Nursing Test Bank Question

1.
The school health nurse is presenting a health-promotion class to a group of middle-school

students. Which is the best intervention to address health-promotion strategies related to the
leading cause of cancer deaths in North America?
A) Monthly self-breast exams
B) Smoking cessation
C) Annual colonoscopies
D) Monthly testicular exams
Ans: B
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: B
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Difficulty: Moderate
Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
Objective: 4
Page and Header: 337, Epidemiology of Cancer
Feedback: Cancer is second only to cardiovascular disease as a leading cause of death in the
United States. Although the numbers of cancer deaths have decreased slightly, more than
560,000 Americans were expected to die from a malignant process in 2008. The leading causes
of cancer death in the United States, in order of frequency, are lung, prostate, and colorectal
cancer in men and lung, breast, and colorectal cancer in women, so smoking cessation is the
health promotion initiative directly related to lung cancer. Therefore, the other options are
incorrect.
2. You are the clinic nurse in an oncology clinic. Your patient arrives for a 2-month follow-up
appointment following chemotherapy. You note that the patient's skin appears yellow. Which
blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign?
A) Liver function test
B) CBC
C) Platelet count
D) Electrolytes
Ans: A
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Integrated Process: Nursing Process
Objective: 7
Page and Header: 391, Cancer Survivorship
Feedback: Surveillance for cancer spread, recurrence, or second cancers: colonoscopy post
colon cancer, mammography post breast cancer, Liver function tests post colon cancer, prostate-
specific antigen post prostate cancer. Yellow skin is a sign of jaundice. The liver is a common
organ affected by metastatic disease. A liver function test should be done to determine if the liver
is functioning. Option B is incorrect; a CBC would show an altered white blood cell count
indicating possible infection. Option C is incorrect; a platelet count tells whether the blood
sample has an adequate number of platelets, necessary for blood clotting. Option D is incorrect; a
blood test for electrolytes would not identify the cause of the jaundice.
3. You are teaching a nutrition class in the local high school. One student tells you that he has
heard that certain foods can increase the incidence of cancer. You respond, “Research has shown
that certain foods appear to increase the risk of cancer.” Which of the following menu selections
would be the best choice for reducing the risks of cancer?
A) Smoked salmon and green beans
B) Pork chops and fried green tomatoes
C) Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli
D) Liver, onions, and steamed peas
Ans: C
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: B
Cognitive Level: Application
Objective: 3
Page and Header: 341, Pathophysiology of the Malignant Process
Feedback: High-fiber foods; cruciferous vegetables, such as broccoli, cauliflower, and spinach;
and carotenoids, such as apricots and peaches, appear to reduce cancer risk. Salt-cured foods,
such as ham and processed luncheon meats, should be avoided. Options B and D are incorrect as
they do not contain cruciferous vegetables.
4. Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary prevention with their cancer patients.
However, emphasis is also placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an
example of primary prevention?
A) Yearly Papanicolaou tests
B) Testicular self-examination
C) Teaching patients to wear sunscreen
D) Screening mammogram
Ans: C
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: B
Objective: 4
Page and Header: 343, Detection and Prevention of Cancer
Feedback: Primary prevention is concerned with reducing the risks of cancer in healthy people
through practices such as use of sunscreen. Secondary prevention involves detection and
screening to achieve early diagnosis, as demonstrated by Papanicolaou tests, mammograms, and
testicular exams.
5. You are caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She has
requested a breast tumor marking test and the results are positive. The patient is requesting a
bilateral mastectomy. What is this surgery an example of?
A) Salvage surgery
B) Palliative surgery
C) Prophylactic surgery
D) Reconstructive surgery
Ans: C
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-3
Difficulty: Difficult
Objective: 5
Page and Header: 348, Management of Cancer
Feedback: Prophylactic surgery is used when there is an extensive family history and nonvital
tissues are removed. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive
surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive
primary approach. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of
cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive
surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a
more desirable cosmetic effect.
6. You are caring for a patient who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor
of the head and neck. While doing patient education, what side effects should the nurse discuss
with the patient that should be assessed because of the radiation treatment?
A) Impaired nutritional status
B) Pink oral mucosa
C) Diarrhea
D) Alopecia
Ans: A
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 6
Feedback: Alterations in oral mucosa, change and loss of taste, pain, and dysphasia often occur
as a result of radiotherapy to the head and neck. The patient is at an increased risk of impaired
nutritional status. Option B is incorrect; the oral mucosa is normally pink. Options C and D are
incorrect; diarrhea and alopecia are not concerns for this patient.
7. While a patient is receiving intravenous doxorubicin hydrochloride, the nurse observes that
there is swelling and pain at the IV site. The nurse should
A) stop the administration of the drug immediately.
B) notify the patient's physician.
C) continue to administer but decrease the rate of infusion.
D) apply a warm compress to the site.
Ans: A
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-2
Objective: 7
Feedback: Doxorubicin hydrochloride is a chemotherapeutic vessicant that can cause severe

tissue damage. The nurse should stop the administration of the drug immediately and then notify
the patient's physician. Ice can be applied to the site once the drug therapy has stopped.
8. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment. The
patient asks the nurse what the most common side effect of chemotherapy is. What would be the
best answer the nurse could give?
A) Alopecia
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Altered glucose metabolism
D) Increased appetite
Ans: B
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-2
Objective: 7
Feedback: Nausea and vomiting are the most common side effects of chemotherapy and may
persist for as long as 24 to 48 hours after its administration. Antiemetic drugs are frequently
prescribed for these patients. Other side effects include bone marrow suppression, anorexia,
vaginal dryness, and hair loss. Less common effects include altered glucose metabolism and
jaundice.
9. Your patient is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent. A significant side effect of this
medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom would the nurse assess for in patients at risk
for thrombocytopenia?
A) Interrupted sleep pattern
B) Hot flashes
C) Nose bleed
D) Increased weight
Ans: C
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 7
Feedback: Patients with thrombocytopenia are at risk for bleeding due to decreased platelet
counts. A priority goal for this patient is to prevent trauma related to decreased platelet count. A
soft toothbrush or an electric razor can be used. No invasive procedures should be performed.
Patients with thrombocytopenia do not exhibit interrupted sleep pattern, hot flashes, or increased
weight.
10. You are orienting a new nurse to the oncology unit where you work. As you prepare to
administer an antineoplastic agent to a one of your patients, what should you teach the new nurse
about antineoplastic agents?
A) Administer only prepackaged agents from the manufacturer
B) Wash hands and arms following administration
C) Use gloves and a lab coat
D) Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle
Ans: D
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: A-2
Objective: 7
Feedback: The nurse should use surgical gloves and disposable long-sleeved gowns when
administering antineoplastic agents. The antineoplastic wastes are disposed of as hazardous
materials. Option A is incorrect; you do not administer only prepackaged agents from the
manufacturer. Option B is incorrect; this is a valid answer, but you wash your hands and arms
before and after administering the medication.
11. You are a nurse working on a bone marrow transplant unit. Your patient is scheduled to
receive a bone marrow transplant. What information will you provide to the patient's visitors?
A) Bring plants to improve air quality.
B) Take the patient to the cafeteria for meals.
C) Wear hospital scrubs when entering the patient's room.
D) Do not visit if you've had a recent infection.
Ans: D
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: A-2
Objective: 6
Feedback: Before engraphment, patients are at a high risk for infection, sepsis, and bleeding.
Visitors should not visit if they've had a recent illness or vaccination. Plants should not be
brought to the BMT patient. The patient cannot go to the cafeteria for meals. Disposable hospital
gowns are worn when entering the patient's room.
12. The nursing instructor is teaching a class in oncology nursing to her junior nursing students.
The instructor is aware that infection is a significant consideration when providing care to an
oncology patient. The leading cause of death in an oncology patient is infection caused by what?
A) Malnutrition
B) Impaired skin integrity
C) Poor hygiene
D) Broken oral mucosa
Ans: B
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: A-2
Objective: 7
Page and Header: 377, Nursing Care of Patients with Cancer
Feedback: Nursing care for patients with skin reactions includes maintaining skin integrity,
cleansing the skin, promoting comfort, reducing pain, preventing additional trauma, and
preventing and managing infection. Option A is incorrect; malnutrition in oncology patients may
be present, but it is not the leading cause of death. Option C is incorrect; oncology patients do
not have poor hygiene at a rate any higher than other patients, and it does not cause death. Option
D is incorrect; broken oral mucosa may be an avenue for infection, but it is not the leading cause
of death in an oncology patient.
Multiple Selection
13. You are the nurse caring for an adult patient who has developed a mild oral yeast infection
following chemotherapy. What should you encourage the patient to do? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Use a lip lubricant
B) Scrub the tongue with a firm-bristled toothbrush
C) Use dental floss every 24 hours
D) Rinse the mouth with normal saline
E) Eat hot foods to aid in killing the yeast
Ans: A, C, D
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-1
Objective: 7
Feedback: Stomatitis is an inflammation of the oral cavity. The patient should be encouraged to
brush the teeth with a soft toothbrush after meals, use dental floss every 24 hours, rinse with
normal saline, and use a lip lubricant. Mouthwashes and hot foods should be avoided.
Multiple Choice
14. The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a patient with cancer who is
preparing for engraphment for a bone marrow transplant. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for
this patient?
A) Fatigue and activity intolerance
B) Altered nutrition: less than body requirements due to anorexia
C) Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response
D) Body image disturbance related to weight loss and anorexia
Ans: C
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-2
Objective: 8
Feedback: A priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is risk for infection related to altered
immunologic response. Because the patient's immunity is suppressed, he or she will be at a high
risk for infection. Options A, B, and D all are valid nursing diagnoses, but they are not as much
of a priority as is risk for infection.
15. The nursing instructor is discussing the care of oncology patients with her junior nursing
students. The instructor presents this scenario: An oncology patient develops erythema following
radiation therapy. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
A) Apply ice to the area.
B) Keep the area cleanly shaven.
C) Apply petroleum ointment to the affected area.
D) Avoid using soap on the area of treatment.
Ans: D
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 6
Feedback: Care to the affected area must focus on preventing further skin irritation, drying, and
damage. Soaps, petroleum ointment, and shaving the area could worsen the erythema. Ice is also
contraindicated.
16. You are caring for a patient has just been given a 6-month prognosis. The patient states that
he would like to die at home. The patient's care needs are unable to be met in a home
environment. What might you suggest as an alternative?
A) Discuss a referral for rehabilitation hospital
B) Panel the patient for a personal care home
C) Discuss a referral for acute care
D) Discuss a referral for hospice care
Ans: D
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-1
Integrated Process: Caring
Objective: 10
Feedback: Hospice care can be provided in several settings. Because of the high cost associated
with free-standing hospices, care is often delivered by coordinating services provided by both
hospitals and the community. The primary goal of hospice care is to provide support to the
patient and family. Patients who are referred to hospice care generally have less than 6 months to
live. Option A is incorrect; a rehabilitation hospital is inappropriate at this time. Option B is
incorrect; this is a distracter for this test question. Option C is incorrect; again, this is an
inappropriate referral for this patient.
17. The clinic nurse is caring for a 42-year-old male oncology patient. He complains of extreme
fatigue and weakness after his first week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse
would best reassure this patient?
A) “These symptoms usually result from radiation therapy; however, we will continue to
monitor your laboratory and X-ray studies.”
B) “These symptoms are part of your disease and can't be helped.”
C) “Don't be concerned about these symptoms. Everybody feels this way after having radiation
therapy.”
D) “This is a good sign. It means that only the cancer cells are dying.”
Ans: A
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 6
Feedback: Fatigue and weakness result from radiation treatment and usually don't represent
deterioration or disease progression. The symptoms associated with radiation therapy usually
decrease after therapy ends. The symptoms may concern the patient and shouldn't be belittled.
Radiation destroys both cancerous and normal cells.
18. A 16-year-old female patient experiences alopecia resulting from chemotherapy, prompting
the nursing diagnoses of disturbed body image and situational low self-esteem. What action by
the patient would best indicate that the patient is meeting the goal of improved body image and
self-esteem?
A) The patient requests that her family bring her makeup and wig.
B) The patient begins to discuss the future with her family.
C) The patient reports less disruption from pain and discomfort.
D) The patient cries openly when discussing her disease.
Ans: A
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: C
Objective: 7
Feedback: Requesting her wig and makeup indicates that the patient with alopecia is becoming
interested in looking her best and that her body image and self-esteem may be improving. The
other options may indicate that other nursing goals are being met, but they don't assess improved
body image and self-esteem.
19. Adverse effects to chemotherapy are dealt with by patients and their caregivers every day.
What would the nurse do to combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy?
A) Administer an antiemetic
B) Administer an antimetabolite
C) Administer a tumor antibiotic
D) Administer an anticoagulant
Ans: A
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-2
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 7
Feedback: Antiemetics are used to treat nausea and vomiting, the most common adverse effects
of chemotherapy. Antihistamines and certain steroids are also used to treat nausea and vomiting.
Antimetabolites and tumor antibiotics are classes of chemotherapeutic medications.
Anticoagulants slow blood clotting time, thereby helping to prevent thrombi and emboli.
20. A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung
lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can
smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
A) “Smoking is the reason you're here.”
B) “The doctor left orders for you not to smoke.”
C) “You're anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?”
D) “Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it's contraindicated.”
Ans: C
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: C
Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
Objective: 3
Feedback: This acknowledges the patient's feelings and encourages him to assess his previous
behavior. Option A belittles the patient. Option B does not address the patient's anxiety. Option
D would be highly detrimental to this patient.
21. The nursing instructor is discussing the difference between normal cells and cancer cells
with the prenursing class in pathophysiology. What would the instructor cite as a characteristic
of a cancer cell?
A) Malignant cells contain more fibronectin.
B) The cell membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called tumor-specific antigens.
C) Chromosomes are commonly found to be strong.
D) Nuclei of cancer cells are large and regularly shaped.
Ans: B
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Cognitive Level: Knowledge
Objective: 1
Feedback: The cell membranes are altered in cancer cells, which affect fluid movement in and
out of the cell. The cell membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called tumor-specific
antigens. Malignant cellular membranes also contain less fibronectin, a cellular cement.
Typically, nuclei of cancer cells are large and irregularly shaped (pleomorphism). Fragility of
chromosomes is commonly found when cancer cells are analyzed.
22. The staff educator is giving a class on oncology nursing for a group of nurses new to the
unit. What is the most common mechanism of metastasis of cancer cells?
A) Hematologic spread
B) Lymphatic circulation
C) Invasion
D) Angiogenisis
Ans: B
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 1
Feedback: Lymph and blood are key mechanisms by which cancer cells spread. Lymphatic
spread (the transport of tumor cells through the lymphatic circulation) is the most common
mechanism of metastasis.
Multiple Selection
23. You are giving a report in your pathophysiology class. The subject of your report is cancer
cells. In differentiating between benign and malignant cells, what characteristics would you cite?
(Mark all that apply.)
A) Rate of growth
B) Ability to cause death
C) Size of cells
D) Cell contents
E) Ability to spread
Ans: A, B, E
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 2
Feedback: Benign and malignant cells differ in many cellular growth characteristics, including
the method and rate of growth, ability to metastasize or spread, general effects, destruction of
tissue, and ability to cause death. Cells come in many sizes, both benign and malignant; option D
is incorrect; cell contents are basically the same but they act differently.
Multiple Choice
24. The nursing instructor is discussing benign versus malignant cells in the pathophysiology
class. What distinguishes malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type?
A) Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells
B) Proteins in the cell membrane
C) Size of cells
D) Stability of cells
Ans: B
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 2
Feedback: The cell membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called tumor-specific
antigens (eg, carcinoembryonic antigen [CEA] and prostate-specific antigen [PSA]), which
develop over time as the cells become less differentiated (mature). These proteins distinguish
malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type.
25. Malignant disease processes have the ability to spread from one organ to another throughout
the body. What is one means malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to
another?
A) Adhering to primary tumor cells
B) Causing mutation of cells of another organ
C) Phagocytizing healthy cells
D) Invading host tissues
Ans: D
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 2
Feedback: Invasion, which refers to the growth of the primary tumor into the surrounding host
tissues, occurs in several ways. Malignant cells are less likely to adhere than are normal cells.
Malignant cells do not cause healthy cells to mutate. Malignant cells do not eat other cells.
Multiple Selection
26. You are doing an initial assessment of a patient newly diagnosed with cancer. The patient
tells you that he drinks about a quart of scotch every evening. What types of cancer does this put
him at risk for? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Pancreatic cancer
B) Brain cancer
C) Breast cancer
D) Esophageal cancer
E) Liver cancer
Ans: C, D, E
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 3
Feedback: Dietary substances that appear to increase the risk of cancer include fats, alcohol,
salt-cured or smoked meats, nitrate- and nitrite-containing foods, and red and processed meats.
Alcohol increases the risk of cancers of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, esophagus, liver,
colorectum, and breast.
Multiple Choice
27. You are the clinic nurse caring for a patient whose grandmother, mother, and sister all had
breast cancer. She has requested a screening test to determine her risk of developing breast
cancer, and it has come back positive. The patient asks you what she can do to help prevent
breast cancer from occurring. What would be your best response?
A) “Research has shown that eating a healthy diet can reduce your chance of breast cancer.”
B) “Research has shown that taking tamoxifen can reduce your chance of breast cancer.”
C) “Research has shown that exercising at least 30 minutes every day can reduce your chance of
breast cancer.”
D) “Research has shown that reducing your intake of red meat can reduce your chance of breast
cancer.”
Ans: B
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: B
Objective: 4
Feedback: Large-scale breast cancer prevention studies supported by the National Cancer
Institute (NCI) indicated that chemoprevention with the medication tamoxifen can reduce the
incidence of breast cancer by 50% in women at high risk for breast cancer. Options A, C, and D
are good answers, but they are not the best answer.
28. You are a part of a team of nurses that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer:
Its Risks and What You Can Do About It. This program is an example of what?
A) Primary prevention
B) Risk reduction
C) Secondary prevention
D) Tertiary prevention
Ans: C
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: B
Objective: 4
Feedback: Nurses in all settings can develop programs that identify risks for patients and
families and that incorporate teaching and counseling into all educational efforts, particularly for
patients and families with a high incidence of cancer. Primary prevention is concerned with
reducing the risks of disease through health promotion strategies. Tertiary prevention is the care
and rehabilitation of the patient after having been diagnosed with cancer. Option B is incorrect;
the program itself does not reduce the risk of cancer.
29. What is a minimally invasive surgical approach that is diagnostic for cancer and has, in
some instances, replaced lymph node dissections?
A) Lymphadenectomy
B) Needle biopsy
C) Open biopsy
D) Sentinel lymph node biopsy
Ans: D
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 5
Feedback: Sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB), also known as sentinel lymph node mapping, is
a minimally invasive surgical approach that, in some instances, has replaced more invasive
lymph node dissections (lymphadenectomy) and their associated complications such as
lymphedema and delayed healing. SLNB has been widely adopted for regional lymph node
staging in selected cases of melanoma and breast cancer. Options B and C are incorrect.
30. You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has
recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to
treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?
A) Palliative
B) Reconstructive
C) Salvage
D) Prophylactic
Ans: A
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 5
Feedback: When cure is not possible, the goals of treatment are to make the patient as
comfortable as possible and to promote quality of life as defined by the patient and his or her
family. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as
ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may
follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable
cosmetic effect. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical
approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary
approach. Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are at increased
risk to develop cancer.
31. You are caring for a patient with an advanced stage of breast cancer. The cancer has
metastasized. You enter the room and find the patient struggling to breath. You note that this
patient's jugular veins are distended. What would you suspect is happening with this patient?
A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)
C) Spinal cord compression
D) Metastatic tumor of the neck
Ans: B
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 9
Feedback: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when there is gradual or sudden
impaired venous drainage giving rise to progressive shortness of breath (dyspnea), cough,
hoarseness, chest pain, and facial swelling; edema of the neck, arms, hands, and thorax and
reported sensation of skin tightness and difficulty swallowing; as well as possibly engorged and
distended jugular, temporal, and arm veins. Option A is incorrect; increased intracranial pressure
may be a part of SVCS, but it is not what is causing the patient's symptoms. Option C is
incorrect; the scenario does not mention a problem with the patient's spinal cord. Option D is
incorrect; the scenario says that the cancer has metastasized but not that it has metastasized to the
neck.
32. You are a hospice nurse caring for a patient with cancer in her home. You have explained to
the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia. You have educated them
on that signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia. What else would you teach this patient and family
to do to reduce the risk of hypercalcemia?
A) Stool softeners are contraindicated.
B) Laxatives should be taken daily.
C) Consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily.
D) Restrict calcium intake.
Ans: C
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 9
Feedback: Identify patients at risk for hypercalcemia and assess for signs and symptoms of
hypercalcemia. Educate the patient and family; prevention and early detection can prevent
fatality. Teach at-risk patients to recognize and report signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia.
Encourage patients to consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily unless contraindicated by existing renal or
cardiac disease. Explain the use of dietary and pharmacologic interventions such as stool
softeners and laxatives for constipation. Advise patients to maintain nutritional intake without
restricting normal calcium intake.
Multiple Selection
33. You are caring for an oncology patient at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation
(DIC). What would be the appropriate care for this patient? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Assist patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe
B) Accurate I & O
C) Prevent bleeding
D) Assess hearing disturbances
E) Maximize physical activity
Ans: A, B, C
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 11
Feedback: Nursing care of the patient in DIC: Monitor vital signs. Measure and document intake
and output. Assess skin color and temperature; lung, heart, and bowel sounds; level of
consciousness; headache; visual disturbances; chest pain; decreased urine output; and abdominal
tenderness. Inspect all body orifices, tube-insertion sites, incisions, and bodily excretions for
bleeding. Review laboratory test results. Minimize physical activity to decrease injury risks and
oxygen requirements. Prevent bleeding; apply pressure to all venipuncture sites, and avoid
nonessential invasive procedures; provide electric rather than straight-edged razors; avoid tape
on the skin and advise gentle but adequate oral hygiene. Assist the patient to turn, cough, and
take deep breaths on a regular schedule. Reorient the patient, if needed; maintain a safe
environment; and provide appropriate patient education and supportive measures. Option D is
incorrect; hearing disturbances would be important to assess for.
Multiple Choice
34. You are a home health nurse caring for an oncology patient discharged home 3 days ago
after completing therapy. What would you assess the patient for?
A) Tumor lysis syndrome
B) Syndrome of inappropriate antiduretic hormone
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D) Hypercalcemia
Ans: A
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 11
Feedback: Nursing care for tumor lysis syndrome: identify at-risk patients, including those in
whom tumor lysis syndrome may develop up to 1 week after therapy has been completed.
Institute essential preventive measures (eg, fluid hydration and allopurinol). Assess patients for
signs and symptoms of electrolyte imbalances. Assess urine pH to confirm alkalization. Monitor
serum electrolyte and uric acid levels for evidence of fluid volume overload secondary to
aggressive hydration. Instruct patients to report symptoms indicating electrolyte disturbances.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
35. You are admitting an oncology patient to your unit prior to surgery. The patient has just
finished radiation therapy. What does this put your patient at increased risk for?
A) Nutritional deficit
B) Impaired wound healing
C) Cardiac tamponade
D) Tumor lysis syndrome
Ans: B
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 9
Feedback: Combining other treatment methods, such as radiation and chemotherapy, with
surgery also contributes to postoperative complications, such as infection, impaired wound
healing, altered pulmonary or renal function, and the development of deep vein thrombosis.
36. Your patient has just returned from the PACU after salvage surgery for renal carcinoma.
What would you assess this patient for?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Anorexia
C) Wound dehiscence
D) Metastasis to the brain
Ans: C
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 9
Feedback: Postoperatively, the nurse assesses the patient's responses to the surgery and monitors
the patient for possible complications, such as infection, bleeding, thrombophlebitis, wound
dehiscence, fluid and electrolyte imbalance, and organ dysfunction. Options A, B, and D are
incorrect. Vasoconstriction, anorexia, and metastasis to the brain are all things you would assess
for even if your patient had not just returned from salvage surgery.
37. You have just admitted a new patient to the hospice program you work for. While you are
doing the initial assessment, a family member states, “my sister just won't talk to any of us about
what is happening to her.” What should you do?
A) Strive to facilitate communication between the family and health care providers.
B) Strive to facilitate communication between the patient and health care providers.
C) Strive to facilitate communication between family members and yourself.
D) Strive to facilitate communication among family members.
Ans: D
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 10
Feedback: Hospice programs strive to facilitate clear communication among family members
and health care providers.
38. What is the most important focus of hospice care?

