Mock Test - PCB Carrier Point
Mock Test - PCB Carrier Point
Mock Test - PCB Carrier Point
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Q.12 A disc is performing pure rolling on a smooth Q.15 A student takes 50 gm wax (specific heat =
stationary surface with constant angular 0.6 kcal/kg C) and heats it till it boils. The
velocity as shown in figure. At any instant, graph between temperature and time is as
for the lower most point of the disc - follows. Heat supplied to the wax per minute
V/R and boiling point are respectively -
250
Temperature (C)
200
R V 150
100
(1) Velocity is v, acceleration is zero 50
Q.22 The property of medium necessary for wave Q.27 Shown in the figure given below is a meter-
propagation is its - bridge set up with null deflection in the
(1) Inertia (2) Elasticity galvanometer. The value of l is -
(3) Low resistance (4) All of above 3R R
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Q.59 Two liquids A and B have PA0 : PB0 = 1 : 3 at a Q.66 Which would produce chiral molecule after
certain temperature. If the mole fraction ratio of hydrogenation with Lindlar catalyst ?
xA : xB = 1 : 3, the mole fraction of A in vapour
in equilibrium with the solution at a given (1) (2)
temperature is -
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.5 (4) 1.0 (3) (4)
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Q.71 In the following reaction Q.75 Which of the following compounds does not
liberate N2 on treatment with HNO2 ?
H3O O O
Product
(1) H3CCNH2 (2) H2NCNH2
The major product is :
OH OH (3) NH2 (4) H3CNCH3
(1) (2) H
Q.76 An organic compound (A) on reduction gives a
OH OH compound (B) which on reaction with CHCl3
OH and NaOH form (C). The compound (C) on
catalytic reduction gives N-methylaniline. The
(3) (4)
compound (A) is :
(1) NO2 (2) CN
O
SeO2 KOH
Q.72 CH2CH X Y O
(3) CNH2 (4) NH2
Identify final product Y :
OH O
Q.77 Which of the following gives an optically
(1) PhCHCOK inactive aldaric acid on oxidation with dilute
O HNO3 acid ?
(2) PhCH2COH CHO
O O H OH
(1)
(3) PhCCH H OH
O HO H
CH2OH
(4) Ph OH CHO
H OH
Q.73 Cinnamic acid from benzaldehyde would be (2)
HO H
prepared by which of the following reaction? H OH
(1) Perkin reaction
CH2OH
(2) Reformatsky reaction
(3) Knoevenagel condensation CHO
(4) All of these H OH
(3)
HO H
O HO H
Q.74 CH3CH react most readily with : CH2OH
(1) H2NNH2 CHO
(2) H2NNHCNH2 HO H
(4)
H OH
O
H OH
(3) PhNHNH2 CH2OH
(4) H2NOH Q.78 Biuret test is used for the detection of :
(1) sugar (2) proteins (3) fats (4) starch
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Q.79 The major product formed in the given reaction Q.83 Which of the following is correct order of bond
is : angle ?
COCl AlCl3, H2O (1) NH3 > PH3 > NF3 (2) NF3 > NH3 > PH3
+
COCl (3) NH3 > NF3 > PH3 (4) PH3 > NH3 > NF3
O
(1) Q.84 The d-orbital involved in the hybridization of
CCCl
centre atom in XeOF2 molecule is
O
(1) d z 2 (2) d x 2 y 2 and d z 2
(2) (3) dxy (4) dyz
Q.81 Which of the following forms a stable Q.88 In solid state N2O5 exists as
oxidation states? (1) [NO3] [NO2]+ (2) [NO2] [NO3]+
(1) Ce3+, Yb4+ (2) Eu2+, Tb4+ (3) [N2O4]2+ O2 (4) [NO3] [NO2]
3+ 2+ 5+ 2+
(3) Lu , Gd (4) Pr , Nd
Q.89 Which of the following has highest
Q.82 In the gaseous phase phosphorus pentachloride conductivity?
