1.

Storage management comprises of

a) SAN Management
b) Data protection
c) Disk operation
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
2. Identify the storage devices
a) Switch
b) RAID Arrays
c) Tape drives
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
3. Which protocols are used for Storage management
a) SNMP
b) LDAP
c) POP3
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
4. Identify the difficulties the SAN administrator incur while dealing with diverse vendors
a) Proprietary management interfaces.
b) Multiple applications to manage storage in the data center.
c) No single view.
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
5. How do Storage administrators ensure secure access to storage devices:
a) By using Zoning
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage device
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
6. Effective Storage management includes
a) Securities
b) Backups
c) Reporting
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
7. Identify the tasks involved in Storage Capacity management
a) Identifying storage systems are approaching full capacity.
b) Monitoring trends for each resource
c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total available
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
8. Identify the tasks involved in Storage Performance Management.
a) Have performance thresholds been exceeded for the storage systems?
b) Is above causing IT to not meet its service level objectives
c) Each Server and logical disks in each server, processor utilization
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
9. Effect of open standards like SMI(s)
a) Standardization drives software interoperability and interchange ability.
b) Breaks the old-style dependence on proprietary methods, trade secrets, and single providers.
c) Builds a strong foundation on which others can quickly build and innovate.
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
10. Task of Distributed Management Task Force is to
a) To promote interoperability among the management solution providers.
b) Acts as an interface between the various budding technologies and provide solution to manage various
environments
c) Only (a)
d) Both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer: d
11. SMI-S Standard uses
a) Java RMI
b) CIM-XML/HTTP
c) CORBA
d) .NET
View Answer
Answer: b
1. To show CIM elements in diagram form, the SMI-S 1.1.0 uses a variation of which standard
specification from OMG
a) XMLSIM
b) UML
c) JPEG
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
2. A Subprofile defines additional CIM elements that a vendor may choose to implement in order to
enhance a Profile.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
3. Packages – these are similar to sub-profiles but optional for a parent profile
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
4. CIMOM and Providers are hosted on CIM Client
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
5. CIM Client can only Monitor but cannot control remote resources
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b

This set of multiple choice SAN storage questions and answers focuses on Storage Virtualization.
1. Which of the following company manufactures Raid arrays
a) Hyundai
b) Honda
c) Hitachi
d) Mitsubishi
View Answer
Answer: c
2. An FC jammer-analyzer can be used to
a) Capture all FC frames
b) Tamper FC packets
c) I/O performance
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
3. Network level virtualization in a SAN fabric can be implemented by having virtualization engine
running in
a) HBA
b) FC switch
c) Raid array
d) Any of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
4. VTL emulates
a) Library and Tape drive
b) Library and Disk driver
c) Virtual Tape only
d) Any of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
5. Which of the following company manufacture San Fabric switches
a) Emulex
b) Cisco
c) JNI
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b

1. Bathtub Curve is used to represent the reliability characteristics of hardware components. Why is this
not applicable to software modules?
a) Software failures tends to stabilize and do not increase with respect to time
b) Software failures cannot be predicted
c) Hardware components do not fail for a long time
d) Software fails more compared to hardware
View Answer
Answer: a
2. Which one of the below is measured by MTBF?
a) Tolerance
b) Life time
c) Reliability
d) Quality
View Answer
Answer: c
3. In designing a fault-tolerant system which one of the methods is appropriate?
a) Fail Safe
b) Fail Fast
c) Multi-Fail
d) Fail Rare
View Answer
Answer: b
4. A system has MTBF of 100,000 hours and MTTR of 30 minutes. What is the average down time of the
system in one year?
a) 2.6 minutes
b) 1.8 minutes
c) 18 minutes
d) 30 minutes
View Answer
Answer: a
5. What is the most common redundancy configuration for HA?
a) N+1
b) N+M
c) 2N
d) 5N
View Answer
Answer: a
6. One of the common problems seen in a cluster configuration has a name which contains the most
complex part of human body.
a) Split-brain
b) Cluster
c) Multi-Brain
d) Heart Beat
View Answer
Answer: a
7. Which one of the following is a cluster, based on shared nothing model?
a) MSCC NT4
b) Netware CS
c) Unixware 7
d) Linux-HA
View Answer
Answer: a
8. The MTBF of system should be high for fault tolerant systems with
a) Single Point Failure
b) Multi Point Tolerant
c) Single Point Tolerant
d) Multi-Tolerant
View Answer
Answer: a
9. Which one of the following is NOT a Single System Image Clustering Solution?
a) Open VMS
b) HP-TruCluster
c) OpenSSI
d) NovelNetware
View Answer
Answer: d
10. Which one is a common software fault tolerant model for safety critical jobs such as flight control
software?
a) Active-Active config.
b) Active-Backup config
c) N-Version Programming
d) Failover
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Data protection is required to recover from
a) Disk/System failures
b) Software corruption through virus
c) Human errors
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
2. The challenges for data protection are
a) Taking care of the old data
b) Backing up the dynamic data
c) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
3. Name the mechanism which provides the highest level of data protection
a) RAID 0
b) RAID 1
c) RAID 6
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
4. Which statements are true w.r.t SMART disks
a) Detect and correct the errors that occur because of failure
b) Monitors the disk at regular intervals
c) Provides information on the disk failures in advance
d) a and b
e) b and c
View Answer
Answer: e
5. The drawback of data mirroring is
a) Backing up the data
b) Performance degradation
c) Difficulty involved in configuring the mirrored volume
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
6. With reference to Volume Manager, is the following statement TRUE or FALSE under specific
configuration?
– Volume manager provides protection against multiple disk failures
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
7. Which are all the statements valid statements w.r.t volume manager
a) Achieve protection against single/multiple disk failures
b) Sustain system/node failure
c) Get better performance compared to using individual disk
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
8. Point out the false statement. Volume can
a) Span across different partitions/disks
b) Span across different disk arrays
c) Be created on tape device
d) Be a shared volume
View Answer
Answer: c
9. Identify the correct statements w.r.t. Journal File System (JFS)
a) JFS keeps pointers to all the stale data
b) While recovering data on a system, JFS helps in quicker recovery
c) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
10. In a clustered volume manager scenario, identify the incorrect statement
a) All the nodes in the system will have access to shared volumes
b) Only a set of nodes will have access to shared volumes
c) All the nodes will be allowed to write data to the shared volume
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
This set of SAN multiple choice questions and answers focuses on Snapshot Technology.
1. Which of the following statement is false?
a) In synchronous mirroring, write acknowledgement is sent once both the mirrors are written
b) In synchronous mirroring, write response time can be slow as it depends on the slowest disk of the
mirror
c) Write response to an application is faster for asynchronous mirroring as compared to synchronous
mirroring
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
2. Which of the following statement is false for snapshots?
a) Snapshot technique can use copy-on-write mechanism
b) Uses point-in-time to ensure data integrity
c) Snapshot copy must be on a different device
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
3. Which of the following is true for CDP – Continuous Data Protection?
a) It backs up every change to the data
b) Can restore to any time in the past
c) Both the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
4. Which of the following is false for D2D2T – Disk to Disk to Tape backup?
a) Backup and Restore is faster
b) Tape is used for archiving and/or long term storage
c) Cheaper disks are generally used for backup device
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
5. Which of the following is false for NDMP protocol?
a) NDMP uses TCP/IP
b) NDMP allows selective file recovery
c) NDMP allows asynchronous event notification
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
6. The serverless backup technology mainly depends on
a) Copy command
b) Extended copy command
c) Read/write command
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
7. Snapshot provides a mechanism to take backup of
a) Static data
b) Deleted data
c) Dynamic data
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
8. Snapshot provides information on
a) The latest data on the volume
b) The old data on the volume
c) The data present on the volume at specified time
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
9. The CDP is mainly based on
a) XCOPY command
b) Data mirroring
c) Snapshot mechanism
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
10. Which snapshot technique is space efficient?
a) Split-Mirror
b) Copy-on-Write
c) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b

