Hidden EP Quiz No.02
Hidden EP Quiz No.02
Hidden EP Quiz No.02
A. Base map
B. Land use map
C. Slope map
D. Geologic map
E. Physical constraint map
2) This type of plan shows the allocation of land into broad functional classes, e.g., development
areas, conservation/preservation areas; agricultural area and forest areas.
A. Structure Plan
B. General Land Use Plan
C. Development Plan
D. Comprehensive Plan
Discuss this Question
3) Which of the following is not a factor in determining the suitability of land for an industrial
estate?
A. Load-nearing capacity
B. Soil fertility
C. Drainage
D. Slope
E. Location
Discuss this Question
Correct
4) What ratio between sealable and non-saleable portions of the subdivision is required for
projects developed under BP 220 standards?
A. No fixed ratio
B. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
C. 40% saleable and 60% non-saleable
D. Minimum of 50% open space
Incorrect
5) Ebenezer Howard's ideas were adopted by the British Governments in the enactment of the
New Towns Act of 1947. The new towns concept, according to historians, has been illustrated
by Howard on a paper napkin, This famous diagram consists of :
A. One Magnet
B. Two Magnets
C. Three Magnets
D. Four Magnets
Discuss this Question
Correct
A. Institutional
B. Residential
C. Mining and quarrying
D. Industrial
E. Commercial
Correct
7) The first new town built following Ebenezer Howard's idea is known as:
A. Letchworth
B. Soltaire
C. Sterenage
D. Welwyn
Incorrect
8) This is one of the methods of trip generation modeling, which is concerned with finding the
best functional relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent
variables. This relationship is usually assumed to be linear.
A. Analysis of variance
B. Multiple regression
C. Category analysis
D. Situational analysis
Discuss this Question
Incorrect
9) Standards for firefighting services prescribe that municipalities with 10,000 or more
population but below 50,000 should provide at least one fire truck. Adjoining municipalities,
however, are allowed to share one fire truck provided that the distance is within prescribed
limits. In such cases, the maximum travel time between municipalities should be
A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Discuss this Question
Correct
A. Arterial
B. Collector
C. Distributor
D. Gravel surfaced
E. Local
Incorrect
11) The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of
Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is
A. NEDA
B. DAR
C. HLURB
D. DPWH
Discuss this Question
Correct
12) Agricultural land in its generic synonymous with that basic land classification?
A. Timberland
B. Unclassified public forest
C. Alienable and disposable
D. Ancestral domain
E. Critical watershed
Correct
A. NIPAS LAW
B. Conservation and biodiversity
C. Agenda 21
D. Indigenous People Rights Act (IPRA)
Incorrect
15) The law that authorizes the establishment and promulgation of different levels of standards
of economic and socialized housing in urban and rural areas provided under the Subdivision
and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree and the National Building Code is
A. BP 220
B. RA 7279
C. PD 957
D. PD 1216
Discuss this Question
Correct
A. Census makes use of questionnaires while surveys make use of interviews for data gathering
B. Census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling
C. Census is done only every 10 years while survey can be done anytime
D. Only the NSO can conduct a census but anybody can conduct a survey
Incorrect
17) Areas generally belonging to ICCs/IPs subject to property rights within ancestral domain
A. Indigenous areas
B. Cultural minority
C. Ancestral areas
D. Ancestral domains
Discuss this Question
Incorrect
18) Systems, institutions, mechanics and technologies compromising a unique body of knowledge
enclave through time
A. Cultural practices
B. Cultural way of life
C. Indigenous culture
D. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices
Discuss this Question
Incorrect
20) The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and magnitude of
potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to hazardous materials or situations.
21) The following operating principles are adhered to under the Indigenous People's Right Act,
except
A. Biodiversity
B. Career Development of IPs
C. Protection of the Environment
D. Cultural Diversity and Integrity, Consensus and Peace Building and Human Dignity
Incorrect
22) These are lands that are capable of sustaining the economic productivity levels of crops/land
use over time in a given climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate and
adjoining environment.
A. Indigenous areas
B. Prime agricultural
C. Environmentally critical areas
D. Agro-industrial zones
Discuss this Question
Incorrect
23) The primary government agency to implement the policies for the IPs is
24) How many commissioners comprise the National Commission on Indigenous Peoples?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Nine
D. Eleven
Incorrect
26) The National Commission on Indigenous Peoples shall protect the rights of Indigenous peoples,
except those of
27) The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may or not be followed is called
A. Consultation
B. Coordination
C. Public hearing
D. Citizen participation
Incorrect
A. NHA
B. HUDCC
C. HLURB
D. MMDA
Discuss this Question
Incorrect
30) Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most influential among the Great Thinkers in modern
urban and regional planning. His famous book, first published in 1898, the revised was titled:
A. Garden Cities
B. Garden Cities of To-morrow
C. Tomorrows Cities
D. To-morrow: A Peaceful Path for Real Reform
Feedback
The only publication he wrote in his life was titled To-Morrow: A Peaceful Path to Real Reform
(1898), which was significantly revised in 1902 as Garden Cities of To-morrow.
(Source:Wikipedia)
Discuss this Question
Incorrect
31) This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the
transportation system. It is the process of determining a pattern of traffic flow for a known
set of interzonal movements so that the relationship between journey time and flow in every
link in the network should be in accordance with that specified for the link.
A. Diversion curves
B. All-or-nothing assignment
C. Capacity resistant
D. None of the choices
Discuss this Question
Correct
32) In the identification of needs and the planning of social welfare programs and services, the
planner is expected to
33) The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning groups for
the purpose of systematizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called
A. Public hearing
B. Consultation
C. Coordination
D. Scoping
Discuss this Question
Correct
34) The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain into four categories. Name
the one that is not among the four
A. Agricultural land
B. Mineral land
C. National park
D. Ancestral domain
E. Forest land
Incorrect
35) This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustration and
diagrams which describes what the community wants to develop. It is essentially composed
of community goals; objectives, policies, programs and a physical development plan with
translate the various sectoral plans.
36) Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs determined in accordance with their respective
customary laws and practices, free from any external manipulation and coercion
A. Indigenous consensus
B. Rights of indigenous people
C. Free and informed consent
D. All of the choices
Discuss this Question
Incorrect
37) This refers to a little formally recognizing the rights of possession and ownership of ICCs/IPs
over their ancestral domains identified in accordance with the law.
A. Torres Title
B. Cultural minority
C. Land Title
D. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
Discuss this Question
Incorrect
38) A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of an
infrastructures facility to private entity such that the contractor builds the facility on a turn-key
basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and specified performance risks.
39) In transportation planning, the collection of data is undertaken through different types of
surveys. The manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel, all
passing each station during specified periods, supplemented by automation traffic recorder
counts extending over longer periods is called
40) This law provides a liberalized environment more conducive to private sector investment.
41) It consists or resource flows provided by bilateral sources and multilateral institutions with
the objective of promoting the economic development and welfare of the recipient country.
A. World Bank
B. Official Development Assistance
C. Internal Revenue Allotment
D. Development
Correct
A. 100 sq. m.
B. 72 sq. m.
C. 150 sq. m.
D. 120 sq. m.
Incorrect
43) It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a
project or undertaking and designing appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement
measures.
A. Scoping
B. Initial environmental examination
C. Environmental impact assessment
D. Environmental risk assessment
Discuss this Question
Correct
44) Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town deliberately outside normal commuter range of the
old city. It would be fairly small. Its population size shall be:
A. Ten thousand
B. Twenty thousand
C. Twenty-two thousand
D. Thirty thousand
Incorrect
45) This is the process of appraising the feasibility, credibility and probable impacts or
consequences of alternative schemes of development or specific environmental conditions.
46) Those suffering from restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within
the range considered normal for a human being as a result of mental, physical or sensory
impairment.
A. Physically challenged
B. Impaired
C. Disabled
D. Disadvantaged
Correct
47) Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking are called
A. Indigenous people
B. Stakeholders
C. Squatters
D. Proponent
Incorrect
48) The main regulatory tool for implementing land use plans in the Philippines is
A. Holistic study
B. Phenomenological
C. Survey
D. Census
o B.
o C.
Lewis Mumford
o D.
Barry Parker
2.
He led the crafting of the
regional 'Greater London Plan
of 1944', he designed some of
30 post-war New Towns
approved by the British
Parliament, including
Doncaster area and East
Kent, in which he used open
space as structuring element.
Discuss
o A.
o B.
o C.
Lewis Mumford
o D.
Charles Abrams
3.
She was called a
'superwoman' who single
handedly sparked
environmental activism in the
1960s-70s with her research
('Silent Spring) on
biomagnification of pesticides
and chemicals in the human
food chain; her advocacies
bore fruit in the creation of US
Environmental Protection
Agency and Environmental
Impact Assessment system in
the 1970s.
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
Marthc1 C. Nussbaum
4.
If 'Earth Hour' is observed on
the last Saturday of March,
'Earth Day USA' is celebrated
annually on April 22, 'World
Town Planning Day' falls on
November 8, 'World
Environment Day' is marked
on the 51h day of the month
of
o A.
