVBD

light, causes the ground mechanic call horn to sound:
a. Always on ground.
b. When differential pressure is less then 1PSI.
c. On ground and in flight before to set OVBD position.
d. None of the above

3. If the related electrical supply or airflow is lost, pack valves:

a. Remain open
b. Close
c. Remain open until electrical power or airflow is returned
d. Close until the system is reset

4. When a TEMP SEL push button is in MAN (released), how is the temperature
control valve controlled:
a. Directly by the related temperature control knob
b. By the electronic temperature controller
c. By the engine bleed valves
d. Through the opposite temperature control knob

5. What is maximum cabin differential pressure:

a. +5.0 to -.5
b. +6.35 to -.1
c. +5.0 to -1.0
d. +6.35 to -.5

6. In which cases does the engine bleed valve close automatically:

a. Overheat, leak, or lack of air pressure.
b. Fire handle actuated, and during starting sequence.
c. Propeller brake selected ON (for left BLEED VALVE only).
d. All of the above is correct.
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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

7. With the TEMP SEL in AUTO, the electronic temperature controller regulates
which of the following:
a. Temperature control valve position
b. Pack outlet temperature
c. Bleed Valve
d. Pack valve

8. The air conditioning air bleed valves are:

a. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
b. Electrically operated.
c. Pneumatically controlled.
d. Pneumatically controlled and Electrically operated.

9. The cross-feed bleed valve opens automatically:

a. On ground, when BLEED AIR is supplied from a single engine
b. On ground, both engines running.
c. In flight single engine operation.

10. The pack valve closes automatically when temperature goes higher than:
a. 100° c
b. 204° c
c. 304° c
d. 102° c

11. What is the maximum cabin altitude at FL 250 with the differential pressure
6 PSI:
a. 10000ft
b. 6750ft
c. 7640ft
d. 3500ft

12. How is the air condition pack valve controlled:

a. Hydraulically
b. Magnetically
c. Electrically
d. Pneumatically

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

13. In manual mode the control knob is used to select any cabin rate of change:
a. 2000 to 50000 fpm
b. -1500 to +2500 fpm
c. +1500 to +2500 fpm
d. -2000 to +2500 fpm

14. After landing the cabin depressurization rate is:

a. +450 ft/min
b. +550 ft/min
c. +300 ft/min
d. + 400 ft/min

15. Air conditioning packs are installed:

a. Both in the left landing gear fairings
b. Both in the right landing gear fairings
c. One in each landing gear fairing

16. The air conditioning OVHT caution light is ON when temperature is more
than:
a. 82° c
b. 92° c
c. 102° c
d. 72° c

17. The air conditioning bleed air is supplied:

a. Always by engine LP stage
b. Always by HP stage
c. Generally by engine LP stage but if the air is not sufficient air surge is automatically
switched to the engine HP stage (descent flight idle, ground operations)
d. Generally by engine HP stage but if the air is not sufficient air surge is automatically
switched to the engine LP stage (descent flight idle, ground operations)

18. Packs P/B "IN" means that :

a. Pack valve is fully closed in all the cases.
b. Pack valve is opened if the opening conditions are met.
c. Pack valve regulates pressure and airflow, on ground only.
d. Pack valve regulates pressure and airflow in flight only.

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

19. The recirculation fans :
a. Are used to improve cooling of heat exchanger on the ground.
b. Are used to increase pack valve airflow when in HIGH MODE.
c. Are used to recirculate a part of the cabin air, to increase fresh air supply

20. In case of duct overheat downstream of the mixing chamber :

a. The pack valve on the faulty side closes.
b. Both pack valve closes.
c. No pack valve closes.

21. How many outflow valves are there :

a. Two : one electro-pneumatic and one pneumatic outflow valves.
b. Two : electro-pneumatic outflow valves.
c. Two : pneumatic outflow valves.

22. If automatic pressurization control is desired, in which position should the

"MAN RATE KNOB" be placed:
a. NORM.
b. AUTO.
c. 9 o'clock position.

23. What happens, in absence of air pressure, with engine bleed selected "ON":
a. Bleed valve stays open.
b. Bleed valve closes automatically.
c. Bleed valve must be closed manually.

