Module: PSW Foundations

1. If you make a mistake when caring for a resident, you should:

a. Try to fix the mistake before anyone finds out about it
b. Blame it on the person who was helping you
c. Admit the mistake at once
d. Report the mistake only if it caused the resident serious harm
2. Knocking and requesting to enter a client’s room supports the client’s right to:
a. Confidentiality
b. Privacy
c. Assistance
d. Services
3. Health care that provides for a short stay (usually a day or a week) and is intended to
diagnose and treat an immediate health issue is:
a. Chronic
b. Palliative
c. Hospice
d. Acute
4. Professionalism involves:
a. Discussing a problem you have with a client in a cafeteria
b. Reporting to the nurse in charge each time you leave the unit
c. Waiting for someone else to answer the call-bell
d. Removing the call bell of a resident who is always ringing it
5. Critical thinking is best described as:
a. A supervisory role
b. A management style
c. An inventory control
d. A creative problem solving technique
6. Which one of the following is responsible for the development and administration of their
own health care insurance plan?
a. Province
b. Municipality
c. Territory
d. Both a and c
7. Upholding and promoting ‘The Resident’s Bill of Rights’ for residents of long-term care
facilities is the responsibility of:
a. Only doctors, nurses and administrators
b. All workers and professionals in the long-term care institution
c. The activity departments of long-term institutions
d. Only the director of nursing
8. Gender-related comments about an individual’s physical characteristics or mannerisms
including unwelcome physical contact, offensive remarks, or innuendoes would be
violations of the:
 a. Regulated Health Protectors Act
b. Human Rights Code
c. Federal Health Act
d. Health Disciplines Act
9. According to Maslow, oxygen, water, and food are:
a. Safety and security needs
b. Physiological needs
c. Self-esteem needs
d. Self-actualization needs
10. Which one of the following is not considered a physiological need?
a. Oxygen
b. Food
c. Safety
d. Rest
11. The state of feeling worthy, valued, and respected is:
a. Compassion
b. Dignity
c. Assertiveness
d. Aggression
12. The state of well being in all dimensions of one’s life refers to:
a. Health
b. Stigma
c. Prognosis
d. Holism
13. When planning care for several residents, the caregiver should first assist the resident
who needs to:
a. Talk
b. Void
c. Walk
d. Dress
14. An assessment completed to determine the care needs and assistance with Activities of
Daily Living, for the specific client, refers to their:
a. Resident sheet
b. Admissions form
c. Unique number
d. Care plan
15. To demonstrate respect and consideration in meeting the needs of clients and families of
different cultural backgrounds, the PSW should:
a. Recognize that all people from a culture eat the same foods
b. Know that all people from a culture behave in the same way
c. Ask the client and family about their cultural practices and beliefs
d. Ask the client’s doctor about the client’s cultural beliefs
16. Values, beliefs, habits, likes, dislikes, and characteristics of a group passed from one
generation to the next refers to:
 a. Religion
b. Traditions
c. Customs
d. Culture
17. A health care facility or community program for individuals dying of a terminal illness is
called a:
a. Hospice
b. Community wellness centre
c. Long-term health care facility
d. Rehabilitation centre
18. To make an unfair or preferred choice or distinction refers to:
a. Discrimination
b. Allegation
c. Confirmation
d. Affirmation
19. Temporary care of a person with a serious illness or disability that gives the regular
caregiver a break from their duties is:
a. Respite care
b. Chronic care
c. Acute care
d. Palliation
20. In a community setting, who usually assesses, monitors, and evaluates the client’s
needs and coordinates the services of the health care team?
a. The family physician
b. The case manager
c. The occupational therapist
d. The social worker
21. What is the correct action to take if you are ill and cannot go to work?
a. Go to work since you know your team is busy
b. Call in as soon as possible and explain the situation
c. Call your co-worker and ask her to report your illness
d. Do no call in but stay at home because your supervisor knows you were sick
yesterday
22. Giving responsibility of non-controlled acts refers to:
a. Delegation
b. Assignment
c. Standing orders
d. Transfer of function
23. Which one of the following is a subjective symptom?
a. Skin breakdown
b. A temperature of 37.1oC
c. Pain and discomfort
d. A pulse rate of 79
 24. Mrs. Jones asks you to perform a function which extends beyond the scope of your
responsibility and training. You should:
a. Perform the function with extra caution
b. Advise the client that you are not trained to perform that skill and report the request
to your supervisor
c. Call a co-worker and ask her how to do the skill
d. Ask Mrs. Jones to tell you how to perform that skill
25. According to Maslow, experiencing one’s potential fulfills which need?
a. Love and belonging
b. Physical security
c. Self actualization
d. Safety and security
26. By encouraging their clients to carry out the activities of daily living that they are able to
do on their own, the PSW is helping to meet the client’s need for:
a. Dependence and love
b. Independence and self-esteem
c. Cultural practices
d. Relying on others
27. To discuss or record only information essential for treatment and to keep all such
information private refers to:
a. Confidentiality
b. Self-esteem
c. Team support
d. Ethics
28. H.S. care is performed:
a. In the morning
b. In the afternoon
c. Before dinner
d. Before bedtime

