http://www.aircrafttechtrng.
com
Module 11
Aeroplane Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
1. As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of
Pressure
is unaffected
moves aft
moves forward
2. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are
associated with
ailerons
rudder
elevators
3. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you
position the trim tab on the rudder to correct?
To the left
To the right
To the centre
4. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where
would you move the left aileron trim tab to correct?
Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the
situation
Up
Down
5. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is
the slot in the wing for?
To increase the lift
To re-energise the boundary layer
To allow the flap to retract into it when it
retracts
6. With respect to differential aileron control, which of
the following is true?
The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle
than the down going aileron
The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle
than the up going aileron
The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to
the same angle
7. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section
and will therefore provide a side-load
only when the rudder is moved
if a suitable angle of attack develops due either
yaw or rudder movement
only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to
yaw
8. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron
trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the
cockpit would be
moved up causing the left aileron to move down
moved up causing the left aileron to move up
moved down causing the left aileron to move down
9. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to
provide housing for the slat
speed up the airflow and increase lift
act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise
boundary layer
10. Large flap deployment
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing
upper surface
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing
lower surface
has no effect on spanwise flow
Answers for Questions 1 - 10
1) moves aft
Comment/Reference: Assuming that the aircraft is to
remain at constant altitude, it must reduce its angle
of attack as it speeds-up. This alone will move the C
of P rearwards, in accordance with the sub-sonic angle
of attack change theory.
2) ailerons
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control
4th Edition Page 51. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 1-12
3) To the left
Comment/Reference: Automatic flight control, Pallett,
4th Edition Page 43
4) Up
Comment/Reference: Automatic flight control, Pallett,
4th Edition Page 43
5) To re-energise the boundary layer
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control
2nd Edition Page 50. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 1-32
6) The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle
than the up going aileron
Comment/Reference: Mechanics of Flight, Kermode, Page
301. AC65-15A pg 41 rh column
7) if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw
or rudder movement
Comment/Reference: Rudder deflection or yaw
8) moved up causing the left aileron to move down
Comment/Reference: Down aileron required - which
requires up trim
9) act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise
boundary layer
Comment/Reference: A slot is to act as venturi,
accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer
10) causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing
lower surface
Comment/Reference: Flaps increase the pressure
differential between top and bottom surfaces, increase
tip vortices and spanwise flow
Questions 11 – 20
11. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls
first?
Tip stalls first
Root stalls first
Both stall together
12. During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The
aircraft would have a tendency to fly
right wing low
nose up
left wing low
13. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft
service ceiling will
not be affected
rise
lower
14. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on
the angle of attack of a wing?
Decrease the angle of attack
Increase the angle of attack
No effect on angle of attack
15. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall
wedges are
installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root
16. With reference to differential aileron control
drag decreases on the outer wing
drag increases on the inner wing
drag increases on the outer wing
17. Dutch role is movement in
yaw and roll
yaw and pitch
pitch and roll
18. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable
aircraft returns to trimmed attitude
C of P moves back
aircraft becomes too sensitive
19. Ailerons control the aircraft in the
longitudinal plane
directional plane
lateral plane
20. An anti-balance tab is used
for trimming the aircraft
to give more feel to the controls
to relieve stick loads
Answers for Questions 11 – 20
1) Tip stalls first
Comment/Reference: The tip of a swept wing stalls
first
2) right wing low
Comment/Reference: The leading wing (left wing) has
increased lift, causing it to rise
3) rise
Comment/Reference: As ambient temperature drops,
density increases and aircraft performance increases
4) Decrease the angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
5) installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root
Comment/Reference:
6) drag increases on the inner wing
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett
4th Edition Page 41
A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-11
7) yaw and roll
Comment/Reference: Avionic Fundamentals Jeppesen page
291
8) aircraft returns to trimmed attitude
Comment/Reference:
9) lateral plane
Comment/Reference: Ailerons control the aircraft 'IN'
the lateral axis, which is 'ABOUT' the longitudinal
axis.
10) to give more feel to the controls
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook 1-29 & http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/servo_tab
Questions 21 – 30
21. Slats
act as an air brake
increase the overall surface area and lift effect of
wing
keep the boundary layer from separating for longer
22. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the
extension of flaps in flight
nose should be raised, increasing AoA
nose should remain in the same position, maintaining
same AoA
nose should be lowered, reducing AoA
23. Flight spoilers
can be used with differential ailerons to reduce
adverse yaw in a turn
can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to
increase lift on that wing
can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled
decent without reduction of airspeed
24. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction
would you move the elevator trim tab?
Up to move elevator up
Down to move elevator up
Up to move elevator down
25. Wing tip vortices are strongest when
flying high speed straight and level flight
flying into a headwind
flying slowly at high angles of attack
26. An example of a secondary flight control is a
elevator
spoiler
flap
27. A balance tab
effectively increases the area of the control
surface
is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft
assists the pilot to move the controls
28. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?
Both wings have an equal increase in drag
Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-
going aileron increases more
Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-
going aileron increases more
29. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?
Slot
Split
Fowler
30. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle
of attack is
high
low
high or lo
Answers for Questions 21 – 30
1) keep the boundary layer from separating for longer
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P technician airframe
textbook page 1-32
2) nose should be lowered, reducing AoA
Comment/Reference: The main purpose of flaps is to
increase lift so that the pilot can lower the nose,
increase decent angle and get a better view of the
runway. http://en.wikipedia.ort/wiki/Flap_(aircraft)
3) can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled
decent without reduction of airspeed
4) Down to move elevator up
5) flying slowly at high angles of attack
6) flap
Comment/Reference: A spoiler is sometimes a 'primary
flight control' when it is used for roll control in
conjunction with the ailerons. On the other hand, a
flap is usually not considered to be a flight control
at-all, rather, a high lift device. So take your pick!
7) assists the pilot to move the controls
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook
pg 1-29
8) Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-
going aileron increases more
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 1-26 & AC65-15A pg 41, top para’s right
side.
9) Fowler
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 20 & AC65-15A pg 48
10) high
Questions 31 – 40
31. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control,
roll to the right is caused by
right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining
retracted
left and right spoilers extending
left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining
retracted
32. A split flap increases lift by increasing
the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion
the surface area
the camber of the top surface
33. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft
will
pitch nose up
sink
pitch nose down
34. Dutch roll is
a type of slow roll
a combined yawing and rolling motion
primarily a pitching instability
35. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up
is caused by
increasing tailplane incidence
decreasing tailplane incidence
up movement of the elevator trim tab
36. A leading edge slat is a device for
decreasing wing drag
decreasing the stalling angle of the wing
increasing the stalling angle of the wing
37. A Krueger flap is
a leading edge slat which extends forward
a leading edge flap which hinges forward
a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower
38. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which
is slower moving, in relation to the rest of the
airflow, is known as
boundary layer
none of the above are correct
camber layer
39. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface
of an aerofoil decreases, what takes place?
Pressure increases, lift increases
Pressure increases, lift decreases
Pressure decreases, lift increases
40. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin
friction?
Aspect ratio
Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior
Fineness ratio
Answers for Questions 31 – 40
1) right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining
retracted
2) the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 1-30 & AC65-15A pg 48
3) pitch nose down
Comment/Reference: Due to the centre of pressure
moving aft
4) a combined yawing and rolling motion
5) decreasing tailplane incidence
6) increasing the stalling angle of the wing
7) a leading edge flap which hinges forward
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician
Textbook page 1-37 figure 1-64
8) boundary layer
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 48
9) Pressure increases, lift decreases
10) Fineness Ratio
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 32 under ‘Shape of the
Airfoil’ third paragraph says Fineness ratio is the
main controlling factor.
Questions 41 – 50
41. Changes in aircraft weight
will only affect total drag if the lift is kept
constant
will not affect total drag since it is dependant
only upon speed
cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the
associated lift change
42. When an aircraft stalls
lift decreases and drag increases
lift and drag increase
lift increases and drag decreases
43. The aircraft stalling speed will
only change if the MTWA were changed
increase with an increase in weight
be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is
dependant upon the angle of attack
44. In a bank and turn
extra lift is not required
extra lift is required
extra lift is not required if thrust is increased
45. The angle of attack at which stall occurs
cannot be varied, it is always constant
can be varied by using flaps and slats
depends on the weight of the aircraft
46. The primary function of a flap is
to alter the lift of an aerofoil
to trim the aircraft longitudinally
to alter the position of the centre of gravity
47. The stalling speed of an aircraft
is increased when it is lighter
does not change
is increased when it is heavier
48. A wing flap which has 'dropped' or partially extended
on one wing in flight will lead to
a pitching moment which would be corrected by used
of the elevators
a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected
by use of the ailerons
a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by
use of the rudder
49. With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the
stalling angle of a wing
decreases
increases
remains the same
50. Downward displacement of an aileron
increases the angle at which its wing stalls
has no effect on its wing stalling angle, it only
affects the stalling speed on that wing
decreases the angle at which its wing will stall
Answers for Questions 41 – 50
1) cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the
associated lift change
2) lift decreases and drag increases
3) increase with an increase in weight
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stall_(flight)
4) extra lift is required
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wing_loading
5) can be varied by using flaps and slats
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stall_(flight)
6) to alter the lift of an aerofoil
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 1-30 & AC65-15A pg 47 ‘High-Lift
Devices’
7) is increased when it is heavier
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stall_(flight)
8) a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by
use of the ailerons
9) decreases
10) decreases the angle at which its wing will stall
Comment/Reference: An aileron displacement has a
similar effect on stall angle as the deployment of
flaps
Questions 51 – 60
51. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-
induced downwash on the tailplane
will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch
may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending
upon the initial tailplane load
will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch
52. Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying
extension of the flaps, to maintain the lift constant
it would be necessary to
keep the pitch attitude constant
raise the nose
lower the nose
53. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow
over the wing?
Flap and slat
Flap
Slat
54. The tropopause exists at about
36,000 ft.
18,000 ft.
30,000 ft
55. Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta
wing are such that there is
decrease in gradient with wing speed
no change in gradient with wing speed
an increase in gradient with wing speed
56. If an aircraft is yawing left, to correct, the trim
tab on the rudder would need to be positioned
to the centre
to the right, moving the rudder left
to the left, moving the rudder right
57. Instability giving roll and yaw
is dutch roll
is lateral stability
is longitudinal stability
58. Vortex generators are fitted to
move transition point rearwards
move transition point forwards
advance the onset of flow separation
59. Leading edge flaps
decrease stalling angle of the wing
do not change the stalling angle
increase stalling angle of the wing
60. Krueger flaps are on
the trailing edge
the leading edge
either the leading or training edge
Answers for Questions 51 – 60
1) will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downwash
2) lower the nose
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flap_(aircraft)
3) Slat
Comment/Reference: AC65
4) 36,000 ft.
5) decrease in gradient with wing speed
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lift-to-drag_ratio
6) to the left, moving the rudder right
7) is Dutch roll
8) move transition point forwards
9) increase stalling angle of the wing
Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slats
10) the leading edge
Questions 61 – 70
61. Sweepback will
decrease lateral stability
not affect lateral stability
increase lateral stability
62. A plain flap
does not increase the wing area on deployment
forms part of lower trailing edge
is attached to the leading edge of the wing
63 A split flap, when deployed
increases drag with little lift coefficient
increase, from intermediate to fully down
is used only on high speed aircraft
increases lift without a corresponding increase in
drag
64. Air above Mach 0.7 is
incompressible
compressible only when above the speed of sound
compressible
65. Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes
the
pressure to decrease, velocity to increase
pressure to increase, velocity to increase
pressure to increase, velocity to decrease
66. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a
constant True Airspeed. Its Mach. No. will
not change
decrease
increase
67. A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to
shock induced
tip stall on a delta wing aircraft
root stall on a delta wing aircraft
tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
68. A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1
with an angle of attack of 0°. A shock wave will form
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft
until the point of maximum camber
on the upper surface only and move aft
69. At speeds greater than mach 1, airflow in the boundary
layer is
subsonic
supersonic
stationary
70. Before an aircraft reaches critical mach
the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the
shock wave
the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward
Answers for Questions 61 – 70
1) increase lateral stability
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Swept_wing
2) does not increase the wing area on deployment
3) increases drag with little lift coefficient increase,
from intermediate to fully down
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flap_(aircraft)
4) compressible
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Flight Barnard and
Philpot, 2nd Ed Page123. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode
10th Ed Page 385
5) pressure to decrease, velocity to increase
Comment/Reference: Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th
Ed Page 340 & AC65-15A pg 59
6) decrease
Comment/Reference: Speed of sound INCREASES with
DECREASING altitude, so mach number will decrease.
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mach_number
7) root stall on a delta wing aircraft
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd
Ed Page 45 & http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mach_tuck
8) on the upper and lower surface and will move aft
Comment/Reference: Shockwaves form on upper and lower
surfaces BEGINNING at point of max curvature,
gradually moving back.
9) subsonic
Comment/Reference: The definition of the boundary
layer is 'airflow ranges from zero to 99% of free flow
speed' However, by same definition, some flow in the
boundary layer is ALWAYS less than Mach 1
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boundary_layer
10) the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
Comment/Reference: Mechanics of Flight 10th Ed Barnard
and Philpott Pg 341
Questions 71 – 80
71. On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of
sound be the greatest?
20,000 ft
10,000 ft
Sea level
72. Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach
Number of an aerofoil?
Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings
Decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings
Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back
73. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic
region, the centre of pressure tends to
move rearward
move forward
turn into a shock wave
74. Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave
will decrease its speed and
increase temperature and decrease density
decrease temperature and increase density
increase temperature and increase density
75. On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach
1 the boundary layer is
stationary
supersonic
thicker than if the aircraft were travelling slower
than Mach 1
76. At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and
below the wing
at the leading edge
at the trailing edge
at both the leading edge and the trailing edge
77. A high speed aircraft with MACH warning will
warn when coming to limits of upper envelope
warn when Mach 1 has been exceeded
warn when Mcrit is reached
78. Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient
remains the same
increases
decreases
79. At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft
metals
such as aluminium, become brittle
will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved
lose their strength due to the kinetic heating
effect
80. Mach trim operates
along the longitudinal axis
to reduce Dutch roll
along the lateral axis
Answers for Questions 71 - 80
1) Sea level
2) Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Critical_Mach_number
3) move rearward
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mach_tuck
4) increase temperature and increase density
Comment/Reference: Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th
Ed Page 326 fig 11.4 & AC65
5) stationary
Comment/Reference: Boundary layer at supersonic
speeds is very thin and considered negligible. Part of
it is stationary. www.wikipedia.org
6) at both the leading edge and the trailing edge
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 59-60
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shock_wave
7) warn when Mcrit is reached
Comment/Reference: Mach overspeed warning (aka
'henpecker' - cluck, cluck, cluck) is activated at Mcrit
(shown by the barber pole on some ASIs)
8) increases
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave_drag
9) lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aerodynamic_heating
10) along the longitudinal axis
Comment/Reference:
www.aerospaceweb.org/question/dynamics/q0137.shml
Questions 81 – 90
81. To increase critical mach number
the wings are swept
tailerons are fitted
elevons are fitted
82. An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big
increase in drag in straight and level flight, what
would be the most probable cause?
Severe head winds
Atmospheric conditions
Aircraft reached its critical mach number
83. A Mach Trimmer is a device which
switches out trim control to prevent damage in the
transonic speed range
prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical
Mach No
automatically compensates for trim changes in the
transonic region
84. Critical Mach No. may be increased by
sweeping back the wing
using more powerful engines
using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing
85. Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is
sonic upstream and downstream
subsonic upstream, sonic downstream
sonic upstream, subsonic downstream
86. Mach Number is defined as
speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed
of sound
IAS divided by the local speed of sound
TAS divided by local speed of sound
87. The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed
aircraft is to
decrease boundary layer
decrease wave drag
enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned
88. Critical Mach Number is defined as
that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of
the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic
that number at which the airflow becomes supersonic
the minimum mach number at which the aircraft can go
supersonic
89. The transonic region is a region of
mixed airflow
all subsonic
all supersonic
90. Immediately downstream of an oblique shockwave is
always
supersonic
the same as upstream
subsonic
Answers for Questions 81 – 90
1) the wings are swept
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Swept_wing
2) Aircraft reached its critical mach number
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Critical_Mach_number
3) automatically compensates for trim changes in the
transonic region
Comment/Reference: Pallet, Auto Flt Control 4th Ed, pg
50 & www.aerospace.org
4) sweeping back the wing
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Swept_wing
5) sonic upstream, subsonic downstream
Comment/Reference: AC65-12A
6) TAS divided by local speed of sound
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 66 & AC65
7) enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned
8) that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the
airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Critical_mach
9) mixed airflow
Comment/Reference: AC65-12A
10) supersonic
Comment/Reference: AC65-12A
Questions 91 – 100
91. Wave drag
increases in the supersonic region
increases in the transonic region
increases at the low speed stall
92. For increased Mcrit
decrease sweepback
decrease true airspeed
decrease thickness/chord ratio
93. Symptoms of shock stall are
buffet, loss of control, and instability
decrease in speed, buffet and movement of the centre
of pressure
compressibility effects, buffet and loss of control
94. Sweepback increases Mcrit by
decreasing the amount of airflow over the lowest
point on the aerofoil section
decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest
point on the aerofoil section
increasing the amount of airflow over the highest
point on the aerofoil section
95. Mach number is
the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of
sound at sea level
the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of
sound at the same atmospheric conditions
the ratio of the aircraft's IAS to the speed of
sound at the same atmospheric conditions
96. The critical Mach number is
the Mach No. when a shock wave forms at the leading
edge
the Mach No. when the aircraft reaches the speed of
sound
the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the
speed of sound at some point on the aircraft
97. Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will
start to decrease
remain the same
start to increase
98. A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach
No. will be
higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
the same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
lower than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
99. An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will
usually experience
a nose down pitch
a nose up pitch
an oscillation in pitch
100. Tuck-under can be counteracted by
aileron reversal
trim tabs
mach trim
Answers for Questions 91 – 100
1) increases in the transonic region
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave_drag
2) decrease thickness/chord ratio
Comment/Reference:
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamics1/High-
Speed/Page2e.html
3) buffet, loss of control, and instability
http://aerodyn.org/HighSpeed/shock-stall.html
4) decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest
point on the aerofoil section
Comment/Reference: see question 2 link
5) the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound
at the same atmospheric conditions
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 19
http://en.wikipedip.ort/wiki/Mach_number
6) the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the
speed of sound at some point on the aircraft
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Critical_mach
7) start to increase
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave-Drag
8) higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
Comment/Reference: see question 2 link
9) a nose down pitch
Comment/Reference:
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamics1/High-
Speed/Page6.html
10) mach trim
Comment/Reference: see question 9 link
Questions 101 – 110
101. What causes tuck-under?
Shock stall
Aileron reversal
Flap-back effect
102. When does a shock stall occur?
When the aircraft forward speed is above Mach One
At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane
When the aircraft reaches speed of sound in a dive
103. With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions,
the temperature in the troposphere
increases
remains constant
decreases
104. Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally
supersonic
sonic
subsoni
105. Downstream of a normal shock wave
pressure and temperature decrease
pressure decreases temperature increases
pressure and temperature increase
106. Speed of sound varies with
temperature
pressure
altitude
107. Immediately downstream of a normal shockwave, air is
always
the same as upstream
subsonic
supersonic
108. Increased sweepback
improves tip stall characteristics
decreases stability
raises Mcrit
109. Aerodynamic heating
increases as a function of airspeed
decreases with altitude
increases with skin friction
110. To overcome ineffective control surface problems in
the transonic region
hydraulic powered elevators may be used
an all moving tailplane may be used
Frise ailerons may be used
Answers for Questions 101 – 110
1) Shock stall
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mach_tuck
2) At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane
Comment/Reference:
http://aerodyn.org/HighSpeed/shock-stall.html
3) decreases
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Troposphere
4) supersonic
Comment/Reference: AC65-12A
5) pressure and temperature increase
Comment/Reference: AC65-12A
6) temperature
Comment/Reference: AC65-12A
7) subsonic
Comment/Reference: AC65-12A
8) raises Mcrit
Comment/Reference:
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamich1/High-
Speed/Page2e.html
9) increases as a function of airspeed
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aerodynamic_heating
10) an all moving tailplane may be used
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tailplane#Control
Questions 111 – 120
111. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a
constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
remain the same
decrease
increase
112. To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure
as an aircraft flies through the transonic region,
fuel is pumped
backwards
sideways
forwards
113. To make flying controls more effective at high speed
area rule is used
wing fences are used
vortex generators are used
114. An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a
constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
remain the same
increase
decrease
115. The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude
will
increase
decrease
remain constant
116. Mach number equals the ratio of
sonic speed to indicated airspeed
altitude to airspeed
true airspeed to local sonic speed
117. Tuck-under is caused by
root stall on a swept wing aircraft
tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
tip stall on a swept wing aircraft
118. The purpose of sweepback on an aerofoil is to
decrease drag
decrease Mcrit
increase Mcrit
119. As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a
shock wave will appear initially
at the trailing edge
at the leading edge
near the point of maximum curvature
120. In the transonic speed range
the position of the wing centre of pressure remains
constant
the centre of pressure initially moves forward, then
back
the centre of pressure movement may become
oscillatory
Answers for Questions 111 – 120
1) decrease
Comment/Reference:
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamics1/High-
Speed/Page2.html
2) backwards
Comment/reference: Pallet, Auto Flight Cont pg 51 &
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamics1/High-
Speed/Page6.html
3) vortex generators are used
Comment/Reference: AC65-12A
4) remain the same
Comment/Reference: see question 1 link
5) decrease
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 19 & see
question 1 link
6) true airspeed to local sonic speed
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 19 & see
question 1 link
7) root stall on a swept wing aircraft
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mack_Tuck
8) increase Mcrit
Comment/Reference:
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamics1/High-
Speed/Page2e.html
9) near the point of maximum curvature
Comment/Reference:
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamics1/High-
Speed/Page2b.html
10) the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory
Comment/Reference: see question 7 link
Questions 121 – 130
121. Zone 320 under the ATA system is
horizontal stabiliser
central fuselage
vertical stabilizer
122. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance
between component and earth is
1/50 ohms
50 milliohms
0.005ohms
123. The fuel drain of a combustion heater must be
protected from
lightning strike
ice build-up
accidental damage
124. Engine mounts provide for
lateral movement
torsional movement
longitudinal movement
125. Dyna engine mounts
prevent all vibration from engine to airframe
reduce vibration from engine to airframe
are constructed from plastic
126. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft
prevented during a lightning strike?
Special paint
Bonding Strip
Earthing Strap
127. Tension is the stress of
twisting
crush or compression
elongating or stretch
128. A Fuselage Station is a
longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage
lateral point on aircraft fuse
lateral point on aircraft wing
129. Composite materials are bonded by
aluminium wire
special paint
copper wire
130. ATA Zone 100 is
upper fuselage
left-hand wing
lower fuselage
Answers for Questions 121 – 130
1) vertical stabiliser
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Maintenance and Repair
Kroes/Watkins/Delp Page 22
2) 50 milliohms
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.8
3) ice build-up
Comment/Reference: CS 29.859 (i) (2)
4) longitudinal movement
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Helicopter Maintenance
Page 269
5) reduce vibration from engine to airframe
Comment/Reference:
6) Bonding Strip
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Avionics
5th Ed Eismin Page 343 &
www.lightningdiversion.com/Strips.htm
7) elongating or stretch
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 2. Tension is the
stress of elongation or stretch.
8) longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 6. Fuselage Stations
are longitudinal measurements on the fuselage
9) special paint
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.4.4
10) lower fuselage
Comment/Reference: ATA Zone 100 is lower fuselage
(below floor) ATA chapter 06-20 (A319)
Questions 131 – 140
131. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must
be
22 AWG
0.5 in wide
0.25 in wide and 22 AWG
132. What force is an I-Beam subjected to?
Tension
Bending
Shear
133. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up
by
special conductive grease
conductive paint
bonding strips
134. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system
of
longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines
frame stations, vertical lines and lateral lines
frame stations, water lines and buttock lines
135. Which of the following is an example of a fail safe
structure?
Spar
Longeron
Stringer
136. Damage tolerant design
is applied only to secondary structure
allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-
repaired between scheduled maintenance
allows for damage to structure by distributing loads
to other structure
137. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door
will have a designation of
600
800
400
138. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?
Control surfaces
Pressure cabin
Wings
139. Shear stress is described as
pulling forces
compressing forces
slip away under the action of forces
140. The ground cable must be
single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional
area
single strand 18 AWG
copper stranded 0.5 in. cross sectional area
Answers for Questions 131 – 140
1) 0.5 in wide
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para. 3.3.1 a)i)
2) Bending
Comment/Reference: An I beam is subject to Bending,
although different parts of it are subject to tension
(upper boom) and shear (the web)
3) conductive paint
Comment/Reference: CAIPs RL/2-5 Para 3.5
4) frame stations, water lines and buttock lines
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 6 & CAIPs AL/7-2 para 6
5) Stringer
Comment/Reference: Answer chosen due to a stringer's
duplicity.
6) allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-
repaired between scheduled maintenance
7) 800
Comment/Reference: Checkout most modern aircraft
Maintenance Manuals for zonal locations
8) Pressure cabin
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-2 2.7
9) slip away under the action of forces
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 2. The keyword is
'slip', but it is a terrible definition of shear
stress.
10) single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.3.1 a (i)
Questions 141 – 150
141. Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?
245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45
inches from the centreline of the right wing
245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and
45 inches from the centreline of the right wing
245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45
inches from the tip of the right wing
142. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?
Special paint
Diverter strips
Special grease on the hinges
143. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a
bonding tester together, what would the gauge read?
Zero
Centre scale
Full scale deflection
144. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a
material is caused, is known as
shear
strain
bending
145. Semi-monocoque construction
utilizes the safe-life design concept
offers good damage resistance
is used only for the fuselage
146. Most radio aerials are
bonded
not bonded
insulated from the fuselage
147. Secondary bonding is usually provided with
stranded copper 0.25 inch
18 AWG
single strand 0.25 inch
148. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a
horizontal line
wing line
vertical line
149. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are
maintained at the same potential by
static wicks
earthing
bonding
150. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must
be not less than
22 SWG x 0.25
22 SWG x 0.5
18 SWG for a single wire
Answers for Questions 141 – 150
1) 245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45
inches from the centreline of the right wing
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 15
2) Diverter strips
Comment/Reference: CAIPs RL/2-5 3.4.2
3) Zero
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 9-1 para 3.10.2 b)
& CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.10.2 B
4) strain
Comment/Reference: Strain is 'best' of the answers.
Strain is 'deformation' but does not necessarily cause
a permanent deformation.
5) offers good damage resistance
Comment/Reference: Jepessen A & P Technician Airframe
textbook page 1-3
6) bonded
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook 12-56
7) 18 AWG
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (a) (ii)
8) vertical line
Comment/Reference: AL/7.2 Page 6.2 Fig 15
9) bonding
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electrical_bonding
10) 18 SWG for a single wire
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (ii)
Questions 151 – 160
151. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?
Landings
Flying Hours
Pressure Cycles
152. The main forces on an aircraft structure are
tension, compression, torsion and strain
tension, compression, torsion and shear
tension, compression, twisting and shear
153. The life of the structure is counted by
flying hours
landings
pressurization cycle
154. What are buttock lines?
Horizontal measurement lines
Measurements from the centre line
Vertical measurement lines
155. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against
lighting strikes, partially by
bonding
non-conductive paint
conductive pain
156. A member taking a compression load is called a
beam
cable
strut
157. Stringers are used in which of the following types of
aircraft fuselage construction?
Semi-monocoque
Monocoque
Truss type
158. Wing stations are measured
inboard from the wing upper surface
outboard from the fuselage centreline
outboard from the wing root
159. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?
Bending
Tensile
Torsion
160. If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it
will be
yellow
red
green
Answers for Questions 151 – 160
1) Flying Hours
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air_safety#Metal_fatigue
2) tension, compression, torsion and shear
Comment/Reference: AC65-12A
3) pressurization cycle
Comment/Reference:
4) Measurements from the centre line
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 6 & CAIPs AL/7.2 Page
17 Para 6.2
5) conductive paint
Comment/Reference:
6) strut
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strut
7) Semi-monocoque
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 3
8) outboard from the fuselage centreline
Comment/Reference:
www.aerospaceweb.org/question/design/q0289.shml
9) Tensile
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tie_rod
10) red
Comment/Reference:
Questions 161 – 170
161. Which of the following is primary structure?
Skin
Frame
Stringer
162. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front
of the aircraft in
feet and inches
inches
feet
163. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary
structures?
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and
if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and
loss of life
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but
if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft
These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings,
wheel shields and minor component brackets etc.
164. Structure with built-in redundancy is called
safe life
failsafe
double safe
165. Stress
is the load per unit area acting on a material
is the deformation of a material caused by applied
load
is the property of a material to resist fracture
166. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a
specified number of cycles, flying hours or years,
regardless of its physical condition is what type of
item?
Condition monitored
Safe-life
Fail-safe
167. If you are unable to identify a structure
'classification' as either Primary or Secondary, what
action should you adopt?
Upgrade it to primary
Grade it as secondary
Paint it red and stamp it as 'tertiary'
168. Safe-life is
the maximum number of flying hours that should
elapse before a major structural failure occurs
the minimum number of flying hours that should
elapse before a major structural failure occurs
the sharing of loads between adjacent members
169. Bending stresses are a combination of
torsional and compression stresses
tension and shear stresses
tension and compression stresses
170. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural
surveys is
Notice 79
Notice 89
Notice 65
Answers for Questions 161 – 170
1) Skin
Comment/Reference:
2) inches
Comment/Reference: AC65-12A
3) These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if
damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft
Comment/Reference:
4) failsafe
Comment/Reference:
5) is the load per unit area acting on a material
Comment/Reference: AL/7-2 2.2
6) Safe-life
Comment/Reference:
7) Upgrade it to primary
Comment/Reference:
8) the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse
before a major structural failure occurs
Comment/Reference: Safe life maybe determined by using
a similar structure which is tested to establish the
minimum number of events which should elapse before a
major structural failure occurs
9) tension and compression stresses
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 2 fig 1-1
10) Notice 89
Comment/Reference: These AWNs are now transferred to
CAP747
Questions 171 – 180
171. Structural survey inspections are normally called up
by the
operator
manufacturer
maintenance engineer
172. Where are wing stations measured from?
Zone Line (ZL)
Butt Line (BL)
Water Line (WL)
173. Where is Zone 323?
Between rear spar and trailing edge
Between front and rear spar
Tip of vertical stabilizer
174. To prevent a system being affected by high current
flows after a lightning strike to a composite
aircraft, electricity is discharged through
a sprayed coat of conductive paint
a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint
electrically connected primary conductors
175. A structural member intended to resist compression is
a
tie
strut
web
176. An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is
known as a
fail-safe design
monocoque design
safe-life design
177. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the
fuselage indicates
shedding
sagging
hogging
178. If a redundant structure fails it becomes
fatigued
failsafe
safe-life
179. A redundant structure is
a failsafe structure
on-condition structure
a safe-life structure
180. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to
horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom of the
fuselage is
fuselage station
butt line
water line
Answers for Questions 171 – 180
1) manufacturer
Comment/Reference: AWN 89
2) Butt Line (BL)
Comment/Reference: Obscure, but the fuselage
centreline is 'technically' a buttock line of sorts.
www.aerospaceweb.org
3) Between front and rear spar
Comment/Reference: Airbus A320 AMM 06-20-00-00 shows
zone 323 as between the front and rear spar of the
vertical stab. Zone 324 is the tip of the vertical
stab.
4) electrically connected primary conductors
Comment/Reference:
5) strut
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strut
6) fail-safe design
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fail_safe
7) sagging
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hogging_and_sagging
8) safe-life
Comment/Reference: See Dan Air Boeing 707 (Zambia)
crash report Para 2.3.1
http://www.geocities.com/CapCanaveral/9575/770514-
0.htm
9) a failsafe structure
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 9
10) water line
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 6
Questions 181 – 190
181. What are the four stresses to be considered when
building an aircraft?
Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear
Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress
Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain
182. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength
would be classified as
secondary
primary
tertiary
183. An example of primary stress is
shear
tension
bending
184. What is the water line?
The zero datum from which all lateral locations are
measured
A line below which redux bonding can not be used
The datum from which vertical locations refer
185. Lateral stations have station zero at the
nose
centre line
left wing tip
186. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are
found in
ANO 25
JAR 25
CS 25
187. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a
large aircraft forward facing seat. It is put through
a series of crash tests. This is to
to measure the amount of force applied to the
abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg.
test the aircraft structure and seating mount points
for structural integrity.
to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes
into contact with any structure or seat, and if so
to measure the force applied to the head in line
with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC)
188. Diffusion bonding and superplastic forming provides
high strength and high stiffness
high stiffness and high ductility
high strength and high ductility
189. Hi-lok fastener installation requires that
the fastener is accurately torqued
an interference fit hole is drilled
the shank is lubricated
190. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?
Fire-proof grommets
Soft rubber
None is required
Answers for Questions 181 – 190
1) Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 1
2) primary
Comment/Reference:
3) tension
Comment/Reference:
4) The datum from which vertical locations refer
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 6
5) centre line
Comment/Reference:
6) CS 25
Comment/Reference: JAR 25 is replaced by EASA
Certification Specification CS 25
7) to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into
contact with any structure or seat, and if so to
measure the force applied to the head in line with a
specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC)
Comment/Reference: CS 25.562 (c) para 5
8) high stiffness and high ductility
Comment/Reference:
9) an interference fit hole is drilled
Comment/Reference: Hiloks are pre-lubricated. Hole is
drilled 0.0015 inch interference. Hi-lok/Hi-tique
installation guide can be downloaded from Tutorial
Support Section.
10) Fire-proof grommets
Comment/Reference:
Questions 191 – 200
191. To remove a rivet you should
drill half way through
drill it all the way through
drill to the depth of the head
192. The two stages in a good adhesive bond are
spreading and setting
wetting and Setting
wetting and gripping
193. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use
alkaline etch
acid etch
solvent etch
194. The purpose of a primer is to
provide shiny surface for the topcoat
provide flexible surface for the top coat
help bonding of the topcoat
195. In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are
taken by
bulkheads
stringers
frames
196. Most large transport aircraft skins are
5056
7075
2024
197. Which of the following statements is correct, in
relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted
joints?
PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts
and the washers should be used once
PLI washers can be used more than once, providing
they are used in critical bolted joints
PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut
friction or by lubrication
198. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?
Bulkheads
Frames
Stringers
199. In a monocoque structure, which component carries the
majority of the loads?
Stringers
Skin
Longerons
200. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy
steels?
Zinc plating
Nickel plating
Cadmium plating
Answers for Questions 191 – 200
1) drill to the depth of the head
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1
2) wetting and Setting
Comment/Reference: A module 7 questions. The two
processes in adhesive bonding is 'wetting and setting'
3) acid etch
Comment/Reference: Phosphoric acid and chromic acid
wash
4) help bonding of the topcoat
Comment/Reference: CAIPs BL/6-20 PAra.2.1
5) stringers
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/7-2 para 2.6 (last
sentence)
6) 2024
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook 2-8
7) PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts
and the washers should be used once
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-8 Para 4.5.4
CAAIPs Leaflet 6-7 para 4.5.3 & 4.5.4
8) Stringers
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7.2 para 3.3
9) Skin
Comment/Reference: A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28
10) Cadmium plating
Comment/Reference: CAIPs BL/7-2
Questions 201 – 210
201. What material can be chromated as a protection against
corrosion?
Aluminium alloys
Ferrous alloys
Magnesium alloys
202. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large
aircraft, what method of measurement is normally used?
Longitudinal alignment method
Lateral alignment method
Steel tape and spring balance
203. Paint remover substances
are not damaging to any aircraft parts
are damaging to some aircraft parts
should only be used once
204. To remove a rivet
chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with
a metal punch
drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller
than the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and
remove the shank with a metal punch
drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the
rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove
the shank with a metal punch
205. Battery trays are
absorbent to soak up electrolyte
metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
metal for earthing purposes
206. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurized
aircraft is
to seal the cabin
to prevent corrosion
to provide external streamlining
207. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt, it is necessary to
lubricate the collar
lubricate the shank and threads
simply fit the bolt as they are pre-lubricated
208. Sealant or leveling compound is installed during
structure repair:
according to SB instructions
according to separate manufacturer's documentations
such as BAC
according to AMM and SRM chapter 51
209. A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin
strengthener, also acts as a
tear stopper
shear tie
jury strut
210. What are the faying surfaces of a repair?
Edges of repair metal
Material under repair
Middle of repair
Answers for Questions 201 – 210
1) Magnesium alloys
Comment/Reference: CAIPs BL/7-3
2) Steel tape and spring balance
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 6-5 para 3.3.5 a) &
CAIPs AL/7-12 3.3.5 i
3) are damaging to some aircraft parts
Comment/Reference: CAIPs BL/6-20 11.1
4) drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the
rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the
shank with a metal punch
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1 says
'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet'.
5) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd ed
Pallett Page 24
6) to seal the cabin
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/7-2 para. 3.7 & AC65-9A pg
169 &
www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156.htm
7) simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated
Comment/Reference:
8) according to AMM and SRM chapter 51
Comment/Reference: Chapter 51 is General Practices
9) tear stopper
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band
fig.4)
10) Material under repair
Comment/Reference: Open to interpretation. We have
gone for 'material under repair' as the surfaces
joined together.
Questions 211 – 220
211. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for
high strength high toughness
low strength high toughness
high strength high stiffness
212. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft
are
15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%
20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%
15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%
213. What are the types of true bonded joints?
Cemented and specific
Mechanical and cemented
Mechanical and specific
214. Why is a joggle joint used?
To provide a smooth contour to surface
To provide a flush fit
To add strength
215. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily
reached, which type of fastener would you use?
Blind rivet
Pop rivet
Hi lock bolt
216. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids
they can be ignored, they provide extra protection
they should only be cleaned up if they are on the
external surface of the aircraft
they may be harmful to the aircraft structure
217. Skin panels may be strengthened by
struts
cleats
stringers
218. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?
Two webs separated by a boom
Two booms separated by a web
One boom mounted under a web
219. A crack stopper is fitted
before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation
after a crack starts, to slow its rate of
propagation
before a crack starts, to slow its rate of
propagation
220. Which of the following should be accomplished before
jacking an aircraft?
Install critical stress panels or plates
Remove all optional equipment
Determine the fuel tanks are empty
Answers for Questions 211 – 220
1) high strength high stiffness
Comment/Reference:
2) 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%
Comment/Reference: BL/6-20 5 CAAIPs Leaflet 2-7 para 5
3) Mechanical and specific
Comment/Reference:
4) To provide a flush fit
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 162, the joggle does
not provide the 'contour'.
5) Blind rivet
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 155. Pop rivet is not a
blind fastener because the broken stem must be
retrieved
6) they may be harmful to the aircraft structure
Comment/Reference:
7) stringers
Comment/Reference:
8) Two booms separated by a web
Comment/Reference:
9) before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation
Comment/Reference:
10) Install critical stress panels or plates
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 525
Questions 221 – 230
221. Synthetic resins are made from nylon, vinyl and
cellulose
asphalt
acrylics
222. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque
construction is that it
shares the loads
is easier to manufacture
takes all the loads in the skin
223. In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are
carried by the
skin
longerons
frames
224. Intercostals are
vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of
a biplane
compression ribs in cantilever wings
longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end
to adjacent frames
225. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of
cracks are known as
failsafe joints
secondary joints
crack limiting joints
226. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery
compartment drain pipes will be
plastic
aluminium alloy
stainless steel
227. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has
an excessive fuel load on take-off
too much kinetic energy on landing
a missed placed centre of gravity on landing
228. Symmetry checks should be carried out
on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels
in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels
in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks
229. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to
provide a flexible surface for top-coat
provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat
help bonding for top-coat
230. Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member
if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the
tube axis irrespective of the location
if they are located in the end thirds of the length
of the member
if they are located in the middle third of the
length of the member
Answers for Questions 221 – 230
1) acrylics
Comment/Reference:
2) shares the loads
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 3
3) skin
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 3
4) longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to
adjacent frames
Comment/Reference: See a Picture in B737 SRM chap 53
5) failsafe joints
Comment/Reference:
6) stainless steel
Comment/Reference:
7) too much kinetic energy on landing
Comment/Reference:
8) in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 6-5 para 2
9) help bonding for top-coat
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook.
page 6-8
10) if they are located in the middle third of the length
of the member
Comment/Reference: AC43
Questions 231 – 240
231. When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will
indicate
toxic gases
temperature
humidity
232. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is
1 in 400
1 in 600
1 in 200
233. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by
longerons
bulkheads
stringers
234. Which loads do longerons resist?
Bending, compression and tensile
Bending, compression, tensile and torsion
Torsional only
235. Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurised
aircraft to
provide access for pressurising the aircraft
provide access for pressurising the aircraft
provide venting should a differential pressure build
up across the floor
236. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because
they have
smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding
structure
larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding
structure
slight shrinkage due to age
237. A cargo bay must have signs stating
no hazardous cargo
maximum dimensions
maximum loadings
238. Zone D Cargo compartment windows
must have blinds pulled down
are made from fire retardant Perspex
must be blanked off
239. A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to
fight a fire is
class B
class A
class E
240. Windscreen delamination is
bubbling of the glass due to overheat
windscreen peeling away from the airframe
separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer
Answers for Questions 231 – 240
1) humidity
Comment/Reference:
2) 1 in 600
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13
3) stringers
Comment/Reference:
4) Bending, compression and tensile
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 3-4
5) provide venting should a differential pressure build
up across the floor
Comment/Reference: Example DC10 Cargo door disaster.
Cargo compartment depressurised, cabin pressure caused
floor to collapse. Blowout panels made compulsory
thereafter
6) larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding
structure
Comment/Reference: Acrylic has a thermal expansion
approximately 8x that of aluminium alloy
7) maximum loadings
Comment/Reference: Usually, pallet size is fixed, but
the weight is critical.
8) must be blanked off
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
9-3
9) class B
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Page 9-3 and CS 25.857 (b)
10) separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-10 Para 5.1.1
Questions 241 – 250
241. What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen
panels?
30°C to 50°C
50°C to 70°C
50°F to 70°F
242. What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is
used to clean dirty aircraft acrylic panels?
40°F
104°F
125°F
243. How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to
the fuselage structure?
By the pressure seal
By door stops
Through the latching mechanism
244. Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes
and a seal between them. Under normal flight
conditions which pane(s) take the differential
pressure loads?
Inner
Outer
Both
245. How are passenger seats secured to the floor?
By both front and back legs
By the front legs while the back attachment provides
anti rattle.
By the back legs while the front attachment provides
anti rattle
246. A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing
is
aluminium
PTFE
soft rubber
247. When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together,
allowance should be made for
expansion of the acrylic due to heat
galvanic corrosion of the metal
expansion of the metal due to heat
248. Which of the following is Perspex resistant to?
Acetone
MEK
Kerosene
249. In a pressurised aircraft cabin window, the
differential pressure can be taken by
the inner pane only
both main panes
the scratch panel
250. The purpose of the vinyl interlayer in window
construction is
to improve on brittle behaviour
to enable inclusion of heater film
to increase static strength
Answers for Questions 241 – 250
1) 50°F to 70°F
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 1-8 para 3.21.3 a)
2) 104°F
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-4 Para 6.1 says 40°C,
which is 104°F
3) By door stops
Comment/Reference:
4) Outer
Comment/Reference: The inner panel has a small hole in
it to let the pressure through to the outer panel
5) By the back legs while the front attachment provides
anti rattle
Comment/Reference: The back legs are secured as they
have the upward load during a sudden stop.
