Practice Test 7

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Reading Test
65 MINUTES, 52 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

  DIRECTIONS

Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).

Questions 1–10 are based on the following passage. Somerset,” and by inserting most accurately the day of
the month on which he had lost his wife.
This passage is adapted from Jane Austen’s Persuasion, 30 Then followed the history and rise of the ancient
originally published in 1818. and respectable family, in the usual terms; how it
Sir Walter Elliot, of Kellynch Hall, in Somersetshire, had been first settled in Cheshire; how mentioned in
was a man who, for his own amusement, never took Dugdale, serving the office of high sheriff, representing
up any book but the Baronetage; there he found a borough in three successive parliaments, exertions
Line occupation for an idle hour, and consolation in a 35 of loyalty, and dignity of baronet, in the first year of
5 distressed one; there his faculties were roused into Charles II, with all the Marys and Elizabeths they had
admiration and respect, by contemplating the limited married; forming altogether two handsome duodecimo
remnant of the earliest patents; there any unwelcome pages, and concluding with the arms and motto:
sensations, arising from domestic affairs changed “Principal seat, Kellynch Hall, in the county
naturally into pity and contempt as he turned over 40 of Somerset,” and Sir Walter’s handwriting again
10 the almost endless creations of the last century; and in this finale:
there, if every other leaf were powerless, he could read —“Heir presumptive, William Walter Elliot,
his own history with an interest which never failed. Esq., great grandson of the second Sir Walter.”
This was the page at which the favorite volume always Vanity was the beginning and the end of Sir Walter
opened: 45 Elliot’s character; vanity of person and of situation.
15 ELLIOT OF KELLYNCH HALL. He had been remarkably handsome in his youth; and,
“Walter Elliot, born March 1, 1760, married, July at fifty-four, was still a very fine man. Few women
15, 1784, Elizabeth, daughter of James Stevenson, Esq. could think more of their personal appearance than
of South Park, in the county of Gloucester, by which he did, nor could the valet of any new made lord be
lady (who died 1800) he has issue Elizabeth, born June 50 more delighted with the place he held in society. He
20 1, 1785; Anne, born August 9, 1787; a still-born son, considered the blessing of beauty as inferior only to
November 5, 1789; Mary, born November 20, 1791.” the blessing of a baronetcy; and the Sir Walter Elliot,
Precisely such had the paragraph originally stood who united these gifts, was the constant object of his
from the printer’s hands; but Sir Walter had improved warmest respect and devotion.
it by adding, for the information of himself and his 55 His good looks and his rank had one fair claim on
25 family, these words, after the date of Mary’s birth— his attachment; since to them he must have owed a
“Married, December 16, 1810, Charles, son and heir of wife of very superior character to anything deserved
Charles Musgrove, Esq. of Uppercross, in the county of by his own. Lady Elliot had been an excellent woman,

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sensible and amiable; whose judgment and conduct, 2
60 if they might be pardoned the youthful infatuation Which choice best summarizes the first two
which made her Lady Elliot, had never required paragraphs of the passage (lines 1–21)?
indulgence afterwards. She had humored, or softened,
A) A prominent and important family has had its
or concealed his failings, and promoted his real
history recorded for posterity’s sake.
respectability for seventeen years; and though not the
65 very happiest being in the world herself, had found B) A long-established family is celebrated in one of
enough in her duties, her friends, and her children, to the most popular books in England.
attach her to life, and make it no matter of indifference C) Published family lineages were historically brief
to her when she was called on to quit them. Three accounts, with many details omitted.
girls, the two eldest sixteen and fourteen, was an awful D) A widower takes a great deal of pleasure in
70 legacy for a mother to bequeath, an awful charge reading an account of his own family history.
rather, to confide to the authority and guidance of a
conceited, silly father.
She had, however, one very intimate friend, a
3
sensible, deserving woman, who had been brought,
75 by strong attachment to herself, to settle close by her, The author most likely includes the phrase “with
in the village of Kellynch; and on her kindness and all the Marys and Elizabeths they had married” in
advice, Lady Elliot mainly relied for the best help and the description of the family history in the fourth
maintenance of the good principles and instruction paragraph (lines 30–38) in order to
which she had been anxiously giving her daughters. A) indicate that such family histories often read very
80 This friend, and Sir Walter, did not marry, whatever repetitively.
might have been anticipated on that head by their B) establish the type of woman most commonly
acquaintance. Thirteen years had passed away since married by the elite.
Lady Elliot’s death, and they were still near neighbors
and intimate friends, and one remained a widower, the C) inform the reader of the most common British
names for women.
85 other a widow.
D) provide the reader with as much detailed
information as possible.
1
The main purpose of the passage is to
A) describe a main character and his personal and 4
family history. Sir Walter can best be described as
B) provide an overview of a family and a nearby A) the head of one of the most foremost families in
neighbor. England.
C) discuss some unfortunate traits in a main B) a man known to be a voracious reader.
character’s nature. C) one who values personal beauty second only to
D) explain the relationship between a main character title.
and his deceased wife’s friend. D) someone who takes great pride in the vanity of his
family.

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Practice Test 7  |   3
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Which choice provides the best evidence for the Which of the following can be inferred from the last
answer to the previous question? paragraph (lines 80–85)?
A) Lines 1–3 (“Sir Walter . . . Baronetage”) A) The idea that Sir Walter and Lady Russell might
B) Lines 22–29 (“Precisely such . . . wife”) wed occurred to those who knew them.

C) Lines 30–31 (“Then followed . . . terms”) B) Sir Walter and Lady Russell are likely to wed in the
future due to deaths of their respective spouses.
D) Lines 50–54 (“He considered . . . devotion”)
C) Lady Russell was prevented by her close
relationship with Lady Elliot from accepting the
hand of Sir Elliot.
6
D) Lady Russell’s beauty was not equal to that of Sir
As used in line 47, “fine” most nearly means Walter’s, which prevented the likelihood of their
A) adequate. marriage.
B) attractive.
C) reasonable.
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D) light.
As used in line 81, “head” most nearly means
A) face.
7 B) countenance.
It can most reasonably be inferred that Lady Elliot C) possibility.
A) had a positive effect on Sir Walter. D) inevitability.
B) died after a long illness.
C) suffered from unhappiness most of her life.
D) was surrounded by friends who supported and
guided her.

8
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 58–62 (“Lady Elliot . . . afterwards”)
B) Lines 62–64 (“She had . . . years”)
C) Lines 64–68 (“and though . . . them”)
D) Lines 73–76 (“She had . . . Kellynch”)

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Practice Test 7  |   5
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Questions 11–21 are based on the following passage Chores, Jobs, Responsibilities and Earned Income
and supplementary material. This domain reveals several important
characteristics of young adolescence—changing views
The following is an excerpt from Elliott A. Medrich’s Young
45 of the capabilities of boys and girls; reinforcement of
Adolescents and Discretionary Time Use: The Nature of Life
role stereotypes; and the desire among young people
Outside School.
to earn money and, thereby, gain increased control
Time use is one way of viewing important of their time use options. Boys and girls are typically
commonalties and differences in the experience of assigned different kinds of chores at home—boys
growing up. 50 do things like yard work, while girls are more likely
Line Studies of time use typically focus on one of to shop and babysit. These activities also come to
5 two issues: how much time adolescents commit to characterize the kinds of jobs held among young
particular activities; or what adolescents do, often adolescents employed for the first time (estimates
without regard to the amount of time spent on indicate that as many as 20 percent of fourteen- and
each activity. Both styles of research enhance our 55 fifteen-year-olds work regularly for money outside
understanding of the relationship between what the home). Young adolescents are more interested in
10 adolescents do with their discretionary time and jobs for the sake of income rather than for the “skill
the circumstances—family background, gender, building” or “character building” aspects of early work
neighborhood environment—which serve as a experience.
backdrop to time use decision making. 60 Television and Other Media
Five domains of out-of-school time use are described Television viewing peaks in early adolescence and
15 below, including activities alone or with friends, begins to decline through the middle school years.
activities with parents, in-home or out-of-home chores, Interestingly, it is sometimes the only activity young
jobs and responsibilities, organized activities including adolescents do with their parents or siblings. Other
participation in recreational and cultural programs 65 media are beginning to play a significant role in their
supervised by adults, and television viewing and use lives. Many young adolescents spend as much as four
20 of other media. Patterns of time use across each of the to six hours a day listening to music (usually radio),
domains are summarized as follows. and it begins to emerge as a significant backdrop to
Time Alone and with Friends other activities, to a degree defining a cornerstone of
Young adolescence marks the emergence of peers as 70 adolescent peer culture.
crucial actors in time use decision making. In contrast Organized Activities
25 to younger children, time use research with adolescents There is tremendous diversity within the domain
documents the increasing import of peer relations, of organized activities, with regard to the substance,
and in parallel fashion, increasing divergence in the structure, and management styles of the available
activity sets of boys and girls. Among boys, there is 75 services. Programs are provided by both public and
still an interest in “active” forms of leisure (like sports), non-profit sectors, and most young adolescents
30 while among girls an increasing amount of time is participate in at least one group, lesson, class, or
spent socializing, talking and engaging in more passive club during the course of the school year (studies
pursuits. report that between sixty and eighty percent of young
Activities with Parents and Family 80 adolescents become involved). Levels of participation
Early adolescents spend little time with their in particular activities are different for boys and girls,
35 parents and families. Eating and television viewing and for children from different income groups. Factors
tend to be the most frequent activities, although girls contributing to participation include: involvement of
seem to spend somewhat more time interacting with friends, interest in the activity, and whether or not the
family members than boys. This seems to reflect 85 program or activity offers some measure of autonomy.
changes in parent-child relationships—parents do not Community facilities, as distinct from organized
40 determine how young adolescents spend their time as activities, represent a somewhat different type of
they do with younger children.

