AIATS(Senior) For One Year Medical-2018 (XII Studying)_Practice Test_1

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 1
(skipped)
Two metal spheres of A and B have same mass when neutral. When A is given negative charge and B is given positive charge the mass becomes MA and MB then
Options:

MA > MB

MA < MB

MA = MB

Depends over magnitude of charge given

Solution :

Answer (1)

Charge is associated with mass.

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Question : 2
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There are two point charges placed at some distance. If any other external force is not there, then only under electrostatic force the two particles will remain
Options:

In equilibrium if both have opposite charge

One particle in equilibrium for any charge

In equilibrium if both have similar charge

Neither will be in equilibrium

Solution :

Answer (4)

Either charge will experience only one force due to other so under one force neither will be in equilibrium.

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Question : 3
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Two charged particle q1 and q2 at distance r have electrostatic force F if placed in medium of relative permittivity K. For same force the separation between charges when
placed in vacuum will be
Options:
 K2r

Kr

Solution :

Answer (3)

on the right if permittivity is , then is now distance in air.

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Question : 4
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Any body having positive charge is at negative potential with respect to earth. Now joined by any conductor to earth then which of the following is correct?
Options:

Electrons will move from body to earth

Electrons will move from earth to body

There will be no transfer of electron

Transfer of electron depends over magnitude of positive charge on the

body

Solution :

Answer (1)

Since potential is negative w.r.t. earth electrons will move from body to earth to increase the potential to zero.

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Question : 5
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One body is positively charged and other is neutral, if both rubbed together the total charge over both
Options:

Become negative

Remain positive

Depends on the time of rubbing

Depends on the magnitude of positive charge before rubbing

Solution :

Answer (2)

Remains positive
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 6
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Five charged particles each +Q and one Q are placed at the six corners of a regular hexagon of sides length a. The electrostatic force over q0 placed at the centre is given
by

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

All the five positive Q charge will have force over q0 towards left equal to charge Q and Q also towards left so net force towards left.

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Question : 7
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Two particles have equal masses m and opposite charges +q and q. If they released from rest with a separation r, then the speeds of the particles when the separation is
reduced to half will be (assume gravity is neglected)
Options:

for each particle

for each particle

for each particle

Solution :

Answer (2)

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Question : 8
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There is uniform electric field 20 N/C as shown in figure. If potential at origin is zero then potential at point (4 m, 4 m, 0 m) is given by

Options:

40 V

109.2 V

39.6 V

19.6 V

Solution :

Answer (2)

= 109.2 V

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Question : 9
(skipped)
The resistance in diagonal QS is 5 . When switch S' is closed the current in QS arm will be

Options:

Zero

From Q to S

From S to Q

First Q to S then S to Q

Solution :

Answer (3)

Since in quadrilateral arms 4 6 > 3 4.

So current in 5 resistor from S Q upward.

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Question : 10
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An particle is moving in circular orbit with speed v the equivalent current in the orbit is I. If radius of orbit increased to 3 times and speed reduces by times
then equivalent current in new orbit is
Options:
Solution :

Answer (3)

Equivalent current is but angular velocity becomes from . Hence current becomes .

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Question : 11
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A long straight conductor with linear charge density . A charge particle revolving around line charge in orbit perpendicular to it with angular velocity . Now radius of
orbit increases to two times then new angular velocity is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

So angular velocity becomes /2 (half)

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Question : 12
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A long cylindrical volume contains a uniformly distributed charge of density . The electric field at a point inside the cylindrical volume at a distance r from its axis is
Options:
Solution :

Answer (3)

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Question : 13
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Two charged particles q each placed at (0, a) and (0, a) respectively. Another charge Qand mass m released from (x, 0) to accelerate along x-axis the minimum
acceleration is there at point

Options:

(a, 0)

(0, 0)

Solution :

Answer (2)

Force on charge at origin is zero.

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Question : 14
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A particle of mass m and charge q is taken from O to A and A to B in an external field. If VO, VA and VB are the potentials of O, A and B respectively, then change in energy
in moving from O to B via A is

Options:

q[VB VA VO]

q[VB VA]

q[VB VO]

q[VB + VA VO]

Solution :

Answer (3)
Since electrostatic field is conservative so work done on energy change depends over end points O and B.

Energy change q [VB VO].

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Question : 15
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If any conductor is heated its resistance increases with rise in temperature because
Options:

With temperature rise free electrons increase

With rise of temperature relaxation time increase

With rise in temperature relaxation time decrease

Both number of free electrons and relaxation time increase

Solution :

Answer (3)

With temperature rise thermal speed of electrons increases that is relaxation time decreases as .

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Question : 16
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If resistance between A and D is given 9 , then what is the resistance between B and D? Given all sides of hexagon are equal and of same uniform wire

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

One side of AD that is three sides it have resistance R then

or one side resistance

Across BD =

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Question : 17
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Two spherical bodies of metal with respective radii 30 cm and 70 cm carry charge of 7 C and 27 C placed in contact and the separated, the final charge on smaller
sphere is
Options:

10 C

6C

14 C

Zero

Solution :

Answer (2)

Total charge = 27 7 = 20 C

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Question : 18
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A given cell of emf 10 V and internal resistance 1 connected to 9 external resistance. When switch S is closed then ideal voltmeter will read

Options:

10 V

1V

9V

Zero

Solution :

Answer (3)

While discharging or giving current

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Question : 19
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In the given resistance network when switch open reading of ammeter I1 and when closed reading I2, then will be

Options:
Solution :

Answer (2)

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Question : 20
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Point P of the given network given earthing. When switch is closed then quantity of charge will flow to the earth is

Options:

Zero

60 C

24 C

30 C

Solution :

Answer (1)

When switch closed only charge move from one plate to other, no charge can flow to earth (Zero).

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Question : 21
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If maximum safe current through any fuse wire is 4 A. When radius of cross section of wire is made 4 times and length increased to 4 times, then safe current without
blowing is
Options:

(32 4) A
 (8 4) A

(4 4) A

(2 4) A

Solution :

Answer (2)

Maximum safe current independent of length

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Question : 22
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In diagram (i) across AB the equivalent resistance is 18 . While C and D ends joined in diagram (ii) then resistance between ends A and B is

Options:

16

14

20
Solution :

Answer (2)

In (i) diagram, 3R = 18 then R = 6

In (ii), Req = 6 + 4 + 6 = 16

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Question : 23
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One hollow pipe of inner radius r and outer 2r with matter conductivity 1 and inner solid rod of same length of radius r and conductivity 2 then equivalent conductivity
of the system is

Options:
 +1 2

Solution :

Answer (2)

or

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Question : 24
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A source battery having some internal resistance joined to terminal of a potentiometer to produce potential gradient. When same length of potentiometer wire changed
by other wire of same matter but cross-section radius 2 times that of previous then potential gradient K2, (before change it was K1) will be
Options:

K2 = K1

K2 < K1

K2 > K1

Depends on internal resistance of battery

Solution :

Answer (2)

Since current increases more drop inside source battery so less voltage for wire K2 < K1.