Module: Safety and Mobility

29. Mrs. Smith is to be transferred from the bed to the wheelchair. She should wear firm
non-skid shoes to:
a. Provide a good base of support
b. Make her more steady on her feet
c. Prevent slipping or sliding on the floor
d. Provide strength on her weak side
30. A multipurpose fire extinguisher can be used on:
a. Class A and B fires
b. Class B and C fires
c. Class A and C fires
d. Class A, B, and C fires
31. What is the first responsibility of the PSW when fire is detected?
a. Alert the fire department
b. Contain the fire
c. Remove the client
d. Extinguish the fire
32. Skeletal muscles are:
a. Under voluntary control
b. Under involuntary control
c. Smooth in appearance
d. Striped and smooth
33. The largest bones in the arm and the leg are the:
a. Ulna/fibula
b. Radius/fibula
c. Radius/tibia
d. Humerus/femur
34. Healthcare associated infections (HCI) or Nosocomial infections are:
a. Caused by eating contaminated food
b. Insignificant and do not need to be treated
c. A type of sinus infection
d. Acquired after admission to a hospital or long-term health care facility
35. Which one of the following is not considered a physical restraint?
a. Seat belts
b. Side rails
c. Walker
d. Gen chair
36. Mrs. Smith is to be transferred from the bed to the commode. She should wear:
a. Nothing on her feet
b. Socks
c. Slippers
d. Firm non skid shoes
37. When using proper hand washing technique, the PSW should:
a. Rinse with water
b. Rinse with the finger tips pointing down
c. Use hot water
d. Turn off the faucets with a gloved hand
38. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, and protozoa are all forms of:
a. Infection control meaures
b. Foot fungi
c. Plaque or tartar
d. Microorganisms
39. Isolation precautions:
a. Prevent all infections
b. Destroy pathogens
c. Prevent the spread of communicable diseases
 d. Destroy pathogens and non pathogens
40. We can see microorganisms with the:
a. Human eye
b. Microscope
c. Telescope
d. Ophthalmoscope
41. Fowler’s position is:
a. Used to relax tense abdominal muscles allowing for improves breathing in clients
b. The back lying position
c. Used for people with respiratory and heart disorders
d. Both a and c
42. The use of the body in an efficient and careful manner refers to proper body:
a. Segments
b. Alignment
c. Base of support
d. Mechanics
43. When using a cane, it should be:
a. Positioned on the affected or weaker side
b. Positioned on the unaffected or strong side
c. Alternated, first on one side, then the other
d. Held on the side the resident prefers
44. Personal protective equipment includes:
a. Gloves, gowns, masks, goggles
b. Aprons, booties, gloves
c. Eye shields, aprons, masks
d. All of the above
45. Two people should logroll a client when:
a. The client has an arthritic spine or knees
b. The client is recovering from hip fractures
c. Positioning any client in bed
d. Both a and b
46. Which of the following is not a long bone of the body?
a. Femur
b. Tibia
c. Humerus
d. Patella
47. When microbes have been reduced in numbers, which one of the following has
occurred?
a. Sterilization
b. Disinfection
c. Contamination
d. Out break
48. Muscles are attached to bones by:
a. Ligaments
 b. Fascia
c. Other muscles
d. Tendons
49. Falls are most likely to occur:
a. During the daytime
b. During the evening
c. When bedside care is given
d. When family members are present

Module: Body Systems

50. Which of the following is not a temperature site?

a. Tympanic membrane
b. Oral cavity
c. Occipital lobe
d. Axilla
51. The bones in the wrist are the:
a. Tarsals
b. Metatarsals
c. Phalanges
d. Carpals
52. Respiratory tract infection also referred to as the flu, is:
a. Hypertension
b. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
c. Influenza
d. Hepatitis
53. There are _______ paired chromosomes in a cell.
a. 12
b. 23
c. 46
d. 206
54. White blood cells are called:
a. Hemoglobin
b. Leukocytes
c. Plates
d. Erythrocytes
55. Short bones:
a. Bear the weight of the body
b. Allow skill and ease in movement
c. Protect the organs
d. Are the vertebrae in the spinal column
56. The medical term for the breast bone is:
a. Femur
 b. Sternum
c. Humerus
d. Patella
57. The pituitary gland, the thyroid gland, the pancreas are all part of the:
a. Reproductive system
b. Endocrine system
c. Circulatory system
d. Respiratory system
58. Which keeps the skin soft and shiny, with the secretion of oil?
a. Sebaceous glands
b. Nail beds
c. Hair shafts
d. Sweat ducts
59. The anatomical name for the shin bone is the:
a. Ulna
b. Tibia
c. Clavicle
d. Phalanges
60. The malleus, incus and stapes are the three ossicles of the:
a. Eye
b. Ear
c. Nose
d. Throat
61. The basic working unit of the kidney is the:
a. Villi
b. Glomerulus
c. Nephron
d. Bowman’s capsule
62. The male gonads are:
a. Penis
b. Testicles
c. Vas deferens
d. Scrotum
63. The five senses are:
a. Vision, hearing, touch, smell, taste
b. Vision, ambulation, hearing, taste, touch
c. Feeding, vision, ambulation, dressing, communication
d. Eyes, ears, mouth, nose, stomach
64. This type of tissue anchors, connects and supports other body tissues:
a. Muscle
b. Nerve
c. Epithelial
d. Connective
Module: Assisting the Family, Growth & Development