24. After illumination of "OVHT" or "LEAK" light, the related system may be
recovered :
a. For OVHT only after system cooling (no amber light).
b. For LEAK only (no amber light).
c. Never in any case.
d. Both a & b is correct

Answers:
1a 2a 3b 4a 5d 6d 7a 8a 9a 10 b
11 b 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 c 16 b 17 c 18 b 19 c 20 c
21 a 22 a 23 b 24 a

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
AFCS

1. Minimum height to engage Auto pilot:

a. 1000ft
b. 100 ft
c. 500 ft
d. 200ft

2. What is the minimum height autopilot can be used on a CAT I approach:

a. 180ft
b. 200ft
c. 160ft
d. 150ft

3. Where do you receive the Marker signal:

a. EHSI
b. CCAS
c. EADI
d. On the correspondent push button

4. AFCS in ATR-72 aircraft provides:

a. A/P function, F/D function and V/S function
b. V/S function, LOC/GS function and VOR/NAV function
c. A/P function, F/D function and Altitude alert function
d. All of the above

5. When AP pb is depressed on AFCS control panel, AP engages:

a. Irrespective of YD selection
b. YD must be selected before AP selection
c. YD had no relation with AP
d. But YD remains disengage

6. In AFCS the ADU has four display line, they are:

a. Advisory, Warning Arm and Cap
b. Arm, Cap Alt and Hold
c. Advisory, Caution, Arm and Cap
d. Nav, Vert, Loc and Alt

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

7. In AFCS the ADU displays information in the following colours:
a. White, Amber and Red
b. White, Amber and Green
c. White, Red and Green
d. White and Green only

8. In AFCS when an altitude is selected it appears in the ADU as ALT SEL…..FT

in white, when ALT* appears, it changes to:
a. ALT SEL….FT colour changes to green
b. ALT SEL….FT colour changes to…..FT only
c. ALT SEL….FT disappears from ADU
d. No changes take place

9. When the GA button is depressed on the PL, the AP is disengaged and FD only
guides to:
a. Hdg to the GA HDG
b. Pitch safe for Gear extended
c. Pitch safe for flap extended
d. all are correct

10. TCS depressed, pitch is rotated to more then 150 , when released the pitch
will settle to:
a. Same pitch when the TCS is released
b. Same pitch when TCS was depressed
c. 150
d. 50

11. AP basic modes are:

a. Vertical mode- Pitch and Lateral mode –HDG
b. Vertical mode- IAS and Lateral mode –VOR
c. Vertical mode- GS and Lateral mode –LOC
d. Vertical mode- ALT and Lateral mode –NAV

12. Autopilot disengagement can be achieved manually by:

a. Peddal force which is greater than Pitch force
b. Pitch force which is greater than pedal force
c. Both forces are equal
d. None is correct

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13. Autopilot automatic disengagement occurs among other things which are:
a. Stall warnings
b. YD not available
c. Disagreement between the two ADC
d. All of the above

14. During Altitude capture mode, the ADU and EADI readout changes from
white ALT SEL to:
a. ALT CAP in green
b. ALT CAP in white
c. ALT* in green
d. ALT* in white

Answers:
1b 2c 3c 4c 5a 6c 7b 8d 9c 10 c
11 a 12 a 13 d 14 c

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

1. The normal voltage reading for a battery is:

a. For a battery without load 25-28 Volt.
b. For a battery under load 23-28 Volt. For a battery without load 25-28 Volt.
c. 115 Volt (+/- 4).
d. 115 Volt (+/- 6).

2. What are the capacities of the batteries:

a. MAIN BAT 24 V/ 43 Ah, EMER BAT 24 V /15 Ah.
b. MAIN BAT 28.5 V / 43 Ah, EMER BAT 28.5 V / 15 Ah.
c. Both batteries 24 v / 43 Ah.
d. MAIN BAT 26/115 Ah, EMER BAT 24/43 Ah.

3. How can the DC SVCE BUS be powered:

a. With battery only by pressing the DC GND SVCE push-button in the cockpit and on the
cabin attendant panel.
b. With GPU, only the DC GND SVCE push – button on the cabin attendant panel has
control.
c. In HOTEL MODE by pressing the DC GRD SVCE push-button on the attendant panel and
SVCE/UTLY BUS push-button in the cockpit.
d. A and C are correct.

4. On ground with no power (batteries off and ground power disconnect) able
to refuel by opening refuel panel. This connects which bus to the HOT MAIN BUS
to power refueling system:
a. DC Bus.
b. Ground Handling Bus.
c. Essential Bus.
d. DC STBY Bus.

5. When DC generator is functioning as a starter during a battery start:

a. It is electrically supplied by the HOT MAIN BAT BUS and controlled from the DC ESS
BUS.
b. It is electrically supplied from the DC EMER BUS by the HOT EMER BAT BUS.
c. It is electrically supplied from the DC BUS 1 or DC BUS 2.

