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Final 401

This document contains the solutions to exercises from a Math 402 final exam. It includes proofs of various limits, continuity, and properties of functions. The key points are: 1) It proves that if limx→x0 g(x) = 0 and f is bounded, then limx→x0 g(x)f(x) = 0 as well. 2) It shows that linear functions f(x) = ax + b are continuous using the epsilon-delta definition. 3) It examines properties of functions f satisfying the multiplicative property f(x+y)=f(x)f(y), showing f(x)>0 and relating f over various domains.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
108 views8 pages

Final 401

This document contains the solutions to exercises from a Math 402 final exam. It includes proofs of various limits, continuity, and properties of functions. The key points are: 1) It proves that if limx→x0 g(x) = 0 and f is bounded, then limx→x0 g(x)f(x) = 0 as well. 2) It shows that linear functions f(x) = ax + b are continuous using the epsilon-delta definition. 3) It examines properties of functions f satisfying the multiplicative property f(x+y)=f(x)f(y), showing f(x)>0 and relating f over various domains.

Uploaded by

Hong Chul Nam
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 8

Matthew Straughn

Math 402
401 Final Exam

Exercise 1: (a) Let g : X → R, assume f is a bounded function on X ⊂ R, let x0 be an


adherent point of X. Show that if limx→x0 g(x) = 0, then limx→x0 g(x)f (x) = 0 as well.
Proof. We know given 0 > 0 ∃δ 0 > 0 such that |g(x)| ≤ 0 for |x − x0 | < δ and also that
∃M ∈ R with |f (x)| ≤ M ∀x ∈ X as f is bounded.
 
Given  > 0 take 0 = > 0 then ∃δ > 0 with |x − x0 | < δ such that |g(x)| ≤
M M

⇒|g(x)|M ≤ 
⇒|g(x)||f (x)| ≤  (since |f (x)| ≤ M ∀x ∈ X)
⇒|g(x)f (x) − 0| ≤ 
⇒ lim g(x)f (x) = 0
x→x0

(b) Use the −δ definition of continuity to show that the linear function f (x) = ax + b is
continuous at every point x ∈ R.

Proof. Given  > 0 take δ = and consider x ∈ R such that |x − x0 | < δ
|a|

⇒|x − x0 | <
|a|
⇒|a||x − x0 | < 
⇒|ax − ax0 | < 
⇒|ax + b − ax0 − b| < 
⇒|(ax + b) − (ax0 + b)| < 
⇒|f (x) − f (x0 )| < 

Hence f is continuous at all x0 ∈ R.


Exercise 2: Let f : R → R that satisfies the multiplicative property f (x + y) = f (x)f (y)
for all x, y ∈ R. Assume f is not identically equal to zero.
1
(i) Show that f (0) = 1 and that f (−x) = f (x)
for all x ∈ R. Show that f (x) > 0 for all
x ∈ R.
First let us prove two simple Lemmas.
Lemma 1. f (0) 6= 0
Proof. Suppose f (0) = 0 then we have that f (x) = f (x + 0) = f (x)f (0) = 0 ∀x ∈ R which
is a contradiction since f is not identically equal to zero. Hence f (0) 6= 0.
Lemma 2. f (x) 6= 0 ∀x ∈ R.

1
Proof. Suppose not, that is, assume that there is some x with f (x) = 0. Then we have that
f (0) = f (x − x) = f (x)f (−x) ⇒ f (0) = 0 a contradiction from Lemma 1. Thus we have
that f (x) 6= 0 ∀x ∈ R.
Now let us prove the results in the exercise
Proof. If we take x = y = 0 then we get that f (0) = f (0)f (0) and since f (0) 6= 0 we can
divide through to get f (0) = 1.
For the next part, let us take y = −x. Then we have that:
1
f (0) = f (x − x) = f (x)f (−x) ⇒ 1 = f (x)f (−x) ⇒ f (x) = .
f (−x)
To show that f (x) > 0 ∀x ∈ R note that f (x) = f (x/2 + x/2) = f (x/2)f (x/2) = (f (x/2))2
and from Lemma 2 we have that f (x) 6= 0 ∀x ∈ R.
Therefore f (x) > 0 ∀x ∈ R.

(ii) Let a = f (1) (by (i) a > 0). Show that f (n) = an for all n ∈ N. Use (i) to show that
f (z) = az for all z ∈ Z.

Proof. (By induction on n)


Base Case: (n = 0).
a0 = 1 and from (i) f (0) = 1 this proves the base case.
Inductive Step: Assume for some n ∈ N that f (n) = an , then show true for n + 1.
f (n + 1) = f (n)f (1) = (an )a = an+1
Thus, by induction, we have that f (n) = an ∀n ∈ N.

