PAPER

FIITJEE Students From All Programs have bagged 34 in Top 100, 66 in Top 200 and 174 in Top 500
All India Ranks. FIITJEE Performance in JEE (Advanced), 2014:

FIITJEE JEE (Main), 2015
2521 FIITJEE Students from Classroom / Integrated School Programs & 3579 FIITJEE Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE (Advanced), 2014.
HALF COURSE TEST VI
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 432
Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 to 03 and 10 to 12) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +8 marks for correct answer and 2 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-A (04 to 09 and 13 to 30) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong
answer.
Name of the Candidate
Enrolment No.
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
2
AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/15
Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C
Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2
Density of water water = 103 kg/m3
Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
CHEMISTRY
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023
Plancks constant h = 6.625 1034 Js
= 6.625 1027 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 1027 kg
1 eV = 1.6 1019 J
Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,

N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
3
Physics PART I
SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A cylinder released from the top of an inwclined plane of inclination and having coefficient of
friction rolls without sliding and reaches the bottom with speed v r. Another cylinder, released
from the top of the same plane rolls with sliding till it reaches bottom with speed v s. Then
tan
(given that )
3
(A) Vs > Vr (B) Vr > Vs
(C) Vr = Vs (D) none of these
2. A uniform rod of length is suspended from one end such that it is free to rotate about an axis
passing through that end and perpendicular to the rod. A small sphere of same mass as that of
rod strikes the other end of the rod and sticks to it. The minimum velocity of the sphere for which
the rod can make full rotations is
(A) 8g (B) 4g
(C) 5g (D) none of these
3. From A ring of mass M and radius R rotating with angular velocity about
its diameter (being vertical) two beads of mass m are released from rest
from the upper end of the diameter. The angular velocity of the ring when R
the two beads meet at the lower end is
M
(A) (B) 2
(C) M/M+2m (D) none of these
4. The moment of inertia of a uniform disc with centre C and radius R, having
circular cavity of diameter CB = R about an axis passing through A, B and C and A
C
B
perpendicular to the plane of disc is IA, IB and IC respectively. Then
(A) IC > IB > IA (B) IB > IC > IA
(C) IA > IC > IB (D) IB > IA > IC
Space for rough work
4
5. If moment of inertia of a rod of mass m and length about an axis through its end and
perpendicular to the rod is I, then the moment of inertia about the same axis if the rod is bent at
90 at its mid point is
5 5
(A) I (B) I
4 8
13
(C) I (D) none of these
8
6. The system shown in figure is released from rest, if block B is smooth

stopped for a moment after 1 sec from the start, the time after m A
which the string will again become taut is
(A) 1 sec (B) 2 sec
(C) 3 sec (D) none of these
m B
7. The system shown in figure is released from rest. The ratio of

velocities of block and wedge after 2 sec from the start of motion is
(Assuming all the surface to be frictionless) m M
(A) 1/2 (B) 1 =60
(C) 2 (D) none of these
8. In the figure shown pulley string and spring are massless and the system is in
equilibrium. If the string connected to the ground is cut, the instantaneous
acceleration of m1 mass is k1
(A) g/2 (B) g/3 k2
m1g m2 m1 g
(C) (D) m1
m2 m1 m2
9. A particle is observed from two frames S1 and S2. The graph of relative velocity of
Rel. velocity
S1 with respect to S2 is shown in figure. Let F1 and F2 be the pseudo forces on the
particle when seen from S1 and S2 respectively. Which of the following is
impossible? O
(A) F1 = 0, F2 0 (B) F1 0, F2 = 0 Time
(C) F1 0, F2 0 (D) F1 = 0, F2 = 0
5
10. In the figure shown neglect the masses of the pulley and also neglect friction. Then P2
(A) tension in the string connected to block is mg/2
(B) Acceleration of pulley P1 is g upwards P1
(C) Acceleration of pulley P3 is g/2 downwards P3
(D) Acceleration of block is g downwards.
m
11. A block of mass m is given velocity u over a long plank of mass M as Rough
shown in figure. The velocity of the block after a long time is smooth M u
m
mu mu
(A) (B)
M Mm
u Mu
(C) (D)
2 Mm
12. The end B of the chain of mass per unit length and length is released from rest as B
A
shown in figure. The force at the hinge when the end B is at /4 from the ceiling is
3 gL
(A) gL (B)
4 4
4
(C) gL (D) none of these
3
13. Choose the correct statement.
(A) Work done by friction force is always negative.
(B) Static friction is always greater than kinetic friction
(C) When the body slides on a surface the value of friction is equal to limiting friction.
(D) The coefficient of friction between two bodies does not depend upon the area of contact.
6
14. For a body moving on a circular path, the angular velocity, linear velocity, angular acceleration,