May
o B.
June
o C.
September
o D.
October
5.
If 'World Heritage Day' is
marked each year on April 18,
'World Biodiversity Day' is
observed on May 22, 'World
Ocean Day' on June 8, 'World
Indigenous Peoples Day' on
August 9, 'World Animal Day'
on October 4, and 'World
Food Day' on October 16,
when is 'World Water Day'
celebrated?
Discuss
o A.
January 13
o B.
March 22
o C.
June 24
o D.
October 31
6.
Based on his landmark book,
"Design with Nature," 'map
overlay' to identify 'ecological
constraints' was a
tool devised in 1967 by the
first modem environmental
planner.
o A.
Ian L. McHarg
o B.
Konstantinos Doxiadis
o C.
o D.
Erma Bernbeck
7.
This started as a US federal
program in 1949 which aimed
to rehabilitate the outworn or
decaying sections of any town
by extending fund assistance
to LGUs to undertake
improvements in
streetscapes, parks, green
ways, housing, community
centers, etc based on
anticipation that future tax
revenues from real estate will
pay for present costs.
o A.
Land re-adjustment
o B.
Urban restructuring
o C.
o D.
Urban renewal
8.
As chief planner of New York
City, he collaborated with
Thomas Adams in crafting the
"Regional Plan of New York
and its Environs 1922-1931 ;"
he also conceived, and
executed public works costing
$27 billion between 1324 and
1968 and was responsible for
virtually every parkway,
expressway, and public
housing project in New York
metropolitan area.
Discuss
o A.
William Levitt
o B.
Fiorello La Guardia
o C.
o D.
Robert Moses
o E.
Warren Buffett
9.
The design of this city by
Lucio Costa and Oscar
Niemeyer (1957) features
large open areas relating to
one other to demonstrate
'freedom' and an overall city
layout resembling a 'dove in
flight'.
o A.
Brasilia
o B.
Sydney
o C.
Chandigarh
o D.
Canberra
o E.
Islamabad
10.
'Ekistics' or the 'science of
human settlements' by Dr
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)
was built upon the concept of
"basic needs," which were
later categorized by Johann
Galtung into "material survival
& security needs," "social or
enabling needs," and non-
material "human needs".
Which grouping of needs was
elaborated on by Abraham
Maslow?
o A.
o B.
Self-expression, sex,
procreation, recreation,
education,
communication, and
transportation
o C.
Physiological needs,
physical safety, love and
belongingness, esteem,
self-actualization/self-
realization
o D.
Freedom, security,
identity, well-being,
ecological balance
11.
The following are the basic
elements of 'human
settlements' according to Dr.
Konstantinos Doxiadis. Which
one pertains to the built
environment or physical
capital?
o A.
Anthropos
o B.
Nature
o C.
o D.
Society
o E.
Social structure
12.
What is the smallest unit in
the 'human settlements
planning' or Ekistics by Dr
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951
)?
o A.
House
o B.
Anthropos
o C.
Organism
o D.
Neighborhood
o E.
Hamlet
13.
Which of the following is not
part of typology of cities under
Ekistics school of Dr
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951
)?
o A.
ecumenopolis
o B.
Megalopolis
o C.
Metropolis
o D.
Agropolis
o E.
Eperopolis
14.
In "Death and Life of Great
American Cities" (1961) and
"Economy of Cities" (1969),
this planner maintains that
'diversity' promotes innovation
among proximate firms and
spurs the growth of cities,
thus s/he advocated
for heterogeneity, variety, and
mixture in the geographic
clustering of firms as well as
in the composition of city
districts and neighborhoods.
o A.
Herbert Gans
o B.
James Howard Kunstler
o C.
Joel Garreau
o D.
Jane Jacobs
15.
An approach in urban
planning that puts premium on
people and nature by building
upon the historic city or
traditional neighborhood in
such a way that workplaces,
shops, and homes would be
within walking distance of
each other.
o A.
Nee-Populism
o B.
Eco-Village
o C.
New Urbanism
o D.
Dynapolis
o E.
Transit-Oriented
Development
16.
All of the following schemes
are associated with 'New
Urbanism' except:
o A.
o B.
Neo-Traditional Design
o C.
Exclusionary Zoning
o D.
Pedestrianization
17.
Because Pre-Spanish
aboriginal communities in the
Philippines were relatively
small and based on kinship
relations, the most common
practice of land tenure in pre-
colonial society, wherein one
would merely enjoy the 'fruits'
of land, was called
o A.
Primitive communism
o B.
Islamic feudalism
o C.
Usufruct
o D.
Tenancy
o E.
Swidden slash-and-burn
18.
This was the Spanish spatial
strategy of forming dense
settlements from scattered
dwellings for purposes of
greater, military defense and
political control - literally
bringing together dispersed
population within hearing
distance of church bells --
which policy was applied on
most Spanish colonies from
16th to18th centuries.
o A.
El Alcance del
Campanario
o B.
Presidio y Fortaleza
o C.
Reduccion
o D.
Evangelizacion
19.
Under the plaza complex
pattern described in 'Le yes
de las lndias' ( 1573), what
would be located next to each
other around a Greco-Roman
quadrangle of a Spanish
colonial settlement?
o A.
Garden, fountains,
monuments, statues,
gallery and promenade
o B.
Governor's mansion,
bishop's palace, general's
manor, hacendero's villa,
military garrison
o C.
o D.
Houses of peninsulares,
insulares, creoles,
mestizos, principales and
ilustrados
20.
Through Presidential Letter of
Instruction 367 in 1950
combining National Urban
Planning Commission, Real
Property Board, and Capital
City Planning Commission,
the government created this
first physical planning body.
o A.
National Planning
Commission
o B.
National Disaster
Coordinating Council
o C.
National Environmental
Protection Agency
o D.
Human Settlements
Regulatory Commission
21.
In 1964, Republic Act 4341
established this center to
create a pool of professional
planners in the Philippines.
o A.
Local Government
Academy
o B.
Development Academy of
the Philippines
o C.
Institute of Planning
o D.
UPLB Institute of
Environmental Science
and Management
22.
Presidential Decree No. 01
Integrated Reorganization
Plan on September 24, 1972
increased the number of
Philippine regions to 11,
regionalized key ministries
and line departmerts, and
created a major planning
agency of government which
is known today as
Discuss
o A.
o C.
Congressional Planning
and Budget Office
o D.
23.
In 2012, how many
administrative regions does
the Philippines have?
o A.
13
o B.
15
o C.
16
o D.
17
24.
Under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 25,
which of the following is not
among the types of cities in
the Philippines.
o A.
Independent Cities
o C.
Megacities
o D.
Component Cities
25.
In 2011, which Philippine city
had the biggest population,net
income and IRA?
o A.
City of Manila
o B.
Makati City
o C.
Quezon City
o D.
Cebu City
26.
This 1997 document is the
Philippines' official response
to 1992 'UNCED Earth
Summit' and contains a policy
framework that redefines
development as the 'drawing
out of full human potential'
according to the 'appropriate
productivity' of nature, rather
than optimal or maximum
exploitation of natural
resources to achieve GDP
growth.
o A.
o B.
Philippine Philippine
Strategy Covenant for on
Total Sustainable Human
Development
Development
o C.
o D.
Philippine Agenda 21
27.
This School of Thought holds
that the settlements form in a
balanced manner; they tend
to be spread evenly and
symmetrically in isotropic
space, displaying both
hierarchy and equilibrium
arising from the
interdependence between big
and small settlements and
from the complementation
between their respective
scope of functions
o A.
Galaxy of Settlements
Theory
o B.
Central Place Theory
o C.
Geographic Determinism
o D.
Dependency Theory
28.
This School of Thought
maintains that cities are
'theaters of capital
accumulation',largely a
consequence of class-based
struggle among groups for
strategic dominance and
control surplus. Such conflict
is usually won by the rich and
powerful through agents of
capital such as multi-national
corporations which use the
city to amass wealth by
raising property values
through commercialization,
gentrification, manipulation,
and land speculation.
o A.
o B.
Political Economy
o C.
Natural Capitalism
o D.
o A.
o B.
State Corporatism
o C.
Neo-Liberalism
o D.
Liberal Democracy
30.
Johann Heinreich von
Thunen's theory of agricultural
rent is symbolized as
"LR=Y(p-c)-Ytd' where "Y" is
yield or total harvest, "P" is
price of crop, "C"is production
cost of crop, "t" is transport
cost and "D" is distance to
market. If yield of palay is
3,500 kgs,NFA buying price is
P17.00 per kilo, distance is
5km., given farmer's gross
production cost of 45 cents
per square meter per day for
unit production cost of P12.00
per kilo,would palay
cultivation be profitable at this
specific farm location if
transport cost is P1.00 per kilo
of palay?
Discuss
o A.
Yes
o B.
No
o C.
o D.
It depends on quality of
road & capacity of vehicle
31.
