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Professional Education Assessment of Learning

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
611 views15 pages

Professional Education Assessment of Learning

Professional Education Assessment of LearningProfessional Education Assessment of LearningProfessional Education Assessment of LearningProfessional Education Assessment of LearningProfessional Education Assessment of LearningProfessional Education Assessment of LearningProfessional Education Assessment of Learning
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© © All Rights Reserved
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Professional Education

Assessment of Learning
DR. LOURDES E. ABIOG
Lecturer

Directions: Read carefully each item and the choices below it. Choose the letter of the word/s that
will make the sentence correct.

1. Which is the most reliable tool of seeing the development in your pupils ability to write?
A. Portfolio assessment C. Interview of pupils
B. Scoring rubric D. Self-assessment
2. Here is a test item: ___ is an example of a mammal. What is defective with this test item?
A. The blank is at the beginning of the sentence
B. It is a very short question
C. It is an insignificant test item
D. It is very elementary
3. Which improvement/s should be done on this completion test item: An example of a mammal is _
A. The questions should have only one acceptable answer
B. The blank should be at the beginning of the sentence
C. The item should give more cues
D. The blank should be longer in accommodate all possible answers
4. How much of the scientific method has your pupils acquired? This is best measured in their skill
to ___
I. generate and test hypotheses
II. critic and evaluate
III. see connectedness of events
A. II and III B. I and II C. I only D. I, II and III
Study this test and answer questions # 15 21
Teacher Z gave this test to her pupils. Study it thoroughly then answer the questions that
follow:

_____ 1. Sum A. Numbers to be added


_____ 2. Addends B. 25
_____ 3. The formula for the area of a rectangle C. The answer in addition
_____ 4. Multiplier D. Alexander Venn
_____ 5. Product E. A = 1 x w
_____ 6. Formula for the perimeter of a rectangle F. 3/2
_____ 7. He introduced the Venn diagram G. P = 2(1) + 2 (w)
_____ 8. An example of an improper fraction H. The number by which you
multiply
_____ 9. Equivalent of in decimal I. The answer in multiplication

5. Are the terms in the correct columns?


A. No, because this is a perfect matching type of test
B. Yes, that is exactly how the items should be arranged
C. Yes and no, that depends on teachers lesson objective
D. No, the items on the left should be on the right; the items on the right should be on the left.
6. One defect of Teacher Zs test is the items to match are ___.
A. very few C. heterogeneous
B. homogenous D. insignificant
7. How can the test be improved?
A. Ask more significant items
B. Add to the number of foils
C. Increase the number of items to match
D. Increase the difficulty level of the test
8. Which can be a basic improvement of the test?
A. Increase the facility index of the test
B. Make the items heterogeneous
C. Increase the number of test items
D. Make the items homogeneous
9. Which does the test lack?
I. Directions
II. Label of the Columns
III. Foil among the options
IV. One Correct Answer
A. I, II and III B. III only C. I, III and IV D. II and III
10. Which statement is TRUE of the test?
A. It is a reliable test because it covers a wide scope of subject matter
B. It is an ideal perfect matching type of test
C. It is a good type of an imperfect matching test
D. The items can be answered by mere process of elimination
11. Which principle in test construction for a matching type of test was not observed?
A. If your matching test is of the imperfect type, caution the examinee
B. Test items must be heterogeneous
C. Test items must be homogeneous
D. If your matching test is of the perfect type, inform the examinee
Here is a test. Study it thoroughly then answer the questions # 22-29.

____ 1. Thought A. Anybody


____ 2. Noun B. Past form of the verb think
____ 3. He wrote To the Filipino Youth C. He is the Great Plebeian
____ 4. Walk D. An example of an adverb
____ 5. Andres Bonifacio E. An example of a collective noun
____ 6. Class F. Looks like verb but is used as a noun
____ 7. Gerund G. Describes a noun and a pronoun
____ 8. Adjective H. An example of an intransitive verb
____ 9. Very I. Jose Rizal
____ 10. Pronoun J. A name word

