2nd MB Final Sem Paper-1

NILRATAN SIRCAR MEDICAL COLLEGE

STUDENTS’ UNION
presents
Sorted out Semester Papers

of
3RD, 4TH & 5TH Semester 2016
from
All colleges of W.B.U.H.S
All the best for

nd
2 Professional MBBS!
1 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

PHARMACOLOGY SORTED SEMESTER QUESTION

GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS( 10 marks)
• What is biotransformation? Enumerate different types of biotransformation. What are the
objectives of biotransformation? What are the genetic variations affecting biotransformation.
(2+3+2+3=10) (CNMC)
• Classify different types of receptors with example. Define agonist and antagonist. What are different
types of drug antagonism, explain with example. (4+2+4=10) (SDMC)
• Enumerate the factors that modify drug actions with suitable examples. Mention the advantages of
Log Dose Response curve over dose response curve. Define efficacy and potency and show how we
can compare efficacy and potency of two drugs from their Log Dose Response curve. (5+2+2+1=10)
(ESIJ)
• What are the different routes of drug administration? Give examples. What are the advantages and
disadvantages of intravenous and inhalation routes.(4+2+4) (IQ CITY)
• What do you mean by bioavailability of drugs? Mention the factors that influence bioavailability.
Write down the significance of bioavailability. How is the bioavailability of an orally administered
drug measured? (2+4+2+2) (MALDA MC) (RGKAR MC)
• Write in brief on the factors modifying absorption of a drug. Define Pharmacovigilance. (4+4=8)
(MCK)
• Define apparent volume of distribution. Name two drugs with high volume of distribution and two
drugs with low volume of distribution. What is the therapeutic importance of apparent volume of
distribution? (3+2+5=10) (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Enumerate parenteral routes of drug administration. Mention the advantages and disadvantages of
oral and intravenous routes. Write how the high and low rectal route affects the bioavailability of
drug. (2+3+3+2=10) (NBMC)
• What is biotransformation and what is its purpose? State the chemical reactions involved in
biotransformation. What is meant by microsomal enzyme induction and what is its clinical
implication? (1+5+4=10) (IPGMER)
• Define drug antagonism. Describe the different types of drug antagonism with example. Describe
the difference between competitive and non-‐competitive receptor antagonism. (2+4+4=10)
(MALDA MC)

EXPLAIN WHY( 3 marks)
• Intravenous route is the route of emergency. ( BURDWAN MC) (ESI JOKA)
• GTN is given in sublingual route to manage acute attack of angina pectoris. (ESI JOKA)
• Acidic drugs are absorbed better in acidic medium and basic drugs in alkaline
• Volume of distribution of drug is always apparent. (MIDNAPORE MC)
• Competitive antagonists are safer drugs than non-‐competitive antagonists. (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Age should be considered while calculating the dose. (NBMC)
• Tolerance and resistance are not the same. (NBMC)
• Some drugs are administered as loading dose and some are administered in twice or three times.
(NRSMC)
• Drugs need to be prescribed with extra caution during pregnancy. (IPGMER)
• Alkalinisation of urine is done in management of acidic drug poisoning. (ICARE)
• Eliciting medical history is important for rational therapeutics. (BURDWAN MC)

MECHANISM OF ACTION (3 marks)
• Genetic variation in Phase II metabolism of drugs. (IPGMER)
• Mechanism of toxicity of drugs that follow zero order kinetics. (ESI JOKA)


SHORT NOTES (3marks)
• Essential drugs. (CNMC) (NRSMC) (RGKAR) (MIDNAPORE MC)
• Plasma half-‐life. ( BURDWAN MC) (KPC)
• Loading dose. ( BURDWAN MC) (KPC) (NBMC) (RG KAR)
• 1st pass effect. (BSMC)
• Essential drug concept. (BSMC)
• Competitive antagonism. (BSMC)
• Enzyme induction. (BSMC)
• 1st order kinetics of drug elimination. (SDMC)
• Volume of distribution. (ESI JOKA) (CNMC)
• Teratogenicity. (ESI JOKA) (IQ CITY) (KPC)
• Drug antagonism. (ICARE) (MIDNAPORE MC) (NRSMC) (NBMC)
• Sublingual route of drug administration. (ICARE) (MIDNAPORE MC) (RGKAR)
• Bioavailability. (ICARE) (KPC)
• Phase 1 clinical trial. (KPC)
• Plasma protein binding of drugs. (KPC)
• Therapeutic index. ( MALDA MC) (KPC) (MIDNAPORE MC)
• Transdermal therapeutic system (TTS). (MALDA MC)
• Advantages and disadvantages of I.V. route. (MALDA MC)
• Zero order kinetics. (MALDA MC) (RGKAR)
• Idiosyncrasy. (MALDA MC)
• Enzyme linked receptor. (MCK)
• Clinical trial. (MIDNAPORE MC)
• G protein coupled receptor. (MIDNAPORE MC) (NBMC)
• Ion channel receptors-‐ structure and function. (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Biotransformation and its clinical importance. (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• New drug development. (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Redistribution of drug. ( NBMC)
• Super infection. (NBMC)
• Differences between competitive and non-‐competitive antagonism. (IPGMER)
• Renal elimination of drugs. (IPGMER)
• Intravenous route of drug administration. (IPGMER)
• Therapeutic adherence. ( IPGMER)
• Pharmacovigilance. (RGKAR) (BSMC)
• Apparent volume of distribution. (RGKAR)
• Pharmacogenetics. (CNMC)
• Prodrug. (CNMC)
• Therapeutic drug monitoring. ( KPC) (NRSMC)
• Rational prescription. (BSMC)
• Importance of volume of distribution in clinical practice. ( BSMC)
• Your role as a medical student in promoting Institutional Pharmacovigilance Programme. (ESI JOKA)
• Half-‐life of a drug. (MURSHIDABAD MC) (MALDA MC)
• Clearance. (MCK) (RG KAR)
• Essential medicine. (KALYANI JNM)
• Spurious drugs. (KALYANI JNM)
• Hit and run drug. (KALYANI JNM)


ANS
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (10 marks)
• Enumerate cholinergic drugs. Narrate their indications. Why Acetylcholine is not used as a drugin
clinical practice? (4+5+1) (CNMC)
• Classify beta-‐adrenergic receptor blockers. Mention their therapeutic uses. What maybe the
adverse effects? (4+3+3) (BURDWAN MC) (ICARE)
• ++ name the shortest acting beta blocker. (1) (ESI JOKA)
• Enumerate beta blockers. Give two cardiovascular and two non-‐ cardiovascular indications of beta
blockers giving rationale of their use. (2+8) (BSMC)
• Enumerate peripheral muscle relaxants. Mention 4 differences between depolarizing and non-‐
depolarizing skeletal muscle relaxants. Mention their uses and how can you reverse the effect of
non-‐depolarizing muscle relaxants. (4+2+2+2) (SDMC)
• Enumerate cholinergic drugs and discuss their therapeutic effects and uses. (4+6) (ICARE)
• How will you treat a case of organophosphorus poisoning? What is the duration of the therapy?
(8+2) (KPC)
• Enumerate alpha-‐blockers. Mention the indications and adverse effects of alpha blockers. Mention
the role of Phentolamine on Pheochromocytoma. (3+3+4) (MIDNAPORE MC) (CNMC)
• Outline the pharmacological management of Myasthenia gravis along with reasons of using these
drugs. Mention why Edrophonium is used in the diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis? (2+6+2) (NBMC)
• Enumerate cholinomimetic agents. Mention the rationality of using cholinergic drugs in Myasthenia
gravis. How can we differentiate between Cholinergic crisis and Myasthenic crisis? (4+4+2) (NRSMC)
• Mention the cholinergic receptors with their important locations. Name the clinical uses of atropine
sulphate and uses of individual atropine substitutes. (4+6) (RGKAR)
• Enumerate atropine substitutes. Justify the use of atropine substitutes in two different clinical
conditions. How will you treat a patient of atropine overdose? (3+5+2) (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Enumeratethe drugs used in the treatment of chronic open angle glaucoma. Write down the
mechanism of action of beta blockers and sympathomimetics as anti-‐glaucoma agent. (4+2+2)
(MCK)
• Discuss briefly the uses of atropine or its substitutes involving the ocular, respiratory, urinary and
cardiovascular systems. In aclinical setting, why is neostigmine therapeutically more useful than
acetylcholine? Enumerate (and justify) clinical conditions where propanolol is over carvedilol and
vice versa. 1.5*4 +1+3 (ESI JOKA)

EXPLAIN WHY (3 marks)

• Adrenaline is used in anaphylactic shock. (CNMC) (SDMC) (MALDA MC) (NRSMC) (KPC)
• Propanolol should be avoided in bronchial asthma. (CNMC)
• Glycopyrrolate is preferred over atropine in pre-‐anaesthetic medication. (BURDWAN MC) (ESI JOKA)
• Timolol is preferred agent in chronic simple glaucoma. (BSMC)
• Ephedrine use shows the phenomenon of tachyphylaxis. (BSMC)
• Tamsulosine is commonly used in benign hypertrophy of prostate. (BSMC) (RGKAR) (IQ CITY)
• Hyoscine is the most effective drug in motion sickness. (SDMC)
• Oximes are used within 24 hrs of OP poisoning. (IQCITY)
• Adrenaline is mixed with local anaesthetics. (IQ CITY)
• Atropine is used in pre-‐anaesthetic medication. (KPC)
• Acetylcholine is not used clinically as a drug. (MALDA MC)
• Beta blockers are not given alone in treatment of Pheochromocytoma. (MCK)
• Pralidoximeos used in organophosphorus poisoning. (MIDNAPORE MC) (RGKAR)
• Propanololshouldne used after Phenoxybenzamine during preoperative management of
Pheochromocytoma and not vice versa. (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Prazosin should be used at bed time initially. (NBMC)
• Tiotropium bromide is preferable as bronchodialator in COPD. (NBMC)
• Atracurium is preferred in renal and hepatic failure.(NRSMC)

• Atropine like drugs are contraindicated in old age.(IPGMER)
• Pliocarpine is used in acute angle closure glaucoma. (IPGMER)
• High doses of atropine in OP poisoning. (CNMC)
• Neostigmine and not physostigmine is used in myasthenia gravis. (CNMC)
• Dantrolene is used in malignant hyperthermia. (KPC)
• Propranolol has reduced oral bioavailability. (SDMC)
• Atenolol as anti-‐hypertensive drug. (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Non selective beta blockers are given in diabetic patients. (MCK)
• Non selective beta blockers are contraindicated in variant angina. (MALDA MC)
• Beta blockers are used in congestive heart failure. (NBMC)
• Pralidoxime is not used in carbamate poisoning. (RG KAR)
• Atracurium is preferred muscle relaxant in patients with hepatic insufficiency. (RG KAR)
• Succinylcholines sometimes produce prolonged apnoea. (BURDWAN MC)
• Sudden withdrawal of beta blocker use is discouraged. (ICARE)
• Between adrenaline and nor adrenaline, one demonstrates the phenomenon of vasomotor reversal
of Dale, whereas the other does not. (ESI JOKA)

MECHANISM OF ACTION(3marks)
• Atracurium is a muscle relaxant. (CNMC)
• Tamsulosin in benign prostatic hypertrophy. (CNMC)
• Adrenaline as haemostatic agent. (BURDWAN MC)
• Pliocarpine in glaucoma. (BURDWAN MC)
• Tiotropium bromide in COPD. (SDMC) (MALDA MC)
• Pliocarpine in angle closure glaucoma. (ESI JOKA) (MALDA MC) (MIDNAPORE MC)
• Treatment of OP poisoning. (ICARE)
• Treatment of Myasthenia gravis. (ICARE)
• Treatment of motion sickness. (ICARE)
• Miotics in glaucoma. (IQ CITY)
• Succinylcholine as a skeletal muscle relaxant. (MCK) (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Atropine as pre anaesthetic medication. (MIDNAPORE MC)
• Beta blockers as anti-‐hypertensive drugs. (MIDNAPORE MC) (ESI JOKA)
• Timolol in chronic glaucoma. (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Oximes in OP poisoning. (IPGMER)
• Anticholinesterase agents in myasthenia gravis. (IPGMER)
• Pralidoxime in OP compound poisoning. (RGKAR) (MIDNAPORE MC)
• Succinylcholine. (MALDA MC)
• Tizanidine as a muscle relaxant. (ESI JOKA)
• Adrenaline in anaphylactic shock (ESI JOKA)
• Darifenacin in increased frequency of micturition. ( Nbmc)

• Neostigmine. (BURDWAN MC)
• Pralidoxime. (BSMC)
• Pre-‐anaesthetic medication. (SDMC)
• Selective beta 2 agonists. (ICARE)
• Phenoxybenzamine. (IQ CITY)
• Use of anticholinesterases in myasthenia gravis.(ICARE)
• Somatic vs ANS. (KALYANI JNM)
• Anti-‐adrenergic vs adrenergic neuron blocking drugs. (KALYANI JNM)
• Anticholinesterases in Alzheimer’s disease. (MCK)
• Drug therapy of anaphylactic shock. (MURSHIDABAD MC)

• Glycopyrrolate. (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Dopamine. (NBMC)
• Carvedilol. (RG KAR) (SDMC)
• Succinylcholine apnoea. (KPC) (NBMC)
• Nicotine receptor. (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Atropine substitutes. (NRSMC)
• Cardio selective beta blockers. (IQ CITY)

CNS
• Enumerate opoids. Mention pharmacological actions of opoids. Describe the management of
morphine withdrawal.(4+4+2) (NRSMC)
• A 23 yr old woman presents to the emergency with tonic-‐clonic seizure activity continuing for over
30 min. Her father informs that she is a known epileptic for last 3 years but has discontinued her
medication about 6 months back. What is the likely diagnosis? How will you treat this case? State
the adverse effects of Phenytoin therapy. (1+5+4) (IPGMER)
• Enumerate anti-‐epileptic agent. Which one of them can be used in epilepsy and cardiac arrhythmia?
Mention MOA and side effects of valproic acid. (3+1+3+3) (SDMC)
• Enumerate the drugsused in Parkinson’s disease. Mentionthe pharmacological basis of each drug.
Explain the on off phenomenon. Why pyridoxine is contraindicated along with L-‐Dopa but indicated
with anti-‐tubercular drug? (2+2+2+2+2) (IQ CITY)
• Enumerate antiepileptic drugs. How sodium valproate is useful in treatment of epilepsy? What is the
current status of Benzodiazepines in seizure disorders? Mention two drugs which may induce
convulsion in susceptible individuals. (3+3+3+1) (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Enumerate opoids. Write the MOA and therapeutic uses of morphine. How will you treat a
morphine addicted subject? (3+3+3+1) (NBMC)
• Enumerate the drug acting via GABA-‐A receptor channel complex. Mention therapeutic uses of
individual benzodiazepines. Why benzodiazepines are considered safer hypnotic agents as
compared to barbiturates? (5+2+3) (RGKAR)
• Enumerate the anti-‐epileptic drugs. Explain the MOA of Phenytoin. Enumerate the adverse effects
of Phenytoin. Describe the treatment of status epilepticus. (3+23+2) (BSMC)
• What are pre anaesthetic medications and why are they used? Enumerate the pre anaesthetic
agents. Write down the adverse effects and contraindications of ketamine. (3+2+3+2) (BURDWAN
MC)
• Mention antiparkinsonian drugs. Why levodopa is prescribed with Carbidopa. (4) (KALYANI JNM)
• Discuss the mechanism and side effects of Phenytoin sodium. (4) (KALYANI JNM)
• Mention the therapeutic uses and contraindications of morphine. (4) (KALYANI JNM)
• Anaesthetic agents for ‘day care surgery’. (4) (KALYANI JNM)
• Explain briefly (with appropriate diagrams) four parameters used to assess the pharmacokinetic
aspects of an orally administered drug. Discuss two pharmacodynamic parameters you will use to
compare between two opoid analgesic drugs. Pictorially explain the different types of drug-‐receptor
antagonism. ((1.5*4)+2+2) (ESI JOKA)
• Classify antiepileptic drugs. Describe the MOA as an anticonvulsant. Briefly explain the role of
levitaceram in epileptic patients. Why diazepam is not preferred for routine treatment of epilepsy.
(3+3+2+2) (ESI JOKA)
• Enumerate the drugs used in Parkinson’s disease. Mention the pharmaco-‐therapeutic approach of
Parkinson’s disease. What is on-‐off phenomenon? Write the drug used in induced Parkinsonism with
explanation. (3+3+2+2) (NBMC)

EXPLAIN WHY (3marks)

• Morphine is used in acute left ventricular failure. (CNMC) (BSMC)
• Bromocryptine is the first line drug for hyperprolactinemia. (BURDWAN MC)

• Morphine is contraindicated in head injury. (SDMC) (RGKAR) (MCK)
• Levodopa and Carbidopa are combined to treat Parkinson’s disease. (ESI JOKA) (MURSHIDABAD MC)
(NBMC)
• Adrenaline is mixed with local anaesthetics. (IQ CITY)
• Valproate is effective both in grand mal and petit mal seizures. (KPC)
• Mannitol is used in cerebral edema. (KPC)
• Levodopa is generally not used alone in Parkinsonism. (IPGMER)
• Morphine and not Pentazocine is preferred in the treatment of myocardial infarction.
(MURSHIDABAD MC)
• Thiopentone sodium is used as an inducing agent in general anaesthesia. (NBMC) (ESI JOKA)
• Propofol is used for both induction and maintenance of general anaesthesia. (NRSMC)
• I.V. injection Naloxone is used for Morphine poisoning. (BSMC)
• Benzodiazepines are preferred over barbiturates as hypnotics. (BSMC)
• Adrenaline is often added to lignocaine. (BURDWAN MC) (ICARE)
• Methadone is used in morphine withdrawal.(BSMC) (CNMC)
• Methadone is used in maintenance of opoid dependence. (MALDA MC)
• Thiopentone sodium is not used in maintenance of general anaesthesia. (MALDA MC) (NBMC)
• Lignocaine is a local anaesthetic. (CNMC)
• Tricyclic antidepressants are not preferred in elderly male subjects. (BURDWAN MC)
• L-‐Dopa is not used in treatment of drug induced Parkinsonism. (MIDNAPORE MC)
• Methadone in morphine addicts. (ESI JOKA)

MECHANISM OF ACTION(3marks)
• Sodium valproate as antiepileptic drug. (Cnmc) (Nrsmc) (Midnapore MC) (Kpc) (ICARE)
• Atropine substitute in drug induced Parkinsonism. (Cnmc)
• Lignocaine as local anaesthesia. (Sdmc) (Murshidabad MC) (RG Kar) (Nrsmc) (Cnmc) (Bsmc)
• Midazolam as sedative and hypnotic. (Sdmc)
• Lamotrigine as antiepileptic agent. (Sdmc)
• Flouroxetine as antidepressant. (EsiJoka)
• Morphine as analgesic. (EsiJoka) (Midnapore MC)
• Benzodiazepine as hypnotic. (Kpc) (Mck)
• Phenobarbitone as enzyme inducer. (Kpc)
• Levodopa in Parkinsonism. (Kpc)
• Barbiturates as sedative-‐hypnotic. (Mck)
• Rivastigmine in Alzheimer’s disease. (Murshidabad MC)
• Lithium carbonate as a mood stabiliser. (Nrsmc)
• Enzyme inhibiting anti parkinsonian drugs. (Nrsmc)
• Morphine overdose. (IPGMER)
• Alprazolam in anxiety disorder. (Murshidabad MC) (Burdwan MC)
• Lithium in bipolar disorders. (Murshidabad MC) (RG Kar)
• Valproic acid in general tonic clonic seizure. (Nbmc) (Murshidabad MC) (ICARE)
• Carbidopa. (Burdwan MC)
• Galantamine in Alzheimer’s disease. (Kpc)
• Ethosuximide as an antiepileptic drug. (Cnmc)
• Methadone used in morphine de-‐addiction. (Cnmc)
• Tricyclic antidepressant. (Mck)

SHORT NOTES (3 marks)
• Benzodiazepines. (Cnmc)
• Lithium carbonate. (Cnmc)
• Propofol. (Cnmc) (Mck) (Nrsmc)

• Bupropion. (Sdmc)
• Pre-‐anaesthetic Medication. (Sdmc)
• Halothane. (EsiJoka)
• Diazepam. (EsiJoka)
• Ropinirole. (Mck)
• Use of anti-‐depressants. (IPGMER)
• Olanzapine. (Murshidabad MC)
• Levetiracetam. (Murshidabad MC, MCK)
• Non-‐benzodiazepine sedatives. (Nbmc)
• SSRI. (RG Kar) (Bsmc) (Malda MC) (Cnmc)
• Roles of benzodiazepines and barbiturates in epilepsy management. (EsiJoka)
• Therapeutic indications of drugs acting on dopamine receptors. (EsiJoka)
• Opoid antagonists. (Burdwan MC) (ICARE)
• Lithium. (Burdwan MC)
• Lignocaine.(Bsmc)
• Amantadine. (Cnmc)
• Fentanyl. (Cnmc)
• Spinal anaesthesia. (Kpc)
• Pharmacotherapy of Schizophrenia. (Bsmc)
• Contraindications of morphine. (Malda MC)