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6. What is the nominal voltage of the DC generators:
a. 115 Volt
b. 26 Volt
c. 28.5 Volt.
d. 14 Volt.

7. At what Np does ACW power comes on:

a. 63%
b. 70%
c. 45%
d. 25%

8. Emergency Battery Rating:

a. 24 v 15 Amph
b. 24 v 43 Amph
c. 28 v 15 Amph
d. 28 v 43 Amph

9. The DC Ground Handling Bus can be powered by:

a. Main battery (ground only) and DC External power
b. Emergency battery (ground only)
c. DC External power (ground only)
d. AC External power (ground only)

10. When does DC external power have priority over the DC generators:
a. Never
b. Whenever external power is plugged in
c. Whenever the AVAIL and ON lights are illuminated
d. During periods of high loads, such as during engine starts

11. Which has priority over other:

a. DC Gen
b. AC Gen
c. EXT power
d. ACW Gen

12. When one ACW generator is off line the ACW SVCE BUS:
a. Must be switched off
b. Is automatically shed
c. Can remain on if generator loads within limits
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13. Once the starter generator has started the engine, it operates in the
generator mode when passing:
a. NH 35 %.
b. NH 61.5 %.
c. NH 70 %.
d. NH 63%.

14. When does the starter/generator acts as a generator :

a. 61.5% NH
b. 45% NH
c. 78% NP
d. 61.5% NP

15. When the a/c is on GPU , how do DC BUS 1 & DC BUS 2 come online:
a. By BPCU
b. By Utility BUS
c. By BTC
d. DC ESS BUS

Answers:
1 b 2 a 3 d 4 b 5 a 6 c 7 b 8 a 9 a 10 c 11 c 12 b 13 b 14 a 15 c

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
EMERGENCY EQUEPMENT

1. Lavatory waste bin has a fire extinguisher which automatically discharges

when the bin temperature reaches:
a. 78°C
b. 88°C
c. 98°C
d. We do not need to know that

2. There are two types of fire extinguishers available in ATR-72 A/C; Halon and
Water:
a. Halon has a capacity of 2L and water 1 kg
b. Halon has a capacity of 2 kg and water 2L
c. Halon has a capacity of 1 kg and water 2L
d. Halon has a capacity of 1 kg and water 1L

3. Duration of fire extinguishers:

a. Halon 13 sec, water 40 sec
b. Halon 10 sec, water 30 sec
c. Halon 30 sec, water 13 sec
d. Halon 40 sec, water 13 sec

4. Fire axe handle is insulated upto:

a. 10000 volts
b. 15000 volts
c. 20000 volts
d. 25000 volts

5. Fire axe can be used to:

a. Hooking and handling electrical wiring
b. Rip off panel for fire fighting
c. Clear exit for evacuation
d. All of the above

6.Minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required in ATR-72 a/c is:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. Depends up to the airline
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7. Diluted O2 is provided for 3 cockpit crew for 120 mn, out of which:
a. 10 mn to descend from 25000 ft to 13000 ft and continuation of flight between 13000
ft and 10000 ft for 110 mn
b. 4 mn to descend from 25000ft to 13000 ft and continuation of flight between 13000 ft
and 10000 ft for 116 mns
c. 5 mn to descend from 25000ft to 13000 ft and continuation of flight between 13000 ft
and 10000 ft for 115 mns
d. None of this above is correct

8. Crew oxygen selected at 100% supply for 3 cockpit crew remains available
for a duration of:
a. 10 mn
b. 15 mn
c. 20 mn
d. 30 mn

9. Two 120L portable O2 bottles are provided in the aircraft. They permit a
continuous diluted flow for both cabin crew:
a. 20 mn at 15000 ft
b. 30 mn at 13000 ft
c. 50 mn at 10000 ft
d. All are correct

10. For passengers there are quick disconnect O2 outlets under the hat racks.
The number of the outlets are:
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

11. Passengers are provided with O2 for a period of:

a. 10 mn
b. 20 mn
c. 30 mn
d. 40 mn

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

12. Passengers are provided with oxygen for a period of 30 mts:
a. 4 mts to descend from 25000 ft to 13000 ft and 26 mts to continue flight between 13000
ft and 10000 ft
b. 10 mts to descend from 25000 ft to 13000 ft and 20 mts to continue flight between
13000 ft and 10000 ft
c. 4 mts to descend from 20000 ft to 10000 ft and 26 mts to continue flight at 10000 ft
d. None is correct

13. When seatbelt sign is switched on in the cockpit:

a. ‘Faster seatbelt light’ illuminates in the lavatory
b. ‘Return to seat’ light illuminates in the lavatory
c. Both ‘faster seat belt’ and ‘Return to seat’ light illuminate in the lavatory
d. None in correct

