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Mock CAT Test 4 Explanations

This document provides the answers and explanations for Mock CAT Test 4. It includes: 1) A scoring table that shows the number of questions and time allotted for each section. 2) The answers for each question in the test numbered 1 through 180. 3) Explanations for some of the questions to explain the reasoning behind the answers. The document aims to help students review their performance on the mock test and understand the concepts and approaches needed to solve different question types.

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nishanth
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© © All Rights Reserved
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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
433 views10 pages

Mock CAT Test 4 Explanations

This document provides the answers and explanations for Mock CAT Test 4. It includes: 1) A scoring table that shows the number of questions and time allotted for each section. 2) The answers for each question in the test numbered 1 through 180. 3) Explanations for some of the questions to explain the reasoning behind the answers. The document aims to help students review their performance on the mock test and understand the concepts and approaches needed to solve different question types.

Uploaded by

nishanth
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Mock CAT Test 4

Answers & Explanations


1
11
21
31
41
51
61
71
81
91
101
111
121
131
141
151
161
171

d
d
b
b
b
d
c
b
d
d
b
c
c
c
b
d
a
a

2
12
22
32
42
52
62
72
82
92
102
112
122
132
142
152
162
172

c
c
a
c
c
c
a
c
b
c
a
c
d
b
b
a
a
b

3
13
23
33
43
53
63
73
83
93
103
113
123
133
143
153
163
173

a
c
b
a
c
b
a
a
c
c
b
b
b
d
b
a
d
b

4
14
24
34
44
54
64
74
84
94
104
114
124
134
144
154
164
174

c
d
d
b
a
d
c
a
d
c
c
d
b
d
a
d
b
c

5
15
25
35
45
55
65
75
85
95
105
115
125
135
145
155
165
175

a
d
b
d
a
d
d
d
d
d
a
b
d
b
c
b
a
b

6
16
26
36
46
56
66
76
86
96
106
116
126
136
146
156
166
176

a
b
d
b
c
d
b
d
b
b
c
c
b
a
c
c
a
a

7
17
27
37
47
57
67
77
87
97
107
117
127
137
147
157
167
177

a
d
d
d
c
d
a
b
d
c
c
d
c
c
c
d
a
d

8
18
28
38
48
58
68
78
88
98
108
118
128
138
148
158
168
178

b
a
a
c
a
c
b
a
c
d
b
c
c
c
c
a
c
c

9
19
29
39
49
59
69
79
89
99
109
119
129
139
149
159
169
179

c
b
b
c
c
d
a
b
a
c
b
a
d
d
b
a
c
b

10
20
30
40
50
60
70
80
90
100
110
120
130
140
150
160
170
180

d
b
c
c
a
c
c
b
b
a
b
a
b
d
b
a
a
d

Scoring table
Section

Question
number

Total
questions

QA

1 to 50

50

EU

51 to 95

45

RC

96 to 135

40

136 to 180

45

DI + DS + AR
Total

Mock CAT Test 4

Total
attempted

Total
correct

Total
wrong

Net
Score

Time
Taken

180

Page 1

1.

Males A, B and C.
Females M, N, O and P.
At least two males, there are some combinations given
below.
Males

Play ers
A

Combinations

5.

Animal

Li on

B ear

Tiger

Elephant

Colour

Red

Green

Blue

Grey

From the table, the bears cars may be A or C. So data


is insufficient.

11.

From the table, the lions cars may be A or C. So data


is also insufficient.

12.

Angle made at the centre by one side of a regular


polygon

360
=
n
Since has to be an integral value, n has to be a factor
of 360.
Now there are 24 factors of 360. So there can be 24
possibilities for the value of n. But we have to reject
the cases where n = 1 and 2 as they do not form a
polygon. So total possible cases = 22.

4 1
= .
8 2

Among the rectangles inscribed in a circle, the square


has the maximum perimeter. Let the sides of the square
be a. Then diameter of the circle will be diagonal of the
square.

The largest four-digit hexadecimal number = FFFF.


And the smallest four-digit hexadecimal number
= 1000. Hence, EFFF is the answer.
Number of days in a leap year = 366.
Number of days in an ordinary year = 365.
Difference between two leap years is four years.
Maximum number of days of five consecutive
years = 366 + 365 + 365 + 365 + 366 = 1827.

