GENERAL ENGINEERING AND APPLIED

SCIENCES-MCQs in Engineering Materials

1. What are considered as the building blocks for engineering materials?

A. Atoms
B. Elements
C. Matters
D. Compounds

2. What are the major classes of engineering materials?

A. Metals, ceramics and semiconductors

B. Polymers, metals and composites
C. Metals, ceramics, polymers and semiconductors
D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites

3. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field?

A. Crystals
B. Amorphous materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Metalloids

4. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form?

A. Metalloids
B. Matrix alloys
C. Metal lattices
D. Metal Matrix composites

5. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?

A. Metalloids
B. Matrix Composite
C. Inert
D. Ceramic

6. Polymer comes from Greek words poly which means many and meros which means
__________.

A. metal
B. material
C. part
 D. plastic

7. The engineering materials known as plastics are more correctly called ____________.

A. Polyvinyl chloride
B. Polymers
C. Polyethylene
D. Mers

8. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components
materials do not have by themselves?

A. Compound
B. Composite
C. Mixture
D. Matrix

9. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials?

A. Periodic Table
B. Truth Table
C. Building blocks of Materials
D. Structure of Materials

10. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on
heating or solidifies on cooling?

A. Melting point
B. Curie point
C. Refractive index
D. Specific heat

11. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic
materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces?

A. Melting point
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal expansion
D. Curie point

12. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in
a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled
environment?

A. Dielectric strength
B. Electric resistivity
 C. Water absorption
D. Thermal conductivity

13. What physical property of a material that refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a
homogenous material under steady-state conditions per unit are, per unit temperature gradient in
a direction perpendicular to area?

A. Thermal expansion
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Water absorption

14. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that
an insulting material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of
electrical breakdown through its bulk?

A. Thermal expansion
B. Conductivity
C. Dielectric strength
D. Electrical resistivity

15. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise
the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass
of water to 1 degree.

A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Heat of fusion
D. Heat of fission

16. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a
specified load shows a specified amount of deflection?

A. Curie temperature
B. Specific heat
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Thermal conductivity

17. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension
test at constant load and constant temperature?

A. Creep strength
B. Stress rapture strength
C. Compressive yield strength
D. Hardness
18. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?

A. Rigidity
B. Plasticity
C. Ductility
D. Hardness

19. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops
below some predetermined value, usually 15ft-lb?

A. Nil ductility temperature

B. Curie temperature
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Heat distortion temperature

20. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails?

A. Elastic limit
B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material
C. Creep
D. All of the choices

21. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness?

A. Lay
B. Out of flat
C. Camber
D. Waviness

22. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect surface,
generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness?

A. Lay
B. Waviness
C. surface finish
D. Out of flat

23. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural
polymer called ________.

A. plastic
B. lignin
C. mer
D. additive
24. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two
different monuments?

A. Copolymerization
B. Blending
C. Alloying
D. Cross-linking

25. What is the generic name of class of polymer which is commercially known as nylon?

A. Polyacetals
B. Polyamide
C. Cellulose
D. Polyester

26. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _____ elongation in tensile test and is
capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is removed.

A. 100 %
B. 150 %
C. 200 %
D. 250 %

27. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes in which
the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact with the mold
by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold?

A. Calendaring
B. Blow molding
C. Thermoforming
D. Solid phase forming

28. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal
die?

A. Calendaring
B. Thermoforming
C. Lithugraphy
D. Extrusion

29. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by
chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment?

A. Stereo specificity
B. Corrosion resistance
C. Conductivity
 D. Electrical resistance

30. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to from with an ordered,
spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?

A. Stereo specificity
B. Conductivity
C. Retentivity
D. Spatial configuration

31. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?

A. Impact strength
B. Endurance limit
C. Creep strength
D. Stress rupture strength

32. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under
stress?

A. Elongation
B. Elasticity
C. Creep
D. Rupture

33. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from
proportionality of stress and strain?

A. Tensile strength
B. shear strength
C. Yield strength
D. Flexural strength

34. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from
acceptable of stress to strain is called _______.

A. Elongation
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. elastic limit

35. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite
number of stress cycles?

A. Endurance state
B. Endurance test
 C. Endurance limit
D. endurance strength

36. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?

A. Conductor
B. Semiconductor
C. Magnet
D. Semimetal

37. Which of the following is a natural magnet?

A. Steel
B. Magnesia
C. Lodestone
D. Soft iron

38. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?

A. Hardness
B. Stiffness
C. Creepage
D. Rigidity

39. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials

40. What materials has permiabilities slightly greater than of free space?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials

41. Which of the materials have very high permiabilities?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials
42. What is the defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic
substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and some stage in its
manufactured or in its processing into finished articles, can be shaped by flow?

A. Metal
B. Metalloid
C. Plastic
D. Ceramic

43. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds
called ________.

A. Metallic bond
B. Van der Waals bond
C. Cross linking
D. Covalent bond

44. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another polymer?

A. Homo polymer
B. Ethenic polymer
C. Polyethylene
D. Copolymer

45. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as _______.

A. monomer
B. elastomer
C. mers
D. copolymer or interpolymer

46. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?

A. Vulcanizer
B. Elasticmer
C. Polychloroprene
D. Elastomer

47. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within certain
concentration limits?

A. Steel
B. Wrought Iron
C. Cast Iron
D. Tendons
48. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting of steel
from the BOF or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots?

A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR)

B. Vacuum induction melting (VIM)
C. Electron beam refining
D. Electroslag refining

49. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute)
into an ingot mold?

A. Electroslag refining
B. Vacuum are remelting
C. Vacuum induction melting
D. Electron beam refining

50. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?