A) Focus of care is on the family as well as the patient.
B) Focus of care is on the patient centrally and the family peripherally.
C) Focus of care is solely on the patient.
D) Focus of care emotionally is totally on the family.
Ans: A
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 10
Feedback: The focus of hospice care is on the family as well as the patient. Therefore options B,
C, and D are incorrect.
39. You are caring for a 14-year-old female patient with leukemia. She has developed alopecia
due to treatment for the leukemia. What would be an expected outcome found on her plan of
care?
A) Maintains adequate hydration
B) Interacts and socializes with others
C) Verbalizes positive self-awareness
D) Maintains academic standing in school
Ans: B
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 8
Feedback: Expected outcomes of the nursing diagnosis “impaired tissue integrity: alopecia”
identifies alopecia as potential side effect of treatment. Maintains hygiene and grooming.
Interacts and socializes with others. Option A is incorrect; the scenario does not indicate the
patient is at risk for inadequate hydration. Option C is incorrect; you would want the patient to
verbalize a positive self-image, not self-awareness. During treatment for leukemia, it would be
nice to maintain academic standing, but it would not be on the care plan at this time.
40. You are the clinic nurse caring for a patient who was just told he was cancer free at 5 years
after diagnosis. The patient has been told he is a cancer survivor. What is cancer survivorship?
A) The period just after being pronounced cancer-free 5 years after being diagnosed
B) The time during which the patient lives with an active diagnosis of cancer
C) A phase of cancer care that comes after primary treatment and lasts until cancer recurrence or
the end of life
D) The end of cancer care
Ans: C
Chapter: 16
Client Needs: B
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 8
Page and Header: 391, Cancer Survivorship
Feedback: Cancer survivorship refers to a distinct phase of cancer care that follows primary
treatment for cancer and lasts until cancer recurrence or end of life.
1. In the past three to four decades, nursing has moved into the forefront in providing care for
the dying. Which phenomenon has lead to this increased focus by nursing on the care of the
dying?
A) Decreased publicity surrounding life-threatening illness
B) Focus of health care providers on prevention
C) Larger number of people dying in the hospital
D) Demographic changes in the population
Ans: D
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-1
Objective: 1
Page and Header: 396, Nursing and End-of-Life Care
Feedback: The focus on care of the dying has been motivated by the aging population and the
prevalence of and publicity surrounding life-threatening illness, such as cancer and AIDS. This
makes option A incorrect. Option B is incorrect because prevention is only one focus of the
nursing profession, and it is not a phenomenon. Option C is incorrect; nowhere in the scenario
does it cite a larger number of people dying in the hospital.
2. Ethical issues have been raised within hospitals regarding patient care. Ethical committees
have been formed to address these numerous ethical issues. As health care professionals, nurses
are often members of these ethical committees. What issue has raised the most troubling ethical
issues?
A) The increase in cultural diversity
B) Staffing shortages in health care and questions concerning quality of care
C) The increased cost of health care
D) The ability of technology to prolong life beyond meaningful quality of life
Ans: D
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 1
Feedback: The application of technology to prolong life has raised several ethical issues. The
major question is, Because we can prolong life through increasingly sophisticated technology,
does it necessarily follow that we must do so? Technologic advances have prolonged life for
many. The ability of technology to prolong life beyond the point that some would consider
meaningful has raised some troubling ethical issues. Option A is incorrect; the increase in
cultural diversity has not raised ethical issues in health care. Option B is incorrect; the ethical
issue here is, how many patients can we provide optimal care for with a less-than-optimal
number of staff? This is not the most troubling ethical issue we face. Option C is incorrect; the
increased cost of health care is definitely an issue in today's health care arena, but it is not the
most troubling ethical issue we face.
3. You are caring for a patient who has been recently diagnosed with a terminal disease. This
patient refuses to accept the diagnosis and refuses to comply with treatment. What is the
psychosocial purpose of this strategy?
A) The patient is trying to protect loved ones from the emotional effects of the illness.
B) The patient is being noncompliant.
C) The patient is afraid of treatment.
D) The patient understands that treatment will have no benefit.
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 9
Feedback: Patients who are characterized as being in denial may be using this strategy to
preserve important interpersonal relationships, to protect others from the emotional effects of
their illness, and to protect themselves because of fears of abandonment. Option B is incorrect;
yes, the patient is being noncompliant, but this option does not answer the question being asked.
Option C is incorrect; the patient may be afraid of treatment; however, this does not answer the
question being asked. Option D is incorrect; a patient in denial would not fully understand that
treatment will have no benefit.
4. Assisted suicide is expressly prohibited under statutory or common law in the overwhelming
majority of states. Yet public support for physician-assisted suicide has resulted in a number of
state ballot initiatives. The issue of assisted suicide is opposed by nursing and medical
organizations as a violation of the ethical traditions of nursing and medicine. Which of the
following would be an example of assisted suicide?
A) Administering a lethal dose of medication
B) Administering a morphine infusion
C) Granting a patient's request not to initiate enteral feeding when the patient is unable to eat
D) Neglecting to resuscitate a patient with a “do not resuscitate” status
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-1
Objective: 1
Feedback: Assisted suicide refers to providing another person the means to end his or her own
life. This is not to be confused with the ethically and legally supported practices of withholding
or withdrawing medical treatment in accordance with the wishes of the terminally ill individual.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect answers as they do not fit the definition of assisted suicide.
5. You are the nurses giving palliative care to a patient with a diagnosis of COPD. What is the
goal of palliative care?
A) To improve the patient's and family's quality of life
B) To support aggressive treatment for cure
C) To provide physical support for the patient
D) To help the patient develop a separate plan with each discipline of the health care team
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-1
Objective: 2
Page and Header: 398, Settings for End-of-Life Care
Feedback: The goal of palliative care is to improve the patient's and the family's quality of life.
The support should include the patient's physical, emotional, and spiritual well-being. Each
discipline should contribute to a single care plan that addresses the needs of the patient and
family. Options B, C, and D are incorrect; the goal of palliative care is not aggressive support for
curing the patient. Providing physical support for the patient is also not the goal of palliative
care. Palliative care does not strive to achieve separate plans of care developed by the patient
with each discipline of the health care team.
6. Much research has been done on the care of the terminally ill. What have these studies shown
is a potential deficiency in the care of the dying in hospital settings?
A) Patients often receive unwanted care at the end of life.
B) Patients are oversedated to achieve pain control.
C) Patients make poor dietary choices.
D) Care is poorly planned.
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-1
Objective: 3
Feedback: Studies have found that deficiencies in the care of dying patients in hospital settings
include many patients receiving unwanted care at the end of life, clinicians not being aware of
the patient's preference for life-sustaining treatment even though preferences were documented,
pain being poorly controlled, and efforts to enhance communication being ineffective. Option B
is incorrect; patients are not oversedated to achieve pain control. Option C is incorrect; patients'
dietary choices are not a potential deficiency in the care of the dying in hospital settings. Option
D is incorrect; care is not poorly planned, it simply does not meet the needs of the dying patient.
7. Your patient has a diagnosis of bladder cancer with metastasis. The patient asks you about
hospice. Which principle applies to a hospice setting?
A) Death must be accepted.
B) Symptoms of terminal illness should not be treated.
C) Each member of the interdisciplinary team develops an individual plan of care for the patient.
D) Terminally ill patients should die in the hospital.
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-1
Objective: 4
Feedback: The principles underlying hospice care are as follows: death must be accepted,
bereavement care must be provided to family members, and the patient should remain at home as
long as possible with support provided. Each member of the interdisciplinary team will
contribute to a single integrated care plan that will address the needs of the patient and family.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not principles of hospice care.
8. You are the clinic nurse doing patient teaching for palliative radiotherapy to the spine. After
you complete the patient teaching, your patient continues to ask the same questions that you have
already addressed. What can you conclude?
A) The patient is not listening.
B) The patient is noncompliant.
C) The patient may have a low IQ.
D) Learning has not occurred.
Ans: D
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 7
Page and Header: 404, Nursing Care of Terminally Ill Patients
Feedback: The nurse should be sensitive to these ongoing needs and may need to repeat
previously provided information or simply be present while the patient and family react
emotionally. Telling a patient something is not teaching. If a patient continues to ask the same
questions, teaching needs to be reinforced. Terminology must be understood by the patient,
written material may be given, and a family member may accompany the patient. Options A, B,
and C are incorrect; many times the patient listens but does not understand the teaching because
of his or her emotions. By asking questions, the patient shows he or she is not noncompliant.
Nowhere in the scenario does it indicate that the patient may have a low IQ.
9. You are part of the health care team at an oncology center. Your patient has been diagnosed
with leukemia and the prognosis is poor. The patient is unaware of the prognosis. How can the
bad news best be conveyed to the patient?
A) Family should be given the prognosis first.
B) The prognosis should be delivered with the patient at eye level.
C) The physician should deliver the news to the patient alone.
D) The appointment should be scheduled at the end of the day.
Ans: B
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 7
Feedback: Communicating about a life-threatening diagnosis should be done in a team setting at