Differences between the consecutive numbers are


4, 16, 64 and 256. Hence, every next difference is
multiplied by 4. So the number is 660 1024 = 364.

Page 2

10.

Questions 6 to 8:
Let the situation be like this.
1st pile
2nd pile
3rd pile
B
R
B
R
B
R
3x
x y
3y 2z
z
Since there are 26 cards of each type,
3x + y + 2z = 26
... (i)
x + 3y + z = 26
... (ii)
(ii) 2 (i) will give
5y x = 26
... (iii)
The integral solutions to equation (iii) is y = 6, x = 4 or
y = 7, x = 9 or y = 8, x = 14 and so on. Of this only
y = 6, x = 4 is valid in this case as 3x or 3y has to be
less than 26. Using these values, z = 4.
9.

A or C

a2 + a2 = 42 a = 2 2
4.

A or C

The total possibilities are 2 2 2 = 8 (each customer


has two possibilities). These are AAA, AAB, ABA,
BAA, BBA, BAB, ABB, BBB. The favourable outcomes
are only 4 (AAA, AAB, ABA, BAA).
Thus the probability =

3.

C ar

Females

From the table, we see that all the statements are


false.
2.

Questions 10 and 11:


From the given information.

13.

4 + 2 6 C2 = 34

14.

Sum of the digits of given number


= 10(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) + 6 (1 + 2 + ... + 9) = 420.
Hence, 420 is divided by 9. Then the remainder is 6.

15.

x2 + y2 + 8x 4y + 20 = 0
or ( x + 4)2 + ( y 2)2 = 0
Thus, the equation represents a point ( 4, 2).

16.

Suppose volume = V, required concentration is x.


Now use alligation.

V
x 10 2
=
; x = 15%
V
5
2

Mock CAT Test 4

17.

Data is insufficient to find the time.

18.

We can go with choices.


Let us take option (a), i.e. 18 L.
Let us assume 100 L in place of 6 L.
In 100 L, solution contains alcohol.
Now since the operation is done in 64 L first time, we
can say that in 300 L, the remaining parts of the solution
contain 48 L alcohol.
After second operation, 300 L solution contains 84 L
alcohol (i.e. 48 + 64 = 112 L in 400 L).
After third operation, 300 L solution contains 111 L
alcohol (i.e. 84 + 64 = 148 L in 400 L).
300 L solution contains 37% alcohol. Hence, original
water in vessel is 18 L.

19.

Refer to solution 18.


In first operation, 6 L solution is taken out.
Let us assume 100 L in place of 6 L solution.
In 100 L, 16 L is alcohol.
In second operation, 28 L is alcohol.
In third operation, 37 L is alcohol.
In 300 L, volume of alcohol is 81 L.
In 300 L, percentage of alcohol is 27%.

By problem this is equal to 15 m3


Total capacity = 60 m3.
Also in an hour, each of the first three pipes emits
=
24.

Total rotation given is

From (ii), take any real value of x which lies between


0 and 1. Then x 3 1 > 1 x is also satisfied. From
(iii), take any real value of x > 1. Then x 3 1 >1 x is
satisfied.
Also for x > 1, LHS will be negative which will always
be less than any modules.
25.

direction. So the initial and final conditions will be as

a
A4

A2

A4

A3

A3

Initial
21.

26.

A1

Use binomial theorem.


Coefficient of

x0 in (3x + 4)3 = 64

x2 in (x + 4)5 = 640

x1 in (3x + 4)3 = 144

x1 in (x + 4)5 = 1280

x 2 in (3x + 4)3 = 108


x 0 in (x + 4)5 = 1024
Thus coefficient of x2 = 40960 + 184320 + 110592
= 335872.

1 1 3 1
+ + = 1 in the clockwise
4 2 4 2

A1

From (i), take any real value of x < 1.


Then x3 1 > 1 x is satisfied.

27
Now alcohol in 18 L is 18
= 4.86 L .
100
20.

60 3
m = 4 m3
15

The length of the third side must be greater than


(75 15) cm = 60 cm and less than (75 + 15) = 90 cm.
So, there are 29 numbers. Of these, 7 numbers are

A2

prime. So the required probability =


27.

Final

7
29

Since a1, a2 , ..., an are all real, their modulus values


must be non-negative. Since their sum is zero, each
of them must be individually zero.

The prime numbers before 15 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 and 13.


So total combination of a1a2 is 6 C2 = 15.