A. Alloy steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Galvanized steel
D. Carbon steel

51. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite?

A. Austenite
B. Eutectoid
C. Hyper-eutectoid
D. Stainless steel

52. What group of steel are water-hardened tool steels?

A. Group S
B. Group W
C. Group O
D. Group T

53. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels?

A. Group A
B. Group D
C. Group M
D. Group H

54. Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring medium to high and strength
are known as?
 A. Medium-carbon steel
B. Low-carbon steel
C. Very high-carbon
D. High-carbon steel

55. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with _________.

A. Carbon
B. Sulfur
C. Zinc
D. Nickel

56. What ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics?

A. A370
B. D638
C. E292
D. C674

57. What ASTM test for compression is designated for plastic?

A. D638
B. D695
C. D790
D. D732

58. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics?

A. D732
B. D790
C. D695
D. D638

59. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods for steel products?

A. A370
B. E345
C. E8
D. C674

60. Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for non-structural
application is classified as ____________.

A. Merchant quality
B. Commercial quality
C. Drawing quality
 D. Special quality

61. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as_______.

A. Tempering
B. Pickling
C. Machining
D. Galvanizing

62. What is the purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying?

A. To increase brittleness
B. To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness.
C. To reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur
D. To increase corrosion and resistance

63. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. About 10% of the earths crust is iron.

B. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it is too weak and soft.
C. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon (less than 2%)
D. Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast
furnace or direct reductions vessel.

64. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits?

A. E
B. H
C. X
D. B

65. What is prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace?

A. E
B. H
C. X
D. B

66. What letter suffix steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an alloying element?

A. xxLxx
B. xxBxx
C. xxHxx
D. xxKxx

67. What refers to the tin mill steel, without a coating?

 A. White plate
B. Tin Steel free
C. Black plate
D. Dechromate tin

68. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and
high strength at red hear temperatures, making it useful in resistance heating?

A. Aluminum bronze
B. Nichrome
C. Hastelloy
D. Alnico

69. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of
chromium?

A. 10 %
B. 20 %
C. 25 %
D. 5 %

70. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?

A. Deorizers
B. Deoxidizers
C. Deterrent
D. Deoxifiers

71. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon-silicon alloy?

A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Alloy iron

72. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility?

A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Ductile iron

73. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?

A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
 C. White iron
D. Malleable iron

74. What is considered as the general purpose oldest type and widely used cast iron?

A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
C. Alloy iron
D. Malleable iron

75. What is the effect if manganese in cast iron?

A. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form

B. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above
0.5%
C. To dioxide molten cast iron
D. To increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature

76. What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron?

A. To increase hardness above 0.5%

B. To deoxidize molten cast iron
C. To affect machinability, ductility, and shrinkage depending on form
D. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%

77. What is the effect of silicon in cast iron?

A. Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase the hardness
above 0.5%
B. Increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature.
C. Softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25% and
increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13%
D. deoxidizes molten cast iron

78. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earths crust is iron?

A. 10 %
B. 5 %
C. 20 %
D. 8 %

79. What is the advantage of quench hardening?

A. Improved strength
B. Hardness
C. Wear characteristics
 D. All of the choices

80. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench?

A. Carburizing
B. Tempering
C. Nitriding
D. Heat-treating

81. The following statements are true except one. Which one?

A. Carburizing does not harden a steel.

B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels.
C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.
D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.

82. Which of he following is a requirement for hardening a steel?

A. Heating to the proper temperature

B. Sufficient carbon content
C. Adequate quench
D. All of the choices

83. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals?

A. Metallurgy
B. Geology
C. Material Science
D. Metalgraphy

84. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?

A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
C. Gangue
D. Ore

85. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?

A. Tuyere
B. Coke
C. Diamond
D. Hematite

86. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

 A. Brass
B. Zinc
C. Nickle
D. Aluminum

87. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel ear the
surface of a part is increased?

A. Carburizing
B. Annealing
C. Normalizing
D. Martempering

88. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical
temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling?

A. Normalizing
B. Spheroidizing
C. Carburizing
D. Tempering

89. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite
composition and a definite temperature of transformation within the solid state?

A. Pearlite
B. Eutectoid
C. Austernite
D. Delta solid solution

90. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?

A. Sulfur
B. Phosphorus
C. Silicon
D. Manganese

91. What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened
is machined, heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to about 1000oF?

A. Annealing
B. Normalizing
C. Carburizing
D. Nitriding

92. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test?

 A. 10 mm ball
B. 120 diamond (brale)
C. 1.6 mm diameter ball
D. 20needle

93. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of
the test bar?

A. Tensile strength
B. Yield strength
C. Shear strength
D. Flexural Strength

94. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic ranger?

A. Poissons ratio
B. Refractive index
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Percent elongation

95. What is a measure of rigidity?

A. Stiffness
B. Hardness
C. Strength
D. Modulus of elasticity

96. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures,
within the gage length is called _______.

A. percent elongation
B. creep
C. elasticity
D. elongation

97. What impurity in steel can cause red shortness, which means the steel becomes unworkable
at high temperature?

A. Sulfur
B. Silicon
C. Manganese
D. Phosphorus

98. What is a process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon
content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface?
 A. Cyaniding
B. Nitriding
C. Flame hardening
D. Induction hardening

99. What is the common reinforcement for polymer composites?

A. Boron
B. Ceramic
C. Graphite
D. Glass fiber

100. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity?

A. Electrolyte
B. Water
C. Solution
D. Acid

101. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?

A. Cracking
B. Pitting
C. Cavitation
D. Erosion

102. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses?