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Question : 25
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Three cells of emf, E1 = 10 V, E2 = 8 V and E3 = 2 V with internal resistances r1, r2 and r3 each of 1 respectively are connected as shown in the figure. If current I flows
through external resistance R is 2 A, then value of R would be

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Main current,


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Question : 26
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Six bulbs connected in series to a voltage supply gives net power received is P. If all bulbs are similar and one bulb removed then net power by remaining 5 bulbs in
series connected to same voltage is
Options:

5P

Solution :

Answer (2)

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Question : 27
(skipped)

In the circuit I1 and I2 are current value through 10 resistance and 20 resistance respectively, then is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (1)

Across PQ all the cells are in parallel branch, so 6 V potential difference across each then
I1 = I2 = 0.2 A

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Question : 28
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Three similar cells each of emf E and internal resistance r first combined in parallel and connected to external resistance R in second case series combination of these
connected to R, the power in R is same in both cases then
Options:

R=r

r = 9R

Solution :

Answer (2)

3R + r = 3r + R

r=R

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Question : 29
(skipped)
In the circuit shown in figure, the current in 10 resistor across QT is

Options:

2A

0.5 A

1A

4A

Solution :

Answer (2)
The current is like

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Question : 30
(skipped)
Each resistors R is 10 and E = 20 V, then charge on capacitance C = 20 F is

Options:

80 C

240 C

40 C

400 C

Solution :

Answer (2)

Current in outer branch,

Across capacitor,

Charge q = CV = 20 12 = 240 C

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Question : 31
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The potential difference across terminals of a cell which is discharging changes with current in a variable external resistance, then emf and internal resistance of cell are
respectively

Options:

5 V, 0.4

5 V, 2.5

2 V, 0.4

2 V, 2.5

Solution :

Answer (2)

Since for discharging cell, E Ir = V

Here, E = 5 V, r = slope =

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Question : 32
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A battery of 75 V connected to seven resistors each of 10 as in circuit, if P given earthing then potential of point Q is

Options:

10 V

10 V

5 V

5V

Solution :

Answer (3)

Current drawn by cell, and from P to Q

0 5 = VQ

VQ = 5 V

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Question : 33
(skipped)

The magnitude of current density J and magnitude of electric field across metal conductor E, then will
Options:

Decrease with temperature rise

Increase with temperature rise

Can increase or decrease with rise of temperature

Remains constant with temperature rise

Solution :

Answer (1)

Since is conductivity () will decrease with rise of temperature.

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Question : 34
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If uniform wire given a square shape and equivalent resistance between A and B is 18 . If circular shape is given to same length wire then equivalent resistance
between P and Q is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

If one arm has resistance R, then

Total length of resistance, 4R = 96

Between P and Q,

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Question : 35
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Given eight resistors are joined as shown in the figure. A cell is joined across AO, then current drawn from battery is , if E = 7 V

Options:
Solution :

Answer (2)

From the symmetry potentials of C and D are equal. So C and D can be joined

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Question : 36
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The electric potential in a region is given by V(x) = 10 + 4x2. If a dipole of dipole moment is placed at (2 m, 0), then torque on the dipole is
Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

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Question : 37
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If at a distance r from a positively charged particle electric field strength and potential are E and V respectively, then which of the following graph is correct?
Options:
Solution :

Answer (3)

and

So graph between V and E is parabola. Symmetrical to E-axis.

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Question : 38
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In the figure, charge q is at distance r from the centre of a metal sphere and point T inside the sphere. If distance of q from T is y, the potential at T by charge induced on
the sphere is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Total potential at centre is

So, (Induced charged)

So,

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Question : 39
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A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to V volt. The positive plate of this capacitor is now connected to the negative terminal of V volt battery and vice-versa. The heat
generated in the connecting wires is
Options:

2CV2

CV2

Solution :

Answer (2)

Ui = Initial energy

Wb = Work of battery

Uf = Final energy

H = Ui + Wb Uf

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Question : 40
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Three plates 1, 2 and 3 each of area A and separation between two successive plates dconnected to battery of emf V, then charge on plate 2 will be

Options:

Solution :
Answer (2)

The arrangement is 2 capacitor in parallel. So charge on plate 2 is

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Question : 41
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An electric dipole is kept at origin as shown in the figure. The point P, Q, R are on a circular arc of radius r. If the electric fields at P, Q and R respectively are

, , then select the correct option (r >> d).

Options:

All of these

Solution :

Answer (4)

Point P and R are axial point and Q is equatorial point so and .

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Question : 42
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The given semicircular ring has half part negatively charged and another half part positively charged with charge density . The electric field strength at centre C is

Options:
Solution :

Answer (4)

Here,

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Question : 43
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A1, A2 and A3 are three ideal ammeters in the given circuit reading of respective ammeters are

Options:

4 A, 2 A, 4 A

2 A, 4 A, 4 A

2 A, 0 A, 4 A

2 A, 2 A, 4 A

Solution :

Answer (3)

As 20 V cell not enclosed in circuit draws no current. So

A1, A2 and A3 read

2 A, 0 A, 4 A

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Question : 44
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Potentiometer wire AB in the given arrangement is 600 cm long of resistance 15r. If jocky touches at point P, then for given distance AP the possible current through
galvanometer is (E1 = 8 V, E2 = 4 V and r = 2 )

Options:

Ig= 0.25 A
 Ig = 0.2 A

Ig = 0 A

Ig= 4 A

Solution :

Answer (3)

4 = Kl

l = 320 cm (Balanced length)

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Question : 45
(skipped)
The current in the arm PQ having resistance 4 is

Options:

0.5 A

1.5 A

0.75 A

0.25 A

Solution :

Answer (4)

Equivalent resistance 15 .

So,

Over A current divides and 0.5 A move to C.

At C divides equal and through PQ

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Question : 46
(skipped)
If minimum distance between corner and tetrahedral void in ccp unit cell is x, then find length of face diagonal.
Options:
Solution :

Answer (2)

Minimum distance between corner and tetrahedral Void

Face diagonal

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Question : 47
(skipped)
Number of anions surrounding a cation in zinc blende, fluorite and antifluorite crystals are
Options:

4, 4, 4

8, 8, 8

4, 8, 4

4, 4, 8

Solution :

Answer (3)

ZnS has C.N 4:4

CaF2 has C.N 8:4

Na2O has C.N 4:8

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Question : 48
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The edge length of face centered unit cell is 508 pm. If the radius of the cation is 110 pm, radius of anion is [Assuming rock salt structure]
Options:

288 pm

398 pm

144 pm
 618 pm

Solution :

Answer (3)

a = 508 pm

2(r+ + r) = 508

2(110 + r) = 508

r = 144 pm

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Question : 49
(skipped)
Which of the following statements is not correct for semiconductors?
Options:

Diode is a combination of n-type and p-type semiconductors and is used

as a rectifier

Transistors are made by sandwiching a layer of one type of

semiconductor between two layers of the other type of semiconductor

p-type semiconductor is formed when Si is doped with a group 13

element

Electrical conductivity of semiconductor decreases with increase in

temperature

Solution :

Answer (4)

All are facts.