centripetal acceleration and tangential acceleration of the particle at any instant are ,v, , ac and

a t respectively. Which of the following relation is incorrect.

(A) v (B) a t ac

(C) at (D)
15. A particle is projected from corner P of an elevator moving downwards S R

with acceleration a towards diagonally opposite corner R. Then
(A) particle will hit R only when a = g. P Q
(B) particle will hit the wall QR if a > g
(C) particle will hit the roof RS if a < g.
(D) data insufficient
v
16. For the given velocity time curve, displacement (m/s)
is zero at t = 0 the corresponding displacement 10
time curve is
0 2 4 6
t(s)
10
(A) s(m) (B) s(m)
20 20
10 10
2 4 6 t(s) 0 2 4 6 t(s)
(C) s(m) (D) s(m)
20 20
10 10
2 4 6 t(s) 0 2 4 6 t(s)
7
17. A block of mass 1 kg is pulled along the curve path ACB by a =0.2
tangential force as shown in figure. The work done by the friction force C
when the block moves from A to B is
(A) 5 J (B) 10 J A X=10m B
(C) 20 J (D) none of these
18. An inclined plane of height 10 m and angle of inclination 30 with the horizontal is having a
groove at an angle of 45 with the line of greatest slope. A particle is released from rest from the
top of incline plane in the groove, the time taken by the particle to reach the bottom of the groove
2
is (g = 10 m/s )
(A) 1 sec (B) 2 sec
(C) 4 sec (D) none of these
19. A light rod of length L, is hanging from on the vertical wall of a vehicle moving with acceleration
3 g having a small mass attached at its one end is free to rotate about an axis passing through
the other end. The minimum velocity given to the mass at its equilibrium position so that it can
complete vertical circular motion is
(A) 5gL (B) 4gL
(C) 8gL (D) none of these
20. A particle moves with a speed v = |t 3| m/s along a straight line, where t is time in seconds.
Distance travelled by the particle during first 5 seconds is equal to:
(A) 1.5 m (B) 2m
(C) 6.5 m (D) none of these
21. Two particles A and B starts from rest and move for equal time on a straight line. Particle A has
an acceleration of z m/s2 for the first half of the total time and 2zm/s2 for the second half. The
particle B has an acceleration of 2z m/s2 for the first half of the total time and z m/s2 for the
second half. Which particle has covered larger distance?
(A) A has covered the larger distance (B) B has covered the larger distance
(C) both have covered the same distance (D) none of these
8
22. A uniform circular ring of mass m and radius R is rotating in a gravity free space with angular
velocity about its own axis. Tension in the ring is
mR2 mR2
(A) (B)
2 4
(C) zero (D) mR2
23. The displacement time graph for a particle in motion is shown in figure. X(m)
C
For which portion of the graph the force acting on the particle is opposite
to the direction of velocity B D
(A) AB (B) OA A
(C) BC (D) CD
0 t(s)
24. A cylinder of mass m and radius R is given velocity V0 over a smooth