12. Whats faulty with the test?


A. The options have no joker
B. The test items are on trivia
C. Some items are not meant to be asked in a matching type of test
D. The test items are limited in number
13. Which is one way to improve the text?
A. Reduce the difficulty index
B. Increase the options by at least two
C. Add to the number of items
D. Make it a perfect type of matching test
14. Whats wrong with test items? The items are ___.
A. heterogeneous C. easy
B. homogeneous D. insignificant
15. How can you improve the test?
A. Make the items heterogeneous
B. Make the items homogeneous
C. Reduce the facility index
D. Widen its scope and coverage
16. What does the test lack?
A. 5 additional test items C. Blanks before the capital letters
B. More names of persons D. Distracter/s
17. Which is TRUE of the test?
A. The test items are homogeneous
B. The test is quite short for a matching type
C. The right and the left columns should exchange position
D. There are enough foils in the options
18. Which is TRUE of the test?
A. Some items can be answered by mere process of elimination
B. It is classified as an imperfect matching type of test
C. It is reliable because it has a wide coverage of subject
D. We have more than enough foils in the options
19. Which does the test lack?
I. Additional test items
II. Colum labels
III. Directions
A. I and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. I, II and III
20. Whats defective with this test item?

The Philippines
A. is in Southeast Asia
B. has a democratic form of government
C. belongs to the Third World
D. is the most thickly populated in Southeast Asia

I. The stem does not contain the question


II. The stem is very short
III. It has several correct answers
A. I only B. II only C. III D. I and III
21. How can you improve on this multiple choice test item?

A test is valid when ___.

A. it measures what it purports to measure


B. covers a broad scope of subject matter
C. reliability of scores
D. easy to administer

A. Construct the options in such a way that the grammar of the sentence remains correct
B. Make the length of the options uniform
C. Make the options parallel
D. Pack the question in the stem
22. Read this True-False item and answer the question that follows:
Andres Bonifacio founded the Katipunan. Which principle in test construction is violated?
A. Test something significant
B. Make use of simple words
C. There should be sufficient reasons to make the statement false
D. Avoid qualitative terms
23. Here is Teacher Ellas lesson objective: To trace the causes of Alzheimers disease. Which is a
valid test for this particular objective?
A. Do young people also get attacked by Alzheimers disease? Support your answer.
B. What is an Alzheimers disease?
C. Can an Alzheimers disease be traced to old age? Explain your answer.
D. To what factors can Alzheimers disease be traced? Explain.
24. Here is Teacher Joys instructional objective: To distinguish between proper and improper
fraction. Which is a valid test item for such objective?
A. Define proper and improper fractions
B. Put a check (/) on the proper fractions and an X over the improper: , 4/3, , 5/6, 7/8, 9/7,
2/10, 6/12
C. Is an improper fraction really a fraction? Explain your answer.
D. Can you add proper and improper fractions together? Explain.
25. Teacher Emma does NOT wait for the end of the term to find out how much the students learn.
With which does Teacher G agree?
A. Formative evaluation C. Summative evaluation
B. Authentic evaluation D. Norm-reference evaluation
26. Even in the process of the teaching. Teacher J finds out if her students understand what she is
teaching. What is Teacher J engaged in?
A. Summative evaluation C. Formative evaluation
B. Criterion-reference evaluation D. Norm-reference evaluation
27. To what extent were the objectives of the course met? This is the concern of the process of ___
evaluation.
A. authentic C. norm-referenced
B. criterion-referenced D. formative
28. Other than finding out how well the course objectives were met, Teacher K also wants to know is
students performance when compared with other students in the class. What is Teacher K
interested to do?
A. Authentic evaluation C. Criterion-referenced evaluation
B. Formative evaluation D. Norm-referenced evaluation
29. Which is a valid assessment tool if your want to find out how well your students can speak
extemporaneously?
A. Performance test in extemporaneous speaking
B. Written quiz on how to deliver extemporaneous speech
C. Display of speeches delivered
D. Writing speeches
30. Which must go with self-assessment for it to be effective?
A. External monitor
B. Consensus of evaluation results from teacher and student
C. Scoring rubric
D. Public display of results of self-evaluation
31. Which must be present for self-evaluation to succeed?
A. Consensus between teacher and student regarding evaluation results
B. Teachers approval of self-evaluation results
C. Teachers monitoring of self-evaluation process
D. Students intrinsic motivation to learn
32. After a lesson on the atom, the students were asked to work on a physical model of the atom to
determine learning. What MI is being enhanced?
A. Linguistic C. Mathematical
B. Interpersonal D. Kinesthetical
33. Teachers are encouraged to make use of authentic assessment. Which goes with authentic
assessment?
A. Unrealistic performances
B. De-contextualized drills
C. Real world application of lessons learned
D. Answering high multiple choice test items
34. Which will be the most authentic assessment tool for an instructional objective on working with
and relating to people?
A. Conducting mock election
B. Home visitation
C. Organizing a community project
D. Writing articles on working and relating to people
Study the Table of Specifications below then answer questions #35-40.
Objective Topic No. of Hours Type of Test No. of Items
and Minutes
1. To write a Writing a fraction 30 minutes Multiple choice 3/Comprehension
fraction and application
2. To add Adding proper 1 hour Completion 12/Comprehension
proper fractions
fractions
3. To Differentiating 30 minutes Short answer 3/Comprehension
distinguish proper and
between improper
proper and fractions
improper
fractions
4. To add Adding improper 1 hour and Completion 6/Comprehension
improper fractions 30 minutes
fractions
5. To reduce Reducing 1 hour and Short answer 6/Comprehension
fractions to fractions to their 30 minutes
their lowest lowest terms
terms
6. To solve Problem solving 2 hours Problem solving 9/Application and
problems on adding proper Analysis
involving and improper
adding fractions
proper and
improper
fractions
Total Number of Items 47 items
35. Are the number of test items per objective proportionate to the number of hours spent for each
objective?
A. Yes C. No, but it is NOT necessary
B. No, but it should be D. It cannot be determined
36. Is this test item valid for objective #1 as contained in the Table of Specifications?