6) soft rubber
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-2 para 3.9
7) expansion of the acrylic due to heat
Comment/Reference: AL/7-4 para 4
8) Kerosene
Comment/Reference: AL/7-4 2.3
9) both main panes
Comment/Reference:
10) to improve on brittle behaviour
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-10 3.1.1
Questions 251 – 260
251. On passenger aircraft of two or more zones;
the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency
exits
there should be at least one exit per zone
the emergency exits are to be clearly signed
252. Class D cargo bay windows require
the blind down for flight
fire proof coatings
double acrylic panels
253. Cargo bay panels are normally constructed from
monolithic Nomex
Kevlar
Fibreglass and resin
254. The fatigue life of a pressure hull is based on
the number of negative differential pressure
applications
the total number of pressurizations
the number of explosive decompressions
255. In pressurized aircraft, undercarriage bays
are unpressurised
are pressurized
may be pressurized or unpressurised
256. The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called
frames
longerons
spars
257. A partition within the aircraft's structure is called
a
cleat
bulkhead
frame
258. When inspecting stowage doors, special attention
should be given to the
light microswitches
trim
catches
259. Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings,
usually in
half inch increments
one inch increments
one foot increments
260. Wall mounted flight attendant seats are fixed to
rails
tracks
stanchions
Answers for Questions 251 – 260
1) there should be at least one exit per zone
Comment/Reference: CS 25.783, but does not talk about
Zonal exits
2) fire proof coatings
Comment/Reference: CS 25.857 (d)
3) Fibreglass and resin
Comment/Reference: AWN 80 Para.2.3 and 4.1.1
4) the total number of pressurizations
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23
5) are unpressurised
Comment/Reference:
6) longerons
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 4
7) bulkhead
Comment/Reference:
8) catches
Comment/Reference:
9) one inch increments
Comment/Reference:
10) stanchions
Comment/Reference:
Questions 261 – 270
261. Windshields are heated to
demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness
prevent misting and icing only
maintain strength and toughness only
262. The internal doors of an aircraft
carry pressure loads
never carry pressure loads
only carry pressure loads when the aircraft is at
cruise altitude
263. A pressure door warning light illuminates only when
the door is
not fully opened
not locked
locked
264. If an electrically operated cargo door lifting
actuator fails, it may be operated
by alternate actuators
manually by winding
be electrical ground power
265. After installation of an acrylic window panel,
protective paper and adhesive remaining on the panel
may be removed by use of soap and water and
Cellulose thinners
MEK
Methylated spirits
266. If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an
aircraft windscreen, its ability to withstand impact
will
increase
not change
decrease
267. When fitting a transparent plastic panel (acrylic) to
a metal frame, provision must be made for the relative
movement of the panel and the frame for the reason of
the lower coefficient of expansion of the
transparent panel when compared with the frame
the known slight shrinkage of the panel due to
ageing
the higher coefficient of expansion of the
transparent panel when compared with the frame
268. Perspex is resistant to
Paraffin
Acetone
C.T.C.
269. Moisture drain valves in a pressurised fuselage
are open when the cabin is depressurised
are open when the cabin is pressurised
are open all the time to ensure the bilge areas are
well drained
270. Wide body transport aircraft have cabin floor vents
to ensure adequate ventilation of the underfloor
areas
to equalise pressures above and below the floor
after the loss of a cargo compartment door
to provide access to class A cargo compartments in
the event of fire
Answers for Questions 261 – 270
1) demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness
Comment/Reference:
2) never carry pressure loads
Comment/Reference:
3) not locked
Comment/Reference:
4) manually by winding
Comment/Reference:
5) Methylated spirits
Comment/Reference:
6) increase
Comment/Reference:
7) the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent
panel when compared with the frame
Comment/Reference:
8) Paraffin
Comment/Reference: CAIPS AL/7-4 2.3
9) are open when the cabin is depressurised
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-2 3.6 and fig 9
10) to equalise pressures above and below the floor after
the loss of a cargo compartment door
Comment/Reference:
Questions 271 – 280
271. On an inspection, you are aware of vinyl bubbling.
What action is required?
Replace the defective window
Only replace the window if the 'bubbling' affects
vision
No action is required with this defect
272. Passenger windows in jet transport aircraft normally
have
three structural panes
two structural panes
one structural pane
273. A plug type window is fitted
from the inside
from either side
from the outside
274. Air is used to seal the cabin door in pressure cabins.
The source of this air is usually
cabin pressurised air
from storage bottles
ambient pressurised air
275. Drain valves are normally closed by
spring pressure
rubber strips
cabin air pressure
276. Drain holes in unpressurised areas are
always open
always closed
either open or closed
277. A cargo compartment in which there is a separate
approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning
and means to shut off the ventilating airflow to the
compartment is a
Class 'C' compartment
Class 'B' compartment
Class 'E' compartment
278. Aircraft frames are constructed of
'I' section
'U' section
'Z' section
279. The life of a fuselage depends on
the pressurisation cycles excluding maximum
differential
the pressurisation cycles not including ground
cycles
all pressurisation cycles
280. Passenger cabin seat rails form part of the
longerons
stringers
frames
Answers for Questions 271 – 280
1) Only replace the window if the 'bubbling' affects
vision
Comment/Reference: AL/7-10 5.1.6
2) two structural panes
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 56-21-00 pg 1 para
A)
3) from the inside
Comment/Reference:
4) cabin pressurised air
Comment/Reference:
5) cabin air pressure
Comment/Reference: AL/7-2 3.6
6) always open
Comment/Reference: AL/7-2 3.6
7) Class 'E' compartment
Comment/Reference: CS 25.857 & Transport Category
Aircraft Systems, Jeppesen, 9-3
8) 'Z' section
Comment/Reference:
9) all pressurisation cycles
Comment/Reference:
10) longerons
Comment/Reference:
Questions 281 – 290
281. A false rib is usually used to
support and give aerodynamic shape to the wing
leading edge
allow the fitment of aileron control tubes through a
wing
lose a torsion box structure
282. A spar web will take loads in
bending
shear
tension
283. Wing bending and shear loads are taken by
spar cap
main spar
skin
284. An aspect ratio of 8 could mean
span 64 ft., mean chord 8 ft.
mean chord 64 ft., span 8 ft.
span squared 64 ft., chord 8 ft.
285. A cantilever wing is a
top wing of a biplane
swept-back wing
usual airliner wing
286. On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile
contour?
Milled stringers
Ribs
The position of the spars
287. A wing's leading edge would have provisions and
linkages for slats and
leading edge flaps
trailing edge flaps
slots
288. The mid-spar is fitted in large aircraft to
support fitting the engine mount & landing gear
mount
provide redundant design
assist the main spar with operational loads
289. The main undercarriage is attached to the
rear main spar
front main spar
aircraft structure
290. The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is
called
brush coat
fillet
interfay
Answers for Questions 281 – 290
1) support and give aerodynamic shape to the wing leading
edge
Comment/Reference:
2) shear
Comment/Reference: The spar as a whole, takes bending
and shear. The bending is taken by the booms (as
compression-top and tension - bottom) and the web
takes the shear. (Sometimes called a 'shear' web).
3) main spar
Comment/Reference: The main spar takes the wing
bending and shear loads
4) span 64 ft., mean chord 8 ft.
Comment/Reference: Aspect Ratio = span/mean chord
5) usual airliner wing
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 13 & CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 2
6) Ribs
Comment/Reference: AL/7-2 para 4.2
7) leading edge flaps
Comment/Reference: Slots are fixed features - no
linkages, or are produced when the slats open.
8) assist the main spar with operational loads
Comment/Reference:
9) aircraft structure
Comment/Reference: The only wholly correct answer
10) brush coat
Comment/Reference: B737 ANN 28-11-00 page 811, the 3
coats of sealant for repair fuel tanks leak are termed
as fillet, injection and prepack. Fillet seal is the
first coat.
Questions 291 – 300
291. The principle load bearing members of the wing are
spars
struts
ribs
292. One purpose of a rib is to
support the bending loads on a fuselage
form the main lateral member in an aerofoil
maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils
covering
293. What is a cantilever wing?
One that has no external supporting struts
One that folds for access to limited space
One that has external supporting struts
294. A spar is tapered from root to tip because
centre of lift occurs close to the root
bending moment is greatest at the root
shear forces are greatest at the root
295. A spar web is
an area between two spar caps
a member between the spar and wing/fuselage
connection
a rib/spar joint
296. A leading edge slat is attached to the
front spar
slat track
wing upper skin
297. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of
load?
Bending
Tension
Shear
298. The term 'empennage' incorporates
elevators, stabiliser, rudder
rudder, ailerons, spoilers
elevators, stabiliser, ailerons
299. The four main structural items making up a horizontal
stabiliser are
spar, rib, longerons, skin panels
spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels
spar, rib, stringers, skin panels
300. To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted
with a variable incidence tailplane, the incidence of
the tailplane would be
decreased, which is done by lowering the leading
edge
decreased, which is done by lowering the trailing
edge
increased, which is done by lowering the leading
edge
Answers for Questions 291 – 300
1) spars
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 8
2) maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 10
3) One that has no external supporting struts
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 13
4) bending moment is greatest at the root
Comment/Reference: AL/7-2 para 4.1
5) an area between two spar caps
Comment/Reference:
6) slat track
Comment/Reference: B737 AMM 27-81-00 page 4 fig 1
sheet 3 say each slat is atttached with 2 main and 2
aux tracks & www.b737.org.uk/flightcontrols.htm
7) Shear
Comment/Reference: A 'web' always takes shear loads
8) elevators, stabiliser, rudder
Comment/Reference:
9) spar, rib, stringers, skin panels
Comment/Reference:
10) decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge
Comment/Reference:
Questions 301 – 310
301. An upward elevator deflection on the reverse camber
tailplane
will decrease tailplane download
may increase or decrease download depending upon the
aircraft C of G position
will increase tailplane download
302. Variable incidence tailplanes
always move slowly
move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during the
landing approach and slowly at all other times
move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb
out and landing approach and slowly during cruise
303. The direction of travel of an electrically operated
variable incidence tailplane is determined by
direction of rotation of the electric motor
solenoid operated clutches
a gearbox
304. On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming
tailplane, the tailplane incidence changes
if the control column is moved back or forward
automatically if the elevator moves
if the trim wheel is turned back or forward
305. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge
balance installed on control surface assembly
is meant to trim CG of control surfaces
has same effect of the balance tab
serves as a 'servo' system of balance
306. The fin helps to give
longitudinal stability about the normal axis
directional stability about the longitudinal axis
directional stability about the normal axis
307. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?
Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs
Elevators, ailerons, rudder
Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs
308. Aerodynamic balance
will cause CP to move forward of hinge and cause
overbalance
will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and
cause instability
will reduce aerodynamic loading
309. Flutter can be reduced by using
servo tabs
a horn balance
mass balancing
310. An elevator provides control about the
lateral axis
longitudinal axis
horizontal stabilizer
Answers for Questions 301 – 310
1) will increase tailplane download
Comment/Reference:
2) move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb
out and landing approach and slowly during cruise
Comment/Reference: B737-400, AMM 27-41-00 PAGE 5 para
1.c, trim speed is depend on the flap position. Trim
rate with flaps retracted is 1/3 the trim rate with
flaps extended
3) solenoid operated clutches
Comment/Reference:
4) if the trim wheel is turned back or forward
Comment/Reference:
5) has same effect of the balance tab
Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook.
Jeppesen 1-24 fig 1-59, balance tab 1-23 -para 3
6) directional stability about the normal axis
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook 1-22
7) Elevators, ailerons, rudder
Comment/Reference:
8) will reduce aerodynamic loading
Comment/Reference:
9) mass balancing
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 11-22 appx 27-1
para 2
10) lateral axis
Comment/Reference:
Questions 311 – 320
311. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft
are isolated at low speeds
are isolated at high speeds
are isolated to improve sensitivity
312. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the
control surface centre of pressure
rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance
forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance
rearwards, resulting in too much assistance
313. A flying control mass balance weight
keeps the control surface C of G as close to the
trailing edge as possible
tends to move the control surface C of G close to
the hinge line
ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot
thus relieving control column load
314. What is attached to the rear of the vertical
stabilizer?
Aileron
Rudder
Elevator
315. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces
is to
attach weights forward of the hinge line
fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces
allow the leading edge of the surface to project
into the airflow
316. Control surface flutter may be caused by
excessive play in trim tab attachments
incorrect angular movement of trim tabs
high static friction in trim tab control tabs
317. A 'frise' aileron is incorporated to
provide aerodynamic balancing so assisting the pilot
to move the control
ensure aileron control is retained at high angles of
attack
equalize aileron drag in a turn
318. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be
achieved
by weights added to the control surface aft of the
hinge line
by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of
the hinge line
by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the
surface
319. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic
balancing to
assist the pilot in moving the control
increase stability
decrease the drag when the control is deflected
320. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on
the diagram), is provided to
make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces
encountered when moving the control
prevent control surface flutter
provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when
moving the rudder
Answers for Questions 311 – 320
1) are isolated at high speeds
Comment/Reference:
2) forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance
Comment/Reference:)
3) tends to move the control surface C of G close to the
hinge line
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 11-22 Appx 27-1
para 2
4) Rudder
Comment/Reference:
5) attach weights forward of the hinge line
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 11-22 Appx 27-1
para 2
6) excessive play in trim tab attachments
Comment/Reference:
7) equalize aileron drag in a turn
Comment/Reference:
8) by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of
the hinge line
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 24 Para 7
9) assist the pilot in moving the control
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 24 Para 7
10) provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when
moving the rudder
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 25 Para 7
Questions 321 – 330
321. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a
main control surface
operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving
the controls
operated independently at which point in the length of
cable the tensiometer is applied
operating automatically to provide 'feel' to the
controls
322. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved
by
placing a weight ahead of the hinge point
placing a weight in the leading edge of the control
surface
providing a portion of the control surface ahead of
the hinge point
323. Aerodynamic balance is used to
reduce the control load to zero
make the flying controls easier to move
prevent flutter of the flying controls
324. A horn balance is
a projection of the outer edge of the control surface
forward of the hinge line
a rod projecting upward from the main control surface
to which the control cables are attached
a rod projecting forward from the control surface with
a weight on the end
325. A control surface is mass balanced by
the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line
fitting a balance tab
the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge
line
326. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to
give more feel to the control column
relieve stick loads
trim the aircraft
327. A flying control mass balance weight
tends to move the control surface C of G forward of
the hinge line
tends to move the control surface C of G close to the
hinge line
keeps the control surface C of G as close to the
trailing edge as possible
328. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in
yaw
roll
pitch
329. Jet engines are usually mounted by
aluminium castings
welded steel tubing
forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure
330. A pylon structural member supports the
centre section
engine
empennage
Answers for Questions 321 – 330
1) operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving
the controls
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 46
2) providing a portion of the control surface ahead of
the hinge point
Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 para 4.2
3) make the flying controls easier to move
Comment/Reference:
4) a projection of the outer edge of the control surface
forward of the hinge line
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 16
5) the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge
line
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 11-22 Appx 27-1
para 2
6) give more feel to the control column
Comment/Reference:
7) tends to move the control surface C of G close to the
hinge line
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 11-22 appx 27-1
8) pitch
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 44 ‘Lateral Axis’
9) forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure
Comment/Reference:
10) engine
Comment/Reference:
Questions 331 – 340
331. Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks
provide increased safety if the undercarriage
collapses on landing
reduce tailplane download
provide wing bending relief
332. A spill valve opens
to control the air from the cabin to outside
to prevent an excessive pressure difference
to control the flow to the cabin
333. Which of the following can be used on the ground?
Turbo brake
Turbo compressor
Turbo fan
334. What is the minimum cabin air mass flow?
10 lbs per minute per person
0.5 lbs per minute per person
1 lbs per minute per person
335. The function of an air mass flow control valve is to
maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the
cabin at all altitudes
control the airflow out of the cabin
ensure that system differential pressure is not
exceeded
336. Air supplied for pressurisation and conditioning is
hottest from an engine compressor bleed
the same for both the above sources
hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box
337. The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is
controlled by
spill valves
engine speed variations
automatic control devices
338. The function of spill valves is to control
air supply to the cabin
the rate of pressurisation
cabin pressure differential
339. The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply
system is
to relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to
atmosphere
to give a heating effect
to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and
lower altitudes
340. The function of the mass airflow control valve is to
ensure that constant airflow out of the cabin is
dictated by cabin altitude
maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin
irrespective of aircraft altitude
ensure system operating pressure is not exceeded
Answers for Questions 331 – 340
1) provide wing bending relief
Comment/Reference:
2) to control the flow to the cabin
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23
3) Turbo fan
Comment/Reference: Used on air conditioning systems to
supply air on ground.
4) 0.5 lbs per minute per person
Comment/Reference: AMC CS 25.831 or the old BCAR
Section D
5) maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the
cabin at all altitudes
Comment/Reference:
6) hottest from an engine compressor bleed
Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 2.3/2.5
7) spill valves
Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 Fig. 3
8) air supply to the cabin
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3
9) to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and
lower altitudes
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3
10) maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin
irrespective of aircraft altitude
Comment/Reference:
Questions 341 – 350
341. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system, the warm air
supply is provided by
the compressor of the gas turbine engine
the engine exhaust heat
the gas turbine exhaust
342. In most pressurization systems, the amount of
compressed air delivered to the cabin is
reasonably constant irrespective of altitude
variable, depending on the amount selected by the
cabin rate of change selector
constant at any particular altitude but varies for
different altitudes
343. The purpose of a mass flow controller is to
allow pilot to select the desired cabin altitude
ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to
cabin at all times
ensure the cabin altitude remains constant during
cruise at all altitudes
344. How much air is required for the Flight Deck?
10 cubic feet/minute
Whatever the captain sets
10 lbs/minute
345. In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is
activated to
ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain
positive duct pressure
ensure conditioned air is distributed
ensure positive duct pressure is maintained
346. If a reduction in pack outlet temp is demanded, the
temperature of the air at the outlet of the ACM
compressor will
rise
remain the same
fall
347. A large aircraft air conditioning system's cabin
temperature control
all zone temperatures are controlled from one master
switch
involves modulating the pack valve
is selectable for each zone individually from the
flight station
348. What is the maximum allowable concentration (by
volume) of carbon monoxide in occupied aircraft
compartment?
0.02% (200 p.p.m)
0.0005% (50 p.p.m)
0.01% (100 p.p.m)
349. A refrigerant is used in which of the following?
Air cycle machine
Vapour cycle
Pneumatic pump
350. A water separator is located
downstream of heat exchanger
downstream of turbine
upstream of the turbine
Answers for Questions 341 – 350
1) the compressor of the gas turbine engine
Comment/Reference:
2) reasonably constant irrespective of altitude
Comment/Reference:
3) ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to
cabin at all times
Comment/Reference:
4) 10 cubic feet/minute
Comment/Reference: CS 25.831 (a)
5) ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain
positive duct pressure
Comment/Reference:
6) remain the same
Comment/Reference: Pack outlet temperature is
determined by bypassing engine bleed air around the
ACM (trim air). The ACM is unaffected.
7) is selectable for each zone individually from the
flight station
Comment/Reference: AMM 767 21-61-00
8) 0.0005% (50 p.p.m)
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-3 para 1.2
9) Vapour cycle
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 576 & Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-34
10) downstream of turbine
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 573 or Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16-30 or CAIPs AL/3-
24 4.2.3 fig 3
Questions 351 – 360
351. The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system
should not exceed
20 feet per second
40 feet per second
120 feet per second
352. In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler
delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is
on ground
cools the vapour further to prevent slugging
is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour
353. In an air conditioning system, heat is added to air by
restricting compressor inlet
restricting compressor outlet
restricting duct outlets
354. Air conditioning systems
increase and decrease the temperature of air
decrease the temperature of air
increase the temperature of air
355. An air cycle machine turbine
drives compressor to decrease temperature
drives compressor to increase temperature
drives compressor to pressurise aircraft
356. Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM
will have increased pressure and temperature
will have decreased pressure and temperature
no change in temperature or pressure as it is a
centrifugal compressor
357. Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap
compressor?
At the inlet of the compressor
At the outlet of the compressor
At the inlet of the turbine
358. Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air
conditioning system?
At the inlet to the cabin
At the outlet of the blower
At the inlet of the blower
359. When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce
the most air?
At high altitudes
At low altitudes
It is not affected by altitude
360. In an air conditioning system, before distribution,
the air goes through the
TCV and mixer valve
TCV
flow control valve
Answers for Questions 351 – 360
1) 120 feet per second
Comment/Reference: BCAR Section D6
2) cools the vapour further to prevent slugging
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 578 & A&P Technician
Airframe Textbook page 14-40
3) restricting compressor inlet
Comment/Reference: Heat is added by varying the amount
of compressor inlet air that bypasses the heat
exchanger (Trim Air).
4) decrease the temperature of air
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 558 & CAIPs AL/3-24
Para 2.2.
The source of air is usually the engine bleed, which
is always far too hot to feed directly into the cabin,
so the air conditioning system always cools, even if
the 'trim air' bypasses a little more hot air around
the ACM/refrigeration unit, the end result is still
cooler than the input.
5) drives compressor to increase temperature
Comment/Reference: The compressor is to INCREASE the
temperature to increase the rate at which heat energy
can be extracted.
6) will have increased pressure and temperature
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 571/2 mentions pre-
cooled air is compressed by action of compressor
impeller and diffuser assembly. Hence increase in
pressure. Pressure laws says; Temperature is
proportional to Pressure.
7) At the inlet of the turbine
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 572 fig 14-32 or CAIPs
shows it at the outlet of the turbine (not one of the
answers). B757 has an additional water trap at the
inlet of the turbine
8) At the outlet of the blower
Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 Figure 3
9) It is not affected by altitude
Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 Figure 3 (effect of the
Spill Valve)
10) TCV
Comment/Reference: b737-400 AMM ref 21-00-00 para 5b
mentions TCV is located before distribution for pack
temperature control for amount of hot air bypassing
the Air Cycle Machine. B737-300 name the same valve as
mixer valve
Questions 361 – 370
361. In a cabin air recirculation system, recirculated air
and fresh air are supplied in the proportions
40% of fresh air, 60% of recirculated air
50% of fresh air, 50% of recirculated air
60% of fresh air, 40% of recirculated air
362. An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to
reduce the air supply temperature
increase the air supply temperature
provide an emergency ram air supply
363. Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by
varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger
regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling
system
controlling the water vapour in the supply
364. In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is
mainly achieved by
varying cabin pressure
adding heat to the pressurising air
extracting heat from the pressurising air
365. If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine
compressor, an internal oil leak will
contaminate the air
not contaminate the air
not affect the issue as it is automatically detected
and vented overboard
366. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by
driving the unit's compressor
reducing pressure
reducing pressure and driving the unit's compressor
367. Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from
driving the units compressor
only by adding heat electrically to the air supplies
air supply heated by the pressurising process
368. A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be
lower than ambient air temperature despite
compression heating
a little more than ambient air temperature
same as ambient temperature, despite compression
heating
369. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by
expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving
a compressor
air supply to the cabin
directing compressed air into a heat exchanger
370. When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the
engine exhaust system and air is directed around
inside the muffler, this is an
combustion heater
thermal heater
exhaust heater
Answers for Questions 361 – 370
1) 60% of fresh air, 40% of recirculated air
Comment/Reference:
2) reduce the air supply temperature
Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 4.2
3) regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling
system
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-24 Fig 3
4) extracting heat from the pressurising air
Comment/Reference: CAIPS AL/3-24 4
5) contaminate the air
Comment/Reference:
6) reducing pressure and driving the unit's compressor
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 572 rh column 3rd para
or CAIPs AL/3-24 4.2.2
7) air supply heated by the pressurising process
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-24 4
8) a little more than ambient air temperature
Comment/Reference:
9) expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a
compressor
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 572 rh column 3rd para
or CAIPs AL/3-24 4.2
10) exhaust heater
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 561 or
CAIPs AL/3-24 3.3
Questions 371 – 380
371. In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger
cooling air is
bled from cabin air supply duct
air bled directly from engine or through blower
ram air from ambient conditions
372. Conditioned air is
moisture removed
temperature and pressure adjusted
oxygen added
373. Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air
conditioning pack?
Flap position switches
Undercarriage switches
Throttle switches
374. When carrying out a ground pressure test, you should
use
ground trolley and clean air
a G.P.U. and A.P.U. combination
the aircraft engines because you can test the whole
system
375. The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a
minimum humidity of
60 percent
30 percent
20 percent
376. In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the
source of compressed air is from
ram air at the wing leading edge
gas turbine intake ram air
gas turbine compressor bleed air
377. The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is
normally maintained at
18ºC to 24ºC
20ºC to 24ºC
12ºC to 18ºC
378. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is
first
passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed
and passed through a heat exchanger
compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and
across an expansion turbine
passes across an expansion turbine, then directly to
the heat exchanger
379. The humidity within a passenger cabin should
be between 30% and 70%
not be less than 60%
not be greater than 40%
380. One of the principles of cooling employed in an air
cycle system is
conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in
the C.A.U.
by compression of ambient air across a turbine
by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.
Answers for Questions 371 – 380
1) ram air from ambient conditions
Comment/Reference: Cooling air for heat exchanger is
taken from the ambient ram air which is controled by
varying opening of the ram air exhaust louvers. Ref
B737-400 AMM 21-00-00 page 8
2) temperature and pressure adjusted
Comment/Reference:
3) Throttle switches
Comment/Reference:
4) the aircraft engines because you can test the whole
system
Comment/Reference: The ground pressure test is
typically known as confidence check of airplane
ability to maintain cabin pressure in flight on single
pack operation for boeing term. The test involve both
left and right engine. Ref AMM 21-00-05 page 201.
5) 30 percent
Comment/Reference:
6) gas turbine compressor bleed air
Comment/Reference: B737 has the config where the air-
conditioning air supply is taken from the pneumatic
system which draw air from the 5th or 9th compressor
stage of the gas turbine engine. Ref AMM 21-00-00 pg 8
7) 18ºC to 24ºC
Comment/Reference: B737-400 AMM ref 21-61-00 page 11,
the selectable range of temperature is between 18 and
29 deg C. For alternate operation when all selectors
to OFF, the Left Pack operate at 24deg C and Right
Pack at 18deg C.
8) compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and
across an expansion turbine
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/3-24 figure 2
9) be between 30% and 70%
Comment/Reference:
10) conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the
C.A.U.
Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
Page 770 Fig 16-34 & AC65-15A pg 565
Questions 381 – 390
381. Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system
pre-heat the system to 100°F
flush the system with a solvent
apply suction to remove air and moisture
382. The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should
not be less than
25 ft/min.
200 ft/min.
300 ft/min.
383. An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized
in order to
ensure that the air density within the cabin is
maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin
in order to prevent moisture precipitation during
rapid decompression
maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights
at high altitudes
ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is
always less than the ambient pressure, thus
increasing the fatigue life of the fuselage
384. In the case of a vapour cycle cooling, system heat is
removed from the charge air by
reducing the pressure of a vapour
changing a liquid into a vapour
changing a vapour into a liquid
385. Subsequent to passing through the primary heat
exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air
system flows to the
fan
inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger
turbine
386. The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by
engine bleed air or blower air
air bled from the main cabin supply duct
ambient ram air
387. The effective temperature of a cabin is given by
temperature only
temperature and humidity
temperature, humidity, thermal inertia and heat load
388. When the refrigerant dissipates heat in a vapour cycle
system
the liquid sublimates
the vapour converts to a liquid
the liquid converts to a vapour
389. International markings for air conditioning pipelines
are
rectangles
dots
triangles
390. A cabin humidifier is operated
at high altitudes
on the ground
at low altitudes
1) apply suction to remove air and moisture
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/3-24 para 9.7(b) says,
'before charging a newly installed system, or
recharging a system which has been partly
disconnected, all air should be evacuated IAW MM.'
2) 25 ft/min.
Comment/Reference: BCAR Section D
3) maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights
at high altitudes
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/3-23 para 2.1 says 1) to
maintain a safe cabin altitude relative to aircraft
altitude. 2) to provide a comfortable environment when
flying at higher altitudes
4) changing a liquid into a vapour
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 576 & AL/3-24 para
13.3.2
5) fan
Comment/Reference: 'Fan' is sometimes used to describe
the compressor. CAIP AL/3-24 figure 2
6) ambient ram air
Comment/Reference:
7) temperature and humidity
Comment/Reference:
8) the vapour converts to a liquid
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 576
9) dots
Comment/Reference:
10) at high altitudes
Comment/Reference:
Questions 391 – 400
391. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will
increase the pressure but decrease the temperature
not affect the charge air pressure
decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air
392. Pressurisation system operation may be inhibited by
flap microswitches
air/ground microswitches
throttle microswitches
393. As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude
(34,000ft), the cabin altitude must
decrease
increase
stay the same
394. The signal line between the controller and discharge
valve is leaking. This will cause
it will not effect on cabin pressure
the cabin pressure to decrease
the cabin pressure to increase
395. The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange
a constant
inlet and vary the outlet
inlet and outlet
outlet and vary the inlet
396. The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure
controller is to control
the rate of pressurisation
cabin differential pressure
cabin air flow
397. With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential
pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the
differential capsule in the pressure controller will
let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks
cause a drop in pressure
let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard
have a constant mass flow
398. A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for
passengers is
500 ft. per min.
100 ft. per min.
300 ft. per min.
399. Before carrying out a ground pressure check,
set altimeter to QNH
check all pitot and static lines are fitted
turn on all instruments
400. On touch-down of aircraft
the cabin pressure will be zero
the outflow valve will be shut
the outflow valve will be fully open
Answers for Questions 391 – 400
1) decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 571/2
2) throttle microswitches
Comment/Reference: AMM 767 21-31-00
3) decrease
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 14-22. CAIPs AL/3-23
4) the cabin pressure to increase
Comment/Reference: The discharge valve is opened by
vacuum in the signal line. If line leaks , valve will
close, and cabin pressure will increase. Jeppesen A&P
Airframe Technician Textbook Page 14-22
5) inlet and vary the outlet
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe
Textbook Page 14-20.
6) cabin differential pressure
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe
Textbook Page 14-22. CAIPs AL/3-23
7) let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4.3.13
8) 500 ft. per min.
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23
9) check all pitot and static lines are fitted
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 12.2.5
10) the outflow valve will be fully open
Comment/Reference: B737 Pressurization system senses
the air-ground sw and the toggle sw FLT-GRD in the
cockpit control. Before touch down, at GRD position,
controller commands signal to close the discharge
valve to 200ft below landing field elevation. Upon
touch down, controller drives discharge fully open.
Purpose to prevent rapid pressure bump
Questions 401 – 410
401. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test
purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be
removed
all open
all closed
402. Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it
is necessary to
disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve
set QFE
reset/disable the pressure controller
403. In the flightdeck of an unpressurised aircraft, there
is a gauge that shows
cabin pressure altitude
aircraft altitude
cabin differential pressure
404. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference
between
the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air
pressure
8,000ft and standard barometric pressure
sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic
pressure in the cabin
405. If the pressure controller is set to 0 ft.
cabin remains at sea level untill maximum
differential
cabin will not pressurise
maximum differential is reached immediately after
take-off
406. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential,
if the engines are shut-down
aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve
opens
cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal
efficiency
outflow valve opens immediately
407. Cabin pressure is maintained by
controlling the amount of air discharged from the
cabin
controlling the output of the compressor
controlling the supply of air to the cabin
408. Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is
equally important in descent and ascent
most important in descent
most important in ascent
409. Cabin rate of climb is shown by
warning lights
a special instrument
a double scale on the aircraft
410. During normal pressurized climb following take-off
the differential pressure is constant
the cabin R.O.C. is more than ambient R.O.C.
the cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.
1) all open
Comment/Reference: AL/3-23 12.3.4
2) reset/disable the pressure controller
Comment/Reference: The pressurisation system must be
controlled manually. Setting QFE is for the automatic
control of the valves.
3) aircraft altitude
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 14-23
4) the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air
pressure
Comment/Reference:
5) cabin will not pressurise
Comment/Reference:
6) cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal
efficiency
Comment/Reference:
7) controlling the amount of air discharged from the
cabin
Comment/Reference:
8) most important in descent
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23
9) a double scale on the aircraft
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 Fig 3. Ascent scale
and decent scale
10) the cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2
Questions 411 – 420
411. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between
cabin pressure and ambient pressure
8,000 ft and sea level
I.S.A. conditions and aircraft altitude
412. Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the
altitude corresponding to cabin pressure
irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft
altitude at which cabin altitude equals outside air
pressure
pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean
sea level I.S.A. conditions
413. When an aircraft has reached max. diff. and is at
constant level (altitude) the system allows for
constant mass flow
all pressurising air to be spilled overboard
pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause
a drop in pressure
414. The control of ventilating and pressurising air
released to atmosphere is achieved by a
pressure controller/dump valve combination
pressure controller/discharge valve combination
discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination
415. Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably
shown on a
cabin V.S.I.
cabin altimeter
cabin pressure gauge
416. Pressurisation control ensures that
at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below
10,000 ft
pressurisation does not start before aircraft is
above 8,000 ft.
the cabin is always maintained at sea level
417. 'Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure
test should be
disconnected
connected
cross connected
418. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin
pressure differential the
discharge valve should be adjusted
outward relief valve is inoperative
pressure controller should be adjusted
419. When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin
pressure differential the
discharge valve closes
mass flow ceases through the cabin
discharge valve opens
420. Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin
pressure ground test?
Occasionally
No
Yes
1) cabin pressure and ambient pressure
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 541/2 or
CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2
2) altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective
of the altitude for the aircraft
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2
3) constant mass flow
Comment/Reference:
4) pressure controller/discharge valve combination
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 9
5) cabin V.S.I.
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 3
6) at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below
10,000 ft
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23
7) connected
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 12.2.5
8) pressure controller should be adjusted
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 10.2.2 iv
9) discharge valve opens
Comment/Reference:
10) Yes
Comment/Reference: AL/3-23 12.3.9
Questions 421 – 430
421. Which component must be isolated when carrying out a
ground cabin pressure test?
Pressure regulator controller
Pressure relief valve
Pressure discharge valve
422. A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the
fuselage is
most desirable because it increases the air-flow
most undesirable because of the drag created
not effective in any way
423. The principle of cabin pressurisation is
whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin
climbs to a lower altitude
cabin altitude climbs eventually to that of the
aircraft
cabin altitude will always maintain a constant
differential to that of aircraft altitude
424. When the cabin differential pressure has reached the
required value and the height is maintained
constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin
all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere
the pressure system ceases to function until the
cabin pressure is reduced
425. Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin
altitude by
regulating the mass flow into the cabin
regulating the position of the outflow valve
regulating the position of the inward relief valve
426. If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when
the aircraft is on the ground with squat switches
overridden, then the outflow valve will normally
not operate
open
remain closed
427. The cabin altitude is
the difference between cabin pressure and
atmospheric pressure
the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea
level
the actual height of the aircraft above sea level
428. The cabin differential pressure is
the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea
level
the difference between cabin pressure and
atmospheric pressure
the actual height of the aircraft above sea level
429. The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by
the vent valves
the outflow valves
the dump control valves
430. When air is pressurized, the oxygen content
decreases
remains constant
increases
Answers for Questions 421 – 430
1) Pressure discharge valve
Comment/Reference: AL/3-23 12.3.10
2) most undesirable because of the drag created
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 6-6 para 3.2
3) whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin
climbs to a lower altitude
Comment/Reference:
4) constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin
Comment/Reference:
5) regulating the position of the outflow valve
Comment/Reference:
6) remain closed
Comment/Reference:
7) the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level
Comment/Reference:
8) the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric
pressure
Comment/Reference:
9) the outflow valves
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/3-23 para 5.1
10) increases
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 539; Oxygen content
increases as mass per unit volume, but NOT as a
percentage of the other gases in air. Your
interpretation of the may differ.
Questions 431 – 440
431. If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin
pressure controller and provided maximum cabin
pressure differential is not exceeded
8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at
aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet
8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all
aircraft altitudes from sea level
sea level cabin conditions will be maintained to
8000 feet aircraft altitude
432. If cabin pressure is increasing, the cabin rate of
change indicator will show
a rate of descent
zero, provided the rate of change is within the
normally accepted limits
a rate of climb
433. During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the
pressurization system 'ON'
the cabin differential pressure is maintained
constant
the pressurization system does not control pressure
until 10,000 ft is reached
the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than
the cabin pressure
434. Rate of change of cabin pressure is
selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure
controller
selected by the pilot and controlled by the spill
valve
automatic
435. An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8.5
PSI at cruising altitude. If the ambient pressure is
2.9 PSI, the pressure inside the cabin at cruising
altitude would be
5.6 PSI
8.5 PSI
11.4 PSI
436. Cabin differential is determined only by
the selected cabin height
the height at which the aircraft is flying and by
the selected cabin height
the height at which the aircraft is flying
437. If the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft.
whilst taxiing and activated the pressurization
system, the cabin pressure would
decrease to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft.
decrease to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft.
remain at ground level pressure
438. A silencer is installed in a pressurization system to
reduce
engine noise coming through the ventilators
the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the
system
the noise from the high speed of airflow within the
system
439. To avoid discomfort, the rate of change of pressure
should be low, particularly
when cabin pressure is decreasing
during descent
during ascent
440. If an aircraft is operating at 40,000 ft. the
pressurization ensures that
sea level pressure is maintained in the cabin
the cabin pressure is progressively increased until
the operational height is reached
the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of
less than 10,000 ft.
1) 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at
aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet
Comment/Reference:
2) a rate of descent
Comment/Reference:
3) the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than
the cabin pressure
Comment/Reference: AL/3-23 Fig 2 Pg 3
4) selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure
controller
Comment/Reference:
5) 11.4 PSI
Comment/Reference:)
6) the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the
selected cabin height
Comment/Reference:)
7) remain at ground level pressure
Comment/Reference: AL3/23 Fig 2
8) the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the
system
Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 fig 3 and para 2.5
9) during descent
Comment/Reference:
10) the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of
less than 10,000 ft.
Comment/Reference:
Questions 441 – 450
441. The pressure controller activates
the spill valve
the blower or compressor
the cabin discharge valve
442. When cruising near the operational ceiling, the flight
altitude set on the pressurization control panel may
be 500 ft. more than the actual flight altitude so as
to prevent
safety valve operation
pressure controller hunting
inward relief valve operation
443. The cabin rate of climb is shown
as being inside or outside limits by green and red
lights, a gauge being used
by a differential scale on the aircraft rate of
climb indicator
on a specific indicator
444. A water separator would be installed in a
pressurization system to
extract surplus water from the charge air
extract water from the cabin air before it is
discharged to atmosphere
collect any rain accompanying the ram air
445. Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin
altitude by control of
cabin mass air flow
outflow valve position
inward relief valve position
446. Ditching control is used for
deploying life rafts
closing all valves and inlets
rapid aircraft depressurization
447. A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an
altitude of 13,000 ft. by
bellows in the outflow valve
cabin over pressure relief valve
altitude sensor
448. If the cabin altitude increases above the normal
maximum
an inward relief valve opens
compressor delivery is automatically boosted
a warning light comes on in the cockpit
449. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air
conditioning system, after an overheat, how is the
heater reset?
After cooling below 300°C it auto resets
On ground only by engineer
After it cools the pilot resets
450. Ditching control is used to
maintain cabin pressure at sea level
close the outflow valves
achieve rapid depressurization
Answers for Questions 441 – 450
1) the cabin discharge valve
Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.
2) pressure controller hunting
Comment/Reference:
3) on a specific indicator
Comment/Reference:
4) extract surplus water from the charge air
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 573
5) outflow valve position
Comment/Reference:
6) closing all valves and inlets
Comment/Reference:
7) altitude sensor
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/3-23 para 7
8) a warning light comes on in the cockpit
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4.4.4
9) On ground only by engineer
Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe pg 14-30
under Safety Features
10) close the outflow valves
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-2 fig 5 item Y, CAP 562
Leaflet 5-2
Questions 451 – 460
451. Inward vent valves are fitted to
increase ventilation
limit negative differentials
limit positive differentials
452. Inward vent valves will operate when
depressurising after descent
aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude
cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude
453. Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative
differential pressure not exceeding
0.5 p.s.i.
1.2 p.s.i.
0.16 p.s.i.
454. Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential
control is allowed for by fitting
inwards relief valves
airport altitude selectors
safety relief valve
455. To what position is the inward relief valve spring
loaded?
Open
Closed
Both position
456. Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized
aircraft
to achieve maximum pressure differential
to allow controlled pressure during descent
to relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure
to be greater
457. A safety valve will normally relieve at
higher differential pressure than the discharge
valve
negative differential pressure
lower differential pressure than the discharge valve
458. A negative differential pressure is prevented by
a blow off valve
an inward relief valve
a spill valve
459. The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a
cabin differential of
-0.5 PSI
+9.25 PSI
+0.5 PSI
460. An inward relief valve will operate
after an aircraft has landed, to restore ground
level conditions is the cabin
when climbing with pressurization 'OFF'
when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure
Answers for Questions 451 – 460
1) limit negative differentials
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 554/5
CAIPs AL/3-23 6.2
2) cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 554/5
CAIPs AL/3-23 6.2
3) 0.5 p.s.i.
Comment/Reference:
4) safety relief valve
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 6.1
5) Closed
Comment/Reference:
6) to allow controlled pressure during descent
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 5
7) higher differential pressure than the discharge valve
Comment/Reference:
8) an inward relief valve
Comment/Reference:)
9) -0.5 PSI
Comment/Reference:
10) when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure
Comment/Reference: AL/3-23 6.2
Questions 461 – 470
461. An inward relief valve is installed in a
pressurization system to ensure that the pressure hull
of an aircraft is not subjected to
too high an internal pressure
a high negative differential pressure
forces which would cause the aircraft to explode
462. Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure
control is catered for by
cabin safety relief valves
inwards relief valve
spill valves
463. Which of these barometric instruments uses a
restrictor to compute its output?
VSI
ASI
Machmeter
464. Slat asymmetry may be monitored by using
spring actuators
torque sensors
position pick-offs
465. A standby compass has a pair of magnets for
adjustment. They are initially placed
45 degrees to each other
90 degrees to each other
parallel with each other
466. A gyro spinning on a vertical axis will detect the
aircraft's
roll and pitch
yaw only
yaw and pitch
467. The rigging of a non magnetic proximity sensor
requires
ensuring the target contacts the sensor
checking the target clearance in the NEAR position
against reference figures
checking the target clearance in the FAR position
against reference figures
468. How do you detect and locate a leak in a pitot-static
system?
Isolate the component and perform a systematic
check, starting from the instrument
Pressurize the system and use the soap bubble
detection method
Disconnect each line in turn and perform a pressure
leak test
469. A +/. symbol on a compass system indicates
failure of the compass system
compass card and directional gyro are being
synchronised
magnetic deviation and compass card are in alignment
470. An altimeter in a pressurised aircraft at altitude has
a case leak. The altimeter will
under read
not be affected
over read
1) a high negative differential pressure
Comment/Reference: AL/3-23 6.2
2) cabin safety relief valves
Comment/Reference:
3) VSI
Comment/Reference:
4) position pick-offs
Comment/Reference: AMM 767 27-88-00
5) parallel with each other
Comment/Reference:
6) roll and pitch
Comment/Reference:
7) checking the target clearance in the NEAR position
against reference figures
Comment/Reference:
8) Pressurize the system and use the soap bubble
detection method
Comment/Reference:
9) compass card and directional gyro are being
synchronised
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett Page 197
10) under read
Comment/Reference:
Questions 471 – 480
471. The earth's magnetic dip affects a standby compass
above its pivot only
below its pivot only
equally above and below its pivot
472. An electrical gyro has usually a speed of
10,000 RPM
20,000 RPM
5,000 RPM
473. A flux valve is used to
drive the HSI
align the standby compass with the earth's magnetic
field
align the directional gyro with the earth's magnetic
field
474. The decision height light will illuminated when
the decision height is selected
the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision
height
the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision
height
475. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, Mach
information is derived from
indicated air speed and total air temperature
indicated airspeed and altitude
pitot and static pressures
476. What instrument connects to pitot pressure?
Both the airspeed indicator and the vertical speed
indicator
The airspeed indicator
The vertical speed indicator
477. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of
climb of an aircraft is produced in the
Indicated Airspeed Module
Mach Module
Altitude Module
478. In a Central Air Data Computer, altitude is produced
from
pitot air pressure
pitot air pressure and total air temperature
static air pressure
479. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air
Speed (IAS) is produced from
pitot pressure only
pitot and static air pressure
static pressure only
480. The Tx and Rx rotors of a control synchro are 90
degrees shifted. The output is
zero
low
high
Answers for Questions 471 – 480
1) below its pivot only
Comment/Reference:
2) 20,000 RPM
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems, Pallett Page 113
3) align the directional gyro with the earth's magnetic
field
Comment/Reference: B737-200 AMM 34-21-0 pg 1
4) the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision
height
Comment/Reference: Decision Height comes on at
Decision Height and remains on as aircraft descends to
landing.
5) indicated airspeed and altitude
Comment/Reference:
6) The airspeed indicator
Comment/Reference:
7) Altitude Module
Comment/Reference:
8) static air pressure
Comment/Reference:
9) pitot and static air pressure
Comment/Reference:
10) zero
Comment/Reference:
Questions 481 – 490
481. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, True Air
Speed (TAS) is derived from the Mach information and
Total Air Temperature
Static Air Pressure
Pitot Air Pressure
482. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at
10 000 ft radio alt.
2 500 ft radio alt.
1 000 ft radio alt.
483. When testing using a thermocouple test set
a 28 VDC supply is required
a serviceable battery is required
no power is required
484. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?
10,000 ft
500 ft
2,500 ft
485. A Compass swing would be required after replacing a
compass Amplifier
H.S.I.
compass sensing unit
486. Where is the attitude director gyro stator situated?
Around the rotor
Inside the rotor
Underneath the rotor
487. What is the error in the lubber line called?
Index error
Coefficiant P
Coefficiant B
488. An ECAM system is tested under the following
conditions:-
Aircraft in the air with both engines running
Aircraft on the ground with one engine running
Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on
489. Millibar is used to express what kind of pressure?
Pitot pressure
Barometric pressure
Ambient pressure
490. The maximum deviation on a standby magnetic compass
must not be more than
3°
5°
1°
Answers for Questions 481 – 490
1) Total Air Temperature
Comment/Reference:
2) 2 500 ft radio alt.