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Question : 50
(skipped)
When magnetic moments of the domains in the substance are aligned in parallel and antiparallel directions in unequal numbers, they are weakly attracted by magnetic
field as compared to ferromagnetic substances. These substances also lose this property on heating and become paramagnetic. These type of substances can be
Options:

Fe3O4, MgFe2O4 and ZnFe2O4

Fe, Gd, CrO2 and Ni

MnO, ZnS, AgBr

H2O, NaCl, C6H6 and NH3

Solution :

Answer (1)

Magnetite (Fe3O4) and ferrites (MgFe2O4 and ZnFe2O4) are examples of ferrimagnetic substances.

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Question : 51
(skipped)
The edge length of the unit cell of diamond is 356.7 pm which contains 8 carbon atoms. Calculate minimum distance between carbon atoms, assuming them to be spheres
in contact.
Options:

77.2 pm

154.4 pm

178.35 pm

208.1 pm
Solution :

Answer (2)

Minimum distance between two carbon atoms = 154.4 pm

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Question : 52
(skipped)
If 0.01 M, 2 L solution of NaCl is electrolysed completely in a solution having cathode made up of mercury. What volume of gases at STP will evolve and what will be the
nature of solution after electrolysis? [Assume no any other side reaction occurs]
Options:

224 ml, neutral

22.4 ml, acidic

22.4 ml, basic

224 ml, acidic

Solution :

Answer (1)

At anode, 2Cl Cl2 + 2e

At cathode, 2Na+ + 2e 2Na Hg

Mole of Cl = M V (lit) = 0.01 2 = 0.02

Vol. of Cl2 at STP = 22400 0.01 = 224 ml

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Question : 53
(skipped)
The unit cell of Al (molar mass 27 g mol1) has an edge length of 405 pm. Its density is 2.7 g/cm3. The cubic unit cell is
Options:
 Face centered

Body centered

Primitive

Edge centered
Solution :

Answer (1)

= 3.85 4

So F.C.C

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Question : 54
(skipped)
If the minimum distance between two tetrahedral voids is x. In fcc, density is `d', molar mass of element which forms this crystal is 24 g/mol then `d' is
Options:

Solution :

Answer (1)

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Question : 55
(skipped)
One molal solution of a carboxylic acid in benzene shows the elevation of boiling point of 1.518 K. The degree of association for dimerisation of the acid in benzene is
(Kb for benzene is 2.53 K kg mol1)
Options:

60%

70%

75%

80%
Solution :

Answer (4)

Tb (normal) = Kb m = 2.53 1

Tb (observed) = 1.518

= 0.8

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Question : 56
(skipped)
In a mixture of A and B, components show positive deviation when
Options:

AB interaction is stronger than AA

and BB interaction

AB interaction is weaker than AA

and BB interaction

V < 0, S > 0
mix mix

V = 0, S > 0
mix mix

Solution :

Answer (2)

Fact

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Question : 57
(skipped)
A solute AB2 dissociate 50% and associate 30% (trimerize). The value of vant Hoff factor will be
Options:
 3

2.2

1.8

1.2
Solution :

Answer (3)

Total number of particles = 150 + 10 + 20 = 180

i = 1.8

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Question : 58
(skipped)
If 2 g urea is added to 100 g of water (Kf = 1.86 Kkg/mole), then how much ice will separate out at 10C?
Options:

Zero

93.8 g

9.38 g

4.82 g
Solution :

Answer (2)

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Question : 59
(skipped)

If two liquids A and B are completely immiscible with each other (each one will behave independently of the other) are present in a closed vessel. The
total vapour pressure of the system will be
Options:

Less than 100 torr

Greater than 200 torr

 Between 100 to 200 torr

300 torr
Solution :

Answer (4)

For immiscible liquids,

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Question : 60
(skipped)
Select the incorrect statement
Options:

Elevation in boiling point is the result

of lowering in vapour pressure, when a
non-volatile solute is added to a solvent

Lowering of vapour pressure for a

dilute solution of non-volatile solute is
directly proportional to the mole
fraction of the solute

Boiling point of the sugar solution is

larger than that of the pure solvent

Vapour pressure of the sugar solution

is greater than that of pure solvent
Solution :

Answer (4)

All are facts

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Question : 61
(skipped)
When 36 g of a solute having the empirical formula CH2O is dissolved in 1.20 kg of water, the solution freezes at 0.93C. What is the molecular formula of the solute?
(Kf = 1.86 K kg mol1)
Options:

C3H6O3

C4H8O4

CH2O

C2H4O2
Solution :

Answer (4)

0.93 =

M = 60 and 30 n = 60 n = 2

So compounds is C2H4O2.

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Question : 62
(skipped)
Which one of the following pairs of solution can we expect to be isotonic at the same temperature?
Options:

0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl

0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2

0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4

0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4

Solution :

Answer (4)

For isotonic solutions osmotic pressure must be equal

i.e.,

or i1 c1 = i2 c2

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Question : 63
(skipped)
A solution containing 4 g of PVC in 2 litre of dioxane (industrial solvent) was found to have an osmotic pressure 3 10 4 atm at 27C. The molar mass of the polymer
(g/mol) will be
Options:

1.6 104

1.6 105

1.6 103

1.6 102

Solution :

Answer (2)

= 1.6 105
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Question : 64
(skipped)

If is x1, is Y and is x2, then the value of Y will be

Options:

3x2 2x1

x2 x1

x2 + x1

2xz1 + 3x2

Solution :

Answer (1)

Fe2+ + 2e Fe; .....(i)

Fe3+ + 3e Fe; .....(ii)

Fe3+ + e Fe2+; .....(iii)

(ii) (i) = (iii),

Y = 3x2 2x1

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Question : 65
(skipped)

What will be the reduction potential of Cu2+ | Cu at pH = 14, if Ksp of Cu(OH)2 is 1 1019and ?
Options:

+ 0.34 V

0.22 V

0.33 V

0.34 V

Solution :

65. Answer (2)

pH = 14, pOH = 0 or [OH] = 1

Ksp = [Cu2+] [OH]2

[Cu2+]

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Question : 66
(skipped)

By how much would the oxidising power of the couple change if the H+ ion concentration is decreased 100 times?
Options:

Increases by 189 mV

Decreases by 189 mV

Increases by 19 mV

Decreases by 19 mV

Solution :

Answer (2)

Let [H+]initial = x

.....(i)

(ii)

(ii) (i),

E2 E1 = 0.189 V

ERP decreased by 0.189 V.