A. Dezincification
B. Graphitization
C. Stabilization
D. Dealloying

103. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?

A. Expoliation
B. Corrosion fatigue
C. Scaping
D. Fretting

104. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?

A. Stray current corrosion

B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion
105. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude
(20 to 100 m) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?

A. Stray current corrosion

B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion

106. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.

A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not
good conduction of electricity.
B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.
C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protect on many metals.
D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.

107. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than ______
percent.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1

108. Indicate false statement about stainless steel?

A. The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels.
B. Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat.
C. Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity.
D. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.

109. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?

A. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel

B. Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel
C. Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc
D. Iron, chromium, carbon and copper

110. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as _____ time that of carbon
steel.

A. 5
B. 6
C. 10
D. 15
111. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?

A. Casting
B. Molding
C. Forming
D. All of the choices

112. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?

A. Water-cooled metal cavities

B. machined metal holding blocks
C. Ejection mechanism
D. Metal mold (matching halves)

113. What cast iron has modular or spheroidal graphite?

A. Ductile iron
B. Wrought iron
C. Gray iron
D. White iron

114. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generate by polling resin-
impregnated glass stands through a die?

A. Continuous pultrusion
B. Bulk molding
C. Vacuum bag forming
D. Resin transfer moulding

115. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products
of alcohols and acids?

A. Alkaline
B. Alkydes
C. Alcocids
D. Aldehyde

116. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy?

A. 13XX
B. 23XX
C. 25XX
D. 31XX

117. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?
 A. 13XX
B. 31XX
C. 23XX
D. 12XX

118. What does AISI stands for?

A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries

B. American Institute of Steel Industries
C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries
D. American Iron and Steel Institute

119. What does SAE stands for?

A. Society of Automotive Engineers

B. Society of American Engineers
C. Society of Architects and Engineers
D. Society of Alloy Engineers

120. What does ASTM stands for?

A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials

B. American Society for Testing and Materials
C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials
D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials

121. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel?

A. 12 % to 18 %
B. 10 % to 12 %
C. 16 % to 20 %
D. 20 % to 24 %

122. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range?

A. 600oC to 1100oC
B. 1000oC to 1500oC
C. 1100oC to 2000oC
D. 200oC to 800oC

123. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steel except:

A. Molybdenum
B. Tungsten
C. Cobalt
D. Chromium
124. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?

A. 0.10
B. 0.20
C. 0.30
D. 0.40

125. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?

A. 0.15 to 0.30
B. 0.05 to 0.15
C. 0.30 to 0.45
D. 0.45 to 0.60

126. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?

A. 1 to 5
B. 5 to 10
C. 11 to 14
D. 14 to 18

127. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _______, that is, the
hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold worked.

A. cold harden
B. stress harden
C. cool-temperature
D. strain harden

128. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium?

A. 4 to 8
B. 9 to 10
C. 11 to 17
D. 17 to 21

129. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it
will become hard?

A. Caburizing
B. Casehardening
C. Annealing
D. Surfacehardening

130. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section?
 A. Malleability
B. Hardenability
C. Spheroidability
D. Rigidity

131. What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite?

A. 1000o F
B. 1333o F
C. 1666o F
D. 1222o F

132. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above ____________.

A. 770o C
B. 550o C
C. 660o C
D. 440o C

133. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of
the curve?

A. Pearlite
B. Bainite
C. Austenite
D. Martensite

134. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temperature
to 1670o F?

A. Beta iron
B. Gamma iron
C. Delta iron
D. Alpha iron

135. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000o F for up to 100 hours in an
ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling?

A. Nitriding
B. Flame hardening
C. Precipitaion hardening
D. Carburizing

136. What is the chief ore of tin?

A. Cassiterite
 B. Bauxite
C. Ilmanite
D. Galena

137. What is the chief ore of zinc?

A. Cassiterite
B. Bauxite
C. Sphalerite
D. Ilmanite

138. What is the chief ore of titanium?

A. Sphalerite
B. Ilmanite
C. Bauxite
D. Cassiterite

139. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived?

A. Bauxite
B. Rutile
C. Galera
D. Sphalerite

140. The term brass is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of:

A. copper and zinc

B. aluminum and iron
C. copper and aluminum
D. zinc and nickel

141. The term bronze is used to designate any alloy containing:

A. copper and zinc

B. copper and aluminum
C. copper and nickel
D. copper and tin

142. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What
does the first digit indicates?

A. The purity of aluminum

B. The identity of the alloy
C. The alloy group
D. The strength of the alloy
143. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents?

A. The purity of aluminum

B. The identity of the alloy
C. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits
D. The alloy group

144. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number
indicates what condition of the alloy?

A. As fabricated
B. Strain hardened
C. Annealed
D. Artificially aged

145. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except:

A. Zinc alloys
B. Magnesium alloys
C. Manganese alloys
D. Aluminum alloys

146. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50?

A. 25000 lbf/in2
B. 35000 lbf/in2
C. 50000 lbf/in2
D. 100000 lbf/in2

147. What is the carbon content of wrought iron?

A. less than 0.1 percent

B. exactly 0.1 percent
C. more than 0.1 percent
D. ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent

148. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel?

A. 10 %
B. 14 %
C. 18 %
D. 22 %

149. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60 % copper and 40 % zinc is called
______.
 A. yellow brass
B. red brass
C. Muntz metal
D. white brass

150. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc?

A. 20 %
B. 15 %
C. 20 %
D. 25 %

151. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?

A. 20 %
B. 50 %
C. 30 %
D. 40 %

152. Indicate the false statement.

A. Aluminum bronzes contain no tin.

B. Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high-strength fasteners.
C. Bronze is a copper-tin alloy.
D. Tin is relatively soluble in copper.