14. A blue sterile light illuminated above the cockpit door is to indicate that:
a. Cockpit entry is prohibited
b. Senior cabin crew must report to cockpit immediately
c. Cabin crew should take position for an evacuation
d. None is correct

15. If the lavatory door is locked from inside:

a. It can be opened from outside
b. It can not be opened from outside
c. It can be opened from out side by rotating the door knob
d. It can be opened by inserting a flat fool in the slot and move

16. Service door cannot be used as an emergency exit at night if:

a. The associated emergency light and the door open locking device is inoperative
b. Only if the associated emergency light is inoperative
c. Only if the open locking device is inoperative
d. All are correct

17. In ATR-72 aircraft, there are:

a. 5 emergency exits including pilot emergency hatch
b. 5 emergency exits including avionics access hatch
c. 5 emergency exits including Capt’s communication hatch.
d. None is correct

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

18. After closing the pax/crew door, FA must check the door ‘close’ indicator,
which is:
a. Red in colour
b. Black in colour
c. Green in colour
d. Any colour

19. FA panel has following call lights:

a. Toilet
b. Fwd and after cabin
c. Flight deck
d. All are correct

20. Which of the following statement is not correct? FA’s panel controls all cabin
lights except:
a. Entry light
b. Ceiling light
c. Fwd cargo light
d. Lateral light

21. FA’s panel has emergency light system control, which is:
a. Independent of cockpit emergency light switch position
b. Operates only when cockpit emergency light switch is in off position.
c. Operates only when cockpit emergency light switch is in ARM position
d. None is correct

22. FA’s panel has lavatory and all cargo smoke detection warning except:
a. Fwd cargo
b. Aft cargo
c. Aux cargo
d. All of the above

Answers:
1a 2c 3a 4b 5d 6c 7a 8b 9b 10 b
11 c 12 a 13 b 14 a 15 d 16 d 17 a 18 c 19 d 20 c
21 a 22 a

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
FIRE PROTECTION

1. Fire procedure on left engine after agent 1 discharge, you see:

a. Agent 1 DISCH on left engine only.
b. Agent 1 DISCH on left engine + DISCH on right engine.
c. Agent 1 DISCH on left engine + agent 2 DISCH on right engine.

2. What happens when the SQUIB TEST pushbutton is depressed:

a. DISCH illuminates amber and CCAS is activated.
b. Discharge heads are tested and two SQUIB lights illuminate white.
c. Discharge heads are tested and CCAS is activated.
d. DISCH illuminates amber and aural warning.

3. When you pull the “engine fire handle”, what happens:

a. Propeller feathering, fuel engine low pressure valve closure, air bleed valve and HP valve
closure, DE ICE valve and SHUT-OFF valve closure, electrical DC and ACW generators
deactivation, SQUIB light illumination, extinction agent push-button is activated.
b. Propeller feathering, fuel engine low pressure valve closure, air bleed valve and HYD
system isolation.
c. Propeller feathering, fuel engine low pressure valve closure, air bleed valve and HP valve
closure.

4. The fire bottle squibs are armed:

a. When the associated fire handle is pulled
b. At all times electrical power is available
c. By the fire detection control unit automatically whenever a fire is detected
d. If the DISCH lights are illuminated

5. Which engine is equipped with nacelle overheat detection:

a. APU
b. Both engine
c. Engine 1
d. Engine 2

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

6. Where is the automatic fire extinguisher available at:
a. Forward cargo
b. Aft cargo
c. a & b
d. Only toilet waste bin

Answers:
1c 2b 3a 4a 5d 6d

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
FLIGHT CONTROLS

1. Which aileron has the roll trim tab:

a. Left aileron
b. Right aileron
c. Both Left and Right aileron.

2. The gust lock acts on controls for:

a. Elevator and rudder
b. Elevator only
c. Aileron and elevator
d. Elevator, aileron and rudder

3. When does the red CCAS FLP UNLK light illuminate:

a. Failure of mechanical lock between inner and outer flaps
b. Inadvertent movement of handle towards retract after selecting take-off flaps 15º) on
the ground
c. Retraction of more than 4º with flaps at 15º or more
d. Whenever flaps asymmetry is discovered

4. What is the meaning of the blue EXT flag on the flaps position indicator:
a. Hydraulic fluid is not flowing
b. Hydraulic fluid is flowing
c. Flaps are extended
d. Flaps are not completely extended to the commanded position

5. When do the roll spoilers begin to move:

a. As soon as the wheel is displaced from neutral
b. After an aileron deflection of 2.5º
c. At full aileron deflection
d. When spoiler deflection is indicated on the overhead panel

6. The gust lock system acts on:

a .Roll and rudder control
b. Roll and pitch control
c. Pitch and rudder control

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

7. Roll control operation is achieved by actuating :
a. Mechanically the ailerons and hydraulically the spoilers.
b. Mechanically the spoilers and hydraulically the ailerons.
c. Mechanically the ailerons and the spoilers.