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page
223 & Electricity & Electronics 5th ed Eisman pg 323/4
3) a serviceable battery is required
Comment/Reference: AC65-12A Page 494
Battery operation or 115V AC input
4) 2,500 ft
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics,
5th Ed Eismin p323-324
5) compass sensing unit
Comment/Reference:
6) Inside the rotor
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems, Pallett Page 112
7) Index error
Comment/Reference: The Lubber line is the vertical
white line painted on the front of the compass. If
there is an error in that, there is an error in the
compass mounting position. CAP 562 Leaflet 8-2 para 3
a)
8) Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems
Page 391
9) Ambient pressure
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Millibar
10) 3°
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 8-2 para 14.8
Questions 491 – 500
491. Compass base classification Class 2 is periodically
re-surveyed every
2 years
5 years
1 year
492. The aircraft heading is 270°. The magnetic compass
deviation is -1°. The pilot should fly
269°
271°
270°
493. Which instrument is most likely to damage if you have
a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a pitot-
static leak check?
Air speed indicator
vertical speed indicator
Altimeter
494. The operation of the Angle of Attack indicator is used
to detect airflow direction relative to
the angle of attack of the aircraft
the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
the pitch angle of the aircraft
495. The runway heading is
QDM
QFU
QDR
496. Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of
cos of latitude
sin of latitude
tan of latitude
497. A machmeter works
always
above 10,000 ft
always except on the ground
498. Radio marker information is displayed on
EICAS
HSI
ADI
499. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall.
Rectification is to
move probe down
move probe up
move probe laterally
500. Where is alpha angle used?
IRS
Angle of attack
Accelerometer
Answers for Questions 491 – 500
1) 2 years
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 8-1 para 4 c) ii)
2) 271°
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 8-2 table 1 pg 18
3) Altimeter
Comment/Reference: Altimeter is most sensitive to
rapid pressure changes
4) the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
Comment/Reference:
5) QFU
Comment/Referene:
www2.tky.3web.ne.jp/~jahfa/kokuningen/Q.html
6) cos of latitude
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems
Page 103
7) always
Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems
Page 45
8) ADI
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin
Page 358
9) move probe up
Comment/Reference:
Move probe up, closer to the Leading Edge stagnation
point, so it operates sooner
10) Angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instrument and Integrated Systems - Pallett
Page 73.
Questions 501 – 510
501. Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro
instrument?
Outer gimbal
Rotating vane
Inner gimbal
502. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would
fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the
same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux
valve was removed from
carry out a check swing after fitment
align the aircraft onto it’s A coefficient so that
no error is induced
503. In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the
altimeter set to?
QNH
QFE
1013.25
504. Vibration monitoring signals are sent
via a signal conditioner to the gauge
via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge
direct to the gauge
505. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury.
This is from
zero and positive
zero and minus
ambient and minus
506. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in
the inlet. This is to
prevent FOD ingestion
dampen sudden pressure changes
allow for calibration
507. The hot junction of thermocouple is
aft of combustion chamber
in the instrument
in the combustion chamber
508. When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to the
display?
Rad. alt. goes out of view
Rad. alt. flag in view
Error warning in view
509. Pitot tubes are heated
by compressed bleed air
electrically
by kinetic heating
510. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is
above ambient pressure
above zero pressure
below ambient pressure
Answers for Questions 501 – 510
1) Inner gimbal
Comment/Reference: Look in B737-200 AMM 34-21-00 pg 1
para 3.B.
2) fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the
same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux
valve was removed from
Comment/Reference:
3) 1013.25
Comment/Reference: 1013.25 mb or QNE. A & P Technician
Airframe Textbook Chap XIII page 592
4) via a signal conditioner to the gauge
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Aircraft Instruments and
Avionics Page 90
5) ambient and minus
Comment/Reference: The 5 inches Hg refers to the
'suction' from ambient.
6) dampen sudden pressure changes
Comment/Reference: The restriction is to damp out
surges in pressure
7) aft of combustion chamber
Comment/Reference:
The hot junction is the sensor, aft of the combustion
chamber
8) Rad. alt. goes out of view
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems
Page 195
9) electrically
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/10-1 Para 3.2
10) below ambient pressure
Comment/Reference: The 5 inches Hg refers to the
'suction' from ambient.
Questions 511 – 520
511. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?
Yellow, cyan, magenta
Red, blue, green
Red, blue, yellow
512. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _______when close to
stall.
flap position
thrust levers
fast/slow switch
513. When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft
equipped with RVSM system, and a quick release
disconnect connection is disturbed
a full test of the system should be carried out
the allowances for the system should be halved
a full test of the system should be carried out only
if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so
514. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM,
the maximum tolerance for the system would be
+/- 500 feet for the system overall
+/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error
+/- 300 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument errors
515. The HSI provides information on
VOR, ILS, plan, attitude
VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar
VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude
516. The sensing element of the flux valve
aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft
after it has stabilised
remains in the same position attached to the
aircraft structure
aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft
turns
517. In a compass swing:
North error -2 degrees, South error - 2 degrees.
The coefficient C is
0 degrees
-2 degrees
+2 degrees
518. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the
maximum allowable error is
5 degrees
1 degrees
3 degrees
519. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The
alignment of pitot head is carried out with
spirit level
micrometer
an inclinometer
520. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?
Displacement
Tied down
Space
Answers for Questions 511 – 520
1) Red, blue, green
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems, Pallett Page 290
2) thrust levers
Comment/Reference:
3) a full test of the system should be carried out only
if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so
Comment/Reference: TGL No.6 Para 10.4 e
4) +/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error
Comment/Reference:
Download TGL No. Para.8.3
5) VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar
Comment/Reference: Attitude is on the EADI
6) remains in the same position attached to the aircraft
structure
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals
Page 106-110 & also read B737-200 AMM 34-21-00 pg 5
para 9.C.
7) 0 degrees
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 8-2 table 1
(-2)-(-2)/2 = 0
8) 5 degrees
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 8-2 para 12 Note
9) an inclinometer
Comment/Reference:
10) Tied down
Comment/Reference: AL/10-2 A rate gyro has only 2 axis
of freedom. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems
Pallett page 129
Questions 521 – 530
521. A radio altimeter system can be self tested
both on the ground only and in the air
in the air only
on the ground only
522. The apparent wander for directional gyros is
maximum at the pole
compensated by applying a constant torque
dependant on longitude
523. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for
toppling
drift
erection
524. Random drift of a gyro is caused by
gyro friction and unbalance
aircraft turning with an error in roll
error in roll when aircraft is turning
525. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars)
exert the most amount of influence
when 90 degrees apart
when 45 degrees apart
when parallel to each other
526. With engine static and engine blanks fitted, EPR gauge
reads just above 1.
This is normal
Gauge requires re-calibration
Transmitter is unserviceable
527. Coefficient A is adjusted
at 270 degrees
at 360 degrees
on any heading
528. With an aircraft which has more than one compass
system
both are adjusted on each heading
master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a
corrected compass card
master and slave adjusted, correction card for
master only
529. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away
from a compass?
24 inches
So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of
compass
20 inches
530. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains
instruments?
Lower
Both
Upper
1) on the ground only
Comment/Reference: B757 training notes
2) compensated by applying a constant torque
Comment/Reference:
3) drift
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett Page 192
4) gyro friction and unbalance
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett
and Coyle Page 104
5) when 90 degrees apart
Comment/Reference: Angle between flinders bars
determines their correcting influence.
6) Gauge requires re-calibration
Comment/Reference:
7) on any heading
Comment/Reference: AL/10-5 9.2.7
8) master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a
corrected compass card
Comment/Reference: Al/10-5 9.2 Note.
9) 24 inches
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 8-2 para 6.1.2
10) Upper
Comment/Reference: http://www.b737.org.uk/probes.htm
Questions 531 – 540
531. On the CWP, what does amber indicate?
Cautionary info
Warning
Present status
532. Which instrument shows Decision Height?
ADI
HSI
ECAM
533. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?
INS
Pitot static probes
EICAS
534. When power is switched off, the gimbal brake
restricts inner gimbal
stops outer gimbal
restricts outer gimbal
535. On an EADI the command bars show the
required flight path compared with horizon
required flight path compared to planned flight path
required flight path compared with aircraft position
536. The airdata computer inputs to
altimeter, FMC, secondary radar
cabin rate sensors, mach-meters, ASI, altimeter
mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI
537. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?
6°
10°
2.5°
538. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be
described?
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse
transmission and the reception of its echo from the
ground directly below the aircraft
As a series of radio pulses to the ground their
frequency depending on the expansion or contraction
of an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E
and I bar transducer
As a comparison of radio altitude against a
barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level
(1013.25mb)
539. In a compass system, what senses the horizontal
component of the earths magnetic field and where is it
normally fitted?
A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the
aircraft
Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips
Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the
aircraft
540. An RMI has inputs from VOR and
a remote compass input
an azimuth gyro
no other sources
Answers for Questions 531 – 540
1) Cautionary info
Comment/Reference:
2) ADI
Comment/Reference: Avionics Fundamentals Page 185
3) INS
Comment/Reference: Avionics Fundamentals Page 128
4) restricts inner gimbal
Comment/Reference: Used for gimbal lock prevention.
Energised off.
5) required flight path compared with aircraft position
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett Page 212/213
6) altimeter, FMC, secondary radar
Comment/Reference: FMC for nav. Secondary Radar is ATC
transponder encoder.
7) 10°
Comment/Reference:
www.allstar.fiu.edu/aero/FltDirS.htm
VOR is 5° per dot. ILS is 2 1/2° per dot
8) As a measure of the time between a RF pulse
transmission and the reception of its echo from the
ground directly below the aircraft
Comment/Reference:
9) Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett Page 182
10) an azimuth gyro
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett Page 194
Questions 541 – 550
541. In a modern HSI, the displays are
direction and attitude
course and direction
course and attitude
542. At what height does the rising runway appear?
200 ft.
500 ft.
300 ft
543. An H on the EHSI indicates
DME hold
ILS approach
VOR hold
544. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs
faster
slower
same speed
545. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from
reservoir
compressor outlet
compressor inlet
546. What is apparent drift due to?
Errors when aircraft banking
Earths rotation
Gyro pivot friction
547. An aircraft airspeed indicator has
pitot to the capsule
pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of
the capsule
static to the capsule
548. Above 2500 ft. the rad. alt.
pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of
view
pointer goes to zero to show system is being
monitored
continues to indicate but with a warning flag
549. How does a machmeter work?
True airspeed and speed of sound
Indicated airspeed / temperature
True airspeed / indicated airspeed
550. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick
release couplings
a leak check is always required
a leak check is only required if stated by
manufacturer
a leak check is not required
Answers for Questions 541 – 550
1) course and direction
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett page 303
2) 200 ft.
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page
199 &
www.artietheairplane.com/flat_panel/pfd_attitude_direc
tor_indicator.htm
3) DME hold
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eismin Page 358
4) faster
Comment/Reference:
5) reservoir
Comment/Reference:
External website...
6) Earths rotation
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett Page 102
7) pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the
capsule
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 476 figure 12-17
8) pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of
view
Comment/Reference: Avionic Systems: Operation and
Maintenance Page 189
9) True airspeed and speed of sound
Comment/Reference: Kermode Mechanics of Flight 10th
edition p339, and Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, Harris Page 20 & AC65-15A pg 480
10) a leak check is only required if stated by
manufacturer
Comment/Reference: TGL 6 (RVSM) para 10.4 e
Questions 551 – 560
551. The flux detector element
gives heading with respect to magnetic north
changes it position after the aircraft heading is
changed
changes heading with the heading of the aircraft
552. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open
circuit, position indication will
be sluggish
oscillate
go hard over
553. The needle of a resolver is connected to
two coils and a permanent magnet
two coils only
two coils and an electromagnet
554. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude
this has no influence on compass readings
this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying
this is due to insufficient de-aeration
555. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Which
of the following is correct?
The swing can be performed at a later date
A compass swing must be performed
No swing is required if the new heading is within 5
degrees of the old
556. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To
steer a true heading of 180 degrees the pilot must
steer
179 degrees
180 degrees
181 degrees
557. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the
cockpit?
Servomotor
A measuring device
Torque synchro
558. In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?
Compensation is not required
Hair spring
Square-Law compensation
559. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of
gyro rotor speed have?
No effect
Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of
precession
Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of
precession
560. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by
decreasing the mass of the rotor
increasing the rotor speed
decreasing the rotor speed
Answers for Questions 551 – 560
1) gives heading with respect to magnetic north
Comment/Reference: B737-200 AMM 34-21-00
2) oscillate
Comment/Reference:
3) two coils only
Comment/Reference:)
4) this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying
Comment/Reference: The bubble can be caused by using
the compass at higher elevations and/or exposure to
cold temperatures. The bubble forms as the liquid in
the vial expands or contracts at a rate faster than
the rigid plastic vial, which forms a vacuum or a
'bubble'.
5) A compass swing must be performed
Comment/Reference: AL/10-5 10 & CAP 562
6) 179 degrees
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 8-2 table 1
columns 7 and 8
7) Torque synchro
Comment/Reference:
8) Square-Law compensation
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems - Pallett, page 45
9) Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of
precession
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33
10) increasing the rotor speed
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33
Questions 561 – 570
561. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the
rate of precession
is unaffected by changes in rotor speed
increases with a higher rotor speed
increases with a lower rotor speed
562. Random drift of a gyro is caused by
unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro
aircraft turning with an error in roll
rotation of the earth
563. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro
horizon works on the principle of
increased reaction of the air from a fully open port
increased reaction of the air from a bisected port
decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port
564. During the normal straight and level flight, the gyro
of an electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in
pitch by a
torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring
and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the
fore and aft axis
torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring
and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the
athwartships axis
mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling
a torque motor fitted between the inner and outer
gimbal rings
565. The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of
the artificial horizon is disconnected
for the first 40 seconds after initially switching
'ON'
when the fast erection button is pressed
during turns
566. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an
electrical gyro horizon to
to prevent the pitch switch giving a false
indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn
give full erection control to the roll switch during
a turn
give full erection control to the pitch switch
during a turn
567. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon
must not be used for a set period after switching on
because
excessive hunting will take place
overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur
the normal erection switch contact will burn out
568. Apparent drift of a directional gyro is due to
unbalance of the gimbals
bearing friction
the effect of the earth's rotation
569. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has
a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on
the inner gimbal
a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on
the outer gimbal
a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on
the inner gimbal
570. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a
vertical axis, the amount the gimbal ring moves would
be increased if the
rotor speed decreases
spring tension was increased
angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth
increases
Answers for Questions 561 – 570
1) increases with a lower rotor speed
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33
2) unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 37 (Real
Drift)
3) increased reaction of the air from a fully open port
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 49
4) torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and
the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore
and aft axis
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 51 (see page
48 for 'athwartship).
5) during turns
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 51 bottom
6) to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication
due to centrifugal effects during a turn
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 51
7) excessive hunting will take place
Comment/Reference: AL/10-2 9.3.2 a)
8) the effect of the earth's rotation
Comment/Reference: AL/3-23 12.3.2
9) a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on
the outer gimbal
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments & Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 46/7
10) rotor speed decreases
Comment/Reference: Rigidity!
Questions 571 – 580
571. The Turn and Slip indicator employs
an azimuth gyro
a rate gyro
a vertical gyro
572. In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing
the rotor speed would be
it would have no effect
it would under read
it would over read
573. How is the information on a directional gyro outer
gimbal taken off?
By a switch on the outer gimbal
By a flux take-off device
By a switch on the inner gimbal
574. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to
+/- 85º?
To prevent outer gimbal rotating
To ensure outer gimbal erection system works
correctly
To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock
575. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is
approximately
4,200 rpm
22,500 rpm
2,400 rpm
576. In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is
corrected to
15 cosine latitude
15 sine latitude
15 sine longitude
577. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely
upon
change in inductance to operate
change in resistance to operate
change in voltage applied to operate
578. Precession of a gyro depends on
angular velocity of the rotor only
moment of inertia of the rotor only
moment of inertia AND angular velocity of the rotor
579. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on
moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor
moment of inertia of the rotor
angular velocity of the rotor
580. Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros,
generally rotate
slower
faster
the same speed
Answers for Questions 571 – 580
1) a rate gyro
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 54
2) it would over read
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett page 131
3) By a flux take-off device
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 77/78
4) To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock
Comment/Reference:
5) 4,200 rpm
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 53
6) 15 sine latitude
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 37/8
7) change in resistance to operate
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 50/51 & Automatic
Flight Control 4th ed Pallett & Coyle
8) moment of inertia AND angular velocity of the rotor
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 53
9) moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 33
10) slower
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 41
Questions 581 – 590
581. Gyro rigidity is proportional to
mass and speed
mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis
mass, and radius of mass from spin axis
582. Gyro precessional force is
inversely proportional to the applied force
directly proportional to applied force
proportional to the square of the applied force
583. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is
approximately
22,000 rpm
4,200 rpm
15,000 rpm
584. A V.S.I. is connected to
static pressure
pitot pressure
vacuum
585. With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half
of the scale it indicates
100 ft/minute rate of climb
1,000 ft/minute rate of descent
1,000 ft/minute rate of climb
586. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically
operated gyro instrument it is recommended that, to
allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the
instrument
three minutes should elapse
fifteen minutes should elapse
seven minutes should elapse
587. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are
inter-connected to
reduce compressibility error
minimize errors caused by leaks in the system
cancel errors caused in the static system when the
aircraft yaws
588. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro
to topple?
Running gyro at low speed
Running gyro at high speed
Inverting the gyro
589. In level flight, a V.S.I. will indicate
vertically up
vertically down
horizontal to left
590. On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule
is the same as case pressure
lags the case pressure
leads the case pressure
Answers for Questions 581 – 590
1) mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 33
2) directly proportional to applied force
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 33
3) 15,000 rpm
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 46
4) static pressure
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 478 ‘Rate-of-Climb
Indicator’ & Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight
Control, David Harris Page 22/23
5) 1,000 ft/minute rate of climb
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 478 & Flight
Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris
Page 24
6) fifteen minutes should elapse
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/10.2 8.1 c)
7) cancel errors caused in the static system when the
aircraft yaws
Comment/Reference:
8) Running gyro at low speed
Comment/Reference:
9) horizontal to left
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 478 & Flight
Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris
Page 22
10) leads the case pressure
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 478/479 & Flight
Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris
Page 22
Questions 591 – 600
591. A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in
a pressurized aircraft would, during level flight,
cause the instrument to indicate
a rate of descent
zero
a rate of climb
592. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the
precession of the rotor will continue until
as long as the force is applied
plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the
applied force
plane of rotation is in line with the precessional
force
593. An artificial horizon has
the inner gimbal pivoted vertically
the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally
the inner gimbal pivoted laterally
594. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to
14.7 PSI
100 millibar
1 inch Hg
595. In the directional gyro
the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically
the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally
the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally
596. The millibar is a unit of
barometric pressure
atmospheric temperature
pressure altitude
597. In the Turn and Slip indicator
the spin axis is longitudinal
the spin axis is vertical
the spin axis is lateral
598. In an altimeter, the
capsule is evacuated and sealed
inside of the capsule is connected to static
pressure
capsule and case are connected via a calibrated
choke
599. The units on the calibrated scale of a V.S.I. are
expressed in
knots (kts)
miles per hour (mph)
hundreds of feet per minute
600. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be
obtained from
a tapping from the induction manifold
a pitot head
a venture
Answers for Questions 591 – 600
1) a rate of climb
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 22
2) plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the
applied force
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 33
3) the inner gimbal pivoted laterally
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 47
4) 14.7 PSI
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 540
5) the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 42
6) barometric pressure
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 540
7) the spin axis is lateral
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 482 & Flight
Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris
Page 53
8) capsule is evacuated and sealed
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 476 & Flight
Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris
Page 6
9) hundreds of feet per minute
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 478. (Light aircraft
only - large aircraft are 1000s ft/min)
10) a venturi
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 40
Questions 601 – 610
601. A rate two turn is
180 degrees per minute
90 degrees per minute
360 degrees per minute
602. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator
(compared to a Turn and Slip) is
more accurate
more instantaneous
less accurate
603. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter
mechanism is provided by a
U-spring acting on the capsule
bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule
balance weight
604. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be
expanded when the aircraft is
climbing
in level flight
descending
605. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static
group, it is necessary to
calibrate the instrument concerned
carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s)
blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air
supply
606. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross
connected at the instrument panel connection,
application of pressure to the pitot head would cause
the
altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed
indicator to indicate descent
altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed
indicator to indicate climb
altimeter reading to increase, vertical speed
indicator to indicate descent
607. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a
vertical gyro would cause
a continual precession in roll
a pitch error and gyro topple
a roll error and gyro topple
608. A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes'
refers to a
rate 3 turn
rate 1 turn
rate 2 turn
609. A pitot or static leak check is carried out
only when an instrument is changed
whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed
only when a leak is suspected
610. The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure
on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is
180 deg. and 100 deg. respectively
100 deg. and 32 deg. respectively
212 deg. and 100 deg. Respectively
1) 360 degrees per minute
Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ROT
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David
Harris Page 54, Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Page 131.
2) more accurate
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 55
3) bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 8
4) descending
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 478 & Flight
Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris
Page 22/23
5) carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s)
Comment/Reference: AL/10-1 15.5
6) altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed
indicator to indicate descent
Comment/Reference:
7) a continual precession in roll
Comment/Reference:
8) rate 1 turn
Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ROT
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David
Harris Page 54
9) whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed
Comment/Reference: AL/10-1 15.5
10) 212 deg. and 100 deg. respectively
Comment/Reference:
Questions 611 – 620
611. A temperature of 59°F is equivalent to
15°C
14.69°C
32°C
612. Aircraft heading (HDG) is
the angle between True North and the desired track
the angle between True North and the actual track
the angle between True North and the longitudinal
axis of the aircraft
613. Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured
in degrees from the aircraft's heading
in degrees from True North
in degrees from the desired track
614. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to
limit the outer gimbal movement
reduce gimbal nutation
prevent gimbal lock
615. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an
attitude director indicator is
by a torque synchro
by a differential synchro
by a control synchro
616. Agonic lines link places of
equal variation
different variation
zero variation
617. Position error is caused by
mechanical imperfections in an instrument
pitot head position
instrument location in the instrument panel
618. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin
use the formula (deg C x 9/5) + 32
add 273 degrees
add 112 degrees
619. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either
eddy current, variable spring or moving iron
viscous, eddy current or air dash pot
viscous, eddy current or variable spring
Answers for Questions 611 – 620
1) 15°C
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 29
2) the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis
of the aircraft
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 87
3) in degrees from True North
Comment/Reference:
4) prevent gimbal lock
Comment/Reference:
5) by a control synchro
Comment/Reference: Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig
5-20
6) zero variation
Comment/Reference:
https://ntc.cap.af.mil/ops/DOT/school/L23CockpitFam/ma
gneticcompass.cfm
7) pitot head position
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 17
8) add 273 degrees
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 226
9) viscous, eddy current or air dash pot
Comment/Reference:
Questions 621 – 630
621. Electrical driven gyros are
rotated slower than air driven gyros
rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros
rotated faster than air driven gyros
622. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there
is a break in the circuit to the bulb. This will give
no scale deflection
full scale deflection
mid scale deflection
623. With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque
applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro
will cause the
inner ring to move
outer ring to move
outer and inner ring to move
624. When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the
altimeter case
will not affect the aneroid capsule
will cause the aneroid capsule to contract
will cause the aneroid capsule to expand
625. The supply of Desynn indicating system
is alternating current at 400 c/s
is direct current
is alternating current at 50 c/s
626. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. when the
millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at
airfield level (QFE)
indicates that the airfield is 100 ft. above sea
level
indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high
pressure and the reading must be corrected to I.S.A.
standards
indicates that the instrument is unserviceable
627. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in
the aircraft static system should be released to the
atmosphere by
removing the static connector from its static vent
after waiting for a period of three minutes
venting the static system via an internal bleed in
the test set
removing the static connector from its static vent
628. An altimeter is operated
by the pitot system
by the vacuum system
by the static system
629. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the
altimeter?
Compensates for change in density
Corrects for capsule elasticity
Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring
630. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?
Both vertical and horizontal
Vertical
Horizontal
Answers for Questions 621 – 630
1) rotated faster than air driven gyros
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 41
2) full scale deflection
Comment/Reference: Think of it this way - resistance
increases with temperature, and that drives it toward
fsd. If the bulb circuit is broken, the resistance
will be infinite
3) outer ring to move
Comment/Reference:
4) will cause the aneroid capsule to contract
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 5
5) is direct current
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 483
6) indicates that the instrument is unserviceable
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 9
7) venting the static system via an internal bleed in the
test set
Comment/Reference:
8) by the static system
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 476
9) Corrects for capsule elasticity
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 5
10) Horizontal
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 8, and page
41/42
Questions 631 – 640
631. The capsule in an altimeter responds to
absolute pressure
gauge pressure
differential pressure
632. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is
fitted to the
inner gimbal
instrument case
rotor
633. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of
airspeed and altitude
mach number and temperature
airspeed and temperature
634. The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a
conventional one is
it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a
conventional one
it does not require pitot/static pressure
it does not require warming up
635. For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with
altitude, the T.A.S.
remains the same
decreases
increases
636. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a
rate gyro
vertical gyro
directional gyro
637. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments
is anti-freeze oil
is silica-gel
is sodium-bicarbonate
638. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of
gyro rotor speed have?
Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of
precession
No effect
Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of
precession
639. Bourdon Tubes have
oval cross section
circular cross section
toroidal cross section
640. In a Bourdon tube
one end is sealed and the other end open to
atmosphere
both ends sealed
one end is sealed and the other end open to the
pressure source
1) absolute pressure
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 36
2) instrument case
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 47
3) mach number and temperature
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett
Page 272
4): it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a
conventional one
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control
Systems, David Harris Page 27
5) increases
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control
Systems, David Harris Page 24
6) directional gyro
Comment/Reference:
7) is silica-gel
8) Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of
precession
9) oval cross section
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 471 fig 12-3 &
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control
Systems David Harris Page 182 Figure 7.1
10) one end is sealed and the other end open to the
pressure source
Comment/Reference: AC 65-15A pg 471 Fig 12-3 &
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control
Systems David Harris Page 182
Questions 641 – 650
641. Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers) use
the
Charle's Law
Brahm's press principle
Boyle's Law
642. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is
kerosene
castor-oil
anti-freeze oil
643. The distance readout on an HSI is
dialed in by the pilot
from the aircraft ATC system
from the aircraft DME system
644. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right
angles to the plane of rotation, and its gimbal
restrained either electrically or by a spring, is
known as
a tied gyro
a rate gyro
an earth gyro
645. Pressure may be expressed in
force per unit area
force per unit volume
weight or mass
646. What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon
tube pressure gauge?
To return the pointer to zero
To reduce 'backlash'
To act a controlling force
647. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained
from the aircraft's
directional gyros
attitude rate gyros
vertical gyros
648. One dot VOR deviation represents
2 miles
5°
1¼°
649. An instrument used for measuring negative pressures
cannot be of the Bourdon tube type
has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case
has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube
operated
650. An absolute pressure gauge measures
pressures extremely accurately
the applied pressure referred to atmospheric
pressure
the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum
1) Brahm's press principle
Comment/Reference:
2) castor-oil
Comment/Reference:
3) from the aircraft DME system
4) a rate gyro
Comment/Reference: www.tpub.com/neets/book15/63e.htm
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control
Systems, David Harris Page 52
5) force per unit area
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 226
6) To reduce 'backlash'
Comment/Reference:
7) vertical gyros
8) 5°
9) has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube
operated
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control
Systems David Harris Page 182.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manometer#Bourdon
The Bourdon tube is a coil, as the gauge pressure
increases the tube will tend to uncoil, while a
reduced gauge pressure will cause the tube to coil
more tightly.
10) the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum
Comment/Reference:
Questions 651 – 660
651. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading
Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to
atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure
absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure
absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure
652. The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of
which direction he is tracking relative to
an ADF station
a VOR station
an ILS station
653. A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure
gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i. In terms of absolute
pressure, this represents
1,014.7 p.s.i.
985.3 p.s.i.
1,000 p.s.i.
654. To fill a Dead Weight Tester
screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir
remove platform and fill cylinder
screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir
655. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the
millibar scale of the altimeter, the altimeter will
read
the airfield height
zero
off scale
656. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight
inspection
the standard sea level barometric pressure is always
set on the millibar scale
the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar
scale
the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature
is set on the millibar scale
657. The HSI compass card is positioned by the
aircraft ADF system
heading select knob
compass system
658. The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the
square root of the speed
square of the speed
cube root of the speed
659. The supply to an A.S.I.
are pitot and static pressure
is static pressure only
is pitot pressure only
660. The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the
aircraft is
decelerating
accelerating
climbing
Answers for Questions 651 – 660
1) absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure
Comment/Reference:
2) a VOR station
Comment/Reference:
3) 1,014.7 p.s.i.
Comment/Reference:
4) screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir
Comment/Reference:
5) the airfield height
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 9
6) the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale
Comment/Reference: QFE is set and it should read
airfield height
7) compass system
Comment/Reference:
8) square of the speed
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 15
9) are pitot and static pressure
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 476 Flight Instruments
and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris
Page 13
10) accelerating
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 476 & Flight
Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems,
David Harris Page 13
661. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a
localiser approach is proportional to
the difference between the amplitudes on the two
modulations
the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations
the difference in amplitude of the two r.f. carriers
662. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still
air, airspeed will be
equal to the ground speed
less than the ground speed
greater than the ground speed
663. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots,
encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its ground speed
is
450 knots
350 knots
400 knots
664. To provide a linear scale on an A.S.I., a
ranging bar and screws are fitted
10 to 1 gearing is used
bi-metal corrector is employed
665. A machmeter is an instrument which indicates the speed
of
sound relative to the aircraft's altitude
the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed
the aircraft relative to the speed of sound at
ground level
666. The moving element of a ratiometer has
one coil
two coils
three coils
667. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an
altimeter, you are checking for leaks in the
capsule stack
instrument case
pressure chamber
668. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013.25 and
the barometric pressure at that time was 1020, the
altimeter should read
zero feet
below zero feet (negative altitude)
positive altitude
669. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows
indications of 120° and 'TO'. After passing over the
station, on the same course, the indications will be
300° and FROM
120° and FROM
300° and TO
670. The command bars in a flight director system indicate
the actual path with respect to required path
true horizon
the required path with respect to actual path
Answers for Questions 661 – 670
1) the difference between the amplitudes on the two
modulations
Comment/Reference:
2) equal to the ground speed
Comment/Reference:
3) 350 knots
4) ranging bar and screws are fitted
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
systems Pallett Page 44 fig 2.18 and text below
5) the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 480 & Flight
Instruments and Automatic light Control Systems, David
Harris Page 19, and aircraft Instruments and
Integrated Systems Pallett age 45
6) two coils
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
light Control systems Page 186 Fig 7.4 and para below
7) instrument case
Comment/Reference: Jepessen A & P Technician Textbook
p11-9
8) below zero feet (negative altitude)
Comment/Reference: Assuming aircraft is on the ground
9) 120° and FROM
Comment/Reference:
10) the required path with respect to actual path
Comment/Reference:
Questions 671 – 680
671. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby
magnetic compass located in the vicinity
precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is
attached to the correct attachment bolt
precautions must be taken to ensure that the
attachment bolts are of the specified type
The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-
clockwise direction around the window
672. On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass
datum and the radio pointer arrow is
the relative bearing
the complimentary bearing
the magnetic bearing
673. A compass is made aperiodic by
locking
using fluid
tying it to the case
674. Isogonal lines link places of
different variation
equal variation
zero variation
675. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused
by
displacement of erection control device
bottom heaviness of inner gimbals
bottom lightness of inner gimbals
676. If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent
Air speed?
278 knots
550 knots
662 knots
677. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what
is the Calibrated Airspeed?
296 knots
293 knots
304 knots
678. In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by
bottom heaviness of inner gimbals
bottom lightness of inner gimbals
displacement of erection control device
679. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of
an orifice
a capillary
both an orifice and capillary
680. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with
respect to the aircraft's
both lateral and longitudinal axis
longitudinal axis
lateral axis
Answers for Questions 671 – 680
1) precautions must be taken to ensure that the
attachment bolts are of the specified type
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 6-8 para 4.7
2) the relative bearing
3) using fluid
Comment/Reference:
4) equal variation
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett Page 81
5) bottom heaviness of inner gimbals
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 49
(acceleration error)
6) 278 knots
Comment/Reference: True airspeed is always higher than
EAS (or IAS) at any altitude above Sea Level.
7) 304 knots
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 14
8) displacement of erection control device
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments & Systems.
Pallett pg 122
9) both an orifice and a capillary
Comment/Reference:
10) longitudinal axis
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 64/65 &
B737-200 AMM 34-21-00
Questions 681 – 690
681. The manual VOR input is for
the course deviation bar
the radio magnetic indicator
the ADI
682. After correction of the north-south heading reading on
a compass swing, the resultant correction is known as
magnetic heading
residual deviation
correct heading
683. Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by
mercury switch on outer ring
an adjustment nut on inner ring
series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor
684. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system,
you would
carry out a new compass swing
set it to zero datum
set it up the same as the one removed
685. In a compass swing:
North error -2 degrees, South error + 2 degrees.
The coefficient C is
-2 degrees
0 degrees
+2 degrees
686. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of
approach to or deviation from selected altitude
selection of altitude
altitude information
687. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum
tolerance for the system is
+/- 500ft system tolerance
+/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
+/- 200ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
688. Machmeters work on
pitot
pitot and static
static
689. An aircraft with Mach warning will warn
when Mcrit is reached
when envelope limit is reached
when Mach 1 is exceeded
690. An HSI provides what information?
VOR, map, attitude, ILS
VOR, ILS, plan, attitude
VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar
Answers for Questions 681 – 690
1) the course deviation bar
2) residual deviation
3) an adjustment nut on inner ring
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems Page 45
4) carry out a new compass swing
Comment/Reference:
5) -2 degrees
Comment/Reference: This is not he same as a previous,
& CAP 562 Leaflet 8-2 para 14.1 Table 1
6) approach to or deviation from selected altitude
Comment/Reference:
www.domingoaereo.hpg.ig.com.br/boeing727/manual/warnin
gs.htm
7) +/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
Comment/Reference: TGL No.6 Para.8.3
www.ecacnav.com/RVSM
8) pitot and static
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 480
9) when Mcrit is reached
Comment/Reference:
10) VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar
Comment/Reference:
Questions 691 – 700
691. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by
compression of air in the tube at high speed
misalignment of pitot head
blockage in the pitot tube
692. The earth's magnetic field is
horizontal across the earth
vertical at the poles, horizontal at the magnetic
equator
vertical across the earth
693. There is an air bubble in the compass:
It is due to high altitude
It is required, to compensate for expansion of the
fluid
The fluid is not aerated properly
694. A flux detector output is a
A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the
excitation voltage
A.C. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation
voltage
rectified D.C. voltage
695. Primary Radar is
reflected signal from aircraft's own radar
interrogation of aircraft's transponder
for ground use only
696. The general function of the ATC is to
reply with an identification signal after being
interrogated by a ground station
interrogate other aircraft which reply with an
identification signal
interrogate the ground station which replies with an
identification
697. ACARS is primarily used for communicating with
air traffic control
maintenance base
other aircraft
698. SELCAL is used to
alert ground stations
monitor ground signals
alert other aircraft
699. HF communication frequency is in the range
108 - 118 MHz
23 - 30 kHz
3-30 MHz
700. When an autopilot is Fail Passive,
the autoland can continue
the aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot
the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft
Answers for Questions 691 – 700
1) compression of air in the tube at high speed
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems - David Harris P17 ASI Errors
(3)
2) vertical at the poles, horizontal at the magnetic
equator
Comment/Reference:
3) It is due to high altitude
Comment/Reference: The bubble can be caused by using
the compass at higher elevations and/or exposure to
cold temperatures. The bubble forms as the liquid in
the vial expands or contracts at a rate faster than
the rigid plastic vial, which forms a vacuum or a
'bubble'.
www.brunton.com/faq.php?id=53&faq_cat_selected=Compass
4) A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation
voltage
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett Page 189
5) reflected signal from aircraft's own radar
Comment/Reference: ATC is ground use, but the Wxr and
TCAS are also 'primary radar'
6) reply with an identification signal after being
interrogated by a ground station
Comment/Reference:
7) maintenance base
Comment/Reference:
8) monitor ground signals
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 23-00-00 pg 1 para
2 D) & Aircraft Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eisman
pg 297
9) 3-30 MHz
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 524
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High_Frequency
10) the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control
pg 211
Questions 701 – 710
701. The fundamental theory of operation of a ranging radar
is
time taken to receive returns
percentage of emitted signal returned
frequency of returns
702. With Control Wheel Steering (CWS), if the flight path
is disturbed by the pilot, the course will be
corrected by the
flight director input
autopilot panel
normal flight control
703. An HF coupling is used to match the
receiver
aerial
boom-set (headphones and mic)
704. On an aircraft's navigation display, distance
measuring equipment gives
slant range to beacon
ground range to beacon
height and range to beacon
705. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system,
radio deviation is shown on the
EHSI & EADI
EADI
EHSI
706. On a flight management system, the database is updated
every
1 Month
3 Months
2 Months
707. What is the purpose of the autopilot?
To enable the aircraft to land in bad weather
To relieve the flight crew of their duties during
long haul flights
To reduce the flight crew's workload
708. An ADF system includes
a loop antenna
a sense antenna
both a sense and loop antenna
709. Autopilot servo brake is energized
at the same time as the clutch
to actuate on
to actuate off
710. Which category are hand mikes considered essential?
Heavy passenger aircraft
Aerial work aircraft
Light aircraft
Answers for Questions 701 – 710
1) time taken to receive returns
Comment/Reference:
2) normal flight control
Comment/Reference:
3) aerial
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 524 & Aircraft Radio
Systems Powell Page 30
4) slant range to beacon
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 12-17 & Aircraft Electricity &
Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 310
5) EHSI & EADI
Comment/Reference: Radio deviation is VOR or ILS. The
deviation indicator is duplicated. It is on the EHSI
and EADI
6) 1 Month
Comment/Reference:
7) To reduce the flight crew's workload
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 511
8) both a sense and loop antenna
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 529 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 303
9) to actuate off
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 142
10) Light aircraft
Comment/Reference: ANO Schedule 4 Scale N and Article
47, prohibit them on Transport Category aircraft.
However, no direct reference to them being 'essential'
on light aircraft is found.
Questions 711 – 720
711. Emergency frequency is
121.5 MHz
123.5 MHz
125.5 MHz
712. 121.5 MHz is what frequency?
VHF
ILS
VOR
713. 112.1 MHz is what frequency?
ILS
VHF
VOR
714. On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?
Polyurethane
Cellulose only
Not cellulose
715. IRS obtains basic position information by
integrating twice the accelerometer output
differentiating the accelerometer output
integrating the accelerometer output
716. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna
use cellulose paint
do not use cellulose paint
use any paint
717. To minimize cross cable interference
run radiating and affected cables as separate
bundles
run cables as single bundle
place filter in power supply
718. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?
Four
Three
Two
719. What does 7700 indicate on an ATC control panel?
Hijack
Emergency
Radio Failure
720. The number of VHF frequency channels is
760
360
720
Answers for Questions 711 – 720
1) 121.5 MHz
Comment/Reference: JAR OPS 1.820 or 1.850. Jeppesen
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-25 & AC15-15A
pg 535 ‘test equipment’
2) VHF
Comment/Reference: 118-137 MHz is VHF frequency.
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13
AC65-15A pg 520
3) VOR
Comment/Reference: 112-118 MHz is VOR frequency. Less
than 112 MHz odd decimals are ILS. Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14
4) Not cellulose
Comment/Reference: CAIPs RL/2-2 8.1.2
5) integrating twice the accelerometer output
Comment/Reference:
6) do not use cellulose paint
Comment/Reference: CAIPs RL/2-2 8.1.2
7) run radiating and affected cables as separate bundles
Comment/Reference:
8) Three
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd
Edition Page 81. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 12-36
9) Emergency
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/7700#Emergency_codes
10) 720
Comment/Reference: 720 channels at 25kHz spacing, do a
search
Questions 721 – 730
721. The autopilot is instructed by the
FMC
Flight Director
GPS
722. ILS marker beacon lights are
blue, amber, white
green, blue, amber
blue, white, green
723. 111.1 MHz is
a HF frequency
a VOR frequency
an ILS frequency
724. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is
energised off
energised at the same time as the clutch
energised on
725. The aviation distress frequency is
121.5 kHZ
121.5 MHz
122.5 MHz
726. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to
2500 ft.
100 ft.
2000 ft.
727. 112.1 MHz is
an ILS frequency
an ADF frequency
a VOR frequency
728. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?
Very High Frequency
Low Frequency
High Frequency
729. Which of the following has a hyperbolic curve?
Loran C
DME
VOR
730. A GPS satellite will come into view
10° above the horizon with respect to the viewer
15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer
20° above the horizon with respect to the viewer
Answers for Questions 721 – 730
1) FMC
Comment/Reference:
2) blue, amber, white
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Avionics
5th Ed Eismin Page 312. Jeppesen A&P Technician
Airframe Textbook Page 12-24
3) an ILS frequency
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems
Page 69 shows this as a localiser frequency. Jeppesen
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-24, Automatic
Flight Control 4th ed pg 181 says band 108.0 – 112.1 as
Localiser frequencys
4) energised off
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems,
Pallett Page 142.
5) 121.5 MHz
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 533 & JAR OPS 1.820 or
1.850 c. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
Page 12-25
6) 2500 ft.
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics.
Eismin Page 323 - 324
7) a VOR frequency
Comment/Reference: 112 - 118 MHz are VOR frequencies.
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14
8) Low Frequency
Comment/Reference: Decca navigation is low frequency.
9) Loran C
Comment/Reference: Loran C is a type of LF Navigation.
Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. Also Aircraft
Radio Systems by James Powell Page 101
10) 15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer
Comment/Reference: 'Elevation mask' is 15 degrees
www.gpscontrol.com/php/support/tutorial/accuracy.php
Questions 731 – 740
731. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply
to
private aircraft
transport category aircraft only
aerial work and transport category aircraft
732. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is
to allow the pilot to override
to protect the servo motor in the event of
inadvertent runaway
to limit the range of control movement
733. Track mode of an RA is operational
from 1.0 to 100 feet
from 0 to 2,500 feet
above 10,000 feet
734. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?
1
3
2
735. Wavelength of X band radar is
3 cm
5 cm
10 m
736. Precipitation static is caused by
lightning strikes
skin to air particle collisions
HF radiation
737. HF aerials have weak points designed at
the front end
both ends
the back end
738. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft
transponder?
1000 MHz
1030 MHz
1090 MHz
739. CAT 2 RVR limit is
1200 ft
1000 ft
10,000 ft
740. With autopilot engaged, which control surface is
inhibited?
THS
Ailerons
Elevators
Answers for Questions 731 – 740
1) transport category aircraft only
Comment/Reference: ANO Schedule 4 Scale N
2) to allow the pilot to override
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control
Pg 289
3) from 0 to 2,500 feet
Comment/Reference: The radio altimeter is operational
from 0 - 2500 ft Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page
223
4) 2
Comment/Reference: Avionic Systems: Operation and
Maintenance page 160
5) 3 cm
Comment/Reference: Introduction to Avionics Dale
Cundy Page 82 &
www.everythingweather.com/weather-radar/bands.shtml
Xband Radars operate on a wavelength of 2.5-4 cm and
a frequency of 8-12 GHz
6) skin to air particle collisions
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics - Eismin page 211& CAP 562 Leaflet 9-12
para 3 a)
7) the back end
Comment/Reference: CAIPs RL/2-2 para 2.2.4
8) 1090 MHz
Comment/Reference: Avionic Fundamentals page 211 &
Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eisman pg 322
9) 1200 ft
Comment/Reference: CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range
(RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. Ref: Avionic
Fundamentals page 199 & Automatic Flight Control 4th
Ed Pallett pg 279 400m = 1312 ft
10) THS
Comment/Reference: A&P Airframe Technician Textbook
Pg 12-35
Questions 741 – 750
741. When flaps are lowered, the automatic trim system will
angle of incidence remains the same
decrease the angle of incidence of the THS
increase the angle of incidence of the THS
742. In autopilot, the control column
does not move
moves in pitch and roll
moves in pitch
743. A ˜hyperbolic’ system is
VOR
ILS
LORAN C
744. When is ‘autothrottle’disengaged?
On landing
After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so
that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency
On selection of thrust reverse
745. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a
pitch command input will cause
column to move but trim system not to move
column to move and trim system to move
column will not move and trim system will move
746. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the
pulse frequency?