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Question : 67
(skipped)
A solution of sodium sulphate in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at cathode and anode are respectively
Options:

H2, O2

O2, H2

O2, Na

O2, SO2

Solution :

Answer (1)

Fact

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Question : 68
(skipped)
For the given cell,
Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.2 M) || Al3+ (103M)|Al(s)

If ,
E.M.F. of the cell is
Options:

0.46 V

0.69 V

0.21 V

1.1 V
Solution :

Answer (1)

= 0.46 V

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Question : 69
(skipped)
KCl is used in salt bridge because
Options:

It forms a good jelly with agar agar

It is a strong electrolyte

It is a good conductor of electricity

 The transport number of K+ and Cl ions are almost equal

Solution :

Answer (4)

Fact

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Question : 70
(skipped)
The conductivity of 0.1 N NaOH solution is 0.022 S cm1. When equal volume of 0.1 N HCl solution is added, the conductivity of resultant solution decreases to 0.0055 S
cm1. The equivalent conductivity in S cm2 eq1 of NaCl solution is
Options:

0.0055

0.11

110

55

Solution :

Answer (3)

Normality of resultant solution of NaCl

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Question : 71
(skipped)
During electrolysis of H2SO4 (aq) with high charge density, H2S2O8 is formed as by product. In such electrolysis 22.4 L H2(g) and 8.4 L O2(g) liberated at 1 atm and 273 K
at electrode. The moles of H2S2O8 formed is
Options:

0.25

0.50

0.75

1.00

Solution :

Answer (1)

Anode: 2H+ + 2e H2
Cathode : 2HSO4 H2S2O8 + 2e

2OH

Eq. at Anode = eq. at Cathode

Eq. at H2 = eq. of O2 + eq. of H2S2O8

n = 0.25

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Question : 72
(skipped)
A cell reaction would be spontaneous if the cell potential and G are respectively
Options:

Positive, negative

Negative, negative

Zero, Zero

Positive, Zero

Solution :

Answer (1)

Fact

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Question : 73
(skipped)
During the recharging of lead storage battery, which of the following reactions takes place at the anode?
Options:

Solution :
Answer (1)
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Question : 74
(skipped)
If 0.2 M CH3COOH has molar conductivity and the value of , then the value of Ka(CH3COOH) will be
Options:

5 105

5 104

5 106

5 107

Solution :

Answer (2)

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Question : 75
(skipped)
The activation energy of a reaction can be lowered by
Options:

Increasing temperature

Decreasing temperature

Increasing concentration of reactants

Using a positive catalyst

Solution :

Answer (4)

Positive catalyst lowers activation energy and increases rate.

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Question : 76
(skipped)

Rate expression of a chemical reaction is given by . The order of reaction is

Options:

Zero

Solution :
Answer (1)

Order = 2 + 1 + 0 = 3

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 77
(skipped)
The unit of rate constant for zero order reaction is
Options:

mol time1

L time1

mol L1 time1

L mol1 time1

Solution :

Answer (3)

Unit of K = (mol L1)1n time1

= (mol L1)10 time1

= (mol L1) time1

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 78
(skipped)
Molecularity of a reaction is
Options:

Same as its order

Different from order

May be same or different as compared to order

Always zero

Solution :

Answer (3)

Fact

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 79
(skipped)
The reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) C(g) is an elementary reaction. In an experiment involving this reaction, the initial partial pressures of A & B are P A = 0.40 atm, PB = 1 atm.
When PC = 0.3 atm, the rate of reaction relative to initial rate is
Options:
Solution :

Answer (3)

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 80
(skipped)
For a first order homogeneous gaseous reaction,
A 2B + C
If total pressure after time t from the start of reaction with A was Pt and after long time (t ) was P then the rate constant (K) in terms of Pt, P and t is given by
Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

A 2B + C
t=0 P i 0 0
t Px i 2x x
0 2P P
t i i

P = 3Pi or , Pi + 2x = Pt
So,

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 81
(skipped)
For a reaction profile of endothermic reaction, A C, the rate determining step will be

Options:

BC

AB

CB

Incomplete data
Solution :

Answer (2)

A B has high Ea

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 82
(skipped)
Select the correct statement w.r.t. zero order reaction
Options:

Both (1) & (2)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Fact

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 83
(skipped)
Which of the following is the correct statement for a catalyst?
Options:
 It does not alter the free energy change
of the reaction

It increases the free energy change of

the reaction

It decreases the free energy change of

the reaction

It can increase or decrease the free

energy change of the reaction
depending on the reaction
Solution :

Answer (1)

Fact

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 84
(skipped)
The sign of H, S and G for physisorption are respectively
Options:

+ve, +ve, +ve

+ve, ve, ve

ve, ve, ve

ve, ve, +ve

Solution :

Answer (3)

Fact

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 85
(skipped)
Select the properties related to lyophilic colloidal sols
Options:

Viscosity is same as that of medium

Excessive hydration takes place

Particles migrate towards anywhere,

cathode or anode in an electric field
 Particles can be detected under
microscope
Solution :

Answer (2)

Fact

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 86
(skipped)
Cleansing action of soap occurs because
Options:

Nonpolar tails of soap molecules

dissolve in grease

Oil and grease dissolved into

hydrophilic centres of soap micelles are
washed away

Hydrophillic head of soap molecule

dissolve in grease

Polar part of soap molecule interacts

with grease
Solution :

Answer (1)

Fact

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 87
(skipped)
Peptization involves
Options:

Precipitation of colloidal particles

Disintegration of precipitate

Purification of colloids

Migration of colloidal particles in the

presence of electric field
Solution :

Answer (2)

Fact
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 88
(skipped)
Alums purify muddy water by
Options:

Dialysis

Absorption

Coagulation

Ultrafiltration
Solution :

Answer (3)

Fact

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 89
(skipped)
For the coagulation of 50 ml of ferric hydroxide solution, 10 ml of 0.5 M KCl is required. What is the coagulation value of KCl?
Options:

10

100

50
Solution :

Answer (3)

Coagulation value

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 90
(skipped)
Which of the following electrolyte is most effective for the coagulation of Sb2S3 sol? (Assume all electrolyte are 100% ionized)
Options:

NaCl
 CaCl 2

AlPO 4

K [Fe(CN) ]
4 6

Solution :

Answer (3)

Sb2S3 is a negatively charged colloid so Al3+ will be most effective for its coagulation.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 91
(skipped)
Select incorrect w.r.t. life span.
Options:

Life span of may fly is one day

Life span of mango is more than

banana

Life span is characteristic feature of

organisms

Peepal has shorter life span than

banyan tree
Solution :

Answer (4)

Life span of Peepal is 2500 yrs and banyan is 200-300 yrs.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 92
(skipped)
Vegetative reproduction in Agave and banana occurs by
Options:

Rhizome and rhizome

Bulbil and rhizome

Bulbil and bulbil

Stolon and rhizome

Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 93
(skipped)
Banana, Bamboo, Agave, Wheat, Maize,
Apple, Mango, Carrot, Cauliflower
From above box how many do not show clear cut distinction between vegetative, reproductive and senescent phase?
Options:

Three

Four

Two

Five
Solution :

Answer (3)

Apple and mango are polycarpic

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 94
(skipped)
External fertilisation is common in
Options:

All terrestrial plants

Most of the algae

All spermatophytes

Most of the fungi and few algae

Solution :

Answer (2)

External fertilisation in green-algae due to isogamy and anisogamy

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 95
(skipped)
Number of chromosomes in meiocyte, egg and endosperm of maize is respectively
Options:

10, 5 & 15

20, 10, 20

20, 10, 30

16, 8, 24
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 96
(skipped)
Which set of plants do not require water for transfer of male gametes?
Options:

Ulothrix, Chara, Sphagnum

Funaria, Riccia, Adiantum

Spirogyra, Pinus and Zostera

Marchantia, Dryopteris, Chara

Solution :

Answer (3)

In Spirogyra transfer of male gamete occurs through conjugation tube and is non-motile (without flagella)

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 97
(skipped)
Match the column-I and column-II.

Column I Column II
a. Protandrous (i) Vallisneria
b. Stolon (ii) Chara
c. Grafting (iii) Yeast
d. Unequal cytokinesis (iv) Eustelic plants
Options:

a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)

a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 98
(skipped)
Male and female gametes in most of the plants are respectively
Options:

Motile and motile

Motile and non-motile

 Non-motile and motile

Non-motile and non-motile

Solution :

Answer (4)

Angiosperms are more than 50% of total plants.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 99
(skipped)
Select the correct option w.r.t. Strobilanthes kunthiana
a. It is a monocarpic plant that flowers once in 12 years.
b. Last time, it flowered in September-October 2005.
c. It belongs to Acanthaceae family and found in the hilly area of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
d. Its mass flowering converted large hilly area into blue stretches that attracted a large number of tourists.
Options:

a, b & d

b, c & d

b&c

All except (b)

Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 100
(skipped)
Find correct option w.r.t. anther wall.
Options:

Endothecium has -cellulosic

thickening on outer wall

Exothecium is found in hydrophytes

Tapetum secretes compatibility

proteins

Tapetum cells are haploid

Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 101
(skipped)
Types of most advance and most abundant pollen tetrad are respectively
Options:

Isobilateral and isobilateral

 Tetrahedral and isobilateral

Isobilateral and tetrahedral

Tetrahedral and linear

Solution :

Answer (3)

Monocot is advance.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 102
(skipped)
Select correct match.
Options:

Pollinia Drosera

Compound pollen grain Calotropis

Nemec pollen grain Aristolochia

Monothecous anther China rose

Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 103
(skipped)
Select incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen grains.
Options:

Vegetative cell has abundant nutrients

In wheat and rice pollen viability is 30 min

Generative cell has dense cytoplasm and irregular nucleus

Cryopreservation of pollen grains is done at 196C

Solution :

Answer (3)

Generative cell has dense cytoplasm and spindle shaped nucleus.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 104
(skipped)
Obturator is parenchymatous and secrete chemical to attract pollen tube is derived mainly from
Options:

Funicle

Integument
 Synergid cell

Antipodal cell

Solution :
Answer (1)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 105
(skipped)
Megaspore tetrad in ovule is usually
Options:

Linear

Isobilateral

Tetrahedral

Decussate

Solution :
Answer (1)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 106
(skipped)
Select incorrect statement
Options:

Synergid cell has micropylar nucleus

Central cell has abundant food

Nucellus is diploid gametophytic tissue

3 mitotic divisions occur in megaspore to form Polygonum type embryo

sac

Solution :

Answer (3)

Nucellus is sporophytic tissue.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 107
(skipped)
For formation of 64 male gametes in angiosperms how many meiotic and mitotic divisions are required respectively?
Options:

16 and 32

16 and 64

8 and 64

8 and 32

Solution :

Answer (3)
32 pollen grains form 2 male gametes from each.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 108
(skipped)
Total number of genetically similar nuclei that participate in trophomixis in polygonum type embryo sac is
Options:

Solution :

Answer (1)

Both polar nuclei are formed by mitosis of same nucleus

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 109
(skipped)
Which one is incorrectly matched w.r.t. nature of endosperm?
Options:

Hemicellulosic Date-palm

Haploid Pinus

Cellulosic Coconut

Triploid Aleurone layer

Solution :

Answer (3)

Coconut has oily endosperm.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 110
(skipped)
Match the column-I and column-II.

Column I Column II
a. Ornithophily (i) Zostera
b. Malacophily (ii) Aristolochia
c. Hypohydrophily (iii) Arisaema
d. Entomophily (iv) Callistemon
Options:

a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

 a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 111
(skipped)
Select the odd one out w.r.t. seed.
Options:

Seed of date has least viability

Viability of seed can be tested by T.T.C

Seeds have adaptive strategies for dispersal

Micropyle on seed coat is for entry of water and O2

Solution :

Answer (1)

Date seeds viability 2000 yrs.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 112
(skipped)
Which one is an albuminous seed?
Options:

Gram

Pea

Ground nut

Castor

Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 113
(skipped)
Select incorrect w.r.t. embryogeny in angiosperm.
Options:

Meroblastic and endoscopic

In monocot large cotyledon is epiblast

Hypophysis forms tip of radicle in dicot

Coleoptile covered shoot apex

Solution :
Answer (2)

Large shield shape cotyledon is scutellum

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 114
(skipped)
Development of embryo sac directly from megaspore mother cell without meiosis is called
Options:

Apogamy

Polyembryony

Amphimixis

Diplospory

Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 115
(skipped)
Tetraploid plant of Oenothera has bisexual flower and self pollinated then find out ploidy of embryo and endosperm of seed respectively.
Options:

4n and 4n

4n and 6n

6n and 6n

4n and 5n

Solution :

Answer (1)

In Oenothera central cell has 1 polar nucleus

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 116
(skipped)
Choose incorrect match
Options:

Nucellus Perisperm

Zygote Embryo

Ovary wall Pericarp

Integument Endocarp

Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 117
(skipped)
Mr. X is colourblind and heterozygous for two autosomal recessive disorders then find out probability of sperm with two affected and one normal gene.
Options:
Solution :

Answer (4)

Genotype of Mr. X is [XcYAaBb].