eye level with the patient. The family cannot be notified first because that would breech patient
confidentiality. The family may be present at the patient's request. Option D is incorrect; the
appointment should be scheduled when principles can all be in attendance and unrushed.
10. Your patient has just been told that her illness is terminal. The patient states, “I can't believe
I am going to die. Why me?” What is your best response?
A) “I know how you are feeling.”
B) “You have lived a long life.”
C) “This must be very difficult for you.”
D) “Life can be so unfair.”
Ans: C
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 7
Feedback: The most important intervention the nurse can provide is listening empathetically. To
communicate effectively, the nurse should ask open-ended questions and acknowledge the
patient's fears. This makes options A, B, and D incorrect.
11. Your patient seems to prefer to have his eldest son make all of his health care decisions.
While the family is visiting, the patient explains to you that this is a cultural practice and very
important to him. How should you respond?
A) Ask the son to allow the patient to make his own health care decisions
B) Explain to the patient that he is responsible for his own decisions
C) Work with the team to negotiate informed consent
D) Refuse to divulge any information to the eldest son
Ans: C
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 8
Feedback: In a case of a patient who wishes to defer decisions to his son, the nurse can work
with the team to negotiate informed consent, respecting the patient's right not to participate in
decision making and honoring his family's cultural practices. Therefore, options A, B, and D are
incorrect.
12. One aspect of assessment when caring for the terminally ill is the assessment of hope. The
nurse is assessing a patient with liver failure for the presence of hope. What is a hope-fostering
category?
A) Uplifting memories
B) Ignoring negative outcomes
C) Envisioning one outcome
D) Avoiding an actual or potential threat
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 8
Feedback: Hope is a multidimensional construct that provides comfort as a person endures life
threats and personal challenges. Buckley and Herth identified the following categories of hope-
fostering activities among terminally ill hospice patients with various diagnoses: love of family
and friends, spirituality/faith, setting goals and maintaining independence, positive relationships
with clinicians, humor, personal characteristics, and uplifting memories. Options B, C, and D are
not hope-fostering categories.
13. You are providing end-of-life care for a patient with metastatic bone cancer. You note that
your patient has been receiving analgesic for her pain and is now having difficulty swallowing
the medication. What should you do?
A) Request the physician to order sublingual medication.
B) Crush the medication.
C) Administer the patient's medication with the meal tray.
D) Administer the medication rectally.
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-2
Objective: 9
Feedback: Patients who are receiving opioids can receive the medication sublingually, rectally,
or by transdermal patch. A change in medication route must be made by a physician's order.
Option B is incorrect; many of the pain medications cannot be crushed and given to a patient.
Option C is incorrect; giving the medication with a meal is not going to make it any easier to
swallow. Option D is incorrect; it is an invasive method of giving the medication and would not
be a choice if a sublingual form of pain medication were available.
14. A patient is in a hospice receiving palliative care for lung cancer. The cancer has
metastasized to the liver and bones. The patient is experiencing dyspnea. What might the nurse
do to help to relive the dyspnea the patient is experiencing?
A) A fluid bolus
B) High-flow oxygen to treat low oxygen saturation
C) High doses of opioids
D) Administer corticosteroids as ordered
Ans: D
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-2
Objective: 9
Feedback: Bronchodilators and corticosteroids help to improve lung function as well as low
doses of opioids. Low-flow oxygen often provides psychological comfort to the patient and
family. This makes options B and C incorrect. Option A is incorrect; the scenario gives no
indication that the patient has a fluid deficit that would require a fluid bolus.
15. The nurse is caring for a patient who has terminal lung cancer and is unconscious. Which
assessment would indicate to the nurse that the patient's death is imminent?
A) Mottling of the lower limbs
B) Slow steady pulse
C) Shallow breathing
D) Increased swallowing
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 9
Page and Header: 414, Nursing Care of Patients Who are Close to Death
Feedback: The time of death is generally preceded by a period of gradual diminishment of

bodily functions in which increasing intervals between respirations, weakened and irregular
pulse, and skin color changes or mottling may be observed. The patient will not be able to
swallow secretions, so suctioning, frequent and gentle mouth care, and, possibly, the
administration of a transdermal anticholinergic drug. Therefore options B, C, and D are
incorrect.
16. Your patient is dying. The family's psychosocial needs during the dying process need to be
addressed. What is a cause of many patient care dilemmas at the end-of-life?
A) Poor communication
B) Denial of imminent death
C) Limited visitation
D) Short, frequent visitation without participation in patient care
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 10
Feedback: Many dilemmas in patient care at the end of life are related to poor communication
between team members and the patient and family, as well as to failure of team members to
communicate with each other effectively. Regardless of the care setting, the nurse can ensure a
proactive approach to the psychosocial care of the patient and family. Denial of death may be a
response to the situation but is not classified as a need. Visitation should accommodate wishes of
the family member as long as patient care is not compromised. Therefore, options B, C, and D
are incorrect.
17. The nurse is assessing a patient who was diagnosed with metastatic prostate cancer. The
nurse notes that the patient is exhibiting signs of loss, grief, and intense sadness. Based upon this
assessment data, the nurse will document that the patient is in what stage of death and dying?
A) Depression
B) Denial
C) Anger
D) Acceptance
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 11
Feedback: Loss, grief, and intense sadness indicate depression. Denial is indicated by the refusal
to admit the truth or reality. Anger is indicated by rage and resentment. Acceptance is indicated
by a gradual, peaceful withdrawal from life.
18. You are caring for a 50-year-old male diagnosed with multiple myeloma; he has just been
told that his prognosis is poor. He is tearful and trying to express his feelings, but he is having
difficulty. What should you do first?
A) Ask if he would like you to sit with him while he collects his thoughts.
B) Tell him that you will leave for now but will be back.
C) Offer to call pastoral care.
D) Tell him that you can understand how he is feeling.
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 7
Feedback: The most important intervention the nurse can provide is listening empathetically.
Seriously ill patients and their families need time and support to cope with the changes brought
about by serious illness and the prospect of impending death. The nurse who is able to listen
without judging and without trying to solve the patient's and family's problems provides an
invaluable intervention. The patient needs to feel that people are concerned with his situation.
Leaving him does not show acceptance of his feelings. Offering to call pastoral care may be
helpful for some patients but should be done after the nurse has spent time with the patient.
Telling the patient that she understands how he is feeling is inappropriate because it does not
help him express his feelings.
19. You are the nurse in a pediatric ICU caring for a child dying of sickle cell anemia. The
mother has been unable to eat or sleep and can talk only about her pending loss and the guilt she
feels about the child's pain and suffering. This is the second child this mother has lost to sickle
cell disease. What intervention has the highest priority?
A) Allowing the patient to express her feelings without judging her
B) Helping the patient to understand the phases of the grieving process
C) Reassuring the patient that the child's death is not her fault
D) Arranging for genetic counseling to inform the patient of her chances of having another child
with the disease
Ans: A
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 7
Feedback: Listening to the patient express her feelings openly without judging her is the highest
priority. The nurse should not impose her own values on the patient. The nurse should also help
the patient to understand the grieving process and use all the support systems that are available to
assist her in coping with this situation. Genetic counseling may be appropriate at a later time.
20. Your patient is a 42-year-old mother of two children with a diagnosis of ovarian cancer. She
has just been told that her ovarian cancer is terminal. She begins to express her rage at God and
the clergy. When you admitted this patient, you did a spiritual assessment. What would it have
been very important for you to assess?
A) Is she able to tell her family of negative test results?
B) Does she have a sense of peace of mind and a purpose to her life?
C) Can she let go of her husband so he can make a new life?
D) Does she need time and space to bargain with God for a cure?
Ans: B
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 8
Feedback: In addition to assessment of the role of religious faith and practices, important
religious rituals, and connection to a religious community, the nurse should further explore the
presence or absence of a sense of peace of mind and purpose in life; other sources of meaning,
hope, and comfort; and spiritual or religious beliefs about illness, medical treatment, and care of
the sick. Options A and C are incorrect; these are not part of a spiritual assessment. Option D is
incorrect; bargaining is a stage of death and dying and is not part of a spiritual assessment.
21. Palliative care is a structured system for care delivery that has what as its aim?
A) To give traditional medical care
B) To prevent and relieve suffering
C) To bridge between curative care and hospice care
D) To provide care while there is still hope
Ans: B
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 2
Feedback: Palliative care, which is conceptually broader than hospice care, is both an approach
to care and a structured system for care delivery that aims to “…prevent and relieve suffering
and to support the best possible quality of life for patients and their families, regardless of the
stage of the disease or the need for other therapies.” Palliative care goes beyond giving
traditional medical care, which makes option A incorrect. Palliative care is considered a
“bridge,” but it is not limited to just hospice care, which makes option C incorrect. Option D is
incorrect; hope is something patients and families have even while the patient is actively dying.
22. Palliative care is based on interdisciplinary collaboration. How does interdisciplinary

collaboration differ from multidisciplinary practice?
A) It is based on the participation of clinicians without a team leader.
B) It is based on clinicians of varied backgrounds integrating their separate plans of care.
C) It is based on communication and cooperation.
D) It is based on expertise and patient preference.
Ans: C
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 2
Feedback: Interdisciplinary collaboration, which is different from multidisciplinary practice, is

