LEARNER COPY

C5B: ELECTRICAL / ELECTRONIC SYSTEMS

EXAMINATION
Pass mark: 60% Possible points: 189 Time allowed: 2 Hours

Learner Detail:

Name: SAP Number:

Date:

Learner's overall Score

Points: Percentage (%):

Individual Test Scores:

Tests Learner achievement
Points %

1. Basic Electricity 21 points

2. Electrical circuits 40 points

3. Components and symbols 77 points

4. Monitoring systems 42 points

5. Electronic diagnostic tools 9 points

1: Basic Electricity
Directions: Circle the best answer for each question or fill in the blank.

1. The most general name for something that takes up space and has weight (1)
when subjected to gravity is a (an)
a. element
b. matter
c. atom
d. molecule

2. Hydrogen, gold, carbon, and aluminum are examples of (1)

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3. Protons, neutrons, and electrons are the basic units of a (an) (1)

4. _______________ orbit around an atom's nucleus. (1)

a. Protons
b. Neutrons
c. Electrons
d. Elements

5. Protons have a __________ charge and electrons have a negative charge. (1)
a. positive
b. negative
c. neutral
d. dense

6. Opposite forces always _________ each other. (1)

a. attract
b. magnetize
c. repel
d. neutralize

7. When there is a gathering of free electrons in one place, it is called: (1)

a. an electrical potential
b. magnetism
c. centrifugal force
d. resistance

8. The generator, wheel speed sensors, and vehicle speed sensors all produce (1)
voltage through:
a. chemical reaction
b. electromagnetic induction
c. friction
d. solar energy

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9. An automotive battery produces voltage through: (1)

a. chemical action
b. electromagnetic induction
c. friction
d. solar power

10. A _______ uses electromagnetism in order to work. (1)

a. relay
b. solenoid
c. starter motor
d. all of the above

11. The coil in a relay is used to open and close a . (1)

12. The process of converting mechanical energy into electrical energy is called: (1)
a. electromagnetic induction
b. electromagnetism
c. magnetic flux
d. conventional theory

13. A (An) ________ is an example of a device that uses electromagnetic (1)

induction.
a. alternator
b. relay
c. transistor
d. thermistor

14. The movement of electrons in a conductor is called: (1)

a. DC voltage
b. current
c. AC voltage
d. resistance

15. Electromotive Force (EMF) and potential mean the same thing as: (1)
a. current
b. work
c. voltage
d. wattage

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16. Materials that are easy for electricity to flow through are called: (1)
a. conductors
b. insulators
c. resistors
d. isotopes

17. Materials that are hard for electricity to flow through are called:` (1)
a. conductors
b. insulators
c. resistors
d. isotopes

18. Electricity flows through a conductor when there is a difference in: (1)
a. potential
b. current
c. both a and b
d. neither a or b

19. When current flows in a single direction, it is called: (1)

a. direct current (DC)
b. alternating current (AC)
c. fluctuating current (FC)
d. oscillating current (OC)

20. The kind of current used in most Caterpillar electrical circuits is: (1)
a. direct current (DC)
b. alternating current (AC)
c. fluctuating current (FC)
d. oscillating current (OC)

21. Service manual schematics use: (1)

a. conventional flow theory
b. electron flow theory
c. ohm's law
d. electromotive force theory

2: Electrical Circuits
BASIC CIRCUIT THEORY
Directions: Circle the best answer for each question or fill in the blank.

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1. If the resistance of a typical electrical circuit equaled 6 ohms, and the power (1)
source provided 12 volts, select the correct equation when solving for current flow.
a. 6 ohms divided by 12 volts = 500 milliamps
b. 12 volts divided by 6 ohms = 2 amps
c. 12 volts X 6 ohms = 72 amps
d. None of the above

2. In a circuit, what could cause an increase in current if voltage stayed the same? (1)
a. A decrease in resistance
b. An increase in resistance
c. An open
d. A short to power

3. In the Ohm's Law Circle, "E" stands for: (1)

a. current
b. resistance
c. voltage
d. watts

4. In the Ohm's Law Circle, "I" stands for: (1)

a. current
b. resistance
c. voltage
d. watts

5. If the voltage applied to a resistor is increased and the resistance stayed the (1)
same, the current will:
a. decrease
b. increase
c. stay the same
d. vary

6. An electrical terminal in a dome lamp circuit is seriously corroded. The dome (1)
lamp is very dim. The overall resistance of the circuit has:
a. decreased
b. increased
c. remained the same
d. no effect on dome lamp brightness.

