Module 13
Module 13
Sample Questions
Module 13
Aircraft Aerodynamics,
Structures and Systems
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit
c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot
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10. How does a balance tab move?
a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is
attached to
b) In the same direction a small amount
# c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is
attached to
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
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18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial,
resistance would be
# a) 80 ohm
b) 160 ohm
c) 0 ohm
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19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you
a) 3 ft error
b) 6ft error
# c) 12 foot error
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# b) 4
c) 6 90o apart
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28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently
low. Battery needs
a) topping up with distilled water
b) replacing
# c) recharging
34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from
a) roll errors
b) localiser deviation errors
# c) heading errors
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# b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM
c) V/S and ALT ARM
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45. Which modes are incompatible
a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD
# b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD
c) HDG + V/S HOLD
48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft
would
a) fly a circle
b) increase its drift angle
# c) fly parallel to the beam
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c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron
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53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by
a) measured radio deviation
# b) rate of change of radio deviation
c) rate of change of course
55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are
used for
# a) maintaining a computed EPR
b) controlling to a maximum thrust
c) correction minor speed deviations
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a) Under frequency and over frequency
b) Over frequency and under current
# c) Over current and over frequency
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62. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables?
a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms
b) 25 ohms
# c) 50 ohms
63. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar
receiver)
a) scan at a lower rate
# b) use shorter bursts
c) use longer bursts
65. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of
emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft
a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4
# b) JAR OPS (M)
c) Maintenance Manual
67. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have?
a) 180 degrees
b) 120 degrees
# c) 140 degrees
69. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative
density of a lead acid battery?
# a) The temperature
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b) The ambient pressure
c) The ambient humidity
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70. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided
# a) to prevent precipitation static build up
b) to prevent the wire from corroding
c) to prevent the wire from chafing
75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by
using
a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control
surfaces
# b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
76. in a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed
and provided by
a) the central warning computer (CWC)
# b) the electronic interface units (EIU)
c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS)
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78. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?
a) To provide a balance for CofG
# b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor
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79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true
airspeed?
# a) Higher than its IAS
b) Lower than its IAS
c) The same as its IAS
85. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know
as the
# a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height
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87. A category 11 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of
# a) 15 m
b) 60 m
c) 0 m
89. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal
accidents per landing greater than
a) 1 x 10-6
# b) 1 x 10-7
c) 1 x 10-8
95. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been
initiated after the selection of autoland
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a) ILS localiser an IAS
b) IAS and glide slope
# c) IAS and steering or heading
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96. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the
aeroplane will
a) increase speed
b) rotate nose up
# c) increase speed and rotate nose up
98. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach
a) system degrade to CAT II
b) autoland is continued
# c) go-around is initiated
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# b) fail operational
c) fail redundant
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105. on touchdown, auto pilot
a) remains engaged ready for G/A
b) drives the throttles forward
# c) disconnects after a short time
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114. CAT-3b allows
a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR
# b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters
c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the
order of 50 meters
119. for a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be
moved to correct the pitch movement?
a) Lateral
# b) Longitudinal
c) Normal
121. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director
engaged, a down command means your speed has
a) increased
# b) decreased
c) is the same
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c) engine fire and generator trip occurs
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123. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is
# a) 50 milliohms
b) 1 ohms
c) 1M - 100,000 ohms
128. an RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is showing a course of 000, if the
course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
a) Move left
# b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right
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# a) 50 ohms
b) 20 ohms
c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively
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132. TAS uses which inputs
a) Pitot and Static
b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature
# c) Mach and Temp
134. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will
happen to the angle of attack?
# a) Tend to increase
b) Tend to decrease
c) Stay the same
140. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was
found
a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water
# b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found
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c) a leak test is never required
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141. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of
# a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively
b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively
c) 1090 MHz
148. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground
staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft?
a) Turning on and off the NAV lights
# b) Turning off the anti-collision lights
c) Flashing the landing light
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150. FADEC system gets its power supply from
a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated
Generator
# b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated
Generator
c) emergency Batt bus
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159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what
is the distance that VHF Com cover?
a) 100 nm
# b) 120 nm
c) 140 nm
160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the
aircraft is at the
a) 180 degree radial
# b) 090 degree radial
c) 275 degree radial
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168. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of
# a) capsule elasticity
b) capsule shape
c) non linear pressure/height relationship
169. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system
would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
# b) aircraft to overbank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
173. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the
reward travelling blades pitch angle?
# a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No change
176. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the
output reading is
# a) zero
b) full scale deflection
c) centre scale
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177. in a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would
a) increase capacitive reactance
# b) increase capacitance
c) decrease capacitance
183. The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after
charging shows substantially lower value.
# a) Cell is defective
b) You top up the cell with distilled water
c) You replace the cell
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186. GPS has
a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits
# b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits
c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits
189. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail
a) the authority of elevators not effected
# b) the up movement authority is effected
c) the down movement authority is effected
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194. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown
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201. Shock stall
a) is a flap down stall
# b) occurs at high speeds
c) occurs at low speeds
206. to transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control
surfaces, in a fly by wire system
# a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability
b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll
c) Synchros are used
208. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC
coupling?entrifugal force
a) Heading and Deviation
# b) Course error and Deviation
c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation
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210. As you approach supersonic
# a) total drag is increased
b) lift is reduced
c) thrust is reduced
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219. In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable
and RX cable each by 3 inch the total correction factor is
a) 3 inch
b) 6 inch
# c) 9 inch
221. for bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by
a) a thick metallic bonding strip
# b) a corrugated bonding jumper
c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends
224. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central
Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed
# a) it must be installed on LH side
b) it must be installed on RH side
c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side
226. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter
reading would be
a) higher mach number
# b) lower mach number
c) not effected
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227. in a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective
# a) one CDU blanks
b) both CDU blanks
c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place
228. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is
leaking, the VSI would
a) indicate climb
# b) indicate decent
c) not be affected
232. during compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted
in aligning the aircraft is
a) 1 degree
# b) 5 degree
c) 10 degree
233. If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict,
which aircraft changes the decision?
# a) The one with the higher address
b) The one with the smaller address
c) Neither changes the decision
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235. in helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement
of the cockpit control is prevented by
a) synchros attached to the control
# b) a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control
c) a lock on the cockpit control
# a) Split flap
b) Fowler flap
c) Plain flap
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243. DH is based on
a) aircraft characteristics
b) experience of the crew
# c) RVR transmitted by ATC
251. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means
a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded
# b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot
c) maximum rudder deflection
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252. Servo tabs
a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
# b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel
256. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set
# a) 1013.25 mb
b) sea level pressure
c) prevailing pressure
257. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in
contact
a) before the primary stops
# b) after the primary stops
c) at the same time as the primary stops
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261. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?
a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading
# b) It move as the aircraft moves
c) It stays fixed on magnetic north
265. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the
beam?
# a) Radio deviation
b) Glideslope deviation
c) Course deviation
267. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has
been selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
# b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
268. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are
available?
# a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
c) All are continuously available
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269. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from
above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the
helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?
a) In front of the lateral axis
# b) Right of the longitudinal axis
c) Left of the longitudinal axis
273. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you
do with the control switch? Select it to
a) OFF
# b) AM
c) either USB or LSB
274. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3
pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
a) 21 micro seconds
# b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds
275. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000
degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate?
a) TO
# b) FROM
c) Neither
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277. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds how far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
# b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles
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286. Artificial feel is gained by using a
a) hydraulic damper
# b) spring bias unit
c) 'feel' generator
291. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should
consider
a) power requirements
# b) the speed of propagation of rad alt signal
c) the diameter of cables
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295. Radio switches are normally
# a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C
c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C
299. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from
a) 115 volts from ac bus
b) 200 volts from ac bus
# c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units
301. in air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director
pitch command bar signifies
a) speed increase
# b) speed decrease
c) height decrease
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304. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ
a) higher
b) lower
# c) higher or lower
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313. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as
# a) apparent A
b) real A
c) true A
320. Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and
dangerous voltages by
a) non conductive paint
b) conductive paint
# c) earth primary conductors
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322. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is
a) the y code
b) the p code
# c) the c/a code
323. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video
amplifier should be for good pulse shape are
a) wide and narrow
# b) narrow and wide
c) wide and wide
326. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply
corrective rudder to
# a) the right
b) the left
c) the left with some aileron assistance
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331. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has
a) full authority
b) 50% authority
# c) 10% authority
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339. Wing steady light must be visible through
a) 70 degrees
# b) 110 degrees
c) 180 degrees
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347. with a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of
precession will
a) increase with a higher rotor speed
# b) decrease with a higher rotor speed
c) decrease with a lower rotor speed
348. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor
located about the gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
# b) longitudinal axis
c) vertical axis
350. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system
would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
# b) aircraft to overbank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
351. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the
navigation receiver are
# a) DC
b) AC
c) pulsed DC
355. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the
system
a) operational
# b) passive
c) simplex
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356. DSR TK (desired track) means
a) the bearing to capture the track
# b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way
points
c) distance left or right from desired track
359. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will
# a) retard the throttle
b) reverse thrust
c) control throttle for a IAS
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365. An O ring in a wave guide is used to
a) correct the VSWR
b) stop arcing between the wave guide
# c) stop moisture entering the wave guide
368. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall.
This is called
# a) transient droop
b) static droop
c) under swing
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374. The rotor disc is
# a) the distance between tip to tip
b) the rotor head hub
c) the ground cushion
377. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal
is lost the aircraft would
a) continue on flying on the localizer
# b) fly parallel to the localizer
c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading
381. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are
# a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.
b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.
c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation
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283. During autoland failure of one channel is detected
a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system.
# b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.
c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.
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292. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel
amplifier. This means it is
a) AC
b) DC
# c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input
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401. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the
beam?
a) Height Deviation
# b) Radio deviation
c) Course deviation
403. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has
been selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
# b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
404. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are
available?
# a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
c) All are continuously available
408. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3
pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
a) 21 micro seconds
# b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds
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409. What does the Radar contour button do?
a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power
# c) Alter the video amplifier
410. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
# b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles
415. for a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be
moved to correct the pitch movement?
a) Lateral
# b) Longitudinal
c) Normal
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418. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on
HIRF installations?
# a) Visual inspections
b) Insulation testing
c) CMC fault indications
419. an RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the
course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
a) Move left
# b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right
422. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the
aileron to rudder crossfeed be?
# a) Left Rudder
b) Right Rudder
c) No Rudder
423. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what
will happen to the tab?
a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface
b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface
# c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the
surface
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426. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to
a) nose up
# b) go one wing down
c) nose down
429. What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots
instruments with excess deviation?
a) Red
# b) Amber
c) White
431. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a
turn?
a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input
signal
b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete
# c) They Disappear out of view
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435. What are ground spoilers used for?
# a) To dump lift
b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop
c) To slow the aircraft
436. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in
this command?
# a) Control Wheel
b) Control Column
c) Rudder Pedals
439. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the
current from a primary structure?
a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable
# b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable
c) No smaller than 18AWG
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444. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?
a) Polarity sensitive AC
# b) Polarity sensitive DC
c) Either
447. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system
pages?
# a) Through the ground test function
b) Through the Existing faults function
c) Through the Present Leg faults function
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453. with a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens
when the control surface is moved?
a) It remains in the neutral position
b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface
# c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface
457. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?
a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte
# b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage
461. ADF is
a) Rho
# b) Theta
c) Rho-Theta
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462. A Boost Gauge reads
a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure
# b) absolute pressure
c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure
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471. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer?
a) Material of the coil
# b) Material of the sensing element
c) Material of the indicator needle
476. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same
level above sea level then
a) it will not need resetting and will read zero
b) it will display the airfield height above sea level
# c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero
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480. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?
a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation
# b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation
c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of
rotation
483. A thermocouple
a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added
# b) cannot be shortened
c) can be shortened
488. TCAS II is
a) 10 aircraft per square mile
# b) 24 aircraft per square 5 miles
c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square
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489. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a
a) servomotor
# b) loop voltage
c) Chinaman
496. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?
a) Elevator up left aileron down
b) Elevator down, right aileron down
# c) Elevator up, right aileron down
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498. DC power into the GCU comes from
# a) main battery bus
b) main battery bus and ground service
c) ground service
500. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the
control surface will
# a) move up
b) move down
c) remain at the same place
502. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will
# a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain
505. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter
would
a) continue to roll
b) increases roll
# c) come back to level flight
506. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?
# a) ASI
b) Machmeter
c) VSI
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Sample Questions
507. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will
a) decrease
# b) increase
c) remain the same
509. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis?
a) Elevator s
# b) Elevons
c) Ailerons
511. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have?
a) Increases lift & reduces drag
# b) Increases lift and drag
c) Increase lift only
515. On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock
circuit?
a) A and B
b) B and C
# c) E and F
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
516. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation?
# a) Bellows or diaphragm
b) No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient
c) Piston and oil
518. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen
to the precession?
# a) Increase
b) Remain unaffected
c) Decrease
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
525. An uncorrected ADI is affected by
a) climb
b) descent
# c) roll
529. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel
a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line
b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line
# c) aircraft flies in circles
532. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost,
following the FD commands. Aircraft will
a) stay on centre of course
# b) stay parallel to course
c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
534. A helicopter needs to re-trim
# a) indication is shown on the API
b) indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI
c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude
indicator
540. DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
# a) Decoder
b) Blocking oscillator
c) Integrator
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Sample Questions
543. A HUMS in a helicopter is
a) a vibration analysis system
# b) a system which monitors time period of components in service
and warns of a premature failure
c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade
547. With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim
indicator will indicate
# a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop
b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning
c) the trim system is out of datum
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Sample Questions
552. in an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when
# a) flaps are retracted
b) landing gear up and locked
c) flaps extended
554. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the
aircraft?
# a) 10
b) 5
c) 2.5
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
560. On a modern aircraft about to stall
# a) the outboard slats extend automatically
b) engine power increases automatically
c) the flaps retract automatically
564. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the
vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna
a) will move up
# b) will move down
c) will not move
566. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where
a D.R. compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out
and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass
# b) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made
simultaneously on each heading
c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made
at any one heading only
567. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for
entry on the deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 degrees
# b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees
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Sample Questions
568. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called
a) apparent error
# b) residual error
c) index error
571. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed
by
a) 4%
# b) 7%
c) 10.321%
572. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical
cables carrying electrical current is
a) 20 inches
# b) 24 inches
c) 28 inches
573. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is
carried out with
# a) an inclinometer
b) micrometer
c) spirit level
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
577. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output
voltage?
a) 115V
b) 345V
# c) 460V
Page 67
Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
584. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit
starts is
# a) 115 degrees F
b) 144 Degrees F
c) 144 Degrees C
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
593. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of
a) apparent power from the generator that does work
b) reactive power from the generator that does work
# c) real power from the generator that does work
596. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
# a) stationary
b) rotating at idle
c) rotating at Nsync
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
602. In ADF system, Goniometer
a) combines the signals from fixed loop antenna and sense
antenna
# b) effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna
c) alternately selects signals from loop antenna and sense
antenna
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Sample Questions
610. Localizer modulation depth is
a) 2%
# b) 20%
c) 50%
612. The short circuit stub that is used for broadbanding a VHF whip
must have a length of about
a) 29 cm
# b) 59 cm
c) 70 cm
614. The VSWR of a VHF system with a forward power of 100W and a
reflected power of 4W will be
# a) 1.5:1
b) 2:1
c) 2.5:1
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
619. In a CVR system hot mics
a) are as selected by the boom/mic switches
# b) is a term applied to all the aircrafts mics
c) get their power supply from the selected Tx via the r/t switch
625. DFDR [digital flight data recorder] ARINC 573 data bus has how
many sub-frames?
# a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
627. What is the millivolt deflection per dot on ILS/VOR?
a) 25/75
b) 25/5
# c) 75/75
634. GPS
# a) uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
b) uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
c) uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
636. What manoeuvre does TCAS II adv
a) TA
# b) RA
c) either RA or
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
645. Non-essential loads such as galleys and cabin lighting operate from
a) Ground services bus
b) Ground handling bus
# c) Transfer bus
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
654. An anti-servo tab
# a) assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral
b) moves in the same direction as the control surface to assist the
pilot
c) moves in the opposite direction to the control surface to assist
the pilot
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
663. a receiver having an IF of 465 KHz .is tuned to 1300 Khz, which of
the following signals could interact with the L O second harmonics to
produce a receiver output if no RF amplifier was used
# a) 3995 Khz
b) 2230 Khz
c) 465 khz
664. On the ASP how many Rx and Tx can be selected at any one time?
# a) multiple Rx and only one Tx
b) multiple Rx and multiple Tx
c) only one Rx and only one Tx
669. What type of signal is used for trigger height trip signals?
# a) Switchable d.c
b) Switchable a.c
c) variable d.c
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
672. A typical ratiometer indicating system would use
a) 3-phase AC
# b) single phase AC for indicator and transmitter
c) single phase AC for indicator and dc for transmitter
678. Where is zone 320 on an aircraft according to the ATA 100 system?
# a) Fin
b) Horizontal Stabilizer
c) Fuselage
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
681. At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit has
# a) maximum impedance
b) minimum impedance
c) the same impedance as at any other frequency
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
691. Air density compensation requires
a) OAT
b) altitude
# c) altitude and OAT
694. Second channel interference could occur if the I/P frequency was at
twice the
a) L O frequency away from the selected frequency
b) I F away from the selected frequency
# c) I F away from the L O frequency
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
700. An integrated autoland system has been selected to Go-around
during the autoland phase, the aircraft will
a) increase speed
# b) increase speed and rotate nose up
c) rotate nose up
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
709. An autoland is carrid out in which sequence
a) GS capture, LOC capture, attitude hold, flare
# b) LOC capture, GS capture, Attitude hold, Flare
c) LOC capture, GS capture, Flare, Attitude hold
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
718. The speech clipping modulating circuit
a) increases the average depth of modulation
b) clips high amplitude signals
# c) cuts out high tone sounds
720. If the static pressure is varied at too great a rate, the instrument
that s most affected is the
# a) rate of change indicator
b) altimeter
c) airspeed indicator
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
727. To check side lobe suppression
a) select ATC on ASP
# b) use a ramp test set
c) carry out a self test
734. With an ATC code of 0600 selected, the pulses transmitted are
# a) B 2 and B 4
b) B 1 and B 5
c) B 0 and B 6
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
736. The relationship between LORAN master and slave transmitters.
Master frequency
a) higher than slave
b) lower than slave
# c) same as slave
740. A radar pulse takes 308 microseconds to return, what is the target
distance
a) 12.5 Nautical miles
# b) 25 Nautical miles
c) 30 Nautical miles
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
745. Man made noise causes interference
a) mainly above 12 Mhz
b) only in the LF band
# c) mainly below 12 Mhz
750. What is the maximum value of installation tester that may be used
on a fuel contents system?
a) 300 Volt
b) 250 Volt
# c) You cannot use one on the fuel contents system
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
754. An aircraft landing on QFE the altimeter will
# a) read zero on touchdown
b) read airfield height on landing
c) read local area pressure
756. Using the fast erection switch on a standby horizon prior to the flag
clearing may cause
a) the instrument to erect false datum
# b) application of a large torque to the control phase windings
causing failure
c) You must use the Fast erection switch to clear the flag
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
763. GPS L 1 and L 2 signals are
# a) Bi phase 50 bit/ sec
b) 10.2 KHZ send rate
c) 1KHz send rate
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
772. The stall margin mode is controlled by
a) EPR limits
b) Speed bug cursors
# c) A O A and flap position sensors
776. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for
entry on the deviation
a) 2 degrees
# b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees
779. For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be
moved to correct the pitch movement?
a) Lateral
# b) Longitudinal
c) Normal
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
781. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at
maximum flap at
# a) 90 o
b) 180 o
c) 0 o
783. A Mode S transponder makes a Mode A/C only call, what is the
length of the P 2 pulse?
# a) 0.8 s
b) 1.6 s
c) 2 s
785. What is the time between the F2 framing pulse and the SPI?
a) 1.45 s
b) 2 s
# c) 4.35 s
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
790. Using the following: FS 345, RWS 45, where is this located?
a) 345" back from the nose, 45" from the longitudinal centre line
of the right wing
b) 345" back from the datum line, 45" from the longitudinal
centre line of the right wing
# c) 345" back from the nose and 45" along the right wing
791. When carrying out an insulation resistance test of a pitot probe you
would expect
a) 1 Megohm when cold
# b) 3 Megohm when hot and when cooled down
c) 5 Megohm
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
798. The scratch pad in an FMS CDU occupies
a) 24 character spaces of the bottom line
b) the last 12 character spaces of the bottom line
# c) first 12 character spaces of the bottom line
800. The horizontal angle contained between the true and the magnetic
meridian at any place is
a) inclination
# b) declination
c) angle of dip
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
807. Tripping the GCR will
a) trip the GCB
b) de-excite the generator
# c) both (a) and (b)
811. Airspeeds above the speed of sound, but not exceeding 4 times the
speed of sound are
a) hypersonic
# b) supersonic
c) hyposonic
812. If the pilot reports autoland failure, and no fault found during
ground checks. What action do you take?
a) Sign off as no fault found
$ b) Ask Pilot to carry out CAT 1 autoland
c) Ask pilot to carry out CAT 1 or CAT 2 autoland
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
816. In an EICAS system, operation of the cancel switch
a) removes all messages from the display
# b) removes caution and advisory messages
c) removes advisory messages
822. JAR OPS states that the time an FDR recording must be kept after
accident or incident
a) 30 days after incident 60 days after accident
# b) 60 days
c) 30 Days
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
825. Compass compensator units have greatest effect when the
magnets are
a) Parallel
b) 45 degrees
# c) 90 degrees
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
834. A modern large transport aircraft fuselage would be normally be
constructed from
a) warren truss structure
# b) semi monocoque structure
c) geodetic structure
836. MCDUs
a) are used to transmit dat to ground
# b) enable dialog with cent
c) store fault data
838. If the output of the generator starts to fall, a pulse width modulated
field supply will
# a) increase the mark-to -space ratio
b) decrease the mark-to- space ratio
c) double the mark-to-space ratio
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
842. The venturi tubes in a vacuum instrument are measured in
a) Millibars
# b) Inches of Mercury
c) PSI
850. In ground mode the FMS uses which of the following for velocity
calculations?
# a) IRS
b) RHO-RHO
c) RHO-THETA
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Sample Questions
851. Component P relates to
a) coefficient A
# b) coefficient B
c) coefficient C
852. During take off with autothrottle engaged, the autothrottle sensor
fails, THR CLP is annuciated on the mode annunciator panel when
# a) aircraft leaves ground
b) a pre-determined rad alt setting
c) V 2, as determined by the autothrottle computer
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
860. RNAV uses which inputs?
a) IRS, ADF, VOR, DME
b) ADF, GPS, VOR
# c) IRS, VOR, GPS, DME
864. If radio deviation is fed only to the autopilot roll channel what will
happen?
# a) Aircraft will fly in circles
b) Aircraft will drift from centreline
c) Aircraft will fly parallel to centreline
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Sample Questions
869. EGPWS mode 2 announces
a) sink rate
# b) whoop whoop pull up
c) too low flaps
873. Leakage of a static line during a pitot static test (altitude increasing)
would be indicated by
$ a) VSI showing rate of climb
b) VSI showing rate of descent
c) VSI remaining in a fixed position
---877. If the static vent is leaking into cabin pressurised space when the
aircraft is at altitude, mach meter will indicate
a) an increase
b) a decrease
c) no change
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
---878. The FBW system uses two elevator and aileron computers
(ELACs)
a) this is to provide redundancy
b) they provide alternate control of the elevators if spoiler and
elevator computers (SECs) fail
c) each computer achieves control and monitoring of the three
electric motors which power the trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS)
882. How does a Rx know whether an ILS or a VOR frequency has been
selected?
a) Manually selected by operator
# b) Logic control circuit in control unit
c) A different receiver is used
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
885. What is the term used for the amount of water in the atmosphere?
a) Relative humidity
# b) Absolute humidity
c) Dew point
887. EFIS display ,SG 1 + SG 2 are for captain and FO displays what is
the purpose of SG 3?
# a) Backup for SG 1 and 2
b) ECAM upper display
c) ECAM lower display
---888. The compensator tank unit in a fuel system adjusts fuel readings
for
a) SG of fuel
b) permittivity
c) zero reading
---890. Peak power = 10 kW, duty cycle = 2.4 ms, pulse duration =6
microseconds. What is mean power?
a) Approx .4 W
b) 14 W
c) 24 W
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
893. A control wheel action in roll, with the autopilot engaged, operates
a transducer which outputs a signal
$ a) via a force level detector, which on changeover, cancels
attitude hold and feeds a supply allowing the pilot gradual and
increasing bank angle control
b) which disengages the autopilot allowing total manual freedom
of operation and requires no re-engage action on completion
c) which on changeover, causes the aircraft to roll wings level
through a supply feeding to a point between the roll rate limiter and the
EHSV, allowing the pilot total freedom of control
896. The Dutch roll filter used on most yaw damper systems operates
with a demodulator and modulator in series, between which is an
electronic circuit. this circuit is a
a) wide band pass filter featuring an integrated output
b) wide band pass filter featuring a differentiate output
$ c) narrow band filter featuring a differentiate output
897. During tests on the yaw damper servo actuator, the output shaft
constantly over-runs its desired displacement. A probable cause is that
the
a) detent spring has lost its tension
$ b) position LVDT (linear variable differential transformer) is out
of tolerance
c) the rate feedback circuit is open-circuit
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
899. The flight data recorder underwater locator beacon operates at a
frequency of thirty seven kilo-hertz
# a) with an operational time of at least thirty days
b) and has a maximum detection range of two thousand to four
thousand feet
c) and is able to withstand immersion to twenty thousand metres
902. As part of the checks on the DFDR system, you are required to
carry out a check using the self Start page and Bookshopthe aircraft
integrated data system (AIDS) printer. Actuation of the switch causes the
printer to print in
a) eighty column mode
$ b) sixty six column mode
c) forty column mode
904. In digital flight data recorder (DFDR) system, low speed playback of
currently received data can be achieved at
a) the flight compartment test connector through the digital flight
data acquisition unit (DFDAU)
$ b) the electronic bay test connection at the quick access recorder
(QAR)
c) the DFDAU built in test equipment (BITE)
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
905. During a change to a lower altitude the piston unit in an IVSI
(instantaneous vertical speed indicator) will create, for an instant more
# a) more pressure to the capsule only
b) pressure to both case and capsule
c) more suction to the capsule only
909. When attaching more than one jumper or ground lead terminal to
structure with a single fastener
a) place the smallest terminal nearest the structure, covered by a
spacer, with the others, to a maximum of six, stacked in increasing size
# b) install the largest terminal nearest the structure, with the
others, to a maximum of four, stacked and fanned in decreasing size
c) connect the largest terminal nearest the structure with the
others, to a total of three, stacked symmetrically in any order
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
912. A panel at STN + 88 /WL -12 is located 88 units
a) rearward of the aircraft datum and 12 units above the water line
datum
b) forward of the aircraft vertical centre and 12 units below the
water line datum
# c) rearward of the datum and 12 units below the waterline
914. A fuselage construction where the skin carries all of the loads is
known as:
a) semi-monocoque
b) semi-stressed
# c) monocoque
915. The purpose of the mercury switch in the rotating platform system
is to
a) always ensure that the platform is maintained level in space
when the autopilot is engaged
$ b) level the platform when the autopilot is disengaged
c) level the platform system when installing
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
920. One basic requirement of a synchronizing loop is that it must
a) disengage on A/P engagement
$ b) be engaged at all times
c) disengage as soon as hard over is detected
926. In the electro pneumatic servo-motor using dual poppet valves and
dual roll-framcommand output from the autopilot servo amplifier
a) both valves will be closed
$ b) both valves will be open for an equal period of time
c) both roll fram actuators will fully retract
928. The maximum level output of a series limiter using switch diode is
set by
a) voltage of the signal
$ b) the dc bias passing through the diodes
c) diode reverse resistance
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
929. When DC motors are used as servomotors they are usually
a) high current low voltage type
$ b) split field type
c) high torque heavy armature type
---932. Servo amplifiers of the pulse width type are used because
a) efficiency is good
b) they cause very little radio interference
c) they automatically produce DC output
---933. The purpose of using altitude rate signal to develop the capture
point in the altitude acquire mode is
a) to allow the aircraft to start flaring on to the selected altitude
earlier if the vertical speed is high
b) to allow the aircraft to start flaring on to the selected altitude
later if the v rtical speed is high
c) as a backup
---934. When internal navigation control is used, the roll channel signals
used are
a) beam deviation and course error
b) cross track distance and track angle error
c) drift angle and cross track distance
935. A leak in the static line in a pressurised part of an aircraft can cause
the mach indication to
a) rise
# b) decrease
c) no change
937. During helicopter forward flight the retreating blade will tend to
a) flap up
b) no change
# c) flap down
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938. Asymmetric flaps will cause
a) the aircraft to ascend
# b) one wing to rise
c) the aircraft to descend
939. How many satellites comprise the space segment for GPS?
# a) 4 satellites in six orbits
b) 6 satellites in four orbits
c) 8 satellites in three orbits
---944. Why is a rubber 'o' ring fitted between wave guide joints?
a) To prevent moisture ingress
b) To prevent arcing across the flanges
c) To prevent wave distortion
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
948. Small pins on an AC GPU receptacle
# a) prevent arcing when inserting or removing the connector
b) use AC as part of an interlock circuit
c) are used to prevent incorrect orientation
---952. Peak power is 10kW, pulse period 6? s and duty cycle is 2.4 ms.
What is the average power transmitted?
a) 25W
b) 14.4W
c) Just over 4W
---954. The doppler shift frequency from the front beam will equal the
shift from the back beam
a) only in level flight
b) in any aircraft attitude
c) when climbing
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
957. Battery charging on an aircraft
a) may produce excessive charging initially, especially if the
battery charge is low
b) will be reasonably stable due to constant voltage charging
# c) will be reasonably stable due to constant current charging
962. When a helicopter rotor disc is tilted forward, what happens to the
pitch of the retreating blade?
# a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
965. Communication between the aircraft earth station (AES) and the
satellite is on
a) C band
# b) L band
c) S band
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Sample Questions
---966. The monopulse aerial system is used to provide T.C.A.S with
a) Altitude information
b) Bearing Information
c) Mode 'S' lock out
969. When the pilot depresses the IDENT button, where does the ident
pulse appear?
a) 1.6 seconds after the P2 pulse
# b) 4.35 seconds after the last frame pulse
c) 0.8 seconds after the last frame pulse
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
975. Radio altimeter (radar) normally indicates the altitude of
a) plus-minus 2500feet
b) to 2500feet pressure altitude
# c) 0 to 2500 feet above the ground level
977. The path of a point which moves such that the difference in
distance from two fixed points is called
a) parabola
b) circle
# c) hyperbola
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
984. Full scale deflection on a VOR system is
a) 2 degrees
b) 5 degrees
# c) 10 degrees
989. What is the time taken for one radar statute mile?
# a) 10.75 seconds
b) 12.36 seconds
c) 11.03 seconds
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
993. In the OBS the printing report system is activated:
a) Manually
b) Automatically
# c) Both of the above
994. In the downlink 11 format a 0.5 per sec pulse in the first half of the
slot represents a logic
# a) a logic one
b) a logic zero
c) the start of the preamble
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
1002. A Class 3 fault reporting failure
a) may have an operational consequence
b) does not have an operational consequence but may do if a
second failure occurs
# c) has no consequences on aircraft safety
1008. turn and slip needle/pointer moves to the left what is the aircraft
doing
# a) turning left
b) rolling left
c) turning right
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
1011. An autopilot transfer valve
a) converts hydraulic power to electrical power
# b) converts electrical power to hydraulic power
c) converts hydraulic power to electrical power and converts
electrical power to hydraulic powe
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
1020. Mach trim usually operates between
a) 6.0 mach 7.0 mach
b) 9.0 mach and 9.99 mach
# c) 7.0 and 8.0 mach
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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
1030. The length of a resonant antenna dipole is
a) lambda
b) lambda/2
# c) lambda/4
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