65. When holding a newborn infant you should:

a. Hold him securely
b. Cuddle him
c. Handle with gentle smooth movements
d. All of the above
66. An inflammation of the clear membrane that covers the white part of the eye and lines of
the inner surface of the eyelids and is commonly referred to as pink eye is called:
a. Otitis media
b. Gastroenteritis
c. Conjunctivitis
d. Reye’s syndrome
67. Severe problems with social interaction, parental bonding, attachment, and general lack
of reasoning ability are all associated with:
a. Spina bifida
b. Autism
c. Cerebral palsy
d. Epilepsy
68. Hormonal changes during the menopause result in all of the following except for one:
a. Thinning and dryness of vaginal wall
b. An end to menstruation
c. A loss of sexual needs and desires
d. Atrophy of reproductive organs
69. To respect your client’s sexuality, you need to do all of the following except one:
a. Accept the client’s sexual relationship
b. Allow your client to have privacy
c. Encourage them to refrain from displaying public affection
d. Respect your client’s clothes and grooming routines
70. The average newborn baby weighs:
a. 4 and a half pounds
b. 7 and a half pounds
c. 10 pounds 12 pounds
71. Mom, Dad, and your siblings are all part of your:
a. Nuclear family
b. Extended family
c. Single parent family
d. Descendant family
72. Developmental disabilities:
a. Occur prior to birth
b. Can result problems with learning
c. Occur in adulthood
d. Both a and b
 73. You arrive at the client’s home at the scheduled time and she won’t let you in. She says
the last support worker was too slow, so she doesn’t want any help. What should you
do?
a. Call your supervisor from the nearest phone
b. Explain to her that you would like to discuss what she would like done and when
c. Go to your next client and document the situation
d. Tell her to call you when she is ready to let you in
74. Which is not a developmental task of adolescence?
a. Accepting change in appearance
b. Becoming independent from parents and adults
c. Developing leisure time activities
d. Developing morals, values, and attitudes needed to function in society
75. When burping a baby all of the following are correct except for one:
a. Breast fed babies are burped after nursing at each breast
b. Bottle fed babies are burped once after taking all of the formula
c. Burping a baby helps get rid of the swallowed air
d. Burping a baby usually takes 3 to 5 minutes
76. Aging begins at:
a. Birth
b. Adolescence
c. 40 years old
d. 60 years old
77. All of the following are physical changes of the Nervous System that occur with aging
except one:
a. Senses of taste and smell may become dull
b. Brain cells shrink and blood flow to the brain is reduced
c. Sleep patterns may change with age
d. There is less strength to cough