I divided a cake equally into four. I ate two pieces. Which part did I eat?

A. 2/4 C. 3/4
B. D. 4/2

A. Yes C. No, but it is NOT necessary


B. No D. It cannot be determined
37. Which test item is in accordance with objective #3 in the Table of Specifications?
A. What is the difference between proper and improper fractions?
B. Give an example of an improper fraction
C. Give an example of a proper fraction
D. Define proper and improper fractions
38. If you have to be true to your Table of Specifications when you make your test, on which objective
should you have the least items?
A. Objective #2 C. Objective #3
B. Objective #1 D. Objectives #1 and #3
39. If you have to be true to your Table of Specifications when you make your test, on which objective
should you have the most number of items?
A. Objective #5 C. Objective #4
B. Objective #6 D. Objectives #5 and #6
40. Which is valid test item for objective #5?
A. How do you reduce a fraction to its lowest term?
B. Is 4/6 equal to 1 1/3?
C. What is meant by lowest term?
D. What is 3/6 in its lowest term?
41. Which is a restricted essay test?
A. What should the Department of Education do to solve the perennial problem of poor quality of
basic education? Give and justify your proposals.
B. If you were President of the Philippines, what would you do to spur the nations economic
growth?
C. What conditions must be present for photosynthesis to take place? Explain each factor in not
more than 3 sentences.
D. Why are more and more people sick of Alzheimers disease?
42. The best way to assess learning is to use real-life situations, objects and materials existing in the
environment. Hence, teachers are encouraged to use ___.
A. rating scale C. observation technique
B. pencil-and -paper test D. authentic assessment
43. The main purpose in administering a pretest and a posttest to students is to ___.
A. accustom the students in frequent testing
B. keep adequate records
C. measure the value of the material used
D. measure gains in learning
44. Understanding of a concept is revealed as ___, the ability to accomplish tasks successfully under
pressure.
A. performance in teamwork C. performance in arts
B. performance know-how D. performance at works
45. The more information teachers obtain about how students perform, the more capacity they have
to rethink their pedagogy, and the more opportunities they create for student success. Which
statement BEST explains the text above?
A. Teachers should keep track of learning outcomes
B. Teachers should keep records of family background
C. Teacher should file information
D. Teacher should teach to test
46. The collegial process of developing and evaluating performance assessment help to understand
the ________ needed to purpose high quality performance.
A. tests B. information C. materials D. scaffolding
47. Which of the following statements is/are NOT TRUE about assessment?
I. Feedback is the most important factor in assessment
II. Only those that can be objectively measured should be taught
III. Assessment should follow a development pattern
IV. Identifying systematic errors committed by students should be the basis of remedial
instruction
A. II only B. IV only C. III and IV D. I and II
48. Referring to assessment, what are the essential features that should be explained to the
learners?
I. Role of learners in the assessment
II. Why learners will be assessed
III. How their performance will be measured
IV. How the results will be used
A. II, III, IV B. I, II, III C. II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV
49. To identify learning needs and respond to such needs the teacher administers a ___test.
A. formative B. summative C. periodic D. diagnostic
50. In constructing test items the teachers considers the alignment of ___ assessment.
A. content and process C. instructional objectives
B. monitoring and evaluation D. instructional materials
51. The principle of learner ___ makes assessment a shared responsibility with the teacher.
A. performance B. accountability C. responsibility D. evaluation
52. The Department of Education directed that the lowest passing grade is ___% and the lowest
failing grade is ___% in the report card.
A. 70-60 B. 75-20 C. 75-65 D. 70-50
53. Among the components of the learners marks/ratings, Behavior is reflected in ___.
A. Values Education (CERC) C. Filipino
B. English D. Outputs/Projects
54. Test scores are totaled at the end of each grading period and computed using the formula:
A. [Students score / Highest possible score] x 100
B. [Highest score / lowest possible score] x 100
C. [Test scores = transmutation table] x 100
D. [Students score x 100%]
55. Scoring guides for rating open-ended questions are called ___.
A. outputs C. rubrics
B. outcomes D. scales
Read the rubric for assessing outputs and answer question #56.