based on communication and cooperation among the various disciplines, each member of the
team contributing to a single integrated care plan that addresses the needs of the patient and
family. Multidisciplinary care refers to participation of clinicians with varied backgrounds and
skill sets but without coordination and integration. This makes options A and B incorrect. Option
D is incorrect because interdisciplinary collaboration is not based on patient preference.
23. As our population ages, we will see more patients admitted to long-term care facilities in
need of palliative care. Regulations now in place that govern how the care in these facilities is
both organized and reimbursed emphasize what?
A) Ongoing acute care
B) Restorative measures
C) Mobility and socialization
D) Incentives to palliative care
Ans: B
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-4
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 3
Feedback: Regulations that govern how care in these facilities is organized and reimbursed tend
to emphasize restorative measures and serve as a disincentive to palliative care. This makes
option D incorrect. Option A is incorrect; long-term care facilities do not provide acute care for
their patients. Regulations for long-term care facilities do not emphasize mobility and
socialization, which makes option C incorrect.
24. In the United States, what belief is the hospice movement based on?
A) Meaningful living during terminal illness requires technologic interventions.
B) Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in designated facilities.
C) Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in the home.
D) Meaningful living during terminal illness is meant to prolong physiologic dying.
Ans: C
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-4
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 4
Feedback: The hospice movement in the United States is based on the belief that meaningful
living is achievable during terminal illness and that it is best supported in the home, free from
technologic interventions to prolong physiologic dying.
Multiple Selection
25. Many times physicians are reluctant to refer patients to hospice care. What are the reasons
for this reluctance? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Financial pressures on health care providers
B) Patient reluctance to accept this type of care
C) Strong association of hospice care with prolonging death
D) Advances in “curative” treatment in late-stage illness
E) Ease of making a terminal diagnosis
Ans: A, B, D
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 4
Feedback: Physicians are reluctant to refer patients to hospice, and patients are reluctant to
accept this form of care. Reasons include the difficulties in making a terminal prognosis
(especially for those patients with noncancer diagnoses), the strong association of hospice with
death, advances in “curative” treatment options in late-stage illness, and financial pressures on
health care providers that may cause them to retain rather than refer hospice-eligible patients.
This makes options C and E incorrect.
Multiple Choice
26. You are the nurse caring for an 87-year-old Mexican-American female patient who is in
end-stage renal disease. The physician has just been in to see the patient and her family to tell
them that nothing more can be done for the patient and that death is not far off. The physician
offers to discharge the patient home to hospice care. The patient and family refuse. After the
physician leaves, the patient's daughter approaches you and asks what hospice care is. What
would this lack of knowledge about hospice care be perceived as?
A) Lack of an American education of the patient and her family
B) A language barrier to hospice care for this patient
C) A barrier to hospice care for this patient
D) Inability to grasp American concepts of health care
Ans: C
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 5
Feedback: Historical mistrust of the health care system and unequal access to even basic
medical care may underlie the beliefs and attitudes among ethnically diverse populations. In
addition, lack of education or knowledge about end-of-life care treatment options and language
barriers influence decisions among many socioeconomically disadvantaged groups. The scenario
does not indicate whether the patient's family has an American education, whether they are
unable to grasp American concepts of health care, or whether they can speak or understand
English. This makes options A, B, and D incorrect.
27. As our population ages, more people will find themselves in acute-care settings for palliative
care. What do hospitals cite as a barrier to providing high-quality palliative care?
A) Lack of staff
B) Unwillingness of health care disciplines to collaborate in palliative care
C) Inability to form a cohesive palliative health care team in an acute-care facility
D) Finances
Ans: D
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-4
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 5
Feedback: Hospitals cite considerable financial barriers to providing high-quality palliative care
in acute-care settings. Option A is incorrect; even though many facilities are dealing with a
staffing shortage, this is not seen as a barrier to providing high-quality palliative care. Options B
and C are incorrect; health care disciplines collaborate and form cohesive teams to provide high-
quality patient care, ie, trauma teams and rehabilitation teams.
28. Patients who are enrolled in hospice care through Medicare are often felt to suffer
unnecessarily because they do not receive adequate attention for their symptoms of the
underlying illness. Why is this?
A) Unwillingness to overmedicate the dying patient
B) Medicare rules concerning completion of all cure-focused medical treatment
C) Unwillingness of patients and families to acknowledge the patient is terminal
D) Lack of knowledge of patients and families regarding availability of care
Ans: B
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 5
Feedback: Because of additional Medicare rules concerning completion of all cure-focused

medical treatment before the Medicare hospice benefit may be accessed, many patients delay
enrollment in hospice programs until very close to the end of life. Options A and C are incorrect;
hospice does not have an unwillingness to medicate the patient to keep him or her from
suffering. Patients must accept that they are terminal before being admitted to hospice care.
Option D is at least partially accurate; however, this is not why some Medicare patients do not
receive adequate attention for the symptoms of their underlying illness.
Multiple Selection
29. One of the functions of nursing care of the terminally ill is to support the patient and his or
her family as they come to terms with the diagnosis and progression of the disease process. How
can nurses support patients and their families during this process? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Give advice on how to deal with end-of-life issues
B) Encourage the patient and family to “keep fighting” as a cure may come
C) Try to appreciate and understand the illness from the patient's perspective
D) Assist with life review
E) Aid in end-of-life closure
Ans: C, D, E
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 10
Feedback: Nurses are responsible for educating patients about their illness and for supporting
them as they adapt to life with the illness. Nurses can assist patients and families with life
review, values clarification, treatment decision making, and end-of-life closure. The only way to
do this effectively is to try to appreciate and understand the illness from the patient's perspective.
Therefore, options A and B are incorrect and inappropriate.
Multiple Choice
30. You are admitting a 52-year-old father of 4 into hospice care. Your patient has a diagnosis of
Parkinson's disease. The disease is progressing rapidly, and the patient has chosen to receive care
at home. What interventions would you be sure to include in the plan of care?
A) Interventions that include aggressively continuing to fight the disease process
B) Interventions that include moving the patient to a long-term care facility when it becomes
necessary
C) Interventions that include the children helping with their fathers' care
D) Interventions that support the patient's and family's values and choices
Ans: D
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-1
Objective: 10
Feedback: Nurses need to develop skill and comfort in assessing patients' and families'
responses to serious illness and planning interventions that support their values and choices
throughout the continuum of care. Option A is incorrect; to be admitted to hospice care, the
patient must have come to terms with the fact that he is dying. Option B is incorrect; the scenario
tells us the patient wants to be cared for at home. Option C is incorrect; the scenario does not tell
us the ages of the children or whether they are either physically or emotionally capable of
helping with their father's care.
31. Your patient has just died. The patient's spouse says, “I knew this was coming, but I feel so
numb and hollow inside.” You know that these are characteristic of what?
A) Complicated grief and mourning
B) Uncomplicated grief and mourning
C) The depression stage of dying
D) The acceptance stage of dying
Ans: B
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 11
Feedback: Uncomplicated grief and mourning are characterized by emotional feelings of