V0
plank of same mass having velocity V0/2. The velocity of the V0/2
cylinder when it starts rolling without slipping is
V 7V0
(A) 0 (B)
8 8
V0 3V0
(C) (D)
4 4
25. In the previous question if coefficient of friction between the plank and cylinder is , the work
done by friction in the motion is
1 1
(A) mv 20 (B) mg
16 32
1
(C) mv 20 (D) zero
32
9
26. A small sphere and a big sphere are released from rest with a very small O
gap from height h as shown in figure. The mass of bigger sphere is very
large as compared to mass of smaller sphere the height from the point
of collision of smaller sphere with the bigger sphere to which the smaller h
sphere will rise if all the collision is elastic
(A) 2h (B) 4h
(C) 6h (D) 9h
27. A particle is projected from a point at an angle with the horizontal at, t = 0. At an instant t, if p is
magnitude of linear momentum, x is horizontal displacement, y is vertical displacement E is
kinetic energy of the particle, then which of the following graph is correct.
E E
(A) (B)
O y O y
E E
(C) (D)
O y O y
28. A particle on the top of a fixed sphere of radius R is given horizontal velocity 2gR , the angle
measured from vertical at which it will leave contact with the sphere is
(A) zero (B) cos 1 2 / 3
(C) 30 (D) 45
29. Work will be done by a force on an object, if

(A) the object is stationary but the point of application of the force moves.
(B) the force is always perpendicular to its velocity
(C) the object moves in such a way that the force is perpendicular to its displacement.
(D) none of these
30. A block is suspended by an ideal spring constant K. If the block is pulled down by constant force
F and if maximum displacement of block from its initial position of rest is z, then
(A) z = F/K
(B) z = 2F/K
(C) work done by force F is equal to 2Fz.
1
(D) increase in potential energy of the spring is Kz2
2
10
Chemistry PART II
SECTION A
Straight Objective Type
1. How many substituted products are possible on monochlorination of isohexane (including
isomers)?
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
2. For the reaction: N2 g 3H2 g

2NH3 g equilibrium constant is

2 2
(A)
NH3
V (B)
NH3
V2
3 3

N2 H2
N2 H2
2 2
(C)
NH3
V 3
(D)
NH3
3 3

N2 H2
N2 H2
3. The rate constant for the reaction: 2N2O 5 4NO2 O2 is 6 105 s1. If the rate is
2.40 105 mol L1s1, then the concentration of N2O5 (in mol L1) is
(A) 0.8 (B) 0.4
(C) 0.2 (D) 0.1
4. Dolomite is mineral whose formula is

(A) CaCO3 (B) CaCO3.MgCO3
(C) MgCO3 (D) CaSO4.2H2O
5. Which of the following thermodynamic relation is correct for ideal gas?

V P
(A) 0 (B) 0
T P T V
E V
(C) 0 (D) 0
V T T P
11
6. How many bonds are there in naphthalene?

(A) 18, 4 (B) 18 , 5
(C) 19 , 5 (D) 19 , 4
7. Which of the following is correct relation between mole fraction of solute into molarity of solution?
(A) M
x2
(B) M
x M
1 1
x 2M2
M2 X1M1 x 2M2 x 2M2
x2 1 m
(C) M (D) M
x M
1 1
x 2M2 mM2
8. Which of the following expression is correct for rate of diffusion of 2 gases?

(A) rH2 rD2 (B) rCO2 rNO 2
(C) rN2 rCO2 (D) rCO2 rN2 O
6 3 3
9. Ksp of a substance MX2 is 4 10 mol L . Molecular mass of the substance is 200 its solubility
would be
(A) 0.2 g/L1 (B) 2 g/L
(C) 20 g/L (D) 200 g/L
10. Which of the following represents the given mole of hybridization sp sp sp2 sp2 sp3 from
left to right?
(A) CH3 CH3 CH2 = CH NH2 (B) CH CH CH2 CH2 NH2
(C) CH CH CH2 NH CH3 (D) CH CH N = N CH3
11. The hybridization of diborane is

(A) sp (B) sp2
(C) sp3 (D) sp3d
12. Which of the following ion has the maximum value of magnetic moment?
(A) Mn2+ (B) Fe2+
2+
(C) Co (D) Ni2+
12
13. 2 moles of SO2 and 1 mole of O2 are allowed to react in a container of capacity 2 litre and
following equilibrium is allowed to establish: 2SO2 g O2 g
2SO3 g