8-10 pts Demonstrates imaginative thinking and unique qualities


5-7 pts Demonstrates moderate imaginative skills
1-4 pts Lacks imaginative thinking

56. What is being assessed by the above criteria?


A. appeal B. creativity C. aesthetic D. workmanship
57. Which of the following assessment tools would you recommend if one should adhere to
constructivist theory of learning?
I. Constructed response test
II. Performance test
III. Checklist of a motor screening test
IV. Observation test
A. I and II B. II and III C. I, II and III D. I, II and IV
58. Which of these are non-threatening means of assessing learning outcomes?
I. Portfolio
II. Self-evaluation
III. Peer evaluation
IV. Learning journals
A. I and II B. I and III C. I, II, IV D. II and III
59. A criterion-referenced test is designed to determine whether or not a student has ___.
A. performed well in a wide content coverage
B. performed higher than the other members of a group
C. reached a present target
D. reached a performance level on a specific skill
60. What is an alternative assessment tool for teaching and learning consisting of a collection of
work/artifacts finished or in-progress accomplished by the targeted clientele?
A. Rubric C. Evaluation instrument
B. Achievement test D. Portfolio
61. Which is a scoring guide that lists the criteria and their levels of quality on which evaluation will be
focused?
A. Journal B. Portfolio C. Rubric D. Stem
62. Which of these approaches would reform assessment of learning outcomes?
A. Use standard as means of giving feedback on student learning
B. Compare results of performance of all schools
C. Focus on testing without investing an learners special needs
D. Apply sanctions on low performing schools
63. Essay questions are used in an achievement test when ___.
A. most of the material sampled is factorial information
B. a wide sampling of material is desired
C. originality is a factor in the response
D. little time is available for construction and scoring
64. Which of the following are alternative assessments?
A. Portfolio, exhibits, journals
B. Paper and pencil test, demonstration, reports
C. Student self-assessment, authentic assessment, surveys
D. Multiple choice, structured observations, sentence completion
65. The constructivist theory of learning postulates that children learn by doing. Based on the theory,
which of these would you consider in assessing learning?
I. Focus is on the product
II. Rubric criteria should be set
III. Focus is on process
IV. Multiple observation
A. I and II B. II and III C. III and IV D. I and IV
66. Which among the indicators could be most useful for assessing quality of schooling?
A. Participation rate C. Net enrollment rate
B. Cohort survival rate D. Drop-out rate
67. Which are the two (2) most important underpinning knowledge and skills for effective student
assessment?
I. Alternative assessment systems including formative, summative, descriptive and
negotiated approaches
II. Assessment principles of reliability, validity, flexibility, authenticity, sufficiency and
consistency
III. Characteristics of the learner
IV. Ethical responsibilities including confidentiality in the conduct and results of student
assessment
V. School policies on student assessment
A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. III and IV
68. You would like to assess students ability to write a portfolio. What type of test will determine their
ability to organize ideas and think critically?
A. Long test B. Essay test C. Formative test D. Summative test
69. When a student clarifies information from conclusion, what cognitive domain is involved?
A. analysis B. evaluation C. application D. synthesis
70. In the context of the 6 facets of understanding cited by Wiggins and McTighe, what is a proof of a
students understanding a principle?
A. Repeating the principle given by the teacher
B. Applying it to solve his/her problem
C. Stating it from memory
D. Memorizing it
71. Which of the following statements concerning test validity and reliability is most accurate?
A. A valid test is a reliable test
B. A reliable test is valid test
C. A test cannot be valid and reliable unless it is objective
D. A test cannot be valid and reliable unless it is standardized
72. The instructions for a test are made simple, clear and concise. This is part of which of the
following characteristics of a good test?
A. Objectivity B. Economy C. Administrability D. Scorability
73. An entering student in college would like to determine which vocation is best suited for him.