AUTACOIDS
• Classify NSAIDs and discuss therapeutic effects, uses and adverse effects of Aspirin. (4+6) (ICARE)
• Classify NSAIDs. What is the basis of their anti-‐inflammatory actions? What are the therapeutic uses
of NSAIDs? (3+3+4)

• Caffeine is combined with Ergotamine in the treatment of acute migraine. (Sdmc)
• Allopurinol is not used to manage pure gout. (EsiJoka) (Mck)
• 2nd generation antihistaminic are preferred over 1st generation allergic conditions. (EsiJoka)
• Low dose of aspirin is usedin post myocardial infarction patients. (ICARE)
• Sumatriptan and Cyproheptadine used for migraine. (Kalyani JNM)
• Aspirin may precipitate bronchial asthma. (Kalyani JNM)
• Prostaglandin analogues are preferred in treatment of NSAID induced peptic ulcer. (Mck)
• Colchicine is used in initial phase of allopurinol therapy. (Cnmc)
• Spironolactone and aspirin are not co-‐administered. (Bsmc)
• Ergometrine should not be used for induction of labour. (Burdwan MC)
• Leucovorinresue is mandatory in methotrexate therapy. (Burdwan MC)
• DMARDs are beneficial in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. (Murshidabad MC)
• Triptans are avoided in elderly patients. (Mck)
• Promethazine but not ondansterone is effective to control nausea and vomiting in motion sickness.
(Murshidabad MC)
• Paracetamol is a good antipyretic but not a very useful anti-‐inflammatory agent. (RG Kar)
• Aspirin is not used in children with viral infection. (Nrsmc)

MECHANISM OF ACTION(3 marks)
• Promethazine in motion sickness. (Burdwan MC)
• Sumatriptan in acute migraine. (Bsmc) (Nbmc) (Nrsmc) (Malda MC)
• Methotrexate as DMARD. (EsiJoka)

• Treatment of acute attack of gout. (ICARE)
• Treatment of acute attack of migraine. (ICARE) (Murshidabad MC)
• Aspirin as antiplatelet action. (IQ City)
• Allopurinol in gout. (Nbmc) (RG Kar)
• Methotrexate in rheumatoid arthritis. (RG Kar)
• Latanoprost in glaucoma. (Cnmc) (Kpc)
• Methotrexate as an anti-‐cancer agent. (Cnmc)
• Prostaglandin analogue in glaucoma. (Burdwan MC)
• NSAIDs as anti-‐inflammatory agent. (ICARE)
• Febuxostat in hyperuricemia. (Mck)


• Cetirizine. (Cnmc)
• DMARDs (ICARE) (Nrsmc)
• 5HT3 antagonists. (ICARE)
• Drugs used in migraine.(IQ City)
• Conventional vs 2nd generation antihistaminic. (Kalyani JNM)
• Drugs used in gout. (Kalyani JNM)
• Methotrexate. (Bsmc) (Murshidabad MC)
• Leukotriene receptor antagonists. (IPGMER)
• Paracetamol as antipyretic. (IPGMER)
• Methotrexate in rheumatoid arthritis. (IPGMER)
• Newer antihistaminics. (Burdwan MC)
• Non-‐analgesic uses of aspirin. (Murshidabad MC)
• Ondansetron (Nbmc)
• Therapeutic usesof aspirin. (Nbmc)

CVS
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS(10 marks)
• Enumerate antianginal drugs. Write down the pharmacological management of Acute Myocardial
Infarction. Give justification of use of each of the drugs. (2+4+4) (Cnmc)
• Enumerate anti-‐hypertensive drugs. Mention the side effects of sulfonylureas. Dicuss the
management of hypertensive emergency. (5+2+3) (Midnapore MC)
• Enumerate the antianginal drugs. Write down the MOA of nitrates in Ischaemic Heart disease. What
do you understand by nitrate tolerance and how do you avoid and overcome it? (4+3+2+1) (Cnmc)
• A 54yr old male presented with a history of exertional dyspnoea and fatigue over last 3 months. The
patient was diagnosed as a case of Congestive heart failure.
• Enumerate the drugs that can be used for the treatment of the patient.
• Mention the group of drugs can cause dry cough as a side effect with reason.
• How will they be helpful in the above mentioned patient?
• Mention the other therapeutic uses and two absolute contraindications of them. (3+2+3+1+1) (RG
Kar)
• Enumerate diuretics. Describe the role of thiazide as an antihypertensive agent. Mention the
contraindication of thiazide. Name the diuretics used in secondary hyperaldosteronism. (3+3+3+1)
(Nrsmc)
• 52 years old male patient brought to the emergency department with the complain of precordial
chest pain for last 3 hours. ECG shoes it to be a case of anterior wall myocardial infarction. Write
down the pharmacological management of the case. Classify different thrombolytic agents. Write
down the different indications and contraindications of thrombolytic therapy. (4+2+2+2) (Sdmc)
• Enumerate anti-‐hypertensives. Write down the MOA of ACE inhibitors as anti-‐hypertensive. What
are the adverse effects of ACE inhibitors? Name two drugs used in hypertensive emergency in
parenteral route. (3+3+3+1) (Burdwan MC)

• Name 6 commonly used drugs for the management of acute myocardial infarction. Justify the uses
of these drugs in this situation. (3+7) (Cnmc)
• Name the drugs used in acute myocardial infarction. Describe the MOA and adverse effects of any
one of them. (4+3+3) (Kpc)
• Enumerate the drugs used in myocardial infarction with acute left ventricular failure. Discuss any
two drugs with their rationality of use in this clinical condition. Justify whether Nifedipine should be
used or not in this patient. (3+5+2) (Murshidabad MC)
• Enumerate the drugs used in the treatment of angina pectoris. Briefly outline the management of
unstable angina. (4+4=8) (Mck)
• Enumerate the drugs used in the management of congestive heart failure. Briefly describe the role
of ACE inhibitors in Congestive Cardiac Failure. Mention the adverse effects and contraindications of
ACE inhibitors. (4+3+3) (ICARE)

• GTN is given in sublingual route to manage acute attack of stable angina pectoris. (EsiJoka) (ICARE)
• Hydrochlorothiazide is used in hypertension. (Kpc)
• Beta blockers are anti-‐hypertensive drugs. (Midnapore MC)
• Dopamine is useful in cardiogenic shock but not hypovolemic shock. (Murshidabad MC) (Nrsmc)
(Midnapore MC) (EsiJoka)
• Calcium channel blockers are not used in treatment of heart failure. (Midnapore MC)
• Thiazide diuretics are useful in treatment of hypertension. (Midnapore MC)
• Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitors is contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis.
(Nbmc)
• Enalapril and spironolactone should not be co-‐administered. (Cnmc)
• ACE inhibitors are used in heart failure. (IPGMER)
• Both alpha adrenergic receptor agonists and receptor antagonists maybe used in treatment of
hypertension. (EsiJoka)
• Between oral and sublingual routes of administration of low dose aspirin, one is preferred over the
other when managing a case of AMI. (EsiJoka)
• Beta blockers are contraindicated in variant angina. (Nrsmc)
• Nitrates are used in angina pectoris. (Burdwan MC)
• Ramipril is preferred as an antihypertensive to diabetes mellitus. (Cnmc)
• Sodium nitroprusside is the preferred drug in hypertensive emergencies. (Kpc)
• ACE inhibitors are better to be avoided in patients of bronchial asthma. (Sdmc)
• ACE inhibitors are routinely prescribed in patients of diabetes mellitus. (Murshidabad MC)
• ACE inhibitors reverse remodelling of heart. (Mck)
• Eplerenone is used in congestive heart failure. (Nbmc)
• Indomethacin for the treatment of patent ductusarteriosus. (ICARE)

• GTN in angina pectoris. (Bsmc) (RG Kar) (Nbmc)
• Methyldopa is antihypertensive drug. (Bsmc)
• Dopamine in cardiogenic shock. (Malda MC) (Nrsmc)
• Beta blockers as antihypertensive drugs. (Midnapore MC)
• Atorvastatin as hypolipidemic agent. (Mck)
• Amiodarone as cardiac anti-‐arrhythmic agent.(Nbmc) (Sdmc)
• Hydrochlorothiazide as anti-‐hypertensive agent. (Cnmc)
• Statins in hyperlipidemias. (Cnmc)
• Nitrates in Ischaemic heart disease. (IPGMER)
• Statins in dyslipidemia. (IPGMER)
• Mechanism of synergism between rosuvastatin and exetimibe. (EsiJoka)

• Statins as hypolipidemic agents. (Nrsmc) (Mck)
• Digoxin as cardiac inotropic agent. (Sdmc)
• Digitalis in heart failure. (Burdwan MC)
• Amlodipine as anti-‐hypertensive. (Malda MC)
• Clonidine as anti-‐hypertensive agent. (Kpc)
• Metoprolol in prophylaxis of stable angina pectoris. (Sdmc)
• Atenolol as anti-‐hypertensive drug. (Murshidabad MC)
• Fenofibrate in hypertrigliceridemia. (Nbmc) (EsiJoka)
• Clonidine in primary hypertension treatment. (Nbmc)

SHORT NOTES (3 MARKS)
• Dopamine. (Nbmc)
• Clonidine. (Nbmc)
• PPAR as drug targets in metabolic diseases. (EsiJoka)
• Drugs acting on RAS. (IQ City)
• Plasma expanders. (ICARE)
• Atorvastatin. (RG Kar)
• Phosphodiesterase inhibitors. (Cnmc)
• Therapeutic uses of calcium channel blockers. (EsiJoka)

RESPIRATORY
LONG ANSWER QUESTION (10 marks)
• Describe the pharmacological basis of treatment of bronchial asthma. Explain the MOA of any of the
drugs used for bronchial asthma. (5+5) (Kalyani JNM)
• Enumerate the drugs used for treatment of bronchial asthma. What are the advantages of drug
administration by inhalational route? Give an outline for the treatment of status asthmaticus.
(4+2+4) (Malda MC)
• Enumerate the drugs used in treatment of asthma. Outline the management of acute severe
asthma. (4+4=8) (Mck)
• Enumerate the drugs used in the treatment of bronchial asthma. Mention the role of corticosteroids
in bronchial asthma. Write down the management of acute severe bronchial asthma. (3+3+4)
(Midnapore MC)
• ++ Mention one specialised drug delivery system in the treatment of bronchial asthma with its
advantages and disadvantages in comparision to the current dosage forms. (3) (Murshidabad MC)

• Propranolol should be avoided in bronchial asthma. (Cnmc)
• Corticosteroids are combined with selective beta 2 agonist in the treatment of bronchial asthma.
(ICARE)
• Sodium chromoglycate is used for prophylactic in bronchial asthma. (Kalyani JNM)
• Nasal decongestants should not be used for a prolonged period. (Malda MC)
• Beta blockers should be avoided in bronchial asthma. (Midnapore MC)
• Tiotropium bromide is preferred as bronchodilator in COPD. (Nbmc)
• Inhalational glucocorticoids are used in bronchial asthma. (RG Kar)
• Short acting beta 2 adrenergic agonists used in acute asthma. (IPGMER)
• Inhalational route is preferred for pharmacotherapy of bronchial asthma.(RG Kar)
• Combination of Salmeterol and Bedomethasone is used in meter dose inhaler in bronchial asthma.
(Kpc)
• ACE inhibitors are better to be avoided in patients of bronchial asthma. (Sdmc)


MECHANISM OFACTION (3 marks)
• Tiotropium bromide in COPD. (Sdmc) (Malda MC)
• Role of glucocorticoid in bronchial asthma. (Malda MC) (Midnapore MC)
• Salbutamol in acute severe bronchial asthma. (Nbmc)
• Monteleukast in the treatment of bronchial asthma. ((Cnmc)

• Tiotropium bromide. (IQ City)
• Mucolytics. (Malda MC)
• Inhalational glucocorticoids. (Nbmc)
• Management of acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma in primary health setting. (EsiJoka)

BLOOD
• Define and enumerate haematinics. Write down the pharmacotherapy of pernicious anaemia. What
are the adverse effects of erythropoietin? (4+4+2) (Burdwan MC)
• What are haematinics? How will you treat a case of iron deficiency anaemia? (2+8) (Kpc)
• Enumerate the various drugs used in altering blood coagulation and mention one clinical use of each
drug. What is drug-‐displacement reaction and explain its importance in oral anticoagulation therapy.
Mention the clinical condition where dual antiplatelet therapy is used and justify this use. (5+3+2)
(Murshidabad MC)
• Enumerate anticoagulants used for treatment or prophylaxis of deep vein thrombosis. Why are low
molecular weight heparins being preferred over unfractionated heparin nowadays? What is the
MOA of heparin as anticoagulant. (3+4+3) ( IPGMER)
• How will you treat iron deficiency anaemia in pregnancy? What are the common adverse effects of
oral iron therapy? (6+4) (Kpc)

• Vitamin K is used in treatment of Warfarin overdose. (Burdwan MC)
• Low dose aspirin is used in post myocardial infarction patients. (ICARE)
• Erythropoietin is used in the treatment of chronic kidney disease. (Mck)
• Clopidogrel should carefully be co-‐administered with Pantoprazol. (Murshidabad MC)
• Oral iron preparation should not be used with antacid preparation. (Nbmc)
• Vitamin B6 is used in INH therapy. (Cnmc)
• Warfarin should be stopped few days before an elective surgery in a patient who is on warfarin
therapy for the past six months. (EsiJoka)
• Low molecular weight heparins are preferred over unfractionated heparins in Myocardial Infarction.
(IQ City) (Malda MC)
• Vitamin B12 and folic acid are used together for the treatment of megaloblastic anaemia. (Bsmc)
(Midnapore MC)
• Desfferrioxamine is used in thalassemia.
• Folinic acid and not folic acid is used in treatment of methotrexate poisoning. (IQ City)
• Omeprazole maybe added in patient receiving chronic aspirin therapy whereas should not be added
in patient on clopidogrel therapy. (EsiJoka)
• Warfarin as an anticoagulant. (Kpc) (RG Kar) (Cnmc) (ICARE)
• Vitamin K may be used to overcome type A adverse reactions of certain anticoagulant drugs.
(EsiJoka)

• Clopidogrel as anti-‐platelet agent. (Burdwan MC) (Mck) (Cnmc)

• Aspirin as anti-‐platelet action. (IQ City) (Sdmc)
• Streptokinase as thrombolytic agent. (Malda MC)
• Low molecular weight heparin as an anticoagulant. (Midnapore MC)
• Warfarin in deep vein thrombosis. (Bsmc)
• Erythropoietin in anaemia of chronic renal failure. (Sdmc)
• Warfarin as an oral anticoagulant. (ICARE)

• Therapeutic uses of aspirin. (EsiJoka)
• Parenteral iron therapy. (Mck)
• Ticagrelor. (Murshidabad MC)
• Desfferrioxamine. (Midnapore MC)
• Low molecular weight heparin. (Nbmc) (Midnapore MC)
• Erythropoietin. (Cnmc)
• Streptokinase. (Cnmc)
• Therapeutic and prophylactic indications of Haematinics. (EsiJoka)
• Oral iron therapy. (Sdmc)
• Iron preparations. (ICARE)
• Warfarin sodium. (Malda MC)
• Alteplase. (RG Kar) (Bsmc)
• Drugs used in disorders of iron homeostasis. (EsiJoka)

GIT
• Classify the drugs used in peptic ulcer. Describe the MOA of omeprazole. Briefly discuss anti H.
pylori Regimen. (4+3+3) (IQ City)
• Explain the MOA of any anti peptic ulcer drugs. (5) (Kalyani JNM)
• Why aluminium hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide are used in combination. (3) (Cnmc)
• A 35 year old female patient attended the outpatient department with the complaint of early
satiety, abdominal fullness, bloating, indigestion and upper gastro-‐intestinal endoscopy shows
antral gastritis with rapid urease test+ve. What are the different regimens used for the treatment of
the patient. Enumerate different drugs used for the reduction of gastric acid secretion. Write down
the MOA for pantoprazole. (3+4+3) (Sdmc)

• Metoclopramide is avoided in patients with levodopa induced vomiting. (ICARE)
• Sucralfate is avoided with concurrent administration of antacids. (ICARE) (RG Kar) (Malda MC)
• Lactulose used in hepatic coma. (IQ City)
• Lactulose used in hepatic encephalopathy. (Midnapore MC) (IPGMER) (Malda MC) (EsiJoka)
• Anti H.pylori drugs used in management of peptic ulcer. (Nrsmc)
• Promethazine and ondansetron is effective to control nausea and vomiting in motion sickness.
(Murshidabad MC)
• Antacids are not used for treating peptic ulcers. (Bsmc)
• Atropine is added with diphenoxylate for diarrhea management. (ICARE)

• Treatment of H.pylori infection. (ICARE)
• Ondensetron in chemotherapy induced vomiting. (IQ City) (Nbmc)
• Proton pump inhibitors as anti-‐ulcer agent. (Mck)

• Omeprazole in peptic ulcer. (Midnapore MC) (RG Kar)
• Sucralfate as peptic ulcer healing agent. (Nbmc)
• Rabeprazole in duodenal ulcer. (Murshidabad MC)
• Lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy. (RG Kar) (Kpc)
• Ondansetron as anti-‐emetic. (Bsmc) (Burdwan MC)
• Domperidone as antiemetic and prokinetic agent. (Murshidabad MC)
• PPI in treatment of peptic ulcer. (Midnapore MC)

• Anti H.pylori therapy. (Sdmc) (Burdwan MC)
• N-‐acetyl cysteine. (Nbmc)
• Lactulose. (Murshidabad MC)
• Ondansetron. (Nbmc)
• Proton pump inhibitors in peptic ulcer disease.(IPGMER)
• Metoclopramide. (Nrsmc) (Malda MC)
• Omeprazole. (Bsmc)
• Sucralfate. (RG Kar) (Mck)

RENAL
• Mention the preferable diuretics used in management of hypertension, acute pulmonary oedema
and ascites due to cirrhosis of liver along with reason. Write the electrolyte imbalance occurred due
to prolonged use of diuretics. (3+3+3+1) (Nbmc)
• Enumerate diuretics. Describe the role of thiazide as an antihypertensive agent. Mention the
contraindications of thiazide. Name the diuretic used in secondary hyperaldosteronism. (3+3+3+1)
(Nrsmc)

• Furosemide is regarded as a high ceiling diuretic. (Bsmc)
• Mannitol in cerebral edema. (Kpc) (Cnmc)
• Spironolactone is the diuretic of choice in cirrhosis of liver. (RG Kar) (Midnapore MC)
• Thiazide diuretics and corticosteroids both are unsafe in patients of diabetes mellitus on long-‐term
use. (Murshidabad MC)
• Mannitol although a diuretic, is contraindicated in pulmonary edema. (Sdmc)
• Furosemide is the drugof choice in the treatment of acute myocardial infarction. (Malda MC)
• Spironolactone and aspirin are not co-‐administered. (Bsmc)

• Thiazides in diabetes insipidus. (Bsmc)
• Furosemide in acute pulmonary edema. (MidnaporeMC) (EsiJoka)
• Spironolactone. (Malda MC)

• Effects of diuretics on serum electrolyte levels. (EsiJoka)
• K+ sparing diuretics. (Burdwan MC)
• Thiazide on electrolyte balance. (Burdwan MC)
• Osmotic diuretics. (ICARE)
• Drugs altering Renin-‐Angiotensin-‐Aldosterone axis. (EsiJoka)


ENDOCRINE
LONG QUESTIONS (10 marks)
• Enumerate hypoglycemic drugs. Mention side effects of sulfonylureas. Discuss management of
diabetic ketoacidosis. (5+2+3) (Midnapore MC)
• Enumerate oral hypoglycemic agents. Write down the mechanism of action of sulfonylurea. What
are the indications of insulin? (3+2+3) (MCK)
• Name some synthetic oestrogens and progestins therapeutically. Mention the uses and adverse
reactions of progestins. State any two regimens for emergency oral contraception along with
mechanism of action. (3+3+4) (IPGMER)
• a) A routine investigation in a 53 years old obese male smoker, Mr. Gupta who was not on any prior
medication , revealed the following: BP: 176/96 mmHg and 180/94 mmHg on two successive
recordings 7 days apart, Serum total cholesterol: 296 mg/dl, Blood glucose: 275 mg/dl postprandial;
165 mg/do after overnight fast, Fasting triglycerides 250 mg/dl. Urine examination revealed
microalbuminuria. ECG and echocardiogram were normal. Briefly outline a management protocol
for this patient. b) Enumerate parenteral drugs used in the management of Diabetes mellitus and
diabetes related medical emergency. c) What could be the problems of administering s.c. insulin at
the same site, daily? (4+(3+2)+1) (ESI JOKA)
• Enumerate systemic corticosteroids. Describe the pharmacological actions and indications of
corticosteroids. Name one glucocorticoid antagonist. (3+3+3+1) (NRSMC)
• Enumerate the insulin analogues. Why human insulin is preferred over pork insulin. Why beta
blockers are contraindicated in patients receiving insulin. Mention the uses of insulin in different
types of diabetes. Explain the management of diabetic ketoacidosis. (2+1+2+2+3) (IQ CITY)
• 45 yrs old executive was newly diagnosed to be suffering from type 2 diabetes. Mention the various
classes of hypoglycemics that could be suitable for him and their adverse effecrs. Mention the
mechanism of DPP4 inhibitors. (3+3+2+2) (BSMC)
• Mention the insulin analogues. Discuss the management of DKA. (4)
• Mention the different types of OCP, briefly write the basic mechanism of OCP. (4) (Kalyani)
• Enumerate the drugs used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus. Mention the indications of insulin
in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Why is insulin resistance? (5+3+2) (RGKMC)
• Enumerate the oral hypoglycaemic drugs. What is the mechanism of action of gliptines? Mention
the indications of insulin in type II diabetes mellitus. Write down the name of one rapid acting and
one long acting insulin analogue. (4+3+2+1) (CNMC)
• Give an outline of treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus. What are the indications of insulin in type 2
diabetes? (5+5) (KPC)
• Enumerate four corticosteroid preparations as per different routes of administration with one
appropriate indication of each. Describe the indications and role of corticosteroids in infective
diseases. ((4x1.5)+4) (BMC)
• Enumerate commonly used glucocorticoids. Briefly describe the pharmacological actions of
corticosteroids utilised for therapy. Mention and explain any two contraindications of
corticosteroids. What are the measures taken to minimize HPA axis suppression. (3+3+2+2)
(EsiJoka)