In Walter Christaller's Central
Place Theory, The catchment
area of a central place takes
the shape of a hexagon rather
than a perfect circle. If a
particular service or function
such as elementary school
enrolment is represented by
the formula,"C=2.6r2d," what
would be the catchment area
of elementary school if its
radius is 0.50km and diameter
is one km?
Discuss
o A.
0.65 sq.km
o B.
0.75 sq.km
o C.
0.85 sq.km
o D.
0.95 sq.km
32.
In Walter Christaller's Central
Place Theory (1933),
neighborhood store is an
example of first- order
services while grocery store,
gas station, furniture shop,
and post office are examples
of
o A.
Secondary services
o B.
Tertiary services
o C.
Quaternary services
o D.
Quinary services
33.
In central place theory (1933),
this refers to the minimum
population required to make a
'service' viable.
o A.
Resident population
o B.
Captive market
o C.
Threshold population
o D.
Population explosion
34.
A chart-like tool to measure
'centrality' of a place
particularly its range of
economic and social
functions, is called
o A.
Matrix
o B.
lsotims
o C.
Lsodapanes
o D.
Scalogram
35.
All of the following are
practical applications of
Central Place Theory in the
Philippines, except one.
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
36.
What Christallerian principles
form the basis why a state
university, a consumer mall, a
huge sports stadium, or a
tertiary-level hospital can not
be established in each and
every Philippine municipality?
Discuss
o A.
o B.
Specialization and
concentration
o C.
o D.
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
38.
According to the Chicago
school of human ecology,
'Invasion' refers to how
pioneers and opportunists
push the 'land frontier' farther
out; when immigrants settle in
waves, they define new land
uses for themselves in a
process called
o A.
'evolution'
o B.
'co-location'
o C.
'succession'
o D.
'acclimatization'
o E.
'cohabitation'
39.
In the model of mono-centric
cities, it is assumed that
manufacturers locate close to
transport arteries, blue-collar
workers locate close to their
jobs, while traders and
retailers pay higher for choice
locations in city center to have
command of the market.This
pattern of land use
is explained better by which
theory of spatial planning?
o A.
Urban Bid-Rent by
Alonso, Muth, and Mills
o B.
Cumulative Causation by
Gunnar Myrdal
o C.
o D.
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
Roderick D. McKenzie,
Amos H. Hawley, Robert
Park
41.
In William Alonso's Bid-Rent
Theory (1960), the most
appropriate use of the
innermost circle in the
diagram is
o A.
o B.
o C.
Central park
o D.
42.
It in 'Ernest Burgess'
concentric Model (1925),
factories and work-shops
would most likely locate in
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
43.
It in Homer Hoyt's model
(1939), where would the elite
class place their high-end
subdivisions?
o A.
Section 'A'
o B.
Section 'B1'
o C.
Section 'C'
o D.
Section 'D'
44.
'Leapfrog development' and
'sprawl' are what you
commonly see in what Peirce
F. Lewis calls
o A.
Circumferential City
o B.
Multi-cellular city
o C.
Stellar City
o D.
Galactic City
45.
The 'multiple nuclei' model of
Harris and Ullmann (1945)
posits that
o A.
o B.
Diversified economic
functions of cities cluster
around several points of
growth
o C.
o D.
46.
'Urban development' tends to
occur along major
transportation routes
because
o A.
Power/water connections
and other utilities are
naturally linear
o B.
o C.
o D.
47.
Which theorist of urban land
use states categorically that
land use follows transport in
the same manner that both
population and business
follow roads?
o A.
Ernest Burgess
o B.
Homer Hoyt
o C.
o D.
Peirce Lewis
48.
Which of the following land-
use models describes the
pattern of radial or axial
growth along lines of least
resistance?
o A.
Multiple Nuclei
o B.
Concentric Zone
o C.
Sector Model
o D.
Polycentric Model
49.
In the model of Homer Hoyt,
the sections of urban land
with the highest values are
those:
o A.
o B.
o C.
Immediately around
public offices I institutional
sector
o D.
50.
The original concept of
'megalopolis' as an extended
or super-sized urban area is
attributed to
o A.
Jean Gettman
o B.
Konstantinos Doxiadis
o C.
Dennis Rondinelli
o D.
Andreas Faludi
A. Base map
B. Land use map
C. Slope map
D. Geologic map
E. Physical constraint map
2) This type of plan shows the allocation of land into broad functional classes, e.g.,
development areas, conservation/preservation areas; agricultural area and forest areas.
A. Structure Plan
B. General Land Use Plan
C. Development Plan
D. Comprehensive Plan
3) Which of the following is not a factor in determining the suitability of land for an
industrial estate?
A. Load-nearing capacity
B. Soil fertility
C. Drainage
D. Slope
E. Location
4) What ratio between sealable and non-saleable portions of the subdivision is required for
projects developed under BP 220 standards?
A. No fixed ratio
B. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
C. 40% saleable and 60% non-saleable
D. Minimum of 50% open space
5) Ebenezer Howard's ideas were adopted by the British Governments in the enactment of
the New Towns Act of 1947. The new towns concept, according to historians, has been
illustrated by Howard on a paper napkin, This famous diagram consists of :
A. One Magnet
B. Two Magnets
C. Three Magnets
D. Four Magnets
A. Institutional
B. Residential
C. Mining and quarrying
D. Industrial
E. Commercial
7) The first new town built following Ebenezer Howard's idea is known as:
A. Letchworth
B. Soltaire
C. Sterenage
D. Welwyn
8) This is one of the methods of trip generation modeling, which is concerned with finding the
best functional relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent
variables. This relationship is usually assumed to be linear.
A. Analysis of variance
B. Multiple regression
C. Category analysis
D. Situational analysis
9) Standards for firefighting services prescribe that municipalities with 10,000 or more
population but below 50,000 should provide at least one fire truck. Adjoining
municipalities, however, are allowed to share one fire truck provided that the distance is
within prescribed limits. In such cases, the maximum travel time between municipalities
should be
A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes
A. Arterial
B. Collector
C. Distributor
D. Gravel surfaced
E. Local
11) The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of
Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is
A. NEDA
B. DAR
C. HLURB
D. DPWH
12) Agricultural land in its generic synonymous with that basic land classification?
A. Timberland
B. Unclassified public forest
C. Alienable and disposable
D. Ancestral domain
E. Critical watershed
A. NIPAS LAW
B. Conservation and biodiversity
C. Agenda 21
D. Indigenous People Rights Act (IPRA)
15) The law that authorizes the establishment and promulgation of different levels of standards
of economic and socialized housing in urban and rural areas provided under the
Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree and the National Building Code
is
A. BP 220
B. RA 7279
C. PD 957
D. PD 1216
A. Census makes use of questionnaires while surveys make use of interviews for data
gathering
B. Census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling
C. Census is done only every 10 years while survey can be done anytime
D. Only the NSO can conduct a census but anybody can conduct a survey
17) Areas generally belonging to ICCs/IPs subject to property rights within ancestral domain
A. Indigenous areas
B. Cultural minority
C. Ancestral areas
D. Ancestral domains
A. Cultural practices
B. Cultural way of life
C. Indigenous culture
D. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices
20) The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and magnitude of
potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to hazardous materials or
situations.
21) The following operating principles are adhered to under the Indigenous People's Right Act,
except
A. Biodiversity
B. Career Development of IPs
C. Protection of the Environment
D. Cultural Diversity and Integrity, Consensus and Peace Building and Human Dignity
22) These are lands that are capable of sustaining the economic productivity levels of crops/land
use over time in a given climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate and
adjoining environment.
A. Indigenous areas
B. Prime agricultural
C. Environmentally critical areas
D. Agro-industrial zones
23) The primary government agency to implement the policies for the IPs is
24) How many commissioners comprise the National Commission on Indigenous Peoples?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Nine
D. Eleven
26) The National Commission on Indigenous Peoples shall protect the rights of Indigenous
peoples, except those of
27) The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may or not be followed is
called
A. Consultation
B. Coordination
C. Public hearing
D. Citizen participation
A. NHA
B. HUDCC
C. HLURB
D. MMDA
30) Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most influential among the Great Thinkers in modern
urban and regional planning. His famous book, first published in 1898, the revised was
titled:
A. Garden Cities
B. Garden Cities of To-morrow
C. Tomorrows Cities
D. To-morrow: A Peaceful Path for Real Reform
31) This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the
transportation system. It is the process of determining a pattern of traffic flow for a known
set of interzonal movements so that the relationship between journey time and flow in
every link in the network should be in accordance with that specified for the link.
A. Diversion curves
B. All-or-nothing assignment
C. Capacity resistant
D. None of the choices
32) In the identification of needs and the planning of social welfare programs and services, the
planner is expected to
33) The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning groups
for the purpose of systematizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called
A. Public hearing
B. Consultation
C. Coordination
D. Scoping
34) The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain into four categories.
Name the one that is not among the four
A. Agricultural land
B. Mineral land
C. National park
D. Ancestral domain
E. Forest land
35) This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustration and
diagrams which describes what the community wants to develop. It is essentially
composed of community goals; objectives, policies, programs and a physical development
plan with translate the various sectoral plans.
36) Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs determined in accordance with their respective
customary laws and practices, free from any external manipulation and coercion
A. Indigenous consensus
B. Rights of indigenous people
C. Free and informed consent
D. All of the choices
37) This refers to a little formally recognizing the rights of possession and ownership of
ICCs/IPs over their ancestral domains identified in accordance with the law.
A. Torres Title
B. Cultural minority
C. Land Title
D. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
38) A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of an
infrastructures facility to private entity such that the contractor builds the facility on a turn-
key basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and specified performance risks.
39) In transportation planning, the collection of data is undertaken through different types of
surveys. The manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel,
all passing each station during specified periods, supplemented by automation traffic
recorder counts extending over longer periods is called
A. Travel time surveys
B. Roadside survey
C. Network inventories
D. Zoning
40) This law provides a liberalized environment more conducive to private sector investment.
41) It consists or resource flows provided by bilateral sources and multilateral institutions with
the objective of promoting the economic development and welfare of the recipient country.
A. World Bank
B. Official Development Assistance
C. Internal Revenue Allotment
D. Development
A. 100 sq. m.
B. 72 sq. m.
C. 150 sq. m.
D. 120 sq. m.
A. Scoping
B. Initial environmental examination
C. Environmental impact assessment
D. Environmental risk assessment
44) Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town deliberately outside normal commuter range of the
old city. It would be fairly small. Its population size shall be:
A. Ten thousand
B. Twenty thousand
C. Twenty-two thousand
D. Thirty thousand
45) This is the process of appraising the feasibility, credibility and probable impacts or
consequences of alternative schemes of development or specific environmental conditions.
46) Those suffering from restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or
within the range considered normal for a human being as a result of mental, physical or
sensory impairment.
A. Physically challenged
B. Impaired
C. Disabled
D. Disadvantaged
47) Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking are called
A. Indigenous people
B. Stakeholders
C. Squatters
D. Proponent
48) The main regulatory tool for implementing land use plans in the Philippines is
50) A study which includes all the units in the population is called
A. Holistic study
B. Phenomenological
C. Survey
D. Census
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
o E.
o F.
2.
A 'drainage basin' is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream.
What characteristic of a drainage basin causes it to have an 'efficient' response
to rainfall?
o A.
o B.
Permeable soils
o C.
o D.
3.
Under RA 8371, this refers to "all areas generally belonging to ICCs/lPs
comprising lands, inland waters, coastal areas, and natural resources therein,
held under a claim of ownership, occupied or possessed by ICCs/lPs,
by themselves or through their ancestors, since time immemorial, continuously
up to the present."
o A.
Tribal land
o B.
Cultural heritage
o C.
Autonomous region
o D.
Ethnic realm
o E.
Ancestral domain
4.
According to RA 8749, this geographic-based document integrates primary data
and information on natural resources and anthropogenic activities on the land as
evaluated using various risk assessment and forecasting methodologies, and
evaluates environment quality and carrying capacity of an area in such a way
that enables planners and government decision-makers to anticipate the type of
development control necessary in the planning area.
o A.
o B.
Environmental Accounting
o C.
Biogeographic Compendium
o D.
Eco-Profile
5.
In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the
'social sector'?
o A.
Education
o B.
Tourism
o C.
Health
o D.
o E.
o A.
Housing
o B.
Mining
o C.
o D.
Mariculture
o E.
7.
This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and
proceeds by systematically evaluating alternative patterns of resource
use,choosing that use which meets specified goals, and drawing-up appropriate
policies and programs, directed to the best use of land in view of accepted
objectives, and of environmental and societal opportunities and constraints.
o A.
Framework Planning
o B.
Strategic Planning
o C.
o D.
Development Planning
8.
This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality
including statements about community goals, priorities, strategies, and socially-
desired mix of resource uses. These are illustrated by
maps,diagrams,charts,tables that show a coherent spatial framework for
environment protection, economic production, settlements, and infrastructure.
o A.
Charrette
o B.
Chatroulette
o C.
o D.
Strategic Plan
o E.
Framework Plan
9.
An essential part of land-use planning, this activity occurs after strategic
planning but before the detailed layout of location, and aims to characterize and
design a parcel of land or specific section of town so that it can function
effectively in relation to the complexity and scale of proposed development and
the range of land uses around it.
o A.
Estate Planning
o B.
o C.
Parcellary Planning
o D.
Site Planning
o E.
Project Planning
10.
This concerns the arrangement, appearance and functionality of a whole town or
city, in particular the shape and form of the city blocks, the uses of public space,
the articulation of physical features in three dimensions, so that residents and
visitors alike can make high-quality connections between people, places and
buildings.
o A.
o B.
o C.
Urban Design
o D.
o E.
Visual Panorama
11.
This refers to the division of a community into districts or sections according to
present and potential uses of land in order to maximize, regulate, and direct their
use and development.
o A.
Subdivision Plats
o C.
o D.
Zoning
12.
It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is
comprehensively planned as a unitary entity such that innovations in site design
and building design are rewarded by government with some flexibility in zoning,
usually relaxation of standards or their replacement with negotiated agreement
between the developer and the LGU.
Discuss
o A.
Enterprise Zone
o B.
o C.
o D.
13.
This type of land regulation says that man-made structures should be of such
height,bulk, or design so as not to upstage, play down, or draw attention away
from a landmark (e.g. Rizal Monument ), natural landscape, or character of
place
o A.
Design Aesthetics
o B.
Architectural Masterplan
o C.
Cultural Mapping
o D.
Form-Zoning
14.
An innovation in land-use regulation in which the right to develop a property can
be separated or severed from ownership of land in a particular zoning district,
then sold or passed on to another property owner, and exercised in connection
with the development of land in some other part of the jurisdiction.
o A.
Market-based instrument
o B.
Commutation of Rights
o C.
Property Conversion
o D.
15.
Which is not considered 'production land' in a Philippine LGU?
o A.
Agro-industrial estate
o B.
Cropland
o C.
Orchard
o D.
Fishpond
o E.
Fishpen
16.
Which type of land use is not described as 'urban'?
o A.
Residential
o B.
Institutional
o C.
Industrial
o D.
Mineral
17.
Which type of land use is most easily reversible or convertible to its original
state?
o A.
Forest land
o B.
Memorial park
o C.
Infrastructure land
o D.
Commercial
18.
What is the percent slope of a land parcel that has a change in elevation ('rise')
of 8 meters and is 160 meters long?
o A.
8%
o B.
7%
o C.
6%
o D.
5%
o E.
4%
19.
In slope analysis, land with slope 0% to 3% is described as
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
20.
Which of the following soil types has the greatest permeability, and hence has
the least nutrient-holding capacity?
o A.
Sand
o B.
Clay
o C.
Silt
o D.
Loam
o E.
Humus
21.
Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for
agricultural use?
o A.
o B.
Soil quality
o C.
o D.
Slope
22.
These are lands capable of intensive use or cultivation over time and can
sustain the productivity levels of crops in a given climatic region without
adversely affecting the immediate or adjoining environment.
o A.
Agro-industrial estate
o B.
o C.
Alluvial fans
o D.
23.
The recommended map scale for provinces is 1:50,000 while that for town/city
CLUP should be at least
o A.
1 :200,000
o B.
1:100,000
o C.
1:25,000
o D.
1:10,000
24.
Which of those listed below is not a 'thematic' map?
o A.
NPAAAD map
o C.
Slope map
o D.
25.
'Contour lines' on a topographic map indicate
o A.
Soil classes
o B.
o C.
Demarcation lines
o D.
Elevation intervals
26.
An 'analytical' map is a composite or overlay of two or more
o A.
Base maps
o B.
Thematic maps
o C.
Aspect maps
o D.
Choropleth maps
27.
In agricultural land use planning, the soil characteristics of solum depth and clay-
silt fraction that would ensure good plant growth are
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
28.
It is a computer system consisting of software and hardware components that
are used to organize, store, process, analyze and display multiple layers of
spatially-referenced information about geographically located features.
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
29.
These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the
surface of the Earth; the First gives the location of a place above or below the
equator, expressed by angular measurements ranging from 0 at the equator to
90 at the poles, while the Second gives the location of a place east or west of
an upright line called the prime meridian, and is measured in angles ranging
from 0 at the prime meridian to 180 at the International Date Line.
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
30.
Prior to the development of computer mapping software in the mid-1970s,
spatial analysis was done manually by overlaying different thematic maps of the
same scale, principally to determine
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
31.
This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce an accurate
image of the Earth by removing tilt of planet, relief displacements, and
topographic distortions which occurred when the photo was taken from an
airplane
o A.
Photogrammetry
o B.
Orthophotography
o C.
Remote sensing
o D.
Geomatics
o E.
Geodetics
32.
In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing
point and line data by means of x,y,z geometric coordinates; it can also be a set
of line segments joined end-to-end to make a curved path in space.
o A.
Vector
o B.
Raster
o C.
Curvature
o D.
Field
o E.
Node
33.