For the second part note that if z ≥ 0 then we are done, so assume z < 0. Then by definition
we have −z = n for some n ∈ N.
1 1 1 1
Hence we have, f (z) = = = n = −z = az
f (−z) f (n) a a
Thus, we have that f (z) = az ∀z ∈ Z.

(iii) Show that f (r) = ar for all r ∈ Q.

Proof. Let r = p/q p, q ∈ Z, q 6= 0.


So, f (1) = f (1/q + 1/q + ... + 1/q ) = f (1/q)f (1/q)...f (1/q) = (f (1/q))q
| {z }
q times
⇒ (f (1/q)) = a ⇒ f (1/q) = a1/q
q

Now f (p/q) = f (1/q + 1/q + ... + 1/q ) = f (1/q)f (1/q)...f (1/q) = (f (1/q))p
| {z }
p times
⇒ f (p/q) = (f (1/q))p = (a1/q )p = ap/q = ar
Thus f (r) = ar .

(iv) Show that if f is continuous at x = 0, then f is continuous at every point in R

2
Proof. Since f is continuous at x = 0 we have that limx→0 f (x) = f (0) = 1.
From the multiplicative property of f and part (i) we get:

f (x)
lim = lim f (x)f (−x0 )
x→x0 f (x0 ) x→x0
= lim f (x − x0 )
x→x0

= lim f (x − x0 )
(x−x0 )→0

= f (0)
=1
f (x)
So we have that limx→x0 = 1 which implies that limx→x0 f (x) = f (x0 ).
f (x0 )
Therefore f is continuous at every point in R.

(v) Assume f is continuous at zero, use (iii) and (iv) to conclude that f (x) = ax for all x ∈ R
Proof. Let x ∈ R and let us take a sequence (rn )∞n=0 of rationals that approaches x. That is,
limn→∞ rn = x. From (iv) we have continuity and so we have limn→∞ f (rn ) = f (x). But from
(iii) we have that f (rn ) = arn hence we get that limn→∞ f (rn ) = ax . Thus f (x) = ax .
Exercise 3: A function f : R → R satisfies a Lipschitz condition with constant M > 0 if
for all x, y ∈ R,
|f (x) − f (y)| ≤ M |x − y|
Assume h, g : R → R each satisfy a Lipschitz condition with constant M1 and M2 respec-
tively.
(a) Show that (h + g) satisfies a Lipschitz condition with constant (M1 + M2 ).

Proof.
|(h + g)(x) − (h + g)(y)| = |h(x) + g(x) − (h(y) + g(y))|
= |h(x) − h(y) + g(x) − g(y)|
≤ |h(x) − h(y)| + |g(x) − g(y)|
≤ M1 |x − y| + M2 |x − y|
= (M1 + M2 )|x − y|

(b) Show that the composition (h ◦ g) satisfy a Lipschitz condition. With what constant?

Proof. |h(g(x)) − h(g(y))| ≤ M1 |g(x) − g(y)| ≤ M1 M2 |x − y|.


Constant is M1 M2

(c) Show that the product (hg) does not necessarily satisfy a Lipschitz condition. However,
if both functions are bounded then the product satisfies a Lipschitz condition.

3
Proof. From our Review we have that Lipschitz ⇒ Uniformly Continuous. Hence Not Uni-
formly Continuous ⇒ Not Lipschitz.
Using this take h, g = x certainly h, g satisfy Lipschitz, but hg is not uniformly continuous,
and hence does not satisfy Lipschitz.

Let h, g be bounded by A, B respectively. That is, |h(x)| ≤ A ∀x ∈ R and |g(x)| ≤ B ∀x ∈ R.

|h(x)g(x) − h(y)g(y)| = |h(x)g(x) − h(x)g(y) + h(x)g(y) − h(y)g(y)|


≤ |h(x)||(g(x) − g(y))| + |g(y)||(h(x) − h(y))|
≤ |h(x)|M2 |x − y| + |g(y)|M1 |x − y|
= (M1 |g(y)| + M2 |h(x)|)|x − y|
≤ (M1 B + M2 A)|x − y|
Hence we have that if h, g are bounded then the product hg satsfies a Lipschitz condition.
Exercise 4: (a) Assume that f : [0, ∞) → R is continuous at every point on its domain.
Show that if there exists b > 0 such that f is uniformly continuous on the set [b, ∞), then f
is uniformly continuous on [0, ∞).
Proof. Since f is continuous on [0, b] we can use Theorem 9.9.16 to conclude that f is
uniformly continuous on [0, b].
And now since f is uniformly continuous on [0, b] we know for every 0 > 0 there is some δ 0
such that |f (x) − f (y)| < 0 whenever x, y ∈ [0, b] such that |x − y| < δ 0
And since f is also uniformly continuous on [b, ∞) we know that for every 00 > 0 there is
some δ 00 such that |f (x) − f (y)| < 00 whenever x, y ∈ [b, ∞) such that |x − y| < δ 00