1. The purpose of backup is:

a) To restore a computer to an operational state following a disaster
b) To restore small numbers of files after they have been accidentally deleted
c) Is to free space in the primary storage
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a, b
2. Backup of the source data can be created
a) On the same device
b) On another device
c) At some other location
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
3. Which of the following backup technique is most space efficient?
a) Full backup
b) Incremental backup
c) Differential backup
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
4. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Data can be recovered fastest in online backup
b) Tape library is an example of nearline storage
c) Data recovery can take hours for offline backup
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
5. Which of the following qualifies as best DR (Disaster Recovery) site?
a) DR site in the same campus
b) DR site in the same city
c) DR site in the same country
d) DR site in a different country
View Answer
Answer: d
6. Which of the following techniques can be used for optimizing backed up data space?
a) Encryption
b) Compression
c) Authentication
d) Deduplication
View Answer
Answer: b, d
7. To decide on a backup strategy for your organization, which of the following should you consider?
a) RPO (Recovery Point Objective)
b) RTO (Recovery Time Objective)
c) Both RPO & RTO
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
8. Which of the following can be used for reducing recovery time?
a) Automatic failover
b) By taking backup on a faster device
c) Taking multiple backups – one in same location, another at different location
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
9. Which of the following is false?
a) The more important the data, the greater the need for backing it up
b) A backup is as useful as its associated restore strategy
c) Storing the backup copy near to its original site is best strategy
d) Automated backup and scheduling is preferred over manual operations
View Answer
Answer: c
10. Which of the following is Backup software?
a) Amanda
b) Bacula
c) IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
1. This is a way of storing the data in different places on same/different storage. By doing so I/O
operations can overlap in a balanced way, improving performance and providing fault tolerance
a) RAID
b) RAIT
c) None of the mentioned
d) Both (a) & (b)
View Answer
Answer: d
2. This is a method of reducing storage needs by eliminating redundant data
a) Data snapshot
b) Data De-duplication
c) Data compression
d) Data encryption
View Answer
Answer: b
3. This is the pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a
single storage device that is managed from a central console.
a) Server Provisioning
b) Data mining
c) Disk/Tape virtualization
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
4. This is the assignment of different categories of data to different types of storage media in order to
reduce total storage cost. Categories may be based on levels of protection needed, performance
requirements, frequency of use and other considerations.
a) Data mining
b) Tiered storage
c) Data protection
d) Meta-Data management
View Answer
Answer: b
5. This is the activity of copying files or databases so that they will be preserved in case of equipment
failure or other catastrophe.
a) Snapshot
b) Replication
c) Archival
d) Backup
View Answer
Answer: d
6. This technology provides the benefits of disk storage in a system that emulates a tape library to existing
backup software.
a) Data compression
b) VTL
c) ETL
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
7. This is a feature of storage security that is gaining favor among enterprises that use storage area
networks (SANs).
a) Data Protection
b) Data de-duplication
c) Storage encryption
d) Data compression
View Answer
Answer: c
8. Without this practice, backing up data is virtually useless.
a) Data Archival
b) Data Retrieval
c) Data quality assurance
d) Data Recovery
View Answer
Answer: b
9. This ensures proper adherence to government regulations regarding the integrity, accessibility and
retention of important data.
a) HIPAA
b) Data encryption
c) Data compliance
d) SOX
View Answer
Answer: c
10. There are endless rules and regulations in this area of storage technology.
a) Data Protection
b) Data Storage Management
c) Database management
d) Meta data management
View Answer
Answer: b
1. This is a repository for the storage, management, and dissemination of data in which the mechanical,
lighting, electrical and computer systems are designed for maximum energy efficiency and minimum
environmental impact.
a) Storage lab
b) Data Center
c) Data warehouse
d) Fabric
View Answer
Answer: b
2. This is the process of assigning storage, usually in the form of server disk drive space, in order to
optimize the performance of a storage area network.
a) Storage Provisioning
b) Data mining
c) Storage assignment
d) Data Warehousing
View Answer
Answer: a
3. Simply stated, these are large boxes that hold lots of hard disks.
a) Host
b) Tape library
c) Switch
d) Disk Array
View Answer
Answer: d
4. This consists of the precautions taken so that the effects of a disaster will be minimized.
a) Data retrieval
b) Disaster recovery
c) Archive
d) Replication
View Answer
Answer: b
5. This is the practice of collecting computer files that have been packaged together for backup, to
transport to some other location, for saving away from the computer so that more hard disks can be made
available, or for some other purpose.
a) Backup
b) Archive
c) Migration
d) Compression
View Answer
Answer: b
1. A Subprofile can reference other subprofiles
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
2. Clients use which protocol to discover SMI Agents on Storage Area Network?
a) SLP (Service Location Protocol)
b) AGP(Agent Discovery Protocol)
c) SMIP (SMI Protocol)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
3. Encoding mechanism of CIM Data as XML Elements ?
a) CIM-XML
b) xmlCIM
c) SGML
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
4. Can a vendor implement additional Classes or support additional Properties than are defined in a
Profile and still be considered conformant?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
5. CIM and WBEM has been defined by ?
a) DMTF
b) SMI Standards Organization
c) Open Standards Body
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
6. _________ instruments one or more aspects of the CIM Schema
a) Distributor
b) Provider
c) Manager
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
7. The server can operate directly on the underlying system by calling the system’s commands, services,
and library functions.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
8. Transport protocol used for XMLCIM is
a) UDP
b) HTTP
c) SNMP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
9. A single CIM based management application can manage storage arrays from multiple vendors.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
10. Collects responses from providers and returns to the client
a) xmlCIM
b) CIMOM
c) DMTF
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b