According to Prof. Ernesto Serote, this is the process of putting two or more
thematic maps on top of each other to determine areas of convergence of
certain features of land contributing to the suitability of the area to a particular
purpose, and conversely, to eliminate or screen out areas that are not suitable
for that purpose.
o A.
Thematic superimposition
o B.
Cartographic merging
o C.
Sieve analysis
o D.
Spatial modeling
34.
What rational tool do planners use in selecting from alternative land use
schemes?
o A.
Checklist of criteria
o B.
Linear programming
o C.
Cost-benefit analysis
o D.
Computer simulation
35.
By taking into account both quantitative values and non-quantitative values,
'Planning Balance Sheet' is an 'extended' 'multiple-criteria' form of
o A.
Cost-revenue analysis
o B.
Cost-benefit analysis
o C.
Cost-effectiveness analysis
o D.
Cost-estimate analysis
36.
This refers to the wise and prudent use of any resource that is held in trust.
o A.
Technocracy
o B.
Shepherding
o C.
Protectionism
o D.
Championing
o E.
Stewardship
37.
In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning works with Nature
by conserving natural resources.
o A.
Interconnect open space and greenways to provide corridors and refuge for wildlife
o B.
o C.
Encourage quarrying near main rivers to generate substantial revenues for the
municipality
o D.
38.
This is the legal term for forest at 1,000 meters elevation or more or with steep
gradients at 50% or more, which perform vital ecological functions and must
therefore be kept perpetually in natural state and free from human intrusion.
o A.
Everlasting Forest
o B.
Permanent Forest
o C.
Virginal Fores!
o D.
Primeval Forest
39.
This is the scientific term for old-growth forest in tropical countries that is
dominated by broad-leaf trees which form thick canopy thus allowing little
sunlight on the forest floor, and includes much-prized hardwood species such as
red lauan, white lauan, red narra, tanguile, tiaong, almon, bagtikan, apitong,
kamagong, yakal, and mayapis.
Discuss
o A.
Dipterocarp Forest
o B.
Deciduous Forest
o C.
o D.
o E.
Mossy Forest
o F.
Sub-marginal Forest
o G.
Mangrove Forest
o H.
Ever-green Forest
40.
All but one of the following are sub-categories of Forest Reserve.
o A.
Permanent Forest
o B.
o C.
Mangrove Forest
o D.
41.
Under RA 7586, these are identified portions of land and water, remarkable
areas, biogeographic zones, habitats of rare and endangered species- all set
aside by reason of their unique physical and biological significance, to be
managed to enhance biological diversity, and to be secured from destructive
human exploitation.
o A.
o B.
Resource Reserve
o C.
Ecological Zones
o D.
Protected Areas
42.
A 'watershed' is principally a source of
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
o A.
Agro-Forestry
o B.
o C.
o D.
Industrial Forestry
44.
Under Executive Order 23 dated February 1,2011 declaring "moratorium on the
cutting and harvesting of timber," which of the following is exempted from the
total log ban until the year 2016?
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
45.
Under Executive Order 26 series of 2011 which declared the National Greening
Program as DA-DAR-DENR Convergence Initiative, how many tree seedlings
should each government employee plant each year, a requirement that also
applies to students identified by DEPED and CHED?
o A.
10
o B.
20
o C.
25
o D.
30
o E.
35
46.
Under RA 9175 Chainsaw Act of 2002, one of the following does not possess a
chainsaw in a legal manner.
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
Is a licensed wood processor who cuts only timber that has been legally sold
o E.
Is an industrial tree farmer
47.
This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its
contribution to the amenity value of the environment. It offers opportunities for
adventure recreation or passive leisure at low-cost, and at the same time, serves
as protection buffer around sensitive areas and hazardous installations.
o A.
Wilderness
o B.
o C.
Rangeland
o D.
Open Space
48.
PD 705 Revised Forestry Code Section 16 affirms that, after a salvage zone of
40 meters from the hightide-mark or shoreline, there shall be protective strips of
mangroves or swamps along the coast with width of at least
o A.
20 meters
o B.
25 meters
o C.
30 meters
o D.
35 meters
o E.
40 meters
49.
Republic Act that provides for "conservation and protection of wildlife resources
and their habitats" is numbered as
o A.
RA 9147
o B.
RA 9714
o C.
RA 4791
o D.
RA147
50.
PD 1067 Water Code of 1976 Article 51 requires a three-meter easement from
the banks of creeks, canals, and esteros, in urban areas, but MMDA Resolution
3 s. 1996, has expanded the easement for Metro Manila areas adjoining water
bodies as measured from the banks of Pasig River, tributary streams and the
shoreline, to be at least
o A.
10 meters
o B.
20 meters
o C.
40 meters
o D.
5 meters
Questions and Answers
1.
Because of public need for salvage zone, how far should a residential property
be from the banks of rivers, streams and waterways in a rural farming area?
Discuss
o A.
5 meters
o B.
20 meters
o C.
40 meters
o D.
100 meters
2.
What would be the most suitable land use of geologic fault with buffer strip of at
least 5 m on both sides from the line?
o A.
Aqueduct or tunnel
o B.
Floodway
o C.
Venice-like canals
o D.
o E.
Wildlife refuge
3.
What kind of use would be most compatible around a huge oil depot and Petrol-
LPG gas depository?
o A.
Transport terminals
o B.
Commercial
o C.
o D.
Open space
o E.
Hospitals
4.
The following data help planners identify the appropriate industrial areas in an
LGU, except one.
Discuss
o A.
o B.
o C.
Among sites previously identified in 1970 NPFP national policy on industrial dispersal
& decentralization of development
o D.
o A.
Load-bearing capacity
o B.
Location
o C.
Slope
o D.
Soil characteristics
6.
Which of the following is not considered a criterion to select industrial estates in
the Philippines?
o A.
o B.
Physical boundary
o C.
Availability of labor
o D.
o E.
7.
This document serves as basis for adopting land use and physical planning-
related guidelines and standards to guide the formulation of long-term
framework plans and particularly city/municipal land use plans and zoning
ordinances.
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
8.
In the National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030,
"Settlements","Production","Protection," and "Infrastructure" are discussed as
Discuss
o A.
o B.
o C.
Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at the
local level
o D.
Primary Districts in urban design that have to be delineated in each town or city
9.
One goal of land use planning as stated in the 'National Framework for Physical
Planning 2001-2030' is the utilization of the country's land and water resources
in a manner that provides sufficient and affordable food products to all Filipinos
of the present and future generations through local production and/or
importation.
o A.
"Green Revolution"
o B.
"Agricultural Development"
o C.
"Food Security"
o D.
"Self-Sufficiency in Grains"
10.
'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030' notes a shift from rural
resource-based environmental problems to urban-based man-made
environmental problems. Which of the following NFPP measures pertains
to development control and urban growth management (UGBs)?
o A.
o B.
o C.
Match land uses and densities with environmental capacities and service capacities of
infrastructure
o D.
11.
Which of the following is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP?
Discuss
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
o E.
o F.
12.
Which of the following steps are common to both CLUP and Comprehensive
Development Plan?
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
o A.
o B.
Scenario Analysis
o C.
o D.
Spatial Modeling
14.
In Ernesto Serote's land use accounting, the following measures increase
overall land supply for planning, except one.
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
NPAAAD
15.
In Ernesto Serote's method of estimating land supply, the following are deducted
from total, except one.
o A.
Environmentally critical areas
o B.
o C.
o D.
16.
UN-FAO standards state that at least 5.7 hectares of aggregate urban land
(residential, commercial, industrial, etc) and 6 hectares of farmland need to be
reserved for every 1,000 population. How much urban land is needed for a town
of 22,000?
o A.
62.7 hectares
o B.
125.4 hectares
o C.
220 hectares
o D.
11.4 hectares
17.
UN-FAO standards state that at least 0.60 hectares should be devoted to
educational space (public and private) per thousand population. How much
combined area of schools is the minimum for a town of 40,000 people?
o A.
40 hectares
o B.
24 hectares
o C.
10 hectares
o D.
240 hectares
18.
HLURB standards state that at least 2.5 hectares of industrial land needs to be
reserved for every 1,000 population. How much total industrial land is needed for
an independent chartered city of 200,000 people?
o A.
200 hectares
o B.
400 hectares
o C.
500 hectares
o D.
2,500 hectares
19.
Like a mould needed to control shape, the spatial strategy in CLUP is the
creative physical arrangement of space- using activities used to influence the
shape, direction, and intensity of the built environment so as to preserve and
conserve the unbuilt environment.
Discuss
o A.
City Image
o B.
City Metaphor
o C.
Spatial Modeling
o D.
Urban Form
o E.
Urban Template
20.
According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961), a good 'urban design' is one where
residents and visitors can use a 'cognitive image' or 'mental map' of the city as
they navigate through the territory in the process of 'wayfinding. He identified
the elements of legibility of place as:
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
21.
Under the design elements of Kevin Lynch, 'Quiapo church' would be a
landmark while Divisoria would be termed as
o A.
Flea Market
o B.
Icon
o C.
District
o D.