8. "SPLR" lights illuminate to indicate :

a. Associated spoiler has failed.
b. Associated spoiler is in the retracted position.
c. Associated spoiler is not in the retracted position.

9. Pitch control is achieved by :

a. Two hydraulic elevators.
b. Two machanical drive elevators, each fitted with an automatic tab.
c. One machanical drive elevator.

10. Pitch trim is obtained by :

a. Off setting both automatic tab neutral position.
b. Off setting left automatic tab neutral position.
c. Off setting right automatic tab neutral position.

11. Yaw spring tab function reduces pilot's efforts :

a. At high speed.
b. At any speed.
c. At low speed.
d. Below 180 Kts.

12. "LO SPD" light associated to "TLU" :

a. Illuminates green when rudder travel is not limited.
b. Illuminates amber when rudder travel is not limited.
c. Illuminates green when rudder travel is limited.

Answers:
1a 2c 3c 4b 5b 6b 7a 8c 9b 10 a
11 b 12 a

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS

1. What is the indication of CRT failure?

a. Blank display
b. Red cross
c. Partially blue
d. None of the above

2. Fast and slow indication S & F on the EADI:

a. From 6 to 12 kts
b. From 5.5 to 11 kts
c. From 4 to 11 kts
d. From 8 to 1 kts

3. Which is the range of Radio Altimeter:

a. – 20 to + 2500 ft
b. 0 to + 2500 ft
c. 0 to + 2450 ft
d. 50 to + 2500 ft

4. How many ALT selectors are available on the glare shield:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 2 and 1 standby
d. None of them

5. Crew Voice Recorder operations:

a. Last 30 minutes of recording are retained
b. All recording may be erased by pressing ERASE PB provided the aircraft is on the
ground and parking brake is set ON
c. a+b are correct
d. None of the above

6. ADC 1 supplies:
a. Captain’s and F/O’s altimeter, ASI and VSI
b. Captain’s Altimeter, ASI, VSI and AHRS1, ATC1 and EECs
c. EECs, TAT/SAT/TAS when selected
d. None of the above

7. ADC 2 supplies:
a. F/O’s altimeter, ASI, VSI and AHRS2, FDAU MFC and GPWS
b. F/O’s altimeter, ASI, VSI
c. GPWS with other services when ADC is selected to ADC2
d. None of the above
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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

8. Standby altimeter and standby ASI is:

a. Directly supplied by raw data
b. Directly supplied by raw data through ADC1
c. Directly supplied by raw data through ADC2
d. All are correct

9. FAST/SLOW indicator in the EADI is related to:

a. Yellow speed bug
b. V2 or approach speed
c. Internal speed bug
d. Red speed bug

Answers:
1a 2b 3a 4a 5c 6c 7b 8a 9c

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
FUEL

1. Which pump can supply both engines during complete flight envelope
except during take-off and landing:
a. Electrical Pump
b. Jet Pump
c. Aux Pump
d. STBY Pump

2. What is the maximum allowed fuel imbalance between tanks:

a. 80 kg
b. 160 kg
c. 730 kg
d. 550 lbs

3. What is the max refueling pressure:

a. 50 psi or 3.5 bars
b. 50 psi or .77 bars
c. 11 psi or .77 bars
d. 11 psi or 3.5 bars

4. When is the Fuel Clog light illuminate and the fuel BYPASS:
a. 45 psi
b. 25 psi
c. 61.5 psi
d. 25 psi

5. What is the max de-fueling pressure:

a. 11 psi or .77 bars
b. 8.5 psi or .77 bars
c. 50 psi or 3.5 bars
d. 50 psi or .77 bars

6. Which pump can supply 1 engine during whole flight envelope:

a. Jet Pump.
b. STBY Pump.
c. Aux Pump.
d. Electrical Pump

7. What is the total useable fuel on ATR 72:

a. 2,250 kgs
b. 5,000 kgs
c. 2,250 lts
d. 4,500 lbs
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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