1. A “Logical Volume Manager” helps in

a) Virtualizing storage
b) provide direct access to the underlying storage
c) Manage disk space efficiently without having to know the actual hardware details
d) Both a & c
e. None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
2. Physical Volumes are
a) The space on a physical storage that represent a logical volume
b) Disk or disk partitions used to construct logical volumes
c) A bunch of disks put together that can be made into a logical volume
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
3. Which of the following are true. Logical Volumes
a) Can span across multiple volume groups
b) Can span across multiple physical volumes
c) Can be constructed only using a single physical disk
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
4. A logical Extent(LE) and Physical extent(PE) are related as follows
a) PE resides on a disk, whereas LE resides on a logical volume
b) LE is larger in size than a PE
c) LE’s are unique whereas PE’s are not
d) Every LE maps to a one and only one PE
View Answer
Answer: a,d
5. Which of the following statements are true
a) LVM is storage independent whereas a RAID system is limited to the storage subsystem
b) LVM provides snapshot feature
c) With LVM we can grow volumes to any size
d) RAID system can provide more storage space than a LVM
View Answer
Answer: a, b, c
6. LVM is independent of device IDs because
a) LVM uses it’s own device naming to identify a physical disk
b) LVM stores the volume management information on the disks that helps it reconstruct volumes
c) LVM is an abstraction layer over physical devices and does not need device ids
d) Device ids are used only by the device drivers
View Answer
Answer: b
7. Concatenation is the technique of
a) Adding physical volumes together to make a volume group
b) Filling up a physical volume completely before writing to the next one in a logical volume
c) writing a block of data onto one disk and then a block onto another disk in an alternate fashion
d) Increasing the size of a volume by adding more disks
View Answer
Answer: b
8. Which of the following is not a feature of LVM
a) Independent of disk location
b) Concatenation and striping of storage systems
c) Protection against disk failures
d) Snapshot capability
View Answer
Answer: c
9. LVM does not incur much performance overheads because
a) The writes/reads happen only to logical devices
b) The mapping of logical to physical storage is kept in RAM
c) The time lost in mapping devices is gained by writing to disks in parallel
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
10. VGDA represents
a) The data stored on the logical volume
b) The data stored on physical volume
c) LVM configuration data stored on each physical volume
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c