sadness, anger, guilt, and numbness; physical sensations such as hollowness in the stomach and
tightness in the chest, weakness, and lack of energy; cognitions that include preoccupation with
the loss and a sense of the deceased as still present; and behaviors such as crying, visiting places
that are reminders of the deceased, social withdrawal, and restless overactivity. Option A is
incorrect; complicated grief and mourning occur at a prolonged time after the death. Options C
and D are stages of death and dying, not a characteristic of death and dying.
Multiple Selection
32. Research has identified the key processes of mourning. What are they? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Anger at the deceased
B) Reinvestment
C) Re-experiencing the relationship
D) Relinquishing old attachments
E) Readjustment to adapt to the new world by forgetting the old
Ans: B, C, D
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 11
Feedback: Six key processes of mourning allow people to accommodate to the loss in a healthy
way:
1. Recognition of the loss
2. Reaction to the separation, and experiencing and expressing the pain of the loss
3. Recollection and re-experiencing the deceased, the relationship, and the associated feelings
4. Relinquishing old attachments to the deceased
5. Readjustment to adapt to the new world without forgetting the old
6. Reinvestment
Therefore, options A and E are incorrect.
Multiple Choice
33. Many people find the referral to a grief support group both comforting and beneficial after
the death of a loved one. What is the most important accomplishment available by attending a
grief support group?
A) Providing a framework for incorporating the old life into the new life
B) Normalizing adaptation to a continuation of the old life
C) Aiding in adjusting to using old, familiar social skills
D) The normalization of feelings and experiences
Ans: D
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 11
Feedback: Although many people complete the work of mourning with the informal support of
families and friends, many find that talking with others who have had a similar experience, such
as in formal support groups, normalizes the feelings and experiences and provides a framework
for learning new skills to cope with the loss and create a new life. Options A, B, and C are
incorrect because they indicate the need to hold onto the old life and not move on.
34. The ANA Position Statement on Assisted Suicide clearly states that nursing participation in
assisted suicide is a violation of the Code for Nurses. What does the Position Statement further
stress?
A) Contributing to the creation of environments for care that honor the patient's desire to die
B) Identifying patient and family concerns and fears
C) Identifying resources that meet the patient's desire to die
D) Supporting effective means to honor the patient's desire to die
Ans: B
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 8
Feedback: The ANA Position Statement further stresses the important role of the nurse in
supporting effective symptom management, contributing to the creation of environments for care
that honor the patient's and family's wishes, as well as identifying their concerns and fears.
Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect.
35. You are a hospice nurse caring for a 22-year-old with a diagnosis of leukemia. What would
be included in the care you give this patient?
A) Quantity of life
B) Financial advice for paying for care
C) Realistic emotional preparation for death
D) Suggestions to maximize family social interactions after the patient's death
Ans: C
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 4
Feedback: Hospice care focuses on quality of life, but, by necessity, it usually includes realistic
emotional, social, spiritual, and financial preparation for death.
36. You are a pediatric ICU nurse at a metropolitan children's hospital. What is one thing you
can do to support families and other caregivers when a death has occurred?
A) Take time off from work to mourn the death
B) Get together with friends and go out on the town
C) Talk with your spiritual advisor
D) Attend memorial services
Ans: D
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 6
Page and Header: 418, Coping with Death and Dying: Professional Caregiver Issues
Feedback: In many settings, staff members organize or attend memorial services to support
families and other caregivers who find comfort in joining each other to remember and celebrate
the lives of patients. Options A and B are incorrect; neither or these actions support either
families or other caregivers. Option C is incorrect; this is a singular activity and offers no support
to anyone else.
37. As a staff member in a local hospice, you deal with death and dying on a daily basis in your
professional life. Where would be a safe place to express your feelings of frustration and grief
about a patient who has recently died?
A) In the cafeteria
B) At a staff meeting
C) At a social gathering
D) At a memorial service
Ans: B
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 6
Feedback: In hospice settings, where death, grief, and loss are expected outcomes of patient
care, interdisciplinary colleagues rely on each other for support, using meeting time to express
frustration, sadness, anger, and other emotions; to learn coping skills from each other; and to
speak about how they were affected by the lives of those patients who have died since the last
meeting. Options A, C, and D are inappropriate places to express frustration about the death of a
patient.
38. As a hospice nurse, you know how difficult it is to deal with others' pain on a daily basis.
You know that you need to put healthy practices into place to guard against what?
A) Physical exhaustion
B) Excessive weight gain
C) Emotional exhaustion
D) Social withdrawal
Ans: C
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 6
Feedback: Well before the nurse exhibits symptoms of stress or burnout, he or she should
acknowledge the difficulty of coping with others' pain on a daily basis and put healthy practices
in place that guard against emotional exhaustion. Options A and D can be part of emotional
exhaustion, but they are not the root cause of the problem. Option B can be a visible sign of
ineffective coping by the nurse.
39. You are the hospice nurse caring for a 45-year-old mother of three young children in her
home. When you make your visit, you discover that your patient has an altered mental status.
Your assessment indicates the patient is delirious. What would your nursing interventions be
aimed at?
A) Helping the family to understand why the patient needed to be sedated
B) Making arrangements to move the patient to an acute-care facility
C) Explaining to the family that death is near and the patient needs around-the-clock nursing
care
D) Teaching family members how to interact with and ensure safety for the patient with
delirium
Ans: D
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 7
Feedback: Nursing interventions are aimed at identifying the underlying causes of delirium;
acknowledging the family's distress over its occurrence; reassuring family members about what
is normal; teaching family members how to interact with and ensure safety for the patient with
delirium; and monitoring the effects of medications used to treat severe agitation, paranoia, and
fear. Options A, B, and C are incorrect; the scenario does not indicate the need to either sedate
the patient or move her to an acute-care facility. If the family has the resources, there is no need
to bring in nurses to be with the patient around-the-clock, and the scenario does not indicate that
death is imminent.
40. You are caring for a patient who has just been told that his illness is progressing and nothing
more can be done for him. After the physician leaves, the patient asks you to stay with him for
awhile. You agree to stay. The patient becomes tearful and tries several times to say something
but cannot get the words out. What would be an appropriate response for you to make at this
time?
A) “Can I give you some advice?”
B) “Do you need more time to think about this?”
C) “Is there anything you want to say?”
D) “I have cared for lots of patients in your position. It will get easier.”
Ans: B
Chapter: 17
Client Needs: C
Objective: 7
Feedback: Prompt gently: “Do you need more time to think about this?” Option A is incorrect;
you should not give advice. Option C is incorrect; it is obvious from the scenario that the patient
has something to say. Option D is incorrect; this statement negates the patient's feelings at this
time.
1. A patient is admitted to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain.
The patient is vomiting “coffee-ground” like vomitus. The patient is diagnosed with a bowel
obstruction and is informed that he needs surgery. When can the patient anticipate the surgery
will be scheduled?
A) Within 24 hours
B) Within the next week
C) Without delay because the bowel obstruction is emergent
D) Difficult to predict because the surgeon may be unavailable
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 6
Page and Header: 428, Special Considerations During the Perioperative Period
Feedback: Emergency surgeries are unplanned and occur with little time for preparation for the
patient or the perioperative team. A bowel obstruction is considered an emergency, and the
patient requires immediate attention because the disorder may be life threatening. Therefore
options A, B, and D are incorrect.
2. You are doing a preoperative assessment on a patient going to surgery. The patient informs
you that he ingests 5 to 10 ounces of alcohol each day and has for the last 15 years. What
postoperative difficulties can the nurse anticipate for this patient?
A) Delirium tremens immediately following surgery
B) Delirium tremens within 72 hours after his last alcohol drink
C) Delirium tremens upon administration of general anesthesia
D) Delirium tremens 1 week after his last alcohol drink
Ans: B
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 3
Page and Header: 430, Preoperative Assessment
Feedback: Alcohol withdrawal syndrome (ie, delirium tremens) may be anticipated between 48
and 72 hours after alcohol withdrawal and is associated with a significant mortality rate when it
occurs postoperatively.
3. How should a nurse teach a patient to perform deep breathing and coughing to use
postoperatively?
A) The patient should take three deep breaths and cough hard three times.
B) The patient should take three deep breaths and exhale forcefully and then take a quick short
breath and cough from deep in the lungs.
C) The patient should take a deep breath in through the mouth and exhale all the air out through
the mouth, take a short breath, and cough from deep in the lungs.
D) The patient should rapidly inhale, hold for 30 seconds, and exhale slowly.
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 5
Page and Header: 434, General Preoperative Nursing Interventions
Feedback: The patient assumes a sitting position to enhance lung expansion. The nurse then
demonstrates how to take a deep, slow breath and how to exhale slowly. After practicing deep
breathing several times, the patient is instructed to breathe deeply, exhale through the mouth,
take a short breath, and cough from deep in the lungs.
4. The nurse is preparing a patient for surgery. The patient is to undergo a hysterectomy without
oophorectomy and the nurse is witnessing the patient's signature on a consent form. Which
comment by the patient would best indicate informed consent?
A) “I know I'll be fine because the physician said he has done this procedure hundreds of times.”
B) “I know I'll have pain after the surgery.”
C) “The physician is going to remove my uterus and told me about the risk of hemorrhage.”
D) “Because the physician isn't taking my ovaries, I'll still be able to have children.”
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 4
Page and Header: 428, Informed Consent
Feedback: The surgeon must inform the patient of the benefits, alternatives, possible risks,
complications, disfigurement, disability, and removal of body parts as well as what to expect in
the early and late postoperative periods. The nurse clarifies the information provided, and, if the
patient requests additional information, the nurse notifies the physician. In option C, the patient
is able to tell the nurse what will occur during the procedure and the associated risks. This
indicates the patient has a sufficient understanding of the procedure to provide informed consent.
Clarification of information given may be necessary, but no additional information should be
given. Options A, B, and D do not indicate patient understanding of the procedure.
5. You are doing patient teaching for a patient who is scheduled for an appendectomy. You must
teach the patient about incision splinting and leg exercises. When is the best time for you to
provide teaching?
A) Upon the patient's admission to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU)
B) When the patient returns from the PACU
C) During the intraoperative period
D) Before the surgical procedure
Ans: D
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 7
Feedback: Teaching is most effective when provided before surgery. Preoperative teaching is
initiated as soon as possible, beginning in the physician's office, clinic, or at the time of PAT
when diagnostic tests are performed. Upon admission to the PACU, the patient is usually
drowsy, making this an inopportune time for teaching. Upon the patient's return from the PACU,
the patient may remain drowsy. During the intraoperative period, anesthesia alters the patient's
mental status, rendering teaching ineffective.
6. You are caring for a hospice patient who is scheduled for a surgical procedure to reduce the
size of the tumor in an effort to relieve pain. How would this hospice patient's surgical procedure
be classified?
A) Diagnostic
B) Laparoscopic
C) Curative
D) Palliative
Ans: D
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-1
Objective: 2
Page and Header: 425, Surgical Classifications
Feedback: A patient on hospice will undergo a surgical procedure only for palliative care. The
reduction of tumor size to relieve pain is considered a palliative procedure. A laparoscopic
procedure is a type of surgery that is utilized for diagnostic purposes or for repair. The excision
of a tumor is classified as curative. This patient is not having the tumor removed, only the size
reduced.
7. During your preoperative teaching, you know to include exercise of the extremities. What is
the purpose of teaching a patient leg exercises prior to surgery?
A) Leg exercises increase the patient's appetite postoperatively.
B) Leg exercises improve circulation and prevent blood clots.
C) Leg exercises help to prevent pressure sores to the sacrum.
D) Leg exercise help increase the patient's level of consciousness after surgery.
Ans: B
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 5
Feedback: Exercise of the extremities includes extension and flexion of the knee and hip joints
(similar to bicycle riding while lying on the side) unless contraindicated by type of surgical
procedure (eg, hip replacement). When the patient does leg exercises postoperatively, circulation
is increased, which helps to prevent blood clots from forming. Options A, C, and D are incorrect;
leg exercises do not increase the patient's appetite, prevent pressure sores to the sacrum, or
increase the patient's level of consciousness.
8. You are caring for a preoperative patient. You have given the patient a preoperative narcotic
and the patient is now requesting to void. What action should you take?
A) Assist the patient to the bathroom.
B) Offer the patient a bedpan.
C) Wait until the patient gets to the operating room and is catheterized.
D) Have the patient go to the bathroom.
Ans: B
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: A-2
Objective: 6
Page and Header: 438, Immediate Preoperative Nursing Interventions
Feedback: If a preanesthetic medication is administered, the patient is kept in bed with the side
rails raised because the medication can cause lightheadedness or drowsiness. If a patient needs to
void following administration of a sedative, the nurse should offer the patient a urinal. The
patient should not get out of bed because of the potential for lightheadedness.
9. You are preparing your patient for surgery. Prior to obtaining your patient's signature on the
operative permit, you ask the patient if she understands all aspects of the surgical procedure. The
patient replies that she is very nervous and really does not understand what the surgical
procedure is or how it will be performed. What is the most appropriate nursing action for you to
take?
A) Have the patient sign the operative permit and place it in the chart
B) Call the physician to review the procedure with the patient
C) Explain the procedure to the patient and her family
D) Provide the patient with a pamphlet explaining the procedure
Ans: B
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 4
Feedback: While the nurse may ask the patient to sign the consent form and witness the
signature, it is the surgeon's responsibility to provide a clear and simple explanation of what the
surgery will entail prior to the patient giving consent. The surgeon must also inform the patient
of the benefits, alternatives, possible risks, complications, disfigurement, disability, and removal
of body parts as well as what to expect in the early and late postoperative periods. The nurse
clarifies the information provided, and, if the patient requests additional information, the nurse
notifies the physician. Option A is incorrect; before the patient signs the consent form, the
surgeon must provide a clear and simple explanation of what the surgery will entail. Option C is
incorrect; the consent formed should not be signed until the patient understands the procedure
that has been explained by the surgeon. Option D is incorrect; the provision of a pamphlet will
benefit teaching the patient about the surgical procedure but will not substitute for the
information provided by the physician.
10. You are the nurse caring for a patient who is admitted to the emergency room with the
diagnosis of acute appendicitis. You note during the assessment that the patient's ribs and
xiphoid process are prominent. The patient states she exercises daily. The patient's mother
indicates she is being treated for anorexia nervosa. What should you do?
A) Inform the postoperative nurse of the patient's risk for wound dehiscence.
B) Evaluate the patient's ability to manage her pain level.
C) Inform the surgical team and determine her electrolyte levels.
D) Instruct the patient on the need for proper nutrition to promote healing.
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: B
Objective: 2
Feedback: The surgical team should be informed about the patient's medical history regarding
anorexia nervosa. Any nutritional deficiency, such as malnutrition, should be corrected before
surgery to provide adequate protein for tissue repair. In the event of a surgical emergency, the
electrolyte levels should be evaluated and corrected to prevent metabolic abnormalities in the
operative and postoperative phase. The risk of wound dehiscence is more likely associated with
obesity. Instruction on proper nutrition should take place in the postoperative period, and a
consultation should be made with her psychiatric specialist. Evaluation of pain management is
always important but not significant in this scenario.
11. You are doing preoperative patient education with a patient who is a known smoker. What
would be the best instruction to give to this patient?
A) Reduce smoking to prevent the development of pneumonia.
B) Stop smoking at least 6 weeks before the scheduled surgery to enhance pulmonary function
and decrease infection.
C) Stop smoking at least 24 hours prior to surgery to promote pulmonary function.
D) Stop smoking 4 to 8 weeks before the scheduled surgery to enhance pulmonary function and
decrease infection.
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: B
Objective: 3
Feedback: The reduction of smoking will enhance pulmonary function, but in the preoperative
period, patients who smoke should be urged to stop 4 to 8 weeks before surgery. This makes
options A, B, and D incorrect.
12. You are doing preoperative teaching with a patient scheduled for surgery in 1 month. During
the preoperative teaching, the patient gives you a list of medications she takes, the dosage, and
frequency. Which of the following interventions provides the patient with the most accurate
information?
A) Instruct the patient to stop taking St. John's wort at least 2 weeks prior to surgery due to its
interaction with anesthetic agents.
B) Instruct the patient to continue taking ephedrine prior to surgery due to its effect on blood
pressure.
C) Instruct the patient to discontinue synthroid due to its effect on blood coagulation and
potential heart dysrrythmias.
D) Instruct the patient to continue any herbal supplements, and inform the patient that they have
no effect on the surgical procedure.
Ans: A
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: B
Objective: 7
Feedback: Because of the potential effects of herbal medications on coagulation and potential
lethal interactions with other medications, the nurse must ask surgical patients specifically about
the use of these agents, document their use, and inform the surgical team and anesthesiologist,
anesthetist, or nurse anesthetist. Currently, it is recommended that the use of herbal products be
discontinued 2 to 3 weeks before surgery. Patients with uncontrolled thyroid disorders are at risk
for thyrotoxicosis and respiratory failure. The administration of synthroid is imperative in the
preoperative period. The use of ephedrine in the preoperative phase can cause hypertension and
should be avoided.
13. You are caring for an elderly patient who is overweight. Your patient has been admitted to
the surgical unit following a colon resection. What complication is this patient at increased risk
for in the postoperative period?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Azotemia
C) Falls
D) Infection
Ans: D
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 5
Feedback: Like age, obesity increases the risk and severity of complications associated with
surgery. During surgery, fatty tissues are especially susceptible to infection. In addition, obesity
increases technical and mechanical problems related to surgery. Therefore, dehiscence (wound
separation) and wound infections are more common. A postoperative patient who is obese will
be at no greater risk for hyperglycemia, azotemia, or falls. However, the obese patient is at an
increased risk for infections, wound dehiscence, and pulmonary complications.
14. You are caring for a patient in the postoperative period following an abdominal
hysterectomy. Your patient states, “I don't want to use my pain medication because it will make
me dependent, and I won't get better as fast.” Which response is most important when explaining
the use of pain medication?
A) “You will need the pain medication for at least 1 week to help in your recovery. What do you
mean you feel you won't get better faster?”
B) “Pain medication will help to decrease your pain and increase your ability to breath.
Dependency is a risk with pain medication, but you are young and won't have any problems.”
C) “Pain medication can be given by mouth to prevent the risk of dependency that you are
worried about. The pain medication has shown to increase your risk of a slowed recovery.”
D) “Pain medication decreases your pain so you can move more easily. You will heal more
quickly with decreased pain. Dependence only occurs when it is administered for an extended
period of time.”
Ans: D
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-1
Objective: 7
Feedback: Postoperatively, medications are administered to relieve pain and maintain comfort
without increasing the risk of inadequate air exchange. In the responses by the nurse, the final
response addresses the patient's concerns about drug dependency and the nurse's need to increase
the patient's ability to move and recover from surgery. The remaining responses offer incorrect
information such as increasing the patient's ability to breath or specifying the time needed to take
the medication. Narcotic pain medication will cause respiratory depression.
15. You are the nurse working in the preoperative holding area. Your patient has just received a
preanesthetic medication. What should you instruct the patient to do?
A) Use the call light to summon the nurse for assistance.
B) Leave the bedpan at the bedside.
C) Have a bedside commode available for the patient.
D) Instruct the patient on catheterization.
Ans: A
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 6
Page and Header: 438, Immediate Preoperative Nursing Interventions
Feedback: If preanesthetic medication is administered, the patient is kept in bed with the side
rails raised because the medication can cause lightheadedness or drowsiness. The patient should
be instructed to use the call light to summon the assistance of the nurse. The patient should not
get up, so the bedside commode should not be utilized. Also, the patient should void before
administering the preanesthetic medication. The patient should ask for assistance and only utilize
the bedpan with the nurse's assistance. If the patient requires catheterization, then the patient
should be catheterized in the operating room.
16. You are admitting a patient who is insulin dependent to the same-day surgical suite for
carpal tunnel surgery. You know that this patient may be at risk for which metabolic disorder?
A) Adrenal insufficiency
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Impaired acid-base balance
D) Hyperglycemia
Ans: D
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: B
Objective: 2
Feedback: The patient with diabetes who is undergoing surgery is at risk for hypoglycemia and
hyperglycemia. Hyperglycemia during the surgical procedure is a risk based on the body's
defense mechanism to raise the blood sugar in the event of stress. Patients who have received
corticosteroids are at risk of adrenal insufficiency. Patients with uncontrolled thyroid disorders
are at risk for thyrotoxicosis. Because the kidneys are involved in excreting anesthetic
medications and their metabolites and because acid-base status and metabolism are also
important considerations in anesthesia administration, surgery is contraindicated when a patient
has acute nephritis, acute renal insufficiency with oliguria or anuria, or other renal problems.
17. You are obtaining informed consent for a 16-year-old woman who is married and expecting
her first child. She is scheduled for a cesarean section. She is still living with her parents and is
on her parents' health insurance. When obtaining informed consent for the cesarean section, who
is legally responsible for signing the operative permit?
A) Her parents
B) Her husband
C) The patient
D) The obstetrician
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 4
Feedback: An emancipated minor (married or independently earning his or her own living) may
sign his or her own consent form. In this case, the patient is the only person who can provide
consent unless she would be neurologically incapacitated or incompetent, in which case her
husband would need to provide consent.
18. You are providing the preoperative teaching for a patient scheduled for surgery. You know
to instruct the patient on the use of deep breathing, coughing, and the use of incentive
spirometry. What is the rationale for these interventions?
A) To promote wound healing
B) To promote optimal lung expansion
C) To enhance peripheral circulation
D) To increase gas formation
Ans: B
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 5
Feedback: One goal of preoperative nursing care is to teach the patient how to promote optimal
lung expansion and consequent blood oxygenation after anesthesia. In addition to enhancing
respiration, these exercises may help the patient relax. Ambulation will enhance the peripheral
circulation and promote optimal lung expansion.
19. One of the things taught to a patient during preoperative teaching is to have nothing by
mouth for 8 hours before surgery. The patient asks the nurse why this is important. What is the
most appropriate response for the patient?
A) “You will need to have food and fluid restricted for 8 hours before surgery so you are not at
risk for aspiration.”
B) “The restriction of food or fluid will present the development of pneumonia related to
decreased lung capacity.”
C) “The presence of food in the stomach interferes with the absorption of anesthetic agents.”
D) “By withholding food for 8 hours before surgery, you will not develop constipation in the
postoperative period.”
Ans: A
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 7
Feedback: The major purpose of withholding food and fluid before surgery is to prevent
aspiration. There is no scientific basis for withholding food and the development of pneumonia
or interference with absorption of anesthetic agents. Constipation in patients in the postoperative
period is related to the anesthesia, not from withholding food or fluid in the 8 hours before
surgery.
20. Your patient is scheduled for a colon resection in the morning. The patient's orders include
receiving a cleansing enema. The patient wants to know why this is necessary. You explain that
the cleansing enema will
A) prevent aspiration of gastric contents.
B) prevent the development of gas postoperatively.
C) prevent contamination of the peritoneum.
D) allow for absorption of medications.
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 5
Feedback: The administration of a cleansing enema will allow for satisfactory visualization of
the surgical site and to prevent trauma to the intestine or contamination of the peritoneum by
feces. It will have no effect on aspiration of gastric contents or the absorption of medications.
The patient should develop gas in the postoperative period.
21. You are caring for a postoperative patient who is experiencing pain and anxiety. Which
intervention will assist most in decreasing the patient's pain and anxiety?
A) The administration of a stronger pain medication
B) Allowing the patient to increase activity
C) The use of guided imagery with pain medication
D) The use of patient controlled analgesia
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 5
Feedback: The use of guided imagery will enhance pain relief and assist in reduction of anxiety.
The administration of a stronger pain medication should be utilized only when the patient's pain
is unrelieved, not necessarily in combination with anxiety. The increase in activity may produce
increased pain. The use of patient controlled analgesia must be ordered by the physician and is
not an independent nursing intervention.
22. Your patient is going to the operating room for an aortobifemoral bypass. You administer
the preoperative medication that has been ordered. After administering a preoperative medication
to the patient, what should you do?
A) Allow him to walk to the bathroom unassisted.
B) Place the bed in low position with the side rails up.
C) Tell him that he'll be asleep before he leaves for surgery.
D) Take his vital signs.
Ans: B
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: A-2
Objective: 6
Feedback: When the preoperative medication is given, the bed should be placed in low position
with the side rails raised. The patient should void before the preoperative medication is given,
not after. The patient should not get up without assistance. The patient may not be asleep, but he
may be drowsy. Vital signs should be taken before the preoperative medication is given.
23. You are doing preadmission assessments on patients scheduled for surgery. What is one
purpose of a preadmission assessment?
A) Verifies completion of preoperative diagnostic testing
B) Discusses and reviews patient's spiritual beliefs
C) Initiates appropriate medications
D) Informs patient of need for postoperative transportation
Ans: A
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: B
Objective: 1
Page and Header: 425, Preadmission Testing
Feedback: Purposes of preadmission testing (PAT): verifying completion of preoperative