8. The feeder tank has a capacity of:
a. 200kg
b. 200lb
c. 200l
d. 100l

9. A temperature measuring device is installed in the:

a. Right feeder compartment
b. Left vent surge tank
c. Wing centre box
d. Left feeder compartment

10. The electric fuel pump is activated when:

a. Jet pump pressure drops below 4psi
b. When 260kg remains in the fuel tank
c. Fuel ‘ X’ feed pb is released
d. None of the above

11. The LP valve is controlled by:

a. Motive flow valve
b. ‘X’ feed valve
c. Jet pump
d. Fire Handle

Answers:
1b 2c 3a 4a 5a 6d 7b 8c 9d 10 d
11 d

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
HYDRAULIC SYSTEM

1. The users of the GREEN hydraulic system are:

a. Landing gear and normal brake.
b. Nose wheel steering, landing gear and normal brake.
c. Landing gear, normal brake and parking brake.
d. Nose wheel steering, landing gear, and parking brake.

2. What is the normal system pressure shown on the center panel hydraulic
pressure gauge:
a. 800 PSI
b. 1500 PSI
c. 3000 PSI
d. 2200 PSI

3. At what pressure does the HYD LO PR light illuminate:

a. 800 PSI
b. 1500 PSI
c. 2200 PSI
d. 3000 PSI

4. One of the condition to engage prop brake:

a. Green hyd pressure above 1500 psi.
b. Green hyd pressure above 2000 psi.
c. Aux hyd pressure above 3000 psi.
d. Blue hyd pressure above 2900 psi.

5. What is the meaning of blue EXT flag on the flap position indicator:
a. Hydraulic fluid is not flowing
b. Flaps are not completely extended to the command position
c. Hydraulic fluid is flowing
d. Flap are extended

6. The brake accumulator pressure is for:

a. Normal braking only
b. Emergency & parking brake only
c. Both normal and emergency braking

7. The pedestal switch energizes the Aux Hyd pump:

a. Only when the batt is ON
b. Even when the batt is OFF
c. When all operating conditions are met

Answers:
1a 2c 3b 4d 5c 6b 7b

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
ICE AND RAIN

1. Propellers are not heated when NP is:

a. More than 70%
b. Less than 70%
c. Less than 63%
d. More than 63%

2. Minimum Np required for anti-icing:

a. 80%
b. 90%
c. 86%
d. 85%

3. De-icing mode should be selected in ATR-72:

a. When SAT is >- 20ºc
b. When SAT is >-20oC
c. When TAT is > +7ºc
d. When IEP is lighted

4. Minimum Np for deicing on ground:

a. 67%
b. 63%
c. 45%
d. 70%

5. If the temperature is below -20ºc the de-ice boots cycle is:

a. 240 sec.
b. 220 sec.
c. 180 sec.
d. 210 sec

6. Aircraft ice protection is provided by :

a. Pneumatic system only.
b. Electrical heating only.
c. Electrical heating and pneumatic system.

7. "DE ICING" light illuminates on memo panel when :

a. Air frame de icing is selected ON.
b. Ice is detected by ICE DETECTOR SYSTEM.
c. Window and probe heat are ON.

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

8. Stall alert threshold is reduced from normal operation to icing operation as
soon as :
a. Ice accretion is detected.
b. Propellers and horns anti icing are selrcted ON.
c. At least one horn anti icing is selected ON.

Answers:
1c 2c 3d 4b 5c 6c 7a 8c

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
LANDING GEAR

1. What type of brake is equipped in ATR-72:

a. Normal brakes
b. Multi disc brakes
c. Multi disc carbon brakes
d. Carbon brakes

2. What is the max landing gear extension speed (VLO LOW):

a. 160 kt
b. 165 kt
c. 170 kt
d. 185 kt

3. The brake accumulator pressure is for:

a. Normal braking only
b. Emergency & parking brake only
c. Both normal and emergency braking
d. Emergency braking only

4. What is the max landing gear extended speed (VLE):

a. 170 kt
b. 175 kt
c. 180 kt
d. 185 kt

Answers:
1c 2c 3d 4d

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
NAVIGATION

1. With tilt control knob in the weather radar we have pitch axis from:
a. 15º down and 15º up
b. 10º down and 10º up
c. 45º down and 45º up
d. 5º down and 5º up

2. When are you able to test the GPWS:

a. On ground
b. Below 1000ft
c. Above 1000ft
d. a and c

3. In WX position level 3 is indicated by:

a. amber
b. magenta
c. red
d. black

4. VOR frequency is spread between:

a. 108.00 and 111.75 MHZ
b. 108.00 and 112.00 MHZ
c. 108.00 and 117.75 MHZ
d. 108.00 and 117.95 MHZ