1. Which of the below is component of SAN

a) Ethernet switch
b) Fibre Switch
c) Ethernet Card
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
2. What components on SAN can be virtualized
a) Disk
b) Tape Drive
c) Tape Library
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
3. C-H-S is a terminology related to
a) Logical Disks
b) Physical Disk
c) Physical Volume
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
4. Which device implements Tape-Over-Tape Virtualization
a) Falconstor VTL
b) VSM Open
c) SN6000
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
5. What emulates the Scsi Media Changer command set?
a) VTL
b) VT
c) Physical Disk
d) Physical Volume
View Answer
Answer: a
6. What is one significant advantage of Virtualization in datacenters
a) Can manage the Data center with Zero Manpower
b) Mirroring for Disaster Recovery
c) Eliminate the need of physical devices for the Data center
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
7. Powerpath is the MPIO software of
a) Microsoft
b) Veritas
c) EMC
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
8. Which is the correct statement
a) Virtualization cloud presents itself as host to the host
b) Virtualization cloud presents itself as targets to the host
c) None of A or B
d) Both A and B
View Answer
Answer: b
9. Decoupling the Host and real targets in a datacenter is a bliss because
a) Allows dynamic configuration of targets without host knowing about it.
b) Allows dynamic of configuration of hosts without targets knowing about it.
c) Both the mentioned
d) None of A or B
View Answer
Answer: a
10. A SAN network can have
a) 1 FC switch
b) 2 FC switch
c) There can be many FC switches
d) No FC switch
View Answer
Answer: c
1. SATA initially came as a evolution/improvement over
a) IDE
b) Fiber Channel
c) SAS
d) SCSI
View Answer
Answer: a
2. What is the BUS architecture used by SATA?
a) Parallel
b) Serial
c) Depends on the chipset used
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
3. Maximum number of SATA devices that can be connected through SATA is
a) 1
b) 5
c) 8
d) 15
View Answer
Answer: d
4. What is the maximum distance that you can connect through a SATA?
a) 1 meter
b) 1 kilometers
c) 100 kilometers’ with repeaters
d) 5 meters
View Answer
Answer: a
5. What are the advantages of SATA over ATA?
a) Higher speeds
b) Lesser complexity with respect to power and cabling requirements
c) Hot Swapping
d) Better Enclosure management
e) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: e
6. What is the maximum number of commands that you can queue when you use Native Command
Queuing.
a) 32
b) 16
c) 8
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
7. NCQ gives best improvement in performance when the access from the host is
a) Sequential
b) Random
c) Both Sequential and Random
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
8. With Port Multiplier you can increase the number of devices to
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 15
View Answer
Answer: d
9. In Command Based switching which of the following is not true
a) Host can issue only one command to one drive at a time
b) Is ideal when expansion of capacity is more important than drive performance
c) The host issues and completes commands to the drives simultaneously
d) Might not take advantage of the complete speed of the link
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Control byte is
a) the first byte in a CDB
b) the second byte in CDB
c) the last byte
d) not part of CDB
View Answer
Answer: c
2. Length of Logical Unit number is
a) 8 bit
b) 16 bit
c) 32 bit
d) 64 bit
View Answer
Answer: d
3. Which of the following statement is/are true?
a) SCSI supports only one type of device
b) SCSI supports multiple types of device
c) Large number of devices can be connected in SCSI
d) IDE is more intelligent than SCSI
View Answer
Answer: b, c
4. SCSI Domain should have:
a) At least one device
b) At least two devices
c) a service delivery subsystem
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b, c
5. Which of the following is false?
a) All storage devices talk using SCSI commands and responses
b) SCSI is manufacturer independent
c) SCSI command is independent of underlying transports like iSCSI, FCP, etc.
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
1. What is SCSI?
a) Small Computer Simple Interface
b) System Computer Select Interface
c) Small Computer System Interface
d) Small Computer System Interconnect
View Answer
Answer: c
2. Nexus is a relation between
a) Initiator and Target
b) Initiator, Target and Logical Unit
c) Initiator, Target, Logical Unit and Task
d) Any of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
3. Task can constitute
a) One command only
b) One or more commands
c) A single command or group of linked commands
d) Linked Commands Only
View Answer
Answer: c
4. Task manager
a) Manages the devices
b) Manages tasks
c) Both a & b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
5. Untagged task is represented by
a) I_T nexus
b) I_T_L nexus
c) I_T_L_Q nexus
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
6. Which is not the main phase of I/O?
a) Data
b) Command
c) Status
d) Control
View Answer
Answer: d
7. Which of the following is false?
a) CDB has a operation code
b) CDB has a control byte
c) Both a & b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
8. What is incorrect about Command Descriptor block?
a) It has SCSI command
b) Has fixed length of 6, 10, 12 or 16 bytes
c) Target fetches CDB from initiator
d) The CDB is sent during Data Phase
View Answer
Answer: d
9. What is a Logical Unit?
a) subset of Target device
b) subset of Initiator
c) Subset of Device Server
d) Component of Interface
View Answer
Answer: a
10. Which of them is not a valid SCSI command?
a) Bus Reset
b) Inquiry
c) Mode Sense
d) Read_10
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Fileystem is created using command
a) Mkfs
b) Format
c) Fsck
d) defrag
View Answer
Answer: a
2. Pseudo filesystem (/procfs)
a) Access kernel information about processes
b) Storing mount points
c) Storing filesystem path
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
3. Every File or directory has unique
a) Inode
b) Directory
c) Pathname
d) Inode & pathname
View Answer
Answer: d
4. Inode bitmaps used for
a) inode allocation and deallocation,
b) block allocation
c) data blocks
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
5. Dirty buffer cache contains
a) Invalid data
b) New valid data
c) File
d) Inode
View Answer
Answer: b