Nodule
o E.
Transshipment
22.
Under Kevin Lynch's scheme (1961), what would best describe Rockwell Makati
and Ortigas Center?
o A.
Landmark
o B.
Cosmopolitan
o C.
District
o D.
Downtown
o E.
Estate
23.
What are the elements of 'urban form'?
o A.
o B.
o D.
24.
Which the following indicates good site planning?
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
Maximized space
o E.
Efficient circulation
o F.
25.
'Smart Growth USA,' with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats
'amorphic sprawl' by means of
o A.
o B.
o D.
o E.
o F.
26.
Which one is not an innovative element of 'Planned Unit Development'?
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
27.
This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining
roads and highways with trees, shrubs, or ornamental plants, and ground
landscaping of schools, hospitals, and other government agencies in order
to improve the environment in built-up areas.
o A.
Reforestation
o B.
Miniature Forestry
o C.
Urban Forestry
o D.
Silvicuture
o E.
Agro-forestry
28.
This spatial strategy deliberately directs growth towards major roadways that
emanate from a center like rays of a star
o A.
Radial/axial/sectoral
o B.
o C.
o D.
Concentric
o E.
29.
A 'tri-polar' or 'bi-polar' form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively
developing new sections as magnets or complete attractions for population and
business, inorder to ease pressure on traditional center, and is an example of
o A.
Simple Dispersion
o B.
Concentrated Dispersion
o C.
Simple Concentration
o D.
Compact Development
30.
Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport
congestion?
o A.
Grid-iron or rectilinear
o B.
o C.
o D.
31.
What are the tools or levers of authority of city/town Local Government Units to
implement their local plans?
o A.
o B.
o C.
Zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, incentives to
private investment
o D.
32.
Under Philippine zoning codes, a family-run commercial-scale piggery with more
than 10 heads of swine should be properly located in
o A.
o B.
o C.
Agro-industrial zone
o D.
33.
Under Philippine zoning codes, a mixed-use seven-storey structure with
residential condominiums, offices, gyms, shops and boutiques should be
properly located in -
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
Special economic zone
34.
An area within an LGU where the average density is 35 dwelling units per
hectare or below. with majority of lot sizes between 120 to 800 square meters or
more, is zoned as
o A.
R-1
o B.
R-2
o C.
R-3
o D.
R-4
o E.
35.
An area in certain cities with regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls,
sports stadiums, high-rise hotels, office towers, is zoned as
o A.
C-1
o B.
C-2
o C.
C-3
o D.
Tourism zone
o E.
Financial District
36.
What color is used to represent industrial areas in zoning map?
o A.
Black
o B.
Gray
o C.
Violet
o D.
Yellow
37.
What color is used to represent institutional areas in zoning map?
o A.
Brown
o B.
Beige
o C.
Blue
o D.
Maroon
38.
What color is used to represent tourism areas in zoning map?
o A.
Orange
o B.
Red
o C.
Purple
o D.
Fuchsia
39.
An example of positive easement is one that
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
40.
Exemptions, special permissions, and relief from provisions of land use and
zoning ordinance are obtained from
o A.
o B.
o D.
41.
A type of land use control where there may be no possibility of the application of
the 'right of reverter' is called
o A.
Restrictive covenants
o B.
Telluric
o C.
Deed of sale
o D.
Monolithic
42.
The total area of permitted building space expressed as a proportion of the total
site is known as:
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
Location Quotient
43.
When a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance,' which
consideration is first and foremost from the perspective of the approving
authority?
o A.
o B.
Consistency with local land use plan and with zoning map
o C.
o D.
Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power generation, company bus
shuttles, executives' luxury cars
o E.
Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the Local Government Unit
o F.
44.
A mixed-use building has 6 storeys of 1,000 sq.m each, on a lot area of 2,000
sq.m. What is the FAR?
o A.
2:1
o B.
3:1
o C.
4:1
o D.
5:1
o E.
6:1
45.
Floor Area Ratio of 1.5 and below is considered as low density. What FAR is
labeled as 'very high density'?
o A.
2 and above
o B.
3 and above
o C.
4 and above
o D.
5 and above
46.
This refers to a kind of ad-hoc or arbitrary zoning that allows a small piece of
land to deviate from the district or zone regulations for reasons not found in the
officially-approved CLUP.
o A.
Flexible zoning
o B.
o C.
Euclidean zoning
o D.
Spot zoning
o E.
Optional zoning
47.
A device usually given at the enactment of Zoning Ordinance which grants
property owner relief from certain provisions of ordinance because the
application of the same would result in a particular hardship to the owner.
Discuss
o A.
Exceptionality
o B.
Certificate of Non-Conformance
o C.
Quasi-judicial relief
o D.
Variance
48.
If there are 12 signatures needed to approve construction of a building and 32
signatures needed to thoroughly develop a parcel of non-agricultural land,
whose signature is needed for the issuance of a development permit?
o A.
Planning Consultant
o B.
o C.
Natural Scientist
o D.
o E.
Legislator-Sponsor
49.
What document makes possible that funds for priority projects enumerated in
LDIP are budgeted and re:eased yearly?
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
PBBS
o E.
Memorandum of Undertaking
o F.
50.
Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal
issuances. Under AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to
other uses, while RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 20 limits it to
o A.
15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized and independent chartered cities
o B.
20% of total arable land in any LGU
o C.
o D.
Ep Quiz No.6
entitled:
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
2.
The advocates of the systems view planning does not include one of
thefollowing:
o A.
G. Wilson
o B.
George Chadwick
o C.
J.B. McLoughlin
o D.
Stuart Chapin
o E.
Andreas Faludi
3.
What does reviews Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of
componentcities and municipalities?
o A.
RLUC
o B.
PLUC
o C.
HLURB
o D.
o E.
4.
What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities?
o A.
RLUC
o B.
PLUC
o C.
HLURB
o D.
o E.
5.
What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities?
o A.
RLUC
o B.
PLUC
o C.
HLURB
o D.
o E.
6.
What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and Municipalities?
o A.
RLUC
o B.
PLUC
o C.
HLURB
o D.
o E.
7.
What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?
o A.
RLUC
o B.
PLUC
o C.
HLURB
o D.
o E.
8.
A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must meet the following criteria:
o A.
Technical feasibility
o B.
Political viability
o D.
Administrative operability
o E.
9.
Choose the relevant criteria for he best strategic option
o A.
Sustainability
o B.
Feasibility
o C.
Desirability
o D.
o E.
o F.
10.
What are the techniques relevant to land use planning?
o A.
Sieve Mapping
o B.
o C.
o D.
o E.
o F.
11.
What technique is useful for determining strategies?
o A.
Situational analysis
o B.
SWOT analysis
o C.
o D.
o E.
o F.
o A.
Police power
o B.
o C.
o D.
13.
What kind of project requires an environmental compliance certificate?
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
14.
Where can we find the highest level policy statements on
environmentalprotection?
o A.
Constitution
o B.
PD 1151
o C.
o D.
15.
What projects require an environmental impact statement (EIS)
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
o E.
None of he choices
16.
What law lays down the mandates and functions of the Housing and Land
UseRegulatory Board?
o A.
EO 949
o B.
EO 90
o C.
PD 933
o D.
PD 957
17.
A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting land use is:
o A.
o B.
Zoning Ordinance
o C.
Cadastral Survey
o D.
Tax Declaration
18.
A special locational clearance which grants a property owner relief from
certainprovisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular
physicalsurrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the property,
compliance withheight, area, bulk, setback and/or density would result in
particular hardshipupon the owner is called:
o A.
Certified of Non-Conformance
o B.
Exception
o C.
Variance
o D.
19.
A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of aZoning
ordinance where, because of the specific use would result n a particularhardship
to the owner.
o A.
Variance
o B.
o C.
Exception
o D.
Development
20.
This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion
andother built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said
areasand whereat least 50% of the population area engaged in non-
agriculturalactivities:
o A.
o B.
Urban area
o C.
City center
o D.
Suburban area
21.
The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest orplanning
groups for the purpose of systemizing, harmonizing and facilitatingoperations is
called:
o A.
Public hearing
o B.
Consultation
o C.
Coordination
o D.
Scooping
22.
The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may not be
followedis called.
o A.
Consultation
o B.
Coordination
o C.
Public hearing
o D.
Citizen participation
23.
This document is a series of written statements accompanied by
maps,illustrations and diagrams which describes what the community wants
tobecome and how it wants to develop. It is essentially composed of
communitygoals, objectives, policies, programs and physical development plan
whichtranslates the various sectoral plan:
o A.
o B.
Action Plan
o C.
Strategic Plan
o D.
Development Plan
24.
The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support
policiesof Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is:
o A.
NEDA
o B.
DAR
o C.
HLURB
o D.
DPWH
25.
What is zoning?
o A.
It is the designation of species areas of a community as functional land uses of land
may be allowed or regulated on accordance with the development plan.
o B.
o C.
o D.
26.
What are the tools for plan implementation?
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
27.