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7. The basic unit of measurement for power is the: (1)

a. ampere
b. volt
c. watt
d. ohm

8. A _________ circuit has only one path for current. (1)

a. series
b. parallel
c. series-parallel
d. all of the above

9. In a series circuit with more than one resistor, the total resistance of the (1)
circuit is ________ the resistance of any single resistor.
a. greater than
b. less than
c. equal to
d. smaller than the smallest value

10. In a parallel circuit with more than one resistor, the total resistance of the (1)
circuit is ________ the resistance of any single resistor.
a. greater than
b. less than
c. equal to
d. the square root of

Directions: Identification of circuit components. Match the component with its function.

11. Battery A. Light (1)

12. Switch B. Return Path (1)

13. Protection Device C. Power Source (1)

14. Load D. Control (1)

15. Ground E. Fuse (1)

16. Conductors F. Wire (1)

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17. In a circuit, assuming the resistance does not change, if voltage is increased, (1)
current will:
a. stay the same
b. increase
c. decrease
d. double

18. In a circuit, assuming the voltage does not change, if resistance is increased, (1)
current will:
a. stay the same
b. increase
c. decrease
d. double

19. To change from base units in the metric system to Mega, move the decimal (1)
_______ places to the ________.
a. 3, left
b. 6, right
c. 3, right
d. 6, left

20. The equation for calculating wattage in a circuit is: (1)

21. How many paths for current flow in a series circuit? (1)
a. One
b. Two
c. Unlimited
d. Depends on the power source

22. When using the 9U7330 Digital Multimeter, the maximum DC input (1)
voltage is:
a. 500 volts
b. 750 volts
c. 1000 volts
d. unlimited

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V2

A2

A1 41

121 61 V3

+ 12V - V1

A3

Refer to the diagram above to answer questions 23 thru 30 (8)

23. Ammeter A1 reads

24. Voltmeter V1 reads

25. Voltmeter V2 reads

26. Ammeter A2 reads

27. Ammeter A3 reads

28. Voltmeter V3 reads

29. The above circuit is connected in: (1)

a. series
b. parallel
c. series-parallel
d. none of the above

30. The total resistance of the circuit is:

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CIRCUIT FAULTS

31. Name the three basic circuit faults. (3)

1.)
2.)
3.)

32. A short to ground usually happens when: (1)

a. one circuit is shorted to the voltage of another circuit
b. there is a break in the circuit
c. wire insulation breaks and the wire touches a ground
d. a connector becomes corroded

33. When a circuit shorts to ground: (1)

a. circuit resistance goes up and causes the fuse to blow
b. current flow goes down
c. current flow goes up because of less circuit resistance
d. current flow goes up because of more resistance in the circuit

34. The type of circuit fault that causes current flow to stop is a (an) (1)

35. An open in the main line of a parallel circuit will not affect the individual (1)
loads or branches.
a. True
b. False

36. An open in a series circuit will cause the current flow to stop. (1)
a. True
b. False

37. A component is working abnormally. For example, a headlamp is dim. (1)

What type of circuit fault usually causes this?
a. An open
b. Low resistance
c. Short to voltage
a. High resistance

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3: Components and Symbols

BASIC ELECTRICAL COMPONENTS
Directions: Circle the best answer for each question or fill in the blank.