28.
II ho rse

1
1
Out of these 15 combinations, only
2 5 = 10 does

not give a non-terminating decimal.

Questions 22 to 23:
Let each of the initial three pipes has the ability to fill
the tank in x hours. Since it needed 4.5 hr to fill the tank
in total,

3
2
4.5 +
2 = 1 or x = 15
x
40
That means that each of the three initial pipes can fill
the tank in 15 hr. Now for the last hour, total water
transferred by the pumps.

=
+
of the capacity of the tank
15 40
=

4
I ho rse

Assume r as the radius of the circular race course.


Then 2r = or r =

units.
2

Hence, they will travel only the radius of the race


course before meeting.
29.

f(a) = a + 53
The difference between f(a) and a is 53. Natural
number a can have any values from 1 to 46, and f(a)
will have corresponding values from 54 to 99.

1
capacity of the tank.
4

Mock CAT Test 4

Page 3

30.

Total number of numbers that can be formed


= 5 5 4 3 = 300.
Now to leave a remainder 1, when divided by 9, sum
of the digits of the number must be 10. The combination
of four distinct digits out of the given digits that gives
a digit sum of 10 are (0, 1, 4, 5), (0, 2, 3, 5) and (1, 2,
3, 4). Thus, total number of numbers that will leave a
remainder of 1 when divided by 9 = 4! + 2 (3 3!)
= 60.

1
{p(r p) + p(p q)
(p q)(q r)(r p)

+ q(p q) + q(q r) + r(r p) + r( q r)} = 0

34.

60
1
= .
300 5
Short cut: In all there are 15 possible combinations of
four digits out of given six digits. Out of which only
three are favourable possibilities as
(0, 1, 4, 5), (0, 2, 3, 5) and (1, 2, 3, 4). So, the probability

So required probability =

should be very close to

31.

3 .
15

a2
+ 32 , where a = Edge length of the square
4

a2
1
a
+ 32 .
4
2

By problem

a2
1
a
+ 32 = a2
4
2

Solving 15a2 = 36
Sum of all the faces = 5a2 = 12 sq.cm.

32.

197
or
2

7
+ 12 =
2

Thus, perimeter can be either 197 + 1 or

33.

36.

The least value of the function is 30 (since x6 and x2


cannot be negative). For any other value of x, the
function is an increasing one and will intersect the
X-axis at two points one at the positive side and the
other at the negative side. As such there will be only
two real roots.

Questions 37 and 38:


a0 = 1; a1 = 3; a2 = 5; a3 = 7 ... so on.
The sequence forms an AP.
37.

Hence, a100 = a0 + 100(2) a100 = 201

38.

Sum of a0 + a1 + ... + a50 = 1 + 3 + ... + 101 = 2601

53
2

39.

Check options, by taking the values of x, y and z


accordingly with the given conditions.

40.

Check options, by taking the values of x, y and z


accordingly with the given conditions.

41.

Let the total work be 100 units. A, B and C do 10, 5, 4


units per day respectively. Hence, in one day they
complete (0.7 10) + (0.8 5) + (0.75 4) = 14 units

53 + 7 .

working at the new rate. Hence, it takes

42.

q
r
1
p
+
+

+
q
r
r
p
p
q
p
q

q
r
1
p
+ q r + r p + p q r p = 0

Page 4

(p q)2

q
(q r )2

100
1
or 7
14
7

days.

q
r
1
p

+
+

qr r p p q qr

For each value of x, we will get 2 values of y and


each value of y, we will get 2 values of z. So total
distinct solutions = 2 2 2 = 8.

p
q
r
+
+
=0
qr r p p q

n3

2
1 + 101
Hint: 1 + 3 + L + 101 =
= 2601
2

Since b and h are integral, either the base is 7 cm and


height 1 cm or vice versa. Thus, the equal sides must
be of length

1
+ 7 2 =
2

n 2

35.