Now given  > 0 take 0 = /2 and 00 = /2 and then take δ = min(δ 0 , δ 00 ) so that |x − y| < δ
for x, y ∈ [0, ∞).
Now we have three cases:
(i): x, y ∈ [0, b]
(ii): x, y ∈ [b, ∞)
(iii): x < b < y

For case (i): Since f is uniformly continuous on [0, b] we have |f (x) − f (y)| < 0 < 
For case (ii): Since f is uniformly continuous on [b, ∞) we have |f (x) − f (y)| < 00 < 
For case (iii): Since x, b ∈ [0, b] we have |f (x) − f (b)| < 0 = /2 and since b, y ∈ [b, ∞) we
have |f (b) − f (y)| < 00 = /2
Thus we have:
|f (x) − f (y)| = |f (x) − f (b) + f (b) − f (y)|
≤ |f (x) − f (b)| + |f (b) − f (y)| (triangle inequality)
< /2 + /2
=

4
So |f (x) − f (y)| < 

In each case we have |f (x) − f (y)| <  thus f is uniformly continuous on [0, ∞)

(b) Prove that f (x) = x is uniformly continuous on [0, ∞).

Proof. First let us show that f is uniformly continuous on [1, ∞).


Given  > 0 take δ =  so that |x − x0 | < δ = , for x, x0 ∈ [1, ∞).

|x − x0 |  √ √
⇒√ √ ≤√ √ <  (as x + x0 > 1)
x + x0 x + x0

x − x0
⇒ √ √ <
x + x0
√ √
x − √x0 x + √x0

⇒ √ √ <
1 x + x0
√ √
⇒ | x − x0 | < 

Thus, f (x) = x is uniformly continuous on [1, ∞). Now from Proposition 9.4.11 we know
that f is continuous on [0, ∞) so with this and our proof that f is uniformly continuous on
[1, ∞) we can use part (a) to conclude that f is uniformly continuous on [0, ∞).
Exercise 5: Let {aj }j≥0 be a sequence of real numbers. Assume known that the derivative
of f (x) = ex equals f , that is, f is differentiable on R and f 0 (x) = ex .
(a) Show that f : R → (0, ∞) is invertible, and that its inverse f −1 : (0, ∞) → R is
differentiable. Find the derivative of the inverse function.

Proof. Since e > 1 we know that f (x) = ex is strictly increasing on (0, ∞) thus we can use
Proposition 9.8.3 to conclude that its inverse exists and is continuous. And since we have
that f 0 (x) = f (x) 6= 0 ∀x ∈ R we can use the Inverse Function Theorem to conclude
that f −1 has a derivative and that for f (x) = y we have:
1 1 1
(f −1 )0 (y) = = =
f 0 (x) ex y

(b) Define a function Fn : R → R for each n ∈ N by


 n
X
(n − j)xj e−jx

 if x > 0
Fn (x) = j=0

αn x + βn if x ≤ 0

Can you choose αn , βn ∈ R so that Fn is differentiable on R? Justify your answer.

5
Proof. First let us note that Fn is clearly continuous for x > 0 as we have a finite sum
of continuous functions (exponentials) products, and for x < 0 since we have a line. The
problem is at x = 0.
For Fn to be continuous at x = 0 we need:

n
X
αn × 0 + βn = lim+ (n − j)xj e−jx
x→0
j=0
" n
#
X
⇒ βn = lim+ (n)x0 e0 + (n − j)xj e−jx
x→0
j=1

⇒ βn = n + 0 = n.

Now we have that Fn is continuous whenever βn = n.

For differentiability we will need αn , the slope of our line (when x ≤ 0), to have the same
slope as our sum when x → 0+ .
That is, we need:

n
!
d X
αn = (n − j)xj e−jx
dx j=0 x=0
n
!
d −x
X
j −jx
⇒ αn = n + (n − 1)xe + (n − j)x e
dx j=2 x=0
n
!
X
⇒ αn = 0 + (n − 1)(e−x − xe−x ) + (n − j)(jxj−1 e−jx − jxj e−jx )
j=2 x=0
⇒ αn = n − 1

So if we take αn = n − 1 and βn = n then we have that Fn is differentiable on R.


Exercise 6: Let h be a differentiable function defined on the interval [0, 3], and assume that
h(0) = 1, h(1) = 2 and h(3) = 2.
(a) Show that there exists a point d ∈ [0, 3] such that h(d) = d.