1. A __________ is a group of wires that are bound together. (1)

a. route
b. harness
c. guide
d. clip

2. __________ and __________ are the two methods of measuring wire size. (1)
a. Standard, odd
b. Usual, core
c. Metric, AWG
d. Metric, gauge

3. When referring to AWG wire gages, a __________ number denotes a (1)

__________ wire size, and vice versa.
a. larger, larger
b. smaller, smaller
c. denser, longer
d. larger, smaller

4. When soldering, you should heat the __________ and not the __________. (1)
a. insulation, core
b. terminal, core
c. terminal, solder
d. solder, insulation

5. What is the purpose of a connector? (1)

6. Deutsch contacts should be soldered after crimping. (1)

a. True
b. False

7. Removing a pin contact from a Sure-Seal connector housing requires special (1)
tooling.
a. True
b. False

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8. All unused holes in a connector housing require sealing plugs. (1)

a. True
b. False

9. After crimping, all contacts should be soldered using Rosin core solder. (1)
a. True
b. False

10. HD10 Series connectors are rectangular or triangular in design. (1)

a. True
b. False

11. What is the recommended cleaning solvent for all Deutsch contacts? (1)

12. Wires are also called: (1)

a. terminals
b. leads
c. crimps
d. connectors

13. Terminals provide the __________ connection, and connectors provide (1)
the __________ connection in a circuit.
a. mechanical, electrical
b. electrical, mechanical
c. complete, partial
d. positive, negative

14. Connectors which hold more than one terminal are called: (1)
a. dual cavity
b. multi-cavity
c. expandable
d. collapsible

15. Which of the following are circuit protectors? (1)

a. Fuses
b. Fusible links
c. PTCs
d. Filaments
e. All of the above

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16. __________ are used to complete or interrupt a current path. (1)

a. Terminals
b. Connectors
c. Switches
d. Wires

17. Resistors can be used to reduce: (1)

a. voltage
b. power
c. current
d. all of the above

18. Resistors are rated in:` (1)

a. size
b. resistance (ohms)
c. power handling capability (watts)
d. a and b
e. b and c

19. A resistor capable of changing its resistance is called a __________ resistor. (1)
a. multi-ohmic
b. solid state
c. variable
d. bi-ohmic

20. A fuel level sender is an example of what type of resistor? (1)

a. rheostat
b. potentiometer
c. thermistor
d. none of the above

21. Capacitors are commonly used as __________ and __________. (1)

a. voltage supplies, DC filters
b. resistors, DC filters
c. rheostats, potentiometers
d. timers, filters

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22. A charged capacitor acts like a: (1)

a. switch
b. battery
c. terminal
d. resistor

23. The basic unit of measurement for capacitor ratings is the: (1)
a. Joule
b. Ohm
c. Farad
d. Cochrane

24. A battery __________ electricity while a capacitor only __________ (1)

electricity.
a. stores, creates
b. creates, stores
c. distributes, collects
d. collects, distributes

25. Capacitors block the flow of __________ current, but allow __________ (1)
current to pass.
a. strong, weak
b. weak, strong
c. AC, DC
d. DC, AC

SOLID STATE ELECTRICAL COMPONENTS

26. Doping is the process of adding impurities to pure semiconductors. (1)

a. True
b. False

27. A semiconductor that gains free electrons through doping is ______. A (1)
semiconductor that loses free electrons through doping is ______.
a. "N" type, "P" type
b. "P" type, "N" type
c. defective, operative
d. phase-locked, phase-inverted

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28. "P" type semiconductors have an excess of: (1)

a. electrons
b. junctions
c. holes
d. dielectrics
29. Doped silicon has a barrier voltage of about ______ volts. (1)
a. 12
b. 6
c. 0.6
d. 0.1
30. All semiconductors are solid state. (1)
a. True
b. False
31. A diode is made of (1)
a. one "P" type and one "N" type
b. two "P" types or two "N" types
c. both answers are true
d. neither answer is true
32. __________ diodes do not permit current flow. (1)
a. Doped
b. Forward biased
c. Reverse biased
d. Zener
33. Rectifiers change __________ to __________. (1)
a. alternating current (AC), direct current (DC)
b. direct current (DC), alternating current (AC)
c. Zener current, direct current (DC)
d. avalanche current, direct current (DC)
34. The most common use of a rectifier in Caterpillar electrical systems is in: (1)
a. LEDs
b. solenoids
c. alternators
d. spike protectors

35. The two groups of transistors are called and . (2)

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36. The three legs of a bipolar transistor are called the , (3)
and .