Which of the following tests is most appropriate for his purpose?
A. Intelligence test B. Readiness test C. Achievement test D. Aptitude test
74. Teacher Elsa gave a test in grammar. She found out that one half of the class scored very low.
She plans to give another test to the pupils who scored very low to find out exactly where they are
weak. Which type of test is this?
A. Placement test B. Diagnostic test C. Achievement test D. Intelligence test
75. Which of the following is a precise meaning of evaluation?
A. Collecting data relevant to personal characteristics
B. Administrating teacher-made tests
C. Interpreting and attaching value to data collected
D. Scoring accomplished tests
76. Which is NOT a characteristic of authentic assessment?
A. Is focused on lifelike, meaningful, relevant types of student learning
B. Offers opportunities to study problem intensively
C. Easy to complete
D. Fruitful in terms of genuine learning
77. Which is the LEAST authentic mode of assessment?
A. Paper-and-pencil test in vocabulary
B. Oral performance to assess students spoken communication skills
C. Artistic production for music or art subject
D. Experiments in science to assess science method
78. Which of the following may NOT be adequately assessed by a paper-and-pencil test?
A. Subject-verb agreement C. Multiplication skills in Math
B. Vocabulary D. Sight reading in Music
79. Teacher Rose wants to determine students strengths and weaknesses in the use of laboratory
equipment. Which assessment procedure will be most appropriate and authentic?
A. Observation of students use of laboratory equipment while they conduct experiments
B. Paper-and-pencil test that requires students to enumerate the dos and donts in the use of
laboratory equipment
C. Practicum test on the use of laboratory equipment
D. Requiring students to draw and label the laboratory equipment
80. Marking on a normative basis means that ___.
A. the normal curve of distribution should be followed
B. some students must fail
C. fewer students must get high marks
D. grades show how a student achieves relative to other students
81. Teaching by objective logically goes hand in hand with which type(s) of evaluation?
A. Norm-referenced C. Standardized
B. Criterion-referenced D. Norm-referenced and standardized
82. The difficulty index of a test item is one (1). What does this mean?
A. The test item is very good, so retain it C. The test item is extremely easy
B. The test item is very difficult D. The test item is not
83. The facility index of a test item is .50. This means that the test item is ___.
A. Valid C. very easy
B. moderate in difficulty D. reliable
84. The discrimination index of a test item is -/35. What does this mean?
A. More from the upper group got the item correctly
B. More from the lower group got the item correctly
C. The test is quite reliable
D. The test item is valid
85. The discrimination index of a test item is +48. What does this mean?
A. An equal number from the lower and upper group got the item correctly
B. More from the upper group got the item wrongly
C. More from the lower group got the item correctly
D. More from the upper group got the item correctly
86. If the difficulty index of your test item is .98, what should you do with this item?
A. Revise it C. Reject it
B. Reject it D. Reserve it for another group of pupils
87. If the difficulty index of your test items is .10, what should you do with this item?
A. Retain it C. Reject it
B. Revise it D. Reserve it for another group of pupils
88. A negative discrimination index of a test item tells that particular test item lacks ___.
A. objectivity B. reliability C. content validity D. construct validity
Read the following then answer questions #89-93

In a multiple choice test item with options A-B-C-D and out of 50 examinees:
A. the correct answer, was chosen by 5;
B. was chosen by 30;
C. was chosen by 13 and;
D. was chosen by 2

89. Which was the MOST effective distracter?


A. Option A B. Option C C. Option D D. Option B
90. Which was the LEAST effective distracter?
A. Option C B. Option D C. Option B D. Option A
91. Which must have served as a plausible option/s?
A. Option B B. Option D C. Option C D. Option B, C and D
92. Which statement can be TRUE of the test item?
A. The difficulty index must be low
B. The difficulty index must be high
C. It cannot be determined
D. The test item must be reliable
93. How do you consider Option D?
A. Most effective distracter C. Ineffective distracter
B. Effective distracter D. Attractive option
Read the following questions # 94-97.