EXPLAIN WHY(3 marks)
• OCP should not be used in Rifampicin. (IQ CITY)
• Both carbimazole and iodine preparation are required to prepare the patients of thyrotoxicosis prior
to thyroid surgery. (Murshidabad MC)
• Levothyroxine is preferred over liothyronine in hypothyroidism. (MCK)
• Both oestrogen and progesterone is combined in OCP. (MCK) (Bsmc)
• Non selective beta blockers are used in thyroid storm. (IPGMER)
• Between oxytocin and ergometrine, one is preferred in induction of labour whereas the other is
preferred during managing post-‐partum haemorrhage. (EsiJoka) (Cnmc) (Kpc)

• Corticosteroid therapy should not be abruptly withdrawn. (Sdmc) (Cnmc)
• Propranolol is used in thyroid storm. (Bsmc)
• Lugol’s iodine is used in preoperative preparation of goitre. (RG Kar)
• Sulfonylurea is contraindicated in pregnant diabetic. (Murshidabad MC)
• Non selective beta blockers are avoided in diabetic patients. (Mck)
• Sudden withdrawal of systemic glucocorticoids is dangerous after long term use. (IQ City)
• Role of glucocorticoid in bronchial asthma. (Malda MC)
• Methyl ergometrine is preferred drug over oxytocin in post partum haemorrhage. (Nbmc)
• Propanolol in thyrotoxic crisis. (ICARE)
• K+ channel openers are avoided with sulfonylureas inpatient with type 2 diabetes. (ICARE)

• Metformin in diabetes mellitus. (Murshidabad MC) (EsiJoka) (IQ City) (Burdwan MC)
• DPP-‐IV inhibitors in type 2 diabetes. (IPGMER)
• Bisphosphonates in osteoporosis. (EsiJoka)(RG Kar)
• Lugol’s iodine in hyperthyroid patient scheduledfor thyroid surgery. (EsiJoka)
• Sulfonylurea as an anti-‐diabetic drug. (Nrsmc)
• Corticosteroids in asthma. (Burdwan MC)
• Corticosteroids as an anti-‐inflammatory agent. (Bsmc)
• Carbimazole as an anti-‐thyroid drug. (Kpc)
• Combined OCP. (Bsmc) (ICARE)
• Radioactive iodine in thyrotoxicosis. (Murshidabad MC)
• Bisphosphonates. (Malda MC)
• Glimeperide as a hypoglycemic drug. (EsiJoka)
• Exenatide in type-‐2 diabetes mellitus. (Nbmc)

• Sulfonylurea and ethyl alcohol interaction. (Murshidabad MC)
• Emergency contraceptive. (“) (Midnapore MC) (Sdmc)
• Clomifene citrate. (“)
• Sitagliptin. (Midnapore MC)
• Glucocorticoid antagonists. (“)
• Radioactive iodine. (RG Kar) (Malda MC)
• Metformin. (“) (Malda MC)
• Propylthiouracil as antithyroid drug. (IPGMER) (IQ City)
• Corticosteroids in medical emergencies. (EsiJoka)
• Bisphosphonates. (Nrsmc) (Bsmc) (ICARE)
• Ultra short acting insulin. (Sdmc)
• Lugol’s iodine. (Sdmc)
• Glargine. (Murshidabad MC)
• Iodine and iodide in thyroid dysfunction. (Cnmc)
• Treatment of myxoedema coma. (Kpc)
• Health benefit of OCP. (Burdwan MC)
• Insulin Lispro. (Burdwan MC)
• Voglibose. (Mck)
• DPP-‐IV inhibitors. (IQ City) (Midnapore MC)
• Inhalational glucocorticoids. (Nbmc)

CHEMOTHERAPY

• Enumerate anti-‐malarial drugs. Discuss the advantages of ACT. Discuss about chemoprophylaxis of
malaria. (3+2+3=8) (Mck) (Murshidabad MC)
• Enumerate extended spectrum penicillin. What is the MOA of beta lactam antibiotics? Write down
the therapeutic uses and adverse effects of amoxicillin.(3+4+2+1) (Cnmc)
• A 35 year old female patient attend the medicine out-‐patient department with the complain of
fever with chill and rigor. Peripheral blood picture demonstrated trophozoite of Plasmodium vivax .
How will you treat the patient? Mention different uses and adverse reactions of chloroquine. Write
down different artemisinin based combination therapy. (3+2+2+3) (Sdmc)
• Enumerate anti-‐malarial drugs and discuss MOA and adverse effects of chloroquine. (4+6) (ICARE)
(Nbmc)
• Enumerate the drugs used to treat malaria. Describe briefly the drug treatment of acute attack of
falciparum malaria. (4+6) (RG Kar)
• Name the anti-‐amoebic drugs. What are the therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Metronidazole?
(4+6) (Kpc)
• Enumerate the drugs used in Leprosy. Outline the treatment of various types of leprosy. What are
lepra reactions and how are they treated. (2+5+3) (Bsmc)
• Enumerate the drugs used in UTI. Write down the therapy of acute UTI. (6+4) (Burdwan MC)
• Describe the pharmacotherapy of uncomplicated Falciparum mlaria. Mention the pharmacological
basis for each drug. Explain why loading dose is given in vivax malaria. Enumerate non malarial uses
of chloroquine and its adverse effects. (2+2+2+2+2) (IQ City)
• Enumerate anti-‐malarial drugs. Mention the management of complicated and uncomplicated
falciparum malaria. (4+3+3) (Midnapore MC)
• Mention the common adverse effects of anti neoplastic drugs. (5) (Kalyani JNM)
• Mention the common properties of aminoglycosides.(5) (“)
• What are the principles of selection of antibiotics for an infective condition. (5) (Kalyani JNM)
• Enumerate Aminoglycosides. Mention the MOA,common properties and adverse effects of
aminoglycosides. (Malda MC)

• Multiple drug therapy is recommended in tuberculosis. (Cnmc) (Murshidabad MC) (IQ City)
• Antibiotics when used for prolonged period can be harmful for the body. (Kpc)
• Imipenem is given in combination with Cilastatin. (Kpc) (Sdmc)
• Liposomal Amphotericin B is preferred than conventional preparations to treat sensitive infectins.
(Murshidabad MC)
• Cilastatin is combined with Imipenem, but not meropenem to treat sensitive infections.
(Murshidabad MC)
• Primaquine is contraindicated in patients with G-‐6 PD deficiency. (Malda MC)
• Piperacilin is combined with tazobactum. (Mck)
• Mesna is used along with cyclophosphamide. (Mck)
• Primaquine is used both invivax and falciparum malaria. (Cnmc)
• Clavulanic acid is used along with amoxicillin. (IQ City) (ICARE)
• Difference between treatment regimen of Rifampicin in tuberculosis and leprosy. (Sdmc)
• Indiscriminate use of aminoglycoside should be avoided in patient with competitive neuromuscular
blocker during surgical operation. (ICARE)
• Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is used in a fixed dose combination. (ICARE)
• Probenacid is given with penicillin in the treatment of gonorrhoea. (ICARE)
• Artemisinin based combination therapy is preferred in acute uncomplicated P.falciparum malaria.
(Bsmc)
• Paramomycin use in luminal amoebiasis. (Nbmc)
• Amoxicillin is positive against newer gram +ve bacteria. (Nbmc)
• Combination therapy is usually beneficial over single drug therapy in malaria. (EsiJoka)

• Zidovudine as anti-‐retroviral. (RG Kar)
• Penicillin as antibiotic agent. (Kpc)
• Penicillin against Gm +ve bacteria. (Burdwan MC)
• Ciprofloxacin in Gm +ve and Gm 0ve conditions. (Murshidabad MC)
• Cyclosporine in organ transplantation. (Mck)
• Cisplatin. (IQ City)
• Amphotericin-‐B. (IQ City) (Sdmc) (EsiJoka)
• Cotrimoxazole as anti-‐microbial agent. (Midnapore MC) (Malda MC) (ICARE)
• Aminoglycoside antibiotics. (Mck) (ICARE)
• Fluconazole as an antifungal agent. (Cnmc)
• Flouroquinolones as antimicrobial agent. (IQ City)
• Anti-‐influenza agents. (ICARE)
• Albendazole. (ICARE)
• Antimetabolite. (ICARE)
• Treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria. (ICARE)
• Treatment of category I pulmonary tuberculosis. (ICARE)
• Gentamicin as bactericidal agent. (Nbmc)
• Tobramycin as anti-‐bacterial. (EsiJoka)

• Amantadine. (Cnmc) Rifampicin. (Mck) (Cnmc) (Malda MC)
• Lamivudine. (Mck) Levofloxacin. (Cnmc)
• HAART. (Cnmc) (Kpc) (Burdwan MC) (IQ City) (Kalyani JNM)
• Post exposure prophylaxis of AIDS. (Sdmc) (Murshidabad MC)
• Metronidazole. (ICARE) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors. (ICARE)
rd
• 3 generation cephalosporin. (ICARE) Topical antifungal agents. (ICARE)
• Interferon alpha. (ICARE) (Sdmc) Amantadine. (Cnmc)
• Treatment of cerebral malaria. (Kpc) HIV infection. (Sdmc) (EsiJoka)
• Liposomal amphotericin-‐B. (Burdwan MC) Antimicrobial resistance. (Murshidabad MC)
• DOTS. (Midnapore MC) CAT-‐1 anti TB. (Kalyani JNM) (name drug)
• ACT. (“) (name drug) Multibacillary leprosy. (“) (name drug)
• Amoebic liver abcess. (“) (name drug) Scabies. (“) (name drug)
• Syphilis. (“) (name drug) Lepra reaction. (“) (name drug)
• Difference between antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents. (Kalyani JNM)
• Bacteriostatic vs bactericidal microbial agents. (Kalyani JNM)
• Metronidazole. (Malda MC) (EsiJoka) Anti-‐ pseudomonal beta lactams. (EsiJoka)
• Targeted drug therapy in cancer patients. (EsiJoka)
• Multi drug resistant tuberculosis. (EsiJoka) Lomustine. (Nbmc)
MISCELLANEOUS DRUGS & VITAMINS
• Name the different water soluble vitamins. Mention the therapeutic uses of vitamin C and thiamine. (5)
(Kalyani JNM)
• What are the properties of an ideal chelating agent? Mention the therapeutic uses of penicillamine and
desferoxamine. (5) (Kalyani JNM)

• Ethyl alcohol is used in methyl alcohol poisoning. (Cnmc)

MECHANISM OF ACTION (3marks)
• D-‐ penicillamine as a copper chelating agent. (Kpc)
• Tacrolimus. (IQ City)
• Desferrioxamine. (Murshidabad MC)
• Vitamin D. (Mck) (Nbmc)
• Monoclonal antibody. (IQ City)

PATHOLOGY SORTED SEMESTER QUESTIONS

GENERAL
LONG QUESTIONS MARKS = 10
1) A 23 year old female attended the emergency with high rise in temperature, feeble pulse, oliguria and
respiratory distress. She gives a recent history of abortion. (1+3+4+2)
a) Name the condition the patient is suffering from.
b)Describe in brief the pathogenesis of such condition.
c)Mention the morphological changes in variousorgans.
d)Enlist the laboratory investigations yousuggest.
2) A patient is suffering from a boil in his thigh. (2+5+2+1) (ICARE)
a) Name the morphologic pattern of inflammation.
b) Discuss briefly its cellular events.
c) Define chemotaxis. Enumerate chemotaxis.
3) A person came to emergency dept with cold and clammy skin, rapid pulse rate, low BP and cold
sweating. He had been suffering from burn with severe infection. (2+5+3) (ICARE)
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Briefly discuss the mechanism of it.
c) What are clinical stages?
4) 40 year old male presented with h/o fever, vomiting and diarrhea. Patient had temperature of 108 F, weak
rapid pulse, hypertension,tachypnoea and cold clammy cyanotic skin .Blood culture shows gram negative
bacterial infection.
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Explain the pathogenesis and describe its various stages.
5) A 14 year old boy has undergone emergency appendisectomy for acute appendicitis. (4+4+2) (NRS)
a) Describe the process of healing of wound in such a case.
b) What are the factors that may affect the healing process?
c) What may be complications?
6) A 27 year old lady presented in the medicine OPD with the complaints of fever, arthralgia and rash over
both cheeks.(2+5+3)
a) What is your provisionaldiagnosis?(IPGMER)
b) Criteria to establish diagnosis?
c) Enumerate the glomerular changes occur in this condition.
7) A 10 year old boy while playing in the ground got an injury in the hand resulting in pain, swelling and
redness. (1+4+5)
a) What type of inflammatory reaction is it?
b) What are the vascular phenomenons?
c) What are the different chemical mediators of this phenomenon? 8) Answer (1+2+4+3) (NBMC)
a) Define diabetes mellitus.
b) What are the diagnostic criteria?
c) Outline briefly the pathogenesis of type II Diabetes Mellitus.
d) Enumerate the complications of DM.
9) A man suffered street accident leading to fracture one bone of forearm. (6+4) (MCK)
a) Describe the process of healing of bone with diagram.
b) What are the complications?
10) A 46 year old known diabetic patient suffering from pyelonephritis suddenly presented with tachypnea,
tachycardia and systolic blood pressure 76 mm Hg.(1+3+6) (IQ CITY)
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
b) Name the common causative agents for this condition.
c) Describe the pathogenesis of the condition.
COMMENT ON MARKS =5
1)Differences between hypertrophy and hyperplasia. (CNMC)
2)Healing of fracture of bone. (CNMC)

3) Necrosis vs apoptosis. (BSMCH+MIDNAPORE+MURSHIDABAD+IPGMER)
4) Metastatic calcification vs dystrophic calcification. (MIDNAPORE+IPGMER)
5) Pathogenesis of exudate formation.
6) Dystrophic calcification. (BSMCH)
7) Retinoblastoma gene. (BSMCH)
8)Inflammation is beneficial. (SAGAR DUTTA)
9) Role of apoptosis is important in some physiological situations. (ESI)
10)Transudate differs from exudate. (ESI+KPC+BSMCH+CNMC)
11)Major histocompatibility complex. (ICARE)
12) Reactive oxygen species. (ICARE)
13)Metaplasia. (ICARE+MCK+NRS)
14)Inflammation is a double-edged sword. (IQCITY+KALYANI)
15)Granuloma in tuberculosis infection. (MCK)
16)Pathogenesis of edema in congestive cardiac failure is different from renal edema. (MCK)
17)Role of complements in acute inflammation. (MCK)
18)Dry and wet gangrene. (MIDNAPORE+ICARE)
19)Leukocyte recruitment to the sites of acute inflammation is a multistep process. (MURSHIDABAD)
20)The consequences of cell injury depend on the proportion,type, adaptability and genetic makeup of
the injured cell. (NBMC)
21)Complement, coagulation factors and kinin system play hand in hand manner in inflammation -
explain withflow chart. (NBMC)
22)Apoptosis serves many useful purposes. (NRS+ICARE)
23) Coagulative necrosis vs liquefactive necrosis. (NRS)
24) Type I hypersensitivity reaction. (IPGMER+ICARE)
25) Chemical mediators in the inflammation. (IPGMER)
26)Pathogenesis of edema in cardiac failure. (IPGMER)
27)Pathogenesis of primary and secondary healing is same.
28) Type II hyper sensitivity reaction. (ESI+SAGAR DUTTA)
29)Write briefly the pathogenesis of granulomatous inflammation with one example. (NBMC)
30)Write briefly the factors those affect the wound healing and enumerate the complications. (Malda)
31)Metaplasia is a double-edged sword. (CNMC)
32)P53 is called guardian of genome. (JNM)
33)Type IV hypersensitivity reaction plays important role in pathogenesis of tuberculosis. (JNM)
34)Necrosis differs from apoptosis. (JOKA)
35)Paraneoplastic syndrome may be helpful in the diagnosis of tumor. (NRS)
36)Carcinogenesis is a multistep process. (KPC)
37)All giant cell containing lesions are not neoplastic. (MCK)
38)Immobilization is the key for successful bone fracture healing. (BSMCH)
39)Hyperemia is an active process while congestion is a passive process. (NBMC)
40)An embolus is not always solid. (NRS)
41)Thrombus and intravascular clot are same phenomenon.
42)Thrombosis differs from clot. (SAGAR DUTTA+MIDNAPORE)
43)Granuloma vs granulation tissue. (SAGAR DUTTA)
44)Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. (ICARE)
45) Development of neoplasia has a molecular basis. (IQ CITY)
46) Pathogenesis of edema due to cardiac disease. (SAGAR DUTTA)
47)Intact endothelium plays crucial role in homeostasis. (KALYANI)
48)Endothelial injury is the most important cause of thrombosis. (KPC)
49)Type I and II Diabetes mellitus difference (BSMC)
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING MARKS=5

1)Vascular events of acute inflammation. (CNMC)

2)Granulation tissue is not a feature of regeneration.
3)Hydrothorax is exudative in nature.
4)Chemical mediators and their role in acute inflammation. (SAGAR DUTTA)
5)Morphological pattern with examples of acute inflammation. (ESI+MURSHIDABAD)
6)Endothelium has both anticoagulant and procoagulantactivities. (ICARE)
7)Granuloma is not atumor of granulation tissue. (ICARE)
8)Macrophage lymphocyte interactions in inflammation. (IQ CITY)
9)Pathways of apoptosis with its definition. (IQ CITY+MCK+NBMC)
10)Mechanism of increased vascular permeability in acute inflammation.(KPC)
11)Pathogenesis of tubercular granuloma. (MIDNAPORE)
12)Pathophysiological classification of edema. (MURSHIDABAD)
13)Ischemic reperfusion injury. (NBMC)
14)Metaplasia. (NBMC)
15)Fat necrosis. (NBMC)
16)Autosomal recessive disorders. (IPGMER)
17)Pathogenesis of renal edema.
18)Multistep process of carcinogenesis.
19)Pathogenesis of septic shock. (MALDA, NBMC)
20)Lab diagnosis of amyloidosis. (MCK)
21)Pathogenesis of amyloidosis. (NRS)
22)Routes of metastasis with examples. (CNMC)
23)Pathology of septic shock. (CNMC, JOKA)
24)Differentiate Necrosis and Apoptosis. (CNMC, JNM)
25)Mechanism of migration of leucocyte in acute inflammation. (KPC)
26)Causes and types of gangrene. (KPC)
27)Healing of bony tissue. (MIDNAPUR)
28)Pathogenesis of thrombosis. (MIDNAPUR)
29)All granulomas are tubercular granulomas.
30)Granulation tissue is not a feature of regeneration.
31)Microscopic features along with labelled diagram of lepromatous leprosy. (ESI)
32)Examination of urine can help in differential diagnosis of jaundice. (BSMCH)
33)Fatty change is irreversible injury. (BSMCH)
34)Role of thrombin in hemostasis. (IQ CITY)
35)Thrombus. (MALDA+MCK)
36)Role of endothelial cells in thrombosis. (NRS)
37) Kidney changes in SLE. (BSMC)
38)Pathogenesis of diabetes mellitus (IQ CITY)
39)Pathogenesis of chronic complications of diabetes mellitus (JNM)
40)Significance of glycosylated hemoglobin (JOKA)
SHORT NOTES MARKS =5

1)Giant cell. (CNMC+ESI+ICARE+IQ CITY+MIDNAPORE)
2)Morphological types of necrosis. (CNMC)
3)Gaucher's cell.
4)Staining characteristics of amyloid. (KALYANI)
5)Innate immunity and acquired immunity. (BSMCH)
6)Reversible cell injury. (SAGAR DUTTA)
7)Phagocytosis. (ESI+NRS)
8)Turner's syndrome. (ESI+IPGMER+CNMC)
9)Klinefelter syndrome. (ICARE)
10)Spread of malignant tumor. (ICARE)
11) Acute phase reactants. (IQ CITY)