37. The three legs of a field effect transistor are called the , (3)
, and .

38. A bipolar transistor works by using the __________ to control current flow (1)
through the emitter.
a. base
b. collector
c. emitter
d. effector

39. In a transistor circuit, the __________ circuit has the lowest current. (1)
a. base
b. emitter
c. collector
d. effector

40. In a transistor, the __________ circuit has the highest current. (1)
a. base
b. collector
c. emitter
d. effector

41. Transistors are groups of three: (1)

a. emitters
b. semiconductor materials
c. diodes
d. resistors

42. A transistor functions most like a: (1)

a. lamp
b. capacitor
c. resistor
d. relay

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43. Transistors have which of these advantages over mechanical circuit components? (1)
a. They can vary current instead of only turning it on or off.
b. They react faster than mechanical devices.
c. They are smaller.
d. All of the above
44. Resistors in transistor circuits are used to: (1)
a. turn the transistor on and off
b. protect the transistor from excess current
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
45. __________ are likely applications of transistors. (1)
a. Light dimming modules
b. Switches
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b

ELECTRICAL SCHEMATICS
NOTE: The questions on Electrical Schematic were developed using the 950G
Electrical Schematic RENR2140. The exam can be adapted to another product by
tailoring the questions based on the chosen schematic.
Directions: Circle the best answer for each question or fill in the blank.
46. Locate the coolant temperature sensor on the schematic. List the schematic (2)
grid location and the machine silhouette.

47. What is the part number of the coolant temperature sensor? (1)

48. Is the part of the connector attached to the coolant temperature sensor a plug (1)
or receptacle?

49. What does the above part in question 3 have? (1)

a. Pins only
b. Sockets only
c. Combination of pins and sockets
d. None of the above

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50. What gauge wires are attached to the sensor in question 3? (1)
a. 4 gauge
b. 16 gauge
c. 18 gauge
d. 20 gauge
51. What is the part number of the machine harness assembly for the sensor in (1)
question 3?

52. On the sensor in question 3, where is the ground circuit connected? (1)
a. To engine ground
b. To cab ground
c. To CMS control
d. None of the above

53. Locate the start aid switch on the schematic. List the schematic grid location (2)
and the machine silhouette.

54. How many wires are attached to the switch in question 8? (1)
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

55. What type of connection(s) is used to attach the switch in question 8 to the (1)
machine wiring harness?
a. Sure-Seal connector
b. Deutsch connector
c. Hard wire connections
d. Other (explain) blade, spade, ring or screw

56. Briefly explain what a solid red line represents on the schematic. (1)

57. Briefly explain what a colored dash line represents on the schematic. (1)

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58. What symbol represents an attached wire, cable, and component on the (1)
schematic?

59. Locate the transmission output speed sensor #1 on the schematic. List the (1)
schematic grid location and the machine silhouette.

60. What is the part number of the sensor connector in question 14? (1)
a. 8X-2419
b. 8W-3843
c. 3X-2419
d. none of the above

61. What is the part number of the machine harness assembly for the sensor in (1)
question 14?

62. What does the sensor receptacle in question 14 have? (1)

a. Pins only
b. Sockets only
c. Combination of pins and sockets
d. None of the above

63. What is the part number of the wiring harness attached to the (1)
Tachometer/Speedometer Control?

64. What gauge wires are used in the Tachometer/Speedometer wiring harness? (1)

65. The Caterpillar Monitoring System displays a MID of 81. The probable (1)
malfunction is in the:
a. computerized monitoring system
b. engine rpm sensor
c. Power Train ECM
d. secondary brake pressure switch

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66. At what pressure does the park brake oil pressure switch open? (1)