What higher level plans guides Local Government Units (LGUs) in preparingtheir
own comprehensive land use plans (CLUPs)?
o A.
o B.
o D.
o E.
28.
What is the highest planning body at the regional level?
o A.
NEDA
o B.
o C.
HLURB
o D.
o E.
29.
The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-
sectoraldevelopment plains initiated by their development councils and
approved bytheir Sanggunian is:
o A.
PD 399
o B.
Executive Order No.72
o C.
RA 7160
o D.
PD 1517
30.
The new law regulating the practice of environmental planning is:
o A.
RA 10587
o B.
PD 1517
o C.
PD 957
o D.
31.
The law proclaiming certain areas and types of projects as
environmentallycritical and within the scope of the EIS system:
o A.
PD 1586
o B.
o C.
PD 1152
o D.
DAO 96-37
32.
Reclassification of the land highly in urbanized areas, after conducting
publichearings for the purpose, shall be limited to:
o A.
10%
o B.
15%
o C.
20%
o D.
25%
33.
Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of agricultural land
incomponent cities and to first to third class municipalities shall be limited to:
o A.
10%
o B.
15%
o C.
20%
o D.
5%
34.
The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection
ofeducational institutions offering courses in environment planning is
theresponsibility of the :
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
35.
A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or association mayengage
on the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines, providedthat:
o A.
At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity shall be registered
environmental planners
o B.
o C.
At least 70% of the entire membership of the Board is composed of ENPs and 75% of
the capitalization is owned by them
o D.
At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the capitalization is owned by
registered environmental planners
36.
Ancestral domains refer to areas that:
o A.
Belong to ICCs/iPPs compromising lands. Inland waters, coastal areas and natural
resources therein
o B.
Bare within protected areas which have actually been occupied by communities for 5
years before the designation of the same as protected areas in accordance with the
NIPAS Act.
o C.
Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in harmony with the
environment adapt to modern technology at their pace
o D.
Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited, are normally with difficult
access.
37.
This law provides for the establishment and management of National
IntegratedProtection Areas System:
o A.
RA 8371
o B.
RA 7586
o C.
RA 7279
o D.
38.
RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of
1997strives to provide full and adequate support to the sustainable development
of ahighlt modernized agriculture and fishery industry in the Philippines.
UnderAFMA, one of the following has been d-prioritized
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
39.
Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-
IndustrialDevelopment (NPAAAD), it provides the physical basis for the proper
planningof sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in the
identification of24 suitable crops, livestock for local and international markets
without creatingirreversible environmental and human health problems.
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
40.
Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceiling under various
legalissuances, e.g. Local Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of
theSAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while the LGC limits to:
o A.
15% of total arable lands on chartered cities and 1st class Municipalities
o B.
o C.
o D.
41.
The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain onti
fourcategories. Name pf the one that is not among four
o A.
Agricultural land
o B.
Mineral land
o C.
National park
o D.
Ancestral domain
o E.
Forest land
42.
Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units,
theNational Government transfers these funds to LGUs for their
administrative,public order and safety operations
o A.
Budgetary Allocation
o C.
o D.
43.
As provided for in the Water Code and the HLURB zoning guidelines,
therequired easement in urban areas from the banks of rivers/streams, seas
andlakes is:
o A.
3 meters
o B.
20 meters
o C.
40 meters
o D.
100 meters
44.
Variances and exemptions from the land use plan/zoning map are secured
fromthe:
o A.
Zoning Administrator/Officer
o B.
Municipal Mayor
o C.
Municipal Planning and Development Coordinator (MPDC)
o D.
45.
A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from
theapproved zone of the area for certain reason is called:
o A.
Spot zoning
o B.
Flexible zoning
o C.
Euclidean zoning
o D.
46.
Any amendment to the provisions of the zoning ordinance for component
citiesand municipalities can only take effect approval and authentication by the:
o A.
Sangguniang Panlalawigan
o B.
HLURB
o C.
o D.
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
48.
Many industries want to locate near urban cities because they want to be
o A.
o B.
o C.
o D.
49.
In general, an Economic Base ration or Economic Base Multiplier expressed
interms of employment indicates:
o A.
A total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in
an industry
o B.
The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of number of jobs created in
the entire country
o C.
The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in
the entire region
o D.
The total number of jobs created in a set of industries as a result of a number of jobs
created in an industry.
50.
Traditional location theory analyzes the location of industries by considering
o A.
o B.
Labor wages
o C.
The cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished goods to the market
o D.
HIDDEN EP- 8
1.
A.
0-18%
B.
Above 50%
C.
16-50%
D.
0-8%
E.
2.
A.
Above 500
B.
Above 100
C.
Above 2,000
D.
E.
3.
Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil Classification System, the classification leveldepicted in the Bureau of
Soils and Water Management is the
A.
Soil order
B.
Soil type
C.
D.
Soil series
E.
4.
A Philippine climatic type characterized by rainfall evenly distributed throughoutthe years refers to:
A.
Type III
B.
Type II
C.
Type IV
D.
Type I
E.
5.
The Philippine forest type that is adapted to growing in steep slopes and inplaces with a distinct wet and
dry season is the
A.
Pine/saleng
B.
Diptrocarp
C.
Molave/molawin
D.
Mangrove
E.
6.
The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoraldevelopment plan initiated by
their development councils and approved by theirSanggunians is:
A.
PD 399
B.
C.
RA 7160
D.
PD 1517
E.
7.
A.
PD 1308
B.
PD 1517
C.
PD 957
D.
E.
PD1096
8.
The Law proclaiming of land certain areas and types of projects asenvironmentally critical and within the
scope of the EIS system
A.
PD 1586
B.
C.
PD 1152
D.
DAO 96-37
E.
9.
Reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas, after conducting publichearing for the purpose, shall
be limited to
A.
10%
B.
15%
C.
20%
D.
25%
E.
10.
A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting the land use is
A.
B.
Zoning Ordinance
C.
Cadastral Survey
D.
Tax Declaration
E.
11.
A special locational clearance which grants a property owners relief from certainprovisions of the zoning
ordinance where, because of the particular physicalsurrounding, shape or topographical conditions of
the property, compliance withheight, area bulk, setback and/or density would result in a particular
hardship to theowner
A.
Certificate of Non-Conformance
B.
Exception
C.
Variance
D.
E.
Zoning Clearance
12.
A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of aZoning ordinance where,
because of the specific use would result in a particularhardship to the owner
A.
Variance
B.
Certificate of Non-Conformance
C.
Exception
D.
Development
E.
13.
This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion andother built-up areas
including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areasand whereat least 50% of the population
area engaged in non-agriculturalactivities:
A.
B.
Urban area
C.
City center
D.
Suburban area
E.
14.
Cities with a minimum population of 200,000 inhabitants as certified by theNational Statistics Office and
with latest annual income of at least P 50,000,000based on 1996 constant prices as certified by the City
Treasurer are called
A.
B.
Regional Centers
C.
D.
Component Cities
E.
15.
A.
Fertile Crescent
B.
Mediterranean
C.
Babylon
D.
Asia
E.
16.
The primary factor/s in the location of cities during the Bronze Age along theIndus Valley is/are:
A.
Transport
B.
Agriculture
C.
Defense
D.
E.
17.
A.
Hippodamus
B.
Nicodemus
C.
Nostradamus
D.
Aristotle
E.
18.
They understood the importance of transportation and thus emerges as the firstregional planners of the
world.
A.
Greeks
B.
Romans
C.
Sumerians
D.
Egyptians
E.
19.
It was during this period that the concept of urban design was established
A.
Renaissance
B.
Bronze Age
C.
Medieval Period
D.
Atomic Age
E.
20.
A.
Malthus
B.
Ebenezer Howard
C.
Nicodemus
D.
Adam Smith
E.
21.
He theorized that physical planning could not improved urban living conditionsunless it was integrated
with social and economic planning in a context odenvironmental concerns.
A.
William Penn
B.
Patrick Geddes
C.
Peirre L Enfant
D.
None of the Choices
E.
Allan Carreon
22.
A.
Burnham
B.
Concio
C.
Faithful
D.
E.
Lynch
23.
A.
B.
Axial
C.
Radial
D.
Ribbon-Type
E.
24.
What was the most important factor in designing settlement patterns during theSpanish Period in the
Philippines?
A.
Plaza
B.
Economy
C.
Transportation
D.
Religion
E.
25.
Aside from volume and growth, what is the other key point that a tourism analystshould consider in
analyzing tourist arrivals?
A.
B.
Socio-cultural changes
C.
Political changes
D.
Tourist Comfort
26.
The tourist market can be classified into business, mass holiday, and _____markets.
A.
Eco-tourism
B.
Historical
C.
D.
E.
Global
27.
Tourist may create the type of employment opportunities in the area. These aredirect, indirect and ____
jobs.
A.
Multiplier
B.
Induced
C.
Locational
D.
Service
E.
None of the choices
28.
The four in typical economic cycle are recession ______, recovery and boom.
A.
Slump
B.
Deflation
C.
Inflation
D.
Sustainable growth
E.
29.