1
b h = 3.5 or b h = 7
2

) (

=2
+2
+2
+ ..... + 2 = 2n 1
By problem
2n 1 = 63 or 2n = 64 = 26 n = 6.
n1

base.
Area of one triangular base =

Number of students who have failed in exactly p


subjects is 2n p 2n p 1. The number of students failing
in all the subjects is 2o, i.e. 1. Thus, total failures is

1 2n 1 2n 2 + 2 2n 2 2 n 3 + .... + n.2 o

Altitude of the triangular faces with base length a


=

p
q
r
+
+
=0
(p q)2 (q r)2 (r p)2

r
(r p )2

The job will be done in minimum time if every alternate


day, the pairs (A, B) and (A, C) are working. If the job
was 100 units of work, on the first day, (10 + 5) units
are completed with (A, B) working. On the second
day, (10 + 4) units are completed.
Hence, it takes 6 +

job, i.e. 6

100 29 3
days to finish the
15

13
days.
15

Mock CAT Test 4

43.

If |x| [x] = 8 x = 4
3 |y| = 2

44.

35
x
x
=

20 y + 1 60

2
2
or |y| =
or y =
3
3

Solving, we get x = 5 km and y = 5 km/hr.

(|x| + 2 |y|) = 4
|x| + 2 |y| = 2
(2 is invalid) as x and y have to be integral, the
possible solutions are |x| = 0, |y| = 1 or x = 0, y = 1
and x = 0, y = 1.
|x| = 2, |y| = 0 or x = 2, y = 0 and x = 2, y = 0.

50.

Since G2 travels 6 km in 1 hr by boat and the remaining


distance, i.e. 4 km he travels by bus with a speed of
30 km/hr, for which time taken is 8 min.
Total time taken is 1 hr 8 min.

51.

(a) and (b) are wrong as undergoing, implies that the


horses are still undergoing a change and the process
is not yet over. (c) also uses the phrase sought after
for which is idiomatically wrong. (d) is the right option.

52.

(a) and (d) are idiomatically wrong in using subservient


for. The correct usage is subservient to. (b) is wrong
in using is for referring to plural nouns, relationships
and business. We are talking of two things becoming
intertwined, hence are should be used. This does not
correspond to the second part that says relationships
become subservient. (c) is the best option.

53.

(a) is idiomatically wrong in using responsible to


choose. The correct usage is responsible for
choosing. (c) uses a superfluous one. (d) implies
that each one of us makes a responsible choice by
using responsibly as an adverb for chooses. (b) is
the correct option.

54.

(a) and (b) are wrong as they use a singular pronoun


it to refer to the plural noun delays. Moreover, (b)
also wrongly uses were to refer to the singular noun
result. (a), (b) and (c) are also wrong because of
the use of asking. The correct construction to complete
the phrase calling up to complain would be to ask.
They are also idiomatically wrong in using refunding
and refunding of. The correct usage is refund of. (d)
is the best option.

55.

(a) and (b) are wrong as they use less which is the
wrong quantifying word in the given context. To show
a degree of comparison among two situations fewer
should be used. (c) also suffers from the same mistake
by using few instead of fewer. Few does not imply
any comparison. (d) is the correct option.

56.

A shift to censure and call for its dissolution


(removal). censure means to criticize or rebuke.
dissolution in this context means break-up,
separation or termination.

57.

Articulate goes with words in the sentence. Besides,


ingenuity needs imagination.

58.

Discharge of duties is a common norm. Secular in


this context means non-spiritual, everyday, worldly
affairs.

59.

The workload is so much that errors creep through.

60.

The barren contrasts with the oasis!

x
So the possible values of
y are 0 or .
Since and are undefined, there is only 1 value

x
of
y .
45.

Since A, B and C are three poles, the goat can graze

3 2
a
4

an area = (3a)2
46.

Basically, we have 10 groups each having four identical


items. It is equivalent to finding non-zero integer
solutions of a + b + c + d = 10. The answer is 9C3.

47.
A
1
2

3
4

P
1
B

1 Q 1 R

2
T 1

If area of ABC = 15 sq. units


{(1 + 1 + 2 + 1) (1 + 2) ..., i.e. 15}
then area of BPR =
area of SRC =

2 1
15 = 2 ,
5 3

3 2
15 = 6 , area of ABR = 6,
5 3

and area ARC = 9. So ratio of areas of APR and


ASR is 4 : 3.
Questions 48 to 50:
Let total distance be 2x and the speed of the boat of
G 1 be y km/hr. Then speed of the boat of
G2 = (y + 1) km/hr.
X
M ad hu ba n i

X
M uzaffa rp ur

x
x
2x y 1 7
+ = 1+
+
20 y
30
60

Mock CAT Test 4

P a tn a

... (i)

... (ii)

Page 5

61.