Module: Cognitive & Mental Health Issues

78. An exaggerated belief about one’s own importance, wealth, or power is called:
a. An allusion
b. A delusion of persecution
c. A hallucination
d. A delusion of grandeur
79. The three meninges that surround the brain are:
a. Dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater
b. Ligaments, tendons, and cartilage
c. Veins, arteries, and capillaries
d. Neurons, dendrites, and electrolytes
80. A phobia is:
a. A compulsion
 b. An unreasonable fear
c. A symptom of depression
d. Common in people with dementia
81. Dementia often develops in persons with:
a. Angina pectoris
b. Bulimia
c. A.I.D.S.
d. Spinal cord injuries
82. A lack of regard for legal or moral standards, in the local culture or marked inability to get
along with others or abide by society laws is known as:
a. Antisocial personality disorder
b. Borderline personality disorder
c. Histrionic personality disorder
d. Narcissistic personality disorder
83. The fatty covering that insulates nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord is called:
a. The SA node
b. Axon
c. Electrolytes
d. Myelin
84. The brain is connected to the spinal cord by the:
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebral cortex
c. Cerebrum
d. Brainstem
85. A lack of interest, emotional well-being, enthusiasm or concern, which appears as
indifferent is:
a. Empathy
b. Sympathy
c. Apathy
d. Apraxia
86. Preventing and managing aggression includes:
a. Removing people from danger
b. Removing potential weapons
c. Encouraging clients to talk about their feelings
d. All of the above
87. It is important to closely monitor a client with dementia because they:
a. May be more at risk of accident and injury to self and others
b. Shouldn’t mix with other residents
c. Must follow their doctor’s orders
d. Are not allowed to leave their room
88. Persons with Alzheimer’s disease:
a. Have poor judgment
b. Lose impulse control and have difficulty with communication
c. May wander or have hallucinations
 d. All of the above
89. A false belief of being persecuted or of being superior to everyone else is a:
a. Hallucination
b. Obsession
c. Delusion
d. Defense mechanism
90. Conditions that start with physical symptoms but will progress to dementia are:
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Huntington’s disease
c. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
d. All of the above
91. When the elderly feel good about themselves they are:
a. Cognitive
b. Cognitively impaired
c. Demented
d. Emotionally healthy
92. Anorexia Nervosa is:
a. A type of panic attack
b. Another name for stuttering
c. A type of eating disorder
d. A brain tumor
93. When a client talks of suicide intent, which is false:
a. Always take the person seriously
b. Report to your supervisor
c. Be a good listener
d. Use phrases like ‘things will work out’
94. The spinal cord if protected by the:
a. Vertebral column
b. Skull
c. Cranium
d. Coccyx
95. When a person is confused, which food substance is thought to increase restlessness,
confusion, and agitation?
a. Fats
b. Caffeine
c. Dairy products
d. Salt
96. A person in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease may accuse the PSW of stealing an
item because they:
a. Are paranoid
b. Don’t like caregivers
c. Have forgotten what they did with it
d. Like to play jokes
 97. When myelin is damaged, transmission of messages may be slowed or blocking
resulting in which one of the following conditions?
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Huntington’s disease
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Acquired brain injury
98. A fear of leaving home is called:
a. Agoraphobia
b. Alto phobia
c. Mania phobia
d. Arachnophobia
99. Dopamine is often found in low amounts in which one of the following disorders?
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Huntington’s disease
c. Pick’s disease
d. Lewy body dementia

Module: Care Planning/Restorative Care/Documentation/ Working in the Community

100. A state of illness that comes on suddenly and may be of short duration is:
a. Chronic
b. Acute
c. Overt
d. Congenital
101. Passive range of motion exercises primarily prevent:
a. Joint contractures
b. Pressure ulcers
c. Muscle atrophy
d. Muscle spasms
102. A pulse that skips every fourth beat is called:
a. Normal
b. Irregular
c. Bounding
d. Consistent
103. The best time to take a resident’s vital signs is:
a. During their recreation program
b. While the resident is in the bathtub
c. After the resident has returned from a walk
d. When the resident has just rested
104. When feeding a client, which one of the following is the correct procedure?
a. The caregiver should feed the client as rapidly as possible so the food doesn’t get
cold
b. A spoon is used to feed the dependent resident
 c. The resident’s food should be mixed together to enhance the taste
d. Engage the resident in a conversation while eating
105. Mr. Evans ate and drank everything on his dinner tray, which included jello, milk, bread,
meat, peas, coffee, and ice cream. Which of the items would be recorded as liquids?
a. Milk and coffee only
b. All foods and fluids
c. Jello, milk, peas and coffee
d. Jello, milk, coffee and ice cream
106. Which one of the following terms refers to no control of bladder and bowels?
a. Incontinent
b. Inconsistent
c. Incompetence
d. Incomplete
107. Which one of the following makes an excellent support for the hand while in the sitting
position?
a. Pillow
b. Washcloth
c. Sheet
d. Sling
108. When measuring urine output from a drainage bag, the PSW should:
a. Rest the bag on the floor and remove the clamp
b. Empty the drainage bag into a graduate and then measure the output
c. Use the markings on the side of the bag to measure the output
d. Drain the bag directly into the toilet and flush it immediately
109. The benefits of exercise to the older person include:
a. Improved digestion
b. Increased muscle mass
c. Improved sleep
d. All of the above
110. Footboards are places at the foot of the mattress to prevent:
a. Plantar extension
b. Plantar flexion
c. Normal alignment
d. pain
111. The amount of fluid a resident may have will be recorded over which period of time?
a. 2 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 1 week
112. An external urinary drainage catheter can be left on for:
a. 20 minutes
b. 2 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 24 hours or longer
113. You have just told your client that you will be back in 15 minutes to take their
temperature. Why have you decided to wait?
a. They are listening to a favorite CD
b. They are having foot care done
c. They have just finished a cigarette
d. They have just gone to bed
114. Drainage is another term for:
a. A discharge from the body
b. An infection of the body
c. A suctioning device
d. An arch in the oral cavity