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time use. Physical access is important to decisions 11
young adolescents make about using facilities like The position that the author takes in this passage can
90 libraries, recreation centers and parks. Since they best be described as
are still minimally mobile, they need services close
A) a social scientist presenting his findings based on
to home. Providers must be sensitive to the growing
adolescent research.
independence of the age group and to differences in
needs across and within communities, across gender B) a parent concerned with how his children are
95 and across age groups. spending their time.
C) an adult reflecting on the various ways he spent
Average Minutes Spent in Major Activities time as an adolescent.
Twelve to Seventeen Year Olds by Sex: Weekdays D) an educator seeking more clarity on how to make
Activity Boys Girls school time engaging.
Market work 0:23 0:21
Household work 0:16 0:40 12
Personal care 0:48 1:11 As used in line 5, “commit” most nearly means
Eating 1:13 1:05 A) entrust.
Sleeping 8:24 7:58
B) institutionalize.
School 5:14 5:42
C) pledge.
Studying 0:29 0:37
D) give.
Church 0:03 0:07
Visiting 0:17 0:25
Sports 0:52 0:37 13
Outdoors 0:10 0:10 The references to “family background, gender,
Hobbies 0:07 0:04 neighborhood environment” in lines 11–12 primarily
serve to
Art activities 0:12 0:06
A) provide an example of the factors that may
Playing 0:37 0:13
influence how adolescents use their time.
TV 2:23 1:48
B) demonstrate all the differences that determine
Reading 0:10 0:13 adolescent use of time.
Household conversations 0:21 0:30
C) illustrate what activities rank as the most popular
Other passive leisure 0:21 0:14 amongst adolescents.
NA 0:14 0:17 D) call attention to what determines use of time when
Percent of time accounted for 93.1% 91.9% comparing adolescents to adults.
by above activities

14
The discussion in lines 23–32 of how boys and girls
choose to spend their time primarily serves to
A) explain societal roles.
B) highlight a variance.
C) warn of a disturbing trend.
D) emphasize biological differences.

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Practice Test 7  |   7
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As used in line 38, “reflect” most nearly means Based on the text and figure, it can be inferred that
A) return. listening to music is not included in the table because
B) redirect. A) adolescents don’t listen to music.
C) reveal. B) listening to music accounts for the missing time
needed to reach 100 percent.
D) imitate.
C) adolescents listen to music while doing other
activities.
16 D) researchers didn’t ask about listening to music.
The author indicates that adolescents’ chores and jobs
A) decrease the amount of time spent with family. 20
B) create current social stereotypes. Which statement best summarizes the information
C) are generally divided along gender lines. presented in the table?
D) provide more experience than income. A) Adolescents of both sexes divide their time over a
dozen different activities.
B) Adolescents spend the majority of their time
17 either sleeping or going to school.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the C) The average adolescent has become increasingly
answer to the previous question? busy compared to the previous decade.
A) Lines 34–35 (“Early adolescents . . . families”) D) The types of activities boys engage in accounts for
B) Lines 48–51 (“Boys and . . . babysit”) their lack of sleep as compared to those of girls.
C) Lines 51–56 (“These activities . . . home”)
D) Lines 56–59 (“Young adolescents . . . experience”) 21
According to the table, which statement is true about
the amount of time spent by adolescents on certain
18
activities?
According to the author, all of the following may
A) Girls engage in a fewer number of hobbies as
affect student participation in clubs, groups, or classes
compared to boys.
EXCEPT
B) The fact that boys spend 24 fewer minutes
A) whether the student is a boy or a girl.
than girls doing household work accounts for
B) whether the student is allowed to try things on his stereotypical gender roles.
or her own.
C) Girls dedicate more of their time to personal
C) whether the student’s parents are supportive of the care than boys do to sports and TV watching
activity. combined.
D) whether the student knows anyone else involved D) Girls and boys allocate their time differently for
with the group. every activity except time spent outdoors.

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Practice Test 7  |   9
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Questions 22–31 are based on the following passage. its adoption would be almost tantamount to giving
up the attempt to repress murder altogether. But if
The following passage is an excerpt from a speech given
45 it really is what it professes to be, and if it is realized
by John Stuart Mill to the British House of Commons in
in all its rigor by the popular imagination, as it very
April 1868. In it, Mill argues that a proposed ban on capital
probably would not be, but as it must be if it is to
punishment by that legislative body should not be approved.
be efficacious, it will be so shocking that when the
. . . Aggravated murder is now practically the only memory of the crime is no longer fresh, there will be
crime which is punished with death by any of our 50 almost insuperable difficulty in executing it. What
lawful tribunals; and we are even now deliberating comparison can there really be, in point of severity,
Line whether the extreme penalty should be retained in that between consigning a man to the short pang of a
5 solitary case. rapid death, and immuring him in a living tomb,
When there has been brought home to any one, there to linger out what may be a long life in the
by conclusive evidence, the greatest crime known 55 hardest and most monotonous toil, without any of its
to the law; and when the attendant circumstances alleviations or rewards—debarred from all pleasant
suggest no palliation of the guilt, no hope that the sights and sounds, and cut off from all earthly hope,
10 culprit may even yet not be unworthy to live among except a slight mitigation of bodily restraint, or a
mankind, nothing to make it probable that the crime small improvement of diet? Yet even such a lot as this,
was an exception to his general character rather than 60 because there is no one moment at which the suffering
a consequence of it, then I confess it appears to me is of terrifying intensity, and, above all, because it
that to deprive the criminal of the life of which he does not contain the element, so imposing to the
15 has proved himself to be unworthy—solemnly to blot imagination, of the unknown, is universally reputed
him out from the fellowship of mankind and from the a milder punishment than death—stands in all codes
catalogue of the living—is the most appropriate, as it is 65 as a mitigation of the capital penalty, and is thankfully
certainly the most impressive, mode in which society accepted as such. 
can attach to so great a crime the penal consequences
20 which for the security of life it is indispensable to
annex to it.
I defend this penalty, when confined to atrocious 22
cases, on the very ground on which it is commonly Which choice best describes the structure of the first
attacked—on that of humanity to the criminal; as two paragraphs?
25 beyond comparison the least cruel mode in which A) A general rule is given, the attempt to end that
it is possible adequately to deter from the crime. rule is acknowledged, and a description of when
If, in our horror of inflicting death, we endeavor that rule should apply is explained.
to devise some punishment for the living criminal
B) The application of a law is given, followed by the
which shall act on the human mind with a deterrent history of that law, and then the modern use of the
30 force at all comparable to that of death, we are driven law.
to inflictions less severe indeed in appearance,
and therefore less efficacious, but far more cruel C) A belief is established and a counterargument to
in reality. Few, I think, would venture to propose, that belief is reviewed.
as a punishment for aggravated murder, less than D) A punishment is acknowledged, a description of
35 imprisonment with hard labor for life; that is the fate the punishment is provided, and a rejection of that
to which a murderer would be consigned by the mercy punishment is stated.
which shrinks from putting him to death.
But has it been sufficiently considered what sort of
a mercy this is, and what kind of life it leaves to him?
40 If, indeed, the punishment is not really inflicted—if
it becomes the sham which a few years ago such
punishments were rapidly becoming—then, indeed,
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23 27
The author most strongly implies which of the The author poses the question at the beginning of the
following about the “criminal” who has committed fourth paragraph (lines 38–66) in order to
aggravated murder (line 14)? A) point out the innately cruel natures of those with
A) Society must value his life despite his actions. whom he disagrees.
B) There may be evidence exonerating him. B) emphasize that alternate punishments leave
C) He no longer deserves to live due to his actions. criminals a merciful life.

D) It is likely that he is sorry for what he has done. C) indicate that his opponents may not have fully
considered the consequences of an alternative.
D) request that his audience help him in
24 understanding the argument it is making.
The purpose of the third paragraph is to
A) relate an anecdote. 28
B) attack a rival. The author of this passage would most likely agree
C) offer a concession. with which of the following statements?
D) qualify a position. A) Capital punishment is more merciful than life
imprisonment because it is more immediate.
B) Life imprisonment is a more economical
25 punishment than capital punishment.
The author believes that the punishment of C) Life in prison gives the criminal time to repent of
“imprisonment with hard labor for life” (line 35) is his sins, while capital punishment does not.
A) the less cruel approach to punishing aggravated D) Neither capital punishment nor life imprisonment
murder. is a good way to deter crime.
B) the likely alternate choice to capital punishment.
C) the best deterrent to future crime.
29
D) the next best alternative to capital punishment.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
26 A) Lines 33–35 (“Few, I . . . life”)

Which choice provides the best evidence for the B) Lines 40–44 (“If, indeed . . . altogether”)
answer to the previous question? C) Lines 50–59 (“What comparison . . . diet”)
A) Lines 22–24 (“I defend . . . criminal”) D) Lines 59–66 (“Yet . . . such”)
B) Lines 24–26 (“as beyond . . . crime”)
C) Lines 35–37 (“that is . . . death”)
D) Lines 38–39 (“But has . . . to him”)

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Practice Test 7  |   11
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30 31
The author compares life in prison to a “living tomb” As used in line 59, “such a lot” most nearly means
because those imprisoned A) such an area.
A) have no hope at all. B) such a condition.
B) suffer from a fear of the unknown. C) such a group.
C) are cut off from enjoyable sensory experiences. D) so much.
D) face execution for their crimes.