exists in the form of PCl5 units. The (1) K2[PtCl6] (2) K4[Fe(CN)6]
hybridization of constituent units in the solid (3) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (4) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
state of phosphorus pentachloride is
(1) sp3d (2) sp3, sp3d Q.90 The coordination number of Cr in
2 3 2 3 3 2 K3[Cr(C2O4)3] is
(3) sp , sp d (4) sp , sp d
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 2
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BIOLOGY
Q.91 Between ectoderm and endoderm an Q.99 Haploids are able to express both recessive and
undifferentiated layer mesoglea is not present in dominant allele/mutations because there are -
(1) Coelenterata (2) Ctenophora (1) Many alleles for each gene
(3) Platyhelminthese (4) Both (1) & (2) (2) Only two allele in a gene
Q.92 Water canal system of sponges is helpful in - (3) Only one allele for each gene in the individual
(1) Food gathering (4) Two alleles for each gene
(2) Respiratory exchange Q.100 1.38 milimeter DNA is present in E. coli. How
(3) Removal of waste many base pair will be present in it -
(4) All of above (1) 4 106 bp (2) 4 107 bp
Q.93 In metagenesis - (3) 4 108 bp (4) 4 105 bp
(1) Polyps produce medusae asexually and Q.101 The following ratio is generally constant for a
medusae produces polyp asexually given species -
(2) Polyps produce medusae sexually and A+C G+C
medusae produce polyp asexually. (1) (2)
T+G A+T
(3) Polyps produce medusae asexually and
T+C A+G
medusae produce polyp sexually (3) (4)
G+A C+T
(4) Polyp produce medusae sexually and
medasae produce polyp sexually. Q.102 In 1900 AD, three biologists independently
rediscovered Mendel's principles. They were -
Q.94 Choose correct statement
(1) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
(1) Cartilagenous fish have to swim constantly to
(2) Bateson, Punnett and Bridges
avoid sinking due to absence of air bladder
(3) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
(2) In amphibia and fish tympanum represents
(4) de Vries, Correns and Tschermak
ear
(3) Cyclostome's body have scale and paired fins. Q.103 If a cross is made between AA and aa, the
(4) Bony fish have placoid scale nature of F1 progeny will be -
(1) Genotypically aa, phenotypically A
Q.95 Cnidoblasts are use for -
(2) Genotypically Aa, phenotypically a
(1) Anchorage
(3) Genotypically AA, phenotypically a
(2) Defense
(4) Genotypically Aa, phenotypically A
(3) Capturing Prey
(4) All of above Q.104 Mendel did not propose -
(1) Dominance
Q.96 Development through many larval stages is
(2) Segregation
character of -
(3) Incomplete dominance
(1) Nemathelminthese (2) Plathyhelminthese
(4) Independent assortment
(3) Arthropoda (4) Echinodermata
Pelvic fins bears clasper in males of Q.105 When a hybrid pea plant for yellow round
Q.97
seeds (Yy Rr) is self pollinated, the phenotypic
(1) Osteichthyse (2) Mammals
ratio in the next generation would be -
(3) Cyclostomata (4) Chondricthyse
(1) 9 : 7
Q.98 Only gland present at base of tail in Birds - (2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 2 : 1
(1) Oil gland (2) Sweat gland (3) 12 : 3
(3) Mammary gland (4) Salivary gland (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
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Q.106 The Bt toxin is not toxic to human beings Q.111 Given figure provides evidence for evolution
because - represents
(1) The pro Bt toxin activation requires
temperature above human body
temperature
(2) The Bt toxin recognizes only insect-
specific targets
(3) The Bt toxin formation from pre Bt toxin
requires pH lower than that present in
human stomach
(4) Conversion of pro Bt toxin to Bt toxin takes (1) Homologes (2) Convergent evolution
place only in highly alkaline conditions (3) Competition (4) Both (1) & (2)
Q.107 Transgenic plants are the ones - Q.112 Which of the following statement does not
(1) Produced after protoplast fusion in favour the mutation theory -
artificial medium (1) It is saltatory process
(2) Grown in artificial medium after (2) They are ultimate source of variation.
hybridization in the field (3) Mutation fluctuate around the normal traits
(3) Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial and is directional
medium (4) Create genetic variation
(4) Generated by introducing foreign DNA into a Q.113 Growth hormone of pituitary is more effective in -
cell and regenerating a plant from that cell (1) Presence of thyroxine
(2) Absence of thyroxine
Q.108 Fill up the blanks. (3) Absence of Insulin
At present, about _________ recombinant (4) Presence of adrenaline
therapeutics have been approved for human-use
the world over. In India ________ of these are Q.114 Gorilla like man with large head and hands and
presently being marketed. protruding Jaws is produced due to
(1) 30, 12 (2) 40, 20 (3) 109, 32 (4) 111, 9 (1) Over-secretion of thyroxine
(2) Over-secretion of growh hormone
Q.109 Which one of the following sequences was (3) Excess of vitamin C in diet
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic (4) Excess secretion of TSH
evolution ? Q.115 If cerebellum of man gets damaged, his
(1) Overproduction, variations, constancy of movement become
population size, natural selection (1) Shaky & speech become defective
(2) Variations, constancy of population size, (2) Unbalanced, walk uncontrolled, defective
overproduction, natural selection speech & intention tremor
(3) Overproduction, constancy of population (3) Jerky & defective speech
size, variations, natural selection (4) Jerky & walked uncontrolled
(4) Variations, natural selection,
overproduction, constancy of population Q.116 When the medulla oblongata is compressed,
size then what happen?
(1) Immediately die
Q.110 "Use and disuse" theory was proposed by - (2) Die after few hrs.
(1) Lamarck (2) Darwin (3) Live at 1 hrs & after it may die
(3) Hugo de Vries (4) Malthus (4) No affect
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Q.117 The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to Q.123 Carbon dioxide generated in the tissuses is
function normally.The doctor find that an carried in venous blood primarily as
artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is (1) Dissolved gas in plasma
likely that it will be grafted at the site of (2) Carbamino haemoglobin
(1) Purkinje system (3) Sodium bicarbonate in venous blood
(2) Sinuatrial node
(4) Potassium bicarbonate in venous blood
(3) Atrioventricular node
(4) Atrioventricular bundle Q.124 Which one of the following statements with
Q.118 If spleen of Human is removed from body then regard to embryonic developments in humans
(1) will die is correct ?
(2) Number of blood platelets will increase (1) Cleavage divisions bring about
(3) Number of blood platelets will decrease considerable increase in the mass of
(4) There will be no effect on the number of
protoplasm
blood platelets
(2) In the second cleavage division, one of the
Q.119 Arrange the following in the order of increasing two blastomeres usually divides a little
volume: sooner than the second
A. Tidal volume
(3) With more cleavage divisions, the
B. Residual volume
resultant blastomeres become larger and
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Vital capacity larger
(1) A < B < C < D (2) A < C < B < D (4) Cleavage division results in a hollow ball
(3) A < D < C < B (4) A < D < B < C of cells called morula
Q.120 Which of the following is not found in renal Q.125 Head of sperm consists of -
cortex: (1) nucleus
A. Henle's loop (2) acrosome
B. Vasa recta (3) mitochondria
C. Glomerulus (4) acrosome and nucleus
D. Bowman capsule
(1) A, B and C (2) A and B Q.126 The correct labels for structures A to D are ?
(3) B and D (4) A and C
Q.121 Which of the following is incorrect match?
(1) Neutrophils - Phagocytic cells which
destroy the foreign organisms entering the
body
(2) Basophils - Secrete histamine, serotonin
and heparin
(3) Eosinophils - resist infections and are also
associated with allergic reactions
(4) Monocytes - Called as PMNL and are
transformed into macrophages
Q.122 Which of following statements are true ?
A. Fatty acid and glycerol being insoluble
cannot be absorbed into the blood
B. Fatty acid and glycerol incorporated into
small droplets called micells (1) A-Ampulla, B-milk duct, C-lobule, D-
C. Chylomicrone are transported into lacteal nipple
in the villi (2) A-Lobule, B-milk duct, C-ampulla, D-
D. Lacteal ultimately release the absorbed nipple
substances into the liver (3) A-Lobule, B-nipple, C-ampulla, D-milk
(1) A, B and C options are correct duct
(2) A and B both options are correct (4) A-Ampulla, B-lobule, C-milk duct, D-
(3) B and D both options are correct
nipple
(4) A and C both options are correct
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Q.127 What is the work of progesteron which is Q.133 Issues with 2 kingdom classification was that it
present in oral contraceptive pills - didnt distinguished -
(1) To inhibit ovulation (1) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(2) To check oogenesis (2) Unicellular and multicellular
(3) To check entry of sperms into cervix & to (3) Photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic
(4) All of these
make them inactive
(4) To check sexual behaviour Q.134 Floridean starch is structurally similar to -
(1) amylose (2) amylopectin
Q.128 Which one of the following is used in the (3) glycogen (4) Both (2) & (3)
manufacture of alcohol ?
Q.135 Orange rots is due to member of -
(1) Bacteria (2) Bread molds
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes
(3) Yeasts (4) Slime molds (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes
Q.129 Physical removal of large and small particles Q.136 Most common form of bacteria is -
from the sewage through filtration and (1) Cocci (2) Spirilla (3) Bacilli (4) Vibrio
sedimentation is called ____ - Q.137 Lichens are composite organisms consisting of
(1) Primary treatment a fungus and a photosynthetic partner (algae),
(2) Secondary treatment growing together in a symbiotic relationship.
(3) Tertiary treatment Consider the following statements about lichens.
(4) Quaternary treatment I. Lichen are very good air pollution
indicators.
Q.130 Which of the following plants is used as II. Algal partner and fungal partner live
biofertilizer - mutually.
(1) Nostoc (2) Funaria III. Algae prepares food for fungi.
IV. Fungi provides shelter and absorbs water
(3) Volvox (4) Rhizopus
and minerals for algal partner.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Q.131 Match the following and choose the correct
(1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV
combination (3) I, II and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
Column-I Column-II
Q.138 Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in the -
A Eschericia coli I 'nif' gene
(1) Motility of sperms
B Rhizobium II Digests (2) Vasculature
meliloti hydrocarbons of (3) Archegonia
crude oil (4) Alternation of generation
C Bacillus III Human insulin
Q.139 Go through the following figures and identify
thuringiensis production
these plants (A, B, C and D).
D Pseudomonas IV Biocontrol of
putida fungal disease
V Biodegradable
insecticide
(1) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (A) (B)
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(1) A Equisetum, B Selaginella, Q.147 Which of the following statement is correct ?
C Fern, D Salvinia (1) The collenchyma occurs in layers below
(2) A Selaginella, B Equisetum, the epidermis in monocotyledonous plants
C Fern, D Salvinia (2) Sclerenchyma cells are usually dead and
(3) A Fern, B Salvinia, without protoplasts
C Equisetum, D Selaginella (3) Xylem parenchyma cells are living and
(4) A Salvinia, B Equisetum, thin-walled and their cell walls are made
C Fern, D Selaginella up of lignin
(4) The companion cells are specialized
Q.140 Rapidly dividing cell in plant does not have - sclerenchymatous cells
(1) Cellulosic cell wall
(2) Lignified cell wall Q.148 Fluid nature of membrane is important in -
(3) Middle lemela (1) Cell growth and division
(4) (2) & (3) both (2) Endocytosis
(3) Secretion
Q.141 When the vascular cambium is present between
(4) All of the above
the xylem and phloem, the vascular bundle is
called - Q.149 Oxidative enzyme in animal cell present in -
(1) Closed (2) Open (1) Mitochondria and peroxysome
(3) Endarch (4) Exarch (2) Only mitochondria
Q.142 The inner, darker and harder portion of (3) Mitochondria and chloroplast
secondary xylem that cannot conduct water, in (4) Mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxysome
an older dicot stem, is called -
(1) Alburnum (2) Bast Q.150 A : Mitosis can occur without DNA replication.
(3) Wood (4) Duramen B : DNA replication can occur without mitosis.
(1) A & B are true (2) A is true B is false
Q.143 Supporting root coming out from lower node is (3) A & B are false (4) A is false B is true
present in -
(1) Sugarcan (2) Banyan Q.151 Meiotic division in plant and animal cell occur
(3) Gulmohar (4) All of the above respectively in -
(1) Diploid and haploid cell
Q.144 Match the column-I with column-II and select
(2) Haploid and diploid cell
the correct option given
(3) Diploid cell in both
Column-I Column-II
(4) Haploid cell in both
A Tuber P Bryophyllum
B Rhizome Q Potato Q.152 Cell wall consists of -
C Sucker R Ginger (1) lignin, hemicellulose, protein and lipid
D Leaf S Mint (2) hemicelllulose, cellulose, tubulin and lignin
(1) A=R, B=Q, C=S, D=P (3) lignin, hemicellulose, pectin and lipid
(2) A=Q, B=R, C=S, D=P (4) lignin, hemicellulose, pectin and cellulose
(3) A=Q, B=S, C=R, D=P
(4) A=Q, B=S, C=P, D=R Q.153 Part of chromosome after secondary
Q.145 Which meristem is responsible for the constriction is called -
production of secondary tissues? (1) centriole (2) centromere
(1) Primary meristem (3) chromomere (4) satellite
(2) Root apical meristem
Q.154 I. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle
(3) Shoot apical meristem
poles and their identity is lost as discrete
(4) Secondary meristem
elements.