Amount of times reply signal is sent per second
Number of pulses per signal
Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per
second
747. CAT 2 RVR limit is
800 m
200 m
400 m
748. How many programs can a FMC store?
Two. Both active
Two. One active and one standby
One current
749. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at
take off
approach
cruise
750. How does an IRS calculate velocity?
Integration of accelerometers
Differentiation of laser gyro
Double integration of accelerometers
Answers for Questions 741 – 750
1) decrease the angle of incidence of the THS
Comment/Reference:
2) moves in pitch and roll
Comment/Reference: A&P Airframe Technician Textbook
Pg 12-47 (Parallel system). This is assuming it is a
non-fly-by-wire aircraft.
3) LORAN C
Comment/Reference: Loran C is a type of Omega
Navigation. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153
4) On selection of thrust reverse
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control
Page 286
5) column to move and trim system to move
Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
12-47 - This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire
aircraft.
6) Amount of times reply signal is sent per second
Comment/Reference:
7) 400 m
Comment/Reference: CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range
RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. 1200 ft = 400m Ref:
Avionic Fundamentals page 199 & Automatic Flight
Control 4th ed Pallett pg 279
8) Two. One active and one standby
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Instruments and
Integrated Systems Page 399 on. Boeing 757 chapter 34-
61-00 page 201.
9) take off
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control
4th Edition Page 286
10) Integration of accelerometers
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control
4th Edition Page 191
Questions 751 – 760
751. In an autopilot, what controls pitch mode?
Localizer
Glideslope
VOR
752. Glideslope controls autopilot in
roll
yaw
pitch
753. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference
by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere
at
low current levels
high voltage levels
all voltage levels
754. What is B-RNAV?
Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active
waypoint
Indicates true airspeed
Ability to store 6 waypoints
755. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs
from the following ground based transmitters
RA, ADF, ILS
DME, ILS, ADF
VOR, ILS
756. What is the wavelength of C band radar?
3 cm
17 m
7 cm
757. What is primary radar?
Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected
pulse
Radar that gives height and position
Land based
758. What is ILS marker beacon frequency?
75 MHz
50 MHz
100 MHz
759. TCAS is selected
automatically
by a switch, by pilot on selector panel
not available in cruise
760. The manual VOR input is for
course deviation bar
glideslope
RMI
Answers for Questions 751 – 760
1) Glideslope
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th
Edition Page 187
2) pitch
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th
Edition Page 187
3) low current levels
Comment/Reference: Reference found in an older
version of A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 700
(Not in latest edition). Quote 'If the aircraft is
equipped with static dischargers, the static discharge
occurs at lower current and more frequently'.
4) Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active
waypoint
Comment/Reference:
5) VOR, ILS
Comment/Reference: An AFCS uses VOR and ILS (RA is
not ground based) Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eisman pg 364
6) 7 cm
Comment/Reference: C Band is 4 - 8 cm. Most aircraft
systems use about 5.6cm. Ref Boeing and Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-27 &
www.everythingweather.com/weather-radar/bands.shtml
7) Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected
pulse
Comment/Reference: www.bbc.co.uk/dna/h2g2/A588684
8) 75 MHz
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 527 & Automatic Flight
Control. Pallett, 4th Edition Page 183/4
9) by a switch, by pilot on selector panel
Comment/Reference:
10) course deviation bar
Comment/Reference: B737 MM Chapter 34-31-02
Questions 761 – 770
761. The mach trim is initiated by
an electric motor
the autopilot motor
a PCU
762. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?
White
Blue
Amber
763. A GPS system is formed from
receiver, processing unit, interactive console
satellites, processing unit, display unit
space, control, user
764. For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is
available, it
must be connected to the left side
can be connected to either side
must be connected to the right side
765. Laser gyros are
aligned to the magnetic north
aligned to the aircraft structure
aligned to the true north
766. Laser gyros
have rotational parts
do not have rotational parts
have movable parts
767. A radio coupled approach is
glideslope first, followed by localiser
localiser first, followed by glideslope
in any order
768. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel
for yaw damping compensation
for turn command back-up
for turn coordination
769. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS
changes with radio altitude
does not change
changes with barometric altitude
770. What frequency are VOR and ILS?
UHF
VHF
HF
Answers for Questions 761 – 770
1) the autopilot motor
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett,
Page 231
2) Amber
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 527 & Jeppesen -
Avionics Fundamentals, Page 219 fig 14-2 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 312
3) space, control, user
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eisman pg 319
4) must be connected to the left side
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eismin Chap 13 page 271
5) aligned to the aircraft structure
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals
Page 99
6) do not have rotational parts
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ring_laser_gyroscope &
Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 99
7) localiser first, followed by glideslope
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett
Page 184-185
8) for turn coordination
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control. Pallett.
4th Ed Page 121/122
9) changes with radio altitude
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 34-42-00 pg 18
Avionic Fundamentals page 263
10) VHF
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 525 & Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 426
Questions 771 – 780
771. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for
marker beacons
HF communications
weather radar
772. An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and
thrust reversers are deployed. What happens to
autothrottle?
Advances throttles
Automatically switches off
Stays armed for go around in an emergency
773. Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned
on right side of control wheel
on side of control wheel furthest from throttles
on left side of control wheel
774. ILS and VOR operate in which range
VHF
UHF
HF
775. FMC secondary flight-plan is selected
by calendar date monthly
in the air by the pilot
on the ground by the pilot
776. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground
will give
amber warning
red caption and aural 'pull up, undercarriage,
flaps, throttle'
red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'
777. The components of an ILS are
a localizer and a glide slope
a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
a localizer and the marker beacons
778. In ILS, the glideslope provides
vertical steering
lateral steering
distance checks
779. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver
predominates, the deviation indicator will show
fly right
fly left
the flag
780. Autopilot will operate above what altitude?
750 ft.
1000 ft.
500 ft.
Answers for Questions 771 – 780
1) HF communications
Comment/Reference: Jepessen A & P Technician Textbook
p12-3 fig 12-2 shows HF COMM as 2-30 MHz
2) Automatically switches off
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett
and Coyle Page 286
3) on side of control wheel furthest from throttles
Comment/Reference: JAR 25.1329 (d)
4) VHF
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 525 & Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook 12-1
5) in the air by the pilot
Comment/Reference: FMC has a primary (active) and a
secondary (alternative) stored flight plan.
6) red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 34-42-00
7) a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 525 & Aircraft Radio
Systems by James Powell page 69
8) vertical steering
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Radio Systems by James
Powell page 69 & Automatic Flight Control 4th ed
Pallett pg 181
9) fly right
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed
Pallett pg 182 & Aircraft Radio Systems by James
Powell page 73
10) 500 ft.
Comment/Reference:
Questions 781 – 790
781. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses
glideslope
ADF
VOR
782. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only
modes that can be selected in
approach
take off
cruise
783. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for
aircraft type
magnetic orientation
location
784. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?
BITE
FMC via CDU
Dataplate on the FMC
785. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:
Pressure altimeter
Air speed indicator
Radio altimeter
786. INS has mercury switches on
outer gimbal
inner gimbal
all gimbals
787. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an
ILS approach, the aircraft must fly
down
nowhere - this is normal on an ILS approach
up
788. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser
in an ILS?
90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide
path
150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of
runway centreline
150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of
runway centerline
789. In what frequency range does the automatic direction
finding (ADF) system operate?
190 - 1759 KHz
108.00 - 117.95 MHz
1025 - 1150 KHz
790. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance
Measuring Equipment reply from those for other
aircraft?
By changing at random the time delay between the
pulse pairs of the interrogation signal
By using an alternate frequency
By modulation of an audio tone
Answers for Questions 781 – 790
1) glideslope
Comment/Reference:
2) take off
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed page
286
3) location
Comment/Reference: Pin programming for IRU`s and
INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack mounted
side. The purpose being to tell the installed unit
which position it is serving within the aircraft i.e
left, ctr or right side! The unit is universal for all
4) FMC via CDU
Comment/Reference:
5) Radio altimeter
Comment/Reference: Of the three, GPWS has only
connection to the RA. It does use barometric vertical
speed however.
6) all gimbals
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and
Integrated Systems Pallett Page 116
7) down
Comment/Reference:
8) 150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of
runway centreline
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed
Pallett pg 182 & Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 70
9) 190 - 1759 KHz
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 529 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 303 &
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13
10) By changing at random the time delay between the pulse
pairs of the interrogation signal
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
Eisman 5th Ed pg 310 & Aircraft Radio Systems Powell
Page 106
Questions 791 – 800
791. From where is bearing information received for display
on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator
(DDRMI)?
From ADF only
From VOR and ADF systems
From VOR only
792. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio
communication?
HF
VHF
VHF and UHF
793. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency
(HF) communication system?
To select the transmission/reception frequency in
the HF band
To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for
optimum matching of impedance
To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its
physical length
794. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial
reference system being connected to a weather radar?
To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna
To place the weather radar target in azimuth and
distance for the display
To ensure that there is no radar transmission with
aircraft on ground
795. Which systems provide envelope modulation information
for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)
Rudder/ailerons
Autothrottle
Flaps/undercarriage
796. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to
ILS localiser and glidepath. How does it operate?
It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises
higher frequencies
It operates in conjunction with DME at lower
frequencies than ILS
Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow
beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and
DOWN
797. The FMS navigation database is updated
daily
after a B or C check has been completed
every 28 days
798. In an IRS system you would expect to find
three strap down accelerometers
an azimuth gyro system
ring laser gyros
799. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass
a mass suspended in free air
suspended between two springs in a tube
a remotely mounted mass on the airframe
800. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used
primarily for
as part of the passenger telephone system
communications between the aircraft and base
reporting defects on the aircraft automatically
Answers for Questions 791 – 800
1) From VOR and ADF systems
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments & Integrated
Systems Pallett Page 197
2) VHF and UHF
Comment/Reference:
www.tpub.com/content/avaition/14014/css/14014_166.htm
3) To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for
optimum matching of impedance
Comment/Reference:
4) To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna
Comment/Reference: www.artietheairplane.com/radar.htm
5) Flaps/undercarriage
6) Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow
beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and
DOWN
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eisman pg 313 & Aircraft Radio Systems Powell
Page 224
7) every 28 days
Comment/Reference:
8) ring laser gyros
Comment/Reference: Assuming they mean a strapdown
system.
9) suspended between two springs in a tube
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments & Integrated
Systems Pallett Page 256. (Note: the mass is suspended
in fluid, and is not remote)
10) communications between the aircraft and base
Comment/Reference:
Questions 801 – 810
801. What are the main areas of the autopilot?
Error, correction, follow up, demand
Error, correction, follow up, command
Error, correction , demand, resolved
802. VHF frequency is
108 - 136 MHz
108 - 112 MHz
108 - 118 MHz
803. The call system for the captain will have the audio
signal of a
hi tone chime
horn
two tone chime
804. Channel 3 on a CVR records
captain
flightdeck
first officer
805. DME works on the frequency of
UHF
HF
VHF
806. A radial is referenced
on a compass
to a VOR
from a beacon
807. ADF works by using
both loop and sense aerial
sense aerial
loop aerial
808. How is the next database on the FMC activated?
Automatically by due date
Manually, on the ground
Manually in the air
809. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop, Pull-up' command?
Mode 2
Mode 6
Mode 3
810. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS
system would be
Mode S
Mode A
Mode C
Answers for Questions 801 – 810
1) Error, correction, follow up, command
Comment/Reference:
2) 108 - 136 MHz
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 522 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics Eismin Page 295
3) hi tone chime
Comment/Reference: B737
4) flightdeck
Comment/Reference: CS 25.1457 para c) (3)
5) UHF
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 528 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics Eismin Page 310 & 278
6) from a beacon
Comment/Reference: radial is FROM a VOR beacon
7) both loop and sense aerial
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 529 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 303
8) Manually, on the ground
Comment/Reference:
9) Mode 2
Comment/Reference: B737 AMM 34-42-00 pg 10 & Transport
Category Aircraft Systems Page 9.19 &
www.boeing-727.com/Data/systems/infogpws.html
10) Mode S
Comment/Reference: Introduction to TCAS version 7 US
Department of Transport FAA Page 17 (Target
Surveillance) & Aircraft Electricity & Electronics 5th
Ed Eisman pg 321
Questions 811 – 820
811. GPS
uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits
uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
812. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected
by placing mercury switches
on both gimbal rings
on outer gimbal ring
on inner gimbal ring
813. The IRS laser gyro is a
displacement gyro
rate gyro
displaced gyro
814. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?
either RA or TA
RA
TA
815. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS
display?
White squares, red diamonds and amber circles
White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
White circles, red diamonds and amber squares
816. The laser ring gyro
has a stabilized platform
does not have gimbal and rotating parts
does not have gimbal
817. 3 autopilot computers are considered
Fail Operable
Fail resistant
Fail Passive
818. In autopilot with THS in motion, the
Auto Trim is inhibited
Mach trim is inhibited
elevator is inhibited
819. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?
It is not possible
By deselecting auto-throttle first
Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers
820. Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?
Within reach of the Captain
Within reach of both pilots
Within reach of the First Officer
Answers for Questions 811 – 820
1) uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
Comment/Reference:
2) on inner gimbal ring
Comment/Reference:
3) rate gyro
Comment/Reference: Rate integrated gyro. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. Eismin Page 373
4) RA
Comment/Reference: B737-2/4/500 AMM 34-45-00 pg 1 para
1 c) & Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of
Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection)
5) White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 34-45-00 pg 9 fig
3 & Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of
Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection)
6) does not have gimbal and rotating parts
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics 5th Ed. Eismin Page 373
7) Fail Operable
8) Auto Trim is inhibited
9) Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers
Comment/Reference:
10) Within reach of both pilots
Comment/Reference:
Questions 821 – 830
821. Decca navigation uses
VHF
LF
HF
822. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one
FMS fails during flight
the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the
pilot switches over to standby
it has no effect, because the second FMS was in the
stand-by mode, now it is active.
the failed FMS has a blank screen
823. Which of the following has priority over TCAS
warnings?
Stall warning
Resolution Advisories
Gear position warning
824. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of
50 MHz
100 MHz
75 MHz
825. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is
related to
the CDI offset bar
the ILS system
the RMI
826. A flat plate antenna is a
a Doppler antenna
parabolic antenna
a series of slots and wave guides
827. To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS receiver must
be in line of sight of
3 satellites
4 satellites
6 satellites
828. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a
test is performed of the rad. alt. system?
TCAS
GPWS
altitude alert
829. The GPS satellite system consists of
21 satellites and 3 standby satellites
20 satellites and 5 standby satellite
24 satellites and 1 standby satellites
830. A Mode C transponder gives the following info:
Altitude and interrogation
Interrogation
Altitude
Answers for Questions 821 -830
1) LF
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Decca_Navigator_System
2) the failed FMS has a blank screen
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett page 406
3) Stall warning
4) 75 MHz
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 527 & Automatic Flight
Control 4th ed Pallet pg 183 & Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics Eismin page 311
5) the CDI offset bar
6) a series of slots and wave guides
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
Eismin page 342
7) 4 satellites
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
Eismin Pages 319. 4 satellites are required to provide
height information as well as position.
8) GPWS
9) 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
Eismin Pages 318 & 319
10) Altitude
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eisman pg 321 & Avionics Fundamentals Page 211
Questions 831 – 840
831. The autothrottle system at touchdown will
go to idle
apply reverse thrust
go to idle and disconnect
832. When will the decision height aural warning sound?
At decision height
After decision height
Before decision height
833. FMCS Pin Programming is allowed
under CAA Rules
for the database of aircraft landing altitudes
to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft
834. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier,
the pilot must
insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into
the INS
set the altitude to be fed into the INS
insert the latitude and longitude of the first
waypoint into the INS
835. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has
accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed
to the airframe
accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a
stable platform
accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe
836. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has
the acceleration force balanced by a
linear force
constant force
non-linear force
837. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to
detect accelerations down to
10-6 g
10-2 g
10-3 g
838. A laser gyro output is
directly proportional to frequency addition
directly proportional to angular turning rate
inversely proportional to angular turning rate
839. In an IN system, Coriolis effect is the result of
the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable
platform
gyro wander
platform misalignment
840. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from
acceleration by
a single integration
two successive integrations
a differential followed by an integration
Answers for Questions 831 – 840
1) go to idle and disconnect
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control
Page 286
2) At decision height
3) to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft
4) Insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the
INS
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 82
5) accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 90
6) linear force
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33
7) 10-6 g
8) directly proportional to angular turning rate
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eisman pg 374
9) the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable
platform
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed
Pallett pg 58 & Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 85
10) two successive integrations
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 81
Questions 841 – 850
841. Coriolis effect is corrected for by
adding a correction term to the accelerometer
outputs
re-aligning the stable platform
torquing the gyros
842. In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is
linear because of a
linear spring
force balance system
pendulous suspension
843. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are
mounted
orthogonally
120 degrees apart
parallel to each other
844. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is
to
stop the gyros from toppling
prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the
accelerometers
provide attitude reference
845. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a
rate gyro
rate integrating gyro
displacement gyro
846. Earth rate is approximately
5 degrees per hour
84 degrees per hour
15 degrees per hour
847. In a gimbal system, the stable platform is the
azimuth gimbal
roll gimbal
pitch gimbal
848. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is
normal to use
four gimbals
three gimbals
a pitch gimbal
849. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like
a Schuler pendulum
the platform remains fixed with respect to the local
vertical
the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft
the platform oscillates with respect to the local
vertical
850. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of
8.4 minutes
84.4 seconds
84.4 minutes
Answers for Questions 841 – 850
1) adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page
2) force balance system
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 76
3) orthogonally
4) prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the
accelerometers
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 77
5) rate integrating gyro
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 77
6) 15 degrees per hour
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 37
7) azimuth gimbal
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 77/78
8) four gimbals
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gimbal_lock
9) the platform oscillates with respect to the local
vertical
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 86
10) 84.4 minutes
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schuler_tuning &
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David
Harris Page 86
Questions 851 – 860
851. An IN system requires data from the
air data computer
satellites
Doppler system
852. When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the IN
system will flash
thirty seconds before a track change is required
two minutes before the next waypoint
when an error is detected
853. XTK (cross track) is the
perpendicular distance from the desired track
angle in degrees that aircraft track is left or
right of desired track
actual track across the earth's surface
854. The output of an INS can be fed to
vertical speed indicators
altimeters
attitude indicators
855. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are
mounted
90º to each other
parallel to each other
120º apart
856. A basic I.N.S. platform has
3 axis accelerometer
3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll)
2 accelerometers and 3 gyros
857. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies
great circle arc
course directed by ground station
rhumb line
858. What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the
aircraft moves?
Waypoints
E.T.A.
Present position
859. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT
REF is made
to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers
ADI displays
when navigation information is lost
when attitude information is lost
860. For the INS, the Battery Unit provides
both when airborne and on the ground
standby power when airborne, switched by weight-off
switches in the undercarriage
standby power only when on the ground, to maintain
the alignment phase
Answers for Questions 851 – 860
1) air data computer
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 34-28-00 pg 1 para
1 D)
2) two minutes before the next waypoint
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 89
3) perpendicular distance from the desired track
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th ed
Pallett & Coyle pg 193 & Flight Instruments and
Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 88
4) attitude indicators
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 85
5) 90º to each other
6) 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 78. 1 accelerometer
referenced north and the other to east, see AC65-15A
pg 531
7) great circle arc
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 81
8) Present position
9) when navigation information is lost
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 85
10) both when airborne and on the ground
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 85
Questions 861 – 870
861. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays
distance perpendicular from the selected track
difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to
the right or left of the desired track
difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise
direction from the desired track
862. The Earth Rate Compensation is computed from
the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the
sine of the longitude
the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the
cosine of the latitude
the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the
sine of the latitude
863. INS wind speed is calculated from
the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS
the vectorial addition of IAS and GS
the vectorial addition of TAS and GS
864. Centripetal error compensation is achieved by
an additional signal is added to the N/S
accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error
allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate
the platform is torqued to align the N/S
accelerometer along its insensitive axis
865. Transport Rate compensation is achieved by
an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer
output depending on heading
allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate
the platform being torqued by a computed torquing
signal
866. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System)
an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds
a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn
sounds
a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds
867. An IRS alignment
takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered
any time during the alignment
takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down
present position is used for the alignment
takes 10 minutes and present position must be
entered before alignment
868. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System
Performance Test' the
latitude entered must be within given limits of the
latitude computed by IRU
entered present latitude and longitude must agree
with the latitude and longitude at the last power
down
the No. 1 and No.2 must both have the same latitude
and longitude present position entered
869. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that
that the two contra-rotating beams each operate at
different frequencies
the contra-rotating beams are synchronised together
optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-
rotating beams to lock together
870. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director
comes from the
flight director computer
VHF nav system
VHF comm system
Answers for Questions 861 – 870
1) difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to
the right or left of the desired track
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th ed
Pallett & Coyle pg 193 & Flight Instruments and
Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 88
2) the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine
of the latitude
3) the vectorial addition of TAS and GS
4) an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer
to cancel the centripetal error
5) the platform being torqued by a computed torquing
signal
6) a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn
sounds
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control
Systems, David Harris Page 85
7) takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered
any time during the alignment
8) latitude entered must be within given limits of the
latitude computed by IRU
9) optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-
rotating beams to lock together
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 47
10) VHF nav system
Questions 871 – 880
871. The heading error signal used in the heading select
mode
is the difference between the desired course and the
actual course
comes direct from the compass system
is the difference between the desired heading and
the actual heading
872. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes
is displayed by the
difference between the course arrow and aircraft
heading
difference between the selected heading and aircraft
heading
selected course counter
873. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the
DME system
VLF nav system
VHF nav set
874. Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal
modulation is
150 Hz
90 Hz
90 KHZ
875. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the
localiser centre line, as seen from the localiser
transmitter, is
90 KHz
90 Hz
150 Hz
876. The correct sense demand generated for a selected
heading 180°, when the aircraft heading is 150° is
turn left
turn right
straight ahead
877. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre
line of the runway it is in the
equi-signal sector
150 Hz modulation sector
90 Hz modulation sector
878. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the
runway in terms of
the horizontal plane
distance to touch down
the vertical plane
879. The glideslope transmitter is located
adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway
at the end opposite to the approach end of the
runway
at the approach end of the runway
880. The glideslope and localiser frequencies
have to be selected separately
are fixed and common to all runways therefore
frequency selection is not necessary
are paired and one frequency selector suffices for
both
Answers for Questions 871 – 880
1) is the difference between the desired heading and the
actual heading
2) difference between the course arrow and aircraft
heading
3) VHF nav set
4) 90 Hz
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett,
pg 182, Fig.6.6 & Aircraft Radio Systems Powell, pg
72, top of L/H column
5) 150 Hz
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th ed
Pallett & Coyle pg 182. It says 'as seen from the
localiser transmitter'
6) turn right
7) equi-signal sector
8) the horizontal plane
9) adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett
pg 182 & Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 72, Fig.
5.5
10) are paired and one frequency selector suffices for
both
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell,
page 71 and Avionics Fundamentals, Jeppesen, page 206.
Each airport has a separate ILS freq.
Questions 881 - 890
881. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to
runways in terms of
the vertical plane
distance to touchdown
the horizontal plane
882. The glideslope equipment operates in the
UHF band
VHF band
HF band
883. The localiser equipment operates in the
HF band
VHF band
UHF band
884. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a
ground station by comparing
the phase of two 30 Hz modulations
the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a
9960 Hz modulation
the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations
885. The number of different radials provided by a ground
station is
360
180 per quadrant, i.e. 720 in 360°
infinite
886. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to
VOR?
127.2 MHz
114.3 MHz
103.9 MHz
887. Aerial masts may be damaged by
killfrost anti-icing fluid
water
Skydrol hydraulic fluids
888. Most radio aerial masts are
bonded
not bonded
insulated from the fuselage
889. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic)
towards a VOR station the reference and variable
signals will be
in phase
180° out of phase
270° out of phase
890. The middle marker modulation is keyed with
alternate dots and dashes
dashes
dots
Answers for Questions 881 – 890
1) the vertical plane
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett
Page 182
2) UHF band
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 526 & Automatic Flight
Control Pallett Page 181
3) VHF band
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett
Page 181
4) the phase of two 30 Hz modulations
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell
Pages 59 and 60 and Radio Aids, R.B.Underdown and
David Cockburn Page 72
5) infinite
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed
Pallett pg 188
6) 114.3 MHz
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell
Pages 58. All frequencies between 112.00 and 117.95
MHz (High Power VORs) and all odd frequencies between
108.00 and 111.95 MHz (Terminal VORs)
7) Skydrol hydraulic fluids
8) bonded
9) 180° out of phase
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed
Pallett pg 188. Aircraft is due South of the station
10) alternate dots and dashes
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 527
Questions 891 – 900
891. The modulation of the outer marker is
3000 Hz
1300 Hz
400 Hz
892. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the
runway threshold is
3500 ft.
3 miles
7 miles
893. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot
aurally
visually
both visually and aurally
894. An over station sensor (OSS) detects
radio deviation signals proportional to distance
from a localiser transmitter
the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of
confusion
radio deviation signals proportional to distance
from a VOR transmitter
895. Incompatible Flight Director modes are
altitude hold and ILS
VOR and glidepath
VRU and compass
896. The VOR system comprises
reference phase signal
variable and reference phase signals
variable phase signal
897. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is
VOR
they both have the same sensitivity
ILS
898. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from
a VOR station, the TO/FROM indicator would show
to
from
no indication
899. How does the flight director computer differentiate
between VOR and ILS frequencies?
Trigger pulse from ground station
Frequency discriminator in receiver
Discriminator on control panel
900. The glideslope transmitter operates on
the VHF band
the UHF band
frequencies of 108 to 118 MHZ
Answers for 891 – 900
1) 400 Hz
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 527 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics Eismin Pages 311-312
2) 3500 ft.
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 527
3) both visually and aurally
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 527 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics Eismin Page 311
4) the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of
confusion
5) altitude hold and ILS
6) variable and reference phase signals
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eismin Pages 306 and 307
7) ILS
8) from
9) Frequency discriminator in receiver
10) the UHF band
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 526 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eismin Page 308
Questions 901 – 910
901. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is
on the
side of the controls away from the throttles
right of the control column
left of the control column
902. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the
autoland mode, the audible warning
is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button
switches off after a time interval
can only be switched off by re-engaging the
autopilot
903. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational
automatic landing equipment will have
a decision height of 50ft
a decision height depending on RVR
no decision height
904. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing,
an autothrottle system is
dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow
speeds
a matter of choice for the operator
mandatory
905. With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse
thrust will
drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position
disconnect the autothrottle
drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position
906. During ATC transponder operation, side lobe
suppression acts to
supply altitude readout
mute coms transmission during transponder operation
mute the DME operation during transmit phase
907. During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver
#1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2
operation
#1 HF system can transmit but not receive
both systems can be operated simultaneously
908. L band DME transmits on a frequency of
2210 MHz
4133 MHz
1090 MHz
909. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system
with reference to aircraft and beacon is;
None of above
the first provides distance between aircraft and
beacon and latter provides bearing line from
aircraft to beacon
the first provides bearing line from aircraft to
beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft
and beacon
910. Which two frequencies are paired?
Localizer and DME
DME and Glideslope
Glideslope and localizer
Answers for Questions 900 – 910
1) side of the controls away from the throttles
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 133
2) is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button
Comment/Reference: JAR AWO Para 153
3) no decision height
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett
Page 279
4) dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow
speeds
Comment/Reference: CS-AWO Para 306 b
5) disconnect the autothrottle
6) mute the DME operation during transmit phase
7) #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2
operation
8) 1090 MHz
9) the first provides bearing line from aircraft to
beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft
and beacon
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 528/529
10) Glideslope and localizer
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 12-24
Questions 911 – 920
911. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges
of beam are apart at the runway threshold by
7 ft
700 ft
70 ft
912. What happens if frequency decreases without altering
the physical length of aerial?
The aerial becomes inductively capacitive
The aerial becomes capacitively reactive
The aerial becomes inductively reactive
913. What happens if frequency increases without altering
the physical length of aerial?
The aerial becomes inductively reactive
The aerial becomes inductively capacitive
The aerial becomes capacitively reactive
914. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular
frequency, when its load is purely
resistive
capacitive
inductive
915. The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is
to allow it to be overridden at a certain force
to give control surface feel
to stop the motor overheating
916. Most aerials are
bonded
made from non-conductive material
not bonded
917. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?
Amber
White
Blue
918. Laser gyros have
no rotating parts
a spinning rotor
moving parts
919. Laser gyros are aligned to
true north
magnetic north
aircraft structure
920. Triplex autopilot is
fail soft
fail passive
fail operational
Answers for Questions 911 – 920
1) 700 ft
Comment/Reference: Avionics Fundamentals Page 200
2) The aerial becomes capacitively reactive
3) The aerial becomes inductively reactive
4) resistive
5) to allow it to be overridden at a certain force
6) bonded
7) Amber
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 527
8) moving parts
Comment/Reference: A laser gyro has moving parts
(dither motor vibrates).
9) aircraft structure
10) fail operational
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed
Pallett Page 282
Questions 921 – 930
921. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises
ILS, VOR, ADF
VOR, ADF, DME
ILS, DME, ADC,
922. ACARS is
a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in
flight
a navigation system
a satellite communication system
923. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?
The airspeed indicator
The ATC control panel
The altimeter
924. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?
2
1
3 (one is used for redundancy)
925. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope
control?
Pitch
Yaw
Roll
926. What is secondary radar?
Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft
A backup radar on an airfield
Signal returned from a transponder
927. In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust mode
used?
Approach
Cruise
Take-off
928. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?
Excessive descent rate, unsafe terrain clearance
Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure
rate
Excessive terrain closure rate, altitude loss after
take-off
929. For radio communication over a distance of over 250
miles we use
HF
VHF
VLF
930. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis
are used?
4
2
3
Answers for Questions 921 – 930
1) ILS, DME, ADC,
Comment/Reference: FMCS does not normally utilise ADF
2) a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in
flight
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eismin Page 250
3) The ATC control panel
Comment:/Reference: AC65-15A pg 530
4) 2
5) Pitch
6) Signal returned from a transponder
7) Take-off
Comment/Reference: E.H.J.Pallet 3rd edition page 284
3rd paragraph. OF WHAT BOOK?
8) Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 34-42-00 pg 1 para
1.A. (1) & (2) & Flight Instruments & AFCS, 6th Ed
David Harris. P158/159
9) HF
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 524
10) 3
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 511
Questions 931 – 940
931. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged
when the
SG and voltage remain constant for specified period
cells begin to gas freely
SG reaches 1.180
932. A diode across a contactor
reduces contact arcing
reduces contact bounce
enables it to be connected to either an AC or DC
circuit
933. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad
battery is constant
voltage
current
power
934. A battery in situ on an aircraft
may charged at an excessive rate if initial battery
voltage is low
charges at a fairly constant rate because generator
voltage remains constant
may charge slowly if initial battery voltage is low
935. To parallel an alternating current generator with one
or more other generators, phase A must be
in-phase with other generators and CBA only
in-phase with other generators and ABC
90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC
936. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current
system, the phase of the second generator to be
brought on line
must be in-phase prior to paralleling
is unimportant
is important if the first generator fails
937. On the direct current short shunt generator circuit
shown, output voltage at the load is 200V. What is the
voltage across the shunt winding?
206V
200V
212V
938. In a constant volume hydraulic EDP, the short shaft
which engages with the engine gearbox would have
2 female splined portions separated by a waisted
section
an inner female splined portion and an outer male
splined portion
2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted
section designed to shear should the pump seize
939 On a Direct Current circuit, Current Limiters
limit generator field excitation
limit current to field circuit
prevent overheating by limiting current to load
940. On a direct current circuit, current limiters
allow excessive current to the load circuit
prevent excessive current to the load circuit
prevent excessive current to the field circuit
Answers for Questions 931 – 940
1) SG and voltage remain constant for specified period
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-1 4.4.8 and Pallett Aircraft
Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Page 23
2) reduces contact arcing
Comment/Reference:
www.homepages.which.net/~paul.hills/SolenoidsBody.html
Para 7.1
3) current
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 9-7 Appx 1 para
4.5.1 & CAIPs EEL/1-5 Para 4.1
4) may charged at an excessive rate if initial battery
voltage is low
Comment/Reference: Read AC65-9A pgs 307-315
5) in-phase with other generators and ABC
Comment/Reference: AC generators are paralleled for
phase, voltage, frequency, load and phase rotation.
6) is unimportant
Comment/Reference: The Question says it is
unparalleled
7) 200V
Comment/Reference: The 10 ohm shunt, 0.06 ohm and the
0.04 ohm are the field windings. The generator output
is split between the 0.06 ohm and the 100 ohm load,
but only by 0.06/100 x 200V = 0.12V (across the 0.06
ohm). So the voltage across the shunt winding is
closer to 200V than the other two answers
8) 2 male spline portions seperated by a wasted section
designed to shear should the pump seize
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 320
9) prevent overheating by limiting current to load
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 112
10) prevent excessive current to the load circuit
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 112
Questions 941 – 950
941. When a current transformer is disconnected from its
load
a resistor should be placed across the terminals
the terminals should be shorted together
the terminals should be left disconnected
942. On a direct current twin generator system, the
paralleling relay contacts close when the oncoming
generators voltage is
above bus voltage
below bus voltage
the same as bus voltage
943. Where is a commutator found?
A DC generator
A DC alternator
An AC generator
944. IDG oil is used for
internal hydraulic functions only
cooling, lubrication and internal hydraulic
functions
cooling and lubrication only
945. A silver oxide cell has a voltage of
1.8 V
1.2 V
1.55 V
946. Lithium cells
are very efficient
are not rechargeable
have an unlimited re-charge cycle capacity
947. On a split bus electrical system, the bus tie breakers
are
always open in flight
always closed in flight
only closed in an emergency
948. Parallel electrical system bus tie breakers are
always closed in flight
closed in flight and open on ground
closed on ground and open in flight
949. When a current transformer is disconnected, what
should be done?
Resistor placed across terminals
Left open circuit
Terminals shorted
950. What does the differential sensing coil sense?
Volts
Current
Power
Answers for Questions 941 – 950
1) the terminals should be shorted together
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 61 (to of rh side)
2) above bus voltage
3) DC generator
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 392
4) cooling, lubrication and internal hydraulic functions
5) 1.55 V
6) are not rechargeable
Comment/reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/lithium_batery
7) only closed in an emergency
8) always closed in flight
9) Terminals shorted
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Edition Page 61
10) Current
Questions 951 -960
951. Where does the GCU gets its power?
RAT
PMG
Battery
952. Galley loads are wired in
parallel so load shedding will lower current
consumption
series
either series or parallel depending on the design
953. In a merz-price protection system of a single phase,
if, when a fault occurs, only one relay contactor
opens,
only the relay on the side which has the fault will
energise
then it is probable that one of the coils has failed
open circuit
then it is probable that one of the relays has
failed short circuit
954. A fuse-type current limiter
limits current flow to a load
opens a circuit after a time/current condition has
been exceeded
can be used as a radio suppressor
955. When a load is shed from a busbar, the
current consumption from the bar decreases
busbar voltage decreases
busbar voltage increases
956. In unparalleled AC generation systems, the phase
rotation of one generator in relation to the others
is unimportant
must be BCA
must be synchronised prior to paralleling
957. In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes
more than its reactive power share is protected by
over-current and under-current protection circuits
over-excitation and under-excitation protection
circuits
over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits
958. In a pulsed width modulating type voltage regulator,
the generator output voltage is increased by
decreasing the mark to space ratio
increasing the voltage sensed by the voltage
regulator
increasing the mark to space ratio
959. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC
generators is controlled by
equalising circuits which control the speed of the
generators
equalising circuits which control the field
excitation of the generators
automatic load shedding
960. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by
rotating field diode failure
brushes positioned on MNA
weak spring tension
Answers for Questions 951 – 960
1) PMG
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 7-24. PMG is main supply for GCU,
battery is back up power for GCU
2) parallel so load shedding will lower current
consumption
Comment/Reference: All loads on an aircraft are wired
in parallel
3) only the relay on the side which has the fault will
energise
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 122&www.transformerworld.co.uk/diffprot.htm
4) opens a circuit after a time/current condition has
been exceeded
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Pg 112, or, Aircraft Electricity & Electronics,
Eismin Page 99. However, another type of current
limiter holds the current but does and open the
circuit. Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eismin
Page 202.
5) current consumption from the bar decreases
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics,
Eismin, Page 241. Load shedding reduces current
consumption
6) is unimportant
Comment/Reference: Phase relationship is unimportant
in an unparalleled system
7) over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 49
8) increasing the mark to space ratio
Comment/Reference:
9) equalising circuits which control the field excitation
of the generators
Comment/Reference: Changing the speed would also
change the frequency and thus the phase relationship.
Generators are always controlled by adjusting the
field strength
10 weak spring tension
Comment/Reference: Weak spring tension of the brushes
can cause excessive sparking
Questions 961 – 970
961. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed
from an aircraft
allow to stabilise for one hour
take the temperature of the electrolyte
carry out a capacity test
962. On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is
controlled by pins
E and F
A and B
C and D
963. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated
dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage
after a fixed time delay
before the over voltage limit is exceeded
964. A diode connected across a coil will
prevent back EMF and allow faster switching
prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way
suppress arcing when relay is opening and closing
965. Which fault does not always trip the GCR?
Over-frequency and under-frequency
Under-frequency and under-volts
Over-frequency and over-volts
966. Differential protection in a generating system
uses the volts coil to trip the GCR
detects voltage difference between source and load
detects current difference between source and load
967. Open phase sensing on a current transformer
is detected using any phase
is detected on generator neutral circuit
is detected using all phases
968. If the battery is switched off in flight, the
captain's instruments will be powered from the
standby bus
battery is disconnected from bus
generator voltage falls to zero
969. To flash a generator field the
generator rotates but is not on line
generator must be stationary
generator is on line and producing a voltage less
than the flashing voltage
970. Voltage is controlled by
the swashplate
the constant speed drive
the voltage regulator
Answers for Questions 961 -970
1) take the temperature of the electrolyte
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-1
2) E and F
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 72
3 dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 119
4) prevent back EMF and allow faster switching
Comment/Reference:
http://homepages.which.net/~paul.hills/Solenoids/Solen
oidsBody.html Para 7.1
5) Over-frequency and under-frequency
Comment/Reference: under and over voltage will both
trip the relay. On some aircraft, under frequency will
NOT trip the relay, so c is the 'least incorrect'
6) detects current difference between source and load
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 121
7) is detected on generator neutral circuit
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 121, & B737 Manual
8) battery is disconnected from bus
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 4
9) generator must be stationary
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 4
10) the voltage regulator
Comment/Reference: The voltage is controlled by the
voltage regulator.
Questions 971 – 980
971. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery
when fully charged
only in the battery workshop
at any time
972. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates
low electrolyte temperature
excessive charging current
not enough charging current
973. During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is
initiated by
underfrequency
overcurrent
undervoltage
974. What would you use to neutralise ni-cad battery
spillage?
Distilled water
Boric acid
Bicarbonate of soda
975. Before operating generators in parallel, their
voltages should be matched to prevent
overloading the generator drive and shearing of
splines
large circulating currents developing
voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger
GCU overvoltage circuits
976. Consumer loads are connected to a busbar
in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced
in series so when loads are shed current is reduced
in parallel so when loads are shed current is
reduced
977. A current transformer connected on the neutral star
point of a generator is for
negative sequence protection
differential current protection
overload protection
978. Differential protection as applied to AC generation
systems compares
ambient pressure to cabin pressure
generator voltage to busbar voltage
generator current to busbar current
979. In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase
rotation
must be synchronised prior to paralleling
must be out of phase prior to paralleling
is of no consequence after paralleling
980. Diodes are placed across a contactor to
ensure smooth contactor operation
prevent contact bounce
speed up operation by reducing back EMF
Answers for Questions 971 – 980
1) only in the battery workshop
Comment/Reference: CAIP EEL/1-3 para 4
2) excessive charging current
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician
Page 7-31, 7-32
3) undervoltage
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 120
4) Boric acid
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 9-2 para 5.2.1 &
5.4.2 & AC65-9A pg 314
5) overloading the generator drive and shearing of
splines
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 52.
6) in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced
Comment/Reference: All loads are connected in parallel
with each other
7 differential current protection
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 121
8) generator current to busbar current
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 121
9) must be synchronised prior to paralleling
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 48
10) speed up operation by reducing back EMF
Comment/Reference:
http://homepages.which.net/~paul.hills/SolenoidsBody.h
tml
Questions 981 – 990
981. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight
will
disconnect all power to the main busbar
shut down the APU
isolate the battery from the main busbar
982. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency
generators, it is important to maintain generator
outputs at the same voltage
to prevent a circulating current of considerable
magnitude developing between two or more generators
to prevent a circulating current developing between
two or more TRUs
to prevent CSD shock loading
983. A voltage regulator installed in series with a
generator field
uses a voltage coil in series with generator output
uses a current coil in parallel with generator
output
uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator
output
984. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally
indicate
high oil pressure, low oil temperature
low oil pressure, low oil temperature
low oil pressure, high oil temperature
985. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby
generator is controlled by
an IDG
a CSD
an hydraulically actuated swash plate
986. An AC generator used with a CSD
needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with
increasing load
does not need a voltage controller because voltage
is kept constant
does not need a voltage controller because current
is kept constant
987. Power to a GCU is supplied
by the generator output only
initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG
output
by the battery bus or rectified generator output
988. Trip signals for a GCR are
overfrequency and undervoltage
underfrequency and overcurrent
differential protection and undervoltage
989. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck
by observing indications of
High oil temperature / low oil quantity
high oil temperature / low oil pressure
low oil quantity / low oil temperature
990. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with
Teflon
Nomex
PVC
Answers for Questions 981 – 990
1) isolate the battery from the main busbar
Comment/Reference: The Battery master switch simply
connects the battery to the main busbar, allowing it
to be charged from the generator(s).
2) to prevent a circulating current of considerable
magnitude developing between two or more generators
Comment/Reference:
3) uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics, Eismin page 199-200
4) low oil pressure, high oil temperature
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician
Textbook, page 7-50
5) an hydraulically actuated swash plate
6) needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with
increasing load
7 initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG
output
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 7-24. PMG is main supply for GCU,
battery is back up power for GCU
8) differential protection and undervoltage
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-21-00 para 5.b.
pg 7
9) high oil temperature / low oil pressure
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician
Textbook , page 7-50 & B737-3/4/500 AMM 21-11-00 pg 1
para 1.B.
10) Teflon
Comment/Reference: This is probably referring to the
Teflon tape referred to in Aircraft Electricity
Electronics by Eismin 5th Ed Page 69. Also AC43
Para.11.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is Dupont trade
name for PTFE)
Questions 991 – 1000
991. A heat gun should be operated at
100°C below the specified
the specified temperature
100°C above the specified
992. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system
should be prevented because
it will cause high circulating current in the bus /
other generators
it will trip the GCR
it will damage the drive shaft
993. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time
taken to trip the GCU depends on
closing of fuel and hydraulic valves
time delay circuit
amplitude of voltage
994. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a
swashplate
CSD unit
ID unit
995. A permanent magnet should have
low retentivity, high coercivity
high retentivity, low coercivity
low retentivity, low coercivity
996. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes
overheated?
The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the
battery
The battery charger will switch to trickle charge
mode
The power supply to the battery charger will be
interrupted
997. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery,
the SG will
decrease
increase
remain the same
998. On testing a generator it is found to require
adjusting, where would you adjust it?
In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel
On the GCU
By means of a remote trimmer
999. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical
generator frequency is
by angle of swash plate
by CSU
by IDG
1000.When a ni-cad battery is fully charged
the electrolyte level is higher level than normal
the electrolyte level stays the same
the electrolyte level is lower than normal
Answers for Questions 991 – 1000
1) the specified temperature
Comment/Reference: A heat gun should be operated at
the specified temperature, or 100°C (approx) above the
heatshrink temperature.
2) it will trip the GCR
3) amplitude of voltage
Comment/Reference: Inverse time delay - c could also
be considered correct. Aircraft Electricity &
Electronics, Eismin, page 203
4) swashplate
Comment/Reference: Speed of an HMG is controlled by a
swashplate
5) high retentivity, low coercivity
Comment/Reference: A permanent magnet should have a
low coercivity (so it is easy to magnetise) and high
retentivity (so it is difficult to demagnetise)
6) The power supply to the battery charger will be
interrupted
Comment/Reference: B737 AMM 24-31-00 para 4.D. 2) on
pg 3. & Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Figure 1.32 for charger disconnect system & pg 29
7) decrease
Comment/Reference: Since volume increases, but mass
remains constant, with temperature, density decreases.