67. Locate the front wiper motor on the schematic. What does the dashed (1)
ground symbol represent? (explain)

68. What is the color of the wire that connects the B+ to the above wiper motor? (1)

69. What does the letter "C" represent on the machine location (silhouette)? (1)

70. What is the form number of the service manual for the Power Train ECM? (1)

4: Monitoring Systems
Directions: Circle the best answer for each question.
EARLIER MONITORING SYSTEMS
1. The meter movement on a temperature gauge will __________ when the (1)
signal wire is _________
a. move all the way to the left, grounded
b. stay in the middle, open
c. move all the way to the right, grounded
d. move all the way to the right, open
e. move all the way to the left, open
2. The Electronic Monitoring System (EMS) uses switches that are in what (1)
condition during normal operation?
a. Open
b. Grounded
c. Pulse width modulated
d. Toggle
3 The Computerized Monitoring System (CMS) contains ____________ alert (1)
indicators.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 20

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4. The CMS Vacuum Fluorescent Display (VFD) panel includes all of the (1)
following except:
a. five linear bar graphs
b. alert indicators
c. circular electronic gauges
d. large speedometer tachometer gauge
5. The CMS uses the ________________ to help determine the condition of the (1)
electrical charging system.
a. power supply
b. alternator
c. rectifier
d. speed sensors
6. The CMS Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) operates in _____________ modes. (1)
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6
7. If no faults are present when the CMS-LCD is placed in diagnostic mode, (1)
what will be displayed on the CMS-LCD panel?
a. 1-10
b. ---
c. 0-00
d. SERV CODE

8. The CMS Vacuum Fluorescent Display (VFD) operates in ___________ (1)

modes.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

9. Which of the following CMS-VFD diagnostic identifiers indicates the (1)

component that has failed?
a. MID
b. FMI
c. Contact ID
d. CID

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10. The Module Identifier Code (MID) _____________ must be present when (1)
the CMS-VFD is placed in the service mode.
a. 00
b. 10
c. 26
d. ---

CATERPILLAR MONITORING SYSTEMS

11. The electronic control for the Caterpillar Monitoring System is called the: (1)
a. main display module
b. gauge cluster module
c. interface module
d. LCD display module

12. The monitoring system can support up to: (1)

a. one gauge cluster and one tachometer module
b. two gauge cluster modules and two tachometer modules
c. three gauge cluster modules
d. four gauge cluster modules

13. The main display module has positions for: (1)

a. six alert indicators
b. eight alert indicators
c. ten alert indicators
d. 12 alert indicators

14. The main display module detects and diagnoses faults in which of the (1)
following circuits?
a. Display output modules
b. Action alarm and action lamp
c. Sensor/sender inputs
d. All of the above

15. The main display module requires a service tool (PC) for retrieving (1)
information.
a. True
b. False

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16. The system may or may not include a speedometer/tachometer for normal (1)
operation.
a. True
b. False

17. The Caterpillar Monitoring System utilizes three types of inputs. They are: (1)
a. switch, sensor, and speed
b. switch, sensor, and frequency
c. PWM only
d. switch, sender, and sensor

18. The Caterpillar Monitoring System provides ______________ warning (1)

categories.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

19. Which Caterpillar Monitoring System mode is available using the operator (1)
mode switch?
a. Service
b. Diagnostic scrolling
c. Calibration
d. Tattletale

20. The Caterpillar Monitoring system enters the _______________________ (1)

after a self test.
a. service mode
b. diagnostic scrolling mode
c. normal mode
d. harness code mode

21. Only Modes "-0-" and "-1-" are always available on all wheel loaders. (1)
a. True
b. False
c. Depends on machine model
d. Determined by individual machine harness code

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22. The control service tool allows the service codes to be placed on HOLD (1)
for troubleshooting.
a. True
b. False
c. Depends on machine model
d. None of the above

23. When a diagnostic code indicates that the "sensor signal is above normal," (1)
the most probable cause is:
a. an open
b. a short to +Battery
c. a short to frame ground
d. all of the above

24. The operator can clear faults logged in the Caterpillar Monitoring System (1)
using the operator mode switch.
a. True
b. If the machine is turned OFF
c. False
d. If the machine is turned ON

25. The digital readout on the main display area of the Caterpillar Monitoring (1)
System can be used to display:
a. hourmeter
b. digital tachometer
c. warning level indicator
d. if a service code is present and active
e. B and C
f. A, B and D