In a multiple choice test item with options A-B-C-D and out of 50 examinees:

A. was chosen by 12;


B. was chosen by 2;
C. the correct answer was chosen by 6 and;
D. was chosen by 30

94. Which was the MOST effective distracter?


A. Option C B. Option D C. Option B D. Option A
95. Which must have served as a plausible option/s?
A. Option D B. Option B C. Option C D. Options A and B
96. Which statement may be TRUE of the test item?
A. The test item may be reliable
B. The difficulty index may be high
C. The difficulty index cannot be determined
D. The difficulty index may be low
97. How do you consider option B?
A. Most effective distracter C. The difficulty index cannot be determined
B. Effective distracter D. The difficulty index may be low
98. In a one hundred-item test, what does Ryans raw score of 70 mean?
A. He surpassed 30 of his classmates in terms of score
B. He got 70 items correct
C. He surpassed 70 of his classmates in terms of score.
D. He got a score above the mean
99. Your percentile rank in class is 60%. What does this mean?
A. You got 40% of the test items wrongly
B. You scored less than 60% of the class
C. You got 60% of the test items correctly
D. You scored better than 60% of the class
100. Here are raw scores in a quiz: 97, 95, 85, 85, 77, 75, 50, 10, 5, 2, 1. To get a picture of
the groups performance, which measure of central tendency is most reliable?
A. Mode C. Median
B. Mean D. None. It is best to look at the individual scores
101. Here is a score distribution: 98, 93, 93, 93, 90, 88, 87, 85, 85, 85, 70, 51, 34, 34, 34,
20, 18, 15, 12, 9, 8, 6, 3, 1.
Which is a characteristic of the score distribution?
A. No discernible pattern C. Bi-modal
B. Tri-modal D. Skewed to the right
102. Here is a score distribution: 98, 93, 93, 93, 90, 88, 87, 85, 85, 85, 70, 51, 34, 34, 34,
20, 18, 15, 12, 9, 8, 6, 3, 1.
Which is the range?
A. 93 B. 85 C. 97 D. Between 51 and 34
103. Which measure of central tendency is most reliable when scores are extremely high
and low?
A. Cannot be identified unless individual scores are given
B. Mode
C. Mean
D. Median
104. Which is TRUE when standard deviation is small?
A. Scores are tightly bunched together C. Scores are spread apart
B. The bell curve is relatively flat D. Scores are toward both extremes
105. Which is TRUE when standard deviation is big?
A. The bell curve shape is steep C. Scores are concentrated
B. Scores are spread apart D. Scores are not extremes
106. You have computed the mean and you want to get more information about the
distribution of scores. Which measure of variability is most appropriate?
A. Standard deviation C. Semi-interquartile range
B. Mode D. Range
107. Which one indicates a strong negative correlation?
A. -.75 B. -.10 C. -.25 D. -.15
SITUATIONS Refer to the table below to answer items 123-124.
Reading Comprehension Test Results in MPS
Grade III-School A
Grade III Section English (MPS) Filipino (MPS)
A 75 87
B 60 30
C 32 60
D 80 90
E 51 72
108. Which sections should be given remedial instruction in English and Filipino
A. Section B only B. Section C only C. Sections B and C D. Sections B, C and E
109. If the Grade III Section C teacher targeted a 10% increase but obtained a MPS of 45,
which of these statements are NOT TRUE?
I. Grade III Section C met the target with an absolute 13% increase in performance
II. Grade III Section C improved in Filipino, but not in English
III. Grade III Section C surpassed the target with a 45% increase
IV. Grade III Section C showed marked improvement in English
A. I and II B. I and III C. I and IV D. II and III
110. What is/are TRUE of 2004 and 2008 data on literacy?
I. There is a greater percentage of literacy among men than women
II. The percentage of literacy increases as age increases
A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. Neither I or II
111. Mrs. Pua is judging the worth of the project of the students in her Science class based