Narrating an experience when the writer was 21


years old, met someone wonderful, who had been a
journalist of repute and the last line discloses the name
of the person who became a guide for the writer.

72.

Statement 1 introduces shoes brought during sale,


followed by its prices in statement D. Statement C
indicates warranty sequentially followed by unfit use
in statement B.

62.

Talks about the movement, has completed 100 years,


has further plans and tells you it is not history.

73.

63.

Logical explanation of the functions of the liver and


the damage.

Statement 1 introduces Andromeda as the chained


lady, followed by its location in statement B.
Statements A and D show how it is seen in the sky,
and her lying style respectively; statement C shows
her rising, culminating with the striking feature of
Andromeda in statement 6.

64.

Look at the sequence ordertalks about making


choices, consequences of choices, not liking them
and finally the reason for not liking them.

74.

Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect, because their


starting statements have no relation with statement 1.
Hence, the right answer is (a). Statement C gives the
name of the person involved and what he was
worrying about. The rest of the para, follows statement
C.

65.

Sentence mentioning time management has to be the


first as it talks of the subject and the same flow is
maintained throughout.

66.

A set of time management competencies are mentioned


in the logical manner definition and aspects. DC
forms a mandatory pair. D introduces time
management and competencies. C carries the idea
forward.
B continues after C and compares competence with
personal effectiveness.
Therefore B must follow DC.
A introduces a completely new idea. Probably, A is
the opening sentence of a new para.

75.

Statement B logically follows statement 1 because it


explains how the GFIs work. Hence, options (b) and
(d) are ruled out. Statement A does not follow
statement B. So the answer is (d).

76.

It is clear that statement C follows B, and statement D


follows A. The B-C-A-D sequence is in option (d) only.

77.

The convicted man was pleading for mercy but the


judge was not moved and did not yield to his pleas.

67.

D talks about fundamentals. A describes the


importance of those fundamentals. B talks about how
we may try to fill the void (caused by unfulfilment of
the fundamentals) with addictions. C describes the
result of such addiction.

78.

Here, a conclusion is being made about human


behaviour and the evidence relied upon for arriving at
the conclusion is a study on the behaviour of mice.
The obvious assumption of the study is that a mouse
brain and a human brain respond in a similar way to
chemical radiation.

68.

CD is a mandatory pair because of the words divested


and divesting. B must precede C because B talks
about book value gain which is contrasted with book
loss in C.
Therefore, BCD must figure in the answer in that order.
(b) is then the right answer choice.

79.

(b) connects misery-making characteristics with a


fulfilling life. The first part of the passage talks about
the lack of it. The basic assumption of the given para
is that people lead fractional lives because they have
developed misery-making characteristics.

69.

Statement 1 introduces Asian Paints and its network.


Followed by its location of plant and collaboration in B,
A and C respectively. Followed by its presence in
coating and state-of-the-art facilities in statements D
and 6, respectively.

80.

The passage associates socialization techniques with


organizational success. (d) is too extreme.

81.

It is only because Shimizu feels that people are


interested in seeing the space that it is planning to
make the hotel. If it does not get tourists for its hotel, it
makes little sense to invest in this project.

82.

(b) states that if the population or the sample was


skewed, then there is not much authenticity in the
survey results.

83.

(c) shows that big and heterogeneous geography


can also have good resource management. This
weakens the argument.

84.

The correct answer would have a favourable


relationship between punishment and behaviour. (d)
is more specific in terms of discipline.

70.

71.

Statement 1 introduces spending of companies on


various items, followed by its priorities on manpower
by managers and its associated risks in statements B,
C and D. Statements A and 6 tell about recruitment and
what it is wise to do to achieve as desired, respectively.
Statement 1 introduces the entry of Surf brand
followed by competition from Nirma and Ariel in
statements B and D respectively. Statements A and
6 give us the resistance of Lalitajis ads and Surf
being caught unawares respectively, as followed in
sequence.

Page 6

Mock CAT Test 4

85.

We have to find an option that would weaken the


authors conviction that more the number of laws,
lesser is the number of convictions.

107.

Refer to eighth paragraph, lines 8 and 9.

108.

Refer to ninth paragraph. Tertiary education here refers


to secondary education.

109.

Refer to tenth paragraph Zimbabwe + Bangladesh.

110.

Can be inferred from the entire passage. The writer


discusses the constituents of a historians work, piece
by piece. The other choices play a minor role.

