Singapore Air Safety

Publication
Part 2
Licensing of Professional Pilots

Issue 8, Amendment 4 17 December 2012

Publication of the
Civil Aviation Authority of Singapore
Singapore Changi Airport
P.O.Box 1, Singapore 918141

Copies of this document may be obtained from

the CAAS website at www.caas.gov.sg
FOREWORD

Pursuant to paragraph 20(14) of the Air Navigation Order, this Singapore Air Safety
Publication (SASP) contains the requirements for the grant and renewal of flight crew licences
under paragraph 20(1) of the Air Navigation Order (ANO). Any person applying for or holding a
licence granted or renewed under the ANO shall comply with these requirements and all
amendments which may made from time to time. Paragraph 2 of the ANO and SASP Part D
contains the definitions of some terms used in this document, to facilitate the interpretation of the
requirements in this SASP.

2 Failure to comply with any of these requirements may result in suspension or the
revocation of the licence and may also lead to the penalties as provided under the Thirteenth
Schedule of the ANO.

3 Starting from Issue 6 of SASP Part 2, amendment to SASP Part 2 will be notified through
Notice of Amendment (NOA) and shall take effect from the date stipulated in the NOAs.

4 Queries on flight crew licensing requirements should be referred to:

Civil Aviation Authority of Singapore

Safety Policy & Licensing Division
Licensing Section
Singapore Changi Airport Terminal 2
Basement Unit No.B16-006-03
Singapore 819643
Tel: (65) 6541 2561 / 2482
Fax: (65) 6543 4941

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] General-1

 AMENDMENTS

The space below is provided to keep a record of such amendments.

RECORD OF AMENDMENTS AND CORRIGENDA

AMENDMENTS CORRIGENDA

No Date Date Entered No Date Date Entered

Applicable Entered By Applicable Entered By

1 20 May 2011 20 May 2011 CAAS

2 23 Nov 2011 23 Nov 2011 CAAS
3 13 Feb 2012 13 Feb 2012 CAAS
4 17 Dec 2012 17 Dec 2012 CAAS

General-2 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

 LIST OF EFFECTIVE PAGES

Page Amendment Page Amendment

Date Date
Reference No. Reference No.
General-1 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 3A-3 4 17 Dec 2012
General-2 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 3A-4 4 17 Dec 2012
General-3 4 17 Dec 2012
General-4 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 4-1 2 23 Nov 2011
General-5 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 4-2 2 23 Nov 2011
General-6 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 4-3 2 23 Nov 2011
General-7 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 4-4 2 23 Nov 2011
General-8 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 4-5 2 23 Nov 2011
Chapter 4-6 2 23 Nov 2011
Chapter 1-1 3 13 Feb 2012
Chapter 1-2 3 13 Feb 2012 Chapter 5-1 2 23 Nov 2011
Chapter 1-3 3 13 Feb 2012 Chapter 5-2 2 23 Nov 2011
Chapter 1-4 3 13 Feb 2012 Chapter 5-3 2 23 Nov 2011
Chapter 1-5 3 13 Feb 2012 Chapter 5-4 2 23 Nov 2011
Chapter 1-6 3 13 Feb 2012
Chapter 6-1 4 17 Dec 2012
Chapter 2-1 2 23 Nov 2011 Chapter 6-2 4 17 Dec 2012
Chapter 2-2 2 23 Nov 2011 Chapter 6-3 4 17 Dec 2012
Chapter 2-3 2 23 Nov 2011 Chapter 6-4 4 17 Dec 2012
Chapter 2-4 2 23 Nov 2011 Chapter 6-5 4 17 Dec 2012
Chapter 6-6 4 17 Dec 2012
Chapter 3-1 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 6-7 4 17 Dec 2012
Chapter 3-2 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 6-8 4 17 Dec 2012
Chapter 3-3 4 17 Dec 2012
Chapter 3-4 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 7-1 2 23 Nov 2011
Chapter 7-2 2 23 Nov 2011
Chapter 3A-1 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 7-3 2 23 Nov 2011
Chapter 3A-2 4 17 Dec 2012 Chapter 7-4 2 23 Nov 2011

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] General-3

 Page Amendment Page Amendment Date
Date
Reference No. Reference No.
Chapter 7-5 2 23 Nov 2011 Appendix A-1 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 7-6 2 23 Nov 2011 Appendix A-2 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 7-7 2 23 Nov 2011 Appendix A-3 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 7-8 2 23 Nov 2011 Appendix A-4 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-5 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 8-1 2 23 Nov 2011
Chapter 8-2 2 23 Nov 2011 Appendix A-6 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 8-3 2 23 Nov 2011 Appendix A-7 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 8-4 2 23 Nov 2011 Appendix A-8 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 8-5 2 23 Nov 2011 Appendix A-9 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 8-6 2 23 Nov 2011 Appendix A-10 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-11 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 9-1 3 13 Feb 2012 Appendix A-12 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 9-2 3 13 Feb 2012 Appendix A-13 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-14 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 10-1 4 17 Dec 2012 Appendix A-15 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 10-2 4 17 Dec 2012 Appendix A-16 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-17 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 12-1 4 17 Dec 2012 Appendix A-18 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 12-2 4 17 Dec 2012 Appendix A-19 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 12-3 4 17 Dec 2012 Appendix A-20 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 12-4 4 17 Dec 2012 Appendix A-21 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 12-5 4 17 Dec 2012 Appendix A-22 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 12-6 4 17 Dec 2012 Appendix A-23 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 12-7 4 17 Dec 2012 Appendix A-24 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 12-8 4 17 Dec 2012 Appendix A-25 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-26 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 13-1 2 23 Nov 2011 Appendix A-27 - 3 Dec 2010
Chapter 13-2 2 23 Nov 2011 Appendix A-28 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-29 - 3 Dec 2010

General-4 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

 Page Amendment Page Amendment Date
Date
Reference No. Reference No.
Appendix A-30 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix C-1 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-31 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix C-2 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-32 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-33 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix C-3 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-34 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix C-4 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-35 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix C-5 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-36 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix C-6 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-37 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-38 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix D-1 2 23 Nov 2011
Appendix A-39 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix D-2 2 23 Nov 2011
Appendix A-40 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix D-3 2 23 Nov 2011
Appendix A-41 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix D-4 2 23 Nov 2011
Appendix A-42 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-43 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix E-1 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-44 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix E-2 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-45 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix E-3 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-46 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix E-4 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-47 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-48 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix F-1 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-49 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix F-2 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-50 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix F-3 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-51 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix F-4 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-52 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-53 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix G-1 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-54 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix G-2 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-55 - 3 Dec 2010
Appendix A-56 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix H-1 2 23 Nov 2011
Appendix H-2 2 23 Nov 2011
Appendix B-1 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix H-3 2 23 Nov 2011
Appendix B-2 - 3 Dec 2010 Appendix H-4 2 23 Nov 2011

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] General-5

 CONTENTS
GENERAL FOREWORD
AMENDMENTS
LIST OF EFFECTIVE PAGES
CONTENTS

CHAPTER 1 GENERAL INFORMATION

INTRODUCTION
REQUIREMENTS FOR THE ISSUE OF LICENCES
PRIVILEGES OF PROFESSIONAL PILOT LICENCES AND RATINGS

CHAPTER 2 MEDICAL PROCEDURES (ADMINISTRATION)

LICENSING MEDICAL EXAMINATION (LME)
THE CIVIL AVIATION MEDICAL BOARD (CAMB)
DESIGNATED MEDICAL EXAMINERS (DMEs)
TIMELY REVALIDATION OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATE
MEDICAL STANDARDS NOT MET
PAYMENT OF CHARGES

CHAPTER 3 GROUND EXAMINATIONS COMMERCIAL PILOT, MULTI-CREW PILOT

& AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCES
KNOWLEDGE OF TECHNICAL SUBJECTS
GROUND EXAMINATION ENTRY CONDITIONS
EXAMINATION PAPER CLASSIFICATION
SYLLABUS
PASS RULES
VALIDITY PERIOD OF EXAMINATION RESULTS
EXAMINATION RE-ENTRY CONDITIONS
EXAMINATION ARRANGEMENTS
EXEMPTION ON REQUIREMENTS FOR EXAMINATIONS AND FLIGHT TESTS
TIME LIMIT - ATPL EXAMINATIONS
TERMINATION OF EXAMINATIONS

CHAPTER 3A REVISED GROUND EXAMINATIONS

INTRODUCTION
EXAMINATION SUBJECTS
PASS STANDARDS
VALIDITY PERIOD OF EXAMINATIONS RESULTS

CHAPTER 4 FLYING EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANES)
COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANES) WITH INSTRUMENT RATING
MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANES)
AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANES)
COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE (HELICOPTERS)
AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCE (HELICOPTERS)
FLIGHT INSTRUCTION AND SKILLS REQUIREMENT

General-6 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

CHAPTER 5 THE GENERAL FLIGHT TEST
CONDUCT OF THE TEST
FLIGHT TEST PASS CONDITIONS
GENERAL FLIGHT TEST RESULTS: PERIOD OF VALIDITY
FLIGHT TEST ARRANGEMENTS
COMBINED GFT/IR TEST
EXEMPTION FROM THE GENERAL FLIGHT TEST AEROPLANES
NON-SINGAPORE PROFESSIONAL PILOTS
HOLDERS OF CPL(H), ATPL(H) - APPLYING FOR A CPL(A) OR ATPL(A)
THE GENERAL FLIGHT TEST - CPL(H)
EXEMPTION FROM THE GFT
HOLDERS OF CPL(A) OR ATPL(A) - APPLYING FOR A CPL(H) OR ATPL(H)
THE GENERAL FLIGHT TEST ATPL(H)

CHAPTER 6 THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS

INTRODUCTION
THE AIRCRAFT RATING FLIGHT TEST
UPGRADING OF CO-PILOT PRIVILEGES TO PILOT-IN-COMMAND PRIVILEGES
INCLUSION OF FURTHER TYPES IN THE AIRCRAFT RATING
ENDORSEMENT FOR MIXED FLEET FLYING OPERATION
EXPIRY OF C OF T OR C OF E
MANDATORY MULTI-ENGINES CONVERSION TRAINING (AEROPLANES)
THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS - CPL (A)
THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS - MPL (A)
THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS - ATPL (A)
THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS - CPL(H)
EXEMPTION FROM THE AIRCRAFT RATING FLIGHT TEST
THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS - ATPL(H)

CHAPTER 7 THE INSTRUMENT RATING (AEROPLANES)

THE INSTRUMENT RATING PRIVILEGES
APPROVED TRAINING
EXEMPTION FROM APPROVED TRAINING
GROUND EXAMINATION REQUIREMENTS
THE INITIAL INSTRUMENT RATING FLIGHT TEST
INSTRUMENT RATING FLIGHT TEST : PASS CONDITIONS
TERMINATION OF A TEST BY THE APPLICANT
TERMINATION OF A TEST BY THE FLIGHT EXAMINER
FLIGHT TEST ARRANGEMENTS
THE INSTRUMENT RATING CERTIFICATE OF TEST
EXPIRY OF C OF T BY A PERIOD OF MORE THAN 12 MONTHS
TEST FOR REMOVAL OF THE MULTI-CREW OR SINGLE-ENGINE AEROPLANE
RESTRICTION

CHAPTER 8 THE INSTRUMENT RATING (HELICOPTERS)

THE INSTRUMENT RATING PRIVILEGES
APPROVED TRAINING
EXEMPTION FROM APPROVED TRAINING
FLYING EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS
GROUND EXAMINATION REQUIREMENTS
THE INSTRUMENT RATING FLIGHT TEST
INSTRUMENT RATING FLIGHT TEST: PASS CONDITIONS
FLIGHT TEST ARRANGEMENTS
THE INSTRUMENT RATING CERTIFICATE OF TEST

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] General-7

 EXPIRE OF C OF E BY A PERIOD OF MORE THAN 12 MONTHS
FLIGHT TEST TO EXTEND THE RATING PRIVILEGES TO ADDITIONAL
TYPES OF HELICOPTERS

CHAPTER 9 TERMS FOR THE VALIDATION OF A NON-SINGAPORE PILOT

LICENCE FROM ICAO CONTRACTING STATES
THE VALIDATION OF NON-SINGAPORE PROFESSIONAL PILOT LICENCE

CHAPTER 10 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RENEWAL OF LAPSED CERTIFICATE OF

TEST, CERTIFICATE OF EXPERIENCE OR INSTRUMENT RATINGS
INTRODUCTION
RENEWAL OF A LAPSED AIRCRAFT RATING, C OF T OR C OF
RENEWAL OF A LAPSED INSTRUMENT RATING

CHAPTER 11 RESERVED

CHAPTER 12 CONVERSION OF A FOREIGN PROFESSIONAL PILOT LICENCE

APPLICABILITY
PRE-REQUISTES
FLYING EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS
ADDITIONAL CONVERSION REQUIREMENTS

CHAPTER 13 SPECIAL LICENSING REQUIREMENTS FOR RSAF MILITARY PILOTS

APPLICATION
REQUIREMENTS (POLICY)
RECOGNITION OF MILITARY QUALIFICATIONS
REQUIREMENT FOR APPROVED TRAINING
INSTRUMENT RATING (AEROPLANES AND HELICOPTERS)

APPENDIX A SYLLABUS CPL /ATPL GROUND EXAMINATIONS SUBJECTS

APPENDIX B EXAMINATION PASS RULES

APPENDIX C FLIGHT INSTRUCTIONS AND SKILLS REQUIREMENTS FOR THE ISSUE

OF CPL AND ATPL

APPENDIX D RECORDING AND CREDITING OF FLIGHT TIME

APPENDIX E THE GENERAL FLIGHT TEST

APPENDIX F INSTRUMENT RATING FLIGHT TEST SYLLABUS AND FLIGHT TEST

CONDITIONS

APPENDIX G LIST IF PUNLICATION WHICH APPLICANTS FOR THE PROFESSIONAL

PILOT LICENCE EXAMINATIONS MAY FIND HELPFUL

APPENDIX H FINAL ASSESSMENT FLIGHT TEST FOR MPL(A)

General-8 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

CHAPTER 1 GENERAL INFORMATION

INTRODUCTION

1 The ANO provides for the issue of a pilot licence and its associated ratings for a person to act
as pilot of a Singapore registered aircraft.

2 The DGCA may grant these licences and ratings subject to being satisfied that the applicant s a
fit person to hold the licence or rating and is appropriately qualified to act in the capacity to
which the licence relates.

3 The privileges attached to each licence and rating, are set out in the ANO for the time being in
force.

REQUIREMENTS FOR THE ISSUE OF LICENCES

4 Age and Validity

(a) The minimum age for the grant of a Multi-crew Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) or
Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes or Helicopters) is 18 years as specified in the
Eighth Schedule of the ANO.

(b) The minimum age of the grant of a Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) and
(Helicopters) is 21 years as specified in the Eighth Schedule of the ANO.

(c) The maximum age for the renewal or grant of any professional pilots licence is 65
years as specified in the paragraph 20 of the ANO.

(d) The maximum period of validity will be in accordance with the Eighth Schedule of
the ANO, which is as follows:

(i) 6 months from the date on which the licence is granted or renewed, if the
holder
(1) is 40 years of age or more on that date and is engaged in
single-crew public transport of passengers ;or

(2) is 60 years of age or more on that date; or

(ii) 12 months from the date on which the licence is granted or renewed, in any
other case.

5 -deleted-

6 -deleted-

13 February 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 3] Chapter 1-1

Medical Standards

7 An applicant, whether ab initio or requiring an abridged course, will not be accepted for
training for an approved Multi-crew Pilot Licence or Commercial Pilot Licence course unless
he satisfies the medical requirements set out in the ANO and the SASP Part 9 by passing a
medical examination for the appropriate licence sought and has been assessed as fit by the
Civil Aviation Medical Board (CAMB).

8 The applicant for a MPL (Aeroplanes), CPL (Aeroplanes), CPL (Helicopters), ATPL
(Aeroplanes) and ATPL (Helicopters) must pass the Class 1 Medical Examination as specified
in the Fourteenth Schedule of the ANO.

Language Proficiency Requirements

9.1 An applicant shall demonstrate the ability to speak and understand English language used
for radio-telephony communications.

9.2 A professional pilot licence shall not be valid unless the holder has been certified to at
least the Operational Level (Level 4) of the ICAO Language Proficiency Rating Scale.

9.3 A professional pilot licence holder who demonstrates language proficiency below the
Expert Level (Level 6) shall be evaluated at the following intervals:

(a) those demonstrating language proficiency at the Operational Level (Level 4) shall
be evaluated at least once every three years; and

(b) those demonstrating language proficiency at the Extended Level (Level 5) shall be
evaluated at least once every six years.

9.4 The evaluation and certification of language proficiency shall be performed only by
persons authorised by or otherwise acceptable to the DGCA.

AIRCRAFT TO BE USED FOR FLIGHT TRAINING AND TESTS

10.1 All flying training and tests shall be carried out in a Singapore registered or a DGCA
approved flight simulator training device where applicable.

10.2 Notwithstanding paragraph 4.1, an applicant enrolled in an approved Aviation Training

Organisation (ATO) located outside Singapore may carry out the required flying training
and flight tests in a non-Singapore registered aircraft that is accepted for use under that
ATOs Certificate of Approval.

Chapter 1-2 13 February 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 3]

PRIVILEGES OF PROFESSIONAL PILOT LICENCES AND RATINGS

Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes)

11 In addition to the privileges for the Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) which includes a
Night Rating (Aeroplanes), the holder of a Commercial Pilot Licence shall be entitled to
fly as

(a) pilot-in-command of any aeroplane certificated for single pilot operation and
which is of a type specified in Part I of the aircraft rating included in the licence,
when the aeroplane is engaged in a flight for the purpose of public transport or
aerial work:

Provided that

(i) he shall not, unless his licence includes an Instrument Rating

(Aeroplanes), fly such an aeroplane on any scheduled journey;

(ii) he shall not fly such an aeroplane at night unless an Instrument Rating
(Aeroplanes) is included in his licence or he has within the immediately
preceding 12 months carried out as pilot-in-command not less than 5 take-
offs and 5 landings at a time when the depression of the centre of the sun
is not less than 12 degrees below the horizon;

(iii) he shall not, unless his licence includes an Instrument rating (Aeroplanes),
fly any such aeroplane of which the maximum total weight authorised
exceeds 2,300 kg on any flight for the purpose of public transport except a
flight beginning and ending at the same aerodrome and not extending
beyond 25 nautical miles from that aerodrome;

(b) co-pilot of any aeroplane of a type specified in Parts I and II of such aircraft rating
when the aeroplane is engaged in a flight for the purpose of public transport or
aerial work.

Multi-crew Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes)

11A The licence-

(a) shall entitle the holder to exercise the privileges of a Private Pilots Licence
(Aeroplanes) which includes a night rating (aeroplanes);

(b) shall entitle the holder to exercise the privileges of Instrument Rating (aeroplanes);
and

(c) shall entitle the holder to fly as a co-pilot of any aeroplane required to be operated
with a co-pilot and which is of a type specified in Part II of the aircraft rating
included in the licence, when the aeroplane is engaged in a flight for the purpose
of public transport or aerial work.

Provided that he shall not, unless he has demonstrated an ability to act as pilot-in-
command in a single-pilot operation exercised solely by reference to instruments, exercise
the privileges of an Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) in a single-pilot operation in

13 February 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 3] Chapter 1-3

 aeroplanes.

Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes)

12 In addition to the privileges given above for the Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes)
which includes an Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot
Licence shall be entitled to fly as

(a) pilot-in-command of any aeroplane of a type specified in Part I of the aircraft

rating included in the licence when the aeroplane is engaged in a flight for the
purpose of public transport or aerial work

(b) co-pilot of any aeroplane of a type specified in Part I or Part II of such aircraft
rating when the aeroplane is engaged in a flight for the purpose of public transport
or aerial work.

Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopters)

13 In addition to the privileges given for the Private Pilot Licence (Helicopters) which
includes a night rating (helicopters), the holder of a Commercial Pilot Licence shall be
entitled to fly as

(a) pilot-in-command of any helicopter certificated for single pilot operation and
which is of a type specified in Part I of the aircraft rating included in the licence
when the helicopter is engaged in a flight for any purpose whatsoever:

Provided that

(i) he shall not, unless his licence includes an Instrument Rating (helicopters)
fly such a helicopter on any scheduled journey or on any flight for the
purpose of public transport in Instrument Meteorological Conditions;

(ii) he shall not fly such a helicopter at night unless his licence includes an
Instrument Rating (Helicopters) or he has within the immediately
preceeding 12 months carried out as pilot-in-command not less than 5
flights, each consisting of a take-off, a transition from hover to forward
flight, a climb to at least 500 feet and a landing, at a time when the
depression of the centre of the sun is not less than 12 degrees below the
horizon;

(b) co-pilot of any helicopter required to be operated with a co-pilot of a type

specified in Part I or Part II of such aircraft rating for purposes whatsoever.

Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Helicopters)

14 In addition to the privileges given above for the Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopters)
the holder of the licence shall be entitled to fly as

(a) pilot-in-command of any helicopter of a type specified in Part I of the aircraft

rating included in the licence when the aircraft is engaged on a flight for any
purpose whatsoever.

Chapter 1-4 13 February 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 3]

 (b) co-pilot of any helicopter required to be operated with a co-pilot of a type
specified in Part I or Part II of such aircraft rating for any purpose whatsoever.

Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes)

15 An instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) shall entitle the holder of the licence to act as pilot-in-
command or co-pilot of an aeroplane flying in controlled airspace in circumstances which
require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.

Instrument Rating (Helicopters)

16 Instrument Rating (Helicopters) shall entitle the holder of the licence to act as pilot-in-
command of a helicopter flying in controlled airspace in circumstances which require
compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.

Flying Instructors Rating

17 Flying Instructors Rating shall entitle the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying
aircraft of such types as may be specified in the rating for that purpose. The maximum
period of validity of a Flying Instructors Rating shall be 24 months.

Assistant Flying Instructors Rating

18 Assistant Flying Instructors Rating shall entitle the holder of the licence to give
instruction in flying aircraft of such types as may be specified in the rating for that
purpose:

Provided that

(a) such instruction shall only be given under the supervision of a person present
during the take-off and landing at the aerodrome at which the instruction is to
begin and end and holding a pilot licence endorsed with a flying instructors
rating; and

(b) an assistant flying instructors rating shall not entitle the holder of the licence to
give directions to the person undergoing instruction in respect of the performance
by that person of

(i) his first solo flight by day; or

(ii) his first solo flight by night;
(iii) his first solo cross-country flight by day;
(iv) his first solo cross-country flight by night;
(v) his flight as part of any multi-crew pilot licence course of training or
instruction.

The maximum period of validity of an Assistant Flying Instructors Rating shall be 12

months.

13 February 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 3] Chapter 1-5

 INTENTIONALLY
LEFT BLANK

Chapter 1-6 13 February 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 3]

CHAPTER 2 MEDICAL PROCEDURES (ADMINISTRATION)

LICENSING MEDICAL EXAMINATION (LME)

1 An applicant for the initial issue or renewal of a professional pilot licence, viz CPL, MPL
or ATPL, must satisfy the Civil Aviation Medical Board (CAMB) that he/she meets the
Class 1 medical requirements as set out in the Fourteenth Schedule of the ANO and the
SASP Part 9. The level of medical fitness to be met for the renewal of a Medical
Certificate shall be the same as that for the initial assessment except where otherwise
specifically stated.

2 Prospective applicants must be free from any physical disabilities and defect of hearing,
vision or colour perception.

3 Applicants are required to undergo the initial or renewal Licensing Medical Examination
(LME) for the appropriate licence sought.

3.1 The LME is to be conducted by a Designated Medical Examiner (DME). LME for the
initial, every fourth renewal and the renewal at 60 years of age for CPL, MPL or ATPL
holders shall be at the clinical premises of the CAMB.

3.2 The applicant shall sign and furnish to the DME a declaration, made in a form prescribed
by the DGCA, stating whether they have previously undergone such an examination
and, if so, the date, place and result of the last examination. He/She shall indicate to the
DME whether a previous medical assessment had been unsuccessful and, if so, the
reason for such.

3.3 The report of the LME will be sent to the CAMB for assessment of the applicants
fitness to hold a professional pilot licence. It is the applicants responsibility to ensure
that he/she has been declared as fit by CAMB prior to exercising the privileges of the
licence that he/she is applying for. He/She must hold a valid Medical Certificate for the
initial issue or renewal of a licence. The validity period of the licence is subject in part to
the validity period of the applicants Medical Certificate.

4 The maximum period of validity of the Medical Certificate will be that as specified in
Chapter 1 para 4. The period of validity listed will be based on the age of the applicant at
the time of successful LME. The medical validity period may be reduced when clinically
indicated.

5 An applicant is required to undergo another initial LME if he/she fails to revalidate his/
her Medical Certificate within 12 months after the expiry of the Medical Certificate.

6 -deleted-

7 Flight crew members shall not exercise the privileges of their licences unless they hold a
valid Medical Certificate and the licence bears a valid Certificate of Test or a valid
Certificate of Experience appropriate to the functions to be performed on that flight.

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 2-1

THE CIVIL AVIATION MEDICAL BOARD (CAMB)

8.1 The CAMB is a board of medical specialists that advises the DGCA on the regulation of
medical standards of Singapore licensed flight crew and air traffic controllers and on the
aeromedical requirements of Singapore in relation to international standards set by the
International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO).

8.2 For the purpose of carrying out the necessary medical assessments, the DGCA has
appointed a panel of Medical Assessors, as part of the Office of CAMB, who meet the
criteria for "Evaluating Medical Examiners" as spelt out in the ANO paragraph 2 and are
competent in evaluating and assessing medical conditions of flight safety. Licensing
Medical Assessors Boards (LMAB) are convened to assess the medical fitness of an
applicant for the issue or renewal of a Medical Certificate in accordance with the
Fourteenth Schedule of the ANO and the SASP Part 9.

DESIGNATED MEDICAL EXAMINERS (DMEs)

9 For the purpose of carrying out the necessary medical examinations for flight crew, the
DGCA has appointed a panel of Designated Medical Examiners (DMEs), to conduct
LME for the initial issue and renewal of flight crew licences. The list of names and
addresses of DMEs is published in the Aeronautical Information Circular which is
available on the CAAS website at www.caas.gov.sg.

10 -deleted-

TIMELY REVALIDATION OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

11 The Medical Certificate will bear the date of the applicants successful LME, its expiry
date and other requirements e.g. Chest X-ray, ECG, Audiogram etc.

12 The licence holder is responsible for ensuring that his/her Medical Certificate is valid
prior to exercising the privileges of his/her licence.

13 A licence holder shall arrange for his/her renewal LME to take place up to 45 days prior
to the expiry of his/her existing Medical Certificate.

MEDICAL STANDARDS NOT MET

14.1 If the medical standards as presented in the ANOs Fourteenth Schedule and the SASP
Part 9 for a particular licence are not met, the corresponding Medical Certificate for that
particular licence will not be issued or renewed unless the following conditions are
fulfilled:

(a) accredited medical conclusion arrived at by CAMB indicates that in special

circumstances, the applicant's failure to meet any requirement, whether numerical or
otherwise, is such that exercise of the privileges of the licence applied for is not likely
to jeopardise flight safety.

Chapter 2-2 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

 (b) relevant ability, skill and experience of the applicant and operational conditions have
been given consideration.

(c) the licence is endorsed with any special limitation or limitations when the safe
performance of the licence holder's duties is dependent on compliance with such
limitation or limitations.

14.2 A holder of a licence granted in part on the basis of medical fitness shall not be entitled
to perform any of the functions to which his/her licence relates if he/she knows or has
reason to believe that his/her physical condition renders him/her temporarily or
permanently unfit to perform such function. Those who:

(a) suffers any personal injury involving incapacity to undertake the functions to
which his/ her licence relates;

(b) suffers any illness involving incapacity to undertake those functions for a period
extending beyond 20 days;

(c) knows or has reasons to believe that she is pregnant;

(d) developed a medical condition that requires continued treatment with prescribed
medication; or

(e) has received medical treatment requiring hospitalisation;

is to report the issue or occurrence to CAMB as soon as possible. He/she shall not
exercise the privileges of the licence and related ratings until he/she has satisfied the
CAMB that his/her medical fitness has been restored to the standard as specified in the
Fourteenth Schedule of the ANO and the SASP Part 9. If under any doubt, he/she is to
seek clarification or guidance from a DME to ascertain if the medical issue or
occurrence is of relevance to flight safety.

PAYMENT OF CHARGES

15 The fees to be charged by the DME for medical examinations may follow guidelines set by
the Singapore Medical Council (SMC) or at rates as determined by the DME performing
the medical examinations.

16 The fee to be paid by the applicant for a medical evaluation by the CAMB is laid down in
the Twelfth Schedule of the ANO.

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 2-3

 INTENTIONALLY
LEFT BLANK

Chapter 2-4 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

CHAPTER 3 GROUND EXAMINATIONS - COMMERCIAL PILOT, MULTI-CREW
PILOT & AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOTS LICENCES

KNOWLEDGE OF TECHNICAL SUBJECTS

1 Applicants will be required to pass the following papers for the issue of a Commercial Pilot
Licence (CPL), Multi-crew Pilot Licence (MPL) and an Airline Transport Pilot Licence
(ATPL):-

(a) The Navigation Group of papers *

(b) The Aircraft Technical papers

(c) Aviation Law, Flight Rules and Procedures

(d) Human Performance and Limitations (HPL)

(e) Radiotelephony Theory

(f) Performance A

(g) Aircraft (Type)

Note: * (i) The Navigation Group of papers comprise both CPL and ATPL levels.