diagnostic testing, discussing and reviewing an advanced directive document, beginning
discharge planning by assessing the patient’s need for postoperative transportation and care, and
initiating teaching appropriate to the patient’s needs. PAT does not discuss and review the
patient’s spiritual beliefs, initiate medications, or tell the patient he needs any kind of
transportation.
Multiple Selection
24. You are the nurse in the preoperative holding area. What is included in the care you give to
each patient? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Establish an intravenous line
B) Verify surgical site and mark site per institutional policy
C) Take measures to ensure each patient's comfort
D) Review operative plans
E) Prepare medications administered in the OR
Ans: A, B, C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: B
Objective: 1
Page and Header: 425, Perioperative Nursing
Feedback: In the holding area, the nurse reviews charts, identifies patients, verifies surgical site
and marks site per institutional policy, establishes intravenous lines, administers medications if
prescribed, and takes measures to ensure each patient's comfort. As a nurse in the preoperative
holding area, you do not review the operative plan nor do you prepare medications to be
administered by anyone else.
Multiple Choice
25. During the intraoperative phase of nursing care, what is one aspect of giving nursing care?
A) Physiologic monitoring
B) Providing emotional support to family
C) Maintaining patient's respiratory status
D) Maintaining a sterile, controlled environment
Ans: A
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: B
Objective: 1
Feedback: During the intraoperative phase, the nurse is responsible for physiologic monitoring.
Emotional support is provided to the patient, not the family; anesthesia maintains the patient's
respiratory status; the intraoperative nurse maintains an aseptic environment.
26. You are doing a preoperative assessment on an 87-year-old male who is going to have a lobe
resection of the right lung for a diagnosis of cancer. What do you know is the underlying
principle that guides the preoperative assessment of an elderly patient?
A) Elderly patients have a smaller lung capacity than do younger patients.
B) Elderly patients have more comorbidities than do younger patients.
C) Elderly patients have less physiologic reserve than do younger patients.
D) Elderly patients have more stamina than do younger patients.
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 3
Feedback: The underlying principle that guides the preoperative assessment, surgical care, and
postoperative care is that elderly patients have less physiologic reserve (the ability of an organ to
return to normal after a disturbance in its equilibrium) than do younger patients. Option A is
incorrect; elderly patients do not necessarily have smaller lung capacities than younger patients.
Option B is incorrect; even though the statement is true, it is not the underlying principle that
guides the preoperative assessment of an elderly patient. Option D is incorrect; elderly patients
generally do not have more stamina than do younger patients.
Multiple Selection
27. You are the PACU nurse caring for a patient who is ready to go the floor after her surgery.
What would you be responsible for reporting to the nurse on the floor? (Mark all that apply.)
A) The kind of anesthetic gas that was used
B) The staff in the operating room
C) The patient's preoperative level of consciousness
D) The presence of family and/or significant others
E) Identification of the patient by name
Ans: C, D, E
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 1
Feedback: The PACU nurse is responsible for informing the floor nurse of the patient's
intraoperative factors (eg, insertion of drains or catheters, administration of blood or medications
during surgery, or occurrence of unexpected events), preoperative level of consciousness,
presence of family and/or significant others, and identification of the patient by name. The
PACU nurse does not tell which anesthetic was used, only the type and amount used. The PACU
nurse does not identify the staff that was in the operating room with the patient.
Multiple Choice
28. When does the preoperative phase of perioperative nursing begin?

A) When the decision to do surgery is made
B) When the patient is admitted to preanesthesia holding
C) When the patient is admitted to the floor
D) When the patient signs an informed consent
Ans: A
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 1
Feedback: The preoperative phase begins when the decision to proceed with surgical
intervention is made and ends with the transfer of the patient onto the OR table. This makes
options B, C, and D incorrect.
29. When does the postoperative phase of perioperative nursing end?

A) When the patient is returned to her room after surgery
B) When a follow-up evaluation in the clinical setting or home setting is done
C) When the patient is discharged home
D) When the family becomes responsible for the patient's care
Ans: B
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 1
Feedback: The postoperative phase begins with the admission of the patient to the PACU and
ends with a follow-up evaluation in the clinical setting or home. This makes options A, C, and D
incorrect.
30. You are the nurse caring for a trauma victim in the emergency department (ED). Your
patient requires emergency surgery. Before the patient leaves the ED for the operating room, the
patient goes into cardiac arrest. You assist in the resuscitation and proceed to release your patient
to the operating room staff. When can you perform your preoperative assessment?
A) When the patient is being stabilized after admission to the ED
B) When you are taking your patient to the OR
C) When assisting with the resuscitation
D) When calling the code
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 2
Feedback: The only opportunity for preoperative assessment may take place at the same time as
resuscitation in the emergency department. Option A is incorrect; the decision to do surgery has
not yet been made. Option B is incorrect; you cannot take the patient to the OR until the
assessment has been made. Option D is incorrect; calling the code takes precedence over making
a preoperative assessment.
31. You are doing preoperative assessments on patients in the clinic scheduled for ambulatory
surgery. Which assessment is important in preventing complications with anesthesia?
A) Physiologic normalities
B) Physical abnormalities
C) Genetic disabilities
D) Genetic considerations
Ans: D
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 2
Feedback: Genetic considerations are taken into account during assessment to prevent
complications with anesthesia. Option A explains normal findings, not a concern for anesthesia.
Options B and C are considerations for the surgeon, not anesthesia.
32. You are the admitting nurse in a short-stay surgical unit. What do you need to verify before
the patient is taken to the preoperative holding area?
A) Preoperative teaching content
B) That the family is aware of the length of the surgery
C) That follow-up home care is not necessary
D) That the family understands the patient will be discharged right after surgery.
Ans: A
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 2
Feedback: The nurse needs to be sure that the patient and family understand that the patient will
first go to the preoperative holding area before going to the OR for the surgical procedure and
then will spend some time in the PACU before being discharged home with the family later that
day. Other preoperative teaching content should also be verified and reinforced as needed. The
nurse should ensure that any plans for follow-up home care are in place. This makes options B,
C, and D incorrect.
33. You are performing a preoperative assessment on a 37-year-old male patient who is having
surgery in 1 week for a knee injury. You know that it is important to assess this patient's immune
function. What is one thing you would be assessing for?
A) Huntington disease
B) Allergies
C) Disabilities
D) Muscular dystrophy
Ans: B
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: A-2
Objective: 3
Feedback: The patient is asked to identify any substances that precipitated previous allergic
reactions, including medications, blood transfusions, contrast agents, latex, and food products,
and to describe the signs and symptoms produced by these substances. Options A, C, and D are
incorrect because they are not caused by the immune system.
34. You are the clinic nurse doing a preoperative assessment on a patient who will be
undergoing outpatient cataract surgery with lens implantation in 1 week. While taking the
patient's medical history, you note that this patient had a kidney transplant 8 years ago. The
patient is taking immunosuppressive drugs. What is this patient at increased risk for when having
surgery?
A) Rejection of the transplanted organ
B) Rejection of the implanted lens
C) Infection
D) Adrenal storm
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 3
Feedback: The mildest symptoms or slightest temperature elevation must be investigated.

Because patients who are immunosuppressed are highly susceptible to infection, great care is
taken to ensure strict asepsis. Options A and B are incorrect; this patient is taking
immunosuppressive drugs so the transplanted organ and the implanted lens should not be at risk
because of the surgery. Option D is incorrect because immunosuppressive drugs will not cause
an adrenal storm.
Multiple Selection
35. The nursing instructor is talking with the junior nursing students about diabetes and surgery.
What complications that patients with diabetes could have because of undergoing routine surgery
would the nursing instructor be sure to talk with the nursing students about? (Mark all that
apply.)
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Nutritional deficiency
C) Acidosis
D) Glucosuria
E) Renal failure
Ans: A, C, D
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 3
Feedback: Hypoglycemia may develop during anesthesia or postoperatively from inadequate
carbohydrates or excessive administration of insulin. Hyperglycemia, which can increase the risk
for surgical wound infection, may result from the stress of surgery, which can trigger increased
levels of catecholamine. Other risks are acidosis and glucosuria. Options B and E are incorrect.
Patients with diabetes generally are not at risk for nutritional deficiency or renal failure due to
having routine surgery.
36. You are obtaining the patient's signature on the surgical consent form. What are the criteria
for a valid informed consent? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Consent must be freely given
B) Signed by responsible party
C) Must be signed before the day of surgery
D) Consent must be obtained by a physician
E) Signature must be witnessed by a professional staff member
Ans: A, D, E
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 4
Feedback: Valid consent must be freely given, without coercion. The patient must be at least 18
years of age (unless an emancipated minor). Consent must be obtained by a physician. The
patient's signature must be witnessed by a professional staff member. This makes options B and
C incorrect.
Multiple Choice
37. You are the nurse caring for an unconscious trauma victim who needs emergency surgery.
The patient is a 55-year-old male patient with two adult children. He is legally divorced and is
planning to be married in 3 days. His parents are at the hospital with the other family members.
The physician has explained the need for surgery, the procedure to be done, and the risks to the
children, the parents, and the fiancé. Who would you ask to sign the surgery consent form?
A) The fiancé
B) The oldest child
C) The youngest child
D) The patient's father
Ans: B
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 4
Feedback: The patient personally signs the consent if of legal age and mentally capable.
Permission is otherwise obtained from a surrogate, who most often is a responsible family
member (preferably next of kin) or legal guardian. In this instance, the oldest child would be the
appropriate person to ask to sign the consent form as he is the closest relative at the hospital.
Option A is incorrect; the fiancé is not legally related to him as the marriage has not yet taken
place. Option D is incorrect; the father would only be asked to sign the consent if no children
were present to sign. Option C is incorrect; the youngest child would only be considered next of
kin if the older sibling was not present and able to sign the consent.
38. You are the emergency-department nurse caring for an 11-year-old brought in by ambulance
after having been hit by a car. The child's parents are in route to the hospital but have not yet
arrived. No other family members are present. The child needs emergency surgery to save her
life. How would you obtain consent for the surgery?
A) By telephone
B) By fax
C) Surgery is done without informed consent
D) Surgery is delayed until the parent's arrival
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 4
Feedback: In an emergency, it may be necessary for the surgeon to operate as a lifesaving

measure without the patient's informed consent. However, every effort must be made to contact
the patient's family. In such a situation, contact can be made by telephone, fax, or other
electronic means. In this scenario, the surgery is considered lifesaving, and the parents are on
their way to the hospital and not available by telephone or fax. This makes options A and B
incorrect. Option D is incorrect because it risks the child's life.
39. You are the nurse caring for a 78-year-old female patient who is scheduled for surgery for
the removal of a brain tumor. The patient is very apprehensive and keeps asking when she will
get her preoperative medicine. The medicine is ordered to be given “on call to OR.” When would
be the best time to give this medication?
A) After being notified by the OR and after making sure the consent and preoperative checklist
are complete
B) As the patient is transferred to the OR bed
C) When the preoperative staff arrives on the floor to take the patient to surgery
D) After being notified by the OR and before attending to other details of the preoperative
preparation
Ans: D
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-2
Objective: 6
Feedback: The nurse can have the medication ready to administer as soon as a call is received
from the OR staff. It usually takes 15 to 20 minutes to prepare the patient for the OR. If the nurse
gives the medication before attending to the other details of preoperative preparation, the patient
will have at least partial benefit from the preoperative medication and will have a smoother
anesthetic and operative course. This makes options A, B, and C incorrect.
Multiple Selection
40. You are the nurse sending a patient to the operating room for a scheduled surgery. What
would you make sure is on the chart when it accompanies the patient to surgery? (Mark all that
apply.)
A) Laboratory reports
B) Nurses' notes
C) Verification form
D) Physician's progress notes for the day
E) Dietician's assessment
Ans: A, B, C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 6
Feedback: The completed chart (with the preoperative checklist and verification form)
accompanies the patient to the OR with the surgical consent form attached, along with all
laboratory reports and nurses' records. Any unusual last-minute observations that may have a
bearing on anesthesia or surgery are noted prominently at the front of the chart. The physician's
progress notes for that day and the nutrition assessment are not necessary when the patient goes
to surgery.
Multiple Choice
41. You are caring for an 88-year-old female who is scheduled for a right mastectomy. You
know that elderly patients are more anxious prior to surgery than younger patients. What would
you increase with this patient to decrease her anxiety?
A) Teaching on guided imagery
B) Therapeutic touch
C) Preoperative medication
D) Sleeping medication the night before surgery
Ans: B
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 7
Feedback: Older patients report higher levels of preoperative anxiety; therefore, the nurse should
be prepared to spend additional time, increase the amount of therapeutic touch utilized, and
encourage family members to be present to decrease anxiety. Option A is incorrect; an anxious
patient often does not retain increased instruction on alternative methods of pain or anxiety
control. Options C and D are incorrect; you need an order to increase the dosage of any
medication; it is not a nursing decision.
42. What does outpatient surgery teaching include?