153. What is the most abundant metal in nature?

A. Aluminum
B. Steel
C. Iron
D. Copper

154. Indicate the false statement about aluminum.

A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel.

B. It has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel.
C. It has high strength-to-weight ratio.
D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.

155. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?

A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting.

B. Improve conductivity
C. Lowers castability
D. Improves machinability
156. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?

A. Increase strength up to about 12%

B. Reduces shrinkage
C. Improves machinability
D. Increases fluidity in casting

157. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for
permanent magnets?

A. Invar and Nilvar

B. Nichrome and Constantan
C. Elinvar and Invar
D. Alnico and Conife

158. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except:

A. lime
B. silica
C. alumina
D. asphalt

159. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear
region in the stress-strain diagram?

A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Proportionality limit
C. Secant modulus
D. Tangent modulus

160. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?

A. Jominy end-quench test

B. The lever rule
C. Gibbs phase test
D. Stress relief test

161. What steel relief process is used with hypocutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite?

A. Tempering
B. Normalizing
C. Annealing
D. Spheroidizing

162. What is another term for tempering?

 A. Recrystalization
B. Annealing
C. Spheroidizing
D. Drawing or toughening

163. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one?

A. Carburizing
B. Flame hardening
C. Nitriding
D. Annealing

164. For metric wire gage, the No. 2 wire is ________ in diameter.

A. 0.1 mm
B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.3 mm
D. 0.4 mm

165. Bus bars of rectangular cross section are generally used for carrying ________.

A. high electric current

B. low electric current
C. high voltage
D. low voltage

166. What are used for interconnection on printed-circuit boards?

A. Unlaminated flat conductors

B. Insulated conductors
C. Rounded flexible conductors
D. Flat flexible conductors

167. Yellow brass is a copper alloy with improved mechanical properties but reduced corrosion
resistance and electrical conductivity. How many percent of yellow brass is copper?

A. 65 %
B. 35 %
C. 55 %
D. 45 %

168. What type of copper alloy is used as collectors for electric generator?

A. yellow brass
B. Beryllium copper
C. Tin Bronze
 D. Phosphor bronze

169. What is the electrical resistivity of pure copper in -cm?

A. 1.76
B. 1.71
C. 1.67
D. 3.10

170. What should be the resistivity in -cm of a resistor material?

A. 200 300
B. 100 200
C. 50 150
D. 10 50

171. What is the most widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics industry?

A. Polymer
B. Plastic
C. Rubber
D. All of the above

172. What are natural or synthetic rubber like materials which have outstanding elastic
characteristics?

A. Thermosetting plastics
B. Polymers
C. Elastomers
D. Thermoplastic plastics

173. What are cellular forms of urethanes, polystyrenes, vinyls, polyehtylenes, polypropylenes,
phenolics, epoxies and variety of other plastics?

A. Thermoplastic plastics
B. Plastic foams
C. Polymers
D. Thermosetting plastics

174. What is the widely used electrical insulator?

A. Plastic
B. Polymer
C. Epoxy
D. Paper
175. What is the dielectric strength of an unimpregnated cellulose paper or kraft paper?

A. 6 to 12 MV/m
B. 8 to 14 MV/m
C. 10 to 16 MV/m
D. 12 to 18 MV/m

176. What is the most widely known carbide?

A. Carbon carbide
B. Lead carbide
C. Germanium carbide
D. silicon carbide

177. Class I capacitors have dielectric constants are up to _____.

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 500

178. What are the typical dielectric constants of class II capacitors?

A. 500 to 10,000
B. 1,000 to 10,000
C. 500 to 5,000
D. 100 to 1,000

179. What are the most widely used general-purpose coatings?

A. Alkyds
B. Acrylics
C. Epoxies
D. Vinyls

180. What is widely used in the electronic industry as a structural member, such as tube
envelopes, hermetic seals to metals or ceramics, protective coating on hybrid and integrated
circuits, etc.?

A. Glass
B. Plastic
C. Silica
D. Film

181. What refers to glasses which are devitrified about 100oC below their softening point to form
a very fine network of crystalline phase?
 A. Fused silica
B. Glass ceramics
C. Fused quartz
D. Fiber glass

182. The percentage change in magnetic properties of materials resulting from temperature aging
called the ____________.

A. aging index
B. aging factor
C. aging coefficient
D. aging point

183. The change in electrical resistance due to the application of magnetic field is called
____________.

A. magnetic anisotropy
B. magnetoresistance
C. magnetostriction
D. magnetizing factor

184. Which material is used for de application such as electromagnetic cores and relays?

A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Steel
D. Aluminum

185. Which of the following is known as electrical steel?

A. Silicon steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Carbon steel
D. Cast Steel

186. What is the highest-frequency ferrite?

A. Garnet
B. Spinel
C. Mumetal
D. Superinvar

187. Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light-emitting diodes, Gunn diodes and
injection lasers?

A. Gallium Arsenide
 B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallian Phosphide

188. What material is used for electroluminescent diodes which can emit either green or red
light?

A. Gallium Arsenide
B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallium Phosphide

189. Lead compounds such as load sulfide, selenide and telluride may be used for which
application?

A. Diodes and transistors at low temperature

B. Infrared detectors
C. Thermoelectric applications
D. All of the above

190. For hardness penetration test, the Rockwell test uses what type of penetrator?

A. Sphere
B. Square pyramid
C. Asymmetrical pyramid
D. Cube

191. What is the combination of cutting and scratch test of a material?

A. Knoop test
B. Vickers test
C. File hardness test
D. Toughness test

192. What refers to the strain energy per unit volume required to reach the yield point?

A. Elastic toughness
B. Fatigue
C. Hardness
D. Creep strain

193. The following are typical properties of ceramics except one. Which one?

A. High melting point

B. High compressive strength
C. High corrosion resistance
 D. High thermal conductivity

194. What refers to the average number of mers in the molecule, typically several hundred to
several thousand?

A. Polymerization constant
B. Polymerization factor
C. Degree of polymerization
D. Polemerization index

195. What nickel alloy has high electrical and corrosion resistance and high strength at red heat
temperature and contain 15 to 20% chromium?