5. When DME is in HOLD mode, the DME is displayed of the:

a. Active NAV selection
b. Next NAV selection
c. Previous NAV selection
d. None of the Above

6. In TEST position the WX radar range is automatically selected to 100Nm with

3
arcs appear on EHSI in:
a. Green, Yellow and Red
b. Black, Green and Yellow
c. White, Yellow and Red
d. Red, Green and White

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

7. When WX intensity is severe it is displayed in red colour when selected in
WX position and is leveled as level 3. In GMap position Level 3 is represented
by:
a. Red colour
b. Yellow colour
c. Black colour
d. Magenta colour

8. Altitude alert is triggered when:

a. 1000ft from the selected altitude
b. 100ft from the selected altitude
c. 250ft from the selected altitude
d. 750ft from the selected altitude

Answers:
1a 2d 3c 4d 5c 6a 7d 8a

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
POWER PLANT

1. At what NH does START ON light go off:

a. 25% b.21%
c. 45% d. 19%

2. Max oil tank capacity:

a. 14.4 L b. 10 qt
c. 9.3 qt d. 10 Gal

3. Where is the fuel temperature measuring device is installed:

a. In the Right feeder compartment.
b. In the Left feeder compartment.
c. In the Right vent surge tank.
d. In the Left vent surge tank.

4. What are the requirements to ARM the ATPCS:

a. On ground, PWR MGT TO, power levers angle above 56 degrees, Torque 63%, ATPCS
pushed IN.
b. On ground, PWR MGT TO, Power levers angle below 45 degrees, Torque 63%, ATPCS
Pushed OUT.
c. PWR MGT TO, ATPCS ON, Both PL above 49o, Both TQ above 46% and A/C on ground.
d. On ground, PWR MGT TO, power levers angle above 56 degrees, Torque 53%, ATPCS
pushed IN.

5. What is the Np at hotel mode:

a. 1200
b. 1100
c. 0
d. 785

6. ATPCS gives immediate uptrim, when will it provide auto feather:

a. after 2 seconds
b. after 2.15 seconds
c. after 1.15 seconds
d. after 2.5 seconds

7. How many fuel nozzles and igniters are the for each engine:
a. 12 fuel nozzles and 2 igniters
b. 10 fuel nozzles and 4 igniters
c. 14 fuel nozzles and 4 igniters
d. 14 fuel nozzles and 2 igniters

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

8. During synchrophasing, what is the allowance of Np dividing synchronize.
NO.2 NP moves to adjust with NO.1 when Np is within:
a. +/- 3.5
b.+/-1.5
c.+/-2.5
d.+/-4.5

9. The accessory gearbox drives:

a. D.C. starter/generator, HP fuel pump, ACW generator.
b. D.C. starter/genitor, HP fuel pump, oil pump
c. D.C. start/ generator, the auxiliary feather pump, over speed governor.
d. ACW generator, HP fuel pump, oil pump.

10. ATR-72 NH/NL indicator indicates:

a. NH in analogue and NL in digital
b. NH/NL in analogue and NH in digital
c. NH/ NL in digital
d. NH/NL in analogue

11. What are the ways to manually feather prop in-flight:

a. Fire handle, Power lever
b. Power lever, Condition lever
c. Condition lever, Fire handle
d. All of the above

12. What is the function of the Hydro Mechanical Unit (HMU):

a. Only supply fuel to the engine.
b. HP motor flow required by electrical pump.
c. Meters fuel to the engine and HP motive flow required by the jet pump.
d. All of the above.

13. What is the rpm at 100% NP:

a. 1100
b. 1000
c. 1300
d. 1200

14. Starting No.2 engine and fault light appears what could be the cause:
a. Prop brake on.
b. Prop brake on and gust lock not engage.
c. Prop brake on but no pressure.
d. None of the above.

15. What would cause motive flow valve to open:

a. Fuel flow from HP pump to HMU (electrical pump must be on).
b. When the HMU pressure reach at 5 psi.
c. When the jet pump is automatically turned on.
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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

16. Maximum continuous torque:

a. 86%
b. 90.9 %
c. 80%
d. 88%

17. MAX time limit for RTO:

a. 2mts
b. 5mts
c. 10mts
d. No time limit

18. What is driven by prop reduction gearbox:

a. D.C. generator
b. ACW generator
c. D.C. emergency bus
d. D.C. standby bus.