8) On the GCU
9) by angle of swash plate
Comment/Reference: Control of an HPG is via a
swashplate
10) the electrolyte level is higher level than normal
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 314 & Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook 7-32
Questions 1001 – 1010
1001.Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by
a GCU
an IRS
a BPCU
1002.A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its
primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its secondary.
What is the current drawn from the source?
3 A
1.2 A
0.3 A
1003.After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot
observes on the battery charger indicator, an initial
high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in
current
no cause for concern
there is a problem with the charging circuit and he
must shut-down the engines
the battery is faulty
1004.Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ
is only allowed in the shop
is permitted
is not allowed
1005.In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell
has low reading.
It is defective
It must be replaced
It needs topping up
1006.A short range passenger aircraft has complete
electrical failure. What time duration would the
battery be expected to power essential equipment?
30 minutes
60 minutes
Forever
1007.An external power plug has two short pins. These are
used for
the interlock circuit
ground handling bus
a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the
socket
1008.The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is
to monitor total current load
to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised
to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight
deck
1009.To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery
subject the battery to load and check the voltage
subject the battery to load, check voltage and check
the SG of each cell
measure the discharge time
1010.Circulating currents are associated with
AC generators in parallel
AC and DC generators in parallel
DC generators in parallel
Answers for Questions 1001 – 1010
1) a BPCU
Comment/Reference: B767 MM 42-41-00 quote: 'The BPCU
shares status information with the GCU's. The BPCU
controls all electrical buses and controls load
shedding.'
2) 1.2 A
Comment/Reference: Find current in secondary I = V/R =
480/1600 = 3/10A. Next find current in Primary = 4 x
3/10 = 12/10 = 1.2A
3) no cause for concern
Comment/Reference: This is normal
4) is not allowed
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-3 Para 6.4.
5) It must be replaced
6) 30 minutes
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 GR no 4 para 2.3
7) the interlock circuit
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-41-00 para 1.B.
(2) & Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems,
Pallett Page 290
8) to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
Page 51 and 52
9) measure the discharge time
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.6 and 4.7
10) AC generators in parallel
Questions 1011 – 1020
1011.Generator brush bedding
should not be done on the aircraft
should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of
the length is already being done
can be done on the aircraft
1012.What is the amperage at point 'X' to the nearest amp?
102 Amps
101 Amps
100 Amps
1013.Pitot tubes are heated by
DC
AC or DC
AC
1014.Paralleling is used for
DC electrical generators only
AC and DC electrical generators
AC electrical generators only
1015.Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA
Chapter 24 Section 21
Chapter 24 Section 31
Chapter 31 Section 21
1016.In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is
in series with the field and changes resistance with
changing length
in series with the field and changes resistance with
surface area contact
in parallel with the field and changes resistance
with changing length
1017.Maximum battery temperature on charging before
protection circuit starts is
144 degrees C
144 degrees F
71 degrees F
1018.If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is
charged by
constant voltage
constant current until a predetermined limit when it
automatically switches to constant voltage
constant current
1019.The output of a carbon pile regulator with no
variation of loading is
fluctuating
pulse width modulating
stationary
1020.In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output
is controlled by
transformers and transistors
diodes and transformers
zeners and transistors
Answers for Questions 1010 – 1020
1) should not be done on the aircraft
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-4 4.3.6 (Does not say
that it cannot be done on the aircraft - but would be
difficult)
2) 101 Amps
Comment/Reference: 100 volts across far right load,
therefore 100 volts also across 100ohm load
(parallel circuit theory)
I = V/R = 100/100 = 1A through 100 ohm load.
(Ohms Law)
Total current at 'X' is 100 + 1 = 101 Amps.
(Kirkchoff's Law)
3) AC or DC
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems, Pallett 3rd Ed Page 32.
4) AC and DC electrical generators
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallet pg 16 for DC & 47 for AC
5) Chapter 24 Section 31
6) in series with the field and changes resistance with
surface area contact
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallet pg 12 & CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1
7) 144°F
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-31-00 para 4.E.
(4) on pg 5
8) constant voltage
9) stationary
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 12 & CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1.1
10) zeners and transistors
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 14 & CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.3.1
Questions 1021 – 1030
1021.A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and
connected by
voltage coil
voltage and current coil
current coil
1022.Increasing the real load primarily
decreases output voltage
decreases frequency
increases output voltage and increases frequency
1023.Inductive reactive load causes
no effect on torque but produces extra heat
dissipated
increase in torque only
increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
1024.The power factor of an AC generator identifies the
proportion of
reactive power from the generator that does work
real power from the generator that does work
apparent power from the generator that does work
1025.Differential protection in an AC system protects
against
short circuits
line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
a reverse current flowing from the battery
1026.When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine
should be
stationary
rotating at idle
rotating at Nsync
1027.One of the main purposes of a CSD is to
prevent engine overload
maintain constant load on the generator
enable generators to be paralleled
1028.In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system,
the most likely consequence is
activation of the time delay circuit
deactivation of the field regulatory TRs
energise the bus tie relay
1029.If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero
in flight, it would be an indication that the
phase sequence detection circuit has operated
CSD driveshaft had sheared
bus tie interlock is inoperative
1030.Assuming all systems are operating normally, as
aircraft electrical load increases, generator output
voltage will
decrease and amperage output increases
increases and amperage output increases
remain constant and amperage output increases
Answers for Questions 1021 – 1030
1) voltage and current coil
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
Page 16, 17, 18
2) decreases frequency
3) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
4) real power from the generator that does work
5) short circuits
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett Page 121
6) stationary
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-11-00 Para 8.B
on page 10
7) enable generators to be paralleled
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 37
8) activation of the time delay circuit
9) CSD driveshaft had sheared
10) remain constant and amperage output increases
Questions 1030 – 1040
1031.When installing multiple batteries on aircraft, they
are connected in
series
parallel
either parallel or series and switched between as an
option
1032.What is the small pin on the DC ground power
connector?
Ground or earth
Positive to battery relay
Positive to external power relay
1033.How is RAT driven?
Airstream
Compressor
Fan
1034.How is an aircraft battery rated?
Ampere hours
Watts
Joules
1035.A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor
driving a constant load will result in
increased torque and reduced speed
reduced torque and increased speed
increased torque and speed
1036.What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?
To help plug location/fit
Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit
To prevent arcing during plug connection /
disconnection
1037.A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a
shunt winding and a
current regulation coil in series
voltage regulating coil in parallel
voltage regulating coil in series
1038.What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?
To speed up the operation
To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay
To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil
1039.Eddy currents are
caused by resistance of the coil
caused by heating effect of the coil
circulating currents
1040.The small pins in the power connector plug are
negative
neutral
positive
Answers for Questions 1031 – 1040
1) either parallel or series and switched between as an
option
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems.
Pallett Page 23/26/27
2) Positive to external power relay
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett Page 70
3) Airstream
Comment/Reference: Ram Air Turbine
4) Ampere hours
Comment/Reference: Aircrfat Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett Page 21
5) increased torque and speed
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett Page 138 (reduces Back EMF)
6) To prevent arcing during plug connection /
disconnection
Comment/Reference: The short prongs are for DC only.
Aircraft Electrical System, Pallett pg 72
7) current regulation coil in series
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems.
Pallett Page 11
8) To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil
Comment/Reference: The diode is to prevent the high
current flow in the coil due to induction as the relay
switches off
9) circulating currents
Comment/Reference:
10) positive
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett Page 70
Questions 1041 – 1050
1041.When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system,
the tripping circuit
trips at a set level
trips after a time delay
trips after a time delay inversely proportional to
overvolt amplitude
1042.In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the
synchronising bus-bar is to
supply essential services
provide a means of monitoring the load
provide interconnection between the generator load
busbars
1043.Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is
in series with the field windings
in parallel with the field windings
across the generator output
1044.A current transformer connected across the neutral of
a 3 phase generator is for
differential protection
phase sequence monitoring
load monitoring
1045.Zener diodes are for
voltage regulation
voltage stabilisation
rectification
1046.AC generator output indications are measured in
KW
KVA & KW
KW & KVAR
1047.Load shedding allows
more current to the busbar
more voltage to the busbar
less current to the busbar
1048.How may the output of a transistorised voltage
regulator be described?
Slightly variable DC
Variable AC
Pulse width modulated DC
1049.In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC
split bus-bar generation system, how is power
maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?
By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only
By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter
By power fed from static inverter only
1050.Which components within a generator control unit
connects the output of the field power supply to the
generator exciter?
Generator line contactor
Generator control relay
Generator power pilot relay
Answers for Questions 1041 – 1050
1) trips after a time delay inversely proportional to
overvolt amplitude
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
Page 119/120
2) provide interconnection between the generator load
busbars
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
Page 81
3) in parallel with the field windings
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-2 Page 5, Aircraft Electrical
Systems Page 11.
4) differential protection
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
Page 121
5) voltage regulation
Comment/Reference: Although Zener diodes can be used
(back-to-back) to protect equipment from voltage
spikes (voltage stabilisation) they are more commonly
associated with voltage regulation.
6) KVA & KW
Comment/Reference: An AC generator is rated in KVA and
KW (or KVA and power factor, from which KW can be
calculated). However, flightdeck indications are KVAR
and KW.
7) less current to the busbar
Comment/Reference: Load shedding is carried out to
reduce current (voltage is constant).
8) Pulse width modulated DC
Comment/Reference: A voltage regulator has two
outputs, one to the generator field (pulse width
modulated on a transistorised regulator) and one to
the busbar (constant voltage but variable current
depending on load). The answer here depends upon which
output they are referring.
9) By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 78 Fig. 5.2
10) Generator control relay
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-21-00 para 5.A.
pg 5. The GCR is the only one which is (sometimes)
'within' the GCU.
Questions 1051 – 1060
1051.In what units are static inverters rated?
kW
kVAR
kVA
1052.In a generator system, a stability winding is used
in series with the field to prevent oscillations
to prevent voltage overshoot
to control output current
1053.On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?
Under-current
Under-volt
Under-frequency
1054.How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an
AC parallel generator system?
Real load by control of the constant speed drives,
reactive load by adjustment of generator fields
Real load by control of generator fields, Reactive
loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives
Real and reactive loads by control of the constant
speed drives only. Output voltage is controlled by
adjustment of generator fields
1055.Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft
battery or its charging system, when is the charger
switched off automatically?
When there is a failure of one alternator in a
split-bus bar system
When the battery is used for excessively high
discharge currents such as in starting
When the alternators are fully loaded
1056.The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator
is
in parallel with the generator volts coil
in series with the generator field
in series with the generator volts coil
1057.When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it
can be reset
on the ground only
after the fault has been cleared
by cycling the generator switch
1058.In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must
be in synchronization and
CBA must equal CBA
CBA must equal ABC
phase rotation does not matter
1059.When loads are shed from a busbar automatically
bus bar current rises
bus bar voltage rises
bus bar current decreases
1060.What controls output from the generator?
BPCU
ELCU
GCU
Answers for Questions 1051 – 1060
1) kVA
Comment/Reference: VA or KVA, just like an AC
generator
2) to prevent voltage overshoot
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-2 3.4.5 (d)
3) Under-frequency
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
page 120
4) Real load by control of the constant speed drives,
reactive load by adjustment of generator fields
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
page 48 and 49
5) When the battery is used for excessively high
discharge currents such as in starting
6) in series with the generator volts coil
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-2 Fig 1
7) after the fault has been cleared
Comment/Reference: Boeing opps manual states that you
are allowed to attempt to reset the field after
checking all parameters are now normal, as it may have
been a transient fault B747 classic 10.20.02
8) CBA must equal CBA
Comment/Reference:
9) bus bar current decreases
10) GCU
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed, Eismin, has full descriptions of all 3 units.
B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-21-00 para 6. pg 8
Questions 1060 – 1070
1061.Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an
indication of
electrolyte level
electrolyte temperature
charge
1062.During normal engine shut-down, the generator
control relay is tripped only
breaker is tripped only
breaker and control relay are both tripped
1063.The generator warning light will come on when
voltage is below battery voltage
voltage is too high
voltage is above battery voltage
1064.When replacing a current transformer
it can be fitted any way round
it can only be fitted one way round
voltage/current selection must be made prior to
fitting
1065.The economy coil on a relay
reduces current required to hold closed
reduces current required to close
makes it cheaper to make
1066.What is the function of the generator control relay?
Control output voltage
Bring the generator on-line
Connect the generator to the busbar
1067.The current consumed by a DC starter motor will
remain constant
decrease as the engine speed increases
increase as the engine speed increases
1068.A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is
citric acid
borax powder
sodium bicarbonate
1069.In a split bus power distribution system
power is split between 115V AC and 28V DC
generators are paralleled on connection to the tie
bus
each generator supplies its own bus and distribution
system in normal operation
1070.Flashing a generator field
increases resistance
restores magnetism
decreases resistance
Answers for Questions 1060 – 1070
1) charge
2) breaker is tripped only
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-21-00 para
11.H.pg 21
3) voltage is below battery voltage
4) it can only be fitted one way round
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
3rd Ed page 61
5) reduces current required to hold closed
Comment/Reference:
6) Bring the generator on-line
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-21-00 para 5.A.
on pg 5
7) decrease as the engine speed increases
Comment/Reference: Decreases due to the back EMF as
engine speed increases
8) sodium bicarbonate
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook p 7-30 refers
9) each generator supplies its own bus and distribution
system in normal operation
Comment/Reference:
10) restores magnetism
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eisman pg 206
Questions 1071 – 1080
1071.When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery,
what should be taken into account?
Electrolyte temperature
Battery charge
Ambient temperature
1072.How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?
By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal
By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load
By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load
1073.The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC
generator system
modifies generator field excitation voltage
modifies generator field excitation current
modifies generator drive speed
1074.A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil
in parallel with the generator output
in series with the generator output
in series with the current coil
1075.The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to
prevent contact pitting and burning
reduce the current required to hold the contacts
closed
close the auxiliary contacts before the main
contacts
1076.A vibrating contact voltage regulator has
a volts coil in parallel with the points
a resister in parallel with the points
a resistor in series with the points
1077.Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried
out
during flight
when 80 percent of the brush area has been
previously bedded in, on the bench
only off the aircraft
1078.What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in
a ni-cad battery?
Evaporation
Over charging current
Undercharging current
1079.An AC generator connected to a CSD requires
a separate voltage regulator
no voltage regulator as the CSD will control the
voltage
no voltage regulator as the CSD will control
generator frequency
1080.If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in
the battery compartment, which procedure should be
followed?
Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected
are followed by a water rinse
Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water
Apply boric acid solution to the affected area
followed by a water rinse
Answers for Questions 1071 – 1080
1) Electrolyte temperature
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-1 4.3.4
2) By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 23
3) modifies generator field excitation current
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems,
Pallett Page 49
4) in parallel with the generator output
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 13 Fig 1.14 & EEL/1-2 3.2.1
5) reduce the current required to hold the contacts
closed
6) a resister in parallel with the points
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 13 Fig 1.14 & EEL/1-2 Figure 3
7) only off the aircraft
8) Over charging current
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1.3 Page 3 Para 3.4.1
9) a separate voltage regulator
10) Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected are
followed by a water rinse
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 9-2 para 5.2.1 &
5.4.1 & AC65-9A pg 311 btm rh side.
Questions 1081 – 1090
1081.Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a
lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is true?
The hydrometer reading does not require a
temperature correction if the electrolyte
temperature is 60°F
A specific gravity correction should be subtracted
from the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte
temperature is above 20°C
The hydrometer reading will give a true indication
of the capacity of the battery regardless of the
electrolyte temperature
1082.An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause
the voltage to rise with the following resultant
action in the voltage regulator:-
The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus
decreasing the field excitation
The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing
the current in the generator field
The volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing
the resistance of the carbon pile
1083.The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will
have current passing through them from the higher
loaded generator to the lower
be connected to each other when the generators are
paralleled
have current passing through them only when the
generators are not paralleled
1084.A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze
until extremely low temperatures are reached because
the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the
specific gravity of the solution
most of the acid is in the solution
increased internal resistance generates sufficient
heat to prevent freezing
1085.What determines the amount of current which will flow
through a battery while it is being charged by a
constant voltage source?
The total plate area of the battery
The ampere-hour capacity of the battery
The state-of-charge of the battery
1086.The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium
battery utilizes
constant current and constant voltage
constant voltage and varying current
constant current and varying voltage
1087.The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate
deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium battery cells
that have been in service for time is an indication of
normal operation
excessive plate sulphation
excessive gassing
1088.The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-
acid batteries together in the same service area is
likely to result in
contamination of both types of batteries
increased explosion and/or fire hazard
normal battery service life
1089.If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin
generator DC system is less than that drawn from No.2
generator, the current in the No.2 generator
equalizing coil will flow
in the same direction as the current flow in the
voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator
in the same direction as the current flow in the
voltage coil, increasing the output of No.2
generator
in the opposite direction to the current flow in the
voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator
1090.On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the
Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator
drive and
it will automatically reset itself when the fault is
rectified
it can only be reset when all loads are switched off
resetting can only be carried out on the ground
Answers for Questions 1081 – 1090
1) The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature
correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60°F
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 311 & CAIPS EEL/1-1
4.3.4 (American Text such as Jeppesen A & P Technician
Airframe Textbook Page 7-27 specify 80°F as the
standard, but CAIPs specifies 60°F as standard)
2) The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus
decreasing the field excitation
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-2 3.1.1 & AC65-9A pg 398
3) be connected to each other when the generators are
paralleled
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
Eismin 5th Ed page 200 & Aircraft Electrical Systems
Pallett Pages 15 and 16
4) most of the acid is in the solution
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.6.2
5) The state-of-charge of the battery
Comment/Reference:
6) constant voltage and varying current
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
Eismin Page 52. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.1
7) excessive gassing
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 23
and Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eismin Page 50
& AC65-9A pg 314 para 3 & CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.2 (h)
8) contamination of both types of batteries
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/2-1 Page 1 Para 2.11
9) in the same direction as the current flow in the
voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 18
10) resetting can only be carried out on the ground
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook p7-25 & B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-11-00 para 8.B.
pg 10
Questions 1090 – 1100
1091.In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing
is achieved by regulating the
generator speed
generator drive torque
voltage regulator
1092.A constant speed drive unit has a warning light
indication
for when it is disconnected from the generator
for low oil pressure
for low speed
1093.The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the
lowest when the battery is
under load condition
being charged
in a discharged condition
1094.Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long
period of time will show a low fluid level because the
fluid evaporates through vents
electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates
fluid level was not periodically replenished
1095.The purpose of 'field flashing' is to
change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field
winding
test the insulation resistance of a field winding
with a 1000V supply
measure the residual magnetism in a field winding 24
hours after the field supply is removed
1096.The purpose of an inverter is to convert
AC to a higher frequency AC
AC to DC
DC to AC
1097.How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium
battery be determined?
By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte
By measuring discharge
By the level of the electrolyte
1098.What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium
battery when it is not fully charged?
Excessive spewing will occur during the charging
cycle
No adverse results since water may be added anytime
The cell temperature will run too low for proper
output
1099.In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell
temperature
causes a decrease in internal resistance
increases cell voltage
causes an increase in internal resistance
1100.When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium
battery, the cells emit gas only
when the electrolyte level is low
toward the end of the charging cycle
if they are defective
Answers for Questions 1091 – 1100
1) generator drive speed
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems,
Pallett 3rd Ed Page 48-49
2) for low oil pressure
3) in a discharged condition
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 314 & EEL/1-3 3.4.2
4) electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 7-32 and 7-33.
5) change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field
winding
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems,
Pallett 3rd Ed Page 4 & Aircraft Electricity &
Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 206
6) DC to AC
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 435 & Aircraft
Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Pallett pg 66
7) By measuring discharge
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.6 &
HTTP://web.telia.com/~u85920178/begin/batt-00.htm
8) Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.3
9) causes a decrease in internal resistance
Comment/Reference: 0CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.8 (a)
10) toward the end of the charging cycle
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.5
Questions 1101 – 1110
1101.The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator
is connected in series with the carbon pile
becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay
energises
modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil
1102.In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load
sharing is achieved by regulating the
generator drive torque
generator speed
voltage regulator
1103.Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause
overspeeding of AC motors
overvoltage of capacitive devices
overheating of inductive devices
1104.The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains
sulphuric acid
nitric acid
hydrochloric acid
1105.In the procedure to be followed after spillage of
battery acid, neutralizing may be carried out
by washing with distilled water
with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate
by applying a coating of petroleum jelly
1106.Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per
revolution
second
minute
1107.The three voltages of a three phase generator are
180 degrees apart
90 degrees apart
120 degrees apart
1108.To restore the level of electrolyte which has been
lost due to normal gassing during battery charging
electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that
contained in the battery must be added
sulphuric acid must be added
distilled water must be added
1109.A 12 volt lead-acid battery
has 6 cells
has 12 cells
has 24 cells
1110.The active component of an A.C. circuit is 4 amps and
the reactive is 3 amps. Ammeter reading will be
5 amps
7 amps
3.4 amps
Answers for Questions 1101 – 1110
1) modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 399-400
2) voltage regulator
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
Page 48
3) overheating of inductive devices
Comment/Reference: Inductive devices will pass more
current if it is lower frequency
4) sulphuric acid
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 22, Table 1.
5) with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate
Comment/Reference:
6) second
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eisman pg 84 & Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
pg 32
7) 120 degrees apart
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 413 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 84 &
Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed pg 34
8) distilled water must be added
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 314 & CAP 562 Leaflet 9-
7 para 4.3.1
9) has 6 cells
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 310
10) 5 amps
Comment/Reference: Total current is the vector sum of
active (real) and reactive currents. 3, 4, 5 triangle
in this case
Questions 1111 – 1120
1111.In a delta connected generator
phase volts equals 1.73 line volts
line volts equals phase volts
line volts equals 1.73 phase volts
1112.The only practical method of maintaining a constant
voltage output from an aircraft generator under
varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the
speed at which the armature rotates
strength of the magnetic field
number of conductors in the armature
1113.As the generator load is increased (within its rated
capacity), the voltage will
remain constant and the amperage output will
increase
remain constant and the amperage output will
decrease
decrease and the amperage output will increase
1114.When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte
in a battery
each cell should be checked as the readings may
differ
one cell only need be checked as the remainder will
read the same
only the end cells need be checked as they contain
the terminals
1115.A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged
when the
S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified
period
cells begin to gas freely
S.G. reaches 1.180
1116.Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use
frequency wild 200V AC?
Hydraulic pump
Windscreen heating
Standby compass
1117.To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid
battery
petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections
copper connectors are used
the connectors may be painted
1118.Before taking S.G. readings of a lead-acid battery
recently removed from an aircraft
the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for
one hour
the electrolyte temperature must be noted
a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the
S.G. to stabilize
1119.The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying
the
armature current
field current
engine speed
1120.A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0.8 has a
maximum continuous power output of
24 kW
30 kW
37.5 kW
Answers for Questions 1111 – 1120
1) line volts equals phase volts
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallet pg 35
2) strength of the magnetic field
Comment/Reference:
3) decrease and the amperage output will increase
Comment/Reference: Assuming no voltage regulator is
considered.
4) each cell should be checked as the readings may differ
Comment/Reference:
5) S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 310 & CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.7
6) Windscreen heating
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd ed
Pallett pg 36. Any heating or lighting circuit can be
frequency wild
7) petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections
Comment/Reference: Do a search in CAP 562. CAIPs
EEL/1-1 4.2 (vi)
8) the electrolyte temperature must be noted
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 311
9) field current
10) 24 kW
Comment/Reference: PF = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/30 TP = 24
Questions 1121 – 1130
1121.The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid
battery
remains substantially constant regardless of the
state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the
state of charge
remains constant with changes in the state of charge
but is a useful guide to the amount of acid
contained in the electrolyte
changes with the state of charge and is therefore a
measure of the state of charge
1122.A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to
have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the 10 hour rate
will deliver
60 amps for 10 hours
6 amps for 10 hours
60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours
depending upon the rate of demand
1123.Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will
produce
12V with 50 ampere hour capacity
12V with 25 ampere hour capacity
24V with 25 ampere hour capacity
1124.As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the
aircraft generator
the battery contactor isolates the battery from the
generator
the generator voltage decreases to supply the
steadily decreasing current
the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the
charging current decreases
1125.On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator,
if the load increases the generator output voltage
will
remain constant
increase
decrease
1126.For battery charging, the electrical supply connected
to the battery must be
DC
AC at 50 c.p.s.
AC at 400 c.p.s.
1127.When using A.C. power on the bus bar you require 28V
D.C. for battery charging
an A.C. inverter would be required
a D.C. transformer and rectifier would be required
an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required
1128.Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will
produce
12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
24V e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery
1129.If a nicad battery overheats, it is an indication of
the generator is not connected to the bus bar
thermal runaway
the generator voltage regulator setting is too low
1130.When checking a nicad battery in situ for
serviceability
the electrical circuits must be isolated before
installing shorting strips
a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter
reading noted
a hydrometer must be used
Answers for Questions 1121 – 1130
1) changes with the state of charge and is therefore a
measure of the state of charge
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 311
2) 6 amps for 10 hours
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 310 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics 5th ed Eisman pg 44
3) 24V with 25 ampere hour capacity
Comment/Reference:
4) the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the
charging current decreases
Comment/Reference:
5) decrease
Comment/Reference:
6) DC
Comment/Reference: It’s a Battery
7) an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required
Comment/Reference: Your going AC to DC
8) 12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
Comment/Reference:
9) thermal runaway
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 9-7 para 4.5.8
10) a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter
reading noted
Questions 1131 – 1140
1131.The output from an AC generator is taken from
connections on the stator
slip rings via commutator
slip rings
1132.Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by
the load differences causing torque signals to vary
the engine speed
circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for
voltage trimming
tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as
the engine speed varies
1133.If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required
for immediate service, it should be stored
in a totally dry condition
in the fully discharged condition
in the fully charged condition
1134.The correct way to determine the state of charge of a
nickel-cadmium battery is
by checking the specific gravity of each cell
by checking the voltage of each cell under load
by a complete discharge and a measured recharge
1135.A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after
the RCCO contacts close due to
increasing generator voltage
increasing battery voltage
a differential voltage of 0.5V battery voltage
higher than generator
1136.Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by
indicating paper that turns red
litmus paper that turns black
indicating paper that turns blue
1137.To restore electrolyte after spillage
add distilled water only
add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as
that in the battery
add acid only
1138.When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the
following indications:
An audio bell and red PFWL
Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL
Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL
1139.The purpose of an inverter is to convert
AC to DC
DC to AC
AC to a higher frequency AC
1140.With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the
adjustment of generator voltage is carried out by
adjustment of voltage coil resistance
alteration of the field resistance
alteration of contact spring tension
Answers for Questions 1131 – 1140
1) connections on the stator
Comment/Reference:
www.tpub.com/content/doe/h1011v3/css/h1011v3_102.htm
2) circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for
voltage trimming
3) in the fully discharged condition
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 9-7 para 8 & CAIPs
EEL/1-3 8
4) by a complete discharge and a measured recharge
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 9-7 para para 4.5.6
& para 4.7 & CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.6
5) increasing generator voltage
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments & Integrated
Systems Pallett pg 201
6) indicating paper that turns red
Comment/Reference: Acid turns litmus paper red
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PH#Measurement
7) add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as
that in the battery
Comment/Reference: Jeppson A & P Airframe Technician
pg 7-28. But AC65-9A pg 311 & 314 for both types of
batteries it says distilled water only.
8) Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL
9) DC to AC
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 435 & Aircraft
Electrical Systems Pallett 3rd Ed Page 66
10) alteration of contact spring tension
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems, 3rd Ed
Pallett Page 12, & Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eismin Page 199
Questions 1141 – 1150
1141.Battery SG is measured using a
hygrometer
hydrometer
hypsometer
1142.A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of
90%
50%
80%
1143.When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to
connect is the
positive earth
negative
positive
1144.Polarization in a cell is
the establishing of a potential across the cell
the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate
the fact that as a battery discharges, the -ve
plate's potential approaches that of the +ve plate's
1145.Battery capacity is checked by
discharging while maintaining the voltage constant
by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking
the time to be discharged
discharging at a constant current and checking the
time taken to reach the discharged state
measuring the terminal voltage whilst on load and
multiplying by the current drawn
1146.The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the
field strength and the speed of the generator
number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor
number of conductors and the field strength
1147.To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator,
whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is necessary
to
alter the reactance of the stator winding circuit
alter the driving speed
alter the field current
1148.In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is
for
reactive load only
real and reactive load
real load only
1149.Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be
connected between
any phase and earth or between any two phases
the phase and earth only
phases A and B only
1150.A frequency wild supply would be suitable for
instruments and navigation systems
3-phase torque motors
deicing loads
Answers for Questions 1141 – 1150
1) hydrometer
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 311 & CAP 562 Leaflet 9-
2 para 8.2 a) &
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hydrometer
2) 80%
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 9-6 para 7.2
3) negative
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eismin Page 43
4) the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate
Comment/Reference:
5) discharging at a constant current and checking the
time taken to reach the discharged state
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
Page 21 & CAP 562 Leaflet 9-13 para 5 d)
6) number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor
Comment/Reference:
7) alter the field current
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
Page 46
8) real and reactive load
Comment/Reference:
9) any phase and earth or between any two phases
Comment/Reference:
10) deicing loads
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd ed
Pallett pg 36
Questions 1151 – 1160
1151.Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in series would give
36V 40Ah
36V 120Ah
12V 120Ah
1152.Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give
36V 120Ah
12V 40Ah
12V 120Ah
1153.An inverter can be an AC generator driven by
either an AC or DC motor
an AC motor
a DC motor
1154.When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries
add acid to water
the method of mixing is unimportant
add water to acid
1155.The RPM of a 6 pole, 400 Hz alternator is
6000
4000
8000
1156.The ratio between apparent power and true power is the
power factor
power rating
efficiency
1157.Apparent power is measured in
Kilovolts
Volt Amps
Watts
1158.A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What
will be the nominal battery output?
22V
20V
24V
1159.The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad
battery is constant
speed
current
voltage
1160.When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the
phase of each
must be synchronized
must be in opposition to one another
is unimportant
Answers for Questions 1151 – 1160
1) 36V 40Ah
2) 12V 120Ah
3) a DC motor
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 66
4) add acid to water
5) 8000
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 417 & Aircraft
Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Pallett pg 32. 400/3 x 60
6) power factor
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 3
7) Volt Amps
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 35
8) 22V
Comment/Reference: 19 X 1.2 = 22
9) current
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 9-7 para 4.5.1
10) is unimportant
Comment/Reference: It says 'UNparalleled'
Questions 1161 – 1170
1161.When the GPU is connected to the aircraft
it is paralleled with the aircraft generator
it supplies essential services
it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator
1162.A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series
(no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10
amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal
resistance of the battery in this instance is
2.52 ohms
5.0 ohms
0.52 ohms
1163.The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF
0.8 lagging.
The maximum load permitted is 32KW
The maximum load under all conditions is 40KVA.
The maximum load under all conditions is 40KW.
1164.An I.D.G (integrated drive generator)
does not require a CSDU
incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit
has separate CSDU
1165.A P.M.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built
in generator which
only rotates during starting
only rotates after starting
provides initial excitation
1166.To parallel an alternator with another alternator the
alternators must have the same
frequency, RPM and phase relationship
frequency, voltage and phase relationship
frequency, RPM and speed
1167.Speed of an alternator may be controlled by
keeping engine rpm constant
varying the field current
CSDU (constant speed drive unit)
1168.'Frequency wild' alternators supply
resistive circuits
capacitive circuits
inductive circuits
1169.The real load of an alternator is directly related to
output shaft torque
output shaft rpm
output voltage
1170.How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless
generating system, before full output is available
from the voltage regulator?
A switch must be operated by the crew to provide
excitation form the dc busbar to bring generator on
line
Excitation form the DC busbars is automatically
provided during the start sequence
Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter
field poles
Answers for Questions 1161 – 1170
1) it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator
Comment/Reference:
2) 0.52 ohms
Comment/Reference: OCV = 2.1 x 12 = 25.2 CCV = 10 x 2
= 20. Internal voltage drop = 5.2 V. Internal R=V/I =
5.2/10 = 0.52
3) The maximum load permitted is 32KW
Comment/Reference: PF = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/40 AP = 40 x
0.8 = 32 KW
4) incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 43
5) provides initial excitation
Comment/Reference:
6) frequency, voltage and phase relationship
Comment/Reference:
7) CSDU (constant speed drive unit)
Comment/Reference:
8) resistive circuits
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd ed
Pallett pg 36
9) output shaft torque
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd
Pallett pg 48
10) Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter
field poles
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1171 – 1180
1171.Insulation resistance of electrical machines is
not affected by change of temperature of machine
normally higher when the machine is hot
normally lower when the machine is hot
1172.The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC
generator is to
keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at
varying temperatures
compensate for temperature changes in the main AC
stator windings
keep the resistance of the rectifiers nearly
constant at varying temperatures
1173.The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming
alternator's output voltage frequency and phase
relationship is
the same
not the same
the outputs are constant
1174.One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of
two alternators. They will be synchronised when
the lamp is maximum brightness
the lamp is extinguished
the lamp is either at maximum brightness or is
extinguished
1175.Automatic synchronising means that the incoming
alternator's voltage and frequency
cannot be checked
can be synchronised using the two lamps provided at
the system's panel
an be checked at the system's electrical panel by
selecting the relevant alternator
1176.The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of
disconnection of the other alternators
ground power disconnection
crash engagement
1177.What is monitored in a constant speed drive?
Low oil press and CSD speed
Low oil temperature and low oil press
Hi oil temperature and low oil press
1178.The CSD or IDG speed governor setting
is adjusted with the engine running
is adjusted with the engine stationary
is not allowed to be adjusted
1179.An external ground power supply can be used for
only the ground handling busbar services
all normal services required by flight and ground
crew
only the emergency busbar services
1180.The APU generator can normally be
connected in parallel with the aircraft's main
generators
used during flight as a back up supply if the main
aircraft supply fails
connected in parallel with the ground power supply
Answers for Questions 1171 – 1180
1) normally higher when the machine is hot
Comment/Reference:
2) keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at
varying temperatures
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 45 and diagram.
3) not the same
Comment/Reference:
4) the lamp is extinguished
Comment/Reference:
5) can be checked at the system's electrical panel by
selecting the relevant alternator
Comment/Reference:
6) crash engagement
Comment/Reference:
7) Hi oil temperature and low oil press
Comment/Reference:
8) is adjusted with the engine stationary
Comment/Reference:
9) all normal services required by flight and ground crew
Comment/Reference:
10) used during flight as a back up supply if the main
aircraft supply fails
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1181 – 1190
1181.The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is
proportional to the length of cable
inversely proportional to the length of cable
not affected by length of cable
1182.Galley loads are supplied from the
battery bus bar
main bus bar
ground service bus
1183.A ni-cad battery is stored in the
fully discharged condition
fully charged condition
dry condition
1184.A 6-diode Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) changes
single phase AC to direct current
direct current to AC
three phase AC to direct current
1185.A frequency wild AC generator is used for
fluorescent lights
deicing loads
instruments
1186.What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be
low in one cell of a lead acid battery?
Replace the defective cell
Top-up the individual cell with distilled water
Cell is defective, replace the battery
1187.What is the purpose of the diode on a contactor?
Prevent bounce
To prevent current going the wrong way
Prevent spikes
1188.Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is
completely confined come under
Class B
Class D
Class C
1189.Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually
pressurised with
helium
oxygen
CO2
1190.Vertical projected separation between seat rows must
be
3 inches
5 inches
4 inches
Answers for Questions 1181 – 1190
1) not affected by length of cable
Comment/Reference:
www.epanorama.net/documents/wiring/cable_impedance.htm
l
2) main bus bar
Comment/Reference:
3) fully discharged condition
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 9-7 para 8
4) three phase AC to direct current
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
Pages 65-67
5) deicing loads
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd ed
Pallett pg 36
6) Top-up the individual cell with distilled
waterComment/Reference:
7) Prevent spikes
Comment/Reference: It is known as a 'flywheel diode'
8) Class D
Comment/Reference: CS 25.857 or the old JAR 25.857
9) CO2
Comment/Reference: All inflatable emergency equipment
are inflated with CO2
10) 3 inches
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 GR No.2 para 4.3
Questions 1191 – 1200
1191.Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of
Nitrogen
CO2
Air
1192.The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with
a seating capacity of 20 or more is
dependant upon aircraft type
24 inches
15 inches
1193.When testing emergency slide bottles
any pin could be checked by connecting directly to
ground
all three pins must be shorted together and grounded
to the cartridge body
one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at
one time
1194.Where would you find information regarding galley
equipment?
BCARs
ANO
AWN 99
1195.How often are life jackets inspected?
In accordance with the manufacturers specification
In accordance with the AMM
Every 12 months
1196.Toilets must have a smoke detection
light in the cockpit
connected to a pump to pump the smoke out
aural and visual warning in the main cabin
1197.Where would you find information on life-raft
deployment?
JARs
Cabin safety on-board card
Cabin operations manual
1198.How do you clean seat belts?
With warm water with low alkalinity soap
With white spirit
With MEK
1199.After a successful ditching, the liferafts deployment
will
be briefed by the cabin crew
be rapid and obvious with easily and readily
displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts
have detailed instructions in a booklet in a seat
pocket
1200.Type and Quantity of emergency equipment to be carried
is specified in which document?
CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7
Airworthiness Notice 79
Schedule 4 of the ANO
Answers for Questions 1191 – 1200
1) CO2
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-12. 4 b All inflatable
safety equipment use CO2
2) 15 inches
Comment/Reference: CS 25.815
3) all three pins must be shorted together and grounded
to the cartridge body
Comment/Reference: Testing of the cartridges is the
same procedure as testing fire bottle cartridges.
CAIPs EEL/1-7 3.6.3 on.
4) AWN 99
Comment/Reference: Now it’s in CAP 747 GR No. 22
5) In accordance with the manufacturers specification
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-2 para 4.1
6) light in the cockpit
Comment/Reference: CS 25.854
7) Cabin operations manual
Comment/Reference:
8) With warm water with low alkalinity soap
Comment/Reference:
9) be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed
instructions adjacent to the liferafts
Comment/Reference: CS 25.1561 d)
10) Schedule 4 of the ANO
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1201 – 1210
1201.Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds
149 but less than 200 then:
2 megaphones are required
1 megaphone is required
3 megaphones are required
1202.Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an
inertia force of
15g
9g
12g
1203.The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated using
CO2
nitrogen
compressed air
1204.Information on Galley equipment can be found in
CAAIPS
BCAR Section L
Airworthiness Notice 99
1205.Where is information regarding flame resistant
furnishing materials?
CAP 747 Mandatory Requirements for Airworthiness
CAAIPs
AWN 58
1206.What is the EASA regulation of the minimum separation
between a seat and another seat or structure?
10 inches
7 inches
There is no EASA guideline
1207.What is the minimum distance between a seat cushion
and the seat in-front of it?
10 inches
5 inches
7 inches
1208.What is the minimum separation between a seat back
cushion and another seat or fixed structure?
28 inches
26 inches
24 inches
1209.Cargo nets are manufactured from
hessian
polypropylene
nylon
1210.A galley trolley will be designed to
not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one
hour
not exceed the floor loading limits
does not matter as the trolleys move
Answers for Questions 1201 – 1210
1) 2 megaphones are required
Comment/Reference: JAR Ops 1.810
2) 9g
Comment/Reference: CS 25.561 & CS 25.1421
3) CO2
Comment/Reference: AL/3-12 2
4) Airworthiness Notice 99
Comment/Reference: Now in CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 22
5) CAP 747 Mandatory Requirements for Airworthiness
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 13
6) 7 inches
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 Tabel 1 and Appx 1
GR No.2 para 4.2
7) 7 inches
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 2 para 4.2
8) 26 inches
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 2 para 4.1
9) nylon
Comment/Reference: Cargo nets are made from nylon or
polyester (not polypropylene).
10) not exceed the floor loading limits
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 22 para 5.6
Questions 1211 – 1220
1211.When loading a cargo aircraft
the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads
the weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded
under careful monitored circumstances
the CofG limits of the aircraft could be exceeded
under careful monitored circumstances
1212.Galley equipment which does not need electrical power
is called
uncontrolled equipment
controlled equipment
minimum equipment
1213.Galley trolleys must have placards indicating
Must be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence.
maximum weight, position, flight number
location, position, flight number
1214.PTV type entertainment equipment
is installed with seat electronic unit and
multiplexing techniques
is not the part of maintenance schedule
has no capacity for digital information processing and
transmitting
1215.Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed
container lids at temperatures above
55°C
45°C
65°C
1216.With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat
installation
you can fit seats facing forward or rearward
you can only fit seats facing forward
you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of
Design and Performance (DPP)
1217.Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the
passenger service unit (PSU). To reset the light
a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated
the button is pushed again
the button is pulled out
1218.On large aeroplanes, containerised cargo is held down
by
rope
side cart guides and fore and aft latches
netting
1219.A galley catering trolley with electrics is classed as
an uncontrolled item
a controlled item
neither, as it is removable
1220.The minimum vertical projected separation between seat
rows is
5 inches
3 inches
7 inches
Answers for Questions 1211 – 1220
1) the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads
2) uncontrolled equipment
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 22 para 4.2
3) Must be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 22 para 5.11
4) is installed with seat electronic unit and
multiplexing techniques
Comment/Reference: PTV = Personal Television
5) 45°C
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 22 para 5.2
6) you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of
Design and Performance (DPP)
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 2 para 2.2
7) the button is pushed again
8) side cart guides and fore and aft latches
9) a controlled item
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 22 para 4.1
10) 3 inches
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 GR No.2 Appx 1 para 4.3
Questions 1221 – 1230
1221.On pulling the fire handle, the aural warning
goes off, the light goes off, hydraulics, bleed air
and generator goes off
goes off, the light remains on, the generator goes
off line
stays on, the light extinguishes, the generator goes
off line
1222.After a fire detection system test, the red light
remains ON. This indicates
a short circuit
high resistance
a fire
1223.First digit number of halogenated hydrocarbon
extinguishers represents the number of
fluorine atoms
chlorine atoms
carbon atoms
1224.What type of gas is used as a propellant for a high
rate of discharge extinguishing system?
Hydrogen
Nitrogen
Carbon dioxide
1225.Which areas of a civil transport aircraft would have
smoke detectors fitted?
Passenger cabins and integral fuel tanks
Main wheel bays and engine bays
Freight holds, baggage compartments and equipment
bays
1226.Engine wing firebottles should be charged with
nitrogen at 15°C to
1250 psi
600 psi
1500 psi
1227.A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo
bay is in a
class B compartment
class A compartment
class D compartment
1228.In a capacitive fire detection system, if
there is a break, the system will not work
there is a break, the system will work but not test
satisfactory
there is a short to earth, the system will work but
not test satisfactory
1229.A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another
fire zone when
the system and the extinguishing system are the same
the system is different but the extinguishant is the
same
the system is the same but the extinguishant is
different
1230.When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector
system is carried out
a signal passes through the unbroken centre
conductor to produce the warning
it checks the integrity of the contacts
the signal passes through the centre and back
through the outer to give warning
Answers for Questions 1221 – 1230
1) goes off, the light remains on, the generator goes off
line
Comment/Reference: B757 AMM
2) a short circuit
3) carbon atoms
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Airframe Textbook Chapter
16 Page 16
4) Nitrogen
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Airframe Textbook Chapter
16 page 20
5) Freight holds, baggage compartments and equipment bays
Comment/Reference: CS 25 search smoke detectors
6) 600 psi
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Page 9-7. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Page 166 & B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-22-11 pg 601
7) class B compartment
Comment/Reference: CS 25.857 & Transport Category
Aircraft Systems Page 9-3
8) there is a break, the system will work but not test
satisfactory
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-9 Para 4.2.1
9) the system and the extinguishing system are the same
Comment/Reference: CS 25.1203 (f)(2)
10) it checks the integrity of the contacts
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen a+p Technician Airframe
Textbook page 11-6 b describes a systron-donner
system. This is the same system the CAA call a
sensor/responder system in CAIPs EEL/1-7 para 2.2.4 in
para d
Questions 1231 – 1240
1231.When inspecting lavatory installations
the ashtray should not be located close to the
toilet paper holder
'No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the
ashtrays only
the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material
1232.Lavatories must have, in the disposal container
Freon extinguisher with black ball markings
indicating when discharged
water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings
indicating when discharged
Freon extinguisher with white ball markings
indicating when discharged
1233.A fire detection loop must be capable of
using master warning visual signals only
using master warning visual and aural signals
detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds
and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the
condition is no longer present
1234.A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses
helium gas
nitrogen gas
oxygen gas
1235.A toilet is fitted with thermal protection
to protect against continuous flushing
to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in
the event of an overheat
to protect against freezing at altitude
1236.What external warning is there for an APU fire?