Proof. Let us look at g : [1, 3] → R defined by g(x) = h(x) − x. Note that g is continuous
by continuity properties as both h and x are continuous.

g(1) = h(1) − 1 = 2 − 1 = 1
g(3) = h(3) − 3 = 2 − 3 = −1

Thus we have that g(3) ≤ 0 ≤ g(1) so take y = 0 and then by the Intermediate Value
Theorem we know that there exist d ∈ [1, 3] with g(d) = y = 0.
Hence, h(d) − d = 0 ⇒ h(d) = d

6
(b) Show that there exists a point c ∈ (0, 3) such that h0 (c) = 1/3.

Proof. This follows directly from the Mean Value Theorem which tells us that there is a
h(3) − h(0) 2−1 1
c ∈ (0, 3) such that h0 (c) = = =
3−0 3 3

(c) Show that there exists a point b ∈ (0, 3) such that h0 (b) = 1/4.

Proof. From Rolle’s Thoerem on the interval [1, 3] there is a point a ∈ [1, 3] such that
h0 (a) = 0. Using this and the point c from part (b) we have for α = 1/4 that
h0 (a) < α < h0 (c) hence by Darboux’s Theorem there is a point b ∈ (a, c) or b ∈ (c, a)
such that h0 (b) = α = 1/4. But (a, c) ⊂ (0, 3) or (c, a) ⊂ (0, 3) as a, c ∈ (0, 3).
Therefore ∃b ∈ (0, 3) with h0 (b) = 1/4.
Exercise 7: Decide whether the following statements are true or false. Justify your answers
with a couple sentences, an example, or a reference.
(a) Continuous functions take bounded closed intervals to bounded closed intervals
True from Lemma 9.6.3.
(b) The inverse image of a convergent sequence under a continuous function is necessarily a
convergent sequence.
False. Take f (x) = 1/x for x > 0, then f −1 (y) = 1/y. Now if we take yn = 1/n → 0 (as
n → ∞), then f −1 (1/n) = n → ∞.
(c) There is a continuous function on an interval that takes exactly two values.
False. Assume there is such a function, say f , and let f (a) 6= f (b) be the two distinct values
of f . Since f is continuous we can use the Intermediate Value Theorem to get any value
y with f (a) < y < f (b) or f (b) < y < f (a) contradicting that the function took on exactly
two values.
(d) If f is differentiable on [a, b], then between any two zeroes of f there must be a zero of
its derivative f 0 .
True from Rolle’s Theorem.
(e) There is a differentiable function at x0 that is not continuous at x0 .
False by Proposition 10.1.10.

Bonus: Let f : [a, b] → [a, b], assume there is c with 0 < c < 1 such that
|f (x) − f (y)| ≤ c|x − y| ∀ x, y ∈ [a, b]

(a) Show that f is uniformly continuous on [a, b].

Proof. Give  > 0 take δ = /c


Then for x, y ∈ [a, b] with |x − y| < δ we have that |x − y| < /c ⇒ c|x − y| < .
But by hypothesis, |f (x) − f (y)| ≤ c|x − y| hence |f (x) − f (y)| < .
Therefore f is uniformly continuous.

7
(b) Pick some y0 ∈ [a, b] and given yn define inductively yn+1 = f (yn ). Show that the
sequence (yn )∞
n=0 is a Cauchy sequence. Show that there is some y ∈ [a, b] such that
limn→∞ yn = y.

Proof. Let n, m > N

|f (yn−1 ) − f (ym−1 )| = |yn − ym |


= |yn − yn−1 + yn−1 − yn−2 + ... + ym+1 − ym |
≤ cn−1 |y1 − y0 | + cn−2 |y1 − y0 | + ... + cn−m |y1 − y0 |
= |y1 − y0 |(cn−m + cn−m+1 + ... + cn−1 )

But the latter part is the tail end of a geometric series with |c| < 1 and thus goes to 0. So
with N large enough we can say that |yn − ym | < . Hence (yn )∞ n=0 is Cauchy.

For the second part, we use Theorem 6.4.18 to get that (yn )∞
n=0 is a convergent sequence
and then we can use Corollary 9.1.17 to conclude that (yn )∞n=0 converges in [a, b] hence
∃y ∈ [a, b] with limn→∞ yn = y.

(c) Prove that y is a fixed point, that is, f (y) = y.

Proof. This is a result of part (b).


Since f is continuous we have limn→∞ f (yn ) = f (y)
but (f (yn )) ∼ (yn ) hence limn→∞ f (yn ) = limn→∞ (yn ) = y
Thus f (y) = y.

(d) Finally, prove that given any x ∈ [a, b], then the sequence defined inductively by:
x0 = x, xn+1 = f (xn ) converges to y as defined in part (b).

Proof. Since y0 was arbitrarily chosen from [a, b] we know that every sequence defined this
way is Cauchy and converges to a fixed point.

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