This set of multiple choice SAN storage questions and answers focuses on Filesystems.
1. An “Inode” represents
a) Buffer
b) Data
c) Files & Directories
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
2. Journaling is preferred for
a) Faster file system recovery
b) Faster write operation
c) Storing logs
d) Storing metadata
View Answer
Answer: a
3. Examples of Journaling filesystem
a) Ext2
b) Ext3
c) UFS
d) JFS
View Answer
Answer: b
4. Hard links & soft links are same
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
View Answer
Answer: b
5. ACL stands for
a) ACCESS control list
b) ACCESS check list
c) Audit control list
d) Audit check list
View Answer
Answer: a
6. VFS
a) Standalone filesystem
b) Support multiple filesystem type
c) Network filesystem
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
7. Buffer cache helps to
a) Store data
b) Improved read/write performance
c) Allocate memory
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
8. Wear leveling affects
a) Hard disk
b) Flash
c) Optical storage
d) RAM
View Answer
Answer: b
9. Deframentation is the process of
a) physically reorganizing the contents of the disk to store the pieces of each file close together and
contiguously
b) Create extra space in filesystem
c) Resizing the filesystem
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
10. The Superblock is required for
a) Description of the basic size and shape of this file system
b) This is the inode number of the first inode in the file system
c) The number of free blocks in the file system
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which is the most common cause of soft errors in hardware?
a) Thermal Issue
b) Cosmic Rays
c) Alpha Particile
d) Voltage Fluctuation
View Answer
Answer: b
2. If X is the MTBF of a system and Y is the failure rate of the system then which one is true?
a) X * Y = 1
b) X = Y
c) NX = Y, where N is the life time
d) X/Y = N, where N is the life time
View Answer
Answer: a
3. Which one of the property is NOT a requirement for Fault Tolerance?
a) Fault Containments
b) Fault Isolation
c) Dynamic Recovery
d) Fail Safe
View Answer
Answer: d
4. Which of the operating system architecture is suitable for FT based systems?
a) A – Monolithic Kernel
b) B – Micro Kernel
c) C – Real Time Kernel
d) D – All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
5. The common mechanism used to find latent failure in memory modules:
a) Sniffing
b) Scrubbing
c) Swapping
d) Paging
View Answer
Answer: a
6. Which one of the availability criteria is optimal for carrier grade class systems?
a) 40 seconds of down time per year
b) 40 minutes of down time per year
c) 10 minutes of down time per year
d) 10 seconds of down time per year
View Answer
Answer: a
7. MTTR is the best way to characterize
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Fault Tolerance
d) Dependability
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following suffers from write hole problem?
a) RAID 0
b) RAID 1
c) RAID 5
d) RAIDZ
View Answer
Answer: c
2. If read and write performance is the only criterion, which would you choose?
a) RAID 0
b) RAID 1
c) RAID 5
d) RAID 50
e) JBOD
View Answer
Answer: a
3. Which one of the following is an invalid RAID level?
a) Raid 10
b) Raid 50
c) Raid 53
d) Raid 80
View Answer
Answer: d
4. Which of the following RAID levels guarantees double disk failure protection?
a) Raid 5
b) Raid 6
c) Raid 0+1
d) Raid 1+0
View Answer
Answer: b, c, d
5. Which of the following RAID levels are nested?
a) Raid 5
b) Raid 6
b) Raid 10
c) Raid 50
View Answer
Answer: b, c
6. What is the name of raid module in a linux kernel?
a) lvm
b) raidsoft
c) md
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
7. What is the minimum number of disks needed for Raid level 5?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
8. When one disk fails in a RAID 5 array with a hot spare, which one of the following statements is true?
a) No IO can continue
b) Reads continue from hot spare, but writes fail
c) Both reads and writes can continue
d) Array must be shut down immediately for replacing the failed disk
View Answer
Answer: c
9. When one disk fails in a RAID 5 array without a hot spare, which one of the following statements is
true:
a) No IO can continue
b) Reads continue from hot spare, but writes fail
c) Both reads and writes can continue
d) Array must be shut down immediately for replacing the failed disk
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Which two are advantages of hardware RAID controllers?
a) Volume management is performed by the server
b) Volume management is performed by controller card
c) Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance
d) Parity calculation by the server and cache memory in the RAID controller increases read and write
performance
View Answer
Answer: b, c
2. Which two RAID types use parity for data protection?
a) RAID 1
b) RAID 4
c) RAID 1+ 0
d) RAID 5
View Answer
Answer: b, d
3. Which one of these is characteristic of RAID 5?
a) Distributed parity
b) No Parity
c) All parity in a single disk
d) Double Parity
View Answer
Answer: a
4. What is the unique characteristic of RAID 6 (Choose one)?
a) Distributed Parity
b) Striping
c) Two independent distributed parity
d) Mirroring
View Answer
Answer: c
5. Which of the following combinations can support RAID 05?
a) 2 sets with 3 disks each
b) 3 sets with 2 disks each
c) 4 sets with 3 disks each
d) 4 sets with 1 disk each
View Answer
Answer: b, c
6. What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID1?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
7. Which of the following raid levels provides maximum usable disk space?
a) RAID 1
b) RAID 0
c) RAID 5
d) RAID 6
View Answer
Answer: b
8. Can you help decide on the RAID level to use – we are a media house and we use lot of graphics/video
applications – we need large throughputs for videos to get played without any jitter and since we are in
publishing business we can’t afford downtimes.
Even if there is any downtime we would like our data to be quickly reconstructed and enable us to
continue with out work in less time
a) Raid 5
b) Raid 10
c) Raid 6
d) Raid 01
e) Raid 0
View Answer
Answer: b
9. The mean time to failure of a single disk is 200000 hrs. If an array of disks is using 5 such disks, the
mttf of the array is
a) 200000 hrs
b) 40000 hrs
c) 1000000 hrs
d) Can not be determined
View Answer
Answer: b
10. An array of disks is more likely to fail compared to a single disk. How is it that RAID arrays still
manage to provide more data protection compared to a single disk?
a) Using either mirroring or striping
b) Using either mirroring or parity
c) Using better quality disks
d) Using dedicated hardware
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Which of the following is false regarding multiple paths?
a) Load balancing can be done
b) Higher throughput can be achieved
c) Path Failover can be done
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
2. Which of the following is invalid error recovery level?
a) Session level recovery
b) SCSI level recovery
c) Connection level recovery
d) Digest failure recovery
View Answer
Answer: b
3. Which of the following statement is true?
a) iSCSI can be implemented in software
b) iSCSI can be implemented in hardware
c) System can boot from iSCSI disk over network
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
4. Which of the following statement is false?
a) iSCSI is limited to local LAN
b) iSCSI can run both on 1GB and 10GB networks