Red light
Aural
Both aural and a red light
1237.Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by
DC
AC
AC or DC
1238.Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be
carried out
only when equipment items fail random tests
every five years
every two years
1239.A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a
continuity check
calibration check
function check
1240.When the fire handle is operated it cuts off
field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates fire
extinguishers
operates fire extinguisher only
cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Generator remains on
line to provide electrical power
Answers for Questions 1231 – 1240
1) the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet
paper holder
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 20 para 5.4
2) Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating
when discharged
Comment/Reference: The temperature sensitive strip
changes color from white to black at the indicated
temp. B737 MM 26-24-00 pg1. CS 25.854 a, b
3) using master warning visual and aural signals
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett Page 163
4) helium gas
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft
Systems. Jeppesen Page 9-22
5) to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in
the event of an overheat
Comment/Reference: AWN 57 Para.2.3 (This AWN has been
deleted on 23OCT03) see CAP 455
6) Both aural and a red light
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-15-00 pg 1 para
1.E.
7) DC
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-21-00 pg 1 para
1.C.
8) only when equipment items fail random tests
9) continuity check
Comment/Reference: B737-400 AMM 26-11-00 pg 3 para
4.C.
10) cuts off field current, hydraulics and fuel and
operates fire extinguishers
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-21-00 para 4.A.
on pg 5 & www.b737.org.uk/fireprotection.htm#Engines
Questions 1241 – 1250
1241.What is the contamination monitor for, in a Systron
Donner fire detection system?
Dirty contacts
Volts drop
Integrity comparator
1242.Fireproofing of cabin material should be done
every 2 years
every 5 years
when a sample fails
1243.What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a
squib?
Bottles are fired
A continuity check
Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage
1244.In a gas firewire system, what causes the firewire
caption to come on when heat is applied?
Pressure
Continuity
Capacitance increase
1245.Toilet fire detection issues can be found in
AWN 80
AWN 83
CAAIPs
1246.The outside casing of a firewire has
28VDC potential above ground
115VDC potential above ground
same potential as ground
1247.A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself
and ventilate is a class
D
C
A
1248.Smoke detectors consist of a
lamp detecting 2% smoke
photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke
photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke
1249.In a toilet smoke condition, what would be the
indication?
Audible warning in the cabin
Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin
Light in the cabin
1250.What do you check when carrying out an insulation
check on a continuous firewire loop?
The outside of the firewire to earth
The firewire
The firewire, sensor & controller
Answers for Questions 1241 – 1250
1) Dirty contacts
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-7 2.2.4 (d)
2) when a sample fails
Comment/Reference:
3) A continuity check
Comment/Reference: A continuity check is carried out -
with a safety ohmmeter. But a safety ohmmeter does not
check voltage. B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-21-00 pg 1 para
3.D. (1)
4) Pressure
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician
Textbook Page 16-8 Lindberg System
5) AWN 83
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 20 or the old
AWN 83
6) same potential as ground
Comment/Reference:
7) D
Comment/Reference: CS 25.857
8) photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Page 9.2
9) Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin
Comment/Reference: CS 25.854
10) The firewire
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical System
3rd Ed pg 163 fig 10.17
Questions 1251 – 1260
1251.When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, &
fuel is cut off
red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics &
fuel stays on
1252.An indicator pin is protruding from a portable fire
extinguisher. What does it indicate?
Bottle is empty
Bottle is full
The bottle is still pressurized
1253.What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin
with 201-300 people?
4 Methyl Bromide
3 BCF
4 Fire Extinguishers
1254.How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be
weighed?
Every 5 years
Bi-annually
Annually
1255.The weight of an extinguisher is stamped
on head fitting
on base of body
on bracket
1256.How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?
Check the tell-tale wire
Weighed
Check the pressure
1257.Portable fire extinguishers are operated by
turning upside down and squeeze button/trigger
breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then
operated by the handle
one single operation until fire extinguisher is
empty
1258.How many fire extinguishers are required on an
aircraft with 501 passengers?
7
5
6
1259.How many fire extinguishers are required on an
aircraft having 401 - 500 passengers?
6
5
8
1260.CO2 fire extinguishers are used on
all fires in fuselage
baggage holds only
engines only
Answers for Questions 1251 – 1260
1) red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, &
fuel is cut off
Comment/Reference: B737 MM. Warning light is an
indication of fire. Light goes off only when fire is
extinguished
2) Bottle is empty
3) 4 Fire Extinguishers
Comment/Reference: CS 25.851
4) Annually
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-10 para 6.3 and 7.1
5) on head fitting
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-10, para 6.3
6) Weighed
Comment/Reference: AL/3-10 6.3
7) breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated
by the handle
Comment/Reference:
8) 7
Comment/Reference: CS 25.851
501-600 passengers
9) 6
Comment/Reference: CS 25.851
10) all fires in fuselage
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 501-502 & AC65-15A pg
415 & AL/3-10 3.3
Questions 1261 – 1270
1261.In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-
tabs, the installation of external ground locks to the
main control surface
would also prevent movement of the control column
is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and
therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by
the wind
would not prevent movement of the control column
1262.If aerodynamic balancing is increased, what is the
effect on the centre of pressure of the control
surface?
It is not effected
It moves back
It moves forward
1263.A control system in the parallel mode,
the control pedals moves only in the approach
the pedals deflect with the rudder deflection
when the rudder moves the control pedals stay in
position
1264.A full time yaw damper system detects
band pass frequencies
all frequencies
only low frequencies
1265.A static friction check is carried out during control
surface rigging using
a cable tensiometer to ensure cable tensions are
correct
a spring balance to ensure there is a minimum amount
of feel when the controls are moved
a spring balance to measure control 'break-out
force'
1266.If flaps try to move asymmetrically on selection, they
drive to the up position and lock
stop moving and stay in the same position
drive to the down position and lock
1267.A stick-shaker comes into operation when the aircraft
is approaching a stall
is approaching the 'critical mach number'
goes supersonic
1268.With respect to flight spoilers, they
can operate both on the ground and in flight
only operate in flight
only operate on the ground
1269.Considering an aileron to rudder crossfeed, in a left
wing down turn, the
rudder moves left
rudder remains in the centre
rudder moves right
1270.Dutch roll is eliminated by
the Dutch Roll damper
the yaw damper
differential ailerons
Answers for Questions 1261 – 1270
1) would not prevent movement of the control column
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Flight Barnard and
Philpot, Second Edition Page 253 (first line)
2) It moves forward
3) the pedals deflect with the rudder deflection
4) band pass frequencies
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th
ed Page 222 on.
5) a spring balance to measure control 'break-out force'
Comment/Reference:
6) stop moving and stay in the same position
Comment/Reference:
7) is approaching a stall
Comment/Reference:
8) can operate both on the ground and in flight
Comment/Reference: Flight spoilers are used in flight
and on the ground. However Ground spoilers can ONLY be
used on the ground. Jeppesen Transport Category
Aircraft Systems Page 5-6. Pallett Automatic Flight
Control 2nd Edition Page 51
9) rudder moves left
Comment/Reference:
10) the yaw damper
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th ed
Pallett pg 222
1271.The bearing used in a fibre pulley is
a plain bearing
a ball bearing
a roller bearing
1272.When the primary stops fitted to a control run have
been contacted
the secondary stops will just be in contact
the secondary stops have been over-ridden
a clearance exists at the secondary stops
1273.Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable
pulley groove is evidence of
pulley misalignment
excessive cable tension
cable misalignment
1274.A universal protractor used to measure degrees of
aileron travel should be zeroed
with the aileron in the neutral position
when the aircraft is in level flight attitude
with the aileron in the down position
1275.A flying control static friction check
will demonstrate that a high force is always
necessary to operate non-powered controls.
can only be carried out during flight
demonstrates the force the pilot requires to
overcome system inertia and move the controls
1276.What is an aileron balance cable for?
To allow the cable to be tensioned
To allow aircraft to fly hands off
To correct for wing heaviness
1277.With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft (nose
up), range of movement of the elevator is restricted
for 'up' travel movement
neither up nor down, as movement of the trim tab
would make no difference to the movement
for 'down' travel movement
1278.On the ground, spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to
30°
60°
15°
1279.A horn balance on a control will
increase degree of movement at high speed
decrease degree of movement at low speed
decrease degree of movement at high speed
1280.In normal flight, if the control column is pulled
back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will
move up
remain in line with the elevator
move down
Answers for Questions 1271 – 1280
1) a ball bearing
Comment/Reference: Ball bearings are used in fibre
pulleys
2) a clearance exists at the secondary stops
Comment/Reference: The clearance is on the secondary
stops
3) pulley misalignment
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 1-45
4) with the aileron in the neutral position
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe
Textbook Page 1-40
5) demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome
system inertia and move the controls
Comment/Reference:
6) To allow the cable to be tensioned
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe
Textbook Page 1-27
7) for 'up' travel movement
Comment/Reference: Use of trim reduces the associated
control movement direction range
8) 60°
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Jeppesen Page 5-6. In the air - 30 degrees and a
further 15 degrees with ailerons.
9) increase degree of movement at high speed
Comment/Reference: For a given pilot effort, the horn
balance increases movement.
10) move down
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1281 – 1290
1281.In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the
left, then the aileron on the right wing will
increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing
decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing
keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant
1282.On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight,
if a column is moved forward, the elevons will
both move up
both move down
remain stationary
1283. To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the
aircraft will be fitted with
integrated fuel monitoring system
symmetrical flight control trim
automatic trim control for controlled turns and
rudder movements
1284.A yaw damper gain could be fitted with
increased sensitivity for increased speed
decreases sensitivity for increased speed
decreases sensitivity for decreased speed
1285.In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the
installation of external ground locks between the
control surface and the balance tabs
would prevent the movement of the control column
would not prevent the movement of the control column
is unnecessary since the system is irreversible
1286.The two switches for pitch trim are located
on the control column with the captain having
priority over the First Officer.
on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch
on the control column acting like an 'OR' switch
1287.If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final
approach, the possible cause may be
flap motor internal leakage
flap tracks out of rigging
bearing seized
1288.In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending
moments are reduced by
operation of the elevator
symmetrical application of ailerons
transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another
1289.Yaw damping rate changes with
altitude
airspeed
flap position
1290.What is the main purpose of a friese aileron?
Decrease drag on the up going wing
Increase drag on the up going wing
Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads
Answers for Questions 1281 – 1290
1) increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing
Comment/Reference: The downgoing aileron (the right
one) has an increase in AoA locally, which makes the
wing lift, thus reducing the AoA of the wing as a
whole. Choose your interpretation.
2) both move down
3) symmetrical flight control trim
Comment/Reference: Probably referring to Load
Alleviation Function. Jeppesen Transport Category
Aircraft Systems Page 5-29.
4) increased sensitivity for increased speed
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett
Page 223
5) would prevent the movement of the control column
Comment/Reference: A+P Technician Airframe Textbook
Page 1-29
6) on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch
Comment/Reference: The 'split' trim switch has one
half closing a relay to 'enable' power to the trim
motor, and to engage the clutch. The other switch half
is to supply the power to the motor. Both must be
operated together, to operate the trim.
7) flap motor internal leakage
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Transport Category
Aircraft Systems Page 5-19 & B737-3/4/500 AMM 27-51-00
pg 109 ‘slow flap operation’
8) symmetrical application of ailerons
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-2
9) airspeed
Comment/Reference: Avionic Fundamentals page 292
10) Decrease drag on the up going wing
Comment/Reference: The Friese aileron increases drag
on the up-going aileron, which is on the down going
wing. And Vise versa on the other aileron
Questions 1291 – 1300
1291.What happens to a hydraulically operated flight
control surface when pressure is removed?
Go to neutral
Remain in last position
Droop
1292.Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are
prevented by
feedback from the servo motor
feedback from control surface
fitting a tachogenerator
1293.Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the
stalling speed by
7%
10.321%
4%
1294.A wing mounted stall warning vane
gives a visual indication of impending stall
moves down at impending stall
moves up at impending stall
1295.During an autopilot controlled turn
ailerons and rudder will move
ailerons, rudder and THS will move
ailerons, rudder and elevators will move
1296.On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack
servomotor is controlled by the
flight augmentation computer
flight management and guidance computer
flight control computer
1297.In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll
spoilers?
Flight management computer
Flight control computer
Flight augmentation computer
1298.Mass balance weights are used to
balance the tabs
counteract flutter on control surfaces
balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces
1299.Active load control involves
varying lift force to control vertical movement of
the aircraft
limiting the deflection of control surface with
airspeed
intervention & monitoring the human pilot
1300.Active load control uses
aileron and spoiler
elevator and aileron
elevator and stab
Answers for Questions 1291 – 1300
1) Droop
Comment/Reference: The drop in pressure releases a
valve which lets the fluid pass easily from one side
of actuator piston to the other. This is to prevent a
hydraulic lock and permit manual reversion. Surfaces
behave like manually controlled surfaces.
2) fitting a tachogenerator
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett 4th
Ed pg 158 (feedback)
3) 7%
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics,
Eismin 5th Edition Page-370
4) Moves up at impending stall
Comment/Reference:
5) Ailerons, rudder and elevators will move
Comment/Reference:
6) Flight control computer
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Page 5-26
7) Flight control computer
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Page 5-26
8) counteract flutter on control surfaces
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 11-22 Appx 27-1 pg
39
9) varying lift force to control vertical movement of the
aircraft
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed
Pallett and Coyle Page 292
10) aileron and spoiler
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
5-29 (Load Alleviation Function)
Questions 1301 – 1310
1301.The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque
setting is to
prevent control surface runaway
protect the servo motor
damp the system oscillation
1302.In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are
deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground
and
weight on ground switch is activated
thrust reversers are deployed
brakes are deployed
1303.In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled
by the
Flight Guidance and Management Computer
electric flight control unit
Flight Augmentation Computers
1304.Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to
prevent adverse yaw in a turn
prevent nose pitching down
prevent nose pitching up
1305.Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by
C of G movement
continued pitch input
pitch of aircraft in cruise
1306.Differential aileron control will
cause a nose up moment
cause a nose down moment
prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input
1307.On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer
trim?
ELAC
ELAC and SEC
SEC
1308.In an automatic flight control system, when may the
yaw damper be applied?
During manual control only
During automatic control only
During either manual or automatic control
1309.Flutter can be prevented by
balance panels
trim tabs
mass balance
1310.In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses
all electrical power
servos move to neutral and lock
servos remain stationary and provide damping
servos lock at last position
Answers for Questions 1301 – 1310
1) prevent control surface runaway
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett
and Coyle
2) thrust reversers are deployed
Comment/Reference: A320 Ground Spoiler Logic diagram
also, www.b737.org.uk/flightcontorls.htm
3) Flight Augmentation Computers
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Page 5-26
4) prevent adverse yaw in a turn
5) continued pitch input
Comment/Reference: If the elevator is deflected over a
long time, the AFCS trims the horizontal stabilizer to
eliminate the elevator deflection load
6) prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input
Comment/Reference:
7) ELAC and SEC
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
5-23
8) During either manual or automatic control
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett
Page 222 - 226
9) mass balance
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 11-22 Appx 27-1 pg
39
10) servos remain stationary and provide damping
Comment/Reference: A319/A320/A321 Flight Crew
Operating Manual
Questions 1311 – 1320
1311.In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate
autopilot need not be engaged
operation of the trim controls is required
autopilot must be engaged
1312.In an autopilot coordinated turn, when the turn angle
is reached
the ailerons are faired
both ailerons are down
one is up one is down
1313.How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?
Reduce flap deployment
Autothrottle applying more power
Fast/Slow indication
1314.A single failure of fly by wire
has no effect on the aircraft's operation
will limit the flight profile
will reduce the operational height and speed
1315.Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent
weather conditions will result in
spoiler moving symmetrically upward
ailerons moving symmetrically upward
ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward
1316.Autotrim will switch to 'slow' when
landing gear up and locked
flaps are retracted
flaps are extended
1317.How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in
normal manual operation?
Pitch Trim
Electric Trim
Mach/Speed Trim
1318.Spoiler position feedback is provided by a
a microswitch
an R.V.D.T.
a S.C.M.
1319.Rudder 'Q' limiting
increases feel as airspeed increases
restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed
increases rudder movement with increase in airspeed
1320.Elevons combine the functions of both
elevator and aileron
rudder and elevator
rudder and aileron
Answers for Questions 1311 – 1320
1) autopilot need not be engaged
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett
Page 213 - 218
2) the ailerons are faired
Comment/Reference: Due to the aircraft's neutral
lateral stability, the ailerons are neutralised
(faired) and the aircraft will hold the turn
3) Autothrottle applying more power
Comment/Reference:
4) has no effect on the aircraft's operation
Comment/Reference:
5) ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward
Comment/Reference: However, Automatic Flight Control
4th ed Pallett pg 292 under Gust Load Alleviation it
says just ailerons (the answer came from the original)
6) flaps are retracted
Comment/Reference:
7) Mach/Speed Trim
Comment/Reference:
8) an R.V.D.T.
Comment/Reference:
9) restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed
Pallett pg 33 (control gearing)
10) elevator and aileron
Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-16
Fig 1-36 & AC65-15A pg 18 5th para lh side
Questions 1321 – 1330
1321.A differential aileron system is designed to
prevent adverse yaw
minimise flutter
compensate for aileron reversal
1322.An artificial feel system is required
for power assisted control systems
for proportional control systems
for power operated control systems
1323.A tandem P.F.C.U.
has the actuator rams co-axial
has the actuator rams parallel
has two control surfaces under its control
1324.What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?
Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn
To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and
turn
To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw
and turn
1325.Active load control uses
elevator and stab
ailerons and spoilers
elevator and ailerons
1326.An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered
flying control system to
prevent overloading of the power control units
increasing the sensitivity of the control system
provide the pilot with simulated stick forces
1327.In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control
system, a requirement of the manual reversion is that
it must be
operated by the standby hydraulic system
possible, but not recommended
automatic and instantaneous
1328.The purpose of control cable regulators is to
maintain preset cable tensions during flight
compensate for low temperature only
compensate for high temperature only
1329.Range of movements of power operated flying control
surfaces are limited by
travel of the jack body
mechanical stops in the control system
travel of the jack ram
1330.The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by
the
ailerons
elevator
rudder
Answers for Questions 1321 – 1330
1) prevent adverse yaw
Comment/Reference:
2) for power operated control systems
Comment/Reference:
3) has the actuator rams co-axial
Comment/Reference:
www.tpub.com/content/engine/14105/css/14105_157.htm
4) To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and
turn
Comment/Reference:
5) ailerons and spoilers
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th ed pg
292. gust alleviation says spoilers only.
6) provide the pilot with simulated stick forces
Comment/Reference:
7) automatic and instantaneous
Comment/Reference:
8) maintain preset cable tensions during flight
Comment/Reference:
9) mechanical stops in the control system
Comment/Reference:
10) elevator
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 44
Questions 1331 – 1340
1331.The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by
the
rudder
elevator
ailerons
1332.The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated
control is
to provide pressure to operate the control
to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to
the pilot's control in cockpit
to revert the system to manual operation
1333.A stick shaker is a device which
gives a short period of extra lift to assist take
off
vibrates the control column near stalling speed
helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground
1334.The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis
by the
rudder
elevator
ailerons
1335.Ruddervators when moved, will move
either opposite each other or together, depending on
the selection
together only
opposite to each other only
1336.As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft
limit
the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch,
due to the high longitudinal stability
the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be
low due to the low stability
the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be
very high
1337.An anti-balance tab is moved
hydraulically
when the C.G. changes
via a fixed linkage
1338.A servo tab is operated
by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction
to the main control surfaces when moved
directly by the pilot to produce forces which in
turn move the main control surfaces
automatically, and moves in the same direction as
the main control surfaces
1339.When checking full range of control surface movement,
they must be positioned by
moving them by hand directly until against the
primary stops
moving them by hand directly until against the
secondary stops
operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the
system is against the primary stops
1340.The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn
causes it to have more drag than the low wing, this
may be compensated for by
use of the rudder control
increasing the 'nose up' pitch by use of the
elevators
operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once
the correct angle of bank has been reached
Answers for Questions 1331 – 1340
1) Rudder
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 44.
vertical axis = normal axis
2) to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to
the pilot's control in cockpit
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook
page 12-38
3) vibrates the control column near stalling speed
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th ed Eisman pg 370 (Stall Warning)
4) ailerons
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 41
5) either opposite each other or together, depending on
the selection
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 16 & AC65-15A pg 45
6) the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be
very high
Comment/Reference:
7) via a fixed linkage
Comment/Reference:
8) directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn
move the main control surfaces
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 23
9) operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the
system is against the primary stops
Comment/Reference:
10) use of the rudder control
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1341 – 1350
1341.The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered
is called a
Fowler flap
split flap
plain flap
1342.Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an
increase in wing area?
Split flap
Slotted flap
Fowler flap
1343.Which of the following is not a primary flying
control?
Tailplane
Rudder
Elevator
1344.A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control
by moving automatically in the opposite direction to
the control surface is called a
geared balance tab
servo tab
trim tab
1345.What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to
reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe
turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the 'Never
Exceed Limit'?
Lift dumpers
Air brakes
Wheel brakes
1346.When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine
with
ailerons
rudder
elevators
1347.What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft
to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?
Trim tabs
Balance tabs
Spring tabs
1348.With hydraulic ram operated flying controls, when the
pressure is reduced to zero, the flying control
surfaces
stay at neutral
remain in the position they were when power was
removed
droop
1349.Powered flying control actuators
provide feedback to the pilot
transmit pilot input to the control surfaces
are operated by the autopilot only
1350.A stick shaker operates
at the onset of the stall
just before the stall
after the stall
Answers for Questions 1341 – 1350
1) Fowler flap
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 48
2) Fowler flap
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 48
3) Tailplane
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 40
4) geared balance tab
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 46
5) Air brakes
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 22-23
6) ailerons
Comment/Reference:
7) Trim tabs
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A 46
8) droop
Comment/Reference:
9) transmit pilot input to the control surfaces
Comment/Reference:
10) just before the stall
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control Systems Page 168
Questions 1351 – 1360
1351.In a power assisted flight control system, the feel
required is normally supplied by
'Q' feel
stretching springs
air loads on the control surfaces
1352.Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is
provided by
nulling of the servo valve
air loads on the control surface
the jack ram being attached to structure
1353.'Q' feel units use
pitot pressure only
static pressure only
pitot and static pressures
1354.Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed
pitch trim is not affected
roll will not occur
no yaw takes place
1355.Powered flight control systems are used on transport
aircraft
because the pilot has too many tasks to perform
because at low level air density is high
due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft
1356.A differential aileron control system results in
aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a
turn
aileron drag being compensated by small rudder
movements
aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a
turn
1357.Spoiler panels are controlled by
a speed brake lever only
the aileron control wheel only
the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever
1358.A lift transducer is normally fitted
on the elevator control system
to the nose area of the aircraft
on the leading edge of the wing
1359.If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire
spoiler system, the spoiler panels
remain where they are
go to full up
go to down if any are not already down
1360.In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up
transducer is fitted to
the hydraulic actuator
the control system computer
the pilot's input
Answers for Questions 1351 – 1360
1) air loads on the control surfaces
Comment/Reference: AL/3-7 8.1 and 8.2.1 Power
'assisted' controls have aerodynamic feedback. Power
'operated' controls use a Q feel system
2) nulling of the servo valve
Comment/Reference: Nulling the servo valve produces a
hydraulic lock.
3) pitot and static pressures
Comment/Reference: Avionics Fundamentals pg 257 fig
17-31
4) pitch trim is not affected
Comment/Reference:
5) due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft
Comment/Reference:
6) aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn
Comment/Reference:
7) the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever
Comment/Reference:
8) on the leading edge of the wing
Comment/Reference: Lift transducer, also known as a
stall sensor
9) go to down if any are not already down
Comment/Reference:
10) the hydraulic actuator
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1361 – 1370
1361.The down position of the speed brake lever is detented
to
allow the ground speed brakes to be used on
touchdown
lock the speed brakes down during flight
prevent inadvertent operation
1362.Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a
minimum the tendency of
yawing
pitch changes
rolling
1363.High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust
of opposite engine reads
greater than 50%
greater than 90%
greater than 75%
1364.A differential aileron control is one which gives
a larger aileron up travel than down
the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going
one
equal aileron travel in each direction, but variable
for stick movement
1365.When the control column is moved back and the hand-
wheel turned to the left
the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up
the elevators move down and the left aileron moves
down
the elevators move up and the left aileron moves
down
1366.A series type yaw damper
moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch
roll
moves the rudder pedals and the rudder
moves the rudder only
1367.A stick shaker
vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the
airframe
is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor
and mounted on the control column
is a linear actuator attached to the base of the
control column
1368.If the control column is moved forward and to the left
left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator
down
left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down,
elevator up
left aileron moves down, right aileron up, elevator
down
1369.On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral
control, roll to the right is caused by
left spoiler extending, right spoiler remaining
retracted
both spoilers extending
right spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining
retracted
1370.When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved
to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low, an
aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will
move up and cause the left aileron to move down but
the right aileron will remain neutral
move up and cause the left aileron to move down and
the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree
move up and this will cause the left aileron to move
down and the right aileron to move up
Answers for Questions 1361 – 1370
1) prevent inadvertent operation
Comment/Reference:
2) rolling
Comment/Reference:
3) greater than 75%
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 27-32-00 pg 6 para
4.F.(3)
4) a larger aileron up travel than down
Comment/Reference:
5) the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up
Comment/Reference:
6) moves the rudder only
Comment/Reference:
7) is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor
and mounted on the control column
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 page 22 para 13.3.2 and
Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 211
8) left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator
down
Comment/Reference:
9) right spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining
retracted
Comment/Reference:
10) move up and this will cause the left aileron to move
down and the right aileron to move up
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1371 – 1380
1371.You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for
nose heavy. What was the direction of travel of the
trim tab?
The elevator trim tab has moved up
The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard
moved down
The elevator trim tab has moved down
1372.Pulleys in a flight control system are made from
stainless steel
brass
Tufnol or aluminium alloy
1373.A tension regulator in the flight control cable system
of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to
decrease cable tension in cold weather
retain a set tension
increase cable tension in cold weather
1374.An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control
locking mechanism
locks the ailerons and elevators
restricts movement of the throttles
dampens the rudder movement
1375.The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to
control in response to the aircraft's
roll frequency
dutch roll frequency
pitch Frequency
1376.The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when
the aircraft is close to stall
flap position
throttle lever
fast/slow switch
1377.Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the
aircraft tends to go nose down
aircraft tends to roll to the right
aircraft tends to go nose up
1378.Ground spoilers are used to
increase wing loading on take-off
prevent FOD ingestion into the engines on landing
and taxiing
decrease wing loading on landing
1379.The outboard ailerons on some aircraft
are isolated at slow speeds
are isolated to improve sensitivity
are isolated to prevent aileron reversal
1380.The effect of the rudder on an aircraft can be
increased by
increasing the altitude of the aircraft
increasing the distance of the control surfaces from
the aircraft's centre of gravity
decreasing the velocity of the aircraft
Answers for Questions 1371 – 1380
1) The elevator trim tab has moved down
Comment/Reference:
2) Tufnol or aluminium alloy
Comment/Reference:
3) retain a set tension
Comment/Reference:
4) restricts movement of the throttles
Comment/Reference:
5) Dutch roll frequency
Comment/Reference:
6) throttle lever
Comment/Reference:
7) aircraft tends to go nose up
Comment/Reference:
8) decrease wing loading on landing
Comment/Reference:
9) are isolated to prevent aileron reversal
Comment/Reference:
10) increasing the distance of the control surfaces from
the aircraft's centre of gravity
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1381 – 1390
1381.A fuel crossfeed valve is normally powered by
DC
Battery
AC
1382.A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in
the open position
the closed position
its last position
1383.Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on
air or vapour systems
low pressure systems
high pressure systems
1384.When carrying out an insulation check on a fuel probe,
what is the Maximum voltage to use
30 V
250 V
500 V
1385.A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated
by the fuel
by internal cooling
by air
1386.Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the
115 V AC
battery
28 V DC bus
1387.Fuel systems that are interconnected must have
air spaces interconnected
separate venting for each tank
no airspace
1388.As fuel level increases, system capacitance
decreases
no change
increases
1389.When refueling
it is important not to fill the expansion space in
the tank
the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the
supply when the tank is full
it is important to fill the expansion space in the
tank
1390.When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment
it is applied dry and left
it is applied wet and flushed out
it is added to the fuel and burnt
Answers for Questions 1381 – 1390
1) DC
Comment/Reference: 737 AMM Chapter 28-22-00 (Download
from the Tutorial Support section)
2) the closed position
Comment/Reference: Fuel crossfeed valves must be
closed for flight
3) air or vapour systems
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-17 5.8.3
4) 250 V
Comment/Reference: The fuel probe excitation is 115V
AC. As a rule of thumb, use an insulation tester 2x
the normal operating voltage.
5) by the fuel
Comment/Reference:
6) 28 V DC bus
Comment/Reference: 737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1, A320 FCOM
28.30 pg1
7) air spaces interconnected
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-17
8) increases
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 486 & The dielectric
constant of kerosene is more than that of air. B757 MM
Chapter 28-41-00
9) it is important not to fill the expansion space in the
tank
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 15-18
10) it is added to the fuel and burnt
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine
Powerplants 7-3
Questions 1391 – 1400
1391.Microbial growth is
brown black slime
green sludge
red dots
1392.Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by
contact adhesive
press type rivets
bolts
1393.A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system
is carried out with
tanks completely full
tanks completely empty
tanks empty apart from unusable fuel
1394.After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test
should be carried out at
tank shut-off valve point
tank outlet
engine inlet
1395.In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes
place
the top of the tank
the bottom 2 inches of the tank
below the fungal colonies
1396.If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight,
provision must be made to
shut off fuel before structural damage
stop engine from using tank during transfer
provide overflow facility to dump fuel
1397.In a fuel system with interconnected vents
the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity
the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity
an expansion space is not required
1398.Fuel tanks interconnected must have
protection against overfill for tanks and fuel
system
vents to allow overfueling
tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine
inlet
1399.When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to
hard reversion
mechanical reversion
soft reversion
1400.Pressure refuelling is carried out at
40 PSI
15 PSI
20 PSI
Answers for Questions 1391 – 1400
1) brown black slime
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 79 & Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 15-38
2) press type rivets
Comment/Reference: AL/3-15 4.1.3 says press studs or
cords
3) tanks empty apart from unusable fuel
Comment/Reference: AL/10-3 11.14.1.e
4) engine inlet
Comment/Reference:
5) below the fungal colonies
Comment/Reference: AL/3-15 para 8.3
6) shut off fuel before structural damage
Comment/Reference: JAR 25.957
7) the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity
Comment/Reference: CS 25.969
8) protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system
Comment/Reference: CS 25.969
9) soft reversion
Comment/Reference: TTS FADEC Booklet Page 13
10) 40 PSI
Comment/Reference: AL/3-17 5.4 says 'up to 50 psi'
Questions 1401 – 1410
1401.Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from
left tank to right tank
any tank to any engine
tank to tank
1402.What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent
vaporisation?
A nozzle
A corona device
An anti-corona device
1403.What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents
gauge as fuel is used?
Decreases
Depends on altitude
Increases
1404.When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long
periods, the fuel tanks should
be full
have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from
deteriorating/drying out
be empty
1405.Integral fuel booster pumps
require ram air cooling
lets the fuel do cooling
require no cooling
1406.The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system
is
to ensure that all available fuel can be used
to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the
tanks efficiently
to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly
dispersed thus reducing microbiological
contamination
1407.In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light
indicates
ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail
the tank does not pressurise
pump failure
1408.How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?
By a fuel boost pump
By suction from the engine driven fuel pump
By a gravity feed pump
1409.A fuel tank suction valve will open when
both the engine driven and booster pump fail
the booster pump fails
the engine driven pump fails
1410.To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank
the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel
possible
the tank should be filled as full as possible
the filler cap should be left open
Answers for Questions 1401 – 1410
1) any tank to any engine
Comment/Reference: B737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1
2) An anti-corona device
Comment/Reference:
3) Decreases
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 486 & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics Eismin Page 353
4) have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from
deteriorating/drying out
Comment/Reference: AL/3-15 9.3
5) lets the fuel do cooling
Comment/Reference:
6) to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly
dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Page 6.17
7) ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail
Comment/Reference:
8) By a fuel boost pump
Comment/Reference:
9) the booster pump fails
Comment/Reference:
10) the tank should be filled as full as possible
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1411 – 1420
1411.At the lowest point of each vent line you would
normally find a
float valve
NACA duct
self draining non-return valve
1412.To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour
build up
a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted
cabin air is bled around the tank
ram air is circulated around the tank
1413.When a fuel jettison valve is in transit, the magnetic
indicator would show
amber and cross line
amber and in line
green and in line
1414.When considering the basic categories of fuel tank
construction, which of the following is most prone to
leaks?
Rigid
Integral
Flexible
1415.On removal of a fuel tank booster pump, fuel is
observed running out of the boost pump canister, this
could be caused by
fuel leaking past the inlet screens
fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed
the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly
seated
1416.Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with
two 28V DC motors
two single phase AC motors
two three-phase AC motors
1417.To replace a water drain valve seal
the seal is not replaceable, the whole drain
assembly must be replaced
the tank must be de-fuelled
the seal of the valve is replaceable without
draining the tanks
1418.A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be
found on
the APU fuel feed
fuel tank vent pipes
fuel jettison system
1419.To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the
purpose of engine removal you would
close the HP fuel lock
pull the fire handle
close the cross bleed valve
1420.A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel
dripping from the tank is classified as a
stain
run
seep
Answers for Questions 1411 – 1420
1) self draining non-return valve
Comment/Reference:
2) ram air is circulated around the tank
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 28-13-00 pg 1
3) amber and cross line
Comment/Reference:
4) Integral
Comment/Reference:
5) the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly
seated
Comment/Reference:
6) two 28V DC motors
Comment/Reference:
7) the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining
the tanks
Comment/Reference:
8) fuel tank vent pipes
Comment/Reference:
9) pull the fire handle
Comment/Reference: After first pulling the firebottle
CBs
10) run
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 97 &
AL/3-15 page 8 para 5.4.1
Questions 1421 – 1430
1421.Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral
tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be
wetted with
Methylated Spirit
Kerosene
Water
1422.A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to
prevent the centre from being defuelled
automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after
a period of time
prevent the dumping of the outer tanks
1423.The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they
are easier to design and construct and use the
maximum volume of fuel
are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier
to maintain
use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum
amount of weight
1424.On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each
engine using
the same system for each engine
a parallel system
a separate system for each engine
1425.A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system
is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of
services is complete and the accumulator charged
with fluid
is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe
fracture
is to prevent creep in jack operated services which
have several selected positions
1426.Hydraulic pressure can be restored by
the use of a pressure/heat exchanger
compressing the air charge in an accumulator
compressing the fluid in a reservoir
1427.An hydraulic accumulator has low air/nitrogen
pressure. What will be the indications?
Zero pressure indicated
The cut-out valve chatters
Full pressure indicated
1428.What type of valve prevents pressure from building up
until a demand is placed in an open-center hydraulic
system?
A selector valve
A bypass valve
An unloading valve
1429.In an open-centre hydraulic system, system pressure is
provided
only when the selector valve is set to ON
only when the selector valve is set to OFF
continuously
1430.In an open-centre hydraulic system, selector valves
are positioned
either in series or in parallel depending on the
system design
in series
in parallel
Answers for Questions 1421 – 1430
1) Water
Comment/Reference:
2) prevent the dumping of the outer tanks
Comment/Reference:
3) use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum
amount of weight
Comment/Reference:
4) a separate system for each engine
Comment/Reference: CS 25.953
5) is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of
services is complete and the accumulator charged with
fluid
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-21 5.2
6) compressing the air charge in an accumulator
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7
7) The cut-out valve chatters
Comment/Reference:
8) A selector valve
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Airframe Textbook Chapter
8 page 15
9) only when the selector valve is set to ON
Comment/Reference: Avotek Aircraft System Maintenance
1-17 & Jeppesen A+P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-15
10) in series
Comment/Reference: Avotek Aircraft System Maintenance
1-17 & Jeppesen A+P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-15
Questions 1431 – 1440
1431.What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?
Green
White
Yellow
1432.A maintainer valve in a hydraulic system will
maintain a high pressure to all systems
allow continued press to essential systems during
times of reduced supply
dampen pressure inputs
1433.Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a
hydraulic pump?
In the case drain
In the pressure line
In the suction line
1434.What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic
leak?
Increase in fluid pressure
Fluid loss
Increase in fluid temperature
1435.What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?
Increase acidity
Increase viscosity
Increase alkalinity
1436.How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid
actuated?
Energised Closed for fail-safe
Energised Open
Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit
selection
1437.How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?
By pressurising
Vent Reservoir to atmosphere
Pass over a tray
1438.Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems
are only ever used in an emergency
provide additional fluid if leaks occur
store fluid under pressure
1439.A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of
natural rubber
butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon
synthetic rubber
1440.Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is
high in
viscosity
acidity
alkalinity
Answers for Questions 1431 1440
1) Green
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 167 & Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-44
2) allow continued press to essential systems during
times of reduced supply
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 8-31 Also known as priority valves CAIPs
AL/3-21 5.3
3) In the case drain
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Transport Category
Aircraft Systems 7-10 and 7-8
4) Increase in fluid temperature
Comment/Reference: Increase in temperature is an
indication of internal leaks
5) Increase acidity
Comment/Reference: Hi acidity is a common problem
revealed after an oil system analysis
6) Energised Closed for fail-safe
Comment/Reference: The depressurising valve (sometimes
called an 'offloading valve') is energised closed, to
fail-safe open
7) By pressurising
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook 8-16
8) store fluid under pressure
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7
9) butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 3.3.1
10) acidity
Comment/Reference: Overheating causes acidity
Questions 1441 – 1450
1441.A normal hydraulic system will
show pressure and source of hydraulics
show fluid temperature and quantity
illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is
ready
1442.A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to
relieve pressure in system when no services are being
used?
ACOV (Automatic Cut Out Valve)
Pressure relief valve
Return line back to pump
1443.The control of hydraulically powered emergency
electrical generator frequency is by
angle of swashplate
restriction valve
IDG
1444.Hydraulic systems normally operate at
300 PSI
1800 PSI
3000 PSI
1445.When flushing hydraulic systems
flush with any hydraulic oil
flush with methylated spirit
flush with same hydraulic oil
1446.When replenishing a hydraulic system
use the same/correct hydraulic fluid
use any hydraulic fluid
use any hydraulic fluid made by the same
manufacturer
1447.When replacing a flexible pipe
tighten only hand tight
do a bonding check
use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting
1448.How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?
Pass through a restriction
Vent to atmosphere
Pass over a tray
1449.A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is
energised to the run position
used to prevent anything happening until there is
hydraulic pressure
de-energised to start the pump
1450.A constant delivery pump has its output varied with
servo pressure
regulators
gears
Answers for Questions 1441 – 1450
1) show pressure and source of hydraulics
Comment/Reference: Some systems show temperature, but
they are not 'normal'.
2) ACOV
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-21 12.2
3) angle of swashplate
Comment/Reference:
4) 3000 PSI
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Jeppesen Pages 7-5 & 7-7
5) flush with same hydraulic oil
Comment/Reference:
6) use the same/correct hydraulic fluid
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Jeppesen Page 7-2
7) use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-5 para 6.8.1
8) Pass over a tray
Comment/Reference:
9) energised to the run position
Comment/Reference:
10) regulators
Comment/Reference: Constant delivery is constant flow
rate.
Questions 1451 – 1460
1451.A variable angled pump starts at
half way position
minimum stroke
maximum stroke
1452.A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents
reverse flow
overpressure
pump cavitation
1453.A duplex seal consist of
a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber
square section inner ring
a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two
Teflon rings
a square section rubber ring within a steel washer
1454.When is a hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?
When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure
available
When selected on
When selected off
1455.A fixed volume axial pump contains the following
rotating parts:
Drive Shaft, variable Swash Plate & Cylinder Block
Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate & Valve Block
variable Swash Plate & Valve Block
1456.An hydraulic closed system is one where
pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all
times
most of the major components of the system are
included in a self contained unit
there is no pressure at the selector valves when no
functions are required
1457.What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?
Hydraulic oil accumulator
Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter
Variable swashplate pump
1458.If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be
pump cavitation
rapid fluctuations of instruments
rapid depressurisation of system
1459.A marker number on a pipe indicates
the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe
run
the thickness of the wall on the pipe
the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe
1460.One reason for fitting an accumulator in a hydraulic
system is to
relieve excess pressure
minimize the possibility of pump cavitation
absorb pressure surges
Answers for Questions 1451 – 1460
1) maximum stroke
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23
2) reverse flow
Comment/Reference:
3) a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber
square section inner ring
Comment/Reference:
4) When selected off
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 4.2
5) Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate & Valve Block
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 Figure 2
6) pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all
times
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 12.1 - 12.3
7) Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter
Comment/Reference: Jeppeson A & P Technician Airframe
P8-15
8) rapid fluctuations of instruments
Comment/Reference:
9) the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run
Comment/Reference:
10) absorb pressure surges
Comment/Reference: AC65-15Apg 324
Questions 1461 – 1470
1461.A thermal relief valve is fitted to a hydraulic system
to
prevent a leak back of pressure
prevent excess temperature
relieve excess pressure
1462.A component in a hydraulic system which ensures
instantaneous action when a service is selected is
selector
engine driven pump
accumulator
1463.A shuttle valve is used for
change over from main to auxiliary system in the
case of failure
maintaining fluid press when the emergency system
fails
preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack
1464.Restrictor valves in a hydraulic system are used to
limit the maximum pressure
restrict the rate of pressure build up
control the rate of system operation
1465.The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to
ensure the operation of
brake anti-skid units
landing gear and doors
safety switches
1466.The purpose of a non-return valve is to
restrict the movement of components
isolate one component from another
direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator
1467.The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to
allow a full flow from the valve
facilitate bleeding of the system
prevent incorrect installation
1468.A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial air
pressure of 1000 PSI . When the hydraulic system
pressure of 3000 PSI is reached, the air pressure is
3000 PSI
1000 PSI
4000 PSI
1469.Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by
moisture in the fluid
low accumulator pressure
relief valve set too high
1470.Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting
because of the
piston ram displacement
relief valve
two NRVS fitted
Answers for Questions 1461 – 1470
1) relieve excess pressure
Comment/Reference: Thermal relief valves relieve the
pressure build-up due to excessive temperature
2) accumulator
Comment/Reference:
3) change over from main to auxiliary system in the case
of failure
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 6.4
4) control the rate of system operation
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 6.2
5) landing gear and doors
Comment/Reference:
6) direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 Page 10
7) prevent incorrect installation
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 Page 10
8) 3000 PSI
Comment/Reference:
9) low accumulator pressure
Comment/Reference:
10) two NRVS fitted
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 318
CAIPs AL/3-21 Page 6
Questions 1471 – 1480
1471.During a leak test of a hydraulic system, system
pressure
must be at maximum
is not important
must be minimum working
1472.Constant delivery hydraulic pumps
are self idling
require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator
in the system
require an automatic cut-out valve in the system
1473.Mechanical sequence valves are operated by
the operation of a NRV
the pilot
a striker pin
1474.Pressure relay valves are fitted
before a pressure sequence valve
before a pressure relief valve
before a pressure gauge
1475.Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic
accumulator
the reservoir must be checked for correct level
all air must be bled from the system
the fluid pressure must be released
1476.Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to
maintain a constant fluid level
minimize the possibility of pump cavitation
provide a reserve of stored energy
1477.In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to
use
any hydraulic fluid available
only the specified fluid
any fluid of the same specific gravity
1478.The essential components of a hydraulic system of the
constant delivery type are an
accumulator and relay valve
accumulator and automatic cut-out valve
accumulator and shuttle valve
1479.An automatic cut-out valve will
limit pump wear
raise fluid boiling point
prevent the hydraulic lock forming
1480.A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system
to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in
the event of system failure
to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator
relieve excessive pressure to return
Answers for Questions 1471 – 1480
1) must be at maximum
Comment/Reference:
2) require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in
the system
Comment/Reference:
3) a striker pin
Comment/Reference:
4) before a pressure gauge
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 13.3.2
5) the fluid pressure must be released
Comment/Reference:
6) minimize the possibility of pump cavitation
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 15 Page 7
7) only the specified fluid
Comment/Reference:
8) accumulator and automatic cut-out valve
Comment/Reference:
9) prevent the hydraulic lock forming
Comment/Reference:
10) to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in
the event of system failure
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1481 – 1490
1481.A thermal relief valve
senses fluid temperature change
provides cooling for the fluid
senses fluid pressure
1482.Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with
the same type of fluid as used in the system
methylated spirits
any clean hydraulic fluid
1483.Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of
seals?