12)Trisomy 21 or Down's syndrome. (IQ CITY+MALDA)
13) Karyotyping. (KALYAN)I
14)Granulation tissue. (KALYANI+KPC)
15)Ketonuria. (KALYANI)
16)Hypovolemic shock. KPC
17)Gaucher’s disease. (KPC+MCK+MURSHIDABAD+NRS)
18)Endotoxic shock-pathogenesis. (MCK)
19)Role of macrophage in acute inflammation. (MCK)
20)Opsonins. (MIDNAPORE)
21)Exudate. (MIDNAPORE)
22) Carcinoma in situ. (KPC)
23)Type II hypersensitivity (CNMC, JOKA)
24)FNAC (JNM)
25)Factors influencing wound healing. (JNM)
26)Healing of wound by first intention. (KPC)
27)Pulmonary thromboembolism (KPC)
28)Tumor suppressor gene (MIDNAPORE+IPGMER)
29)Hypertrophy. (MIDNAPORE)
30)Air embolism. (MURSHIDABAD)
31) Granuloma. (MURSHIDABAD+NRS)
32)Healing by second intention. (IPGMER)
33)Etiology of amyloidosis.
34)WHO criteria for diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus.
35)Decompression sickness.
36) Hypovolemic shock. (SAGAR DUTTA)
37) Amniotic fluid embolism. (SAGAR DUTTA)
38) Infarct (ESI)
39)Microvascular complications of diabetes (CNMC)
HAEMATOLOGY
LONG QUESTIONS MARKS = 10
1) 40 year old farmer presented with severe anemia, weakness and dyspnea on exertion .His blood
examination revealed Hemoglobin 6.5 mg/dl and low MCV. (2+2+6=10) (CNMC)
a)What is your provisional diagnosis?
b)What may be etiological causes in the case?
c)What laboratory investigations will you perform to confirm the diagnosis?
2) A 5 year old boy wasadmitted into hospital with epistaxis and petechial bleeding spots all over the
body. The boy was apparently healthy 2 days back .But there was post H/O fever with cold and cough 2
weeks before. O/E no hepatosplenomegaly,no lymphadenopathy,no sternal tenderness. (2+5+3/2+6+2)
(BSMCH/KPC)
b) How can you confirm your diagnosis?
c) State the importance of three negative findings as seen during examination? OR, What are the
outcomes of this condition?
3) 45 year old male has a history of partial gastrectomy. Presently he has anemia and neurological
symptoms.
a) What is your provisional diagnosis? (2+5+3) (SAGAR DUTTA)
b) How you investigate the case to establish your diagnosis?
c) Discuss the pathogenesis of this anemia.
4) A 32 year old male having history of peptic ulceration presented with pallor, weakness and dyspnea.
Blood examination showed Hb 6 mg/dl and low MCH. (2+5+3) (IPGMER)
a) What is the possible diagnosis?
b) How will you proceed to establish the diagnosis in the laboratory?

c) Discuss the pathogenesis of this condition.
5) A 7year old boy presented with petechial rash all over the body. He had a history of sore throat 2
weeks back.(2+5+3) (KALYANI)
b) What lab investigations you will do to reach the diagnosis?
c) Discuss the underlying pathogenesis of this condition.
6) A 60 year old patient post gastrectomy patient presents with pallor and fatigue since a year following
gastrectomy. (1+9)(MALDA)
a) What is your provisionaldiagnosis?
b) How will you confirm the diagnosis by lab investigations?
7) 30 year old female presented with menorrhagia, weakness and dyspnea. Blood examinationrevealed
Hb =6g/dl;MCV=68fl; MCH=22pg. (1+6+3) (MURSHIDABAD)
b) How will you proceed to investigate this patient to come to a diagnosis?
c)Discuss the causes and pathogenesis of this condition.
8) 65 year old male patient presented with low back pain,anemia and markedly raised ESR.X-ray of
lumbosacral region reveal multiple lytic lesions.(2+8)(CNMC)
a)What is your provisionaldiagnosis?
b) How will you proceed to confirm the diagnosis?
9) A 5 year old child presented with severe pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. He had history of repeated
blood transfusion. What is your provisional diagnosis?How will you diagnose the case in the
laboratory? (2+4+4)(JNM)
10) Discuss the underlying pathogenesis of the disease. An 18 year old boy has history of prolonged
bleeding, after trauma, hemarthroses and musclehematoma.His sister is free from these complaints.
(2+4+4) (KPC)
a) What is your provisionaldiagnosis?
b) How the conditions can be diagnosedin the laboratory?
c) Describe the mode of inheritance.
COMMENT ON MARKS =5
1)Blood transfusion is not always beneficial but may have adverse effects as well. (CNMC)
2) Sickle hemoglobin. (BSMCH)
3) Reticulocyte count is used to evaluate response to iron therapy. (IQ CITY)
4) Blast crisis is defined as transformation of chronic myeloid leukemia to acute leukemia like state.
(KPC)
5) Pathogenesis of anemia in Thalassemia. (MURSHIDABAD)
6) Component transfusion is better option than whole blood transfusion (CNMC)
7) Philadelphia chromosome may be found in Leukemia (MMC)
8) In Thalassemia, the globin chains are structurally normal. (KPC)
9) Absolute values of blood are important in assessment of anemia (JOKA)
10) Diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia (MALDA)
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING MARKS=5
1) Crises in sickle cell anemia. (CNMC)
2) Pathogenesis of anemia in beta thalassemia major. (NBMC+KALYANI+SAGAR DUTTA)
3)Special stains are very much useful for differential diagnosis of acute leukemias. (BSMCH)
4) Pathogenesis of DIC. (KALYANI)
5)Differences between Thalassemia major and iron deficiency anemia. (KPC)
6) Acute transfusion reaction. (MALDA)
7) Blood picture of thalassemia. (MALDA)
8) Importance of red cell indices in classification of anemia. (MIDNAPORE)
9) Blood and bone marrow picture in vitamin B12 deficiency. (MIDNAPORE)
10) Peripheral blood picture of hemolytic anemia. (MURSHIDABAD)

11) Pathogenesis of ITP. (JNM)
12) Prognostic factors for AML(JNM)
13) Diagnostic criteria of multiple myeloma. (KPC)
14) Peripheral blood smear in case of CML (JOKA)
SHORT NOTES MARKS =5

1) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)(CNMC)
2) Packed cell volume (PCV) (CNMC)
3) Vitamin B12 deficiency and folic acid deficiency anemia (BSMCH)
4) Thalassemia major and thalassemia intermedia (BSMCH)
5) Laboratory diagnosis of megaloblastic anemia(IQ CITY)
6) Diagnostic criteria of multiple myeloma(KPC)
7) Aplastic anemia (MURSHIDABAD)
8) Hazards of blood transfusion (JNM)
9) Hodgkin Lymphoma (BURDWAN)
10) Reed-Sternberg cell (MMC)
11) Differential diagnosis microcytic hypochromic anemia (KPC)
12) Leukemoidreaction (KPC)
CVS
Long Question10 Marks
1) A 45 year old man suffering from mitral stenosis, has history of tooth extraction. After that he
complains of low grade fever, haemorrhagic spots on skin and tender nodules on finger. On
examination he shows changing cardiac murmur.(1+4+5) (KPC)
a) Identify the condition.
b) What is the pathogenesis?
c) How the condition can be diagnosed?
Comment on (5 Marks)
1) Rheumatic fever is the only cause of vascular vegetations of the heart. (KALYANI+NBMC))
2) Vegetation in Rheumatic heart disease and bacterial endocarditis are not similar. (CNMC)
3) Rheumatic fever licks the heart but bites the joint (BURDWAN)
4) Utility of cardiac enzyme assay in the management of acute myocardial infarction. (MCK)
5) Role of laboratory parameters in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. (NRS)
Answer the following. (5 Marks)
1) Pathogenesis of myocardial infarction (JNM)
2) Diagnosis of rheumatic fever (BSMC)
3) Complication of atherosclerosis (KPC)
4) Consequences and complications of myocardial infarction. (NBMC)
5) Pathogenesis of atherosclerosis. (KALYANI)
Short notes (5 marks)

1) Infective endocarditis. (MURSHIDABAD)
Liver
Long Question (10 Marks)
1) A 45 yearold chronic alcoholic male patient presented in the emergency with hematemesis. On
examination icterus was present ascites.(2+5+3) (CNMC)
b) How will you approach to investigate the patient for confirmation of diagnosis?

c) Outline the pathogenesis of ascites in this case.
2) A 55 year old male with history of alcohol intake admitted in the Medicine department with clinical
features of ascites,edema,mild jaundice and upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage.(1+3+6) (R.G.KAR)
a)What is your provisional diagnosis?
b)What morphological changes are found in the organ involved?
c)Describe the laboratory tests usually done in this case for diagnosis.
3) A 50 year old male patient attended OPD and presented with long history of alcohol
intake,abdominal discomforts and occasional hematemesis.USG shows splenomegaly with fluid in
abdomen.(BURDWAN)
a)What is your provisionaldiagnosis? Suggest lab investigations to support? (2+2)
b)Describe the changes in liver in such condition;both morphological and histological. (2+2)
c)What complications do you expect in such critical condition? (2+2)
Comment on (5 marks)
1) Chronic hepatitis leads to hepatocellular carcinoma (IQ CITY)
2) Portal hypertension leads to ascites (IQ CITY)
3) Multiple etiological factors may lead to a single outcome of end stage liver disease (SAGAR
DUTTA)
4) Hepatitis B virus does not destroy hepatocytes directly (KPC)
5) Cirrhosis is not the only cause of portal hypertension (MCK)
6) Cirrhosis of liver has diverse etiology (MIDNAPORE)
Answer the following (5 marks)

1) Serological diagnosis/study of hepatitis B infection (BSMC & MMC)
2) Pathogenesis and complications of alcoholic cirrhosis (NRS)
3) Define cirrhosis. Write down the morphological classification of portal cirrhosis with examples of
each type. (2+3) (MALDA)
KIDNEY
Long Question (10marks)
1) A male patient 8 years old presented with passage of smoky urine oliguria & hypertension with
history of sore throat 2 weeks ago. (1+6+3) (IQ CITY)
b) Discuss the pathogenesisof the condition.
c) Mention the urine examination findings of the above case.
1) Difference between nephrotic & nephritic syndrome. (CNMC+MCK)
2) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis(RPGN) is not a specific etiologic form of
glomerulonephritis,rather it is a syndrome. (R G KAR, JNM)
3) Typical findings in various investigation will detect the cause of painless hematuria. (KPC)
Answer the following(5 marks)

1) Immune mechanism of glomerular injury causing glomerulonephritis. (R.G.KAR)
2) Classification of glomerulonephritis. (MURSHIDABAD)
3) Pathogenesis of post infectious glomerulonephritis. (MIDNAPORE)
Short Note (5 marks)

1) KW Lesion (IQ CITY)
2) Ketonuria (ESI)
3) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis(NBMC)

4) Renal cell carcinoma.(NRS)
Female Genitalia
Long Question (10 marks)
1) 53 year old female presents with leucorrhoea & post menopausal bleeding for last 3
months.Colposcopic examination reveals a friable polypoid growth in the cervix.(BSMC) (2+6+2)
b) How will you proceed for confirmation of your diagnosis?
c) How can you screen this ailment?
2) 40 year old female presents with post coital bleeding & foul smelling discharge par vagina.She loses
10% weight in every 2 months with loss of appetite.(2+5+3) (MIDNAPORE)
b) Discuss etiopathogenesis of the condition.
c) What are the morphological features of the common type?
1)Papanicolaou smear screening is effective in preventing in cervical cancer. (NBMC)
2)Cancer cervix is preventable in most cases. (MALDA)
Answer the following (5 Marks)

1) In situ carcinoma of cervix. (CNMC)
2) Lab diagnosis of cervical carcinoma (JNM)
Short note (5 Marks)

1) Benign cystic teratoma of ovary (CNMC+IQ CITY)
2) Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (RG KAR)
3) Leiomyoma of uterus (KPC)
4) Classification of ovarian neoplasm (NBMC)
Lung
Long question (10 Marks)
1) A 55 year old male, non-smoker, presented with cough,dyspnea, hemoptysis.Radiological
investigation reveals a SOL in the hilar region. a) What is the provisional diagnosis? b) How will you
proceed to investigate for the diagnosis in the pathology laboratory? c) Write down the molecular
pathogenesis of the disease? (2+6+2)
1) Sarcoidosis & tuberculosis of lung. (BSMC)
2) Pathogenesis of emphysema. (BMC)
Answer the following (5 marks)

1) Pathogenesis & types of emphysema. (CNMC)
2) Emphysema vs chronic bronchitis. (MCK)
3) Primary vs secondary pulmonary tuberculosis.(NBMC)
Endocrine
Short notes (5 Marks)
1) Hashimoto Thyroiditis (IQ CITY)
2) Graves’ Disease of Thyroid(KPC)

3) Colloid Goiter(MIDNAPORE)
Breast
1) A 55 year old lady presented with a hard fixed lump in her left breast for the last 2 months. She also
complains of a bloody nipple discharge & dimpling of the skin over the lump.
b) What is the role of cytology in the diagnosis of his case?
c) Mention various prognostic factors of this case.
d) Enumerate the various routes of metastasis. (JNM)
2) A 42 year old woman c/o right breast lump with retraction of nipple. How will you proceed to
diagnose the case? What are the histological types of CA Breast? (6+4) (MCK)
3) A 52 years old lady presented with a hard non tender mass in right breast with retraction of nipple.
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?(2+6+2) (NRS)
b) Describe the plan of investigations to reach the final diagnosis?
c) Enumerate the important prognostic factors of the condition.
Comment on(5 Marks)

1) Prognostic markers of cancer of breast. (IQCITY+KPC)
2) Prognostic and predictive factors of breast cancer (MIDNAPORE)
Answer of following (5 Marks)

1) Classify the carcinoma of breast. Write down the diagnostic work up of carcinoma breast.
(MALDA) (2+3)

1) Fibroadenoma of breast. (BURDWAN)
2) FNAC of breast cancer. (RG KAR)
Male Genitalia
1) Microscopic features of Seminoma testis. (MIDNAPORE)
Short Note (5 Marks)

1) Classification of testicular neoplasms. (JNM)
2) PSA is a prognostic marker for prostatic carcinoma. (BSMC)
3) Seminoma of testis. (BURDWAN)
4) Benign Hyperplasia of prostate. (MURSHIDABAD, MIDNAPORE)
5) Testicularteratoma (KPC)
Bone
Long question (10 Marks)
1) 8 year old boy presented with sudden onset of low grade fever, pain and redness of right knee joint
first followed by similar involvement of left knee joint along with occasional bouts of palpitation of
three days duration. He had sore throat and fever three weeks back that subsided without medication.
What is your provisional diagnosis? Discuss the pathogenesis of the condition. Which organ is
principally affected in this condition and what morphological changes are found in that organ? What
laboratory work up is necessary after clinical diagnosis is made? (1+2+4+3) (MALDA)

1) Pathogenesis of osteomyelitis. (BURDWAN)
2) Histopathological examination can only confirm diagnosis of GCT of bone. (BSMC)

1) Acute osteomyelitis. (IQCITY)
2) Morphology of osteogenic sarcoma. (NRS)

1) Ewing’s sarcoma. (IQCITY, MALDA)
2) Osteosarcoma (CNMC, MURSHIDABAD)
3) Giant cell tumor of bone. (BURDWAN)
4) Sequestrum (KPC)
Skin
1) Malignant melanoma (NBMC)
GIT
1) A 54 year old male presents with history of recurrent episodes of burning and aching pain in the
epigastric region. The pain is worse at night and occurs usually 1-3 hours after meals during the day.
Classically the pain is relieved by taking food. What is the provisional diagnosis? Describe the
etiopathogenesis of the disease. Describe the morphology and complications associated with the
disease. (2+3+5)
(NBMC)
1) Morphology of Crohn’s disease differs from that of ulcerative colitis (CNMC, BSMC,
MIDNAPORE, KPC)
2) All causes of colorectal carcinoma have the same pathogenic pathway. (JNM)
3) Carcinoma colon is a genetic disorder. (MURSHIDABAD, NRS)
4) Long standing H. pylori infection is a leading case gastric adenocarcinoma. (RG KAR)

1) Difference between typhoid and tubercular ulcer. (RG KAR)
2) Intestinal tuberculous ulcer resembles typhoid ulcer. (BURDWAN)
3) Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are spectrum of same disease. (BURDWAN, MCK)
4) H. pylori and gastric disease. (MURSHIDABAD)
5) Pathogenesis of peptic ulcer (KPC)
CNS
1) Examination of CSF is helpful in differentiating between different types of meningitis. (NBMC)
2) Difference between cerebrospinal fluid findings in pyogenic and tubercular meningitis.
(MIDNAPORE, IQCITY)
3) Effect of reperfusion in ischemic tissue may be detrimental. (MALDA)

1) Meningioma (JNM)

FSM SORTED SEMESTER PAPERS
MEDICAL LAWS AND ETHICS
Long Question 5 marks
1. Define consent? What are the different types of consents in medical practices? Describe briefly the procedure
of taking informed consent in a surgical operation case? Write the reasons for obtaining consent? (1+2+2+2)
(RG Kar+ Murshidabad)
2. Write down the formation of state medical council? Enumerate its function? (1+4)(KPC)
3. Define medical negligence? Discuss the conditions that must be satisfied to sue a doctor for medical
negligence? What are the differences and precautions to avoid charge of medical negligence? (1+1.5+2.5)(JNM)
4. What are the criminal courts in India? What are the powers and functions? (2.5+2.5)(PG)
5. Write in short the constitution and function of State and Indian medical council? (5)(PG+ICare)
6. What is professional medical negligence? Enumerate the types with suitable examples? Discuss the liabilities
for each type of negligence? What are the criteria to be fulfilled to prove a case of
negligence?(2+3+5+2)(ICare+ESI)
7. Write in brief about the duties of a registered medical practitioner? What are the advantages and privileges
enjoyed by a registered practitioner? (6+4)(SDMC)
8. How do you define medical ethics? Describe the function Indian Med Council? (2+8)(Medinipur)
9. Define infamous conduct? Discuss various examples of it? What are the consequences of infamous conduct?
(1+2.5+1.5)(JNM)
10. What is medical evidence? What are the different types of medical evidences? Which type of evidence
(according to presentation in court) is superior among them and why so? Describe different types of exception to
oral evidence? (1+2+2+5)(CNMC)
Short Notes 2.5 marks

1. Precaution against medical negligence (KPC) 2. Euthansia(KPC+ESI)
3. Privileged communication (NRS+Medinipur+NBMC)
4. Infamous conduct (BMC+MCK+Medinipur+KPC) 5. Informed consent (Medinipur)
6. Functions of medical council of India (Malda) 7. Consent (ESI)
8. Exhumation (ESI) 9. Vicarious liability (NRS)
10. Professional death sentence (NBMC) 11. Contributory negligence (RGK)
12. Doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitor (SDMC)
Explain Why 2.5 marks

1. SEC 304A IPC is applicable for doctors (Malda)
2. Informed written consent is required before any medico legal examination (MALDA)
3. Therapeutic misadvantages and medical maloccurence could act as defences against alleged charge of
negligence against a doctor (NRS)
4. The unit in charge will be held responsible for mismatched blood transfusion by his or her internee PG)
Difference 2.5 marks

1. Civil and criminal negligence.(NBMC+SDMC)
2. Professional negligence and infamous conduct. (SDMC+PG+CNMC)
3. Medical ethics and medical etiquette. (JNM)
Medico-Legal Importance 2.5 marks

1. Euthansia(BMC)
LEGAL PROCEDURE
Long Questions 5 marks
1. Define inquest? What are the different types of inquest? In which section of Cr.PC the Magistrate Inquest is
done and what are the indications of magistrate inquest? (1+2+2)(IPGMER)

2. Define medical evidence? Enumerate different types of documentary evidence? What are the conditions where
leading questions are applicable in examination in chief? What are exceptions to oral evidence?
(1+2+1+1)(NRS+RGK+ICare)
3. Define summon? Being a practitioner you have received two different summons from different courts at same
day at same time. Which court will you attend and why? Give a brief description regarding the procedure to give
witness in court of law after receiving summon? (2+3+5)(NBMC)
6. Define court? Write in short the Procedure of recording of evidence in court of law? What do you mean by
hearsay evidence? What is cross examination? Classify different criminal courts in India? (1+3+1+4+4)
(JNM+Malda)
7. Enumerate the different types of medical evidence? Define subpoena? Mention the different steps of record of
evidence in the LD Court? (2.5+1+1.5)(BSMC)
8. Describe the procedure of giving evidence in a court of law? (5)(BMC)

1. Witness (PG) 2. Inquest (Murshidabad+KPC+SDMC+Malda)
3. Summon (BMC+Murshidabad) 4. Magistrate Inquest (MCK)
5. Conduct money (ICare) 6. Common witness and expert witness (IQCity)
7. Subponea(ICare)

1. Dying deposition is superior to dying declaration.
(JOKA+PG+SDMC+JNM+Murshidabad+Medinipur+ICare+MCK)
2. Oral evidence is superior to documentary evidence (PG)
3. Medical examiner system is superior form of inquest (ESI)
4. Doctors are considered as both common and expert witness (Malda)
5. Magistrate inquest is superior to police inquest (ICare)

1. Examination inchief and cross examination (SSKM+MURSHIDABAD MC)
2. Police inquest and Magistrate inquest (BMC+KPC+NRS)
3. Perjury and Hostile witness (BMC+RGKMC)
4. Hostile witness and perjury. (Medinipur MC)
5. Dying declaration and dying deposition. (NBMC+Medinipur)
6. Common witness and expert witness (NBMC)