c) iSCSI requires Fibre Channel HBA on the host
d) iSCSI requires network card on the host
View Answer
Answer: a , c
5. Which of the following companies have iSCSI products?
a) Equallogic
b) Qlogic
c) EMC
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
1. iSCSI is mapping of
a) SCSI over TCP/IP
b) IP over SCSI
c) FC over IP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
2. iSCSI allows what type of access
a) block level
b) file level
c) both a & b
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
3. iSCSI names are:
a) Globally unique
b) Local to the setup
c) permanent
d) temporary
View Answer
Answer: a , c
4.Which of the following is not true of iSCSI names?
a) iSCSI names are associated with iSCSI nodes(targets and initiators.
b) iSCSI names are associated with n/w adapter cards
c) iSCSI names are world wide unique.
d) iSCSI names are permanant.
View Answer
Answer: b
5. Which of the following is not a valid iSCSI name?
a) iqn.2001-04.com.mystorage:storage.tape1
b) iqn.2001-04.com.mystorage
c) iqn.01-04.com.example.disk
d) none of the mentioned.
View Answer
Answer: c
6. Which of the following is not a valid iSCSI name?
a) eui.1234098769785341
b) eui.4237098769785341
c) eui.12340987697853422.disk
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
7. Discovery session in iSCSI is used for:
a) Discovering iSCSI targets and their TargetAddresses.
b) Probing Luns on iSCSI targets.
c) Either of above
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
8. Which of the following are valid SendTargets commands?
a) SendTargets=iqn.2001-04.com.mystorage:storage.tape1
b) SendTargets=all
c) Both a. and b.
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
9. iSCSI targets can be discovered by
a) SendTargets
b) Static configuration
c) using SLP/iSNS
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
10. Which of the following is false?
a) iSCSI requires login from initiator to target
b) There can be multiple paths between initiator and target
c) Data integrity is ensured using digests
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which of the following protocol can have maximum device connected?
a) SATA
b) SAS
c) FC-AL
d) ATA
View Answer
2. SAS port identifier is:
a) 8 bit
b) 16 bit
c) 32 bit
d) 64 bit
View Answer
Answer: d
3. SAS inherited the multi-channel concept from?
a) iSCSI
b) Fibre Channel
c) Infinband
d) IDE
View Answer
Answer: c
4. Which of the following is false?
a) a connection is a temporary association
b) a connection is a permanent association
c) SAS port shares different namespace than FC port
d) a pathway is a set of physical link used by a connection
View Answer
Answer: b, c
5. Which of the following is not a transport layer protocol in a SAS port?
a) SMP
b) STP
c) SIP
d) SSP
View Answer
Answer: c
1. What is SAS?
a) Serial Attached SCSI
b) Storage Attached SCSI
c) Serial Advanced SCSI
d) SAS is not SCSI
View Answer
Answer: a
2. Which of the following is true?
a) SAS is compatible with SATA physical layer
b) SAS is not parallel SCSI
c) SAS has multiple channels per port
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
3. SAS Domain can have:
a) 16256 devices in a single domain
b) 128 expanders per domain
c) 128 phys per expander
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
4. Which of the following is false?
a) SAS and SATA devices can’t be connected in the same system
b) SAS is a point to point protocol
c) Expanders are used to connect to multiple devices
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
5. Which of the following is false?
a) SAS devices can have narrow ports and/or wide ports
b) Expander port is a type of SAS port
c) Each SAS port has a SAS address
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
6. Which of the following is false?
a) SAS disk device with two phys can be a wide port
b) Expander device is not a SAS device
c) HBA having multiple ports can be configured to have wide and narrow ports
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
7. Which of the following is true for Expander device?
a) Expander device has a SAS address
b) Has expander ports
c) May contain SAS device
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
8. Which of the following is false?
a) Expander device has optional SMP initiator port
b) Expander device has optional SMP target port
c) Expander port can connect to SAS target device
d) Expander port can connect to another expander device
View Answer
Answer: b
9. Which of the following layer is present in a SAS port?
a) Transport layer
b) Phy layer
c) Port layer
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
10. Which of the following protocol has slowest speed?
a) SATA
b) SAS
c) FC-AL
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is the maximum number of loop ports that can participate in an arbitrated?
a) 128
b) 127
c) 256
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: b
2. In a fabric topology what is the discovery process that allocates fabric address to the participating n-
ports?
a) Flogi
b) Fdisc
c) Both a & b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
3. Which FC layer is responsible for exchange/frame and sequence management?
a) Layer 0
b) Layer 1
c) Layer 2
d) Layer 4 (ULP)
View Answer
Answer: c
4. Which of the following login is associated with creating an ULP level image pair?
a) Flogi
b) Plogi
c) Prli
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
5. What is the mechanism used to do flow control between participating N-Ports in a FC communication?
a) B-B Credit mechanism
b) E-E Credit mechanism
c) Both a & b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
6. In FCP (FC protocol for SCSI), which of the following phases is not mandatory for read type
commands?
a) Command phase
b) Data phase
c) Transfer ready phase
d) Response phase
View Answer
Answer: c
7. Which of the following is (are) not the responsibility of RSCN service in a fabric?
a) Nodes joining or leaving the fabric
b) Switches joining or leaving the fabric
c) Allocation of fabric IDs
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
8. Which component of the FC frame header has details about the ULP?
a) Routing Control
b) Class specific control
c) Type field
d) Data field control
View Answer
9. Which of the following enforces access control in SAN/FC switches?
a) Zoning
b) Trunking
c) Flow control
d) Class of service
View Answer
Answer: a
10. What is the significance E-Port?
a) Creates an arbitrated loop
b) Extends the fabric by connecting to other fabrics
c) Represents un-initialized state of a port
d) Represents port with disconnected FC link
View Answer
Answer: b
1. In FC, which of the following are analogous to IP address in data networks?
a) Node WWN
b) Port WWN
c) Fabric address
d) Well known addresses
View Answer
Answer: c
2. Who determines the WWN of FC end point
a) Vendor
b) Fabric controller
c) Node/Loop ports participating in the FC connection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
3. Which of the following is the use of trunking?
a) High bandwidth creation between switches
b) Flow control
c) In order delivery
d) Timing service
View Answer
Answer: a
4. Which field of the frame header signifies the presence of optional header?
a) Routing control
b) Data field control
c) Frame control
d) CRC
View Answer
Answer: b
5. Which of the following uniquely identifies an upper layer protocol command within a FC system?
a) Originator exchange id
b) Originator exchange id and source id
c) Receiver exchange id
d) Both (b) & (c)
View Answer
Answer: d