19. PWR MGT to TO, what does FDAU target bug on torque indicator show:
a. Reserve T/O torque 100% for 10mins
b. T/O torque below 85% for 10mins
c. T/O torque above 100 for 5mins
d. T/O torque above 110% for 10mins

20. What does ‘Idle Gate’ do:

a. Prevents PL angle reduction below FI in flight
b. Prevents PL angle reduction below FI on ground
c. Prevents PL angle reduction below GI in flight
d. Prevents PL angle reduction below GI on ground

21. If ‘IDLE GATE FAIL’ lt is illuminated, how do we manually operate it:

a. In flt pull
b. On ground push
c. On ground no action
d. In flight push

22. Which statement is true about the Power Management Rotary Selector
(PWR MGT):
a. Made up of two independent parts (Front & Back)
b. The front part is for right engine
c. The back part is for right engine
d. Both a & b is correct

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

23. Which one is an arming condition of ATPCS with PWR MGT at TO , ATPCS pb
ON:
a. Both PL above 49° , both TQ above 46%
b. Both PL above 46° , both TQ above 49%
c. Both PL above FI , both TQ above 52%
d. None of the above

24. Hotel Mode provides:

a. ACW power
b. Air conditioning
c. Air conditioning & DC power supply
d. None of the above

25. When the prop brake is ON, CL is set at which position:

a. MAX
b. MIN
c. FTR
d. FSO

26. EEC regulates power according to:

a. Starter position
b. PWR MGT selector position
c. CL position
d. Flaps position

27. Where is the ‘Auxiliary Feather Pump’ located:

a. Prop reduction gear box
b. Air inlet
c. Accessory gear box
d. Combustion chamber

28. Propeller reduction gear box is mounted offset of the accessory gear box,
on the RGB are installed:
a. ACW generator, the propeller control unit, the DC starter/generator
b. ACW generator, the feather pump, the HP fuel pump
c. ACW generator, the overspeed governer, the prop brake
d. ACW generator, the AUX feathering pump, the oil pumps

Answers:
1 c 2a 3b 4c 5c 6b 7d 8c 9b 10 b 11 c 12c 13d 14b 15a
16b 17c 18b 19a 20a 21d 22d 23a 24c 25 c 26 b 27 a 28 c

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

ATR-72-212
QUESTION BANK
LIMITATION

1. Max operating altitude:

a. 30000ft
b. 20000ft
c.25000ft
d.15000ft

2. Starting ITT limit is:

a. 801°c –840°c no limit
b. 801°c –840°c 40 sec
c. 801°c –840°c 20 sec
d. 801°c –840°c 10 sec

3. What is starter limit:

a. 3 starts, max combine time of total 1.5mins then wait for 3 mins
b. 2 starts, max com combine time of total 2 mins then wait for 4 mins
c. 3 starts, max combine time of total 1.5 mins then wait for 4 mins
d. 2 starts max combine time of total 2mins and then wait for 4 mins

4.What is maximum take-off weight:

a. 22000kg
b.16900lbs
c.16400kgs
d.16400lbs

5. Max tire speed:

a. 160 kts
b. 170 kts
c. 165 kts
d. 175kts

6. What is the maximum operating speed, VMO:

a. 245kts
b. 250kts
c. 230kts
d. 240kts

7. Maximum tailwind limit

a. 12 kits
b. 10 kts
c. 15 kts
d. 18 kts

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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

8. What is maxi rough air speed, VRA:
a. 190kts
b. 200kts
c. 180kts
d. 170kts

9. Max ramp weight:

a. 17707kg
b. 16990kg
c. 22030kg
d. 16400kg

10. Maximum flaps extended operating speed VFE 15 degree:

a. 175kts
b. 185kts
c. 150kts
d. 180kts

11. What is the maximum airspeed for the windshield wipers:

a. 160kts
b. 170kts
c. 150kts
d. 165kts

12. Maneuvering limit load factors flaps retracted:

a. + 2.5 to -.5 G
b. +2.0 to - 1G
c. + 2.5 to - 1G
d. +2.0 to -.5G

13. What is maximum landing gear extended speed, VLE:

a. 188kts
b. 185kts
c. 170kts
d. 165kts

14. What is maximum landing weight:

a. 17070kg
b. 15540kgs
c. 21350kg
d. 15540lbs

15. Maximum takeoff and landing altitude:

a. 10000ft
b. 8000ft
c. 8500ft
d. 9500ft
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 Question Bank for ATR 72-500

16. Max altitude for single bleed:

a. 15000ft
b. 20000ft
c. 22000ft
d. 18000ft

Answers:
1c 2c 3c 4a 5c 6b 7b 8c 9c 10 b
11 a 12 c 13 b 14 c 15 c 16 b

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