IDENTIFICATION
1) Enumerate different types of fingerprints. State advantages and disadvantages of Dactylography? (RGK)
2) A bundle of bones is found in a dust-bin. How will you ascertain that the bones were of human origin? What
other information can you gather by examining the bones? SDMC
3) What is the medico legal importance of human hair? What is the difference between human and animal hair?
What is the rate of growth of human hair? KPC
4) How will you ascertain the age of a female with 17yrs of age? MMC
5) Among six criteria of Gustafson’s formulae which criteria can be detected in a living person? How can you
estimate the age of an unknown dead body whose total score of Gustafson’s criteria is 14? Describe the dental
charting according to F.D.I Notation. What is pink tooth? CNMC
6) A human skull is recovered from a paddy field beside a highway. A thirty year old male is reported missing
from a nearby village. How will you help the police in establishing the identification of skull to that person?
MCK
7) What are data for identification? From a crime scene investigation some black fibers have been discovered
from the body of the victim. How to establish the identity of the person after examining that fiber? NBMC
2+8
8) Sima a 16 yr old girl came to the gynae OPD with history of amenorrhea. While taking history the doctor
found that she did not attain menarche yet. On examination it was found that she had normal labia, clitoris and
vaginal introitus with normal size breast but scanty axillary hair and fallopian tube and ovaries but had testicles

in inguinal canal. Testosterone and DHT levels were within normal limits. Doctor stamped it was a case of
disorder of sexual development. What is your provisional diagnosis? Write down the basic pathology involved in
this case. How will you establish sex of Sima? NRSMC
9) Rattaan 16 yrs male had been presented at psychiatry OPD by his parents with chief complaints of
depression over the past 6 months. Taking him under confidence Psychiatrist found that his friends used to taunt
him because of his enlarged breasts like females after attainment of puberty. He was 5’11’’tall. On examination
it was found his arm span was 5’6’’.Though he was 16 yrs he had sparse axillary and pubic hair. His testicles
were small, firm, non-tender on palpation. 5th finger of his hand were bent towards the 4th finger. What is your
provisional diagnosis? What is the classical karyotype and nuclear sex? What is the characteristic finding in the
testicular tissue? NRSMC

Latent Finger print. (SSKM) Cephalic index (SSKM)
Grenz ray study on fingerprint. (NRSMC) Rule of Hasse. (BSMC)
Turner’s syndrome. (ICARE) Intersex.(MCK)
Corpus delicti(MALDA) Sex chromatin.(MURSHIDABAD MC)
Age of mixed dentition.(ICARE) Data of identification in living person.(BSMC)
True Hermaphrodite.(SSKM) Desert syndrome.(SSKM)
Gustafson’s method.(RGKMC)
Zone of positive and negative Vital reaction.(JNM KALYANI)
Medico legal Importance 2.5 marks

Scar mark. (RGKMC) Angle of mandible. (SSKM)
Hair. (MMC) Latent fingerprint. (NRSMC)
Teeth. (MMC) Bertillon system of identification. (ESIJ)
Deciduous teeth. (MURSHIDABAD MC) Tattoo mark. (KPC)
21 yrs of age. (KALYANI MC) Bite mark. (KALYANIMC)
Fingerprint. (BSMC) 7 years of age. (CNMC)
Explain Why 2.5marks

Age estimated radiologically can be different from age estimated osteometrically. (MCK)
Fingerprint is superior to DNA fingerprint. (RGKMC)
Dactylography is considered superior to DNA fingerprinting. (ESIJ)
What is Portrait Parlae? (CNMC)
How will you determine sex and age from a tooth?(KPC)
What are the different methods of calculating stature from a beheaded body? (SSKM)
No teeth, No Burtonian line. (SSKM)
Differentiate between (2.5 marks)

Human hair and animal hair. (MCK)(SSKM)
Permanent and temporary teeth. (RGKMC)
True and psuedo-hermaphrodite. (NBMC)
Male mandible and female mandible. (NBMC)
RFLP and PCR technique of DNA fingerprinting. (ICARE)
DEATH AND ITS CAUSE

1. What do you mean by sudden death? Enumerate the different causes of sudden death? What are the different
findings you will search for during postmortem examination of a sudden death and determine whether death is of
cardiovascular or respiratory origin? (1+2+2)(MCK)
2. Define death? Mention the different types of brain death? Describe in brief the changes in cadaver following
death? (1+4)(PG)
3. Define death? What is Brain death and how to establish brain death in a patient admitted in ICU while the
patient is unconscious and is on artificial ventilation? (2+8)(NBMC)

4. What is brain death? Classify death as per Gordon’s classification? One dead body was found at hotel
BLUEMOON. How will you establish that the person died within 24hrs of autopsy? (2+2+6)(PG)

1. Suspended animation (SDMC+PG) 2. Brain Death (ESI) 3.
Sudden death (IQCity) 4. Brain stem death (Kalyani) 5. Brain stem
reflexes(RGK)

1. Brain death is so important (KPC)
2. Classification of death has got a strong correlation with human organ transplantation in 1994(BSMC)
Differentiate between (2.5 marks)

Somatic death and molecular death. (ICARE) Pathological and medico legal autopsy. (ESIJ+JNM)

1. Brain stem death (JNM)
2. Sudden death (ICare)
3. Suspended animation (BSMC)
SIGNS OF DEATH
1) What is Rigor Mortis? Discuss the mechanism of development of Rigor Mortis. Enumerate the various
factors that affect the onset, persistence & disappearance of Rigor Mortis. (ICARE)
2) Define Rigor Mortis. Describe in brief its mechanism of formation .Discuss the condition simulating Rigor
Mortis. ( Kalyani, RG KAR)
3) What is putrefaction? Write the mechanism of putrefaction. What are the factors that influence putrefaction?
(KPC)
4) An unknown male dead body was found in a jungle on a hot, humid day in a state of decomposition with loss
of soft tissues & exposure of bones in places with offensive smell & maggots all over. Mention how you can
access the TSD of that person? (Malda)

1) Changes in muscles after death (ESI) 2) Adipocere & mummification ( BSMC, NBMC, MSD)
3) Rigor Mortis (MSD, NRS) 4) Post mortem staining (IQ CITY)
5) Early signs of death (Malda) 6) Instantaneous rigor (PG)
7) Forensic entomology (RG KAR) 8) P.M Hypostasis (MSD)

1) The cooling curve of human body is not a straight line. (PG,KPC)
2) First sign of decomposition is seen in right iliac fossa. (ESI,KALYANI,NBMC)
3) Entomological study in dead body helps in investigation. (MSD)
4) Greenish discoloration of right iliac fossa is the earliest sign of decomposition. (SDMC,MCK,MSD)
5) Post mortem cooling of the body is not a very reliable criterion for estimating the time since death. (ICARE)
6) P.M stain will not appear in a dead body floating in running water. (PG)
7) Heat stiffening is not followed by rigor mortis. (CNMC)
8) Stiffening of dead bodies occur in certain condition (MSD)
9) Post mortem caloricity. (KPC)
10) IN determining time of death, the doctor should consider multiple parameters.(BSMC)

1) Rigor mortis & cadaveric spasm (KPC,SDMC,IQ CITY,ESI)

2) Stage of pr. Relaxation & sec. relaxation (kalyani)

1) Adipocere (ICARE,KPC,NBMC,SDMC) 2) Rigor mortis (MCK)
3) Entomology (BSMC) 4) Mummification (KPC)
5) Cadaveric spasm (MCK) 6) Post mortem staining (ICARE)
7) Examination of eye (kalyani)

INJURY
1) What is the legal definition of Injury? Enumerate the different causes of Grievous hurt. How the age of a
bruise can be ascertained? (2+4+4) (Sagar Dutta)
2) Define Hurt. Classify wound medico legally? Enumerate the different causes of Grievous Hurt. (1+3+6)
(ICARE)
3) Define INJURY. What are the types of mechanical injury? Write medico legal importance of any one type of
mechanical injury. (1+2+2) (IQ CITY)
4) Define Laceration. Define different types. How can you differentiate incised wound & incised-looking
wound? (1+2.5+1.5) (Kalyani)
5) Define Bruise. Enumerate its type. What is its medico legal importance? Between abrasion and Bruise which
is more important medico-legally & why? (1+1+1+1+1) (KPC)
6) What is Duret’s Haemorrhage? Justify whether traumatic complete corneal scar is grievous hurt or not,
keeping in mind the option of treatment named “Corneal transplantation”. (5+5) (MCK)
7) What is Abrasion? Briefly describe the different types of Abrasion? (2+8) (Midnapore, ESI)
8) Define Sec 44 IPC. Name the commonest type of mechanical injury and write its medico-legal importance.
(2+1+5) (Murshidabad)
9) Define Bruise. State the color changes in bruise and its pigment. State the bruise whether there will be no
color changes will be there with its explanation. (1+2+2) (NRS)
10) Ms. Swapna Roy 12 yrs female was admitted at Casualty ward of NRSMCH with history of sudden onset of
severe unusual headache which was according to her the worst headache of her life. She had altered level of
consciousness, but no fever and no history of trauma. She had 3 episodes of vomiting before admission. Physical
examination revealed that she had neck rigidity and photophobia. What is your provisional diagnosis? Describe a
simple bed side test to confirm your diagnosis. Describe with diagram the possible commonest pathology in this
case. (NRS)
11) Define and classify stab injuries. How from the various features of a stab injury the offending weapon can be
identified? (2+3)
State Wilson’s classification of burn injuries .Describe in brief the features of ante-mortem superficial burn
injuries? (2+3) (RG KAR)
12) What is Bruise? How can you determine the age of bruise? What is mechanism of formation of parallel
bruise? (kalyani)
13) Enumerate the different types of Skull fractures. What is mechanism of producing fissure fracture? (2+2+6)
(IPGMER)
14) Define injury? Enumerate the different types of injuries produced by blunt objects. Describe briefly the
different types of Abrasion. (2+2+6) (IPGMER)
15) What is medico legal information can be obtained from a firearm wound of entry and exit and discuss the
points in detail? (10) (PG)
16) What is hurt? What is grievous hurt? Enumerate the IPC (s) in this connection. (1+3+1) (KPC)
17) Define Ballistics. Enumerate the different types of Ballistics. Describe the characteristics of riffled firearm
entry wound based on the different ranges of fire? (1+3+6) (ICARE)
18) Describe the mechanism of contre-coup injury of brain. Mention its medico legal importance? (3+2) (RG
KAR)
19) Classify burns according to the depth of tissue rupture. Describe post mortem findings of the respiratory
system in case of a fatal.
20) A recently married woman sustained burn injuries inside the kitchen with evidence of burning of her wearing
apparatus. She was shifted immediately to the nearest hospital where she was received dead by post mortem
examination. How will you ascertain a) cause of death b) nature of death? (3+2)

20) Classify mechanical injuries. a) How will you estimate time since injury from abrasion and mention medico
legal importance? (5) (ESI)
21) Describe the different types of intracranial Hemorrhages? (5) (Sagar Dutta)
22) What are the different types of intracranial hemorrhages? (5)
23) What are the different types of Skull fractures? (5) (IQ CITY)
24) Classify thermal injuries. What are the different causes of death due to burn injuries? (murshidabad)

1) Tram track Bruise (IPGMER) 2) Ectopic Bruise (IPGMER)
3) Section 320 IPC (Murshidabad) 4) Extra dural HAEMORRHAGE (ESI)
5) Sunstroke (ESI) 6) Whiplash (ESI)
7) Contact shot rifled firearms (ESI) 8) Joule burn (BMC,MCK)
9) Thermic fever (BSMC) 10) Harakiri (BSMC)
11) Lacerated wound (murshidabad) 12) Circle of Willis (RG KAR)
13) Frost bite 14) Arborescent mark (MCK)
15) Fissure fracture (MCK) 16) Cartridge of a shot gun (NRSMCH)
17) Rule of nine 18) Homicide (NBMC)
19) Filigree burn (NBMC) 20) Undertaker fracture (NBMC)
21) Scald (CNMC) 22) Abrasion collar (ESI)
23) Tailing of wound (midnapore,CNMC) 24) Endogenous burn of electrocution (CNMC)
25) Hilt mark (Sagardutta) 26) Bevelled cut (IQ CITY)
27) Contrecoup injury (KPC) 28) Griveous hurt (Malda)
29) Rule of Wallace (murshidabad) 30) Pugilistic attitude (murshidabad)
31) Lucid interval in head injury (NBMC) 32) Chop wound (RG KAR)

1) Tissue away from the wound tract is dangerous in gunshot injury, even not being struck at aim by the bullets
any other projectile.(CNMC)
2) Cutting an extra finger in a case of polydactyly is an eg of grievous hurt.(CNMC)
3) Color changes are noted in Bruise. (BMC)
4) The term injury & wound are different. (BMC)
5) Bruises can be found at sites different from the point of impact. (BMC)
6) Abrasion is medico legally more important than bruise. (BSMC, Sagardutta, malda, PG, ICARE, Midnapore,
CNMC)
7) Typical colour changes is not seen in sub conjunctival hemorrhage.(SDMC)
8) In case of fully penetrated stab injury, depth of wound is not always correspond with length of weapon.
(Kalyani)
9) Tattooing occurs in wound of entry in firearm injury. (KPC)
10) Incised wound bleeds more profusely than lacerated wound. (MCK, Murshidabad, ESI)
11) Absence of soot beyond bifurcation of trachea does not rule out ante mortem burn. (NRSMCH,MSD,MCK)
12) Stab injury to right ventricle is more fatal than left. (NRS,PG,BMC)
13) Arborescent markings seen in lightning (KPC)
14) Impotency in male can be caused by spinal injury. (KPC)
15) Superficial burns are more painful than deep. (ESI)
16) Degree of burn has no value in case of infected burn. (BSMC)
17) Pulling of trigger in automatic gun discharges projectile repeatedly.(BSMC)
18) Usual colour changes of bruise are not seen in sub conjunctival haemorrhage and sub dural heamorrhage.
(ICARE)
19) Primary marking and secondary markings of a recovered bullet is important for identification of firearm
injuries. (CNMC)
20) Primary impact secondary impact &secondary injury –all can occur together in RTA (JNM)
21) Wound of entry of bullet is not always smaller than wound of exit (JNM)
22) Sometimes burning and charring is present around the wound of entry in cases of electrocution. (NBMC)
23) In some cases of gunshot injury there may be an entry wound without any exit wound yet bullets can’t be
recovered .(SDMC)
24) Blood extravascated from vessels due to bruise can be collected in place other than the site of impact.
(MCK)


1) Hypostasis & bruise. (PG)
2) Burns & scalds. (KPC,ICARE,murshidabad.malda)
3) Secondary impact & secondary injury in road traffic injury (KPC)
4) Extradural & sub dural hemorrhage (KPC)
5) Auto mortem & post mortem wound. (NBMC,MSD)
6) Hanging & strangulation by ligature (ESI,MRS,ICARE)
7) Entry& exit firearm injury. (RGKAR,BMC)
8) Post mortem lividity & bruise. (KPC,CNMC)
9) Heat stroke & heat syncope.(CNMC)
10) Shot gun cartridge & rifle cartridge. (BSMC,RG KAR)
11) Incised & lacerated wound. (ICARE,MSD,IQ CITY)
12) Heat rupture & lacerated wound (ICARE, NRS)
13) Bruise& post mortem staining. (BMC)
14) Heat hematoma & extra dural hemorrhage. (MCK)
15) Traumatic SDH & traumatic EDH. (MCK)
16) Culpable homicide & murder. (kalyani)
17) Coup injury & contre coup injury.
18) Stab wound & firearm injury. (NBMC)
19) True bruise & false bruise. (BSMC, NBMC)
20) Stab & gunshot injury.(KPC)
21) Hypostasis & bruise. (midnapore)

1) Puppe’s rule 2) Entry wound (MSD)
3) Abrasion collar (BMC) 4) Hesitation cuts (BMC)
5) Ring fracture (SDMC) 6) Lacerated looking incised wound (CNMC)
7) Refilling of gun (KPC) 8) Gun powder residue (MCK)
9) Bevelled cut (midnapore) 10) Pugilistic attitude (MSD)
11) Fabricated injury (KPC) 12) Hilt mark (Malda,SDMC)
13) Lucid interval (NRS) 14) Ritochet bullet (CNMC, MCK)
15) Wallace rule of nine (MCK) 16) Death due to toligut ring (ICARE)
17) Defense wound (KPC)
Fill in the blanks with one word:
The commonest type of injury is ........ and its commonest type is ..........
The commonest pattern of fingerprint is ...... and its rarest pattern is .......
The commonest fracture of skull bone is ...... and fracture found in neonate is .....
Dowry death falls under .........IPC and injury falls under ..........IPC
First clause of grievious hurt is ............ and Hurt falls under .......IPC
ASPHYXIA
1. Classify mechanical asphyxial death. Describe in brief the autopsy findings in a case of strangulation by
ligature. How will you differentiate it from case of hanging? (1.5+2+1.5) ESI
2. Matigara Police got information that a female was found hanging from the ceiling of room at ShivMandir
area. During investigation of the crime scenes as a Medical expert you found that a female was lying on the foor
with ligature mark over her neck? How will you come to conclusion regarding the mode manner and cause of
death of the deceased?(10)(NBMC)
3. Dead body of an unmarried girl recovered from the room of her residence in hanging condition from ceiling
fan. The arrangement of hanging process was shown disturbed.The door was not bolted from inside. By
postmortem examination how will you ascertain a) cause b) nature of death? (5+5) (Medinipur)

4. A dead body was found of a middle aged person in a jungle with multiple nail scratches abarations around the
mouth and nostrils. His lips and finger were found cyanated? What is the most probable cause and manner of
death? What postmortem findings do you expect in this case? (1+4)(CNMC+SDMC)
5. Define drowning as per WHO? How the 'Charming effect' is associated with fingerprint? Describe the
expected postmortem features of lung in a case of freshwater Drowning? (1+2+2)(CNMC+ESI)
6. Define drowning? What immersion syndrome? Discuss the patho-physiology of sea and pondwater drowning?
(2+2+6)(PG)
7. A 30yrs old female was found dead in her room with a ligature around her neck. The room was locked from
outside. A nylon rope was discovered from 1 corner of the room. How will you ascertain the cause and nature of
death? Name the main facts that should be preserved for further investigations? (2+2+1)(BMC)
8. Define drowning and classify it? Write the PM findings of freshwater drowning within 6 hours of death.
(1+2+4) (murshidabad)
9) Define hanging .what are the types of hanging? What is partial hanging? Describe PM findings of neck in
hanging? (1+1+1+2) (KPC)
10. Define Asphyxia? Define patho-physiology of asphyxia? Write down the cardinal science of asphyxia stating
the reason for production of such science? (1+4+5)(ICare+RGK)

1. Sexual asphyxia (SDMC)
2. Wet Drowning (RGK)
3. Auto erotic asphyxia (ICare)
4. Hyoid bone fracture in respect to asphyxial death (NRS)
5. Traumatic Asphyxia (ESI+BSMC)
6. Classical signs of asphyxia (CNMC)
7. Judicial hangings (MCK)
8. Types of incision given during autopsy (ESI)
9. Caffey coronary (CNMC)

1. Diatom test may not be conclusive in a case of drowning (SDMC+JNM+ICare)
2. Modified Y-shaped incision is used in a case of hanging (ESI)
3. Death due to drowning occurs earlier in freshwater than in saltwater (BMC+ESI)
4. Organ preserved in suspected poisoning are kept in different jars (ESI)
5. Hemodilution is more dangerous than hemoconcentration in case of drowning (Medinipur)
6. Asphyxial signs are more prominent in strangulation than hanging (MCK)
7. Sometimes typical findings are absent during autopsy in an alleged case of ante mortem drowning (NBMC)
8. Diagnosis of death due to starvation is always difficult in autopsy(BSMC)
9. The person is unable to release the knot in partial hanging though getting support from the part of the
body(Medinipur)
10. Water is not found in lung in dry drowning(KPC)

1. Hanging and strangulation (SDMC+RGK+KPC)
2. Lung findings in freshwater and seawater drowning (ICare+BSMC+Malda
3. Fresh water and salt water drowning. (NBMC+MCK)

1. Partial hanging (Medinipur+Malda) 2. PostMortem examination of trachea (MCK)
3. Burking (BSMC) 4. Hyoid fracture (CNMC)
5. Hyoid bone (BMC) 6. Ligature mark around neck (Murshidabad)
7. Gettler test (NRS) 8. Tardieu spots (SDMC)

IMPOTENCY & STERILITY/PREGNANCY & ABORTION

1) What is artificial insemination? What precaution should be taken prior to it? What are the probable legal
problems may arise out of artificial insemination? (1+2+2) (Murshidabad)
2) How would you define impotence? Describe the common causes of importance in a male? (1+4) (Midnapore)
3) Enumerate the grounds for termination of pregnancy as per MTP act 1971. Write down the detailed procedure
of termination of pregnancy. (1+4) (KPC)
4) Enumerate the presumptive signs of pregnancy.
5) What is assisted reproductive technique? Enlist the various methods of assisted reproductive technique. Write
in details about the artificial insemination. (1+3+6) (ICARE)
6) What do you mean by false virgin? Write down the positive signs of pregnancy. Write recent signs of
delivery. (1+4+3) (MSD)

1) Lochia (malda,midnapore) 2) MTP act 1971 (RG KAR, MURSHIDABAD, malda)
3) Sterilisation (RG KAR) 4) Nullity of marriage (ICARE)
5) Superfecundation & superfoetation(CNMC,IQ CITY, NBMC)
6) Surrogate motherhood (kalyani) 7) Vaginismus (NBMC)
8) Artificial insemination (BMC, SDMC, ESI)
9) Pseudocyesis (KPC)
10) Quickening.(KPC)

