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HPPSC HPAS Previous Paper 3 2016

This document contains 45 multiple choice questions from the Himachal Pradesh Administrative Services (Aptitude Test Part 1) exam from 2014. The questions cover a range of topics including number and letter series, coding, logical reasoning, and data interpretation. They require applying mathematical, logical, and analytical skills to select the best answer from the four options provided for each question.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
259 views15 pages

HPPSC HPAS Previous Paper 3 2016

This document contains 45 multiple choice questions from the Himachal Pradesh Administrative Services (Aptitude Test Part 1) exam from 2014. The questions cover a range of topics including number and letter series, coding, logical reasoning, and data interpretation. They require applying mathematical, logical, and analytical skills to select the best answer from the four options provided for each question.

Uploaded by

ashish thakur
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Himachal Pradesh Administrative

Services (Aptitude Test Part 1) - 2014


1. Which number should come in place of ? in the series?
71, 76, 69, 74, 67,?
A. 77
B. 65
C. 80
D. 76
2. Find out the wrong term in the following series:
8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386.
A. 194
B. 98
C. 48
D. 14
3. Which term of a letter series should come in place of ? in the following series?
ejo,tyd,ins,xch,?
A. Nrw
B. Msx
C. Nsw
D. Mrw
4. Curie is related to radium in the same way as vitamins is related to:
A. Funk
B. Pott
C. Lisfranc
D. Geissler
5. Lotus is related to Cuticle in the same way as Fish is related to:
A. Gills
B. Scales
C. Tail
D. Wings
6. Which of the following is the same as Sitar, Guitar and Tanpura?
A. Harmonium
B. Trumpet
C. Mridanga
D. Violin
7. Which of the following is the same as weevils, borer and beetle?
A. Termites
B. Lice
C. Moth
D. Ringworms
8. If CASUAL is coded as GEWYEP, then how will PEOPLE be coded?
A. SHRSOH
B. TISTPI
C. SIRTOI
D. THSTOI
9. If POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, then which of the following words will be coded as GBNPVT?
A. FAMOUS
B. FRIEND
C. FOURTH
D. FRESCO
10. If ROPE is coded as 6821 and CHAIR is coded as 72456, then which of the following will be the code for CRAPE?
A. 73456
B. 74265
C. 76142
D. 76421
11. If sand is called air, air is called plateau, plateau is called well, well is called island, island is called sky, then fro where will
a farmer draw water?
A. Well
B. Sky
C. Island
D. Air
12. A party consists of grandmother, father, mother, four sons and their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons. How
many females are there in all?
A. 14
B. 16
C. 18
D. 15
13. Neelam, who is daughter of Deepak, says to Deepika, Your mother Rekha is the younger sister of my father who is the third child of
Ramlal. How is Ramlal related to Deepika?
A. Father
B. Grandfather
C. Uncle
D. Father-in-law
Directions (Question Nos. 14 and 15): In each of the following questions four words have been given, out of which three
are alike in some manner and the fourth is different. Choose out the odd one.
14. A) Mandible B) Rib C) Sternum D) Pinna
15. A) Blaze B) Glimmer C) Simmer D) Shimmer