1. Which of the following company manufactures FC switches

a) Brocade
b) Quantum
c) NetApps
d) Medusa
View Answer
Answer: a
2. An FC analyzer can be used to
a) Capture corrupted FC frames
b) Find network bandwidth usage
c) I/O performance
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
3. To increase the distance of a fiber you will use
a) HBA
b) FC switch
c) Repeaters
d) Media Interface Adapters
View Answer
Answer: c
4. GBIC, GLM and SFPs carry out
a) Similar task
b) Different tasks
c) Depends on their usage
d) Any of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
5. Which of the following company manufactures FC HBA
a) Emulex
b) Qlogic
c) LSI
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: Answer: d
. A “Fiber Connector” is used to
a) Facilitate conversion between two forms of media
b) Terminate the end of an optical fiber and it enables quicker connection and disconnection
c) Connects a computer to storage devices
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
2. SFP(Small form-factor pluggable) uses which kind of Fiber Connector
a) Lucent Connector (LC)connectors
b) Subscriber Connector (SC) connectors
c) Multi-mode (MM) fiber
d) Any of the mentioned
View Answer
3. Fiber Optic Cable uses
a) Electronic pulses to transmit Information down copper lines
b) light pulses to transmit Information down fiber lines
c) Does not send any pulses
d) Requires a connector to send any pulses
View Answer
Answer: b
4. Single-mode fiber supports transmission distance up to
a) 2 km
b) 5 km
c) 30km
d) 10 km
View Answer
Answer: d
5. As per the color coding schemes which color is used for multi mode fiber cable
a) orange
b) yellow
c) green
d) red
View Answer
Answer: a
6. What is used to facilitate conversion between two forms of media
a) SFP
b) MIA
c) SC Fiber Connector
d) LC Fiber Connector
View Answer
Answer: b
7. What is the typical I/O Data rate supported by Qlogic 24xx series of FC HBA
a) 2Gb
b) 3Gb
c) 10Gb
d) 4Gb
View Answer
Answer: d
8. Each FC HBA has a
a) Mac Address
b) IP Address
c) World Wide Name
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
9. When a Fiber Channel switch is implemented in a SAN, the network is referred to
a) Fabric
b) Domain
c) Active directory
d) Switched fabric
View Answer
Answer: a, d
10. A SAN network can have
a) 1 FC switch
b) 2 FC switch
c) There can be many FC switches
d) No FC switch
View Answer
Answer: c1. Which command is used to view NFS shared directories?
a) share
b) shareall
c) sharetab
d) dfshares
View Answer
Answer: d
2. Which file would you edit to mount an NFS filesystem at system boot time?
a) /etc/fstab
b) /etc/dfs/dfstab
c) /etc/vfstab
d) /etc/nfstab
View Answer
Answer: a
3. Which command would mount the directory utilities from the server named sanfoundry on the local
mount point /opt/sf
a) mount -f nfs /sf:sanfoundry /opt/sf
b) mount -F nfs sanfoundry:/sf /opt/sf
c) mount -F nfs sanfoundry:/opt/sf /sf
d) mount /opt/sf sanfoundry:/sf
View Answer
Answer: b
4. CIFS runs over the following protocols:
a) TCP/IP
b) FTP
c) SNMP
d) DNS
View Answer
Answer: a
5. CIFS doesn’t support the following
a) Oplocks
b) Batch command
c) Unicode support
d) Stateless
View Answer
Answer: d
6. CIFS is used in the following OS
a) Windows
b) Unix
c) Netware
d) All the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
7. CIFS was originally derived from
a) PCB
b) NTFS
c) SMB
d) NIS
View Answer
Answer: c
8. CIFS authentication is done by
a) Kerberos
b) NTLM
c) LDAP
d) Both a & b
View Answer
Answer: d
9. SMB was originally developed by
a) IBM
b) Microsoft
c) 3COM
d) Intel
View Answer
Answer: a
10. RPC is used for
a) transporting data over the network
b) executing program on different computer
c) reporting process control
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b

1. Following are some of the file sharing protocols

a) Telnet
b) NFS & CIFS
c) FTP
d) HTTP
View Answer
Answer: b
2. File access protocols operate in which layer of the OSI model
a) Application
b) Session
c) Transport
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
3. NFS & CIFS are
a) Filesystems
b) Operating systems
c) Transport protocols
d) File access protocols
View Answer
Answer: d
4. Using file access protocols, data residing on which of the following can be accessed:
a) Local disk
b) Remote disk
c) Both
d) Neither
View Answer
Answer: b
5. The file access protocols are primary features of
a) SAN
b) NAS
c) Router
d) Application server
View Answer
Answer: b
6. NFS stands for
a) Null File System
b) New File System
c) Network File System
d) Netware File Server
View Answer
Answer: c
7. NFS doesn’t have the following characteristics
a) Idempotent procedures
b) Over NetBIOS
c) Stateless
d) Uses RPC
View Answer
Answer: b
8. NIS is used for?
a) Routing of packets
b) File sharing
c) Naming services
d) Terminal services
View Answer
Answer: c
9. AutoFS is a feature used for?
a) Automatic space allocation
b) Scanning a filesystem
c) Directory services
d) Mounting filesystems
View Answer
Answer: d
10. Following are Naming services
a) LDAP
b) FTP
c) RPC
d) Ping
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Pick the false statement
a) RAID Level 1 provides disk mirroring
b) RAID Level 2 provides bit level striping with Hamming code ECC
c) RAID Level 4 provides block level striping
d) RAID Level 5 provides block level striping and error correction information
View Answer
Answer: d
2. Which of the following provides byte level striping?
a) RAID 6
b) RAID 4
c) RAID 2
d) RAID 5
View Answer
Answer: d
3. State true or false
a) Nested RAID provides better performance characteristics than the RAID levels that comprise them
(true/false) – True
b) RAID Level 6 has dual parity where as RAID Level 5 has single parity and both does block level
striping( true/false) – False
c) RAID Level 7 does Asynchronous cached striping with dedicated parity(true/false) – True
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
4. Which of the following is false about tape devices?
a) A tape drive is a data storage device that reads and writes data stored on a Magnetic tape
b) Tape drives are used for archival storage of data
c) Tape media has low unit cost and long archival stability
d) Tape drives allow random access of data
View Answer
Answer: d
5. Select the correct option regarding tape drive
a) Tape drives have fast average seek times
b) Tape drives can stream data at a very fast rate
c) Archival life of data stored on tape is around 5 years
d) Tape drives can be used t store data on optical disks
View Answer
Answer: b
6. A tape library does not contain
a) Tape Drive
b) Bar Code Reader
c) Robotic Arm
d) RAID Array
View Answer
Answer: d
7. Which of the following is not true about a tape silo?
a) Libraries provide large storage capacity at a very cheap rate
b) They have slow access time
c) Tape libraries are primarily used for backups and as the final stage of digital archiving
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
8. For long term storage (archival) of data which of the following storage devices is generally used
a) Hard Disk
b) CD Rom
c) Floppy Disk
d) Tape Cartridges
View Answer
Answer: d
9. Which of the following Company manufactures Tape Library?
a) Quantum
b) Brocade
c) NetApps
d) Cisco
View Answer
Answer: a
10. Which of the following Company manufactures RAID devices?
a) Qlogic
b) LSI
c) Falconstor
d) Quantum
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Which of the following is not a non volatile storage device?
a) Memory Stick
b) Hard Disk
c) Random Access Memory
d) NVRAM
View Answer
Answer: c
2. Which of the following is sequential access storage device?
a) Hard Disk
b) CD-ROM
c) Tape Cartridge
d) Main Memory
View Answer
Answer: c
3. Which of the Following is not an off-line storage device?
a) Tape Cartridge
b) Flash Memory
c) Tape Library
d) CD-ROM
View Answer
Answer: c
4. Pick the wrong statement about the hard disk?
a) Hard disk has multiple platters and each platter has two read/write heads one on each side
b) It’s a non-volatile & random access storage device
c) Hard disk can only have IDE or USB interface
d) Data Transfer rate is over 80 MBPS
View Answer
Answer: c
5. Which of the following statements about various hard disks is wrong?
a) SATA Disks support faster transfer rates and have support for hot swapping
b) USB Hard disks store data on flash memory
c) ATA hard disks cannot be connected externally to computer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
6. Which of the following is false?
a) NVRAM has built in battery which keeps power applied to it even after the power is switched off
b) Flash memory can be electrically erased and reprogrammed
c) Flash memory is used in memory sticks
d) Flash disk can only have USB interface
View Answer
Answer: d
7. Which of the following is not true about JBOD?
a) JBOD can combine hard disks of different sizes into a single unit without loss of any capacity
b) If a drive in a JBOD set dies then it may be easier to recover the files on the other Drives
c) JBOD supports data redundancy
d) JBOD doesn’t has any storage controller intelligence
View Answer
Answer: c
8. Pick odd one out
a) Mirroring
b) Striping
c) Error-correction
d) Fault tolerance
View Answer
Answer: d
9. Which one of the following is not an advantage of RAID?
a) Data Security
b) Increased & integrated capacity
c) Improved performance
d) Effective data capacity increases
View Answer
Answer: d
10. Pick the false statement about RAID 0
a) Provides no redundancy
b) Provides data striping
c) improves performance
d) Provides fault tolerance
View Answer
Answer: d
1. What will be used by SAN to provide connectivity between hosts and storage?
a) FC
b) iSCSI
c) FC or iSCSI
d) SCSI
View Answer
Answer: c
2. In FC structure which layer maps block I/O SCSI commands into FC frames?
a) FC-4
b) FC-1
c) FC-0
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
3. What are the major benefits of SAN?
a) Centralized backup
b) Storage consolidation
c) LAN-less backup
d) Share resources
e) All of the mentioned
View Answer
4. Which data storage technology offers the best performance?
a) SAN
b) NAS
c) DAS
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
5. Identify the data storage technology used in the below data center?
a) NAS
b) SAN
c) DAS
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is the most basic level of storage
a) SAN
b) DAS
c) NAS
d) ISCSI
View Answer
Answer: b
2. A NAS solution is most appropriate for what type of data environment
a) Secured Access
b) Shared access
c) Remote access
d) Parallel access
View Answer
Answer: b
3. Which three statements describe differences between Storage Area Network (SAN) and Network
Attached Storage (NAS) solutions? Choose three.
a) SAN is generally more expensive but provides higher performance
b) NAS uses TCP/IP for communication between hosts and the NAS server
c) NAS requires additional hardware on a host: a host bus adapter for connectivity
d) SAN uses proprietary protocols for communication between hosts and the SAN fabric
View Answer
Answer: a, b, d
4. I/O requests to disk storage on a SAN are called
a) File I/Os
b) SAN I/Os
c) Block I/Os
d) Disk I/Os
View Answer
Answer: c
5. Demerits of DAS are. Choose two.
a) Interconnect limited to 10km
b) Excessive network traffic
c) Distance limitations
d) Inability to share data with other servers
View Answer
Answer: c, d
6. Which topology is best suited for medium sized enterprise.
a) NAS
b) SAN
c) DAS
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
7. Disk controller driver in DAS architecture is replaced in SAN either with ——
a) FC Protocol
b) iSCSI
c) TCP/IP stack
d) Any one of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
8. Which storage technology requires downtime to add new hard disk capacity
a) DAS
b) SAN
c) NAS
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
9. In SAN storage model, the operating system view storage resources as —— devices
a) FC
b) SCSI
c) SAN
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
10. Identify a network file protocol in the below mentioned set.
a) FC
b) CIFS
c) SCSI
d) NAS
View Answer
Answer: b