(ii) A pass in the Human Performance and Limitations paper is required for
the re-issue or upgrade of a professional licence for licence holders who
have not sat for this paper before. Re-issue applies to any licence renewed
after expiry of its normal validity period. A candidate who does not
obtain a pass in this subject will have to re-sit the subject in accordance
with the rules for re-sitting the Navigation Group of papers.

2 All MPL holders and CPL holders applying for an aircraft rating on an aircraft type
certificated for 2-pilot operation must have demonstrated to have the ATPL level theoretical
knowledge. This will be met by passing the ATPL Navigation Group of papers.

GROUND EXAMINATION ENTRY CONDITIONS

3 Before being permitted to sit for any required ground examinations, applicants must
possesses an appropriate Singapore licence with a valid Medical Certificate and must have:-
(a) Embarked on an approved full-time course or an approved abridged course of
training. The Flying Training Organisation conducting the training will be
required to make the necessary arrangements to qualify the applicant for the
examinations; or

(b) Met the criteria for exemption as spelt out in paragraph 20 of this chapter.

Note: A holder of a Singapore Certificate of Validation issued for the purpose

for training to obtain a Singapore Professional Pilot Licence may be
permitted to sit the appropriate ground examination papers.
4 -deleted-

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 3-1

EXAMINATION PAPER CLASSIFICATION

5 Examinations for professional pilots licences for aeroplanes and helicopter are classified
under two Groups, i.e.: Navigation Group and Aircraft Technical Group. On making initial
application to take the examinations each candidate will be informed of the particular
examination paper which he needs to pass in order to qualify for the licence being sought.

6 The Navigation group of papers comprises the following:-

Flight Planning
Navigation
Instruments
Radio Aids
Meteorology Theory
Meteorology Practical

7 The Aircraft Technical Group of papers comprises the following:

Theory Principles of Flight (Aeroplanes)

Theory Principles of Flight (Helicopters)
Airframe System (Aeroplanes)
Airframe System (Helicopters)
Engines
Electrics
Loading

Note: (a) For the Aircraft Technical Group of papers, only appropriate papers for the
particular aircraft type to be endorsed for the issue of a licence need to be
taken in the first sitting.

(b) The Aviation Law, Flight Rules and Procedures and Human Performance and
Limitations examinations must be taken together with the Navigation Group
of papers in the first sitting although they are not considered as examination
papers within the Navigation Group of papers.

8 -reserved-

SYLLABUS

9 The syllabus for each of the above examination papers are in the Appendix A. Applicants
shall check with the DGCA on any changes to the syllabus prior to applying to sit for any
examination papers.

PASS RULES

10.1 A candidate must pass at least 50% of the papers within a group in order to be awarded a
partial pass in that group. The passing mark for each examination paper is 75%.

Note : All ground examinations papers will be scored by the marks awarded for correct

Chapter 3-2 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

 answers. No adjustments will be made for incorrect answers

10.2 A candidate will be allowed two further attempts to pass all the remaining papers within
each group.

10.3 A candidate must attempt all outstanding papers of each group during each re-sit.

10.4 A candidate who fails an examination group or fails to convert a partial pass to a pass within
two further attempts will have to resit all papers in the particular group. A candidate may be
barred for a period before being permitted to start a new cycle in an examination group. (See
examination re-entry qualification in paragraph 12).

VALIDITY PERIOD OF EXAMINATION RESULTS

11.1 The validity period of examination results for the initial grant of a professional pilot licence
is 36 months from the date of obtaining a pass or a partial pass from either the Navigation or
Aircraft Technical Group of papers, whichever is earlier.

11.2 The validity period for the Aircraft Type Technical examination is 18 months.

11.3 A candidate will be required to complete the Navigation and Aircraft Technical Groups of
papers (including Aviation Law, Flight Rules and Procedures) within 12 months after
obtaining a pass or a partial pass in any examination group of papers.

11.4 The examination for the Aircraft (Type), Aviation Law, Flight Rules and Procedures and the
Radiotelephony Operator Licence will be independent of the two examination groups
although the Aviation Law, Rules and Flight Procedures must be taken together with the
Navigation Group of papers. A pass in Aviation Law, Flight Rules and Procedures must be
obtained within the 12 month period.

EXAMINATION RE-ENTRY CONDITIONS

12 Examinations are based on a system of three attempt cycles. The first cycle starts with the
first examination sitting for the relevant Group.

13 Candidates may, if they wish, take both Groups at the same sitting; but they are not required
to do so and the Groups will be considered separately for cycle and re-entry purposes.

14 In the event of a failure to pass all the subjects within a Group when two cycles of attempts
have been completed a "certificate of satisfactory course completion" in respect of the
candidate will normally be required from a recognised flying training organisation before an
application to re-enter the examination system is accepted. This supplementary study may
be carried out by attendance at the study centre or by home study directed by the flying
training organisation.

15 There is a minimum period of time between cycles, during which the candidate is barred
from re-sitting the same Group Papers. A barred period commences on the date that the
candidate is notified of the results of the latest failed cycle. The period is 3 months
following the first cycle, 5 months following the second cycle, and 12 months following the
third cycle.

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 3-3

16 A candidate who failed a third cycle will, in addition to being barred for 12 months, be
required to meet such re-training conditions as may be determined by the DGCA.

17 The ground examination system is summarised in the diagram in Appendix B.

EXAMINATION ARRANGEMENTS

18 Examination schedules are notified in the Aeronautical Information Circulars.

19 To ensure confidentiality, examination results will only be released through the post or
collected personally by the applicant.

EXEMPTION ON REQUIREMENTS FOR EXAMINATIONS AND FLIGHT TESTS

20 Exemptions on certain requirement for examination and flight tests may be applicable to the
following categories of applicants, as determined by the DGCA:

(a) a pilot qualified and serving in the Republic of Singapore Air Force who is in current
flying practice and meets the experience requirements for the licence and/or ratings;

(b) in the case of an applicant for an "Aeroplane" category licence, a pilot whose total
experience requirement is at least 700 hours;

(c) in the case of an applicant for a "Helicopter" category licence, 400 hours of
experience as pilot-in-command on helicopters.

TIME LIMIT - ATPL EXAMINATIONS

21 The validity period of the ATPL examinations results is 5 years:

(a) from the date of obtaining a pass in all subjects; or

(b) from the last date of endorsement in the Certificate of Test for either an aircraft type
rating or instrument rating of a multi-pilot aircraft type,

whichever is later.

TERMINATION OF EXAMINATIONS

22 The subjects listed in this chapter shall cease to be applicable with effect from 1
September 2013.

Chapter 3-4 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

CHAPTER 3A REVISED GROUND EXAMINATIONS

INTRODUCTION

1 An applicant for a Professional Pilot Licence shall demonstrate a level of knowledge

appropriate to the privileges of the licence or rating.

2 A combination of subjects under the different examination syllabi will not be accepted
for an initial issue of a professional pilot licence or foreign licence conversion.

Note: Refer to AC FCL-6 for guidance on the applicability of these examination

subjects.

EXAMINATINON SUBJECTS

3 The required examination subjects for the various types of licences and the Instrument
Rating (IR) are listed in the table below.

Aeroplane Helicopter
Subject ATPL CPL/IR CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL/IR CPL
Air Law
Airframe, Systems and Engines
Instrumentation
Mass and Balance
Performance Aeroplane
Performance Helicopter
Flight Planning and Monitoring
Human Performance
Meteorology
General Navigation
Radio Navigation
Operational Procedures
Principles of Flight - Aeroplane
Principles of Flight - Helicopter
VFR Communications
IFR Communications
Total No. of Papers 14 14 13 14 13 14 13
Legend

Required ATPL Paper Required CPL Paper / Paper includes IR

component

Not Required

Note : The learning objectives for each of the subjects listed above are found in AC
FCL-7 which also contains a list of publications which applicants may find
helpful.

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 3A-1

4 Apart from the examination subjects listed above, the applicant shall pass the Aircraft Type
Technical examination to qualify for the inclusion of an aircraft rating in the licence.

5 All MPL and CPL holders intending to operate an aircraft type certificated for multi-pilot
operation shall demonstrate theoretical knowledge at the ATPL level.

6 An applicant for an ATPL, having passed the theoretical examinations required for a
CPL/IR, shall be deemed to have obtained a pass in each of the following subjects at the
ATPL level:

(a) Air Law;

(b) Human Performance;

(c) Principles of Flight (Helicopter) only;

(d) VFR Communications; and

(e) IFR Communications.

7 A holder of a valid CPL(A), CPL(H) or ATPL(H) applying for an Instrument Rating shall
obtain a pass in each of the following subjects:

(a) Instrumentation;

(b) Flight Planning and Monitoring;

(c) Meteorology;

(d) Radio Navigation; and

(e) IFR Communications.

PASS STANDARDS

8 A pass in an examination subject will be awarded to an applicant who has achieved at least
75% of the score.

9 An applicant shall not be permitted to attempt an examination subject more than three
times in any three month period.

10 Should any applicant be deemed to have not complied with the examination instructions, the
DGCA may at his discretion, void the applicants examination results for that subject.

VALIDITY PERIOD OF EXAMINATION RESULTS

11 A pass in any subject listed in paragraph 3 shall be valid for 36 months.

12 The Aircraft Type Technical examination does not form part of the examinations described
in paragraph 3. A pass in this subject shall be valid for 18 months.

Chapter 3A-2 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

13 The validity period of the ATPL examination results for the purpose of obtaining an ATPL is
5 years:

(a) from the date of obtaining a pass in all the subjects; or

(b) from the last date of endorsement in the Certificate of Test for either an aircraft type
rating or instrument rating of a multi-pilot aircraft type,

whichever is later.

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 3A-3

 INTENTIONALLY
LEFT BLANK

Chapter 3A-4 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

CHAPTER 4 FLYING EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANES)

1 An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) (CPL(A)) must produce evidence
that:-

(a) he has successfully completed an approved course of flight and ground training; or

(b) he is in current flying practice qualified and serving as a pilot in the Republic of
Singapore Air Force ( RSAF) with at least 700 hours as pilot of aeroplanes meeting
the full detailed requirements set out in paragraph 2 below; or

(c) he meets in full the detailed experience requirements set out in paragraph 5 below
except that the total hours as pilot of aeroplanes exceeds 700 hours.

2 The minimum flying experience required for grant of a CPL(A) in the case of a graduate
from an approved course of training is 155 hours which should include not less than:-

(a) 100 hours as pilot-in-command (PIC) of which not less than 20 hours must be cross-
country or overseas flying including one flight of at least 300 nautical miles, in the
course of which the aeroplane landed and came to rest at not less than two
intermediate aerodromes.

(b) 10 hours of night flying as PIC or pilot under instruction of which not less than 5
hours must be as pilot-in-command. This night flying experience must include not
less than 10 take-offs and 10 landings without assistance.

(c) 10 hours of instrument flying instruction of which not more than 5 hours may be
instrument ground time. In the case of a holder of a valid Instrument Rating
(Helicopters) or a valid RSAF Master Green or Green Instrument Rating on
helicopters, this requirement may be reduced to not less than 2 hours.

COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANES) WITH INSTRUMENT RATING

3 The minimum flying experience required for grant of a CPL/IR (Aeroplanes) for a graduate
from an approved course of CPL/IR training is 200 hours as pilot of aeroplanes. The
breakdown of the 200 hours must include that as specified in paragraph 2 above and the
Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) specified in Chapter 7. Appropriate flight time may be
counted toward satisfying both sets of requirements.

4 Flight time in microlight aeroplanes, or in self-launching motor gliders, will not be counted
toward satisfying any of the requirements specified in paragraphs 2 or 3 above.

5 The minimum flying experience for a pilot who has NOT completed an approved course of
full time flight and ground training is 700 hours as pilot of aeroplanes. This must include
meeting the particular requirements specified below. Each of these requirements must be

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 4-1

 met in full but, except where stated otherwise, hours may be credited, where appropriate, to
more than one requirement:

(a) 200 hours as PIC of aeroplanes of which up to a maximum of 100 hours may be as
co-pilot acting as pilot-in-command under supervision PIC U/S.

(b) 50 hours of cross-country or overseas flying as PIC or PIC U/S of aeroplanes or

helicopters, of which not less than 35 hours must be as PIC of aeroplanes, including a
route of at least 300 nautical miles, in the course of which the aeroplane or helicopter
landed and came to rest at not less than two intermediate and aerodromes. At least 10
of the 50 hours must be as PIC of aeroplanes by night or by sole reference to
instruments. Any instrument flight time counted towards satisfying this requirement
may not also be counted towards satisfying that specified in paragraph 5(d).

(c) 10 hours of night flying as specified in paragraph 2(b) above.

(d) 40 hours of flying as pilot by sole reference to instruments, of which not less than 20
hours must be a pilot of aeroplanes. The remainder may be as a pilot of aeroplanes or
on an approved simulator. The instrument flying in aeroplanes may be in actual or
simulated conditions.

(e) The remainder of the 700 hours of experience required may comprise flight time in
aeroplanes in any of the following capacities:-

(i) as PIC;

(ii) as pilot-under-instruction;

(iii) as co-pilot acting as PIC U/S; or

(iv) as co-pilot.

Note: Refer to Appendix D for guidance on crediting of flight time.

(f) Flight time in microlight aeroplanes, or in self-launching motor gliders, will not be
counted towards satisfying the above requirements.

MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANES)

5A An applicant for a Multi-crew Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) (MPL(A)) must produce evidence
that he has successfully completed a MPL training course approved by the DGCA conducted
by an FTO in accordance with SASP 10, and passed the Final Assessment Flight Test as
detailed in Appendix H. The applicant shall have completed, as part of the training course,
flying training comprising a total of at least 240 hours, composed of hours as Pilot Flying and
Pilot Monitoring.

5B The MPL(A) will be restricted to the specific AOC holder for which the MPL training course
was developed until the completion of the AOC holders structured initial operating
experience (IOE) programme and line check. The licence restriction will be removed upon
successful completion of the line check.

Chapter 4-2 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANES)

6 The minimum flying experience required for grant of an ATPL(A) is 1500 hours as pilot of
aeroplanes which shall meet the requirements as specified below. Each of these
requirements must be met in full but, except where stated otherwise, hours may be credited,
where appropriate towards to more than one requirement.

(a) 500 hours as pilot-in-command under supervision, or 250 hours as pilot-in-command

PIC of aeroplanes of which up to a maximum of 180 hours may be as co-pilot acting
as pilot-in-command under supervision (P1 U/S).

(b) 200 hours of cross-country or overseas flying of which not less than 100 hours as PIC
or P1 U/S on aeroplanes, of which not less than 35 hours must be as P1C hours. This
must include a flight of at least 300 nautical miles acting as PIC, in the course of
which the aeroplane landed and came to rest at not less than 2 intermediate
aerodromes.

(c) 100 hours of night flying in aeroplanes as PIC or P1 U/S or as co-pilot, of which not
less than 25 hours must be on cross-country or overseas flying as PIC or P1 U/S,
including two flights as PIC terminating at an aerodrome not less than 65 nautical
miles from the point of departure. The holder of a valid CPL(H) or ATPL(H) may be
exempted from the cross-country requirement provided that he can produce evidence
of having completed 2 such flights as PIC of helicopters. This night flying must
include at least 5 hours and 10 take-offs and 10 landings as PIC;

(d) 75 hours flying as pilot by sole reference to instruments of which not more than 30
hours may be instrument ground time.

(e) The remainder of the 1500 hours experience required may comprise flight time on
flying machines in any of the following capacities:-

(i) as PIC;

(ii) as pilot-under-instruction;

(iii) as P1 U/S; or

(iv) as co-pilot.

Note: Refer to Appendix D for guidance on crediting of flight time.

(f) Flight time in microlight aeroplanes, or in self-launching motor gliders, will not be
counted towards satisfying the above requirements.

COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE (HELICOPTERS)

7 An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopters) [CPL(H)] must produce evidence
that:

(a) he has successfully completed an approved course of flight and ground training; or
(b) he is in current flying practice as a qualified and serving pilot with the Republic of

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 4-3

 Singapore Air Force with at least 400 hours of experience as pilot of helicopters
which must meet in full the detailed experience requirements specified in para 8(a) to
8(c) below; or

(c) he has a minimum flying experience of 400 hours as PIC of helicopter and in addition
meets in full the detailed experience requirements in paragraph 8 below.

8 The minimum flying experience required for grant of a CPL(H) in the case of a graduate
from an approved course of training is 150 hours as pilot-in-command (PIC) or pilot-under-
instruction on helicopters. The helicopter flying must include not less than 35 hours as
PIC, which may include any of the pilot-in-command time specified below:

(a) 10 hours cross-country or overseas flying as PIC, which must include a flight in the
course of which landing at 2 different points shall be made.

(b) 10 hours instruction in instrument flying of which not more than 5 hours may be
instrument ground time.

(c) 5 hours of night flying which must include not less than 5 take-offs and 5 landing
patterns as PIC.

9 Credit on experience as a pilot under instruction in an approved synthetic flight trainer shall
be limited to a maximum of 10 hours.

AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCE (HELICOPTERS)

10 An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Helicopters) must produce evidence of
having completed a total of at least 1000 hours as a pilot of helicopters.

11 The 1000 hours must meet the breakdown as specified below:

(a) 250 hours, either as pilot-in-command, or made up by not less than 100 hours as pilot-
in-command and the necessary additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the
supervision of the pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command,
provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the DGCA.

(b) 200 hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than 100 hours shall be as
pilot-in-command or as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-
command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command, provided that the method
of supervision employed is acceptable to the DGCA.

(c) 30 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument
ground time.

(d) 50 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.

12 Credit on experience as a pilot under instruction in an approved synthetic flight trainer shall
be limited to a maximum of 100 hours of which not more than 25 hours shall have been
acquired in a flight procedure trainer or a basic instrument flight trainer.
13 The remainder of the 1000 hours experience required may comprise flight time in aeroplanes
in any of the following capacities:

Chapter 4-4 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

 (a) PIC, counted in full.

(b) as pilot under instruction, counted in full.

(c) as P1 U/S, counted in full.

(d) as co-pilot, counted at half rate.

FLIGHT INSTRUCTION AND SKILLS REQUIREMENT

14 An applicant for a CPL or ATPL must undergo the flight instructions and demonstrate the
skills as spelt in Appendix C prior to the issue of the licence.

15 An applicant for an MPL(A) must demonstrate the skills as spelt in Appendix H prior to the
issue of the licence.

INTENTIONALLY
LEFT BLANK

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 4-5

Chapter 4-6 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]
CHAPTER 5 THE GENERAL FLIGHT TEST

CONDUCT OF THE TEST

1 Applicants for a CPL/ATPL will be required to pass a General Flight Test (GFT) conducted
by a CAAS flight operations inspector or an Authorised Flight Examiner. The GFT should
be carried out in an aircraft. The test comprises an assessment of the applicant's preparation
for flight and pre take-off procedures and three flight sections as follows:-

Section 1 : Cross-country flight

Section 2 : Basic aircraft handling
Section 3 : Instrument flying

2 The aim of the test is to ensure the applicant has demonstrated the ability to perform as
pilot-in-command of an aeroplane, the procedures and manoeuvres with degree of
competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a professional pilot
licence aeroplane, and to:

(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations.

(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy.

(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship.

(d) apply aeronautical knowledge.

(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in a manner such that successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

3 In the aeroplane GFT, Sections 1, 2 and 3 of the test are normally completed in the course of
one flight. At some suitable stage in Section 1 of the cross-country flight, the applicant will be
asked to carry out certain of the basic aircraft handling exercises from Section 2 and the
instrument flying exercises from Section 3. On completion of these exercises, the cross-
country section will resume and the remaining basic handling exercises associated with
circuits, landings and go-around procedures will be completed on return to base. The cross-
country section normally takes about an hour, the basic handling section about 30 minutes and
the instrument flying section about 15 minutes, the whole test lasting about one hour and 45
minutes. The CPL GFT may be conducted in a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane. In
the case of the issue of an ATPL, the flight test must be carried out in a multi-engine aircraft
required to be operated with a co-pilot.

Note: This flight will be carried out in an aircraft type which, for type rating purposes, is
in the same group as the type in which the candidate will be taking the flight test.

FLIGHT TEST PASS CONDITIONS

4 An applicant who fails one section of the test will be required to take only that section again. If
he fails more than one section he will be required to take all three sections again.
5 A failure to pass any of Sections 1, 2 or 3 within three attempts will invalidate any passes
which may have been gained in the three sections. Before another attempt can be made at any

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 5-1

 section of the test, the applicant will be required to undertake such further flight training as the
DGCA may prescribe and be certified by a person authorised by the DGCA that the training
has been satisfactorily completed and that, in the judgement of the signatory, the applicant is
fully ready to take the GFT again.

GENERAL FLIGHT TEST RESULTS: PERIOD OF VALIDITY

6 Except where the applicant has been given an exemption which still applies, a valid pass in all
three sections of the GFT must be obtained within the 21 days immediately preceding the date
of the licence application.

7 An exception may be made to this in the case of potential applicants for a licence who are
undergoing an approved course of full time training where, subject to acceptance by the
DGCA, different sections of the GFT may be completed at appropriate stages in the course.

FLIGHT TEST ARRANGEMENTS

8 Applicants undergoing an approved course of training will normally be offered for the General
Flight Test under arrangements made by the flying training organisation (FTO) conducting the
course, subject to acceptance by the DGCA. The FTO concerned will also normally be
responsible for providing an aircraft acceptable to DGCA for the conduct of the test.

9 Other applicants will be required to make arrangements for the test acceptable to the DGCA,
and to provide a suitable aircraft for the test. Such aircraft must be maintained and equipped
to requirements specified by the DGCA and be approved for the conduct of the test.

10 Payment of the statutory fee for the test must be made before any test.

COMBINED GFT/IR TEST

11 For students who have completed an approved course of training for the CPL/IR (Aeroplanes),
the General Flight Test may be combined with the Instrument Rating Flight Test. This
combined GFT/IR test is conducted in accordance to a syllabus approved by DGCA and
carried out by the FTO. The students will be given all the information they need concerning
the test by the FTO which carries out the training.

EXEMPTION FROM THE GENERAL FLIGHT TEST - AEROPLANES

12 Exemption from having to take part or all of the GFT's sections may be given as follows to:

(a) Holders of a Singapore PPL(A) with Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes)

The holder of a Singapore PPL(A) with a valid Instrument Rating will not normally
be required to take Section 3 of the GFT.

(b) RSAF Pilots

A pilot qualified in RSAF who is in current flying practice may be exempted from

Chapter 5-2 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

 certain Sections of GFT, as determined by DGCA on a case by case basis.

13 -deleted-

14 -deleted-

HOLDERS OF CPL(H), ATPL(H) - APPLYING FOR A CPL(A) OR ATPL(A)

15 Holders of a valid Singapore CPL(H) or ATPL(H) will normally be exempted from having to
take Section 1 of the GFT for the issue of a CPL(A).

16 Where the applicant for an ATPL(A) who does not hold a Singapore CPL(A), the General
Flight Test (GFT) requirements for grant of the licence, and the grounds upon which
exemption may be given from having to take part or all of the test, are the same as for the
CPL(A).

17 The holder of a valid Singapore CPL(A) will not normally be required to take the General
Flight Test for grant of an ATPL(A).

THE GENERAL FLIGHT TEST - CPL(H)

18 Unless an exemption has been granted under paragraph 24 below, an applicant for a CPL(H)
will be required to pass a General Flight Test (GFT) conducted by a CAAS flight operations
inspector or an Authorised Flight Examiner. The test comprises:

Section 1 : Cross-country flight

Section 2 : Basic aircraft handling
Section 3 : Instrument Flying

19 The first three sections of the test are conducted by day in three separate flights which
normally follow on sequentially and may be conducted in either single-engine or multi-engine
helicopters. The cross-country and basic aircraft handling sections each normally takes about
an hour and the instrument flying section about 45 minutes.

20 If the GFT is conducted in a single-engine helicopter, Section 2 will be conducted at more

than 90% of maximum landing weight.

EXEMPTION FROM THE GFT

21 An RSAF helicopter pilot who is in current flying practice as first pilot and has at least 200
hours experience of military flying machines including not less than 100 hours as pilot of
helicopters may be exempted from having to take Sections 1, 2 and 3 of the GFT.

HOLDERS OF CPL(A) OR ATPL(A) - APPLYING FOR A CPL(H) OR ATPL(H)

22 Holders of a valid CPL(A) or ATPL(A) will normally be exempted from having to take

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 5-3

 Section 1 of the GFT.

THE GENERAL FLIGHT TEST - ATPL(H)

23 The holder of a valid Singapore CPL(H) will not normally be required to take the GFT for
grant of an ATPL(H).

24 Where the applicant for an ATPL(H) does not hold a Singapore CPL(H), the GFT
requirements for grant of the licence, and the grounds upon which exemption may be given
from having to take part or all of the test, are the same as for the CPL(H).

Chapter 5-4 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

CHAPTER 6 THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS

INTRODUCTION

1 The privileges of a professional pilot licence may only be exercised in an aircraft type as
specified in the Aircraft Rating of the licence in conjunction with a valid Certificate of Test or
a valid Certificate of Experience. The private pilot privileges of the licence may be exercised
in the aircraft type endorsed in the Aircraft Rating - Private Pilot Privileges.

Note 1 : A Class rating is established for aeroplanes certificated for single-pilot operations and
shall comprise :

(i) single-engine, land

(ii) single-engine, sea

(iii) multi-engine, land

(iv) multi-engine, sea

Note 2 : The Aircraft Ratings and the conditions under which such ratings may be endorsed
on a Singapore licence is specified in an Advisory Circular.

2 A professional pilot licence will not be issued unless the applicant has qualified for inclusion
in the Aircraft Rating of the licence, either in Part 1 (entitling the holder to fly as PIC or as co-
pilot) or in Part 2 (entitling the holder to fly only as co-pilot), of at least one aircraft type.

3 -deleted-

4 In the case of the issue of an ATPL the applicant must qualify for inclusion, in Part 1 of an
Aircraft Rating of a multi-engine aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot.

5 Entries in Part 2 (co-pilot only entitlement) of the Aircraft Rating will be made in respect only
of aircraft which are required to be flown by a flight crew of at least two pilots.

6 To qualify for inclusion of the first aircraft type in the Aircraft Rating for the issue of a
professional pilot licence, an applicant shall:

(a) pass the Aircraft Type Technical examination for the aircraft type to be endorsed on
the licence; and

(b) pass the Aircraft Rating flight test on the aircraft type to be endorsed on the licence.

Note: The Aircraft Type Technical examination shall be passed for the same variant of the
aircraft on which the aircraft rating flight test is conducted. Once an aircraft rating is
issued, it entitles the holder to exercise privileges on other variants of the same aircraft
type except in certain cases.

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 6-1

7 The qualifying requirements for the inclusion on further types in the Aircraft Rating
subsequent to the first are given in paragraph 18 below.

THE AIRCRAFT RATING FLIGHT TEST

8 Aircraft Rating flight tests must be conducted by a CAAS flight operations inspector or
Authorised Flight Examiner.

9 The aircraft rating test requires the applicant to demonstrate his competence in carrying out
normal and emergency manoeuvres and drills appropriate to the particular aircraft type. The
contents of the test are specified in the application form for the inclusion of an aircraft type in
the Aircraft Rating.

10 In aircraft which are required to be flown by two pilots the test may be conducted with the
applicant acting either in the capacity of pilot-in-command for an entry in Part 1 of the Aircraft
Rating, or in the capacity of co-pilot for an entry in Part II

11 In some cases, certain of the manoeuvres and drills included in the form may be conducted in
an aircraft flight simulator which must be approved for the purpose by the DGCA. The
simulator approval document specifies the manoeuvres and drills for which it is approved.
Access to such simulators can normally only be obtained through the operators to whom the
simulator approval has been given.

12 On satisfactory completion of the flight test, the CAAS flight operations inspector or an
Authorised Flight Examiner will certify to that effect against each of the manoeuvres and drills
specified in the form where any of the items are carried out in an approved simulator.

13 An application for grant of a professional pilot licence shall be made in a form and manner
prescribed by the DGCA. Provided that it is satisfactory and that other licensing requirements
have been met, including the ground examination requirements in respect of the Aircraft
Rating, the DGCA will issue the licence with the type of aircraft upon which the flight test and
associated ground examinations were passed entered in the Aircraft Rating, either in Part I and
Part II, as appropriate. The Aircraft Rating C of T in respect of that type will be endorsed with
a date effective from the date on which all the items in the flight test were satisfactorily
completed.

14 The procedure for inclusion of a further type in the Aircraft Rating subsequent on the first is
similar to paragraph 13.

15 All the items in the aircraft rating flight test shall be satisfactorily completed within 60 days
immediately preceding the date of the licence application.

UPGRADING OF CO-PILOT PRIVILEGES TO PILOT-IN-COMMAND PRIVILEGES

16 Where the holder of a licence which includes an aircraft type in Part II of the Aircraft Rating
wishes to have that type included in Part 1, he will be required to pass the flight test specified
for Part 1 in the form 32/FOS.

Chapter 6-2 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

17 On successful completion of the test he should submit the application in the form and manner
prescribed by the DGCA for endorsement of the type in Part 1 of the Aircraft Rating. The C
of T will be endorsed with effect from the date on which all the items for Part 1 of the test
were satisfactorily completed. All items in Part I of the test shall be completed within a period
of 60 days immediately preceding the date of the licence application.

INCLUSION OF FURTHER TYPES IN THE AIRCRAFT RATING

18 To include further aircraft types in the Aircraft Rating of the licence, the licence holder shall:

(a) pass the Aircraft Type Technical examination for the aircraft type to be endorsed on
the licence; and

(b) pass the Aircraft Rating flight test on the aircraft type to be endorsed on the licence.

19 On satisfactory completion of the ground examinations and the flight test, the applicant should
submit the application in the form and manner prescribed by the DGCA, together with his
licence for inclusion of further type in the Aircraft Rating. The C of T in respect of that type
will be endorsed with effect from the date on which all the items in the flight test were
satisfactorily completed.

20 Prospective applicants for inclusion of a multi-engine aircraft in the Aircraft Rating, where no
such type has been included before, should note that instruction on the aircraft type for
purpose of its inclusion in the rating may only be given to a person who holds a flying
instructor's or assistant flying instructor's rating and who is qualified to give instruction on the
type.

ENDORSEMENT FOR MIXED FLEET FLYING OPERATION

20A Any licence holder seeking endorsement on the licence for Mixed Fleet Flying (MFF)
operation shall provide evidence from the operator to demonstrate that the applicant
meets the pre-requisites for MFF operation as spelt out in the Air Operator Certificate
Requirements, and has successfully completed the operators MFF Programme. At the
time of application, the licence holder shall ensure that the Certificates of Test for the
two MFF aeroplane types are valid and current.

CERTIFICATE OF TEST (C OF T) AND CERTIFICATE OF EXPERIENCE (C OF E)

21 The privileges of a professional pilot licence may only be exercised in aircraft specified in the
Aircraft Rating and in respect of which the licence also contain a valid C of T or C of E. The
purpose and period for which a C of T or C of E is valid is presented by cases which may be
summarised in general terms as follows:-

Case A Carriage of passenger in a flight in respect of which the holder of the licence
receive remuneration, other than a public transport flight

A C of T is required in respect of the type of aircraft in which the flight is

made and the capacity (PIC or co-pilot) in which the licence holder is acting.
The period of validity of a C of T for this purpose is 12 months. The

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 6-3

 applicant must also produce evidence that he has, in the preceding six
months, acquired not less than 15 hours experience as PIC or co-pilot as
appropriate to the capacity in which the licence holder is acting.

Case B Public transport flight

A C of T is required in respect of the type of aircraft in which the flight is

made and the capacity in which the licence holder is acting. The period of
validity of C of T for this purpose is six months. However, where two C of
Ts are held for the same type of aircraft and pilot capacity, the effective dates
of which are separated by not less than four months, the period of validity is
deemed to be 12 months from the effective date of the earlier certificate. The
applicant must also meet the recency requirement as spelt Part B of the Ninth
Schedule in the ANO in order to exercise the privileges of his licence.

For flights involving MFF operations, a C of T is required in respect of the

types of aircraft in which the flight is made and the capacity in which the
licence holder is acting. The C of T shall be endorsed with the two aircraft
types of the approved MFF Programme (e.g. A330/A340). The period of
validity of the C of T is six months. However, where two C of Ts are held,
the effective dates of which are separated by not less than four months, the
period of validity is deemed to be 12 months from the effective date of the
earlier certificate. The applicant must also meet the recency requirement as
spelt out in Part B of the Ninth Schedule in the ANO in order to exercise the
privileges of his licence. The competency tests for the Certificates of Test
shall alternate between the two aircraft types (e.g. A330/A340 and
A340/A330).

Case C Aerial work flight

A C of T is required in respect of the type of aircraft in which the flight is

made and the capacity in which the licence holder is acting is required, the
period of validity of a C of T for this purpose is six months, but where two C
of Ts are held for the same type of aircraft and pilot capacity, the dates of
effect of which are separated by not less than four months, the period of
validity is deemed to be 12 months from the date of effect of the earlier
certificate.

A C of E may be issued if in the preceding six months not less than fifteen
hours experience as PIC or co-pilot as appropriate to the capacity in which
the licence holder is acting, in the type of aircraft in which the flight is made.

Note : An expired C of E will not be revalidated. The licence holder will be

required to pass a flight test again in order to exercise the privileges of his
licence.

Case D Any flight operating within the privileges of a PPL

A C of T is required in respect of the aircraft Class, Group and Type of which

Chapter 6-4 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

 the test was carried out and in respect of the capacity in which the licence
holder is acting. A C of T for a single-engine Group C type will revalidate
Group A. A C of T for multi-engine Group C type will validate Groups A
and B. This is provided the pilot has made at least 1 flight as PIC, one on
each Group to be revalidated within the 12 months preceding the test.

Similarly, a C of T for a Group B aircraft will revalidate the Group A. This is

provided he has made at least 1 flight as PIC in a Group A aeroplane within
the 12 months immediately preceding the test. The period of validity of a C
of T for this purpose is 12 months.

A C of E may be issued if within the preceding 12 months, at least 5 hours is

flown as a pilot in an aircraft of the same Class as the rating in the licence.
Of the 5 hours, a minimum of 2 hours must be of dual flying instruction
under a flying instructor. Upon the completion of the dual flight(s), the
instructor must certify the pilot a fit to fly as PIC in the logbook. Pilots
wishing to revalidate more than one Class and Group of aeroplane must
include at least 1 flight as PIC in an aeroplane of each Class and Group (or
type in the case of Group C) as part or in addition of the overall minimum of
5 hours.

Note: An expired C of E will not be revalidated. The licence holder will be

required to pass a flight test again in order to exercise the privileges of his
licence.

22 Following an Aircraft Rating flight test for inclusion of the first or additional aircraft types in
the Aircraft Rating, either in Part I or Part II, or for upgrading a type from Part II to Part I, the
C of T will be endorsed with effect from the date on which all the items in the flight test were
satisfactory completed.

23 The DGCA may, at his discretion, exclude some items of the aircraft rating flights test from
subsequent tests on an aircraft already included in the rating. The required items shall be
satisfactorily completed within a period of 21 days. On satisfactory completion of the test, the
C of T will be signed in respect of the aircraft type in question by the DGCA or the Authorised
Flight Examiner who conducted the test, effective from the date on which the test was
completed.

EXPIRY OF C OF T OR C OF E

24 Details for the revalidation of an expired C of T or C of E can be found in Chapter 10.

MANDATORY MULTI-ENGINES CONVERSION TRAINING (AEROPLANES)

25 The holder of a Professional Pilot Licence wishing to have a first multi-engined propeller or
turbine-jet aeroplane type included in the aircraft rating of a CPL will be required to carry out

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 6-5

 mandatory multi-engined conversion training.

26 -deleted-

THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS - CPL (A)

27 A CPL(A) will not be issued unless the applicant has qualified for inclusion of at least one
aeroplane type in the Aircraft Rating of the licence either in Part I or Part II. The privileges of
the licence may only be exercised in an aircraft type specified in the Aircraft Rating.

28 -deleted-

THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS - MPL (A)

28A An MPL (A) will not be issued unless the applicant has qualified for inclusion of at least one
aeroplane type in the Aircraft Rating of the licence in Part II. The privileges of the licence may
only be exercised in an aircraft type specified in the Aircraft Rating.

THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS - ATPL (A)

29 An ATPL(A) will not be issued unless the applicant has qualified for inclusion of at least one
multi-engine aeroplane type required to be operated with a co-pilot in the Aircraft Rating of
the licence in Part I. The privileges of the licence may only be exercised in an aircraft type
specified in the Aircraft Rating.

30 -deleted-

31 Where the applicant already holds a Singapore CPL, any aeroplane types included in those
licences will also be included in the ATPL without him having to take the ground
examinations or the Aircraft Rating flight test for those types again. Current Certificates of
Test will be transferred from the CPL to the ATPL on issue of the licence. Where current
certificates are not held, the types will still be included in the ATPL but the licence privileges
may not be exercised on any aeroplane concerned until the licence holder has obtained a valid
certificate having, if necessary, first passed the requisite flight test. Where the applicant's CPL
does not include a rating for an aeroplane of the type specified or he wishes to include any
other type not included in his previous licence, it will be necessary for him to satisfy all the
requirements for an additional type.

32 -deleted-

THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS CPL (H)

33 A CPL (H) will not be issued unless the applicant has qualified for inclusion of at least one
helicopter type in the Aircraft Rating of the licence either in Part I and Part II. The privileges

Chapter 6-6 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

 of the licence may only be exercised in an aircraft type specified in the Aircraft Rating.

34 -deleted-

EXEMPTION FROM THE AIRCRAFT RATING FLIGHT TEST

35 Where the General Flight Test is conducted on a single-engine helicopter and the applicant
wishes that type to be included in the Aircraft Rating of the licence, he may request that
Section 2 of the GFT be regarded also as the Aircraft Rating flight test. On successful
completion of the test, the application shall be made in a form and manner prescribed by the
DGCA, together with the GFT results. The Aircraft Rating Certificate of Test endorsed on the
licence in respect of that type will be effective from the date on which the test was passed.

36 The holder of a professional pilot licence (Helicopters) issued by another ICAO Contracting
State, which includes a specific helicopter type, may have that type entered in the Aircraft
Rating, Part II (co-pilot entitlement only) of the Singapore licence without having to take an
Aircraft Rating flight test, provided that:

(a) the helicopter type is required to be flown by more than one pilot.

(b) the applicant is entitled under the privileges of his non-Singapore licence to fly the
helicopter type as pilot-in-command or, if he has at least 500 hours experience on the
type, as co-pilot.

(c) the ground examination requirements have been satisfied or the applicant qualifies for
exemption; and

(d) evidence can be provided of experience on type during the period of five years
preceding the date of the application.

THE AIRCRAFT RATING REQUIREMENTS ATPL (H)

37 An ATPL(H) will not be issued unless the applicant has qualified for inclusion of at least one
helicopter type required to be operated with a co-pilot in the Aircraft Rating of the licence
either in Part I and Part II. The privileges of the licence may only be exercised in an aircraft
type specified in the Aircraft Rating.

38 -deleted-

39 Where the applicant already holds a Singapore CPL(H), any helicopter types included in that
licence will also be included in the ATPL(H) without him having to take the ground
examinations or the Aircraft Rating flight test for those types again. Current Certificates of
Test will be transferred from the CPL(H) to the ATPL(H) on issue of the licence. Where the
CPL(H) does not contain any current certificates, the ATPL(H) will still be issued with
Aircraft Ratings as for the CPL(H), but the licence privileges may not be exercised on any of
the helicopters concerned until the licence holder has obtained a valid certificate having, if
necessary, first passed the requisite flight test. Where the applicant wishes to include in the
ATPL(H) a type which is not included in his CPL(H), it will be necessary for him to satisfy
the requirements for an additional type.

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 6-7

40 -deleted-

Chapter 6-8 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

CHAPTER 7 THE INSTRUMENT RATING (AEROPLANES)

THE INSTRUMENT RATING PRIVILEGES

1 The privileges of the Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) allow the holder to act in an aeroplane:

(a) on any flight as pilot-in-command (PIC) or co-pilot in controlled airspace or

conditions such that the pilot cannot comply with the specified weather provisions;

(b) in circumstances which require compliance with Instrument Flight Rules;

(c) as PIC at night when passengers are carried or flying instruction is given where the
specified recent night flying experience is satisfied;

(d) as PIC on a scheduled journey.

2 A CPL(A) may be issued without an Instrument Rating but its privileges will not include the
privileges mentioned above in paragraph 1.

3 An ATPL(A) and MPL(A) will not be issued unless the applicant has qualified for inclusion in
the licence of an Instrument Rating. Should the rating at any time become invalid, the
privileges of the licence will be restricted accordingly.

4 The flight test for the Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) is normally conducted in a multi-engine
aeroplane, other than a centreline thrust aeroplane, as if it were being flown by a single flight
crew member. This is regarded as the most demanding case and the privileges conferred by a
rating gained as the result of such a test may be exercised in single-engine or multi-engine and
single-crew or multi-crew aeroplanes.

5 An applicant for a flight test for the Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) to be conducted in a
multi-engine aeroplane, other than a centreline thrust aeroplane, must hold a current type or
group rating on multi-engine aeroplanes, or have passed the flight test (or Group B rating
flight test) in the previous 6 months. The applicant must provide documentary evidence of
such a qualification prior to undertaking the flight test.

6 At the applicant's request, the test may be conducted in:

(a) a single-engine aeroplane. The rating will be endorsed accordingly and its privileges
may be exercised only in single-engine aeroplanes;

(b) a multi-crew aeroplane. The rating will be endorsed accordingly and its privileges
may be exercised only in aeroplanes certificated for two pilots. The test will normally be
conducted only in aeroplanes requiring two pilots when flying for the purpose of
public transport in compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 7-1

APPROVED TRAINING

7 Unless qualifying for exemption as detailed in paragraph 9, persons wishing to obtain an

Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) will, before they may take the Instrument Rating flight test, be
required to complete an approved course of training. This will comprise:

(a) for an unrestricted rating, not less than 40 hours dual instruction in instrument flying
in single-engine or multi-engine aeroplanes, of which not less than 20 hours must be
in multi-engine aeroplanes. The remaining experience, up to a maximum of 20 hours,
may be gained in an approved flight simulator or an approved procedure trainer;

(b) for a rating with privileges restricted to single-engine aeroplanes, not less than 40
hours dual instruction in instrument flying. This must include not less than 20 hours
in single-engined aeroplanes. The remaining experience, up to a maximum of 20
hours, may be gained in an approved flight simulator or an approved procedure
trainer;

(c) for the holder of a rating restricted to single-engine aeroplanes applying to obtain an
unrestricted rating, not less than ten hours dual instruction in instrument flying in
multi-engine aeroplanes.

8 The experience gained on an approved course of training may be counted toward satisfying
the experience requirements for the ratings as specified.

EXEMPTION FROM APPROVED TRAINING

9 Exemption from having to undergo an approved course of training will normally be given to
the following:

(a) Holders of a Singapore Instrument Rating (Helicopters)

Pilots who hold, or have held within the three years preceding the date of the
application for the Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes), a Singapore Instrument Rating
(Helicopters).

(b) RSAF pilots

Qualified serving pilots in the RSAF with a Green Rating who meet the experience
specified in paragraph 11.

FLYING EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

10 The normal method of recording flight time and the way in which it will be credited toward
meeting the flying experience requirements is given in Appendix D.

11 The minimum flying experience required for grant of an Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) is
200 hours as pilot of aeroplanes, which must include:

(a) not less than 100 hours as PIC, of which not less than 50 hours must be cross-country
flying; and

Chapter 7-2 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

 (b) not less than 40 hours as pilot by sole reference to instruments, of which up to 20
hours may be in an approved flight simulator or approved procedure trainer; and

(c) not less than 35 hours experience on multi-engine aeroplane, if the applicant wishes to
obtain an Instrument Raing on a multi-engine aeroplane.

12 Where a pilot holds, or has held within the three years preceding the date of the application for
the Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes), an Instrument Rating (Helicopters), the minimum
experience required in aeroplanes is:

(a) 50 hours as PIC, of which not less than 20 hours must be cross-country flying; and

(b) 20 hours as pilot by sole reference to instruments. Up to 10 hours of this may be in an

approved aeroplane simulator.

13 Flight time in microlight aeroplanes, will not be counted toward satisfying any of the
requirements specified in paragraphs 11 and 12 above. Flight time in self-launching motor
gliders will not be counted toward satisfying the minimum PIC or pilot by sole reference to
instruments requirements and may only be counted toward satisfying the total experience
requirements specified in paragraph 11 when the aircraft is under power.

GROUND EXAMINATION REQUIREMENTS

14 Persons who have passed the ground examinations for grant of a professional pilot licence, or
who have been exempted from having to take them, will not normally be required to take any
ground examinations for grant of an Instrument Rating.

THE INITIAL INSTRUMENT RATING FLIGHT TEST

15 An applicant for the grant of an Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) shall pass an Instrument
Rating Flight Test. The test for an unrestricted rating shall be conducted in a multi-engine
aeroplane certificated for single-pilot operation. The syllabus for the test comprises:

Section 1 : Departure procedures

Section 2 : Airways procedures
Section 3 : ILS instrument approach procedures
Section 4 : NDB or VOR instrument approach procedures

Note: At the conclusion of Section 3, the applicant will be asked to carry out a
missed approach from decision height in the course of which and at a safe
height an engine failure will be simulated. Section 4 will be conducted on
asymmetric power and will terminate at minimum descent height after the
applicant has levelled the aircraft and has given the Flight Examiner an
estimate of the time or distance to run to the aerodrome boundary, runway
threshold or the facility, as appropriate.

Sub-section A : Preliminary and external checks

Sub-section B : Holding procedures
Sub-section C : Engine failure procedures

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 7-3

 Sub-section D : Limited Panel

16 The full syllabus for the test, the conditions and assumptions upon which it will be conducted
and the level of acceptable performance is spelt out in Appendix F.

17 The test syllabus for a rating restricted to multi-crew aeroplanes is the same as that for an
unrestricted rating, but there may be minor variations in the conduct of the test. This will be
explained by the CAAS flight operations inspector or Authorised Flight Examiner before the
test begins.

18 The test syllabus for a rating restricted to single-engine aeroplanes is the same as that given in
paragraph 15, less Sub-section C and with no simulation of engine failure as referred to in the
Note.

19 In the test for an unrestricted or single-engine rating, the applicant will be required to fly the
aeroplane from the PIC position and to carry out the test as if he were the sole flight crew
member. The Flight Examiner will, however, be the designated PIC.

20 In the test for a multi-crew rating, the applicant may take the test as handling pilot in either the
PIC or in the co-pilot position and will be expected to call upon the other flight crew members
to assist him in the conduct of the flight in accordance with the normal crew drills for that type
of aeroplanes. Whether the Flight Examiner occupies the PIC or co-pilot position, he will
designated as PIC of the aeroplane. Where he does not occupy either of these positions, the
pilot occupying either one of the seat who is not undergoing the test will designated as PIC.
He must be a person authorised by the operator of the aeroplane to act as a training or check
captain on the type.

21 The applicant, together with the remainder of the flight crew in the case of a test on a multi-
crew aeroplane, will be briefed by the Flight Examiner before the test. The applicant will be
responsible for ensuring that he has all equipment and documentation necessary for the
planning and execution of the flight.

22 The route for the test flight will be chosen by the Flight Examiner. It may start and finish at
the same aerodrome or may end at another aerodrome. The applicant may not decline to fly
the nominated route solely because he is not familiar with it. He should be prepared to be
examined along any route terminating at a suitably equipped aerodrome within 150nm of
departure.

The Combined GFT/IR Test

23 For students who have completed an abridged course of training for grant of a CPL(A) and
Instrument Rating, the Instrument Rating flight test is combined with the General Flight Test.
The combined GFT/IR Test is conducted to a syllabus approved by the DGCA. The student
will be given all the information he needs concerning the test by the FTO which carries out his
training. Details are not included in this publication but may be obtained from the FTO.

INSTRUMENT RATING FLIGHT TEST : PASS CONDITIONS

24 Before an applicant may take the Instrument Rating flight test he must obtain a form, signed
by a person authorised to sign such forms, certifying that he has satisfactorily completed any
training which may have been required of him and that in the judgment of the person signing

Chapter 7-4 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

 the form, he is fully ready to take the test. This requirement will apply whether or not the
applicant has had to undergo an approved course of training. The form is valid for a period of
6 months from the date of signature and the first attempt to pass the test must be taken within
this period of validity. If a partial pass is obtained during this period, then the form may be
extended to allow the candidate to complete satisfactorily all the outstanding items within a
period of 21 days from the date of first obtaining a partial pass. If the candidate fails to pass
the test during this extended validity period, a new form is required.

25 All four sections and three sub-sections (two sub-sections in the case of a test in a single-
engine aeroplane) of the test must be taken at the first attempt.

26 An applicant is required to demonstrate that he can satisfactorily complete in one flight any
three sections of the four sections. He will be required to take the section that he has failed in
his next attempt with the other failed items.

27 During a re-test, candidates will be re-tested in Section 1 (Departure Procedures). In addition,

the applicant is required for operational reasons to take up a hold during the retest, he will be
re-assessed on sub-section B.

28 Under the provisions of paragraphs 24 and 25, if an applicant has to take parts of the test
again, he must satisfactorily complete all the outstanding items within a period of 21 days
from the date of first test when obtaining the partial pass. If this is not achieved, the applicant
will be required to take the whole flight test again.

29 If a candidate fails to achieve a valid pass in all sections and required sub-sections of the test
within three attempts, he is required to meet the following prior to his first attempt in his
second series of tests:

(a) complete in the six months preceding the date of the application for the first test in the
second series such further training as the DGCA may prescribe;

(b) obtained a form signed by a person authorised to sign such forms certifying that the
prescribed training has been satisfactorily completed and that the applicant is fully
ready to take the test.

30 The first attempt in the second series will cover the whole test and the series will be subject to
the same pass conditions as the first series. If, within three attempts at the test in the second
series, the applicant has still not obtained a valid pass in all sections and required sub-sections
of the test, he will, before he may start the third series of attempts, be required to:

(a) show that he has not less than 500 hours experience as pilot-in-command of
aeroplanes;

(b) complete in the six months preceding the date of the application for the first test in the
third series, an approved course of training as specified by the DGCA.

(c) obtain a form signed by a person authorised to sign such forms, certifying that he has
satisfactorily completed the required training and is fully ready to take the test.

31 The first two attempts at the test in the third series will be conducted subject to the same pass
conditions as in the earlier series. However, if a third attempt is required, (regardless if it is
within 21 days of the applicant having gained a partial pass) the applicant will have to take the

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 7-5

 whole test again.

32 If, at the conclusion of the third attempt in the third series, the applicant is unable to obtain a
valid pass in all sections and required sub-sections of the test, he will be considered unsuitable
to hold an Instrument Rating and will not normally be permitted to make any further attempts
at the Instrument Rating test. The DGCA may, at his written request, review the
circumstances and results of all the tests he has taken to determine whether any further attempt
may be permitted. Any such further attempt, if allowed, would be subject to such conditions
as the DGCA deemed fit.

TERMINATION OF A TEST BY THE APPLICANT

33 Once a test has started, should the applicant choose not to continue with it for reasons not
considered adequate by the Flight Examiner, he will be regarded as having failed those items
not attempted in the test. Failure of the test on these grounds will be counted as an attempt.

TERMINATION OF A TEST BY THE FLIGHT EXAMINER

34 The Flight Examiner may stop the test at any stage if he considers that the applicant standard
of flying warrants a re-test.

FLIGHT TEST ARRANGEMENTS

35 Where an applicant for an Instrument Rating has undergone an approved course of training,
arrangements for the flight test, including the provision of a suitable aircraft, will normally be
made by the FTO which conducted the training.

36 Applicants who have been exempted from having to undergo an approved course of training
will be required to make arrangements for the test acceptable to the DGCA. They must also
make their own arrangements to provide an aircraft for the test. Such aircraft must be
maintained and equipped to the requirements specified by the DGCA for the conduct of the
test, including the method of ensuring that it can be flown by sole reference to instruments.

THE INSTRUMENT RATING CERTIFICATE OF TEST

37 The privileges of an Instrument Rating may not be exercised unless the licence contains a
valid Certificate of Test (C of T). The period of validity of a C of T in relation to an
Instrument Rating is 12 months from the date of the completion of the test.

38 On grant of an Instrument Rating, the C of T will be endorsed on the licence, effective from
the date on which the Instrument Rating Flight Test was successfully completed.

39 Before the certificate can be completed again the licence holder must pass a further test
conducted by a CAAS flight operations inspector or an Authorised Flight Examiner in an
aircraft or an approved flight simulator. Access to such simulators can normally only be
obtained through the operator who holds the simulator approval.

40 Any suitable means of simulating instrument flight conditions in an aeroplane may be used.

Chapter 7-6 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

41 The test will comprise Section 1, Departure procedures, Section 2, Airways procedures, and a
modified Section 3, ILS instrument approach procedure, consisting of an approach to land, go-
around and missed approach procedures, Sub-section A, Preliminary and external checks, and
Sub-section B, Holding procedures. Simulated failure of an engine and flight on asymmetric
power will not be tested in Section 3.

42 A failure of more than one section of Sections 1, 2 and 3 will require the whole of the test to
be taken again. If only one of these sections is failed, the Flight Examiner, at his discretion,
may ask the applicant to repeat the failed procedure during the course of the test. Should a
further flight test be necessary only the failed section need be taken again except that where a
retest of Section 3 is required it will start from the holding pattern and the candidate will be re-
assessed on Sub-section B as well as Section 3. If, in the course of any other retest, the
applicant is required for operational reasons to take up a hold, he will be re-assessed on Sub-
section B. In a retest of Sub-section B, Section 1 will also be retested. If in the course of a
retest a section or sub-section which has previously been passed is performed unsatisfactorily
a retest in that section or sub-section will be required.

43 The whole of the test must be satisfactorily completed within 21 days from the initial attempt,
or all passes gained will become invalid and the whole of the test must be taken again in one
attempt, in accordance with the pass conditions as stated before.

44 On successful completion of the test, the C of T will be signed by the Flight Examiner with an
effective date from the date which the test was successfully completed.

EXPIRY OF C OF T BY A PERIOD OF MORE THAN 12 MONTHS

45 If a period of more than 12 months has lapsed since the expiry of the C if T, the licence holder
will be required, before the C of T can be revalidated, to pass a full Instrument Rating Flight
Test. On successful completion of the test, the C of T will be endorsed on the licence,
effective from the date on which the test was completed. The DGCA may waive this
requirement in the case of a licence holder who has remained in instrument flying practice on
a foreign licence or in active flying with the RSAF, subject to conditions as he deems fit.

TEST FOR REMOVAL OF THE MULTI-CREW OR SINGLE-ENGINE AEROPLANE

RESTRICTION

46 The holder of an Instrument Rating valid for a multi-crew aeroplanes or for single-engine
aeroplanes may have the restriction lifted by passing a flight test conducted by a CAAS flight
operations inspector or an Authorised Flight Examiner in an aeroplane of the type specified in
paragraph 15 with the applicant acting as sole flight crew member. The arrangements to be
observed for the test are as described in paragraph 15.

47 For lifting of the multi-crew restriction, the test will be conducted to the same syllabus and
subject to the same pass conditions as that for an unrestricted rating. On the applicant passing
the test, the restriction on the rating will be lifted and the C of T will be endorsed on the
licence, effective from the date on which the test was completed.

48 Before the test can be taken for removal of the single-engine aeroplane restriction, the

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 7-7

 applicant will, unless he is exempt under the terms of paragraph 9 be required to complete an
approved course of training as specified in paragraph 7(c).

49 The test for removal of the single-engine restriction will be that described in paragraph 15
except Section 2 and Sub-section B, unless that if a holding procedure is required, the
applicant will be assessed on it.

50 The single-engine restriction will be removed upon successful completion of the test. For the
revalidation of the C of T, the applicant will also be required to pass Section 2, Airways
procedures, and Sub-section B, Holding procedures. Applicants wishing to have these items
included in the test should request it at the time of making the arrangement for the test.

51 A failure of more than one Section of Sections 1, 2 and 3 will require the whole test to be
taken again. If only one of these sections is failed, the CAAS flight operations inspector or
Authorised Flight Examiner may require the applicant to repeat the failed section during the
course of the test. Should another flight test be required, only the failed section need be taken
again, except for Section 3 where the retest will start from the holding pattern and the
candidate will be re-assessed on Sub-section B as well as on Section 3. If, in the course of any
other re-test, the applicant is required for operational reasons to take up a hold he will also be
re-assessed on Sub-section B. In a test of sub-section B, Section 1 will also be re-tested. If in
the course of a re-test a section or sub-section which has previously been passed is performed
unsatisfactorily a re-test in that section or sub-section may be required.

52 The whole of the test must be satisfactorily completed within 21 days from the initial attempt,
or all previous passes will become invalid and the whole of the test must be taken again in one
attempt, the pass conditions applying as before.

Chapter 7-8 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

CHAPTER 8 THE INSTRUMENT RATING (HELICOPTERS)

THE INSTRUMENT RATING PRIVILEGES

1 The privileges of the Instrument Rating (Helicopters) allow the holder of a professional pilot
licence (helicopters) to act in a helicopter:

(a) on any flight as pilot-in-command (PIC) or as co-pilot in controlled airspace or

conditions such that the pilot cannot comply with the specified weather provisions;

(b) in circumstances which require compliance with Instrument Flight Rules;

(c) as pilot-in-command (PIC) at night when passengers are carried or flying instruction
is given, where the specific recent night flying is satisfied;

(d) as PIC on a scheduled journey.

2 The rating will be granted only in respect of helicopters having a Singapore Certificate of
Airworthiness which permits unrestricted flight in Instrument Meteorological Conditions
and will be granted in respect only of those helicopters upon which the licence holder has
passed an Instrument Rating flight test.

3 A CPL(H) or an ATPL(H) may be issued without it having to include an Instrument Rating

but the licence privileges will not extend to flights under the circumstances detailed above.

APPROVED TRAINING

4 Unless qualifying for exemption as detailed in paragraph 6, persons wishing to obtain an

Instrument Rating (Helicopters), will before they may take the Instrument Rating flight test,
be required to complete an approved course of training. This will comprise:

(a) 20 hours dual instruction in instrument flying in helicopters, not less than five hours
of which must be in the type in which the applicant wishes to qualify. The remainder
may be in any helicopter having Singapore Certificate of Airworthiness which
permits instrument flight training.

(b) 20 hours instruction in instrument flying in an approved helicopter flight simulator or

an approved procedure trainer. Up to 10 hours of this training may alternatively be
conducted in an aeroplane.

5 The experience gained on a approved course of training may be counted toward satisfying
the experience requirements for the rating as specified in paragraph 8.

EXEMPTION FROM APPROVED TRAINING

6 Exemption from having to undergo an approved course of training will normally be given to
the following:

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 8-1

 (a) Holders of a Singapore Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes)

Pilots who hold, or have held within the three years preceding the date of the
application for the Instrument Rating (Helicopters), a Singapore Instrument Rating
(Aeroplanes).

(b) RSAF pilots

Qualified serving pilots in the RSAF who meet the experience requirements specified
in paragraph 8.

FLYING EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

7 Appendix D sets out the way in which flight time will be counted toward meeting the flying
experience requirements.

8 The minimum flying experience required for grant of an Instrument Rating (Helicopters) to a
pilot who does not already hold an Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) is 200 hours as pilot of
helicopters, which must include:

(a) not less than 100 hours as PIC. This PIC time may include up to 65 hours as co-pilot
acting as pilot-in-command under supervision (PIC U/S) provided that the applicant
has not less than 250 hours as pilot of helicopters. The PIC experience must include
not less than 50 hours cross-country flying;

(b) not less than 40 hours as pilot by sole reference to instruments. Up to 20 hours of this
time may be in an approved helicopter flight simulator, including up to 10 hours in an
approved procedure trainer;

(c) not less than 5 hours as pilot by sole reference to instruments in the type of helicopter
in respect of which the applicant wishes to qualify. These hours must be gained in
flight. They may be counted toward the requirement specified in paragraph 8(b).

9 Where a pilot holds, or has held within the three years preceding the date of the application
for the Instrument Rating (Helicopters), an Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes), the minimum
experience required in helicopter is:

(a) not less than 50 hours as PIC, of which not more than 15 hours may be as PIC U/S,
including not less than 20 hours cross-country flying;

(b) not less than 20 hours as pilot by sole reference to instruments, of which not more
than 10 hours of this may be in an approved helicopter flight simulator, including not
more than 5 hours in an approved procedure trainer.

(c) not less than 5 hours as pilot by sole reference to instruments in the type of helicopter
in which the applicant wishes to qualify. This time must be gained in flight. It may
counted toward that required by paragraph 9(b) above.

GROUND EXAMINATION REQUIREMENTS

Chapter 8-2 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

10 Persons who have passed the ground examinations for grant of a professional pilot licence,
or who have been exempted from having to take them, will not normally be required to take
any ground examinations for grant of an Instrument Rating.

THE INSTRUMENT RATING FLIGHT TEST

11 All applicants for the grant of an Instrument Rating (Helicopters) will be required to pass, on
the first type of helicopter to which the rating will apply, an Instrument Rating flight test
conducted by a CAAS flight operations inspector or an Authorised Flight Examiner. Further
tests will be required to extend rating privileges of other types of helicopters. (See
paragraphs 23 to 26).

12 The test for grant of the rating is conducted subject to the same conditions as that for the
Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) except that where it is conducted in a multi-engine
helicopter, an engine failure will be simulated during the missed approach following Section
3 or Section 4 whichever is flown first at the discretion of the CAAS flight operations
inspector or Authorised Flight Examiner. The following section will then be conducted
under simulated engine failure conditions.

13 The syllabus of the test, the conditions and assumptions upon which it will be conducted and
the level acceptable performance is similar to that of the Instrument Rating flight test for
aeroplanes (See Appendix F).

14 Where the test is conducted in a helicopter having a Certificate of Airworthiness which

permits it to be flown by a sole flight crew member, the applicant will be expected to act as
sole flight crew member. He will occupy the PIC position but the Flight Examiner will be
the designated PIC.

15 Where the test is conducted in a helicopter requiring it to be flown by more than one pilot,
the applicant may take the test as handling pilot in either the PIC or co-pilot position, and
will be expected to call upon the other pilot to assist him in the conduct of the flight in
accordance with the normal crew drills for that type of helicopter. Where the Flight
Examiner occupies the PIC or co-pilot position, he will be the designated PIC. Where he
does not occupy either of these positions, the pilot occupying either one who is not
undergoing the test will be designated as PIC and must be a person authorised by the
operator of the helicopter to act as a training or check captain on the type.

INSTRUMENT RATING FLIGHT TEST: PASS CONDITIONS

16 The flight test pass conditions for grant of the Instrument Rating (Helicopters) are the same
as those for the Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes).

17 If the applicant has to go a third series of attempts at the test, he will, before the he make the
first attempt in the series, be required to:

(a) show that he has not less than 500 hours experience as PIC of helicopters;

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 8-3

 (b) complete in the six months preceding the date of the application for the test, an
approved course of training as specified by the DGCA.

(c) obtain a form signed by an authorised person certifying that he has satisfactory
completed the required training and is fully ready to take the test again.

FLIGHT TEST ARRANGEMENTS

18 The flight test arrangements for grant of the Instrument Rating (Helicopters) are the same as
those for the Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes).

THE INSTRUMENT RATING CERTIFICATE OF TEST

19 The privileges of an Instrument Rating (Helicopters) many only exercised in those types of
helicopters in respect of each of which the licence contains a valid Certificate of Test (C of
T). The period of validity of a C of T in respect of each type of helicopter is 12 months from
the date of effect from the certificate in relation to that type.

20 For the grant of an Instrument Rating, the C of T endorsed on the licence in respect of the
type of helicopters on which the test was taken will be effective from the date on which the
Instrument Rating flight test was successfully completed.

21 The flight test arrangements in respect of the C of T, the syllabus for the test and the pass
conditions are the same as those for the aeroplane rating. A test must be taken in respect of
each type of helicopter for which a C of T is required, but the Airways procedures section of
the test, Section 2, need only be taken once every 12 months.

EXPIRY OF C OF T BY A PERIOD OF MORE THAN 12 MONTHS

22 If a period of more than 12 months has elapsed since the period of validity of the C of T
expired, the licence holder will, before the C of T may be revalidated in respect of any type,
be required to pass a full Instrument Rating flight test conducted by a CAAS flight
operations inspector or an Authorised Flight Examiner for the grant of the rating. On the test
being passed, the C of T endorsed on the licence in respect of the type of helicopter on which
the test was taken will be effective from the date on which the test was conducted. Where a
licence holder has remained in instrument flying practice on a foreign licence and Instrument
Rating or a Green Rating in RSAF, the DGCA may waive this requirement, either absolutely
or subject to conditions as he thinks fit.

FLIGHT TEST TO EXTEND THE RATING PRIVILEGES TO ADDITIONAL TYPES OF

HELICOPTERS

23 To extend the Instrument Rating privileges to additional types of helicopters, the licence
holder will be required to pass a further test on each of the types for which the extension is
sought.

24 Before the flight test may be taken, the applicant will be required to have obtained not less
than two hours as pilot by sole reference to instruments on the type of helicopter in which

Chapter 8-4 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

 the test is to be taken, or in an approved helicopter flight simulator representative of the type.

25 If a first multi-engine helicopter Instrument Rating is to be included, the test will be as

detailed as paragraph 12 above less Section 2 and Sub-section B, except that if a holding
procedure is operationally necessary, the applicant will be assessed on it. For other cases the
test will comprise Section 1 and Section 3 but if a holding procedure is operationally
necessary, the applicant will be assessed on it. Every such flight test must be conducted in a
helicopter.

26 On satisfactory completion of the flight test, the additional helicopter type will be added to
the aircraft rating. The C of T endorsed on the licence in respect of that type will be effective
from the date on which the test was successfully completed.

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 8-5

 INTENTIONALLY
LEFT BLANK

Chapter 8-6 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

CHAPTER 9 TERMS FOR THE VALIDATION OF A NON-SINGAPORE PILOT
LICENCE FROM AN ICAO CONTRACTING STATE

THE VALIDATION OF NON-SINGAPORE PROFESSIONAL PILOT LICENCE

1 Pursuant to paragraph 21 of the ANO, the DGCA may issue a certificate of validation
rendering valid a pilot licence issued by an ICAO contracting State other than Singapore.
The holder is also considered to have satisfied the equivalent Singapore medical standards
appropriate to the class of the foreign pilot licence held.

2 A Certificate of Validation may be issued to:

(a) The holder of a valid foreign pilot licence pilot who wishes to carry out private flights
in a Singapore-registered aircraft for a period not exceeding 3 months.

(b) The holder of a valid foreign professional pilot licence who is undergoing training
sponsored by a Singapore Air Operator Certificate Holder to obtain a Singapore
Professional Pilot Licence (Line training on public transport flights are not permitted
for this purpose).

(c) The holder of a valid foreign professional pilot licence carrying out an overseas
delivery flight in a Singapore-registered aircraft.

(d) The holder of a valid foreign professional pilot licence with instructor's rating
carrying out flight tests or checks in a Singapore-registered aircraft on behalf of the
DGCA.

(e) The holder of a valid foreign professional pilot licence operating a Singapore-
registered aircraft for the purpose of:

(i) enabling the aircraft to qualify for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness;
or

(ii) enabling the aircraft to qualify for the approval of a modification of the
aircraft; or

(iii) experimenting with or testing the aircraft and its equipment; or

(iv) proceeding to or from a place at which any experiment, test, inspection or

weighing of the aircraft is to take place for a purpose referred to in (i), (ii) and
(iii) above.

3 Subject to the validity period of the foreign pilot licence, the maximum period of validity of
the Certificate of Validation shall be as follows:

(a) Three months in the case of a visiting pilot wishing to carry out private flights in
Singapore; or

(b) Six months, in any other case.

13 February 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 3] Chapter 9-1

4 An applicant, who holds a Flying Instructor Rating endorsed in a non-Singapore licence,
shall not exercise such privileges under the Certificate of Validation unless the applicant
passes a practical flight test conducted by a CAAS flight operations inspector or an
Authorised Flight Examiner or have been exempted by the DGCA under exceptional cases
e.g. carrying out flight tests or checks in a Singapore-registered aircraft on behalf of the
DGCA.

5 A Certificate of Validation would include conditions detailing the purpose and privileges of
the validation and the Certificate of Validation must be carried together with the applicable
foreign licence when exercising its privileges.

6 The holder of an expired pilot licence is not eligible to apply for the Certificate of
Validation.

7 A Certificate of Validation will not be issued for the purpose seeking regular employment as
an aircrew on Singapore-registered aircraft.

8 For the application of a Certificate of Validation, the applicant must have the following in
his foreign pilot licence:

(a) a valid Medical Certificate

(b) a valid Flight Radiotelephony Operator's Licence (if applicable)

(c) a valid Certificate of Test and Aircraft Rating

(d) a valid Instrument Rating (if applicable)

(e) a valid Instructor's Rating (if applicable)

(f) a valid ICAO Language Proficiency endorsement of at least Operational Level (Level
4)

Note: The above Certificates/Ratings must be issued by the same licensing authority. A
combination of Certificates/Ratings issued by different authorities will not be
accepted for the application of a Certificate of Validation.

Chapter 9-2 13 February 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 3]

CHAPTER 10 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RENEWAL OF A LAPSED CERTIFICATE
OF TEST (C OF T) OR CERTIFICATE OF EXPERIENCE (C OF E) OR
INSTRUMENT RATING

INTRODUCTION

1 The holder of a Singapore professional pilot licence should maintain continuity of his licence
and its associated ratings by:

(a) renewing his medical examination with a Designated Medical Examiner or CAMB at
the appropriate intervals to ensure continuity of the validity of his licence and Medical
Certificate.

(b) undergoing flight tests at the appropriate intervals to maintain the privileges of his
aircraft type(s) and Instrument Rating as specified in the ANO.

(c) renewing the holders Certificate of Experience ( C of E ) if the holder flies for the
purpose of aerial work or any purpose other than for the purpose of public transport
by producing evidence of having carried out within the preceding 6 months, not less
than 15 hours flying as pilot-in-command or co-pilot in an aircraft of the type or class
to which the type rating relates

2 The passing of the medical examination for the issue or renewal of a licence itself does not
entitles the holder to exercise the privileges of his licence unless the holder also holds a valid
Certificate of Test ( C of T ) or Certificate of Experience for the Aircraft Rating specified in
his licence.

RENEWAL OF A LAPSED AIRCRAFT RATING, C OF T OR C OF E

3 A licence Aircraft Rating, C of T or C of E which lapsed within 5 years will normally be

renewed if the applicant passes the medical examination, the general flight test and aircraft
type rating test required for the issue of the licence.

4 If the validity of the most recent Aircraft Rating, C of T or C of E contained in the licence
have expired by a period of more than five years, the applicant shall, before the licence is
renewed, pass the Air Law examination, Operational Procedures examination, Aircraft Type
Technical examination and the Aircraft Rating Flight Test.

5 If the validity of the most recent Aircraft Rating Certificate of Test or Certificate of
Experience contained in the licence have both expired by a period of more than 10 years, the
applicant shall, before the licence is renewed, pass all the theoretical knowledge examinations
for the appropriate licence, the Aircraft Type Technical examination and the General Flight
Test and the Aircraft Rating Flight Test. For an applicant who has been in continued flying
practice using a foreign licence, the DGCA may consider an exemption from any but not all of
these requirements, either absolutely or subject to conditions as he thinks fit.

RENEWAL OF A LAPSED INSTRUMENT RATING

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 10-1

6 When the period of validity of an Instrument Rating has lapsed within 12 months, the
flight test may be carried out in accordance with the renewal flight test requirements.

7 If a period of more than 12 months has lapsed since the expiry of the C of T, the licence
holder will be required, before the C of T can be revalidated, to pass a full instrument
Rating Flight Test. On successful completion of the test, the C of T endorsed on the
licence will be effective from the date on which the test was completed. When a licence
holder has remained in instrument flying practice on a foreign licence or in active flying
with the RSAF, the DGCA may waive this requirement, either absolutely or subject to
conditions as he thinks fit.

Chapter 10-2 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

CHAPTER 12 CONVERSION OF A FOREIGN PROFESSIONAL PILOT LICENCE

APPLICABILITY

1 The terms set out in this chapter applies to holders of a foreign professional pilot licence who
wish to apply for a licence conversion to a Singapore equivalent.

PRE-REQUISITES

2 An applicant for a professional pilot licence conversion shall meet the following pre-
requisites:

(a) The applicant shall meet the minimum and maximum age limits specified in the
Air Navigation Order;

(b) The applicant shall hold a valid professional pilot licence issued by an ICAO
Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1;

Note: The list of ICAO Contracting States can be obtained from the ICAO website
at http://www.icao.int.

(c) The Medical Certificate, pilot licence and its associated ratings shall be issued by
the same licensing authority. The applicant shall ensure that the foreign Medical
Certificate and pilot licence remain valid from the point of application for licence
conversion until the grant of the Singapore licence;

Note: Applicants are advised to have at least six months validity on their
foreign Medical Certificate and pilot licence at the point of application for
licence conversion.

(d) The applicant shall produce evidence of having passed the appropriate theoretical
knowledge examinations prescribed by the foreign licensing authority, for the
respective class of licence being sought. These theoretical knowledge examinations
shall have been taken with the same licensing authority that issued the foreign
licence being presented for conversion;

Note: (1) In the case of a foreign licence presented for conversion that was
converted from a previous licence, the DGCA may require the
applicant to submit the previous licence with the supporting
examination results taken with the previous licensing authority, which
must be from an ICAO Contracting State.

(2) An applicant for a Singapore CPL who has passed the theoretical
knowledge examinations prescribed by the foreign licensing authority
at the CPL level will be restricted to single-pilot operations. Such
applicants, if intending to operate in a multi-crew environment, will
need to pass the theoretical knowledge examinations at the ATPL
level to have the restriction lifted.

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 12-1

 (e) The applicant shall hold a valid Radiotelephony Licence from the foreign licensing
authority, unless the privileges of the foreign licence include radiotelephony
communication;

(f) The applicant shall produce evidence of having completed at least one proficiency
check carried out by the foreign Civil Aviation Authority (CAA) or its authorised
representative in the 12 months immediately preceding the date of application;

(g) The applicant shall demonstrate the need to hold a Singapore professional pilot
licence; and

Note: Such demonstration may be by a letter from a Singapore operator,

approved aviation training organisation or flying club indicating
prospective employment in a flying capacity.

(h) An applicant for a CPL(A) with less than 700 total flying hours as pilot of
aeroplanes shall produce evidence demonstrating that he has completed a course
of flying training approved by the foreign CAA.

FLYING EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

3 An applicant for a professional pilot licence conversion shall meet the flying experience
requirements for the respective class of licence which he wishes to qualify.

Note: Foreign military flying hours will not be counted towards satisfying the flying
experience requirements for licence conversion.

Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes)

4 To qualify for a CPL (A), the applicant shall hold a valid foreign CPL(A) or ATPL(A) and
have completed a minimum of 200 total flying hours as pilot of aeroplanes, which should
include at least:

(a) 100 hours as pilot-in-command (PIC) of aeroplanes of which at least 20 hours must be
cross-country or overseas flying including one flight of at least 300 nautical miles, in
the course of which the aeroplane landed and came to rest at not less than two
intermediate aerodromes;

(b) 10 hours of night flying as pilot-in-command (PIC) or pilot-under-instruction (P U/T)

of aeroplanes, of which at least 5 hours must be as pilot-in-command (PIC). This
night flying experience must include at least 10 take-offs and 10 landings without
assistance; and

(c) 10 hours of instrument flying as pilot-in-command (PIC) or pilot-under-instruction (P

U/T) of aeroplanes.

Note: Flight time in microlight aeroplanes, or in self-launching motor gliders, will not be
counted towards satisfying the above requirements.

Chapter 12-2 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

 Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) with Instrument Rating

5 To qualify for a CPL (A) with an Instrument Rating (IR), the applicant shall hold a valid
foreign CPL(A) or ATPL(A) with a valid IR. The applicant shall have completed, in
addition to the flying experience requirements for a CPL(A), at least:

(a) 30 hours of cross-country or overseas flying as pilot-in-command (PIC) of

aeroplanes;

(b) For a rating with privileges restricted to single-engine aeroplanes, 40 hours of

instrument flying as pilot-under-instruction (P U/T) of aeroplanes, of which at least 30
hours shall be in single-engine aeroplanes; and

(c) For an unrestricted rating:

(i) 30 hours of instrument flying as pilot-under-instruction (P U/T) of

aeroplanes, of which at least 20 hours shall be in multi-engine aeroplanes;
and
(ii) 35 hours experience in multi-engine aeroplanes (whether or not under
instrument flying).

Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes)

6 To qualify for an ATPL(A), the applicant shall:

(a) hold a valid foreign ATPL (A) or a valid Singapore CPL(A) that was converted
from a foreign professional pilot licence;

(b) hold a valid Instrument Rating (IR);

(c) meet the qualifying requirements, as pilot-in-command, for the inclusion of at

least one multi-engine aeroplane type required to be operated with a co-pilot in the
Aircraft Rating; and

(d) have completed a minimum of 3000 total flying hours as pilot of aeroplanes,
consisting of at least:

(i) 250 hours as pilot-in-command (PIC) of aeroplanes, of which up to a

maximum of 150 hours may be as co-pilot acting as pilot-in-command under
supervision (PIC U/S);

(ii) 200 hours of cross-country or overseas flying, of which at least 100 hours
shall be as pilot-in-command (PIC) or pilot-in-command under supervision
(PIC U/S) on aeroplanes, of which at least 50 hours shall be as pilot-in-
command (PIC). This shall include a flight of at least 300 nautical miles
acting as pilot-in-command (PIC), in the course of which the aeroplane
landed and came to rest at not less than 2 intermediate aerodromes;

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 12-3

 (iii) 100 hours of night flying in aeroplanes, as pilot-in-command (PIC), pilot-in-
command under supervision (PIC U/S) or as co-pilot (P2), of which at least
25 hours must be on cross-country or overseas flying as pilot-in-command
(PIC) or pilot-in-command under supervision (PIC U/S); including two
flights as pilot-in-command (PIC) terminating at an aerodrome not less than
65 nautical miles from the point of departure. This night flying must include
at least 5 hours and 10 take-offs and 10 landings as pilot-in-command (PIC);

(iv) 75 hours of instrument flying of which not more than 30 hours may be
instrument ground time; and

(v) 500 flying hours on civil registered multi-engine transport aeroplanes

certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots.

Note: Flight time in microlight aeroplanes, or in self-launching motor gliders, will not be
counted towards satisfying the above requirements.

Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopters)

7 To qualify for a CPL (H), the applicant shall hold a valid foreign foreign CPL (H) or
ATPL (H) and have completed at least:

(a) 400 total flying hours as pilot-in-command (PIC) of helicopters of which at least 10
hours must be cross-country or overseas flying, including a flight in the course of
which landing at 2 different points shall be made;

(b) 5 hours of night flying as pilot-in-command (PIC) of helicopters which must

include not less than 5 take-offs and 5 landing patterns; and

(c) 10 hours of instrument flying as pilot-under-instruction (P U/T) of helicopters of

which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time.

Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopters) with Instrument Rating

8 To qualify for a CPL (H) with an Instrument Rating (IR), the applicant shall hold a valid
foreign CPL (H) or ATPL (H) with a valid IR. The applicant shall have completed, in
addition to the flying experience requirements for a CPL(H), at least:

(a) 40 hours of cross-country or overseas flying as pilot-in-command (PIC) of

helicopters; and

(b) 30 hours as pilot of helicopters by sole reference to instruments, which must

include not less than 5 hours in the type of helicopter in respect of which the
applicant wishes to qualify. These hours shall be gained in flight.

Chapter 12-4 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

 Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Helicopters) with Instrument Rating

9 To qualify for an ATPL (H) with an Instrument Rating (IR), the applicant shall:

(a) hold a valid foreign ATPL(H) or a valid Singapore CPL(H) that was converted
from a foreign professional pilot licence;

(b) hold a valid IR;

(c) meet the qualifying requirements, as pilot-in-command, for the inclusion of at

least one helicopter type required to be operated with a co-pilot in the Aircraft
Rating; and

(d) have completed a minimum of 1000 total flying hours as pilot of helicopters,
consisting of at least:

(i) 400 hours, either as pilot-in-command (PIC), or made up by at least 100

hours as pilot-in-command (PIC) and the necessary additional flight time as
pilot-in-command under supervision (PIC U/S);

(ii) 200 hours of cross-country flying, of which at least 100 hours shall be as
pilot-in-command (PIC) or as pilot-in-command under supervision (PIC
U/S);

(iii) 50 hours of night flying as pilot-in-command (PIC) or as co-pilot (P2);

and

(iv) 40 hours as pilot of helicopters by sole reference to instruments, which

must include at least 5 hours in the type of helicopter in respect of which
the applicant wishes to qualify. These hours shall be gained in flight.

ADDITIONAL CONVERSION REQUIREMENTS

Medical Standards

10 The applicant shall pass the Class 1 Medical Examination as specified in the Fourteenth
Schedule of the ANO and SASP 9.

Language Proficiency Requirements

11 The applicant shall be certified to at least the Operational Level (Level 4) of the ICAO
Language Proficiency Rating Scale, by the foreign licensing authority issuing his licence,
in order to convert his licence to a Singapore equivalent. The language proficiency level to
be endorsed on his Singapore licence shall be that as endorsed on his foreign licence.

12 The applicant, whose language proficiency is not certified by the foreign licensing
authority or does not meet the aforesaid language proficiency requirement, shall be
assessed for his language proficiency in order to convert his licence to a Singapore
equivalent.

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 12-5

13 Notwithstanding the above, the DGCA may, at his discretion, request a foreign licence
holder, who wishes to convert to a Singapore equivalent, to undergo re-assessment for
language proficiency.

14 The evaluation and certification of language proficiency shall be performed only by

persons authorised by or otherwise acceptable to the DGCA.

Ground Examination Requirements

15 The applicant shall pass the following knowledge examinations for the issue of a Singapore
professional pilot licence:

(a) Air Law;

(b) Operational Procedures;

(c) Human Performance, unless the applicant produces documentary evidence (e.g. result
slip or letter from the foreign licensing authority) to show a pass in an equivalent
subject;

(d) Performance, unless the applicant produces documentary evidence (e.g. result slip or
letter from the foreign licensing authority) to show a pass in an equivalent subject at
the appropriate level. For conversion to an ATPL(A), the applicant may be exempted
from this subject if he has more than 3000 total flying hours, of which at least 500
flying hours are on civil registered transport aeroplanes certificated for operation
with a minimum crew of at least two pilots; and

(e) Aircraft Type Technical examination for the aircraft rating to be endorsed on the
Singapore licence, unless the applicant is current.

16 Notwithstanding 15, an applicant for a CPL (A) who does not meet any one of the following
requirements shall be required to pass the theoretical knowledge examinations:

(a) At least 700 total flying hours as pilot of aeroplanes;

(b) At least 200 hours as pilot-in-command (PIC) of aeroplanes of which up to a

maximum of 100 hours may be as co-pilot acting as pilot-in-command under
supervision (PIC U/S); or

(c) At least 10 hours of cross-country or overseas flying as pilot-in-command (PIC) of

aeroplanes by night or by sole reference to instruments. Any instrument flight time
counted towards satisfying this requirement may not also be counted towards
satisfying that specified in paragraphs 4 and 5.

Instrument Rating Flight Test Requirements

17 An applicant for the grant of an IR on the Singapore professional pilot licence shall be
required to pass the initial IR flight test, conducted by the DGCA or an Authorised Flight
Examiner, in an aircraft. An applicant who does not successfully complete the initial
Instrument Rating test will be required to undergo part of the General Flight Test as

Chapter 12-6 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

 determined by the DGCA, prior to his re-attempt at the IR test.

Note: The initial IR flight test on an aircraft having a maximum total mass authorised of
more than 5700kg may be completed in a DGCA approved flight simulator.

Aircraft Rating

18 The applicant is required to complete, for each aircraft type having a maximum total mass
authorised of less than 5700kg to be endorsed on the Singapore licence, a training program
approved by the DGCA, which shall include, but is not limited to, ground instruction on the
Aircraft Type, Aircraft Training and the Aircraft Rating Flight Test.

19 For an aircraft having a maximum total mass authorised of more than 5700kg, the applicant
shall meet the following qualifying requirements for the inclusion of the aircraft rating:

Qualifying Conditions Ground Flight Aircraft Items to be tested in

Instruction Simulator Training* flight as part of the
on Aircraft Training Aircraft Rating
Type Flight Test
(a) Pilot has 500 Not Minimum Not required To be completed in an
hours and is current required 2 sessions aircraft or a DGCA
for the aircraft type required approved flight
sought. simulator
(b) Pilot has < 500 Not Minimum Not required To be completed in an
hours and is current required 3 sessions aircraft or a DGCA
for the aircraft type required approved flight
sought. simulator

(c) Pilot not current (<5 Required Minimum Required To be completed in an

years lapse) for the 4 sessions aircraft
aircraft type sought. required

(d) Pilot with no Required Full aircraft Required To be completed in an

previous experience conversion aircraft
in aircraft type required
sought or not current
(5 years lapse)

*Note: The Aircraft Training may be substituted by a Zero Flight Time Training
programme approved by the DGCA.

20 For the purpose of paragraphs 15 and 19, current means the pilot:

(a) is currently rated on the aircraft type sought in the foreign licence;

(b) has completed at least 4 commercial operations in the aircraft type sought in the
12 months immediately preceding the date of application;

(c) has completed 2 proficiency checks of the aircraft type sought (in an aircraft or

17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4] Chapter 12-7

 flight simulator approved by the foreign Civil Aviation Authority) in the 12
months immediately preceding the date of application. The 2 proficiency checks
must not occur within a period of four months. At least one of these proficiency
checks must have been carried out by the foreign CAA or its authorised
representative, while the other may be carried out by the foreign operator; and
Note: The proficiency check used to satisfy the pre-requisite specified paragraph
2(f) may be counted towards satisfying this requirement.

(d) has operated the flight controls during at least three take-offs and landings in the
90 days immediately preceding the date of application, in an aircraft or a simulator
approved by the foreign Civil Aviation Authority.

21 For the purpose of paragraph 19, one session of simulator training shall consist at least
four hours of simulator training.

22 Notwithstanding anything in this Chapter, an applicant may be required to meet any

additional conversion terms as the DGCA deems fit.

Chapter 12-8 17 December 2012 [Issue 8, Amendment 4]

CHAPTER 13 SPECIAL LICENSING REQUIREMENTS FOR RSAF PILOTS

1 APPLICATION

1.1 The licensing requirements spelt out in this chapter apply only to Republic of Singapore
Air force (RSAF) pilots who are in current flying practice in military aircraft. Foreign
military pilots will not be accepted for licence conversion. Current flying practice in
military aircraft is to be interpreted as having flown at least 50 hours as first pilot
according to military procedures during the 12 months preceding the date of assessment
for a licence. A RSAF pilot who is not in current flying practice will not be entitled to any
special licensing terms as set out in this chapter and must meet the standard requirements
as set out elsewhere in this publication.

1.2 The general information, application procedures and the medical requirements contained
in Chapter 1 and Chapter 2 of this publication are also applicable to all RSAF pilots
applying for a Singapore licence.

2 REQUIREMENTS (POLICY)

2.1 The licensing policy for RSAF pilots is based upon the testing of their skills as a pilot in
Chapters 5, 6 and 7. An applicant shall pass the appropriate ground examinations, with the
exception of the RT theory and practical examination, for the issue of a licence.

3 RECOGNITION OF MLITARY QUALIFICATIONS

3.1 The flying hours accumulated by RSAF pilots during their military services will be
credited. However, RSAF pilots are required to attend a further course of approved flying
training before they can be accepted for flight tests conducted by a CAAS flight operations
inspector or an Authorised Flight Examiner for the issue of a professional pilot licence.

4 REQUIREMENT FOR APPROVED TRAINING

4.1 In addition to meeting the minimum flying requirements as spelt out in Chapter 4 of this
publication, RSAF pilots are required to undergo a DGCA-approved flight training
programme to qualify for taking the flight test.

4.2 The following minimum flying training must be carried out in an approved flying training
organisation for the following category of military pilots:

(a) Fighter Pilots (Twin Engine Aircraft) and Military Transport Pilots None.

(b) Fighter Pilots (Single-Engine Aircraft) A minimum of 35 flying hours on twin

engine aircraft.

(c) Helicopter Pilots A minimum of 65 flying hours on single-engine aircraft and a

minimum of 35 flying hours on twin engine aircraft.

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Chapter 13-1

5 INSTRUMENT RATING (AEROPLANES AND HELICOPTERS)

5.1 Exemption from having to undertake an approved course of training will normally be
given to RSAF pilots holding a military instrument flying qualification at or above the '
Green Card' level and who are in current flying practice.

Chapter 13-2 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

APPENDIX A SYLLABUS CPL/ATPL GROUND EXAMINATION SUBJECTS

Note: The level of knowledge required for all the topics in the CPL examinations will not be as
high as that of the ATPL examinations.

RADIO AIDS

Electro Magnetic Radiation

Speed of propagation; Frequency/wavelength; Phase/phase difference; Frequency bands.

Basic Transmitter
Signal generation; Feeding and emission of RF signals.

Antennas
Characteristics; Polarisation; Use of antennas.

Modulation of Radio Waves

Amplitude, frequency and pulse modulation; Classification of emission; Basic principles of
doppler effect.

Wave Propagation
Factors affecting range and propagation of ground, direct and sky waves; Height of
ionospheric layers; Ducted propagation, tropospheric scatter.

Radio Communications
Long and short range systems; Frequencies/frequency bands used; S S B; Selcal; Satcom.

Ground D/F
Principles; Coverage and range; Errors and accuracy (including classification of bearing
accuracy); Factors affecting range and accuracy.

ADF/NDB
Principles; Coverage and range (including protection); Errors and accuracy; Factors affecting
range and accuracy; Presentation and interpretation (including use of the RMI).

VOR (conventional and Doppler)

Principles; Coverage and range (including DOC); Errors and accuracy; Factors affecting
range and accuracy; Presentation and interpretation (including use of the RMI).

ILS
Principles; Coverage and range; Errors and accuracy; Factors affecting range and accuracy
(including categories); Presentation and interpretation.

MLS
Principles; Coverage and range; Errors and accuracy; Factors affecting range and accuracy;
Presentation and interpretation.

Basic Radar Principles

Advantages/disadvantages of primary/secondary radars; Pulse techniques and associated
terms; Cathode ray tube; Production of a basic time-base.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-1

DME
Principles; Coverage and range; Errors and accuracy; Factors affecting range and accuracy;
Presentation and interpretation.

VOR/DME Area Navigation (RNAV)

Principle of operation: Advantages and disadvantages; Accuracy, reliability and coverage;
Presentation and interpretation; Use of DME to update INS/FMS.

SSR
Application for navigation; Principles,(including Mode S data link); Presentation and
interpretation; Method of producing modes and special codes.

Ground Radar
Principles; Coverage and range; Presentation and interpretation; Errors and accuracy; Factors
affecting range and accuracy.

Airborne Weather Radar

Principles; Coverage and range; Errors and accuracy; Factors affecting range and accuracy;
Presentation and interpretation.

Doppler
Principle of operation.

Radio Altimeter
Principles; Errors and accuracy; Presentation and interpretation.

Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)

Function; Data inputs; Warning modes; Mode limits; Integrity testing.

Hyperbolic Navigation Systems

Basic principles; Range and accuracy; Factors affecting range and accuracy.

Loran-C
Principle of operation; Derivation of a position line; Advantages and disadvantages;
Accuracy, reliability, range and coverage; Presentation of information.

Satellite Assisted Navigation

Basic principles; Derivation of a position line; Accuracy, reliability, range and coverage;
Automatic systems.

Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)

Principles; Warnings.

FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING

Flight Plans for Cross Country Flights

Navigation plan; Terrain and obstacle clearance; Cruising levels; Navigation check points,
visual or radio; Measurement of tracks and distances; Obtaining wind velocity forecast for
each leg; Computation of heading, ground speeds and times from tracks, true airspeeds and
wind velocities; Use of wind component, tables for drift and groundspeed; Completion of
navigation flight plan.

Appendix A-2 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Fuel Plan
Computation of planned fuel usage for each leg and total fuel; Flight manual figures for fuel
flow during climb, cruise, and descent. Mid weights or instantaneous weights; Navigation
plan for times en-route; Fuel for holding or diversion; Reserves; Total fuel requirements for
flight; Take off weight; Landing weight; Completion of pre-flight portion of fuel log.

Flight Monitoring and In-Flight Re-planning

In-flight computations; Recording of fuel quantities, recalculation at navigational
checkpoints, flight progress chart; Calculation of actual rate of consumption; Comparison of
actual and planned fuel consumption and fuel state, flight progress chart; PNR and CP;
Revision of fuel reserves; In-flight re-planning; Selection of cruise altitude for new
destination; Fuel state, fuel requirements, fuel reserves.

Radio Communications and Navigational Aids

Communication frequencies and call signs for appropriate control agencies and in-flight service
facilities, weather stations; Radio navigation and approach aids; Type; Frequencies;
Identification.

Air Traffic Flight Plan

Type of flight plan ICAO flight plan; Format; Information included; Repetitive flight plan;
Completion of flight plan; Information for flight plan obtained from; Navigation flight plan;
Fuel endurance; Operators' records for basic information.

Practical Flight Planning

Chart usage; Checking AIP and Notams for latest information; Selection of altitudes or flight
levels for each leg of flight; Plotting tracks and measuring directions and distances; Completing
navigation plans using; Tracks and distances from prepared charts; Wind velocity on each leg to
obtain headings and ground speeds; Times for each leg to destination and alternates to determine
total time en route; Simple fuel plans; Preparation of fuel loads showing planned values for; Fuel
used on each leg including climb, cruise and descent; Fuel remaining at end of each leg; Total time
and fuel required to destination; Endurance, based on fuel remaining and planned rate of
consumption at end of each leg; Completion of fuel plan; Fuel required for missed approach,
climb and cruise to alternate; Reserve fuel.

Radio Planning
Communications; Frequencies and call signs of ATC agencies and facilities and information
for in-flight weather; Navigation aids; Frequencies and identifiers of en route and terminal
facilities.

IFR (Airways) Flight Planning

Meteorological considerations; Selection of routes to destination and alternates; Preferred airways
routes; Extraction of tracks/distances from radio nav charts; Frequencies and identifiers of en route
radio nav aids; Minimum en route altitudes, minimum crossing and reception altitudes; Standard
Instrument Departures (SIDs) and Standard Arrival Routes (STARs); Interpretation and use of
aerodrome charts: landing charts, instrument approach charts, visual approach charts, noise
abatement charts, special procedure charts.

Jet Aircraft Flight Planning

Additional aspects; Cruise technique; Fuel planning; En route contingency fuel; Destination
holding and diversion fuel; Reserves; Importance of altitude selection when planning for
diversion; Use of performance charts; Calculation of critical point (CP), point of no return
(PNR); Difference between equi-fuel and equi-time points; General consideration of EROPS,

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-3

point of equal time (PET) and point of safe return (PSR).

Computerised Flight Planning

General principles; Advantages; Shortcomings and limitations.

NAVIGATION

The Earth
Form of the earth: rotation, great circles, small circles, rhumb lines, geographic poles.

Position on earth: latitude and longitude, use of co-ordinates to find position, difference of
latitude and longitude.

Direction on earth: true north, magnetic north, compass north, grid north, variation, deviation,
grivation, isogonals, isogrivs.

Convergency and conversion angle: definitions, formula, application.

Departure: definition, formula, application.

Distance on earth: units of measurement, (nautical miles, kilometres, statute miles),

conversion, relationship to latitude.

Speed: units of measurement (knots, mph, kilometres per hour), rectified airspeed, true
airspeed, mach number relationship, groundspeed.

Time: distance, speed and time solutions.

The Triangle of Velocities

Vectors: heading, track, drift, TAS, groundspeed.

Computer solution.

Multi drift wind velocities, wind components, maximum and minimum wind components for
take-off and landing.

Fuel
Use of computer for fuel conversions: kilograms, litres, pounds, imperial gallons, US gallons.

Solution of fuel flow problems, fuel units in relation to time.

Pilot Navigation
The 1 in 60 rule: track error, closing angle, distance gone, regaining and parallelling track,
altering heading to destination, DR navigation.

Charts
Types of projection, general properties, orthomorphism, scale, chart convergency.

Properties (to include representation of great circles, rhumb lines, parallels of latitude and
meridians; scale problems; chart convergency) of the following projections.

Appendix A-4 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Mercator; Transverse Mercator; Oblique Mercator; Lambert Conformal; Polar Stereographic;
Use of the projections listed above; Topographical maps; conventional signs.

Navigation Requirement for Long Range Flights

Route selection, choice of speed and flight level, minimum time tracks.

Polar flights

Gridded charts: grivation, convergency, variation relationship, use in north and south polar
areas.

Emergency Data
Calculation and application of critical point and point of no return.

Calculation and application of radius of action or latest time to divert.

Relative Velocity
Principles of relative velocity.

Assessment of collision risk (not interception).

Time and Time Conversions

Solar system, seasonal and apparent movements of the sun.

Basis of mean time, civil day, the years.

LMT, ST, UTC using air almanac extracts.

Sunrise, sunset, twilight using air almanac extracts.

Navigation Plotting
Calculation factors affecting accuracy and plotting of DR position.

Measurement of track and distance, assessment of magnetic variation.

Plotting of position lines from radio facilities, establishment of aircraft position by

transference of straight and curved position lines by track and groundspeed, use of single
position lines, fixing by position lines.

Calculation of actual track and groundspeed by reference to plotted position, calculation of

actual wind velocity. Revision of ETA and fuel endurance.

Use of external aids for INS cross checks.

Navigation on climb and descent.

Maintaining a flight log.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-5

INSTRUMENTS

Air Data Sources

Pitot and static systems; Pitot tube; Construction and principle of operation; Errors and faults;
Static source; Construction, principle of operation and siting; Errors and faults; Combined
pressure head; Construction, principle of operation and siting; Errors and faults; Alternate
static source; Siting; Errors normally associated with use of alternate vent; Air temperature
measurement; Types of thermometer used; Ram air temperature; Corrected outside air
temperature; Errors; Angle of attack sensor (blade angle sensors/dial helicopters); Principle
of operation; Types in use; Outputs; Use and application; Displays.

Air Data Instruments

Altimeter; Relationship of pressure and height; Principle of operation and construction of sensitive
and servo altimeters; Height encoding; Subscale settings, standard settings: QFE, QFE,
(threshold), QNH; Interpretation of instrument; Errors; Corrections and tolerances; Altimeter
correction, determination of corrections due to surface pressure variation.

Airspeed Indicator (ASI)

Effect of motion of body through atmosphere; Ram air pressure; Dynamic pressure;
Compressibility; Speed terms: IAS, EAS, RAS/CAS, TAS.

Construction and principle of operation; Interpretation of instrument; Use of coloured arcs

and other markers; Errors and corrections; Conversion of IAS to TAS.

Vertical speed indicator (VSI)

Rate of descent as a rate of change of pressure; Simple VSI; Principle; Presentation; Use;
Errors and limitations; Inertial lead VSI (IVSI); Principle; Presentation; Advantages; Errors
and limitations.

Machmeter
Significance of mach number; Mach number formula; Measurement of mach number as ratio
of pressures; Construction and principle of operation of a machmeter; Presentation,
interpretation and use; Errors.

Mach/airspeed Indicator (MASI)

Principle of operation; Presentation, interpretation and use; Errors.

Air data computer (ADC)

Principles of operation: Sources of input data; Output data, uses and systems fed; Block
diagram; System monitoring.

Gyroscopic Instruments
Gyroscopic principles; Theory of gyroscopic principles
Rigidity in space, apparent drift, apparent tilt; Precession, real drift, real topple; Factors
affecting precession rates; Construction and principle of operation of; Vertical gyro
Directional gyro; Rate gyro; Rate integrating gyro; Single degree of freedom gyro; Solid state
gyro.

Direction indicator (DI)

Construction and principle of operation; Errors; Need to set and re-set.

Appendix A-6 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Remote indicating compasses (RIC)
Construction and principle of operation; Principle of flux valve; Slaving system; Advantages;
Output data, use and application; Pre-flight check; Remote transmission systems.

Artificial horizon
Construction and principle of operation: Remote vertical gyro

Types of display ; Errors and limitations; Output data, use and applications

Turn and balance indicator

Construction and principle of operation; Display types and interpretation; Errors and
limitations; Output data, use and applications.

Turn co-ordinator
Construction and principle of operation; Display and interpretation; Errors and limitations.

Accelerometers: Principle
Construction of typical force rebalanced accelerometer.

Errors and limitations; Output data, uses.

Gyro stabilised gimballed platform

Construction and principle of operation; Levelling and gyro compassing; Alignment; Types
of platform; Output data, uses and applications.

Strapped down systems

Construction and principle of operation; Types in use.

Advantages/disadvantages.

Inertial navigation
Use of accelerometers and platforms; Schuler tuned platforms; Principles of integration;
Navigation computer; Use of equipment; MSU and CDU. HSI display; Accuracy, reliability
and errors; Operational use.

Magnetism and Compasses

Principles of magnetism; Terrestrial magnetism; Earths total magnetic field; H and Z
components and their values as governed by magnetic latitude; Directive force, magnetic dip,
variation; Aircraft magnetism; Permeability of materials, hard iron and soft iron; Magnetic
field of an aircraft, effect on directive force; Deviation: change with heading, change with
magnetic latitude; Compass safe distances.

Direct Reading Magnetic Compass (DRMC)

Principle of construction; Errors and limitations; Serviceability tests.

Appreciation of methods and devices used to compensate a DRMC. Determination of coefficients

A, B and C

Deviation card

Electronic Displays and Systems

Area navigation systems; Typical flight deck equipment; Input sources, use, crew interface;

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-7

Interpretation, checking and up-dating.

Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS)

Types of information; Block diagram of data inputs; Control panel, data unit; Typical
installation; Interpretation and use of information.

Flight Management Systems (FMS)

General function and principle; Inputs and outputs; Use and application.

Flight Director Systems

Function and application; Block diagram, components and display; Mode of operation;
Operational setup for various flight phases; Command modes (bars); Mode indicator; System
monitoring; Limitations, operational restrictions.

METEOROLOGY (THEORY)

Composition and Properties of the Atmosphere.

Pressure, Temperature and Density of the Atmosphere.

Barometric pressure, isobars.

Diurnal variation of pressure, pressure variation with height.

Determination of QFF.

Transfer of heat, solar and terrestrial radiation, conduction, turbulence, convection, radiation.

Temperature near earth's surface, surface effects, diurnal variation, effect of clouds, effect of
wind and humidity.

Elementary heat balance in atmosphere.

Adiabatic processes, dry air, evaporation, condensation, latent heat, saturated air, simple
temperature/height diagram.

Vertical distribution of temperature, troposphere, tropopause, stratosphere, lapse rate,

atmospheric equilibrium, development of inversions, types of inversions, influence on the
weather.

Stability and instability: changes caused by radiation, turbulence, convection, advection,

subsidence, convergence, divergence and precipitation.

Density, variation at surface and with height. Aircraft performance and air density.

Humidity
Water vapour in the atmosphere.

Vapour pressure, effect of humidity on density.

Dry/wet bulb temperature, dew point, humidity mixing ratio, absolute and relative humidity.

Appendix A-8 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Condensation, precipitation, sublimation and freezing in the atmosphere.

Relationship between density, pressure, temperature and humidity. International Standard

Atmosphere (ISA).

Clouds and Precipitation

Composition of cloud, methods of formation, height of base and vertical extent, international
nomenclature and classification of cloud types.

Turbulence, orographic, stratiform and convection cloud. Conditions favourable for

formation. Structure and classification. Diurnal and seasonal variation.

Thunderstorms, development and structure, development and effect of microburst, associated

flight hazards, atmospheric electricity (lightning and static).

Types of precipitation: drizzle, rain, snow, hail.

General causes of precipitation, precipitation associated with different types of cloud.

Characteristics of orographic, frontal and shower precipitation.

Operating hazards associated with various types of cloud and precipitation.

Wind
Relationship between isobars and wind, Buys Ballot's law.

Primary cause of wind, pressure gradient, geostrophic force and geostrophic wind, coriolis
force, gradient wind, convergence and divergence effects (no formulae).

Diurnal variation of wind at surface and on top of friction layer. Winds and isobars near the
equator.

Local variation of wind with topography: ravine wind, anabatic and katabatic effects, fohn
effect, land and sea breezes.

Airflow over mountains: standing waves and conditions favourable for their development,
rotor streaming.

Turbulence, gustiness and squalls, factors affecting turbulence, effect of turbulence on lapse
rates.

Low level wind shear: effect on aircraft operation, weather situations favourable, methods of
recognition, action to be taken on encountering.

Variation of wind with height: elementary knowledge of thermal component of wind, contour
charts, jet streams in all parts of the world and their seasonal variation.

Flights at higher levels (upper troposphere and stratosphere).

Upper clear air turbulence (CAT): cause, location, effect on aircraft, description for met
reports.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-9

Stratospheric conditions: tropopause influence on aircraft performance, jet streams, CAT and
clouds, effects of ozone, radioactivity.

Visibility
Fog, mist, haze and their difference.

Formation and clearance of radiation fog, advection fog, steam fog and frontal fog, diurnal
and seasonal variation.

Reduction of visibility caused by mist, smoke, dust, sand, snow and sea spray.

Vertical and oblique visibility, visual illusions in flight caused by precipitation.

RVR (runway visual range) and IRVR (instrumented runway visual range).

Ice Accretion
Forms of airframe icing, relation to cloud types, factors affecting form and severity, hazards.

Action to take on encountering icing conditions.

Power plant icing.

Airmasses
Description, factors affecting properties.

Classification, modifications due to advection, areas of origin.

Fronts
Boundaries between air masses, general situation.

Warm front, associated clouds and weather.

Cold front, associated clouds and weather.

Weather in the warm sector, hazards for aviation.

Occlusion, associated clouds and weather.

Quasi-stationary front, associated clouds and weather.

Airmasses and Frontal Analysis

Frontal depressions: formation of warm and cold fronts, occlusion process, distribution of
weather, depression families, troughs, flight conditions in and over depressions.

Non-frontal depressions: thermal, orographic (lee) and secondary depressions, tropical

revolving storms, tornadoes, water-spouts.

Anticyclones, types, general properties cold and warm anticyclones, ridges and cols.

Prognostic rules, movement of fronts and developments of fronts, movement and

development of pressure systems.

Appendix A-10 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Climatology (Not applicable for CPL)
Average surface pressure and temperature distribution over the world.

Average circulation patterns in troposphere and lower stratosphere and their seasonal
variation.

Upper winds, stream lines and seasonal variation.

The inter tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) and associated weather in different areas.

Winds and weather of the monsoon regions.

Tropical storms, origin and local names, periods of occurrence, easterly waves and hurricane
development.

Flying conditions in the vicinity of tropical storms

Meteorological phenomena of special interest to aviators with reference to the synoptic

situations giving rise to such phenomena (e.g. tropical cyclones, tornadoes, dust and
sandstorms, freezing precipitation).

Aviation climatology of the principal air routes and areas of the world.

Local winds by name, eg. Mistral, Bora, Scirocco, Harmattan.

The Weather Map

Interpretation of symbols and figures used on weather charts.

Development and movement of simple pressure systems and fronts, including significance of
isallobaric changes.

Interpretation of synoptic charts and use of the synoptic chart for preparation of route
forecasts and landing forecasts. Effects of topographic features and diurnal variation on
development of weather.

Observations
Knowledge of standard methods of measuring visibility, cloud height, pressure, temperature,
humidity and wind at the surface and in the upper air. (knowledge of the mechanics of the
various instruments is not required).

The Q code groups QFE, QNE, QNH, QFF and Regional QNH.

In-flight observations: reporting criteria, form and circumstances in which observations are
made and reported.

Use of satellite photographs.

Flight Documentation
Interpretation of flight forecast documents (Changes in documentation take place from time to
time. Examination questions will reflect current practice).

Decoding of TAF, METAR and SIGMET messages. TREND type landing forecasts and the

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-11

criteria for their use.

METEOROLOGY (PRACTICAL)
A test in the practical application of knowledge covered in Meteorology (Theory).

HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS

Basic Aviation Physiology and Health Maintenance

Basic physiology and the effects of flight.

Anatomy and physiology of eye, ear, vestibular, circulatory, and respiratory systems.

Composition of the atmosphere, gas laws and the nature of the human requirement of oxygen.

Effects of reduced ambient pressure and of sudden decompression; times of useful

consciousness.

Recognising and coping with hypoxia and hyperventilation.

Entrapped gases and barotrauma.

Diving and flying.

Effects of acceleration (+/G) on circulatory system, vision and consciousness.

Mechanism, effects and management of motion sickness.

Flying and health.

Noise and age-induced hearing loss.

Visual defects and their correction.

Arterial disease and coronary risk factors, ECG, blood pressure, stroke.

Diet, exercise, obesity.

Fits, faints and the EEG.

Psychiatric diseases, drug dependence and alcoholism.

Tropical diseases and their prophylaxis, hepatitis and sexually transmitted diseases.

Common ailments and fitness to fly: gastro-enteritis, colds, use of common drugs and their
side effects.

Toxic hazards.

Causes and management of in-flight incapacitation.

Basic Aviation Psychology

Basic plan of human information processing including concepts of sensation, attention,
memory, central decision-making and creation of mental models.

Appendix A-12 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Limitations of central decision channel and mental workload.

Function of attention in selecting information sources, attention-getting stimuli.

Types of memory: peripheral or sensory, long term (semantic and episodic), short term or
working, motor (skills).

Memory limitations and failures.

Perception, the integration of sensory information to form a mental model.

Effects of experience and expectation on perception.

Erroneous mental models: visual, vestibular and other illusions.

Recognising and managing spatial disorientation.

Use of visual cues in landing.

Eye movements, visual search techniques.

Skill-, rule- and knowledge-based behaviours.

Nature of skill acquisition, exercise of skill, conscious and automatic behaviour, errors of
skill.

Rule-based behaviour, procedures, simulator training, failures in rule-based behaviour.

Knowledge-based behaviour: problem solving and decision making, inference formation,

failures in knowledge-based behaviour.

Maintaining accurate mental models, situational awareness, conformation bias.

Stress, Fatigue and their Management

Models and effects of stress.

Definitions, concepts and models of stress.

Arousal: concepts of over- and under-arousal.

Environmental stresses and their effects: heat, noise, vibration, low humidity.

Domestic stress, home relationships, bereavement, financial and time commitments.

Work stress, relationships with colleagues and management.

Effects of stress on attention, motivation and performance.

Life stress and health, other clinical effects of stress.

Defence mechanisms, identifying stress and stress management.

Sleep and fatigue.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-13

Biological clocks and circadian rhythms, sleep/wakefulness and temperature rhythms,
zeitgebers.

Sleep stages, sleep at abnormal times of day, required quantity of sleep.

Work-induced fatigue.

Shift work.

Time zone crossing, circadian disrhythmia, re-synchronisation.

Rostering problems, sleep management and naps.

Sleep hygiene.

Management of sleep with drugs.

Social Psychology and Ergonomics of the Flight Deck

Individual differences, social psychology and flight deck management.

Individual differences, definitions of intelligence and personality.

Assessing personality.

Main dimensions of personality: extroversion and anxiety. Other important traits: warmth
and sociability, impulsivity, tough-mindedness, dominance, stability and boldness.

Goal-directed and person-directed types of behaviour.

Autocratic and democratic leadership styles.

Individual personality-related problems of flying, especially risk-taking.

Personality interaction on the flight deck and the interaction of personality with status or
seniority, role (e.g. handling/non-handling) and perceived ability of crew members.

Concepts of conformity, compliance and risky shift. Implications of these concepts for the
flight deck with regard to effects of crew size.

Communication: verbal and non-verbal communication, one and two way communication,
different communication styles.

Methods of maximising crew effectiveness and improving flight deck, or cockpit resource,
management.

Interacting with cabin crew, air traffic services, maintenance personnel and passengers.

The Design of Flight Decks, Documentation and Procedures.

Basic principles of control, display and workspace design.

Eye datum, anthropometry and workspace constraints, external vision requirements, reach,

Appendix A-14 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

comfort and posture.

Display size, legibility, scale design, colour and illumination. Common errors in display
interpretation.

Control size, loading, location and compatibility of controls with displays.

Presentation of warning information and misinterpretation of warnings.

Design and appropriate use of checklists and manuals.

Effects of automation and the glass cockpit. Integration of information from many data
sources on one display and automatic selection of displayed information. Mode and status
representation.

Machine intelligence and relationship between aircraft decisions and pilot decisions.

Avoidance of complacency and boredom, maintaining situational awareness, maintaining

basic flying skills.

CPL/ATPL AIRCRAFT TECHNICAL GROUP OF PAPERS

Principles of Flight Aeroplane

Basic Aerodynamic Theory

The candidate is expected to:

Describe the terms freestream static pressure, dynamic pressure (including the term V) and
total (or pitot) pressure.

Explain the principle of airspeed indication, and indicate the relationship between indicated,
calibrated, equivalent and true airspeeds (IAS, CAS, EAS, and TAS).

With respect to aerofoils, describe the meanings of the following terms: section, leading edge,
trailing edge, chord, chord line, thickness, thickness/chord ratio, camber, mean camber line.

Distinguish between high-lift, general purpose (GP) and high-speed aerofoil sections.

Define relative air flow and angle of attack ( ).

State Bernoullis theorem in simple terms, and describe streamline flow, turbulent flow, and the
application of Bernoullis theorem to the streamline flow around an aerofoil.

Describe a venturi and explain venturi effect.

Explain the changes to the airflow and pressure distribution around a typical aerofoil in a low-
subsonic speed airflow as is increased from the zero-lift angle to beyond the stalling angle.

Explain the terms upwash and downwash in an airflow.

Explain the term centre of pressure (CP); and describe typical movement of the CP with increasing
.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-15

Define the total aerodynamic reaction force (TR) of an aerofoil and describe how TR varies with
increasing . Define the TR components lift and drag.

Lift
The candidate is expected to:

List the factors affecting lift (low-subsonic speed airflow).

State the lift formula, and the three basic factors contained within it.

Describe the meaning of the term coefficient of lift (CL).

Given a typical CL versus curve for a GP-type aerofoil, identify:

(a) the zero lift angle; and,
(b) the angle for maximum CL (CLmax).

State the meaning of a high CLmax.

With respect to the CL curve, describe the effect of:

(a) increased camber; and,
(b) surface roughness (e.g. contamination).

Describe three-dimensional flow over a wing and explain how wingtip and trailing edge vortices
are formed.

Explain the effect of induced downwash on .

Define aspect ratio (AR) and describe the effect of AR on CL

Drag
The candidate is expected to:

List the types of drag which makes up total drag.

Explain the term boundary layer.

Describe:
(a) laminar boundary layer flow;
(b) turbulent boundary layer flow; and,
(c) transition point.

Explain skin-friction drag and state the factors affecting it.

Explain form drag; state the factors affecting it; and describe the effect of streamlining in reducing
form drag.

Describe interference drag and the measures for reducing it.

Explain the origin of induced drag; and

(a) list the factors affecting it; and,
(b) explain typical measures for reducing it.

State the meaning of the term coefficient of drag (CD); and describe the main features of a typical
curve of CD versus .

Appendix A-16 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

State the drag formula, and the three basic functions contained within it.

Describe typical curves of induced, parasite and total drag versus IAS in straight and level flight.

Identify the speed for minimum drag and maximum lift/drag ratio.

Distinguish between curves for CD and total drag.

Explain a typical curve for lift/drag (L/D) ratio versus ; and show the most efficient zero lift,
and stalling angles.

Lift Augmentation
The candidate is expected to:

State the basic purpose of lift augmentation devices.

State the basic principle of operation of trailing and leading-edge flaps.

Explain the effects of lowering trailing edge flap on; CL, CD, L/D ratio, CP movement, angle of
attack and nose attitude.

Distinguish between the effects of lowering leading-edge flap on angle-of-attack, nose attitude and
movement of the CP with those of trailing-edge flap.

Identify the main types of trailing-edge flap and compare their relative performance (in generating
lift and drag).

Identify the main types of leading-edge flap.

State the basic principle of operation of slats and slots.

Explain the effect of operating leading-edge slats on CL, stalling angle and nose attitude.
Explain the principle of operation of spoilers and give examples of their typical use.

Stability
The candidate is expected to:

Explain static stability and dynamic stability.

Explain positive, neutral and negative stability.

Differentiate between stability and controllability.

Define longitudinal stability and explain:

(a) the action of the tailplane in maintaining longitudinal stability;
(b) wing pitching moments; and
(c) the effect of CG position.

Define directional stability and explain the factors affecting it.

Define lateral stability and explain the factors affecting it (dihedral, shielding, wing position, keel
surface/fin area, sweepback).

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-17

Explain the requirement to match lateral and directional stability.

Explain the conditions of spiral instability, Dutch roll, and snaking.

With respect to stability and control on the ground, explain:
(a) the importance of CG position;
(b) the differences between nosewheel and tailwheel configurations; and
(c) handling of controls in strong crosswinds;

Flight Controls
The candidate is expected to:

State the three aircraft axes, movement about those axes, and primary flight controls.

Explain how control in pitch, roll, and yaw is achieved, and describe:
(a) the secondary effect of aileron;
(b) adverse yaw and methods used to counteract it; and,
(c) the secondary effect of rudder.

Describe the effects of airspeed and slipstream on control effectiveness.

Explain the principle of operation of trim tabs, and describe the correct method of using trim
controls.

State the reason for proper aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces; describe the main methods
for achieving control balance; and differentiate between a balance tab and an anti-balance tab.

Describe the need for mass balancing; distinguish between flexural and torsional flutter; and
describe the methods of providing mass balance.

Stall Warning and Recovery Systems

The candidate is expected to:

Define the stalled condition of an aerofoil surface.

Define basic stall speed and relate it to the lift formula.

Describe typical symptoms and other indications of the approach to the stall.

Describe the changes in the airflow over the wing, movement of the CP, and aircraft attitude as the
point of stall is reached.

Explain the standard recovery from the stalled condition.

Explain why some aircraft require a stall warning and recovery system.

Describe the principle of operation of stall warning systems.

Describe the principle of operation of stall recovery systems.

State the speed at which stall warning systems are required to be activated.

Appendix A-18 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Propellers
The candidate is expected to:

Define blade face, blade back, blade angle, pitch (or helix) angle, helical twist, angle of attack.

Describe:
(a) the forces acting on a propeller blade;
(b) the rpm/airspeed relationship;
(c) the most effective blade sections

Explain how propeller pitch affects engine efficiency at different speeds.

Describe the effect on engine parameters of propeller pitch changes.

State the purpose of the constant-speed (variable pitch) propeller.

Describe in broad terms the operation of the constant speed unit (CSU) with changes in power
setting and airspeed.

Describe the correct procedure for handling the manifold pressure and propeller controls.

Describe the forces acting in the:

(a) windmilling;
(b) feathered; and
(c) reverse thrust propeller modes.

Explain propeller centrifugal and aerodynamic twisting moments.

Describe asymmetric blade effect.

Explain the terms power absorption and propeller solidity.

Principles of Flight - Helicopter

Basic Aerodynamic Theory

The candidate is expected to:

Describe
(a) freestream static pressure;
(b) dynamic pressure (including the term V2); and,
(c) total (or pitot) pressure.

Explain the principle of airspeed indication, and indicate the relationship between indicated,
calibrated, equivalent and true airspeeds (IAS, CAS, EAS and TAS).

With respect to aerofoils, explain the meaning of:

(a) section
(b) leading edge;
(c) trailing edge;
(d) chord
(e) chord line;
(f) thickness;

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-19

(g) thickness/chord ratio; and
(h) camber.

Distinguish between symmetrical and non-symmetrical aerofoil section.

With the aid of a diagram, identify and explain the meaning of:
(a) relative air flow; and,
(b) angle of attack

State Bernoullis Theorem in simple terms.

Describe streamline flow, turbulent flow, and the application of Bernoullis Theorem to the
streamline flow around an aerofoil.

Describe a venturi and explain venturi effect.

Explain the changes to the airflow and pressure distribution around a typical symmetrical aerofoil
as the angle of attack is increased from the zero-lift angle of attack to the stalling angle.

Explain the terms upwash and downwash in an airflow.

Explain the term centre of pressure (CP) and describe typical movement of the CP with increasing
angle of attack with a symmetrical aerofoil section and with a non-symmetrical aerofoil section.

Define aerodynamic centre.

Describe the total aerodynamic reaction force (TR) of an aerofoil.

Describe how TR varies with angle of attack.

Define the TR components of lift and drag.

Define the TR components of rotor thrust and rotor drag.

Lift
The candidate is expected to:

Explain the factors that affect lift in subsonic and transonic flow.

State the lift formula.

Explain the meaning of coefficient of lift (CL).

Describe the variation of CL with angle of attack for a symmetrical and non symmetrical aerofoil
section.

Given a CL graph of symmetrical and non symmetrical aerofoil against angle of attack, show:
(a) the zero lift angle; and,
(b) the angle for maximum CL (CL max).

Explain the benefits of a high CL max.

Explain the effects of exceeding the critical (stalling) angle of attack.

Appendix A-20 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Explain the effects of camber and surface roughness on CL.

Define aspect ratio.

Explain the effects of aspect ratio on CL.

Explain the main advantages of using the symmetrical blade section in light helicopters.

Explain the effects on the lift produced, as the rotor tip approaches transonic speeds.

Drag
The candidate is expected to:

State the drag formula.

Explain the meaning of coefficient of drag (CD).

Describe the types of drag which make-up total drag.

Explain parasite drag and describe its variation with airspeed.

Explain form drag and the main factors that affect it.

Describe the effect of streamlining on form drag.

Explain skin friction drag and the main factors that affect it.

Define boundary layer.

Describe laminar and turbulent boundary layer flow.

Define, and explain the location of the:

(a) transition point; and,
(b) separation point.

Explain tip vortices.

Explain induced drag and the main factors that affect it.

Describe the method of reducing induced drag.

Explain the combination of the three types of drag into the total drag curve.

Explain the effects on drag as the rotor tip approaches transonic speeds.

Given a graph of total drag against airspeed, identify the speed for minimum drag.

Lift/Drag Ratio
The candidate is expected to:

Define lift/drag (L/D) ratio.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-21

Explain the relationship between the lift/drag ratio and the CL / CD ratio.

Explain why flight at best lift/drag ratio speed is most efficient.

Given a graph of lift/drag ratio against angle of attack of a symmetrical aerofoil section, show
(a) the most efficient angle of attack;
(b) the zero lift angle of attack;
(c) the stalling angle of attack; and,
(d) the minimum drag angle of attack.

Explain the factors affecting the lift/drag ratio.

Helicopter Rotor Discs Terminology

The candidate is expected to:

With the aid of a diagram, identify and explain the meaning of:
(a) tip path;
(b) tip path plane;
(c) axis of rotation;
(d) plane of rotation;
(e) shaft axis;
(f) disc area;
(g) blade (pitch) angle;
(h) coning angle;
(i) feathering axis;
(j) feathering;
(k) disc loading;
(l) blade loading;
(m) solidity;
(n) flapping;
(o) lead-lag (dragging);
(p) rotational airflow (Vr);
(q) induced flow;
(r) inflow angle;
(s) rotor thrust;
(t) total rotor thrust; and,
(u) rotor drag (torque).

Forces Acting on a Helicopter Rotor

The candidate is expected to:

With the aid of a diagram, identify and explain the forces acting on a rotor blade.

Explain how total reaction can be resolved into lift/drag and rotor thrust/rotor drag.

Explain the effect of a change of angle of attack and inflow angle on the rotor thrust/rotor drag
ratio.

With the aid of a diagram, identify and explain the force opposing weight.

State and explain the four factors influencing rotor thrust.

Appendix A-22 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Explain the relationship between rotor thrust, centrifugal force and coning angle.

State and explain the three factors affecting rotor RPM limits.

Explain how changes in the following factors affect rotor drag:

(a) disc loading;
(b) gross weight;
(c) altitude; and,
(d) configuration.

Explain ground effect.

Explain how ground effect affects inflow angle; angle of attack; rotor drag and the power required
to overcome rotor drag.

Explain the effect of airflow over the disc on induced flow.

Explain translational lift.

Explain how translational lift affects inflow angle; angle of attack; rotor thrust and the power
required to overcome rotor drag in level flight.

Explain the principle of operation of delta-3 hinges and offset pitch horns in reducing blade
flapping.

Anti-torque Tail Rotor

The candidate is expected to:

Explain, with the aid of a diagram, the function of the anti-torque tail rotor.

Explain the effect of anti-torque on:

(a) power required; and,
(b) rotor rpm.

Explain the effect of the wind on tail rotor thrust.

Explain the meaning of:

(a) translating tendency (tail rotor drift); and,
(b) rolling tendency (tail rotor roll).

Explain design techniques that can compensate for translating and rolling tendencies.

Explain the influence of ground effect on the amount of tail rotor thrust required.

Explain the effect of a tail rotor failure in flight.

Describe pilot actions that may eliminate or reduce the effects of tail rotor failure in flight.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-23

Disc Control
The candidate is expected to:

With the aid of a diagram, identify and explain the functions of:
(a) collective pitch/control;
(b) cyclic pitch/control;
(c) swashplate (control orbit);
(d) stationary star (non-rotating plate);
(e) rotating star (rotating plate);
(f) pitch link; and,
(g) pitch horn.

Explain the use of a control orbit in applying cyclic and collective pitch.

Explain the effect of collective and cyclic control movement on swashplate movement, total rotor
thrust and disc orientation.

Explain the effect of control input on blade lead/lag behaviour in fully articulated rotor systems.

Explain the following causes of movement about the lead/lag hinge:

(a) conservation of angular momentum (coriolis effect);
(b) Hookes joint effect;
(c) periodic drag changes; and,
(d) random changes.

Explain phase lag and advance angle.

State the two main categories of vibration in helicopters.

Explain the causes and characteristics of vertical vibrations and lateral vibrations.

Describe the causes and characteristics of high frequency vibrations and engine vibrations.

Describe recommended pilot actions when confronted with vibrations.

Hovering
The candidate is expected to:

Define hover.

Describe the control inputs required during hovering flight.

Explain the meaning of in ground effect (IGE).

Explain the meaning of out of ground effect (OGE).

Explain the relationship between inflow angle and collective pitch.

Explain the following factors affecting ground effect:

(a) skid height agl;
(b) density altitude;
(c) aircraft weight;

Appendix A-24 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

(d) nature of the surface;
(e) slope of the surface; and,
(f) the wind.

Describe overpitching.

Describe:
(a) the conditions likely to lead to over-pitching;
(b) the symptoms of over-pitching; and,
(c) the recovery technique for over-pitching.

Describe recirculation.

Describe:
(a) the conditions likely to lead to recirculation;
(b) the symptoms of recirculation; and,
(c) the recovery technique for recirculation.

Forward Flight
The candidate is expected to:

Explain the arrangement of forces on the rotor and fuselage when:

(a) transitioning into forward flight; and
(b) in equilibrium in forward flight.

Describe the changes to blade angle and tip path as the disc is tilted with cyclic.

Explain:
(a) flapping to equality;
(b) dissymmetry of lift;
(c) means of overcoming dissymmetry of lift;
(d) flap-back (blow-back);
(e) flap-forward; and,
(f) reverse flow.

State the flight profile in which translational lift is experienced.

State the typical speed range through which translational lift is noticeable.

Explain the meaning of inflow roll (transverse flow effect).

State the speed range in which inflow roll is most pronounced.

Describe how inflow roll is compensated for by the pilot.

With the aid of the power available/power required curves:

(a) identify the TAS for minimum and maximum straight and level flight; and
(b) describe the factors that affect this TAS.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-25

Climbing and Descending
The candidate is expected to:

Describe the forces acting on a rotor blade established in a vertical climb.

Define:
(a) rate of climb; and,
(b) angle of climb.

On the power available/power required curves, identify TAS for:

(a) maximum rate of climb; and,
(b) best angle of climb.

With the aid of power available/power required curves, explain the effects on rate of climb, angle
of climb, and required TAS as applicable, of:
(a) collective setting changes;
(b) altitude;
(c) aircraft weight;
(d) density altitude;
(e) angle of bank;
(f) external loads; and,
(g) the wind.

Describe the forces on the rotor disc in a vertical descent.

Define rate of descent and angle of descent.

With the aid of power available/power required curves, explain the effects on rate of descent, angle
of descent, and required TAS as applicable, of:
(a) collective setting changes;
(b) altitude;
(c) aircraft weight;
(d) density altitude;
(e) angle of bank;
(f) external loads; and,
(g) the wind.

Define power check.

Describe:
(a) situations where a power check is necessary; and,
(b) the sequence of a power check.

Turning
The candidate is expected to:

Describe the forces acting on a helicopter in a level turn.

State the effect of angle of bank on rate of turn and power required.
Explain the factors involved in forward flight during a:
(a) steep turn: and,
(b) minimum radius/maximum rate turn.

Appendix A-26 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Explain the effect of the following factors on the rate and radius of turn:
(a) altitude;
(b) gross weight;
(c) external loads; and,
(d) the wind.

State the effect of angle of bank on altitude, at a constant power and IAS.

Explain the effect of wind on indicated airspeed and translational lift during a turn.

Explain the effect of slipping and skidding on the rate and radius of turn.

Transitioning to the Hover

The candidate is expected to:

Explain the meaning and purpose of the flare.

Explain the effects of the flare on:

(a) rotor rpm;
(b) total rotor thrust; and,
(c) rotor drag.

Describe the causes of rotor rpm changes during the flare.

Describe a zero-speed landing.

Describe the power requirements during a zero-speed landing.

Autorotation
The candidate is expected to:

Define autorotation.

Describe the factors involved when transitioning into an autorotation from:

(a) the hover at altitude; and,
(b) forward flight.

Identify, on a diagram, the stalled, driven and driving regions (sections) of a rotor disc in
autorotation.

Describe the forces acting on the stalled, driven and driving regions of a rotor in autorotation.

Describe the combined effect of all regions of a rotor in autorotation.

Explain the effect of airspeed on the angle of attack of a rotor blade during autorotation.

Describe the effect of forward flight on the distribution of autorotative forces.

Explain the effect of increased collective pitch on autorotation.

Explain the effect of rotor RPM and airspeed on autorotational rate of descent.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-27

Explain the effect of increased altitude and increased weight on rotor RPM in autorotation.

Identify on a graph, range and endurance speeds for autorotation.

Explain the effect of the following factors on the range and endurance in autorotation:
(a) altitude;
(b) gross weight;
(c) parasite drag;
(d) external loads; and,
(e) the wind.

Explain the transition from autorotation to landing.

Describe the purpose of the Height/Velocity diagram (the avoid curve).

Explain the hazards involved in operations within the avoid curve.

Identify, on a graph of the avoid curve, boundaries of safe operation.

Retreating Blade Stall

The candidate is expected to:

Define retreating blade stall.

Explain the aerodynamic factors likely to lead to retreating blade stall.

Describe and explain the symptoms of retreating blade stall.

Explain the relationship between retreating blade stall and Vne.

Describe the recovery technique for retreating blade stall.

Explain the hazards of inappropriate control input during recovery.

Vortex Ring State (Settling with Power)

The candidate is expected to:

Define vortex ring state.

Describe the conditions that can lead to vortex ring state.

With respect to vortex ring state, describe:

(a) the development;
(b) the symptoms; and,
(c) the methods of recovery.

State the effect of power, weight and density altitude on vortex ring state.

Explain tail rotor vortex ring state.

List the conditions that can lead to tail rotor vortex ring state.

Appendix A-28 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

State the indications that differentiate between vortex ring state and a rotor stall.

Ground Resonance
The candidate is expected to:

Describe ground resonance.

Describe the conditions likely to cause ground resonance.

Describe the symptoms of ground resonance.

Describe the recovery technique for ground resonance.

Blade Sailing
The candidate is expected to:

Describe blade sailing.

Describe the conditions likely to lead to blade sailing.

Describe the recovery technique for blade sailing.

Dynamic Rollover
The candidate is expected to:

Describe dynamic rollover.

Describe the conditions likely to lead to dynamic rollover.

Explain the factors influencing the critical angle at which dynamic rollover will occur.

Describe the recovery technique for dynamic rollover.

Cyclic Limitations
The candidate is expected to explain the factors that limit the available cyclic in the air and on the
ground.

Mast Bumping
The candidate is expected to:

Describe mast bumping.

Describe the conditions likely to lead to mast bumping.

Describe the forces involved during mast bumping.

Describe the means of avoiding mast bumping.

Describe the recovery technique for mast bumping.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-29

Exceeding Rotor RPM Limits
The candidate is expected to:

Explain the reasons for high RPM limits.

Explain the reasons for low RPM limits

Rotor Stalls
The candidate is expected to:

Describe rotor stalling.

Describe the conditions likely to lead to a rotor stall.

Describe the symptoms of a rotor stall.

Describe the recovery technique for a rotor stall.

State the indications that differentiate between a rotor stall and vortex ring state.

Airframe Systems - Aeroplane

Airframes
The candidate is expected to:

Explain five different types of loading to which an airframe must be designed to accept.

Explain the effects of the application of a load to an airframe structure (stress and strain) and
differentiate between bending, tensile, compression, torsional and shear loads.

Briefly describe the three styles of fuselage construction (truss; monocoque; and stressed skin
(or semi-monocoque).

Briefly describe the three common types of wing construction (biplane; braced monoplane;
unbraced monoplane (or cantilever).

Describe the function of the following wing components; spars, ribs; skin and stringers.

Briefly describe the construction of tailplane and fin, and control surfaces.

Briefly describe the layout of the primary control runs.

State the requirements which the undercarriage system must be able to meet.

Describe the features of simple light aircraft undercarriage construction and, given a diagram,
explain the operation of an oleo-pneumatic shock strut.

Describe the pilot checks of oleo-pneumatic undercarriage legs.

Briefly describe the essential features of a retractable undercarriage system.

Briefly describe the construction of aircraft wheel assemblies and tyres.

Appendix A-30 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

State the requirements for tyre care and checks.

State the procedure for tie down (or picketing) a light aircraft.

Support Systems
The candidate is expected to:

Hydrodynamics:
(a) state Pascals principle and,
(b) with the aid of diagrams:
(i) describe mechanical advantage;
(ii) show how it can be gained hydraulically; and
(iii) demonstrate the principle of operation of aircraft hydraulic services.

Hydraulic systems:
(a) state the advantages of using hydraulics to operate aircraft services;
(b) differentiate between the three types of hydraulic oil; and,
(c) describe the function of common hydraulic system components; including:
(i) reservoirs;
(ii) pumps;
(iii) pressure regulators;
(iv) accumulators;
(v) check valves and relief valves;
(vi) elector valves;
(vii) actuators; and
(viii) filters.

With the aid of schematic diagrams, describe the operation of the following hydraulic systems:
(a) open centre system; and,
(b) pressurised system.

Pneumatic systems:
(a) briefly state the advantages and disadvantages of pneumatic systems versus hydraulic
systems.
(b) outline the operation of the following pneumatic systems:
(i) back-up systems;
(ii) low pressure systems and, with the aid of a schematic diagram,
(iii) a typical high pressure system.

Brake systems:
(a) state the basic principle of operation of wheel brake units;
(b) explain the operation of expander-tube and brake-shoe wheel units;
(c) explain the operation of disc brake units;
(d) outline the operation of:
(i) an independent brake system;
(ii) a boosted brake system;
(iii) a power brake system; and,
(e) explain the operation of anti-skid units.

Ice protection systems:

(a) distinguish between anti-icing systems and de-icing systems;

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-31

(b) explain the operation and the proper handling of, mechanical, fluid and thermal ice
protection systems; and
(c) describe ice detection, windscreen heating and rain clearance systems.

Fire protection systems:

(a) describe the principles, features and parameters of typical fire protection systems;
(b) outline the operation of unit-type and continuous loop fire detectors;
(c) list the common extinguishing agents and state any precautions when using; and,
(d) describe common fire extinguishing systems and the limitations with their use.

Air conditioning systems:

(a) explain the need for air conditioning in the cabin of an aircraft;
(b) explain the operation of vapour cycle cooling systems;
(c) state the advantage of vapour cycle cooling systems over air cycle systems; and,
(d) explain the operation of air cycle cooling systems.

Pressurisation systems:
(a) explain the need for pressurisation in the cabin of an aircraft;
(b) explain pressure differential and the limits on aircraft structures;
(c) explain pressurisation system operation;
(d) explain pressurisation system control; and,
(e) describe pressurisation system problems, including:
(i) depressurisation;
(ii) negative pressure.

Airframes Systems - Helicopter

Helicopter Airframes
The candidate is expected to:

Explain the effects of the application of a load to an airframe structure (stress and strain) and
differentiate between bending, tensile, compression, torsional and shear loads.

State the requirements which the undercarriage/landing skid system must be able to meet.

Describe the features of simple light helicopter undercarriage/landing skid construction.

State the procedure for tie down (or picketing) a light helicopter.

Transmission Systems
The candidate is expected to:

State the purpose of a freewheeling unit.

State the purpose of a swashplate assembly.

State the purpose of a centrifugal clutch in a helicopter transmission system.

State the purpose of a rotor brake.

Explain the purpose of the main rotor gear box.

Appendix A-32 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

State the purpose and describe the principle of operation of the swashplate (control orbit).

State the most common method of cooling main transmissions.

Explain the procedures and reasons for the laboratory analysis of transmission oil samples.

State the reason for employing chip detectors in the transmission.

Describe the causes and symptoms of high frequency vibrations.

Main Rotor Systems

The candidate is expected to:

Describe the construction of modern helicopter rotor blades.

Describe the design features of:

(a) rigid rotor systems;
(b) semi-rigid rotor systems; and,
(c) fully articulated rotor systems.

Explain the causes of dragging in a fully articulated rotor system.

Explain the function of the blade damper in fully articulated rotor systems.

Explain the reason a semi-rigid (two-bladed) rotor system is frequently underslung.

Explain the design feature (advance angle) which compensates for phase lag.

Explain the reason for rigging the rotor mast away from the vertical.

Describe the methods of chordwise and spanwise balancing.

Explain the reason for sweepback design near main rotor blade tips.

Explain the reason for washout in the design of main rotor blades.

Explain the advantages of employing a delta-three hinge in a fully articulated rotor system.

Explain the purpose of employing an offset pitch horn in a rotor system.

Explain the normal methods of trimming controls in a helicopter.

Describe the various methods of rotor stabilisation.

Describe the susceptibility of the various rotor systems to ground resonance.

Describe the susceptibility of the various rotor systems to mast bumping.

Describe the various types of vibration which may occur in a helicopter and explain their causes
and possible remedies.

Describe the design feature employed to reduce vibration in semi-rigid rotor systems.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-33

Tail Rotor Systems
The candidate is expected to:

Describe the construction of modern tail rotors and their hubs.

State the purpose of a strike tab on the tail rotor blades.

Describe the advantages and disadvantages associated with conventional exposed tail rotors.

Explain the advantages and disadvantages associated with shrouded (Fenestron) tail rotors.
4.5 Explain the reason asymmetric aerofoils tend to be employed on tail rotors and not on main
rotors.

Describe alternative methods of anti-torque control.

Describe the effect of a jammed or failed tail rotor.

Describe the design features which can be employed to reduce tail rotor roll.

Hydraulic Systems
The candidate is expected to:

State Pascals principle.

With the aid of diagrams, describe mechanical advantage, and show how it can be gained
hydraulically.

Demonstrate the principle of operation of aircraft hydraulic services.

State the advantages of using hydraulics to operate aircraft services.

Differentiate between the three types of hydraulic oil.

Describe the function of common hydraulic system components; including:

(a) reservoirs;
(b) pumps;
(c) pressure regulators;
(d) accumulators;
(e) check valves and relief valves;
(f) selector valves;
(g) actuators; and,
(h) filters.

With the aid of schematic diagrams, describe the operation of the following hydraulic systems:
(a) open centre system; and,
(b) pressurised system.

Pneumatic Systems
The candidate is expected to:

Briefly state the advantages and disadvantages of pneumatic systems versus hydraulic systems.

Appendix A-34 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Outline the operation of the following pneumatic systems:
(a) back-up systems;
(b) low pressure systems; and
(c) high pressure systems.

Fire Protection Systems

The candidate is expected to:

Outline the operation of unit-type and continuous loop fire detectors.

List the common extinguishing agents and state any precautions when using them.

Describe common fire extinguishing systems and the limitations with their use.

Engines

Engines General
The candidate is expected to:

State the basic difference between reciprocating (piston) and gas turbine (jet) engines.

Distinguish between the basic types of piston aircraft engine.

State the fundamental operating principle of the reciprocating (piston) engine.

With the aid of diagrams, identify the main components of a four-stroke cycle piston engine
including: cylinders; pistons; cylinder heads; valves; spark plugs; connecting rods; crankshaft;
camshaft and valve operating mechanism.

With respect to a four-stroke piston engine, state the meaning of the following terms:
cycle; stroke; top dead centre (TDC) and bottom dead centre (BDC); bore; clearance and swept
volumes; compression ratio; firing interval; firing order; manifolds; manifold pressure; crank
angle.

Explain the operation of the four-stroke cycle.

Explain valve lag, valve lead, and the advantages of valve overlap.

Explain the term ignition timing and the need for spark advance.

Distinguish between detonation and pre-ignition, state the main causes of these conditions, and the
reasons for avoiding them.

Engine Performance
The candidate is expected to:

Define the terms: force; work; power; energy; and engine torque.

Relate horsepower to kilowatts.

Define brake power.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-35

Define rated power and explain rated altitude or critical altitude.

Explain the following in broad terms: thermal efficiency; mechanical efficiency; and volumetric
efficiency.

With the aid of a diagram, explain the relationship between typical brake power and power
available curves.

Explain the general conditions for the most efficient engine operation.

Carburation and Fuel Injection

The candidate is expected to:

Explain the following in relation to fuel-air mixture ratios: rich and lean; normal workable
mixture ratio limits; the chemically correct or stoichiometric ratio; the approximate ratios for
maximum power output and best economy.

With the aid of a diagram, describe a typical carburettor mixture setting curve and show the
operating area where detonation will occur.

With the aid of a diagram, explain the basic principle of operation of a simple float-type
carburettor.

Explain the need for the following in an aero-engine carburettor.

(a) atomisation and diffusion;
(b) accelerating system;
(c) idling system;
(d) power enrichment (economiser) system; and
(e) mixture control and cut-off system.

State the two main disadvantages with use of a float-type carburettor in an aero-engine.

State the principal difference between a fuel injection system and carburetted systems.

Explain the principal differences between continuous flow fuel injection, and direct fuel injection
systems.

List the advantages and disadvantages of using fuel injection systems in aero-engines.

State the correct use of the mixture control.

Explain the consequences of operating with over-rich and over-lean mixture settings.

With respect to carburettor ice, explain the process and the atmospheric conditions for the
formation of:
(a) refrigeration (or fuel) ice;
(b) throttle ice; and
(c) impact ice.

Explain the normal symptoms of carburettor ice formation, and the correct use of the carburettor
heat control.

Appendix A-36 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Induction and Exhaust Systems
The candidate is expected to:

With respect to carburettor air intakes, explain the correct use of ram air, filter, carburettor heat.

List the reasons for a reduction in power when carburettor heat is operated.

In general terms, describe the function of the inlet and exhaust manifold.

Explain the importance of proper sealing of the exhaust manifold.

Supercharging
The candidate is expected to:

Explain the advantages, and the limitations of, supercharging.

Explain the basic principle of operation of exhaust-driven superchargers (turbochargers).

Fuel Systems
The candidate is expected to:

Distinguish between gravity-feed and pump-feed fuel systems.

For a simple fuel system, explain the function, and where appropriate, the correct handling of the
following:
(a) tank filler caps and drains;
(b) expansion spaces;
(c) tank vents;
(d) baffles;
(e) sumps and drains;
(f) fuel quantity detectors;
(g) fuel strainers and filters;
(h) tank selector valves;
(i) engine-driven fuel pump;
(j) boost (auxiliary) pump(s); and
(k) engine primers and priming systems.

Describe the importance of correct management of fuel selection.

List the actions recommended in the case of loss of power through faulty fuel selection.

Explain fuel octane ratings and performance numbers.

Explain the likely result of using a higher grade, or a lower grade, of fuel than that recommended
for a given aircraft.

State the precautions which can be taken to avoid fuel contamination with water and other
impurities.

State the special precautions which must be taken when fuelling from drum stock, and the
avoidance of the use of non-approved plastic containers.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-37

Describe the correct procedures to be used for carrying out a fuel check.

Describe the general rules for refuelling an aircraft, and the correct use of fuel tank dipsticks.

Ignition Systems
The candidate is expected to:

State the reasons for fitting independent dual ignition systems to aero-engines.

List the essential components of an ignition system.

Describe, in broad terms, the operation of the following;

(a) an aircraft magneto;
(b) the distributor;
(c) ignition harness (high tension leads);
(d) spark plugs; and
(e) impulse couplings.

Describe the operation of the ignition switch(es) in the cockpit, and outline the correct procedures
to be followed during magneto checks.

Describe the functioning of the starter motor, and outline the correct operation of the starter
switch.

Describe the procedures and the precautions to be taken when hand-swinging a propeller to start an
engine.

Lubrication and Cooling Systems

The candidate is expected to:

Explain the main functions of the engine oil system.

Describe the effect of temperature on the viscosity and lubrication qualities of oil.

Compare the features of the ashless dispersant (AD) oils used in piston aero-engines with straight
mineral oil and detergent oils.

With respect to oil grades, differentiate between the commercial aviation numbers and SAE
ratings.

Differentiate between a wet sump and a dry sump oil system.

With the aid of a diagram, briefly describe the function of:

(a) the engine-driven oil pump and pressure relief valve;
(b) oil lines, passages and galleries;
(c) oil sumps and scavenge pumps;
(d) oil cooler; and
(e) oil tank and filter.

Explain the need for periodic oil changes.

Describe the correct oil replenishment procedure.

Appendix A-38 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Describe the likely results of operating an engine with:
(a) incorrect oil type; and
(b) incorrect oil quantity.

Describe the likely causes of:

(a) low oil pressure;
(b) high oil pressure; and
(c) high oil temperature.

Explain the relationship between a fluctuating or low oil pressure reading accompanied by a rise in
oil temperature, and the actions which the pilot should take.

State the reasons why excessively high engine temperatures must be avoided.

List the ways in which heat from the combustion process is dispersed from a typical aero-engine.

For an air-cooled engine, explain the function of:

(a) cowling ducts and baffles;
(b) cooling fins; and
(c) pilot-operated cowl flaps.

Explain the general handling requirements for maintaining engine temperatures in the proper
range, for aircraft:
(a) without CHT gauge or cowl flaps; and
(b) fitted with CHT gauge and cowl flaps.

Propellers
The candidate is expected to:

With the aid of a diagram, identify the following with respect to a propeller blade section:
(a) relative airflow and angle of attack;
(b) the rpm and TAS vectors; and
(c) the total reaction (TR) and its components, thrust and propeller torque.

State the two main disadvantages of the fixed-pitch propeller that the constant-speed (variable-
pitch) propeller was designed to overcome.

For a constant speed propeller, differentiate between the functions of the propeller (pitch) control
and the throttle (MAP) control, when the propeller is:
(a) in the constant-speed range; and
(b) below the constant-speed rpm range.

Explain how the constant-speed unit acts to change the pitch of the blades and maintain rpm:
(a) with changes to MAP; and
(b) with changes in airspeed.

Explain the basis for centrifugal and aerodynamic twisting moments on a propeller blade, and
identify the direction in which they tend to twist the blade.

With the aid of diagrams, explain the method of operation of typical pitch-changing mechanisms.

With the aid of a diagram, explain the operation of a typical CSU governor.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-39

With the aid of diagrams, show the forces acting on a feathered blade section, and with the
propeller in the reverse thrust mode.

Explain the caution against applying power as the propeller blades are travelling from the normal
thrust to the reverse thrust angle.

Describe the normal handling of the propeller pitch and/or manifold pressure controls:
(a) when the aircraft is on the ground;
(b) for exercising the CSU;
(c) prior to take-off and landing; and
(d) when increasing or decreasing power in the air.

Describe the types of failure which can affect the CSU, including the conditions which can lead to
a runaway propeller and the required remedial action.

Gas Turbine Engine Theory

The candidate is expected to:

Describe Newtons third law of motion and its practical application as it relates to the operation of
a gas turbine engine.

Describe how gas undergoes changes in pressure, volume and temperature in accordance with
Boyles and Charles Laws.

Describe each of the following and their application to gas turbine engine operation:
(a) Bernoullis Theorem;
(b) Brayton constant pressure cycle;
(c) the pressure-temperature cycle;
(d) open and closed cycles;
(e) kinetic energy;
(f) potential energy; and,
(g) thermodynamic laws.

Describe the relationship between velocity, pressure and temperature of air at subsonic, transonic
and supersonic speeds.

Describe the changes to pressure, temperature and velocity of the gas flow as it passes through
each section of a gas turbine engine.

Describe the changes in the airflow characteristics of velocity temperature and pressure through a
parallel, divergent and convergent duct.

Turbine Engine Types

The candidate is expected to:

Compare the working cycle of a gas turbine engine and a piston engine.

Describe the comparative advantages of gas turbine engines versus piston engines for aircraft
propulsion.

Appendix A-40 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Describe the basic constructional arrangements of the following engine types:
(a) turbofan;
(b) ducted fan (high bypass ratio);
(c) prop fan;
(d) turbojet;
(e) turboprop; and,
(f) turbo-shaft.

Describe the operating parameters, propulsive efficiency characteristics and uses of each of the
above engines.

Identify engines that fall into either the thrust-producing or torque-producing category.

Specify the approximate ratio of jet thrust to propeller thrust that may be obtained from a modern
turboprop engine.

Describe the following mechanical arrangements of gas turbine engines:

(a) double-entry single-stage centrifugal turbojet;
(b) single-entry two stage centrifugal turboprop;
(c) twin-spool axial flow turboprop;
(d) single axial flow compressor, free turbine drive turboprop;
(e) single-spool axial flow turbojet;
(f) twin-spool by-pass turbojet (low by-pass ratio);
(g) aft fan turbojet; and,
(h) triple-spool front fan turbojet (high by-pass ratio).

Turbine Engine Inlet Systems

The candidate is expected to:

Describe the purpose, construction and principles of operation of the engine inlet duct.

Describe a sub-sonic divergent inlet duct.

Describe a supersonic convergent-divergent inlet duct.

Describe the purpose, construction and performance aspect of a Bellmouth Compressor inlet.

Describe the types of inlet normally used on the various modern gas turbine engines.

Turbine Engine Compressors

The candidate is expected to:

Describe the purpose of a compressor in a gas turbine engine.

Describe the basic principles of operation of centrifugal and axial flow compressors.

Describe the comparative advantages of centrifugal and axial flow compressors.

Describe the merits of combined centrifugal and axial flow compressor combinations in small gas
turbine engines.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-41

State typical compressor pressure ratios for the various types and configuration of gas turbine
engines.

Describe the relationship between compressor ratio and specific fuel consumption.

Describe the compressor arrangements found on the various types of modern gas turbine engine.

Describe the purpose and function of:

(a) diffusers;
(b) impellers;
(c) inlet guide vanes;
(d) rotor blades;
(e) stator blades;
(f) variable inlet guide vanes;
(g) variable stator blades;
(h) rotating stator blades; and,
(i) bleed valves.

Describe the pressure and velocity changes through a centrifugal compressor.

State the reasons and advantages for multiple spool compressors.

Describe speed relationships between compressor sections and how these speeds may vary with
changing atmospheric conditions.

For various types of compressor arrangements identify; Nc, N1, N2, and N3 and state whether
each is HP or LP.

State the reasons why axial flow compressors have a higher number of stages and a typical
pressure rise between stages.

Describe the relationship between pressure, temperature and velocity in an axial flow compressor.

State the reason for the decrease in size and increase in the number of compressor blades towards
the rear of an axial flow compressor.

State the reason for the small pressure change per stage in an axial flow compressor.

Describe the purpose of compressor taper.

Describe cycle pressure ratio.

Describe the construction, operation and pressure ratios associated with low, medium and high
bypass fans.

Describe typical compression ratios achieved in modern axial flow compressors and the factors
that affect compression ratio.

State the conditions that are commonly known to produce compressor stall with particular regard
to:
(a) compressor maintenance;
(b) blade damage;
(c) intake damage/restriction;

Appendix A-42 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

(d) engine handling/operation; and,
(e) fuel scheduling.

Describe how the various stall control systems reduce the possibility of compressor stall.

Describe the purpose, construction, location, operation, rigging and maintenance of the following
stall control devices and what engines they may typically be found on:
(a) variable angle compressor vane systems;
(b) variable angle inlet guide vane system;
(c) bleed valves; and,
(d) bleed band.

Describe the effects of a dirty, worn or damaged compressor on SFC and power output.

Turbine Engine Combustion Section

The candidate is expected to:

Describe the operation of the combustion chamber.

Describe the constructional features, materials and principles of operation of the following types of
combustion chamber:
(a) annular;
(b) turbo-annular;
(c) multiple Can;
(d) can-annular type; and,
(e) reverse-flow annular.

State the comparative advantages of each type of combustion chamber.

Describe the purpose, construction and operation of swirl chambers, air shrouds liners,
interconnectors and discharge orifices.

Describe the uses of primary, secondary and tertiary air flow through or around a combustion
chamber.

State the percentages of airflow used for cooling and combustion.

Describe how flameout is caused and prevented.

Describe lean and rich mixture flameout.

Describe types and causes of combustor generated emissions and pollutants.

Turbine Engine Turbine Section

The candidate is expected to:

State the function of the gas turbine section.

Describe meaning, the principles of operation and characteristics of the following gas turbine blade
design:
(a) impulse;

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-43

(b) impulse-reaction; and,
(c) reaction.

Describe multi-stage gas turbines.

Explain the purpose and function of nozzle guide vanes and how the driving force for impulse and
impulse reaction turbines is obtained from the gas flow.

Describe the most common type of turbine blade design and give reasons why this type of blade is
preferred.

Describe how a turbine blade extracts energy from the gas stream and drives the wheel.

Identify factors that limit the power available from the turbine stage.

Explain the gas flow pattern through nozzle and blade assembly with particular emphasis on static
pressure, temperature and velocity.

State the reasons for compressor-turbine matching and how it is achieved.

State why turbine assemblies increase in diameter towards the rear of the engine.

Describe the function of the following turbine assembly components:

(a) case;
(b) nozzle;
(c) shroud ring;
(d) tip shrouds;
(e) wheel;
(f) air seal;
(g) diaphragms; and,
(h) cones.

Describe how turbine blades, discs and nozzles are cooled using bleed air and modern cooling
techniques such as film cooling.

Describe turbine case cooling.

Describe:
(a) compressor/turbine coupling shaft arrangements;
(b) knife edge seals; and,
(c) turbine blade twist and stagger/incidence angle.

Describe the various methods of turbine blade to disc attachment including:

(a) fir tree root (two types);
(b) De Laval bulb root; and,
(c) BMW Hollow blade.

Describe N1, N2 and N3 turbine arrangements.

Define turbine blade creep and state the causal factors for this condition.

Appendix A-44 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Turbine Engine Exhaust Section
The candidate is expected to:

Describe the exhaust gas flow through convergent and divergent passages.
State the purpose and principles of operation of the following exhaust nozzle types:
(a) convergent;
(b) convergent-divergent;
(c) variable area; and,
(d) divergent (rotorcraft operation).

Describe the noise levels of different types of exhaust system and their means of noise
suppression.

Describe the types of engine configuration that produce the highest and lowest EGTs.

Thrust Reversers
The candidate is expected to:

Describe thrust reversal.

Describe:
(a) the various types of thrust reverser;
(b) thrust reverser components;
(c) variations; and,
(d) means of application.

Turbine Engine Fuel Systems

The candidate is expected to:

Describe the relationship, location and function of the following gas turbine engine fuel system
components:
(a) engine sensing variables;
(b) fuel control unit (hydro pneumatic, hydro mechanical and electro-hydro mechanical);
(c) fuel filters (HP and LP);
(d) fuel heater;
(e) governors and limiting devices;
(f) main fuel pumps (HP and LP); and,
(g) valves (throttle/pressurising/dump/shutoff).

State the basic requirements, arrangements and principles of operation of gas turbine engine fuel
control/metering systems, including:
(a) acceleration scheduling and control;
(b) air density/altitude/OAT/airspeed compensation;
(c) overspeed governing;
(d) power limiting;
(e) shutdown control;
(f) starting control; and,
(g) temperature limiting.

Describe and state the comparative advantages of simplex and duplex type fuel nozzles.
State the ideal fuel/air ratio for a gas turbine engine.
State the effect of a change in specific gravity with respect to weight of fuel.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-45

State the purpose of water-methanol injection.

State the purpose of adding methanol to water in water-methanol injection.

Describe the following properties in relation to gas turbine fuels:

(a) calorific value;
(b) corrosion characteristics;
(c) energy per lb or kg;
(d) specific gravity;
(e) vapour pressure;
(f) fire hazard;
(g) flash point; and,
(h) fuel icing.

State the differences between the various types of jet fuel and identify their common usage names.

Describe the purposes of additives in jet fuels and identify which are the most common for modern
engine operations.

State the ground handling requirements and the safety precautions to be observed with the use of
gas turbine engine fuels.

Describe the fuel system markings for jet fuels.

Describe the susceptibility of gas turbine fuels to water contamination over other types of aviation
fuels.

Describe methods of fuel system contamination detection and control.

Turbine Engine Lubrication Systems

The candidate is expected to:

Describe the basic requirements, arrangements and principles of operation of typical gas turbine
engine lubrication systems.

Compare the different properties/characteristics of oils used in turboprop, turbojet and turbofan
engines.

Describe the relationship, location, function and principles of operation of the following gas
turbine engine lubrication system components:
(a) oil cooler;
(b) oil cooler baffles;
(c) oil-fuel and oil-air heat exchangers;
(d) oil filters/screens (pressure and scavenge);
(e) oil jets;
(f) oil pumps (pressure and Scavenge);
(g) gear and rotor type pumps;
(h) total loss and micro-metering systems;
(i) oil system chip detectors and magnetic plugs;
(j) oil tanks;
(k) breather (including centrifugal type) and pressurisation systems;
(l) vent check valves;

Appendix A-46 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

(m) scavenge subsystem;
(n) valves (by-pass/check/relief);
(o) vent subsystem (air/oil separators); and,
(p) oil fed engine anti-ice systems.

State the reason most gas turbine engines use fuel to cool the oil in preference to air.

Turbine Engine Starting, Ignition, Relight and Shutdown

The candidate is expected to:

Describe why gas turbine engines require high-energy ignition systems.

Describe the general precautions and prestart checks prior to ground running a gas turbine engine.

Describe general procedures for starting, ground run-up and shutting down a gas turbine engine.

Describe what is meant by self-sustaining rpm and how this is achieved.

Describe why it is necessary to accelerate an engine up to sustaining rpm as quickly and uniformly
as possible.

Describe the positive cockpit indications of light-up during start.

Describe the causes, indications, effects and remedial actions for the following defects:
(a) hung start;
(b) too rapid TGT rise;
(c) hot start;
(d) wet start;
(e) poor acceleration up to sustainable rpm;
(f) over temp;
(g) compressor stall during start;
(h) compressor surge;
(i) lack of ignition;
(j) tail pipe fire;
(k) flameout;
(l) overspeed;
(m) over torque; and,
(n) bleed band or bleed valve stuck in the open or closed position.

Describe the conditions under which a low energy ignition system should be turned on.

Describe the requirement and procedures for an engine re-light in the air.

Turbine Engine Air Cooling and Sealing

The candidate is expected to:

Describe the requirement for cooling and sealing of engine components.

Describe the uses of low and high pressure air for cooling and sealing.

Describe the types of air and oil seals.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-47

Turbine Engine Indicating and Instrumentation
The candidate is expected to:

Describe the basic requirements, methods of operation, relationship and function of the following
typical engine instrument systems:
(a) flow measuring instruments (pressure/volume, fuel and mass air flow sensing types);
(b) mechanical measuring instruments (engine RPM, torque and vibration);
(c) pressure measuring instruments (oil and fuel);
(d) power measurement (EPR, engine turbine discharge pressure or jet pipe pressure);
(e) horsepower or thrust measurement (torque gauges);
(f) temperature measuring instruments; and,
(g) turboprop ice warning systems.

Describe the following terms and their significance to the operation of gas turbine engines:
(a) TIT;
(b) ITT;
(c) TOT;
(d) EGT;
(e) JPT; and
(f) TET.

Describe the indications received in the cockpit of an engine operating with a dirty, damaged or
contaminated compressor.

Describe how power loss is indicated on a gas turbine engine.

Thrust Augmentation
The candidate is expected to:

Describe the requirements for thrust augmentation.

Describe the methods used and components of thrust augmentation.

Describe how injected fluid actually increases power output of an engine.

Identify the power increase a modern water injection system may achieve.

Describe the effect that fluid injection has on performance and efficiency across the various stages
of the engine.

Turbine Engine Controls

The candidate is expected to:

Describe the basic requirements, arrangements and principles of operation of the following engine
controls:
(a) linkages and controls to and from the propeller co-ordinator/interconnector and fuel
control unit;
(b) mechanical control inputs and outputs for electronic fuel control systems;
(c) thrust lever/throttle/power/condition lever cables and linkages;
(d) units and components interconnected for emergency shutdown;
(e) turboprop overspeed safety devices; and,
(f) integration of engine and propeller controls.

Appendix A-48 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Turbine Engine Performance
The candidate is expected to:

Define the following terms and describe the relationship between them, and their application to
engine operation:
(a) choked nozzle thrust;
(b) equivalent shaft horsepower;
(c) gross thrust;
(d) net thrust;
(e) resultant thrust;
(f) specific fuel consumption (SFC);
(g) thrust specific fuel consumption (TSFC);
(h) flat rated SHP;
(i) full rated SHP;
(j) thrust distribution; and,
(k) thrust horsepower.

Describe the effect of the following factors on gas turbine engine performance, specifically thrust
and fuel flow:
(a) airspeed;
(b) ram effect;
(c) altitude;
(d) pressure;
(e) temperature;
(f) humidity;
(g) bleed air; and,
(h) air intake icing.

List the main factors that limit the power output of gas turbine engines.
Describe the propulsive efficiency of the following types of gas turbine engine:
(a) turboprop;
(b) high by-pass ratio turbofan;
(c) low by-pass ratio turbofan; and,
(d) turbojet.

Calculate SFC from given operating conditions.

Describe how specific thrust and SFC will be affected by increasing the compression ratio of an
engine.

State the causes of the reduction in SFC with increasing airspeed in turboprop engines.

Identify components in a gas turbine engine that produce either forward propulsive, or rearward
propulsive forces.

Describe how the rated thrust of an engine is derived from the calculation of forward and rearward
forces.

Describe the approximate power requirements needed to drive the compressor on the various types
of engine.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-49

Define giving practical examples:
(a) by-pass ratio; and,
(b) engine pressure ratio and how/where it is measured.
Describe the effects of bleed air operation on engine performance.

Turbine Engine Anti-icing Systems

The candidate is expected to:

Describe the principles, features and parameters of typical ice protection systems.

Describe effects of anti-ice system operation on engine performance for the various types of gas
turbine engine and how this would be shown in the cockpit.

Describe the common source of bleed air.

Electrics
Electricity and Magnetism
The candidate is expected to:

Describe the systems that typically require electrical power in a light aircraft.

Explain the basis of an electrical current, and the direction of the current.

Describe the basic characteristics, using common terms [amps, volts, electro magnetic force (emf)
and ohms], of an electrical flow.

State Ohms law.

With the aid of diagrams, describe simple two-wire and single wire grounded electrical circuits.

Distinguish between direct and alternating current, and explain the terms Hertz and
rectification.

Describe the properties of magnetism, including polarity, attraction and repulsion.

Distinguish between temporary and permanent magnets, and the properties of soft iron and hard
iron.

Describe the terms magnetic field, magnetic flux, and permeability.

Explain electromagnetism and with the aid of diagrams, show the lines of magnetic force around
a straight conductor and a coil.

With the aid of diagrams, describe the principle of operation of an electromagnetic switch (or
relay) and a solenoid switch.

State typical examples of their use in aircraft electrical circuits.

List the six ways in which an emf can be generated.

Explain the principle of electromagnetic induction.

AC and DC Electrics

Appendix A-50 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

The candidate is expected to:

With the aid of a diagram, describe the principle of operation of a simple alternator (a magnet
rotating inside a loop conductor).

Show the features of a practical alternator, and explain how the AC output is normally rectified to
provide DC

List and explain the quantities and units associated with AC electrics.

With the aid of a diagram, describe the principle of operation of a simple generator (a loop
conductor rotating inside a magnet).

Show the features of a practical generator, and explain how the output is passed through a
commutator to provide DC

List and explain the quantities and units associated with DC electrics.

Explain the need for voltage regulation for both alternators and generators, and how a generator
also requires a current regulator and a reverse current relay.

Explain the function and principle of operation of a basic electric cell (battery).

Distinguish between primary and secondary cells, wet-cells and dry cells, lead-acid and
nickelcadmium (and similar) types.

Explain the meaning of:

(a) battery capacity; and
(b) thermal runaway.

Explain the basic features and operation of:

(a) a lead-acid battery; and
(b) a nickel-cadmium (nicad) battery.
State the advantages of Nicad batteries.

Electrical Systems
The candidate is expected to:

Explain the function(s) of the following in a typical aircraft electrical system:

(a) the battery;
(b) a ground power source;
(c) the alternator or generator;
(d) a bus bar;
(e) overvoltage protection;
(f) an ammeter (left zero and centre zero);
(g) a master switch (or battery/alternator switch); and
(h) fuses, circuit breakers and overload switches.
(i) transformers
(j) rectifiers
(k) inverters

Distinguish between the functions and interpretation of left-zero and centre-zero ammeters.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-51

Distinguish between the functions and correct operation of a single battery master switch and split
battery/alternator switches.

Distinguish between the way in which fuses, circuit breakers and overload switches operate.

Explain airmanship aspects of handling the electrical system, including:

(a) avoiding overheating electrical services if operated during pre-flight;
(b) not starting or stopping the engine with unnecessary electrical equipment switched on;
(c) avoiding prolonged use of the starter motor;
(d) checking satisfactory operation of the alternator/generator after start, and periodically
during flight; and
(e) ensuring the battery master is switched off before vacating the aircraft after flight.

Explain the diagnosis and correct handling of electrical malfunctions including:

(a) an excessive charge rate;
(b) alternator/generator failure; and
(c) blown fuse/popped circuit breaker.

LOADING
The candidate is expected to:

Define the following terms:

(a) arms;
(b) datum;
(c) Moment (including the units used);
(d) Centre of gravity (CG);
(e) CG range and limits;
(f) station;
(g) index units;
(h) basic empty weight (empty aircraft weight);
(i) empty weight CG position;
(j) basic operating weight (aircraft prepared for service weight);
(k) payload;
(l) zero fuel weight;
(m) ramp weight;
(n) gross weight;
(o) maximum certified take-off weight (MCTOW);
(p) maximum certified landing weight (MCLW);
(q) The specific gravity and the weight of AVGAS.

Explain the principles of aeroplane balance, and the function of the tailplane in providing the
final balancing force.

State the effect on longitudinal stability and handling with the aeroplane loaded with the CG:
(a) well forward;
(b) outside the forward limit;
(c) Well aft;
(d) outside the aft limit.

Given weights and arms, calculate moments and establish a CG position.

Demonstrate the use of graphs to:

Appendix A-52 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

(a) calculate load moment; and
(b) establish CG position.

Given appropriate data and using a typical weight and balance work sheet, calculate the CG
position at take-off and for landing.

Solve the following loading problems:

(a) loading or offloading weight and find new CG position;
(b) loading or offloading weight to place the CG at a given station;
(c) loading or offloading weight at a given station without exceeding CG limits;
(d) moving weight from one station to another and finding new CG position;
(e) establishing payload available given a maximum zero fuel weight.

HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS

Basic Aviation Physiology and Health Maintenance

The candidate is expected to:

Basic physiology and the effects of flight.

Anatomy and physiology of eye, ear, vestibular, circulatory, and respiratory systems.

Composition of the atmosphere, gas laws and the nature of the human requirement of oxygen.

Effects of reduced ambient pressure and of sudden decompression; times of useful

consciousness.

Recognising and coping with hypoxia and hyperventilation.

Entrapped gases and barotrauma.

Diving and flying.

Effects of acceleration (+/G) on circulatory system, vision and consciousness.

Mechanism, effects and management of motion sickness.

Flying and health.

Noise and age-induced hearing loss.

Visual defects and their correction.

Arterial disease and coronary risk factors, ECG, blood pressure, stroke.

Diet, exercise, obesity.

Fits, faints and the EEG.

Psychiatric diseases, drug dependence and alcoholism.

Tropical diseases and their prophylaxis, hepatitis and sexually transmitted diseases.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-53

Common ailments and fitness to fly: gastro-enteritis, colds, use of common drugs and their
side effects.

Toxic hazards.

Causes and management of in-flight incapacitation.

Basic Aviation Psychology

The candidate is expected to:

Basic plan of human information processing including concepts of sensation, attention,

memory, central decision-making and creation of mental models.

Limitations of central decision channel and mental workload.

Function of attention in selecting information sources, attention-getting stimuli.

Types of memory: peripheral or sensory, long term (semantic and episodic), short term or
working, motor (skills).

Memory limitations and failures.

Perception, the integration of sensory information to form a mental model.

Effects of experience and expectation on perception.

Erroneous mental models: visual, vestibular and other illusions.

Recognising and managing spatial disorientation.

Use of visual cues in landing.

Eye movements, visual search techniques.

Skill-, rule- and knowledge-based behaviours.

Nature of skill acquisition, exercise of skill, conscious and automatic behaviour, errors of
skill.

Rule-based behaviour, procedures, simulator training, failures in rule-based behaviour.

Knowledge-based behaviour: problem solving and decision making, inference formation,

failures in knowledge-based behaviour.

Maintaining accurate mental models, situational awareness, conformation bias.

Stress, Fatigue and their Management

The candidate is expected to:

Models and effects of stress.

Definitions, concepts and models of stress.

Appendix A-54 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Arousal: concepts of over- and under-arousal.

Environmental stresses and their effects: heat, noise, vibration, low humidity.

Domestic stress, home relationships, bereavement, financial and time commitments.

Work stress, relationships with colleagues and management.

Effects of stress on attention, motivation and performance.

Life stress and health, other clinical effects of stress.

Defence mechanisms, identifying stress and stress management.

Sleep and fatigue.

Biological clocks and circadian rhythms, sleep/wakefulness and temperature rhythms,

zeitgebers.

Sleep stages, sleep at abnormal times of day, required quantity of sleep.

Work-induced fatigue.

Shift work.

Time zone crossing, circadian disrhythmia, re-synchronisation.

Rostering problems, sleep management and naps.

Sleep hygiene.

Management of sleep with drugs.

Social Psychology and Ergonomics of the Flight Deck

The candidate is expected to:

Individual differences, social psychology and flight deck management.

Individual differences, definitions of intelligence and personality.

Assessing personality.

Main dimensions of personality: extroversion and anxiety. Other important traits: warmth
and sociability, impulsivity, tough-mindedness, dominance, stability and boldness.

Goal-directed and person-directed types of behaviour.

Autocratic and democratic leadership styles.

Individual personality-related problems of flying, especially risk-taking.

Personality interaction on the flight deck and the interaction of personality with status or

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix A-55

seniority, role (e.g. handling/non-handling) and perceived ability of crew members.

Concepts of conformity, compliance and risky shift. Implications of these concepts for the
flight deck with regard to effects of crew size.

Communication: verbal and non-verbal communication, one and two way communication,
different communication styles.

Methods of maximising crew effectiveness and improving flight deck, or cockpit resource,
management.

Interacting with cabin crew, air traffic services, maintenance personnel and passengers.

The Design of Flight Decks, Documentation and Procedures.

Basic principles of control, display and workspace design.

Eye datum, anthropometry and workspace constraints, external vision requirements, reach,
comfort and posture.

Display size, legibility, scale design, colour and illumination. Common errors in display
interpretation.

Control size, loading, location and compatibility of controls with displays.

Presentation of warning information and misinterpretation of warnings.

Design and appropriate use of checklists and manuals.

Effects of automation and the glass cockpit. Integration of information from many data
sources on one display and automatic selection of displayed information. Mode and status
representation.

Machine intelligence and relationship between aircraft decisions and pilot decisions.

Avoidance of complacency and boredom, maintaining situational awareness, maintaining

basic flying skills.

Appendix A-56 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

APPENDIX B EXAMINATION RE-ENTRY CONDITIONS

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix B-1

 NOTES:

1 Candidates who have been barred from starting a new cycle must show proof of having undergone additional training at an approved training organisation, before they will be permitted to sit for
the next examination cycle.
2 A candidate who has passed all examinations, either at his first sitting or subsequently after having obtained a Partial Pass, must take his General Flight Test (GFT) within the 12 months from the
date of commencement of his current exam cycle. The GFT is valid for 6 months and the pilot must apply for his licence within this 6 month period. Failure to complete the GFT or to obtain the
relevant licence within the allowed 6 months will nullify all examination and tests results. In such event the candidate will have to re-sit and retake the written examinations and GFT respectively.

3 A pilot who has successfully passed the written examinations and the GFT, may obtain the required flying experience for the issue of the respective licence, within 36 months (for CPL) and 60
months (for ATPL), commencing from the date of the starting the successful examination cycle. Failure to achieve the requisite flying experience in the time allowed will nullify the written
examinations and GFT, which will have to be retaken again.

LEGEND:

Pass all Applies to a candidate who has passed ALL the required subjects in one sitting.
Partial
Applies to a candidate who, at the commencement of an exam cycle has obtained a Pass in at least 50% of the required subjects.
Pass
Fail Applies to a candidate who, at the commencement of any examination cycle has NOT obtained a Pass in at least 50% of the required subjects.

Appendix B-2 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

APPENDIX C FLIGHT INSTRUCTIONS AND SKILLS REQUIREMENTS FOR
THE ISSUE OF A CPL AND ATPL

1 FLIGHT INSTRUCTIONS

1.1 CPL (Aeroplanes)

1.1.1 The applicant for a CPL(A) shall have received dual instruction in aeroplanes from an
authorized flight instructor. The instructor shall ensure that the applicant has operational
experience in the following areas to the level of performance required for the commercial
pilot:

(a) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, aeroplane

inspection and servicing;

(b) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and
procedures;

(c) control of the aeroplane by external visual reference;

(d) flight at critically slow airspeeds; spin avoidance; recognition of, and recovery
from, incipient and full stalls;

(e) flight at critically high airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, spiral dives;

(f) normal and cross-wind take-offs and landings;

(g) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) take-offs; short-field
landings;

(h) basic flight manoeuvres and recovery from unusual attitude by reference solely to
basic flight instruments;

(i) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead-reckoning and radio navigation
aids; diversion procedures;

(j) abnormal and emergency procedures and manoeuvres; and

(k) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with air
traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology.

1.1.2 If the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have received
dual instruction in aeroplanes in night flying, including take-offs, landings and navigation.

1.2 ATPL (Aeroplanes)

1.2.1 The applicant shall have received the dual flight instruction required for the issue of the
commercial pilot licence aeroplane and for the issue of the instrument rating aeroplane.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix C-1

1.3 CPL (Helicopters)

1.3.1 The applicant shall have received dual instruction in helicopters from an authorized flight
instructor. The instructor shall ensure that the applicant has operational experience in the
following areas to the level of performance required for the commercial pilot:

(a) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, helicopter

inspection and servicing;

(b) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and
procedures;

(c) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;

(d) recovery at the incipient stage from settling with power; recovery techniques from
low-rotor rpm within the normal range of engine rpm;

(e) ground manoeuvring and run-ups; hovering; take-offs and landings normal, out
of wind and sloping ground; steep approaches;

(f) take-offs and landings with minimum necessary power; maximum performance
take-off and landing techniques; restricted site operations; quick stops;

(g) hovering out of ground effect; operations with external load, if applicable; flight at
high altitude;

(h) basic flight manoeuvres and recovery from unusual attitudes by reference solely to
basic flight instruments;

(i) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead-reckoning and radio navigation
aids, diversion procedures;

(j) abnormal and emergency procedures, including simulated helicopter equipment

malfunctions, auto-rotating approach and landing; and

(k) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with air
traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology.

1.3.2 If the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have received
dual instruction in helicopters in night flying, including take-offs, landings and navigation.

1.4 ATPL (Helicopters)

1.4.1 The applicant shall have received the flight instruction required for the issue of the
commercial pilot licence helicopter.

Appendix C-2 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

2 SKILLS

2.1 CPL (Aeroplanes)

2.1.1 The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command of an
aeroplane, the procedures and manoeuvres described in Flight Instructions - CPL(A) with a
degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a commercial
pilot licence aeroplane, and to:

(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations;

(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in a manner such that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

2.2 ATPL (Aeroplanes)

2.2.1 The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform, as pilot-in-command of a
multi-engined aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot, the following procedures
and manoeuvres:

(a) pre-flight procedures, including the preparation of the operational flight plan and
filing of the air traffic services flight plan;

(b) normal flight procedures and manoeuvres during all phases of flight;

(c) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operations under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure, and covering at least the
following:

- transition to instrument flight on take-off

- standard instrument departures and arrivals
- en-route IFR procedures and navigation
- holding procedures
- instrument approaches to specified minima
- missed approach procedures
- landings from instrument approaches

(d) abnormal and emergency procedures and manoeuvres related to failures and
malfunction of equipment, such as powerplant, systems and airframe; and

(e) procedures for crew incapacitation and crew co-ordination, including allocation of
pilot tasks, crew co-operation and use of checklists.

2.2.2 The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform the procedures and

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix C-3

 manoeuvres described above with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges
granted to the holder of an airline transport pilot licence aeroplane, and to:

(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations;

(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;

(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in a manner such that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt;

(f) understand and apply crew co-ordination and incapacitation procedures; and

(g) communicate effectively with the other flight crew members.

2.3 CPL (Helicopters)

2.3.1 The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command of a
helicopter, the procedures and manoeuvres described in Flight Instructions CPL(H) with
a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a commercial
pilot licence helicopter, and to:

(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations;

(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in a manner such that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

2.4 ATPL (Helicopters)

2.4.1 The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform, as pilot-in-command of a
helicopter required to be operated with a co-pilot, the following procedures and
manoeuvres:

(a) pre-flight procedures, including the preparation of the operational flight plan and
filing of the air traffic services flight plan;

(b) normal flight procedures and manoeuvres during all phases of flight;

(c) abnormal and emergency procedures and manoeuvres related to failures and
malfunctions of equipment, such as powerplant, systems and airframe; and

(d) procedures for crew incapacitation and crew co-ordination including allocation of

Appendix C-4 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

 pilot tasks, crew co-operation and use of checklists.

2.4.2 The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform the procedures and
manoeuvres described above with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges
granted to the holder of an airline transport pilot licence helicopter, and to:

(a) operate the helicopter within its limitations;

(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;

(e) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in a manner such that the successful
outcome of a procedures or manoeuvre is never in doubt;

(f) understand and apply crew co-ordination and incapacitation procedures; and

(g) communicate effectively with the other flight crew members.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix C-5

 INTENTIONALLY
LEFT BLANK

Appendix C-6 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

APPENDIX D RECORDING AND CREDITING OF FLIGHT TIME

Aircraft Rating (A)

Requirements in Designation in Recording of item in log
professional pilot Non-pilot log book under book and crediting of such
Case Operating Capacity licence, or Aircraft licence Holders time toward licence
group rating in requirements operating experience requirements
PPL where capacity
applicable
1 2 3 4 5 6
A Pilot-in-command Part 1: Appropriate N/A PIC or P1 Enter time in P1 column,
(PIC) PPL group Counted in full.

B Co-pilot performing Part 1 or Part 2; N/A PIC U/S Enter time in P1 column.
the duties of PIC Appropriate PPL Counted in full toward
under supervision of group licence experience
pilot-in-command requirements subject to
(PIC U/S) certification by the pilot-in-
command.
See Note 2

C Co-pilot Part 2 or Part 1 N/A P2 Enter time in Second Pilot

or in Co-pilot (P2)
See Note 3 column. Counted in full
toward overall licence
experience requirements.

D Co-pilot whilst Group B or C N/A P2 Enter times as for Case C.

holding PPL Counted in full towards
overall licence experience
requirements for
professional pilots
licences.

E Pilot acting as

(i) Systems Panel N/A N/A SPO Enter time in the F Eng,
Operator (SPO) in Any other flying or spare
aircraft column and annotate SPO
certificated for or F Eng as appropriate.
optional operation
by three pilot
crew; or

(ii) Flight Engineer N/A F E licence E1 Not counted towards

(FE) in aircraft with rating licence experience
certificated for requirements.
optional or
mandatory
operation by two
pilots + F E crew

F Pilot on flight deck

but not as P1, P2,
SPO or F E:

(i) Acting as N/A F/N licence N1 Enter time in the F/Nav,

required Flight Any other flying or spare
Navigator (under column and annotate N1.
the Air
Navigation Not counted toward licence
Order); experience requirements

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Appendix D-1

 Aircraft Rating (A)
Requirements in Designation in Recording of item in log
professional pilot Non-pilot log book under book and crediting of such
Case Operating Capacity licence, or Aircraft licence Holders time toward licence
group rating in requirements operating experience requirements
PPL where capacity
applicable
1 2 3 4 5 6
(ii) Pilot supervising Part 1 N/A P2 Enter time for Case C and
Co-pilot count in full toward overall
activities; licence experience
requirements.

(iii) Other flying N/A N/A SNY Enter time in Any other
duties flying or spare column and
annotate SNY. Not
counted toward licence
experience requirements.

G Pilot under N/A for grant of a N/A P/UT Enter time in Dual
instruction licence or Aircraft column,
for the purpose of Rating. Otherwise
gaining a licence or Part 1 or Part 2, or Counted in full toward
rating, or for appropriate PPL overall licence experience
conversion to an Aircraft Rating requirements.
aircraft type within a group.
PPL Aircraft Rating
group.

H Pilot under N/A N/A PIC U/S Enter time in P1 column.

instruction
on an APPROVED Counted in full toward PIC
COURSE of CPL, requirements for grant of a
CPL/IR or MPL CPL, CPL/IR or MPL
training acting subject to certification by
as pilot-in-command the supervising pilot and to
under the supervision a maximum agreed between
of a flying instructor. the DGCA and the flying
training organisation
conducting the Approved
Course.

J Pilot undergoing any N/A for grant of a N/A PIC U/S for For successful test enter
form of flight test licence or Aircraft successful test time in P1 column and
other than for the Rating. Part 2 for have it certified by the
grant renewal or upgrade of Aircraft aircraft commander. For
extension of an Rating from Part 2 unsuccessful tests enter
aircraft rating Part 2. to Part 1. time in Dual column.

Otherwise, Part 1 N/A P/UT for PIC U/S time counted in

or appropriate PPL unsuccessful test full within maximum
Aircraft Rating specified in Cases B and H.
group. P/UT time counted in full
toward overall licence
experience requirements.

K Pilot undergoing a N/A for grant of a N/A P2 As for Case C.

flight test in the licence or Aircraft
capacity of co-pilot Rating. Otherwise,
for grant of a licence Part 2.
or rating or for
variation of rating, or
in relation to
Certificate of Test.

Appendix D-2 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

 Aircraft Rating (A)
Requirements in Designation in Recording of item in log
professional pilot Non-pilot log book under book and crediting of such
Case Operating Capacity licence, or Aircraft licence Holders time toward licence
group rating in requirements operating experience requirements
PPL where capacity
applicable
1 2 3 4 5 6
L Student pilot flying N/A N/A PIC or P1 Enter time in P1 column.
as the sole occupant
of an aircraft during Counted in full.
training for the grant
of a PPL, CPL or
MPL.

M Student pilot flying PPL for N/A PIC or P1 As for Case L.

as pilot-in-command appropriate Group
during training for or Exemption from
the grant of a CPL holding a PPL.
accompanied by:

Safety pilot N/A SNY As for Case F (iii)

As above or Part 1
N Pilot undergoing AFI Part 1; N/A PIC or P1 Roles in Column 2 are
training as pilot-in- Appropriate PPL inter-changeable between
command group pilots.
accompanied by: Time spent as P1 to be
entered and counted as for
Pilot acting as Part 1; N/A SNY Case L.
student for Appropriate PPL Time spent as student to
instructional group be entered and counted as
purposes for Case F (iii).

Notes:

1. Whenever two pilots performing duties in the same capacity, share a particular
operating duty on a flight, each pilot shall only record (in the appropriate column of
his personal log book), the time when he actually performed such duty in the pilot or
co-pilots seat during the flight. The time spent away from duty in the respective seat
shall be logged as SNY as per F(iii) in the foregoing table. Such time shall NOT
count towards licence experience requirements, but shall apply for FDP and FTL.

2 A co-pilot performing the duties and functions of the pilot-in-command or under the
supervision of the pilot-in-command, will be credited with the flight time towards
licence experience requirements provided all the following conditions are met:

(a) the flight conducted in an aircraft equipped to be operated by a co-pilot and

the aircraft is operated in a multi-pilot operation;

(b) the flight was conducted in an aircraft having a Certificate of Airworthiness

which requires its flight crews to include not less than two pilots;

(c) he was responsible for checking the accuracy of the flight plan, load sheet and
fuel calculations for the flight;

(d) he ensured that all crew checks were carried out in accordance with the laid
down operation procedures;

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Appendix D-3

 (e) throughout the flight he carried out all the duties and functions of pilot-in-
command and conducted the take-off and the landing;

(f) he resolved all meteorological, communication and air traffic control

problems;

(g) the pilot-in-command did not have to overrule any course of any course of
action proposed or taken by the co-pilot; and

(h) the pilot-in-command certifies in the co-pilot flying log book against the entry
for that flight that it was carried out by the co-pilot acting as pilot-in-
command under supervision. Such certification will be taken as confirming
that all the foregoing conditions were met.

3 A pilot claiming flying hours as co-pilot towards meeting the overall flying experience
requirements for a licence, as provided for in cases C, D, F (ii) or K, will only be
credited with that flight time provided the aircraft is equipped to be operated by a co-
pilot and the aircraft is operated in a multi-pilot operation, with the pilot holding an
appropriate licence to perform co-pilot duties, and if:

(a) the flight was conducted in an aircraft required by its Certificate of

Airworthiness, or the ANO, to carry a crew of not less than two pilots; or

(b) the flight was conducted by an Air Operators Certificate (AOC) holder
choosing to operate a particular aircraft as a two pilot operation and provided
that the specific duties that the second pilot was required to perform on all
flights in respect of the operation of the aircraft were contained in the
Operations Manual relating to the aircraft; or

(c) it was conducted in a RSAF aircraft normally flown by more than one pilot.

4 Flight time as PIC U/S, apart from as specifically provided for under Case J above,
will only be allowable for the holder of a PPL subject to the terms of a prior agreement
with the DGCA.

5 Any pilot conducting proficiency tests or training or supervision or supernumerary

duties, from any seat other than the pilot or co-pilot seat, shall record (in the
appropriate column of his logbook) such flying as SNY as per F(iii) in the foregoing
table. Such time shall NOT count towards licence experience requirements, but shall
apply for FDP and FTL.

Appendix D-4 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

APPENDIX E THE GENERAL FLIGHT TEST FOR A PROFESSIONAL PILOT
LICENCE

SYLLABUS FOR THE TEST FOR AEROPLANES AND HELICOPTERS

PREPARATION FOR FLIGHT AND PRE TAKE-OFF PROCEDURES : AEROPLANES

AND HELICOPTERS

At the beginning of the test, or at the beginning of any Section of the test when Sections are taken
separately, applicants will be assessed on their ability to perform the following actions leading up
to the take-off.

Self briefing
Attention to weather minima
Document checking
Preliminary and external checks
Checks before starting
Starting procedure (and rotor engagement helicopters)
Checks after starting including instrument and radio
Taxiing and instrument checks
Power check
Pre take-off checks
ATC liaison and compliance

GFT SECTION 1 : CROSS-COUNTRY

Aeroplanes and Helicopters

Flight planning and self-briefing

DR Navigation (correction of track error, revision of ETAs)
Map reading
Use of radio aids for position fixing
Maintenance of heading/height/airspeed. Heading setting technique
Diversion
Approach to unfamiliar landing point (helicopters only)
Log keeping
ATC liaison and compliance. Observance of Air Traffic Control Regulations and Rules of the Air
Engine handling
Cockpit management
Airmanship

Note : At some suitable stage in Section 1, the applicant will be asked to carry out certain basic
handling exercises from Section 2 and the instrument flying exercises from Section 3. Part
of the navigation element will be conducted under simulated IMC.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix E-1

GFT SECTION 2 : BASIC AIRCRAFT HANDING

Aeroplanes

Take-offs (including crosswind)

Steep turns
Precautions before stalling

Recovery from stall in straight flight

Recovery from stall in approach configuration
Recovery from stall in banked attitude
Steep gliding turns
Action in event of fire
Forced landings
Circuit procedure
Approaches and landings (including crosswind)
Go-around procedure
Engine failures after take-off
Shutdown procedures
ATC liaison and compliance
Engine handling

Helicopters

Vertical take-off and landing

Transition into forward flight/hover
Climbing, descending and steep turns
Engine failure and practice forced landing
An auto-rotating landing on a predetermined position
Action on the event of fire
Engine failure in hover flight
Crosswind/sloping ground landings and take-offs
Sideways and backward flight : hover turns
Partial power take-off and landing
Manual approach and landing (if helicopter servo-controlled)
Flight into and out of a restricted area
Emergency stop
Vortex ring recognition and recovery
Shut down procedures
Engine handling
ATC liaison and compliance
Airmanship

GFT SECTION 3 : INSTRUMENT FLYING

Aeroplanes

Full panel
Straight and level
Turns at given rates
Turns onto given headings

Appendix E-2 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

Climbing and descending turns
Limited panel
Straight and level
Turns onto given headings
Recovery from unusual attitudes

Helicopters

Full panel
Straight and level with power and speed changes
Turns at given rates
Turns onto given headings
Climbing and descending turns
Recovery from unusual attitudes
Limited panel
Straight and level
Turns onto given headings
Auto-rotation
Entry, including heading and RPM control
Descent at optimum IAS
Turn into last known wind direction
Recovery to powered flight
Instrument approach procedures
Recovery to base (suitable let-down)

FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES (AEROPLANES)

The following limits are for general guidance. The Flight Examiner shall make allowance for
turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the aeroplane used.

Height

Normal flight 50 feet

with simulated engine failure 100 feet

Tracking on radio aids 5

Heading

Normal flight 10
with simulated engine failure 15

Speed

Take-off and approach +5 knots/0 knots

All other flight regimes

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix E-3

FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES (HELICOPTERS)

The following limits are for general guidance. The Flight Examiner shall make allowance for
turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the Helicopters used.

Height

Normal flight 50 feet

with simulated engine failure 100 feet

Tracking on radio aids 5

Heading

Normal flight 10
with simulated engine failure 15

Speed

Take-off and approach + 5 knots/0 knots

All other flight regimes 10 knots
Ground drift
T.O hover I.G.E 3 feet
Landing 2 feet (with 0 feet rearward or lateral flight)

Appendix E-4 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

APPENDIX F INSTRUMENT RATING FLIGHT TEST SYLLABUS AND FLIGHT
TEST CONDITIONS

1 FLIGHT TEST SYLLABUS

1.1 Section 1: Departure Procedure

All pre-departure checks and drills necessary to check and prepare the aircraft and its
equipment for the safe conduct of the flight. A visual take-off followed by an instrument
climb-out and departure, following the routings published for the aerodrome, unless ATC
otherwise directs.

1.2 Section 2: Airways Procedure

Entry into, flight within and departure from airways in accordance with ATC clearance,
using tracking facilities as briefed by the Flight Examiner.

1.3 Section 3: ILS Instrument Approach Procedure

An approach to land procedure, as published in the relevant AIP for the facility in use,
descending to a specified Decision Height and position from which a direct landing may
be made. Both localiser and glide path must be used.

1.4 Section 4: NDB or VOR Instrument Approach Procedure

This is an approach to land procedure requiring descent to minimum descent altitude/

height (MDA/H). The candidate should follow the published procedure for the facility in
use. Following descent to MDA/H, altitude/height should be maintained along the final
approved track to a point where either:

(a) a landing may be safely made; or

(b) the Missed Approach Point is reached.

In the case of (b) the published Missed Approach Procedure should be carried out. On
approaches to land where timing is used to estimate the Missed Approach Point from
overhead the final approach fix a candidate may be asked, at some stage on the final
approach, to estimate the time or distance to the runway threshold.

Note: At the conclusion of Section 3:

(a) On reaching Decision Height, the missed approach action to establish a normal climb
shall be initiated by the applicant unless otherwise directed.

(b) The missed approach procedure as published is to be flown unless otherwise as

directed, during which the Flight Examiner will also simulate failure of an engine
(multi-engine aeroplanes only).

(c) A safe flight path is to be established with simulated engine failure, followed by
identification of failed engine and completion of essential actions. For multi-engine
aeroplanes, feathering will be simulated by the Flight Examiner at an appropriate stage.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix F-1

 (d) A climbing flight path is to be established at the recommended speed, following the
published missed approach procedure or as directed by ATC, to a position from which
the next instrument approach procedure may commence (Section 4 will be carried out
with a simulated engine failure in the case of a multi-engine aeroplane.)

1.5 Sub-Sections

1.5.1 A series of 4 sub-sections are defined to identify procedures or manoeuvres within main
sections that need to be carried out in particular circumstances.

1.5.2 Sub-Station A: Preliminary and External Checks

The checks specified in paragraph 1.1 up to and including starting engines.

1.5.3 Sub-Section B: Holding Procedure

Standard entry into a holding pattern and completion of at least one pattern of the
appropriate holding procedure, including any necessary adjustments to leave the holding
pattern at the Onwards Clearance Time or Expected Approach Time, if one has been
specified by ATC.

1.5.4 Sub-Section C: Engine Failure Procedures (multi-engine aircraft only)

Identification of failed engine and simulated failure procedures. Basic handling and
instrument flying following simulated engine failure.

1.5.5 Sub-Section D: Limited Panel

Basic handling to cover straight and level flight, turns onto specified headings and
recovery from unusual attitudes.

2 TEST CONDITONS

2.1 Decision Heights and Minimum Descent Heights (or altitudes) must be calculated by the
applicant, and agreed by the Flight Examiner.

2.2 During the test the applicant will be expected to carry out all the duties appropriate to a
sole flight crew member or, in the case of a test for a multi-crew rating, the handling pilot.

2.3 In the case of a multi-crew rating, the applicant may take the test in either the PICs or co-
pilot seat, and will be expected to call upon the other flight crew members to help in
accordance with the normal crew drills for that type of aeroplane.

2.4 Where the Flight Examiner occupies the PICs or co-pilot seat, he will be designated as
PIC. Where he does not occupy either of these positions, the pilot occupying either one of
the seats who is not undergoing the test will be designated as PIC who must be authorised
by the operator of the aeroplane to act as a training or check captain on type.

Appendix F-2 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

2.5 The applicant must indicate to the Flight Examiner the checks and duties which he is
performing, including identification of radio facilities. Checks must be in accordance with
the authorised checklist for the aircraft, on which the test is being taken. Power settings
and speeds should be agreed with the Flight Examiner before the start of the flight, and
will normally be those given in the operations or flight manual for the aircraft type in
question.

2.6 The applicant, with the remainder of the crew in the case of a test on a multi-crew
aeroplane, will be briefed by the Flight Examiner before the test. The applicant will be
responsible for ensuring that all equipment and documentation necessary for the planning
and execution of the flight is available.

2.7 The Flight Examiner will choose the route for the test. It may start and finish at the same
aerodrome or may end at another aerodrome. Applicants cannot decline to fly the
nominated route solely because they are unfamiliar with it.

2.8 The Flight Examiner may be called upon by an applicant to check for the presence of
airframe icing but will otherwise take no part in the operation of the aircraft except where
he considers it necessary to intervene in the interests of safety or to avoid unacceptable
delay to other air traffic.

2.9 The test will be assessed assuming that it is the first flight of the day, that the aircraft has
been parked outside overnight in freezing conditions, that cloud is entered after take-off at
150 ft above aerodrome level, and that light icing conditions and cloud are forecast at all
levels through which the test is conducted.

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix F-3

3 FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE

3.1 The limits given below are for general guidance. Allowance will be made for turbulent
conditions and for the handling qualities and performance of the aircraft used.

FLIGHT WITH
Height NORMAL FLIGHT SIMULATED
ASYMMETRIC
FLIGHT POWER
(a) In level flight (other than at +/-100 ft +/-100 ft
Decision Height)

(b) For starting go-around at +50 ft / 0 ft +50 ft / 0 ft

Decision Height

(c) Minimum Descent Height/ +100 ft / 0 ft +100 ft / 0 ft

MAP/altitude

Tracking on Radio Navigation

Aids

Tracking on Radio Navigation +/-5 deg +/-5 deg

Aids

ILS Approach half-scale deflection half-scale deflection

on Localiser and on Localiser and
Glidepath Glidepath

Heading +/-5 deg +/-10 deg

Speed +/-5 kts +10/-5 kts

(Aeroplanes) (Aeroplanes)

+/-10 kts +/-10 kts

(Helicopters) (Helicopters)

Appendix F-4 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

APPENDIX G LIST OF PUBLICATIONS WHICH APPLICANTS FOR THE
PROFESSIONAL PILOT LICENCE EXAMINATIONS MAY FIND
HELPFUL

The following list does not claim to be comprehensive, or necessarily to give the best treatment of
particular subjects, but it is hoped that potential applicants will find it helpful in preparing
themselves for the pilot licence ground examinations. In addition, most of the Flying Training
Organisations which conduct professional pilot licence courses produce study notes designed to
cover the examination syllabuses.

Note: A simple electronic calculator and three figure trigonometric tables are provided for use in
the examinations (except CPL(A) & (H) Navigation Examination).

NAVIGATION GROUP SUBJECTS CPL AND ATPL EXAMINATIONS

General Studies for Pilots

Vol 1 : Radio Aids )

Vol 2 : Plotting and Flight Planning )
Vol 3 : Navigation ) R B Underdown (Blackwell)
General & Instruments )
Vol 4 : Meteorology )

The Pilot in Command M Cass (Airlife)

The VOR and ADF including DME M Cass (Airlife)

Manual of Avionics : Introduction to the Electronics

of Civil Aviation. B Kendall (Granada)

Ground Training for the Private Pilot : Air Navigation and

Aviation Meteorology R D Campbell (Granada)

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems E H J Pallett (Longman)

Instrument Flying, Radio Navigation and Instrument Approach R D Campbell (Granada)

Procedures

Meteorology

Ground Studies for Pilots Vol 4 : Meteorology - RB Underdown (BSP)

Observers Handbook (Met 0 933)

The Practice of Weather Forecasting (Met 0 817)

Ice Accretion on Aircraft (Met 0 768)

The Meteorological Glossary (Met 0 842/AP 897)

ICAO Doc 8400 Codes (including the Q code)

3 December 2010 [Issue 8] Appendix G-1

Handbook of Aviation Meteorology (HMSO) Third Edition 1994

Meteorology for Glider Pilots C E Wallington (Murray)

A Course of Elementary Meteorology (Met 0 911)

Meteorology for Pilots, M Wickson (Airlife)

Human Performance and Limitations

Aeromedicine for Aviators K E E Reed (Pitman)

Aviation Medicine R M Harding and F J Mills (BMA)

Fit to fly BALPA Medical Study Group (Granada Publishing)

Human Factors in flight F H Hawkins (Gower Technical Press)

Human Factors for General Aviation S R Trollip & R S Jensen (Jepperson Sanderson)

Human Factors for Pilots Roger G Green (Ashgate Publishing)

Human Performance & Limitations R D Campbell & M Bagshaw (BSP Professional

Books)
in aviation

ATPL(A) Examinations

The following books are suggested, in addition to those listed above for those studying for the
ATPL(A) examinations:

Data Sheet No.34 (Westward Digital Tel: 012-42-235151)

Atmosphere, Weather and Climate R G Barry and R J

Chorley
(Methuen)

Fundamentals of Meteorology L J Battan (Prentice Hall)

Further Reading

Human Factors Digest(s) ICAO publications

Radiotelephony

Radiotelephony Procedures (CAP 413)

Appendix G-2 3 December 2010 [Issue 8]

APPENDIX H FINAL ASSESSMENT FLIGHT TEST FOR MPL(A)

1 GENERAL

1.1 An applicant for the final assessment flight test shall apply using forms prescribed by the
DGCA. The applicant shall have received instruction on the same type of aircraft to be
used in the test.

1.2 The fees for the flight tests are prescribed in the Twelfth Schedule of the ANO.

2 CONDUCT OF THE FINAL ASSESSMENT FLIGHT TEST

2.1 The test shall be conducted by a CAAS flight operations inspector or an Authorised Flight
Examiner.

2.2 The examiner may choose between different scenarios containing simulated relevant
operations.

2.3 Should the applicant choose to terminate a final assessment flight test for reasons
considered inadequate by the examiner, the applicant shall retake the entire assessment. If
the test is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the examiner, only those sections
not completed shall be tested in a further flight.

2.4 At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated
once by the applicant. The examiner may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that
the applicants demonstration of flying skill requires a complete re-test.

2.5 The applicant shall be required to fly the aeroplane from a position where the co-pilot
functions can be performed.

2.6 During pre-flight preparation for the test the applicant is required to determine power
settings and speeds. The applicant shall indicate to the examiner the checks and duties
carried out, including the identification of radio facilities. Checks shall be completed in
accordance with the check-list for the aeroplane on which the test is being taken and with
the MCC concept. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing shall be calculated
by the applicant in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual for the
aeroplane used. Decision heights/altitude, minimum descent heights/altitudes and missed
approach point shall be agreed upon with the examiner.

2.7 The examiner shall take no part in the operation of the aeroplane.

2.8 The final assessment for a multi-pilot aeroplane shall be performed in a multi-crew
environment. Another applicant or another type rated qualified pilot may function as the
second pilot.

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Appendix H-1

2.9 The applicant shall operate as Pilot Flying (PF) during all sections of the final assessment,
except for abnormal and emergency procedures, which may be conducted as PF or Pilot
Monitoring (PM), in accordance with MCC.

2.10 The test/check should be accomplished under IFR, and as far as possible be accomplished
in a simulated commercial air transport environment. An essential element to be checked is
the ability to plan and conduct the flight from routine briefing material.

3 PASS STANDARDS

3.1 The applicant shall pass all items of the final assessment flight test within 21 days from the
date of the first attempt. Failure of more than 5 items will require the applicant to take the
entire assessment again. An applicant who fails 5 or less items shall take the failed items
again. Failure in any item on the re-assessment including those items that have been
passed at a previous attempt will require the applicant to take the entire assessment again.

3.2 Failure to achieve a pass in all items in the test with three attempts will require the
applicant to undergo further training.

4 FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE

4.1 The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:

(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations;

(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;

(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is always assured;

(f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and

(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members.

Appendix H-2 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]

4.2 The following limits given below are for general guidance. Allowance shall be made for
turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the aeroplane used:
FLIGHT WITH
Height NORMAL FLIGHT SIMULATED
ASYMMETRIC
FLIGHT POWER
(a) In level flight (other than at +/-100 ft +/-100 ft
Decision Height)

(b) For starting go-around at +50 ft / 0 ft +50 ft / 0 ft

Decision Height

(c) Minimum Descent Height/ +100 ft / 0 ft +100 ft / 0 ft

MAP/altitude

Tracking on Radio Navigation +/-5 deg +/-5 deg

Aids

Precision Approach half-scale deflection half-scale deflection

on Localiser and on Localiser and
Glidepath Glidepath

Heading +/-5 deg +/-10 deg

Speed +/-5 kts +10/-5 kts

(Aeroplanes) (Aeroplanes)

+/-10 kts +/-10 kts

(Helicopters) (Helicopters)

23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2] Appendix H-3

 INTENTIONALLY
LEFT BLANK

Appendix H-4 23 November 2011 [Issue 8, Amendment 2]