Q.146 Periderm is made up of II. Nuclear envelope assembles around the
I-Cork cambium chromosome clusters.
II-Cork III. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform.
III-Secondary cortex Above features indicates which phase of
Select the correct combination of options - mitosis.
(1) I and II (2) I and III (1) Anaphase (2) Telophase
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III (3) Cytokinesis (4) S-phase
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Q.155 ER often shows ribosome attaches to its - Q.164 In apoplast pathway, water moves exclusively
(1) Luminal surface through the -
(2) Extraluminal surface (1) plasmodesmata
(2) cell walls
(3) 1 & 2 both
(3) intercellular spaces
(4) None of the above
(4) both (2) and (3)
Q.156 Which of the following is enucleated cell - Q.165 Given figure represents C4 pathway select the
(1) RBC of frog (2) Sieve tube element suitable options for A, B and C -
(3) 1 & 2 both (4) RBC of crocodile
Q.161 The reaction that is responsible for the fixation Q.167 Identify the type of ovary in diagram -
of CO2 is catalysed by which of the following
enzymes in plants ?
(1) RuBP carboxylase
(2) PEP carboxylase
(3) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase
(4) PGA synthase
(1) Multicarpallery apocarpous
Q.162 Glucose synthesis occurs during which stage of (2) Multicarpallery syncarpous
C3 cycle ? (3) Multicarpallery pistillate
(1) Carboxylation (2) Oxygenation (4) Monocarpallery apocarpous
(3) Glycolytic reversal (4) Regeneration
Q.168 Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to stigma
Q.163 Leghaemoglobin is required in the process of - of another flower of same plant is called -
(1) Nitrification (2) Reductive amination (1) geitonogamy (2) chasmogamy
(3) Ammonification (4) Diazotrophy (3) xenogamy (4) cleistogamy
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Q.169 For a gene if AA = male plant, BB = female Q.175 What do primary producers have available to
plant. Find out the genotype of endosperm and convert into biomass ?
embryo - (1) 10% of secondary productivity
(1) AAB, BBA (2) AAB, AB (2) Energy used for respiration
(3) ABB, AB (4) BBA, AAB (3) Gross primary productivity
(4) Net primary productivity
Q.170 Perisperm is -
(1) Remnents of nucellus Q.176 According to forestery commission report 1997
(2) Remnents of embryo the total forest cover of India :
(3) Remnents of endosperm (1) 11% (2) 19.5% (3) 17% (4) 18.7%
(4) None of these Q.177 Which one of the following pairs of organisms
are exotic species introduced in India ?
Q.171 Choose the feature not associated with (1) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
organisms found in tropical deserts - (2) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
(1) Small body size (3) Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
(2) Large surface area relative to their volume (4) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria
(3) Large body extremities
(4) Small surface area relative to their volume Q.178 Beside CH4 and CO2 other green house gas
from agriculture area :
Q.172 Which of the following is an important (1) SO2 (2) NH3 (3) NO2 (4) CFC
adaptation of animals to cold climate -
Q.179 Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)
(1) Thin layer of body fat
represents the following range of wave length
(2) Aestivation
(1) 450-950 nm (2) 340-450 nm
(3) Decreased tendency to shiver
(3) 400-700 nm (4) 500-600 nm
(4) Reduced surface area to volume ratio
Q.180 Biomagnification refers to increase in
Q.173 What type of human population is represented concentration of the toxicant at succesive
by the adjacent pyramid ? trophic levels, this happens because -
(1) A toxic substance accumulated by an
organism cannot be metabolised
Post-reproductive
(2) A toxic substance accumulated by an
organism cannot be excreted
Reproductive (3) A toxic substance passed on to the next
higher trophic level
Pre-reproductive (4) All of the above
Q.174