111.

The fourth paragraph clearly denies (c).

112.

Refer to third paragraph. Refer to the part not alter or


arrange by their abridgements.

113.

(c) and (d) are absurd. Also the tone is not satirical as
there is no sarcastic humour involved. Hence (b).

114.

None of (a), (b) and (c) has been stated anywhere in


the passage. Hence (d).

115.

The first few lines of first paragraph and second


paragraph clearly illustrate this.

116.

Refer to fifth paragraph, last line.

All Miscreants (M) belong to the set of Trouble (T).


Some M are also Innocent (I).
Therefore, some T (which is M) are also I.

117.

Refer to statement 1, fifth paragraph.

118.

Refer to first paragraph, line 1-2

92.

The correct usage would be, a network to facilitate


contacts.

119.

Refer to second paragraph, line 1-2

120.

Refer to second paragraph, lines 5-9

93.

The correct phrase would be to perceived problems.


121.

Refer to third paragraph, lines 11 and 12.

94.

The Indian Governments choice is a singular noun


and should have a singular verb stems.

122.

Refer to fourth paragraph, line 1

95.

The correct quantifier to be used here is most.

123.

Refer to fifth paragraph, line 1, point 1.

96.

Refer to second paragraph, third line.

124.

Refer to sixth paragraph, line 7-8

97.

Refer to last paragraph, line 3.

125.

Refer to seventh paragraph, line 1-2

98.

Refer to third paragraph, line 3.

126.

Refer to last paragraph.

99.

Refer to first paragraph, last line.

127.

Refer to first paragraph.

100.

Refer to the end of third paragraph.

128.

Refer to second paragraph, line 1-2

101.

Refer to fourth paragraph second last line.

129.

Refer to fourth paragraph, line 1

102.

Refer to last paragraph, line 1.

130.

Refer to fifth paragraph.

103.

Refer to first line.

131.

Refer to seventh paragraph, line 1-2

104.

Can be inferred from the entire passage. Cannot be


(a) because it is discussed in a few paragraphs while
(c) can be inferred from the whole passage.

132.

Refer to eighth paragraph, last line

133.

Refer to ninth paragraph, line 2

105.

Refer to eighth paragraph, lines 5 and 6.

134.

Refer to tenth and eleventh paragraphs.

106.

Refer to sixth paragraph, line 1.

135.

Refer to paragraph 13, line 4

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

(b) is right because if the poor are not dependent on


processed food, then the new government policy will
be no good.
(d) is the right answer.
Brahtu (B) is a subset of Prahtu (P).
Prahtu (P) is a subset of Mrahtu (M).
Therefore, B is also a subset of M.
(c) is the right answer.
Efficient (E) is a subset of Good (G).
Maruti 800 (M) is a subset of E.
Therefore, M is also a subset of G.
Some from the set of Internet Terminals (I.T.) are Well
Maintained (W.M).
All W.M belongs to the set of Functional (F). Therefore
the some of I.T. that is W.M. is also F.
Vikrant (V) is a Aircraft Ready Naval Vessel (ARNV).
All ARNV are Missile Equipped (ME). Therefore, V is
also ME.

Mock CAT Test 4

Page 7

Questions 136 to 140:

Co m p o s itio n

142.

From the diagram, total number of students specializing


in either Marketing or Systems
= 100 + 70 + 50 + 60 + 60 = 340.
Short cut: Total (F, O) = 400 60 = 340.

143.

Total number of students in Finance = 210.


If 20% failed, then total number failed

Av ailab le
St o c k

It em s
A

1 kg

3 kg

4 kg

1 2 0 kg

2 kg

2 kg

1 kg

2 6 0 kg

3 kg

1 kg

3 kg

3 0 0 kg

Cost price/kg

Rs. 14/6

Rs. 10/6

Rs. 15/8

Profit %

10%

20%

25%

Now, number of students having dual specialization in


Systems and Finance = 50.
Now to maximize the number of failures in Systems
and Finance, we assume all the 42 that failed in Finance
were doing dual specialization of Systems and Finance.

S.P/kg

Maximum percentage failure =

Profit/kg

Rs. 1.4

Rs. 2

Rs. 3.75

Note:
The cost price of x, y and z are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3
respectively. Assume the price of x, y and z are
Rs.1, Rs.2, Rs.3 respectively.

144.

137.

138.