on a set of criteria. What process describes what she is doing?
A. Testing B. Measuring C. Evaluating D. Assessing
112. Mrs. Acebuche is comparing measurement from evaluation. Which statement explains
the difference?
A. Measurement is assigning a numerical value to a given trait while evaluation is giving
meaning to the numerical value of the trait
B. Measurement is the process of gathering data while evaluation is giving meaning to the
numerical value of the trait
C. Measurement is the process of quantifying data while evaluation is the process of organizing
data
D. Measurement is a pre-requisite of assessment while evaluation is the pre-requisite of testing
113. Ms. Ricafort uses alternative methods of assessment. Which of the following will she
NOT likely use?
A. Multiple Choice Test C. Oral Presentation
B. Reflective Journal Writing D. Developing Portfolios
114. Ms. Camba aims to measure a product of learning. Which of these objectives will she
most likely set for her instruction?
A. Show positive attitude towards learning common nouns
B. Identify common nouns in a reading selection
C. Construct a paragraph using common nouns
D. Use a common noun in a sentence
115. The students of Mrs. Valino are very noisy. To keep them busy, they were given any
test available in the classroom and then the results were graded as a way to punish them. Which
statement best explains if the practice is acceptable or not?
A. The practice is acceptable because the students behaved well when they were given a test
B. The practice is not acceptable because it violates the principle of reliability
C. The practice is not acceptable because it violates the principle of validity
D. The practice is acceptable since the test results are graded
116. Ms. Delos Angeles advocates assessment FOR learning. Which will she NOT likely
do?
A. Formative Assessment C. Placement Assessment
B. Diagnostic Assessment D. Summative Assessment
117. At the beginning of the school year, the 6-year old pupils were tested to find out who
among them can already read. The result was used to determine their sections. What kind of test
was given to them?
A. Diagnostic B. Formative C. Placement D. Summative
118. The grade six pupils were given a diagnostic test in addition and subtraction of whole
numbers to find out if they can proceed to the next unit. However, the results of the test were very
low. What should the teacher do?
A. Proceed to the next lesson to be able to finish all the topics in the course
B. Construct another test parallel to the given test to determine the consistency of the scores
C. Count the frequency of errors to find out the lessons that the majority of students need to
relearn.
D. Record the scores then inform the parents about the very poor performance of their child in
mathematics
119. Mrs. Nogueras is doing an assessment OF learning. At what stage of instruction
should she do it?
A. before instruction C. prior to instruction
B. after instruction D. during the instructional process
120. Mr. Cartilla developed an Achievement Test in Math for her grade three pupils. Before
she finalized the test, she examined carefully if the test items were constructed based on the
competencies that have to be tested. What test of validity was she trying to establish?
A. content-validity C. predictive validity
B. concurrent validity D. construct validity
121. Mrs. Robles wants to establish the reliability of her achievement test in English. Which
of the following activities will help achieve her purpose?
A. Administer two parallel tests to different groups of students
B. Administer two equivalent tests to the same group of students
C. Administer a single test but to two different groups of students
D. Administer two different tests but to the same group of students
Refer to the situation below in answering items 122 and 123.