In formulating its industrial program, the government should consider equity,technical efficiency and
______
A.
Allocative efficiency
B.
Comparative advantages
C.
Resource collection
D.
E.
Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to divert at least 25% of their solid wastesfrom existing disposal
facilities within a period of:
A.
10 years
B.
2 years
C.
5 years
D.
1 year
E.
31.
At the national level, RA 9003 mandates the creation of National Solid WasteManagement Commission
under the office of:
A.
President
B.
DENR
C.
DILG
D.
NEDA
E.
Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National Ecological Solid WasteManagement Program seeks
to:
A.
B.
Encourage greater private sector participation while retaining the primary enforcement and
responsibility with the LGUs
C.
Mandates all LGUs to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes from disposal facilities through reuse,
recycling, composting and other resource recovery activities
D.
E.
33.
The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall be formulated andshall include the following:
A.
Analysis and evaluate of the current state, trends, projections of solid waste management on the
national, provincial, ad municipal levels
B.
C.
D.
It refers to the discipline associated with the control of generations, storage,collection, transfer and
transport, processing and disposal of solid wastes in amanner that is in accord with the best principles of
public health, economies,engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental considerations
andwhich is also responsive to public attitudes
A.
B.
Development Planning
C.
Waste Segregation
D.
E.
35.
The Local Government Solid Management Plan shall include, but not limited tothe following
components:
A.
B.
Waste characterization
C.
D.
Source reduction
E.
All of the choices
36.
Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the mandatory segregation of solidwastes. Specifically, the LGUs
shall promulgate regulations, requiring the owneror person in charge of premises
containing:______________to provide for the residents a designated area and containers in which
toaccumulate source separated recyclable materials to be collected by the municipal orprivate center.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
37.
The following are the minimum criteria siting of sanitary land fills
A.
The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan of the LGU
B.
C.
The site should have adequate quantity of earth cover material that is easily handled and compacted
D.
E.
None of the choices
38.
Guidelines for identification of common solid waste management problems andare appropriate for
clustered solid waste management services shall be based onthe following:
A.
Available means of cording local government planning between and among LGUs and for the integrated
of such with the national plan
B.
C.
D.
E.
39.
The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to pay the cost preparing,Adopting, and implementing a
solid waste management plan. Such fees shall bebased on the following minimum factors:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
None of the choices
40.
Areas with high biodiversity value which shall be closed to all human activityexcept for scientific studies
and/or ceremonial or religious use by indigenouscommunities
A.
Restoration Zone
B.
C.
Bypass Zone
D.
E.
41.
A.
B.
Sanggunian Bayan
C.
Planning Officer
D.
E.
This is an organizational process for determining systematically and objectivelythe relevance, efficiency,
effectiveness and impact of activities in the light of theirobjectives
A.
Planning
B.
Project Identification
C.
Resource Generation
D.
Evaluation
E.
43.
This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some years after project completionwhen full project
benefits and impact are expected to have been realized.
A.
Terminal Evaluation
B.
On-going Evaluation
C.
Ex-post Evaluation
D.
Pre-Evaluation
44.
B.
The format
C.
D.
E.
45.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
46.
When projecting market demand for a project, which of the followingcombination of techniques is not
advisable:
A.
Survey/planning standards
B.
C.
Experts opinion/census
D.
E.
47.
This indicate the number of years it would take to recoup the investments in heproject
A.
Payback Period
B.
Retention Period
C.
Return on Investment
D.
Profit Margin
E.
48.
A.
Uncertainty of risk
B.
C.
D.
Present consumption
E.
49.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
50. As per RA7279 of 1992,the acquisition of land at values based on existing use inadvance of actual
need to promote planned development and socialized housing programs is called
A. Land banking
B. Land assembly or consolidation
C. Land swapping
D. Land promotion
50. A Highly-Urbanized City (HUG) bids out in transparent manner the revision of its CLUP-ZO for an
approved budget of contract (ABC) of 6 million. Four companies participated in open bidding. In the BAC
evaluation of technical proposals, Company A got 89 points, Company B earned 64 points, Company C,
78 points, and Company D, 42 points as the last company missed out on the required GIS-RS component.
After technical examination, the sealed financial proposals were opened and the bid amounts were
revealed as follows: Company A = 6.3 million; Company B = 6.2 million; Company C = 5.9 million; and
Company D = 4.5 million. Overall, which company offered the "most responsive bid" or "lowest
calculated complying bid" and should receive the Notice of Award of Contract from the head of agency.
A. Company A
B. Company B
C. Company C
D. Company D
A.
'friar lands'
B.
'encomiendas'
C.
'haciendas'
D.
'townships'
45.
Public Lands Act of 1903 granted homesteads to 14 million Filipino families covering 5.3 million hectares,
principally in
A.
Negros Island
B.
Palawan
C.
Mindanao
D.
Samar Island
46.
The Torrens Title System which entrenched the concept of absolute private ownership of land in the
Philippines is a 7 legacy from what colonial period of Philippine history?
A.
Spanish
B.
American
C.
Japanese
D.
British
47.
According to Dr. Ernesto Pernia (1983), the major blunder in Philippine economic policy and
industrialization strategy occurred in the latter period of American colonial rule when
A.
Free trade agreements with USA narrowed Philippine agricultural output to cash crops for export such
as sugar, tobacco, hemp, coconut, palm, rice, and timber.
B.
Progress of Philippine agricultural regions was directly tied to fluctuations of American market during
Great Depression,instead of Filipino production being responsive to domestic demand by inter1inking
Philippine regions with one another
C.
Post-war' import substitution' policy beginning in 1947 focused on capital-intensive urban consumer
goods rather than on resource-based agro-industlialization in provincial centers utilizing agricultural
surplus
D.
All of the choices
48.
Republic Act 2264 empowered LGUs to form local planning boards to craft their development plans
under the close guidance of national government agencies.
A.
Local Governance and Planning Act of 1945
B.
Local Autonomy Act of 1949
C.
Decentralization and Devolution Act
D.
Transparency and Accountability Standards Act
49.
In 1954, Reorganization Plan 53-A of the Government Survey and Reorganization Commission delineated
regions
A.
Nine -representing 9 rays of the sun in Philippine flag or 9 historic territories which fought Spain
B.
Eight -representing major ethno-linguistic groups
C.
Four -representing major island-groupings plus Muslim territories
D.
Six -representing possible component units of a federal system
50. Presidential Decree 824 on February 27, 1975 created the Metro Manila Commission as the first ever
structure of metropolitan governance in the Philippines following the organizational model called
A. Annexation and Amalgamation (one-tier government)
B. Jurisdictional Fragmentation (Council of Local Governments)
C. Voluntary clustering and lnter-LGU cooperation
D. Functional Consolidation (two-tier metropolitan government)
50. According to Ernesto Serote, the FAO formula for urban land allocation at 5.7 hectares per thousand
population does not seem to be realistic in highly-urbanized LGUs because of rapid pace of change,
hence, to estimate urban land demand, this method entails time-series comparison of aerial
photographs supplemented by on-foot survey of urban land.
50. Which essential elements of LogFrame or "Z.O.P.P" are used for plan monitoring and evaluation?
50. This is a provision made in advance for the gradual liquidation of a future obligation by periodic
charges against the capital account.
A. Downpayment
B. Reservation
C. Amortization
D. Equity
E. Surcharge
F. Pay-off
50. The body under the immediate control and supervision of the President of the Philippines, charged
with the main function of coordinating the activities of the government housing agencies to ensure the
accomplishment of the National Shelter Program.
A. NEDA
B. HUDCC
C. NHA
D. HLURB
50. 800. This refers to amount of energy necessary to raise one gram of water one degree Celsius, its
approximate equivalent inSyteme Internationale metric measurements is 1055 joules .
A. Calorie
B. Kelvin
C. BTU-British Thermal Unit
D. Kilojoule
E. Psi- pounds per square inch
50. Below are some of the documented deficiencies of governments socialized housing with rowhouse
design. Which deficiency is considered the principal cause of the failure of off-city relocation in the
Philippines?
A. 24 sq.m. is inappropriate for large urban families which are typically extended
B. Each dwelling unit has no space for waste sorting, composting, gardening, and domestic crop
production
C. Each dwelling has no provision for natural cooling and energy conservation by means of protective
trees
D. Most housing projects have no provisions for near-site workplaces or employment centers
50. According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total cumulative
housing need According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, among nine
countries in East Asia being compared, the Philippines has the highest officially-reported poverty
incidence at 26.6%, the highest Gini coefficient at 0.448, the lowest rate increase in real per capita
income at 2.3% per annum, and among the highest unemployment rates per annum. These figures
indicate that
A. Philippine growth is not broadbased and could not create vast employment opportunities for the
majority;
B. Macroeconomic growth has not been adequately translated into human development and social
progress.
C. Public investment favors few competitive sectors in central and urban places to the neglect of the
marginal and disadvantaged sectors;
D. Economic growth in real terms' is often too small to be offset by high population growth.
E. Bad governance means there are chronic leakages of government resources & low accountability and
transparency in the development management.
F. All of the choices