A) What room the patient will be admitted to after the surgery
B) What activities the patient can do prior to the surgery
C) Bring a list of medications and allergies to the outpatient surgery department
D) Bring a diet journal for 24 hours prior to the scheduled surgery
Ans: C
Chapter: 18
Client Needs: B
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 7
Feedback: In addition to answering questions and describing what to expect, the nurse tells the
patient when and where to report, what to bring (insurance card, list of medications and
allergies), what to leave at home (jewelry, watch, medications, contact lenses), and what to wear
(loose-fitting, comfortable clothes; flat shoes). Option A is incorrect; after outpatient surgery, the
patient is discharged home, not admitted to a room. Option B is incorrect; patients can participate
in their normal activities prior to outpatient surgery. Option D is incorrect; what is eaten the day
before outpatient surgery is not important, the time it was eaten is.
1. You are the recovery room nurse who is admitting a patient from the OR. What is the first
assessment you would make on a newly admitted patient?
A) Heart rate
B) Nail perfusion
C) Core temperature
D) Patency of the airway
Ans: D
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 1
Page and Header: 462, Care of the Patient in the Postanesthesia Care Unit
Feedback: The primary objective in the immediate postoperative period is to maintain

ventilation and, thus, prevent hypoxemia (reduced oxygen in the blood) and hypercapnia (excess
carbon dioxide in the blood). Both can occur if the airway is obstructed and ventilation is
reduced (hypoventilation). This assessment is followed by cardiovascular status and the
condition of the surgical site. Nail perfusion is part of the cardiovascular status. The core
temperature would be assessed after the airway, cardiovascular status, and wound.
2. Your patient is in the recovery room following chest surgery. The patient complains of severe
nausea. What would you do next?
A) Administer an analgesic
B) Apply a cool cloth to the patient's forehead
C) Offer the patient a small amount of ice chips
D) Turn the patient completely to one side
Ans: D
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-1
Objective: 3
Feedback: Turning the patient completely to one side allows collected fluid to escape from the
side of the mouth if the patient vomits. After turning the patient to the side, the nurse can offer a
cool cloth to the patient's forehead. Ice chips can increase feelings of nausea. An analgesic is not
administered for nausea and vomiting.
3. You are discharging your patient home from day surgery after a general anesthetic. What
instruction would you give the patient prior to the patient leaving the hospital?
A) The patient is not to drive a vehicle
B) The patient should have a glass of brandy the first night home to help him or her sleep
C) Eat a large meal at home
D) Do not sign important papers for the first 12 hours after surgery
Ans: A
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 2
Feedback: Although recovery time varies depending on the type and extent of surgery and the
patient's overall condition, instructions usually advise limited activity for 24 to 48 hours. During
this time, the patient should not drive a vehicle, drink alcoholic beverages, or perform tasks that
require energy or skill. Eat only as tolerated.
4. Your patient is a 78-year-old male who has had outpatient surgery. You are getting him up for
his first walk postoperatively. To decrease the potential for orthostatic hypotension, what should
you plan to have the patient do?
A) Sit in a chair for 10 minutes prior to ambulating
B) Drink plenty of fluids to increase circulating blood volume
C) Stand upright for 2 to 3 minutes prior to ambulating
D) Sit upright on the side of the bed for 15 minutes prior to ambulating
Ans: C
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 4
Page and Header: 473, Care of the Hospitalized Postoperative Patient
Feedback: Older adults are at an increased risk for orthostatic hypotension secondary to age-
related changes in vascular tone. The patient should sit up and then stand for 2 to 3 minutes
before ambulating to alleviate orthostatic hypotension. Therefore options A, B, and D are
incorrect.
5. You admit a patient to the PACU who has undergone a surgical procedure that required the
use of general anesthesia. What is the patient most at risk for following general anesthesia?
A) Atelectasis
B) Anemia
C) Dehydration
D) Peripheral edema
Ans: A
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 3
Feedback: Atelectasis occurs when the postoperative patient fails to move, cough, and breathe
deeply. With good nursing care, this is an avoidable complication. Anemia occurs rarely and
usually in situations where the patient loses a significant amount of blood or if he continues
bleeding postoperatively. Fluid shifts postoperatively may result in dehydration and peripheral
edema, but the patient is most at risk for atelectasis.
6. You are caring for a postoperative patient on the medical-surgical unit. During each patient
assessment, you evaluate your patient for infection. Which sign or symptom would be most
indicative of infection?
A) Presence of an indwelling urinary catheter
B) Rectal temperature of 100ºF (37.8ºC)
C) Red, warm, tender incision
D) White blood cell (WBC) count of 8,000/mL
Ans: C
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-2
Objective: 3
Feedback: Redness, warmth, and tenderness in the incision area should lead the nurse to suspect
a postoperative infection. The presence of any invasive device predisposes a patient to infection
but by itself doesn't indicate infection. A rectal temperature of 100ºF would be a normal
expectation in a postoperative patient because of the inflammatory process. A normal white
blood cell count ranges from 4,000 to 10,000/mL.
7. The nursing instructor is with a student nurse who is going to be changing an abdominal
dressing. The first step is to provide the patient with information regarding the procedure. Which
of the following is the best statement for completing this task?
A) “The dressing change is often painful, and we will be giving you pain medication prior to the
procedure so you do not have to worry.”
B) “During the dressing change, I will provide privacy at a time of your choosing, it should not
be painful, and you can look at the incision and help with the procedure if you want to.”
C) “The dressing change should not be painful, but you can never be sure, and infection is
always a concern.”
D) “The best time for doing a dressing change is during lunch so we are not interrupted. I will
provide privacy, and it should not be painful.”
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-2
Objective: 6
Feedback: When having dressings changed, the patient needs to be informed that the dressing
change is a simple procedure with little discomfort, privacy will be provided, and the patient is
free to look at the incision or even assist in the dressing change itself. If the patient decides to
look at the incision, assurance is given that the incision will shrink as it heals and that the redness
will likely fade. Option A is incorrect; dressing changes should not be painful, but giving pain
medication prior to the procedure is always good preventive measure. Option C is incorrect;
telling the patient that the dressing change “should not be painful, but you can never be sure, and
infection is always a concern” does not offer the patient any real information or options and
serves only to create fear. Option D is incorrect; the best time for dressing changes is when it is
most convenient for the patient; nutrition is important so interrupting lunch is probably a poor
choice.
8. Your patient is 2 hours postoperative with a Foley catheter in situ. The last hourly urine
output you recorded for this patient was 10 mL. The tubing of the Foley is patent. What should
you do?
A) Irrigate the Foley with 30 mL normal saline
B) Notify the physician, and continue to closely monitor the hourly urine output
C) Decrease the IV fluid rate
D) Have the patient sit in high-Fowler's position
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 1
Feedback: If the patient has an indwelling urinary catheter, hourly outputs are monitored and
rates of less than 30 mL/h are reported. The urine output should continue to be monitored hourly
by the nurse.
9. You are caring for a 79-year-old man who has returned to the medical-surgical unit following
abdominal surgery. Your patient is unable to ambulate and is now refusing to wear an external
pneumatic compression stocking. You explain that refusing to wear external pneumatic
compression stockings places him at significant risk for what?
A) Sepsis
B) Infection
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Hematoma
Ans: C
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 1
Feedback: Patients who have surgery that limit mobility are at an increased risk for pulmonary
embolism secondary to deep vein thrombosis. The use of an external pneumatic compression
stocking significantly reduces the risk by increasing venous return to the heart and limiting blood
stasis. Options A and B are incorrect; the risk of infection or sepsis would not be affected by an
external pneumatic compression stocking. Option D is incorrect; a hematoma or bruise would not
be affected by the external pneumatic compression stocking unless the stockings were placed
directly over the hematoma.
10. You admit a patient to the postanesthesia care unit with a blood pressure of 130/90 and a
pulse of 68 beats per minute. After 30 minutes, the patient's blood pressure is 120/65, and the
pulse is 100. You document the patient's skin as cold, moist, and pale. What is the patient
showing signs of?
A) Hypothermia
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Malignant hypothermia
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 1
Feedback: The patient is exhibiting symptoms of hypovolemic shock; therefore, the nurse
should notify the patient's physician and anticipate orders for fluid and/or blood product
replacement.
11. You are a nurse in the PACU caring for a 56-year-old male patient who had a hernia repair.
The patient's blood pressure is now 164/92, he has no history of hypertension prior to surgery,
and his preoperative blood pressure was 112/68. You know that hypertension following surgery
is often related to what?
A) Dysrhythmias, blood loss, and hyperthermia
B) Electrolyte imbalances and neurologic changes
C) A parasympathetic reaction and low blood volumes
D) Pain, hypoxia, or bladder distention, which all cause sympathetic stimulation
Ans: D
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 2
Feedback: Hypertension is common in the immediate postoperative period secondary to

sympathetic nervous system stimulation from pain, hypoxia, or bladder distention. Options A
and B are incorrect; dysrhythmias, blood loss, hyperthermia, electrolytes imbalances, and
neurologic changes are not common postoperative reasons for hypertension. Option D is
incorrect; a parasympathetic reaction and low blood volumes would cause hypotension.
12. You are the nurse caring for a patient after abdominal surgery in the postanesthesia care unit.
The patient's blood pressure has increased and the patient is restless. The patient's oxygen
saturation is 97%. You know that the change in your patient is most likely caused by what?
A) The patient's temperature is low.
B) The patient is in shock.
C) The patient is in pain.
D) The patient is nauseated.
Ans: C
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 3
Feedback: An increase in blood pressure and restlessness are symptoms of pain. The patient's
oxygen saturation is 97%, so hypothermia and shock are not likely causes of the patient's
restlessness.
13. You are the nurse in the emergency department (ED). You are caring for a man who has
returned to the ED after receiving ten stitches for a knife wound while cleaning fish. The wound
is now infected, the stitches were removed, and the wound is cleaned and packed with gauze.
The ED doctor plans to have the man return tomorrow to remove the packing and resuture the
wound. You are aware that the wound will now heal by what?
A) Late intention
B) Second intention
C) Third intention
D) First intention
Ans: C
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 5
Feedback: Third-intention healing or secondary suture is used for deep wounds that either had
not been sutured early or that had the suture break down and are resutured later, which is what
happened in this case. Secondary suture brings the two opposing granulation surfaces back
together; however, this usually results in a deeper and wider scar. These wounds are also packed
postoperatively with moist gauze and covered with a dry sterile dressing. Option A is incorrect;
late intention is a term that sounds good but is used simply to distract the unsure test-taker.
Option B is incorrect; second intention is when the wound is left open and the wound is filled
will granular tissue. Option D is incorrect; first intention wounds are wounds made aseptically
with a minimum of tissue destruction.
14. You are the nurse caring for 82-year-old women in the PACU. The woman begins to awaken
and responds to her name but is confused, restless, and agitated. What are you aware of?
A) Postoperative confusion is an indication of an oxygen problem or possibly a stroke during
surgery.
B) Confusion, restlessness, and agitation are normal postoperative findings and will diminish in
time.
C) Postoperative confusion is common in the elderly, but it could also indicate a significant
blood loss.
D) Confusion, restlessness, and agitation indicate inadequate pain management, and analgesics
will help.
Ans: C
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 4
Feedback: Postoperative confusion is common in the elderly, but it could also indicate blood
loss and the potential for hypovolemic shock and is a critical symptom for the nurse to identify.
Option A is a good answer; postoperative confusion is an indication of an oxygen problem or
possibly a stroke during surgery, but blood loss is more likely. Option B is incorrect; restlessness
and agitation are never normal postoperative findings. Option D is incorrect; confusion,
restlessness, and agitation may indicate inadequate pain management, but pain could be assessed
by report of pain, splinting of the affected area, and vital signs.
15. A 38-year-old patient has just been admitted to the PACU following abdominal surgery. As
the patient begins to awaken, he is restless and asking for “a drink of water.” The nurse checks
his skin and it is cold, moist, and pale. What is the nurse concerned the patient may be at risk
for?
A) Hemorrhage and shock
B) Loss of airway and hypotension
C) Pain and anxiety
D) Hypertension and dysrhythmias
Ans: A
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 3
Feedback: Hemorrhage is a complication of surgery that can result in death; when blood loss is
extreme, the patient usually presents apprehensive, restless, and thirsty; and the skin is cold,
moist, and pale. Option B is incorrect; the patient is asking for “a drink of water” so loss of
airway is unlikely, and there is no evidence provided in the question that is related to
hypotension such as blood pressure. Options C and D are incorrect; there is no evidence based on
the information provided in the question that the patient is in pain or having anxiety,
hypertension, or dysrhythmias.
16. The nursing instructor is discussing postoperative care with the junior nursing students. A
student nurse asks, “Why does the patient go to the PACU prior to the medical-surgical unit?”
What is the nursing instructor's best response?
A) “The PACU allows the patient to recover from anesthesia in a stimulating environment to
facilitate awakening and reorientation.”
B) “The PACU allows the patient to recover from the effects of anesthesia, and the patient stays
in PACU until he or she is oriented, has stable vital signs, and is without complications.”
C) “Frequently, patients are recovered in the medical-surgical unit, but hospitals are usually
short of beds, and the PACU is an excellent place to triage patients.”
D) “The medical-surgical unit is frequently very busy and unable accept the patient from
surgery, so the patients are observed and monitored in PACU until a bed is available.”
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 2
Feedback: The PACU provides care for the patient while he or she recovers from the effects of
anesthesia. The patient must be oriented, have stable vital signs, and show no evidence of
hemorrhage or other complications. Patients will sometimes recover in the intensive care unit,
but this is considered an extension of the PACU. Option A is incorrect; the PACU does allow the
patient to recover from anesthesia, but the environment is calm and quiet as patients are initially
disoriented and confused as they begin to awaken and reorient. Option C is incorrect; patients are
not usually recovered in the medical-surgical unit, and although hospitals are occasionally short
of beds, the PACU is should not used for patient triage. Option D is incorrect; in an emergency,
the medical-surgical unit may be unable to accept a patient from surgery, and so the patients are
observed and monitored in PACU until a bed is available, but this is the exception to the rule.
17. The PACU nurse is caring for a patient who has arrived from the operating room who is still
unconscious. During the initial assessment, the nurse notices that the patient's skin is blue and
dusky. She looks, listens, and feels for breathing, and determines the patient is not breathing. The
priority intervention is to
A) check an oxygen saturation rate, continue to monitor for apnea, and perform a focused
assessment.
B) treat the possible airway obstruction by tilting the head back and pushing forward on the
angle of the lower jaw.
C) check the arterial pulses, and place the patient in the Trendelenburg position.
D) call a code blue, and then get an rapid intubation kit and prepare to reintubate.
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-2
Objective: 1
Feedback: When a nurse finds a patient who is not breathing, the priority intervention is to open
the airway and treat the possible hypopharyngeal obstruction. To treat the possible airway
obstruction, the nurse tilts the head back and then pushes forward on the angle of the lower jaw
or performs the jaw thrust method to open the airway. Option A is incorrect; this is an emergency
and requires the basic life support intervention of airway, breathing, and circulation assessment.
Option C is incorrect; arterial pulses should be checked only after airway and breathing have
been established. Option D is incorrect; calling a code blue is appropriate in this case, and the
patient may need to be reintubated, but the nurse should never leave the patient without an
airway to get a rapid intubation kit and prepare for reintubation.
18. You are doing teaching with a patient who has a leg ulcer. You are teaching about tissue
repair and wound healing. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates that
teaching has been effective?
A) “I'll limit my intake of protein.”
B) “I'll make sure that the bandage is wrapped tightly.”
C) “My foot should feel cold.”
D) “I'll eat plenty of fruits and vegetables.”
Ans: D
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: B
Objective: 5
Feedback: Optimal nutritional status is important for wound healing, return of normal bowel
function, and fluid and electrolyte balance. The nurse and patient can consult with the dietitian to
plan appealing, high-protein meals that provide sufficient fiber, calories, and vitamins.
Nutritional supplements, such as Ensure or Sustacal, may be recommended. Multivitamins, iron,
and vitamin C supplements may be prescribed to aid in tissue healing, formation of new red
blood cells, and overall nutritional status. To avoid impeding circulation to the area, the bandage
should be secure but not tight. If the patient's foot feels cold, circulation is impaired, which
inhibits wound healing.
19. You are the nurse caring for a patient who just had surgery. What is your highest priority?
A) Assessing for hemorrhage
B) Maintaining a patent airway
C) Managing the patient's pain
D) Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 1
Feedback: The primary objective in the immediate postoperative period is to maintain