26. The service technician can access and reset the "Tattletale" mode on the (1)
Caterpillar Monitoring System using the 4C8195 Control Service Tool.
a. True
b. False

27. A Level Three warning on the Caterpillar Monitoring System indicates: (1)
a. change operating conditions
b. shutdown safely
c. high brake pressure

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28. When a diagnostic code indicates that the "sensor signal is below normal," (1)
the most probable cause is:
a. an open
b. a short to +Battery
c. a short to ground
d. all of the above
29. The ______________ allows the Caterpillar Monitoring System to (1)
communicate with other ECMs.
a. Display Data Link
b. CAT Data Link
c. CAN Data Link
d. Machine ECM
Directions: Question 30 is short answer. Write a brief description.
30. Describe what happens when an active fault code is displayed on the (3)
Caterpillar Monitoring System in the Service Code mode and the fault
becomes inactive.

VITAL INFORMATION DISPLAY/MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

Directions: Circle the best answer for each question.
31. Which of the following is not available on VIDS? (1)
a. Data logger
b. Keypad
c. Message center module
d. Gauge warning area
32. When an abnormal machine condition occurs, such as the hydraulic oil (1)
temperature gets too high, the VIDS/VIMS alerts the operator by displaying a
______________ event.
a. data
b. maintenance
c. machine
d. warning

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33. The message center area provides ______ line(s) of text to display (1)
information to the operator or technician.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
34. The VIDS/VIMS can accommodate up to _____ interface modules. (1)
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
35. The VIDS/VIMS keypad is identical on all machines. (1)
a. True
b. False
36. Machine parameters can be displayed by pressing the _____________ key. (1)
a. OK
b. Arrow
c. Gauge
d. F1
37. Which of the following data links allows the VIMS to communicate through (1)
two-way radio communications with other off board systems?
a. RS-232 Data Link
b. CAT Data Link
c. Instrumentation Link
d. Display Data Link
38. VIMS interface module outputs are sent to the: (1)
a. message center module
b. engine ECM
c. machine ECM
d. VIMS main module
39. Which of the following events can the operator cancel by pressing the OK (1)
key on the keypad?
a. Category 1
b. Category 2
c. Category 3
d. A and B

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 C5B: ELECTRICAL / ELECTRONIC SYSTEMS EXAMINATION
Learner SAP Number:

40. What additional diagnostic information is displayed in the message center (1)
when the F1 key on the keypad is pressed?
a. MID
b. CID
c. FMI
d. All of the above

5: Electronic Diagnostic Tools

Directions: Circle the best answer for each question or fill in the blank.
1. Which data links are used with which communication adapters? (1)
Communication adapter I:
Communication adapter II:
2. What is the purpose of the communication adapter? (1)

3. Name three ways to open an ET screen function. (1)

1.)
2.)
3.)
4. What screen automatically appears when Cat ET is connected to a machine (1)
if multiple ECMs are connected to the data link?
a. Status screen
b. Configuration screen
c. ECM selector screen
d. Diagnostic codes screen
5. If Cat ET is running within STW, an active code can be further diagnosed (1)
by clicking the Troubleshoot Code button to open which of the following
programs?
a. Diagnostic Advisor
b. SIS
c. DataView
d. Engine Performance Estimator

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 C5B: ELECTRICAL / ELECTRONIC SYSTEMS EXAMINATION
Learner SAP Number:

6. Which of the following items may require a password to clear the items from (1)
the ECM?
a. Active diagnostic codes
b. Logged diagnostic codes
c. Logged events
d. All of the above
7. Which screen is used to graphically show overspeeds? (1)
a. Status screen
b. Event Histogram screen
c. Configuration screen
d. Diagnostic codes screen
8. Which screen is used to change fuel settings or equipment ID information? (1)
a. Status screen
b. Event Histogram screen
c. Configuration screen
d. Diagnostic codes screen

9. When a test is performed with Cat ET and there are a number of items that (1)
need to be checked simultaneously, what Cat ET function should be performed?
a. Customize a status screen
b. Customize a Configuration screen
c. Review diagnostic codes
d. View parameter history

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