The equilibrium mixture requires 200 ml of 0.1 M acidified K2Cr2O7 solution. Hence Kc for the
above equilibrium is approximately
(A) 6.96 102 (B) 6.96 103
4
(C) 6.96 10 (D) 6.96 105
14. Which of the following radial probability curve is correct for a 3p orbital? (Assume that all graphs
have been plotted for the same parameters. In all these curves principal quantum number < 4)
(A) (B)
Radial probability
Radial probability
density (A)
density (A)
2
2 3 5 10
Radial distabnce (r) (A)
Radial distabnce (r) (A)
(C) (D)
Radial probability
Radial probability
density (A)
density (A)
2 3 6 10 1.5
Radial distabnce (r) (A) Radial distabnce (r) (A)
15. Which of the following species is incorrect method with its shape?
(A) ClF3 T shaped (B) SO32 tetrahedral
(C) C2 O42
planar (D) I3
linear
13
16. Identify the incorrect statement (s) among the following:

(A) if spin quantum number curve having 3 possible values then 4th period of periodic table
would have maximum of 27 elements.
(B) platinum (Pt) is one of the typical transition metal.
(C) total number of f electrons in Gd (at. No. 64) is 8.
(D) atomic radius of Ga is nearly equal to that of Al.
17. To prepare a buffer of pH 8.26 amount of (NH4)2SO4 to be added into 500 ml of 0.01 M NH4OH
solution [pka(NH4+) = 9.26] is
(A) 0.05 mole (B) 0.025 mole
(C) 0.10 mole (D) 0.005 mole
18. Consider the following equilibria:

CH3 COOH H2 O H3 O CH3 COO

H2 SO 4 CH3 COOH
CH3 COOH2 HSO4

H2NO3 HSO4

H2 SO 4 HNO3

NH3 H2 O
NH4 OH
and, now select the incorrect statement among the following
(A) H2SO4 is a stronger acid than HNO3
(B) NH4+ is a weaker acid than H3O+
(C) acetic acid is stronger acid than H2O
(D) H2O is a weaker acid than H2SO4 and HNO3 both
19.
HBr
H3C CH CH
peroxide
A major product
Hence the major product (A) in the reaction is

(A) (B)
Br CH2 CH CH H3C CH CH Br
(C) (D)
H3C CH2 CH H3C CH CH2
Br Br
14
20. An inorganic compound (X) on hydrolysis produces a gas which on treatment with sodium
followed by its reaction with ethyl chloride gives another compound (Y). Compound (Y) on heating
with P 2 catalyst gives (2Z) pent 2 ene as major product. Hence the inorganic compound
(X) is
(A) Tl4C (B) BaC2
(C) SiC (D) Mg2C3
21. Which of the following metal reacts most vigorously with water?
(A) Li (B) Na
(C) K (D) Be
22. Boron trichloride on heating with ammonium chloride at 140C gives a compound (A) which on
reduction with sodium borohydride followed by hydrolysis gives another compound (B). Hence
compound (A) and (B) are respectively.
(A) inorganic graphite & ammonia (B) inorganic benzene & orthoboric acid
(C) trichloroborazine & orthoboric acid (D) diborane & orthoboric acid
23. (S) 2 chloropentane on reaction with Cl2 (g) in the presence of U.V. light, gives N number of
optically active dichloro derivatives. Hence the value of N is
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 4
24. Which of the following statement regarding keto - enol forms of acetone and ethyl actoacetate is
correct?
(A) both are more stable in enol form than in keto form
(B) both are more stable in keto form than in enol form
(C) acetone is more stable in keto form whereas enol form is more stable in ethyl acetoacetate
(D) acetone is more stable in enol form whereas keto form is more stable in ethyl actacetate
25. 3 mole of KIO3, 4 mole of KI and 5 mole of HCl are allowed to react according to the equation
given below:
KIO3 2KI 6HCl 3ICl 3KCl 3H2 O
The number of moles of products are
(A) 27 (B) 18
(C) 7.5 (D) 9.5
15
26. Which of the following statement is incorrect for the given graph?
Gas A
Fraction of Gas B (temp=T)
molecules
Velocity
(A) The molecular weight of gas A will be greater than gas B
(B) The average kinetic energy of both the gases will be similar at a particular temperature
(C) The average velocity of particles of gas A will always be less than of particles of gas B at
temperature T.
(D) The velocity of any particle of gas A can not be greater than velocity of any particle of gas B
at same temperature.
27. A water sample is found to have 384 ppm of SO 24 . What will be the degree of hardness of water
sample?
(A) 200 ppm (B) 300 ppm
(C) 400 ppm (D) 100 ppm
28. How many structural isomers are possible with molecular formula C7H16?
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12
29. Which of the following is mismatched?