To maximize the revenue from the existing stock, we


see that only in case of A we can manufacture highest
number of items. Hence, only A, option (a).

145.

From the table, we see that maximum number of items


are manufactured by A.

400 80
= 320 .
100

Average revenue for 1998-99 =

190
= 0.1583 crore.
1200

Average revenue for 2000-01 =

450
= 0.45 crore.
1000

From the table, we see that it is only C.


Note: Profitability is basically the profit percentage.
Growth rate =

139.

140.

Here look at the options given and check the profit in


each case, only option (d) gives maximum profit.
Short cut: It is in given the question itself, i.e for C.

146.

Market share =

60

50

450 1500
r
= 1000 250 = 2.7
100
r = 39%
Shortcut: Check with options becore the last step.
e.g. for option (b) (1.25)3 2
or 1 +

60

21.85
100 = 4.85 % = 4.9 %
450

450
250
r
=

1+
1000 1500 100

Finance

10
190 crore
100

147.

1 00

Market share of X in 1998-99 =

Market share of X in 2000 01 = 1.15 19 crore


= 21.85 crore.

Questions 141 to 144:


From the given information the following diagram can be drawn.

0.45 0.1583
100 = 184.27%
0.1583

= 19 crore

As soon as you look at the options, option (d) shows


the maximum number of items as 100, now check out
the possibility of the manufacturing of item A. Hence,
option (d) 100 items of A.

60

42
100 = 84 % .
50

For all dual specialization, total number of students


= 400.
80% of total number of dual specialization
=

136.

20
210 = 42 .
100

M arke tin g
70
System s
148.

Ope ra tio ns

141.

From the diagram, total number of students specializing


in Finance = 100 + 60 + 50 = 210.

Page 8

Total man-hours to do the project = 3500 hr.


The required time =

149.

3500
= 35 hr.
100

Minimum number of days


=

Total manhours
Number of men Number of hours

Mock CAT Test 4

=
150.

159.

3500
= 3.5 days
100 10

Given time to complete the job less than or equal to


5 days, i.e. 120 hr.
Total man-hours to do the job = 3500 hr.

Minimum number of men =

3500
= 29.16 ,
120

Revenue (1999) is
80560 60 + 9000 1000 + 2678 5000 + 2816
2500 + 1892 3000 + 160 1600 + 68 2000
= Rs. 4,03,31,600.
Revenue (2000) is
90388 60 + 10800 1000 + 4156 5000 + 3868
2500 + 2862 3000 + 232 1600 + 100 2000
= Rs. 5,58,30,480.
Percentage increase

i.e. 30 men.
=
151.

From the given information, it may be B, E or H.


Hence, we cannot decide.

152.

From the new information, work of 50 men with 40%


efficiency is equivalent to work of 20 men with 100%
efficiency.
Hence, the required time =

153.

160.

Revenue for 2001 is


95450 60 + 10817 1000 + 4991 5000 + 4892
2500 + 3072 3000 + 220 1600 + 105 2000
= Rs. 6,35,07,000.
Expenditure = Rs. 4,78,18,800
Profit = 6,35,07,000 4,78,18,800 = Rs. 1,56,88,200.

161.

From (I), let M be any integer, such that

1000
= 50 hr
20

Growth percentage

N2
= M2 N2 = 3M2, this is possible only if
3

0.22 13278 0 .20 22988


100
=
0. 20 22988

N = M = 0.
From (II), let K be any integer, such that
N3 = 3K2. This is possible if N = 0 = K
or N = 3 = K.
So, we do not get a definite answer.

= 36.46% or 36.5%
154.

155.

Since the data give information only about the number


of complaints in various categories and not about how
many people complaining, we do not know whether
or not there were people, who complainted, about
more than one category.

162.

From (I), B C = . Therefore, (B C )' = U


and U

Complaints made by foreign tourists in 1980


= 0.4 22988 = 9195 (approximately)
Complaints made by foreign tourists in 1981
= 1.05 9195 = 9655.
So the required percentage
=

55830480 40331600
100 38.4% .
40331600

It shows that A U
Therefore, (I) is sufficient.
From (II), A = , but no information is given about B
and C.
Therefore, (II) alone is insufficient.

9655
100 = 72.7%
13, 278

163.
156.

157.

Outpatients = 266398. Inpatients = 30617.