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Practice Test 7  |   1 3
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Questions 32–41 are based on the following passage 45 effect on the size of their brains. The big drop off
and supplementary material. in size occurred between solitary and social wasps.
In contrast, the brains of wasps in simple societies
The following article examines the relationship between brain
showed no significant size differences between those in
size and socialization among wasps.
complex societies.
A solitary wasp—the kind that lives and forages 50 “That suggests to me that going from solitary to a
for food alone—has a fairly small brain. Type out a small society is the significant transition,” O’Donnell
lowercase letter in 10-point text and you’ll get an idea said.
Line of its size. Part of what makes vertebrate societies so brain-
5 But tiny as that brain is, its social cousins, living intensive is that they usually involve groups of
together in honeycombed nests, have even smaller 55 organisms with different agendas that aren’t related
ones. And that size difference might provide some to one another—most of the people you know aren’t
key information about the difference between insect members of your family.
societies and vertebrate societies. Insect societies, however, are made up of groups
10 Biologists have studied the societies of of cooperating close relatives with shared objectives.
vertebrates—from flocks of birds, to schools of fish, 60 Wasps might not need the type of brainpower required
to communities of humans—enough to come up for social interaction because there’s much less of it in
with something called the “social brain hypothesis.” their nests and colonies. The insects cooperate and rely
Generally, it goes something like this: Social on each other without the type of negotiation that can
15 interaction presents challenges that require a lot of be required in vertebrate societies.
brain power, as that interaction requires organisms 65 But what advantage could a smaller, less complex
to navigate complicated territory, including avoiding brain offer a species? As O’Donnell puts it, “Brains are
conflict and building alliances. expensive.”
Therefore, vertebrates that live in societies have Neural tissues require more energy to develop and
20 bigger brains. The more complex the organism’s maintain than almost any other kind, and biologists
society, the bigger its brain regions for processing 70 have found that natural selection will find the optimal
complex information will be. Scientists believe the balance between the metabolic costs of developing
complexity of human societies may be one of the particular areas of the brain and the benefits yielded.
reasons we have such large, developed brains. In some ways, the social wasps may “share”
25 Sean O’Donnell, a biology professor at Drexel, has brainpower. Individually, their brains might not stack
spent almost the entirety of his more than 20-year 75 up to their solitary relatives, but the colony as a whole
career studying wasps. He says these picnic terrors— is “smart.”
actually critical members of the insect world that prey O’Donnell says the next steps for his work will
on pest species—represent ideal candidates for seeing replicate the wasp research with termites and bees,
30 whether that hypothesis applies to insects, because which also offer a variety of social complexity.
they have so much variation. 80 “We would expect to see similar patterns,” he said.
Some wasps are solitary. Some live in small,
primitive groups. Others live in larger, more complex
societies. “There are lots of intermediate stages,”
35 O’Donnell said.
When O’Donnell, with support from the National
Science Foundation’s Directorate for Biological
Sciences, looked at the brains in 29 related species of
wasps spanning the social spectrum, he found that
40 living in a society did indeed affect the size of their
brains. It just made them smaller, instead of bigger.
His research uncovered another interesting
difference from vertebrates: the complexity of the
wasps’ societies seemed to have no significant CONTINUE
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Primates 34

0.25
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
0.20 answer to the previous question?
0.15 A) Lines 27–31 (“He says . . . variation”)
Residual Brain Size

0.10
B) Lines 42–45 (“His research . . . brains”)
0.05
0 C) Lines 68–72 (“Neural tissues . . . yielded”)
–0.05 D) Lines 77–79 (“O’Donnell . . . complexity”)
–0.10
–0.15
–0.20
35
–0.25
–0.30 What effect does the phrase “Generally, it goes
Solitary Pairbonded Harem Multimale something like this” in line 14 have on the tone of the
passage?
A) It creates a serious tone by stressing that
something is so important it must be explained
twice.
32 B) It creates a mocking tone by implying that the
The passage is written from the perspective of reader is unable to understand a concept.
someone who is C) It creates an informal tone by translating a
A) currently conducting research on varying insect scientific theory into a straightforward idea.
brain sizes. D) It creates a jovial tone by letting the reader know
B) writing an article based on the findings of a that this topic is not one of great significance.
researcher.
C) advocating for greater public understanding of an
often-maligned creature. 36
D) compelled to address an issue that has deep As used in line 23, “complexity” most nearly means
personal meaning for him. A) difficulty.
B) simplicity.
C) intricacy.
33
D) density.
It is reasonable to conclude that the continuing goal
for Sean O’Donnell in conducting his research is to
A) establish a general pattern between invertebrate
insect socialization and brain size.
B) further investigate the relationship between brain
size and complexity of society.
C) illustrate that the benefits of a smaller brain are
greater than those of a larger brain.
D) apply his findings from wasp research to assist
homeowners dealing with termites.

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Practice Test 7  |   1 5
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37 40
The purpose of the fourth paragraph (lines 19–24) is What information discussed in the passage is
to represented by the graph?
A) further illustrate how the social brain hypothesis A) The information in lines 7–9 (“And that . . .
applies to vertebrates. societies”)
B) establish the main difference between vertebrates B) The information in lines 20–22 (“The more . . .
and invertebrates. will be”)
C) give greater insight into how the majority of C) The information in lines 47–49 (“In contrast . . .
humans interact with one another. societies”)
D argue that the smarter a person is, the larger his or D) The information in lines 74–76 (“Individually . . .
her brain is likely to be. “smart”)

38 41
The author indicates that the wasp Which statement about the effect of society and brain
A) has evolved past the need for a large brain as it is size is supported by the graph?
controlled by a central queen within the society. A) It is unlikely that brains will grow bigger as
B) lives in a society composed of its own relatives and societies become more complex.
so does not need to address varying goals among B) A harem does not constitute a complex society.
the society. C) There is little difference between the brain size of a
C) lives in a society that is simple, rather than solitary versus pair-bonded organism.
complex, which does not require a larger brain. D) Lemurs, which have a relatively large residual
D) does not need a large brain because its society brain size compared to those of other animals, are
does not require cooperation. most likely living in multi-male societies.

39
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 14–18 (“Social . . . alliances”)
B) Lines 32–33 (“Some live . . . groups”)
C) Lines 58–59 (“Insect . . . objectives”)
D) Lines 60–64 (“Wasps might . . . societies”)

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Practice Test 7  |   1 7
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Questions 42–52 are based on the following passages. distant from the destroyed wetland will result in
the wetland functions being replaced in areas away
Passage 1 is adapted from Randall J. Hunt, “Do Created
from where they are needed and/or in areas that are
Wetlands Replace the Wetlands that are Destroyed?” Passage
not wetland deficient. Finally, there is great interest
2 is adapted from T.M. Lee, K.H. Haag, P.A. Metz, and L.A.
45 in mitigation “banks”—large wetland restoration or
Sacks, “Comparative Hydrology, Water Quality, and Ecology
creation projects that can serve as compensation credit
of Selected Natural and Augmented Freshwater Wetlands in
for wetland losses elsewhere in a given region. The
West-Central Florida.”
people agree that while large intact wetland acreage
Passage 1 is desirable, there is some concern that mitigation
Wetlands are often considered “kidneys of the 50 banking projects will not provide meaningful
landscape” because of their role in filtering the effects mitigation of the cumulative effects of widely
of surrounding land use, and have widely recognized distributed, small-acreage wetland loss.
Line functions that include storm/flood water retention,
5 shoreline protection, water-quality improvement, and Passage 2
wildlife habitat. In fact, more than one-third of our Augmentation has maintained some of the
endangered species are associated with wetlands even functional capacity of the four augmented wetlands
though wetlands comprise less than five percent of the 55 located within the well fields during the augmentation
landscape! We have lost vast areas of the pre-settlement period (which began in the early 1980s). Without
10 wetland acreage—more than 50 percent nationally augmentation, the four augmented wetlands would
and more than 95 percent in some states. Increasing have been dry during the majority of this period.
population, development, farming, and landowners’ The historical flooding pattern of W29 Impaired
rights have resulted in increasing amounts of our 60 Marsh illustrated the most optimistic flooding regime
wetland resource being destroyed and have increased that could have been expected in the absence of
15 the pressure on the wetlands that remain. augmentation: 20 percent or less of the total wetland
In the broadest sense, mitigation is a process that area was inundated for most of the time, and entirely
focuses on: 1) avoiding wetland loss, 2) minimizing dry conditions prevailed for as much as 80 percent of
the effect of wetland loss, and 3) compensating for 65 the time.
unavoidable wetland loss. In general usage, however, In addition, the soil moisture comparisons at
20 mitigation has become synonymous with number 3 the natural and impaired marshes, together with the
and now refers to replacing the function and structure hydrogeologic sections of the augmented wetlands,
of a destroyed wetland by creating, restoring or indicate that without augmentation, the water table
enhancing a wetland somewhere else. This mitigation 70 would have been too deep below the wetlands to
of wetland loss has been mandated by federal law, and provide the soil moisture conditions necessary
25 there have been numerous large and small wetland for aquatic algae, wetland plants, and freshwater
mitigation projects in every part of the nation. macroinvertebrates to survive. Wetland plants would
It is not widely accepted that mitigation projects likely have been replaced with upland vegetation, as
are successful. Although the current wetland 75 occurred at W29 Impaired Marsh where slash pines
permit programs assume that wetland loss is being became established throughout the marsh during
30 ameliorated, no long-term, interdisciplinary research prolonged dry conditions (Haag and others, 2005).
shows unequivocally that a created wetland has fully Cypress tree mortality would have been widespread,
replaced the lost function resulting from a wetland’s as was evident in W19 Impaired Cypress. Moreover,
destruction. Secondly, there is a concern that created 80 because both of the impaired wetlands were affected
wetlands do not provide in-kind compensation. That less severely by ground-water withdrawals than the
35 is, many hard-to-create wetland types (such as fens, four augmented wetlands prior to their augmentation,
bogs and sedge meadows) are being replaced with even more severe deterioration could have been
common, easy-to-create wetland types (cattail marsh), expected.
or the “quality” of the resulting mitigation wetland is
not equal to the wetland that was destroyed. A third
40 concern is that placing mitigation projects in areas CONTINUE
1 8   |   Cracking the SAT
 1 1
1 1
42 46
The author of Passage 1 suggests that wetland The reference to the “W29 Impaired Marsh” (lines
mitigation is unsuccessful due to 59–60) serves mainly to
A) increasing population growth destroying natural A) highlight how well an augmented marsh did
wetlands. during flooding.
B) the very small percentage of land categorized as B) account for the establishment of a historical flood
natural wetland. pattern.
C) the fact that mitigation banks are overly large and C) demonstrate how a wetland is eventually
wasteful. destroyed.
D) the distance that may exist between created D) provide an example of the flood patterns of a
wetlands and destroyed natural wetlands. natural, non-augmented marsh.