ventilation and, thus, prevent hypoxemia (reduced oxygen in the blood) and hypercapnia (excess
carbon dioxide in the blood). Assessing for hemorrhage and vital sign assessment are also
important but constitute second and third priorities. Pain management is important but only after
the patient has been stabilized.
20. Your patient has undergone a colon resection. While turning him, wound dehiscence with
evisceration occurs. What is your first response?
A) Call the physician
B) Place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the wound
C) Take a blood pressure and pulse
D) Pull the dehiscence closed
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-4
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 3
Feedback: The nurse should first place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the open wound to
prevent tissue drying and possible infection. Then the nurse should call the physician and take
the patient's vital signs. The dehiscence needs to be surgically closed, so the nurse should never
try to close it.
Multiple Selection
21. You are the PACU nurse caring for a 45-year-old male patient who had a left lobectomy.
You assess your patient frequently for airway patency and cardiovascular status. You know that
the most common cardiovascular complications seen in the PACU include what? (Mark all that
apply.)
A) Hypotension
B) Hypervolemia
C) Heart murmurs
D) Dysrhythmias
E) Hypertension
Ans: A, D, E
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-2
Objective: 1
Feedback: The primary cardiovascular complications seen in the PACU include hypotension and
shock, hemorrhage, hypertension, and dysrhythmias. Heart murmurs are not adverse reactions to
surgery. Hypervolemia is not a common cardiovascular complication seen in the PACU.
Multiple Choice
22. Your postoperative patient suddenly presents with hypotension; rapid, thready pulse;
oliguria; and cold, pale skin. You suspect hemorrhage. What would be your first nursing action?
A) Notify the physician
B) Determine the cause of hemorrhage
C) Order blood work
D) Put the patient in Trendelenberg position
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 3
Feedback: Transfusing blood or blood products and determining the cause of hemorrhage are the
initial therapeutic measures. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not the initial
actions the nurse would take.
23. You are the intraoperative nurse transferring a patient from the OR to the PACU after
replacement of the right knee. The patient is a 73-year-old female. You know that special
attention must be paid to what?
A) Cardiovascular status
B) Positioning
C) Keeping the patient warm
D) Keeping the patient hydrated
Ans: C
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 4
Feedback: Special attention is given to keeping the patient warm because elderly patients are
more susceptible to hypothermia. Cardiovascular status, positioning, and hydration are all
important for the nurse to pay attention to but are secondary concerns in elderly patients.
Multiple Selection
24. What are the determining factors for a patient to be discharged from the PACU? (Mark all
that apply.)
A) Temperature within normal limits
B) Stable blood pressure
C) Ability to respond to voice commands
D) Adequate oxygen saturation
E) Adequate respiratory function
Ans: B, D, E
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 3
Feedback: A patient remains in the PACU until fully recovered from the anesthetic agent.
Indicators of recovery include stable blood pressure, adequate respiratory function, and adequate
oxygen saturation level compared with baseline. Patients can be released from PACU with a
temperature outside normal limits because of anesthesia. Patients can often respond to voice
commands before they meet the requirements for release from the PACU.
Multiple Choice
25. You are the nurse in a same-day surgery center. What can you do to ensure patient safety
and recovery?
A) Record vital signs and intake and output
B) Document all your assessment findings
C) Report to the home health nurse all of the pertinent details
D) Provide expert teaching
Ans: D
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 2
Feedback: To ensure patient safety and recovery, expert patient teaching and discharge planning
are necessary when a patient undergoes same-day or ambulatory surgery. Options A, B, and C
are incorrect because they would not ensure patient safety and recovery.
Multiple Selection
26. You are discharging a patient home from a same-day surgery center. You have gone over all
of the discharge instructions with the patient and her caregiver. What else should you do before
letting the patient leave the facility? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Provide all discharge instructions in writing
B) Provide the nurse's or surgeon's telephone number
C) Give prescriptions to the patient
D) Give advice on nutrition to the caregiver
E) Provide dates and times of new appointments
Ans: A, B, C
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 2
Feedback: Before discharging the patient, the nurse provides written instructions covering each
of those points. Prescriptions are given to the patient. The nurse's or surgeon's telephone number
is provided, and the patient and caregiver are encouraged to call with questions and to schedule
follow-up appointments. When discharging a patient from an ambulatory surgery center, advice
on nutrition and dates and times of new appointments are not given, making options D and E
incorrect.
Multiple Choice
27. The nursing instructor is discussing the difference between ambulatory surgical centers and
hospital-based surgical units. A student asks why some patients have surgery in the hospital and
others are sent to ambulatory surgery centers. What is the instructor's best response?
A) “Patients who go to ambulatory surgery centers have more family support than patients
admitted to the hospital.”
B) “Patients admitted to the hospital for surgery have multiple needs.”
C) “Only emergency and trauma patients are admitted to the hospital.”
D) “Patients who have surgery in the hospital can't afford the added expense of ambulatory
surgery centers.”
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 2
Feedback: Patients admitted to the clinical unit for postoperative care have multiple needs and
stay for a short period of time. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Patients who have surgery in
ambulatory centers do not necessarily have more family support. It is not true that only trauma
and emergency surgeries are done in the hospital. Ambulatory centers are generally less
expensive than hospitals for surgery.
28. You have just received a postoperative patient from the PACU to the medical-surgical unit.
Your patient is an 84-year-old female who had surgery for a left hip replacement. What is a
primary concern for this patient in the first few hours on the unit?
A) Ability to ambulate
B) Clean dressings on the surgical site
C) Neurologic status
D) Ability to communicate
Ans: C
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 2
Feedback: In the initial hours after admission to the clinical unit, adequate ventilation,
hemodynamic stability, incisional pain, surgical site integrity, nausea and vomiting, neurologic
status, and spontaneous voiding are primary concerns. A total hip patient does not ambulate
during the first few hours on the unit. Dressings are assessed but may have some drainage on
them. Ability to communicate is near baseline when the patient is discharged from the PACU.
29. The nurse's aide notifies you that your patient has decreased oxygen saturation levels. You
assess the patient and find that he is tachypnic, has crackles on auscultation, and his sputum is
frothy and pink. What do you suspect is wrong with this patient?
A) Flash pulmonary embolism
B) Atelectasis
C) Laryngospasm
D) Flash pulmonary edema
Ans: D
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 7
Feedback: Flash pulmonary edema occurs when protein and fluid accumulate in the alveoli
unrelated to elevated pulmonary artery occlusive pressure. Signs and symptoms include
agitation; tachypnea; tachycardia; decreased pulse oximetry readings; frothy, pink sputum; and
crackles on auscultation. Laryngospasm does not cause crackles or frothy, pink sputum. The
patient with atelectasis has decreased breath sounds over the affected area; the scenario does not
indicate this. Option A does not exist.
30. You are performing your shift assessment of your patient. You find his mental status, level
of consciousness, speech, and orientation are intact and at baseline. Your patient tells you he is
very anxious. What would you do next?
A) Assess oxygen levels
B) Give anti-anxiety medications
C) Notify the physician
D) Make a social services consult
Ans: A
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 7
Feedback: The nurse assesses the patient's mental status and level of consciousness, speech, and
orientation and compares them with the preoperative baseline. Although a change in mental
status or postoperative restlessness may be related to anxiety, pain, or medications, it may also be
a symptom of oxygen deficit or hemorrhage. Anti-anxiety medications are not given until the
cause of the anxiety is known. The physician is only notified if the reason for the anxiety is
serious or if an order for medication is needed. A social services consult is inappropriate at this
time.
31. You are the nurse writing a plan of care for a patient who is status postsurgery for a broken
femur. What is the most important goal for this patient?
A) Relief of pain
B) Optimal respiratory function
C) Optimal cardiovascular function
D) Unimpaired wound healing
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 7
Feedback: The major goals for the patient include optimal respiratory function, relief of pain,
optimal cardiovascular function, increased activity tolerance, unimpaired wound healing,
maintenance of body temperature, and maintenance of nutritional balance.
32. You are caring for a 71-year-old patient who is 4 days postoperative for bilateral inguinal
hernias. The patient has a history of congestive heart failure and peptic ulcer disease. The patient
is refusing to ambulate and will not drink fluids except for hot tea with her meals. The nurse's
aide reports to you that this patient's vital signs are slightly elevated and she has a nonproductive
cough. When you assess the patient, you find there are crackles at the base of the lungs. What
would you suspect is wrong with your patient?
A) Flash pulmonary edema
B) Pneumonia
C) Hypostatic pulmonary congestion
D) Right-sided heart failure
Ans: C
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-4
Objective: 7
Feedback: Hypostatic pulmonary congestion, caused by a weakened cardiovascular system that

permits stagnation of secretions at lung bases, may develop; this condition occurs most
frequently in elderly patients who are not mobilized effectively. The symptoms are often vague,
with perhaps a slight elevation of temperature, pulse, and respiratory rate, as well as a cough.
Physical examination reveals dullness and crackles at the base of the lungs. If the condition
progresses, then the outcome may be fatal. Options A, B, and D are incorrect.
33. The nurse is admitting a patient to the medical-surgical unit from the PACU. A concern for
this patient is pneumonia. What would the nurse do to help the patient clear secretions and help
prevent pneumonia?
A) Encourage the patient to eat a balanced diet that is high in protein
B) Encourage the patient to visit with his family in the waiting room
C) Encourage the patient to take his medications as ordered
D) Encourage the patient to use the incentive spirometer every 2 hours
Ans: D
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-4
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 3
Feedback: To clear secretions and prevent pneumonia, the nurse encourages the patient to turn
frequently, take deep breaths, cough, and use the incentive spirometer at least every 2 hours.
These pulmonary exercises should begin as soon as the patient arrives on the clinical unit and
continue until the patient is discharged. A balanced, high protein diet; visiting family in the
waiting room; or taking medications as ordered would not help to clear secretions or prevent
pneumonia.
34. Your patient has just returned to the unit from PACU with patient-controlled anesthesia
(PCA). You know that the requirements for PCA include what?
A) An understanding of the need to self-dose
B) An understanding of how to adjust the medication dosage
C) A caregiver who can administer the medication as ordered
D) An understanding of the medication that is ordered
Ans: A
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 3
Feedback: The two requirements for PCA are an understanding of the need to self-dose and the
physical ability to self-dose. This makes options B, C, and D incorrect.
35. Wound assessment is an important part of the nursing care of the postoperative patient. What
does ongoing assessment of the surgical site involve?
A) Adherence of the dressing to the wound
B) Discoloration
C) Blanching
D) Granulation of the wound
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 7
Feedback: Ongoing assessment of the surgical site involves inspection for approximation of
wound edges, integrity of sutures or staples, redness, discoloration, warmth, swelling, unusual
tenderness, or drainage. The area around the wound should also be inspected for a reaction to
tape or trauma from tight bandages. Materials used for dressings generally do not adhere to the
wound. Blanching would only be possible if the area around the wound were reddened or
discolored, which is a visual assessment and does not require touching the wound area.
Granulation of the wound cannot be assessed without reopening the wound, so it is not done.
36. In portable wound suction, the use of gentle, constant suction enhances drainage of these
fluids and collapses the skin flaps against the underlying tissue, thus removing “dead space.”
Which of the following is a portable suction device?
A) Penrose
B) Chest tube
C) Jackson-Pratt
D) Hemodynavac
Ans: C
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 5
Feedback: Types of wound drains include the Penrose, Hemovac, and Jackson-Pratt drains.
A Penrose drain and a chest tube are not portable suction devices. There is no such thing as a
Hemodynavac.
Multiple Selection
37. The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who needs daily dressing changes. The patient
is 3 days post-op and should be going home the next day. Up until now, the patient has refused to
learn how to change her dressing. What would indicate to the nurse the patient's readiness to
learn how to change her dressing? (Mark all that apply.)
A) The patient wants you to teach a family member to do dressing changes.
B) The patient expresses interest in the dressing change.
C) The patient looks at the incision.
D) The patient expresses dislike of the surgical wound.
E) The patient assists in opening the packages of dressing material for the nurse.
Ans: B, C, E
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 6
Feedback: While changing the dressing, the nurse has an opportunity to teach the patient how to
care for the incision and change the dressings at home. The nurse observes for indicators of the
patient's readiness to learn, such as looking at the incision, expressing interest, or assisting in the
dressing change. Options A and D do not indicate willingness to learn how to change the
dressing.
Multiple Choice
38. The nursing instructor is talking with a group of medical-surgical students about deep vein
thrombosis (DVT). A student asks what factors contribute to the formation of a DVT. What
would be the instructor's best response?
A) “There is a genetic link in the formation of deep vein thrombi.”
B) “Hypervolemia is a contributory factor to deep vein thrombi.”
C) “There are no factors that contribute to the formation of deep vein thrombi; they just occur.”
D) “Dehydration is a contributory factor to the formation of deep vein thrombi.”
Ans: D
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: D-3
Objective: 3
Feedback: The stress response that is initiated by surgery inhibits the fibrinolytic system,
resulting in blood hypercoagulability. Dehydration, low cardiac output, blood pooling in the
extremities, and bed rest add to the risk of thrombosis formation.
39. The home health nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who was discharged home on
day 2 after surgery. The nurse is making her initial visit on the patient's post-op day 3. The nurse
will assess for wound infection. Generally speaking, what is the latest post-op day that a wound
infection may become evident?
A) Day 6
B) Day 5
C) Day 4
D) Day 3
Ans: B
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: 5
Feedback: Wound infection may not be evident until at least postoperative day 5. This makes
the other options incorrect.
40. You are caring for an 88-year-old patient who is recovering from an ileac-femoral bypass
graft. The patient is 2 days post-op and has been mentally intact. When you assess the patient,
you find he is confused and has disturbed sleep patterns and impaired psychomotor skills. What
would you suspect is the problem with the patient?
A) Postoperative delirium
B) Postoperative dementia
C) Senile dementia
D) Senile confusion
Ans: A
Chapter: 20
Client Needs: A-1
Objective: 4
Feedback: Postoperative delirium, characterized by confusion, perceptual and cognitive deficits,

altered attention levels, disturbed sleep patterns, and impaired psychomotor skills, is a significant
problem for older adults. Options B and C are incorrect; dementia does not have a sudden onset.
Senile confusion is only a distractor, so option D is incorrect.

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1.

The school health nurse is presenting a health-promotion class to a group of middle-school

Feedback: Doxorubicin hydrochloride is a chemotherapeutic vessicant that can cause severe

38. What is the most important focus of hospice care?

Feedback: Communicating about a life-threatening diagnosis should be done in a team setting at

Feedback: The time of death is generally preceded by a period of gradual diminishment of

22. Palliative care is based on interdisciplinary collaboration. How does interdisciplinary

Feedback: Interdisciplinary collaboration, which is different from multidisciplinary practice, is

Feedback: Because of additional Medicare rules concerning completion of all cure-focused

Feedback: Uncomplicated grief and mourning are characterized by emotional feelings of

Therefore, options A and E are incorrect.

Feedback: Purposes of preadmission testing (PAT): verifying completion of preoperative

28. When does the preoperative phase of perioperative nursing begin?

29. When does the postoperative phase of perioperative nursing end?

Feedback: The mildest symptoms or slightest temperature elevation must be investigated.

Feedback: In an emergency, it may be necessary for the surgeon to operate as a lifesaving

42. What does outpatient surgery teaching include?

Feedback: The primary objective in the immediate postoperative period is to maintain

Feedback: Hypertension is common in the immediate postoperative period secondary to

Feedback: The primary objective in the immediate postoperative period is to maintain

Feedback: Hypostatic pulmonary congestion, caused by a weakened cardiovascular system that

Feedback: Postoperative delirium, characterized by confusion, perceptual and cognitive deficits,

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