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 118
(skipped)
Which traits in garden pea can express in homozygous condition only?
Options:

Round and green seed

Wrinkled and green seed

Tall plant and red flower

Wrinkled and yellow seed

Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 119
(skipped)

Recessive trait, Y-linked, Pleiotropy,

Substitution, Transversion, Transition, Mis-
sense mutation, Point mutation, Polygene
How many are correct for sickle cell anaemia?
Options:

Six

Five

Seven

Eight

Solution :

Answer (1)

Recessive trait, pleiotropy, substitution, transversion, mis-sense mutation and point mutation.
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 120
(skipped)
Term genetics was coined by
Options:

Morgan

Bateson

Mendel

Sturtevant

Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 121
(skipped)
Read the statement (A-D) and select the correct ones w.r.t. morgan experiments on linkage
(A) When genes were grouped on the same chromosome, some genes were loosely linked and showed very low recombination.
(B) The genes for white eye colour and yellow body colour were tightly linked and showed 1.3 percent recombination.
(C) The genes for white eye colour and miniature wings were loosely linked and showed 37.2% parental types.
(D) Morgan found that proportion of parental gene combination was much higher than non-parental gene combination.
Options:

Statements (A) & (C)

Statements (B), (C) & (D)

Statement (B) only

Statements (B) & (D)

Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 122
(skipped)
Which one is incorrect?
Options:

Complementary genes 9 : 7

Duplicate genes 15 : 1

Dominant epistasis 12 : 3 : 1

Recessive epistasis 13 : 3
Solution :

Answer (4)

Recessive epistasis = 9 : 3 : 4

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 123
(skipped)
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. mutation
Options:

In addition to recombination, mutation

is another phenomenon that leads to
variation in DNA

Chromosomal aberrations are never

observed in cancer cells

Deletions and insertions of base pair of

DNA, causes frameshift mutations

Alteration of DNA sequences during

mutation results in changes in the
genotype of an organism
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 124
(skipped)
Blood group of father is A and mother is AB, then which blood group of son represents that father is heterozygous?
Options:

AB

Solution :
Answer (1)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 125
(skipped)
Which one is not a chemical mutagens?
Options:

Nitrous oxide

Mustard gas

X-rays

5-BU

Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 126
(skipped)
Which organisms do not show female heterogametic condition?
Options:

Birds
 Roundworm

Fragaria

Butterfly

Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 127
(skipped)
Which one is correct w.r.t. klinefelter syndrome?
Options:

Trisomy of 21st chromosome

Webbed neck

Rudimentary ovary

Presence of 1 barr body

Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 128
(skipped)
Male sterility in maize is / exhibits
Options:

Maternal inheritance

Same phenotype in F1 when reciprocal crosses are made

Carried by DNA of mitochondria

More than one options are correct

Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 129
(skipped)
A male is suffering from colourblindness as well as haemophilia, marry with a normal vision female whose father was colourblind, then find out probability of
colourblind daughter.
Options:

50%

25%

100%

75%

Solution :

Answer (1)

Male = cXhY
Female = XcX

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 130
(skipped)

Which one is related with given pedigree chart?

Options:

Colour blindness

Hypertrichosis

Cystic fibrosis

Myotonic dystrophy

Solution :

Answer (3)

Autosomal recessive

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 131
(skipped)
Select odd one out w.r.t. sex limited trait.
Options:

Milk gland in female

Antlers in male deer

Brilliant plumage in peacock

Pattern baldness

Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 132
(skipped)
Select incorrect match.
Options:

Monosomy 2n 1

Nullisomy 2n 1 1

Trisomy 2n + 1

Double trisomy 2n + 1 + 1

Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 133
(skipped)
Consider the following four statements (IIV) related to Drosophila melanogaster as material for experimental genetics and select the correct option stating them true (T)
and false (F)
I. Drosophila is of about 2 cm size and found over ripe fruits.
II. The fruit fly has a short life cycle of about 14 days.
III. The presence of ovipositor distinguishes female fruit fly from male fruit fly.
IV. It has many types of hereditary variations that can be seen with low power microscopes.
Options

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 134
(skipped)
After a test cross AB = 20%, BC = 16%, AC = 4% and AD = 2%, then find out the possible sequence of genes on chromosome
Options:

D, A, C & B

A, D, C & B

A, D, B & C

Both (1) & (2) are possible

Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 135
(skipped)
When a mulatto male (AaBbCc) marry with very light female (aabbcc), then find out phenotypic ratio.
Options:

1:1:1:1:1:1:1:1

1:3:3:1

1:2:2:2:1

6:2

Solution :

Answer (2)

Polygenic test cross.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 136
(skipped)
Cell division is in itself a mode of reproduction in
Options:
 Protists

All plants

Animals

Both (1) & (2)

Solution :
Answer (1)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 137
(skipped)
Cyclic changes during reproduction in dogs and tigers is called
Options:

Oestrous cycle

Menstrual cycle

Oestrous and menstrual cycle respectively

Metagenesis

Solution :
Answer (1)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 138
(skipped)
Which of the following undergo mitosis during gametogenesis?
Options:

Spermatogonium

Spermatozoa

Sertoli cells

Primary spermatocytes

Solution :
Answer (1)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 139
(skipped)
Female gamete undergoes development to form new organisms without fertilization in
a. Rotifers
b. Honey bees
c. Turkey
Options:

Only a

Only b

a & b only

a, b & c

Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 140
(skipped)
Match the columns

Column I Column II
Semelparous Individual of a
a. (i)
organism clone
b. Ramet (ii) Earthworm
c. Seasonal breeder (iii) Rat
Monoecious
d. (iv) Petromyzon
organism
Options:

a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 141
Identify the category of organism which shows the following characteristic.
"Hatching of eggs into young ones takes place inside the female body. After attaining certain stage of growth, the young ones are delivered out of the body of female."
Options:

Oviparous

Viviparous

Ovoviviparous

Parthenogenetic

Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 142
Following are the components of vulva, except
Options:

Mons pubis

Clitoris

Vagina

Labia majora

Solution :

Answer (3)
External genitalia of female is also known as Pudendum / Vulva.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 143
(skipped)
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the secretions of Sertoli cells and their functions?
Options:

Inhibin Checks overactivity of FSH

AMF Stimulates the release of testosterone

MIS Inhibits the development of mullerian ducts

ABP Keeps testosterone level high in seminiferous tubules

Solution :

Answer (2)

AMF prevents formation of mullerian ducts in male foetus.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 144
(skipped)
Hormone not produced by corpus luteum during first trimester of pregnancy in humans is
Options:

hCG

Progesterone

Estrogen

Both (2) & (3)