1) Immunological test is not a surest proof of pregnancy. (RG KAR)
2) Positive gravidex test or other immunological tests do not confirm pregnancy. (SDMC)
3) Amenorrhea is not considered to be a sure sign of pregnancy (Malda)
4) Hymen remains intact in spite of sexual intercourse (KPC, ICARE)
5) Impotence is a ground for divorce (ESI)
6) Sterility is not a ground for divorce.(BMC)
7) Ruptured hymen is not an absolute sign of defloration.(NBMC)
8) Presence of B-HCG in urine does not confirm pregnancy.(CNMC,MALDA)
9) A sperm donor cannot be charged with adultery.(BSMC)
10) Signs of resistance is not always found on physical examination of a victim of a rape .(ICARE)
11) Superfoetation may occur. (KPC)
12) Florence test has more negative value.(MALDA MC)
13) Impotency is a ground for grant of divorce.(ESIJ)

1) Natural & criminal abortion. (PG,MCK,midnapore)
2) True vs false virgin. (malda,ESI,IQ CITY)
3) Torn hymen & fimbriated hymen (kalyani,ICARE)
4) Parous uterus and nulliparous uterus (CNMC)
5) Virginity and defloration (MCK, RG KAR)
6) Ruptured and fimbriated hymen. (JNM)

1) Hymen (midnapore,BMC) 2) Pregnancy (CNMC,BMC,KPC)
3) Quickening (ICARE,malda) 4) MTP act (kalyani)
5) Impotence (MCK) 6) Artificial insemination (BSMC,KPC)
7) Fimbriated hymen (malda,kpc) 8) Impotence quadhanc. (KPC)
INFANT DEATH
1) Dead body of a new born baby is found in a dust bin. How will you ascertain that the baby was born alive or
not? (SDMC) 5
2) What is infanticide? Describe the autopsy findings in a case of live born infant. Outline the principle and
procedure of Hydrostatic test. (ESI JOKA) 1+2+2

3) What are the different acts of commission and omission related to neonatocide? (IQ) 5
4) Define stillbirth. Describe the salient autopsy findings in a case of stillbirth. (BMC) 2+3
5) Mrs. Savita Choudhury a booked case of NRSMCH 29 yrs. primigravida was admitted in labour ward in
active stage of labour. Her antenatal history was insignificant but due to delay in second stage of labour on duty
house surgeon tried forceps delivery. But the baby was born with significant respiratory distress and was
diagnosed a case of Meconium Aspiration Syndrome. On duty Paediatrician tried to resuscitate the baby but the
baby died with 10 mins following birth, in the meantime the mother suddenly developed severe respiratory
distress, became cyanotic and died with 1 hr. of delivery. Relatives of Savita Choudhury claimed that the baby
was stillborn and both baby and mother died due to medical negligence and demanded P.M. examination. Both
the dead bodies were sent to morgue.
a) How could you establish that the baby was not a case of stillborn but live born died sometimes after birth by
holding P.M. examination? 5
b) What could be the possible pathophysiology regarding the death of the mother? How will you confirm the
diagnosis? 2.5+2.5 (NRSMC)
6) One male neonate with attached umbilical cord and placenta was found lying in a roadside bush. The baby
was taken to the nearest hospital. The onduty RMO declared him brought dead and sent for post mortem
examination. Being an autopsy surgeon
a) How will you opine the baby was dead born or born alive?
b) What are the parameters you will examine to determine the age of the baby? 6+4 (MCK)
7) Enumerate the signs of recent delivery in a dead body. 5 (BMC)

Precipitate labour(BMC) Caffey syndrome (NBMC, Malda) Radiological
findings in battered baby syndrome(NRS,KPC)

1. A new born baby thought to be dead by his guardians suddenly started crying before cremation. (IPGMER).
2. Positive hydrostatic test is not the confirmatory test for the live birth. (MSD,kalyani,malda, KPC)
3. At times hydrostatic test may be negative even after the establishment of respiration. (Haldia)
4. Caput succedaneum and molding of the head of the newborn are generally absent in precipitate labour.
(midnapore)

1.Hydrostatic test(MCK,NRS) 2.Umbilical cord(JNM)

1. Caput succedaneum and cephalhaematoma(MSD)
2. Respired and unrespired lung (NRS,BMC,IQ CITY, malda)
3. Dead born and live born (ESI JOKA,mursidabad,RGK)
Sexual Offences
1) A minor girl with history of alleged assault has been brought to you. How would you examine your hymen?
What are the materials will you preserve in such a case? MMC
2) A teenage girl is brought by the police with history of alleged sexual assault. Describe the procedure of
examination of Victim. What will you preserve for further examination? BMC
3) One 19yrs girl is brought to the FMT dept of NRSMCH for medical examination with history of alleged rape
1 day back. What are the prerequisite needed before start of proper examination? What are the findings around
genitalia you will look for? What are the articles you will preserve for further investigation of case? MMC
4) A 16yr old unmarried girl comes to the Emergency room of the hospital you are working in and alleged that
she has been sexually assaulted by a man 4hrs back. How would you prove or disprove her? SDMC

Sexual perversion. (MURSHIDABADMC) Sadism.(ESIJ)
Amendment of section 375 IPC .(SSKM) Vulvo-vaginal swab.(RGKMC)
IPC Section 377.(RGKMC) Drug facilitated sexual assault.(MCK)

Medicolegal Importance 2.5 marks

Vaginal swab & smear in sexual offence cases.(RGKMC)

• Medical proof of intercourse is not legal proof of rape. (MURSHIDABAD MC)
• “Consent” plays an important role in case of sexual offence and rape. (MMC)
• Double negative opinion is given regarding the potency of subject in medico legal examinations. (NBMC)
FORENSIC PSYCHIATRY
1) Define mentally ill person as per Mental Health Act. Discuss the different procedures of restraining of an
insane person. (Malda)
2) Define mentally ill person. Write various ways of restraining of a mentally ill person as per Mental Health
Act, 1987. (JNM)
3) Define illusion, delusion and hallucination. Write different types of delusion. (CNMC)

1) Lucid interval (SDMC) 2) Delusion (RG KAR)
3) Obsession (ICARE) 4) Illusion is not diagnostic of insanity (BMC)
5) Mental Health Act (MMC) 6) Impulse (SDMC)
7) Hallucination (malda) 8) Testamentary capacity.(JNM)

● Mc Naughten Rule and Sec 84 IPC (ESI, NRS)
● True insanity and feigned insanity (ESI)
● Indian and English law regarding Criminal responsibility of the insane (BMC)
● Psychosis and Neurosis. (midnapore)
■ ‘Belief in God’ is not example of delusion (BMC)
■ Illusion is not diagnostic of insanity (BMC)
■ Delusion is the surest evidence of insanity.(MMC)
TOXICOLOGY
1) Enumerate the factors which modifying the actions of poison.How will you suspect that a case of vomiting
with diarrhoea brought to the emergency is a case of poisoning? Briefly outline the management including legal
duty of such a case. (1+2+2=5) (KPC)
2) What is antidote? Enumerate different classes of antidote with examples. What is the antidote of Organo
phosphorus poisoning? 5 (malda)
3) A middle aged painter present with Paraesthesia and Atrophy of extensor muscles of hand and feet.
Examination reveals finely mottled brown pigmentations over skin flexures of eyelids, temples, neck region and
painless nasal septum perforation.
a) What is the most probable diagnosis?
b) What are the other signs and symptoms expected to be found in the case?(BMC)
c) What is the medico legal importance of the causative agent?
4) How will you manage a poisoning case (after securing airway, breathing and circulation) of Organ corrosive
causing constriction of pupil? 5(BMC)
5) A person is brought to emergency in delirious state with mydriasis and body temp. upto105F. History reveals
of taking some chapattis and curry being offered by fellow passenger in train.
a) What is the most probable diagnosis?
b) What are the other signs and symptoms expected to be found in the case? (BMC)
6) Define antidote. Discuss the different types of Antidotes with examples. 5(SDMC)

7) What are the contraindications of Gastric Lavage? What are the different types of fluids used in Gastric
Lavage? What are the complications of Gastric Lavage? 5 (MCK)
8) Write in short the signs, symptoms and treatment of chronic lead poisoning. 5(IQ CITY)
9) Mention the active principles of the following (KPC)
●Abrus precatorius ●Cannabis sativa
●Strychnosnux-vomica ●Aconitum napellus
●Yellow oleander
10) How will you manage a case of suspected poisoning with unconsciousness and constricted pupils? 5(BMC)
11) State the mechanism (toxicity) of (BMC)
■ Salts of arsenic
■ Datura seeds
■ Snake venom
12) Name the specific Antidote of (BMC)
● Copper sulphate ● Morphine
13) What is an Antidote? Enumerate different types with examples. Discuss the role of Activated charcoal in
treatment of poisoning. (ICARE)
14) Ravi a 40 yr. Old male subject came to Dental OPD with history of toothache. History revealed he was
working in paint manufacturing industry for last 10 years. Examination revealed he had carious tooth and a blue
coloured line on gingival surface. He was anaemic and his face was pale especially around mouth.
a) What is the provisional diagnosis?
b) Write down the detailed blood picture and mechanism of Anaemia in such a case.
c) How will you treat the case? (NRS)
15) Write the specific Antidotes:(NRS)
● Datura ●Paracetamol ●Cyanide ●Copper sulphate
16) A farmer alleged to have bitten by snake in the field. The farmer felt weakness of the limbs. He was brought
at casuality dept. (NRS)
a) What is the role of the doctor in the case?
b) How the bite mark help to differentiate poisonous or non-poisonous snake bite?
17) What are the different alkaloids present in datura? Describe briefly clinical features and management of a
case of Acute Datura poisoning. (1+2+2) (RG KAR)
18) What are the features of Organophosphorus? Mention the treatment. (3+2) (MMC)
19) In which poisoning such findings can be seen:
● Ochronosis ● Danbury tremors ●Basophilic stippling ●Hippus ●Opisthotonus(1*5) (MMC)
20) Describe briefly the stages of Acute Alcohol Intoxication.
State the criminal use of: ●Cannabis ●Datura seeds ●Marking nut(1*2=2+3) (midnapore)
21) A patient is brought to emergency with constricted pupil excessive salvation and vomiting which smells like
kerosene. How will you manage the case? 5 (SDMC)
22) a) McEwan’s sign is observed in which stage of which poisoning?
b) What’s the colour of urine in phenol poisoning and why?
c) Tactile Hallucination in cocaine poisoning is termed as _____________ symptom.
d) Chronic phosphorus poisoning causes ________ jaw.
e) Which portion of the spinal cord is affected in strychnine poisoning?
f) Name the action principle of Castor seeds which is a toxalbumen.
g) Corrosive sublimate is the other name of which poison?
h) ‘Run amok’ and ‘Trip’ are associated with chronic and acute __________ poisoning. (SDMC)
23) Mention the duties of doctor while attending a suspected case of poisoning in a Govt. Hospital. (Malda)(5)
24) Answer brief: (1*5=5)
● MOA of heavy metals
●Two poison causing dilation of pupil
●Constituent of universal antidote
●Two agents causing Food Poisoning
●Two contraindication of Gastric Lavage (Malda)
25) What are the dermatological signs of chronic arsenic poisoning. How can you differentiate between arsenic
poisoning and cholera?Burtonian line is seen in which poisoning? 5 (MCK)
26) Define drunken. What’s Koraskoff Psychosis? Management of a case of methanol poisoning? 5 (CNMC)
27) What are the viscera preserved for chemical analysis of a suspected case of poisoning? Name the
preservative used. Mention the indicators and contra-indicators. 5 (CNMC)

28) Write clinical features and specific treatment on case of accidental ingestion of parathion. What precautions
should be taken to minimize occupational exposure? 5 (JNM)
29) Answer briefly (JNM)
a) Write specific antidotes of methanol and Hydrocyanic acid?
b) Mention the mechanism of toxicity of Lead and Methanol.
30) Write in brief :(ESI)
a) Name the poison causes constriction of pupil.
b) Features of Methanol poisoning.
c) Features of chronic arsenic poisoning.
31) Classify poison. Describe general principles of treatment in case of poisoning. 5(ESI)
32) a) Name the acids causing liquefactive necrosis.
b) Name any three cardiac poisons.
c) Enumerate signs and symptoms of Monks Hood Poisoning.
d) What is sutari?
e) Classify corrosive poisons. (BSMC)

● Lead palsy (midnapore) ● polyvalent snake venom (midnapore)
● vitriolage (midnapore) ●Antidote of a poison(IQ CITY)
● Chelating agents(RG KAR,BMC) ●Gastric lavage(BMC)
● Metal fume fever(NRS) ●medico logical importance of vitriolage.(SDMC)
● preservation of viscera for toxicological examination(BMC)
● viscera preservation for suspected case of poisoning (ESI)

■ Tetanus and strychnine poisoning (SDMC)
■Morphological features of Cobra and Viper (IQ CITY)
■Drug addiction and Drug habituation (SDMC)
■ Tetanus and Nux vomica poisoning (RG KAR)
■Cobra and Viper bite. (RG KAR)

○ Activated charcoal is not used in inorganic mercury salt poisoning but used in methyl mercury poisoning.
(bmc)
○Volatile poisoning in children is an absolute contraindication of stomach wash.(NRS)
○ BAL is not given by IV route.(SDMC)
○ Weak non-carbonate alkalis used in case of poisoning with corrosive acids.(IQ CITY)
○Identical longitudinal half of each kidney is preserved for chemical analysis.(IQ CITY)
○ Oximes are effective in organophosphorus poisoning not in organochlorines.(NRS)
○Stomach wash is contraindicated in kerosene oil poisoning.(ICARE)
○ Unconsciousness is not an absolute contraindication for gastric lavage.(PG)
○ Aconite can be used as ideal homicidal poison.(RG KAR)
○Viscera in a case of corrosive acid poisoning should NOT be preserved in NaCL solution.(malda)
○ Urine in phenol poisoning turns green exposure to environment.(ESI)
○ Of equal strength and volume alkalis produce more damage than acids.(BMC)
Fill in the blanks with one word:
1. Xanthoproteic Reaction is seen in .............. poisoning.
2. Absolute contraindication of stomach wash bya stomach tube is ........... poisoning.
3. Hippus is classicaly seen in ........... poisoning.
4. ........... is a chelating agent which can be given by oral route.
Miscellaneous
1) A Burmese girl of about 16 yrs was found in unconscious state on Sealdah flyover in disturbed clothing &
presence of reddish stain over the undergarments. She was brought to the NRSMCH by an LSI of Entally P.S. a)
what are the pre-requisites of examination of victim girl? B) How will you proceed for examination? c) What is
Barbario’s test? ( NRS )

2) One dead body was found locked in a room inside, with one incised wound in front of the neck. One sharp
edged knife was found by the side of the body. Answer the following –a) what may be the possible cause of
death in this case? b) How can you opine that it is a suicidal injury by examining the body? c) What type of
evidence the knife is when produced in court?
3) Body of a 23 yrs old woman, married for 2 yrs, was discovered in sitting position in her locked washroom
with a dupatta around her neck, bearing a knot near the left angle of mandible. Multiple incise cuts were
observed on the anterior aspect of her left wrist. A) Determine the cause of her death. B) Mention the mode and
manner of her death. C) Enumerate the type of inquest and bare criminal act. D) Write down the findings around
neck during autopsy.

• Post mortem findings of Chronic starvation.(ICARE)
• Philadelphia protocol (1969) of brain death.(KPC)
• Child abuse. (NBMC)
Medico legal Importance 2.5 marks

• Blood stain.(RGKMC)
• Blood group.(MCK)
• Saliva stain.(KPC)

• Why is it important to keep a patient under observation in case of head injury?(ESIJ)
• Positive benzidine test does not always indicate presence of blood. (RGKMC)
Difference between 2.5 marks

• Kidnapping and abduction. (JNM KALYANI)
Answer in short (MCK)

1. What is the maximum year of imprisonment one 1st Class judicial Magistrate can award?
2. Which reagent is used to stain Y chromosome?
3. What are the colors of post mortem stain in CO and Cyanide poisoning?
4. What are the causes of death in fresh water and salt water drowning?
5. Define Claustrophobia?
6. What is covering in relation to unethical medical practice?
7. Till what age can an offender be tried under juvenile act?
8. In which city was the first print bureau established?
9. By which stain can Y-chromosome be determined for sex chromosome study?
10. Dolicocephalic head is seen among which race?
11. Which criteria are excluded from Daliz method of Gustafson’s criteria?
12. How does superimposition help in identification?
13. What is the surest sign of starvation in post mortem table?
14. What are the asphyxial types in burking?
15. What is the commonest types of hallucination in organic disease?
16. What is Osiander’s sign of pregnancy?
17. Who is a calamite?
18. What is professional death sentence for one medical practitioner?
.........is a form of mechanical asphyxia which is almost accidental in nature.
TICK the correct answer

‘HESSEAE’S FORMULAE’ for estimation of a 4 months foetus is done by a)Square root of length in cm b) length in cm/5
c)Square root of lenth in inches. d) lenth in inches /5.
Type of hanging when knot is present at the region of occiput is a) Typical b) Atypical c)Incomplete. d) Complete.
Cause of death in ‘cafe’ category is a)Asphyxia b)Laryngeal oedema c)Cardiac arrest d) Hypertension.
A person of a minimum of ...... age can give valid consent of medical examination a) 7 years b) 10 yrs c) 12 years d) 18
years.
Which one is the positive findings of pregnancy a)Quickining b)Hegar’s Sign c)Braxton Hicks contraction d)Palpation of
fetal movement.

MICROBIOLOGY SORTED SEMESTER QUESTIONS

GENERAL AND SYSTEMIC BACTERIOLOGY
Long Question10 marks
• A male patient aged 40 years has attended the OPD with complaints of low grade fever, night sweats and
haemoptysis since last one week and complaint of progressive weight loss. What is the clinical diagnosis?
Enumerate the causative agents. Outline the lab diagnosis. What are the methods for antibiotic sensitivity
testing for the same? (1+2+5+2)(MURSHIDABAD)
• A female patient aged 25 years has come to OPD with burning sensation during micturition for last one
week. She also complains of high fever and chills. What is the clinical condition? Enumerate the causative
agents. Write down the lab diagnosis of the commonest organism causing the disease. What is significant
bacteria? (1+2+5+2) (MURSHIDABAD, SAGAR DUTTA)
• A 10 years old child was bought to the emergency with severe diarrhea and dehydration. The stool was
liquid not mixed with blood. He gave a history of having taken food from roadside stall after school the day
before.
What is the causative agent?
How will you proceed for laboratory diagnose of such a case? (3+7) (MCK)
• A 40 year old male has come to OPD with a hard, indurate, painless ulcer in his penis.
What is your diagnosis?
What is the causative bacteria?
How will you proceed for laboratory diagnose of such a case? (1+1+8) (MCK)(RG KAR MC)
• A 40 year old male has come to OPD with a hard, indurate, painless ulcer in his penis. The inguinal
lymph nodes are swollen, discrete, rubbery and non tender. He had unprotected sexual exposure three weeks
back. What complications could occur if the patient left untreated? (2) (RG KAR MC)
• A 17 year old girl came to the Medicine OPD with history of cough and haemoptysis for last 2 weeks,
low grade fever and loss of weight over last six weeks. What is your provisional diagnosis? Write in brief the
lab diagnosis of this case.(2+8) (BURDWAN MC, NBMC,NRS)
low grade fever and loss of weight over last six weeks.Name the bacteria responsible for the condition. What
do you mean by MDR-TB? (1+2)
low grade fever and loss of weight over last six weeks.Acid fast bacilli is found on sputum examination. What
are the newer methods for diagnosing such cases? (7) (NBMC)
low grade fever and loss of weight over last six weeks. How is the immune status of such a patient assessed?
Name the etiological agents.(2+2) (NRS)
• A number of people in a remote village suddenly had profuse loose watery stool accompanied with
vomiting following visiting in a fair. Some needed hospitalization and fluid therapy. What is your provisional
diagnosis? What specimen will you collect and how will you proceed to establish the diagnosis? Mention in
short the epidemiology of this disease in India. (1+1+5+3) (BURDWAN MC)
• A 10 yr old boy presented in the 2nd week of illness with history of step-ladder pattern fever. He was
found to have splenomegaly and leucopenia. What is your diagnosis? What are the bacteria responsible? How
do you go for laboratory diagnosis? What are the vaccines available?
(1+2+5+2) (CNMC, SAGAR DUTTA)
• A 25 yrs old man had a lacerated road injury. After 3 days the patient developed edema, increased
localized pain, watery serious discharge and crepitation on palpation of the injury site. The patient became
severely toxemic and skin color of the injury site changed to brown and black.What is your probable clinical
diagnosis? Name the bacterial agents responsible for such condition. How will you proceed for laboratory
diagnosis for such case? (1+3+6)
• A toxic child aged 4 yrs has been brought to emergency with fever, frequent passage of blood and mucus
per anus. What is provisional diagnosis? What are the causative bacteria? How will you proceed to diagnose
the case in the laboratory? What is the importance of microscopic examination of stool in such a case?
(1+2+5+2) (RG KAR MC)
• A 40 year old sexually active male patient attends the STI clinic of your hospital with a single relatively
avascular, painless, circumscribed superficial ulcer with surface covered with a rich glaryexudates on the
external genitalia with indurated margins of the last four weeks. On clinical examination painless, enlarged