(A) LiCO3 least stable carbonate among alkali metal carbonates.
(B) LiF almost insoluble in water due to its high covalent character.
(C) Ba(OH)2 most soluble hydroxide among alkaline earth metal hydroxide.
(D) BeSO4 more soluble than BaSO4 in water.
30. O

H /H2 O
' A '

H /
B O3
C
H
Zn
Major
O
(A) and (C) are isomers.
Which of the following can be structure of (A)?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
16
Mathematics PART III
SECTION A
Straight Objective Type
1. If the circle x 2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 is touched by y = x at P such that OP = 6 2 , where O is

the origin, then the value of c is
(A) 36 (B) 144
2. If is the nth root of unity, then 1 + 2 + 32 + ..... to n terms is equal to

n n
(A) 2
(B)
1 1
2n 2n
(C) (D)
1 1 2
3. If (3 + x2008 + x2009)2010 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ..... + anxn, then the value of

1 1 1 1
a0 a1 a2 a3 a 4 a5 a6 ..... is
2 2 2 2
(A) 32010 (B) 1
4. Total number of words that can be formed using all letters of the word BRIJESH that neither
begins with I nor ends with B is equal to
(A) 3720 (B) 4920
(C) 3600 (D) 4800
5. If cos2 A + cos2 B + cos2 C = 1, then ABC is

(A) equilateral (B) isosceles
(C) right angled (D) none of these
17
C
6. In triangle ABC, A = , then tan is equal to
2 2
ac ab
(A) (B)
2b 2c
ac ab
(C) (D)
b c
1 1
7. For the equation cos x + cos 2x + = 0, the number of real solution is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D)
8. Let A (3, 4), B (1, 2), let P (2k 1, 2k + 1) be a variable point such that PA + PB is
minimum. Then k is
7
(A) (B) 0
9
7
(C) (D) none of these
8
9. If x, 2y, 3z are in A.P., where the distinct numbers x, y, z are in G.P., then the common ratio of
the G.P. is
1
(A) 3 (B)
3
1
(C) 2 (D)
2
10. If |z2 3| = 3|z| then the maximum value of |z| is

3 21
(A) 1 (B)
2
21 3
(C) (D) none of these
2
18
11. Total number of values of a so that x 2 x a = 0 has integral roots, where a N and 6 a 100,
is equal to
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
12. If normals are drawn from a point P(h, k) to the parabola y2 = 4ax, then the sum of the intercepts
which the normals cut off from the axis of the parabola is
(A) h + a (B) 3(h + a)
(C) 2(h + a) (D) none of these
x2 y2 5
13. The eccentric angle of a point on the ellipse 1 at a distance of units from the focus
4 3 4
on the positive xaxis, is
3 3
(A) cos1 (B) cos 1
4 4
3
(C) cos1 (D) none of these
4
14. The eccentricity of the conic represented by x 2 y2 4x + 4y + 16 = 0 is

(A) 1 (B) 2
1
(C) 2 (D)
2
15. If centre of a regular hexagon is at origin and one of the vertices on Argand diagram is 1 + 2i,
then its perimeter is
(A) 2 5 (B) 6 2
(C) 4 5 (D) 6 5
16. The number of even divisors of the number N = 12600 is

(A) 72 (B) 54
17. If x, y, z are in G.P. and ax = by = cz, then

(A) logb a = loga c (B) logc b = loga c
(C) logb a = logc b (D) none of these
19
2 3 10
18. Consider the ten numbers ar, ar , ar , ....., ar . If their sum is 18 and the sum of their reciprocals
is 6 then the product of these ten numbers, is
(A) 81 (B) 243
(C) 343 (D) 324
2
19. The value of m for which one of the roots of x 3x + 2m = 0 is double of one of the roots of
x2 x + m = 0 is
(A) 2 (B) 1
2 2
20. x xy + y 4x 4y + 16 = 0 represents
(A) a point (B) a circle
(C) a pair of straight lines (D) none of these
1 2log3 2 2
21. The value of 2
log6 2 is
1 log3 2
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 1
sin3 sin5 sin7 sin9

