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UGC NET Generral (00) Paper 2012 Jun To 2017 Jan

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

157 views254 pages

UGC NET Generral (00) Paper 2012 Jun To 2017 Jan

All latest Question Papers with key ...

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kumarpvs

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PAPER-I

Signature and Name of Invigilator

1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
J 001
Time : 1 /4 hours]
1 2
Test Booklet Code W
(In words)

[Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) -
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : -
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet (ii) -
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in /
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a -
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet

will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) - OMR
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
OMR -
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet

Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. (A), (B), (C) (D)

4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on :
the correct response against each item.
(C)
Example : 5. - I - II OMR
where (C) is the correct response. OMR
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for ,
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. (Rough Work)
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. OMR ,
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put ,
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space , ,
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your ,
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. - OMR
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Original
Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the OMR
Examination Hall. You are however, allowed to carry duplicate
copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. /
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ()
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12.
W-00 P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained

Obtained
Question

Obtained
Obtained

Question
Number

Number
Marks

Marks
Marks
1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60
Total Marks Obtained (in words) ...........................................
(in figures) ..........................................
Signature & Name of the Coordinator ...................................

(Evaluation) Date .........................

9. Given that in a code language, 645 9. , 645

means day is warm; 42 means ; 42
warm spring and 634 means spring 634
is sunny; which digit represents
sunny ?
(A) 3 (B) 2
?
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5
10. The basis of the following classification 10. :
is : , ,
first President of India author of ,
Godan books in my library, blue -
things and students who work hard
(A)
(A) Common names
(B) Proper names (B)
(C) Descriptive phrases (C)
(D) Indefinite description (D)
11. In the expression Nothing is larger than 11.
itself the relation is larger than is
(A) antisymmetric (A)
(B) asymmetrical (B)
(C) intransitive (C)
(D) irreflexive
(D)
12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on 12. (A) :
the books today than ever before, ,
and more crimes being committed
than ever before.
Reason (R) : Because to reduce (R) : ,
crime we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below :

(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) :
is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) , (R) (R),
(A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is
(A)
the correct explanation of (A). (B) (A) , (R) (R), (A)
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful
and (R) is not the correct (C) (A) , (R)
explanation of (A). (R), (A)
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R)
is not the correct explanation of (D) (A) , (R) (R),
(A). (A)
W-00 4
13. If the proposition All men are not 13. ,
mortal is true then which of the
following inferences is correct ? Choose ? :
from the code given below : 1.
1. All men are mortal is true. 2.
2. Some men are mortal is false. 3.
3. No men are mortal is doubtful.
4. All men are mortal is false. 4.
Code : :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 2, 3 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 (C) 1, 3 4 (D) 1 3

14. Determine the nature of the following 14. :

definition :
Abortion means the ruthless
murdering of innocent beings. (A) (B)
(A) Lexical (B) Persuasive
(C) (D)
(C) Stipulative (D) Theoretical

15. Which one of the following is not an 15. ?

argument ? (A) ,
(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day
so he must be eating at night.
(B) ,
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if
he does not eat during the day, he ,
will be eating at night.
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he (C) ,
does not eat during the day.
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the (D) ,
day, he must be eating in the
night.

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to 16. ,

(A) represent and assess the validity (A) -
of elementary inferences of
syllogistic form.
(B) represent but not assess the (B)
validity of elementary inferences ,
of syllogistic form.
(C) represent and assess the truth of (C)
elementary inferences of
syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth (D)
of elementary inferences of ,
syllogistic form.
W-00 5 P.T.O.
17. Reasoning by analogy leads to 17.
(A) certainty (A)
(B) definite conclusion (B)
(C) predictive conjecture (C)
(D) surety
(D)
18. Which of the following statements are 18.
false ? Choose from the code given ? :
below :
1. Inductive arguments always
1.
proceed from the particular to the
general. 2.
2. A cogent argument must be 3.
inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a
false premise and a false 4.
conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be
spoken of as true or false.
:
Code : (A) 2, 3 4 (B) 1 3
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 4 (D) 1 2
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2

19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are 19. : A, B, C, D, E F

standing in a circle. B is between F and F C B , E D
C, A is between E and D, F is to the left A , F, D A F
of D. Who is between A and F ? ?
(A) B (B) C (A) B (B) C
(C) D (D) E (C) D (D) E

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By 20. 25%

what percentage must a customer reduce
the consumption so that the earlier bill ?
on the petrol does not alter ? (A) 20% (B) 25%
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 33.33%
(C) 30% (D) 33.33%

21. If Ram knows that y is an integer 21. y 2 7

greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari y 5
knows that y is an integer greater than 5 10 , -
and less than 10, then they may
correctly conclude that (A) y -
(A) y can be exactly determined
(B) y may be either of two values (B) y
(C) y may be any of three values (C) y
(D) there is no value of y satisfying (D) y
these conditions
W-00 6
22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 22. 15, 20, 30 60
30 and 60 hours respectively. The first : 6 AM
one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 , 7 AM , 8
AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM 9 AM
AM. When will the reservoir be filled ? ?
(A) 11 AM (B) 12 Noon
(C) 1 PM (D) 1:30 PM (A) 11 AM (B) 12 Noon ()
(C) 1 PM (D) 1.30 PM
The total electricity generation in a
country is 97 GW. The contribution of 97 GW
various energy sources is indicated in
percentage terms in the Pie Chart given
below ;
:

23. What is the contribution of wind and 23.

solar power in absolute terms in the ?
electricity generation ? (A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW
(A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW
(C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW
(C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW
24. What is the contribution of renewable 24.
energy sources in absolute terms in the ?
electricity generation ? (A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW
(A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW (C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW
(C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW

For Blind Students Only

(Questions 23 24) ( 23 24)
23. In a normally distributed data set, what 23. ,
percentage of data points lie between 2 *
mean + 2 * standard deviation ? ?
(A) ~ 95% (B) ~ 68% (A) ~ 95% (B) ~ 68%
(C) ~ 50% (D) ~ 37% (C) ~ 50% (D) ~ 37%

24. 10 is the mean of a set of 7 observations 24. 7 10 3

and 5 is the mean of a set of 3 5
observations. The mean of the
combined set is given by (A) 7.5 (B) 8.5
(A) 7.5 (B) 8.5
(C) 10 (D) 15
(C) 10 (D) 15
W-00 7 P.T.O.
25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect 25. TCP/IP
to the :
(A) Phone lines (A)
(B) LAN (B) LAN
(C) Internet (C)
(D) a Server (D)

26. Each character on the keyboard of 26.

computer has an ASCII value which ASCII /
stands for
(A)
(A) American Stock Code for
Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for (B)
Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for (C)
Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for (D)
Information Change

27. Which of the following is not a 27.

programming language ? ?
(A) Pascal (A)
(B) Microsoft Office (B)
(C) Java (C)
(D) C++ (D) C++

28. Minimum number of bits required to 28. 3 ()

store any 3 digit decimal number is ()
equal to ?
(A) 3 (A) 3
(B) 5 (B) 5
(C) 8 (C) 8
(D) 10 (D) 10

29. Internet explorer is a type of 29. ?

(A) Operating System (A)
(B) Compiler (B)
(C) Browser (C)
(D) IP address (D) IP ()
W-00 8
30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in 30. POP3 IMAP -
which (A)
(A) One automatically gets ones mail
everyday
(B)
(B) One has to be connected to the
server to read or write ones mail
(C) -
(C) One only has to be connected to
the server to send and receive

email
(D)
(D) One does not need any telephone
lines

31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the 31.

pollutant ?
(A) Sulphur di-oxide (A) -
(B) Ozone (B)
(C) PAN (C) PAN ()
(D) Nitrous oxide (D)

32. Which is the source of 32. ?

chlorofluorocarbons ?
(A)
(A) Thermal power plants
(B) Automobiles (B)

(C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning (C)

(D) Fertilizers (D)

33. Which of the following is not a 33.

renewable natural resource ? ?
(A) Clean air (B) Fertile soil (A) (B)
(C) Fresh water (D) Salt
(C) (D)

34. Which of the following parameters is 34.

not used as a pollution indicator in ?
water ?
(A)
(A) Total dissolved solids
(B) Coliform count (B)
(C) Dissolved oxygen (C)
(D) Density (D)
W-00 9 P.T.O.
35. S and P waves are associated with 35. S P ?
(A) floods (A)
(B) wind energy (B)
(C) earthquakes
(C)
(D) tidal energy
(D)

36. Match Lists I and II and select the 36. -I -II

correct answer from the codes given :
below :
List I List II -I -II
(i) Ozone hole (a) Tsunami
(i) (a)
(ii) Greenhouse (b) UV
effect radiations (ii) (b) UV
(iii) Natural (c) Methane (iii) (c) ()
hazards
(iv) Sustainable (d) Eco-centrism (iv) (d) -
development
Codes : :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d) (A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d) (B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b) (C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a) (D) (d) (b) (c) (a)

37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is 37. ?

located at
(A)
(A) Dharmshala
(B) Shimla (B)
(C) Solan (C)
(D) Chandigarh (D)

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices 38. (NCTE)

of National Council of Teacher
Education.
(A) 04
(A) 04
(B) 05
(B) 05
(C) 06 (C) 06
(D) 08 (D) 08
W-00 10
39. Which of the following rights was 39. . ..
considered the Heart and Soul of the
Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. ?
Ambedkar ?
(A)
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Equality (B)
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion (C)
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies (D)

40. Who among the following created the 40.

office of the District Collector in India ? ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis (A)
(B) Warren Hastings
(B)
(C) The Royal Commission on
Decentralisation (C)
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe (D)

41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen 41. :

include 1. ,
1. Respect for the Constitution, the
National Flag and the National
Anthem 2. :
2. To develop the scientific temper. 3.
3. Respect for the Government. 4.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the
:
codes given below : :
Codes : (A) 1, 2 3
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 2, 3 4
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2 (D) 1, 3, 4 2

42. The President of India takes oath 42.

(A) to uphold the sovereignty and (A)
integrity of India.
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to (B)
the Constitution of India.

(C) to uphold the Constitution and
(C)
Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend

the Constitution and the law of (D) ,
the country.
W-00 11 P.T.O.
43. If you get an opportunity to teach a 43. -
visually challenged student along with ,
normal students, what type of treatment
would you like to give him in the
class ?
?
(A) Not giving extra attention because (A)
majority may suffer.
(B) Take care of him sympathetically (B)
in the classroom.
(C) You will think that blindness is (C)
his destiny and hence you cannot
do anything.
(D)
(D) Arrange a seat in the front row
and try to teach at a pace
convenient to him.

44. Which of the following is not a 44.

characteristic of a good achievement ?
test ?
(A) (B)
(A) Reliability (B) Objectivity
(C) (D)
(C) Ambiguity (D) Validity

45. Which of the following does not belong 45.

to a projected aid ? ?
(A) Overhead projector (A)
(B) Blackboard (B)
(C) Epidiascope (C) ()
(D) Slide projector
(D)

46. For a teacher, which of the following 46. ,

methods would be correct for writing on ?
the blackboard ?
(A)
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as
possible.
(B) Writing the matter first and then (B)
asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and (C)
then writing the answer as stated
by them.
(D)
(D) Writing the important points as
clearly as possible.
W-00 12
47. A teacher can be successful if he/she 47.
(A) helps students in becoming better (A)
citizens
(B) imparts subject knowledge to (B)
students
(C) prepares students to pass the (C)
examination
(D) presents the subject matter in a (D)
well organized manner
48. Dynamic approach to teaching means 48.
(A) Teaching should be forceful and (A)
effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and
dynamic (B)
(C) The topics of teaching should not
be static, but dynamic (C)
(D) The students should be required to
learn through activities
(D)
49. The research that aims at immediate
application is
(A) Action Research 49.
(B) Empirical Research :
(C) Conceptual Research (A) (B)
(D) Fundamental Research (C) (D)
50. When two or more successive footnotes 50. ()
refer to the same work which one of the
following expressions is used ?
(A) ibid (B) et.al :
(C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit. (A) ibid (B) et.al
(C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit.
51. Nine year olds are taller than seven year
olds. This is an example of a reference 51.
drawn from
(A) Vertical study :
(B) Cross-sectional study (A)
(C) Time series study (B) (-)
(D) Experimental study (C)
52. Conferences are meant for (D)
(A) Multiple target groups 52. ?
(B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research (A)
(D) All the above (B)
(C)
53. Ex Post Facto research means
(A) The research is carried out after (D)
the incident 53.
(B) The research is carried out prior (A)
to the incident (B)
(C) The research is carried out along (C) -
with the happening of an incident.
(D) The research is carried out
keeping in mind the possibilities (D)
of an incident.
54. Research ethics do not include 54. ?
(A) Honesty (B) Subjectivity (A) (B)
(C) Integrity (D) Objectivity (C) (D)
W-00 13 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 :
James Madison said, A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves
with power that knowledge gives. In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient
smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has
traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it
is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a
major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that
affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the
Lok Sabha is significant. He said, I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil
servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing
Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a
friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People. He further
said, This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain
experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant
reviews.
The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in
Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act
in letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny,
Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700
crores which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of
records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity
building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from non-
transparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of
State.
55. A person gets power
(A) by acquiring knowledge (B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings (D) by denying public information
56. Right to Information is a major step forward to
(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly
57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill
(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly,
caring and effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people
58. The Commission made the Bill effective by
(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation
59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(D) All the above
60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State.
These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
W-00 14
. 55 60 :

, 1923
, , ,
,
,
,
, , ,
() ,
- ,
,
:,
, , ,
,
: ,
,
` 700 -
,
-

55.
(A) (B) , 1923
(C) (D)
56. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
57. ?
(A)
(B) - ,

(C)
(D)
58. ?
(A)
(B)
(C) :
(D)
59.
(A)
(B)
(C) ()
(D)
60.
(A) , (B) ,
(C) , (D) ,
W-00
SET-0 15 P.T.O.
Space For Rough Work

W-00 16
Answer Keys (Paper-I)

Q.No. Set
W X Y Z
Q01 C C C D
Q02 B C C B
Q03 B C C B
Q04 B A D D
Q05 D A D D
Q06 A C C C
Q07 C A A B
Q08 B B B D
Q09 A C A A
Q10 C B D D
Q11 D B B A
Q12 A D B A
Q13 B C D B
Q14 B C D D
Q15 B C C A
Q16 A C B B
Q17 C D D A
Q18 C D A A
Q19 C C D B
Q20 A A A C
Q21 A B A D
Q22 C A B D
Q23 A D D C
Q24 B B A B
Q25 C B B B
Q26 B D A B
Q27 B D A D
Q28 D C B A
Q29 C B C C
Q30 C D D B
Q31 C A D A
Q32 C D C C
Q33 D A B D
Q34 D A B A
Q35 C B B B
Q36 A D D B
Q37 B A A B
Q38 A B C A
Q39 D C B C
Q40 B B A C
Q41 B B C C
Q42 D B D A
Q43 D D A A
Q44 C A B C
Q45 B C B A
Q46 D A B B
Q47 A A A C
Q48 D B C B
Q49 A C C B
Q50 A D C D
Q51 B D A C
Q52 D B A C
Q53 A A C C
Q54 B C A C
Q55 A D B D
Q56 A A C D
Q57 B B B C
Q58 C B B A
Q59 D B D B
Q60 D A C A
PAPER-I
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
D 00 1 2
Test Booklet Code W
(In words)

Time : 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) -
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : -
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet (ii) -
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in /
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a -
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet

will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) - OMR
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
OMR -
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet

Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)

and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on

the correct response against each item. :
Example : (C)
where (C) is the correct response. 5. - I - II
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer -
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in ,
the circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 6.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 7. (Rough Work)
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put 8. - ,
any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the ,
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose , ,
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other ,
unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer 9. - OMR -
sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. 10. /
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ()
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12.
W-00 P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained

Obtained
Question

Obtained
Obtained

Question
Number

Number
Marks

(Evaluation) Date .........................

W-00 2
Paper I
I
Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.
: (60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)
1. The English word Communication is 1.
derived from the words ?
(A) Communis and Communicare (A)
(B) Communist and Commune (B)
(C) Communism and Communalism
(D) Communion and Common sense (C)
2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao (D)
Zedong used a type of communication to 2.
talk to the masses is known as -
(A) Mass line communication ()
(B) Group communication (A) -
(C) Participatory communication
(D) Dialogue communication (B)
3. Conversing with the spirits and (C)
ancestors is termed as (D)
(A) Transpersonal communication 3.
(B) Intrapersonal communication (A)
(C) Interpersonal communication (B)
(D) Face-to-face communication
(C)
4. The largest circulated daily newspaper (D) --
among the following is
(A) The Times of India 4.
(B) The Indian Express ?
(C) The Hindu (A)
(D) The Deccan Herald (B)
5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in (C)
India was (D)
(A) K.A. Abbas 5. -
(B) Satyajit Ray
(C) B.R. Chopra (A) .. (B)
(D) Dada Sahib Phalke (C) .. (D)
6. Classroom communication of a teacher 6.
rests on the principle of ?
(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment (A) (B)
(C) Entertainment (D) Power equation (C) (D)
7. The missing number in the series : 7. ?
0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336
(A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210 (A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210
8. A group of 7 members having a 8. 6 4 7
majority of boys is to be formed out of
6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways
the group can be formed is ?
(A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 90 (D) 110 (A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 90 (D) 110
W-00 3 P.T.O.
9. The number of observations in a group 9. 40 10
is 40. The average of the first 10 4.5 30
members is 4.5 and the average of the
remaining 30 members is 3.5. The 3.5 ?
average of the whole group is (A) 4 (B) 15/2
(A) 4 (B) 15/2 (C) 15/4 (D) 6
(C) 15/4 (D) 6
10.
MOHAN KMFYL ,
10. If MOHAN is represented by the code COUNT
KMFYL, then COUNT will be (A) AMSLR (B) MSLAR
represented by
(C) MASRL (D) SAMLR
(A) AMSLR (B) MSLAR
(C) MASRL (D) SAMLR 11. A B 50
11. The sum of the ages of two persons A 5 5/3 A
and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of B
their ages was 5/3. The present age of A
and B are (A) 30, 20 (B) 35, 15
(A) 30, 20 (B) 35, 15 (C) 38, 12 (D) 40, 10
(C) 38, 12 (D) 40, 10
12. a () , b ()
12. Let a means minus (), b means , C ()
multiplied by (), C means divided by
D (+) , 90 D 9 a 29 C 10
() and D means plus (+). The value of
90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is b 2
(A) 8 (B) 10 (A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 14 (C) 12 (D) 14
13. I II
13. Consider the AssertionI and Assertion
II and select the right code given below : :
AssertionI : Even Bank-lockers are
not safe. Thieves can break them I : ,
and take away your wealth. But
thieves can not go to heaven. So
you should keep your wealth in :
heaven.
AssertionII : The difference of skin-
colour of beings is because of the
II :
distance from the sun and not , -
because of some permanent traits.
Skin-colour is the result of bodys
reaction to the sun and its rays.
Codes : :
(A) Both the assertions-I and II are
forms of argument. (A) I II
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but (B) I , II
the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an argument (C) II , I
but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both the assertions are
explanations of facts. (D)
W-00 4
14. By which of the following proposition, 14.
the proposition some men are not ?
honest is contradicted ? (A)
(A) All men are honest.
(B) Some men are honest. (B)
(C) No men are honest. (C)
(D) All of the above. (D)

15. A stipulative definition is 15.

(A) always true (A)
(B) always false (B)
(C) sometimes true sometimes false (C)
(D) neither true nor false
(D)
16. Choose the appropriate alternative 16.
given in the codes to replace the
question mark. , , ?
Examiner Examinee, Pleader Client,
Preceptor ? (A) (B)
(A) Customer (B) Path-finder (C) (D)
(C) Perceiver (D) Disciple
17.
17. If the statement most of the students
are obedient is taken to be true, which ?
one of the following pair of statements
can be claimed to be true ? I.
I. All obedient persons are students. II.
II. All students are obedient. III.
III. Some students are obedient. IV.
IV. Some students are not disobedient. :
Codes :
(A) I & II (B) II & III (A) I II (B) II III
(C) III & IV (D) II & IV (C) III IV (D) II IV

18. :
18. Choose the right code :
A deductive argument claims that :
() :
I. The conclusion does not claim I.
something more than that which is
contained in the premises. II. /
II. The conclusion is supported by the
premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then III.
premise/premises may be either /
true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of premises IV. / ,
is true, then conclusion must be
true. :
Codes : (A) I II (B) I III
(A) I and II (B) I and III
(C) II and III (D) All the above (C) II III (D)
W-00 5 P.T.O.
On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24 :

Government Expenditures on Social Services

(As percent of total expenditure)
Sl. No. Items 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10 2010-11
Social Services 11.06 12.94 13.06 14.02
(a) Education, sports & youth affairs 4.02 4.04 3.96 4.46
(b) Health & family welfare 2.05 1.91 1.90 2.03
(c) Water supply, housing, etc. 2.02 2.31 2.20 2.27
(d) Information & broadcasting 0.22 0.22 0.20 0.22
(e) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC 0.36 0.35 0.41 0.63
(f) Labour and employment 0.27 0.27 0.22 0.25
(g) Social welfare & nutrition 0.82 0.72 0.79 1.06
(h) North-eastern areas 0.00 1.56 1.50 1.75
(i) Other social services 1.29 1.55 1.87 1.34
Total Government expenditure 100.00 100.00 100.00 100.00

19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than
5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09 ?
(A) One (B) Three
(C) Five (D) All the above

20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate ?
(A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11

21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share of
expenditures ?
(A) North-eastern areas (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting (D) Social welfare and nutrition

22. Which of the following items expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in
the given years ?
(A) Information & broadcasting (B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment (D) Social welfare & nutrition

23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in
expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11 ?
(A) Education, sports & youth affairs (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Overall social services

24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of
expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10 ?
(A) Labour and employment (B) Health & family welfare
(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Education, sports & youth affairs
W-00 6
19 24 :

( )
2007-08 2008-09 2009-10 2010-11

11.06 12.94 13.06 14.02
(a) , 4.02 4.04 3.96 4.46
(b) 2.05 1.91 1.90 2.03
(c) , 2.02 2.31 2.20 2.27
(d) 0.22 0.22 0.20 0.22
(e) / 0.36 0.35 0.41 0.63

(f) 0.27 0.27 0.22 0.25
(g) 0.82 0.72 0.79 1.06
(h) - 0.00 1.56 1.50 1.75
(i) 1.29 1.55 1.87 1.34
100.00 100.00 100.00 100.00

19. - 2008-09 5
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
20. ?
(A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11
21. ?
(A) - (B) . /
(C) (D)
22. ?
(A) (B) . /
(C) (D)
23. 2007-08 2010-11
?
(A) ,
(B) /
(C)
(D)
24. 2007-08 2009-10 ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) ,
W-00 7 P.T.O.
25. ALU stands for 25. ...
(A) American Logic Unit (A)
(B) Alternate Local Unit (B)
(C) Alternating Logic Unit (C)
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
(D)
26. A Personal Computer uses a number of 26.
chips mounted on a circuit board called ,
(A) Microprocessor
(B) System Board (A) (B)
(C) Daughter Board (C) (D)
(D) Mother Board
27.
27. Computer Virus is a (A) (B)
(A) Hardware (B) Bacteria
(C) Software (D) None of these (C) (D)
28. Which one of the following is correct ? 28. ?
(A) (17)10 = (17)16 (A) (17)10 = (17)16
(B) (17)10 = (17)8 (B) (17)10 = (17)8
(C) (17)10 = (10111)2 (C) (17)10 = (10111)2
(D) (17)10 = (10001)2 (D) (17)10 = (10001)2
29. The file extension of MS-Word 29. .. 2007
document in Office 2007 is _______.
(A) .pdf (B) .doc (A) .pdf (B) .doc
(C) .docx (D) .txt (C) .docx (D) .txt
30. _______ is a protocol used by e-mail 30. _______ () -
clients to download e-mails to your -
computer.
(A) TCP (B) FTP
(C) SMTP (D) POP (A) TCP (B) FTP
(C) SMTP (D) POP
31. Which of the following is a source of 31. ?
methane ? (A) - ()
(A) Wetlands
(B) Foam Industry (B)
(C) Thermal Power Plants (C)
(D) Cement Industry (D)
32. Minamata disaster in Japan was 32.
caused by pollution due to
(A) Lead (B) Mercury ?
(C) Cadmium (D) Zinc (A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. Biomagnification means increase in the 33. - ?
(A) concentration of pollutants in (A)
living organisms
(B) ()
(B) number of species
(C) ()
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass (D)

W-00 8
34. Nagoya Protocol is related to 34. () ?
(A) Climate change (A)
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Hazardous waste (B)
(D) Biodiversity (C)
35. The second most important source after (D) -
fossil fuels contributing to Indias 35.
energy needs is ( )
(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower (A)
(D) Wind energy (B)
36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of (C) ( )
magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies (D)
(A) a ten-fold increase in the
amplitude of seismic waves. 36. 1
(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy
of the seismic waves. (A) -
(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude
of seismic waves. (B)
(D) two-fold increase in the energy of (C) -
seismic waves. (D) -
37. Which of the following is not a measure 37.
of Human Development Index ? ?
(A) Literacy Rate
(B) Gross Enrolment (A) (B)
(C) Sex Ratio (C) (D)
(D) Life Expectancy
38.
38. India has the highest number of students ?
in colleges after (A) .. (B) ...
(A) the U.K. (B) the U.S.A.
(C) Australia (D) Canada (C) (D)

39. Which of the following statement(s) 39.

is/are not correct about the Attorney / ?
General of India ? 1.
1. The President appoints a person,
who is qualified to be a Judge of a
High Court, to be the Attorney
General of India. 2.
2. He has the right of audience in all
the Courts of the country. 3.
3. He has the right to take part in the
proceedings of the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha. 4.
4. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the :
codes given below :
Codes : :
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (A) 1 4 (B) 2, 3 4
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only (C) 3 4 (D) 3
W-00 9 P.T.O.
40. Which of the following prefix President 40.
Pranab Mukherjee desires to be
discontinued while interacting with Indian
dignitaries as well as in official notings ? ?
1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim 1. 2.
3. Honble 4. Shri/Smt. 3. 4. /
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below : :
Codes : :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (A) 1 3 (B) 2 3
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1 2 (D) 1, 2 3
41. Which of the following can be done 41.
under conditions of financial emergency ? ?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be 1.
abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire

2. ,
control over the budget and
expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High 3.
Courts and the Supreme Court can
be reduced. 4.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies
can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the :
codes given below : :
Codes : (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 2, 3 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1 2 (D) 2 3
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3
42. Match List I with List II and select 42. I II
the correct answer from the codes given
below : :
List I List II I II
(a) Poverty (i) Mid-day (a) (i) -
Reduction Meals
Programme

(b) Human (ii) Indira Awas (b) (ii)
Development Yojana
Scheme (IAY) (...)
(c) Social (iii) National Old (c) (iii)
Assistance Age Pension
Scheme (NOAP) (....)
(d) Minimum (iv) MNREGA (d) (iv)
Need Scheme
Codes : :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
W-00 10
43. For an efficient and durable learning, 43.
learner should have
(A) ability to learn only (A)
(B) requisite level of motivation only (B)
(C) opportunities to learn only (C)
(D) desired level of ability and
(D)
motivation

44. Classroom communication must be 44.

(A) Teacher centric (A)
(B) Student centric (B)
(C) General centric (C)
(D) Textbook centric (D)

45. The best method of teaching is to 45.

(A) impart information (A)
(B) ask students to read books (B)
(C) suggest good reference material (C)
(D) initiate a discussion and (D)
participate in it
46. Interaction inside the classroom should 46.
generate ?
(A) Argument (A) -
(B) Information (B)
(C) Ideas
(C)
(D) Controversy
(D)
47. Spare the rod and spoil the child, 47.
gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be (A)
banned.
(B) corporal punishment is not (B)
acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be (C)
punished.
(D) children should be beaten with (D)
rods.
W-00 11 P.T.O.
48. The type of communication that the 48.
teacher has in the classroom, is termed
as (A)
(A) Interpersonal (B) -
(B) Mass communication (C)
(C) Group communication
(D) -
(D) Face-to-face communication

49. Which one of the following is an 49.

indication of the quality of a research ?
journal ?
(A)
(A) Impact factor
(B) -
(B) h-index
(C) g-index (C) -

(D) i10-index (D) i10-

50. Good research ethics means 50.

(A) Not disclosing the holdings of (A)
shares/stocks in a company that /
sponsors your research.
(B) Assigning a particular research (B) ../
problem to one Ph.D./research
student only. (C)
(C) Discussing with your colleagues
confidential data from a research
paper that you are reviewing for
an academic journal. (D)
(D) Submitting the same research

manuscript for publishing in more
than one journal.

51. Which of the following sampling 51.

methods is based on probability ? ?
(A) Convenience sampling (A)
(B) Quota sampling (B)
(C) Judgement sampling (C)
(D) Stratified sampling (D)
W-00 12
52. Which one of the following references 52.
is written according to American (...) ?
Psychological Association (APA)
format ? (A) , . (2010).
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals .
of Computer Science. :
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill (B) , . 2010.
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals .
of Computer Science. :
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C) . . 2010.
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of
,
Computer Science,
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
:
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals (D) , . (2010),
of Computer Science, ,
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill :

53. Arrange the following steps of research 53.

in correct sequence : :
1. Identification of research problem 1.
2. Listing of research objectives 2.
3. Collection of data 3.
4. Methodology 4.
5. Data analysis 5.
6. Results and discussion 6.
(A) 1 2 3 4 5 6 (A) 123456
(B) 1 2 4 3 5 6 (B) 124356
(C) 2 1 3 4 5 6 (C) 213456
(D) 2 1 4 3 5 6 (D) 214356

54. Identify the incorrect statement : 54. :

(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis (A)
of limited evidence as a starting
point for further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for (B)
reasoning without any assumption
of its truth.

(C) Hypothesis is a proposed (C)
explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a (D)
scientific theory.
W-00 13 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60) :
The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is
that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes
environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment,
crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality ? Given the unprecedental increase
in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in
developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.
In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and
sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a
large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in
Asias largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access
to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined
during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional
urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant
progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional
population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements
must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and
strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.

55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Neutral (D) Unspecified
56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950
to 2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million (B) 40 million
(C) 50 million (D) 60 million

57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in

(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has degraded.

58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life ?
(A) Tempo of urbanization (B) Provision of basic services
(C) Access to social amenities (D) All the above

59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on

(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement

60. In the above passage, the author intends to state

(A) The hazards of the urban life (B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C) The awareness of human progress (D) The limits to growth
W-00 14
55 60 :

,
, , , ,
? 50 1950 300
2000 2

, , ,
: , ,

20

,
(1990-2000) 293
-,
- -
55.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56. 1950 2000 .. ?
(A) 30 (B) 40
(C) 50 (D) 60
57.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

58. ?
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)

59. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

60. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
_____________
W-00 15 P.T.O.
W-00 16
UGC - NET DECEMBER 2012
ANSWER KEYS (PAPER I)
Q.No. W X Y Z
Q01 A A D A
Q02 A D C B
Q03 A D A D
Q04 A C C B
Q05 D A B A
Q06 B D A A
Q07 D B C A
Q08 B C D C
Q09 C D A D
Q10 A B D A
Q11 A A B A
Q12 D D D A
Q13 B D C A
Q14 A C C D
Q15 D D C B
Q16 D C A D
Q17 C D B B
Q18 A A D C
Q19 D B A A
Q20 B A B A
Q21 C D D D
Q22 D C B B
Q23 B A A D
Q24 A C A B
Q25 D B A C
Q26 D A C D
Q27 C C D B
Q28 D D A A
Q29 C A A D
Q30 D D A D
Q31 A B A C
Q32 B D D D
Q33 A C B C
Q34 D C D D
Q35 C C B A
Q36 A A C B
Q37 C B A A
Q38 B D A D
Q39 A A D C
Q40 C B B A
Q41 D D A C
Q42 A B D B
Q43 D A D A
Q44 B A C C
Q45 D A A D
Q46 C C D A
Q47 C D D D
Q48 C A C B
Q49 A A D D
Q50 B A C C
Q51 D A D C
Q52 A D A C
Q53 B B B A
Q54 D D A B
Q55 B B D D
Q56 A C B A
Q57 A A C D
Q58 A A D D
Q59 C D B C
Q60 D B A A
Signature and Name of Invigilator PAPER-I
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
J
1
00
Time : 1 /4 hours]
1 3
Test Booklet Code W
(In words)

[Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) - /
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
- /
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag (ii) -
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in /
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a -
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) - OMR
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
OMR -
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. : (C)
Example : 5. - I - II OMR
where (C) is the correct response. OMR
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for ,
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. (Rough Work)
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. OMR ,
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put ,
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space , ,
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your ,
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
9. OMR
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not

carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on OMR
conclusion of examination. 10. /
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ()
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12.
W-00 P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained

Obtained
Question

Obtained
Obtained

Question
Number

Number
Marks

(Evaluation) Date .........................

W-00 2
Paper I
I
Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.
: (60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)
1. Which one of the following references 1.
is written as per Modern Language (...)
Association (MLA) format ? ?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of (A) , .
Electronics, ,
New Delhi : Prentice Hall of : ,
India, 2005 2005
(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of (B) , ,
Electronics,
New Delhi : Prentice Hall of
,
India, 2005 : ,
(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of 2005
Electronics, (C) , ,
New Delhi Prentice Hall of ,
India, 2005 ,
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of 2005
Electronics. (D) , .
New Delhi : Prentice Hall of .
India, 2005 : ,
2005
2. A workshop is 2.
(A) a conference for discussion on a
topic. (A)
(B) a meeting for discussion on a
topic. (B)
(C) a class at a college or a (C) ,
university in which a teacher
and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a
small group emphasizing the (D)
development of a skill or
technique for solving a specific
problem.
3. A working hypothesis is 3.
(A) a proven hypothesis for an (A)
argument. (B)
(B) not required to be tested.
(C) a provisionally accepted (C)
hypothesis for further research.
(D) a scientific theory. (D)
W-00 3 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (4 to 9) :
The Taj Mahal has become one of the worlds best known monuments. This domed white
marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered garden,
evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside
the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais
and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other
imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given
specifically for the tombs support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but
it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tombs popular
name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-
Munavvara).
Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal
court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the grief-
stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six
months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the
mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had
belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from
the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singhs willing
cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price
was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleums commencement. Jai Singhs
further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding
that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within
his ancestral domain, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahans additions to the
Agra fort were constructed concurrently.
Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates
much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated
the Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal, the entire complex was virtually complete.

4. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral
domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
(A) Burhanpur (B) Makrana
(C) Amber (D) Jaipur

5. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by

(A) Shah Jahan (B) Tourists
(C) Public (D) European travellers

6. Point out the true statement from the following :

(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal.
7. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(A) Mumtazabad (B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad (D) Rauza-i-Munavvara
8. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A) 1632 1636 A.D. (B) 1630 1643 A.D.
(C) 1632 1643 A.D. (D) 1636 1643 A.D.
9. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as
(A) Farman (B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed (D) None of the above
W-00 4
4 9 :

305 549
- , ,
-,

,
: (--)

1631
-
,

- , ( )
,
1632 1637
,
,
- -
1632
1636 1643 -
,
4.
, ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
5. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
6. ?
(A)
(B)
(C) -
(D)
7. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) --
8. ?
(A) 1632-1636 .. (B) 1630-1643 ..
(C) 1632-1643 .. (D) 1636-1643 ..
9.
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
W-00 5 P.T.O.
10. In the process of communication, 10.
which one of the following is in the
chronological order ?
(A) Communicator, Medium,
Receiver, Effect, Message (A) , , , ,
(B) Medium, Communicator,
Message, Receiver, Effect (B) , , , ,
(C) Communicator, Message,
Medium, Receiver, Effect (C) , , , ,
(D) Message, Communicator,
Medium, Receiver, Effect (D) , , , ,
11. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper 11. 1780
in India was started in 1780 by ?
(A) Dr. Annie Besant (A) . .
(B) James Augustus Hicky (B)
(C) Lord Cripson (C)
(D) A.O. Hume (D) ..
12. Press censorship in India was imposed 12.
during the tenure of the Prime Minister ?
(A) Rajeev Gandhi (A)
(B) Narasimha Rao (B)
(C) Indira Gandhi (C)
(D) Deve Gowda (D)
13. Communication via New media such 13. , ,
as computers, teleshopping, internet
and mobile telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment (A)
(B) Interactive communication
(B)
(C) Developmental communication
(D) Communitarian (C)
(D)
14. Classroom communication of a 14.
teacher rests on the principle of ?
(A) Infotainment (A)
(B) Edutainment (B)
(C) Entertainment (C)
(D) Enlightenment
(D)
15. ________ is important when a teacher 15.
communicates with his/her student. _____
(A) Sympathy (A)
(B) Empathy (B)
(C) Apathy (C)
(D) Antipathy (D)
16. In a certain code GALIB is 16. HBMJC, GALIB
represented by HBMJC. TIGER will TIGER
be represented by ?
(A) UJHFS (B) UHJSF (A) UJHFS (B) UHJSF
(C) JHUSF (D) HUJSF (C) JHUSF (D) HUJSF
W-00 6
17. In a certain cricket tournament 45 17. 45
matches were played. Each team
played once against each of the other
teams. The number of teams
participated in the tournament is
(A) 8 (B) 10
(A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 14
(C) 12 (D) 14
18. The missing number in the series 18. ?
40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is 40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135
(A) 110 (B) 270 (A) 110 (B) 270
(C) 105 (D) 210
(C) 105 (D) 210
19. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which 19. 1 45 , 3
are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged ,
in an ascending order. The number at 6 , :
6th position is (A) 18 (B) 24
(A) 18 (B) 24
(C) 33 (D) 36
(C) 33 (D) 36
20. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 20. a, b, c, d 100
100. If c = 70, then the mean of the c = 70 ,
remaining numbers is ?
85
(A) 30 (B) 2 85
(A) 30 (B) 2
170
(C) (D) 110 170
3 (C) (D) 110
3
21. If the radius of a circle is increased by 21. 50%
50%, the perimeter of the circle will ?
increase by (A) 20% (B) 30%
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 50%
(C) 40% (D) 50%

22. If the statement some men are 22.

honest is false, which among the
following statements will be true.
Choose the correct code given below : :
(i) All men are honest. (i)
(ii) No men are honest. (ii)
(iii) Some men are not honest. (iii)
(iv) All men are dishonest. (iv)
Codes : :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (A) (i), (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (ii), (iii) (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (C) (i), (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii), (i) and (iv) (D) (ii), (i) (iv)
W-00 7 P.T.O.
23. Choose the proper alternative given in 23.
the codes to replace the question :
mark. , , ?
Bee Honey, Cow Milk, Teacher ?
(A) (B)
(A) Intelligence (B) Marks
(C) Lessons (D) Wisdom (C) (D)

24. P is the father of R and S is the son of 24. P, R S, Q , T, P

Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the R, S Q T
sister of S, how is Q related to T ? ?
(A) Wife (A)
(B) Sister-in-law (B)
(C) Brother-in-law (C)
(D) Daughter-in-law (D)
25. A definition put forward to resolve a 25.
dispute by influencing attitudes or
stirring emotions is called
(A) Lexical (B) Persuasive (A) (B)
(C) Stipulative (D) Precisions (C) (D)
26. Which of the codes given below 26.
contains only the correct statements ? :
Statements : :
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method
of notation.
(i)
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct (ii)
method of testing the validity of
categorical syllogisms.
(iii) In Venn diagram method the (iii)
premises and the conclusion of a
categorical syllogism is
diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the (iv)
three overlapping circles are
drawn for testing a categorical
syllogism. :
Codes : (A) (i), (ii) (iii)
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii) (B) (i), (ii) (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (C) (ii), (iii) (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) & (iv) (D) (i), (iii) (iv)
27. Inductive reasoning presupposes 27.
(A) unity in human nature
(A)
(B) integrity in human nature
(B)
(C) uniformity in human nature (C)
(D) harmony in human nature (D)
W-00 8
Read the table below and based on this 28 33
table answer questions from 28 to 33 :
Area under Major Horticulture Crops
(in lakh hectares) ( )
Year Fruits Vegetables Flowers Total
Horti-
culture
Area
2005-06 53 72 1 187 2005-06 53 72 1 187
2006-07 56 75 1 194 2006-07 56 75 1 194
2007-08 58 78 2 202 2007-08 58 78 2 202
2008-09 61 79 2 207 2008-09 61 79 2 207
2009-10 63 79 2 209 2009-2010 63 79 2 209

28. Which of the following two years 28.

have recorded the highest rate of :
increase in area under the total (A) 2005-06 2006-07
horticulture ? (B) 2006-07 2008-09
(A) 200506 & 200607 (C) 2007-08 2008-09
(B) 200607 & 200809 (D) 2006-07 2007-08
(C) 200708 & 200809 29. ,
(D) 200607 & 200708
29. Shares of the area under flowers, :
vegetables and fruits in the area under (A) 1, 38 30
total horticulture are respectively : (B) 30, 38 1
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent (C) 38, 30 1
(B) 30, 38 and 1 percent (D) 35, 36 2
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent 30. 2005-06 2009-10
(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
30. Which of the following has recorded ?
the highest rate of increase in area (A)
during 2005-06 to 2009-10 ? (B)
(A) Fruits (C)
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers (D)
(D) Total horticulture 31. 2005-06 2009-2010
31. Find out the horticultural crop that has
recorded an increase of area by around 10 ?
10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10 (A)
(A) Fruits (B)
(B) Vegetables (C)
(C) Flowers (D)
(D) Total horticulture
32. 2007-2008
32. What has been the share of area under ,
fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area ?
under total horticulture in 2007- 08 ? (A) 53 (B) 68
(A) 53 percent (B) 68 percent
(C) 79 percent (D) 100 percent (C) 79 (D) 100
33. In which year, area under fruits has 33.
recorded the highest rate of increase ? ?
(A) 2006-07 (B) 2007-08 (A) 2006-07 (B) 2007-08
(C) 2008-09 (D) 2009-10 (C) 2008-09 (D) 2009-2010
W-00 9 P.T.O.
34. www stands for 34.
(A) work with web (A)
(B) word wide web (B)
(C) world wide web (C)
(D) worth while web (D)
35. A hard disk is divided into tracks 35. ,
which is further subdivided into :
(A) Clusters (A)
(B) Sectors (B)
(C) Vectors (C)
(D) Heads (D)
36. A computer program that translates a 36. ,
program statement by statement into ,
machine language is called a/an

(A) Compiler
(A)
(B) Simulator
(B)
(C) Translator
(C)
(D) Interpreter
(D)
37. A Gigabyte is equal to 37. :
(A) 1024 Megabytes (A) 1024
(B) 1024 Kilobytes (B) 1024
(C) 1024 Terabytes (C) 1024
(D) 1024 Bytes (D) 1024

38. A Compiler is a software which 38. ,

converts :
(A) characters to bits
(B) high level language to machine (A)
language (B)
(C) machine language to high level
language (C)
(D) words to bits (D)

39. Virtual memory is 39.

(A) an extremely large main
memory. (A)
(B) an extremely large secondary (B)
memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large (C)
main memory.
(D) a type of memory used in super (D) ,
computers.
W-00 10
40. The phrase tragedy of commons is 40.
in the context of ?
(A) tragic event related to damage (A)
caused by release of poisonous :
gases.
(B) :
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free (C) :
access resources.
(D) climate change. (D)

41. Kyoto Protocol is related to 41. ?

(A) Ozone depletion (A)
(B) Hazardous waste (B)
(C) Climate change
(C)
(D) Nuclear energy
(D)

42. Which of the following is a source of 42.

emissions leading to the eventual
formation of surface ozone as a ?
pollutant ?
(A)
(A) Transport sector
(B)
(B) Refrigeration and Airconditioning
(C) Wetlands (C)
(D) Fertilizers (D)

43. The smog in cities in India mainly 43. :

consists of
(A)
(A) Oxides of sulphur
(B)
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt
hydrocarbons

(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM (C) ...
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone (D)

44. Which of the following types of 44.

natural hazards have the highest
potential to cause damage to humans ? ?
(A) Earthquakes (A)
(B) Forest fires (B)
(C) Volcanic eruptions (C)
(D) Droughts and Floods (D)
W-00 11 P.T.O.
45. The percentage share of renewable 45.
energy sources in the power
production in India is around
(A) 2-3% (B) 22-25%
(A) 2-3% (B) 22-25%
(C) 10-12% (D) < 1% (C) 10-12% (D) < 1%

47. Which one of the following 47.

statements is not correct about the
University Grants Commission (UGC) ? ?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an
Act of Parliament. (A) 1956
(B) It is tasked with promoting and
coordinating higher education. (B)
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan
funds from the Central
(C)
Government.
(D) It receives funds from State

Governments in respect of State (D)
Universities.
48. Consider the statement which is 48.
followed by two arguments (I) and (I) (II) :
(II) :
Statement : Should India switch :
over to a two party ?
system ? : (I) ,
Arguments : (I) Yes, it will lead
to stability of
Government. (II) ,
(II) No, it will limit the
choice of voters.
(A) (I)
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong. (B) (II)
(C) Both the arguments are strong. (C)
(D) Neither of the arguments is
strong. (D)

W-00 12
49. Consider the statement which is 49. (I)
followed by two arguments (I) and (II) :
(II) :
Statement : Should persons with :
criminal background be
banned from contesting ?
elections ?
: (I) ,
Arguments : (I) Yes, it will
decriminalise politics.

(II) No, it will (II) ,
encourage the
ruling party to file
frivolous cases
against their
political opponents. (A) (I)
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(B) (II)
(C) Both the arguments are strong. (C)
(D) Neither of the arguments is
strong. (D)

50. Which of the following statement(s) 50.

is/are correct about a Judge of the
Supreme Court of India ? ?
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is 1.
appointed by the President of
India.
2.
2. He holds office during the
pleasure of the President.

3. He can be suspended, pending 3.
an inquiry.
4. He can be removed for proven 4.
misbehaviour or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the :
codes given below : :
Codes : (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 3 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 1 3 (D) 1 4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
51. In the warrant of precedence, the 51.
Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next ?
only to
(A)
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President (B)
(C) The Prime Minister (C)
(D) The Cabinet Ministers (D)
W-00 13 P.T.O.
52. The black-board can be utilised best 52.
by a teacher for ?
(A) putting the matter of teaching in (A) -
black and white

(B) making the students attentive
(B) -
(C) writing the important and
notable points (C)
(D) highlighting the teacher himself (D)

53. Nowadays the most effective mode of 53.

learning is
(A) :
(A) self study
(B) -
(B) face-to-face learning
(C) e-learning (C) -
(D) blended learning (D)

54. At the primary school stage, most of the 54.

teachers should be women because they
(A) can teach children better than (A)
men.
(B)
(B) know basic content better than
men.
(C) are available on lower salaries. (C)
(D) can deal with children with love (D)
and affection.
55. Which one is the highest order of 55. ?
learning ?
(A)
(A) Chain learning
(B) -
(B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning (C) -
(D) Conditioned-reflex learning (D) -

56. A person can enjoy teaching as a 56.

profession when he ,
(A) has control over students. (A)
(B) commands respect from students.
(B)
(C) is more qualified than his
colleagues. (C)
(D) is very close to higher
authorities. (D)
W-00 14
57. A diagram speaks more than 1000 57. 1000
words. The statement means that the
teacher should (A)
(A) use diagrams in teaching.
(B) speak more and more in the (B)
class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class. (C) -
(D) not speak too much in the class.
(D)

58. A research paper 58.

(A) is a compilation of information (A)
on a topic.
(B) contains original research as (B)
deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original (C)
research or evaluation of
research conducted by others.

(D) can be published in more than
(D)
one journal.

59. Which one of the following belongs to 59.
the category of good research ethics ? ?
(A) Publishing the same paper in
two research journals without (A)
telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the
literature that acknowledges the
(B)
contributions of other people in
the relevant field or relevant
prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data (C)
set without discussing your
reasons in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an
author on a research paper in (D)
return for a favour even though
the colleague did not make a
serious contribution to the
paper. -

60. Which of the following sampling 60.

methods is not based on probability ? ?
(A) Simple Random Sampling (A)
(B) Stratified Sampling (B)
(C) Quota Sampling (C)
(D) Cluster Sampling (D)
W-00 15 P.T.O.
Space For Rough Work

W-00
W-00 16
UGC - NET JUNE 2013
PAPER : PAPER I
DOE :08-09-2013
BOOKLET CODE : W
-------------------------------------------------
| QNO | KEY | QNO | KEY | QNO | KEY | QNO | KEY |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 1 | A | 26 | C | 51 | D | 76 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 2 | A | 27 | D | 52 | B | 77 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 3 | B | 28 | D | 53 | D | 78 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 4 | D | 29 | D | 54 | D | 79 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 5 | A | 30 | D | 55 | C | 80 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 6 | D | 31 | D | 56 | D | 81 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 7 | C | 32 | A | 57 | A | 82 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 8 | C | 33 | D | 58 | D | 83 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 9 | D | 34 | D | 59 | D | 84 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 10 | D | 35 | B | 60 | C | 85 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 11 | A | 36 | A | 61 | | 86 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 12 | B | 37 | B | 62 | | 87 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 13 | A | 38 | B | 63 | | 88 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 14 | B | 39 | C | 64 | | 89 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 15 | B | 40 | D | 65 | | 90 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 16 | B | 41 | B | 66 | | 91 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 17 | B | 42 | C | 67 | | 92 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 18 | B | 43 | B | 68 | | 93 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 19 | A | 44 | B | 69 | | 94 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 20 | C | 45 | D | 70 | | 95 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 21 | A | 46 | C | 71 | | 96 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 22 | A | 47 | B | 72 | | 97 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 23 | C | 48 | A | 73 | | 98 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 24 | B | 49 | C | 74 | | 99 | |
|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|
| 25 | C | 50 | A | 75 | | 100 | |
-------------------------------------------------
Signature and Name of Invigilator PAPER-I
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
S
1
00
Time : 1 /4 hours]
1 3
Test Booklet Code W
(In words)

[Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) - /
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
- /
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag (ii) -
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in /
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a -
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) - OMR
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
OMR -
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. : (C)
Example : 5. - I - II OMR
where (C) is the correct response. OMR
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for ,
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. (Rough Work)
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. OMR ,
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put ,
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space , ,
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your ,
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
9. OMR
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not

carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on OMR
conclusion of examination. 10. /
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ()
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12.
W-00 P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained

Obtained
Question

Obtained
Obtained

Question
Number

Number
Marks

(Evaluation) Date .........................

W-00 2
Paper I
I
Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.
: (60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)
1. The world population growth rate at a 1.
certain reference year was 3.5%.
Assuming exponential growth of 3.5%
population, after how many years, the
population of the world would have 16 ?
increased by a factor 16 ? (A) ~ 80 (B) ~ 40
(A) ~ 80 years (B) ~ 40 years
(C) ~ 160 years (D) ~ 320 years (C) ~ 160 (D) ~ 320
2. Telephone is an example of 2.
(A) linear communication ?
(B) non-linear communication (A) (B)
(C) circular (C) (D)
(D) mechanised
3. Means of grapevine communication 3.
are (A) (B)
(A) formal (B) informal (C) (D)
(C) critical (D) corporate
4. Communication issues at the 4.
international level are addressed by ?
(A) ILO (B) ITU (A) (B)
(C) UNDP (D) UNESCO (C) (D)
5. Referential framing used by TV 5. ,
audience connects media with ?
(A) reality (B) falsity (A) (B)
(C) negativity (D) passivity (C) (D)
6. The communicated knowledge in a 6.
classroom is considered as ?
(A) non-pervasive treasure (A) -
(B) limited judgement (B)
(C) autonomous virtue (C)
(D) cultural capital (D)
7. Classroom communication is 7. : ?
normally considered as (A) (B)
(A) effective (B) affective
(C) cognitive (D) non-selective (C) (D) -
8. A person writes all the numbers from 8. 0 99
0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 3
will be written is ?
(A) 18 (B) 19 (A) 18 (B) 19
(C) 20 (D) 21 (C) 20 (D) 21
W-00 3 P.T.O.
9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 9. A
metres towards west, he then turns to 14 ,
his right and walks 14 metres and then 14
turns to his left and walks 10 metres. 10
He again turns to his left and walks 14 : 14
metres and reaches to the point E. The E A E
shortest distance between A and E is ?
(A) 38 (B) 42
(A) 38 (B) 42
(C) 52 (D) 24
(C) 52 (D) 24
10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around 10. A, B, C, D, E F
a round table. A is between E and F. E A, E F E,
is opposite to D and C is not in either D C, E
of the neighbouring seats of E. The - B
person opposite to B is
?
(A) C (B) D
(A) C (B) D (C) A (D) F
(C) A (D) F
11. The missing term in the series 11. ( )
2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is ?
2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723
(A) 238 (B) 432 (A) 238 (B) 432
(C) 542 (D) 320 (C) 542 (D) 320
12. In certain city the Taxi charges 12.
comprise of a fixed charge and the :
charge of the distance travelled. A 16
person paid ` 156 for a journey of ` 156/-
16 km and another person paid ` 204 24
for the journey of 24 km. The amount ` 204/-
paid by a passenger who has travelled 30
30 km is ?
(A) 236 (B) 240 (A) 236 (B) 240
(C) 248 (D) 256 (C) 248 (D) 256
13. In certain code HEALTH is written as 13. HEALTH KHDOWK
KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be NORTH
(A) QRUWK (B) RQWUK (A) QRUWK (B) RQWUK
(C) RWQUK (D) RWUKQ (C) RWQUK (D) RWUKQ
14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play 14. , ,
cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis
but do not play football. Yadav does
not play Badminton but play golf.
Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal -
sometimes plays Badminton. Who
?
does play only cricket ?
(A) Yadav (B) Arjun (A) (B)
(C) Rajesh (D) Kamal (C) (D)

W-00 4
15. A deductive argument can not be 15.
valid : (A) / - /
(A) If its premise / premises is/are
true and its conclusion is true.
(B) / - /
(B) If its premise / premises is /are
true and its conclusion is false.
(C) If its premise / premises is/are (C) / -
false and its conclusion is false. /
(D) If its premise / premises is / are (D) / -
false and its conclusion is true. /
16. An analogical argument is 16.
strengthened by ?
(A) making the claim bolder while (A) -
its premises remain unchanged.
(B) reducing the claim made on the (B) -
basis of the premises affirmed.
(C) remaining the claim unchanged

while the evidence in its support (C)
is found to exhibit greater
frailty.
(D) None of the above. (D)

17. If two propositions cannot both be 17.

false but may both be true, what is the
relation between the two propositions ? ,
(A) Contrary (A)
(B) Sub-contrary (B) -
(C) Sub-alternation (C)
(D) Contradictory (D)
18. Given below are some codes of 18. -
arrangements of three items in order of
wider scope. Select the correct code. :
(A) Garments, cloth and shirts (A) ,
(B) Cloth, garments and shirts (B) ,
(C) Shirts, garments and cloth (C) ,
(D) Garments, shirts and cloth (D) ,
19. What is equivalent of the statement 19.
All atheists are pessimists ? ?
(A) All non-pessimists are non- (A) - -
atheists.
(B) - -
(B) All non-atheists are non-
pessimists. (C)
(C) All pessimists are atheists. (D)
(D) None of the above.
W-00 5 P.T.O.
In the following table, trends in production
of energy in India by primary sources are
given. Study the table and answer 20 23 :
Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in
peta Joules)
( )
Year Coal &
Crude
Natural Electricity Total
Petro-
Lignite
leum
Gas (Hydro & (
Nuclear)
)
2006-07 7459 1423 1223 4763 14,868
2006-07 7459 1423 1223 4763 14,868
2007-08 7926 1429 1248 4944 15,547
2007-08 7926 1429 1248 4944 15,547
2008-09 8476 1403 1265 5133 16,277 2008-09 8476 1403 1265 5133 16,277

2009-10 9137 1411 1830 4511 16,889 2009-10 9137 1411 1830 4511 16,889
2010-11 9207 1579 2012 5059 17,857
2010-11 9207 1579 2012 5059 17,857

20. In which year primary sources 20.

recorded the lowest growth in total ?
production of energy ? (A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09
(A) 200708 (B) 200809
(C) 200910 (D) 201011 (C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11

21. Which source of energy has shown 21. 2006-07 2010-11

the highest growth rate in production
during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ? ?
(A) Coal & lignite (A)
(B) Crude petroleum (B)
(C) Hydro & nuclear electricity (C)
(D) Total production of energy (D)
22. Which one of the following primary 22. 2008-09
sources of energy has recorded the ?
highest growth in production in
200809 ? (A)
(A) Coal & lignite (B)
(B) Crude petroleum (C)
(C) Natural gas
(D) Hydro & nuclear electricity (D)
23. In which year, production of hydro 23.
and nuclear electricity was almost
double the production of crude ?
petroleum and natural gas taken
together ? (A) 2006-07 (B) 2007-08
(A) 200607 (B) 200708 (C) 2008-09 (D) 2009-10
(C) 200809 (D) 200910
W-00 6
24. The Internet ethical protocol is called 24. ?
(A) net protocol (B) netiquette (A) (B)
(C) net ethics (D) net morality
(C) (D)

25. Commercial messages on the net are 25. ?

identified as
(A)
(A) Net ads
(B)
(B) Internet commercials
(C)
(C) Webmercials
(D) Viral advertisements
(D)

26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use 26.

the term ?
(A) Internet society (A)
(B) Electronic society (B)
(C) Network society (C)
(D) Telematic society (D)

27. GIF ?
27. GIF stands for
(A) Global Information Format (A)
(B) Graphics Information Format (B)
(C) Graphics Interchange File (C)
(D) Graphics Interchange Format (D)

28. Which one of the following is not an 28.

Operating System ? ?
(A) IBM AIX (A)
(B) Linux (B)
(C) Sun Solaris (C)
(D) Firefox (D)
W-00 7 P.T.O.
29. Which of the following is/are a 29. /
minority institution(s) ? / ?
1. Punjabi University, Patiala 1. ,
2. Osmania University, Hyderabad 2. ,
3. Kashmir University, Srinagar
4. St. Stephens College, Delhi 3. ,
Select the correct answer from the 4. ,
code given below : :
Codes : :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4 (A) 1 2 (B) 2 4
(C) 2 only (D) 4 only (C) 2 (D) 4
30. Which of the following statements are 30. (NAC)
correct about the National Advisory ?
Council (NAC) ? 1.
1. The National Advisory Council
is a statutory body.

2. It is headed by the Prime 2.
Minister of India. 3.
3. It facilitates constant interaction -
with the leaders of civil society.
4. It provides policy and legislative 4.
inputs to the Government of
India.

Select the correct answer from the :
code given below : :
Codes : (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 2, 3 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 4 (D) 3 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4

31. Which of the following are voluntary 31. 73 (1992)

provisions in the 73rd Constitutional ?
Amendment Act (1992) ?
1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting
1.
elections to Panchayats. 21
2. Indirect elections to the post of 2.
Chairperson of Panchayats at the
intermediate and district levels.
3. Representation of Members of 3.
Parliament and State Legislature
on Panchayati Raj institutions.
4. Reservation of seats for backward
classes.
4.
Select the correct answer from the :
code given below : :
Codes : (A) 1, 2 4 (B) 2, 3 4
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 3 (D) 3 4

W-00 8
32. In which of the following States the 32.
segment of population, which is in , ,
majority, enjoys the benefit of ?
reservation of seats in the State
Assembly ? (A)
(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram (B)
(B) Assam and Nagaland (C)
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(D)
(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh

33. Which of the following are the ways 33.

of acquiring Indian citizenship ? ?
1. Birth 1.
2. Descent 2. ()
3. Naturalisation 3.
4. Incorporation of territory 4.
Select the correct answer from the

code given below : :
Codes :
:
(A) 1 2 (B) 1 4
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

34. Which of the following statements 34.

about the Union Public Service ?
Commission are correct ? 1.
1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.
2. It serves as an advisory body.
2.

3. It is called upon to advise the 3.
Government in regard to
representation of the Scheduled

Castes and Scheduled Tribes in
the Civil Service.
4.
4. It is consulted on appointments
of Chairman and members of

Tribunals and Commissions.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below : :
Codes : :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 2 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2 (C) 1, 3 4 (D) 1 2

W-00 9 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40 :
I had occasion to work with her closely during the Womens International Year in 1975
when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity.
Representatives from different political parties and womens organizations were on the
committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna
encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her
involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty
in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable
person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human
spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.
In later years around late eighties and early nineties Aruna Asaf Alis health began to
deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes
action for womens advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation
of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had
drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely
person. She passed away in July 1996.
35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?
(A) Womens International Years Committee
(B) Steering Committee of Womens International Year
(C) A Committee of Publicity
(D) Womens Organizations
36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?
Choose the answer from codes given below :
(i) Representatives from different political parties.
(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.
(iii) Representatives from the womens organizations.
(iv) None of the above.
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii) (B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) (D) (iv)
37. Aruna earned respect because of
(A) she identified with the leftists
(B) she did not associate with any political party
(C) chairing a Steering Committee
(D) she identified with womens organizations
38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?
(A) Women Organizations (B) Leftists
(C) Steering Committee (D) Some Political Parties
39. Arunas health began to deteriorate from
(A) 1985 2002 (B) 1998 2000
(C) 1981 2000 (D) 1989 2001
40. Arunas pet cause(s) in her life was/ were
(A) Role of media (B) Economic justice
(C) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs (D) All the above

W-00 10
35 40 :
1975

,

, -

1980 1990
, ,
, , , :,
-
- , 1996

35. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. ? :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
:
(A) (i), (iii) (B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) (D) (iv)
37.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
39. ?
(A) 1985-2002 (B) 1998-2000
(C) 1981-2000 (D) 1989-2001
40. / / ?
(A) (B)
(C) : (D)
W-00 11 P.T.O.
41. A good teacher must be 41. :
(A)
(A) resourceful and autocratic (B)
(B) resourceful and participative
(C)
(C) resourceful and authoritative
(D)
(D) resourceful and dominant

42. Which one of the following is the best 42.

method of teaching ? ?
(A) Lecture method (A)
(B) Discussion method (B)
(C) Demonstration method (C)
(D) Question-Answer method (D)

43. Successful Communication in 43.

classroom teaching is ?
(A) Circular (A)
(B) Reciprocal (B)
(C) Directional (C)
(D) Influential (D) ()

44. Which one of the following types of 44.

evaluation assesses the learning
progress to provide continuous
feedback to both teachers and students ?
during instruction ?
(A)
(A) Placement evaluation
(B) Formative evaluation (B)
(C) Diagnostic evaluation (C)
(D) Summative (D)
45. Which one of the following is a scaled 45.
down teaching situation ? ?
(A) Macro teaching (A)
(B) Team teaching (B)
(C) Cooperative teaching (C)
(D) Micro teaching (D)

W-00 12
46. CLASS stands for 46. CLASS
(A) Complete Literacy and Studies (A)
in Schools
(B) Computer Literates and (B)
Students in Schools
(C) Computer Literacy and Studies (C)
in Schools
(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies (D)
in Schools
47. Which one of the following is not a 47.
type of experimental method ? ?
(A) Single group experiment (A)
(B) Residual group experiment (B)
(C) Parallel group experiment (C)
(D) Rational group experiment (D)

48. Which one of the following is not a 48.

non-parametric test ? ?
(A) t-test (A) -
(B) Sign test (B)
(C) Chi-square test (C) -
(D) Run test (D)

49. Read the following statements one 49.

labelled as Assertion (A) and the other (A) (R)
as Reason (R) : :
Assertion (A) : Qualitative research
in India has a long way to go to (A) :
reach international standards.
Reason (R) : Because the funding
agencies do not support (R) :
qualitative research in academic
institutions.
Find the correct answer from the
codes given below : :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (A) (A) (R) (R),
(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (B) (A) (R) , (R),
(R) is not the correct (A)
explanation of (A). (C) (A) , (R)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) (R)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
W-00 13 P.T.O.
50. Identify the correct sequence of 50. :
research steps :
(A) , ,
(A) Selection of topic, review of
literature, data collection, ,
interpretation of findings (B) , ,
(B) Review of literature, selection
of topic, data collection,
,
interpretation of findings (C) , ,
(C) Selection of topic, data ,
collection, review of literature,
interpretation of findings (D) , ,
(D) Selection of topic, review of ,
literature, interpretation of
findings, data collection
51. Deconstruction is a popular method of 51.
research in ?
(A) Basic Science (A)
(B) Applied Science (B)
(C) Social Science (C)
(D) Literature (D)

52. With which one of the following 52. ( )

techniques communality is associated ? ?
(A) Univariate analysis (A)
(B) Factor analysis (B)
(C) Case studies (C)
(D) SWOT analysis (D)

53. The variable which impacts the 53.

relationship between an independent ?
variable and a dependent variable is (A)
known as
(A) antecedent variable (B)
(B) precedent variable (C)
(C) predictor variable (D)
(D) control variable
54. Which one of the following is a non- 54.
probability sampling method ? ?
(A) Simple Random Sampling (A)
(B) Stratified Sampling (B)
(C) Cluster Sampling (C)
(D) Quota Sampling (D)
55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change 55. 2022
Action Plan of Government of India -
aims at installing ?
(A) 20,000 MW of wind power (A) 20,000
(B) 25,000 MW of wind power (B) 25,000
(C) 20,000 MW of solar power (C) 20,000
(D) 10,000 MW of solar power (D) 10,000
W-00 14
56. Which one of the following biosphere 56. -
reserves has UNESCO recognition ? (UNESCO) ?
(A) Manas (A)
(B) Kanchenjunga (B)
(C) Seshachalam Hills (C)
(D) Greater Nicobar (D)

57. Which activity contributes to water 57.

pollution more than any other ?
throughout world ? (A)
(A) Agriculture (B)
(B) Hydroelectric power generation (C)
(C) Industry
(D)
(D) Urbanisation

58. Match List I with List II and find 58. I II

the correct answer from the codes
given below : :
List I List II I II
(Biosphere (Area of ( (-)
Reserve) Location)
a. Nilgiri i. Deccan
)
Peninsula a. i.
b. Manas ii. Chhattisgarh b. ii.
c. Similipal iii. Eastern c. iii.
Himalaya d. iv.
d. Achankmar- iv. Western
Amarkantak Ghat :
Codes : a b c d
a b c d (A) i ii iii iv
(A) i ii iii iv (B) ii iii iv i
(B) ii iii iv i (C) iii iv ii i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
(D) iv iii i ii
59. G5 are the five most important 59. -5
emerging economies of world. Which
one of the following does not form -5 ?
part of G5 ? (A) (B)
(A) Mexico (B) Brazil (C) (D)
(C) China (D) Korea
60. Which of the following nations has 60.
the maximum per capita emissions of
carbon di-oxide ? ?
(A) China (A)
(B) Japan (B)
(C) USA (C)
(D) India (D)
W-00 15 P.T.O.
Space For Rough Work

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
D
1
00
Time : 1 /4 hours]
1 3
Test Booklet Code W
(In words)

[Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) - /
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : - /
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag (ii) -
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(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in /
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page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a -
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will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
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should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. : (C)
Example : 5. - I - II OMR
where (C) is the correct response. OMR
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for ,
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. (Rough Work)
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. OMR ,
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put ,
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space , ,
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your ,
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators 9. OMR
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on OMR
conclusion of examination. 10. /
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ()
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, 13. ,
English version will be taken as final.
W-00 P.T.O.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained

Obtained
Question

Obtained
Obtained

Question
Number

Number
Marks

(Evaluation) Date .........................

8. The first multi-lingual news agency of 8. -

India was ?
(A) Samachar (A)
(B) API (B)
(C) Hindustan Samachar (C)
(D) Samachar Bharati (D)

9. Organisational communication can 9.

also be equated with ?
(A) intra-personal communication. (A) :
(B) inter-personal communication. (B)
(C)
(C) group communication.
(D)
(D) mass communication.

10. If two propositions having the same 10.

subject and predicate terms are such
that one is the denial of the other, the
relationship between them is called ?
(A) Contradictory (A)
(B) Contrary (B)
(C) Sub-contrary (C) -
(D) Sub-alternation (D)

11. Ananya and Krishna can speak and 11.

follow English. Bulbul can write and
speak Hindi as Archana does.
Archana talks with Ananya also in
Bengali. Krishna can not follow
Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in

Hindi. Who can speak and follow
,
English, Hindi and Bengali ? ?
(A)
(A) Archana
(B)
(B) Bulbul
(C)
(C) Ananya (D)
(D) Krishna
W-00 4
12. A stipulative definition may be said to 12.
be ?
(A) Always true (A)
(B) Always false (B)
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes (C) ,
false
(D)
(D) Neither true nor false

13. When the conclusion of an argument 13.

follows from its premise/premises /
conclusively, the argument is called ?
(A) Circular argument (A)
(B) Inductive argument (B)
(C) Deductive argument (C)
(D) Analogical argument (D)

14. Saturn and Mars are planets like the 14.

earth. They borrow light from the Sun
and moves around the Sun as the
Earth does. So those planets are
inhabited by various orders of
creatures as the earth is.
What type of argument is contained in ?
the above passage ? (A)
(A) Deductive (B) Astrological (B) -
(C) Analogical (D) Mathematical (C)
(D)
15. Given below are two premises. Four 15.
conclusions are drawn from those two
premises in four codes. Select the code
that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises :
(i) All saints are religious. (major) :
(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (i) ()
(minor)
(ii) ()
Codes :
:
(A) All saints are honest.
(A)
(B) Some saints are honest.
(B)
(C) Some honest persons are
religious. (C)
(D) All religious persons are honest. (D)
W-00 5 P.T.O.
Following table provides details about the
Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India (
from different regions of the world in
different years. Study the table carefully )
and answer questions from 16 to 19 based 16
on this table. 19 :
Number of Foreign Tourist
Region Arrivals

2007 2008 2009 2007 2008 2009
Western 1686083 1799525 1610086 1686083 1799525 1610086
Europe 1007276 1027297 1024469
North 1007276 1027297 1024469 982428 1051846 982633
America
303475 332925 348495
South Asia 982428 1051846 982633

South East 303475 332925 348495
Asia
352037 355230 318292
East Asia 352037 355230 318292 171661 215542 201110
West Asia 171661 215542 201110 5081504 5282603 5108579
Total FTAs 5081504 5282603 5108579
in India
16. Find out the region that contributed 16. 2009
around 20 percent of the total foreign 20
tourist arrivals in India in 2009. ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America (A) (B)
(C) South Asia (C) (D)
(D) South East Asia
17. Which of the following regions has 17. 2009
recorded the highest negative growth
rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India ?
in 2009 ? (A)
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America (B)
(C) South Asia (C)
(D) West Asia (D)
18. Find out the region that has been 18. 2008 2009
showing declining trend in terms of
share of foreign tourist arrivals in ?
India in 2008 and 2009. (A)
(A) Western Europe (B)
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia (C)
(D) West Asia (D)
19. Identify the region that has shown 19.
hyper growth rate of foreign tourist
arrivals than the growth rate of the 2008 ?
total FTAs in India in 2008. (A)
(A) Western Europe (B)
(B) North America (C)
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia (D)
W-00 6
20. The post-industrial society is 20. -
designated as :
(A) Information society (A)
(B) Technology society (B)
(C) Mediated society (C)
(D) Non-agricultural society (D) -
21. The initial efforts for internet based 21.
communication was for ?
(A) Commercial communication (A)
(B) Military purposes (B)
(C) Personal interaction (C)
(D) Political campaigns (D)
22. Internal communication within 22.
institutions is done through ?
(A) LAN (A) ( )
(B) WAN (B) ( )
(C) EBB (C)
(D) MMS (D)
23. Virtual reality provides 23.
(A) Sharp pictures (A)
(B) Individual audio (B)
(C) Participatory experience (C)
(D) Preview of new films (D)
24. The first virtual university of India 24.
came up in ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (A)
(B) Maharashtra (B)
(C) Uttar Pradesh (C)
(D) Tamil Nadu (D)
25. Arrange the following books in 25.
chronological order in which they
appeared. Use the code given below : :
(i) Limits to Growth (i)
(ii) Silent Spring (ii)
(iii) Our Common Future (iii)
(iv) Resourceful Earth (iv)
Codes : :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
W-00 7 P.T.O.
26. Which one of the following continents 26.
is at a greater risk of desertification ? ?
(A) Africa (A)
(B) Asia (B)
(C) South America (C)
(D) North America (D)
27. Women are closer to nature than 27.
men. What kind of perspective is this ? ?
(A) Realist (B) Essentialist (A) (B)
(C) Feminist (D) Deep ecology (C) (D)
28. Which one of the following is not a 28.
matter a global concern in the removal
of tropical forests ?
(A) Their ability to absorb the
?
chemicals that contribute to (A)
depletion of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the
oxygen and carbon balance of (B)
the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface (C) , ,
and air temperatures, moisture
content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the
(D) -
biological diversity of the planet.
29. The most comprehensive approach to 29. -
address the problems of man-
environment interaction is one of the ?
following :
(A) Natural Resource Conservation (A)
Approach (B) -
(B) Urban-industrial Growth
Oriented Approach (C) -
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth
Oriented Approach (D)
(D) Watershed Development Approach
30. The major source of the pollutant gas, 30.
carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban (CO),
areas is (A)
(A) Thermal power sector (B)
(B) Transport sector
(C)
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector (D)

31. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the 31.

energy is obtained from the ?
combustion of (A) (B)
(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen (C) (D)
(C) LPG (D) CNG
W-00 8
32. Which one of the following Councils 32. 2013
has been disbanded in 2013 ? ?
(A) Distance Education Council (A) ( )
(DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher (B)
Education (NCTE) ( )
(C) National Council of Educational (C)
Research and Training ( )
(NCERT) (D)
(D) National Assessment and
Accreditation Council (NAAC) ( )
33. Which of the following statements are 33.
correct about the National Assessment ?
and Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
1.
2. It is tasked with the 2.
responsibility of assessing and
accrediting institutions of higher
education. 3.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices. 4.
Select the correct answer from the :
codes given below : :
Codes : (A) 1 3 (B) 1 2
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 4 (D) 2, 3 4

34. The power of the Supreme Court of 34.

India to decide disputes between two
or more States falls under its ?
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction (A)
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction (B)
(C) Original Jurisdiction (C)
(D) Writ Jurisdiction (D)
35. Which of the following statements are 35. ?
correct ? 1. -
1. There are seven Union
Territories in India. 2. -
2. Two Union Territories have 3. -
Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High 4. -
Court.
4. One Union Territory is the :
capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the (A) 1 3
codes given below : (B) 2 4
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only (C) 2, 3 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
W-00 9 P.T.O.
36. Which of the following statements are 36.
correct about the Central Information ?
Commission ? 1.
1. The Central Information
Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information
2.
Commissioner and other
Information Commissioners are
appointed by the President of 3. ` 25,000/-
India.
3. The Commission can impose 4.
a penalty upto a maximum of
` 25,000/-

4. It can punish an errant officer.
:
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below : :
Codes : (A) 1 2
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 1, 2 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
37. Who among the following conducted 37. 18 267
the CNN-IBN The Hindu 2013 -
Election Tracker Survey across 267 2013 ?
constituencies in 18 States ? (A)
(A) The Centre for the Study of ( )
Developing Societies (CSDS) (B)
(B) The Association for Democratic ( )
Reforms (ADR) (C)
(C) CNN and IBN (D) ,
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
38. In certain code TEACHER is written 38. TEACHER
as VGCEJGT. The code of VGCEJGT
CHILDREN will be
CHILDREN ?
(A) EKNJFTGP
(A) EKNJFTGP (B) EJKNFTGP (B) EJKNFTGP
(C) KNJFGTP (D) None of these (C) KNJFGTP
(D)
39. A person has to buy both apples and 39.
mangoes. The cost of one apple is ` 7
` 7/- whereas that of a mango is ` 5/-.
If the person has ` 38, the number of
` 5 ` 38
apples he can buy is , ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 (C) 3 (D) 4
W-00 10
40. A man pointing to a lady said, The 40. ,
son of her only brother is the brother
of my wife. The lady is related to the ?
man as (A)
(A) Mothers sister (B)
(B) Grand mother (C)
(C) Mother-in-law
(D)
(D) Sister of Father-in-law
41. In this series 41. :
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2,
2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs 2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6
of successive numbers have a
difference of 2 each ? 2 ?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8 (C) 6 (D) 8
42. The mean marks obtained by a class 42. 40
of 40 students is 65. The mean marks 65
of half of the students is found to be 45
45. The mean marks of the remaining ?
students is (A) 85 (B) 60
(A) 85 (B) 60
(C) 70 (D) 65
(C) 70 (D) 65
43. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three 43.
years ago, he was three times as old as
Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years (A) 6
(B) 8 years (B) 8
(C) 12 years (C) 12
(D) 16 years
(D) 16
44. Which of the following is a social 44. ?
network ? (A) .
(A) amazon.com (B) -
(B) eBay
(C) .
(C) gmail.com
(D)
(D) Twitter
45. The population information is called 45.
parameter while the corresponding ?
sample information is known as (A) ()
(A) Universe (B)
(B) Inference
(C)
(C) Sampling design
(D)
(D) Statistics
W-00 11 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 46 to 51 :
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study
of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with
UNESCOs assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has
done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards,
and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in
global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian
conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and
dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have
demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand,
India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys
indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable
heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological
Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to
overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training
institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream
research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to
redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to
enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps
overemphasise. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the
quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to
integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the
heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and
conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian
National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial
state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green
building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a
vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.
46. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation
and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCOs assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASIs measures to protect the monuments.
47. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration.
48. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of
awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of Indias meaningful assistance.
49. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of
protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of
protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent (B) 11 percent (C) 12 percent (D) 13 percent
50. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (i), (ii) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)
51. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full
form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

W-00 12
46 51 :
1959 (ICCROM)
126 -
4,000 ,
,
, -
,
, ,
, 6,600 60,000

150
,

-
-
, :
:
, - - -
, -

: ,

46. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47. - ?
(A) 126
(B)
(C)
(D)
48.
(A)
(B) -
(C) , -
(D)
49. ,
?
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13
50. ?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (i), (ii) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)
51. INTACH INTACH
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
W-00 13 P.T.O.
P.T.O.
52. While delivering lecture if there is 52. -
some disturbance in the class, a ?
teacher should
(A)
(A) keep quiet for a while and then
continue.

(B) punish those causing (B)
disturbance. (C)
(C) motivate to teach those causing
disturbance.
(D)
(D) not bother of what is happening
in the class.

53. Effective teaching is a function of 53. ?

(A) Teachers satisfaction. (A)
(B) Teachers honesty and
(B)
commitment.
(C) Teachers making students learn (C)
and understand.
(D) Teachers liking for professional (D)
excellence.
54. The most appropriate meaning of 54.
learning is
(A) -
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour (B) -
(C) Personal adjustment (C)
(D) Inculcation of knowledge (D)
55. Arrange the following teaching 55. -
process in order : :
(i) Relate the present knowledge
(i)
with previous one
(ii) Evaluation (ii)
(iii) Reteaching (iii)
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives (iv) -
(v) Presentation of instructional
(v) -
materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v) (B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii) (C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii) (D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
W-00 14
56. CIET stands for 56. CIET ?
(A) Centre for Integrated Education (A)
and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering (B)
and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education (C)
Technology

(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation
(D)
Techniques.
57. Teachers role at higher education 57. ?
level is to (A)
(A) provide information to students. (B)
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition (C)
among students.
(D) help students to solve their (D)
problems.
58. The Verstehen School of 58.
Understanding was popularised by ?
(A) German Social Scientists (A)
(B) American Philosophers (B)
(C) British Academicians (C)
(D) Italian Political Analysts (D)
59. The sequential operations in scientific 59. ?
research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of (A) , ,
Spurious Relations, Generalisation, ,
Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, (B) , , ,
Theorisation, Elimination of
Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, (C) , ,
Elimination of Spurious ,
Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, (D) ,
Theorisation, Generalisation,
Co-variation.
, ,
60. In sampling, the lottery method is 60.
used for ?
(A) Interpretation (A) ()
(B) Theorisation (B)
(C) Conceptualisation (C)
(D) Randomisation
(D) ()
W-00 15 P.T.O.
Space For Rough Work

W-00 16
UGC - NET DECEMBER 2013
ANSWER KEYS (Paper I)

Question Number W X Y Z
1 D A A D
2 B B B C
3 B A C A
4 B C D C
5 D D C D
6 B C A D
7 C A B A
8 C B D B
9 C A D C
10 A D C B
11 C B A B
12 D B C D
13 C A D C
14 C B D C
15 C C A B
16 B D B D
17 D C C C
18 A A B B
19 C B B A
20 A D D A
21 B D C D
22 A C C D
23 C A B B
24 D C D B
25 C D C B
26 A D B D
27 B A A B
28 A B A C
29 D C D C
30 B B D C
31 B B B A
32 A D B C
33 B C B D
34 C C D C
35 D B B C
36 C D C C
37 A C C B
38 B B C D
39 D A A A
40 D A C C
41 C D D A
42 A D C B
43 C B C A
44 D B C C
45 D B B D
46 A D D C
47 B B A A
48 C C C B
49 B C A A
50 B C B D
51 D A A B
52 C C C B
53 C D D A
54 B C C B
55 D C A C
56 C C B D
57 B B A C
58 A D D A
59 A A B B
60 D C B D
Signature and Name of Invigilator PAPER-I
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
J 00
Time : 1 1/4 hours]
1 4
Test Booklet Code W
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) - /
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : - /
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag (ii) -
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in /
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a -
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet (iii) - OMR
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
OMR -
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. : (C)
Example : 5. - I - II OMR
where (C) is the correct response. OMR
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for ,
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. (Rough Work)
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. OMR ,
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put ,
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space , ,
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your ,
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. OMR
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are - OMR
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. /
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ()
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, 13. ,
English version will be taken as final.
W-00 P.T.O.
Paper I
I
Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.
: (60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)
1. Break-down in verbal communication 1.
is described as (A)
(A) Short circuit (B)
(B) Contradiction (C)
(C) Unevenness (D)
(D) Entropy

2. The Telephone Model of 2.

Communication was first developed ?
in the area of (A)
(A) Technological theory (B)
(B) Dispersion theory
(C)
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory (D)

3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 3. 2013

2013 has been conferred on ?
(A) Karan Johar (B) Amir Khan (A) (B)
(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar (C) (D)

4. Photographs are not easy to 4. - _____

(A) publish (B) secure (A) (B)
(C) decode (D) change (C) (D)

5. The grains that appear on a television 5.

set when operated are also referred to ,
as ?
(A) sparks (B) green dots (A) (B)
(C) snow (D) rain drops (C) (D)
6. In circular communication, the 6.
encoder becomes a decoder when
there is
(A) (B)
(A) noise (B) audience
(C) (D)
(C) criticality (D) feedback
W-00 2
7. In a post-office, stamps of three 7. ` 7, ` 8 ` 10
different denominations of ` 7, ` 8,
` 10 are available. The exact amount ?
for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19 (B) 20
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 23 (D) 29
(C) 23 (D) 29

8. In certain coding method, the word 8.

QUESTION is encoded as QUESTION DOMESTIC
DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is ,
the code word for the word RESPONSE ?
RESPONSE ?
(A) OMESUCEM
(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM
(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM
(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM
(D) OMESISCM

9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, .... 9. 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ........
is continued in the same pattern, ,
which one of the following is not a ?
term of this series ? (A) 31 (B) 32
(A) 31 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 35
(C) 33 (D) 35

10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, 10. BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ...........
PP, ...........by choosing one of the
following option given : :
(A) TS (B) ST (A) TS (B) ST
(C) RS (D) SR (C) RS (D) SR

11. A man started walking from his house 11.

towards south. After walking 6 km, he 6
turned to his left and walked 5 km. 5
Then he walked further 3 km after
turning left. He then turned to his left 3
and continued his walk for 9 km. How 9
far is he away from his house ? ?
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 km (D) 6 km
(C) 5 (D) 6

W-00 3 P.T.O.
12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 12. 50 99
without the digits 2 and 7. How many 2 7
numbers have been written ?
(A) 32 (B) 36 ?
(A) 32 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 38 (C) 40 (D) 38

13. If a large diamond is cut up into little 13. -

bits, it will lose its value just as an
army is divided up into small units of -
soldiers, it loses its strength.
The argument put above may be
called as
(A) Analogical (B) Deductive (A) (B)
(C) Statistical (D) Causal (C) (D)

14. Given below are some characteristics 14.

of logical argument. Select the code
which expresses a characteristic
which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to (A)
follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal
relation.
(B)

(C) The conclusion conclusively
follows from its premises. (C) :
(D) The conclusion is based on
(D)
observation and experiment.

15. If two propositions having the same 15. ,

subject and predicate terms can both ,
be true but can not both be false, the ,
relation between those two ?
propositions is called
(A) contradictory
(A)
(B) contrary (B)
(C) subcontrary (C) -
(D) subaltern (D)
W-00 4
16. Given below are two premises and 16. -
four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that - (
expresses conclusion drawn validly )
from the premises (separately or - :
jointly).
:
Premises :
(a) All dogs are mammals. (a)
(b) No cats are dogs. (b)
Conclusions : :
(i) No cats are mammals. (i)
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(ii)
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iii)
(iv) -
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes :
:
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) (A) (i) (B) (i) (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii) (C) (iii) (iv) (D) (ii) (iii)

17. Given below is a diagram of three 17.

circles A, B & C inter-related with A, B C
each other. The circle A represents the A
class of Indians, the circle B , B
represents the class of scientists and C
circle C represents the class of p, q, r, s.....
politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent
different regions. Select the code

containing the region that indicates

the class of Indian scientists who are ,
not politicians.

:
Codes : (A) q s
(A) q and s only
(B) s
(B) s only
(C) s r
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only (D) p, q s
W-00 5 P.T.O.
Read the following table carefully. Based upon
this table answer questions from 18 to 22 : 18 22
Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a
country (Thousand Hectares)
Year Govern-Private Tanks Tube Other Total ( )
ment canals wells & sources
canals other
wells
1997-98 17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173
1998-99 17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411 1997-98 17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173
1999-00 16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109 1998-99 17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411
2000-01 15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076 1999-00 16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109
2001-02 15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672 2000-01 15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076
2002-03 13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778 2001-02 15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672
2003-04 14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618 2002-03 13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778
2004-05 14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867 2003-04 14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618
2005-06 15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196 2004-05 14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867
2005-06 15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196
18. Which of the following sources of
Irrigation has registered the largest 18. 1997-98 2005-06
percentage of decline in Net area under
irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ? () ?
(A) Government canals (A)
(B) Private canals (B)
(C) Tanks (C)
(D) Other sources (D)
19. Find out the source of Irrigation that has 19. 2002-03 2003-04
registered the maximum improvement
in terms of percentage of Net irrigated ?
area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government canals (A)
(B) Tanks (B)
(C) Tube wells and other wells (C)
(D) Other sources (D)
20. In which of the following years, Net 20.
irrigation by tanks increased at the ?
highest rate ? (A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01 (C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06
(C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06
21. Identify the source of Irrigation that 21.
has recorded the maximum incidence
of negative growth in terms of Net
irrigated area during the years given ?
in the table.
(A) Government canals (A)
(B) Private canals (B)
(C) Tube wells and other wells (C)
(D) Other sources (D)
22. In which of the following years, share 22.
of the tube wells and other wells in the ?
total net irrigated area was the highest ? (A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01 (C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05
(C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05
W-00 6
23. The acronym FTP stands for 23. ... ?
(A) File Transfer Protocol (A)
(B) Fast Transfer Protocol (B)
(C) File Tracking Protocol (C)
(D) File Transfer Procedure (D)

24. Which one of the following is not a/an 24. - /

image/graphic file format ? / ?
(A) PNG (B) GIF (A) (B)
(C) BMP (D) GUI (C) (D)

25. The first web browser is 25.

(A) Internet Explorer (A)
(B) Netscape (B)

(C) World Wide Web (C)

(D)
(D) Firefox

26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is

26.

loaded to the memory by ?
(A) RAM (B) ROM (A) (RAM)
(B) (ROM)
(C) CD-ROM (D) TCP (C) (CD ROM)
(D) (TCP)
27. Which one of the following is not the 27.
same as the other three ? ?
(A) MAC address (A)
(B) Hardware address (B)
(C) Physical address (C)
(D) IP address (D)

28. Identify the IP address from the 28.

following : :
(A) 300 215 317 3 (A) 300 215 317 3
(B) 302 215@ 417 5 (B) 302 215@ 417 5
(C) 202 50 20 148 (C) 202 50 20 148
(D) 202 50 20 148 (D) 202 50 20 148
W-00 7 P.T.O.
29. The population of India is about 1.2 29. 1.2
billion. Take the average consumption
of energy per person per year in India 30
as 30 Mega Joules. If this
consumption is met by carbon based
fuels and the rate of carbon emissions 15 106 ,
per kilojoule is 15 106 kgs, the total -
carbon emissions per year from India ?
will be
(A) 54
(A) 54 million metric tons
(B) 540
(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(C) 5400
(D) 2400 million metric tons (D) 2400

30. Which of the following cities has been 30.

worst affected by urban smog in
recent times ? ?
(A) Paris (A)
(B) London (B)
(C)
(C) Los Angeles
(D)
(D) Beijing

31. The primary source of organic 31.

pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas (A)
(B) run-off from agricultural forms (B)
(C) sewage effluents (C) :
(D) industrial effluents (D) :

32. Lahar is a natural disaster involving 32.

(A) eruption of large amount of (A)
material
(B) strong winds (B)
(C) strong water waves (C)
(D)
(D) strong winds and water waves

W-00 8
33. In order to avoid catastrophic 33.
consequences of climate change, there
is general agreement among the countries
of the world to limit the rise in average
surface temperature of earth compared

to that of pre-industrial times by ?
(A) 1.5 C to 2 C (A) 1.5 C 2 C
(B) 2.0 C to 3.5 C (B) 2.0 C 3.5 C
(C) 0.5 C to 1.0 C (C) 0.5 C 1.0 C
(D) 0.25 C to 0.5 C (D) 0.25 C 0.5 C

34. The National Disaster Management 34.

Authority functions under the Union ?
Ministry of (A)
(A) Environment (B)
(B) Water Resources (C)
(C) Home Affairs
(D)
(D) Defence

35. Match List I and List II and select 35. I II

the correct answer from the codes :
given below : I II
List I List II
a. Flood 1. Lack of rainfall of a. 1.
sufficient duration
b. Drought 2. Tremors produced b. 2.
by the passage of
vibratory waves
through the rocks
of the earth c. 3.
c. Earthquake 3. A vent through
which molted
d. 4.
substances come out
d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and
uneven distribution :
of water
a b c d
Codes :
a b c d (A) 4 1 2 3
(A) 4 1 2 3 (B) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2 (D) 4 3 1 2

36. Which one of the following green 36.

house gases has the shortest residence ?
time in the atmosphere ? (A)
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide (B)
(C) Methane (C)
(D) Nitrous oxide (D)
W-00 9 P.T.O.
37. Consider the following statements and 37.
select the correct answer from the :
code given below :
i.
i. Rajasthan receives the highest
solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed
ii.
wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind iii.
power is contributed by Tamil
Nadu. iv.
iv. The primary source of uranium
in India is Jaduguda. :
Codes :
(A) i ii (B) i, ii iii
(A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii iii (D) i iv
(C) ii and iii (D) i and iv

38. Who among the following is the de 38.

facto executive head of the Planning ?
Commission ? (A)
(A) Chairman
(B)
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C)
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary (D)

39. Education as a subject of legislation 39.

figures in the ?
(A) Union List (A)
(B) State List (B)
(C) Concurrent List (C)
(D) Residuary Powers (D)

40. Which of the following are Central 40.

Universities ? ?
1. Pondicherry University 1.
2. Vishwa Bharati 2.
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University 3. ...
4. Kurukshetra University 4.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
:
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 3 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 2, 3 4 (D) 1, 2 4
W-00 10
41. Consider the statement which is 41.
followed by two arguments (i) and (i) (ii)
(ii). :
Statement : India should have a very
strong and powerful Lokpal. : (i) ,
Arguments : (i)Yes, it will go a long in
eliminating corruption
in bureaucracy.

(ii) No, it will discourage
(ii) ,
honest officers from
making quick decisions.
Codes : :
(A) Only argument (i) is strong. (A) (i)
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong. (B) (ii)
(C) Both the arguments are strong. (C)
(D) Neither of the arguments is (D)
strong.
42. Which of the following universities 42.
has adopted the meta university ?
concept ? (A)
(A) Assam University
(B)
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University (C)
(D) Pondicherry University (D)

43. Which of the following statements are 43.

correct about a Central University ? ?
1. Central University is established 1.
under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the
2.
visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to

nominate some members to the 3.
Executive Committee or the
Board of Management of the
University. 4. -
4. The President occasionally
presides over the meetings of the
Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the :
code given below : :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 4 (B) 1, 3 4
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 4
W-00 11 P.T.O.
44. Which one of the following is 44.
considered a sign of motivated teaching ? ?
(A) Students asking questions (A)
(B) Maximum attendance of the (B)
students
(C)
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D)
(D) Students taking notes

45. Which one of the following is the best 45.

method of teaching ? ?
(A) Lecture (A)
(B) Discussion (B) -
(C) Demonstration (C)
(D) Narration (D)

46. Dyslexia is associated with 46. :

(A) mental disorder (A)
(B) behavioural disorder (B)
(C) reading disorder (C)
(D) writing disorder (D)

47. The e-content generation for under- 47.

graduate courses has been assigned by
the Ministry of Human Resource - ,
Development to ?
(A) INFLIBNET (A)
(B) Consortium for Educational (B)
Communication
(C)
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D)
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open
University

48. Classroom communication is normally 48.

considered as
(A) effective (A)
(B) cognitive (B)
(C) affective (C)
(D) selective (D)
W-00 12
49. Who among the following, 49.
propounded the concept of paradigm ? () ?
(A) Peter Haggett (A)
(B) Von Thunen (B)
(C) Thomas Kuhn (C)
(D) John K. Wright (D) .
50. In a thesis, figures and tables are 50. (-)
included in
(A) the appendix (A)
(B) a separate chapter (B)
(C) the concluding chapter (C)
(D) the text itself (D)
51. A thesis statement is 51. -
(A) an observation (A)
(B) a fact (B)
(C) an assertion (C)
(D) a discussion (D) -

52. The research approach of Max Weber to

52.
understand how people create meanings

in natural settings is identified as
,
(A) positive paradigm
?
(B) critical paradigm (A)
(C) natural paradigm (B)
(D) interpretative paradigm (C)
(D)
53. Which one of the following is a non- 53. - ?
probability sampling ? (A)
(A) Simple random
(B) Purposive (B)
(C) Systematic (C)
(D) Stratified (D)

54. Identify the category of evaluation 54.

that assesses the learning progress to
provide continuous feedback to the
students during instruction.
(A) Placement (B) Diagnostic (A) (B)
(C) Formative (D) Summative (C) (D)
55. The research stream of immediate 55.
application is :
(A) Conceptual research
(A) (B)
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research (C) (D)
(D) Empirical research
W-00 13 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60 :
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from
that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common
system of leadership which we call the State. The Indian States special feature is the
peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical
provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without
ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern
Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon
the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the
litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law,
though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word State
above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the
State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of
state sovereignty or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian secularism has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make
a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of Indias
famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the
rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one
remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas Mores Utopia. There is little about modern India
that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the
absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all
Utopians.
56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to
each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.
57. The author uses the word State to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of
history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian Secularism ?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
59. The basic construction of Thomas Mores Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.
60. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of Utopian State (B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values (D) Absence of Bigotry
W-00 14
56 60 :
,
, ,
, , ,
,

-
,
- -

(
- ) 16

() ,
,
( )
56. ?
(A) -
(B) , ,
, -
(C)
(D)
57. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
58. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
59. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
60. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
W-00 15 P.T.O.
Space For Rough Work

W-00 16
UGC NET - June-2014
ANSWER KEYS (PAPER - I)

Question Number W X Y Z
1 D A C A
2 D C A D
3 D C B B
4 C A D C
5 C B A A
6 D C C B
7 A D A C
8 C D C B
9 C A C C
10 A C A A
11 C C D C
12 A D B C
13 A C C D
14 C B A B
15 C D B C
16 C C C B
17 B A B C
18 C D C D
19 D C A C
20 D A C A
21 A B C D
22 C C D B
23 A A B D
24 D C C A
25 C A B C
26 B B C C
27 D C D D
28 C A A D
29 B D A D
30 D B D D
31 C C B A
32 A A D C
33 A C D A
34 C C C C
35 A B C C
36 C C D C
37 D A D A
38 B D D A
39 C C C C
40 A D A B
41 A B C C
42 B C A A
43 C B C C
44 A C C C
45 C D C D
46 C A A D
47 B A A B
48 C D C D
49 C B B C
50 D D D A
51 C D A D
52 D C C C
53 B C C A
54 C D D B
55 B D C D
56 B C B C
57 D C D C
58 A A C A
59 A C A C
60 D A D A
Signature and Name of Invigilator PAPER-I
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
D 00
Time : 1 1/4 hours]
1 4
Test Booklet Code W
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) - /
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : - /
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag (ii) -
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in /
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a -
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet (iii) - OMR
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
OMR -
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. : (C)
Example : 5. - I - II OMR
where (C) is the correct response. OMR
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for ,
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. (Rough Work)
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. OMR ,
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put ,
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space , ,
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your ,
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. OMR
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are - OMR
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. /
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ()
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, 13. ,
English version will be taken as final.
W-00 P.T.O.
Paper I

Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be
evaluated.

1. The term Yellow Journalism refers to

(A) sensational news about terrorism and violence
(B) sensationalism and exaggeration to attract readers / viewers.
(C) sensational news about arts and culture
(D) sensational news prints in yellow paper.

2. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students
are really
(A) Encoders (B) Decoders
(C) Agitators (D) Propagators

3. Media is known as
(A) First Estate (B) Second Estate
(C) Third Estate (D) Fourth Estate

4. The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting information to a

large number of receivers simultaneously, is called
(A) Group Communication
(B) Mass Communication
(C) Intrapersonal Communication
(D) Interpersonal Communication

5. A smart classroom is a teaching space which has

(i) Smart portion with a touch panel control system.
(ii) PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player.
(iii) Document camera and specialized software
(iv) Projector and screen
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

W-00 2
I
: (60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)

1. -
(A)
(B) /
(C)
(D)

2.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

3.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

4. ,
(A)
(B)
(C) :
(D)

5.
(i)
(ii) / /
(iii)
(iv)
:
(A) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)
W-00 3 P.T.O.
6. Digital Empowerment means
(i) Universal digit literacy
(ii) Universal access to all digital resources.
(iii) Collaborative digital platform for participative governance.
(iv) Probability of all entitlements for individuals through cloud.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

7. The next term in the series :

2, 7, 28, 63, 126, _______
is
(A) 215 (B) 245
(C) 276 (D) 296

8. The next term in the series :

AB, ED, IH, NM, ________
is
(A) TS (B) ST
(C) TU (D) SU

9. If STREAMERS is coded as UVTGALDQR, then KNOWLEDGE will be coded as

(A) MQPYLCDFD (B) MPQYLDCFD
(C) PMYQLDFCD (D) YMQPLDDFC

10. A is brother of B. B is the brother of C. C is the husband of D. E is the father of A. D is

related to E as
(A) Daughter (B) Daughter-in-law
(C) Sister-in-law (D) Sister

11. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from the numbers, the ratio becomes
12 : 23. The numbers are
(A) 30, 50 (B) 36, 60
(C) 33, 55 (D) 42, 70

12. The mean of the ages of father and his son is 27 years. After 18 years, father will be twice
as old as his son. Their present ages are
(A) 42, 12 (B) 40, 14
(C) 30, 24 (D) 36, 18
W-00 4
6.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
:
(A) (i) (ii) (B) (ii) (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)

7.
2, 7, 28, 63, 126, _____
(A) 215 (B) 245
(C) 276 (D) 296

8.
AB, ED, IH, NM, _____
(A) TS (B) ST
(C) TU (D) SU

9. STREAMERS UVTGALDQR , KNOWLEDGE

(A) MQPYLCDFD (B) MPQYLDCFD
(C) PMYQLDFCD (D) YMQPLDDFC

10. A, B B, C C, D E, A D E
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

11. 3 : 5 9 , 12 : 23 ,

(A) 30, 50 (B) 36, 60
(C) 33, 55 (D) 42, 70

12. 27 18

(A) 42, 12 (B) 40, 14
(C) 30, 24 (D) 36, 18
W-00 5 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 13 to 17 :
The literary distaste for politics, however, seems to be focused not so much on the largely
murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how
it is often depicted in literature, i.e., on the very politics of such representation. A political novel
often turns out to be not merely a novel about politics but a novel with a politics of its own, for
it seeks not merely to show us how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things
should be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that
desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or
ideology; it often is (in an only too familiar phrase) not literature but propaganda. This is said to
violate the very spirit of literature which is to broaden our understanding of the world and the
range of our sympathies rather than to narrow them down through partisan commitment. As
John Keats said, We hate poetry that has a palpable design upon us.
Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of literary
representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas
and ideologies. If political situations do not lend themselves to happy literary treatment, political
ideas present perhaps an even greater problem in this regard. Literature, it is argued, is about
human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the felt
reality of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour (rasa) rather than in arid and lifeless
ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel, the American
novelist Mary McCarthy observed that ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel
though that was not so in former days, i.e., in the 18th and 19th centuries. Her formulation of
the precise nature of the incompatibility between ideas on the one hand and the novel on the
other betrays perhaps a divided conscience in the matter and a sense of dilemma shared by many
writers and readers : An idea cannot have loose ends, but a novel, I almost think, needs them.
Nevertheless, there is enough in common for the novelists to feel the attraction of ideas while
taking up arms against them most often with weapons of mockery.
13. According to the passage, a political novel often turns out to be a
(A) Literary distaste for politics (B) Literary representation of politics
(C) Novel with its own politics (D) Depiction of murky practice of politics
14. A political novel reveals
(A) Reality of the things (B) Writers perception
(C) Particular ideology of the readers (D) The spirit of literature
15. The constructs of politics by its nature is
(A) Prevalent political situation (B) Ideas and Ideologies
(C) Political propaganda (D) Understanding of human nature
16. Literature deals with
(A) Human experiences in politics (B) Intellectual abstractions
(C) Dry and empty ideas (D) Felt reality of human life
17. The observation of the novelist, Mary McCarthy reveals
(A) unseen felt ideas of today in the novel
(B) dichotomy of conscience on political ideas and novels
(C) compatibility between idea and novel
(D) endless ideas and novels
W-00 6
13 17 :

:
:

-
, :
( )
, - -

,
,

()

18 19
:
: :

......
13. : ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
14. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
15.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
16. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
17. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

W-00 7 P.T.O.
18. When in a group of propositions, one proposition is claimed to follow from the others, that
group of propositions is called
(A) An argument (B) A valid argument
(C) An explanation (D) An invalid argument

19. Namita and Samita are brilliant and studious. Anita and Karabi are obedient and irregular.
Babita and Namita are irregular but brilliant. Samita and Kabita are regular and obedient.
Who among them is/are brilliant, obedient, regular and studious ?
(A) Samita alone (B) Namita and Samita
(C) Kabita alone (D) Anita alone

20. Warrior is related to sword, carpenter is related to saw, farmer is related to plough. In the
same way, the author is related to
(A) Book (B) Fame
(C) Reader (D) Pen

21. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B and C over-lapping each other. The circle
A represents the class of honest people, the circle B represents the class of sincere people
and circle C represents the class of politicians. p, q, r, s, U, X, Y represent different
regions. Select the code that represents the region indicating the class of honest politicians
who are not sincere.

Codes :
(A) X (B) q
(C) p (D) s

22. A man ought no more to value himself for being wiser than a woman if he owes his
advantage to a better education, than he ought to boast of his courage for beating a man
when his hands were tied.
The above passage is an instance of
(A) Deductive argument (B) Hypothetical argument
(C) Analogical argument (D) Factual argument

23. By which of the following proposition, the proposition wise men are hardly afraid of
death is contradicted ?
(A) Some wise men are afraid of death.
(B) All wise men are afraid of death.
(C) No wise men is afraid of death.
(D) Some wise men are not afraid of death.
W-00 8
18. ,
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

19.

, , / ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

20. , ,

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

21. A, B C A
, B
C p, q, r, s, U, X, Y -
,

:
(A) X (B) q
(C) p (D) s

22.

?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

23. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

W-00 9 P.T.O.
For a country CO2 emissions (million metric tons) from various sectors are given in the
following table. Answer the questions (24 to 29) based on the data given :

CO2 emissions (million metric tons)

Sector Power Industry Commercial Agriculture Domestic
Year
2005 500 200 150 80 100
2006 600 300 200 90 110
2007 650 320 250 100 120
2008 700 400 300 150 150
2009 800 450 320 200 180

24. What is the percentage (%) growth of CO2 emissions from power sector during 2005 to
2009 ?
(A) 60 (B) 50
(C) 40 (D) 80

25. Which sector has recorded maximum growth in CO2 emissions during 2005 to 2009 ?
(A) Power (B) Industry
(C) Commercial (D) Agriculture

26. By what percentage (%), the total emissions of CO2 have increased from 2005 to 2009 ?
(A) ~89.32% (B) ~57.62%
(C) ~40.32% (D) ~113.12%

27. What is the average annual growth rate of CO2 emissions in power sector ?
(A) ~12.57% (B) ~16.87%
(C) ~30.81% (D) ~50.25%

28. What is the percentage contribution of power sector to total CO2 emissions in the year
2008 ?
(A) ~30.82% (B) ~41.18%
(C) ~51.38% (D) ~60.25%

29. In which year, the contribution (%) of industry to total sectoral CO2 emissions was
minimum ?
(A) 2005 (B) 2006
(C) 2007 (D) 2009
W-00 10
(CO2) ( )
(24 29 )
CO2 ( )

2005 500 200 150 80 100
2006 600 300 200 90 110
2007 650 320 250 100 120
2008 700 400 300 150 150
2009 800 450 320 200 180

24. 2005 2009 CO2 () ?

(A) 60 (B) 50
(C) 40 (D) 80

25. 2005 2009 CO2 ?

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

26. 2005 2009 CO2 () ?

(A) ~ 89.32 (B) ~ 57.62
(C) ~ 40.32 (D) ~ 113.12

27. CO2 ?
(A) ~ 12.57 (B) ~ 16.87
(C) ~ 30.81 (D) ~ 50.25

28. 2008 CO2 ?

(A) ~ 30.82 (B) ~ 41.18
(C) ~ 51.38 (D) ~ 60.25

29. CO2 () ?
(A) 2005 (B) 2006
(C) 2007 (D) 2009
W-00 11 P.T.O.
30. Symbols A-F are used in which one of the following ?
(A) Binary number system
(B) Decimal number system
(C) Hexadecimal number system
(D) Octal number system

31. Which one of the following is not a search engine ?

(A) Google (B) Chrome
(C) Yahoo (D) Bing

32. CSS stands for

(A) Cascading Style Sheets
(B) Collecting Style Sheets
(C) Comparative Style Sheets
(D) Comprehensive Style Sheets

33. MOOC stands for

(A) Media Online Open Course
(B) Massachusetts Open Online Course
(C) Massive Open Online Course
(D) Myrind Open Online Course

34. Binary equivalent of decimal number 35 is

(A) 100011 (B) 110001
(C) 110101 (D) 101011

35. gif, jpg, bmp, png are used as extensions for files which store
(A) audio data (B) image data
(C) video data (D) text data
W-00 12
30. A-F ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

31. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

32. CSS
(A) Cascading Style Sheets

(B) Collecting Style Sheets

(C) Comparative Style Sheets

(D) Comprehensive Style Sheets

33. MOOC
(A) Media Online Open Course

(B) Massachusetts Open Online Course

(C) Massive Open Online Course

(D) Myrind Open Online Course

34. 35
(A) 100011 (B) 110001

(C) 110101 (D) 101011

35. gif, jpg, bmp, png ,

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

W-00 13 P.T.O.
2
36. Which of the anthropogenic activity accounts for more than rd of global water
3
consumption ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Hydropower generation
(C) Industry
(D) Domestic and Municipal usage

37. One of the anthropogenic sources of gaseous pollutants chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in air
is
(A) Cement industry
(B) Fertiliser industry
(C) Foam industry
(D) Pesticide industry

38. In terms of total CO2 emissions from a country, identify the correct sequence :
(A) U.S.A. > China > India > Russia
(B) China > U.S.A. > India > Russia
(C) China > U.S.A. > Russia > India
(D) U.S.A. > China > Russia > India

39. Match List I and List II and identify the correct code :
List I List II
th
a. World Health Day i. 16 September
b. World Population Day ii. 1st December
c. World Ozone Day iii. 11th July
d. World AIDS Day iv. 7th April
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv ii i

W-00 14
2
36. 3

-
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

37. (CFCs) ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

38. CO2 :
(A) ... > > >
(B) > ... > >
(C) > ... > >
(D) ... > > >

39. -I -II :
I II
a. i. 16
b. ii. 1
c. iii. 11
d. iv. 7
:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv ii i
W-00 15 P.T.O.
40. The cyclone Hudhud hit the coast of which State ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala (D) Gujarat

41. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?

(A) Clean air (B) Fresh water
(C) Fertile soil (D) Salt

42. The maximum number of fake institutions / universities as identified by the UGC in the
year 2014 are in the State / Union territory of
(A) Bihar (B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Delhi

43. Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant degrees under the
UGC Act, 1956 ?
1. A university established by an Act of Parliament.
2. A university established by an Act of Legislature.
3. A university / institution established by a linguistic minority.
4. An institution which is a deemed to be university.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

44. Which of the following are the tools of good governance ?

1. Social Audit
2. Separation of Powers
3. Citizens Charter
4. Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

W-00 16
40. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

41. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

42. 2014 /
/ ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

43. , 1956
?
1.
2. -
3. /
4.
:
(A) 1 2 (B) 1, 2 3
(C) 1, 2 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 4

44. ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
:
(A) 1, 3 4 (B) 2, 3 4
(C) 1 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 4
W-00 17 P.T.O.
45. Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha ?
1. Summoning
2. Adjournment sine die
3. Prorogation
4. Dissolution
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

46. The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 4 months
(D) 100 days

47. Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in

(A) Right to Freedom
(B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(C) Right to Equality
(D) Right against Exploitation

48. Which of the following organizations deals with capacity building program on
Educational Planning ?
(A) NCERT
(B) UGC
(C) NAAC
(D) NUEPA

W-00 18
45. ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
:
(A) 1 4
(B) 1, 2 3
(C) 1, 3 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 4

46. ?
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 100

47. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

48. ?
(A) .....
(B) ...
(C) ....
(D) .....
W-00 19 P.T.O.
49. Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man was stated by

(A) M.K. Gandhi (B) R.N. Tagore

(C) Swami Vivekanand (D) Sri Aurobindo

50. Which of the following is not a prescribed level of teaching ?

(A) Memory (B) Understanding

(C) Reflective (D) Differentiation

51. Maximum participation of students during teaching is possible through

(A) Lecture method (B) Demonstration method

(C) Inductive method (D) Textbook method

52. Diagnostic evaluation ascertains

(A) Students performance at the beginning of instructions.

(B) Learning progress and failures during instructions.

(C) Degree of achievement of instructions at the end.

(D) Causes and remedies of persistent learning problems during instructions.

53. Instructional aids are used by the teacher to

(A) glorify the class (B) attract the students

(C) clarify the concepts (D) ensure discipline

54. Attitude of the teacher that affects teaching pertains to

(A) Affective domain (B) Cognitive domain

(C) Connative domain (D) Psychomotor domain

W-00 20
49. _______
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

50. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

51. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

52.
(A) -
(B)
(C)
(D)

53.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

54. ,
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
W-00 21 P.T.O.
55. When planning to do as social research, it is better to
(A) approach the topic with an open mind
(B) do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
(C) be familiar with literature on the topic
(D) forget about theory because this is a very practical

56. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentation to an audience on certain
topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called
(A) Training Program (B) Seminar
(C) Workshop (D) Symposium

57. The core elements of a dissertation are

(A) Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations
(B) Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography
(C) Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
(D) Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussion and
Conclusion

58. What is a Research Design ?

(A) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
(B) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
(C) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a graph.
(D) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

59. Sampling Cases means

(A) Sampling using a sampling frame
(B) Identifying people who are suitable for research
(C) Literally the researchers brief case
(D) Sampling of people, newspapers, television programmes etc.

60. The frequency distribution of a research data which is symmetrical in shape similar to a
normal distribution but center peak is much higher, is
(A) Skewed (B) Mesokurtic
(C) Leptokurtic (D) Platykurtic

W-00 22
55.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

56.
,
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

57.
(A) ; -; -;
(B) ; ; ; ;
(C) -; -; ;
(D) ; ; -; ;

58. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

59.
(A)
(B)
(C) :
(D) , -,

60. -
,
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

W-00 23 P.T.O.
Space For Rough Work

W-00 24
UGC-14 PAPER-1 Set :- W Date. 30/12/2015 Pg. 1
QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS |
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 1 B | 26 A | 51 B | 76 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 2 B | 27 A | 52 D | 77 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 3 D | 28 B | 53 C | 78 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 4 B | 29 A | 54 A | 79 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 5 D | 30 C | 55 C | 80 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 6 D | 31 B | 56 B | 81 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 7 A | 32 A | 57 D | 82 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 8 A | 33 C | 58 D | 83 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 9 B | 34 A | 59 D | 84 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 10 B | 35 B | 60 C | 85 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 11 C | 36 A | 61 | 86 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 12 A | 37 C | 62 | 87 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 13 C | 38 B | 63 | 88 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 14 B | 39 B | 64 | 89 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 15 B | 40 A | 65 | 90 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 16 D | 41 D | 66 | 91 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 17 A | 42 B | 67 | 92 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 18 A | 43 C | 68 | 93 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 19 A | 44 3 | 69 | 94 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 20 D | 45 C | 70 | 95 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 21 D | 46 B | 71 | 96 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 22 C | 47 B | 72 | 97 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 23 B | 48 D | 73 | 98 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 24 A | 49 C | 74 | 99 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 25 D | 50 D | 75 | 100 |
--------------------------------------------------
Z=ALL/ 1=A,B/ 2=A,C/ 3=A,D/ 4=B,C/ 5=B,D/ 6=D,C/ 7=A,C,D/ 8=A,B,C
UGC-14 PAPER-1 Set :- X Music:- ARTS:- Date. 30/12/2015 Pg. 2
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-( )
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS |
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 1 A | 26 3 | 51 B | 76 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 2 D | 27 A | 52 B | 77 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 3 D | 28 B | 53 C | 78 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 4 C | 29 B | 54 A | 79 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 5 B | 30 D | 55 D | 80 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 6 A | 31 C | 56 B | 81 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 7 D | 32 D | 57 B | 82 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 8 A | 33 B | 58 D | 83 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 9 A | 34 D | 59 A | 84 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 10 B | 35 C | 60 C | 85 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 11 A | 36 A | 61 | 86 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 12 A | 37 C | 62 | 87 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 13 B | 38 B | 63 | 88 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 14 A | 39 D | 64 | 89 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 15 C | 40 D | 65 | 90 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 16 A | 41 D | 66 | 91 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 17 B | 42 C | 67 | 92 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 18 C | 43 C | 68 | 93 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 19 C | 44 B | 69 | 94 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 20 B | 45 D | 70 | 95 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 21 B | 46 B | 71 | 96 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 22 A | 47 D | 72 | 97 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 23 D | 48 B | 73 | 98 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 24 B | 49 A | 74 | 99 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 25 C | 50 A | 75 | 100 |
--------------------------------------------------
Z=ALL/ 1=A,B/ 2=A,C/ 3=A,D/ 4=B,C/ 5=B,D/ 6=D,C/ 7=A,C,D/ 8=A,B,C
UGC-14 PAPER-1 Set :- Y Music:- ARTS:- Date. 30/12/2015 Pg. 3
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-( )
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS |
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 1 A | 26 D | 51 C | 76 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 2 C | 27 D | 52 B | 77 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 3 A | 28 D | 53 A | 78 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 4 B | 29 C | 54 A | 79 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 5 C | 30 C | 55 A | 80 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 6 B | 31 B | 56 A | 81 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 7 B | 32 D | 57 B | 82 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 8 B | 33 B | 58 A | 83 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 9 A | 34 D | 59 A | 84 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 10 C | 35 B | 60 D | 85 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 11 B | 36 B | 61 | 86 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 12 C | 37 A | 62 | 87 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 13 3 | 38 B | 63 | 88 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 14 A | 39 B | 64 | 89 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 15 D | 40 C | 65 | 90 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 16 B | 41 A | 66 | 91 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 17 D | 42 D | 67 | 92 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 18 C | 43 A | 68 | 93 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 19 B | 44 B | 69 | 94 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 20 B | 45 D | 70 | 95 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 21 D | 46 A | 71 | 96 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 22 C | 47 C | 72 | 97 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 23 A | 48 B | 73 | 98 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 24 C | 49 D | 74 | 99 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 25 D | 50 D | 75 | 100 |
--------------------------------------------------
Z=ALL/ 1=A,B/ 2=A,C/ 3=A,D/ 4=B,C/ 5=B,D/ 6=D,C/ 7=A,C,D/ 8=A,B,C
UGC-14 PAPER-1 Set :- Z Music:- ARTS:- Date. 30/12/2015 Pg. 4
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-( )
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS |
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 1 C | 26 D | 51 C | 76 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 2 3 | 27 B | 52 A | 77 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 3 A | 28 B | 53 B | 78 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 4 D | 29 C | 54 C | 79 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 5 B | 30 A | 55 B | 80 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 6 D | 31 D | 56 A | 81 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 7 C | 32 A | 57 B | 82 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 8 B | 33 A | 58 A | 83 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 9 B | 34 D | 59 C | 84 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 10 D | 35 A | 60 B | 85 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 11 C | 36 C | 61 | 86 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 12 A | 37 B | 62 | 87 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 13 C | 38 B | 63 | 88 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 14 D | 39 D | 64 | 89 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 15 B | 40 C | 65 | 90 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 16 D | 41 B | 66 | 91 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 17 D | 42 A | 67 | 92 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 18 C | 43 A | 68 | 93 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 19 C | 44 D | 69 | 94 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 20 B | 45 A | 70 | 95 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 21 D | 46 B | 71 | 96 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 22 B | 47 A | 72 | 97 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 23 D | 48 A | 73 | 98 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 24 B | 49 D | 74 | 99 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 25 B | 50 A | 75 | 100 |
--------------------------------------------------
Z=ALL/ 1=A,B/ 2=A,C/ 3=A,D/ 4=B,C/ 5=B,D/ 6=D,C/ 7=A,C,D/ 8=A,B,C
Signature and Name of Invigilator
PAPER - I
1. (Signature)
OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
(Name) (To be filled by the Candidate)
2. (Signature) Roll No.
(Name) (In figures as per admission card)

J 0 0 1 5 Roll No.

Time : 1 hours]
Test Booklet Series A (In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates U
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this
page.
1. DU U S U UU U
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, 2. - U (60) , U
out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) U U mU
(50) questions. In the event of candidate attempting more than U U U mU
fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the Candidate 3. U U U, -S U U U
would be evaluated. -S ,
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open U
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) -S S U /
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper U SUU-U/
seal/polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept a booklet S SU U
without sticker-seal/without polythene bag and do not (ii) U DU U U U -S DU
accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in U U U U U U S
the booklet with the information printed on the cover DU/ U UU
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or U U S SU U UUU
duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy S U U -S U
should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet U -S
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced
U UQ
nor any extra time will be given. (iii) -S U OMR U U
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number should UU OMR U -S U U
be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number (iv) -S U$ A U
should be entered on this Test Booklet. -S U$, OMR U$ U
(iv) The Series of this booklet is A, make sure that the Series U$ U U U$ -S/
printed on OMR Sheet is same as that on this booklet. In case
of discrepancy in Series, the candidate should immediately OMR U U U
report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of the 4. U U (1), (2), (3) (4)
Test Booklet/OMR Sheet. U UU U
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3) and
(4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct
response against each item. U (3) U
Example : where (3) is the correct response. 5. U S U OMRU U
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet U OMRU U
given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your response at any S U U U , U
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be 6. U U
evaluated. 7. (Rough Work) S DU U U
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
8. OMR U S , U U,
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any U q , U
mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted U ,
for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use U , U U S
abusive language or employ any other unfair means, such as change U
of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render 9. U # U OMR U UU
yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the U U # U U
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with U U # U -S OMR
you outside the Examination Hall. You are however, allowed to UU
carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet 10. / U ZU S U
on conclusion of examination. 11. U (UU) U U
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. U U
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, 13. U , U
English version will be taken as final.

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 1 P.T.O.

PAPER - I

Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions
will be evaluated.

1. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability ?

(1) Knowing (2) Understanding (3) Analysing (4) Evaluating

2. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching ?

(1) Teachers knowledge
(2) Class room activities that encourage learning
(3) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
(4) Learning through experience

3. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct ?

(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

4. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include :

(a) Lecture
(b) Interactive lecture
(c) Group work
(d) Self study
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 2
- I

U (60) -U (2)
(50) U
(50) U (50)

1. SU ?
(1) (2) (3) U (4) U

2. - U?
(1)
(2) U
(3) U l - cU
(4) mU

3. U - ?
(a) U U U
(b) l U U U
(c) U U
(d) UUU
U U U
(1) (a), (b), (c) U (d) (2) (a), (b) U (c)
(3) (b), (c) U (d) (4) (a), (b) U (d)

4. mU
(a)
(b) USU U
(c)
(d) S
U U
(1) (a), (b) U (c) (2) (a), (b), (c) U (d)
(3) (b), (c) U (d) (4) (a), (b) U (d)

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 3 P.T.O.

5. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of :
(1) Making selections for a specific job
(2) Selecting candidates for a course
(3) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
(4) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching

6. A good teacher is one who :

(1) gives useful information
(2) explains concepts and principles
(3) gives printed notes to students
(4) inspires students to learn

7. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct ?
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the
solution of a problem.
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis,
data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done.
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

8. A good thesis writing should involve :

(a) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.
(b) careful checking of references.
(c) consistency in the way the thesis is written.
(d) a clear and well written abstract.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 4
5. U ?
(1) cU U
(2) K
(3)
(4)

6. U ,
(1)
(2) U h ScU U
(3) l U
(4) U U U

7. - ?
(a) S M S
o
(b) S, U c U U, ,
h U U
(c) h
(d) h
U U
(1) (a), (b) U (c) (2) (b), (c) U (d)
(3) (a), (c) U (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) U (d)

8. U
(a) U q U U h
(b) Z
(c) UU
(d) ScU U U U U
U U
(1) (a), (b), (c) U (d) (2) (a), (b) U (c)
(3) (a), (b) U (d) (4) (b), (c) U (d)

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 5 P.T.O.

9. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his :

(1) Fundamental Research (2) Applied Research

(3) Action Research (4) Evaluation Research

10. Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test. This statement
indicates a :

(1) research hypothesis (2) null hypothesis

(3) directional hypothesis (4) statistical hypothesis

11. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other

situations ?

(1) Historical Research (2) Descriptive Research

(3) Experimental Research (4) Causal Comparative Research

12. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire ?

(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.

(b) Review of the current literature.

(c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.

(d) Revision of the draft.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 6
9. U U h ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

10. U L l U
U ?

(1) U (2) U

(3) U (4) U

11. U U/cZ S
?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) U U

12. - U U - U ?

(a) U m g

(b)

(d) M U

U U

(1) (a), (b) U (c) (2) (a), (c) U (d)

(3) (b), (c) U (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) U (d)

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 7 P.T.O.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 13 to 18.

Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the essence of what
makes us Human.

Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety of stories
being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated
and which ones are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our history,
knowledge and understanding are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes
the stories that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out depends
partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to believe.

Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some story-tellers feel
that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic
warnings : Fail to act now and we are all doomed. Then there are stories that indicate that all
will be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend
is being led by those who call themselves rational optimists. They tend to claim that it is human
nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational optimists
however, do not realize how humanity has progressed overtime through amiable social networks
and how large groups work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high
and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the Practical Possibles, who sit between
those who say all is fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a successful
future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed.

What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and how we act on them.

Answer the following questions :

13. Our knowledge is a collection of :

(1) all stories that we have heard during our life-time

(2) some stories that we remember

(3) a few stories that survive

(4) some important stories

14. Story telling is :

(1) an art (2) a science

(3) in our genes (4) the essence of what makes us human

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 8
U U 13 18 U
U
U U U M
, U - U U U U
U U U U U
U , U - U U
c U -U U c
M U U U U U M
U UU U U U
U U $MU U UU , UU U
U U U
U U U M S U U mU
U U S U,
U U U S U
- U S
U U - M U -
U U mU U ,
U-U , U U c U U U U
,
U c U U U U

13. U ?
(1)
(2) U U
(3) U U
(4) U

14. ?
(1) (2)
(3) U (4)

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 9 P.T.O.

15. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories ?
(1) We collectively choose to believe in
(2) Which are repeatedly narrated
(3) Designed to spread fear and tension
(4) Designed to make prophecy

16. Rational optimists :

(a) Look for opportunities.
(b) Are sensible and cheerful.
(c) Are selfishly driven.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (b) and (c) only

17. Humans become less selfish when :

(1) they work in large groups (2) they listen to frightening stories
(3) they listen to cheerful stories (4) they work in solitude

18. Practical Possibles are the ones who :

(1) follow Midway Path (2) are doom-mongers
(3) are self-centred (4) are cheerful and carefree

19. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following ?

(a) Attitude surveys
(b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance
(d) Selection of communication channel
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 10
15. U U U c ?
(1) M U
(2) -U
(3) U M
(4) c M

16.
(a) U U
(b) U U
(c) S
U U
(1) (a), (b) U (c) (2) (a)
(3) (a) U (b) (4) (b) U (c)

17. S
(1) U (2) UU
(3) (4) U

18.
(1) U (2) U
(3) - (4) U U

19. ?
(a)
(b) c UU
(c) l S
(d)
U U
(1) (a), (b), (c) U (d) (2) (a), (b) U (c)
(3) (b), (c) U (d) (4) (a), (b) U (d)

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 11 P.T.O.

20. Assertion (A) : Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible.
Reason (R) : Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow of information.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but, (R) is correct

21. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication ?

(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

22. The term grapevine is also known as :

(1) Downward communication (2) Informal communication
(3) Upward communication (4) Horizontal communication

23. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication ?

(1) Persuasive and convincing dialogue (2) Participation of the audience
(3) One-way transfer of information (4) Strategic use of grapevine

24. In communication, the language is :

(1) The verbal code (2) Intrapersonal
(3) The symbolic code (4) The non-verbal code

25. The next term in the series is :

2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
(1) 73 (2) 75 (3) 78 (4) 80

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 12
20. (A) : U U U
(R) : U h U S
(1) (A) U (R) U (R), (A) ScUU
(2) (A) U (R) , U (R), (A) ScUU
(3) (A) , U (R)
(4) (A) , U (R)

21. ?
(a) U, U -
(b) U
(c)
(d)
U U
(1) (a), (b) U (c) (2) (a), (b) U (d)
(3) (b), (c) U (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) U (d)

22. () M ?
(1) U U (2) U U
(3) U U U (4) U

23. h ?
(1) U U (2) U
(3) U U (4) U

24.
(1) U (2)
(3) U (4) U U

25. o ?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
(1) 73 (2) 75 (3) 78 (4) 80

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 13 P.T.O.

26. In certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of HOTELS will be :
(1) LEQIBP (2) ELQBIP (3) LEBIQP (4) ELIPQB

27. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned right and walked
5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will
he have to walk to reach his home straight ?
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 30

28. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is
related to the girl as :
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Nephew (4) Son

29. In an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the number of students
who have :
passed in all five subjects = 5583
passed in three subjects only = 1400
passed in two subjects only = 1200
passed in one subject only = 735
failed in English only = 75
failed in Physics only = 145
failed in Chemistry only = 140
failed in Mathematics only = 200
failed in Bio-science only = 157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is :
(1) 6300 (2) 6900 (3) 7300 (4) 7900

30. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older than his wife. After
3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The age of the persons wife after 5 years will
be :
(1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 45 (4) 50

31. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on reason of the
type :
(1) Inductive (2) Deductive (3) Demonstrative (4) Physiological

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 14
26. U MATHURA JXQEROX M U , HOTELS mU M ?
(1) LEQIBP (2) ELQBIP (3) LEBIQP (4) ELIPQB

27. U U 10 .. , U 5 .. ,
U 10 .. U U 10 .. U ..
?
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 30

28. U U ,
U ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) U

29. U 10,000 l U U U l U
= 5583
= 1400
= 1200
= 735
= 75
= 145
U = 140
= 200
= 157
U l
(1) 6300 (2) 6900 (3) 7300 (4) 7900

30. U U U 3 , 3 U
15 5 ?
(1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 45 (4) 50

31. U U # U U U -
U U U?
(1) (2) (3) (4) UU

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 15 P.T.O.

32. A deductive argument is invalid if :
(1) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(2) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(3) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
(4) Its premises and conclusions are all true

33. Inductive reasoning is grounded on :

(1) Integrity of nature (2) Unity of nature
(3) Uniformity of nature (4) Harmony of nature

34. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code
that represents them :
Statements :
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (d) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (c)

35. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements ? Select the code :
Statements :
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)

36. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition
is called :
(1) Stipulative (2) Theoretical (3) Lexical (4) Persuasive

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 16
32.
(1) U U c
(2) U U c
(3) U U c
(4) U U c

33. U U ?
(1) U (2)
(3) M (4) U

34. -U U U U U

(a)
(b) U
(c) U
(d)
U
(1) (a) U (b) (2) (a) U (d) (3) (a) U (c) (4) (b) U (c)

35. U cU ?

(a) U Z M U
(b) U U
(c) U
(d) U -h ScU U
U
(1) (a), (b) U (c) (2) (a), (b) U (d)
(3) (b), (c) U (d) (4) (a), (c) U (d)

36. U g ScU U ScU U U U

(1) (2) h (3) (4) U

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 17 P.T.O.

Question numbers 37 to 42 are based on the tabulated data given below :
A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in thousand rupees per month)
mentioned against each of them :

Salary Salary
Age Age
S.No. (in thousand rupees S.No. (in thousand rupees
(in years) (in years)
per month) per month)
1. 44 35 11. 33 30
2. 32 20 12. 31 35
3. 54 45 13. 30 35
4. 42 35 14. 37 40
5. 31 20 15. 44 45
6. 53 60 16. 36 35
7. 42 50 17. 34 35
8. 51 55 18. 49 50
9. 34 25 19. 43 45
10. 41 30 20. 45 50

37. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years. Which class interval of
5 years has the maximum average salary ?
(1) 35 - 40 years (2) 40 - 45 years (3) 45 - 50 years (4) 50 - 55 years

38. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30 - 35 years ?

(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 35%

39. What is the average age of the employees ?

(1) 40.3 years (2) 38.6 years (3) 47.2 years (4) 45.3 years

40. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary / 40,000 per month ?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 35% (4) 32%

41. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40 - 50 years ?
(1) 35 (2) 42.5 (3) 40.5 (4) 36.5

42. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary of all the
employees ?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 55% (4) 47%

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 18
37 42 U UU U U
20 U (Z ) U ( U L )

. .
(Z ) ( U UL ) (Z ) ( U UL )
1. 44 35 11. 33 30
2. 32 20 12. 31 35
3. 54 45 13. 30 35
4. 42 35 14. 37 40
5. 31 20 15. 44 45
6. 53 60 16. 36 35
7. 42 50 17. 34 35
8. 51 55 18. 49 50
9. 34 25 19. 43 45
10. 41 30 20. 45 50

37. U 5 U U U
?
(1) 35 - 40 (2) 40 - 45 (3) 45 - 50 (4) 50 - 55

38. 30 - 35 Z U (%) ?
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 35%

39. U ?
(1) 40.3 (2) 38.6 (3) 47.2 (4) 45.3

40. U (%) / 40,000 # U U ?

(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 35% (4) 32%

41. 40 - 50 Z ( U L ) ?
(1) 35 (2) 42.5 (3) 40.5 (4) 36.5

42. U U ?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 55% (4) 47%

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 19 P.T.O.

43. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as :
(1) Protection (2) Detection (3) Encryption (4) Decryption

44. Which of the following is not an output device ?

(1) Printer (2) Speaker (3) Monitor (4) Keyboard

45. Which of the following represents one billion characters ?

(1) Kilobyte (2) Megabyte (3) Gigabyte (4) Terabyte

46. Which of the following is not open source software ?

(1) Internet explorer (2) Fedora Linux
(3) Open office (4) Apache HTTP server

47. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25 ?
(1) 10101 (2) 01101 (3) 11001 (4) 11011

48. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting ?

(1) Altavista (2) MAC (3) Microsoft Office (4) Google Talk

49. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum ?

(1) USA (2) European Union
(3) China (4) India

50. Indias contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about :

(1) ~ 3% (2) ~ 6% (3) ~ 10% (4) ~ 15%

51. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale.
The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately :
(1) ~ 8 (2) ~ 16 (3) ~ 32 (4) ~ 64

52. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources ?

(1) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(2) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
(3) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
(4) Oil, forests and tides

53. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not
included ?
(1) Carbon monoxide (2) Fine particulate matter
(3) Ozone (4) Chlorofluorocarbons

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 20
43. U U-U U Uh U UU U ?
(1) U (2) (3) UU (4) UU

44. - ?
(1) UU (2) SU (3) UU (4) -U

45. - U U U ?
(1) U (2) U (3) U (4) UUU

46. d UU ?
(1) UUU UU (2) UU
(3) (4) U U U

47. - 25 U (U U) ?
(1) 10101 (2) 01101 (3) 11001 (4) 11011

48. (U) - SUU U ?

(1) USU (2) (3) U (4) U

49. ?
(1) ... (2) U (3) (4) U

50. UU U ?
(1) ~ 3% (2) ~ 6% (3) ~ 10% (4) ~ 15%

51. U B UUU S U
A 5 U 6 U
(EB/EA) ?
(1) ~8 (2) ~ 16 (3) ~ 32 (4) ~ 64

52. - U U U ?
(1) U , U
(2) SU , SU U
(3) U, U U
(4) , U U

53. U U ,
?
(1) U (2) (UU)
(3) (4) UU

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 21 P.T.O.

54. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities
on environment are :
(1) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
(2) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
(3) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
(4) Population, forest cover and land available per person

55. The session of the parliament is summoned by :

(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

56. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on :

(1) 21st April (2) 24th April (3) 21st June (4) 7th July

57. The South Asia University is situated in the city of :

(1) Colombo (2) Dhaka (3) New Delhi (4) Kathmandu

58. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims ?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

59. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015)
is about :
(1) 8 percent (2) 12 percent (3) 19 percent (4) 23 percent

60. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was :
(1) 08 (2) 14 (3) 27 (4) 43

-o0o-

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 22
54. U U U U U ?
(1) , U,
(2) , U U U l
(3) U S, U U
(4) , U U

55. mU ?
(1) UcU
(2)
(3) SU
(4) SU U

56. U
(1) 21 (2) 24 (3) 21 (4) 7

57. U U S ?
(1) (2) U (3) (4) UU

58. l g U ?
(a) U
(b) S M U
(c)
(d) U S S U
U U
(1) (a), (b), (c) U (d) (2) (a), (b) U (c)
(3) (b), (c) U (d) (4) (a), (b) U (d)

59. (2015) U S (GER) ?

(1) U (8) (2) U (12) (3) (19) (4) (23)

60. 2015 U l
(1) 08 (2) 14 (3) 27 (4) 43

-o0o-

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 23 P.T.O.

Space For Rough Work

A-00 !J-0015-PAPER-I-SET-A! 24
UGC-JUN-15 28/06/2015 Set :- A Date. 06/04/2016 Pg. 1
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| QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS |
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| 23 3 | 48 4 | 73 | 98 |
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| 24 1 | 49 2 | 74 | 99 |
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| 25 2 | 50 2 | 75 | 100 |
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9=No option is correct or the question is wrong
UGC-JUN-15 08/08/2015 Set :- A Date. 06/04/2016 Pg. 5
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| QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS |
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| 1 1 | 26 2 | 51 3 | 76 |
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| 2 4 | 27 2 | 52 4 | 77 |
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| 3 4 | 28 4 | 53 1 | 78 |
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| 4 1 | 29 3 | 54 4 | 79 |
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| 5 4 | 30 3 | 55 4 | 80 |
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| 6 1 | 31 2 | 56 2 | 81 |
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| 7 1 | 32 1 | 57 3 | 82 |
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| 10 4 | 35 2 | 60 4 | 85 |
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| 11 3 | 36 4 | 61 | 86 |
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| 12 3 | 37 1 | 62 | 87 |
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| 13 1 | 38 2 | 63 | 88 |
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| 14 1 | 39 3 | 64 | 89 |
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| 15 2 | 40 4 | 65 | 90 |
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| 16 4 | 41 3 | 66 | 91 |
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| 17 4 | 42 1 | 67 | 92 |
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| 18 3 | 43 3 | 68 | 93 |
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| 19 2 | 44 4 | 69 | 94 |
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| 20 4 | 45 2 | 70 | 95 |
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| 21 1 | 46 4 | 71 | 96 |
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| 22 1 | 47 2 | 72 | 97 |
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| 23 2 | 48 4 | 73 | 98 |
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| 24 4 | 49 2 | 74 | 99 |
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| 25 4 | 50 3 | 75 | 100 |
--------------------------------------------------
9=No option is correct or the question is wrong
UGC-DEC-15 PAPER-1 27/12/2015 Set :- P Date.02/09/2016 Pg. 1
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-
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| 14 | 4 | 39 | 2 | 64 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 15 | 2 | 40 | 4 | 65 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 16 | 4 | 41 | 3 | 66 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 17 | 4 | 42 | 4 | 67 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 18 | 2 | 43 | 1 | 68 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 19 | 4 | 44 | 4 | 69 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 20 | 3 | 45 | 2 | 70 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 21 | 4 | 46 | 4 | 71 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 22 | 2 | 47 | 3 | 72 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 24 | 4 | 49 | 4 | 74 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 25 | 1 | 50 | B | 75 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
UGC-DEC-15 PAPER-1 27/12/2015 Set :- Q Date.02/09/2016 Pg. 2
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-
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|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY|
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| 2 | 3 | 27 | 3 | 52 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 3 | 1 | 28 | 1 | 53 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 4 | 2 | 29 | 1 | 54 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 5 | 2 | 30 | 4 | 55 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 6 | 1 | 31 | I | 56 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 7 | 4 | 32 | 4 | 57 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 8 | 1 | 33 | 3 | 58 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 9 | 3 | 34 | 4 | 59 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 10 | 3 | 35 | 2 | 60 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 11 | 3 | 36 | 3 | 61 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 14 | 3 | 39 | 3 | 64 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 15 | 1 | 40 | 3 | 65 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 16 | 3 | 41 | 2 | 66 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 17 | 4 | 42 | 3 | 67 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 18 | 1 | 43 | 3 | 68 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 19 | 3 | 44 | 3 | 69 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 20 | 2 | 45 | 1 | 70 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 21 | 1 | 46 | 3 | 71 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 22 | 3 | 47 | 1 | 72 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 23 | 3 | 48 | 4 | 73 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 24 | 4 | 49 | 4 | 74 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 25 | 1 | 50 | 1 | 75 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
UGC-DEC-15 PAPER-1 27/12/2015 Set :- R Date.02/09/2016 Pg. 3
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-
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|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY|
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| 1 | 4 | 26 | 4 | 51 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 2 | 1 | 27 | 2 | 52 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 3 | 3 | 28 | 3 | 53 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 4 | 3 | 29 | 2 | 54 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 5 | 1 | 30 | 3 | 55 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 6 | 2 | 31 | 4 | 56 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 7 | 2 | 32 | 1 | 57 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 8 | 3 | 33 | 1 | 58 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 9 | 1 | 34 | 2 | 59 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 10 | 2 | 35 | 3 | 60 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 11 | 4 | 36 | 4 | 61 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 12 | 4 | 37 | 1 | 62 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 13 | 1 | 38 | 2 | 63 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 14 | 3 | 39 | 1 | 64 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 15 | 2 | 40 | 3 | 65 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 16 | 3 | 41 | 1 | 66 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 17 | I | 42 | 1 | 67 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 18 | 1 | 43 | 2 | 68 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 19 | 1 | 44 | 1 | 69 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 20 | 1 | 45 | 3 | 70 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 21 | 2 | 46 | 4 | 71 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 22 | 1 | 47 | 2 | 72 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 23 | 3 | 48 | 4 | 73 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 24 | 1 | 49 | 3 | 74 | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 25 | 1 | 50 | 1 | 75 | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
UGC-DEC-15 PAPER-1 27/12/2015 Set :- S Date.02/09/2016 Pg. 4
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-
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|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY|
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| 2 | 3 | 27 | 2 | 52 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 3 | 4 | 28 | 4 | 53 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 4 | 2 | 29 | 4 | 54 | B | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 5 | 2 | 30 | 1 | 55 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 6 | 4 | 31 | 4 | 56 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 7 | 3 | 32 | 3 | 57 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 8 | 2 | 33 | 3 | 58 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 9 | 4 | 34 | 4 | 59 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 10 | 1 | 35 | 2 | 60 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 11 | 3 | 36 | 2 | 61 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 12 | 1 | 37 | 4 | 62 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 13 | 2 | 38 | 2 | 63 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 14 | 3 | 39 | 3 | 64 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 15 | 2 | 40 | 1 | 65 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 16 | 1 | 41 | 3 | 66 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 17 | 4 | 42 | 2 | 67 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 18 | 1 | 43 | 2 | 68 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 19 | 2 | 44 | 2 | 69 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 20 | 1 | 45 | 1 | 70 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 21 | 2 | 46 | 4 | 71 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 22 | 4 | 47 | 2 | 72 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 23 | 1 | 48 | 3 | 73 | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 24 | 4 | 49 | 4 | 74 | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 25 | 2 | 50 | 4 | 75 | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
UGC-DEC-15 PAPER-1 27/12/2015 Set :- P Date.02/09/2016 Pg. 1
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-
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|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY|
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| 1 | 3 | 26 | 4 | 51 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 2 | 4 | 27 | 4 | 52 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 3 | 2 | 28 | 4 | 53 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 4 | 1 | 29 | 2 | 54 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 5 | 3 | 30 | 3 | 55 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 6 | 1 | 31 | 2 | 56 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 7 | 4 | 32 | 4 | 57 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 8 | 2 | 33 | 2 | 58 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 9 | 2 | 34 | 1 | 59 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 10 | 4 | 35 | 3 | 60 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 11 | 3 | 36 | 2 | 61 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 12 | 1 | 37 | 1 | 62 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 13 | 1 | 38 | 2 | 63 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 14 | 4 | 39 | 2 | 64 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 15 | 2 | 40 | 4 | 65 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 16 | 4 | 41 | 3 | 66 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 17 | 4 | 42 | 4 | 67 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 18 | 2 | 43 | 1 | 68 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 19 | 4 | 44 | 4 | 69 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 20 | 3 | 45 | 2 | 70 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 21 | 4 | 46 | 4 | 71 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 22 | 2 | 47 | 3 | 72 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 23 | 3 | 48 | 4 | 73 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 24 | 4 | 49 | 4 | 74 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 25 | 1 | 50 | B | 75 | | | | | | | | | | | |
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9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
Signature and Name of Invigilator PAPER-I
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
J 00
Time : 1 1/4 hours]
1 6
Test Booklet Series A
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) - /
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : - /
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag (ii) -
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in /
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a -
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet (iii) - OMR
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. OMR -
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR (iv) - A
Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
(iv) The Series of this booklet is A, make sure that the series - , OMR
printed on OMR Sheet is same as that on this booklet. In -/
case of discrepancy in Series, the candidate should OMR
immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for 4. (1), (2), (3) (4)
replacement of the Test Booklet/OMR Sheet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on : (3)
the correct response against each item. 5. OMR
Example : OMR
where (3) is the correct response. ,
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet only. If you mark your 6.
response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR 7. (Rough Work)
Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 8. OMR ,
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. ,
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. , ,
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space ,
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using 9. OMR
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators -
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not OMR
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are 10. C.B.S.E.
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 11. ()
10. Use only Black Ball point pen provided by C.B.S.E.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12.
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. 13. ,
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,
English version will be taken as final.

A-00 P.T.O.
Paper I
Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be
evaluated.
1. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of
teaching :
List of factors :
(a) Teachers knowledge of the subject.
(b) Teachers socio-economic background.
(c) Communication skill of the teacher.
(d) Teachers ability to please the students.
(e) Teachers personal contact with students.
(f) Teachers competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (c), (d) and (f)
(3) (b), (d) and (e) (4) (a), (c) and (f)
2. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of
(1) attracting students attention in the class room.
(2) minimising indiscipline problems in the classroom.
(3) optimising learning outcomes of students.
(4) effective engagement of students in learning tasks.
3. Assertion (A) : The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative
thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R) : These abilities ensure job placements.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
4. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation system.
Choose the correct code :
Set I Set II
a. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive
aspects with regularity
b. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a
group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and iii. Grading the final learning outcomes
comprehensive evaluation
d. Norm and criterion referenced iv. Quizzes and discussions
tests
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv iii i ii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) i iii iv ii
A-00 2
I
: (60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)

1. :
:
(a)
(b) -
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
:
(1) (b), (c) (d) (2) (c), (d) (f)
(3) (b), (d) (e) (4) (a), (c) (f)
2. -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
3. (A) :

(R) : -
:
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(2) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(3) (A) (R)
(4) (A) (R)
4. I II
:
I II
a. i. , -

b. ii.

c. iii.
d. iv.
:
a b c d
(1) iv iii i ii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) i iii iv ii
A-00 3 P.T.O.
5. A researcher intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of
effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for
this study ?
(1) Historical method (2) Descriptive survey method
(3) Experimental method (4) Ex-post-facto method

6. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research ?

(1) Developing a research design
(2) Formulating a research question
(3) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(4) Formulating a research hypothesis

7. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

(1) preparation of a research paper/article
(2) writing of seminar presentation
(3) a research dissertation
(4) presenting a workshop / conference paper

8. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical ?
(1) Data collection with standardised research tools.
(2) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
(3) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
(4) Data gathering to take place with top-down systematic evidences.

9. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for
research ethics :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other
researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of
preliminary studies.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (4) (i), (iii) and (v)

10. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in

completing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that child rearing practices do
influence stress-proneness. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to
find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the
null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted
in respect of the research hypothesis ?
(1) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.
(2) The research hypothesis will be accepted.
(3) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(4) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.
A-00 4
5. -
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

6. ?
(1)
(2) -
(3)
(4) -

7. - :
(1) -/ (2)
(3) - (4) /

8. , ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9. ,
:
(i) ,
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

(vi)

:
(1) (i), (ii) (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii), (iv) (vi) (4) (i), (iii) (v)

10. - ,

.01
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A-00 5 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 11 to 16 :
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers
conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer-
electronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based
advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China
appears to be capitalizing best on the basis of labour. Japanese firms still remain competitive in
markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer
sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such
shifting of labour-based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today, a huge
number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore, and
like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills.
However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India,
Singapore, and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find
such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitors.
In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coins and later even paper money restricted
financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries
and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no
longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in
places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated
there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide.
Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour,
capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such an
organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.
In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as
a resource with atleast the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs.
An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that
appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering,
pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas
provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e.g. computer chips),
which are made principally of sand and common metals. These ubiquitous and powerful electronic
devices are designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools, and
fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive
resource in the semiconductor industry.
Based on the passage answer the following questions :
11. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades ?
(1) South Korea (2) Japan
(3) Mexico (4) Malaysia
12. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT
and service sectors ?
(1) Due to diminishing levels of skill.
(2) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.
(3) Because of new competitors.
(4) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.
13. How can an organisation enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime ?
(1) Through regional capital flows.
(2) Through regional interactions among business players.
(3) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced.
(4) By effective use of various instrumentalities.
14. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets ?
(1) Access to capital (2) Common office buildings
(3) Superior knowledge (4) Common metals
15. The passage also mentions about the trend of
(1) Global financial flow
(2) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
(3) Regionalisation of capitalists
(4) Organizational incompatibility
16. What does the author lay stress on in the passage ?
(1) International commerce (2) Labour-Intensive industries
(3) Capital resource management (4) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage
A-00 6
11 16 :
,
, : ,
, , , ,
,
, ,

:
,
: ,
, - ; ,
,

, -
,

() :, - ,

( : , , , )
,
,
-
, :
: ,
, , ,

,

:
11. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12. - . ?
(1) (2) -
(3) (4)
13. ?
(1)
(2)
(3) ,
(4)
14. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
15. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
16. ?
(1) (2) -
(3) - (4) -

A-00 7 P.T.O.
17. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status.
Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context ?
(1) Horizontal communication
(2) Vertical communication
(3) Corporate communication
(4) Cross communication

18. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing
students in a classroom.
(1) Avoidance of proximity
(2) Voice modulation
(3) Repetitive pause
(4) Fixed posture

19. What are the barriers to effective communication ?

(1) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.
(2) Dialogue, summary and self-review.
(3) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
(4) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration.

20. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of

(1) Proximity, utility, loneliness
(2) Utility, secrecy, dissonance
(3) Secrecy, dissonance, deception
(4) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance

21. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.
(1) Use of peer command
(2) Making aggressive statements
(3) Adoption of well-established posture
(4) Being authoritarian

22. Every communicator has to experience

(1) Manipulated emotions
(2) Anticipatory excitement
(3) The issue of homophiles
(4) Status dislocation
A-00 8
17. ,
- : ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

18.

(1) (2) ( )
(3) (4)

19. ?
(1) -,
(2) , -
(3) ,
(4) ,

20. ?
(1) , , (2) , ,
(3) , , (4) , ,

21.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) -

22. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

A-00 9 P.T.O.
23. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will
be
(1) YKCPGAYLQ
(2) BNFSJDBMR
(3) QLYAGPCKY
(4) YQKLCYPAG

24. In the series

3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ..........
The next term will be
(1) 63 (2) 73
(3) 83 (4) 93

25. Two railway tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost ` 177. Three
tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost ` 173. The fare for city B
from city A will be `
(1) 25 (2) 27
(3) 30 (4) 33

26. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he
walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he now from his starting point ?
(1) 20 m (2) 15 m
(3) 10 m (4) 5 m

27. A is sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A

is related to D as
(1) Grand daughter (2) Daughter
(3) Daughter-in-law (4) Sister

28. In the series

AB, EDC, FGHI, ....?...., OPQRST, the missing term is
(1) JKLMN (2) JMKNL
(3) NMLKJ (4) NMKLJ

29. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of
the other. Which are those propositions ? Select the correct code :
Propositions :
(a) All women are equal to men
(b) Some women are equal to men
(c) Some women are not equal to men
(d) No women are equal to men
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)
A-00 10
23. , SELECTION QCJCARGML , AMERICANS :
(1) YKCPGAYLQ (2) BNFSJDBMR
(3) QLYAGPCKY (4) YQKLCYPAG

24.
3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ..........

(1) 63 (2) 73
(3) 83 (4) 93

25. A B A C ` 177 A B
A C ` 173 A B
:
(1) ` 25 (2) ` 27
(3) ` 30 (4) ` 33

26. 10 10 -
: 5, 15 15 ?
(1) 20 . (2) 15 .
(3) 10 . (4) 5 .

27. A, B , F, G , C, B , D, C , E, D , A D
:
(1) () (2) ()
(3) -- (-) (4) ()

28. AB, EDC, FGHI, ....?...., OPQRST :

(1) JKLMN (2) JMKNL
(3) NMLKJ (4) NMKLJ

29. - -
? :
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
(1) (a) (b) (2) (a) (d)
(3) (c) (d) (4) (a) (c)

A-00 11 P.T.O.
30. If the proposition All thieves are poor is false, which of the following propositions can
be claimed certainly to be true ?
Propositions :
(1) Some thieves are poor.
(2) Some thieves are not poor.
(3) No thief is poor.
(4) No poor person is a thief.

31. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the
argument involved in it :
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as
to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.
(1) Astronomical (2) Anthropological
(3) Deductive (4) Analogical

32. Select the code which is not correct about Venn diagram :
(1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
(2) It can provide clear method of notation.
(3) It can be either valid or invalid.
(4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.

33. Select the code which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two
premises :
(1) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be
valid.
(2) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(3) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true conclusion may be
valid.
(4) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

34. Given below are two premises and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or
together). Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn.
Premises : (i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusions : (a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
A-00 12
30.
?
:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

31.
:
,

(1) (2)
(3) (4)

32.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33. , - :
(1) -, - ,
(2) -
(3) -, -
(4) -

34. - ( - )
,
- : (i)
(ii)
: (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
(1) (a), (b), (c) (d) (2) (a)
(3) (a) (c) (4) (b) (c)
A-00 13 P.T.O.
The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A and B
during the years 2011-15. Answer questions 35-37 based on the data contained in the table :

Profit earned by two companies

Percentage Profit (%)
Year
A B
2011 20 30
2012 35 40
2013 45 35
2014 40 50
2015 25 35

Income Expenditure
Where, percent (%) Profit = 100
Expenditure

35. If the total expenditure of the two companies was ` 9 lakh in the year 2012 and the
expenditure of A and B were in the ratio 2 : 1, then what was the income of the company
A in that year ?
(1) ` 9.2 lakh
(2) ` 8.1 lakh
(3) ` 7.2 lakh
(4) ` 6.0 lakh

36. What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B ?

(1) 35%
(2) 42%
(3) 38%
(4) 40%

37. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than that of company
A?
(1) 2012
(2) 2013
(3) 2014
(4) 2015
A-00 14
2011-15 A B
(%) 35-37

(%)

A B
2011 20 30
2012 35 40
2013 45 35
2014 40 50
2015 25 35

, (%) = 100

35. , 2012 9 A B 2 : 1 ,
A ?
(1) ` 9.2 (2) ` 8.1
(3) ` 7.2 (4) ` 6.0

36. B ?
(1) 35 (2) 42
(3) 38 (4) 40

37. B , A ?
(1) 2012 (2) 2013

(3) 2014 (4) 2015

A-00 15 P.T.O.
The following table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to
a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the questions
that follow : (Question 38-40) to the nearest whole percentage :
Number of people
Age (Years) (Years) (Years)
Style of 15-20 21-30 31+
Music
Classical 6 4 17
Pop 7 5 5
Rock 6 12 14
Jazz 1 4 11
Blues 2 3 15
Hip-Hop 9 3 4
Ambient 2 2 2
38. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21-30 ?
(1) 31% (2) 23%
(3) 25% (4) 14%
39. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their
favourite style of music ?
(1) 6% (2) 8%
(3) 14% (4) 12%
40. What percentage of respondents aged 31+ indicated a favourite style other than classical
music ?
(1) 64% (2) 60%
(3) 75% (4) 50%
41. The statement the study, design, development, implementation, support or management
of computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer
Hardware refers to
(1) Information Technology (IT)
(2) Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)
(3) Information and Data Technology (IDT)
(4) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
42. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of
the decimal number 51 is given by
(1) 110011 (2) 110010
(3) 110001 (4) 110100

43. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as

(1) Burning (2) Zipping
(3) Digitizing (4) Ripping
44. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipients at once is a
(1) Worm (2) Virus
(3) Threat (4) Spam
A-00 16
- ,
(38-40)
:

() () ()
15-20 21-30 31+

6 4 17
7 5 5
6 12 14
1 4 11
2 3 15
- 9 3 4
2 2 2
38. 21-30 ?
(1) 31% (2) 23%
(3) 25% (4) 14%
39. - ?
(1) 6% (2) 8%
(3) 14% (4) 12%
40. 31+ ?
(1) 64% (2) 60%
(3) 75% (4) 50%
41. , , , , ,
:
(1) (..)
(2) (...)
(3) (...)
(4) (..)

42. 48 110000 , 51
(1) 110011 (2) 110010
(3) 110001 (4) 110100

43. .. :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

44. -
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
A-00 17 P.T.O.
45. _________ is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computers start-up routine.
(1) RIM (Read Initial Memory)
(2) RAM (Random Access Memory)
(3) ROM (Read Only Memory)
(4) Cache Memory

46. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in

order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys that the computer user
selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for
(1) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(2) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
(3) American Standard Code for Information Integrity
(4) American Standard Code for Isolated Information

47. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of
human beings.
(1) Particulate matter (2) Oxides of nitrogen
(3) Surface ozone (4) Carbon monoxide

48. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India ?
(1) Untreated sewage
(2) Agriculture run-off
(3) Unregulated small scale industries
(4) Religious practices

49. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by

(1) 2022 (2) 2030
(3) 2040 (4) 2050

50. Indian governments target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
(1) 50 MW (2) 25 MW
(3) 15 MW (4) 10 MW

51. Assertion (A) : Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
Reason (R) : Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
Choose the correct code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

52. World Meteorological Organisations (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of
deaths due to hydrometeorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference
to the decade 1994-2003)
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (4) 80%
A-00 18
45. _________ , -
(1) ... ( )
(2) ... ( )
(3) ... ( )
(4)

46. ..... - ,
, , -
, ..... __________ ()
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

47. ,

(1) ( ) (2)
(3) (4)

48. - ?
(1)
(2) -
(3)
(4) -
49. ?
(1) 2022 (2) 2030
(3) 2040 (4) 2050

50. 2022
(1) 50 .. (2) 25 ..
(3) 15 .. (4) 10 ..

51. (A) :
(R) :
:
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(2) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(3) (A) (R)
(4) (A) (R)

52. (...) 2010-2019 - ()

(1994-2003 ) ?
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (4) 80%
A-00 19 P.T.O.
53. Which of the following core values among the institutions of higher education are
promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council) ?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
54. The best way for providing value education is through
(1) discussions on scriptural texts (2) lectures / discourses on values
(3) seminars / symposia on values (4) mentoring / reflective sessions on values
55. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared
unconstitutional by
(1) The Supreme Court of India
(2) The High Court
(3) The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(4) The President of India
56. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct ?
(a) The President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) only
57. Which of the following are the fundamental duties ?
(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given :
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
58. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog ?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
A-00 20
53. ()
?
(a)
(b)
(c) -
(d)
:
:
(1) (b), (c) (d) (2) (a), (b) (c)
(3) (a), (c) (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)
54.
(1) (2) /
(3) / (4) /
55. (....) ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
56. -/ / ?
(a) ,
(b)
(c) ,
(d) -
:
(1) (a), (b), (c) (d) (2) (b), (c) (d)
(3) (b) (c) (4) (c)
57. - () ?
(a)
(b)
(c) -
(d)
:
:
(1) (a), (b) (c) (2) (a), (b) (d)
(3) (a), (c) (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)

58. ?
(a)
(b)
(c) ,
(d) ( )
:
(1) (a) (d) (2) (b) (d)
(3) (c) (d) (4) (b), (c) (d)
A-00 21 P.T.O.
59. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop
cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below,
given are two sets of items Set I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and
Set II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets and
indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code :
Set I Set II
(Levels of Cognitive (Basic requirements for promoting cognitive
Interchange) interchange)
a. Memory level i. Giving opportunity for discriminating
examples and non-examples of a point.
b. Understanding level ii. Recording the important points made
during the presentations.
c. Reflective level iii. Asking the students to discuss various
items of information.
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made
and discussed.
Codes :
a b c
(1) ii iv i
(2) iii iv ii
(3) ii i iv
(4) i ii iii

60. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective
teaching-learning systems ? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below :
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learners family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Students language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

A-00 22
59. ,

-I -II

:
I II
( ) (
)
a. i. -

b. ii.

c. iii.

iv.

:
a b c
(1) ii iv i
(2) iii iv ii
(3) ii i iv
(4) i ii iii

60. -
? :
(i) -
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) -
(v)
(vi)
:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) (2) (i), (iii), (iv) (vi)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (v) (4) (iii), (iv), (v) (vi)

A-00 23 P.T.O.
Space For Rough Work

A-00 24
UGC-JULY-16 PAPER-1 10.07.2016 Set :- A Date.04/11/2016 Pg. 1
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9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
UGC-JULY-16 PAPER-1 10.07.2016 Set :- B Date.04/11/2016 Pg. 2
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9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
UGC-JULY-16 PAPER-1 10.07.2016 Set :- C Date.04/11/2016 Pg. 3
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9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
UGC-JULY-16 PAPER-1 10.07.2016 Set :- D Date.04/11/2016 Pg. 4
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9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
UGC-JULY-16 PAPER-1 28.08.2016 Set :- A Date.04/11/2016 Pg. 5
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9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
UGC-JULY-16 PAPER-1 28.08.2016 Set :- B Date.04/11/2016 Pg. 6
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9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
UGC-JULY-16 PAPER-1 28.08.2016 Set :- C Date.04/11/2016 Pg. 7
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-
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| 11 | 2 | 36 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 12 | 2 | 37 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 13 | 3 | 38 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 14 | 1 | 39 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 15 | 2 | 40 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 16 | 2 | 41 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 17 | 2 | 42 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 18 | 4 | 43 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 19 | 3 | 44 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 20 | 3 | 45 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 21 | 1 | 46 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 22 | 1 | 47 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 23 | 1 | 48 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 24 | 3 | 49 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 25 | 3 | 50 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
UGC-JULY-16 PAPER-1 28.08.2016 Set :- D Date.04/11/2016 Pg. 8
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY|QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY| QNO |KEY|
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| 1 | 4 | 26 | 4 | 51 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 2 | 3 | 27 | 2 | 52 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 3 | 3 | 28 | 1 | 53 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 4 | 1 | 29 | 3 | 54 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 5 | 1 | 30 | 4 | 55 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 6 | 2 | 31 | 4 | 56 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 7 | 3 | 32 | 4 | 57 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 8 | 3 | 33 | 3 | 58 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 9 | 4 | 34 | 4 | 59 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 10 | 1 | 35 | 1 | 60 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 11 | 2 | 36 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 12 | 1 | 37 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 13 | 3 | 38 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 14 | 3 | 39 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 15 | 4 | 40 | 1 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 16 | 2 | 41 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 17 | 2 | 42 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 18 | 4 | 43 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 19 | 2 | 44 | 3 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 20 | 3 | 45 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 21 | 3 | 46 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
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| 22 | 1 | 47 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 23 | 2 | 48 | 2 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 24 | 3 | 49 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 25 | 3 | 50 | 4 | | | | | | | | | | | | |
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
9=No option is correct or the question is wrong, A=1&2,B=1&3,
C=1&4,D=1,2&3,E=1,2&4,F=1,3&4,G=1,2,3&4,H=2&3,I=2&4,J=2,3&4,K=3&4
Signature and Name of Invigilator PAPER-I
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

A-00 P.T.O.
Paper I

Note : This paper consists of Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50)
questions will be evaluated.

1. In a Ph.D. thesis which one is the correct sequence for showing scheme of Chapterisation ?
(1) Survey of related studies, Introduction, Design of the study, Data-Analysis and
interpretation, Conclusions and generalisations, suggested further study, References,
Appendix
(2) Introduction, Design of study, Data Analysis and Interpretation, Generalizations,
Conclusions and Survey of related studies and suggestions for further research,
References and Appendix
(3) Introduction, Survey of related studies, Design of study, Data-presentation; analysis
& Interpretation, Formulation of generalization & Conclusions, Suggestions for
further research, References & Appendix
(4) Survey of related studies, References, Introduction, Design of study, Data analysis
and interpretation, Conclusions and generalizations, Suggestions for further
research, Appendix

2. Which of the following is not the critical feature of qualitative research ?

(1) Actual settings are the direct source of data.
(2) Data take the forms of words or pictures.
(3) Seeking to establish relationships among measured social facts.
(4) Researcher becomes immersed in the situation, present or past related to the
phenomena.

3. A detailed description of methodology of research is required in

(1) Thesis/Dissertation
(2) Symposium/Workshop
(3) Seminar paper/Articles
(4) Conference and Seminar Papers

4. Research ethics has a direct connection more often with which stages of research ?
(1) Defining and delimiting the scope of research.
(2) Problem formulation and reporting of research findings.
(3) Defining the population and deciding the sampling technique for research.
(4) Deciding about statistical techniques and data analysis.

A-00 2
I

: (60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)

1. .. - ?
(1) , , , - ,
, , ,
(2) , , - , ,
,
(3) , , , -, ,
, ,
(4) , , , , - ,
, ,

2. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) ,

3. ?
(1) / (2) /
(3) -/ (4) -

4. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

A-00 3 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10 :
Many aspects of the motion-picture industry and its constituent companies are dissimilar
to those observable in advanced-technology industries and firms. For instance, company
longevity does not represent a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts. In the
advanced-technology company for example, one new-product innovation which is expected to
generate financial returns to the firm is insufficient for the company to be successful.
Rather, a stream of new product innovations is required. By contrast with the independent
production company of this case, each new film which is expected to generate financial
returns to the principals is sufficient for the company to be successful. Any subsequent new
films involving the firms participants will be produced by a different independent company.
As another instance, peoples learning is expected to have different contributors and
beneficiaries across the two organizational contexts. In the advanced-technology company, for
example, each new product innovation provides an opportunity for participants on the project
team to learn and acquire experience, and this same company intends to retain such participants,
hence, benefit from their increased experience on the next project. By contrast with the
independent production company, each new film provides an opportunity for participants on the
project team to learn and acquire this experience also, but this same company has little or no
expectation of retaining such participants, and hence, benefitting from their increased
experience in the next project.
Experience is paramount in the motion-picture industry. Generally, on film projects,
budgets are very tight, and schedules are very demanding. People are hired largely based on
their experience and are expected to perform well immediately when called to do so. There is
negligible slack time or margin for learning through trial and error, but experienced people learn
exactly through trial and error. Because experience is valued so highly and film-production
houses have such short time horizons, entry into the industry is very difficult for most people.
Further, the role played by schools and colleges is minimal in this industry. Some skills and
techniques can be learned and refined through formal education (e.g., acting schools, theatre,
film degrees), but the majority come through direct experience. Mentoring plays an important
role. True, the film business focuses heavily on exploitation over exploration. Yet success of the
industry as a whole is critically dependent upon learning and exploration overtime.
Answer the following questions :
5. What is not a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts ?
(1) Dissimilarity (2) Product package
(3) Financial return (4) Company longevity
6. What will be sufficient for an independent production company to be successful ?
(1) New product innovations (2) Financial returns from each new film
(3) Active role by firms participants (4) Organisational context
7. What does an advanced-technology company expect from the learning experience of its
participants ?
(1) Benefit for the next project (2) Opportunity for more learning
(3) Little expectation of retaining them(4) Help in marketing the previous product
8. What is not the expectation of an independent production company in the case of its
participants ?
(1) Absence from the next project. (2) Retention for the next project.
(3) Participation in the current project. (4) Use of opportunity to acquire experience.
9. Why do film production houses value experience highly ?
(1) Because of the importance of trial and error methods.
(2) Because of the margin for learning.
(3) Because of short time horizons.
(4) Because it allows easy entry to everyone into the film world.
10. According to the author, what has been the focus of film business ?
(1) Formal education (2) Mentoring
(3) Exploitation (4) Indirect experience
A-00 4
5 10 :
-

:

, ,

,

-
:

: :
,
,
( : , , )

-
:
5. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
6. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
7. - ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
8. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
9. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
10.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
A-00 5 P.T.O.
11. Internal and external factors that affect message reception by the students in the classroom
are referred to as
(1) feedback (2) fragmentation
(3) channelisation (4) noise

12. A teacher in a classroom has immediate control over

(1) the self, selected methods of communication and the message.
(2) the audience, the noise and the reception.
(3) the feedback, the technology and the audience experience.
(4) the communication channel, other communicators, and external factors.

13. What do communicated words carry in a classroom situation ?

(1) Inspiration, controversy and introspection
(2) Diversion, criticism and irrationality
(3) Insipidity, irrationality, and non-acceptance
(4) Power, structure and tradition

14. As a good classroom communicator, you are supposed to know your

(1) audience emotions (2) silent cues
(3) artful pauses (4) counter arguments

15. Figure out the components of non-verbal communication in a classroom from the
following :
(1) Facial expression, cultural space and seating arrangement
(2) Speed of utterance, feel good factor and acoustics
(3) High sound, physical ambience and teacher-learner distance
(4) Facial expression, kinesics and personal space

16. Which of the following are the basic factors of effective listening ?
(1) Opinionation, stare and glare and interruptions
(2) Aggressive questioning, continuous cues and frequent movement
(3) Me-too-ism, glancing sideways, and offering advice
(4) Acknowledgement of thoughts, reflection, and asking open-ended questions

17. In a particular code, HOSPITALS is coded as HSOLSAPTI. The code of BIOLOGICALS

will be
(1) BLICOALIOSG (2) BOLGICAILOS
(3) SBLAOILOBCG (4) BSILOALCOIG

18. In the series

1, 5, 13, 25, 41, .
the next term is
(1) 59 (2) 63
(3) 61 (4) 68
A-00 6
11.
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

12. ?
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) ,
(4) ,

13. ?
(1) , , (2) ,
(3) , (4) ,

14.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

15. :
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) , -
(4) , ()

16. ?
(1) ,
(2) , -
(3) --, -
(4) ,

17. HOSPITALS HSOLSAPTI , BIOLOGICALS

(1) BLICOALIOSG (2) BOLGICAILOS
(3) SBLAOILOBCG (4) BSILOALCOIG

18. 1, 5, 13, 25, 41, ............ :

(1) 59 (2) 63
(3) 61 (4) 68
A-00 7 P.T.O.
19. At present, a mother is 3 times older than her son. After 5 years, the sum of their ages will
be 70 years. The age of the mother after 10 years will be
(1) 40 (2) 55
(3) 45 (4) 60
20. In the series
AYD, BVF, DRH, GMJ, ? the next term is
(1) GLK (2) HLM
(3) LHM (4) KGL
21. C and D are sisters. A and B are brothers. E is son of A and brother of D. B is related to C as
(1) Brother (2) Son
(3) Uncle (4) Father-in-law

22. Anil played 8 cricket matches. The mean (average) of the runs was found to be 80. After
playing four more matches, the mean of the runs of all the matches was found to be 70.
The total runs made in the last four matches is
(1) 400 (2) 300
(3) 200 (4) 100

23. If two propositions are connected in such a way that they cannot both be false although
they may both be true, then their relationship is called
(1) Contrary (2) Subcontrary
(3) Contradictory (4) Subalternation

24. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a deductive type of argument ?
(1) The conclusion follows from the premise/premises necessarily.
(2) The argument admits degree of complexity.
(3) The argument provides us knowledge about matters of fact.
(4) The argument must be either valid or invalid.
25. Select the code which states the condition of an invalid deductive argument :
(1) All the premises are true but the conclusion is false.
(2) Some of the premises are true but the conclusion is false.
(3) All the premises are false and the conclusion is also false.
(4) All the premises are true and the conclusion is also true.

26. Given below are two premises, with four conclusions drawn from them (taking singly or
together); which conclusions are validly drawn ? Select the correct answer from the codes
given below :
Premises : (i) All bats are mammals.
(ii) Birds are not bats.
Conclusions : (a) Birds are not mammals.
(b) Bats are not birds.
(c) All mammals are bats.
(d) Some mammals are bats.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
A-00 8
19. 5 70 10

(1) 40 (2) 55
(3) 45 (4) 60
20. AYD, BVF, DRH, GMJ, ?
(1) GLK (2) HLM
(3) LHM (4) KGL
21. C D A B E, A D B C
(1) (2)
(3) (4) ()

22. 8 () 80
70
(1) 400 (2) 300
(3) 200 (4) 100
23. ,

(1) (2) -
(3) (4)

24. ?
(1) -/-
(2)
(3)
(4)

25. ,
(1) - ,
(2) - ,
(3) -
(4) -

26. - (- )
, ? :
- : (i)
(ii)
: (a)
(b)
(c) ,
(d)
:
(1) (a), (b) (d) (2) (b) (d)
(3) (a) (c) (4) (b), (c) (d)
A-00 9 P.T.O.
27. When a definition implies a proposal to use the definiendum to mean what is meant by the
definiens it is called
(1) Lexical definition (2) Stipulative definition
(3) Precising definition (4) Persuasive definition

28. Select the code which is not correct :

An analogical argument is strengthened by
(1) increasing the number of entities.
(2) increasing the number of similar respects.
(3) reducing the claim made earlier stronger.
(4) making the conclusion stronger when premises remain unchanged.

Consider the following two tables (I and II) that show the percentage of students in each
faculty at University and the number of foreign students in the Science faculty. These
percentages have been rounded to the nearest whole number. There are a total of 1049
students in the science faculty. Study these tables I and II and answer the questions that
follow (Questions 29 31) :

I : Students Facultywise II : Foreign Students in Science Faculty

Name of Faculty % of Foreign Number of Science

Students Students Students
Computing 22 American 79
Business 14 Australian 4
Science 23 African 2
Engineering 9 Chinese 6
Arts 21 European 21
Medicine 5
Law 6

29. Approximately, what percentage of students in the Science faculty is that of foreign
students ?
(1) 14% (2) 9%
(3) 30% (4) 11%

30. Approximately, how many students belong to the Engineering faculty ?

(1) 420 (2) 410
(3) 390 (4) 400

31. In case, there are 34 European medical students, then approximately, what is their
percentage in the medicine faculty ?
(1) 13% (2) 18%
(3) 12% (4) 15%
A-00 10
27. , , ()
()
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

28. , ?
(1) ()
(2)
(3)
(4) -

(I II) ,

1049 I II
(29-31) :
I. II.

(%)
22 79
14 4
23 2
9 6
21 21
5
6

29. ?
(1) 14 (2) 9
(3) 30 (4) 11

30. ?
(1) 420 (2) 410
(3) 390 (4) 400

31. 34 , ?
(1) 13 (2) 18
(3) 12 (4) 15
A-00 11 P.T.O.
A college has a total of 800 MCA students, 80% of whom are in class MCA-III and remaining
are equally divided between class MCA-I and class MCA-II. The proportion of female students
and the proportion of vegetarian students in the college are indicated as under through the table.
Answer questions 32 to 34 based on this information.
Proportion of females and proportion of vegetarians in each class

Class Female (F) Vegetarian (V)

MCA-I 0.40

MCA-II 0.45 0.50

MCA-III 0.55

Total 0.525 0.53

For example, in the table above, 0.525 is the total proportion of female students and 0.53 is the
total proportion of vegetarian students in the college.

32. What is the percentage of female students in class MCA-III ?

(1) 40 (2) 45
(3) 50 (4) 55

33. What is the percentage of vegetarian students in class MCA-I ?

(1) 40 (2) 45
(3) 50 (4) 55

34. How many total non-vegetarian students are there in class MCA-I and class MCA-II ?
(1) 72 (2) 88
(3) 78 (4) 92

35. Which of the following statements regarding the features of Information and
Communication Technology (ICT) is/are true ?
I. ICT are the main instruments for the creation of computer networks and the
applications based on them.
II. ICT support the spread of information and knowledge, separating the content from
the place where it belongs physically.
III. The digital and virtual nature of most of ICT products allow the expenditure for
them to be maximized.
Codes :
(1) I and II only (2) I and III only
(3) II and III only (4) I, II and III

A-00 12
800 ... , 80 ...-III
...-I ...-II

32-34 :

() ()
. . .-I 0.40

. . .-II 0.45 0.50

. . .-III 0.55

0.525 0.53

, , 0.525
0.53

32. ...-III ?
(1) 40 (2) 45
(3) 50 (4) 55

33. ...-I ?
(1) 40 (2) 45
(3) 50 (4) 55

34. ...-I ...-II ?

(1) 72 (2) 88
(3) 78 (4) 92

35. (...) / ?
I. ...,
II. .., -

III. ...

:
(1) I II (2) I III
(3) II III (4) I, II III

A-00 13 P.T.O.
36. If one GigaByte is equal to 230 Bytes of data storage, then 1024 TeraBytes is equal to
_____ bits of data storage.
(1) 250 (2) 253
(3) 240 (4) 256

37. The software used to navigate through the web is known as

(1) Website (2) Web Browser
(3) Internet (4) World Wide Web

38. With regard to e-mail, what does Bcc : mean ?

(1) Blind Computer Communication : - The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the
e-mail and see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.
(2) Blind Carbon Copy : - The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the e-mail and
see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.
(3) Blind Computer Communication :- The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the
e-mail but it will be an audio file because this is how blind people get e-mail.
(4) Blind Carbon Copy : The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the e-mail but
will not see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.

39. Random Access Memory (RAM), a form of computer storage, is a ______ memory.
(1) Non-volatile (2) Volatile
(3) Permanent (4) Secondary

40. In Computer Networking, HTTP is referred to as a stateless protocol as servers do not

maintain any information about past client requests. HTTP is an acronym for
(1) Hyper Text Translation Protocol (2) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(3) High TeraByte Transfer Protocol (4) Hypervisor Test Translation Protocol

41. The arsenic pollution in ground water in Bangladesh and parts of India is due to
(1) industrial waste (2) thermal power plants
(3) natural sources (4) agricultural practices

42. Among the following air pollutants which directly impacts human health as well as
climate ?
(1) Soot (2) Sulphur dioxide
(3) Oxides of nitrogen (4) Chlorofluoro carbons

A-00 14
36. , 230 , 1024 , _____

(1) 250 (2) 253
(3) 240 (4) 256

37.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

38. - , Bcc : ?
(1) : Bcc : - to : cc :

(2) : Bcc : - to : cc :

(3) : Bcc : -
, -
(4) : Bcc : , - to : cc :

39. (...), , ______

(1) - (2)
(3) (4)

40. , .... ( )
, () ....

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

41. - :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

42. ?
(1) () (2)
(3) (4)

A-00 15 P.T.O.
43. Assertion (A) : The problems of environmental sustainability are difficult to resolve.
Reason (R) : Our understanding how environment works and how different human
choices affect environment is inadequate.
Choose the correct code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

44. The percentage share of electrical power from solar energy in the total electric power
generation from all renewable energy sources sought to be achieved by Indian government
by the year 2022, is
(1) ~ 57.1% (2) ~ 65.5%
(3) ~ 47.5% (4) ~ 75%

45. As part of Intended Nationally Determined contributions, Indian government through

additional forest and tree cover has resolved to create an additional carbon sink (in terms
of carbon dioxide equivalent) by year 2030 to the extent of
(1) 3.5 to 4 billion tons (2) 2.5 to 3 billion tons
(3) 1.5 to 2 billion tons (4) 1 to 1.5 billion tons

46. Which of the following is a meteorological hazard ?

(1) Avalanche (2) Coastal erosion
(3) Landslide (4) Blizzard

47. Which of the following universities/institutes is ranked first in the India Rankings 2016 ?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi
(2) Central University, Hyderabad
(3) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore
(4) Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai

48. Which of the following statements are correct about distance education in India ?
(a) It supplements formal education.
(b) It reduces the cost of education.
(c) It replaces the formal education.
(d) It enhances access to education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
A-00 16
43. (A) :
(R) : - ,
,
:
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(2) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(3) (A) (R)
(4) (A) (R)

44. 2022 ,
?
(1) ~ 57.1 (2) ~ 65.5
(3) ~ 47.5 (4) ~ 75

45. ,
2030 ( )
?
(1) 3.5 4 (2) 2.5 3
(3) 1.5 2 (4) 1 1.5

46. ?
(1) (2)
(3) - (4)

47. 2016 - / ?
(1) , (2) ,
(3) , (4) ,

48. ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
:
(1) (a), (b), (c) (d) (2) (a), (c) (d)
(3) (a), (b) (d) (4) (b), (c) (d)
A-00 17 P.T.O.
49. Which of the following are statutory bodies ?
(a) Election Commission of India
(b) University Grants Commission (UGC)
(c) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
(d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)

50. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Rajya Sabha ?
(a) It has same powers as those of Lok Sabha.
(b) It can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
(c) It can amend a money bill.
(d) It can be dissolved during emergency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

51. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the powers of the Governor of a
State ?
(a) He has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
(b) He has the power to appoint judges of the State High Court.
(c) He has the power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.
(d) He has diplomatic powers.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)

52. In which of the following cases, the principle of natural justice (Hear the other party) must
be followed ?
(a) Dismissal of an employee
(b) Supersession of a municipality
(c) Threat to national security
(d) Disciplinary action against a student or an employee
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
A-00 18
49. ?
(a)
(b) (...)
(c) (.....)
(d) ()
:
:
(1) (a), (b) (c) (2) (b), (c) (d)
(3) (b) (c) (4) (b) (d)

50. ?
(a) ,
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
:
(1) (b) (c) (2) (b), (c) (d)
(3) (a), (b) (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)

51. / / ?
(a)
(b)
(c) ,
(d)
:
:
(1) (a) (2) (a) (b)
(3) (a), (b) (d) (4) (a), (b) (c)

52. ( )
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
:
(1) (a) (b) (2) (a) (d)
(3) (a), (b) (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)

A-00 19 P.T.O.
53. Which of the following set of statements reflects the basic characteristics of teaching ?
Select the correct alternative from the codes :
(i) Teaching is the same as training.
(ii) There is no difference between instruction and conditioning when we teach.
(iii) Teaching is related to learning.
(iv) Teaching is a task word while learning is an achievement word.
(v) Teaching means giving information.
(vi) One may teach without learning taking place.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (v) (4) (i), (iv) and (vi)

54. Which of the following factors affect teaching ?

Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) Teachers internal locus of control.
(ii) Learner-motivation.
(iii) Teachers biographical data.
(iv) Teachers self efficacy.
(v) Learners interest in co-curricular activities.
(vi) Teachers skill in managing and monitoring.
(vii) Teachers knowledge of the subject including general knowledge.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi) and (vii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) and (vii) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

55. Which combination of methods of teaching is likely to optimise learning ?

(1) Lecturing, discussions and seminar method
(2) Interactive discussions, planned lectures and PowerPoint based presentations
(3) Interactive lecture sessions followed by buzz sessions, brainstorming and projects
(4) Lecturing, demonstrations and PowerPoint based presentations

A-00 20
53.
:
(i)
(ii)
(iii) ,
(iv) ,
(v)
(vi)
:
(1) (i), (ii) (iii) (2) (iii), (iv) (vi)
(3) (ii), (iii) (v) (4) (i), (iv) (vi)

54.
:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
:
(1) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi) (vii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) (vii) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (vi)

55. ?
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3)

(4) ,
A-00 21 P.T.O.
56. Assertion (A) : Teaching aids have to be considered as effective supplements to instruction.
Reason (R) : They keep the students in good humour.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
57. The purpose of formative evaluation is to
(1) grade students learning outcomes.
(2) accelerate students learning performance.
(3) check students performance graph.
(4) provide feedback to teacher effectiveness.
58. Which of the following learner characteristics are likely to influence the effectiveness of
teaching aids and evaluation systems to ensure positive results ?
(1) Learners family background, age and habitation.
(2) Learners parentage, socio-economic background and performance in learning of the
concerned subject.
(3) Learners stage of development, social background and personal interests.
(4) Learners maturity level, academic performance level and motivational dispositions.
59. For advancing knowledge, the latest strategy used by mankind is
(1) consulting an authority (2) deductive reasoning
(3) scientific thinking (4) inductive reasoning
60. There are two sets given below, Set-I consists of methods of research and Set-II indicates
their procedural characteristics. Match the two sets and choose your answer from the
codes given below :
Set I Set II
(Research method) (Procedural Characteristics)
a. Experimental method i. Interventions to ameliorate a given situation
b. Expost facto method ii. Explaining patterns of behaviour in terms of meanings
and their representations which people share.
c. Descriptive method iii. Manipulating an independent variable in controlled
conditions and measuring its effect on dependent variable.
d. Symbolic interactionism iv. Depending on primary and secondary sources of data.
e. Action research v. Obtaining information concerning the current status of
phenomena.
vi. Observing the effect on dependent variable and making
probes into factors/variables which explain it.
vii. Exegetic analysis.
Codes :
a b c d e
(1) i iii iv v vii
(2) iii iv v vi vii
(3) i ii iii iv v
(4) iii vi v ii i

A-00 22
56. (A) :
(R) :
:
:
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(2) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(3) (A) , (R)
(4) (A) , (R)
57.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
58.
?
(1) ,
(2) -, -
(3) ,
(4) ,
59.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
60. I II
:
I II
( ) ( )
a. i.
b. ii.

c. iii. -

d. iv.
e. v.
vi. /
,
vii.
:
a b c d e
(1) i iii iv v vii
(2) iii iv v vi vii
(3) i ii iii iv v
(4) iii vi v ii i

A-00 23 P.T.O.
Space For Rough Work

A-00 24
Space For Rough Work

A-00 24
UGC-JULY-16 28/08/2016 Set :- A Date. 31/08/2016 Pg. 1
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS |
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 1 3 | 26 2 | 51 1 | 76 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 2 3 | 27 2 | 52 3 | 77 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 3 1 | 28 4 | 53 2 | 78 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 4 2 | 29 4 | 54 1 | 79 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 5 4 | 30 2 | 55 3 | 80 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 6 2 | 31 4 | 56 2 | 81 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 7 1 | 32 4 | 57 2 | 82 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 8 2 | 33 1 | 58 4 | 83 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 9 3 | 34 2 | 59 3 | 84 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 10 3 | 35 1 | 60 4 | 85 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 11 4 | 36 2 | 61 | 86 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 12 1 | 37 2 | 62 | 87 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 13 4 | 38 2 | 63 | 88 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 14 3 | 39 2 | 64 | 89 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 15 4 | 40 2 | 65 | 90 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 16 4 | 41 3 | 66 | 91 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 17 4 | 42 1 | 67 | 92 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 18 3 | 43 1 | 68 | 93 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 19 2 | 44 1 | 69 | 94 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 20 4 | 45 2 | 70 | 95 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 21 3 | 46 4 | 71 | 96 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 22 3 | 47 3 | 72 | 97 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 23 2 | 48 3 | 73 | 98 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 24 3 | 49 3 | 74 | 99 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 25 1 | 50 4 | 75 | 100 |
--------------------------------------------------
9=ALL,A=12,B=13,C=14,D=123,E=124,F=134,G=1234,H=23,I=24,J=234,K=34
UGC-JULY-16 28/08/2016 Set :- B Date. 31/08/2016 Pg. 2
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS |
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 1 1 | 26 2 | 51 3 | 76 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 2 4 | 27 2 | 52 1 | 77 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 3 3 | 28 2 | 53 2 | 78 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 4 4 | 29 2 | 54 3 | 79 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 5 4 | 30 3 | 55 2 | 80 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 6 4 | 31 1 | 56 1 | 81 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 7 3 | 32 2 | 57 2 | 82 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 8 4 | 33 1 | 58 3 | 83 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 9 4 | 34 2 | 59 3 | 84 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 10 3 | 35 4 | 60 4 | 85 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 11 3 | 36 3 | 61 | 86 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 12 2 | 37 3 | 62 | 87 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 13 3 | 38 1 | 63 | 88 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 14 1 | 39 4 | 64 | 89 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 15 2 | 40 1 | 65 | 90 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 16 2 | 41 3 | 66 | 91 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 17 4 | 42 3 | 67 | 92 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 18 2 | 43 1 | 68 | 93 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 19 2 | 44 3 | 69 | 94 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 20 4 | 45 2 | 70 | 95 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 21 4 | 46 2 | 71 | 96 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 22 1 | 47 4 | 72 | 97 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 23 2 | 48 3 | 73 | 98 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 24 4 | 49 4 | 74 | 99 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 25 1 | 50 2 | 75 | 100 |
--------------------------------------------------
9=ALL,A=12,B=13,C=14,D=123,E=124,F=134,G=1234,H=23,I=24,J=234,K=34
UGC-JULY-16 28/08/2016 Set :- C Date. 31/08/2016 Pg. 3
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS |
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 1 2 | 26 4 | 51 4 | 76 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 2 4 | 27 3 | 52 1 | 77 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 3 4 | 28 2 | 53 3 | 78 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 4 4 | 29 1 | 54 3 | 79 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 5 2 | 30 4 | 55 2 | 80 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 6 2 | 31 3 | 56 3 | 81 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 7 4 | 32 4 | 57 1 | 82 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 8 1 | 33 2 | 58 2 | 83 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 9 1 | 34 2 | 59 2 | 84 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 10 2 | 35 1 | 60 4 | 85 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 11 2 | 36 2 | 61 | 86 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 12 2 | 37 3 | 62 | 87 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 13 3 | 38 3 | 63 | 88 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 14 1 | 39 1 | 64 | 89 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 15 2 | 40 2 | 65 | 90 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 16 2 | 41 3 | 66 | 91 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 17 2 | 42 3 | 67 | 92 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 18 4 | 43 4 | 68 | 93 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 19 3 | 44 2 | 69 | 94 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 20 3 | 45 4 | 70 | 95 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 21 1 | 46 3 | 71 | 96 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 22 1 | 47 4 | 72 | 97 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 23 1 | 48 4 | 73 | 98 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 24 3 | 49 4 | 74 | 99 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 25 3 | 50 3 | 75 | 100 |
--------------------------------------------------
9=ALL,A=12,B=13,C=14,D=123,E=124,F=134,G=1234,H=23,I=24,J=234,K=34
UGC-JULY-16 28/08/2016 Set :- D Date. 31/08/2016 Pg. 4
SUBJECT CODE & NAME:-
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS |
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 1 4 | 26 4 | 51 1 | 76 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 2 3 | 27 2 | 52 2 | 77 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 3 3 | 28 1 | 53 1 | 78 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 4 1 | 29 3 | 54 2 | 79 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 5 1 | 30 4 | 55 2 | 80 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 6 2 | 31 4 | 56 3 | 81 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 7 3 | 32 4 | 57 1 | 82 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 8 3 | 33 3 | 58 2 | 83 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 9 4 | 34 4 | 59 2 | 84 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 10 1 | 35 1 | 60 2 | 85 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 11 2 | 36 4 | 61 | 86 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 12 1 | 37 3 | 62 | 87 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 13 3 | 38 2 | 63 | 88 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 14 3 | 39 3 | 64 | 89 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 15 4 | 40 1 | 65 | 90 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 16 2 | 41 2 | 66 | 91 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 17 2 | 42 2 | 67 | 92 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 18 4 | 43 4 | 68 | 93 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 19 2 | 44 3 | 69 | 94 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 20 3 | 45 4 | 70 | 95 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 21 3 | 46 2 | 71 | 96 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 22 1 | 47 4 | 72 | 97 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 23 2 | 48 2 | 73 | 98 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 24 3 | 49 4 | 74 | 99 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 25 3 | 50 4 | 75 | 100 |
--------------------------------------------------
9=ALL,A=12,B=13,C=14,D=123,E=124,F=134,G=1234,H=23,I=24,J=234,K=34
Signature and Name of Invigilator PAPER-I
1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
J A 00
Time : 1 1/4 hours]
1 7
Test Booklet Series W
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) - /
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper - /
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag (ii) -
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in /
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period -
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) - OMR
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number OMR -
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR
Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iv) - W
(iv) The Series of this booklet is W, make sure that the series - - , OMR
printed on OMR Sheet and Answer Sheet No. is same as .
that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy in Series and OMR .
Answer Sheet no., the candidate should immediately report -/OMR
the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of the Test
Booklet/OMR Sheet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3) 4. (1), (2), (3) (4)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example : : (3)
where (3) is the correct response. 5. OMR
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet only. If you mark your ,
response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR
Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. (Rough Work)
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. OMR ,
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put ,
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space , ,
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your ,
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. OMR
9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, -
however, allowed to carry original question booklet on
conclusion of examination. 10.
10. Use only Black Ball point pen. 11. ()
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, 13. ,
English version will be taken as final.
W-00 P.T.O.
Paper I
Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be
evaluated.
1. The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and students with a
view to explore the possibility of their enhanced participation in school programmes. This
endeavour may be related to which type of research ?
(1) Evaluation Research (2) Fundamental Research
(3) Action Research (4) Applied Research
2. In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps ?
(1) Reflect, observe, plan, act (2) Plan, act, observe, reflect
(3) Plan, reflect, observe, act (4) Act, observe, plan, reflect
3. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below ?
(1) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis
making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.
(2) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data
analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
(3) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design,
Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.
(4) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools,
Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence.
4. Below are given two sets research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools (Set-II).
Match the two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code :
Set I Set II
(Research Methods) (Data Collection Tools)
a. Experimental method i. Using primary and secondary sources
b. Ex post-facto method ii. Questionnaire
c. Descriptive survey method iii. Standardized tests
d. Historical method iv. Typical characteristic tests
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii i iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) ii iii i iv
(4) ii iv iii i
5. The issue of research ethics may be considered pertinent at which stage of research ?
(1) At the stage of problem formulation and its definition
(2) At the stage of defining the population of research
(3) At the stage of data collection and interpretation
(4) At the stage of reporting the findings.
6. In which of the following, reporting format is formally prescribed ?
(1) Doctoral level thesis (2) Conference of researchers
(3) Workshops and seminars (4) Symposia
W-00 2
I
: (60) , (2)
(50)
(50) (50)

1.

?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
2. ?
(1) , , , (2) , , ,
(3) , , , (4) , , ,
3. ?
(1) , , , , ,

(2) , , , , ,

(3) , , , , ,

(4) , , ,

4. : ( I) ( II)

I II
( ) ( )
a. i.
b. ii.
c. iii.
d. () iv.
:
a b c d
(1) ii i iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) ii iii i iv
(4) ii iv iii i
5. ?
(1)
(2)
(3) -
(4)
6. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
W-00 3 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 7 to 12 :
The last great war, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world, had little
impact on Indian literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsion against violence and
adding to the growing disillusionment with the humane pretensions of the Western World.
This was eloquently voiced in Tagores later poems and his last testament, Crisis in Civilisation.
The Indian intelligentsia was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help
sympathising with Englands dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the Russians fighting
with their backs to the wall against the ruthless Nazi hordes, and with China groaning under the
heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand, their own country was practically under military
occupation of their own soil, and an Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the
opposite camp to liberate their country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of
loyalties. One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came
in the wake of the Allies victory and was followed by the collapse of colonialism in the
neighbouring countries of South-East Asia, would have released an upsurge of creative energy.
No doubt it did, but unfortunately it was soon submerged in the great agony of partition, with its
inhuman slaughter of the innocents and the uprooting of millions of people from their homeland,
followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies, along with Pakistans
invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed provoke a poignant
writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected, Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri,
Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. But poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make great
literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence survived these disasters have been
mainly absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great
literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in
volume, range and variety than it ever was in the past.
Based on the passage answer the following questions from 7 to 12 :
7. What was the impact of the last great war on Indian literature ?
(1) It had no impact.
(2) It aggravated popular revulsion against violence.
(3) It shook the foundations of literature.
(4) It offered eloquent support to the Western World.
8. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament ?
(1) Offered support to Subhas Bose.
(2) Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World.
(3) Expressed loyalty to England.
(4) Encouraged the liberation of countries.
9. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war ?
(1) Indifference to Russias plight.
(2) They favoured Japanese militarism.
(3) They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties.
(4) They expressed sympathy for Englands dogged courage.
10. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence of creative energy in Indian literature.
(1) Military occupation of ones own soil.
(2) Resistance to colonial occupation.
(3) Great agony of partition.
(4) Victory of Allies.
11. What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and Bangladesh ?
(1) Suspicion of other countries (2) Continuance of rivalry
(3) Menace of war (4) National reconstruction
12. The passage has the message that
(1) Disasters are inevitable.
(2) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions.
(3) Indian literature does not have a marked landscape.
(4) Literature has no relation with war and independence.
W-00 4
7 12 :
,

, ,
, ;
, ,

1947
, - ,
: ,

, , , ,

,

(7 12) :
7. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
8. () ?
(1) (2) -
(3) (4)
9. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) -
10.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

11. ?
(1) - (2)
(3) (4)
12. () ?
(1)
(2) -
(3)
(4) -
W-00 5 P.T.O.
13. Effective communication pre-supposes
(1) Non-alignment (2) Domination
(3) Passivity (4) Understanding

14. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said that most people believe
in
(1) indeterminate messages (2) verbal messages
(3) non-verbal messages (4) aggressive messages

15. The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being
(1) Sedentary (2) Staggered
(3) Factual (4) Sectoral

16. Expressive communication is driven by

(1) Passive aggression
(2) Encoders personality characteristics
(3) External clues
(4) Encoder-decoder contract

17. Positive classroom communication leads to

(1) Coercion (2) Submission
(3) Confrontation (4) Persuasion

18. Classroom communication is the basis of

(1) Social identity
(2) External inanities
(3) Biased passivity
(4) Group aggression

W-00 6
13.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

14. - ,
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

15. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

16. ?
(1)
(2) ()
(3)
(4) - ()

17. ?
(1) / (2)
(3) - (4)

18. ?
(1)
(2)
(3) -
(4)
W-00 7 P.T.O.
19. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343, is
(1) 30 (2) 49
(3) 125 (4) 81

20. The next term in the following series

YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ? will be
(1) TLO (2) QOL
(3) QLO (4) GQP

21. If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as O, I as A, P as N, E as M, O as E and C as S, then

the code of COMPANIES will be
(1) SPEINMOAC (2) NCPSEIOMA
(3) SMOPIEACN (4) SEINCPAMO

22. Among the following, identify the continuous type of data :

(1) Number of languages a person speaks
(2) Number of children in a household
(3) Population of cities
(4) Weight of students in a class

23. Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays ` 21 to the shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a
cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays ` 28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two
glasses, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays ` 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups
will be
(1) ` 40
(2) ` 60
(3) ` 80
(4) ` 70

24. Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is
different. Identify the odd one
(1) Lucknow
(2) Rishikesh
(3) Allahabad
(4) Patna

25. Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a
characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning :
(1) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment.
(2) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises.
(3) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily.
(4) The argument may be valid or invalid.

W-00 8
19. 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343,
(1) 30 (2) 49
(3) 125 (4) 81

20. YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ?

(1) TLO (2) QOL
(3) QLO (4) GQP

21. A C , M I , N P , S O , I A , P N , E M , O E
C S , COMPANIES
(1) SPEINMOAC (2) NCPSEIOMA
(3) SMOPIEACN (4) SEINCPAMO

22. :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23. ` 21 ,
` 28 , ` 35 ,
10
(1) ` 40
(2) ` 60
(3) ` 80
(4) ` 70

24. ,

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25.
:
(1)
(2) -/
(3) : -/
(4)
W-00 9 P.T.O.
26. If two standard form categorical propositions with the same subject and predicate are
related in such a manner that if one is undetermined the other must be undetermined, what
is their relation ?
(1) Contrary (2) Subcontrary
(3) Contradictory (4) Sub-altern

27. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered
inferior or superior to the other, any more than a birds wings can be considered superior
or inferior to a fishs fins. What type of argument it is ?
(1) Biological (2) Physiological
(3) Analogical (4) Hypothetical

28. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be
true but can both be false. Select the code that states those two propositions.
Propositions :
(a) Every student is attentive.
(b) Some students are attentive.
(c) Students are never attentive.
(d) Some students are not attentive.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)

29. Given below are two premises ((a) and (b)). From those two premises four conclusions (i),
(ii), (iii) & (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from
the premises (taking singly or jointly.)
Premises : (a) Untouchability is a curse.
(b) All hot pans are untouchable.
Conclusions : (i) All hot pans are curse.
(ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.
(iii) All curses are untouchability.
(iv) Some curses are untouchability.
Codes :
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)

30. If the statement None but the brave wins the race is false which of the following
statements can be claimed to be true ?
Select the correct code :
(1) All brave persons win the race.
(2) Some persons who win the race are not brave.
(3) Some persons who win the race are brave.
(4) No person who wins the race is brave.
W-00 10
26. -
, , ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

27. - ,
,
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

28. ,

- :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
(1) (a) (b) (2) (a) (c)
(3) (b) (c) (4) (c) (d)

29. (a b) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)

( )
: (a)
(b)
: (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
:
(1) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (4) (ii) (iv)

30. ,
?

(1)
(2)
(3) ,
(4)
W-00 11 P.T.O.
` in lakh) generated by a
The table below embodies data on the sales revenue (`
publishing house during the years 2012-15 while selling books, magazines and
journals as three categories of items. Answer questions 31 33 based on the data
contained in the table.
` in lakh)
Sales Revenue (`

Year
2012 2013 2014 2015
Items
Journals 46 47 45 44
Magazines 31 39 46 51
Books 73 77 78 78
Total

31. In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue came from books ?
(1) 45%
(2) 55%
(3) 35%
(4) 25%

32. The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two
categories of items, is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

33. If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales revenue as the year
2015 over the year 2014, then the revenue in the year 2016 must be approximately :
(1) ` 194 lakh
(2) ` 187 lakh
(3) ` 172 lakh
(4) ` 177 lakh
W-00 12
2012-15 ,
( )
31 33

( )
2012 2013 2014 2015

46 47 45 44

31 39 46 51

73 77 78 78

31. 2015 ?
(1) 45%
(2) 55%
(3) 35%
(4) 25%

32. ?
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

33. 2016 2014 2015

, 2016 ?
(1) ` 194
(2) ` 187
(3) ` 172
(4) ` 177
W-00 13 P.T.O.
A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by performance
and gender of the students. The data is kept on a computer hard disk, but accidently
some of it is lost because of a computer virus. Only the following could be
recovered :
Number of MCA Students
Performance

Average Good Excellent Total

Gender
Male 10
Female 32
Total 30
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which
decided that the following facts were self evident :
(a) Half the students were either excellent or good.
(b) 40% of the students were females.
(c) One-third of the male students were average.
Answer questions 34 36 based on the data given above :
34. How many female students are excellent ?
(1) 0 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 32

35. What proportion of female students are good ?

(1) 0 (2) 0.25
(3) 0.50 (4) 0.75

36. Approximately, what proportion of good students are male ?

(1) 0 (2) 0.73
(3) 0.43 (4) 0.27

37. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE ?

S1 : The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.
S2 : In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.
(1) S1 only (2) S2 only
(3) Both S1 and S2 (4) Neither S1 nor S2
38. Read the following two statements :
I : Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of
Information Technology (IT).
II : The right to use a piece of software is termed as copyright.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT ?
(1) Both I and II (2) Neither I nor II
(3) II only (4) I only
39. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest
speed ?
(1) Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache Memory; CPU Registers
(2) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)
(3) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
(4) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
W-00 14
...
,
:
...

10
32
30
, ,
: :
(a)
(b) 40%
(c) -
34 36
34. ?
(1) 0 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 32

35. ?
(1) 0 (2) 0.25
(3) 0.50 (4) 0.75

36. ?
(1) 0 (2) 0.73
(3) 0.43 (4) 0.27

37. / / ?
S1 : 11 11
S2 : 1110.101 0.625
(1) S1 (2) S2
(3) S1 S2 (4) S1, S2
38. :
I : (...) (..)
II : - - ( )
/ ?
(1) I II (2) I, II
(3) II (4) I
39. () ?
(1) , (...), , ...
(2) ... , , , (...)
(3) ... , , (...),
(4) , ... , (...);
W-00 15 P.T.O.
40. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.0 applications ?
(1) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.
(2) Web2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share
information online.
(3) Web2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating users to
create it.
(4) Web2.0 applications use only static pages.

41. With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information in
a publication together with variable information in a data source to create one merged
publication is called
(1) Electronic mail (2) Data sourcing
(3) Mail merge (4) Spam mail

42. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym for
(1) Digital Vector Disc (2) Digital Volume Disc
(3) Digital Versatile Disc (4) Digital Visualization Disc

43. Assertion (A) : Sustainable development is critical to well being of human society.
Reason (R) : Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete
the natural resources.
Choose the correct code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

44. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NOX) in urban areas is
(1) road transport (2) commercial sector
(3) energy use in industry (4) power plants

45. Which of the following is not a water-brone disease ?

(1) Typhoid (2) Hepatitis
(3) Cholera (4) Dengue

W-00 16
40. 2.0 ?
(1) 2.0

(2) 2.0 -

(3) 2.0
(4) 2.0

41. ,

(1) (2)
(3) (4)

42. ..

...
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

43. (A) :
(R) :

:
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(2) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(3) (A) (R)
(4) (A) (R)

44. (NOX)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

45. - ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
W-00 17 P.T.O.
46. Indian governments target for power production from small hydro projects by the year
2022 is
(1) 1 Giga-Watt (2) 5 Giga-Watt
(3) 10 Giga-Watt (4) 15 Giga-Watt

47. In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro
Carbons (HFCs) was signed ?
(1) Rwanda (2) Morocco
(3) South Africa (4) Algeria

48. Which of the following natural hazards is not hydro-meteorological ?

(1) Snow avalanche (2) Sea erosion
(3) Tropical cyclone (4) Tsunami

49. Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education ?
(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commodification of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

50. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities ?
(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
W-00 18
46. - 2022
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 10 (4) 15

47. (HFCs)
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

48. - ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

49. - ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
:
:
(1) (a) (d) (2) (a), (c) (d)
(3) (b), (c) (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)

50. ?
(a)
(b) -
(c) -
(d)
:
:
(1) (a), (b) (c) (2) (b), (c) (d)
(3) (a), (c) (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)

W-00 19 P.T.O.
51. The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on
(1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
(2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group.
(3) Concern for human values.
(4) Religious and moral practices and instructions.

52. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national
emergency.
(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they
represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

53. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the
proclamation of the Presidents Rule in a State ?
(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.
(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)

54. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following
hold(s) office during good behaviour ?
(a) Governor of a State (b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of the High Court (d) Administrator of a Union Territory
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

W-00 20
51. - ?
(1)
(2)
(3) -
(4)

52. / / ?
(a) , -
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
:
(1) (a) (d) (2) (b) (c)
(3) (b), (c) (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)

53. :
?
(a) -
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
:
(1) (a) (d) (2) (a), (b) (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) (d) (4) (b) (c)

54. - , - ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
:
:
(1) (a) (2) (c)
(3) (a) (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)
W-00 21 P.T.O.
55. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of
teaching-learning relationships ? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.
(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.
(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.
(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.
Codes :
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) (4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

56. Assertion (A) : Learning is a life long process.

Reason (R) : Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

57. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of

(1) Course coverage
(2) Students interest
(3) Learning outcomes of students
(4) Use of teaching aids in the classroom

58. In which teaching method learners participation is made optimal and proactive ?
(1) Discussion method (2) Buzz session method
(3) Brainstorming session method (4) Project method

59. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the
(1) Social system of the country (2) Economic status of the society
(3) Prevailing political system (4) Educational system

60. Assertion (A) : Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.
Reason (R) : As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly
reliable.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
__________

W-00 22
55. - ?

(i) ,
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v) ,
(vi)
:
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) (v) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) (vi) (4) (i), (ii), (v) (vi)
56. (A) : -
(R) :
:
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(2) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(3) (A) , (R)
(4) (A) , (R)
57. ?
(1) -
(2)
(3)
(4)
58. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
59. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
60. (A) :
(R) :
:
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(2) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(3) (A) , (R)
(4) (A) , (R)
___________
W-00 23 P.T.O.
Space For Rough Work

W-00 24
UGC-JANUARY-2017 PAPER-1 22/01/2017 Set :- W Date. 25/05/2017 Pg. 1
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS | QNO ANS |
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
| 1 3 | 26 3 | 51 3 | 76 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 2 2 | 27 3 | 52 2 | 77 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 3 3 | 28 2 | 53 1 | 78 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 4 2 | 29 4 | 54 2 | 79 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 5 3 | 30 2 | 55 2 | 80 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 6 1 | 31 1 | 56 1 | 81 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 7 2 | 32 3 | 57 3 | 82 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 8 2 | 33 4 | 58 4 | 83 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 9 4 | 34 1 | 59 4 | 84 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 10 3 | 35 2 | 60 3 | 85 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 11 4 | 36 2 | 61 | 86 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 12 2 | 37 2 | 62 | 87 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 13 4 | 38 2 | 63 | 88 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 14 3 | 39 3 | 64 | 89 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 15 3 | 40 2 | 65 | 90 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 16 2 | 41 3 | 66 | 91 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 17 4 | 42 3 | 67 | 92 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 18 1 | 43 2 | 68 | 93 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 19 3 | 44 1 | 69 | 94 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 20 2 | 45 4 | 70 | 95 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 21 4 | 46 2 | 71 | 96 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 22 4 | 47 1 | 72 | 97 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 23 4 | 48 4 | 73 | 98 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 24 1 | 49 3 | 74 | 99 |
--------------------------------------------------
| 25 1 | 50 2 | 75 | 100 |
--------------------------------------------------
9=ALL,A=12,B=13,C=14,D=123,E=124,F=134,H=23,I=24,J=234,K=34

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UGC NET Generral (00) Paper 2012 Jun To 2017 Jan

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UGC NET Generral (00) Paper 2012 Jun To 2017 Jan

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PAPER-I

Signature and Name of Invigilator

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

[Maximum Marks : 100

(Evaluation) Date .........................

9. Given that in a code language, 645 9. , 645

14. Determine the nature of the following 14. :

15. Which one of the following is not an 15. ?

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to 16. ,

19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are 19. : A, B, C, D, E F

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By 20. 25%

21. If Ram knows that y is an integer 21. y 2 7

23. What is the contribution of wind and 23.

For Blind Students Only

24. 10 is the mean of a set of 7 observations 24. 7 10 3

26. Each character on the keyboard of 26.

27. Which of the following is not a 27.

28. Minimum number of bits required to 28. 3 ()

29. Internet explorer is a type of 29. ?

31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the 31.

32. Which is the source of 32. ?

(C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning (C)

33. Which of the following is not a 33.

34. Which of the following parameters is 34.

36. Match Lists I and II and select the 36. -I -II

37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is 37. ?

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices 38. (NCTE)

40. Who among the following created the 40.

41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen 41. :

42. The President of India takes oath 42.

44. Which of the following is not a 44.

45. Which of the following does not belong 45.

46. For a teacher, which of the following 46. ,

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

Time : 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

(Evaluation) Date .........................

15. A stipulative definition is 15.

Government Expenditures on Social Services

39. Which of the following statement(s) 39.

44. Classroom communication must be 44.

45. The best method of teaching is to 45.

49. Which one of the following is an 49.

(D) i10-index (D) i10-

50. Good research ethics means 50.

51. Which of the following sampling 51.

53. Arrange the following steps of research 53.

54. Identify the incorrect statement : 54. :

57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in

59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on

60. In the above passage, the author intends to state

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

[Maximum Marks : 100

(Evaluation) Date .........................

5. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by

6. Point out the true statement from the following :

22. If the statement some men are 22.

24. P is the father of R and S is the son of 24. P, R S, Q , T, P

28. Which of the following two years 28.

38. A Compiler is a software which 38. ,

39. Virtual memory is 39.

41. Kyoto Protocol is related to 41. ?

42. Which of the following is a source of 42.

43. The smog in cities in India mainly 43. :

44. Which of the following types of 44.

46. In which of the following categories 46. 2010-11

47. Which one of the following 47.

50. Which of the following statement(s) 50.

53. Nowadays the most effective mode of 53.

54. At the primary school stage, most of the 54.

56. A person can enjoy teaching as a 56.

58. A research paper 58.

60. Which of the following sampling 60.

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

[Maximum Marks : 100

(Evaluation) Date .........................

17. If two propositions cannot both be 17.