lymph nodes with a rubbery texture are detected in the inguinal region. What is the clinical condition? Mention
the etiological agent? Describe the approach to laboratory diagnosis in this patient. (1+2+7)
(IPGMER, BSMCH)
• A 25 years old man is admitted into male medical ward with gradual rise of temperature along with
headache, malaise, anorexia & abdominal discomfort for last 7 days. On examination he looks toxemic& had
soft palpable spleen with hepatomegaly. What is your provisional diagnosis? Name the causative agents
responsible for this condition. Describe the laboratory diagnosis. What steps will you adopt to detect the
carriers & to prevent its spread?
(1+2+4+3)(MIDNAPORE MC)
• A young man has come to the OPD with a lacerated injury in the leg, with swelling and fetid odor and
crepitations.There has been a history of street injury 2 days back which was not properly attended.
What is your provisional diagnosis?
Describe the etiopathogenesis of this disease.
Give an outline of the laboratory diagnosis of this case. (1+5+4) (ICARE MC, MALDA MC)
Mention prophylaxis and treatment of such a case? (3)
• A nine year old girl attends to Medicine OPD with severe sore throat and fever for last three days. On
examination she was found enlarged tonsillar lymph nodes and exudates. What is your provisional diagnosis?
Name the causative agents. How will you proceed for laboratory diagnosis? Mention long term sequels of such
a case. (1+1+6+2) (MALDA MC)
• A 5 years old child comes to you with history of fever with stiffness of neck. His mother states that for
the last one month he has fever and sometime bouts of vomiting. His mother recently treated for tuberculosis.
What may be the causative organism of this clinical syndrome? Describe its pathogenicity in brief. How do you
go for confirmation of this case in microbiology laboratory?
(1+4+5) (BSMCH)
• Define sterilization & disinfection. Describe two methods of sterilization above 100 degrees C by moist
heat & dry heat with biological controls respectively. (2+4+4) (SAGAR DUTTA)
• Define sterilization & disinfection. Describe the principles- working and monitoring of a hot air oven.
How will you sterilize the following articles- a) glass water, b)Nutrient agar, c)platinum loop, d)blood agar,
e)gauge pieces, f)endoscopes. (5+3)(BURDWAN)
• Classify Streptococci. What are the different lesions produced by the organisms? Discuss the tests in the
laboratory to confirm the diagnosis. (3+3+4) (BURDWAN)
• An 8 year old girl was admitted through emergency because of high fever and migratory polyarthritis.
Her mother states that she developed these symptoms after a bout of sore throat accompanied by high fever
three weeks back. What may be the probable diagnosis? How do you proceed in the microbiology laboratory
for findings its etiological agents? What serological tests do you suggest in this case?
(1+6+3) (BANKURA)
• A 6 year old boy with sore throat developed a thick adherent membrane over pharynx which showed
bleeding spots on removal. What is your diagnosis? What is the etiological agent? How do you proceed for
diagnosis in the laboratory? Discuss the prophylactic measures available against this disease.
(1+1+6+2) ( CNMC)
• A 8 year old boy from rural Chhattisgarhwithout proper history of immunization presents with marked
swelling of the neck, fever and palpitation. On examination, he was found to have a dirty whitish patch on both
the tonsils and pharyngeal wall which bleeds on teasing.
What is your most probable clinical diagnosis and which is the responsible organism?
What are the complications other than sore throat caused by this bacterium? Mention the pathogenesis of the
disease.
Mention how would you diagnose the disease in the laboratory? (2+3+5) (NBMC)
• Describe different methods of genetic alternation in bacteria. How does a bacterium prevent action of
antimicrobial agents through these genetic alternations? How would you utilize the genetic makeup of a
bacterium for use in a clinical microbiology laboratory for confirmation of diagnosis? (4+3+3)
(IPGMER, ICARE)
• Describe different methods of genetic alternation in bacteria. Methods of gene transfer in bacteria?
Differentiate between mutational and transferable drug resistance.
(7+3) (IPGMER)
• A 4 yrs old child was admitted in Emergency Department with complaint of acute sore throat, dysphagia
and fever. On examination the child was found to have cervical lymphadenopathy and yellowish white
membranes over tonsils and tonsillar pillars. Name the etiological agents. How will you proceed to diagnose

the case? Write the prophylactic measures for such condition.
(1+6+3) ( IQ CITY)
• A 10 yrs old girl was brought to the hospital emergency with high fever, asphyxia and toxemia. On
examination a blackish white patch, which bleeds on removal was found over the facial area. What is your
provisional diagnosis? Name the causative organism. How will you proceed to do laboratory diagnosis? What
prophylactic measures can be taken for prevention of the disease?
(1+1+5+3)
• Define Pathogenicity. Discuss briefly the factors responsible for microbial pathogenicity.
(2+8) (MALDA MC)
• A 46 yrs old male has come to the OPD with a history of discharge of pus per urethra. He gives a history
of multiple sex partners.
What is the provisional diagnosis?
What is the causative agent?
How will you proceed to diagnose the case in the laboratory?
What is Waterhouse Friedrichsen syndrome? (1+1+5+3) (MCK)
• A 8 month old male child is brought to the emergency with history of few days pneumonia followed by
unconsciousness from today’s morning. He had an increased complete blood count. CSF was drawn and Gram
stain shows lanceolate shaped Gram positive cocci in pairs.
What is clinical diagnosis?
Outline in brief the laboratory diagnosis of the causative organism.
Write down the preventive measures. (1+6+3) (NBMC)
• A 25 years old female patient presented to Gynecology OPD with history of muco-purulent genital
discharge. On examination, there was purulent exudate coming out from the endocervix. Gram staining
revealed presence of intracellular Gram negative diplococcic with plenty of pus cells. What is probable
diagnosis? Name the causative agent. How will you proceed to diagnose the case in the laboratory?
(1+1+8) (NRS)
• A 24 yrs old patient has been brought to emergency with history of high fever, convulsion, vomiting
with neck rigidity, positive Kernig’s sign and petechial rash. What is the provisional clinical diagnosis?
Enumerate the causative agent. Describe the pathogenesis of the disease. How will you diagnose the case in the
laboratory? (1+1+2+6) (RG KAR)
• A six yrs old child developed fever with acute sore throat. On examination, there was purulent exudate
over the posterior pharynx and whitish pus points over the tonsillar crypts. Gram staining of the exudates
revealed Gram Positive cocci arranged in chains. What is the most common bacterium responsible for this
condition? Enumerate the enzymes and toxins produced by that bacterium. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of
this condition. Name two important non-suppurative complications caused by this bacterium. (1+4+4+1)
( NRS )
Short Note 4 Marks
• Bacterial Flagella (SAGAR DUTTA, MMC)
• Bacterial conjugation (SAGAR DUTTA)
• DiarrhoeagenicE. coli (BURDWAN, KPC, IPGMER)
• Widal test (BURDWAN, IPGMER)
• Gram negative diplococci (BURDWAN)
• Lac operon hypothesis (BURDWAN)
• Fimbria and its clinical importance (NRS,BSMCH, IQCITY)
• Plasmids (BSMCH)
• Bacterial growth curve and its significance in medicine (BSMCH, ICARE, MALDA, IPGMER)
• Hot air oven (CNMC, IPGMER)
• Coagulase test ( NRS, BSMCH, CNMC, MMC, RG KAR)
• Bacterial appendages.
• Sterilization by moist heat
• Toxic shock syndrome (IQCITY, NBMC)
• Various kinds of genetic material in bacteria
• Fractional sterilization (ICARE)
• Toxins and enzymes of Streptococcus pyogenes and their roles in disease. (ICARE, KPC)
• Koch’s phenomenon (IQCITY, MIDNAPORE)
• Gaseous disinfectants (IQCITY)

• Transport media
• Non agglutinable Vibrio
• Types of Mutation (KPC)
• Atypical Mycobacteria (KPC)
• Bacterial Spore (MALDA, RG KAR)
• Generation time ( MCK)
• Mutation (MCK)
• Elek’s gel precipitation test (MCK, CNMC)
• Autoclave (MCK)
• Intermittent of fractional sterilization (NBMC)
• Transposons (NBMC)
• Virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhoeae (RG KAR)
• Standard tests for Syphilis (MMC)
• Helicobacter pylori (MMC)
• Growth factor for Haemophilusinfluenzae(MMC)
• Non-gonococcal urethritis (NRS, MMC, BURDWAN)
• Environmental Mycobacteria (BURDWAN)
• Non suppurative complications of Str. pyogenes (BSMCH)
• EHEC (NBMC)
• Satellitism (NBMC)
• Mycoplasma (ESI)
• RCM (ESI)
• FTA-ABS Test (IPGMER)
• Lab diagnosis of Leptospirosis (MIDNAPUR)
• Halophilicvibrios (NRS, MIDNAPUR)
• Significant bacteriuria ( ICARE)
• X and V factors. (ICARE)
• Primary meningoencephalitis (PAM) (NRS)
• Non tuberculosis Mycobacteria (MALDA)
• VerocytotoxigenicE.coli (MALDA)
• MRSA (MALDA)
• Chlamydia trachomatis (MALDA)
• TSST ( SAGAR DUTTA)
• VDRL test (SAGAR DUTTA)
• Anamnestic response in Widal Test. (BSMCH)
• Disease caused by Helicobacter and Campylobacter. (BSMCH)
• Weil’s disease (ESIC)
• Clostridium difficile (ESIC)
• Actinomycosis (NBMC)
• H. pylori infection(NBMC)
• Enrichment media (JNM)
• Septicemic disease with outline of diagnostic (ICARE)
• Tuberculin test (KPC)
• 0-139 V. cholerae (KPC)
Difference Between 2 Marks
• Transferable& mutational drug resistance (SAGAR DUTTA, MALDA)
• Anthrax &anthracoid bacillus. (BURDWAN, NRS)
• Conjugation & Transformation (BURDWAN)
• Lag phase and log phase in bacterial growth curve. (BURDWAN)
• Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria (BSMCH, CNMC, MALDA)
• Enterococcus&Group D Streptococcus (CNMC)
• Cell wall of gram positive &gram negative bacteria (RG KAR, IQCITY)
• S. pneumoniae&Viridans Streptococci (IQCITY, MMC, SAGAR DUTTA)
• Elementary body &reticulate body of Chlamydia (SAGAR DUTTA)

• Flagella &fimbriae (KPC, IPGMER, RG KAR)
• Sterilization & Disinfection (KPC)
• S. aureus&S. epidermidis ( MCK)
• ETEC & EPEC (SAGAR DUTTA, MIDNAPUR)
• Classical& El Tor Vibrio (MIDNAPUR, CNMC)
• Free coagulase and bound coagulase (NBMC)
• Enriched and selective media (NBMC)
• Coagulase positive & negative Staphylococcus (MCK)
• Mycobacterium tuberculosis& NTM (MCK)
• M. tuberculosis&M. leprae (NBMC)
• M. tuberculosis&M. bovis (RG KAR, MIDNAPUR)
• Lepromatous&tuberculoid leprosy (ESIC, MIDNAPORE, MALDA)
• V. cholerae&V. parahemolyticus (IPGMER)
• VDRL & RPR (MIDNAPUR)
• Widal test & VDRL test ( ICARE)
• Lactose and non lactose fermenting bacteria (ICARE)
• Mycoplasma & cell wall deficient bacteria (BSMCH)
• Hard chancre & soft chancre (NBMC,ESIC, NRS)
• C.diphtheriae&diphtheroids (NBMC)
• Antiseptic & disinfectant (KPC)
Comment on 4 Marks
• All diphtheria bacilli isolated from throat are not pathogenic. (KPC)
• Some tests for syphilis may give biologically false positive results. (BURDWAN)
• H. influenzae does not cause influenza. (BURDWAN)
• Some special tests are needed for diagnosis of congenital syphilis. (BURDWAN)
• Widal test shows anamnestic reaction. (MMC)
• Mere isolation of gram positive bacilli with round terminal spores may not be indicative of Tetanus.
(RG KAR, MMC)
• Vibrio cholerae is not an invasive organism. (MMC)
• Only the presence of Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae in the throat does not suggest that the person is
suffering from diphtheria. (MMC)
• For a few pathogenic bacteria, Koch’s Postulates could not be established. (NRS, KPC)
• Moist heat is a better sterilizing agent than dry heat. (NRS)
• Transposons play an important role in transfer of antimicrobial drug resistance. (NRS)
• Pathogenesis of EIEC differ from that of ETEC (RG KAR)
• Some bacteria acquire gene for rug resistance by the process of transduction. (RG KAR)
• Sterilization by autoclaving needs monitoring. (KPC)
• Streptococcus pyogenes may cause both localized and systemic infections. (KPC)
• Bacterial appendages are of two types. (MCK)
• Gram negative cell wall has many layers. (MCK)
• There are various methods of bacterial gene transfer. (MMC)
• Robert Koch used certain criteria for proving the casual relationship between a microorganism and
specific disease known as Koch’s postulate. (MMC)
• Acute rheumatic fever can be sequelae of post streptococcal sore throat. (IQCITY)
• Bacteria can acquire drug resistance. (IQCITY)
• Single drug therapy is not recommended for treatment of leprosy. (IQCITY)
• Anaerobic culture can be achieved in RCM medium. (SDMC)
• Louis Pasteur is known as Father of Microbiology. (SDMC)
• Fastidious bacteria need enriched media for their growth. (SDMC)
• Spores are more resistant than vegetative organism. (BURDWAN)
• Isolation of Clostridium tetani from wounds is not diagnostic of tetanus. (BURDWAN)
• We can treat tetanus infection but not its toxin. (BSMCH)
• Antibiogram is must for Staphylococcus because of MRSA. (BSMCH)
• The presence of morphologically similar organisms does not prove the case to be diphtheria. (BSMCH)

• Gas gangrene is polymicrobial in nature. (BSMCH, KPC, SDMC)
• Enrichment and selective media are essentially different. (CNMC)
• Transferable drug resistance is a greater threat than mutational drug resistance. (CNMC)
• Gonococci differ from Meningococci in many ways. (CNMC)
• One bacterium cannot be firmly said to be associated with a disease, until and unless it fulfills the four
criteria of a certain postulate.
• Bacterial flagella. (I CARE)
• Koch’s Postulate. (I CARE, MURSHIDABAD, NBMC)
• Acute rheumatic fever can be sequelae of post streptococcal sore throat. (IQ CITY, MMCH, NBMC)
• Mantoux test positively may not be diagnostic of tuberculosis in India. (IQ CITY, IPGMER)
• Bacteria can acquire drug resistance. (IQ CITY)
• Single drug therapy is not recommended for treatment of leprosy. (IQ CITY)
• E. coli can cause diarrhea and dysentery. (CMC)
• Tetanus is a toxin mediated disease.
• VDRL is a non-specific test for Syphilis.
• Sterilization by autoclaving needs monitoring. (KPC, MALDA)
• All bacteria do not abide by Koch’s postulate. (KPC)
• Capsule/slime is an important weapon of the bacteria. (MMCH)
• Chocolate agar is more preferable than blood agar. (MALDA)
• The human host may acquire microbial agents by various modes of transmission. (MURSHIDABAD)
• Role of MRSA and VRE in hospital acquired infections. (NBMC)
• Conjugation is most important factor for drug resistance in bacteria. (NBMC)
• VDRL test is important even today. (MURSHIDABAD)
• VDRL test may be positive in non-treponemal disease. (JNM)
• Tuberculin test is not used for diagnosis of tuberculosis. (JNM, IQ CITY)
• Plasmids can play an important role in transmission of drug resistance. (JNM)
• Enterococcus is known for its multidrug resistance. (NBMC, ESIC)
• Mycoplasma infection cannot be treated by penicillin and cephalosporin group of drug. (NBMC)
• Selective media is mainly used for sample culture. (ESIC)
• Cl. welchii has both toxigenic invasive properties. (CMC)
• Sterilization by moist heat can take place at different temperatures. (CMC)
• Streptococcal pus is watery and often blood stained but staphylococcal pus is thick and creamy.
(BSMCH)
• Manifestation of Diphtheria is due to its toxicity. (BSMCH)
• Malignant pustule is not malignant in true sense. (BSMCH)
• Mantoux test may be used for detection of cell mediated immunity. (BSMCH)
• Rickettsiae have both viral and bacterial characteristics. (SDMC)
• After 10 days of Leptospiral infection blood culture is replaced by serology for diagnosis. (SDMC)
• Lepromin test has prognostic value. (SDMC)
• Mere presence of bacilli morphologically stimulating Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae in the throat swab
signifies little. (MALDA)
• Nocardia is detected by modified acid fast staining, (MALDA)
• In any tetanus prone injury, immediate passive immunization is needed in non-immune person.
(MALDA)
• In Primary Syphilis direct demonstration of causative agent is more rewarding than serodiagnosis.
(MALDA)
• Result of a single Widal test should be interpreted with caution. (NRS)
• VDRL positivity does not necessary mean infection by Treponema pallidum. (NRS, IPGMER)
• Patient with UTI may have a colony count of <100000 organisms per ml of urine. (NRS)
• Multibacillary leprosy is more dangerous than Paucibacillary leprosy. (I CARE)
• Enterotoxigenic bacteria are too many and their action may be different. (I CARE)
• Vibrios are not included in the family Enterobacteriaceae. (I CARE)
• Staphylococcal cross infection in hospital can be prevented by taking simple measures. (MMCH)
• A number of bacteria are responsible for causing inflammatory diarrhea. (MMCH)

• At present there are many options for the detection of MTB and their drug resistance in extrapulmonary
tuberculosis. (MMCH)
• Identification of Enterobacteriacea requires a battery of tests. ( IPGMER)
• Structure of gram positive cell wall is different from gram negative cell wall. (IPGMER)
• Lepromin test is not a diagnostic test for leprosy.
• Loeffler’s serum slope is an enriched medium but is used as selective media for C. diphtheriae.
• A negative Widal test does not exclude typhoid fever.
• Acute rheumatic fever is immunologically mediated. (R G KAR)
• Mere rise of H antibody titre in Widal test is not diagnostic of Enteric fever.(R G KAR, IQ CITY)
• Some microorganism does not Koch’s postulate. (R G KAR)
• Watery diarrhea does not mean that the person suffering from cholera. (IQ CITY)
• There are many types of diarrheogenicE coli. (CNMC)
• Streptococcus pyogenes infection may lead to non-pyogenic sequelae. (CNMC)
Immunology
Long Question 10 Marks
• Define hypersensitivity. What are the types of hypersensitivity reaction? Describe one type of
hypersensitivity reaction with examples. (2+2+6) (SDMC, CNMC)
• A 4 year old girl who has been plagued with infections since infancy, an evaluation of her
immunological status is performed and observation suggests a defect in the complement system. What are the
different pathways of Complement activation? Describe in brief. (10) (NBMC)
Short Note 4 Marks
• Monoclonal Antibody (SDMC)
• Classical pathway of complement system. (SDMC, KPC)
• Atopy and anaphylaxis. (BSMCH)
• MAC (CNMC)
• MHC (CNMC, MIDNAPUR)
• IgE (ICARE, MCK)
• Secretory IgA (MALDA)
• Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (MALDA)
• IgM (MCK,MMC,RG KAR, BURDWAN)
• Superantigen (MCK, NRS, CNMC)
• Cellular factors of innate immune response (MIDNAPUR,MMC)
• Precipitation reaction (NBMC)
• Heterophile antigen (NBMC)
• Type IV Hypersensitivity (NRS,IPGMER, RG KAR)
• Null Lymphocytes (IPGMER)
• Type I Hypersensitivity reactions. (KPC)
• Type II Hypersensitivity (BURDWAN)
• Type III Hypersensitivity (MMC)
• NK Cell (RG KAR, JNM)
• Radioimmunoassay (MIDNAPUR)
• Antibody independent complement pathway (MIDNAPUR)
• Immunological tolerance (MCK)
Comment on 4 Marks
• Antigenic sharing between different species is helpful in serodiagnosis. (SDMC)
• All antibodies are immunoglobulin but all immunoglobulin are not antibodies. (CNMC)
• The basic pathogenesis of asthma and anaphylaxis are similar
• C3 protein plays a pivotal role in both innate and adaptive immunity.
• CD4+ T-helper cell plays a pivotal role in immune response(AMI &CMI) (JNM)
• Eradication of communicable disease depends on Herd immunity. (MALDA)
• Enrichment media is used in stool specimen. (MALDA)
• Immunity is of different types. (MCK)