Ratio 9 : 1

P
4

105 68
100 54.4% Permanent pacing
68
4991 2678
100 86.3%
2678
Cardiac catheterization
3072 1892
100 62.36%
1892
Coronary angiogram

158.

220 160
100 = 37.5% Temporary pacing
160

Total number of patients (1999) = 97,174


Total number of patients (2001) = 1,19,547
Growth rate =

Mock CAT Test 4

119547 97174
100 = 11.51%
97174 2

12

From (I), we know the number of parents only. But,


the total number of the family members is unknown.
Therefore, (I) is insufficient.
From (II), we know that 12 are children. But, number
of parents are unknown.
Therefore, (II) is insufficient.
Combining (I) and (II), we can obtain a Venn diagram,
but number of elements in darkened portion are
unknown.

164.

From (I), a = 1 if the slant line is y = px + q


Then, 3 = 2p + 1 and 1 = 0 + q
We get, q = 1 and p = 1
If x = 2, y = 1, then the values of table become
( 3, 1), (3, 3) and (1, 2).
Therefore, (I) is sufficient.

Page 9

From (II), y = px + q has p = 1 and


3 = 2p + q = 2 + q or 2 + q = 3
q=1
Thus, y = x + 1 and as before the values become
( 3, 1) (3, 3) and (1, 2).
Therefore, (II) is also sufficient.

170.

From (I), circles are concentric, but no information is


provided about the radius of c1 .
Therefore, (I) is not sufficient.
From (II), diameter of c1 = Radius of c 2 .
Thus, we know the radius of c 2 and hence the area.

165.

From (I)
a6 + b6 = 128
(a2)3 + (b2)3 = 128
It does not give value of a6 b6.
Therefore, (I) is insufficient.
From (II),
If a b = 0
i.e. a = b
Now put this value in the given expression, i.e.
6
6
a b
6
6
b b =0
6
6
a b =0
Therefore, (II) is sufficient.

166.

From (I),
b a = 3. 3n 2. 2n = 3n + 2 (3n 2n)
n
n
Hence, b a > 2 (3 2 )
Therefore, (I) is sufficient.
From (II), we get only n. It does not talk about a and b.
Therefore, (II) is also insufficient.

167.

From (I), we do not definitely understand the type of x,


since 14x + 6 is even, whether x is even or odd.
Therefore, (I) is insufficient.
From (II), if x is odd, 7x2 + 3 must be even.
Therefore, (II) is sufficient.

168.

169.

From (I) if x is even, x3 + x is even. So x2y must be odd.


But x2 is even. Hence, irrespective of value of if, x2y is
even. So x cannot be even.
If x is odd, x3 + x is even. So x2y must be odd. x2 being
odd, y must be odd too. So x is odd.
(II) is not sufficient by itself.
From (I), since bc = 0, one or both of them must be
zero.
But, we cannot say anything about the sign of a.
Therefore, (I) is not sufficient.
From (II), we cannot get relevant information about
sign of a. Therefore, (II) is insufficient.
Combining both (I) and (II), a > b and a > c, so either of
b and c must be zero. Therefore, a is positive.

Page 10

Therefore, (II) alone is sufficient.


171.

The lowest point of the cable is 7 m from the ground.


The length of the cable that hangs from the pillar must
be 8 m. Since the total length of the cable is 16 m,
distance between the pillars must be 0 m.

172.

The easiest is to start from the situation where there


is only dwarf with a red hat. In this case, this dwarf
would arrive at the party on the first day and notice
that he does not see any red hat. Since he knows that
there should be at least one dwarf with a red hat, he
concludes that he must having a red hat himself. As a
consequence, the next day he does not show up at
the party any more. Extending the same logic to
subsequent numbers, if there were two dwarfs with
red hats, they both would see one dwarf with a red
hat on the first day. They know that if this dwarf does
not return on the next day, he must have been only
one. He does return, then there is no other conclusion.
Then they both must have a red hat. As a consequence,
after two days they do not return to the party. So after
200 days all 200 dwarfs wearing the hats would
realize what their colour is.

Questions 173 to 177:


Box colour
:
Red
Gloves colour :
Green
Scarf colour :
Blue

Yellow
Blue
Red

Green
Red
Yellow

Blue
Yellow
Green

178.

Use the choices. Ramba had been telling a lie


throughout.

179.

Use the choices.

180.

Use the choices.

Mock CAT Test 4

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