A teacher set the following objectives for the days lesson:


At the end of the period, the students should be able to:
A. identify the parts of a friendly letter;
B. construct a friendly letter using the MS Word; and
C. show interest towards the days lesson
To assess the attainment of the objectives, Ms. Cidro required the students to construct a friendly
letter and have it encoded at their Computer Laboratory using the MS Word. The letter should inform
ones friend about what one has learned in the days lesson and how one felt about it.

122. Which is NOT true about the given case?


A. Ms. Cidro practices a balanced assessment
B. Ms. Cidros assessment method is performance-based
C. Ms. Cidro needs a rubric in scoring the work of the students
D. Ms. Cirdos assessment targets are all in the cognitive domain
123. If Mr. Paraiso will have to make a scoring rubric for the students output, what format is
better to construct considering that the teacher has limited time to evaluate their work?
A. Analytic Rubric B. Holistic Rubric C. Either A or B D. Neither A nor B
124. The school principal has 3 teacher applicants all of whom graduated from the same
institution and are all licensed teachers. She only needs to hire one. What should she do to
choose the best teacher from the three?
I. Give them a placement test
II. Interview them on why they want to apply in the school
III. Let them demonstrate how to teach a particular lesson
IV. Study their portfolios to examine the qualities of the students outputs when they were in
College
A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III, IV D. II, III and IV
125. What should be done first when planning for a performance-based assessment?
A. Determine the table of specifications of the tasks
B. Set the competency to be assessed
C. Set the criteria in scoring the task
D. Prepare a scoring rubric
126. To maximize the amount of time spent for performance-based assessment, which one
should be done?
A. Plan a task that can be used for instruction and assessment at the same time
B. Assess one objective for one performance task
C. Set objectives only for cognitive domains
D. Limit the task to one meeting only
127. Who among the teachers below gave the most authentic assessment task for the
objective Solve word problems involving the four basic operations?
A. Mrs. Juliano who presented a word problem involving the four fundamental operations and
then asked the pupils to solve it
B. Mrs. Mandia who asked her pupils to construct a word problem for a given number sentence
that involves
C. Mrs. Malang who asked her pupils to construct any word problem that involves, the four
fundamental operations and then asked them to show how to solve it
D. Mrs. Pontipedra who asked her pupils to construct any word problem that involves the four
fundamental operations then formed them by twos so that each pair exchanged problems
and helped solve each others problem
128. Which is WRONG to assume about traditional assessment?
A. It can assess individuals objectively
B. It also stresses doing, not only knowing
C. It accentuates on process as well as product
D. It can assess fairly all the domains of intelligence of an individual
129. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE?
A. It emphasizes merely process
B. It also stresses doing, not only knowing
C. It accentuates on process as well as product
D. Essay tests are an example of performance-based assessments
130. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based?
A. Portfolio assessment is a dynamic assessment
B. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge
C. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score
D. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score
131. Which is a good portfolio evidence of a students acquired knowledge and writing skills?
A. Project B. Test Results C. Reflective Journal D. Critiqued Outputs
132. When planning for portfolio assessment, which should you do first?
A. Set the targets for portfolio assessment
B. Exhibit ones work and be proud of ones collection
C. Select evidences that could be captured in ones portfolio
D. Reflect one ones collection and identity strengths and weakness
133. Which kind of rubric is BEST to use in rating students projects done for several days?
A. Analytic C. Either holistic or analytic
B. Holistic D. Both holistic and analytic
134. Which is NOT TRUE of analytic rubric?
A. It is time consuming
B. It is easier to construct than the holistic rubric
C. It gives ones level of performance per criterion
D. It allows one to pinpoint the strengths and weaknesses of ones work
135. Mrs. Bacani prepared a rubric with 5 levels of performance described as 5-excellent, 4-
very satisfactory, 3-satisfactory, 2-needs improvement, 1-poor. After using this rubric with these
descriptions, she found out that most of her students had a rating of 3. Even those who are
evidently poor in their performance had a rating of satisfactory. Could there be a possible error in
the use of the rubric?
A. Yes, the teacher could have committed the generosity error
B. Yes, the teacher could have committed the central tendency source of error
C. No, it is just common to see more of the students having a grade of 3 in a 5-point scale
D. No, such result acceptable as long as it has a positive consequence to the students
136. If a test item has a difficulty index of 0.06, how would you describe the test item?
A. It is very easy C. It is very difficulty
B. It moderately difficulty D. It is difficult
137. Two sections have the same mean but the standard deviation of section 2 is higher than
section 1. Which of the two sections is more homogenous?
A. Section 1 B. Section 2 C. Both A and B D. None from the above
138. In his second item analysis, Mr. Gonzales found out that more from the lower group got
the test item 15 correctly. What does this mean?
A. The item has become more valid C. The item has a positive discriminating power
B. The item has become more reliable D. The item has a negative discriminating power
139. In conducting a parent teacher conference, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Be friendly and informal C. Be willing to accept suggestions
B. Be a know it all person D. Be careful in giving advice
140. In a frequency distribution, what is the midpoint of the class interval whose lower and
upper limits are 99.5 and 109.5?
A. 107.0 B. 105.0 C. 104.5 D. 102.5
141. In a frequency distribution, what is the interval size of the class whose lower and upper
limits are 9.5 and 19.5?
A. 11.0 B. 10.0 C. 9.0 D. 5.0
142. Given a mean of 55 and a standard deviation of 8, what two scores include one standard
deviation below and above the mean?
A. 46 and 63 B. 47 and 64 C. 47 and 63 D. 46 and 64
143. What principle of test construction is violated when one places very difficulty items at the
beginning; thus creating frustration among students particularly those of average ability and
below average?
A. All the items of particular type should be placed together in the test
B. The items should be phrased so that the content rather than the form of the statements will
determine the answer
C. All items should be approximately 50 percent difficulty
D. The items of any particular type should be arranged in an ascending order of difficulty
144. If the proportion passing for the upper and lower group is .90 and .30 respectively, what
is discrimination index?
A. .40 B. .50 C. .60 D. .70
145. Mr. Mirasol who is a high school teacher in English conducted an item analysis of her
test. She found out that four of the items of the test obtained the following difficulty and
discrimination indices and as follows:
Item Number Difficulty Index Discrimination Index
1 .58 .49
2 .92 .72
3 .09 .32
4 .93 .15
Which of the above items should she discard in her item pool?
A. Item 1 B. Item 2 C. Item 3 D. Item 4

GOD BLESS!!!!!

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