43 47
Which choice provides the best evidence for the As used in line 60, “regime” most nearly means
answer to the previous question? A) establishment.
A) Lines 1–6 (“Wetlands are . . . habitat”) B) organization.
B) Lines 11–15 (“Increasing population . . . remain”) C) condition.
C) Lines 39–44 (“A third . . . deficient”) D) scheme.
D) Lines 44–52 (“Finally, there . . . loss”)

48
44 It can be inferred from the second paragraph of
As used in line 15, “pressure” most nearly means Passage 2 (lines 66–84) that wetland augmentation
A) weight. was successful because it
B) demands. A) helped prevent plants associated with dry land
from developing within the wetland area.
C) force.
B) eradicated many invasive cypress trees.
D) difficulty.
C) significantly deepened the water table as
compared to previous flooding occurrences.
45 D) forced groundwater withdrawals.
The primary purpose of the second paragraph
(lines 16–26) is to
49
A) argue against the efficacy of wetland mitigation
projects. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
B) describe how specific wetland mitigation projects
are accomplished. A) Lines 66–73 (“In addition . . . survive”)
C) offer three reasons wetland mitigation is B) Lines 73–77 (“Wetland plants . . . conditions”)
necessary. C) Lines 78–79 (“Cypress tree . . . Cypress”)
D) offer insight into the purpose of wetland D) Lines 79–84 (“Moreover, because . . . expected”)
mitigation processes.

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   1 9
 1
1 11
50 52
Which choice best states the relationship between the Which choice would best support the claim that the
two passages? author of Passage 1 recognizes the importance of the
A) Passage 2 provides evidence which refutes a stance successful retention of aquatic algae, wetland plants,
taken in Passage 1. and freshwater macroinvertebrates) mentioned in
Passage 2?
B) Passage 2 offers a cautionary tale regarding a
practice that Passage 1 describes in favorable A) Lines 6–9 (“In fact . . . landscape”)
terms. B) Lines 19–23 (“In general . . . else”)
C) Passage 2 attacks the results of a research study C) Lines 34–39 (“That is . . . destroyed”)
mentioned in Passage 1.
D) Lines 47–52 (“The people . . . loss”)
D) Passage 2 considers a theoretical solution to a
problem, while Passage 1 offers an application of
that solution.

51
In lines 27–28, the author of Passage 1 implies that
not all mitigation projects are successful. How would
the authors of Passage 2 respond to this implication?
A) With endorsement, as the results from the study
in Passage 2 found augmented wetlands offered no
benefit to the environment.
B) With limited agreement, as the study in Passage 2
did not show that augmented wetlands fully
replaced the functions of natural wetlands.
C) With contempt, as Passage 1 implies that there is
no solution to a problem that has already been
solved.
D) With confusion, because Passage 1 seems to be
discouraging scientists and the public from trying
to save the wetlands.

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

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1 1

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CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   2 1
 22
2 22
Writing and Language Test
35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

  DIRECTIONS

Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you
will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For
other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied
by one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make
revising and editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the
passage as it is.

Questions 1–11 are based on the following passage. 1

A) NO CHANGE
OMG, GMOs! B) arenas and they are
A new type of food has entered the consumer and C) arenas:
legislative 1 arenas, they are the GMO (genetically D) arenas;
modified organism). A GMO is any type of organism that
has been altered through the use of genetic engineering.
2
There are two main types of GMOs: process-based and
A) NO CHANGE
product-based. A process-based GMO is one that has
B) produced is different.
been enhanced through biotechnology for productivity or
C) produced has been altered.
yield. In this type of GMO, the end-use has not itself been
D) produced.
altered, only the process by which it is 2 produced has
been changed.

CONTINUE
2 2   |   Cracking the SAT
 2 2
A product-based GMO is one that has been enhanced 3
through biotechnology in a way that alters the end-use of At this point, the writer is considering adding the
that product. 3 following true sentence.
Indeed, the product itself is genetically changed.
Currently, products that are GMOs, of either type,
Should the writer make this addition here?
4 is not required to be labeled as GMOs. However, there
A) Yes, because it helps to complete the description of
is a bill before the United States Congress that would allow the object being discussed.
the Food and Drug Administration to require a “contains B) Yes, because it introduces an idea that is not yet
GMO” label on such products. included in the passage.
C) No, because it does not match the current
The proponents of the bill believe a lack of labeling structure of the paragraph.
5 is bad to the American public in three fundamental D) No, because it is redundant and implies the reader
ways. First, the lack of labels hides the full extent of non- is unable to understand the topic matter.
natural techniques utilized in producing GMOs, thereby
limiting consumers’ full knowledge of products. Second, 4
this knowledge deficit prevents consumers from not only A) NO CHANGE
recognizing the health risks of consuming such products B) isn’t required
6 and understanding the true extent of those risks. C) are not required
Third, with no labels to guide them, consumers cannot D) not required
confidently choose products that align with their beliefs
concerning animal treatment, environmental stewardship,
5
and 7 what religion they are.
A) NO CHANGE
B) is destructive towards
C) provides harm for
D) harms

6
A) NO CHANGE
B) but
C) but also
D) as well as

7
A) NO CHANGE
B) religious restrictions.
C) religious restrictions they have.
D) their religion.
CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   2 3
 2 2
[1] The arguments against requiring food labels could 8
be characterized as less idealistic and more pragmatic To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 3
than those promoting food labels. [2] As opponents of should be placed
the bill point out, food labels in general are notoriously A) where it is now.

both misleading and uninformative. [3] Adding a label B) after sentence 1.

that reads “contains GMO” would provide no insight into C) after sentence 4.

what “GMO” means or why consumers might need to be D) after sentence 5.

warned against it. [4] The general confusion resulting from

food labels is due in part to the limited space on which 9
to provide information as well as the consumers’ limited Which of the following provides a specific detail that
knowledge of what they are reading. [5] The wording reinforces the main point of the previous sentence?
proposed in the bill would not address either of these A) NO CHANGE
issues. 8 B) Crops may or may not contain GMOs.
C) Corn and canola have been a staple of our diet for
Opponents also argue that most foods Americans several centuries.
consume have contained GMOs since the early 1990s. D) Crops are beginning to fall out of favor due to
9 More than half of the corn, soybean, and canola crops containing GMOs.
in the U.S. have genetically modified traits. By this point,
the label would need to be placed on nearly all products, 10
thus making its utility very limited. One might as well put A) NO CHANGE
a label on every food product in the grocery store that says B) whether
“contains food.” Regardless of 10 if the bill is passed, C) when
11 information about how food is grown is available if D) if in fact
people just look it up.

11
The writer wants a concluding sentence that restates
the main argument of the paragraph. Which choice
best accomplishes this goal?
A) NO CHANGE
B) consumer food choices are generally made
based on what food is available rather than what
information is available.
C) the American public knows right from wrong
when it comes to their personal food choices.
D) consumers are more likely to shop for the cheapest
food available than pay more for organic.

CONTINUE
2 4   |   Cracking the SAT
 2 2
Questions 12–22 are based on the following passage 12
and supplementary material.
A) NO CHANGE
B) even bigger and better
While at Work, Just Chill Out
C) rocking the boat
The idea that happy workers are productive workers
D) rocking and rolling
is 12 gaining traction with American businesses. Many
businesses have been utilizing data or conducting
13 there own research to better understand how they can 13
provide their workers with the most enjoyable working A) NO CHANGE
environment and experience. These aspects of working life B) their
have historically been treated as the most easily dismissed C) they’re
complaints of an office. Now, these employee concerns are D) its

being earnestly researched for cost-saving purposes.

14 It is one of the more common complaints in the 14

workplace, and also one of the most regularly dismissed, A) NO CHANGE

has been temperature. This complaint usually comes from B) It is a more common complaints in the workplace,

women—and for a good reason. Research shows that many C) It is one of the most common complaints in the
workplace,
buildings’ temperature settings are based on a historically
D) One of the most common complaints in the
established metabolic-equivalent measurement standard. workplace,
“Metabolic equivalent” expresses how much energy the
body requires to perform tasks such as sitting, walking,
15
and running. The metabolic equivalent still in use today
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
was calculated in the 1930s and is based on that of a
following sentence.
155-pound male. 15
Today, however, the workforce has diversified
considerably, and this measurement no longer
captures the rate of the majority of American
workers.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it provides support for the claim
made in the previous sentence.
B) Yes, because it demonstrates the reason the use of
metabolic equivalents is flawed.
C) No, because it would be better placed elsewhere in
the passage.
D) No, because it contradicts the main idea of the
passage.

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   2 5
 2 2
While the human body may seem to be primarily at 16
rest while 16 sitting, but the reality tells another story. A) NO CHANGE
As we sit, our bodies are constantly at work maintaining B) sitting but the reality
brain function, regulating blood flow, and controlling C) sitting, the reality
vital organs, all at an average temperature of 98.6 degrees. D) sitting; but the reality
When the external temperature is low, the body must work
harder in order to perform these basic functions.
17
17 Due to the increased energy the body exerts Which choice most smoothly and effectively
when it is too cold, there is a direct link between introduces the writer’s discussion of temperature and
worker productivity in this paragraph?
temperature and worker productivity. Concentration
A) NO CHANGE
and the ability to perform basic tasks, such as typing
B) Many people have asked the question “How does
without error, are the most common competencies to temperature affect a worker’s ability to perform
become compromised when the external temperature in tasks well?”
offices is kept too low. The longer that bodies must work C) There is a clear link between productivity in the
workplace and temperature, and this link should
to compensate for lower external 18 temperatures: the
not be ignored.
more pronounced deficiencies and errors become.
D) DELETE the underlined sentence.

18
A) NO CHANGE
B) temperature, the more
C) temperature; the more
D) temperature. The more

CONTINUE
2 6   |   Cracking the SAT
 22
2 22
Outside of employee productivity, competency, and 19
happiness, the influences of room temperature 19 have A) NO CHANGE
a large affect on cost savings for a company. First of all, it B) have a large effect
takes a great deal of energy, and therefore money, to keep C) has a large affect
an office space at the standard 68–72 degrees Fahrenheit D) has a large effect
of most large-scale office buildings in the United States.
Heating, Ventilating, and Air Conditioning systems 20
(HVAC) account collectively for 20 28 percent of the Which choice offers the most accurate interpretation
electricity and 86 percent of the natural gas consumed of the data in the chart?
by office buildings. Even in today’s technology-driven A) NO CHANGE
workplace, cooling accounts for 21 more electricity usage B) 28 percent of natural gas and 86 percent of
electricity
than does lighting.
C) 19 percent of electricity and 14 percent of natural gas
D) the majority of electricity and natural gas

21
Which choice provides the most accurate
interpretation of the data in the chart?
A) NO CHANGE
B) less electricity and natural-gas usage than does
office equipment.
C) more natural-gas usage than do all other
appliances and services.
D) more electricity usage than do office computers.