Synthetic Rubber
Natural Rubber
Butyl Rubber
1484.A RAT hydraulic pump is for
flying controls if hydraulic power lost
landing gear and auto-brake systems
nose wheel steering
1485.Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from
a stack pipe higher than the normal level
the bottom of the reservoir
a tap into a convenient return line
1486.Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally
double acting
single acting
low pressure
1487.To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components
requiring different pressures
a pressure reducing valve is used
a pressure relief valve is used
a pressure regulating valve is used
1488.The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to
area x volume
area x pressure
pressure x stroke
1489.A tandem PFCU
has the actuator rams co-axial
has the rams parallel
has two control surfaces under its control
1490.The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose
during installation, is a flexible hose under pressure
contracts in length and diameter
expands in length and diameter
contracts in length and expands in diameter
Answers for Questions 1481 – 1490
1) senses fluid pressure
Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-
14
2) the same type of fluid as used in the system
Comment/Reference:
3) Butyl Rubber
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 3.3
4) flying controls if hydraulic power lost
Comment/Reference:
5) the bottom of the reservoir
Comment/Reference: AL3-21 8.1
6) double acting
Comment/Reference: Jeppeson A & P technician Airframe
P8-23.
7) a pressure reducing valve is used
Comment/Reference:
8) area x pressure
Comment/Reference:)
9) has the actuator rams co-axial
Comment/Reference:
www.tpub.com/content/engine/14105/css/14105_157.htm
10) contracts in length and expands in diameter
Comment/Reference: A&P Mechanics General Handbook page
115 & CAP 562 Leaflet 5-5 para 6
Questions 1491 – 1500
1491.An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic
system with
a fixed volume pump
a variable volume pump
pressures above 3000 PSI
1492.A pressure operated ice detector would
be completely covered in ice before causing an alarm
to sound on the flight deck
have a build up of ice that causes a torque switch
to illuminate a flight deck annunciator
have a build up of ice on the leading edge that
causes a warning light to illuminate on the flight
deck
1493.Ice formed on the object or surface will change its
shape, this changes is more detrimental and vulnerable
to a
large object
small object
fast moving object
1494.In which ice detection method, the activation of
warning system is through accumulation of ice on a
probe projected into the airstream?
Impingement method
Inferential method
Ice accretion method
1495.The inflatable tube of the de-icer boots is made of
synthetic rubber
rubberised fabric
natural rubber
1496.When testing windshield wipers, you should
operate them on a dry windshield
lift the wipers away from the windshield
use a continuous flow of water on the windshield
1497.What is the correct way of measuring the windshield
wiper force prior to adjustment?
By measuring the maximum total angle of sweep
With a torque screwdriver and light thumb pressure
With a spring tension scale
1498.How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?
By a motor load test
Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement
Screwdriver torque test
1499.Windshield heating provides
increases strength to resist cabin pressure
impact resistance enhancement
thermal expansion for a tighter fit
1500.At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid
applied?
70°F at 10 PSI
7°F at 100 PSI
70°C at 100 PSI
Answers for Questions 1491 – 1500
1) a fixed volume pump
Comment/Reference:
2) have a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes
a warning light to illuminate on the flight deck
Comment/Reference:
3) small object
Comment/Reference: AL/11-6 page 1
4) Ice accretion method
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/11-6 page 1
5) rubberised fabric
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 287 & AL/11-1 page 4
6) use a continuous flow of water on the windshield
Comment/Reference:
7) With a spring tension scale
Comment/Reference: B737 AMM 30-42-11
8) Screwdriver torque test
Comment/Reference: 'Retard rotation [of the detector]
with slight thumb pressure using a torque
screwdriver.' Ref: CAIPs AL/11-6
9) impact resistance enhancement
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 13-6 (last paragraph)
10) 70°C at 100 PSI
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/11-3 5.2.2
Questions 1501 – 1510
1501.The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is
more efficient
aerodynamic shape is not disturbed
less of a fire hazard
1502.On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper
system is
one system for both sides but with the same power
source
independent on each side but with the same power
source
independent on each side with different power
sources
1503.Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you
must
remove all paint
shave rivet to prevent further abrasion
paint the surface
1504.On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it is switched on
when selected by the crew
when in the air
all the time
1505.Ice formation on wings is due to
suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the
wing and instantly re-freezing
ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing
supercooled water changing state on contact with the
wing
1506.When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the
warning lamp on the flight deck
goes out after one more cycle
goes out immediately
goes out after a set period of time
1507.De-misting of passenger windows is provided by
sealed window
air from the cabin
an electrical heating element
1508.A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge
to
provide more efficient deicer cycles
prevent electrical static build up
provide smoother airflow over leading edge
1509.In a cockpit window heater system, the autotransformer
supplies AC Power for heating
supplies DC power for heating
steps up output for severe weather conditions
1510.Windshield rain repellent is applied
when rain is on windows and spread by wipers
when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured
before rain and spread on window surface by wipers
Answers for Questions 1501 – 1510
1) aerodynamic shape is not disturbed
Comment/Reference: The advantage of leading edge fluid
de-icing is aerodynamic shape is not disturbed
2) independent on each side with different power sources
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems,
Pallett, Page 178
3) remove all paint
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/11-1 4.2.2
4) when selected by the crew
Comment/Reference: AL/11-6 3.2.1
5) supercooled water changing state on contact with the
wing
Comment/Reference: AL/11-6 2
6) goes out after a set period of time
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/11-6 3.4.1
7) air from the cabin
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 1
8) prevent electrical static build up
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/11-1 3.4 (unless they mean
'bonded' as in cemented. In which case the answer is
b)
9) steps up output for severe weather conditions
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
Page 62/63 (Note: a transformer cannot 'supply' power)
10) when rain is on windows and spread by wipers
Comment/Reference: www.b737.org.uk/iceandrain.htm
Jeppesen, A&P Airframe Textbook Page 13-1
Questions 1511 – 1520
1511.Pneumatic rain removal systems
use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers
use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove
water droplets from windscreen
are not permitted on large transport aircraft
1512.Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at
the shaft end
centre point of the blade
blade attachment end
1513.Windscreen autotransformers
are used to supply extra current under difficult
conditions
step up voltage
step down voltage
1514.An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the
airframe before freezing, and which is dense, tough
and sticks closely to the surface is called
hoar Frost
glaze Ice
rime Ice
1515.When testing pitot head heaters
they can only be checked by noting the temperature
rise of the probe
they must only be switched on for the minimum time
required to check serviceability
they should be switched on for five minutes to allow
to stabilise before taking ammeter readings
1516.A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of
ice by
decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the
rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in
the cockpit
ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary
knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the
cockpit
increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the
rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in
the cockpit
1517.Windscreen heating is supplied from
frequency wild generator, via a rectifier
DC generator, via a transformer
frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen
1518.A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated
permanently in flight deck without selection being
made. The most probable cause would be
normal
a short circuit
an open circuit
1519.Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from
a combustion heater
engine compressors
air conditioning ducting
1520.The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice
system
stainless steel
nylon
Monel
Answers for Questions 1511 – 1520
1) use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water
droplets from windscreen
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 13-18
2) the shaft end
Comment/Reference:
3) step up voltage
Comment/Reference: AL/11-4 4.2.2
4) glaze Ice
Comment/Reference: www.tpub.com/weather2/5-8.htm
FAA AC 20-147 & AC65-15A pg 285
5) they must only be switched on for the minimum time
required to check serviceability
Comment/Reference:
6) increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the
rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the
cockpit
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems,
Pallett, page 174
7) frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems,
Pallett, page173, fig.10-29
8) a short circuit
Comment/Reference:
9) engine compressors
Comment/Reference:
10) nylon
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1521 – 1530
1521.When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground, make
sure to
place soft cloth between blade and window
use slow wiper only
use water as lubricant when operating
1522.What is run-back ice?
Glime ice
Rime ice
Glaze ice
1523.Spongy brakes are usually a result of
air in the system
internal leakage
external leakage
1524.Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the
wheel hub
wheel flange
brake drum
1525.A tyre valve cap is used to
prevent a leak
secure the valve by screwing up to the shoulder of
the wheel
secure the valve by screwing up to the valve base
1526.How is a wheel and tyre assembly stored?
Three quarters of full pressure
Inflated to 20-30 PSI
With full pressure
1527.The operational hydraulic pressure for the nose wheel
steering system of large aircraft normally comes from
the landing gear down line
an independent hydraulic system
the landing gear up line
1528.When removing the wheel with a multiple disks brake,
the wheel brake should be
set OFF (released)
disconnected first
set ON (applied)
1529.Twin contact tread tyres are fitted to the nose wheel
to assist in
deflecting water away from rear mounted engines
preventing aquaplaning
preventing nose wheel shimmy
1530.A brake debooster valve is provided for
decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the
brakes
increasing the pressure and applying the brakes
rapidly
applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the
brakes quickly
Answers for Questions 1521 – 1530
1) use water as lubricant when operating
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 6-8 para 5.1.2
2) Glaze ice
Comment/Reference: FAA AC20-147
3) air in the system
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs 5-8 Jeppesen A&P Technician
Airframe Textbook Page 9-31
4) wheel flange
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 1-32
5) prevent a leak
Comment/Reference:
6) Inflated to 20-30 PSI
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 para 15.4
7) the landing gear down line
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 32-51-00 Figure 2
(Sheet 1) pg 4 & pg 11 para 6.A. & AL/3-6 page 15
8) set ON (applied)
Comment/Reference: AL/3-19 para 3.2
9) preventing nose wheel shimmy
Comment/Reference: AL/3-18 page 3
10) applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the
brakes quickly
Comment/Reference:
www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14018/css/14018_474.htm
Questions 1531 – 1540
1531.Anti-skid systems become deactivated at
15-20 mph
10-15 mph
5-10 mph
1532.The landing gear is in the down and locked position
but the red light is still on. The most probable fault
is
the landing gear up microswitch needs adjusting
there is a short circuit in the microswitch
the landing gear down microswitch needs adjusting
1533.Tubeless tyres are stored
vertically
horizontally maximum of four high with smallest
diameter tyre on top
at 15 to 20 P.S.I.
1534.On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is when the
bottom of the wheels are closer together
front of the wheels are closer together
top of the wheels are closer together
1535.A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will
produce a loss of fluid
be serviceable, and provide better grip
wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced
1536.How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?
15% by volume
5% by pressure
5% by volume
1537.A tyre specification 32 x 10.75 - 14. What does the
10.75 refer to?
Section Width
Bead diameter
Overall diameter
1538.When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air
valve when the leg is depressurised?
The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed
Separator plate stuck open
Leaking air/oil seals
1539.The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon
type of fluid most readily available
the type of seal material
heat generated in operation of the system
1540.A restrictor valve
restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage
may be used to slow down undercarriage extension
speed up the flow in one direction
Answers for Questions 1531 – 1540
1) 15-20 mph
Comment/Reference: Avotek Aircraft System Maintenance
3-69
2) the landing gear down microswitch needs adjusting
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems,
Pallett Page 176 & B737 AMM 32-45-00 Page 9 and Figure
6
3) vertically
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 9-47 & CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 para 15.2.1
4) bottom of the wheels are closer together
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 9-13
5) wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced
Comment/Reference: Badly corroded brakes should be
replaced
6) 5% by volume
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 16 para 3.1 &
CS 25.733
7) Section Width
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 para 3.2
8) The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-6
9) heat generated in operation of the system
Comment/Reference: The type of fluid in an oleo strut
will depend upon heat generated in operation of the
system
10) may be used to slow down undercarriage extension
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-6 Page 7&8
Questions 1541 – 1550
1541.The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to
damp the rebound
absorb the landing shock
ensure the separator does not bottom
1542.The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber
is to
permit free flow of oil during compression and
restriction of oil during extension
separate the oil from the air
restrict the compression of the air
1543.Made up wheels should be stored
horizontal no more than 4 high
vertical at 20/30 PSI charge
vertical at working pressure
1544.After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is
illuminated in the flight deck. The possible causes
are
shorted sensor
wiring problem
out of adjustment sensor
1545.When checking for alignment of a MLG, check
symmetry, twist, tracking
symmetry, tracking, camber
symmetry, splay, tracking
1546.These markings are found on a tyre
32 x 10.45 R 14.
What does the number 32 mean?
Inner diameter
Outer diameter
Width
1547.A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing
represents
military reference
breather points
the light part of the tyre
1548.In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is
secured by
a lock ring
bolts
a retainer plate
1549.Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are
for overpressure protection
to deflate the tyre before removal
for over temperature protection
1550.A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is
to provide a wear indication
to indicate the position for tyre levers
to provide strength
Answers for Questions 1541 – 1550
1) damp the rebound
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe
Textbook Page 9-5
2) permit free flow of oil during compression and
restriction of oil during extension
Comment/Reference:
3) vertical at 20/30 PSI charge
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 para’s 15.2.1 &
15.4
4) out of adjustment sensor
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
Page 176
5) symmetry, tracking, camber
Comment/Reference: A+P Technician Airframe Textbook
Page 9-13
6) Outer diameter
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 para 3.2
7) breather points
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-18 3.6, CAAIPs Leaflet
5-7 2.4
8) a lock ring
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 para 4.8.1 &
AC65-15A pg 375
9) for overtemperature protection
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 32-45-00 para
2.B.(6) pg 2 & AL/3-19 3.1.2 Fuse plugs protect the
tyre from explosion due to overpressure, albeit the
overpressure as a result of temperature rise
10) to provide strength
Comment/Reference:
www.dunlopaircrafttyres.com/tyrecare/dm1172/dm1172.pdf
Questions 1551 – 1560
1551.If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging,
this is
normal
caused by a leaky seal
due to excessive charging pressure
1552.A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means
the light part of the tyre
military reference
breather points
1553.On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins
to retract again. The cause is
a faulty actuator
a faulty selector valve
gear lowered at too high an airspeed
1554.When fitting a tyre, the red dot should be positioned
on the other side of the wheel opposite to the
charging valve
adjacent to the charging valve
opposite the charging valve
1555.Composite brake units
weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away
at high temperatures
have less weight than normal brake units but fade
away at high temperatures
have less weight than normal brake units and have
increased efficiency at high temperatures
1556.A restrictor valve can be used
to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension
to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction
to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension
1557.When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep
back up. The fault could be
a leaky selector valve
a stuck relief valve
the emergency system
1558.Vents holes are found on
tubeless tyres
tubed tyres
tubed and tubeless tyres
1559.At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?
250°C
150°C
200°C
1560.The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is
to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage
retraction
part of the shimmy damper
for alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose
undercarriage extension
Answers for Questions 1551 – 1560
1) caused by a leaky seal
Comment/Reference: AL/3-6 3.3.3 iii
2) the light part of the tyre
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-18 3.6, CAAIPs Leaflet
5-7 3.7
3) a faulty selector valve
Comment/Reference:
4) adjacent to the charging valve
Comment/Reference:
www.dunlopaircrfttyres.com/tyrecare/dm1172/dm1172.pdf
Dunlop Aircraft Tyres General Servicing Instructions
Para 3.2.1.10
5) have less weight than normal brake units and have
increased efficiency at high temperatures
Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
Page 9-20 'Carbon Brakes'
6) to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-6 4.2
7) a leaky selector valve
Comment/Reference:
8) tubed and tubeless tyres
Comment/Reference: AL/3-18 2.4. A&P Technician
Airframe Textbook Page 9-42 says both tubed and
tubeless. & Dunlop General Servicing Instructions
9) 200°C
Comment/Reference: Boeing 757 Carbon Brake wheel,
Description and Operation 32-42-82 Part AHA1648 -
Yellow Plug Temperature 390°F
10) to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage
retraction
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1561 – 1570
1561.What is tyre creep related to?
Tyre moving around the wheel
Horizontal movement of the tyre
Vertical movement of the tyre
1562.'Aquaplaning' can be reduced by
an anti-skid device
lowering slats
increased flaring
1563.Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel
steering system?
To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up
selection
To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection
To reduce vibration and shimmy
1564.What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage
leg?
The material of the leg
Neither, any oil can be used
The types of seals the leg uses
1565.In an anti-skid system
brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking
brakes release on rising torque
brakes release on falling torque
1566.If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection,
the likely cause is
oil level too high
air pressure too high
loss of pressure/leakage
1567.A Maxaret is used in what system?
Self centring landing gear
Tyre inflation
Skid control
1568.The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight
deck as the aircraft is descending to land. The most
likely reason for this warning is
the airspeed is too high
the landing gear is not locked down
the rate of descent is too high
1569.A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction
and lowering system is positioned in the
landing gear down line
return line from the landing gear selector
landing gear up line
1570.Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake
systems
to ensure the aircraft is still rolling
to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give
a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment
to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft
has nearly stopped
Answers for Questions 1561 – 1570
1) Tyre moving around the wheel
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 Para 9
2) an anti-skid device
Comment/Reference:
3) To reduce vibration and shimmy
Comment/Reference:
4) The types of seals the leg uses
Comment/Reference:
5) brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 10-37
6) air pressure too high
Comment/Reference:
7) Skid control
Comment/Reference:
8) the landing gear is not locked down
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician
Textbook page 10-12
9) landing gear up line
Comment/Reference: The restrictor is placed in the
retraction line to slow the rate of exit of fluid from
the jack on extension, to slow the rate of extension.
CAIPs AL/3-6 fig 4 shows them in the down line - this
is a well known error in CAIPs
10) to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a
slight time lapse before spoiler deployment
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1571 – 1580
1571.A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents
tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by
excessive braking
over inflation of tyres during servicing
brakes seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld
together under excessive temperatures
1572.If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position
normal braking will not be available
neither system will be available
emergency braking will not be available
1573.The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted
between the bead and the casing piles
between the tread rubber and the casing piles
between the apex strip and the casing piles
1574.Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by
a separate pilot operated control
the control column
rudder pedals
1575.The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel
will
eliminate the need to check air pressure
facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly
melt at a specified elevated temperature
1576.Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft
tyre is an indication of
excessive toe-in
under-inflation
over-inflation
1577.Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to
the base of the tie bar
the top of the tie bar
1 mm from the rib base
1578.On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used
to
prevent skidding
absorb increased landing shock
spread the weight over a large area
1579.To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for
retraction and landing, a
castoring damper is used
snubber is used
hop damper is used
1580.On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are
normally inflated with
nitrogen
nitrogen and not more than 5% of air
an argon and CO2 mixture
Answers for Questions 1571 – 1580
1) tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by
excessive braking
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 5-8 para 3.1.3 and
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 9-6
2) emergency braking will not be available
Comment/Reference:
3) between the tread rubber and the casing piles
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 378 fig 9-49 &
CAAIP Leaflet 5-7 fig 1
4) a separate pilot operated control
Comment/Reference:
5) melt at a specified elevated temperature
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-8 para 3.1.3
6) under-inflation
Comment/Reference:
7) the top of the tie bar
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 para 10.4.5 b)
8) spread the weight over a large area
Comment/Reference:
9) hop damper is used
Comment/Reference:
10) nitrogen and not more than 5% of air
Comment/Reference: CS 25.733 (e)
Questions 1581 – 1590
1581.Brake deboosters
assist the operation of the anti-skid unit
increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes
reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes
1582.A modulator is fitted in conjunction with
anti-skid units
non-return valve
brake control valves
1583.In the case of pressurized aircraft, the nose-wheel
bay
is subject to cabin pressure
is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but
less than cabin pressure
is not pressurized
1584.An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly
onto the shock absorber is of which type
Articulated
Direct Acting
Hydro Mechanical
1585.The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is
8.6 times the tyre pressure in bar
8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in
psi
9.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in
psi
1586.Tubed tyres are stored
horizontally, up to 4 in total staggering them to
prevent distortion of beads
horizontally, up to 4 in total with the smallest at
the top
horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack with
supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2
points
1587.On a main landing gear, what is positive camber?
Top of wheels closer to fuselage
Front of wheels closer to fuselage
Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage
1588.When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit
indicator shows
no indication
red light
green light
1589.When checking the alignment of a main landing gear,
check
symmetry, tracking, twist
symmetry, tracking, camber
symmetry, tracking, splay
1590.Tyre creep could be caused by
overpressure
excessive wear
under pressure
Answers for Questions 1581 – 1590
1) reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes
Comment/Reference:
www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14018/css/14018_474.htm
2) anti-skid units
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 6.6
3) is not pressurized
Comment/Reference:
4) Direct Acting
Comment/Reference:
5) 8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi
Comment/Reference:
6) horizontally, up to 4 in total with the smallest at
the top
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 15.2.1 and
15.2.2
7) Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage
Comment/Reference:
8) no indication
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician
Textbook page 10-12
9) symmetry, tracking, camber
Comment/Reference:
10) under pressure
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1591 – 1600
1591.When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve
stem
wait for ice to melt before carrying on with
inflation
heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch
carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no
problem
1592.A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by
fitting tyres which have
a plain tread
twin contact
water dispersing treads
1593.Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored
in the manufactures boxes
horizontally
vertically
1594.With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the
torque links will
allow the wheel to shimmy
assist the wheel to castor
keep the wheel in track
1595.When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red spot on the tyre
should be in line with
opposite side to the valve assembly
maker's serial number
the valve assembly
1596.A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate
light spot
heavy spot
balance indicator
1597.On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters, brake
wear is checked by
application of the brakes and checking indicator pin
protrusion
using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between
the cylinder and the thrust plate
measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with
the brakes released
1598.With aircraft lights - which of the following is true?
Starboard light red, port light green, tail light
White
Starboard light red, port light green, tail light
Red
Starboard light green, port light red, tail light
white
1599.Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then
the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight
conditions only
the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base
the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired
1600.A white navigation light, as viewed in the horizontal
plane, will be at least
20 candela
240 candela
50 candela
Answers for Questions 1591 – 1600
1) wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation
Comment/Reference:
2) water dispersing treads
Comment/Reference:
3) vertically
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 para 15.2.1
4) keep the wheel in track
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician
textbook page 9-12
5) the valve assembly
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 386 & Jeppesen A & P
Airframe Technician Textbook page 9-49 &
www.dunlopaircrafttyres.com/tyrecare/dm1172/DM1172.pdf
6) heavy spot
Comment/Reference:
www.dunlopaircrafttyres.com/tyrecare/dm1172/dm1172.pdf
Installation and removal of tyres para 2. B.
7) application of the brakes and checking indicator pin
protrusion
Comment/Reference: Dunlop component maintenance manual
Ch. 32-42-98
8) Starboard light green, port light red, tail light
white
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 459-460 & Pallett
Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Pg 145
9) the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base
Comment/Reference: Can fly without passengers in
accordance with the MEL. CAP 562 Leaflet 5-11 para 3.3
10) 20 candela
Comment/Reference: CS 25.1391 Table
Questions 1601 – 1610
1601.A fluorescent tube contains
phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
iodine coatings and rare gases
1602.A white steady light is required
of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft
110 degrees either side of dead astern
of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft
110 degrees either side of dead astern
of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft
70 degrees either side of dead astern
1603.How many floor path lights can you fly with
unserviceable?
15%
25%
20%
1604.What is the arc of a landing light?
This is not covered in European legilsation
20°
15°
1605.The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is
11°
110°
140°
1606.Wing navigation lights must be visible through which
angle?
125°
110°
180°
1607.Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the
battery bus and ground services bus
battery bus
ground services bus
1608.Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured
red
white
green
1609.Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by
AC handling bus
DC handling bus
the battery bus
1610.What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is
switched to the on position?
Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate
All lights will illuminate
Dome lights will illuminate
Answers for Questions 1601 – 1610
1) phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
Comment/Reference:
2) of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70
degrees either side of dead astern
Comment/Reference: CS 25.1391 & CAP 393 Rules of the
Air Rule 11 (2) (a) (iii)
3) 25%
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-11 para 2.11
25 Percent rule
4) This is not covered in the current European
legislation
Comment/Reference: CS 25.1383
5) 140°
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 146, & CS 25.1387
6) 110°
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
Page 146 & CS 25.1387 para (b)(c)
7) battery bus and ground services bus
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics,
Eismin 5th Ed page 256
8) red
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Jeppesen Page 7-2 & CS 25.1401
9) AC handling bus
Comment/Reference: BAe 146 AMM (AC ground service
busbar) although other aircraft (A340, B747) use 28VDC
ground bus
10) Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1611 – 1620
1611.Escape route lighting must not have more than
20% obscured
15% obscured
10% obscured
1612.How many emergency lights are allowed to be
inoperative?
None
25%
10%
1613.The angle of a runway turnoff light is
60°
40°
50°
1614.Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with
28 V AC
115 V AC
28 V DC
1615.How are passenger reading lights normally tested?
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin
attendant panel
Each one is switched on individually at passenger
panel
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger
panel
1616.In what position should the selector switch be for a
standby and emergency lighting system during flight?
Armed
ON
OFF
1617.The emergency lighting system must be designed so that
after any single transverse vertical separation of the
fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of
emergency lighting that fails is
25%
10%
15%
1618.A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of
50 candelas
100 candelas
20 candelas
1619.Service lights include
avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage
compartment lights
baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights,
refuelling lights
refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, logo
lights
1620.If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates,
how is it reset?
The linkage must be repositioned and latched when
the aircraft is on the ground.
It cannot. The unit must be replaced because of the
high stress loads experienced
Select full 'RETRACT'
Answers for Questions 1611 – 1620
1) 20% obscured
Comment/Reference:
2) 25%
Comment/Reference: CS 25.812 (l) (1), & CAP 562
Leaflet 5-11 para 2.11.1
3) 50°
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett
Page 146
4) 115 V AC
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 7-76 (figure 7-115)
5) By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin
attendant panel
Comment/Reference:
6) Armed
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
11-23 & CS 25.812 para (f)(3)
7) 25%
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-11 para 2.11.1
CS 25.812
8) 20 candelas
Comment/Reference: CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air
Para. 49 5 (d) (ii) & CS 25-1401 (f)
9) baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights,
refuelling lights
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-10 3.5
10) Select full 'RETRACT'
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-10 3.3.1
Questions 1621 – 1630
1621.Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head,
a time period must elapse to avoid electrical shock or
burning. That time period is at least
5 minutes
1 minute
2 minutes
1622.The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in
addition, must show through an inclusive angle of
140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum
110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum
110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum
1623.Self-illuminating signs
require a period of daylight, or intense artificial
light to operate
are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas
are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are
not dark adapted
1624.When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM', the
resistor is in
series with the light and the transistor is
conducting
parallel with the light and the transistor is not
conducting
series with the light and the transistor is not
conducting
1625.Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are
switched on
to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's
sight
because lightning has less effect on fluorescent
lamp units
and the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed
1626.Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be
dimmed
individually
together
First Officer's only in emergency mode
1627.In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured
amber
red
green
1628.On a CWS, which has the highest priority?
Hydraulic pump failure
Duct overheat
Fire warning
1629.What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?
Xenon
Freon
Halon
1630.Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement
and each light should be spaced
at 60 inch intervals
at 40 inch intervals
at 70 inch intervals
Answers for Questions 1621 – 1630
1) 2 minutes
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-10 5.5
2) 140° and be 3 candelas minimum
Comment/Reference: CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air
Para 2 a iii and CAIPs EEL/1-10 3.1 c)
3) are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are
not dark adapted
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-10 4.8
4) series with the light and the transistor is conducting
Comment/Reference: The transistor is conducting all
the time the light is switched on. Pallett - Aircraft
Electrical Systems. Page 153
5) to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight
Comment/Reference:
6) together
Comment/Reference: B737 AMM 33-11-00 Page 5
7) amber
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-10 4.4.1
8) Fire warning
Comment/Reference:
9) Xenon
Comment/Reference:
10) at 40 inch intervals
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 para 2.7.1
Questions 1631 – 1640
1631.Tritium Gas is used in a
self illuminating lights
strobe light
landing Light
1632.A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of
glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour
is what?
Helium gas and white
Xenon Gas and blue-white
Neon gas and blue
1633.The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency
lighting system
ground the aircraft
continue with reduced passenger load
ferry flight to main base for rectification
1634.Navigation lights are supplied by the following
circuit:
Individual circuits
Dual circuit
Single circuit
1635.Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate
when landing gear is down
below 10,000ft and descending
unless switched off by the pilot
1636.To purge an unpleasant odour/moisture from an oxygen
system, you must
completely empty and fill the system with air at
least 3 times
completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen
at least 3 times
completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at
least 3 times
1637.When charging an oxygen cylinder, the pressure goes to
zero. Where is the likely fault?
In the temperature compensator
In the pressure gauge
In the mask
1638.Anoxia is due to
lack of oxygen
release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood
low air pressure on the body
1639.The dilutor demand regulator functions
all the time
only when the supply valve is opened by the user
when the user breathes in
1640.To measure moisture in an oxygen system use
litmus paper
a hygrometer using the dew point method
a glass plate
Answers for Questions 1631 – 1640
1) self illuminating lights
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-10 4.8.1
2) Xenon Gas and blue-white
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-10 3.2.3
3) continue with reduced passenger load
Comment/Reference: A club66 user who got this, queried
it with the CAA. He was told (by the CAA assessor)
that this is the answer. However, no reference has
been found.
4) Single circuit
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eismin Page 250
5) unless switched off by the pilot
Comment/Reference: 737 AMM 33-24-00
6) completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at
least 3 times
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 600
7) In the mask
Comment/Reference:
8) lack of oxygen
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 Para 2.1
9) when the user breathes in
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 3.5 &
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-10
10) a hygrometer using the dew point method
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 6.4.1 or
CAIPs AL/3-25 Para 6.4
Questions 1641 – 1650
1641.Oxygen cylinder test dates
are variable depending on discharge
may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder
are painted in white on the cylinder
1642.O2 system pressure has leaked away after charging.
What is the most probable cause?
Supernumerator regular
Temperature compensator
Breathing regulator
1643.If an O2 system is leaking, where would you most likely
find the cause?
Thermal Relief Valve
Loose connection
Breathing mask
1644.As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres
the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must
activate the system from the cockpit
the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew
activates the system from the emergency panel
the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way
extended
1645.Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with
temperature gauge
pressure and quantity gauges
oxygen purity gauge
1646.A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens
all the time
when breathing
when 100% selected
1647.Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with
a demand regulator
an overpressure indicator
an over temperature indicator
1648.American made crew oxygen cylinders are
black in colour with a RH thread
green in colour with a RH thread
green in colour with a LH thread
1649.Which connector has a left hand thread?
O2
N2
Freon
1650.What is the principle of an O2 generator?
Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical
detonator producing O2 when mixed with air
Sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic
detonator
Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic
detonator
Answers for Questions 1641 – 1650
1) are painted in white on the cylinder
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 4.2.3
CAIPs AL/3-25 para 4.2.2.
2) Breathing regulator
Comment/Reference:
3) Breathing mask
Comment/Reference: Breathing masks are the most common
cause of leaks. O2 systems being turned on during pilot
pre flight checks. Refer to any fim/tsm
4) the O2 masks deploy automatically and hang half way
extended
Comment/Reference:
5) pressure and quantity gauges
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 4.9
6) when breathing
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 3.5 &
AC65-15A pg 594 & A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-
9
7) a demand regulator
Comment/Reference:
8) green in colour with a RH thread
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 4.2.3
states green for cylinders for American origin. (l/h
threads are for charging points)
9) O2
Comment/Reference: CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3(e)
10) Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic
detonator
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 3.6.2 &
AC65-15A pg 589
Questions 1651 – 1660
1651.What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised
to?
3000 PSI
300 PSI
1800 PSI
1652.Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should be
turned on and safety wire-locked
turned off
turned on by crew
1653.A thermal compensator is used in
a fuel system
an oxygen system
an hydraulic system
1654.When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen,
the oxygen is
passed into the bottle slowly to keep the
temperature at approximately ambient
passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to
keep the temperature down
passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not
affect temperature
1655.Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen
system?
Charging connection
Shut-off valve
Line valve
1656.Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when
100% is selected
the user breathes in
less than 500 psi is in bottle
1657.A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for
extra supply in case of emergency
additional flightcrew
changes in altitude
1658.If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14,000 ft
passenger must get mask from overhead stowage
attendant must drop masks
masks drop automatically
1659.How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure
Green rupturing disc
Red rupturing disc
Audible warning
1660.The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is
4 years
2 years
10 years
Answers for Questions 1651 – 1660
1) 1800 PSI
Comment/Reference: AL/3-25 4.2, & CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9
3.3.1 and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-8
2) turned on and safety wire-locked
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.6.2 h) &
AC65-15A pg 593
3) an oxygen system
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 4.12 or
CAIPs AL/3-25 4.12
4) passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature
at approximately ambient
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3 f)
& A&P Mechanic Airframe Handbook Page 598
5) Charging connection
Comment/Reference: CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3(e)
6) the user breathes in
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 594 & A&P Technician
Airframe Textbook 14-9
7) additional flightcrew
Comment/Reference:
8) masks drop automatically
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 3.6.2 &
Transport Category Aircraft Systems 8-8
9) Green rupturing disc
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 4.13 or
CAIPs AL/3-25 4.13
10) 4 years
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 14-8 or CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.9 or
CAIPs AL/3-25 5.9. By 'life' they must mean 'time
between overhaul'
Questions 1661 – 1670
1661.A discharged chemical generator is indicated by
a broken tell-tale wire
a change in colour
a protruding pin
1662.A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of
at least
5 minutes
15 minutes
30 minutes
1663.The oxygen line service valve must be
wire locked open
only be wire locked with telltale wire
wire locked closed
1664.Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable
of flying above
4,000 ft
8,000ft
10,000ft
1665.The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is
approximately
4,000 ft
38,000 ft
25,000 ft
1666.If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight
conditions, the cabin altitude must be
at a maximum of 12,000 ft.
below 10,000 ft.
at or below 8,000 ft.
1667.Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes
below 40,000 ft.
above 30,000 ft.
above 40,000 ft.
1668.In a diluter demand oxygen system
each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen
supply
oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow
each member of the crew has a regulator
1669.In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied
only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot
when the mask is plugged into the socket
on passenger inhaling into the mask
1670.In the diluter demand oxygen system, selection of
emergency on this regulator will result in
100% oxygen at positive pressure
100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure
100% oxygen supply as the user inhales
Answers for Questions 1661 – 1670
1) a change in colour
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 3.6.4 &
CAIPs AL/3-25
2) 15 minutes
Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
14-8 & CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 is not in the SEP07 version
CS 25.1439 (b)(5)
3) wire locked open
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.6.2 h) &
CAIPs AL/3-25
4) 10,000ft
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.2 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 3.1
5) 25,000 ft
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 pg 2 table 1 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 Table 1
6) at or below 8,000 ft.
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.1 &
CAIPs AL/3-23
7) above 40,000 ft.
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 pg 2 table 1 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 table 1
8) each member of the crew has a regulator
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.5 & fig
3 & CAIPs AL/3-25 fig 3
9) when the mask is plugged into the socket
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.4 &
AC65-15A pg 587
10) 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 4.7(c)
Questions 1670 – 1680
1671.The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of
alloy steel
aluminium
stainless steel
1672.Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to
2,000 p.s.i.
1,800 p.s.i.
1,200 p.s.i.
1673.Rate of flow of oxygen is given in
litres/minute
pounds/minute
litres/pounds
1674.Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested
every 3 years
every 6 years
every 4 years
1675.Oxygen bottle capacity varies between
100 - 3200 litres
80 - 2250 litres
200 - 2250 litres
1676.Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can be found
stamped on a metal label
stamped on the neck ring
stencilled on the bottle
1677.After installation, the oxygen bottle on/off valve is
left in the 'on' position
left in the 'off' position until required
wire locked in the 'on'
1678.Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders
is relieved by under pressurising the bottle
is relieved by a thermostat
is relieved by a bursting disc
1679.To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen cylinder
cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.s.i.
cylinder pressure is left at 100/200 p.s.i.
cylinder pressure is left at 300/400 p.s.i.
1680.What determines the material used for oxygen pipe
lines?
The whims of the aircraft designer
The length of the pipe runs
The pressure used in the system
Answers for Questions 1671 – 1680
1) alloy steel
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 is obsolete
AC65-15A pg 587 & CAIPs AL/3-25 3.6
2) 1,800 p.s.i.
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.7.1 &
AC65-15A pg 587-588 & CAIPs AL/3-25 3.6
3) litres/minute
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.7.2 &
AC65-15A pg 588
4) every 4 years
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.9 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 5.8
5) 80 - 2250 litres
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 4.2.1 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 4.2
6) stamped on the neck ring
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.9 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 4.2.2
7) wire locked in the 'on'
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.6.2(h) &
AC65-15A pg 589
8) is relieved by a bursting disc
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 4.12 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 4.13
9) cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.s.i.
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.6.2 b) &
CAIPs AL/3-25 5.5.1 ii)
10) The pressure used in the system
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 4.3 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 4.3
Questions 1681 – 1690
1681.The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is
indicated
by colour coding
by an arrow
by visual inspection
1682.Oxygen filters are made of
sintered bronze
carbon fibres
steel wool
1683.Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is
indicated by
lack of Anoxia
flow indicators
pressure indicators
1684.If a binding thread needs attention on an oxygen
system
no lubricant may be used whatsoever
Teflon tape may be used
distilled water may be used sparingly
1685.The international marking for a breathing oxygen
pipeline is a series of
diamonds
rectangles
dots
1686.Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are
painted
black with a white collar
white with a black collar
black
1687.A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen
systems is
grease free medical soap
soapy water
leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B
1688.When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen,
the oxygen is
passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to
keep the temperature down
passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not
affect temperature
passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at
approximately ambient
1689.In areas closely associated with oxygen systems,
particular care must be taken to avoid leaving
acrylic based plastic materials
traces of oils or greases
magnesium particles
1690.When working in the vicinity of an oxygen system
no electrical power must be used
oil must not come into contact with the system
the area must be well ventilated
Answers for Questions 1681 – 1690
1) by an arrow
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 4.4 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 Page 8
2) sintered bronze
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 4.5 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 Page 8
3) flow indicators
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 4.11
4) Teflon tape may be used
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.7 &
CAIPs AL/3-25, 5.6
5) rectangles
Comment/Reference:
6) black with a white collar
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 4.2.3 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 4.2.2
7) leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.8.2 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 5.7.1, AL/3-21 3.
8) passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at
approximately ambient
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3 f)
& AC65-15A pg 598 & CAIPs AL/3-25 5.12.2 (vi)
9) traces of oils or greases
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.5.1 f)
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-19 rh
column 2nd para. & AC65-15A pg 598 rh side.
10) oil must not come into contact with the system
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.5.1 f)
Questions 1691 – 1700
1691.A chemical oxygen generator operates at
45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes
45°F at 10 psi for 15 minutes
45°K at 10 psi for 15 minutes
1692.When charging an oxygen bottle in situ
charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure
graph
slacken off the retaining straps first
charge slowly through a water trap
1693.The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle indicates
temperature
purity
pressure
1694.The application of thread lubrication tape in an
oxygen system should be
applied to all except the first two threads and not
more than one complete wrap of tape
applied to all the threads and not more than one
complete wrap of tape
applied to all except the first two threads and not
more than 3 complete wraps of tape.
1695.High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of
titanium
stainless steel
aluminium alloy
1696.Lubricate oxygen connector threads using
WD40
Teflon tape
Hellerene
1697.How is an expended chemical oxygen generator
indicated?
A pressure seal would be broken
The indicator pin would be protruding
By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint
1698.Oxygen purging is a process of
measuring the flow rate from the regulator
pressure testing the system
removing moisture from the system
1699.To check an oxygen system for moisture
a sniff test is used
a hygrometer is used
pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean
glass
1700.When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic
system, it dumps
just the moisture trap
the system between compressor and regulator valve
the whole system
Answers for Questions 1691 – 1700
1) 45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-25 3.5.2
2) charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure
graph
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3f) &
CAIPs AL/3-25 5.12.2 (vi) (a)
3) pressure
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 all through it.
& CAIPs AL/3-25 4.2
4) applied to all except the first two threads and not
more than 3 complete wraps of tape.
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 Para 5.7 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 para 5.6
5) stainless steel
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4.3.1
6) Teflon tape
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.7 &
CAIPs AL 3-25 para 5.6
7) By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.6.4
8) removing moisture from the system
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3 g)
9) a hygrometer is used
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 6.4.1
10) just the moisture trap
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 8-54. CAIPs AL/3-22
Questions 1701 – 1710
1701.The pneumatic system pump is a
piston type
rotor vane type
centrifugal type
1702.In a pneumatic system, the maintainer valve will be
fitted in supply lines to
essential equipment
all equipment
non-essential equipment
1703.High pressure pneumatic source is a
butterfly pump
centrifugal Compressor
reciprocating pump
1704.High pressure pneumatic pump is a
butterfly pump
spur gear
reciprocating pump
1705.If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a
long time it will drain
just the moisture trap
all the system
between the compressor and the PRV
1706.On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug
for oil and water is left open for long periods of
time, the system would
lose all pressure
lose pressure from the compressor side only
lose pneumatic pressure partially
1707.Two compressors driven by separate engines use
PRVs
NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other
Interconnected to share loads
1708.What is important about the air entering a dry air
pump?
It must be filtered
It must be temperature controlled
It must be pressure controlled
1709.What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?
Positive displacement type
Spur gear type
Rotary vane type
1710.Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by
water cooling
thermal protection
cooling fan on timer switch
Answers for Questions 1701 – 1710
1) piston type
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 331 & Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-56, Although
smaller systems may have a vane type.
2) non-essential equipment
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-22. Maintainer valves
work in same way as those in hydraulic systems (hence
the reference). Although they protect the flow to the
essential systems, they do so by being situated in the
non-essential lines, and closing off if the pressure
drops.
3) reciprocating pump
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 331 & CAIPs AL/3-23 4.1
4) reciprocating pump
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 331 & CAIPs AL/3-23 4.1
5) between the compressor and the PRV
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-22 Fig 1
6) lose pressure from the compressor side only
Comment/Reference: AL/3-22 figure 1
7) NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other
Comment/Reference:
8) It must be filtered
Comment/Reference:
9) Positive displacement type
Comment/Reference:
10) thermal protection
Comment/Reference: AWN 57 (deleted 2003)
Questions 1711 – 1720
1711.What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric
toilet motor?
Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become
unserviceable
Prevent toilet freezing
Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard
1712.Waste water drain masts
are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on
ground only
are heated using low amperage in the Air and on
ground
are not heated
1713.Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by
wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons
installation of neoprene foam insulation
placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping
1714.Toilets are the subject of
AWN 79
AWN 80
AWN 83
1715.Toilet waste valves are
spring loaded closed
not spring loaded
spring loaded open
1716.The heater used on a drain mast would be a
ribbon heater
hot air blower
induction heater
1717.A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight.
It can be overcome by thermal compensating device
You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet
Close toilet until landing
1718.The real time on a CMC is when
existing faults page is selected on the CDU
ground test page is selected on the CDU
fault history page is selected on the CDU
1719.One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The
data will be stored in
erased only after end of sector
volatile memory
non-volatile memory
1720.In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC
all faults are recorded in Volatile memory
all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
only Primary Faults are recorded
Answers for Questions 1711 – 1720
1) Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard
Comment/Reference: AWN 57 Para.2.3 (deleted 2003)
2) are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on
ground only
Comment/Reference: 737-3/4/500 AMM 30-71-00 para 1.B.
pg 1, 28VAC on ground and 115VAC in air. &
AC65-15A pg 303
3) wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 303
4) AWN 83
Comment/Reference: All the AWNs listed have now been
removed. Toilets are now covered by CAP 747 GR No. 20
5) spring loaded closed
Comment/Reference:
6) ribbon heater
Comment/Reference:
7) Close toilet until landing
Comment/Reference: IAW B737-400 mmel/ddg item 38-2,
the associate lavatory system may be inop. with lav
door secured closed and placard 'INOPERATIVE- DO NOT
ENTER'. Toilet recirc fan is part of the lav system.
8) existing faults page is selected on the CDU
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eismin Page 271
9) non-volatile memory
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Avionics 5th ed Eismin Page
273
10) all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Avionics
5th ed Eismin Page 271
Questions 1721 – 1730
1721.In a CMC system, where would you find a 'real time'
fault?
In Fault History
In Fault
In Test
1722.A modern aircraft CMC uses
a CRT screen
an LED display
a magnetic fault indicator
1723.A Flight Data Recorder is activated when
the helicopter's engines are started
the helicopter takes off
when power is applied to the helicopter
1724.In a CMC, warning signals are generated by
Warning computer
FMC
CMC
1725.An aircraft condition monitoring system
sends information to the central maintenance cell
detects the source of a fault
stores information for long term error analysis
1726.With a ACMS quick access recorder
the tape must not have been used before
the tape can have been used previously if it is
first bulk erased
you must use digital tape
1727.When should rain repellent be applied to a windscreen?
When windscreen is wet
When windscreen is dry
When windscreen is either wet or dry
1728.Component P affects
coefficient C
coefficient A
coefficient B
1729.The polythene sleeving over a HF antenna is to stop
precipitation static
lightning strike
moisture ingress and corrosion
1730.On an aircraft communication system, HIRF interference
is most prominent
across the whole frequency spectrum
during transmissions only
at specific frequencies
Answers for Questions 1721 – 1730
1) In Fault
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
5th Ed Eismin, page 270-273. 'Real time' means
reporting of a fault as it occurs, not in Fault
History or Test.