• Atopy is a type of hypersensitivity. (MCK)
• Herd immunity is relevant in the control of epidemic disease. (MIDNAPUR)
• Complements can be activated by different pathways. (MMC)
• IgE mediates type I hypersensitivity reaction. (NBMC)
• Negative serological test should be interpreted with caution. (NRS)
• Complement is involved in tissue damaging reactions. (IPGMER)
• Concentration of antibody and antigen should be optimum in an antigen antibody reaction. (RG KAR)
• Haptens are incomplete antigen. (KPC)
• Penicillin can cause various types of hypersensitivity reaction. (BURDWAN)
• Alternative complement pathway is a part of innate immunity. (CNMC)
• Various mechanisms of autoimmunity.
• MHC plays an important role in immune system. (RG KAR)
• In immunization process adsorbed toxoid is a better option than fluid toxoid. (MIDNAPUR)
• Vaccines are enriched when used with adjuvants. (MIDNAPUR)
• Complements get activated in many ways. (ESIC)
• Heterophile antigens have diagnostic importance in some disease. ( RG KAR)
• Weil Felix is a heterophile agglutination test. (KPC)
Difference between 2 Marks
• Agglutination & Precipitation reaction (SDMC,CNMC, NRS)
• Innate immunity & Acquired immunity (SDMC, RG KAR)
• Active & Passive Immunity (BSMCH, MALDA, MMC)
• IgM&IgG (BSMCH, ICARE)
• Live vaccine & Killed Vaccine (ICARE)
• Exotoxin & Endotoxin (ICARE, IQC, KPC, MCK, MMC, RG KAR)
• Primary & Secondary immune response (MCK, NBMC, KPC, BURDWAN)
• CD4+ & CD8+ T-lymphocyte (NRS)
• Toxoid & Anti-toxin (IPGMER)
• T cell & B cell mediated Immune response (IPGMER, BURDWAN)
• Classical & alternate pathway of complement activation. (BURDWAN, RG KAR)
• ELISA Test
• Precipitation in liquid & precipitation in gel. (MIDNAPUR)
• ADCC (ESIC)
• Immediate & Delayed type of hypersensitivity. (KPC)
Parasitology
• A 40 year old lady was complaining of alternate day fever with chill and rigor for five days. On
examination he revealed a mild hepatosplenomegaly. What is your clinical diagnosis? What are the possible
etiological agents? Give an outline about the laboratory diagnosis of this condition. What are the complications
of this disease? 1+1+6+2
(MMCH,NRS,NBMC,BSMCH,BURDWAN,MURSHIDABAD,I CARE,SDMC)
• A 40 year old lady was complaining of alternate day fever with chill and rigor for five days. On
examination he revealed a mild hepatosplenomegaly. Write the life cycle of the agent in definitive host along
with diagram. 6 (IQ CITY)
• A 12 year old boy, belonging to low income group family, residing in a village, attended the OPD of our
hospital with complaints of dyspepsia, pallor, puffy face, edema of feet and ankle. On examination his Hb level
was found to be markedly low. His stool examination revealed presence of occult blood. What is the
commonest etiological helminth (genus and species) responsible for this condition? What may be the possible
route of infection in this case? Explain the cause and pattern of anemia in this helminthic infection. How the
laboratory diagnosis of this condition to be established. 1+1+4+4
(NRSMCH)
• A young man has a cystic mass in the liver with a history of close contact with the dog. What is your
provisional diagnosis? Name two etiological agents responsible for this. Write down the role of dog in such
case and laboratory diagnosis of such a case. 1+2+2+5 (ESIC)

• A 40 yrs. old patient came to OPD with history of fever, anorexia, weight loss, severe pancytopenia,
hepatomegaly and huge splenomegaly for last six months. Which parasite may be causative agent? What is
your provisional diagnosis? What is the immunopathogenesis of this disease? How will you proceed for
laboratory diagnosis of this case? 1+1+3+5 (R.G.KAR)
• A child of 3 years hasbeen brought to the hospital emergency with high fever for 5 days and rashes over
the trunk which is not blanching on pressure. What is the most likely provisional diagnosis? How will you
confirm the diagnosis in laboratory? What are the complications of this clinical condition? Write briefly the
pathogenesis? 1+4+2+3 (JNM)
• A 12 years old boy residing in a rural area attended OPD with complication of indigestion, weakness,
and occasional pain in the epigastrium. On examination he is found to be anemic with hemoglobin
level8.7gm/dl. Name the probable helminths causing such clinical condition? Discuss the pathogenesis of such
disease. How do you proceed to establish diagnosis? 2+4+4 (MALDA)
Short Note 4 Marks
• Cutaneous larva migrants. (KPC)
• Pathogenesis of Extra intestinal amoebiasis. (KPC,IQ CITY)
• Hydatid cyst. (SDMC, CMC)
• Free living amoeba. (SDMC)
• Cerebral malaria. (MALDA)
• Cysticercosis. (MALDA)
• Ova of Hookworm. (I CARE)
• Occult filariasis. (BARDWAN,NBMC, MMCH)
• Visceral larva migrants. (BANKURA,IQ CITY)
• PKDL (BANKURA, NRS)
• Trichomonas vaginalis. (JNM,)
• NIH swab. (R G KAR)
• Hookworm anemia. (R G KAR)
• Differentiate between Ancylostomaduodenale&Necatoramericanus. (ESIC, CMC, SDMC)
• Toxoplasma. (CMC)
• Cysticercus. (CMC, NRS)
• Pathogenesis of filariasis. (NRS)
• Microfilaria. (CMC)
• Trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica.(CMC)
• Ova of Enterobius. (CMC)
Comment On 4 marks
• Hookworm infection can cause severe anemia. (IQ CITY)
• Complications in patients suffering from falciparum malaria are multifactorial in organ. (MMCH)
• Iodine preparation of stool helps in differentiating amoebae. (NRS)
• Autoinfection can occur in certain helminthic infection. (NRS)
• Development of microcytic hypochromic type of anemia in Malaria is multifactorial in origin. (MMCH)
• Hypnozoites are responsible for relapse of malaria. (ESIC)
• Taeniasolium infection is more dangerous than Taeniasaginata infection. (IQ CITY)
• All forms of erythrocyte schizogony of Plasmodium falciparum are usually not found in peripheral
blood. (R G KAR, SDMC)
• Peripheral blood examination at mid night is important for diagnosis of classical filariasis. (BSMCH)
• Entamoeba histolytica may cause extra intestinal lesions. (BURDWAN)
• Parasitological demonstration is important for visceral leishmaniasis. (MURSHIDABAD)
• DEC provocative test is very helpful for detection of microfilariae. (MALDA)
• Microfilaria may not be present in peripheral blood in a case of filariasis. (KPC)
Difference Between 2 Marks
• Relapse and Recrudescence. (CMC)
• Classical filariasis and Occult filariasis. (ESIC)
• Wuchereriabancrofti&Brugiamalayi. (MMCH)
• Amoebic and bacillary dysentery. (NRS)
• Proglottides of T. solium and T. saginata. (MMCH, KPC)

• Fasciola hepatica vs Fasciolopsisbuski. (ESIC)
• Amastigote and Promastigote form of Leishmaniadonovani. (MALDA)
• Platyhelminthes and Nemathelminthes. (I CARE)
• Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba coli. (I CARE, NBMC)
• Trophozoite and cyst of Entamoeba histolytica. (BARDWAN)
• Amastigote and Promastigote. (BANKURA, IQ CITY)
• Microfilaria of W. bancrofti and microfilaria of Brugiamalayi.(R G KAR)
Virology
o A middle aged truck driver having a history of exposure with multiple sexual partner presented in OPD
with history of fever,weakness,wasting and chronic diarrhea for last 3 months.
§ What is the probable clinical diagnosis?
§ What are the different etiological agents?
§ Discuss in brief the different serological tests available for diagnosis of such a case. [1+2+7=10]
o A 15 year old slum dweller was admitted in the LD Hospital with muscle spasms,hyperactivity,seizures,
hyper salivation and pupillary dilation.His parents gave a history of dog bite 2 months back. [KPC]
§ What is the clinical condition and the causative agent?
§ How will you establish the laboratory diagnosis of such a case?
§ What measures taken after the animal bite could have prevented such a condition? [2+4+4=10]
o A girl while playing sustained a cut injury for which attended the ER of rural health center,where she
received one dose of tetanus toxoid.After a few weeks,she developed jaundice,loss of appetite and fever.
[IPGMER]
§ What is your clinical diagnosis? [1+1+5+3=10]
§ Name the two most likely etiological agents.
§ Describe the laboratory diagnosis of any one.
§ What are the prophylactic measures to be taken in the prevention of transmission of these infections?
o A child had an attack of fever followed by flaccid paralysis of left lower limb. [ESI-PGIMSR]
§ What will be the probable etiological agent? [1+5+4=10]
§ How will you proceed to diagnosis the case?
§ What preventive measures will you take to prevent the disease?
o A 25 year old male with a history of multiple sex partners is admitted with complaints of unexplained
fever,progressive loss of weight,persistentdiarrhea&generalized lymphadenopathy for past 6 months.
§ What is the probable diagnosis? [ESI-PGIMSR,SDMC]
§ Draw a labelled diagram of the morphology of the causative agent? [2+3+5=10]
§ Discuss the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis.
o Define arbovirus.Name the arbovirus prevalent in India. Name the causative agents of viral hemorrhagic
fever. Discuss the approach to laboratory diagnosis and monitoring test in patient of dengue fever.[NRS]
[1+2+2+3+2=10]
o A 30 year old male patient was brought to the emergency with complains of hallucination, fluctuating
level of consciousness and difficulty in drinking of water despite of intense thirst. He had a past history of
animal bite 5 days back. [NBMC]
§ What is your probable clinical diagnosis? [1+5+4=10]
§ How will you confirm the diagnosis in the laboratory?
§ What are the measures available to prevent such a condition?
o A truck driver with history of exposure, has been admitted in hospital with fever,weakness,severe loss of
weight, anorexia,chronic diarrhea and generalized lymphadenopathy for last 6 months [R.G.KAR]
§ Enumerate the viruses which may cause such disease. [1+5+4=10]
§ How will you proceed to diagnosis the case in the laboratory?
§ While drawing blood from the patient you got a needle prick injury,what post exposure prophylaxis will
you take?
o A 62 year old male with history of COPD presented severe URTI in month of January.He had had
history of exposure to a patient having similar condition.Throat swab collected & sent to reference lab for real
time PCR which revealed causative agent could be segmented RNA virus. [ESIC]
§ What is the etiological agent and mechanism of emergence of this particular strain of virus?[1+2]
§ Describe the mode of transmission & laboratory diagnosis of causative agent.[1+4]
§ What are the preventive measures available for this condition?[2]

o A 40 year old man attended the medicine OPD of MMCH with insidious onset of anorexia,nausea and
vomiting along with arthralgia and urticaria.On examination he was found having deep jaundice.On repeated
query he reveals his homosexual activity four months back. [MMCH]
§ What is your provisional diagnosis?
§ What is the causative agents?
§ Describe the laboratory diagnosis In brief.
§ Write down the modes of prevention. [1+1+5+3=10]
o A 15 years boy presented with mild fever,malaise,loss of appetite and yellow discoloration of eyes.He
has a recent history of injury 2 months back treated by injections and the wound repaired in a clinic. [IQ CITY]
§ What is the possible clinical diagnosis?
§ What is /are the etiological agents? How will you establish the laboratory diagnosis of the most common
etiological agents?
§ What prophylactic vaccine could have been offered to prevent the condition? [1+1+6+2=10]
o A boy having a history of dog bite 2 weeks ago with no history of vaccination has been admitted in the
hospital with fever,headache,muscle spasm particularlywhile trying to drink water. [JNM,BSMCH]
§ What is the clinical diagnosis?
§ What is the etiological agent?
§ Discuss the protocol for laboratory diagnosis of the disease. [1+1+4+4=10]
§ What is the post exposure prophylaxis in case of dog bite?
o A patient has come with anorexia,abdominal discomfort and jaundice for a week.He gives a history of
blood transfusion 6 months back. [CMC]
§ What is your diagnosis?
§ What are the causative viruses? [1+1+5+3=10]
§ How will you proceed for laboratory diagnosis?
§ How can you prevent such a condition?
o A 21 year old boy presented at the OPD of hospital with the complaint of loss of appetite and low grade
fever and high colored urine for last one week.There was history of taking some injection from local
practitioner about five months ago.On examination, he had yellow discoloration of skin and conjunctiva and
tender hepatomegaly. [BURDWAN]
§ What is probable diagnosis?
§ Name the etiological agents causing such infection.
§ Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of such case. [1+2+5+2=10]
§ How such type of infection can be prevented?
o A child aged 10 years has been admitted to the hospital with irritability,photophobia & convulsion.He
refuses to take food and water. There is a history of dog bite 10days back. [ICARE]
§ What may be the clinical diagnosis & what is the causative agents?
§ What are the steps for confirmation of diagnosis in the laboratory? [2+4+4=10]
§ Mention the different steps for prevention of such illness.
o A 40 yrs old man presented to the medical OPD with high fever,severe headache and pain around the
eyes for the last 5 days .Petechial lesions were noted on the forearm. [KPC]
§ What is your probable etiological agents? [1+4+4+1=10]
§ How will you confirm your diagnosis in the laboratory?
§ Is there any measure by which you can prevent such disease?
o A 20 years old girl attended Medicine OPD with complaint of persistent fatigue,loss of appetite,nausea,
vomiting,abdominal pain and passing high colored urine for 2 weeks.Biochemical examination showed
elevated serum bilirubin and liver enzyme. [MALDA]
§ What are the probable etiological agents?
§ How do you proceed to establish diagnosis? [1+2+5+2=10]
§ What may be the immunoprophylaxis of such disease?
Short Note 4 Marks
• Laboratory diagnosis of Japanese Encephalitis
• Prophylaxis of rabies [SDMC]
• Mechanism of Dengue Hemorrhagic fever & DSS [KPC, BSMCH]
• Inclusion bodies [CNMC,ESIC]
• Evidences of viral growth in tissue culture systems [IPGMER]

• Opportunistic infection in AIDS patients [IPGMER]
• Serological markers of Hepatitis B virus infection [NRS, BSMCH]
• Dengue shock syndrome [NRS]
• Cultivation of viruses [ICARE]
• Swine flu [ESIC]
• Lab diagnosis of HIV infection[MMCH]
• Interferons[MMCH,KPC]
• Antigenic variations of influenza virus [IQ CITY]
• Prion disease[JNM]
• CPE [MURSHIDABAD MC, JNM]
• Post exposure prophylaxis against HIV infection [BURDWAN]
• Viral gastroenteritis [ICARE]
• Oncogenic viruses [MALDA]
Comment On 4 marks
o Serological test HBV infection is helpful in differentiating between chronic active and chronic persistent
hepatitis.
o Inclusion bodies are important in diagnosis of certain viral infection. [KPC]
o Viruses have different capsid symmetry [CMC]
o Herpes virus is of many type. [CMC]
o Viral hepatitis can be caused by different ways.[CMC,KPC]
o Rabies vaccines are of various kinds.[CMC]
o Diagnosis of viral infection [CNMC]
o HIV infection destroys both arms of immune system [IPGMER]
o Herpes Zoster infection prevents chicken pox [IPGMER]
o Varicella Zoster differs from primary infection. [ESI-PGIMER]
o A single rapid serological test may not be sufficient to declare a case to be HIV sero-positive [NRS]
o Cytopathic effect produced by different viruses sometimes helps in the identification of virus. [NRS,
BURDWAN]
o Inclusion bodies often help in diagnosis of disease. [ICARE]
o Viruses can be transplanted along with organ transplantation. [NBMC]
o Recurrence is common in Herpes Simplex infection. [NBMC]
o Detection of serological markers of Hep B is useful for diagnosis of acute HBV infection. [RGK]
o Role of interferon in viral disease[ESIC]
o Viral encephalitis prevalent in West Bengal[ESIC]
o Complication of dengue virus infection are having different reasons[MMCH]
o Dengue hemorrhagic fever commonly occurs in endemic areas.[IQ CITY, BSMCH]
o Virus can cause diarrhea. [JNM,BSMCH,KPC]
o Opportunistic infections occurs in AIDS.[JNM]
o HIV/AIDS is associated with immunosuppression.[MURSHIDABAD MC]
o Viral infection may result in malignancy.[BSMCH]
o Duration of fever is important in dengue serodiagnosis. [SDMC]
o Following emergence of avian influenza in a poultry farm culling of birds is mandatory to prevent
pandemic influenza. [SDMC]
o Stages of HBV infection may be determined by different serological markers. [ICARE]
o Antigenic shift has a role to play in causing pandemic of influenza.[ICARE]
o In window period of HIV infection,antibody detection is not useful. [MALDA]
o Immunoprophylaxis of influenza may show failure.[MALDA]
o Influenza vaccine developed for one season/year may not be effective in an epidemic of next
season/year [ESI-PGIMER]
• Antigenic shift and antigenic drift [JNM,MURSHIDABAD MC,R.G.KAR,NRS]
• Salk & Sabine vaccine [KPC, SDMC, ESI]
• Hepatitis A & Hepatitis B [CNMC,ESI-PGIMSR]
• Herpes Simplex 1 & Herpes Simplex 2 [IPGMER,MMCH]
• Bacteria & Virus [ICARE,KPC]
• Mycoplasma & Viruses [NRS]

• HIV-1 & HIV-2 [ESIC]
• Street virus & fixed virus[IQ CITY,BURDWAN]
• Orthomyxoviridae vs paramyxoviridae [IQ CITY,CMC,BSMCH]
• Virion vs viroid [ICARE]
• Dengue vs Japanese B encephalitis virus.[MALDA]
• Neural and non-neural vaccine against rabies. [NRS]
Mycology
• A 45 years old farmer presented to the surgical OPD with a h/o multiple swellings in the right foot with
discharge of pus from the sinuses. What is your provisional diagnosis? What is the probable etiological agent?
How will you confirm your diagnosis in laboratory? (1+4+5) (KPC)
• A patient has come to the dermatology OPD with a circular lesion on his back with itching and redness.
The lesion has central clearing and peripheral extension. What are the causative fungi? How will you proceed
for laboratory diagnosis? What is Id reaction? (3+6+1) (CMC)
• A 42 years old pigeon lover presented to the emergency ward with fever for 2 weeks accompanied by
convulsion and neck rigidity of recent onset. Lumbar puncture is done and increased pressure of CSF is noted.
CSF analysis shows: protein -500 mg/dl, sugar -30 mg/dl, TLC -100/C.mm with predominance of
lymphocytes. Which fungal agent is responsible for this? How will you establish the laboratory diagnosis?
Mention the rapid tests you should perform to help the clinician? (2+6+2) (KPC)
Short Note 4 Marks
• Germ tube test.
• Laboratory diagnosis of Dermatophytes.
• Opportunistic mycosis. (KPC)
• Cryptococcus. (SDMC, IQ CITY, NBMC)
• Opportunistic fungi. (MALDA, I CARE)
• Dermatophytes. (BURDWAN)
• Dimorphic fungi. (BSMCH, NRS)
• Aspergillus. (JNM)
• SDA media. (R G KAR)
• Classification of fungi. (MMCH)
Comment On 4 marks
• Species level diagnosis of superficial fungal infection can’t be confirmed by KOH amount only. (KPC)
• Fungal culture is required to identify of Dermatophytes. (SDMC, NRS)
• Negative staining is very helpful for Cryptococcus detection. (MALDA)
• There are different methods for diagnosis of fungal disease. (IU CARE)
• Cryptococcus can be diagnosed rapidly. (MURSHIDABAD)
• Some fungi are dimorphic. (BURDWAN, R G KAR)
• Germ tube test is used for detection of Candida species. (BSMCH)
• Mycetoma can be caused by fungi as well as bacteria. (JNM)
• Thermal dimorphism is demonstrated by fungi. (JNM)
• Coccidian parasitic infection is common in HIV patients. (NBMC)
• Subcutaneous fungal infection may be yeast or mould. (ESIC)
• In diagnostic mycology clinical samples should be collected and cultured in pairs.
• Many fungal pathogens cause opportunistic infection. (KPC)
• Cryptococcus and Candida albicans. (KPC)
• Infection type of food poisoning. (KPC)
• Eumycetoma & Actinomycetoma. (SDMC, MALDA, BURDWAN, BSMCH, RGKAR, KPC)
• Candida albicans and Non-albicansCandida. (JNM)
• Pseudohyphae and Hyphae. (JNM, MMCH)
• Yeast and yeast like fungi. (CMC)


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NILRATAN SIRCAR MEDICAL COLLEGE

Sorted out Semester Papers

All the best for

1 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

PHARMACOLOGY SORTED SEMESTER QUESTION

2 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

3 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

EXPLAIN WHY (3 marks)

5 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

EXPLAIN WHY (3marks)

6 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

7 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

8 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

SHORT NOTES (3marks)

9 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

10 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

12 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

13 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

14 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

15 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

16 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

18 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

PATHOLOGY SORTED SEMESTER QUESTIONS

19 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING MARKS=5

20 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

SHORT NOTES MARKS =5

21 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

23 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

SHORT NOTES MARKS =5

Short notes (5 marks)

24 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

Answer the following (5 marks)

Answer the following(5 marks)

Short Note (5 marks)

25 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

Answer the following (5 Marks)

Short note (5 Marks)

Answer the following (5 marks)

26 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

Comment on(5 Marks)

Answer of following (5 Marks)

Short note (5 Marks)

Short Note (5 Marks)

Answer of following (5 Marks)

Short note (5 Marks)

Answer of following (5 Marks)

Short note (5 Marks)

28 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

Short Notes 2.5 marks

Explain Why 2.5 marks

Difference 2.5 marks

Medico-Legal Importance 2.5 marks

29 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

30 A NRS Medical College Students’ Union Initiative 2nd Prof MBBS

Short Notes 2.5 marks

Medico legal Importance 2.5 marks

Explain Why 2.5marks

Differentiate between (2.5 marks)