Office buildings’ energy consumption by end use in the U.S.

Data from the U.S. Energy Information Administration show that cooling,
lighting, and ventilation account for 62 percent of electricity use (A), and
HVAC dominates natural gas use at 86 percent in (B).

(A) Electricity (B) Natural Gas

Refrigeration Office equipment

5% Water heating
4% Cooling
Space heating 5%
Water heating Other 1%
5% 1% 9%
Ventilation
Lighting
9%
39%
Computers
10%

Other HVAC
13% Cooling
86%
14%

Note: Insufficient data were available for electric consumption of © E Source: Data from the U.S. Energy Information Administration
cooking equipment; sum may not total 100% due to rounding.

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   2 7
 22
2 22
As American businesses move towards maximizing 22
the productivity of the work environment and reducing The writer wants a conclusion that addresses the
losses from unnecessary and costly office expenditures, future of efforts to decrease workplace expenditures
and agrees with the main idea of the passage.
22 it is likely that the temperature will remain cold so
Which choice results in the passage having the most
that employees stay awake. appropriate concluding sentence?
A) NO CHANGE
B) there is likely to be increased polling as to what it
is about offices that bothers employees the most.
C) office lunches, coffee, and snacks are likely to
disappear.
D) it is likely that there will be a warming up of
offices all around.

CONTINUE
2 8   |   Cracking the SAT
 2 2
Questions 23–33 are based on the following passage. 23
A) NO CHANGE
Driverless Car, Meet Operator-less Elevator B) their
Google has been busily testing its “driverless cars” C) its
for the last three years, promising a release date within a D) it’s
matter of years. While Americans seem interested, they
do not seem fully convinced regarding the technology just
24
yet. What if the car crashes? What if it spins out of control?
A) NO CHANGE
Won’t a human driver be able to adapt to conditions better
B) 1900.
than a computer will?
C) 1900—at the turn of the last century.
Google is taking these questions very seriously. D) 1900, the beginning of the last century.
Luckily, 23 they’re able to learn from history. “How is it
possible,” the Google executives wonder, “to make people
25
comfortable with automated, interactive technology—
Which choice provides the most specific information
especially when it comes to their safety?” This question on the safety of the elevator?
is at least 115 years old. It was also posed when the A) NO CHANGE
automated elevator was invented in 24 1900, at the turn B) the precursor to the automated elevator in a
of the last century. building near you,
C) so-called because the cab would not fall in the
The first safety-elevator, 25 the best elevator anyone event of a broken cable,
had seen to that point, was installed at 488 Broadway in D) although not the first elevator in widespread use
New York City in 1857. Before that time, elevators were in the United States,
operated by elevator operators. These were men, and later
women, who controlled all elevator 26 functions: these
26
operators opened and closed the doors and guided the
A) NO CHANGE
elevator to level stops by hand.
B) functions and these
C) functions these
D) functions, these

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   2 9
 2 2
By 1900, several completely automated elevators were 27
installed in various commercial buildings in New York A) NO CHANGE
City. 27 Although the automated elevator seemed like B) Given that
a guaranteed success, the public loathed and feared the C) Since
new technology. People feared that, in the absence of an D) DELETE the underlined portion and begin the
operator, the elevator would plummet to the floor and kill sentence with a capital letter.
everyone inside. Many refused to ride such elevators, and
the buildings that had installed them quickly returned to 28
the practice of manual elevator operation. Which choice most effectively sets up the paragraph?
28 Soon, the government would have to intervene. A) NO CHANGE
That year, a strike of fifteen thousand workers in B) All of this changed in 1945.
commercial trades, including elevator operators, doormen, C) But eventually people came around.
porters, firemen, and maintenance workers, brought the D) Elevators as we know them today are not new.
main business districts of New York to a halt, leaving 1.5
million people unable to get to work. No one was manning 29
the elevators, and 29 upwards to 8 million dollars in A) NO CHANGE
federal taxes were lost per day. As a result, and in order to B) from
remove such power from any future strikes, the elevator C) as much as
industry dedicated itself to reintroducing the American D) an amount approximating
public to the automated elevator. Demonstrating how safe
and enjoyable the experience could be, the industry ran ads
30
for the next few years featuring children pushing buttons in
Which choice gives an additional supporting example
elevators and asking to ride again. 30 People also began to
that emphasizes the importance of lessening public
see more and more elevators without operators. fear towards automated elevators?
A) NO CHANGE
B) Miniature cabs and shafts were set up at state fairs
for people to ride and control, without the fear of
harm from riding in tall office buildings.
C) People would eventually become very comfortable
with the idea of automated airline flights.
D) Eventually over time the ads began to work, and
people began to ride the elevators more.

CONTINUE
3 0   |   Cracking the SAT
 2 2
Google is paying close attention to the elevator 31
31 industries experience, and it is demonstrating that A) NO CHANGE
attention in a number of creative ways. 32 For example, B) industries’
Google believes, as the elevator industry did many years C) industry’s
earlier, that publicizing the production and testing process D) industrys
will create a sense of normalcy around the product before
it is even introduced. Only time will tell how well these
32
techniques will work, 33 and whether the nervous public
A) NO CHANGE
will be willing to accept them.
B) However,
C) For all that,
D) Surprisingly,

33
The writer wants to conclude the paragraph effectively
while also reinforcing the point that skepticism
toward driverless cars exists. Which choice best
accomplishes this goal?
A) NO CHANGE
B) and if driverless cars become more heavily used
than elevators.
C) or if the whole plan was doomed from the start.
D) but industry experts say it could take a decade
before the cars are ready to use.

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   3 1
 2 2
Questions 34–44 are based on the following passage. 34
A) NO CHANGE
Toxic Snail Kills the Pain
B) its
The Conus magus is a predatory and venomous C) it’s
marine snail that is protected by a beautiful shell; D) his
34 their name translates to “magical cone.” The shell
size of an adult ranges from 16 mm to 94 mm, or from a
35
half inch to three inches long. The shell resembles striped
A) NO CHANGE
chocolate or chestnut coloring on white. The Conus magus
B) Because
is found in many parts of the globe—including the Red
C) Since
Sea, the Indian Ocean, the Mascarene Basin, and parts of
D) In that
the Pacific.

35 While the Conus magus is a fascinating species

36
in its own right, humans are primarily interested in one
A) NO CHANGE
aspect of the species: the medicinal qualities of its venom.
B) yet
The venom of the Conus magus contains conotoxins, a
C) so
group of neurotoxic peptides, specific to this species of
D) for
snail. The majority of these peptides are lethal to humans,
36 and one is highly beneficial. Scientists have developed
ziconotide, a synthetic chemical, from one of these singular 37
neurotoxic peptides. 37 It is one of the most highly A) NO CHANGE
effective pain-killers known to man; its potency is 1000 B) This synthetic chemical, ziconotide,
times that of morphine. Ziconotide works by blocking C) Ziconotide
calcium channels, which are located in pain-transmitting D) This
nerve cells within the 38 brain, heart, the nervous
system, and bone. This blockage prevents the calcium 38
channels from transmitting pain signals to the brain. A) NO CHANGE
B) brain, heart, nervous, system,
C) brain, heart, nervous, system
D) brain, heart, nervous system,

CONTINUE
3 2   |   Cracking the SAT
 2 2
In 2004, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration 39
39 approved the use of Prialt, the ziconotide from snail A) NO CHANGE
toxin, as a prescribed painkiller. Prialt has not gained B) put its stamp of approval on
the widespread use of morphine and other less potent C) provided official sanction for
painkillers, 40 because of its remarkable effectiveness. D) gave the thumbs up and “O.K.” to
This is largely due to the fact that Prialt is difficult to
administer. The only way to administer the drug is to
40
41 have injected it into the spine, a very painful
A) NO CHANGE
procedure. Largely due to this difficulty, Prialt has only
B) since
been used to treat chronic and severe pain caused by such
C) despite
diseases as AIDS, cancer, and neurological disorders.
D) therefore

41
A) NO CHANGE
B) inject
C) injected
D) injecting

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   3 3
 22
2 22
(1) Prialt has to be injected because it cannot cross 42
the blood-brain barrier, 42 a sort of membrane that The writer is considering deleting the underlined
blocks compounds within the blood from entering the portion (ending the sentence with a period). Should
the writer make this deletion?
brain. (2) However, in the last year, scientists have been
A) Yes, because the underlined portion detracts
working on a way to administer Prialt in a less painful
from the paragraph’s focus on why Prialt must be
way. (3) One proposed delivery solution is hiding Prialt injected.
in something that can cross the blood-brain barrier. (4) B) Yes, because the information in the underlined
Referred to as the “Trojan Horse strategy,” the process portion is provided earlier in the sentence.
places the chemical inside a tiny container constructed C) No, because the underlined portion defines a term
that is important to the passage.
from viral proteins. 43
D) No, because the underlined portion gives an
Although still in the research phase, this example of a particular kind of blood-brain
barrier.
44 solution could be the key to widespread Prialt use.
If this delivery method works, it could lead to a vast
reduction of untreated pain for long-suffering patients. 43
The writer plans to add the following sentence to this
paragraph.
This carrier would then transport the chemical to
the desired location in the brain.
To make this paragraph most logical, the sentence
should be placed
A) after sentence 1.
B) after sentence 2.
C) after sentence 3.
D) after sentence 4.

44
A) NO CHANGE
B) resolution would
C) solution would
D) resolution could

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

3 4   |   Cracking the SAT

222
22 222

No Test Material On This Page

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   3 5
 3 3
Math Test – No Calculator
25 MINUTES, 20 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

  DIRECTIONS

For questions 1–15, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided,
and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 16–20, solve the
problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the directions
before question 16 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use any available
space in your test booklet for scratch work.

  NOTES
1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.
2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which f(x)
is a real number.

  REFERENCE

 c 2x 60° x s 45° s 2
•
r h b
w 30° 45°
b a x 3 s
A = πr 2 A = w c 2= a 2 + b 2
C = 2 πr A = 1 bh Special Right Triangles
2

•r h
h r h
h
w r w
 
4
V = wh V = π r 2h V = 3 πr3 1 1
V = 3 π r2h V = 3 wh

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

CONTINUE
3 6   |   Cracking the SAT
 3 3
1 3
If 17 = 3 + 8x, what is the value of 4x + 9 ? H = 35 – 4t
A) 7 Every day, Lee, a home inspector, is assigned a group
B) 14 of houses needing to be inspected. Lee uses the
C) 16 model above to estimate how many houses he has
left to inspect at the end of each hour, where H is the
D) 25
number of houses he has left to inspect and t is the
number of hours he has worked so far that day. What
does the value 4 represent in this model?
A) The number of hours Lee has to finish all of his
assigned houses
B) The number of houses that Lee has already
2 inspected that day
Meteorologists in Atlanta have developed the C) The number of total houses assigned to Lee to
following equation to estimate the temperature t, in complete that day
degrees Fahrenheit, based on the number of hours h D) The rate at which Lee inspects houses
after sunrise until 4:00 p.m.:

t = 5h + 61.4
According to this model, by how many degrees
Fahrenheit will the temperature rise each hour until
4:00 p.m. ? 4
A) 3.3 If y = 4(3x – 1)(5x – 1) then which of the following is
B) 5 equal to y ?
C) 12.3 A) 40x
D) 30.7 B) 60x2 + 4
C) 60x2 – 32x + 4
D) 45x2 + 8

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   3 7
 3 3
5 7
7 2 x Line l passes through the points (1, 3) and (2, 5), and
If  , then what is the value of ?
2 x  30 x 2 line m passes through point (1, 4) and has a slope of
1. If lines l and m intersect at point (a, b), then what is
A) −20 the value of a – b ?
B) −10 A) −3
C) 10 B) 2
D) 15 C) 5
D) 7

6
y 7 8
If 4  , then y =
y 7 In the xy-plane, the parabola with the equation
5 y = (x + 4)2 intersects the line y = 36 at two points.
A) What is the distance between those two points of
21
intersection?
B) 21 A) 6
5
B) 8
C) 7 C) 10
D) 12
35
D)
3

CONTINUE
3 8   |   Cracking the SAT
 3 3
9 11

f(x) = −2x2 + c M = 1.35 + 0.75y

In the function f above, c is a constant and f(2) = 6. T = 2.25 + 0.60y
What is the value of f(−2) ? The equations above represent the average price, in
A) −6 dollars, of a cup of coffee in Montreal and Toronto,
B) 0 represented by M and T, respectively, y years after
2000. What was the average price of a cup of coffee, in
C) 6 dollars, in Toronto when it was equal to the average
D) 10 price of a cup of coffee in Montreal?
A) 5.85
B) 6.00
C) 6.45
D) 6.60

10
m
n
l
12
y = a(x + 6)(x – 2)
b° c°
In the quadratic equation above, a is a nonzero
a° d°
constant. The graph of the equation in the xy-plane
f° e° is a parabola with a vertex of (h, k). Which of the
following is equivalent to k ?
A) 0
B) −4a
C) −12a
D) −16a
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

In the figure above, lines l, m, and n intersect at a

point. If a + c = b + d, then which of the following
could be FALSE?
A) b = c
B) e = f
C) c = f
D) a = b

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   3 9
 3 3
13 15
A line in the xy-plane passes through the origin and 1 q
x2  r   x
has a slope of 6. Which of the following points lies on 2 3
the line?
In the quadratic equation above, q and r are constants.
A) (0 , 6)
What are the solutions for x ?
1
B) ( , 2) q q 2  18r
3 A)  
C) (6, 0) 6 6
2
q q  2r
D) (6, 1) B)  
6 6

q q 2  18r
C)  
3 3

q q 2  2r
D)  
3 3
14
If a > 5, which of the following is equivalent to
1
?
1 1
+
a+5 a+4

A) 2a + 9

2a + 9
B) 2
a + 9a + 20
C) a2 + 9a + 20

a2 + 9a + 20
D)
2a + 9

CONTINUE
4 0   |   Cracking the SAT
 3 3

DIRECTIONS
Answer: 7 Answer: 2.5
For questions 16–20, solve the problem and 12
enter your answer in the grid, as described below, Write 7 / 1 2 2 . 5
answer / / Fraction / /
on the answer sheet. Decimal
in boxes. . . . . line . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 point
1. A  lthough not required, it is suggested that
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
you write your answer in the boxes at the top 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the Grid in 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
result. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
3. No question has a negative answer. 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
4. Some problems may have more than one
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one
answer.
1
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 2 must be gridded 2
Acceptable ways to grid are:
3
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1/ // 2 is entered into 2 / 3 . 6 6 6 . 6 6 7
/ / / / / /
31 . . . . . . . . . . . .
the grid, it will be interpreted as , not as
2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
3 1 .) 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
6. Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
answer with more digits than the grid can 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid. 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

Answer: 201 – either position is correct

2 2 0 1
NOTE: You may start
0 1
/ /
your answers in any
/ /
. . . . . . . . column, space
0 0 0 0 0 0 permitting. Columns
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 you don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 use should be left
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 blank.

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   4 1
 3 3
16 18
If x > 0 and x – 25 = 0, what is the value of x ?
2
l

b°
a° a°

17
c° m
a°
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

In the figure above, lines l and m are parallel,

180 – 2c = b, and c = 65. What is the value of a ?
b°

5
In the figure above, cos a° = . What is sin b° ?
13
19
a + 3b = −10
a + b = −2
In the system of equations above, what is the value
of a ?

CONTINUE
4 2   |   Cracking the SAT
 3 3
20
2x + 8y = 74
3x – 4y = 43
If (x, y) is the solution to the system of equations
shown above, then what is the value of y ?

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

Practice Test 7  |   4 3
 4 4
Math Test – Calculator
55 MINUTES, 38 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

  DIRECTIONS

For questions 1–30, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 31–38,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 31 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

  NOTES
1. The use of a calculator is permitted.
2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which
f(x) is a real number.

  REFERENCE

 c 2x 60° x s 45° s 2
•
r h b
w 30° 45°
b a x 3 s
A = πr 2 A = w c 2= a 2 + b 2
C = 2 πr A = 1 bh Special Right Triangles
2

•r h
h r h
h
w r w
 
4
V = wh V = π r 2h V = 3 πr3 1 1
V = 3 π r2h V = 3 wh

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

CONTINUE
4 4   |   Cracking the SAT
 4 4
1 2
Casey’s Motorcycle Ride The graph below shows the total number of home
400 sales, in thousands, each year from 2002 through
2014.
Distance from home

300 Annual Home Sales

(kilometers)

(thousands of homes)
250
200 200
150

Sales
100 100
50
7 a.m. 8 a.m. 9 a.m. 10 a.m. 11 a.m. Noon
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Years since 2002
The graph above shows Casey’s distance from
home on the second day of a two-day motorcycle
trip. During her 5-hour ride home, she stops for 45 Based on the graph, which of the following best
minutes for breakfast. Based on the graph, which of describes the general trend in home sales from 2002 to
the following is closest to the time she stopped for 2014 ?
breakfast? A) Sales decreased until 2007 and then increased.
A) 7:00 a.m. B) Sales increased until 2007 and then decreased.
B) 8:30 a.m. C) Sales generally remained steady from 2002 until
C) 10:15 a.m. 2014.
D) 11:00 a.m. D) Sales decreased and increased in a repeating
pattern.

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   4 5
 4 4
3 5
The luminosity, L, of a star is determined by the
b
a formula L = 4πd2b, where d represents the distance
of the star in meters and b represents the brightness
of the star in watts per meter squared. Which of the
1 following equations determines the distance of a star
p
in terms of its luminosity and brightness?
L
A) d 
4b
q B) d  L 4b
2
Lb
C) d 
4
L
In the figure above, lines a and b are parallel and lines D) d  4
b
p and q are parallel. If the measure of ∠1 is 135°, what
is the measure of ∠2 ?
A) 45°
B) 105°
C) 120°
D) 135°

x 1 2 3 4
g(x) 1 4 7 10

The table above shows some values for the linear

function g. Which of the following defines g ?
A) g(x) = 2x – 1
B) g(x) = 3x – 2
C) g(x) = 4x – 3
D) g(x) = 5x – 4

CONTINUE
4 6   |   Cracking the SAT
 4 4
6 7
Which of the following graphs best shows a weak Last week Salazar played 13 more tennis games than
positive association between n and w ? Perry. If they played a combined total of 53 games,
how many games did Salazar play?
A) 20
A) w
B) 27
C) 33
D) 40

B) w
8
Populations of the six most
populous countries, 2015
n
Brazil
China
C) w India
Indonesia
Pakistan
United States
n 0 400 800 1200 1600

The populations of the six most populous countries

in the world in 2015 are shown in the graph above.
D) w If the total population of the six countries shown is
3,489,000,000, what is an appropriate label for the
horizontal axis?
A) Population (in billions of people)
B) Population (in millions of people)
n
C) Population (in thousands of people)
D) Population

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   4 7
 4 4
9 11
Line l has a slope of m and contains points in Function f satisfies f(4) = 6 and f(6) = 5, and function
Quadrants I, II, and IV, but no points in Quadrant III. g satisfies g(5) = 7 and g(6) = 4. What is the value of
Which of the following must be true about the value g(f(6)) ?
of m ? A) 4
A) m < 0 B) 5
B) m > 0 C) 6
C) m = 0 D) 7
D) Slope m is undefined.

10
The amount of money, D, in dollars, remaining in
Kabir’s bank account x days after payday can be
modeled by the equation D = 2,314.05 – 165.29x.
Which of the following best describes the meaning of
the number 165.29 in the equation?
A) The amount of money withdrawn from Kabir’s
bank account each day
B) The amount of money Kabir gets paid each payday
C) The difference between the amount of money in
Kabir’s bank account at payday and the amount of
money in Kabir’s bank account on day x
D) The number of days after payday when no money
remains in Kabir’s bank account

CONTINUE
4 8   |   Cracking the SAT
 4 4
13
q
The force pressing two stacked objects together is
equal to the weight of the object on top. The friction
Questions 12 and 13 refer to the following between a piece of wood on a stone surface is 22.5
information. newtons. The same piece of wood is placed on another
surface, and the friction between the wood and the
Interface Coefficient of friction (μ) surface is now 46.5 newtons. What could be the
skin – metals 0.90 second surface?
wood – concrete 0.62 A) Metal
wood – brick 0.60 B) Concrete
wood – metals 0.40
C) Brick
wood – stone 0.30
D) Skin
wood – felt 0.29
wood – wood 0.28
p

The chart above shows approximate values for the

coefficient of friction, μ, for various combinations
of materials. The friction between two objects can
be given by the equation f = μN, where f is friction
measured in newtons, μ is the coefficient of friction, a
dimensionless scalar value dependent on the materials
used and expressing the ratio between the friction
between the two bodies and the force pressing the two
bodies together, and N is the force pressing the two
bodies together, in newtons.

12
Approximately what is the friction, in newtons,
between two pieces of wood being pressed together
with a force of 30 newtons?
A) 8.4
B) 18.6
C) 33.3
D) 107.1

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   4 9
 4 4
14 q

n
 0.05  Questions 15 and 16 refer to the following
1  n   1 information.
 

The expression above gives the effective annual

Jack’s Total Pay Based on Items Sold
interest rate on a bank account that pays an annual
P
interest rate of 5%, compounded n times per year.

Total pay (hundreds of dollars)

40
Which of the following expressions shows the change
35
in the effective rate on the bank account if the interest
30
is compounded monthly rather than if the interest is
25
compounded quarterly?
20
 0.05 
12   0.05 
4  15
A)  1    1   1    1
 12    4   10
5
12 0 s
 0.05  10 20 30 40 50
 1  12   1 Items sold
 
B) 4
 0.05  The graph above displays the total amount of pay,
1  4   1
  P, in hundreds of dollars, Jack earns for the sale of s
12
 4 items.
 0.05 
C)  1   1
 12 
 4  15
What does the P-intercept represent in the graph?
12  4
 0.05  A) The total number of items Jack sells
D)  1   1
 12  4  B) Jack’s base pay

C) The total number of items available for sale
D) The increase in pay Jack receives for each item
sold

CONTINUE
5 0   |   Cracking the SAT
 4 4
16 18
Which of the following represents the relationship In order to determine if engine oil E will improve gas
between s and P ? mileage, a research study was conducted. From a wide
A) s = 2P range of vehicle makes, models, and model years, 400
vehicles were randomly selected. Half of the vehicles
were chosen at random to receive oil E, and the other
B) P = 10s
half received a generic brand of oil. The resulting data
3 showed that vehicles that received engine oil E had
C) P  s  10 substantial improvements in gas mileage as compared
2
1 to those that received the generic brand of engine oil.
D) P  s  10 Which of the following can best be concluded based
2
on the design and results of the research?
p A) Engine oil E improves gas mileage better than any
other available engine oil.
B) Engine oil E will cause a significant improvement
in gas mileage.
C) Engine oil E will improve the gas mileage of any
vehicle that uses it.
D) Engine oil E is likely to improve the gas mileage of
cars that use it.
17
The cost of renting a car at an airport rental company
is $25.50 per day. Which of the following equations
represents the total cost d, in dollars, for w weeks of
car rental?
25.50
A) d =
7w
25.50w
B) d =
7
C) d = 25.50(7w)

D) d = 25.50w + 7

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   5 1
 4 4
19 20
y According to the U. S. Census Bureau, in the United
States in 2012 the median household income was
$51,017, and the average (arithmetic mean) household
income was $71,274. Which of the following best
explains the difference between the median and
1 average household incomes in the United States in
x 2012 ?
1 A) Different households have greatly varying incomes
y = h(x) in the United States.
B) Some households in the United States had
incomes much greater than the rest.
C) Many households in the United States had
incomes between $51,017 and $71,274.
D) Some households in the United States had
incomes much less than the rest.
The complete graph of the function h is shown in
the xy-plane above. For what value of x is h(x) at its
maximum?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
21
D) 4
If 2x – 3 ≤ 5, what is the greatest possible value of
2x + 3 ?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 10
D) 11

CONTINUE
5 2   |   Cracking the SAT
 4 4
q 23
For the same charge q, the electric field strength
Questions 22 and 23 refer to the following 1
measured at point X is the electric field measured
information. 25
at point Y. The distance of point X from the charge
q is how many times the distance of point Y from the
E
4 0 R2
charge?
The electric field strength E at distance R from a single 1
A)
point charge in a vacuum is related to the value of 5
charge q and the electric constant e0 by the equation B) 5
above.
C) 25

D) 125

22
Which of the following expresses the electric constant
in terms of the electric field strength, the value of
the charge, and the square of the distance from the
charge?
q
A) 0 
4 R2 E 24
E If point O (5, 0) is at the center of a circle that
B) 0 
4 R2 q  12 
contains point P  6,  on its circumference, which
qE  5
C) 0 
4 R2 of the following is the equation of circle O in the xy-
4 R2 E
D) 0  plane?
q
13
A) (x – 5)2 + y2 =
5
5
B) (x + 5)2 + y2 = 13

169
C) (x – 5)2 + y2 =
25
169
D) (x + 5)2 + y2 =
25

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   5 3
 4 4
25 26
Charles is a chemist studying the reaction that  Grapefruit
produces methyl alcohol under high pressure. He 30
 Orange
noticed that the actual yield of methyl alcohol from
solution S was 25% less than the actual yield from 25
solution T. Based on Charles’s observation, if solution 

S produced 120 grams of methyl alcohol, how many 20

Trees infected

grams of methyl alcohol did solution T produce? 
15 
A) 40

B) 90 10 
C) 145 
5  
D) 160


0 

0 5 10 15 20 25 30
Time (days)

Two populations of citrus fruit trees growing in

greenhouses are exposed to citrus bacterial canker
(CBC) by introducing one infected tree to each
population. One population consists of 100 mature
orange trees, and the other population consists of 100
mature grapefruit trees. The populations are then left
for 30 days. The graph above shows the number of
infected trees at 5-day intervals. Which of the following
statements correctly compares the average rates at
which the two populations become infected with CBC?
A) In every 5-day interval, the magnitude of the rate
of infection of the grapefruit tree population is
greater than that of the orange tree population.
B) In every 5-day interval, the magnitude of the
rate of infection of the orange tree population is
greater than that of the grapefruit tree population.
C) In the intervals from 0 to 5 days and from 5 to 10
days, the rates of infection of the grapefruit trees
are of greater magnitude, whereas in the intervals
from 20 to 25 days and from 25 to 30 days, the
rates of infection of the orange trees are of greater
magnitude.
D) In the intervals from 0 to 5 days and from 5 to
10 days, the rates of infection of the orange trees
are of greater magnitude, whereas in the intervals
from 20 to 25 days and from 25 to 30 days, the
rates of infection of the grapefruit trees are of
greater magnitude.
CONTINUE
5 4   |   Cracking the SAT
 4 4
27 28
The return on investment of a certain company’s
y
PT
stock has been modeled with the equation I 
1 R
where I is the percent increase in the stock’s value, P
II I
is the company’s annual profits, T is time invested in

years, and R is the relative risk rating. Which of the x

following expressions can be used to determine the

relative risk rating of this company’s stock?

III IV
2
 PT 
A) R  1   
 I 
 PT 
2

B) R
I2 1 x
2 y 5
 PT  2
C) R    1
 I  y  3x  2

PT If the above system of inequalities is graphed in the

D) R  1
I 2 xy-plane, which quadrant contains no solutions to the
system?
A) Quadrant II
B) Quadrant III
C) Quadrant IV
D) There are solutions in all four quadrants.

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   5 5
 4 4
29 30
f(x) = ax + bx + cx + d
3 2
y = cx2 + d
In the polynomial above, a, b, c, and d are constants. 2y = 10
If f(–5) = 3, which of the following must be true about In the system of equations above, c and d are
f(x) ? constants. For which of the following values of c and d
A) x – 3 is a factor of f(x). does the system of equations have no real solutions?
B) The remainder when f(x) is divided by x + 5 is 3. A) c = –6, d = 6
C) x +2 is a factor of f(x). B) c = –5, d = 4
D) x + 5 is a factor of f(x). C) c = 6, d = 4
D) c = 6, d = 5

CONTINUE
5 6   |   Cracking the SAT
 4 4

DIRECTIONS
Answer: 7 Answer: 2.5
For questions 31–38, solve the problem and 12
enter your answer in the grid, as described below, Write 7 / 1 2 2 . 5
answer / / Fraction / /
on the answer sheet. Decimal
in boxes. . . . . line . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 point
1. A  lthough not required, it is suggested that
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
you write your answer in the boxes at the top 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the Grid in 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
result. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
3. No question has a negative answer. 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
4. Some problems may have more than one
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one
answer.

5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded 2

2 Acceptable ways to grid are:
3
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1/ // 2 is entered into 2 / 3 . 6 6 6 . 6 6 7
/ / / / / /
the grid, it will be interpreted as 31 , not as . . . . . . . . . . . .
2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
3 1 .) 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
6. Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
answer with more digits than the grid can 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid. 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

Answer: 201 – either position is correct

2 2 0 1
NOTE: You may start
0 1
/ /
your answers in any
/ /
. . . . . . . . column, space
0 0 0 0 0 0 permitting. Columns
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 you don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 use should be left
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 blank.