Direction (Question Nos. 16 to 20): Each of the question nos. 16 to 20 is based on the information given below. Read the
following information carefully and answer the questions accordingly:
Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests in which no two students get similar marks. V always scores more than
P. P always scores more than Q. Each time either R scores the highest and T gets the lowest or alternately S scores the highest and
U or Q scores the lowest marks.
16. If S is ranked sixth and Q is ranked fifth, which one of the following can be true?
A. V is ranked first or fourth
B. U is ranked third or fourth
C. R is ranked second or third
D. P is ranked second or fifth
17. If R gets most, V should be ranked not lower than:
A. Fourth
B. Second
C. Fifth
D. Third
18. If R is ranked second and Q is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true?
A. S is ranked third
B. P is ranked sixth
C. T is ranked sixth
D. V is ranked fourth
19. If S is ranked second, which of the following can be true?
A. V gets more than S
B. P gets more than R
C. T gets more than Q
D. U gets more than V
20. If V is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true?
A. S scores the highest
B. R is ranked second
C. T is ranked third
D. Q is ranked fourth
Directions (Questions Nos. 21 to 24): In each questions two statements followed by four conclusions are given. You gave
to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the two given statements disregarding
commonly known facts:
21. Statements:
Manas is a player.
All the players are tall.
Conclusions:
A. All tall men are players.
B. Tall men are not players.
C. Manas is tall.
D. Manas is not tall.
22. Statements:
All men are vertebrates.
Some mammals are vertebrates.
Conclusions:
A. All men are mammals.
B. Some vertebrates are mammals.
C. All mammals are men.
D. All vertebrates are men.
23. Statements:
All men are dishonest.
Some men are fraudulent.
Conclusions:
A. Either all fraudulent persons are dishonest or all dishonest are fraudulent.
B. Generally fraudulent persons are dishonest.
C. Fraud and dishonest go together.
D. Some dishonest persons are dishonest.
24. Statements:
Some teachers are not learned is false.
Which of the following is false?
Conclusion:
A. All teachers are learned.
B. Some learned beings are teachers.
C. Some teachers are learned.
D. All learned beings are teachers.
25. In a cricket series India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice, Australia defeated West Indies twice, and India
defeated West Indies twice and New Zealand twice. Which country lost most number of matches?
A. West Indies
B. India
C. Australia
D. New Zealand
26. In a group of six women there are three violinists, four dancers, four vocalists and one actress. Girija and Vanaja are among the
violinists, while Jalaja and Shailja do not know how to play violin. Shailja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailja
and Tanuja are all vocalists and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is both a dancer and
a violinist?
A. Jalaja
B. Shailaja
C. Tanuja
D. Pooja
27. Kadambari is older than Kalyani by 5 years and Kumud is younger than her by the same number of years. Kamayani is younger than
Kalyani by 5 years. If Kadambari was born in 1915, in which year the youngest sister was born?
A. 1920
B. 1925
C. 1930
D. 1935
28. If means *, * means +, + means /, / means -, then what will be the value of 40*12+3-6/60=?
A. 44
B. 4
C. 16
D. 7.95
29. If + means /, / means -, - means * and * means -, then 48+16/4-2*8=?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 112
D. -28
30. If / means *, * means +, + means and means /, then 3*6-12*1-2/3=?
A. 7/24
B. 21/8
C.
D. 5
31. Amit, Sumit and Vinit divide an amount of Rs. 2800 amongst themselves in the ration of 5:6:3 respectively. If the amount of Rs. 200
is added to each of their shares, what will be the new ratio of their shares?
A. 8:9:6
B. 6:7:4
C. 7:8:5
D. NOTA
32. Find the missing number in the given pattern:

A. 19

B. 17
C. 16
D. 15
33. Total numbers which are there between 100 and 1000 such that every digit is either 2 or 9 are:
A. 8
B. 14
C. 18
D. NOTA
34. Supriyas monthly income is twice Deepas monthly income. The ratio of the monthly income of Deepa and Sandhya is 7:3
respectively and their average monthly income is Rs. 25,000. What is Supriyas monthly income?
A. Rs 35,000
B. Rs 50,000
C. 75,000
D. NOTA
35. In a race of 600 m A car beats B by 50 m and in a race of 500 m, B car beats C by 60 m. In a race of 400 m, A car will beat C by:
A. 232/3 m
B. 77 m
C. 76 m
D. 77/3 m
36. How many squares are there in the following figure

A. 11
B. 9
C. 10
D. 16

37. X can copy 80 pages in 20 hours; X and Y together can copy 135 pages in 27 hours. In what time can Y copy 20 pages?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 20 hours
D. 3 hours
38. 5 kg of sugar costing Rs. 8 per kg and 3 kg of sugar costing Rs. 6 per kg are mixed. What will be the average cost of the mixture?
A. Rs. 8
B. Rs. 7.25
C. Rs. 6.25
D. Rs. 7
39. One of the angles of a parallelogram is 26. What is the difference between the adjacent angles of parallelogram?
A. 138
B. 144
C. 128
D. NOTA
40. The ratio of the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot are 7:6. The perimeter of the plot is 208 meters. What is the area of the
rectangular plot?
A. 2696 sq. m
B. 2688 sq. m
C. 2592 sq. m
D. NOTA
41. Out of all the integers from 1 t0 100, a number is selected at random. The probability that the selected number is not divisible by 7 is:
A. 7/100
B. 49/50
C. 7/50
D. 43/50
42. When the sum and difference of two numbers are 12 and 6 respectively, the ratio of numbers is given by:
A.
B. 1/3
C.
D. 1/5
43. The mean of 100 observations is 200. If one of the observations is taken as 250 instead of correct observation 50, the correct mean
is given by:
A. 200
B. 202
C. 198
D. 199
44. The Pie-chart shows the spending of a country on a Golf during a particular year:

The percentage of the total spending is spent on Golf:


A. 12.5 %
B. 22.5 %
C. 25 %
D. 45 %

45. The ages of two persons are in the ratio 5:7. After 14 years their ages will be in the ration 7:9. What are their present ages?
A. 35 and 49
B. 40 and 56
C. 25 and 35
D. 45 and 63

1. A bag contains an equal number of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins. If the total value is Rs. 70, how many coins of each
type are there?
A. 35
B. 28
C. 30
D. 40
2. A person divides his property so that his sons share to his wifes share and the wifes share to his daughters share are both in the
ratio 3:1. If daughter gets Rs. 20,000 less than the son, find the total worth of the property.
A. 2,60,000
B. 32,500
C. 37,500
D. 16,250
3. A software company wants to hire engineers in such a way that 32 of them can handle Jawa programming, 28 of them can perform
C++ programming and 15 of them can work on both Java and C++ programming. Find the minimum number of engineering to be
hired by the company to cope with the situation.
A. 60
B. 75
C. 45
D. 47
4. If the sizes of thirteen shirts in cms are: 85, 90, 95, 90, 105, 95, 90, 95, 100, 90, 110, 115, what is the model size?
A. 95
B. 90
C. 100
D. 105
5. If m and n are whole numbers such that mn =144, then (m-1)n+1 is equal to:
A. 1331
B. 1312
C. 1024
D. 1309

Himachal Pradesh Administrative


Services (Aptitude Test Part 2) - 2014
1. If X=(49+21)2+(49-21) 2/(49) 2=(21) 2 then x is equal to:
A. 70
B. 28
C. 4
D. 2
2. The sum of numbers from 1 to 200 is:
A. 9810
B. 10000
C. 10100
D. 20200
3. A candidate was asked to find 7/8th of a positive number. He found 7/18 of that number by mistake. If his answer was 770 less than
the correct one, the original number was:
A. 1584
B. 2024
C. 1320
D. 1684
4. The mean of the data:
X : 10, 15, 20, 25, 30
Frequency: 3, 2, 5, 4, 6 is:
A. 20
B. 22
C. 25
D. 23
5. If the median of the data: 24, 27, 28, 31, 34, x, 37, 40, 42, 45 as arranged above in ascending order is 35, then the value of x
should be:
A. 32
B. 33.5
C. 35
D. 36
6. A and B can clean a shed in 12 days, B and C can clean the same shed in 15 days and C and A can do it in 20 days. How long dies
C take to clean the shed?
A. 45 days
B. 48 days
C. 60 days
D. 50 days
7. The co-ordinates of the points where the lines 2x-y=1 and x+2y=8 meet the y-axis are respectively:
A. (1/2, 0) and (8,0)
B. (0,3) and (0,4)
C. (0,-1) and (0,4)
D. (0,-1)(4,0)
8. The greatest number of 4 digits which is exactly divisible by 15, 15, 20 and 35 is:
A. 9760
B. 9660
C. 9590
D. 9874
9. A tree is broken by wind and its upper end touches the ground at a point 10 meters from the foot of the tree and makes an angle of
45 with the ground. The entire length of the tree was:
A. 15 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 25 meters
D. 10(1+under root 2)
10. Two trains of equal lengths are running on parallel lines in the same direction at eh rate of 46 and 36km/hour respectively. The faster
train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is:
A. 50 meters
B. 72 meters
C. 80 meters
D. 100 meters
11. In 30 liters of a mixture of milk and water, the ratio of the constituents in the above order is 7:3. How many liters of water be added to
make this ratio 3:7?
A. 10 liters
B. 21 liters
C. 30 liters
D. 40 liters
12. If profit percentage is numerically equal to the cost price in rupees. If the selling price is Rs. 39, what is the cost price?
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 33.33
13. How many squares tiles of 2.5 cms side will be required to pave a path meter wide around the outside of a plot 10 meter long and
5 meter broad?
A. 2000
B. 25,600
C. 256
D. 1024
14. Find the smallest number which is divisible by 15, 18 and 25 and is a perfect square:
A. 900
B. 225
C. 1800
D. 450

Directions (Question Nos.65 to 69): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

The growing tendencies towards regionalism in the country have had serious effects on higher education. These tendencies are
generally expressed in demands relating to the medium of instruction. Some of these demands are based on sound educational
principles and are wholly justifiable; but in their most extreme form they usually indicate either ignorance of the minimum
requirements of higher education or chauvinism of a kind that places consideration of a parochial character above these
requirements. In practice, both have been in evidence. More specifically, the problem arises when instruction at the post graduate
level is sought to be given in the regional languages.

Most of the relevant literatures with which students at this level of education ought to be familiar are usually not available in any of the
regional languages. It is true that comprehension is much easier in the mother tongue, and that the necessary literature could grow
over period of time. But when the range of literature a student is exposed to at event eh post-graduate level is constricted by
language barriers, the content of education gets diluted. Since the products of such education are later absorbed as teachers of the
succeeding generations, the damage done is more long-lasting than is generally assumed.

The usual answer to these impediments is that English need to be taught as a library language and student should be required to
familiarize themselves with the more advanced literature in the subject through this language. In principle this is unobjectionable,
particularly if the library language is taught intensively form an early stage of schooling and the students have therefore no
difficulties of comprehension through this language.

15. As per the passage higher education should be provided in:


A. English
B. The mother tongue of students
C. The language of the region
D. A library language
16. The intervention of regional voices has had a effect on the quality of higher education.
A. Beneficial
B. Damning
C. Diluting
D. Chauvinistic
17. How does the author view the higher education scenario in India?
A. He is appreciative of its steady progress
B. He is critical of the lack of ethical practices
C. He wants a revamp of the whole system
D. He presents a critical analysis of the situation
18. The medium of instruction at the post-graduate level should be chosen discerningly because:
A. Comprehension is much easier in the mother tongue
B. It is linked to the growth of personality of the students
C. Many of the beneficiaries have a deep influence as teacher on succeeding generation
D. Such students must rise above parochial considerations
19. The benefits of higher education can be reaped to the maximum by students if they are exposed to library language:
A. For a specified period of time
B. Form an early stage of schooling
C. For a short, intensive duration
D. Alongside of their mother tongue
Directions (Questions Nos. 70 to 74): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
We all creatures of the clichs among which we have grown up. From the middle of the nineteenth century, such phrases as the
struggle for existence or the survival of the fittest, and for a long time the biologist theory that the animal world was like a
gladiator show, have conditioned our thinking. More recently, the general Freudian atmosphere, supporting the old idea of the
original sin, has destroyed our belief even in our babies, who appear as little gangsters possessed by jealousy and hate. The result
has been that many of us have felt that it is all hopeless, that it is natural for everything to fight for itself, that struggle is the law of
existence, and thus hatred and was are inevitable. But during the present times there has been more and more evidence to suggest
that co-operation may be even more important in the evolutionary process than competition.
While in nature, there is indeed a struggle for life, there is also such a thing as the struggle for the life of others, and today the principle
of co-operation is in a fair way becoming established as the most important factor in the survival of animal groups as of individuals.
From the protozoa right up to man this mutual aid has been established: there is a social appetite even in the lowest of organisms.
No longer can domination of the weaker by stronger, whether individuals or nations, be supported by the supposed example of the
natural world.

20. The most appropriate title for the passage would be:
A. The conditioned world of evolution
B. The process of evolution
C. Clichs about evolution
D. Understanding evolution afresh
21. Implicit in the struggle for life is:
A. The struggle for ones own survival
B. The struggle for the survival of other forms of life
C. The struggle for the survival of ones species
D. The struggle for the survival of ones progeny
22. What has led to the destruction of our belief even in our babies?
A. The primordial idea that man is a born sinner
B. The common belief that as we grow up we succumb to hatred and war
C. Our gladiatorial instinct for the survival of the fittest
D. Our lack of understanding of the principle of co-operation among species
23. The passage has a/an.attitude towards biologists view about evolution.
A. Appreciative
B. Doubting
C. Interrogative
D. Sarcastic
24. The passage is a fervent plea for:
A. Inculcation of a scientific temperament amongst people
B. Upholding of the sanctity of establishment scientific theories
C. Recognizing the need for reassessing dominant scientific views on evolution
D. All of the above

Directions (Questions Nos. 75 to 79): Each sentence below has two blanks and is followed by four sets of words. Choose the
set of word that best fills in the blanks.

25. The good administrator should not only bebut should have the to know when to do a particular thing.
A. Intelligent ; willingness
B. Perceptive; sagacity
C. Worthy; power
D. Courageous; courtesy
26. The ancient teachers insisted on strict disciplining of the disciples before they to impart knowledge of import to them.
A. Ventured; profound
B. facilitated; high
C. concluded; significant
D. decided; meaningful
27. It is true that the.between the different branches of science are .being broken.
A. boundaries; finally
B. fences; continuously
C. borders; constantly
D. frontiers; continually
28. My intention is to draw a realistic picture, and if there is any touch of pessimism, it isin the present situation and it is for us
to..it.
A. Prevalent; shun
B. Inherent; rectify
C. Hidden; discover
D. obtainable; correct
29. .of power from atomic disintegration remained just a dream till the . Of nuclear fission was discovered.
A. extraction; process
B. capture; procedure
C. generation; phenomenon
D. making; phenomena

Himachal Pradesh Administrative


Services (Aptitude Test Part-3) - 2014
1. Which of the following does not fall under the dark side of charismatic leadership?
A. Narcissism
B. Self-Aggrandizement
C. Petty tyranny
D. Obsessive concern with perfection
2. The extent to which two individuals share the same attitudes about a range of topics is known as:
A. Cognitive dissonance
B. Attitude similarity
C. Similarity-dissimilarity effect
D. Cognitive consonance
3. As humans are aware of the inevitability of their own death, they confront existential terror. This statement explains:
A. Self-monitoring
B. Self-complexity
C. Terror management theory
D. Regular focus theory
4. Ravi works in a firm. He has respect for himself and believes in the capability and competence of others. He trusts others and is
trusted by others. What kind of style Ravi has?
A. Secured attachment style
B. Selective avoidance style
C. Self reference effect style
D. Social facilitation style
5. Hari is not a person who is bothered much about his friends and colleagues. However, he wants to have control on all the
information about the activities they undertake including their resources and participation in different activities and events. Which
one of the following is the main component of Haris nature?
A. Influence
B. Leadership
C. Mentoring
D. Power
6. Which one of the following represents the cognitive component of an attitude?
A. I just love Punjabi Food
B. Tonight we are going to that new Punjabi restaurant
C. Punjabi food is the best food of Asian Cuisine
D. I am going to make Bhature Chhole tonight
7. Ramesh is trying to persuade the farmers to adopt a new kind of technology. Which one of the following he should not include in his
efforts?
A. Information about the technology or his own expertise
B. Significant issues in his message
C. Gather a crowd who support his idea
D. Find the characteristics of the audience
8. When a person tries to cope by eliminating or changing the stressor directly, it is known as:
A. A defense mechanism
B. Problem focused coping
C. Self-focused coping
D. Emotion focused coping
9. When Shivani is presenting an argument against then views of Subodh, both give out their ideas, provide counter offers and are
ready to give concession either directly or through representatives. This process can be labeled as:
A. Availability heuristics
B. Negotiation
C. Authentic dissent
D. Augmented principle
10. The differential styles initially developed in the interaction between infant and caregiver when the infant acquires basic attitudes
about self worth, security and interpersonal trust, refers to:
A. Attachment styles
B. Anchoring and adjustment heuristics
C. Attitude accessibility
D. Attribution
11. Nikhil is basically a helpful person. One day he is with his close friends and witnesses an accident. Nikhil does not take any initiative
in helping the victim as he is with his close group. The kind of behavior is known as:
A. Identity interference
B. Stereotype formation
C. Implicit bystander effect
D. In-group differentiation
12. Which theory suggests that norms will influence behavior only to the extent they are focal for the person involved at the time the
behavior occurs?
A. Normative focus theory
B. Normative social influence
C. Social conformity
D. Cognitive dissonance
13. When we collectively misunderstand what attitudes other hold, and believe erroneously that others have different attitudes than
ourselves, we are getting involved in:
A. Prejudice
B. Pre-occupied attachment style
C. Optimistic bias
D. Pluralistic ignorance
14. Sanjay behaves with his group of friend s in his college which brings bad name to the value of the identity of his group. As a
consequence his group members pass derogatory remarks to him so that their group identity is protected. How would you identify
the position of Sanjay?
A. A bully
B. A black-sheep
C. An abnormal personality
D. A threatened person
15. The individual judgment about whether they are receiving a fair share of available rewards a share proportionate to their
contributions to the group or any social relationship refers to:
A. Distributive justice
B. Discounting principle
C. Ego-defensive function
D. Procedural justice
16. Shankar is trying to change the attitude of Piyush. In his effort he uses various types of messages and arguments. This is known as:
A. Negotiation
B. Attribution
C. Persuasion
D. Attitude formation
17. Why people come under social influence? What is the fundamental assumption in this regard? Choose your option:
A. Some people have low self esteem
B. People in general are like sheep; they like to be influenced
C. People are influenced by bribes or rewards
D. People expect to see the same world as everyone else does and are influenced by perceptions of others; also if they admit seeing
the world as different, they may look like fools
18. When we change our mind because we are genuinely persuaded by a groups position, we are conforming because of:
A. Internalization
B. Compliance
C. Disinterest
D. Externalization
19. Which is the term that describes a state in which a person misinterprets? What others believe, and then use that misinterpretation s
evidence about what must be true?
A. Pluralistic responsibility
B. Diffusion of responsibility
C. Bystander intervention
D. Pluralistic ignorance
20. When people overestimate the typically of their own behavior, they are showing:
A. Ethnocentrism
B. Attribution to internal causes
C. Emotion driven thought
D. Ego-centric bias

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