22. is equal to
cos 3 cos5 cos 7 cos 9
(A) tan 3 (B) cot 3
(C) tan 6 (D) cot 6
r r
23. If in a triangle, 1 1 1 1 2 , then the triangle is
r2 r3
(A) right angled (B) isosceles
(C) equilateral (D) none of these
x xy
24. tan1 tan1 is
y xy

(A) (B)
2 3
3
(C) (D) or
4 4 4
20
25. The circle x2 + y2 + 2x = 0, R, touches the parabola y2 = 4x externally. Then

(A) > 0 (B) < 0
(C) > 1 (D) none of these
26. In a triangle ABC, A (, ), B (2, 3) and C (1, 3) and point A lies on line y = 2x + 3 where
I. Area of ABC, , is such that [] = 5. Possible coordinates of A are (where [.] denotes the
greatest integer function)
(A) (2, 3) (B) (5, 13)
(C) (5, 7) (D) (3, 5)
3 2 1985 100
27. Sum of common roots of the equations z + 2z + 2z + 1 = 0 and z +z + 1 = 0 is
(A) 1 (B) 1
28. The last two digits of the number 3400 are

(A) 81 (B) 43
(C) 29 (D) 01
29. If tn denotes the nth term of the series 2 + 3 + 6 + 11 + 18 + .. then t50 is

(A) 492 1 (B) 492
2
(C) 50 + 1 (D) 492 + 2
30. Number of ways in which Rs. 18 can be distributed amongst four persons such that no body
receives less than Rs. 3 is
(A) 126 (B) 84
(C) 4! (D) none of these

PAPER

Uploaded by

Document Informationclick to expand document information

Copyright:

Available Formats

PAPER

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

PAPER

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

FIITJEE Students From All Programs have bagged 34 in Top 100, 66 in Top 200 and 174 in Top 500

All India Ranks. FIITJEE Performance in JEE (Advanced), 2014:

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

Name of the Candidate

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,

6. The system shown in figure is released from rest, if block B is smooth

7. The system shown in figure is released from rest. The ratio of

15. A particle is projected from corner P of an elevator moving downwards S R

(A) s(m) (B) s(m)

(C) s(m) (D) s(m)

Space for rough work

24. A cylinder of mass m and radius R is given velocity V0 over a smooth

29. Work will be done by a force on an object, if

Straight Objective Type

2. For the reaction: N2 g 3H2 g

4. Dolomite is mineral whose formula is

5. Which of the following thermodynamic relation is correct for ideal gas?

6. How many bonds are there in naphthalene?

8. Which of the following expression is correct for rate of diffusion of 2 gases?

11. The hybridization of diborane is

Space for rough work

16. Identify the incorrect statement (s) among the following:

18. Consider the following equilibria:

Hence the major product (A) in the reaction is

Space for rough work

29. Which of the following is mismatched?

Space for rough work

Mathematics PART III

Straight Objective Type

1. If the circle x 2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 is touched by y = x at P such that OP = 6 2 , where O is

2. If is the nth root of unity, then 1 + 2 + 32 + ..... to n terms is equal to

3. If (3 + x2008 + x2009)2010 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ..... + anxn, then the value of

5. If cos2 A + cos2 B + cos2 C = 1, then ABC is

Space for rough work

10. If |z2 3| = 3|z| then the maximum value of |z| is

Space for rough work

14. The eccentricity of the conic represented by x 2 y2 4x + 4y + 16 = 0 is

16. The number of even divisors of the number N = 12600 is

17. If x, y, z are in G.P. and ax = by = cz, then

Space for rough work

sin3 sin5 sin7 sin9

Space for rough work

25. The circle x2 + y2 + 2x = 0, R, touches the parabola y2 = 4x externally. Then

28. The last two digits of the number 3400 are

29. If tn denotes the nth term of the series 2 + 3 + 6 + 11 + 18 + .. then t50 is

Space for rough work

You might also like