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   5 7
 4 4
31 33
At a certain restaurant, milkshakes cost $4 and Age of the First Fourteen Indian Prime Ministers
cheeseburgers cost $6. If Al buys 1 milkshake and x Upon Taking Office
cheeseburgers and spends at least $30 but no more
Prime Minister Age Prime Minister Age
than $46, what is one value of x ? (years) (years)
Jawaharlal Nehru 57 V. P. Singh 58
Lal Bahadur Shastri 59 Chandra Shekhar 63
Gulzarilal Nanda 65 P. V. Narasimha Rao 69
Indira Gandhi 48 Atal Bihari Vajpayee 71
Morarji Desai 81 H. D. Deve Gowda 63
32
Charan Singh 76 I. K. Gujral 77
A bowl with 300 milliliters of water is placed under
Rajiv Gandhi 40 Manmohan Singh 71
a hole where the rain gets in. If water drips into the
bowl at a rate of 7 milliliters per minute, then how
many milliliters of water will be in the bowl after 50 The table above shows the ages of the first 14 Indian
minutes? prime ministers when they began terms in office.
According to the table, what is the mean age, in years,
of these prime ministers at the beginning of their
terms? (Round your answer to the nearest tenth.)

CONTINUE
5 8   |   Cracking the SAT
 4 4
34 36
In one month, Rama and Siham ran for a total of 670 1
f x 
minutes. If Rama spent 60 fewer minutes running
 x  12   14  x  12   49
2

than Siham did, for how many minutes did Siham

run? For what value of x is the function f above undefined?

35

9 meters

A state highway department uses a salt storage
enclosure that is in the shape of a cone, as shown
above. If the volume of the storage enclosure is
48π m3, then what is the diameter of the base of
the cone, in meters?

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   5 9
 4 4
q 38
Carol successfully increases her business to 200
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following customers per day. However, her total cost for doing
information. so is 50% greater than the expected $1,600. What
percent greater is the actual marginal cost than the
Marginal cost is the increase or decrease in the total expected marginal cost, to the nearest full percent?
(Note: Ignore the percent sign when entering your
cost a business will incur by producing one more
answer. For example, if your answer is 326%, enter
unit of a product or serving one more customer. 326.)

Marginal cost can be calculated using the equation

C  C1 p
M 2 , where M is the marginal cost, C1 is the
Q2  Q1
total cost for Q1 units, and C2 is the total cost for Q2
units.

At Carol’s Steakhouse, the total cost of serving 150

customers per day is $900. Carol is interested in
increasing her business, but is concerned about the
effect on marginal cost.

37
Carol calculates that the total cost of serving 200
customers per day would be $1,600. What is the
marginal cost of this increase in customers?

ST O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

6 0   |   Cracking the SAT

4 4

No Test Material On This Page

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   6 1
SAT Essay
  ESSAY BOOK

DIRECTIONS REMINDER
— Do not write your essay
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively
in this booklet. Only what
you can read and comprehend a passage and write an essay
you write on the lined
analyzing the passage. In your essay you should demonstrate
pages of your answer
that you have read the passage carefully, present a clear and
booklet will be evaluated.
logical analysis, and use language precisely.
— An off-topic essay will not
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer be evaluated.
sheet booklet; except for the planning page of the answer
booklet, you will receive no other paper on which to write.
You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid
wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable
size. Remember that people who are not familiar with your
handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so that
what you are writing is legible to those readers.

You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay

in response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.

CONTINUE
6 2   |   Cracking the SAT
 As you read the passage below, consider how President Lincoln uses

• evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.

•  reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and evidence.
• stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or appeals to
emotion, to add power to the ideas expressed.

Abraham Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address was given in Washington, D.C. on March 4, 1865,
one month before the end of the Civil War.

1 Fellow-Countrymen: 

2 A t this second appearing to take the oath of the Presidential office there is less occasion for
an extended address than there was at the first. Then a statement somewhat in detail of a
course to be pursued seemed fitting and proper. Now, at the expiration of four years, during
which public declarations have been constantly called forth on every point and phase of
the great contest which still absorbs the attention and engrosses the energies of the nation,
little that is new could be presented. The progress of our arms, upon which all else chiefly
depends, is as well known to the public as to myself, and it is, I trust, reasonably satisfactory
and encouraging to all. With high hope for the future, no prediction in regard to it is
ventured.

3 On the occasion corresponding to this four years ago all thoughts were anxiously directed
to an impending civil war. All dreaded it, all sought to avert it. While the inaugural address
was being delivered from this place, devoted altogether to saving the Union without war,
insurgent agents were in the city seeking to destroy it without war—seeking to dissolve
the Union and divide effects by negotiation. Both parties deprecated war, but one of them
would make war rather than let the nation survive, and the other would accept war rather
than let it perish, and the war came.

4 One-eighth of the whole population were colored slaves, not distributed generally over
the Union, but localized in the southern part of it. These slaves constituted a peculiar
and powerful interest. All knew that this interest was somehow the cause of the war. To
strengthen, perpetuate, and extend this interest was the object for which the insurgents
would rend the Union even by war, while the Government claimed no right to do more than
to restrict the territorial enlargement of it. Neither party expected for the war the magnitude
or the duration which it has already attained. Neither anticipated that the cause of the
conflict might cease with or even before the conflict itself should cease. Each looked for an
easier triumph, and a result less fundamental and astounding. Both read the same Bible and
pray to the same God, and each invokes His aid against the other. It may seem strange that
any men should dare to ask a just God’s assistance in wringing their bread from the sweat of
other men’s faces, but let us judge not, that we be not judged. The prayers of both could not
be answered. That of neither has been answered fully. The Almighty has His own purposes.
“Woe unto the world because of offenses; for it must needs be that offenses come, but woe
to that man by whom the offense cometh.” If we shall suppose that American slavery is one

CONTINUE
Practice Test 7  |   6 3
 of those offenses which, in the providence of God, must needs come, but which, having
continued through His appointed time, He now wills to remove, and that He gives to both
North and South this terrible war as the woe due to those by whom the offense came, shall we
discern therein any departure from those divine attributes which the believers in a living God
always ascribe to Him? Fondly do we hope, fervently do we pray, that this mighty scourge of
war may speedily pass away. Yet, if God wills that it continue until all the wealth piled by the
bondsman’s two hundred and fifty years of unrequited toil shall be sunk, and until every drop
of blood drawn with the lash shall be paid by another drawn with the sword, as was said three
thousand years ago, so still it must be said “the judgments of the Lord are true and righteous
altogether.”

5 With malice toward none, with charity for all, with firmness in the right as God gives us to
see the right, let us strive on to finish the work we are in, to bind up the nation’s wounds,
to care for him who shall have borne the battle and for his widow and his orphan, to do all
which may achieve and cherish a just and lasting peace among ourselves and with all nations.

Write an essay in which you explain how President Lincoln, in his second inaugural
address, builds an argument to encourage the country to end the Civil War and
transition smoothly back into the Union. In your essay, analyze how Lincoln uses one
or more of the features listed above (or features of your own choice) to strengthen the
logic and persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your analysis focuses on the most
relevant aspects of the passage.

Your essay should not explain whether you agree with Lincoln’s claims, but rather
explain how Lincoln builds his argument to persuade his audience.

END OF TEST

DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS SECTION.

6 4   |   Cracking the SAT

Test 
Section 1—Reading Section 2—Writing and Language Skills
1. A B C D 27. A B C D 1. A B C D 23. A B C D
2. A B C D 28. A B C D 2. A B C D 24. A B C D
3. A B C D 29. A B C D 3. A B C D 25. A B C D
4. A B C D 30. A B C D 4. A B C D 26. A B C D
5. A B C D 31. A B C D 5. A B C D 27. A B C D
6. A B C D 32. A B C D 6. A B C D 28. A B C D
7. A B C D 33. A B C D 7. A B C D 29. A B C D
8. A B C D 34. A B C D 8. A B C D 30. A B C D
9. A B C D 35. A B C D 9. A B C D 31. A B C D
10. A B C D 36. A B C D 10. A B C D 32. A B C D
11. A B C D 37. A B C D 11. A B C D 33. A B C D
12. A B C D 38. A B C D 12. A B C D 34. A B C D
13. A B C D 39. A B C D 13. A B C D 35. A B C D
14. A B C D 40. A B C D 14. A B C D 36. A B C D
15. A B C D 41. A B C D 15. A B C D 37. A B C D
16. A B C D 42. A B C D 16. A B C D 38. A B C D
17. A B C D 43. A B C D 17. A B C D 39. A B C D
18. A B C D 44. A B C D 18. A B C D 40. A B C D
19. A B C D 45. A B C D 19. A B C D 41. A B C D
20. A B C D 46. A B C D 20. A B C D 42. A B C D
21. A B C D 47. A B C D 21. A B C D 43. A B C D
22. A B C D 48. A B C D 22. A B C D 44. A B C D
23. A B C D 49. A B C D
24. A B C D 50. A B C D
25. A B C D 51. A B C D
26. A B C D 52. A B C D
Test 
Section 3—Mathematics: No Calculator
1. A B C D 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
2. A B C D
3. A B C D / / / / / / / / / /
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
4. A B C D
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
5. A B C D
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
6. A B C D 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
7. A B C D 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
3 3 3 3
8. A B C D 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
9. A B C D 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
10. A B C D 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
11. A B C D 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
12. A B C D
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
13. A B C D
14. A B C D
15. A B C D

Section 4—Mathematics: Calculator

1. A B C D 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
2. A B C D
3. A B C D / / / / / / / / / /
4. A B C D . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
5. A B C D 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
6. A B C D
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
7. A B C D
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
8. A B C D 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
9. A B C D 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
10. A B C D 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
11. A B C D 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
12. A B C D 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
A B C D 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
13.
14. A B C D
15. A B C D
16. A B C D 36. 37. 38.
17. A B C D
18. A B C D / / / / / /
. . . . . . . . . . . .
19. A B C D
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
20. A B C D 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
21. A B C D 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
22. A B C D 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
23. A B C D 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
24. A B C D 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
25. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
A B C D
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
26. A B C D
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
27. A B C D 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
28. A B C D
29. A B C D
30. A B C D