A. Alnico
B. Nichrome
C. Invar
D. Nilvar

196. Silicon bronze contains how many percent of silicon?

A. 96 %
B. 3 %
C. 1 %
D. 69 %

197. What element is added to copper to increase its strength and fatigue properties?

A. Silicon
B. Aluminum
C. Beryllium
D. Zinc

198. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard?

A. Aluminum
B. Zinc
C. Lead
D. Silicon

199. What element constitutes the major component of most bronzes?

A. Zinc
B. Tin
C. Lead
D. Aluminum
200. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

A. Tin
B. Lead
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum

201. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic
limit without being ruptured is called

A. ductility
B. malleability
C. elasticity
D. hardness

202. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling
together is known as

A. Friction
B. Cohesion
C. Adhesion
D. Viscosity

203. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called

A. Brittle
B. Ductile
C. Plastic
D. Malleable

204. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another I
known as

A. Potential difference
B. Charge
C. Specific change
D. Nucleon interaction

205. The property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference is
called

A. Resistance
B. Permeance
C. Impedence
D. Conductance
206. When a body is resistant to heat, it is called

A. Thermoscopic
B. Thermotropic
C. Thermoduric
D. Thermoplastic

207. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as

A. Gummosity
B. Glutinosity
C. Viscidity
D. Viscosity

208. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed is
called

A. Elastance
B. Elasticity
C. Elastivity
D. Anelastivity

209. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as

A. Incandescence
B. Luminescence
C. Scintillation
D. Phosphorescence

210. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a
glass prism?

A. The violet color travels faster than the red color

B. The violet color travels slower than the red color
C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed
D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color

211. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or
motion is called

A. Torpidity
B. Passivity
C. Inactivity
D. Inertia

212. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is

 A. Capacitance
B. Conductance
C. Permeability
D. Accumulation

213. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called

A. Isodynamic
B. Isotropic
C. Isogonic
D. Isotopic

214. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with
another object is

called

A. Calidity
B. Pyxeria

C. Caloric
D. Temperatur

215. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature
gradient is called

A. Thermal capacity
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal radiation
D. Thermal convection

216. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the
crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as

A. dichroism
B. dichromatism
C. diastrophism
D. chromaticity

217. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher

frequency is called

A. illuminance
B. fluorescence
 C. radioluminescence
D. incandescence

218. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is

A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. ferromagnetic

219. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called

A. debility
B. rigidity
C. elastic deformation
D. fatigue

220. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having
negligible to the flow of an electric current is called

A. supercharging
B. supercooling
C. superfluidity
D. superconductivity

251. What property of an element is determined by the number of protons in its nucleus?

a. Atomic weight
b. Atomic number
c. Isotopes
d. Atomic Mass unit

252. What are considered as the building blocks for engineering materials?

a. Atoms
b. Elements
c. Compounds
d. Matter

253. What refers to a metal combined with one or more other elements?

a. Mixture
b. Compound
c. Alloy
d. Molecule
254. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramic or other materials usually in fiber form?

a. Metalloids
b. Matrix Alloys
c. Metal Lattices
d. Metal Matrix Composites

255. The engineering materials known as plastics are more correctly called

a. Polyvinyl Chloride
b. Polymers
c. Polyethylene
d. Mers

256. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components
material do not have by themselves?

a. Compound
b. Composite
c. Mixture
d. Matrix

257. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on
heating or solidifies on cooling?

a. Melting point
b. Curie Point
c. Refractive index
d. Specific heat

258. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic
materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces?

a. Melting point
b. Curie Point
c. Refractive index
d. Specific heat

259. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in
a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled
environment?

a. Dielectric strength
b. Electric Resistivity
c. Water Absorption
d. Thermal conductivity
260. What physical property of material refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a
homogeneous material under steady state conditions per unit area, unit temperature gradient in a
direction perpendicular to the area?

a. Thermal expansion
b. Thermal conductivity
c. Heat distortion temperature
d. Water absorption

261. What is the absolute value of the ratio of the transverse strain to the corresponding axial
strain in a body subjected to uniaxial stress?

a. Poissons Ratio
b. Eulers Ratio
c. Refractive index
d. Dielectric index

262. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference that an
insulating material of a given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of
electrical breakdown through its bulk?

a. Thermal expansion
b. Conductivity
c. Dielectric Strength
d. Electric Resistivity

263. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to
raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same
mass of water to 1 degree?

a. Specific Heat
b. Latent Heat
c. Heat of Fusion
d. Heat of Fission

264. What refers to the heat needed to change the temperature of the substances without
changing its phases?

a. Latent heat
b. Sensible heat
c. Specific heat
d. entropy

265. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a
specified load shows a polymer under a specified load shows a specified amount of deflection?
 a. Curie temperature
b. Specific Heat
c. Heat Distortion Temperature
d. Thermal Conductivity

266. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension
test at constant load and constant temperature?

a. Creep strength
b. Stress rapture strength
c. Compressive yield strength
d. Hardness

267. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?

a. Rigidity
b. Plasticity
c. Ductility
d. Hardness

268. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails?

a. Elastic Limit
b. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material
c. Creep
d. All of these

269. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness?

a. Lay
b. Out of Flat
c. Camber
d. Waviness

270. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wave like variation from a perfect
surface, generally much wider in spacing and in higher in amplitude than surface roughness?

a. Lay
b. Waviness
c. Surface finish
d. Out of flat

271. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural
polymer called

a. Plastic
 b. Lignin
c. mer
d. additive

272. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two
different monomers?

a. Copolymerization
b. Blending
c. Alloying
d. Cross-linking

273. What is the generic name of a class of polymer which is commercial known as nylon?

a. Polyacetals
b. Polyamide
c. Cellulose
d. Polyester

274. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes, in
which the sheets is clamped on the edge, heated until it soften and sags, drawn in contact with
the mold by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold?

a. Calendering
b. Blow molding
c. Thermoforming
d. Solid phase forming

275. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a
metal die?

a. Calendering
b. Thermoforming
c. Lithugraphy
d. Extrusion

276. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by
chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment?

a. Stereospecificity
b. Corrosion resistance
c. Conductivity
d. Electrical Resistance

277. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular material to form with an ordered
spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?
 a. Stereospecificity
b. Corrosion resistance
c. Retentivity
d. Spatial Configuration

278. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area
of the test bar?

a. Tensile strength
b. Yield strength
c. Shear strength
d. Flexual strength

279. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic range?

a. Poissons ratio
b. Refractive index
c. Modulus of elasticity
d. Percent elongation

280. What is measure of rigidity?

a. Stiffness
b. Hardness
c. Strength
d. Modulus of elasticity

281. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without deviation from
acceptable stress to strain is called

a. elongation
b. proportional limit
c. yield point
d. elastic limit

282. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from
proportionality of stress and strain?

a. Tensile strength
b. Shear strength
c. Yield strength
d. Flexural strength

283. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?

a. Impact strength
 b. Endurance limit
c. Creep strength
d. Stress rupture strength

284. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under
stress?

a. elongation
b. elasticity
c. creep
d. rupture

285. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures
within the gage length is called

a. Percent elongation
b. Creep
c. Elasticity
d. Rupture

286. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?

a. Hardness
b. Creepage
c. Stiffness
d. Rigidity

287. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite
number of stress cycles?

a. Endurance state
b. Endurance test
c. Endurance limit
d. Endurance strength

288. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?

a. Conductor
b. Semiconductor
c. Magnet
d. All of the choices

289. Which of the following is a natural magnet?

a. Steel
b. Magnesia
 c. Lodestone
d. Soft iron

290. Which of the following material has permeability, slightly less than that of free space?

a. Paramagnetic materials
b. Non-magnetic materials
c. Ferromagnetic materials
d. Diamagnetic materials

291. What materials has permeabilities slighter greater than that of free space?

a. Paramagnetic materials
b. Non-magnetic materials
c. Ferromagnetic materials
d. Diamagnetic materials

292. Which of the following materials have very high permeabilities?

a. Paramagnetic materials
b. Non-magnetic materials
c. Ferromagnetic materials
d. Diamagnetic materials

293. What is ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics?

a. A370
b. D638
c. E292
d. C674

294. What is ASTM test for compression is designated for plastics?

a. D638
b. D695
c. D790
d. D732

295. What is ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics?

a. D732
b. D790
c. D695
d. D638

296. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods of steel products?
 a. A370
b. E345
c. E8
d. C674

297. What do you call a polymer without additive and without blending with another polymer?

a. Homopolymer
b. Ethenic polymer
c. Polyethylene
d. Copolymer

298. A large molecule with two alternating mers is known as

a. monomer
b. elastomer
c. mers
d. copolymer or interpolymer

299. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?

a. Vulcanizer
b. Elasticmer
c. Polychloroprene
d. Elastomer

300. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within
certain concentration limits?

a. Steel
b. Wrought iron
c. Cast Iron
d. Tendons

301. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?

a. Alloy steel
b. Stainless steel
c. Galvanized steel
d. Carbon steel

302. What type of steel has 0.8% of carbon and 100% pearlite?

a. Austenite
b. Eutectoid
c. Hyper-eutectoid
 d. Stainless steel

303. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with

a. Carbon
b. Sulfur
c. Zinc
d. Nickel

304. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as

a. Tempering
b. Picking
c. Machining
d. Galvanizing

305. What do you call tin mill steel without a coating?

a. White plate
b. Tin steel free
c. Black plate
d. Dechromate tin

306. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance high corrosion resistance and
high strength at red heat temperature making it useful in resistance heating?

a. Aluminum bronze
b. Nichrome
c. Hastelloy
d. Alnico

307. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of
Chromium?

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 5%

308. What do you add to compensate for the remaining high iron-oxide content of the steel?

a. Deorizers
b. Deoxidizers
c. Deterrent
d. Detoxifiers
309. Which of the following cast irons is high carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?

a. Gray iron
b. Malleable iron
c. White iron
d. Ductile iron

310. Which of the following cast irons is a heat-treated for ductility?

a. Gray iron
b. Malleable iron
c. White iron
d. Ductile iron

311. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?

a. Gray iron
b. Malleable iron
c. White iron
d. Ductile iron

312. What is considered as the general purpose, oldest type and widely used cast iron?

a. Gray iron
b. Malleable iron
c. White iron
d. Ductile iron

313. What is the advantage of quench hardening?

a. Improved strength
b. Hardness
c. Wear characteristics
d. All of the choices

314. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion hardening process and does not require a quench?

a. Carburizing
b. Tempering
c. Nitriding
d. Heat-treating

315. Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel?

a. Heating at proper temperature

b. Sufficient carbon content
 c. Adequate Quench
d. All of the choices

316. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals?

a. Metallurgy
b. Geology
c. Material Science
d. Metalgraphy

317. What do you call earth and stone mixed with the iron oxides?

a. Hematite
b. Magnetite
c. Gangue
d. Ore

318. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen poor environment.

a. Tuyene
b. Coke
c. Diamond
d. Hematite

319. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

a. Brass
b. Nickel
c. Zinc
d. Aluminum

320. What refers to the case hardening process by which the carbon content of the steel near the
surface of a part is increased?

a. Carburidizing
b. Annealing
c. Normalizing
d. Martempering

321. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?

a. Sulfur
b. Phosphorus
c. Silicon
d. Manganese
322. What impurity in steel can cause red shortness, which means the steel becomes
unworkable in high temperature?

a. Sulfur
b. Silicon
c. Manganese
d. Phosphorus

323. What is the process of producing a hard surface in a steel having sufficiently high carbon
content to respond to hardening by rapid cooling of the surface?

a. Cyaniding
b. Nitriding
c. Flame hardening
d. Induction hardening

324. What is the most common reinforcement for polymer composites?

a. Boron
b. Ceramic
c. Graphite
d. Glass Fiber

325. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a lost of

a. Ion
b. Electron
c. Proton
d. Anode

326. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to metal?

a. Oxidation
b. Corrosion
c. Reduction
d. Ionization

327. What do call a fluid that conducts electricity?

a. Electrolyte
b. Water
c. Solution
d. Acid

328. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?

 a. Cracking
b. Pitting
c. Cavitation
d. Erosion

329. What do you call the removal of zinc from brasses?

a. Dezincification
b. Graphitization
c. Stabilization
d. Dealloying

330. What is the scaling off a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?

a. Expoliation
b. Corrosion Fatigue
c. Scaping
d. Fretting

331. What refers to a shape achieved by a allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?

a. Casting
b. Molding
c. Forming
d. All of the choices

332. What Cast Iron has nodular of spheroidal graphite?

a. Ductile iron
b. Wrought Iron
c. Gray Iron
d. White Iron

333. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generated by pulling resin-
impregnated glass strands through a die?

a. Continuous pultrusion
b. Bulk molding
c. Vacuum bag forming
d. Resin transfer molding

334. What is a natural substance that makes up a significant portion of all plant life?

a. Cellulose
b. Polyacetal
c. Polycarbonates
 d. Polyimides

335. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products
of alcohols and acids?

a. Alkaline
b. Alkydes
c. Alcocids
d. Aldehyde

336. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it
will become hard?

a. Carburizing
b. Casehardening
c. Annealing
d. Surface hardening

337. What is the chief ore of tin?

a. Cassiterite
b. Bauxite
c. llmanite
d. Galena

338. What is the chief ore of zinc

a. Cassiterite
b. Bauxite
c. Sphalerite
d. Galena

339. What is the chief ore of titanium?

a. Cassiterite
b. Bauxite
c. llmanite
d. Galena

340. What is a mixture of gibbsite and diaspore of which aluminum is derived?

a. Bauxite
b. Rutile
c. Galena
d. Sphalerite
341. The term bronze is used to designate any alloy containing

a. Copper and zinc

b. Aluminum and iron
c. Copper and aluminum
d. Copper and tin

342. The term brass is used to designate an alloy containing

a. Copper and zinc

b. Aluminum and iron
c. Copper and aluminum
d. Copper and tin

343. What is the most abundant metal in nature?

a. Aluminum
b. Steel
c. Iron
d. Copper

344. What steel relief process is used with hypoeutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite?

a. Tempering
b. Normalizing
c. Annealing
d. Spheroidizing

345. The Portland cement is manufactured from the following elements except

a. lime
b. silica
c. alumina
d. asphalt

346. What is another term for Tempering?

a. Recrystallization
b. Annealing
c. Spheroidizing
d. Drawing or toughening

347. All are steel surface hardening processes except

a. Carburizing
b. Flame Hardening
 c. Nitriding
d. Annealing

348. The pressure which a substances is capable of supporting without fracturing

a. Shear Stress
b. Yield Strength
c. Yield Stress
d. Shear Modulus

349. The dimensionless parameter describing deformation

a. Energy
b. Work
c. Strain
d. Stress

350. The general law of mechanics that stress is directly proportional to strain

a. Mean Speed Theorem

b. Poisson Ratio
c. Charles Theorem
d. Hookes Law

ANSWER KEY:

1. Atoms

2. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites

3. Ferromagnetic materials

4. Metal Matrix composites

5. Ceramic

6. part

7. Polymers

8. Composite

9. Periodic Table

10. Melting point

11. Curie point

12. Water absorption

13. Thermal conductivity

14. Dielectric strength

15. Specific heat

16. Heat distortion temperature

17. Stress rapture strength

18. Hardness

19. Nil ductility temperature

20. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material

21. Camber

22. Waviness

23. lignin

24. Copolymerization

25. Polyamide

26. 200 %

27. Thermoforming

28. Extrusion

29. Corrosion resistance

30. Stereo specificity

31. Impact strength

32. Creep
33. Yield strength

34. proportional limit

35. Endurance limit

36. Magnet

37. Lodestone

38. Hardness

39. Diamagnetic materials

40. Paramagnetic materials

41. Ferromagnetic materials

42. Plastic

43. Cross linking

44. Homopolymer

45. copolymer or interpolymer

46. Elastomer

47. Steel

48. Vacuum are remelting (VAR)

49. Electron beam refining

50. Carbon steel

51. Eutectoid

52. Group W

53. Group M

54. Medium-carbon steel

55. Zinc
56. D638

57. D695

58. D732

59. A370

60. Merchant quality

61. Pickling

62. To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness.

63. About 10% of the earths crust is iron.

64. X

65. E

66. xxBxx

67. Black plate

68. Nichrome

69. 10 %

70. Deoxidizers

71. Gray iron

72. Malleable iron

73. White iron

74. Gray iron

75. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5%

76. To deoxidize molten cast iron

77. Softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25% and increase acid
and corrosion resistance above 13%

78. 5 %
79. All of the choices

80. Nitriding

81. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.