2) a CRT screen
Comment/Reference:
3) the helicopter's engines are started
Comment/Reference: CAP 393 Section 1 part 5 para 62
(3) JAR Ops-3
4) Warning computer
Comment/Reference:
Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-5
5) stores information for long term error analysis
Comment/Reference:
6) the tape can have been used previously if it is first
bulk erased
Comment/Reference:
7) When windscreen is wet
Comment/Reference: If applied when windscreen is dry,
it smears, dries, and causes optical illusions.
www.b737.org.uk/iceandrain.htm
8) coefficient B
Comment/Reference: Read about Components P, Q and R,
then read about Coefficients A, B and C.
9) moisture ingress and corrosion
Comment/Reference:
10) at specific frequencies
Comment/Reference: Whilst HIRF affects the aircraft
across the whole frequency spectrum, individual
systems are susceptible to certain frequencies only
Questions 1731 – 1740
1731.What colour is the strobe light on the PORT wing?
Red
Green
White
1732.Two fundamental properties of a gyro are
wander and rigidity
precession and wander
rigidity and precession
1733.Calculate the battery terminal voltage of a NiCad
battery with 15 cells
18 V
30 V
15 V
1734.What are passenger windows normally made from?
Acrylic
Acrylic/glass laminate
Glass
1735.What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure
into linear motion?
A hydraulic pump
An actuating cylinder
An accumulator
1736.A plain flap
when extended rotates on a simple hinge as if to
bend the trailing edge of the wing down
when retracted forms the lower surface of the wing
when extended provides a slot between the wing and
the flap
1737.What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure
into rotary motion?
A hydraulic motor
A hydraulic pump
An actuating cylinder
1738.An IRS cannot calculate
local longitude
local latitude or longitude
local latitude
1739.Which device allows the free flow of fluid in one
direction and no fluid flow in the other direction?
Metering piston
Shutoff valve
Check valve
1740.How would you identify an American oxygen bottle?
It is green
It is white with green wording
It is painted the same colour as a British oxygen
bottle (black)
Answers for Questions 1731 – 1740
1) White
Comment/Reference: says STROBE light. RTFQ
2) rigidity and precession
Comment/Reference:
3) 18 V
Comment/Reference: 15 x 1.2V = 18V
4) Acrylic
Comment/Reference:
5) An actuating cylinder
Comment/Reference:
6) when extended rotates on a simple hinge as if to bend
the trailing edge of the wing down
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 48
7) A hydraulic motor
Comment/Reference:
8) local longitude
Comment/Reference:
9) Check valve
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 326
10) It is green
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 4.2.3
Questions 1741 – 1750
1741.The fuel surge tank
acts as a separate fuel supply tank
acts as a vent in the main tank
reduces wing bending moment
1742.The drag strut in the main landing gear is fitted to
absorb
braking and take-off acceleration loads
cross-wind loads on landing
turning loads while taxiing
1743.After passing the Zone of Confusion of a VOR
the phase difference is 90 degrees out
the phase difference reverses
the phase difference stays the same
1744.A positive coefficient A adjustment of a compass will
give a heading
decrease on all headings
increase on East/West headings
increase on all headings
1745.A fire detection system should be
designed to detect fires only
positioned in a location determined by the
manufacture during the design
designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads
sustained during normal operation
1746.Fuel surge is prevented by
having separate compartments within the tank
having baffles within the tank and supports on the
outside to resist fuel surge
incorporation of an additional surge tank
1747.Slats are used to
ensure the boundary layer does not separate from the
wing surface too soon
change the wing camber
decrease the stalling angle
1748.A wing has a span of 50 feet and an area of 200 square
feet. Its mean chord would be
7.5 feet
4 feet
10 feet
1749.What type of brakes are employed on a galley cart?
Two colour-coded pedals
A brake on one wheel only
A single pedal bar
1750.Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as
true altitude?
When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at
29.92
At sea level in standard conditions (ISA)
Never
Answers for Questions 1741 – 1746
1) acts as a vent in the main tank
Comment/Reference:
2) braking and take-off acceleration loads
Comment/Reference:
3) the phase difference reverses
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th ed
Pallett pg 188 fig 6.9
4) increase on all headings
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 8-2 & CAIPs AL/10-5
9.2.7
5) positioned in a location determined by the manufacture
during the design
Comment/Reference:
6) having baffles within the tank and supports on the
outside to resist fuel surge
Comment/Reference:
7) change the wing camber
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 49 half way down left
column.
8) 4 feet
Comment/Reference:
9) Two colour-coded pedals
Comment/Reference:
10) At sea level in standard conditions (ISA)
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1751 – 1760
1751.How is rain repellent stored on an aircraft?
Reservoir, pressurised by the pneumatic system
Remote container
Self pressurised container
1752.A tyre blows a fusible plug. You would
just change the one with the blown plug
change the damaged one and the adjacent one
change all tyres on that truck
1753.Whilst taxiing at low speed, a wheel skids. What is
the likely cause?
Faulty wheel speed transducer
Anti-skid system is unserviceable
There is no fault. Anti-skid system is disabled at
low speed
1754.When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode
will not be available?
Heading Hold
ALT Hold
VOR
1755.What could cause fluctuations in instruments?
Pitot blocked
Static blocked
Water in static line
1756.Priority messages in an aircraft centralised warning
system, go in order of (lowest to highest):
TCAS, GPWS, windshear
GPWS, windshear, TCAS
TCAS, windshear, GPWS
1757.If seat belt stitching is worn, where are the
replacement stitches placed?
Diagonally
Alongside the original
Over the originals
1758.Contact between titanium and phosphate ester fluid
should be avoided because
it makes the titanium brittle
it makes the titanium soft
there is no effect
1759.The optimum atmospheric conditions for painting
aircraft is
between 60°F and 77°F with less than 75% relative
humidity
between 65°F and 75°F with less than 75% relative
humidity
between 65°C and 75°C with more than 75% relative
humidity
1760.TCAS antenna is a
directional antenna
omnidirectional blade type L-band
phased-array L-band
Answers for Questions 1751 – 1760
1) Self pressurised container
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 307
2) change the damaged one and the adjacent one
Comment/Reference:
3) There is no fault. Anti-skid system is disabled at low
speed
Comment/Reference:
4) ALT Hold
Comment/Reference:
5) Water in static line
Comment/Reference:
6) TCAS, GPWS, windshear
Comment/Reference: See Aural Warning Priority Logic
table @
www.b737.org.uk/warningsystems.htm#Aural_Warnings_
7) Over the originals
Comment/Reference:
8) it makes the titanium brittle
Comment/Reference:
9) between 60°F and 77°F with less than 75% relative
humidity
Comment/Reference: CAIPs BL/6-20 para 5
Leaflet 2-7 para 5
10) directional antenna
Comment/Reference: B737 AMM 34-45-00 pg 1 para 1 b) &
Avionics Training, Systems Installation and
Troubleshooting pg 151
737 AMM 34-45-00 pg 7
Questions 1761 – 1770
1761.MLS frequency is
6000-6100 MHz
5000-6000 MHz
5050-6050 MHz
1762.Automatic trim systems on some aircraft installations
are actuated with two speeds of operation. Operation
at high speed is used during
mach trim
flaps down
aircraft at altitude and straight and level
1763.The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper
switch is activated by the change of the
point of lowest pressure
stagnation point
centre of pressure
1764.What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger
flaps?
Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack,
Slats do not
Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not
Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger
flaps do not
1765.On a swept back wing, in which of the following
locations would Krueger Flaps be fitted?
The trailing edge
Outboard leading edge
Inboard leading edge
1766.An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal
flight at the same angle of attack at two different
altitudes: (all other factors of importance being
constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility
effects)
the TAS at the higher altitude is higher
the TAS at the higher altitude is lower
the TAS at both altitudes is the same
1767.Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle
of attack (all other factors constant)
the aircraft will yaw
the aircraft will climb
the aircraft will sink suddenly
1768.What pitching moment will be generated when Fowler
flaps are deployed on an aircraft with a high mounted
(T-tail) tailplane?
An aircraft nose up pitching moment
An aircraft nose down pitching moment
The nose up pitching moment will be balanced by the
nose down pitching moment
1769.An increase in aspect ratio will
cause VMD to be increased
cause induced drag to increase
cause VMD to be reduced
1770.Geometric washout means that
the tip of the wing has less angle of attack than
the root
the tip of the wing has more angle of attack than
the root
there is an airflow along the wing that keeps it
clean
Answers for Questions 1761 – 1770
1) 5000-6000 MHz
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microwave_Landing_System#
Range_guidance
2) flaps down
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett
page 219
3) stagnation point
Comment/Reference:
4) Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not
Comment/Reference:
5) Inboard leading edge
Comment/Reference:
6) the TAS at the higher altitude is higher
Comment/Reference:
7) the aircraft will climb
Comment/Reference:
8) An aircraft nose down pitching moment
Comment/Reference: the downwash off the flaps does not
effect the tail. And the flaps act like elevators
9) cause VMD to be reduced
Comment/Reference: Vmd = minimum drag
10) the tip of the wing has less angle of attack than the
root
Comment/Reference:
www.auf.asn.au/groundschool/umodule4.html
Questions 1771 – 1780
1771.How do vortex generators work?
Take energy from free stream and introduce it into
the boundary layer
Re-direct slantwise flow
Reduce the adverse pressure gradient
1772.Winglets
decrease the induced drag
create an elliptical lift distribution
decrease the static lateral stability
1773.A function of vortex generators in the transonic
regime is to
reduce wing root compression effects
prevent the rearward shift of CP on swept wing
stalls
reduce boundary layer separation drag when
shockwaves form
1774.Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of
wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced
drag
induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction
drag and interference drag
profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag
1775.During acceleration in level flight
the transition point on the wing moves forward
the lift coefficient reduces
the wing stagnation point moves aft
1776.As altitude increases, the equivalent airspeed at
which an aeroplane stalls in a particular
configuration will
remain equal to the calibrated airspeed
decrease as the true airspeed decreases
remain the same regardless of altitude
1777.When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is
1.3 times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of
lift as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient
(CLmax) would be
59%
77%
130%
1778.To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is
increased the speed must be
increased in the same ratio as the lift/drag ratio
decreases
reduced
increased
1779.Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level
flight will increase the
lift and the drag
maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag
lift coefficient and the drag
1780.In straight and level flight, if airspeed ... the
angle of attack ... and the incidence angle...
increases; decreases; decreases
decreases; increases; remains constant
increases; increases; decreases
Answers for Questions 1771 – 1780
1) Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the
boundary layer
Comment/Reference:
2) decrease the induced drag
Comment/Reference:
3) reduce boundary layer separation drag when shockwaves
form
Comment/Reference:
4) induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag
and interference drag
Comment/Reference:
5) the lift coefficient reduces
Comment/Reference:
6) remain the same regardless of altitude
Comment/Reference:
7) 59%
Comment/Reference:
8) increased
Comment/Reference:
9) maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag
Comment/Reference:
10) decreases; increases; remains constant
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1781 – 1790
1781. What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed
while maintaining a constant IAS in straight and level
flight?
Decrease
Remain constant
Increase
1782.If VS is 100 kt in straight and level flight, during a
45 bank turn VS will be
119 kts
100 kts
140 kts
1783.What is the effect on TAS if altitude is increased to
35,000 ft while flying at a constant Mach number?
Decrease
Remain the same
Increase then remain constant
1784.If IAS is doubled, by which of the following factors
should the original CL be multiplied to maintain level
flight?
0.25
4.0
0.5
1785.Stick shaker stall warnings should be activated at
VS
1.05 VS
1.2 VS
1786.When an aircraft is in a steady climb, how will be the
wing stalling angle be affected?
The stalling angle will increase with increasing
altitude
The stalling angle will remain the same, regardless
of altitude
The stalling angle will reduce with increasing
altitude
1787.The centre of pressure is in its most forward position
when the angle of attack is equal to the stalling
angle of attack
when the angle of attack is smaller than the
stalling angle of attack
when the angle of attack exceeds the stalling angle
of attack
1788.The angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls
increases with an increase in gross weight
remains constant regardless of gross weight
varies with gross weight and density altitude
1789.The following factors increase stall speed:
a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a
forward c .g. shift
an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift,
decrease in thrust
a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller
flap setting
1790.Stall speed in a turn is proportional to
the square root of the load factor
weight
lift
Answers for Questions 1781 – 1790
1) Decrease
Comment/Reference:
2) 119 kts
Comment/Reference:
3) Decrease
Comment/Reference:
4) 0.25
Comment/Reference:
5) 1.05 VS
Comment/Reference:
6) The stalling angle will remain the same, regardless of
altitude
Comment/Reference:
7) when the angle of attack is equal to the stalling
angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
8) remains constant regardless of gross weight
Comment/Reference:
9) an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift,
decrease in thrust
Comment/Reference:
10) the square root of the load factor
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1791 – 1800
1791.An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a
steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a
level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling
speed is
122 kt
141 kt
82 kt
1792.A wing stalling angle is
unaffected by a turn
decreased in a turn
increased in a turn
1793.What is a high speed stall?
Separation of the airflow due to shockwave formation
A stall caused by increasing the load factor (g)
during a manoeuvre
A stall due to exceeding the critical angle of
attack at high speed during a manoeuvre
1794.What effect does an increased load have on an
aircraft?
The aircraft will stall at a higher speed
The aircraft will have a tendency to roll and yaw
The aircraft will suffer immediate structural
failure
1795.Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?
High speed stall (shock stall)
Low speed stall
Deep stall
1796.A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant
altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of
stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
Accelerated stall
Low speed stall
Shock stall
1797.On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the pitch
up phenomenon
never occurs, since a swept wing is a remedy to
pitch up
is caused by wingtip stall
is caused by extension of trailing edge lift
augmentation devices
1798.Which of the following statements about stall speed is
correct?
Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will
decrease the stall speed
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will
decrease the stall speed
Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed
1799.How are the wing stalling angle and the lift
coefficient affected when altitude increases and EAS
is held constant?
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle
both remain constant
The lift coefficient remains constant and the wing
stalling angle will reduce
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle
both decrease
1800.The stall speed
increases with an increased weight
does not depend on weight
decreases with an increased weight
Answers for Questions 1791 – 1800
1) 122 kt
Comment/Reference:
2) unaffected by a turn
Comment/Reference:
3) Separation of the airflow due to shockwave formation
Comment/Reference:
4) The aircraft will stall at a higher speed
Comment/Reference:
5) Deep stall
Comment/Reference:
6) Accelerated stall
Comment/Reference: An aeroplane that stalls during a
maneuver, will stall at a higher speed than if it
stalled in level flight. This is called an
“accelerated stall”.
An additional factor by which it stalls is √n
n=load factor
Straight and level flight n = 1,
but in a 60° turn, n = 2, and √2 = 1.41.
7) is caused by wingtip stall
Comment/Reference:
8) Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will
decrease the stall speed
Comment/Reference:
9) The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both
remain constant
Comment/Reference:
10) increases with an increased weight
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1801 – 1810
1801.Increase of wing loading will
increase the stall speed
decrease the minimum gliding angle
decrease take off speeds
1802.The most common stall sensing devices are normally
located
at or near the wing leading edge
on the upper surface of the wing
on the lower surface of the wing
1803.If angle of attack is increased beyond the critical
angle of attack, the lift coefficient ... and the
stagnation point moves...
increases; rearward
decreases; rearward
decreases; forward
1804.In a turn, the wing stalling angle
decreases
increases
remains unchanged
1805.As the angle of attack of a wing is increased, the
centre of pressure will reach its most forward
position on the wing
after stall recovery
just before the wing stalls
when the aircraft is stalling
1806.Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change
in velocity close to the surface?
Turbulent boundary layer
Laminar boundary layer
No difference
1807.One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it is
stalling characteristics. At the stall
wing root stall will occur first, which produces a
rolling moment
tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-
down moment
tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-
up moment
1808.Which of the following aircraft designs would be most
prone to super stall?
Swept forward wing
Swept back wing
T-tail
1809.The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the
following factor
1
1.41
2.00
1810.The speed range between high and low speed buffet
increases during a descent at a constant IAS
increases during climb
decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number
Answers for Questions 1801 – 1810
1) increase the stall speed
Comment/Reference:
2) at or near the wing leading edge
Comment/Reference:
3) decreases; rearward
Comment/Reference:
4) remains unchanged
Comment/Reference:
5) just before the wing stalls
Comment/Reference:
6) Turbulent boundary layer
Comment/Reference:
7) tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up
moment
Comment/Reference:
8) T-tail
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments & Integrated
Systems. Pallett pg 76
9) 1.41
Comment/Reference:
10) increases during a descent at a constant IAS
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1811 – 1820
1811.The boundary layer of a wing is caused by
a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is
lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction
suction at the upper wing side
a turbulent stream pattern around the wing
1812.The most important problem of ice accretion on an
aeroplane during flight is
increase in drag
increase in weight
reduction in CLmax
1813.The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the
following factors?
May increase with altitude, especially high
altitude, will increase during icing conditions and
will increase when the c.g. moves forward
Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps
and increased bank angle in a turn
Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will
increase when the c.g. moves aft.
1814.The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in
a stall is due to the
wing tip stalling first
wing root stalling first
forward movement of the centre of gravity
1815.When an aircraft with a typical aerofoil is in level
flight at low speed and high angle of attack, the
normal axis is
nearly vertical
horizontal from side to side
vertical
1816.An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross
weight of 6.850 lbs. What is the stall speed when the
weight is 5.000 lbs?
91 KCAS
78 KCAS
67 KCAS
1817.What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the
stall
Separated airflow at the root
Rearward movement of the CP
Spanwise flow
1818.Load factors has the following meaning
the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the
aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of
aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground
reactions
the ratio of a specified load to the mass of the
aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of
aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground
reactions
the ratio of a specified load to the mass or the
aircraft the former being expressed in terms of
aerodynamic and inertia forces
1819.When all other factors of importance are constant, the
stall speed increases when
weight decreases
spoilers are retracted
pulling out of a dive
1820.Which of the following is the correct order of
configuration to give an increasing critical angle of
attack?
Slats extended, clean wing, trailing edge flaps
extended
Clean wing, trailing edge flaps extended, slats
extended
Trailing edge flaps extended, clean wing, slats
extended
Answers for Questions 1811 – 1820
1) a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is
lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction
Comment/Reference:
2) reduction in CLmax
Comment/Reference:
3) May increase with altitude, especially high altitude,
will increase during icing conditions and will
increase when the c.g. moves forward
Comment/Reference:
4) wing tip stalling first
Comment/Reference:
5) nearly vertical
Comment/Reference:
6) 67 KCAS
Comment/Reference:
7) Spanwise flow
Comment/Reference:
8) the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the
aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of
aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground
reactions
Comment/Reference:
9) pulling out of a dive
Comment/Reference:
10) Trailing edge flaps extended, clean wing, slats
extended
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1821 – 1830
1821.What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45
bank turn
10%
19%
45%
1822.When an aircraft wing stalls
a swept back wing will stall from the tip and the CP
will move forward
a wing which is not swept back will stall from the
root and the CP will move forwards
a swept back wing will stall from the root and the
CP will move aft
1823.At the same weight, with the CG at its forward limit
VS is higher, the stalling angle is unchanged
VS is lower, the stalling angle is unchanged
VS is higher, the stalling angle is greater
1824.Stick pusher is installed in aircraft when
the aircraft has no yaw damper installed
the aircraft has failed to meet the stalling
requirements by normal category
the aircraft is directional unstable
1825.Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal
steady turns. Further data is:
A: W=1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 130 kt
B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 200 kt
Which of the following statements is correct?
The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B
The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B
The load factor A is larger than the load factor B
1826.Which of the following situations leads to a
decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
Increasing load factor
Increasing air density
Decreasing weight
1827.The purpose of a fixed spoiler on the leading edge of
a wing at the root is to
prevent the wing from stalling at the root
reduce the landing distance required
ensure that the root of the wing stalls before the
tip does
1828.In a level turn with 60° lateral bank, the load factor
is 2.0 and the stall speed increases by
10 %
40 %
50 %
1829.The critical angle of attack
changes with an increase in gross weight
increases if the CG is moved forward
remains unchanged regardless of gross weight
1830.An aeroplane has been loaded in such a manner that the
centre of gravity is located behind the aft centre of
gravity limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a
pilot might experience with this aeroplane would be
a longer takeoff run
difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed
Answers for Questions 1821 – 1830
1) 19%
Comment/Reference:
2) a swept back wing will stall from the tip and the CP
will move forward
Comment/Reference:
3) VS is higher, the stalling angle is unchanged
Comment/Reference:
4) the aircraft has failed to meet the stalling
requirements by normal category
Comment/Reference:
5) The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B
Comment/Reference:
6) Decreasing weight
Comment/Reference:
7) ensure that the root of the wing stalls before the tip
does
Comment/Reference:
8) 40%
Comment/Reference:
9) remains unchanged regardless of gross weight
Comment/Reference:
10) difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1831 – 1840
1831.Vso is defined as the
stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a
specified configuration
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the
landing configuration
1832.The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the
following factors
decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude
and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an
engine located forward of the wing
increase during turn, increased mass and forward
c.g. location
increase with increased load factor, icing
conditions and an aft c.g. location
1833.With the centre of gravity on the forward limit, the
stalling speed would be
lower than with the centre of gravity on the aft
limit
higher than with the centre of gravity on the aft
limit
the same as with the centre of gravity on the aft
limit
1834.The following take place at the transition point on a
wing
the airflow separates completely from the wing
surface
the total dynamic and static pressure comes to a
standstill
the boundary layer makes the transition from laminar
flow to the turbulent boundary layer
1835.A low wing loading (aircraft weight has been reduced)
increases stalling speed
decreases stalling speed and landing speed
increases take-off run, stalling speed and landing
speed
1836.Stalling speed in a 15° bank level turn is 60kt. The
stalling speed in a 45° bank level turn will be
50 kts
70 kts
60 kts
1837.Which of the following is the speed in level flight
that would activate the stall warning?
1.2VS1G
1.05VS1G
VS1G + 15kts
1838.How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?
It remains constant
It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases
at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects
It increases with increasing altitude, because the
density decreases
1839.As the centre of gravity is changed, recovery from a
stall becomes progressively
becomes progressively more difficult as the centre
of gravity moves aft.
becomes progressively more difficult as the centre
of gravity moves forward
is unaffected by centre of gravity position
1840.Which of the following statements about boundary
layers is correct?
The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the
laminar boundary layer
The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy
than the laminar boundary layer
The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin
friction than the laminar boundary layer
Answers for Questions 1831 – 1840
1) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the
landing configuration
Comment/Reference: V speeds at Wikipedia.
2) increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g.
location
Comment/Reference:
3) higher than with the centre of gravity on the aft
limit
Comment/Reference:
4) the boundary layer makes the transition from laminar
flow to the turbulent boundary layer
Comment/Reference:
5) decreases stalling speed and landing speed
Comment/Reference:
6) 70 kts
Comment/Reference:
7) 1.05VS1G
Comment/Reference: Vs1g = one g stall.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/V_speeds
8) It increases with increasing altitude, because the
density decreases
Comment/Reference:
9) becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of
gravity moves aft.
Comment/Reference:
10) The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy
than the laminar boundary layer
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1841 – 1850
1841.The angle of attack at which a wing stalls will
increase if the centre of gravity is moved forward
increase if the centre of gravity is moved aft
remain the same regardless of centre of gravity
position
1842.Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a
straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing
(2) will
not move (2) move forward
move aft, (2) move forward
move aft, (2) not move
1843.Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given
configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will
be triggered is
greater than VS
VS
less than VS
1844.A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will
improve the low speed characteristics
increase the critical Mach Number
improve the high speed characteristics
1845.If the straight and level stall speed is 100 kt, what
will be the stall speed in a 1.5g turn?
81 kts
122 kts
150 kts
1846.The function of the stick pusher is
to activate and push the stick forward prior to
stick shaker
to vibrate the controls
to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond
a certain value of angle of attack
1847.How does stalling speed vary with load factor?
It decreases inversely with the square root of the
load factor
It increases proportionally with the square root of
the load factor
It decreases inversely with the load factor
1848.When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will
(i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii)
(i) move aft, (ii) move aft
(i) not move, (ii) not move
(i) move aft, (ii) not move
1849.After the transition point between the laminar and
turbulent boundary layer
the mean speed and friction drag increases
the mean speed increases and the friction drag
decreases
the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed
decreases
1850.The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low
subsonic speeds as long as
the angle of attack is smaller than the value at
which the stall occurs
the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed
there is a nose-down attitude
Answers for Questions 1841 – 1850
1) remain the same regardless of centre of gravity
position
Comment/Reference:
2) (1) move aft, (2) move forward
Comment/Reference:)
3) greater than VS
Comment/Reference:
4) improve the low speed characteristics
Comment/Reference:
5) 122 kts
Comment/Reference:
6) to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a
certain value of angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
7) It increases proportionally with the square root of
the load factor
Comment/Reference:)
8) (i) not move, (ii) not move
Comment/Reference:
9) the mean speed and friction drag increases
Comment/Reference:
10) the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which
the stall occurs
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1851 – 1860
1851.The load factor is
the ratio of thrust to weight
the ratio of lift to drag
the ratio of lift to weight
1852.The input to a stick shaker comes from
the angle of attack only
angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in
angle of attack
the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in
airspeed
1853.Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with
dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall
characteristics include:
pitch down and increase in speed
pitch down and minor wing drop
excessive wing drop and deep stall
1854.The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated
by a change in the location of the
transition region
stagnation point
centre of lift
1855.Which type of stall has the largest associated angle
of attack?
Deep stall
Shock stall
Low speed stall
1856.Which statement is correct about the laminar and
turbulent boundary layer?
Separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent
layer
Friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer
Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer
1857.A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by
increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving
the boundary layer
increasing only the camber of the aerofoil
increasing the critical angle of attack
1858.When a trailing edge flap is lowered fully
the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is
increased
the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is
unaffected
the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is
decreased
1859.Which statement is correct?
Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the
minimum rate of descent, but increases the
minimum descent angle
Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall
speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces
Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing
the minimum rate of descent to decrease
1860.When the angle of attack of an aircraft is
progressively increased, the wing centre of pressure
will reach its most forward position
when the aircraft has stalled
at the maximum lift coefficient (Clmax)
at the optimum angle of attack of the wing
Answers for Questions 1851 – 1860
1) the ratio of lift to weight
Comment/Reference:
2) angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in
angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
3) excessive wing drop and deep stall
Comment/Reference:
4) stagnation point
Comment/Reference:
5) Deep stall
Comment/Reference:
6) Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer
Comment/Reference:
7) increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving
the boundary layer
Comment/Reference:
8) the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is
decreased
Comment/Reference:
9) Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall
speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces
Comment/Reference:
10) at the maximum lift coefficient (Clmax)
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1861 – 1870
1861.What is the most effective flap system?
Fowler flap
Single slotted flap
Split flap
1862.An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with
slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible
efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on
the wings is
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: slats
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: no devices
Wing roots: slats Wing tips: L.E. flaps
1863.Which of the following statements about the difference
between Krueger flaps and slats is correct?
Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of
attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not
Deploying a slat will form a slot deploying a
Krueger flap does not
Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical
angle of attack, deploying a slat does not
1864.Vortex generators
change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar
boundary layer
transfer energy from the free airflow into the
boundary layer
reduce the span wise flow on swept wing
1865.When vortex generators are fitted they will normally
be found
towards the wing root to act as a stall inducer
towards the wing trailing edge
near the wing leading edge in front of control
surfaces
1866.During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle
of attack the aeroplane starts to: (all other factors
of importance being constant)
sink suddenly.
bank
climb
1867.Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will
just move aft
move aft, then turn down
turn down, then move aft
1868.An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0°, 15°,
30° and 45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the
above selections will produce the greatest negative
influence on the CL/CD ratio?
Flaps from 15° to 30°
Flaps from 0° to 15°
Flaps from 30° to 45°
1869.The effect of Winglets is
elliptical pressure distribution increases
decrease in stall speed
reduction in induced drag
1870.When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight
at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually
remain the same
decrease
increase
Answers for Questions 1861 – 1870
1) Fowler flap
Comment/Reference:
2) Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: slats
Comment/Reference:
3) Deploying a slat will form a slot deploying a Krueger
flap does not
Comment/Reference:
4) transfer energy from the free airflow into the
boundary layer
Comment/Reference: Stall (flight) at wikipedia
5) near the wing leading edge in front of control
surfaces
Comment/Reference: Stall (flight)at wikipedia at
bottom of page
6) climb
Comment/Reference:
7) move aft, then turn down
Comment/Reference:
8) Flaps from 30° to 45°
Comment/Reference:
9) reduction in induced drag
Comment/Reference:
10) remain the same
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1871 – 1880
1871.When spoilers are used as speed brakes
they do not affect wheel braking action during
landing
at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is
decreased
at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected
1872.When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight
from take-off position to fully down position, one
will experience
a small increase in lift and a large increase in
drag
a large increase in lift and a small increase in
drag
a large increase in lift and a large increase in
drag
1873.What is the purpose of an auto-slat system?
Provide automatically slat IN selection after take-
off
Ensures that the slats are always extended when the
ground/flight system is in the ground position
Extend automatically when a certain value of angle
of attack is exceeded
1874.Which of the following series of configurations has an
increasing critical angle of attack?
flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended
clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended
slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing
1875.Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow
separation normally start at high angles of attack?
upper side trailing edge
upper side leading edge
lower side leading edge
1876.If the flaps are lowered but the airspeed is kept
constant, to maintain level flight
the nose must be pitched down
the altitude must be held constant
the nose must be pitched up
1877.The effects of leading edge slats
increase boundary layer energy, move suction peak on
to slat and increase CLmax angle of attack
increase camber, increase suction peak on main wing,
increase effective angle of attack and move CLmax to
higher angle of attack
increase boundary layer energy, increase suction
peak on main wing section, move CLmax to a higher
angle of attack
1878.Flaps are used in order to
increase max lift coefficient by increasing max
angle of attack
decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of
attack thereby achieving a more nose down attitude
near and at stalling speed
increase max L/D
1879.Deflection of leading edge flaps will
decrease CLmax
increase critical angle of attack
decrease drag
1880.During flap down selection in a continuous straight
and level flight at constant IAS and weight
the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient
increase
the stall speed increases
the centre of pressure moves aft
Answers for Questions 1871 – 1880
1) at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is
decreased
Comment/Reference:
2) a small increase in lift and a large increase in drag
Comment/Reference:
3) Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of
attack is exceeded
Comment/Reference:
4) flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended
Comment/Reference:
5) upper side trailing edge
Comment/Reference:
6) the nose must be pitched down
Comment/Reference:
7) increase boundary layer energy, increase suction peak
on main wing section, move CLmax to a higher angle of
attack
Comment/Reference:
8) decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attack
thereby achieving a more nose down attitude near and
at stalling speed
Comment/Reference:
9) increase critical angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
10) the centre of pressure moves aft
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1881 – 1890
1881.CLmax may be increased by the used of
flaps
slats
both flaps and slats
1882.Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum
angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is
smaller
larger
unchanged
1883.Compared with the flap down configuration the maximum
angle of attack for the flaps up configuration is
larger
smaller
unchanged
1884.How is the pitching moment affected if flaps are
deployed in straight and level flight?
Depends on wing position
Pitch up
Pitch down
1885.What is the effect of lowering leading edge and
trailing edge flaps in flight?
Cl increases, Cd remains the same and the stalling
angle of attack increases.
Cl increases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of
attack increases
Cl decreases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of
attack reduces
1886.Lowering the inboard flaps causes the wing Centre of
Pressure
to move forward
to move inboard towards the wing root
to move outboard towards the wing tips
1887.Slats
re-energise the boundary layer thereby decreasing
the stalling angle of attack
re-energise the boundary layer thereby increasing
the stalling angle of attack
de-energise the boundary layer, thereby decreasing
the stalling angle of attack
1888.When deploying the flaps the effective angle of attack
decreases
remains the same
increases
1889.Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface
will
increase the interference drag of the trailing edge
flaps
decrease the stalling speed by increase of the
tangential velocity of the swept wing
decrease the shock wave induced separation
1890.Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface
will
decrease the stalling speed by increase of the
tangential velocity of the swept wing
increase the shock wave induced separation
decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge
flaps
Answers for Questions 1881 – 1890
1) both flaps and slats
Comment/Reference:
2) smaller
Comment/Reference:
3) larger
Comment/Reference:
4) Depends on wing position
Comment/Reference:
5) Cl decreases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of
attack reduces
Comment/Reference:
6) to move inboard towards the wing root
Comment/Reference:
7) re-energise the boundary layer thereby increasing the
stalling angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
8) increases
Comment/Reference:
9) decrease the shock wave induced separation
Comment/Reference:
10) decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge
flaps
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1891 – 1900
1891.It is possible to reduce the span wise airflow over
swept wings, due to adverse pressure gradients, by
wing fences
trailing edge vortex generators
increased anhedral
1892.After take-off the slats (when installed) are always
retracted later than the flaps. Why?
Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from
the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED
Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in
stall speed with relatively less drag
Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in
stall speed with relatively less drag
1893.In order to maintain straight and level flight at a
constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being
retracted, the angle of attack will
remain constant
increase
decrease
1894.If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and
level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will
eventually: (flap span less than wing span)
decrease
remain the same
increase
1895.The trailing edge flaps, when extended
worsen the best angle of glide
significantly increase the angle of attack for
maximum lift
improve the best angle of glide
1896.One of the main purposes of using flaps during
approach and landing is to
decrease the angle of descent without increasing the
airspeed
increase the angle of descent without increasing the
airspeed
shift the centre of gravity aft
1897.The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing
enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because
it changes the camber of the wing
it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack
the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker
1898.What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps?
Not affect the critical angle of attack
Increase the critical angle of attack
Decrease the critical angle of attack
1899.The lift coefficient CL of a wing at a given angle of
attack
is constant and not affected by high lift devices
is increased by the use of high lift devices
is dependent on the surface area of the wing
1900.The optimum angle of attack for a typical aerofoil is
about..., and the actual angle of attack will be close
to this optimum angle during...
16°, a stall
4°, cruise
4°, a stall
Answers for Questions 1891 – 1900
1) wing fences
Comment/Reference:
2) Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall
speed with relatively less drag
Comment/Reference:
3) increase
Comment/Reference:
4) decrease
Comment/Reference:
5) worsen the best angle of glide
Comment/Reference:
6) increase the angle of descent without increasing the
airspeed
Comment/Reference:
7) it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
8) Increase the critical angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
9) is increased by the use of high lift devices
Comment/Reference:
10) 4°, cruise
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1901 – 1910
1901.Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing
only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected)
CD is increased and CL is decreased
CL is increased, while CD remains unaffected
1902.If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum
lift-to-drag ratio will
not be affected
increase
decrease
1903.Speed brakes are a device used on large transport
category aircraft
to prevent aquaplaning
to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper
gradient of descent
for speed reduction after landing
1904.Why are vortex generators often fitted on aircraft
with straight wings?
To delay boundary layer separation
To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing tips on
the extrados
To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing root on
the intrados
1905.The boundary layer of a body in a moving airstream is
a layer of air over the surface where the airspeed
is changing from free stream velocity to zero
velocity
a layer of air which is moving at free stream speed
a thin layer of air over the surface where the air
is stationary
1906.The transition point located on the wing is the point
where
the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to
turbulent flow
the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow
airflow starts separating from the wing
1907.The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent
between the transition and separation points
just in front of the transition point
just aft of the separation point
1908.The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a
laminar boundary layer is
decreases energy
less tendency to separate
thinner
1909.A laminar boundary layer is... and has... drag than a
turbulent layer.
thicker; more
thinner; less
thicker; less
1910.When pulling out of a dive (e.g. looping) the angle of
attack
decreases
remains the same
increases
Answers for Questions 1901 – 1910
1) CD is increased and CL is decreased
Comment/Reference:
2) not be affected
Comment/Reference:
3) to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper
gradient of descent
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 40 bottom rh para.
4) To delay boundary layer separation
Comment/Reference:
5) a layer of air over the surface where the airspeed is
changing from free stream velocity to zero velocity
Comment/Reference:
6) the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to
turbulent flow
Comment/Reference:
7) between the transition and separation points
Comment/Reference:
8) less tendency to separate
Comment/Reference:
9) thinner; less
Comment/Reference:
10) increases
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1911 – 1920
1911.In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic
effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most
critical?
During climb with all engines operating
All phases of the take-off are equally critical
The last part of the rotation
1912.Which tab’s movement is directly from the control
column?
Anti-Balance tab
Balance tab
Servo tab
1913.A pilot's safety harness buckle and adjustment strap
Is
not allowed to slip under any forces
allowed to slip if side loads exceed 2.5 G
allowed to slip if vertical acceleration exceeds 5G
1914.A vacuum mercury gauge reads 5 in. is this pressure
above ambient pressure
above zero pressure
below ambient pressure
1915.Wing skin on a large transport aircraft is made from
7118
7075
2024
1916.Chemical fire extinguishers extinguish fires by
cools the material on fire below ignition point
releases oxygen to extinguish the fire
reacting with the oxygen in the air or the flame,
rendering it inert
1917.Oxygen bottles should not be left with less that 500
psi pressure because
it can damage the diluter demand regulator and would
require maintenance
the oxygen becomes tainted causing anoxia
it can cause corrosion within the bottle
1918.A fire test is carried out and the test button is
released, but the light remains on. This is because
there is a fire
of a high resistance fire wire
of a broken fire wire
1919.Mach trim operation is enabled by
an electric Motor
a mach trim actuator
an autopilot trim motor
1920.The CO2 in a life raft is released
Electrically
on contact with water
manually
Answers for 1911 – 1920
1) The last part of the rotation
Comment/Reference:
2) Servo Tab
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A Chap 2 pg 46
3) not allowed to slip under any forces
Comment/Reference:
4) below ambient pressure
Comment/Reference:
5) 7075
Comment/Reference:
6) reacting with the oxygen in the air or the flame,
rendering it inert
Comment/Reference:
7) it can cause corrosion within the bottle
Comment/Reference:
8) of a broken fire wire
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-11-00 pg 6 para
5.b.
9) an autopilot trim motor
Comment/Reference:
10) electrically
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1921 – 1930
1921.A fire detection system can pass through one zone to
another providing
the system is duplicated
it is separated by steel
the system is protected
1922.Deploying a secondary flight control surface will
not affect the angle of attack
decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil
increase the angle of attack of the aerofoil
1923.To check if a landing gear leg requires servicing
The aircraft must have an exact load onboard and air
charge to give an exact leg extension
The leg extension can vary with aircraft load. The
leg pressure and extension should be checked against
a chart in the AMM
The leg must be serviced to give an exact extension
regardless of aircraft load
1924.The 'fasten seatbelt' light switch should be in reach
of the
captain
first officer
both the captain and the first officer
1925.A shock wave is a very thin region in which there is a
sudden decrease of
temperature
velocity
pressure
1926.For a wing of low thickness-chord ratio the critical
mach number will be
higher than wing of high thickness-chord ratio
lower than wing of high thickness-chord ratio
the same as a wing of high thickness-chord ratio
1927.Sweepback on the wing will
reduce tendency to tip stall
increase tendency to tip stall
cause stall to occur at lower angles of attack
1928.High speed buffet is caused by
airflow being detached by shock wave and flow
striking the tail
high speed airflow striking the leading edge
the shock wave striking the tail
1929.A structure which if it failed would cause aircraft to
crash is
essential
integral
primary
1930.The method used on a work card to indicate the
approximate location of a component is
datum
stations
zones
Answers for questions 1921 – 1930
1) the system is protected
Comment/Reference:
2) decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil
Comment/Reference:
3) The leg extension can vary with aircraft load. The leg
pressure and extension should be checked against a
chart in the AMM
Comment/Reference:
4) both the captain and the first officer
Comment/Reference:
5) velocity
Comment/Reference:
6) higher than wing of high thickness-chord ratio
Comment/Reference:
7) increase tendency to tip stall
Comment/Reference:
8) airflow being detached by shock wave and flow striking
the tail
Comment/Reference:
9) primary
Comment/Reference:
10) zones
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1931 – 1940
1931.A loss of strength resulting from cyclic loading is
known as
metal fatigue
age hardening
fail safe
1932.To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components
with different pressures, a
pressure reducing valve is used
pressure regulating valve is used
pressure relief valve is used
1933.Restrictor valves are fitted in hydraulic systems to
restrict the rate of pressure build-up
limit the maximum pressure
control rate of system operation
1934.Fly by wire systems rely on inputs from
the pilot via control rods, and electrical
signals
electrical signals
air-data and 'Q' feel
1935.What placard must be visible above a waste paper bin
in a toilet?
No Cigarettes
No Naked Flame
No Smoking
1936.ATA zone 500 is the
Right wing
Left wing
Engine
1937.ATA zone 330 is the
Right horizontal stabilizer
Vertical stabilizer
Left horizontal stabilizer
1938.When applying a doubler plate, what else could you use
for extra strength?
Thicker material
A tripler plate
A waffle plate
1939.Stringers
run the full length on all aircraft
are attached to the frame
do not pass through bulkheads
1940.Kevlar should be stored
vertically
in moisture proof bags
horizontally
Answers for Questions 1931 – 1940
1) metal fatigue
Comment/Reference:
2) pressure reducing valve is used
Comment/Reference:
3) control rate of system operation
Comment/Reference:
4) the pilot via control rods, and electrical signals
Comment/Reference:
5) No Smoking
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 GR.20 4.2.3
6) Left wing
Comment/Reference: ATA Chapter 06
7) left horizontal stabiliser
Comment/Reference: ATA chapter 06-20 (A319)
8) A waffle plate
Comment/Reference:
9) do not pass through bulkheads
Comment/Reference:
10) in moisture proof bags
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1941 – 1950
1941.A firewall bulkhead is usually made from
steel
tungsten
titanium
1942.Aileron reversal is caused by a structure that has a
low stiffness in
shear
torsion
bending
1943.The first component that the charged air enters from
the IP compressor is
the check valve
the bleed valve
the pre-cooler
1944.On the ramp, the pre-cooler obtains its cooling action
by
ram air
gas expansion
fan inducement
1945.The electrical spill-valve operates on signals from
the venturi metering duct
the pressure controller
the latching solenoid
1946.A standby ADI uses
a vertical gyro
a space gyro
an earth gyro
1947.An artificial horizon uses
a directional gyro
a rate gyro
a vertical gyro
1948.Following replacement of a separately mounted compass
corrector box, a compass calibration swing will be
required
only if initial variation is greater than 5 degrees
only if the correctors are not matched to the ones
being removed
without exception
1949.During climb the pressure in the VSI capsule will be
equal to the pressure in the case
greater than the pressure in the case
lower than the pressure in the case
1950.Corrections to a mechanical ASI are for
square law
square law error and temperature
square law and temperature
Answers for 1941 – 1950
1) I did not get the answer or the ref
2) torsion
Comment/Reference:
3) I did not get the answer or the ref
4) fan inducement
Comment/Reference:
5) the venturi metering duct
Comment/Reference:
6) vertical gyro
7) a vertical gyro
Comment/Reference:
8) without exception
Comment/Reference:
9) lower than the pressure in the case
Comment/Reference:
10) square law error and temperature
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1951 – 1960
1951.Vertical gyros are limited to 85 degrees movement in
pitch to prevent
gimbal lock
pitch overshoot
gyro topple
1952.The magnets in a compass corrector micro-adjuster are
adjusted for coefficient A
adjusted to obtain the neutral position
always set to the neutral position
1953.The term HIRF means
High Intensity Radiated Fields
High Interference Radiated Fields
High Intensity Radio Fields
1954.The power supply for aircraft is
28VDC, 220VAC, 400Hz
28VDC, 115VAC, 400Hz
28VDC, 115VAC, 200Hz
1955.Reactive electrical loads are adjusted by
adjustment of the regulator output
varying the frequency circuit
adjustment of generator speed
1956.Inspection proof testing of seat-belts is carried out
To
0.5g
4.5g
9g
1957.Fuel tanks are numbered
right to left
fwd to aft
aft to fwd
1958.The flow rate of anti-icing fluid is determined
by speed of pump
by flow control valve
by flow control tubes
1959.The ice protection system that is manufactured on the
aircraft skin is
heater mat
overshoe
spraymat
1960.A silica gel desiccant is required to be replaced
when half pink and half blue
when all pink
when all blue
Answers for Questions 1951 – 1960
1) gimbal lock
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems. EHJ Pallett Page
2) adjusted to obtain the neutral position
Comment/Reference:
3) High Intensity Radiated Fields
Comment/Reference: CAP 756 appx 2 abbreviations
4) 28VDC, 115VAC, 400Hz
Comment/Reference:
5) adjustment of the regulator output
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett Page 50/51
6) 9g
Comment/Reference: CS 25.561
7) fwd to aft
Comment/Reference:
8) by flow control tubes
Comment/Reference:
9) spraymat
Comment/Reference:
10) when all pink
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1961 – 1970
1961.A MCDU is
to store fault data
to transmit data to ground
to dialog with the central maintenance computer
1) to dialog with the central maintenance computer
Comment/Reference: