200 310
200 310
200 310
Answer: C
Explanation:
NetFlow provides extremely granular and accurate traffic measurements and a high-level
collection of aggregated traffic. The output of netflow information is displayed via the show ip
cache flow command on routers. The Table shows a description of the fields for NetFlow output.
Table. Netflow Output escription
QUESTION NO: 2
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on the
network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to include data time stamping across a
large number of interfaces while being customized according to each interface?
A.
RMON
B.
SNMPv3
C.
NetFlow
D.
Cisco Discovery Protocol
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A.
Design
B.
Plan
C.
Prepare
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Answer: B
Explanation:
Plan Phase
The Plan phase identifies the network requirements based on goals, facilities, and user needs.
This phase characterizes sites and assesses the network, performs a gap analysis against bestpractice architectures, and looks at the operational environment. A project plan is developed to
manage the tasks, responsible parties, milestones, and resources to do the design and
implementation. The project plan aligns with the scope, cost, and resource parameters established
with the original business requirements. This project plan is followed (and updated) during all
phases of the cycle.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which is part of the Prepare phase of PPDIOO?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Prepare Phase
The Prepare phase establishes organization and business requirements, develops a network
strategy, and proposes a high-level conceptual architecture to support the strategy. Technologies
that support the architecture are identified. This phase creates a business case to establish a
financial justification for a network strategy.
QUESTION NO: 5
When designing the identity and access control portions for the enterprise campus network, which
of these solutions would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
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Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Which is the purpose of the Cisco NAC Profiler?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco NAC Profiler: Enables network administrators to keep a real-time, contextual inventory of all
devices in a network. It greatly facilitates the deployment and management of Cisco Network
Admission Control (NAC) systems by discovering and tracking the location and type of all LANattached endpoints, including those that are not capable of authenticating. It also uses the
information about the device to determine the correct policies for NAC to apply.
QUESTION NO: 7
Cisco Identity-Based Networking Services relies heavily on the 802.1X protocol. Which other
authentication solution is used hand-in-hand with 802.1X to authenticate users for network
access?
A.
RADIUS
B.
LEAP
C.
IPsec
D.
TACACS
E.
ISAKMP
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QUESTION NO: 8
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?
A.
MGCP
B.
RTP
C.
SCCP
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Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow
across the network?
A.
cRTP
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Answer: C
Explanation:
RSVP Signaling protocol that enables end stations or applications to obtain guaranteed bandwidth
and low delays for their data flows.
QUESTION NO: 10
Which two features are supported by single wireless controller deployments? (Choose two.)
A.
automatic detection and configuration of LWAPPs
B.
LWAPP support across multiple floors and buildings
C.
automatic detection and configuration of RF parameters
D.
Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming
E.
controller redundancy
F.
mobility groups
Answer: A,B
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10
QUESTION NO: 11
Which four services does the architecture for Media Services contain? (Choose four.)
A.
access services
B.
transport services
C.
storage services
D.
forwarding services
E.
session control services
F.
security services
G.
filtering services
H.
remote access services
Answer: A,B,C,E
Explanation:
An architecture framework for media services supports different models of video models. As
shown in Figure 14-13, the network provides service to video media in the Media Services
Framework. Those services are access services, transport services, bridging services, storage
servers, and session control services, which arc provided to endpoints.
11
QUESTION NO: 12
Refer to the exhibit.
12
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content
server?
A.
Link-local
B.
Site-local
C.
Anycast
D.
Multicast
E.
Global aggregatable
Answer: C
Explanation:
Any cast is a network addressing and routing methodology in which data grams from a single
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13
QUESTION NO: 14
What is the recommended spanning tree protocol to use for all Layer 2 deployments in a branch
office environment?
A.
CST
B.
RSPT
C.
PVST
D.
MISTP
E.
Rapid PVST +
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Refer to the exhibit.
14
A standard, Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the
distribution layer?
A.
#1
B.
#2
C.
#3
D.
#4
Answer: B
Explanation:
15
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Network virtualization encompasses logical isolated network segments that share the same
physical infrastructure. Each segment operates independently and is logically separate from the
other segments. Each network segment appears with its own privacy, security, independent set of
policies, QoS levels, and independent routing paths.
Here are some examples of network virtualization technologies:
VLAN: Virtual local-area network
VSAN: Virtual storage-area network
VRF: Virtual routing and forwarding
VPN: Virtual private network
VPC: Virtual Port Channel
16
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose two.)
A.
frame relay
B.
MPLS
C.
Metro Ethernet
D.
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17
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Explanation
Frame relay is old 'shared' technology today's sites use some flavor or Metro E or MPLS/VPN
QUESTION NO: 19
What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice and video applications?
A.
300 bytes
B.
1 sec
C.
150 ms
D.
500 ms
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points?
A.
monitor mode
B.
sniffer mode
C.
rogue detector mode
D.
local mode
Answer: C
Explanation:
Interference detection and avoidance: As Cisco LWAPs monitor all channels, interference is
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19
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following three options represents the components of the Teleworker Solution?
(Choose three.)
A.
Cisco Unified IP Phone
B.
Cisco 880 Series Router
C.
Aironet Office Extend Access Point
D.
Catalyst 3560 Series Switch
E.
Cisco 2900 Series Router
F.
MPLS Layer 3 VPN
G.
Leased lines
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
A Cisco ASR is used to terminate Teleworker solutions, not a 2900 series router.
Hybrid teleworker uses Aironet, Advanced teleworker uses 880, both use IP phones.
google: "at_a_glance_c45-652500.pdf" for details
The Cisco Virtual Office Solution for the Enterprise Teleworker is implemented using the Cisco
800 series ISRs. Each ISR has integrated switch ports that then connect to the users broadband
connection. The solution uses a permanent always-on IPsec VPN tunnel back to the corporate
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20
QUESTION NO: 22
Which three types of WAN topologies can be deployed in the Service Provider Module? (Choose
three.)
A.
ring
B.
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21
Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:
22
Explanation:
23
QUESTION NO: 24
Which statement describes the recommended deployment of DNS and DHCP servers in the Cisco
Network Architecture for the Enterprise?
A.
Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise Campus Access layer and Enterprise branch.
B.
Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise Campus Server Farm layer and Enterprise
branch.
C.
Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Core layer and Remote Access_VPN module
with the DNS server in the Internet Connectivity module.
D.
Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Distribution layer with the DNS server in the
Internet Connectivity module.
Answer: B
Explanation:
For the Enterprise Campus, DHCP and internal DNS servers should be located in the Server Farm
and they should be redundant. External DNS servers can be placed redundantly at the service
provider facility and at the Enterprise branch.
24
QUESTION NO: 25
Your company's Cisco routers are operating with EIGRP. You need to join networks with an
acquisition's heterogeneous routers at 3 sites, operating with EIGRP and OSPF. Which describes
the best practice for routing protocol deployment?
A.
Apply OSPF throughout both networks
B.
Apply one-way redistribution exclusively at each location
C.
Apply two-way redistribution exclusively at each location
D.
Apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route filter at only one location
E.
Apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route filter at each location
F.
Apply EIGRP with the same autonomous system throughout both networks
Answer: E
Explanation:
Without filters there is possibility of routing loops.
Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a008009487e.shtml
QUESTION NO: 26
Which two routing protocols converge most quickly? (Choose two.)
25
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of these is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate?
A.
2 x 8 kHz x 4-bit code words
B.
8 kHz x 8-bit code words
C.
2 x 4-bit code words x 8 kHz
D.
2 x 4 kHz x 8-bit code words
Answer: D
Explanation:
While the human ear can sense sounds from 20 to 20, 000 Hz, and speech encompasses sounds
from about 200 to 9000 Hz, the telephone channel was designed to operate at about 300 to 3400
Hz. This economical range carries enough fidelity to allow callers to identify the party at the far end
and sense their mood. Nyquist decided to extend the digitization to 4000 Hz, to capture higher"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com
26
QUESTION NO: 28
Which one of these statements is an example of how trust and identity management solutions
should be deployed in the enterprise campus network?
A.
Authentication validation should be deployed as close to the data center as possible.
B.
Use the principle of top-down privilege, which means that each subject should have the privileges
that are necessary to perform their defined tasks, as well as all the tasks for those roles below
them.
C.
Mixed ACL rules, using combinations of specific sources and destinations, should be applied as
close to the source as possible.
D.
For ease of management, practice defense in isolation - security mechanisms should be in place
one time, in one place.
Answer: C
Explanation:
27
QUESTION NO: 29
With deterministic Wireless LAN Controller redundancy design, the different options available to
the designer have their own strengths. Which one of these statements is an example of such a
strength?
A.
Dynamic load balancing, or salt-and-pepper access point design, avoids the potential impact of
oversubscription on aggregate network performance.
B.
N+N redundancy configuration allows logically grouping access points on controllers to minimize
intercontroller roaming events.
C.
N+N+1 redundancy configuration has the least impact to system management because all of the
controllers are colocated in an NOC or data center.
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28
Answer: B
Explanation:
With such an arrangement there is no complex mesh of access points & controllers.
Link: http://www.cisco.com/web/learning/le31/le46/cln/qlm/CCDA/design/understanding-wirelessnetwork-controller-technology-3/player.html
N+N WLC Redundancy
With N+N redundancy, shown in Figure 5-14, an equal number of controllers hack up each other.
For example, a pair of WLCs on one floor serves as a backup to a second pair on another floor.
The top WLC is primary for API and AP2 and secondary for AP3 and AP4. The bottom WLC is
primary for AP3 and AP4 and secondary for API and AP2. There should be enough capacity on
each controller to manage a failover situation.
QUESTION NO: 30
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network,
which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A.
802.1X
B.
ACLs in the core layer
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30
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
You have a campus network that consists of only Cisco devices. You have been tasked to
discover the device platforms, the IOS versions, and an IP address of each device to map the
network. Which proprietary protocol will assist you with this task?
A.
SNMP
B.
TCP
C.
CDP
D.
ICMP
E.
LLDP
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
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31
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
There is some discussion about whether ISDN not DWDM should be the answer but it does say
TODAYS network
QUESTION NO: 33
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. Which is
the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?
A.
security
B.
static versus dynamic routing
C.
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32
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
To provide Layer 2 connectivity between the primary and remote data centers, given that the two
data centers are using Layer 3 routed DCIs, which NX-OS technology can be used to facilitate this
requirement?
A.
VRF
B.
OTV
C.
MPLS
D.
SPT
E.
VPC
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33
QUESTION NO: 35
Which WLC interface is dedicated for WLAN client data?
A.
virtual interface
B.
dynamic interface
C.
management interface
D.
AP manager interface
E.
service port interface
Answer: B
Explanation:
34
QUESTION NO: 36
According to Cisco, which four improvements are the main benefits of the PPDIOO lifecycle
approach to network design? (Choose four.)
A.
faster ROI
B.
improved business agility
C.
increased network availability
D.
faster access to applications and services
E.
lower total cost of network ownership
F.
better implementation team engagement
Answer: B,C,D,E
Explanation:
35
Answer:
Explanation:
36
QUESTION NO: 38
During which phase of the PPDIOO model would you conduct interviews with supporting staff to
develop and propose a viable solution?
A.
Prepare
B.
Plan
C.
Design
D.
Implement
E.
Operate
F.
Optimize
Answer: A
Explanation:
37
Prepare Phase
The Prepare phase establishes organization and business requirements, develops a network
strategy, and proposes a high-level conceptual architecture to support the strategy. Technologies
that support the architecture are identified. This phase creates a business case to establish a
financial justification for a network strategy.
QUESTION NO: 39
Which three are considered as technical constraints when identifying network requirements?
(Choose three.)
A.
support for legacy applications
B.
bandwidth support for new applications
C.
limited budget allocation
D.
policy limitations
E.
limited support staff to complete assessment
F.
support for existing legacy equipment
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38
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
Network design might be constrained by parameters that limit the solution. Legacy applications
might still exist that must be supported going forward, and these applications might require a
legacy protocol that may limit a design. Technical constraints include the following:
Existing wiring does not support new technology.
Bandwidth might not support new applications.
The network must support exiting legacy equipment.
Legacy applications must be supported (application compatibility).
Answer:
39
Explanation:
40
Answer:
Explanation:
41
Answer: B
Explanation:
This section describes the steps necessary to characterize the existing network infrastructure and
all sites. This process requires three steps:
Step 1. Gather existing documentation about the network, and query the organization to discover
additional information. Organization input, a network audit, and traffic analysis provide the key
information you need. (Note that existing documentation may be inaccurate.)
Step 2. Perform a network audit that adds detail to the description of the network. If possible, use
traffic-analysis information to augment organizational input when you are describing the
applications and protocols used in the network.
Step 3. Based on your network characterization, write a summary report that describes the health
of the network. With this information, you can propose hardware and software upgrades to support
the network requirements and the organizational requirements.
QUESTION NO: 43
Which three terms describe the primary functions of the distribution layer of the campus network
design hierarchy? (Choose three.)
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42
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:
Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/campover.html#wp708979
QUESTION NO: 44
Refer to the exhibit.
43
Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?
A.
QoS should only be performed only in the core.
B.
Load balancing should never be implemented or used.
C.
Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
D.
Partial mesh should be used as long as it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
E.
Policy-based traffic control should be implemented to enable prioritization and ensure the best
performance for all time-critical applications.
Answer: D
Explanation:
44
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Which three modular components are part of the Cisco Enterprise Edge Architecture? (Choose
three.)
A.
e-commerce module
B.
Internet connectivity module
C.
server farm module
D.
remote access and VPN module
E.
PSTN services module
F.
enterprise branch module
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45
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following is a component within the Cisco Enterprise Campus module?
A.
Teleworker
B.
E-Commerce
C.
Internet Connectivity
D.
Building Distribution
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46
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
What are the three primary functions of the distribution layer of the campus network design
hierarchy? (Choose three.)
A.
provide end-user connectivity
B.
provide high speed transport
C.
provide QoS services
D.
enforce security policies
E.
provide WAN connections
F.
connect access devices to the core backbone
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:
47
Answer:
Explanation:
Access
Distribution
Core
Large-Building LANs
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48
49
Answer:
Explanation:
1 Enterprise Edge
2 Internet Connectivity
3 Data Center
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50
QUESTION NO: 51
Where in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model does network management reside?
A.
Enterprise data center module
B.
Enterprise campus module
C.
Enterprise edge module
D.
Service Provider edge module
E.
Service Provider data center module
Answer: B
Explanation:
51
The network management servers reside in the campus infrastructure but have tie-ins to all the
components in the enterprise network for monitoring and management.
52
Answer:
Explanation:
53
QUESTION NO: 53
Which three solutions are part of the Borderless Network Services? (Choose three.)
A.
Wireless
B.
Routing
C.
TrustSec
D.
MediaNet
E.
Switching
F.
EnergyWise
G.
Next-Gen WAN
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:
54
QUESTION NO: 54
Refer to the exhibit.
55
Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise Campus module? (Choose
two.)
A.
A is the Data Center Module and C is the Campus Core layer.
B.
A is the Data Center Module and D is the Building Access layer.
C.
B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building Distribution layer.
D.
B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus Core layer.
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56
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Module characteristics show to which category the blocks belong to.
Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/campover.html#wp708780
QUESTION NO: 55
The evolution of the Data Center is best represented by the 3.0 architecture component of
virtualization. Which of the following is not an example of the virtualization taking place in the Data
Center?
A.
Virtualized media access utilizing Fiber Channel over Ethernet
B.
VLANs and virtual storage area networks (VSANs) provide for virtualized LAN and SAN
connectivity, separating physical networks and equipment into virtual entities
C.
Virtual Machines that run an application within the client operating system, which is further
virtualized and running on common hardware
D.
Storage devices virtualized into storage pools, and network devices are virtualized using device
contexts
Answer: A
Explanation:
57
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
Which layer of the OSI model does Cisco recommend to place the enterprise network core layer,
when designing a network based on its switched hierarchical design?
A.
Layer 1
B.
Layer 2
C.
Layer 3
D.
Layer 4
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58
QUESTION NO: 58
OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. Which two things should you consider
before deployment? (Choose two.)
A.
All areas need to connect back to area 0.
B.
The OSPF process number on each router should match.
C.
NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0.
D.
Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links.
E.
ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
Which Cisco technology using Nexus NX-OS infrastructure allows the network architect to create
up to four separate control and data plane instances of the Nexus chassis?
A.
virtual port-channel
B.
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59
Answer: D
Explanation:
Virtualization
Virtual local-area network (VLAN), virtual storage-area network (VSAN), and virtual device
contexts (VDC) help to segment the LAN, SAN, and network devices instances.
Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual switch for VMware ESX and ESXI help to deliver visibility and policy
control for virtual machines (VM).
Flexible networking options with support for all server form factors and vendors, including support
for blade servers from Cisco, Dell, IBM, and HP with integrated Ethernet and Fiber Channel
switches.
QUESTION NO: 60
Which three options are valid Cisco STP tools used to ensure best-practice access layer design
for the enterprise campus? (Choose three.)
A.
Port fast
B.
UDLD
C.
Root Guard
D.
BPDU Guard
E.
Flex Links
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60
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Access layer Limit VLANs to a single closet when possible to provide the most deterministic and
highly available topology.
Use RPVST+ if STP is required. It provides the best convergence.
Set trunks to ON and ON with no-negotiate
Manually prune unused VLANs to avoid broadcast propagation.
Use VTP Transparent mode, because there is little need for a common VLAN database in
hierarchical networks.
Disable trunking on host ports, because it is not necessary. Doing so provides more security and
speeds up Port Fast.
Consider implementing routing in the access layer to provide fast convergence and Layer 3 load
balancing.
Use Cisco STP Toolkit, which provides Port Fast, Loop Guard, Root Guard, and BPDU Guard.
QUESTION NO: 61
Spanning Layer 2 across geographically separate data centers is a key consideration for current
data center designs. Which is the name of the NX-OS technology that facilitates MAC in IP
transport for Layer 2 VLANs across any IP network?
A.
Overlay Transport Virtualization
B.
Virtual Private LAN Services
C.
Generic Routing Encapsulation
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61
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two.)
A.
Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address.
B.
Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer.
C.
Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer.
D.
Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer.
E.
Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
User access is primarily layer 2 in nature, layer 2 clustering is possible only in layer 2
Here is the Explanation: from the Cisco press CCDA certification guide
Figure 4-8. Enterprise Data Center Infrastructure Overview
62
QUESTION NO: 63
What is the primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional
campus network design?
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63
Answer: A
Explanation:
Layer 3 ability at network edge should be available to leverage the benefits of routed network
design.
Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/campover.html
QUESTION NO: 64
When selecting which hardware switches to use throughout an enterprise campus switched
network, which consideration is not relevant?
A.
whether data link layer switching based upon the MAC address is required
B.
the number of shared media segments
C.
which infrastructure service capabilities are required
D.
whether to support Layer 3 services at the network edge
Answer: B
Explanation:
Shared media are not used in modern networks; all links are operating full-duplex
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64
QUESTION NO: 65
Which two of these practices are considered to be best practices when designing the access layer
for the enterprise campus? (Choose two.)
A.
Implement all of the services (QoS, security, STP, and so on) in the access layer, offloading the
work from the distribution and core layers.
B.
Always use a Spanning Tree Protocol; preferred is Rapid PVST+.
C.
Use automatic VLAN pruning to prune unused VLANs from trunked interfaces to avoid broadcast
propagation.
D.
Avoid wasted processing by disabling STP where loops are not possible.
E.
Use VTP transparent mode to decrease the potential for operational error.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
When designing the building access layer, you must consider the number of users or ports
required to size up the LAN switch. Connectivity speed for each host should also be considered.
Hosts might be connected using various technologies such as Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, or
port channels. The planned VLANs enter into the design.
Performance in the access layer is also important. Redundancy and QoS features should be
considered.
The following are recommended best practices for the building access layer:
Limit VLANs to a single closet when possible to provide the most deterministic and highly
available topology.
Use Rapid Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (RPVST+) if STP is required. It provides the faster
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65
QUESTION NO: 66
The enterprise campus core layer has requirements that are unique from the distribution and
access layers. Which of the following is true about the core layer?
A.
The core layer provides convergence using Layer 2 and Layer 3 services and features.
B.
The core layer provides high availability to support the distribution layer connections to the
enterprise edge.
C.
The campus core layer is optional.
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66
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
Which of these statements is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A.
The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of
services across multiple servers.
B.
With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or
aggregation layer.
C.
A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual
IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D.
The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the
aggregation layer.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
Which one of these statements is true concerning the data center distribution (aggregation) layer
design?
67
Answer: C
Explanation:
68
Explanation:
69
QUESTION NO: 70
Refer to the exhibit.
70
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four sub modules, as described by the Cisco
Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two sub modules are part of this module?
A.
DMZ
B.
enterprise branch
C.
building distribution
D.
server farm/data center
E.
MAN
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
71
QUESTION NO: 72
Which is a factor in enterprise campus design decisions?
A.
network application characteristics
B.
routing protocol characteristics
C.
switching latency characteristics
D.
packet filtering characteristics
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
Which network virtualization technology involves creating virtual routers with its own individual
routing tables on a physical router?
A.
VSS
B.
vPC
C.
VRF
D.
VLAN
Answer: C
Explanation:
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72
QUESTION NO: 74
Which protocol is the recommended first-hop redundancy protocol for an existing infrastructure
that contains multiple vendors and platforms?
A.
HSRP
B.
VRRP
C.
IGRP
D.
OSPF
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
Which IGP provides the fastest convergence by default?
A.
EIGRP
B.
OSPF
C.
IS-IS
D.
RSTP
E.
BGP
73
QUESTION NO: 76
Which three are valid Layer 2 access designs? (Choose three.)
A.
Looped Triangle
B.
Looped Square
C.
Looped U
D.
Loop-Free Triangle
E.
Loop-Free Square
F.
Loop-Free U
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
Which Gigabit Ethernet media type provides the longest reach without a repeater?
A.
1000Base-CX
B.
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74
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer:
75
Explanation:
Layer 2 between distribution and access layers, with a Layer 3 link between the distribution
switches
-> Support Layer 2 VLANs spanning multiple access layer switches across the distribution
switches
Layer 2 between distribution and access layers, with a Layer 2 link between the distribution
switches
-> FHRP for convergence, no VLANs span between access layer switches across the distribution
switches
VSS -> Convergence (FHRP) is not an issue
The following are recommended best practices at the distribution layer:
Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 3
QUESTION NO: 79
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A.
access layer aggregation
B.
route summarization
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76
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80
High availability is a key design consideration in the enterprise campus network. In a fully
redundant topology, which is likely to provide faster IGP convergence during a failure?
A.
redundant supervisors
B.
redundant supervisors with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) and Stateful Switchover (SSO)
C.
single supervisors with tuned IGP timers
D.
single supervisors
Answer: C
Explanation:
77
QUESTION NO: 81
Which two enterprise campus layers are combined in a medium-sized LAN? (Choose two.)
A.
core
B.
distribution
C.
access
D.
backbone
E.
aggregation
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
What is a characteristic of campus core designs?
A.
fast transport
B.
security
C.
summarization
D.
redistribution
Answer: A
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78
QUESTION NO: 83
In the enterprise data center, which are the three main components? (Choose three.)
A.
Network Infrastructure
B.
Interactive services
C.
Data Center Management
D.
Internet services
E.
WAN services
F.
VPN and remote access
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
Which two common cable management strategies are used in high-density server deployments in
the data center? (Choose two.)
A.
top-of-rack
B.
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79
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
Which servers that reside in the data center require direct links to all other enterprise modules?
A.
network management servers
B.
DHCP servers
C.
Active Directory servers
D.
IP SLA servers
E.
web servers
Answer: A
Explanation:
80
Answer:
Explanation:
81
QUESTION NO: 87
When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which Enterprise Campus layer does
the Remote Access and VPN module establish its connection?
A.
Building Access
B.
Campus Core
C.
Enterprise Branch
D.
Enterprise Data Center
Answer: B
Explanation:
82
Answer:
Explanation:
Leased
SHARED
83
QUESTION NO: 89
Which three describe challenges that are faced when deploying an environment for teleworkers?
(Choose three.)
A.
supporting a mix of technically knowledgeable and nontechnical users
B.
simplifying router installation and configuration
C.
verifying available power at employee's house for necessary equipment
D.
avoiding situations where employees might use nonstandard hardware or configurations
E.
reducing daily commuting time to main office location
F.
providing access to FTP servers located in main office location
G.
implementing leased line connectivity between main office and employee's home location
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84
QUESTION NO: 90
You need to connect to a remote branch office via an Internet connection. The remote office does
not use Cisco equipment. This connection must be secure and must support OSPF. Which of the
following can be used to transport data to the branch office?
A.
GRE over IPsec
B.
IPsec
C.
GRE
D.
IPsec VTI
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
Which two are characteristics of a Lightweight Access Point? (Choose two.)
A.
managed via a central wireless LAN controller
B.
code upgrade performed via a TFTP server
C.
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85
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
Which one of these statements describes why, from a design perspective, a managed VPN
approach for enterprise teleworkers is most effective?
A.
A managed VPN solution uses a cost-effective, on-demand VPN tunnel back to the enterprise.
B.
This solution supports all teleworkers who do not require voice or video.
C.
This architecture provides centralized management where the enterprise can apply security
policies and push configurations.
D.
It provides complete flexibility for remote access through a wireless hotspot or a guest network at
a hotel, in addition to a home office.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
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86
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 94
If a teleworker is required to access the branch office via a secure IPSEC VPN connection, which
technology is recommended to provide the underlying transport?
A.
ISDN
B.
Metro Ethernet
C.
Frame Relay
D.
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87
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 95
Which model of ISR is utilized for the teleworker design profile?
A.
Cisco 1900 Series
B.
Cisco 1800 Series
C.
Cisco 800 Series
D.
Cisco 500 Series
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 96
When designing a WAN backup for voice and video applications, what three types of connections
should be used? (Choose three.)
A.
Private WAN
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88
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
Which three options represents the components of the Teleworker Solution? (Choose three.)
A.
Cisco Unified IP Phone
B.
Cisco 880 Series Router
C.
Aironet Office Extend Access Point
D.
Catalyst 3560 Series Switch
E.
Cisco 2900 Series Router
F.
MPLS Layer 3 VPN
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89
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98
Which three service categories are supported by an ISR? (Choose three.)
A.
voice
B.
security
C.
data
D.
Internet
E.
storage
F.
satellite
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99
When designing for a remote worker, which two are typical requirements? (Choose two.)
90
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Answer: D
Explanation:
91
Answer:
Explanation:
+ limits the number of frames transmitted before an acknowledgement is received: window size+
reduces data size to save transmission time, optimizing the use of WAN bandwidth: data
compression+ allows network administrators to manage the varying demands generated by
applications: queuing+ discards packets or modifies some aspect of them (such as IP
precedence): traffic policing
92
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
93
Which three modules would typically utilize public IPv4 addressing? (Choose three.)
A.
Access
B.
Distribution
C.
Core
D.
Data Center
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94
Answer: E,F,G
Explanation:
Answer: C
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95
Answer: A
Explanation:
96
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
97
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
98
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Answer: B
99
Answer: C
Explanation:
100
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
101
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: B,D
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102
Answer: A,C,G
Explanation:
103
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
104
Answer: B
Explanation:
105
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
106
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
107
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: D
Explanation:
108
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
109
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
110
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
111
Answer: D
Explanation:
112
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
113
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: B
Explanation:
114
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
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115
Answer: D
Explanation:
116
Answer: B
Explanation:
117
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
118
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
119
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
120
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer: A,B,E
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121
Answer: B
Explanation:
122
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
123
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer: C
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124
Answer: B
Explanation:
125
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: D
Explanation:
126
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
127
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Answer: B
Explanation:
128
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
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129
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: C
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130
Answer: B
Explanation:
131
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
132
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
133
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: B
Explanation:
134
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
135
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: D
Explanation:
136
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
137
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
138
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
139
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Answer: A
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140
Answer: B
Explanation:
141
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
142
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
143
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
144
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
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145
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
146
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
147
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
148
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: C
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149
Answer: B
Explanation:
150
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
151
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the core
layer?
A.
#1
B.
#2
C.
#3
D.
#4
E.
#5
Answer: C
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152
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
153
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
154
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
155
Answer: E
Explanation:
Answer: A,B,E
156
Answer: C
Explanation:
157
A.
Router 1
B.
Router 2
C.
Router 3
D.
Router 4
E.
Router 5
Answer: B
Explanation:
158
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
159
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
160
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
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161
Answer: A
Explanation:
162
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
163
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
164
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
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165
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
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166
Answer: C
Explanation:
167
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
168
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
169
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Answer: B
170
Answer: A
Explanation:
171
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Answer: B
Explanation:
172
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
173
Answer: B
Explanation:
174
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer: D
Explanation:
175
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: D
Explanation:
176
Answer: C
Explanation:
177
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Answer: C
178
Answer: A
Explanation:
179
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Answer: D
Explanation:
180
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
181
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
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182
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
183
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
184
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
185
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
186
Answer: A
Explanation:
187
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
188
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right
distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A.
The STP root becomes the gateway.
B.
The interdistribution link is used for transit.
C.
The HSRP standby becomes the gateway.
D.
The interaccess link is used for transit.
E.
Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active.
Answer: B
Explanation:
189
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
A.
IPS inline outside of the firewall
B.
IPS inline inside the firewall
C.
Cisco IOS IPS on the border router
D.
passive IPS connected to a SPAN port outside of the firewall
E.
passive IPS connected to a SPAN port inside the firewall
Answer: A
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190
Which location is best for placing a monitor-only IPS that has visibility into the most data center
traffic?
A.
(A) inline before the firewall
B.
(B) inline after the firewall
C.
(C) passive off the firewall
D.
(D) passive off the internal switch
Answer: D
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191
Answer: B
Explanation:
192
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private
addresses into "legal" public addresses on a one-for-one basis?
A.
PAT
B.
NAT
C.
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193
Answer: B
Explanation:
You are designing routing between building distribution switches and campus core switches.
Assuming that all links have the same speed, which statement about these designs is true?
A.
Option A has more fault tolerance but slower convergence than Option B.
B.
Option A has more fault tolerance and faster convergence than Option B.
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194
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
195
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
196
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
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197
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
198
Answer:
Explanation:
C, F, A, G, D, B, E
199
Answer:
Explanation:
A, D, E, A, D, E, A, D, E, B, C, B, C
200
Answer:
Explanation:
C, F, C, F, A, E, A, E, B, D, B, D
201
Answer:
Explanation:
C, D, A, B
202
Answer:
Explanation:
B, D, A, C
203
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
204
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
205
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
206
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
207
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
208
Answer: A
Explanation:
209
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
210
Assuming that a network will grow exponentially for the next 24 months, what is the main limitation
that must be addressed?
A.
scalability
B.
serviceability
C.
redundancy
D.
resiliency
Answer: A
Explanation:
211