Solution :

Answer (1)

hCG during first trimester is produced by syncytiotrophoblast or chorion.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 145
(skipped)
Thermogenic effect during menstrual cycle is exerted by hormone
Options:

Estrogen

Progesterone

FSH

LH

Solution :

Answer (2)

Progesterone concentration increases after ovulation which slightly increases the temperature.
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 146
(skipped)
How many sperms and ova are produced from 100 secondary spermatocytes and 100 secondary oocytes respectively?
Options:

100, 100

200, 200

400, 100

200, 100

Solution :

Answer (4)

100 secondary spermaytocyte produces 200 spermatozoan and 100 secondary oocytes produces 100 mature ovum each secondary spermaytocytes produces two spermatozoan and
each secondary oocytes produces one mature ovum.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 147
(skipped)

The following graph represents relative blood levels of hCG, progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy
Choose the correct statement regarding above graph
Options:

B- Represents estrogen secreted by corpus albicans in first trimester and

later by placenta

C- Represents progesterone secreted by corpus luteum in first trimester

and later by placenta

A- Represents hCG secreted only by decidua part of placenta during all

trimesters

All of these

Solution :

Answer (2)

hCG in first trimester is produces by chorion and in later trimester it is produces by placenta.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 148
(skipped)
Which of the following hormone is called maternal growth hormone of pregnancy?
Options:

hCG

hPL

Progesterone

Chorionic thyrotropin

Solution :
Answer (2)

hPL is called maternal growth hormone because it decreases the uptake of glucose in mother and mobilise fat and glucose to developing foetus.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 149
(skipped)
Among the following which is correct statement regarding female reproductive system of humans?
Options:

Each ovary is 2-4 cm in length and connected to pelvic wall and uterus
by ligaments

It consists of a pair of ovaries along with a pair of oviducts,

bulbourethral glands, cervix, vagina and external genitalia

Each fallopian tube is 6-8 cm long and extends from periphery of each
ovary to uterus

The shape of uterus in human is like an upright pear and have inner
aglandular layer called endometrium

Solution :

Answer (1)

Bulbourethral glands is part of male reproductive system. Each fallopian tube is 10-12 cm long and shape of uterus is like a inverted pear.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 150
(skipped)
Which is/are correct statement(s)?
a. Inner cell mass is formed in blastocyst stage.
b. Trophoblast layer gets attached to endometrium during implantation.
c. Three germs layer form during gastrulation from hypoblast.
d. Fraternal twins are also known as monozygotic twins which are always of same sex.
Options:

a only

a & b only

b & c only

a, b & c

Solution :

Answer (2)

Three germs layer form during gastrulation from epiblast. Fraternal twin are non-identical twins which are produced when two sperms fertilized two ova.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 151
(skipped)
The structure which leaves the testis and opens into epididymis is/are
Options:

Rete testis
 Efferent ductules

Vas deferens

Urethra
Solution :

Answer (2)

Efferent ductule or vas efferens connect testis to epididymis.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 152
(skipped)
Movement of excretory wastes from foetal circulation to maternal circulation occurs by
Options:

Active transport

Facilitated diffusion

Simple diffusion

Co-transport
Solution :

Answer (3)

Foetus gets nutrition from mother by simple diffusion through plancenta.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 153
(skipped)
Cleavage in a human zygote is described as
Options:

Equal holoblastic only

Determinate only

Equal holoblastic and spiral

Indeterminate and unequal holoblastic

Solution :

Answer (1)

Determinate and spiral cleavage occurs in protostomes.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 154
(skipped)
Following are the events occurring in the body regarding ovulation except
Options:

LH surge during mid menstrual cycle

Increased secretion of estrogen

Fall in the body temperature following

ovulation

Reorganisation of ruptured follicle to

form corpus haemorrhagicum
Solution :

Answer (3)

Body temperature rise just after ovulation.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 155
(skipped)
Which of the following events will not occur during proliferative phase of menstrual cycle in human?
Options:

Gradual increase in secretion of

gonadotrophins

Increase in secretion of estrogen by

developing follicles

Increase in thickness of endometrium

Negative feedback control of LH by

estrogen and inhibin
Solution :

Answer (4)

During proliferative phase inhibin and estrogen control the secretion of FSH in female.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 156
(skipped)
Find out the incorrect match w.r.t. homologous structures in male and female reproductive systems
Options:

Labia majora Scrotum

Labia minora Membranous urethra

 Clitoris Penis

Bartholin's gland Cowper's gland

Solution :

Answer (2)

Labia minora are homologous to penile (spongy) urethra.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 157
(skipped)
Choose the correct statement
Options:

Scientist Nebenkern discovered

mitochondria in sperm

Meiosis during oogenesis is completed

after the entry of sperm into secondary
follicles

A fluid filled cavity called antrum

characterises tertiary follicles

Greater vestibular glands are present

around the urethral opening in human
females
Solution :

Answer (3)

Nebenkern is a particular arrangement of mitochondria in sperm.

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Question : 158
(skipped)
Choose the correct option w.r.t. folliclular stages of ovarian cycle

Column I Column II
Have primary oocyte
Primary
(a) arrested in metaphase-I of
follicles
meiosis-I
Secondary Releases secondary oocyte
(b) arrested in metaphase-II of
follicles
meiosis-II
Tertiary Have avascular theca
(c)
follicles interna
Graafian Releases secondary oocyte
(d)
follicles in the abdominal cavity
Options:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
Solution :

Answer (4)

Graafian follicle release secondary oocyte in abdominal cavity which is captured by fimbrae of fallopian tube.

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Question : 159
(skipped)
Which of the following is incorrect regarding functions of placental hormones?
Options:

Placental estrogen causes enhanced

synthesis of the oxytocin receptors on
uterine wall

Action of hCG on male foetal testes is

similar to that of FSH in adults

Progesterone inhibits the release of

prostaglandins in the uterus

Prostaglandins secreted from decidua

facilitate labor by increasing the force
of oxytocin induced uterine
contractions
Solution :

Answer (2)

Action of hCG is similar to LH.

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Question : 160
(skipped)
Choose the correct statement w.r.t. mammary glands in humans
Options:

They contain glandular tissue and same

amount of fat in all females

Glandular tissue of each breast is

 divided into 10-15 mammary lobes

Mammary lobes contain cluster of cells

called alveoli

The tubule of each lobe joins to form

lactiferous duct and several lactiferous
ducts join to form a mammary duct
Solution :

Answer (3)

Size of breast in non-pregnant women different due to different amount of fat.

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Question : 161
(skipped)
All of the following statements are true regarding mammary glands and milk synthesis except
Options:

Progesterone is responsible for development of mammary lobules during

pregnancy

Prolactin maintains the functional activity of breasts for subsequent

nursing

Suckling by baby is not responsible for continuous milk production

Milk synthesis is controlled by hypothalamus through secretion of PRH

Solution :

Answer (3)

Suckling by baby is the main stimulus to maternal hypothalamus for secretion of PRH.

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Question : 162
(skipped)
Prior to implantation, the morula in the uterus is provided nutrition by
Options:

Blood

Uterine milk

Yolk

Placenta

Solution :

Answer (2)

Developing embryo gets nutrition secreted by fallopian tube and in uterus by endometrium secretion.
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 163
(skipped)
Consider the hormones given in the box

Estrogen, LH, Inhibin, Testosterone, GnRH

Which hormone inhibits secretion of FSH in both male and female?
Options:

Estrogen

Testosterone

Inhibin

GnRH

Solution :

Answer (3)

Inhibin is secreted by sertoli cell and in female it is secreted by granulosa cells of developing follicle which only inhibit or control the secretion of FSH.

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Question : 164
(skipped)
Urine based Ovulation Predictor Kits(OPKs) detect the presence of which hormone in urine?
Options:

Estrogen

Progesterone

hCG

LH

Solution :

Answer (4)

Ovulation Predictor Kits (OPKs) detect LH.

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Question : 165
(skipped)
Event taking place during secretory phase of menstrual cycle is
Options:

Formation of corpus luteum

Secretion of hCG by corpus albicans

Follicular development in ovary

Secretion of gonadotrophins from hypothalamus

Solution :

Answer (1)
During secretory phase of mesnstrual cycle corpus luteum form which secrete the high concentration of progesterone and low concentration of estrogen.

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Question : 166
(skipped)
Arrange the events occurring during fertilization in correct sequence
a. Penetration of zona pellucida and acrosomal reaction.
b. Adherence of the sperm head to the cell membrane of the ovum.
c. Capacitation of sperm in female reproductive tract.
d. Contact of the sperms with the zona pellucida.
Options:

c, d, a, b

d, c, a, b

b, c, d, a

a, b, d, c

Solution :

Answer (1)

After ejaculation sperm is further modified so that it gets capability of fertilization.

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Question : 167
(skipped)
All the following are characteristics of ideal contraceptives except
Options:

Reversible i.e., if user wants to conceive, it should be easy

Presence of side effects

Prevent conception without interfering with libido

Comfortable and easy to use

Solution :

Answer (2)

Ideal contraceptive do not have any side effect.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 168
(skipped)
How many of the following are methods of contraception for males?
a. Condoms
b. Diaphragm
c. Injectables
d. Implants
e. Vasectomy
Options:

2
 3

5
Solution :

Answer (1)

Condoms and vasectomy are contraceptive method in male.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 169
(skipped)
Lactational amenorrhoea is caused by
Options:

Increased level of estrogen

Increased level of progesterone

Increased level of prolactin

Decreased level of oxytocin

Solution :

Answer (3)

Lactational amenorrhoea is caused or induced by prolactin which suppresses GnRH secretion so gonadotrophins are suppressed.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 170
(skipped)
Contraceptive efficiency of cervical caps can be increased by
Options:

Re-using the same device

Use along with spermicides

Insertion into cervix after seven days of coitus

Insertion by a doctor or a nurse

Solution :

Answer (2)

Spermicide with cervical cap act synergistically to increase contraceptive effectiveness.

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Question : 171
(skipped)
Demographic transition is the period when
Options:
 Birth rate is more than death rate

Birth rate is less than death rate

Birth rate equals the death rate

Birth rate and death rate fluctuate randomly

Solution :

Answer (3)

Demographic transition is the period when birth rate equals the death rate.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 172
(skipped)
Find the incorrect match
Options:

Sponge Spermicide

Multiload 375 Cu2+ releasing IUD

Mala L Multiphasic combined pill

Mifepristone Antiprogesterone pill

Solution :

Answer (3)

Mala L is a multiphasic combined pill.

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Question : 173
(skipped)
Select the following sets which involve only in-vitro fertilization methods?
Options:

GIFT, IUT, ICSI

GIFT, ZIFT only

ZIFT, ICSI, IUT

ZIFT, ICSI only

Solution :

Answer (3)

In GIFT technique fertilization occurs inside the fallopian tube (in-vivo).

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Question : 174
(skipped)
Listed below are the objectives of RCH, except
Options:
 Sex education in schools

Awareness about contraception through audio-visual and print media

Calculation of population growth rate after every ten years

Awareness about STDs, methods of their transmission, prevention and

cure

Solution :

Answer (3)

Census is conducted by a separate agency or body under government of India.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 175
(skipped)
Select the true statement w.r.t. GIFT
Options:

in-vitro fertilization technique

After retrieval of male and female gametes both are simultaneously

transferred in fallopian tube

Only sperms are transferred in fallopian tube after their retrieval from
donor/husband

After placing female gamete in uterus, artificial insemination is

performed

Solution :

Answer (2)

It is in-vivo fertilization.

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Question : 176
(skipped)
Which of the following is false w.r.t. hepatitis B?
Options:

It is caused by HBV

The causative virus has a dsDNA genome

It is a completely curable STD

It can be prevented by vaccination

Solution :

Answer (3)

Viral infection are not completely curable

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Question : 177
(skipped)
If ICSH secretion in human male does not occur then
Options:

Testosterone production will increase

Testosterone production will be inhibited

Spermatogenesis will not be affected

GnRH formation will be inhibited

Solution :

Answer (2)

ICSH acts on leydig cell which secrete testosterone.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 178
(skipped)
Select the correct statement w.r.t. IUDs
Options:

Cu2+ releasing IUDs do not alter the menstrual cycle

They slowly release copper that causes gradual thickening of cervical

mucus so that sperm entry in uterus is impeded

They do not have any side effects and hence they are the most widely
used female contraceptives

Progestin releasing IUDs function mainly through spermicidal effects

Solution :

Answer (1)

Cu2+ releasing IUDs increase sperm phagocytosis and decrease sperm motility.

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Question : 179
(skipped)
Which of the following is a non-invasive technique to detect foetal abnormalities before birth?
Options:

Chorionic villi sampling

Amniocentesis

Ultrasonography

More than one option is correct

Solution :

Answer (3)

Ultrasonography is a non-invasive techniques.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 180
(skipped)
Medical termination of pregnancy under MTP Act 1971, is legal for
A. Congenitally malformed child.
B. Failure of contraception leading to pregnancy.
C. Pregnancy caused by casual unprotected sex.
D. Pregnancy caused by sexual abuse.
E. Hazard to health of female due to pregnancy.
F. Sexual abuse of lunate girl.
Options:

A, B, D & E only

B, C & F only

A, B, C, D, E & F

A, D, E & F only
Solution :
Answer (3)