82. All of the choices

83. Metallurgy

84. Gangue

85. Coke

86. Zinc

87. Carburizing

88. Tempering

89. Eutectoid

90. Phosphorus

91. Nitriding

92. 10 mm ball

93. Tensile strength

94. Modulus of elasticity

95. Modulus of elasticity

96. percent elongation

97. Sulfur

98. Flame hardening

99. Glass fiber

100. Electrolyte

101. Pitting
102. Dezincification

103. Expoliation

104. Filiform corrosion

105. Fretting corrosion

106. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.

107. 2

108. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.

109. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel

110. 6

111. Casting

112. Metal mold (matching halves)

113. Ductile iron

114.Continuous pultrusion

115. Alkydes

116. 23XX

117. 12XX

118. American Iron and Steel Institute

119. Society of Automotive Engineers

120. American Society for Testing and Materials

121. 16 % to 20 %

122. 600oC to 1100oC

123. Cobalt

124. 0.20
125. 0.15 to 0.30

126. 11 to 14

127. strain harden

128. 11 to 17

129. Casehardening

130. Hardenability

131. 1333o F

132. 770o C

133. Pearlite

134. Alpha iron

135. Nitriding

136. Cassiterite

137. Sphalerite

138. Ilmanite

139. Bauxite

140. copper and zinc

141. copper and tin

142. The alloy group

143. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits

144. As fabricated

145. Manganese alloys

146. 50000 lbf/in2

147. less than 0.1 percent

148. 14 %

149. Muntz metal

150. 15 %

151. 30 %

152. Tin is relatively soluble in copper.

153. Aluminum

154. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.

155. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting.

156. Increase strength up to about 12%

157. Alnico and Conife

158. asphalt

159. Secant modulus

160. Jominy end-quench test

161. Tempering

162. Drawing or toughening

163. Annealing

164. 0.2 mm

165. high electric current

166. Flat flexible conductors

167. 65 %

168. Tin Bronze

169. 1.67

170. 50 150
171. Plastic

172. Elastomers

173. Plastic foams

174. Paper

175. 6 to 12 MV/m

176. silicon carbide

177. 500

178. 500 to 10,000

179. Alkyds

180. Glass

181. Glass ceramics

182. aging coefficient

183. magnetoresistance

184. Iron

185. Silicon steel

186. Garnet

187. Gallium Arsenide

188. Gallium Phosphide

189. All of the above

190. Sphere

191. File hardness test

192. Elastic toughness

193. High thermal conductivity

194. Degree of polymerization

195. Nichrome

196. 3 %

197. Beryllium

198. Aluminum

199. Tin

200. Zinc

201. malleability

202. Adhesion

203. Brittle

204. Charge

205. Conductance

206. Thermoduric

207. Viscosity

208. Elasticity

209. Incandescence

210. The violet color travels slower than the red color

211. Inertia

212. Capacitance

213. Isotropic

214. Temperature

215. Thermal conductivity

216. dichroism
217. fluorescence

218. diamagnetic

219. fatigue

220. superconductivity

251. Atomic number

252. Atoms

253. Alloy

254. Metal Matrix Composites

255. Polymers

256. Composite

257. Melting point

258. Curie Point

259. Water Absorption

260. Thermal conductivity

261. Poissons Ratio

262. Dielectric Strength

263. Specific Heat

264. Sensible heat

265. Heat Distortion Temperature

266. Stress rapture strength

267. Hardness

268. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material

269. Camber
270. Waviness

271. Lignin

272. Copolymerization

273. Polyamide

274. Thermoforming

275. Extrusion

276. Corrosion resistance

277. Stereospecificity

278. Tensile strength

279. Modulus of elasticity

280. Modulus of elasticity

281. proportional limit

282. Yield strength

283. Impact strength

284. creep

285. Percent elongation

286. Hardness

287. Endurance limit

288. Magnet

289. Lodestone

290. Diamagnetic materials

291. Paramagnetic materials

292. Ferromagnetic materials

293. D638

294. D695

295. D732

296. A370

297. Homopolymer

298. copolymer or interpolymer

299. Elastomer

300. Steel

301. Carbon steel

302. Eutectoid

303. Zinc

304. Picking

305. Black plate

306. Nichrome

307. 10%

308. Deoxidizers

309. Gray iron

310. Malleable iron

311. White iron

312. Gray iron

313. All of the choices

314. Nitriding

315. All of the choices

316. Metallurgy

317. Gangue

318. Coke

319. Zinc

320. Carburidizing

321. Phosphorus

322. Sulfur

323. Flame hardening

324. Glass Fiber

325. Electron

326. Reduction

327. Electrolyte

328. Pitting

329. Dezincification

330. Expoliation

331. Casting

332. Ductile iron

333. Continuous pultrusion

334. Cellulose

335. Alkydes

336. Casehardening

337. Cassiterite

338. Sphalerite
339. llmanite

340. Bauxite

341. Copper and tin

342. Copper and zinc

343. Aluminum

344. Tempering

345. asphalt

346. Drawing or toughening

347. Annealing

348. Yield Stress

349. Strain

350. Hookes Law